C O N T E N T S

SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS 01

HUMAN REPRODUCTION 15

REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH 38

PRINCIPLES OF INHERITANCE AND VARIATION 52

MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITENCE 69

EVOLUTION 90

HUMAN HEALTH & DISEASES 112

MICROBES IN HUMAN WELFARE 139

BIOTECHNOLOGY: PRINCIPLES AND PROCESSES 147

BIOTECHNOLOGY AND ITS APPLICATIONS 162

ORGANISMS AND POPULATIONS 176

ECOSYSTEM 190

BIODIVERSITY AND ITS CONSERVATION 202

DOCTOR’S OWN PREP ACADEMY

 SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN
FLOWERING PLANTS
1. Which one of the following statements regarding 6. Which one of the following plants shows very close
post fertilization development in flowering plants is relationship with a species of moth, where none of
incorrect? the two can complete its life cycle without the other?

(1) Zygote develops into (2) Central cell develops (1) Hydrilla (2) Banana
embryo into endosperm (3) Yucca (4) Viola
(3) Ovules develop into (4) Ovary develops into
embryo sac fruit 7. Which of the following has proved helpful in
preserving pollens as fossils?
2. Persistent nucellus in the seed is known as:
(1) Pollenkitt (2) Oil content
(1) Perisperm (2) Hilum (3) Cellulosic intine (4) Sporopollenin
(3) Tegmen (4) Chalaza
8. Attractants and rewards are required for:
3. What is the fate of the male gametes discharged in
(1) Entomophily (2) Hydrophily
the synergid?
(3) Cleistogamy (4) Anemophily
(1) All fuse with the egg
(2) One fuses with egg, other(s) fuse(s) with 9. Functional megaspore in an angiosperm develops
synergid nucleus into:

(3) One fuses with the egg and other fuses with cen- (1) Endosperm (2) Embryo sac
tral cell nuclei (3) Embryo (4) Ovule
(4) One fuses with the egg, other(s) degenerate(s) in
the synergid 10. Flowers which have single ovule in the ovary and are
packed into inflorescence are usually pollinated by:
4. Double fertilization is
(1) Bee (2) Wind
(1) Fusion of two male gametes of a pollen tube (3) Bat (4) Water
with two different eggs
(2) Fusion of two male 11. A dioecious flowering plant prevents both:
gametes with one egg (1) Autogamy and (2) Geitonogamy and
(3) Fusion of one male gamete with two polar geitonogamy xenogamy
nuclei (3) Cleistogamy and (4) Autogamy and
(4) Syngamy and triple xenogamy xenogamy
fusion
12. The hollow foliar structure in a wheat embryo that
5. Pollen grains can be stored for several years in liquid encloses the shoot apex and a few leaf primordial is
nitrogen of temperature called:
(1) -120°C (2) -196°C (1) Coleoptile (2) Coleorrhiza
(3) -80°C (4) -160°C (3) Epicotyl (4) Hypocotyl

1
13. Pollen grains can be stored for years in liquid 19. Which of the following statements is not correct?
nitrogen, maintained at temperature
(1) Pollen grains of many species can germinate on
(1) - 120°C (2) -20°C the stigma of a flower, but only one pollen tube
(3) -70°C (4) - 196°C of the same species grows into the style
(2) Insects that consume pollen or nectar without
14. Continued self-pollination results in: bringing about pollination are called pollen
(1) Genetic drift (2) Heterosis nec- tar robbers

(3) Inbreeding (4) Polyembryony (3) Pollen germination and pollen tube growth are
depression regulated by chemical components of pollen in-
teracting with those of the pistil
15. The coconut water from tender coconut represents: (4) Some reptiles have also been reported as
(1) Endocarp (2) Fleshy mesocarp
pollina- tors in some plant species

(3) Free nuclear (4) Free nuclear 20. Which one of the following generates new genetic
proembryo endosperm combinations leading to variation?

16. Proximal end of the filament of stamen is attached to (1) Parthenogenesis (2) Sexual reproduction
the: (3) Nucellar (4) Vegetative
(1) Anther (2) Connective
polymbryony reproduction

(3) Placenta (4) Thalamus or petal 21. In majority of angiosperms

17. Which one of the following statements is not true? (1) There are numerous
antipodal cells
(1) Tapetum helps in
dehiscence of anther
(2) Reduction division occurs in the megaspore
mother cells
(2) Exine of pollen grains is made up of sporopol-
lenin
(3) A small central cell is present in the embryo sac

(3) Pollen grains of many species cause severe

(4) Egg has a filiform
apparatus
allergies
(4) Stored pollen in liquid nitrogen can be used in 22. Pollination in water hyacinth and water lily is
crop breeding programmes brought about by the agency of

18. Seed formation without fertilization in flowering (1) Insects or wind (2) Birds
plants involves the process of: (3) Bats (4) Water
(1) Sporulation (2) Budding
23. The ovule of an angiosperm is technically equivalent
(3) Somatic (4) Apomixis to
hybridization
(1) Megasporophyll (2) Megaspore mother
cell
(3) Megaspore (4) Megasporangium

24. Which one of the following may require pollinators,

but genetically similar to autogamy?

(1) Geitonogamy (2) Xenogamy

(3) Apogamy (4) Cleistogamy

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25. Which one of the following statements is not true? 31. Geitonogamy involves:

(1) Pollen grains are rich in nutrients, and they are (1) Fertilization of a flower by the pollen from
used in the form on tablets and syrups another flower of the same plant
(2) Pollen grains of some plants cause severe aller- (2) Fertilization of a flower by the pollen from the
gies and bronchial afflications in some people same flower
(3) The flowers pollinated by flies and bats secrete (3) Fertilization of a flower by the pollen from a
foul odour to attract them flow- er of another plant in the same
(4) Honey is made by bees by digesting pollen col- population
lected from flowers (4) Fertilization of a flower by the pollen from a
flower of another plant belonging to a distant
26. Which of the following are important floral rewards population
to animal pollinators?

(1) Colour and large size (2) Nectar and pollen

32. Pollen tablets are available in the market for:

of flower grains (1) In-vitro fertilization (2) Breeding

(3) Floral fragrance and (4) Protein pellicle and programmes
calcium crystals stigmatic exudates (3) Supplementing food (4) Ex-situ conservation

27. Male gametophyte in angiosperms produces: 33. Function of filiform apparatus is to:

(1) Single sperm and a (2) Single sperm and (1) Recognize the (2) Stimulate division of
vegetative cell two vegetative cells suitable pollen at generative cell
(3) Three sperms (4) Two sperms and a stigma
vegetative cell (3) Produce nectar (4) Guide the entry of
pollen tube
28. Which one of the following fruits is parthenocarpic?

(1) Apple (2) Jackfruit

34. Non-albuminous seed is produced in:

(3) Banana (4) Brinjal (1) Maize (2) Castor

(3) Wheat (4) Pea
29. Filiform apparatus is a characteristic feature of:

(1) Nucellar embryo (2) Aleurone cell

35. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(3) Synergids (4) Generative cell (1) Hard outer layer of pollen is called intine
(2) Sporogenous tissue is (3) Endothecium
30. In angiosperms, microsporogeneis and megasporo- haploid produces
genesis: microspores
(1) From gametes (2) Involve meiosis (4) Tapetum nourishes
without further the developing pollen
divisions
(3) Occur in ovule (4) Occur in anther
36. Advantage of cleistogamy is:

(1) Higher genetic (2) More vigorous

variability offspring
(3) No dependence on (4) Vivipary
pollinators

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37. Perisperm differs from endosperm in: 45. Wind pollination is common in:

(1) Being a haploid (2) Having no reserve (1) Lilies (2) Grasses
tissue food (3) Orchids (4) Legumes
(3) Being a diploid tissue
(4) Its formation by fusion of secondary nucleus
46. Nucellar polyembryony is reported in species of:

with several sperms (1) Gossypium (2) Triticum

38. Plants with ovaries having only one or a few ovules

(3) Brassica (4) Citrus

are generally pollinated by: 47. In which one of the following, pollination is autoga-
(1) Butterflies (2) Birds mous?

(3) Wind (4) Bees (1) Xenogamy (2) Chasmogamy

39. What is the function of germ pore?

(3) Cleistogamy (4) Geitonogamy

(1) Absorption of water for seed germination 48. In angiosperms, functional megaspore develops into:

(2) Initiation of pollen (3) Release of male (1) Embryo sac (2) Ovule
tube gametes (3) Endosperm (4) Pollen sac
(4) Emergence of radical
49. Typical microsporangium appear in transverse
40. Which one of the following statements is wrong? section.

(1) Vegetative cell is larger than generative cell (1) Wavy (2) Circular
(2) Pollen grains in some plants remain viable for (3) Oval (4) Irregular
months
(3) Intine is made up of cellulose and pectin
50. Transfer of pollen grains from anther to the stigma
of another flower of the same plant is called
(4) When pollen is shed at two-called stage, double
fertilization does not take place (1) Xenogamy (2) Geitonogamy
(3) Karyogamy (4) Autogamy
41. An organic substance that can withstand
environmental extremes and cannot be degraded by 51. The scutellum observed in a grain of wheat or maize
any enzyme is: is comparable to which part of seed in other
monocotyledons?
(1) Cuticle (2) Sporopollenin
(3) Lignin (4) Cellulose (1) Cotyledon (2) Endosperm
(3) Aleurone layer (4) Plumule
42. Even in absence of pollinating agents seed, setting is
assured in: 52. Wind pollinated flowers are
(1) Commellina (2) Zostera (1) Small, brightly coloured, producing large
(3) Salvia (4) Fig number of pollen grains
(2) Small, producing large number of dry pollen
43. Coconut water and its edible part are equivalent to: grains
(1) Endosperm (2) Endocarp (3) Large, producing abundant nectar and pollen
(3) Mesocarp (4) Embryo (4) Small, producing
nectar and dry pollen
44. Filliform apparatus is a characteristic feature of:

(1) Egg (2) Synergid

(3) Zygote (4) Suspensor

4
53. Which is correct? 61. One of the most resistant biological materials is

(1) Gametes are (2) Spores are invariably (1) Lignin (2) Hemicellulose
invariably haploid haploid (3) Lignocellulose (4) Sporopollenin
(3) Gametes are
generally haploid 62. In an angiosperm, how many microspore mother
cells are required to produce 100 pollen grains
(4) Both spores and gametes are invariably haploid
(1) 25 (2) 50
54. Male gametophyte of angiosperms/monocots is
(3) 75 (4) 100
(1) Microsporangium (2) Nucellus
(3) Microspore (4) Stamen
63. The polyembryony commonly occurs in

(1) Citrus (2) Turmeric

55. Female gametophyte of angiosperms is represented
(3) Tomato (4) Potato
by

(1) Ovule (2) Megaspore mother 64. How many pollen grains will be formed after meiotic
cell division in ten microspore mother cells?

(3) Embryo sac (4) Nucellus (1) 10 (2) 20

56. Which of the following pair has haploid structures?

(3) 40 (4) 80

(1) Nucellus and (2) Antipodal cells and 65. In angiosperms, triple fusion is required for the for-
antipodal cells egg cell mation of

(3) Antipodal cells and megaspore mother cell (1) Embryo (2) Endosperm
(4) Nucellus and (3) Seed coat (4) Fruit wall
primary endosperm
nucleus 66. Double fertilization leading to initiation of
endosperm in angiosperms is required for
57. Point the odd one out
(1) Fusion of one polar nucleus and the second
(1) Nucellus (2) Embryo sac male gamete only
(3) Micropyle (4) Pollen grain (2) Fusion of two polar nuclei and the second male
gamete
58. Double fertilization is fusion of:
(3) Fusion of four or more polar nuclei and the
(1) Two eggs second male gamete only
(2) Two eggs and polar nuclei with pollen nuclei (4) All the above kinds of fusion in different angio-
(3) One male gamete with egg and other with sperms
synergid
67. In angiosperms, pollen tubes liberate their male
(4) One male gamete with egg and other with gametes into the
secondary nucleus
(1) Central cell (2) Antipodal cell
59. Double fertilization is characteristic of (3) Egg cell (4) Synergids
(1) Angiosperms (2) Pteridophytes
68. The arrangement of the nuclei in a normal embryo
(3) Gymnosperms (4) Bryophytes sac in dicot plants is

60. Chief pollinators of agricultural crops are (1) 3+2+3 (2) 2+3+3

(1) Butterflies (2) Bees (3) 3+3+2 (4) 2+4+2

(3) Moths (4) Beetles

5
69. What would be the number of chromosomes in the 77. Identify A and B in this figure.
cells of the aleuron layer in a plant species with 8
chromosomes in its synergids?
(1) A: Thalamus, B: (2) A: Thalamus, B:
Endocarp Achene
(1) 24 (2) 32 (3) A : Endocarp, B: (4) A : Mesocarp, B:
(3) 8 (4) 16 Mesocarp Endocarp

70. Male gametes in angiosperms are formed by the 78. The leaf primordia is enclosed in hollow foliar
division of structure called as

(1) Generative cell (2) Vegetative cell (1) Coleoptile (2) Coleorhiza
(3) Microspore mother (4) Microspore (3) Root tip (4) None of these
cell
79. Select the total number of albuminous seed from the
71. What does the filiform apparatus do at the entrance following. Pea,
ovule? Groundnut,Wheat,Maize,Barely,Castor,Sunflower

(1) It brings about opening of the pollen tube (1) 4 (2) 5

(2) It guides pollen tube from synergids to egg (3) 2 (4) 6
(3) It helps in entry of pollen tube into synergids
80. What is the ploidy of perisperm
(4) It prevents entry of more than one pollen tube
into embryo sac (1) n (2) 2n
(3) 3n (4) 4n
72. Which one of the following is resistant to enzyme?

(1) Pollen exine (2) Leaf cuticle

81. All are examples of albuminous seeds except

(3) Cork (4) Wood fibre (1) Wheat (2) Sunflower

(3) Castor (4) Groundnut
73. Polyembryony is seen in

(1) Citrus fruits (2) Coconut

82. Typical seed consists of

(3) Date palm (4) Pineapple (1) Seed coat (2) Cotyledon
(3) Embryo axis (4) All of these
74. Polyembryony is

(1) One embryo in one (2) More than one

83. Seed is

seed embryo in a seed (1) Fertilized ovule (2) Fertilized endosperm

(3) More seed in one (4) Seed development (3) Modification of (4) Formed from
embryo without fertilization integument pericarp

75. Apomixis means

(1) Fruit without seed (2) Fruit with seed

(3) Seed without (4) Fruit without
fertilization fertilization

76. Apomixis is seen in

(1) Asteraceae (2) Grasses

(3) Both (a) and (b) (4) None of these

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84. Identify A and B in this figure. 87. What are parts A to E in this below figure?

(1) A: Polar nuclei, B: (2) A : Female gametes,

(1) A : Plumule, B : Cotyledons, C : Hypocotyl, D :
Radicle, E : Root cap
Male gametes B: Polar nuclei
(3) A : Synergid, B: Egg (4) A : Male gametes, B:
(2) A : Root cap, B : Hypocotyl, C : Plumule, D :
Radicle, E Cotyledons
cell Synergid
(3) A : Cotyledons, B : Root cap, C : Cotyledons,
85. Choose the correct statement from the following: D : Plumule, E : Hypocotyl

(1) Cleistogamous flowers always exhibit (4) A: Plumule, B: Cotyledons, C: Root cap, D:
autogamy. Radicle, E: Hypocotyl

(2) Chasmogamous flowers always exhibit 88. Autogamy can occur in a chasmogamous flower if
geitonogamy
(3) Cleistogamous flowers exhibit both autogamy
(1) Pollen matures before the maturity of ovule.

and geitonogamy. (2) Ovules mature before the maturity of pollen

(4) Chasmogamous flowers never exhibit (3) Both pollen and ovules mature simultaneously.
autogamy. (4) Both anther and stigma are of equal lengths.

86. What represents 'A' in the following figure? 89. What is 'B' in the given figure?

(1) Cotyledons (2) Scutellum (1) Scutellum (2) Coleorhiza

(3) Shoot apex (4) Radicle (3) Coleoptile (4) Shoot apex

7
90. What is 'G' in the given figure? 95. From among the sets of terms given below, identify
those that are associated with the gynoecium

(1) Stigma, ovule, (2) Thalamus, pistil,

embryo sac, placenta style, ovule
(3) Ovule, ovary, (4) Ovule, stamen,
embryo sac, tapetum ovary, embryo sac

96. During microsporogenesis, meiosis occurs in

(1) Scutellum (2) Coleorhiza (1) Endothecium (2) Microspore mother
(3) Coleoptile (4) Shoot apex cells
(3) Microspore tetrads (4) Pollen grains
91. The female parent plants produce unisexual flowers

(1) Do not require (2) Requires 97. The outermost and innermost wall layers of
emasculation emasculation microsporangium in an anther are respectively

(3) The flowers are (4) Both (a) and (c) (1) Endothecium and (2) Epidermis and
bagged during bud tapetum endodermis
stage (3) Epidermis and (4) Epidermis and
middle layer tapetum
92. For artificial hybridization purpose which flowers of
female plant is emasculated. 98. A dicotyledonous plant bears flowers but never
(1) Only having pistil produces fruits and seeds. The most probable cause
(unisexual) for the above situation is

(2) Having both pistil and anthers (bisexual (1) The plant is dioecious and bears only pistillate
(3) Having only anthers (4) All are correct flowers
(unisexual) (2) The plant is dioecious and bears both pistillate
and staminate flowers
93. Why bagging is done in an emasculated flower?
(3) The plant is
(1) To prevent contamination of its stigma with monoecious.
unwanted pollen. (4) The plant is dioecious and bears only staminate
(2) To pollinate the stigma with required anthers flowers.
only.
99. Embryo sac is to ovule as ...................... is to an
(3) Both (a) and (b) (4) None of these
anther
94. From the statements given below, choose the options (1) Stamen (2) Filament
that are true for a typical female gametophyte of a
(3) Pollen grain (4) Androecium
flowering plant.
(i) It is 8-nucleate and 7-celled at maturity 100. Emasculated flowers are covered with a bag of
(ii) It is free-nuclear during the development suitable size; the process is referred to as
(iii) It is situated inside the integument but outside
the nucellus. (1) Emasculation (2) Bagging
(iv) It has an egg apparatus situated at the chalazal (3) Both (a) and (b) (4) None of these
end.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:

(1) i, ii and iii (2) i, iii and iv

(3) i, ii and iv (4) ii, iii and iv

8
101. Emasculation is 108. What happens when the pollen falls on the stigma?

(1) Removal of anther from unisexual flowering (1) Pollination (2) Reject of pollen
using a pair of forceps. (3) Only the compatible (4) Autogamy
(2) Removal of anther from flower bud after its pollen germinates
dehisces using a pair of forceps.
(3) Removal of anther from bisexual flower bud
109. During pollen pistil the interaction chemical compo
nents are released from
before its dehisces using a pair of forceps.
(4) All the above (1) Only pollen (2) Only pistil
(3) Both pollen and (4) The ovary
102. The knowledge of pollen pistil interaction is helpful pistil
to plant breeders in which manner?

(1) Manipulating pollen-

110. The pollen pistil interaction refers to

pistil interaction (1) Pistil's ability to recognize the pollen

(2) To get desired hybrids in incompatible (2) Acceptance of pollen to promote post-
pollination pollination events
(3) None of them (4) Both (a) and (b) are (3) Both are incorrect (4) Both (a) and (b) are
correct correct

103. The plants in which pollen are shed in 3-celled stage 111. Autogamy and geitonogamy is absent in
contain?
(1) Papaya (2) Maize
(1) Two male gametes (2) A large vegetative (3) Castor (4) All are correct
only cell only
(3) Both (a) and (b) (4) None of these 112. Dioecy is the mechanism for some plants to

104. Generative cell in pollen tube divides and forms

(1) Promote autogamy (2) Promote self-
fertilization
(1) One male gamete (2) Two male gamete (3) Promote cross (4) All are incorrect
(3) Three male gamete (4) Four male gamete pollination

105. During pollination in plants which shed pollens in 2- 113. The devices developed by plants to discourage self-
celled stage, the cells are called as pollination include
(A) In some species, the pollen release and receptive
(1) Two vegetative cell (2) Two generative cell
stigma are not synchronized.
(3) Both are correct (4) One vegetative and (B) In some species, the anther and stigma are placed
one generative cell at different positions, so they do not come in tact.
contact
106. Which way of pollen to ovary is sequentially correct?
(C) Self-incompatibility
(1) Ovary → Style → (2) Style → Stigma →
(1) All are correct (2) A and B only
Stigma Ovary
(3) Stigma → Ovary → (4) Stigma → Style →
(3) A only (4) B only

Style Ovary

107. The pore from which the pollen tube germinates

(1) Seed pore (2) Germ pore

(3) Intine (4) Exine

9
114. Which one of the following is correct for yucca 118. The reward produced by plants to their animal
plant? visitors is in the form of

(1) Moth species and yucca plant cannot complete (1) Nectar (2) Pollen grain
their life cycles without each other. (3) Both (a) and (b) (4) None of these
(2) The moth deposits in egg in the locule of ovary
of yucca plant. 119. The foul odour secreted by flowers are pollinated by

(3) The larva of the moth came out of the eggs as (1) Flies and beetles (2) Wasps and ants
the seed starts developing of yucca (3) Birds (4) None of these
(4) All the above
120. Insect pollinated plants are
115. Which of the following is correct for the relationship
existence between moth and yucca plant?
(1) Large and colourful (2) Fragrant
(3) Rich in nectar (4) All of these
(1) Moth and the plant cannot complete their life
cycle without each other. 121. What are the parts A, B, C, D and E in this figure?
(2) Moth deposits egg in the locule of the ovary
and the flower and in turn flower gets
pollinated by the moth.
(3) Larva of the moth comes out of the eggs as the
seeds start developing.
(4) All the above

116. Assertion: Pollen grains are well preserved as fossils.

Reason: Pollen posses sporopollenin.

(1) If both the assertion and the reason are true

and the reason is a correct explanation of the (1) A : Egg cell, B : Synergid, C : Antipodal, D :
assertion. Polar nuclei, E : Pollen tube
(2) If both the assertion and reason are true but the (2) A : Pollen tube, B : Antipodal, C : Polar nuclei,
reason is not a correct explanation of the D : Egg cell, E : Synergid
assertion. (3) A : Pollen tube, B : Egg cell, C : Polar nuclei, D
(3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false. : Antipodal, E : Synergid
(4) If both the assertion and reason are false (4) A : Synergid, B : Pollen tube, C : Egg cell, D :
Antipodal, E : Polar nuclei
117. Which one of the following is correct for animal
pollinated plants? 122. Assertion: Water pollinated species have
mucilaginous covering on pollen grains
(1) Nectar and pollen grains are usual floral
Reason: Mucilage covering protect pollen grain from
rewards.
wetting.
(2) To harvest the rewards from the flower, animal
come in contact with anther and stigma. (1) If both the assertion and the reason are true
and the reason is a correct explanation of the
(3) Animal carrying pollen when come in contact
assertion.
with stigma, it brings about pollination.
(4) All the above
(2) If both the assertion and reason are true but the
reason is not a correct explanation of the
assertion.
(3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) If both the assertion and reason are false.

10
123. The mass of cell present inside the integuments of 132. Syncarpous condition is referred to as
megasporangium having abundant food reserve is
(1) Gynoecium (2) More than one pistil
(1) Ovule (2) Nucellus containing single fused together
(3) Sporogenous cells (4) None of these pistil
(3) More than one pistil free from one another
124. The end opposite to micropyles end is called
(4) Gynoecium
(1) Funicle (2) Chalaza containing many
(3) Germ pore (4) Hilum pistils

125. The tips on the ovule where integument are absent 133. Which one of the following is incorrect?
are called (A) Parthenium or carrot gases causes pollen allergy.
(B) Vegetative cell of pollen has abundant food
(1) Germ pore (2) Micropyle reserve.
(3) Both (a) and (b) (4) None of these (C) All pollen's cause severe allergies and bronchial
afflictions.
126. The junction between ovule and funiculus is (D) Sporopollenin is the most resistant organic
matter known.
(1) Placenta (2) Hilum
(3) Raphe (4) Chalaza (1) All are correct (2) A
(3) B (4) C
127. The stalk attaching ovule to placenta is

(1) Funiculus (2) Hilum

134. Identify A to E in this figure.

(3) Raphe (4) Chalaza

128. More than one ovule is found in the ovary of

(1) Wheat (2) Paddy

(3) Papaya (4) None of these

129. Elongated slender part of pistil is

(1) Stigma (2) Style

(3) Ovary (4) None of these
(1) A: Synergids, B: Egg, C : Central cell, D : 2
130. Bulged basal part of pistil is
polar nuclei, E : Antipodals
(1) Stigma (2) Style (2) A : Antipodals, B : Synergids, C : Central cell,
(3) Ovary (4) None of these D : Egg, E : 2 polar nuclei
(3) A : Synergids, B : Central cell, C : 2 polar
131. Landing platform for pollen grains is nuclei, D : Antipodals, E : Egg
(1) Stigma (2) Style (4) A : Egg, B : 2 polar nuclei, C : Antipodals, D :
(3) Ovary (4) None of them Cen- tral cell, E : Synergids

11
135. The below figure represents 141. The pollen grains are shed in 3 celled stage in

(1) > 60% Angiospermic (2) > 70% Angiospermic

plant plant
(3) < 40% Angiospermic (4) < 20% Angiospermic
plant plant

142. Male gametes in angiosperms are formed by

(1) Anther (2) Typical stamen (1) Mitotic division in (2) Meiotic division in
(3) Pollen grain (4) Microsporangium vegetative cell pollen mother cell
(3) Meiotic division in (4) Mitotic division in
136. Pollens are stored in vegetative cell generative cell
(1) Oxygen (-196°C) (2) Nitrogen (-196°C)
143. Match the following
(3) Oxygen (196°C) (4) Nitrogen (+196°C)

137. Rice pollen grains are viable for

(1) 6.0 mins (2) 30 mins (approx)

(3) 60 mins (approx) (4) 40 mins
(1) A :1, B :2, C :3, D :4 (2) A :4, B :3, C :2, D :1
(3) A :3, B :2, C :1, D :4 (4) A :2, B :1, C :4, D :3
138. Pollen grains
(A) Represent gametophytic phase of plant 144. The spindle-shaped cell with dense cytoplasm and
(B) Can cause severe allergies like asthma and nucleus in pollen grain is called
bronchitis (1) Vegetative cell (2) Generative cell
(C) Are rich in nutrient
(D) Are used as food supplements (3) Sperm cell (4) Egg cell
(E) Are available in form of tables and syrups in
145. The bigger cell that receives abundant food and has
mar- ket of western countries
irregularly shaped nucleus is called
(1) Only A is correct (2) All are correct
(1) Generative cell (2) Vegetative cell
(3) All are wrong (4) Only A, B and C are
(3) Germ cell (4) Sperm cell
correct

139. The plant which came in India as a contaminant

with imported wheat is?

(1) Vinca (2) Parthenium

(3) Striga (4) Orobanche

140. Which of the following statement is correct?

(A) Pollen grains are shed in 2-celled stage in > 40%
plants.
(B) Pollen grains are shed in 3-celled stage in < 60%
plant.
(C) Generative cell divides meiotically to form male
gametes.
(D) Intine of pollen is made of sporopollenin.

(1) A, B, C (2) All are correct

(3) All are wrong (4) Only C

12
146. Identify A to G in this figure. 147. Largest cell of ovule is

(1) MMC (2) Antipodal cell

(3) Central cell (4) Chalazal cell

148. Maximum viability of rice and wheat is

(1) 60min (2) 50 min

(3) 40 min (4) 30 min

149. Micropyle exists in

(1) A : Plumule, B : Endosperm, C : Pericarp, D :

(1) Seed (2) Ovule

Radi- cle, E: Coleorhiza, F: Scutellum,G: (3) Both (a) and (b) (4) Fruit only
Coleoptile
150. The stalk which joins ovule and placenta is called
(2) A : Coleorhiza. B : Radicle, C: Endosperm, D:
Peri- carp, E: Plumule, F: Coleoptile,G: (1) Funicle (2) Hilum
Scutellum (3) Chalaza (4) Micropyle
(3) A :Pericarp. B: Scutellum, C: Endosperm, D:
Cole- optile, E: Plumule, F: Coleorhiza G:
Radicle
(4) A : Pericarp, B: Endosperm, C: Scutellum, D:
Cole optile, E: Plumule, F: Radicle,G:
Coleorhiza

13
 ANSWER KEY

1 C 43 A 85 A 127 A
2 A 44 B 86 A 128 C
3 C 45 B 87 A 129 B
4 D 46 D 88 C 130 C
5 B 47 C 89 C 131 A
6 C 48 A 90 B 132 B
7 D 49 B 91 D 133 D
8 A 50 B 92 B 134 A
9 B 51 A 93 C 135 B
10 B 52 B 94 A 136 B
11 A 53 A 95 A 137 B
12 A 54 C 96 B 138 B
13 D 55 C 97 D 139 B
14 C 56 B 98 D 140 C
15 D 57 D 99 C 141 C
16 D 58 D 100 B 142 D
17 A 59 A 101 C 143 C
18 D 60 B 102 D 144 B
19 A 61 D 103 C 145 B
20 B 62 A 104 B 146 D
21 B 63 A 105 D 147 C
22 A 64 C 106 D 148 D
23 D 65 B 107 B 149 C
24 A 66 B 108 C 150 A
25 D 67 D 109 C
26 B 68 A 110 D
27 D 69 A 111 A
28 C 70 A 112 C
29 C 71 C 113 A
30 B 72 A 114 D
31 A 73 A 115 D
32 C 74 B 116 A
33 D 75 C 117 D
34 D 76 C 118 C
35 D 77 B 119 A
36 C 78 A 120 D
37 C 79 B 121 B
38 C 80 B 122 A
39 B 81 D 123 B
40 D 82 D 124 B
41 B 83 A 125 B
42 A 84 A 126 B
14
 HUMAN REPRODUCTION

1. Match the columns. 6. Which is not the accessory duct in male reproductive
system of human?

(1) Vasa efferentia (2) Seminiferous tubule

(3) Epididymis (4) Vas deferens

7. Find X & its correct function.

(1) A-R. B-P, C-Q, D-T, (2) A-Q. B-R, C-P. D-T,
E-U, F-S E-U, F-S
(3) A-S. B-R, C-P, D-T, (4) A-Q. B-T, C-P. D-R,
E-U F-Q E-U, F-S

2. The term used for formation of gametes is

(1) Implantation (2) Gametogenesis (1) Testin - oogenesis (2) Testis - primary sex
(3) Syngamy (4) Gestation organ
(3) Testis - (4) Both 2 & 3
3. The following processes occur during sexual spermatogenesis
reproduction, place them in order

(1) Gametogenesis → Fertilization →

8. The testes are situated inside the abdominal cavity
within a pouch called
Insemination-Gestation → Implantation →
Parturition (1) Testicular lobules (2) Scrotum
(2) Gametogenesis → Insemination → Fertilization (3) Vas deferens (4) None of these
→ Implantation → Gestation → Parturition
(3) Gametogenesis → Insemination → Fertilization
9. Testes are suspended outside the abdominal cavity in
a pouh called
Implantation → Parturition → Gestation
(4) None of these (1) Tunica albunea (2) Inguinal canal
(3) Epididymis (4) Scrotal sacs
4. Human male reproductive system consists of

(1) Consists of a pair of Ovaries, accessory ducts

10. Function of scrotum is to maintain the
and accessory glands and external genitalia. (1) Temperature of (2) Body temperature
(2) Consists of a single testis, accessory ducts and testes
accessory glands and external genitalia. (3) Level of growth (4) Level of male
(3) A pair of testes, accessory ducts and accessory hormone hormone
glands and external genitalia.
11. Optimum temperature for sperm production is
(4) Consists of a pair of testes, accessory ducts and
Uterus and external genitalia. (1) 25-30°C (2) 40-50°C
(3) 35-40°C (4) 30-35°C
5. Name the primary sex organ and the endocrine
gland in the males 12. The male and female gametes fuse, this process is
(1) Testis, epididymis (2) Testis, Testis
known as

(3) Testis, Vasa deferens (4) Testis, Rete testis (1) Insemination (2) Implantation
(3) Fertilization (4) Parturition

15
13. Select the correct option. 19. Each Seminiferous tubule has two types of cells:

(1) Female germ cells (spermatogonia) and Sertoli

cells.
(2) Male germ cells (spermatogonia) and Sertoli
cells.
(3) Male germ cells (spermatogonia) and leydig
cells
(4) Female germ cells (spermatogonia) and leydig
cells.
(1) A-Scrotum, B-testis,
20. The cells ----- provide nutrition to sperm cells.
C-Urethra
(2) A-Seminal vesicle, B- testis, C-Vas deferens (1) Leydig cells (2) Spermatogonia

(3) A-Seminal vesicle, B- (4) A-Prostate, B-Testis, (3) Sertoli cells (4) Germ cells
Srotum ,C-Urethra C-Vas deferens
21. The cells which secrete androgens are
14. The compartements in each human testis is called as (1) Spermatozon (2) Interstitial cells
(1) Testicular lobules (2) Testicular locule (3) Leydig cells (4) Both 2 & 3
(3) Seminiferous bule (4) Seminiferous lobules
22. What is the size of testis?
15. An adult testes bears compartments called testicular (1) 2 to 3 cm in length and 4 to 5 cm in width
lobules.
(2) 4 to 5 cm in length and 2 to 3 cm in width
(1) 250 (2) 150 (3) 6 to 7 cm in length and 4 to 5 cm in width
(3) 350 (4) 450 (4) 4 to 5 cm in length and 6 to 7 cm in width

16. Testicular lobules have ---- a ----- and ----- b ----- 23. Temperature in scrotum necessary for sperm
(1) a. Interstitial cells/Leydig cells formation should be
b. Seminiferous tubules (1) 2°C above body (2) 2°C below body
(2) a lobule temperature temperature
b. Interstitial cells/Leydig cells (3) 4°C above body (4) 4°C below body
(3) a Seminiferous temperature temperature
tubules b.germ cells
(4) a. Seminiferous tubules b. Interstitial
24. If the temperature of the surroundings suddenly
drop in a male mammal then,
cells/Leydig cells
(1) Testes move into (2) Testes move towards
17. Which of the following cells present in the human abdomen abdomen
testes forms the sperms?
(3) Testes move deep (4) No change in the
(1) Interstitial cells (2) Spermatogonia into scrotal sacs. position of Testis
(3) Leydig cells (4) Sertoli cells
25. Sperms are produced inside the
18. Male germ cells are called as (1) Ovaries (2) Speminiferous
(1) Sperms (2) Spermatid tubules of testis

(3) Spermatogonia (4) Leydig cells (3) Speminiferous (4) Speminiferous

tubules of Uterus tubules of Vasa
deferens

16
26. Find A, B, C in the diagram. 30. Assertion: The secondary oocyte further develops
into ovum that undergoes fertilization.
Reason: The secondary oocyte retains bulk of the
nutrient rich cytoplasm of the primary oocyte

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and R is

the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and R is
not the correct explanation of A.
(3) Assertion is correct and Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and
(1) A-Prostate, B-Bulbourethral gland, C-Urethra Reason are false.

(2) A-Prostate, B-Urethra, C-Seminal vesicle 31. Assertion: Graafian follicle ruptures and release
(3) A-Seminal vesicle, B-Bulbourethral gland, C- ovum (ovulation).
Prostate Reason; Rapid secretion of LH leads to its
(4) A-Seminal vesicle, B-Balhourethral gland, C- maximum level during the mid- cycle called LH
Urethra surge.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and R is

27. The functional unit of testis of man is
the correct explanation of A.
(1) Uriniferous tubule (2) Seminiferous tubule (2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and R is
(3) Acini (4) Testicular Lobule. not the correct explanation of A.
(3) Assertion is correct and Reason is false.
28. Assertion: After spermiogenesis, sperm heads
become embedded in the Sertoli cells.
(4) Both Assertion and
Reason are false.
Reason: Sertoli cells provide nutrition to the sperm
cells
32. Assertion: Only one sperm can fertilise an ovum.
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and R is Reason: A sperm comes in contact with the corona
the correct explanation of A. radiata layer of the ovum and induces changes in the
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and R is
membrane that block the entry of additional sperms.
not the correct explanation of A. (1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and R is
(3) Assertion is correct and Reason is false. the correct explanation of A.explanation of A..
(4) Both Assertion and (2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and R is
Reason are false. not the correct
(3) Assertion is correct and Reason is false
29. Assertion: The human male ejaculates about 200 to
300 million sperms during a coitus.
(4) Both Assertion and
Reason are false.
Reason : For normal fertility, at least 40 per cent
sperms must have normal shape and size and at least
33. Assertion: Blastocyst becomes embedded in the
60 per cent of them must show vigorous motility.
endometrium of the uterus.
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and R is Reason: After attachment of inner cell mass to the
the correct explanation of A. endometrium, the uterine cells divide rapidly and
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and R is
covers the blastocyst.
not the correct explanation of A. (1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and R is
(3) Assertion is correct and Reason is false. the correct explanation of A.
(4) Both Assertion and (2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and R is
Reason are false not the correct explanation of A.
(3) Assertion is correct and Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and
Reason are false.

17
34. Assertion: During pregnancy the levels of other 38. The Leydig's cells secrete
hormones like estrogens, progestogens, cortisol,
prolactin, thyroxine, etc., are increased severalfolds
(1) Corticosterone (2) Testosterone

in the maternal blood. (3) Progesterone (4) Estrogen

Reason: Increased production of these hormones is
essential for supporting the fetal growth, metabolic
39. Testosterone, the male sex hormone is synthesized in
changes in the mother and maintenance of (1) Prostate gland (2) Interstital cells
pregnancy. (3) Vas deferens (4) Seminiferous tubules
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and R is
the correct explanation of A.
40. Select the correct option.

(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and R is

not the correct explanation of A.
(3) Assertion is correct and Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and
Reason are false.

35. Assertion: Oxytocin acts on the uterine muscle and

causes stronger uterine contractions.
Reason: Which in turn stimulates further secretion
(1) A-Spermatogonia, (2) A-Sertoli cells, B-
B-Leydig cells Leydig cells
of hCG.
(3) A-Sertoli cells, B- (4) A-Spermatozoa, B-
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and R is Blood vessels Blood vessels
the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and R is 41. Androgen is generally referred to
not the correct explanation of A.
(1) A male flower (2) Male gamete
(3) Assertion is correct and Reason is false.
(3) Male gene (4) Male sex hormone
(4) Both Assertion and
Reason are false. 42. Gonadotropin releasing hormone is formed from

36. Diagram represent (1) Adenohypophysis (2) Neurohypophysis

(3) Hypothalamus (4) Thyroid gland

43. Which one is associated with production of

androgens?

(1) ACTH (2) ADH

(3) ICSH (4) TSH

44. The seminiferous tubules of the testis open into the

vasa efferentia by

(1) T.S. of testis showing (1) Epididymis (2) Seminiferous tubule

seminal vesicle (3) Vasa deferentia (4) Rete testis
(2) T.S. of testis showing semiferous tubule
45. The duct that leave the testis and open into
(3) T.S. of ovary (4) TS. of ovary showing epididymis is
showing graafian corpus luteum
follicle (1) Rete testis (2) Vasa deferens
(3) Vasa efferentia (4) Seminal vesicle
37. Area outside the seminiferous tubules is called

(1) Testucular locule (2) Inter-space

(3) Interstitial space (4) Intra cellular space

18
46. Which is correct sequence of male accessory ducts 52. A 2 cm long, formed by union of seminal duct and
starring from testis? the terminal end of vas deferens opens into urethra.

(1) Rete testis, vas deferens, epididymis, vasa (1) Vas deferens (2) Vas efferens
efferentia (3) Ejaculatory duct (4) Rete testis
(2) Rete tests, vasa efferentia, vas deferens,
epididymis 53. It is a common pathway for flow of semen and urine.

(3) Rete testis, vasa efferentia, epididymis. vas (1) Vas deferens (2) Urethra
deferens (3) Ejaculatory duct (4) Rete testis
(4) Rete testis, vas deferens, vasa efferentia,
epididymis 54. Name the accessory glands found in males.

47. Choose the incorrect pair

(1) Seminal vesicles (2) Prostate gland
(3) Cowpers gland (4) All of these
(1) Vas deferens - (2) Spermatogenesis -
Carries sperms Semminiferous 55. Exocrine glands of male reproductive system are
tubule
(1) Prostate and Seminal
(3) Leydig cells - Secrete glands
testosterone
(2) Prostate, Bartholin's and Seminal glands
(4) Ejaculatory duct - Urethra and seminal vesicle
(3) Bartholin's and (4) Prostate, Cowper's
48. It is 6 metres in length and highly coiled lying along Seminal glands and Seminal vesicles
the posterior border of each testis
56. Seminal vesicle is present at the junction of
(1) Vasa efferentia (2) Seminiferous tubule
(1) Prostate and urethra (2) Prostate and vas
(3) Epididymis (4) Vas deferens deferens
49. Which duct ascends to abdomen and loops over the (3) Prostate and (4) Vas deferens and
urinary bladder? cowper's gland testes.

(1) Ureter (2) Vas deferens 57. Seminal plasma in human males is rich in
(3) Epididymis (4) Vasa efferentia (1) Ribose and (2) Glucose and calcium
potassium
50. Ejaculatory duct is formed by the
(3) Fructose and (4) DNA and
(1) Spermatic duct along with a duct from seminal calcium testosterone
vesicle
(2) Vasa deferens along with a duct from seminal 58. In human the unpaired male reproductive structure
vesicle is...
(3) Vasa deferens along with the seminal duct (1) Seminal vesicle (2) Prostate
(4) Both 1 & 2 (3) Bulbourethral gland (4) Testis

51. Ejacuatory duct of the male receives secretion of 59. Prostate gland is present.
(1) Prostate gland, seminal vesicle, Bulbourethral (1) On ureter (2) On the urinary
gland bladder
(2) Testis, seminal (3) Seminal vesicles, (3) Below testis (4) Below the urinary
vesicle Prostate gland bladder
(4) Prostate gland,
epididymis, testis.
60. Following gland helps in lubrication of penis during
coitus

(1) Prostate gland (2) Parotid gland

(3) Bulbourethral gland (4) Seminal vesicle

19
61. Match the column-I with column-II. 68. The endocrine gland of the femlae reproductive
system is

(1) Ureter (2) Uterus

(3) Fallopian tube (4) Ovary

69. Which of the following statements about ovary is

(1) A-R, B-P, C-Q. D-T, (2) A-Q, B-R, C-P, D-T, not true?
E-S E-S
(1) Ovaries are responsible for the production of
(3) A-S, B-R, C-P., D-T, (4) A-Q. B-T, C-P. D-R, several steroid hormones.
E-Q E-S
(2) Each ovary is about 4 to 6 cm in length.
62. The seminal fluid consists fluid from the following (3) Ovary is connected (4) Ovary produces
glands? to the pelvic wall. female gamete
(Ovum).
(1) Prostate
gland,Bulbourethral 70. Ovarian stroma is enclosed by
gland
(2) Parotid gland. Prostate gland, Bulbourethral
(1) Endothelum (2) Epithelium

gland (3) Mesothelium (4) Cilated epithelium

(3) Bulbourethral gland, 71. Identify the correct alphabet depicting site of
Prostate gland fertilisation & site of implantation.
(4) Seminal vesicle, Prostate gland. Bulbourethral
gland

63. The enlarged end of penis is called

(1) Prepace (2) Glans penis

(3) Foreskin (4) Penile urethra

64. Glans penis is covered by a loose fold of skin called (1) Z-fallopian tube, X- (2) X-uterus. Y - ovary
uterus
(1) Prepuce (2) Urethral meatus
(3) Foreskin (4) Both 1 and 3
(3) Z - fallopian tube, Y- (4) Y-ovary, Z-fallopian
ovary tube
65. Primary female sex organ producing egg is?
72. Statement-A: Presence or absence of hymen is not a
(1) Uterus (2) Ovaries reliable indicator of virginity or sexual drive.
(3) Oviducts (4) Cervix Statement-B: It can be broken down by a sudden fall
or Jolt, insertion: of a vaginal tampon or active
66. The female reproductive system includes participation in sports like horse riding.
a Primary sex organ
(1) Statement-A is (2) Statement-B is
b. Accessory duct
correct. correct.
c. Accessory glands
d. External genitalia (3) Both statements are (4) Both statements are
correct. incorrect.
(1) a and d (2) a, c, and d
(3) a & b and d only (4) All of them 73. Statement-A: In morula stage the cells divide with
increase in size.
67. The ovaries are located one on each side of the lower Statement-B: Zona pellucida remains intact till
abdomen and is connected to the pelvic wall and cleavage is completed..
uterus by
(1) Statement-A is (2) Statement-B is
(1) Ligaments (2) Muscles correct. correct.
(3) Loose connective (4) Tendons (3) Both statements are (4) Both statements are
tissue correct. incorrect

20
74. Statement-A: Amniocentesis is banned. 79. Human ovary is about
Statement-B: Amniocentesis gives information about
foetal abnormalities.
(1) Is about 19-20 cm in (2) Is about 9-10 cm in
length length
(1) Statement-A is (2) Statement-B is (3) Is about 2 to 4 cm in (4) Is about 2-7 cm
correct. correct length length
(3) Both statements are (4) Both statements are
correct incorrect 80. The tubes which transports egg to the uterus are
known as
75. Statement-A: Implantation is the process of
(1) Fallopian tube (2) Oviduct
attachment of blastocyst on uterine Perimetrium
Statement-B: The blastomeres in the blastocyst are (3) Uterine tubes (4) Both 1, 2 and 3
arranged into an outer layer called trophoblast and
an inner group of cells attached to trophoblast called
81. The funnel shaped part of fallopian tube which traps
ovum is known as
the outer cell mass

(1) Statement-A is (2) Statement-B is

(1) Ampulla (2) Isthmus
correct. correct. (3) Infundibulum (4) Fimbriae
(3) Both statements are (4) Both statements are 82. The structure where zygote formation in fallopian
correct. incorrect tubes occurs is
76. Statement-A: In a woman after hysterectomy (1) Isthmus (2) Ampulla
(removal of uterus), the ovarian cycle is stopped. (3) Fimbriae (4) Infundibulum
Statement-B: Stoppage of FSH secretion.

(1) Statement-A is (2) Statement-B is

83. The type of epithelium in the Fallopian tube is
correct. correct. (1) Simple squamous (2) Germinal epithelium
(3) Both statements are (4) Both statements are (3) Ciliated epithelium (4) Simple cuboidal
correct. incorrect.
84. The part of fallopian tube closest to the ovary is
77. Statement-A: Parturition is induced by neural signal
in maternal pituitary. (1) Cervix (2) Infundibulum
Statement-B: At the end of gestation period, the (3) Ampulla (4) Isthmus
maternal pituitary releases prolactin which causes
uterine contractions. 85. Each Fallopian tube is about .......... long.

(1) Statement-A is (2) Statement-B is (1) 10 to 12 mm (2) 10 to 12 cm

correct. correct. (3) 5 to 6 m (4) 10-12 inch
(3) Both statements are (4) Both statements are
86. Finger like part of oviduct closer to the ovary is
correct. incorrect
called
78. Assertion: The presence or absence of hymen is a (1) Fimbriae (2) Infundibulum
reliable indicator of virginity
Reason : The hymen always torn during the first
(3) Ampulla (4) Isthmus

coitus (intercourse) 87. isthmus a part of oviduct, is a narrow lumen and

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and R is joins ..............
the correct explanation of A (1) Uterus (2) Ampulla
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and R is (3) Infundibulum (4) Both 1 and 2
not the correct explanation of A
(3) Assertion is correct and Reason is false 88. Out of the parts mentioned which part is not present
in fallopian tube
(4) Both Assertion and
Reason are false. (1) Cilia (2) Flagella
(3) Fimbriae (4) Infundibulum

21
89. The main function of fimbriae of fallopian tube is 97. Match the column- I with column- II

(1) Help in development of ovary during ovarian

cycle
(2) Help in release of ovum during ovarian cycle
(3) Help in the development of corpus luteum after
ovulation (1) A-R. B-P, C-Q (2) A-Q, B-R, C-P

(4) Help in collection of ovum after ovulation (3) A-P, B-R. C-Q (4) A-Q. B-P. C-R

90. External thin membranous layer of uterus is known 98. Cervix occurs in
as (1) Kidney (2) Uterus
(1) Myometrium (2) Pericardium (3) Between uterus and (4) Between vulva and
(3) Perimetrium (4) Endometrium vaginal vagina

91. The endometrium is the lining of 99. The only statement correct about hymen is

(1) Oviduct (2) Vagina (1) It is an opening of (2) It is a reliable

uterus indicator of virginity
(3) Uterus (4) Bladder
(3) It is always torn after
92. The layer of uterine tissues responsible for strong first coitus.
contractions during childbirth is (4) It can be broken by a sudden fall or jolt,
insertion of vaginal tampon, cycling, etc
(1) Perimetrium (2) Myometrium
(3) Mesoderm (4) Myocardium 100. Identify A, B, C, D.

93. Which layer of uterus undergoes cyclic changes

during menstrual cycle?

(1) Mesoderm (2) Myometrium

(3) Endothelium (4) Endometrium

94. Starting from uterus, which among the following is

the correct sequence? (1) A - Fimbriae, B - cervix, C - vagina, D - uterus
(1) Isthmus-Fimbriae - Ampulla - Infundibulum. (2) A - Uterus, B - cervix, C - vagina, D - fallopian
(2) Isthmus - Ampulla - Infundibulum - Fimbriae. tube.

(3) Isthmus - Fimbriae - Infundibulum - Ampulla (3) A -Fimbriae , B - uterus, C - vagina, D - Cervix

(4) Isthmus - Ampulla - Fimbriae - Infundibulum (4) A -Fimbriae, B - vagina, C - cervix, D - uterus

95. Which among the following is muscular? 101. Clitoris in female mammal is

(1) Perimetrium (2) Endometrium (1) Non functional (2) Over grown structure

(3) Myometrium (4) 2 and 3 both (3) Analogous to penis (4) Homologous to
of male penis of male
96. Name the type of muscle present in the middle layer
of the uterus. 102. Among clitoris, hymen, Vagina, Cervix, labia
minora and mons pubis, how many are part of
(1) Smooth muscle (2) Striated muscle external genitalia (vulva) in females.
Voluntary
(1) 3 (2) 4
(3) Muscle (4) Striped muscle
(3) 2 (4) 6

22
103. Which group represents the external genitalia 108. Select the correct option.

(1) Labium minora, labium majora and clitoris

(2) Labium minora, (3) Labium minora,
labium majora and labium majora and
vagina cervix
(4) Labium minora, labium majora and oviduct

104. Choose the correct pair.

(1) A-Pectoralis muscle, B-Lactiferous duct , C-
(1) Cushion of fatty tissue covered by pubic hair- Mammary duct
Labia majora
(2) A-Mammary lobe, B-Lactiferous duct , C-
(2) Membrane covering opening of vagina- Mons Mammary duct
pubis
(3) A- Mammary lobe, B-Lactiferous gland, C-
(3) The labia minora are paired folds of tissue Mammary duct
under the labia majora
(4) A-Mammary duct , B-Lactiferous duct , C-Ribs
(4) Uterine layer exhibiting strong contraction
during delivery - Endometrium 109. Puberty occurs in males at the age of

105. In breast, the mammary gland, the milk is sucked (1) 8-11 years (2) 12-14 years
out through (3) 15-18 years (4) 20-22 years
(1) Mammary duct (2) Mammary tubule
110. The process of formation of sperms and ovum
(3) Mammary ampulla (4) Lactiferous duct (secondary oocyte) is called respectively?

106. Several mammary ducts join to form (1) Spermatogenesis and (2) Oogenesis and
oogenesis spermatogenesis
(1) Mammary lobe (2) Alveoli
(3) Spermatogeneis and (4) Spermatogenesis and
(3) Mammary ampulla (4) Lactiferous duct spermiogenesis parturition
107. Which is the correct path for the secretion and 111. Which of the following undergoes meiosis-I division
transport of milk in mammary gland? during spermatogenesis?
(1) Mammary duct → Cavity of alveoli → (1) Primary (2) Secondary
Lactiferous duct → Mammary ampulla → spermatocytes spermatocytes
Mammary tubule → Cavity of alveoli
(3) Spermatogonium (4) Leydig cell
(2) Mammary duct → Mammary tubule → Alveoli
→ Lactiferous duct → Mammary ampulla → 112. Which of the following is a set of haploid cells in
Cavity of alveoli male and female
(3) Alveoli → Cavity of alveoli → Mammary
(1) Primary
tubule → Mammary duct → Mammary
Spermatocyte,
ampulla → Lactiferous duct
Spermatid, Ootid
(4) Alveoli → Mammary tubule → Mammary
(2) Polar body, Ovum, Spermatozoan, Spermatid
ampulla → Cavity of alveoli → Mammary duct
→ Lactiferous duct (3) Secondary Spermatocyte, Spermatogonium,
Ovum
(4) Ovum, Spermatozoan, Spermatogonium,
Oogonium

23
113. During ................ in the Primary spermatocyte the 121. The difference between primary and secondary
homologous chromosomes undergo crossing over spermatocyte lies in .................
and this results in genetic variations in the
chromosomes
(1) Primary gamete/secondary gamete in males
(2) Number of
(1) Pachytene phase of (2) Pachytene phase of chromosomes
Prophase-II Prophase-I
(3) Being hormone producing/non-hormone
(3) Zygotene phase of (4) Zygotene phase of producing
Prophase-I Prophase-II
(4) Presence/absence of
114. Spermatogonium undergoes ....................... a tail

(1) Reduction division (2) Mitosis 122. Spermiogenesis is

(3) Meiosis (4) None of these (1) Transformation of sperm into spermatids.

115. Primary spermatocyte differs from spermatogonium (2) Transfermation of spermatogonia into primary
in spermatocyte,

(1) DNA content (2) Number of

(3) Transformation of secondary spermatocyte into
spermatids.
chromosomes
(3) Size and volume (4) Size and
(4) Transformation of spermatid into spermatozoa.

chromosomes 123. Math the column - I with column -II

116. Which type of germ cells contain 23 chromosomes?

(1) Spermatogoina (2) Primary

spermatocyte
(3) Secondary (4) None of the above
spermatocyte

117. Which one of the following cells have haploid (1) A-R, B-P, C-Q, D-P, (2) A-Q, B-Q, C-P, D-P,
number of chromosome? E-Q E-P
(3) A-Q, B-P, C-P, D-R, (4) A-Q. B-Q, C-P, D-R,
(1) Primary (2) Secondary
E-R E-Q
spermatocytes spermatocytes
(3) Spermatid (4) Both (2) and (3) 124. The expulsion of sperms from seminiferous tubules
is known as
118. The cell which undergo meiosis-II are known as
(1) Ejaculation (2) Spermatogenesis
(1) Sperm (2) Spermatid
(3) Spermiation (4) None of these
(3) Secondary (4) Primary
spermatocyte Spermatocyte 125. After spermiogenesis, the sperm head is embedded in
the cells.
119. During spermatogenesis, which cells are the first to
contain haploid number of chromosomes? (1) Sertoli (2) Leydig
(3) Interstitial (4) Both 1 and 2
(1) Primary (2) Spermatogonium
spermatocyte 126. Spermiation takes place from and the stages released
(3) Secondary (4) Spermatid are respectively
spermatocyte
(1) Germinal epithelium (2) Sertoli cells &
120. Secondary spermatocytes give rise to & Spermatogonia Mature spermatids
(3) Primordial germ cells (4) Sertoli cells &
(1) Diploid spermatids (2) Haploid sperm
& Spermatozoa Spermatids
(3) Diploid sperm (4) Haploid spermatid

24
127. If proximal centriole of mature sperm is destroyed, 135. The head of mature mammalian sperm is made of
which of the following is going to be affected?
(1) An acrosome (2) Elongated nucleus
(1) Motility (2) Fertilization covered by acrosome
(3) Cleavage (4) None of these (3) Two centrioles and
an axial filament.
128. Another role of sperm besides activating egg is to
(4) Nucleus, acrosome, cytoplasm and
carry
mitochondrial sheath.
(1) DNA (2) RNA
(3) Ribosomes (4) Mitochondria
136. Select the corret option.

129. Hyaluronidase is present in

(1) Blood (2) Ovary

(3) Sperm (4) Ovum

130. Which part of sperm provides undulating movement

is? (1) A-Neck , B-Mitochondria , C-Acrosome , D-
Nucleus
(1) Acrosome (2) Tail
(2) A-Mitochondria , B-Centriole in neck , C-
(3) Head (4) Middle piece Acrosome , D-Nucleus

131. The cell organelle absent in a human sperm is

(3) A-Mitochondria , B-Neck , C- Nucleus , D-
Acrosome
(1) Endoplasmic (2) Centriole (4) A-Nucleus , B-Centriole in Neck , C-Head , D-
reticulum Acrosome
(3) Mitochondria (4) Nucleus
137. In the absence of acrosome the sperm
132. Acrosome is derived from
(1) Cannot penetrate the (2) Cannot get energy
(1) Mitochondria (2) Golgi apparatus egg
(3) Nucleus (4) Vacuole (3) Cannot take food (4) Cannot swim fast

133. Semen consists of 138. Activation of sperm before the penetration of egg is
known as
(1) Seminal plasma + prostatic fluid + Spermatid
(2) Seminal plasma + fluid from rete testis + (1) Spermiogenesis (2) Spermateleosis
spermatozoa (3) Spermatid (4) Capacitation
(3) Seminal plasma + prostatic fluid +
Spermatozoa
139. For a normal male fertility, which of the following
statements is correct?
(4) None of these
(1) 60 percent sperm must have normal motility
134. For normal capacity to fertilize one ovum what and 40 percent must have normal shape.
percent of sperm must have vigorous motility (2) 60 percent sperm must have normal shape 40
(approximately) percent must have vigorous motility.
(1) 40 % (2) 60% (3) 60 percent sperm must have normal shape and
(3) 80% (4) 36% 40 percent must have acrosome.
(4) None of these

25
140. Spermatogenesis occurs on the onset of puberty due 145. Match the column -I with column -II
to significant increase in the ............ from
hypothalamus.

(1) Gonadotropin (2) Testosterone

releasing hormone
(GnRH)
(3) Estrogen (4) Somatostatin (1) A-R, B-P, C-Q. D-S (2) A-Q. B-R, C-P, D-S
(3) A-P, B-R, C-Q, D-S (4) A-Q, B-P, C-R, D-S
141. In males, luteinizing hormone (LH) acts on
146. Select the correct sequence:
(1) Sertoli cells and stimulates the release of inhibin
(2) Sertoli cells and stimafates the release of (1) GnRH → LH → Leydig cells → Androgens →
testosterone Spermatogenesis

(3) Leydig cells and stimulates the release of (2) GnRH → FSH → Sertoli cells → Some factors
inhibin → Spermatogenesis

(4) Leydig cells and stimulates the secretion of (3) Both are incorrect (4) Both are correct
testosterone
147. Which is wrong about oogenesis?
142. Identify the processes involved in the process (1) Equal division (2) Unequal division
(3) Formation of polar (4) Growth phase
bodies

148. Human female has 44 + XX chromosomes. The

secondary oocyte shall have

(1) 44 + XX (2) 22 + X
(3) 22 (4) 44

149. When a mature egg leaves the ovary, it enters the

(1) Interstitial cells (2) Endometrium

(1) a-mitosis, b-meiosis-1, c -meiosis-2 , d-
differentiation
(3) Follicle (4) Oviduct

(2) a-meiosis-1, b- mitosis, c-meiosis-2 , d - 150. During oogenesis the first haploid cell formed
differentiation
(1) Ovum (2) Ootid
(3) a-mitosis, b-meiosis, c-mitosis, d-differentiation
(3) Secondary oocyte (4) Primary oocyte
(4) a-mitosis, b-meiosis-1, c-meiosis-2 , d- mitosis
151. In which phase of cell division are oogonia arrested
143. Function of Sertoli cells is controlled by
(1) Interphase (2) Prophase 1
(1) LH (2) FSH
(3) Anaphase II (4) Both 2 and 3
(3) Testosterone (4) ACTH
152. One oogonium forms
144. Identify A, B & C
(1) Single ovum and no (2) 1 ovum + 3 polar
polar body bodies
(3) 1 ovum without centrioles + 3 polar bodies
(1) A-GnRH, B-FSH, (2) A-GHRH, B-LH, C- (4) One ovum + 1 polar
C-Androgen Testosterone body
(3) A-GnRH, B-ICSH, (4) A-GHRH, B-FSH, 153. Polar body is formed during the formation of
C-Androgen C-Inhibin
(1) Primary oocyte (2) Secondary oocyte
(3) Oogonium (4) Tertiary follicle

26
154. Total number of chromatids are present in the 163. Which part of the ovary in mammals acts as an
secondary oocyte of human female? endocrine gland after ovulation?

(1) 23 (2) 46 (1) Vitelline membrane (2) Graafian follicle

(3) 92 (4) 20 (3) Germinal epithelium (4) Ovarian medulla

155. Secondary follicles can be distinguished from 164. _______ is secreted by the secondary oocyte.
primary follicles with help of .............
(1) Corona radiata (2) Corpus luteum
(1) Granulosa cells (2) Presence of theca (3) Zona pellucida (4) FSH
covering. layer
(3) Presence of antrum. (4) All of these 165. Layers of ovum from outside to inside are

156. The Primary follicles are scattered in the

(1) Zona pellucida, vitelline membrane, corona
radiata
(1) Stroma of the (2) Stroma of the (2) Zona pellucida, corona radiata, vitelline
ovarian cortex ovarian medulla membrane
(3) Germinal layer of the(4) Germinal layer of the (3) Vitelline membrane, zona pellucida, corona
ovarian cortex ovarian medulla radiata

157. Graffian follicles are characteristically found in the (4) Corona radiata, zona pellucida, vitelline
membrane
(1) Thyroid of mammal (2) Ovary of frog
(3) Testes of mammal (4) Ovary of mammal 166. Second polar body is ______

158. Graafian follicle contains

(1) Haploid and is released when secondary oocyte
is ovulated
(1) Primary oocytes (2) Many sperms (2) Haploid and is released when male nucleus
(3) Secondary oocyte (4) Single sperm enters in cytoplasm of ovum.
(3) Diploid and is released when male and female
159. The follicular cells surrounding the human egg
nucleus fuse to from zygote.
constitute
(4) Diploid and is released when secondary oocyte
(1) Zona pellucida (2) Vitelline membrane is ovulated.
(3) Corona radiata (4) Zona radiata
167. Due to deficiency of which hormone, bones become
160. Namb the acellular layer found in antral follicle? weak in females

(1) Granulosa cells (2) Stroma (1) ACTH (2) TSH

(3) Theca interna (4) Zona pellucida (3) Estrogen (4) Progesterone

161. Primary oocytes enter and are arrested into the 168. Match the columns
______ of prophase-I until after puberty.

(1) Diplotene phase (2) Pachytene phase

(3) Zygotene phase (4) Diakinesis phase

162. In human females at the time of birth there are two

million ova, how many of them normally reach
maturity incourse of normal reproductive life
(approximately) (1) A-R, B-P, C-Q, D-S (2) A-Q, B-R, C-P, D-S
(1) 500 (2) 1,000 (3) A-P, B-R, C-Q, D-S (4) A-Q, B-P, C-R, D-S
(3) 2,000 (4) 5,000

27
169. Which of the following is correct flowchart of the 175. Main function of corpus luteum is to ............
arrangement of layers of ovum from outside to
inside?
(1) Secrete progesterone (2) Facilitative
ovulation
(1) Corona radiata → Zona pellucida → vitelline (3) Facilitative (4) Facilitate passage of
membrane → Ooplasm fertilisation a oviduct
(2) Zona pellucida → Corona radiata → vitelline
membrane → Ooplasm 176. Secondary oocyte is formed
(3) Vitelline membrance → Corona radiata → (1) Before fertilization (2) After fertilization
Zona pellucida → Ooplasm (3) Before maturation of (4) After mitosis of germ
(4) Zona pellucida → vitelline membrance → ovum cells
Corona radiata
177. In females the onset of menstruation is known as
170. Which one of the following pairs correctly matches a
hormone with a disease resulting from its deficiency?
(1) Puberty (2) Menarche
(3) Menopause (4) Gestation
(1) Thyroxine - Diabetes (2) Parathyroid
mellitus hormone - 178. ______ means the complete cessation of menses in
Myxodema human beings, usually occurs around ______ years
(3) Insulin - Diabetes of age.
insipidus
(1) Menopause, 40 (2) Menarche,30
(4) Luteinizing hormone - Failure of ovulation
(3) Menopause, 50 (4) Menarche, 50
171. Accessory sexual character in female is promoted by
179. Menstrual cycle is characteristic of all female.
(1) Androgen (2) Progesterone
(1) Man, apes and (2) Primates
(3) Estrogen (4) Testosterone monkeys

172. Find the missing structure in ovum

(3) Mammals (4) Both 1 and 2

180. Menstrual cycle is controlled by

(1) Oestrogen and (2) FSH of pituitary

progesterone of
ovary
(3) Both (1) and (4) (4) FSH and LH of
pituitary

181. The cycle of events starting from one menstruation

till the next one is called

(1) Pregnancy (2) Parturition

(1) Corona radiata (2) Zona pellucida
(3) Implantation (4) Menstrual cycle
(3) Vitelline membrane (4) Centriole
182. Which tissue from the uterus is lost during the
173. Loss of reproductive capacity in women after the age
menstrual cycle
of 45 years is
(1) Myometrium (2) Perimetrium
(1) Menarche (2) Menstruation
(3) Endometrium (4) Epimetrium
(3) Menopause (4) Ageing
183. Absence of menstruation may be due to the
174. Menstrual phase is followed by
(1) Pregnancy (2) Stress
(1) Luteal phase (2) Follicular phase
(3) Poor health (4) All of the above
(3) Fertilization (4) Implantation

28
184. The correct sequence of phases in the menstrual 190. Release of oocytes/ova from ovary is
cycle is
(1) Gestation (2) Ovulation
(1) Menstrual phase, follicular phase and luteal (3) Parturition (4) Implantation
phase
(2) Menstrual phase, luteal phase and follicular 191. Corpus luteum and macula luteum are
phase (1) Found in human (2) Source of hormones
(3) Menstrual phase, proliferative phase and ovaries
secretory phase (3) Characterised by (4) Contributory in
(4) Both 1 and 3 yellow colour maintaining
pregnancy
185. Stages in menstrual cycle are

(1) Recovery, secretory and phase of menstrual

192. Phase of menstrual cycle in human that lasts for 7-8
days is
flow
(2) Proliferative and (1) Follicular phase (2) Ovulatory phase
secretory phase (3) Luteal phase (4) Menstruation
(3) Proliferative, secretory phase and menstrual
phase
193. Match the column.

(4) Recovery and

proliferative phase

186. Follicular phase of menstrual cycle is the other name

of

(1) Proliferative phase (2) Luteal phase

(3) Menstruation (4) Secretory phase
(1) A-S, B-R, C-Q, D-T (2) A-S, B-T, C-Q, D-P
187. In an ideal menstrual cycle, the menstrual phase last
(3) A-T, B-S, B-S, C-P, (4) A-T, B-P, C-Q, D-S
for
D-Q
(1) 3-5 days (2) 15-16 days
(3) 10 days (4) 12-21 days
194. Which is correctly matched in a normal menstrual
cycle?
188. What happens during the follicular phase of (1) Endometrium (2) Release of egg-5th
menstrual cycle? regenerates-5 to 10 day
(1) Proliferation of (2) Formation of days
endometrium Graffian follicle (3) Endometrium secretes nutrients for
(3) Reduction of (4) 1&2 implantation-11 to 18 days
endometrium (4) Rise in progesterone
level-1 to 15 days
189. Match the columns
195. In human females, ovulation occurs during
menstrual cycle

(1) In the beginning of (2) Just before the end

proliferative phase of secretory phase
(3) In the middle of (4) At the end of
secretory phase proliferative phase
(1) A-R, B-P, C-Q, D-S (2) A-Q, B-R, C-P, D-S
(3) A-P, B-R, C-Q, D-S (4) A-Q, B-P, C-R, D-S

29
196. . 203. Oocyte is liberated from ovary under the influence of
LH, in which of the following phase

(1) End of Meiosis II (2) End of Meiosis I

(3) Arrested at anaphase (4) Arrested at
II metaphase II

204. Corpus luteum is located in

(1) Uterus (2) Ovary

(3) Oviduct (4) Vagina

205. Which of the following does not occur between 5-28

(1) A-Ovary B- (2) A-Ovary B- days of menstrual cycle?
progesterone Oestrogen
(1) Premenstrual phase (2) Luteal phase
(3) A-Anterior lobe of pituitary gland, B-FSH
(3) Secretory phase (4) Menstrual phase
(4) A-Posterior lobe of pitutary gland, B-FSH
206. Correct sequence of hormone secretion from
197. Uterine endometrium, epithelial glands and beginning of menstruation is
connective tissue are broken down in menstrual
cycle. This is due to (1) FSH, progesterone, (2) Estrogen, FSH,
estrogen progesterone
(1) Lack of estrogen (2) Lack of progesterone
(3) Estrogen, (4) FSH, estrogen,
(3) Over secretion of (4) Over production of progesterone, FSH progesterone
FSH progesterone
207. In human female, ovulation occurs during menstrual
198. Withdrawal of which of the following hormones is cycle
the immediate cause of menstruation?
(1) At the end of (2) In the middle of
(1) FSH-RH (2) Estrogen proliferative phase secretory phase
(3) Progesterone (4) FSH (3) Just before the end (4) In the beginning of
of secretory phase menstrual phase
199. At menopause there is rise in urinary excretion of

(1) MSH (2) FSH 208. If mammalian ovum fails to get fertilized,which of
the following is unlikely?
(3) LH (4) STH
(1) Corpus luteum will (2) Development of
200. Hormone having no role in menstruation is disintegrate zygote
(1) LH (2) FSH (3) Progesterone secretion rapidly increases
(3) GH (4) None of these (4) Estrogen secretion
further decreases
201. Level of L.H is maximum

(1) Just before ovulation (2) Just after ovulation

209. In a 32-day menstrual cycle, ovulation occurs on

(3) Ovulatory phase (4) Bleeding phase (1) 14th day (2) 18th day
(3) 16th day (4) 20th day
202. Egg is ovulated from ovary in

(1) Primary oocyte stage (2) Secondary oocyte

210. Luteal phase is other name of

stage (1) Menstrual flow (2) Follicular phase

(3) Menstrual phase (4) Mature ovum stage phase
(3) Proliferative phase (4) Secretory phase

30
211. Which is correctly matched in a normal menstrual 217. Level of estrogen and progesterone are minimum at
cycle? the time of

(1) Endometrium secretes nutrients for (1) Proliferative phase (2) Ovulation
Implantation-11 to 18 days (3) Secretory phase (4) Onset of menstrual
(2) Rise in progesterone level- 1 to 15 days phase
(3) Release of egg- 5th (4) Endometrium
218. LH surge causes
day regenerates- 5 to 10
days (1) Release of ovum (2) Rupture of Graafian
follicle
212. Which one is an incorrect statement?
(3) Endometrial (4) Both 1 and 2
(1) Menstrual cycle (2) Menopause occurs at shedding
takes 28 days 45-55 years
(3) Menstruation takes 4 (4) During pregnancy
219. How many ovum(s) is/are released in one
menstruation
days ovulation continues
(1) 2 (2) 1
213. Match the column -I with column -II
(3) 0 (4) 4

220. Which of the facts is true about menstruation?

(1) It occurs only when the released ovum is not

fertilized.
(1) A-R, B-P, C-Q, D-S (2) A-Q, B-R, C-P, D-S (2) It occurs due to the breakdown of endometrial
(3) A-P, B-R, C-Q, D-S (4) A-Q, B-P, C-R, D-S
lining.
(3) Menstral flow lasts (4) All the above
214. During menstrual phase, which of the following is for 3 to 5 days
unlikely to occur?
221. How many eggs and sperms are required lo create
(1) Rupture of (2) Low level of FSH identical twins in humans?
endometrial layer of and LH in blood.
uterus. (1) Egg-1, Sperm-1 (2) Egg-2, Sperm-2
(3) High level of FSH (4) Low level of (3) Egg-2, Sperm-1 (4) Egg-1, Sperm-2
and LH in blood. progesterone in
blood. 222. After insemination the correct pathway of sperm
movement in
215. The hormone that shows two peaks in one menstrual
(1) Vagina → Cervix → Uterus → Ampulla →
cycles also causes
Isthmus
(1) Maintenance of (2) Ovulation (2) Vagina → Uterus → Cervix → Isthmus →
endometrium Ampulla
(3) Release of FSH from (4) Female secondary (3) Vagina → Cervix → Ampulla → Uterus →
pituitary sexual characters Isthmus

216. Disintegration of corpus luteum occurs due to

(4) Vagina → Cervix → Uterus → Isthmus →
Ampulla
inhibition of hormone

(1) Oestrogen (2) FSH 223. Total number of polar bodies formed in oogenesis?
(3) Progesterone (4) LH (1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 1 (4) 0

31
224. Place which is primarily concerned with meeting of 230. The sex chromosome of the human female?
sperm with ovum?
(1) XY (2) YY
(1) Utero-ampullary (2) Ampullary-isthmic (3) XX (4) XYX
junction junction
(3) Isthmic- (4) Uterine-cervical 231. Female produce only
infundibullary junction (1) Either X or Y type of (2) One type of gamete
junction gamete X

225. A regular cycling woman is not menstruating, which (3) One type of gamete (4) No gametes
one of the following is the most likely root cause of Y
this?
232. During cleavage there is
(1) Maintenance of the
endometrial lining
(1) Very rapid DNA (2) Increase in nuclear
synthesis. cytoplasmic ratio
(2) Maintenance of high concentration of sex-
hormones in the blood
(3) Decrease in size of (4) All of these
cell
(3) Hypertrophied (4) Fertilisation of the
corpus luteum ovum 233. In humans, secretions of which of the following is
used to confirm implantation of embryo?
226. After a sperm has penetrated an ovum, the entry of
other sperms is prevented by (1) Blastocyst (2) Gastrula

(1) Condensation of (2) Formation of

(3) Trophoblast (4) Inner cell mass
yolk. pigment coat. 234. In human female the blastocyst
(3) Development of (4) Development of
vitelline membrane fertilization
(1) Forms placenta even
before implantation
membrane
(2) Gets implanted into uterus 3 days after
227. The complication of the STDs includes ovulation
a. PID (3) Gets nutrition from uterine endometrial
b. Abortions secretion only after implantation
C. Still birth
d. Ectopic pregnancies
(4) Gets implanted in endometrium by the
trophoblast cells
e. Infertility
f. Cancer of reproductive tract
235. In human beings, the developing embryo resides in
(1) a, c and d (2) a, b, d & e
(1) Fallopian tubes (2) Ovaries
(3) b, c, d, e and f (4) All of the above
(3) Uterus (4) Vagina
228. The function of hyaluronidase is _________
236. Which of the following will be lost only during
(1) To form cone of implantation of the embryo in the wall of the uterus?
reception in egg
(1) Zona pellucida (2) Corona radiata
(2) To puncture the vitelline membrane of egg
(3) Trophoblast (4) Discus proligerus
(3) It is not produced in (4) None of the above
human sperm 237. Cell division that occurs in zygote is called

229. Fertilization membrane is formed to (1) Cleavage (2) Meiosis

(3) Mitosis (4) Differentiation
(1) Prevent polyspermy (2) Prevent monospermy
(3) Facilitate entry of (4) Provide stability to 238. The human male has which of the following sex
sperm into egg the egg chromosome pattern?

(1) XYY (2) XX

(3) XY (4) YY

32
239. Which alphabet represents 2-celled embryo? 247. Mass of cells formed during early embryonic
development of an animal is

(1) Morula (2) Amphiblastula

(3) Blastula (4) Gastrula

248. Which of the following hormone is injected to induce

labor?

(1) Progesterone (2) Oxytocin

(3) LH (4) FSH

249. Match the column- I and column- II.

(1) C (2) F
(3) G (4) E

240. Cleavage is the rapid mitotic division occuring on

the way through isthmus to oviduct. It occurs in

(1) Ovum (2) Zygote

(3) Sperm (4) Fully formed foetus

241. Cleavage forms 2-4-8-16 cells, These cells are called

(1) Blastocysts (2) Blastomeres (1) A-Q; B-S; C-R; D-V, E-W; F-X: G-U; H-T; I-P
(3) Morula (4) Zygote (2) A-R; B-S; C-Q; D-V; E-W; F-X; G-U; H-T; I-P
(3) A-R; B-U; C-Q, D-W; E-V; F-X; G-U; H-E; I-
242. Embryo at 8-16 cells stage is called P
(1) Blastula (2) Morula (4) A-R; B-T; C-Q; D-V; E-W; F-X: G-U; H-D; I-
(3) Trophoblast (4) All of these P

243. Trophoblast of blastocyst attaches to the 250. At the time of implantation in uterus.

(1) Endometrium (2) Myometrium (1) Embryo is at morula

stage.
(3) Perimetrium (4) Mesoderm
(2) Three germinal layers are made in embryo
244. At the time of implantation the human embryo is (3) Embryo is at
called blastocyst stage
(1) Embryo (2) Blastocyst (4) Inner cell mass differentiates in trophoblast
(3) Morula (4) Foetus cells.

245. Inner cell mass or embryoblast gives rise to 251. During pregnancy, which part of uterus helps in
expansion and then in contraction during child birth
(1) Foetal part (2) Embryo
(3) Notochord (4) Placenta
(1) Perimetrium (2) Myometrium
(3) Endometrium (4) None of these
246. Chorionic villi and uterine tissue become
interdigitated with each other and jointly form 252. Which of the following hormones prevents
regression of corpus luteum, if fertilization takes
(1) Trophoblast (2) Inner cell mass place?
(3) Placenta (4) Embryo
(1) LH (2) hCG
(3) FSH (4) Progesterone

33
253. The placenta is connected to embryo through ___ 262. After one month of pregnancy which vital organ is
cord. formed in the foetus?

(1) Chlorionic (2) Umbilical (1) Brain (2) Heart

(3) Amniocentic (4) Uterine (3) Lungs (4) Liver

254. Which of the following hormone is related by 263. Foetal limbs and digits are formed in the end of
placenta? month of embryonic development

(1) ESH (2) HCG (1) 4th (2) 2nd

(3) Relaxin (4) LH (3) 3rd (4) 7th

255. Human chorionic gonadotropin hormone is secreted 264. By which month of gestation, hair appear on head
by and foetal movements can be felt

(1) Posterior pituitary (2) Anterior pituitary (1) Fourth (2) Third
(3) Placenta (4) Chorion (3) Six (4) Fifth

256. How many of the following hormones noticed in the 265. Most of the organs'system in foetus are formed by
blood of a pregnant woman? Progesterone, estrogen, the end of
hCG, hPL., Relaxin cortisol
(1) 1st trimester (2) 2nd trimester
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 3rd trimester (4) First month
(3) 4 (4) 6
266. In amniocentesis, the fluid for test is taken from
257. Relaxin is secreted by
(1) Foetal blood (2) Mother's blood
(1) Cervix (2) Uterus (3) Amniotic fluid (4) Mother's body fluid
(3) Ovary (4) Oviduct
267. Signals from fully developed foetus and placenta
258. Which is not correct about placenta? ultimately lead to parturition which requires the
release of
(1) It acts as a foetal (2) It acts as a foetal
lung liver (1) Estrogen from (2) Oxytocin from
(3) It acts as an placenta maternal pituitary
endocrine gland (3) Oxytocin from foetal (4) Relaxin from
(4) It prevents passage of maternal IgG to foetus pituitary placenta

259. Foetal membranes in humans are 268. If endometrium is for menstruation, then
Myometrium is for
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4
(1) Capacitation (2) Micturition
(3) Insemination (4) Parturition
260. In human embryonic development, which layer
develops between the ectoderm and endoderm 269. Delivery of developed foetus is

(1) Mesothelium (2) Mesoderm (1) Abortion (2) Oviposition

(3) Chorion (4) Myometrium (3) Parturition (4) Conception

261. By the end of first trimester, which of the following 270. Following the delivery of the foetus which of the
has occurred in the foetus following structure is also expelled out?

(1) Body is covered with (2) Foetal movements (1) Cervix (2) Corpus luteum
fine hair. begin (3) Placenta (4) Ovary
(3) The brain of foetus is (4) Rudimentary organs
fully developed are formed.

34
271. Identify A, B, C, D. 278. Match the column-I with column-II

(1) A-Foctus, B-Amnion, C-Placenta, D-Allntois (1) A-R, B-P, C-Q. D-T. (2) A-Q. B-R, C-P, D-T,
E-S E-S
(2) A-Foctus, B-Amnion, C-Umbilical cord, D-
Chorionic villi (3) A-S, B-R, C-P, D-T, (4) A-Q. B-T, C-P, D-R,
E-Q E-S
(3) A-Zygote, B-Amnion, C-Umbilical cord, D-
Amniotic cavity 279. Match the column -I with column - II
(4) A-Zygote, B-Amnion, C-Umbilical cord, D-
Chorionic villi

272. The milk produced during the initial days of

lactation is called

(1) Serum (2) Colostrum

(3) Plasma (4) None of these
(1) A-R, B-P, C-Q, D-T, (2) A-Q, B-R, C-P, D-T,
E-S E-S
273. Milk production is stimulated in mammals is
associated with (3) A-S, B-R, C-P, D-T, (4) A-Q, B-T, C-P, D-R,
E-Q E-S
(1) Progesterone (2) Oxytocin
(3) Gonadotropin (4) Prolactin 280. .

274. Oxytocin is helpful in

(1) Diuresis (2) Parturition

(3) Sperm formation (4) Molecular
development

275. Which one of the following causes the mammary

glands to enlarge at puberty?

(1) Testosterone (2) Progesterone (1) A Secondary spermatocyte, B-Primary

(3) Estrogen (4) Oxytocin spermatocyte, C-Spermatids
(2) A-Primary spermatocyte, B-Secondary
276. The production of milk in mammary gland occurs
spermatocyte, C-Spermatids
(1) During parturition (2) After parturition (3) A-Primary spermatocyte , B-Spermatids, C-
(3) Before (4) From the start of Spermatocyte
embryogenesis pregnancy (4) A-Secondary spermatocyte, B-Spermatids, C-
Primary spermatocyte
277. Colostrum is rich in

(1) IgG (2) IgA

(3) IgM (4) IgE

35
281. Select the correct option. 283. Match the column -I with column -II

(1) A-Primary spermatocyte, B-Sertoli cells, C- (1) A-R, B-P, C-Q, D-P, (2) A-Q, B-Q, C-P, D-P,
E-Q E-P
Spermatogonium
(2) A-Sertoli cells, B-Spermatozoa, C- (3) A-Q, B-P, C-P, D-R, (4) A-Q, B-Q, C-P, D-R,
E-R E-Q
Spermatogonium
(3) A-Sertoli cells, B-Primary spermatocyte, C- 284. Which of the following process results in the
Spermatozoa formation of first polar body during oogenesis?
(4) A-Sertoli cells, B-Spermatozoa, C-Primary
(1) First mitotic division (2) First meiotic division
spermatocyte
(3) Second meiotic (4) Second mitotic
282. Recognise the figure and find out the correct division division
matching.
285. Which of the following hormones is produced in
women only during pregnancy?

(1) Relaxin (2) Estrogen

(3) Oxytocin (4) Progesterone

(1) a- primary oocyte, b-secondary oocyte, c-ovum,

d- first meiotic division, e-mitosis
differentiation
(2) a primary oocyte, b-secondary oocyte, c-ovum,
d-second meiotic division, e- first meiotic
division
(3) a- first polar body, b-second polar body, c-
ovum, d- first meiotic division, e-mitosis
differentiation
(4) a-primary oocyte, b-secondary oocyte, c-polar
body, d-second meiotic division, e- first meiotic
division

36
 1 B 43 C 85 B 127 C 169 A 211 D 253 B
2 B 44 D 86 A 128 A 170 D 212 D 254 B
3 B 45 C 87 D 129 C 171 C 213 A 255 C
4 C 46 C 88 B 130 B 172 D 214 C 256 D
5 B 47 D 89 D 131 A 173 C 215 D 257 C
6 B 48 C 90 C 132 B 174 B 216 D 258 D
7 D 49 B 91 C 133 C 175 A 217 D 259 D
8 D 50 B 92 B 134 A 176 A 218 D 260 B
9 D 51 C 93 D 135 B 177 B 219 B 261 D
10 A 52 C 94 B 136 B 178 C 220 D 262 B
11 D 53 B 95 C 137 A 179 D 221 A 263 B
12 C 54 D 96 A 138 D 180 C 222 D 264 D
13 B 55 D 97 A 139 B 181 D 223 B 265 A
14 A 56 B 98 C 140 A 182 C 224 B 266 C
15 A 57 C 99 D 141 D 183 D 225 D 267 B
16 D 58 B 100 D 142 A 184 D 226 D 268 D
17 B 59 D 101 D 143 B 185 C 227 D 269 C
18 C 60 C 102 D 144 C 186 A 228 B 270 C
19 B 61 D 103 A 145 B 187 A 229 A 271 B
20 C 62 D 104 C 146 D 188 D 230 C 272 B
21 D 63 B 105 D 147 A 189 D 231 B 273 D
22 B 64 D 106 C 148 B 190 B 232 D 274 B
23 B 65 B 107 C 149 D 191 C 233 C 275 C
24 B 66 D 108 B 150 C 192 A 234 D 276 B
25 B 67 A 109 B 151 B 193 C 235 C 277 B
26 C 68 D 110 A 152 C 194 A 236 A 278 C
27 B 69 B 111 A 153 B 195 D 237 A 279 B
28 A 70 B 112 B 154 A 196 C 238 C 280 B
29 C 71 A 113 B 155 B 197 B 239 A 281 B
30 A 72 C 114 B 156 A 198 C 240 B 282 A
31 A 73 B 115 C 157 D 199 B 241 B 283 B
32 C 74 C 116 C 158 C 200 C 242 B 284 B
33 C 75 D 117 D 159 C 201 B 243 A 285 A
34 A 76 A 118 C 160 D 202 B 244 B
35 C 77 D 119 C 161 A 203 D 245 B
36 B 78 D 120 D 162 A 204 B 246 C
37 C 79 C 121 B 163 B 205 D 247 A
38 B 80 D 122 D 164 C 206 C 248 B
39 B 81 C 123 B 165 D 207 A 249 A
40 B 82 B 124 C 166 B 208 A 250 C
41 D 83 C 125 A 167 C 209 B 251 B
42 C 84 B 126 B 168 C 210 D 252 B
37
 REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH

1. Reproductive health is related to 7. Primary steps that can be taken towards attaining
reproductive health are
(1) Physical fitness (2) Emotional
compatibility (1) Counselling and creating awareness among
(3) Behavioral inter- (4) All the above people about reproductive organs. adolescence
relationships and associated changes
(2) Safe and hygenic
2. What are the programs called to get total sexual practices
reproductive health as a social goal of national level?
(3) Creating awareness about STDs including
(1) Family care. (2) Family organization AIDS, better detection and cure of STD
(3) Reproductive care (4) Family planning (4) All of them

3. According to WHO, reproductive health means a 8. Medical assistance and care to people is required in
total well-being in all aspects of reproduction like. reproduction related problems like

(1) Physical, Emotional, (1) Pregnancy, Delivery (2) STDs, Abortions

Behavioral, Social (3) Contraception, Menstrual problems, Infertility
(2) Physical, Mental health, Sexual Habits. (4) All of them
Healthy body
(3) Physical, Mental, Behavioral, Development of 9. Sex education includes all of the following except:
sexual organs (1) Safe and hygienic (2) STDs
(4) Physical, Mental, sexual practices
Emotional, Social (3) Adolescence and
related changes
4. Family planning program was introduced in
(4) To make students believe in myths and
(1) 1960 (2) 1961 misconceptions about sex-related aspects
(3) 1950 (4) 1951
10. Which one is not legitimate for reducing birth rate?
5. What is the full form of RCH
(1) Ban on marriages (2) MTP
(1) Reproductive and (2) Reproductive and (3) Use of (4) Sex education
Child Health Child Health Care contraceptives
(3) Reproduction, (4) None of the above
Contraception and 11. Removal of gonads cannot be considered as a
Health contraceptive option because

6. What are the major tasks under reproductive and

(1) It is less effective in preventing pregnancy

child health programme? (2) It leads to permanent sterility and

unavailability of certain hormones
(1) Create awareness about reproductive health
(3) It can only prevent gamete transport but not
among people.
gamete production
(2) Does not Educate people about reproductive
(4) It is not possible to remove gonads surgically
process.
(3) Establish reproductive health care in society. 12. Statutory ban has been laid on ............ to check
(4) Both (1) and (3) female foeticide.

(1) Ultrasonography (2) Amniocentesis

(3) CT scan (4) X-ray

38
13. STD stands for, in reproductive health 20. What is the main factor affecting the population
growth?
(1) Sex Terminal (2) Sexually Transmitted
Determinant Disease (1) Increase in health (2) Better quality of life.
(3) Sexually (4) Socially Transmitted care facilities
Transformed Disease Disease (3) Both 1 & 2 (4) Industrialization

14. Amniocentesis is a technique used to diagnose 21. For imposing a check on increasing female foeticides
.............
(1) Tubectomy is being (2) Amniocentesis has
(1) Down syndrome (2) Haemophilia practiced been banned
(3) Sickle cell anaemia (4) All the above (3) MTP has been (4) All of these
legalized
15. The amniocentesis test is based on ............. to
determine the sex of developing foetus. 22. India's population crossed 1 billion in

(1) Physical problems (2) Secondary sexual (1) Dec. 1999 (2) May 2001
characters (3) Dec. 1991 (4) May 2000
(3) Chromosomal (4) Maternal antibodies
pattern 23. MMR stands for

16. Select the most appropriate methods employed by

(1) Maternal migration (2) Mortality
rate Mandatory Rate
the government of India to maitain good
reproductive health in females in our country under (3) Mortality Maternal (4) Maternal Mortality
the reproductive health care program? rate Rate
(i) By advertising the slogan "Hum do hamare do"
(ii) Introducing sex education in schools
24. According to 2001 census report, the population
growth rate was still around
(iii) Early detection of STDs and early treatment and
cure (1) 2.7 percent (2) 17 percent
(iv) Statutory raising marriageable age of females to (3) 27/1000/year (4) Less than 2 percent
18 years and males to 21 years

(1) (i), (ii), (iii) (2) (ii) and (iii)

25. The popular growth in india showed the following
growth. Match the columns.
(3) (ii), (iii), (iv) (4) All the above

17. Amniocentesis is employed for determining

(1) Cardiac ailments of

embryo
(2) Errors in amino acid metabolism in embryo (1) A-R, B-P, C-Q (2) A-Q, B-R, C-P
(3) Hereditary (4) All of the above (3) A-P, B-R, C-Q (4) A-Q, B-P, C-R
abnormality in
embryo 26. "Saheli", on oral contraceptive for females, was
developed by
18. Amniocentesis involves analysis of
(1) AIIMS, Delhi (2) IICB, Kolkata
(1) Amnion (2) Yolk sac
(3) SGPGI, Lucknow (4) CDRI, Lucknow
(3) Amniotic fluid (4) Placenta
27. CDRI stands for
19. IMR stands for
(1) Central Drug (2) Central Drug
(1) Individual Mortality (2) Infant Migratory Refund Institute Related Institute
Rate Rate
(3) Central Drug
(3) Infant Mortality (4) Infant Movement Research Institute
Rate Rate
(4) (4) Children Development Research Institute

39
28. Present increase in India's population has not been 36. The mechanical measure of population control
due to decline in includes

(1) Infant mortality rate (1) Condom only (2) Diaphragm only
(2) Number of people reaching reproductive age (3) IUD only (4) All of the above
(3) Death rate (4) Maternal mortality
37. A wide range of contraceptive methods are presently
rate
available which could be broadly grouped into the
29. The marriageable age of female must be ............ following categories, namely
years and that of male must be ............ years (1) Natural/Traditional,
respectively.
(2) Barrier, IUDs, Oral contraceptives, Injectables,
(1) 16, 18 (2) 18, 20 (3) Implants and (4) All of the above
(3) 18, 21 (4) 17, 22 Surgical methods

30. Young couples in the urban working areas have 38. Intensely lactating mothers do not generally
adopted the ................. norm. conceive due to

(1) One child (2) Two child (1) Hyper secretion of (2) Suppression of
(3) No child (4) Three child gonadotropins gonadotropins
(3) Suppression of (4) Suppression of
31. Slogan for a happy and small family fertilization gameteic transport
(1) Hum do hamare (2) Hum do hamare ek
39. As long as the mother breast-feeds the child fully,
chaar
chances of conception are almost nil. It is a feature
(3) Hum do hamare do (4) None of these of

32. An ideal contraceptive is the one that does not (1) Coitus interruptus (2) Lactational
interfere with amenorrhoea

(1) Sexual drive (2) Sexual act/coitus (3) periodic abstinence (4) Rhytm method

(3) All of these (4) Sexual desire 40. After parturition, which natural contraception way
can be utilized?
33. Natural methods work on the principle of
(1) Lactational (2) Lactational
(1) Avoiding chances of ovum and sperms meeting
menarche amenorrhea
(2) Prevent copulation (3) Promote population
(3) Lactational (4) Latcational
(4) Prevent ovulation dificiency menopause

34. An ideal contraceptive should be 41. Lactational amenorrhea - what is not true?
(1) User-friendly (1) A natural method of (2) OCPs have to be
(2) User-friendly, easily available, effective and contraception used at this time
reversible with no or least side- effects. (3) Method effective up
(3) Easily available to maximum 6
(4) Reversible with no or least side-effects
months
(4) Side effects nil; chances of failure high
35. Side effects are almost nil., Chances of failure,
though, of this method are also high. It refers to 42. In periodic abstinence method, sexual contact
should be avoided from
(1) Barrier method (2) Natural method
(3) IUD (4) Chemical method
(1) Days 1 to 5 (2) 10 to 17 days
(3) Days 14 to 25 (4) Days 15-20

40
43. Coitus interruptus / withdrawal method concerns 50. Barrier methods - what is not true?
with
(1) Ovum and sperm is prevented physically from
(1) Withdrawal of penis from vagina before meeting
ejaculation (2) Used by males only (3) Condom is an
(2) Withdrawal of penis from vagina after example
ejaculation (4) Diaphragm, vaults
(3) Prevention of coitus (4) Coitus after fertile are used in females
period
51. Diaphragms, cervical caps and vaults prevent
44. Match the Column-I with Column-II. conception by

(1) Inhibiting ovulation (2) Suppressing sperm

and implantation mobilty and motility
(3) Increasing phagocytosis of sperms within uterus
(4) Blocking the entry of sperms through the cervix

52. Which of the following statements are correct about

cervical caps?
A. Barrier method of contraception
B. Protect the user from contracting STDs
C. They are reusable
(1) A-R, B-Q, C-P (2) A-Q, B-R, C-P D. Prevent sperm from meeting ovum
(3) A-P, B-Q, C-R (4) A-R, B-P, C-Q
(1) B, C and D only (2) A, C and D only
45. Using which contraceptive also provides protection (3) A, B and D only (4) A, B, C and D
from contracting STDs and AIDS?
53. ................ is a popular brand of condom for males.
(1) Spermicidal foams (2) Diaphragms
(1) Mala-N (2) 'Nirodh'
(3) Lactational (4) Condoms
amenorrhoea (3) 'Nishakt (4) Mala-D

46. Which of the following is not a natural family 54. Identify the structure used by males to cover the
planning method? penis

(1) Chemical method (2) Periodic abstinence

(3) Interruption coitus (4) Lactational
amenorrhea

47. Which is used as a mechanical barrier for

contraception? (1) A - Diaphragm (2) A-Condom
(1) Diaphragm (2) Copper-T (3) B- Female condom (4) B-Vault
(3) Dalcon shield (4) Loop 55. Which of the following features are related to
Nirodh?
48. In the ................. method of contraception ovum
(i) Prevention of STDs
and sperms are prevented from physically meeting
(ii) Phagocytosis of sperms
(1) Natural (2) Sterilization (iii) Acts as chemical barrier
(3) Barrier (4) Pills (iv) Male contraceptive device
(v) Physiological changes in cervical mucus
49. Which of the following is not applicable to females
(1) i, ii (2) i, iv
for contraception?
(3) i, ii, iii (4) i, ii, iii, iv
(1) Diaphragms (2) Condoms
(3) Vaults (4) Cervical caps

41
56. .............. are also barriers made of rubber that are 62. Cu⁺⁺ ions released from copper-releasing intra
inserted into the female reproductive tract to cover uterine devices
the cervix during coitus.
(1) Make uterus (2) Increase
(1) Diaphragms, cervical (2) Condoms, Vaults unsuitable for phagocytosis of
caps and vaults implantation sperms
(3) Vaults, condoms, (4) Condoms, (3) Suppress sperm (4) Prevent ovulation
cervical caps diaphgrams motility

57. Match column I and column II. 63. Copper releasing IUD is the same kind of
contraceptive as

(1) Diaphragm (2) Multiload 375

(3) LNG-20 (4) Mirena

64. Copper-T acts by

(1) Suppress sperm motility and the fertilising

capacity of sperms
(1) A-Q, R; B-P, R; C-P, (2) A-Q, S; B-Q, R; C-
R Q, R (2) Suppression of fertilization by forming a
membrane
(3) A-Q, S; B-P, R; C- (4) A-P, S; B-Q, R; C-P,
P,R R (3) Acting as a barrier (4) Makes cervix hostile
to the sperms.
58. Which of the following is the most widely accepted
method of contraception in India, at present? 65. The following structure is placed inside

(1) Cervical caps (2) Tubectomy

(3) Diaphragms (4) Cu-T

59. For delaying pregnancy or spacing children the ideal

contraceptive is
(1) Cervix (2) Uterus
(1) Tubectomy (2) Vasectomy
(3) Fallopian tube (4) Ovary
(3) Oral contracetive (4) IUD
66. Which of the following is hormone-releasing IUD?
60. Lippes loop is a/an
(1) Cu7 (2) LNG-20
(1) Hormone releasing (2) Copper releasing
(3) Multiload 375 (4) Lippes loop
IUD IUD
(3) Non-medicated IUD 67. Progestasert and LNG-20 are
(4) Skin implant for sustained release of (1) Implants (2) Copper releasing
gonadotropins IUD's

61. How many of the following features are not related (3) Non-medicated (4) Hormone releasing
to Lippe's loop? IUD's IUDS
(a) IUD
(b) Non-medicated
68. Progesterone pill help in preventing pregnancy by
not allowing
(c) Induces Phagocytosis of sperms
(d) Cu ion releasing (1) Fertilization (2) Ova formation
(e) Physically prevents meeting of ovum and sperms. (3) Implantation (4) None of these
(1) 2 (2) 3
69. A weekly contraceptive pill is
(3) 4 (4) 5
(1) Mala A (2) Saheli
(3) Mala D (4) Saheli-2

42
70. Oral pills work by 77. Surgical intervention .............

(1) Inhibiting ovulation (2) Inhibiting (1) Prevents ovulation (2) Prevents
implantation gametogenesis
(3) Alternating the (4) All of these (3) Blocks gamete transport and thereby prevent
quality of mucus conception

71. A contraceptive pill prevents ovulation by

(4) Helps gametogenesis

(1) Inhibiting the release (2) Stimulating the 78. Which one is a sterilization method?
of FSH and LH release of FSH and (1) Diaphragm (2) Loop
LH
(3) Tubectomy (4) Rhythm method
(3) Blocking of the
fallopian tubes 79. Which is related to males?
(4) Causing immediate degeneration of released (1) Oral pill (2) Tubectomy
ovum
(3) Vasectomy (4) None of these
72. Birth control pills check ovulation in female by
inhibiting the secretion of-
80. Which of the following method of contraception has
minimum failure rate?
(1) Luteinizing hormone (2) Follicle stimulating
hormone
(1) IUD (2) Oral pill

(3) Both (4) None

(3) Cervical cap (4) Vasectomy

73. Identify the contraceptive device.

81. Emergency contraceptives could be used to avoid
possible pregnancy due to

(1) MTP (2) Rape

(3) Casual unprotected (4) Both 2 and 3
intercourse

82. Match the column-I with column c-II

(1) LNG-20 (2) Implants
(3) Copper-T (4) Diaphgram

74. The oral contraceptive pill Saheli contains

(1) Synthetic oestrogen (2) Synthetic

alone progestogen alone
(3) Progestogen- (4) Centchroman
(1) A-R, B-P, C-Q, D-T, (2) A-Q, B-R, C-P, D-T,
oestrogen (Ormeloxifene)
E-S E-S
combination
(3) A-S, B-R, C-P, D-T, (4) A-Q, B-T, C-P, D-R,
75. Saheli, developed by Indian scientists is a E-Q E-S

(1) Steroidal (2) Hormonal 83. What is the figure given below showing in
preparation preparation particular?
(3) Non-steroidal
preparation
(4) Effective preparation to demobilise the sperms

76. Oral contraceptive pills have to be taken for

contraception continuously for a period ...........
days. (1) Gestation (2) Uterine cancer
(1) 7 (2) 21 (3) Tubectomy (4) Vasectomy
(3) 24 (4) 28

43
84. Which of the following is incorrect regarding 89. Which of the following statement is incorrect
vasectomy? regarding the medical termination of pregnancy
(MTP)?
(1) Irreversible sterility (2) No sperm occurs in
seminal fluid (1) These help in getting rid of unwanted
(3) No sperm occurs in (4) Vasa deferentia is cut pregnancies.
epididymis and tied. (2) These help in aborting the pregnancies which
may be harmful to either mother or foetus or
85. Tubectomy is a method of sterilization in which both.
(1) Small part of vas deferens is removed or tied up (3) Gets rid of pregnancy resulted due to failure of
(2) Ovaries are removed contraceptive
surgically (4) None of these
(3) Small part of the fallopian tube is removed or
90. Select the option which correctly fills up the blanks
tied up
in the following statements.
(4) Fallopian tubes and Uterus is removed (i) Destruction of embryo or foetus in the uterus is
surgically called ..........
(ii) Government of india legalised MTP in the year
86. A contraceptive measure that is placed below the
.............
skin in females .Select the correct option
(iii)............ is a copper releasing and ................ is a
regarding it
hormone releasing intra uterine devices.
(1) Copper T - IUD (2) Barrier - LNG 20
(1) i- foeticide, ii - 1961, iii-Multiload 375, LNG-20
(3) Progestasert - IUD (4) Implant - Norplant
(2) i- foeticide, ii - 1971, iii-Cu-7, LNG-20
87. Find correct match (3) i -foeticide, ii - 1965, iii-Multiload 375, CuT
(4) i- Suicide, ii - 1982, iii-Multiload 375, LNG-20

91. For a pregnancy of 20 weeks, what is true according

to Medical Ternination of Pregnancy Amendment
Act 2017?

(1) Opinion of only one registered medical

(1) A-R, B-P, C-Q, D-S (2) A-Q, B-R, C-P, D-S practitioner is required to allow the MTP

(3) A-P, B-R, C-Q, D-S (4) A-Q, B-P, C-R, D-S (2) Opinion of a Three registered medical
practitioner is required if pregnancy is a result
88. Which of the following approaches does not give the of rape
defined action of contraceptive? (3) Opinion of two registered medical practitioners
(1) Intra uterine devices - increase phagocytosis of is required to allow the MTP
sperms, suppress sperm motility and fertilizing (4) Opinion of only one registered medical
capacity of sperms practitioner is required if mother is mentally
(2) Hormonal contraceptives - Prevent/ retard unsound.
entry of sperms, prevent ovulation and
fertilization
92. Intentional or voluntary termination of pregnancy
before full term is called ...........
(3) Vasectomy prevents (4) Barrier methods -
spermatogenesis prevent fertilization (1) Medical transfer of (2) Medical terminal
pregnancy pregnancy
(3) Medical Termination (4) None of these
of Pregnancy

44
93. Nearly ............. MTPs are preformed in a year all 101. The following figure shows the uterine tubes of four
over the world. women (A, B, C and D). Out of them fertilization is
possible in which two women at present?
(1) 45 to 50 million (2) 45 to 50 billion
A-Partial blockage
(3) 45 to 50 hundreds (4) 45 to 50 lacs B-Complete blockage
C-Partial blockage
94. Government of India legalized MTP in the year
D-Cut and tied
............

(1) 1961 (2) 1971

(3) 1972 (4) 1951

95. MTPs are considered relatively safe during .............

trimester of pregnancy.
(1) A and B (2) A and C
(1) 2nd (2) 1st
(3) B and C (4) B and D
(3) 3rd (4) All of these
102. Which of the following doesnot provide effective
96. Misuse of aminocentesis has led to the misuse of contraception
...........
(1) Oral pills - Inhibit
(1) STD (2) MTP ovulation
(3) RTI (4) RCH (2) Implants - Release progestogens over long
periods
97. MTP is considered safe upto how many weeks in
pregnancy?
(3) Coitus interruptus - Withdrawal of penis from
vagina just after ejaculation
(1) 6 weeks (2) 8 weeks (4) Tubectomy - Removal of a portion of fallopian
(3) 12 weeks (4) 18 weeks tube.

98. The process of Amniocentesis involves analysis of 103. The correct surgical procedure for female as a
contraceptive method is:
(1) Amnion (2) Body fluids of
amniotes (1) Overictomy (2) Hysterectomy
(3) Amino acids of (4) Amniotic fluid (3) Vasectomy (4) Tubectomy
protein
104. Given below are four methods (a-d) and their modes
99. MTPs are harmful to mother and foetus during of action (p-s) in achieving contraception. Select
............. trimester of pregnancy. their correct matching from the four options that
follow
(1) 1st (2) 3rd
(3) 2nd (4) Unrelated

100. Select the incorrect statement.

(1) MTP in second trimester is much easier than

first trimester.
(2) Genital herpes is a
non curable STD.
(3) In GIFT, gametes are transferred in the (1) A-R, B-S, C-P, D-Q (2) A-R, B-P, C-S, D-Q
fallopian tubes (3) A-Q, B-R, C-P, D-S (4) A-S, B-P, C-Q, D-R
(4) Pelvic inflammatory diseases, still birth and
infertility are some of the complications of
STDs.

45
105. Match the following columns based on the figures 110. STDs may lead to complications like
given
(1) Abortions (2) Still birth
(3) Pelvic inflammatory (4) All of these
disease

111. Which of the following represents the correct match

of sexually transmitted disease with its pathogen?

(1) Syphilis - Treponema (2) Gonorrhoea -

pallidum Entamoeba
histalytica
(3) Urethritis - Bacillus (4) AIDS-Human
arthracis papilloma virus
(1) A-P; B-R; C-Q; D-S; (2) A-P; B-Q; C-R; D-S;
E-T E-T 112. Name the organism that causes a sexually
(3) A-P; B-Q; C-S; D-R; (4) A-T; B-Q; C-R; D-S; transmitted disease, that can affect both the male
E-T E-P and the female genitals and may damage the eyes of
babies born of infected mothers is
106. Match column- I and column-II and find the correct
answer.
(1) HIV (2) Treponema pallidum
(3) Neisseria gonorrhoea(4) hepatitis-B

113. Which of the following is correct regarding HIV,

hepatitis B, gonorrhoea, trichomoniasis?

(1) Trichomoniasis is an STD whereas others are

not.
(1) A-Q, B-P, C-R, D-S (2) A-R, B-S, C-P, D-Q (2) Gonorrhoea is a viral disease whereas others
(3) A-Q, B- S, C-R, D-P (4) A-S, B-Q, C-P, D-R are bacterial.

107. The process that involves semen without sperms

(3) HIV is a pathogen whereas others are diseases.
(4) Hepatitis B is eradicated completely whereas
others are not.

114. Which of the following STD is caused by protozoan?

(1) Trichomoniasis (2) AIDS

(3) Genital warts (4) Gonorrhoea
(1) X - vasectomy (2) X - Tubectomy
(3) Y-Vasectomy (4) Y- Tubectomy
115. Which of the following STDs cannot be treated with
antibiotics?
108. Diseases or infections which are transmitted through (1) Gonorrhoeal (2) Chancroid
sexual contact are called
(3) Chlamydia (4) Genital herpes
(1) Reproductive tract (2) Venereal diseases
infections (RTI) (VID) 116. Genital warts are due to sexually transmitted disease
spread by
(3) Sexually transmitted (4) All of the above
diseases (STDs) (1) Trichomonas (2) Herpes virus

109. Through all persons are vulnerable to STDs, their

(3) Papilloma virus (4) Hepatitis A

incidences are reported to be very high among

persons in the age group of

(1) 05-10 years (2) 18-29 years

(3) 21-40 years (4) 15-24 years

46
117. Which of the following is correct regarding AIDS, 123. To prevent STDs which of the following is not
hepatitis B, Neisseiria gonorrhoea, trichomoniasis? useful?

(1) Trichomoniasis is a STD whereas others are (1) Avoid sex with (2) Use of condoms
not. unknown partner during coitus
(2) Gonorrhoea is a viral disease whereas others (3) Use of oral pills (4) Avoid sex with
are bacterial. multiple partners
(3) Neisseiria gonorrhoea is a pathogen whereas
124. AIDS was reported for the first time in
others are diseases.
(4) AIDS is eradicated completely whereas others (1) India (2) Nigeria
are not. (3) Ghana (4) USA

118. Which of the following disease are not completely 125. Which of the following is not correctly matched
curable?
(1) Genital warts- Viral (2) Chlamydiasis-
(1) Hepatitis B (2) HIV disease Protozoan disease
(3) Genital herpes (4) All the above (3) Candidiasis-fungal (4) Syphilis-bacterial
disease disease
119. Given below is a list of few sexually transmitted
diseases. Identify the bacterial diseases 126. HIV attacks
(i) Gonorrhoea
(ii) AIDS
(1) RBCs (2) Blood platelets
(iii) Trichomoniasis (3) Helper T cells (4) B cells
(iv) Chancroid
(v) Syphilis
127. Which one of these STDS does not specifically affect
the sex organs?
(1) (i) and (ii) (2) (i), (iv) and (v)
(1) AIDS (2) Gonnorhoea
(3) (iii) and (v) (4) (ii), (iii) & (iv)
(3) Syphilis (4) Genital warts
120. The common means of transmission of AIDS is
128. Which one of the following statements is correct
(1) Placental transfer (2) Blood transfusion regarding Sexually Transmitted Diseases (STD)
(3) Sexual intercourse (4) All of these (1) The chances of a 5 year boy contacting a STD
are very little
121. Which of the following STDs completely curable?
(2) A person may contact syphilis by sharing milk
(1) Chlamydiasis, gonorrhoea, trichomoniasis with one already suffering from the disease
(2) Chancroid, syphilis, (3) AIDS, syphilis, (3) Heamophilia is one
genital warts hepatitis B of the STD
(4) AIDS, genital (4) Genital herpes and sickle - cell anaemia are
herpes, hepatitis B both STD

122. To avoid transmission of STDs we should 129. Given is a diagram of FRS with a medical condition.
(i) Avoid sex with multiple partners Identify
(ii) Use condoms during coitus
(iii) Avoid sex with unknown partners
(iv) Avoid sharing of needles

(1) (i), (ii), (iii) (2) (i), (iii),

(3) (i), (ii) (4) All of them

(1) Ectopic pregnancy (2) Tubal blockage

(3) Normal pregnancy (4) Fallopian tube
anomaly

47
130. Match the following and choose the correct option 137. Impotency and low sperm count can be corrected by

(1) Artificial (2) GIFT

insemination
(3) ICSI (4) ZIFT

138. Which one of the following cannot be considered as

Assisted Reproductive Technology?

(1) Zygote inta fallopian tube transfer (ZIFT)

(2) Gamete Intra (3) Medical Termination
(1) A-T, B-Q, C-P, D-R, (2) A-T, B-R, C-P, D-Q, Fallopian Transfer of Pregnancy (MTP)
E-S E-S (GIFT)
(3) A-T, B-Q, C-S, D-R, (4) A-T, B-R, C-S, D-Q, (4) Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection (ICSI)
E-P E-P
139. Match the column-I with column-II.
131. Infertility is the relative state of failure to conceive
after how many year/years of sexual life without
contraception?

(1) One (2) Three

(3) Two (4) Four

132. What is the popular name of IVF

(1) GIFT (2) Tubectomy (1) A-R, B-P, C-Q, D-S (2) A-Q, B-R, C-P, D-S
(3) Test tube baby (4) Amniocentesis (3) A-P, B-R, C-Q, D-S (4) A-Q, B-P, C-R, D-S

133. The technique called GIFT is recommended 140. Embryo with more than 16 blastomeres formed due
to in vitro fertilization is transferred into
(1) One (2) Three
(3) Two (4) Four (1) Cervix (2) Uterus
(3) Fallopian tube (4) Fimbriae
134. What is ZIFT?
141. Test tube baby can be described scientifically as
(1) Embryo transfer into (2) Zygote transfer into
the uterus fallopian tube (1) IVF followed by (2) ET followed by
(3) Mixture of sperms and ova into fallopian tube GIFT ZIFT

(4) Mixture of sperms (3) IVF followed by ET (4) ET followed by IVF

and ova into uterus
142. In which Assisted Reproductive Technologies
135. In-vitro fertilization is a technique that involves
(ART), the gametes are to be introduced into female
genital tract before fertilization.
transfer of which one of the following into the
fallopian tube (1) IVF & ZIFT (2) GIFT & ICSI
(1) Embryo of 32 cell (2) Embryo only, upto 8 (3) ICSI & AI (4) GIFT & AI
stage cell stage
143. The ART method used to rectify male infertility
(3) Either zygote or early embryo upto 8 cell stage
involving invitro fertilization is
(4) Zygote only
(1) ICSI (2) GIFT
136. Which is the method in which a sperm is directly (3) AI (4) Both (1) & (3)
injected into the ovum?

(1) GIFT (2) ICSI

(3) ZIFT (4) ET

48
144. In which ART technique the semen is artificially 151. The method of directly injecting a sperm into ovum
introduced into the female in Assisted Reproductive Technology is called:

(1) GIFT (2) IUI (1) GIFT (2) ZIFT

(3) IUT (4) ET (3) ICSI (4) ET

145. The ART method used to rectify male infertility 152. Increased IMR and decreased MMR in a population
involves invivo fertilization is will:

(1) ICSI (2) AI (1) Cause rapid increase (2) Result in decline in
(3) IVF (4) ZIFT in growth rate growth rate
(3) Not cause significant change in growth rate
146. A national level approach to build up a
(4) Result in an
reproductively healthy society was taken up in our
explosive population
country in:

(1) 1950s (2) 1960s 153. Intensely lactating mothers do not generally
conceive due to the:
(3) 1980s (4) 1990s
(1) Suppression of (2) Hyper secretion of
147. Condoms are one of the most popular contraceptives gonadotropins gonadotropins
because of the following reasons:
(3) Suppression of (4) Suppression of
(1) These are effective barriers for insemination gametic transport fertilisation
(2) They do not interfere (3) These help in
154. Diaphragms are contraceptive devices used by the
with coital act reducing the risk of
females. Choose the correct option from the
STDs
statements given below:
(4) All of the above i. They are introduced into the uterus
ii. They are placed to cover the cervical region
148. Choose the right one among the statements given
iii. They act as physical barriers for sperm entry
below:
iv. They act as spermicidal agents
(1) IUDs are generally inserted by the user herself
(1) i and ii (2) i and iii
(2) IUDs increase phagocytosis reaction in the
(3) ii and iii (4) iii & iv
uterus
(3) IUDS suppress (4) IUDs once inserted 155. Emergency contraceptives are effective if used
gametogenesis need not be replaced within:

149. The correct surgical procedure as a contraceptive (1) 72 hrs of coitus (2) 72 hrs of ovulation
method is: (3) 72 hrs of (4) 72 hrs of
menstruation implantation
(1) Ovariectomy (2) Hysterectomy
(3) Vasectomy (4) Castration 156. Sterilisation techniques are generally full proof
methods of contraception with least side effects. Yet,
150. Following statements are given regarding MTP. this is the last option for the couples because:
Choose the correct options given below: i. It is almost irreversible
i. MTPs are generally advised during first trimester ii. Of the misconception that it will increase sexual
ii. MTPs are used as a contraceptive method urge
iii. MTPs are always surgical iii. It is a surgical procedure
iv. MTPS require the assistance of qualified medical iv. It block semen & ova passage in male and female.
personnel Choose the correct option:
(1) ii and iii (2) ii and iii (1) i and iii (2) ii and iii
(3) i and iv (4) i and ii (3) ii and iv (4) i, iii and iv

49
157. From the sexually transmitted diseases mentioned 161. The assisted reproductive technology, IVF involves
below, identify the one which does not specifically transfer of
affect the sex organs:
(1) Ovum into the (2) Zygote into the
(1) Syphilis (2) AIDS fallopian tube fallopian tube
(3) Gonorrhea (4) Genital warts (3) Zygote into the
uterus
158. Choose the correct statement regarding the ZIFT
(4) Embryo with 16 blastomeres in the fallopian
procedure:
tube
(1) Ova collected from a female donor are
transferred to the fallopian tube to facilitate 162. Tubectomy is a surgical method of contraception in
zygote formation. which

(2) Zygote is collected from a female donor and (1) Ovaries are (2) Uterus is surgically
transferred to the fallopian tube surgically removed removed
(3) Ova from donor and sperms are collected (3) Small part of vas deferens is removed or tied
fertilized invitro and are transferred to (4) Small part of fallopian tube is removed or tied
fallopian tube.
(4) Ova collected from a female donor and 163. Which of the following is not a feature of ideal
transferrerd to the uterus contraceptive?

159. Assertion: Surgical methods prevent conception.

(1) User friendly (2) Poor reversibility

Reason: Surgical intervention facilitates gamete (3) No side effects

transport. (4) Does not interfere with the sexual desire of the
user.
(1) If both assertion and reasons are true and the
reason is the correct explanation of the 164. Which of the following barrier contraceptive of
assertion. females can prevent against sexually transmitted
(2) If both assertion and reason are true, but infections?
reason is not the correct explanation of the
assertion
(1) Cervical cap (2) Vaginal vault

(3) If assertion is true, but reason is false.

(3) Diaphragm (4) Femidom (female
condom)
(4) If both assertion and
reason are false. 165. Assertion: In India IUDs like copper-T is one of
most widely accepted method of contraception.
160. Match the column-I with Column-II Reason: It can be self inserted by the user.

(1) Assertion and reason both are true and the

reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Assertion and reason both are true but reason
is not correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but (4) Assertion and reason
reason is wrong. both are wrong.
(1) A-Q; B-S,P; C-R,T (2) A-R; B-S,P; C-Q,T
(3) A-R; B-P,Q; C-S,T (4) A-R; B-P,T; C-Q,R

50
 1 D 43 A 85 C 127 A
2 D 44 D 86 D 128 A
3 A 45 D 87 B 129 A
4 D 46 A 88 C 130 B
5 B 47 A 89 D 131 C
6 D 48 C 90 B 132 C
7 D 49 B 91 C 133 A
8 D 50 B 92 C 134 B
9 D 51 D 93 A 135 C
10 A 52 B 94 B 136 B
11 B 53 B 95 B 137 A
12 B 54 B 96 B 138 C
13 B 55 B 97 C 139 C
14 D 56 A 98 D 140 B
15 C 57 C 99 C 141 C
16 D 58 D 100 A 142 D
17 C 59 D 101 B 143 D
18 C 60 C 102 C 144 B
19 C 61 B 103 D 145 B
20 C 62 C 104 B 146 A
21 B 63 B 105 B 147 D
22 D 64 A 106 C 148 B
23 D 65 B 107 A 149 C
24 D 66 B 108 D 150 C
25 C 67 D 109 D 151 C
26 D 68 B 110 D 152 C
27 C 69 B 111 A 153 A
28 B 70 D 112 C 154 C
29 C 71 A 113 C 155 A
30 A 72 C 114 A 156 D
31 C 73 B 115 D 157 B
32 C 74 D 116 C 158 C
33 A 75 C 117 C 159 C
34 B 76 B 118 D 160 B
35 B 77 C 119 B 161 B
36 D 78 C 120 D 162 D
37 D 79 C 121 D 163 B
38 B 80 D 122 D 164 D
39 B 81 D 123 C 165 C
40 B 82 B 124 D
41 B 83 C 125 B
42 B 84 C 126 C
51
 PRINCIPLES OF INHERITANCE AND
VARIATION
1. Select the correct statement. 7. Which traits were not chosen by Mendel?
A. Variation is the degree by which progeny differ
from their parents.
(1) Flower position - (2) Seed shape - round
terminal
B. Humans knew from as early as 8000-1000 A.D..
that one of the causes of variation was hidden in (3) Flower colour - (4) Pod colour - pink
sexual reproduction. white

(1) Only A is correct (2) Only B is correct 8. Mark the not true statement w.r.t true breeding line
(3) Both are correct (4) Both are incorrect done by Mendel

2. The botanical name of garden pea is

(1) Shows the stable (2) Shows unstable trait
trait inheritance inheritance
(1) Lathyrus odoratus (2) Mangifera indica (3) Undergone (4) Both (1) & (3)
(3) Pisum sativum (4) Solanum tuberosum continuous self-
pollination
3. How many pairs of contrasting characters in pea
plants were studied by Mendel in his experiments 9. The cross between two parents differing in one
contrasting character is called ............
(1) 2 (2) 9
(3) 5 (4) 7 (1) Dihybrid cross (2) Monohybrid cross
(3) Pleoitropy (4) Multiple allelism
4. Find the correct statement w.r.t. Mendel's
investigations into inheritance 10. When a true breeding Tall pea plant is pollinated by
a true breeding dwarf plant then all the F₁ plants will
(1) It was for the first time that statistical analysis
be tall. This means that the allele for tall is
and mathematical logic were applied to
problems in biology. (1) Heterozygous (2) Recessive
(2) His experiments had a small sampling size, (3) Dominant (4) Co-dominant
which gave greater credibility to the data that
he collected. 11. The allele which does not express in the F1
generation in presence of another allele is
(3) The confirmation of his inferences from
experiments on successive generations of his (1) Dominant (2) Co-dominant
test plants, proved that his results pointed to (3) Incompletely (4) Recessive
general rules of inheritance rather than being dominant
unsubstantiated ideas.
(4) Both 1 & 3 12. What are the chemical and physical factors that
induce mutations called?
5. Mendel investigated characters in the garden pea
plant that were manifested as traits
(1) Mutagens (2) Oncogens
(3) Mutants (4) Mitogens
(1) Three similar (2) Three opposing
(3) Two similar (4) Two opposing 13. The physical appearance and genetic constitution of
a character is called .......... and ............ respectively
6. The dominant flower colour in Pea is
(1) Genotype, (2) Phenotype only
(1) Pink (2) White Phenotype
(3) Yellow (4) Violet (3) Phenotype, (4) Genotype only
Genotype

52
14. Select the most appropriate option 20. Based on observations on monohybrid crosses
A. It is convenient (and logical) to use the capital Mendel proposed two general rules. They are
and lower case of an alphabetical symbol to
remember this concept of dominance and
(1) Law of Dominance and Law of Segregation.

recessiveness (2) Law of In Dominance and Law of Segregation.

B. Alleles can be similar as in the case of (3) Law of CoDominance and Law of Segregation.
homozygotes Tt and tt or can be dissimilar as in the (4) Law of Independent assortment and Law of
case of the heterozygote TT Segregation.
(1) A is correct (2) Both are correct
21. Diploid cells have
(3) B is correct (4) Both are incorrect
(1) Two chromosomes (2) Two sets of
15. If a cross is made between AA and aa, the nature of chromosomes
F₁ progeny will be (3) One set of (4) Two pairs of
(1) Genotypically Aa, (2) Genotypically aa, chromosomes homologous
phenotypically a phenotypically A chromosomes

(3) Genotypically Aa, (4) Genotypically AA, 22. If a plant is heterozygous for tallness is selfed, the F₂
phenotypically A phenotypically a generation has both tall and dwarf plants. This
proves the principle of:
16. What features can be understood from Punnett
Square? (1) Dominance (2) Incomplete
dominance
(1) Formation of the (2) Production of
zygotes gametes by the (3) Segregation (4) Independent
parents assortment

(3) Production of gametes by the F₁ and F₂ plants 23. The phenotypic and genotypic ratio in case of
(4) All of them Incomplete dominance will be

17. Graphical representation to calculate the probability (1) 1:2:2 (2) 1:2:1
of all possible genotype of an offspring in genetic (3) 1:3 (4) 3:1
cross is called
24. Incomplete dominance and co dominance is similar
(1) Bunett square (2) Punnett square in having identical
(3) Punnett rectangle (4) Mendel square
(1) Phenotypic ratio (2) Genotypic ratio
18. How would you test a Pea plant whether it is a pure (3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of the above
or hybrid for tallness?
25. When there are more than two alleles controlling the
(1) Cross the pea plant with a pure tall Pea plant same character. There are called
(2) Cross the pea plant with another tall pea plant
unknown genotype
(1) Pleiotropy (2) Polyalleles

(3) Cross the pea plant

(3) Multiple alleles (4) All of these
with any Pea plant 26. ABO blood grouping in human being cites the
(4) Cross the pea plant with a homozygous dwarf example of
Pea
(1) Polygenic inheritance(2) Co-dominnance
19. A cross involving F1 hybrid and a double recessive (3) Multiple allelism (4) Both 2 and 3
parent is called:
27. Law of independent assortment can be proved by
(1) Dihybrid cross (2) Multiple cross
(3) Trihybrid cross (4) Test cross
(1) Back cross (2) Test cross
(3) Dihybrid cross (4) Monohybrid cross

53
28. Match the columns I and II. 35. Sutton united the knowledge of chromosomal
segregation with Mendelian principles and called it
the ..........

(1) Nuclear theory of (2) Nucleolar theory of

inheritance inheritance
(1) A-R, B-P, C-Q (2) A-Q, B-R, C-P
(3) Chromosomal theory(4) Sex chromosomal
(3) A-P. B-R, C-Q (4) A-Q, B-P, C-R of inheritance theory of inheritance

29. Law of independent assortment is always true or 36. Linkage means

applicable if two genes are located on
(1) Chemical association of genes on a
(1) Same chromosome (2) Different chromosome
chromosomes
(2) Biochemical association of genes on a
(3) Same locus of (4) Different locus of chromosome
different same chromosome
chromosomes
(3) Physiological association of genes on a
chromosome
30. Total 512 seeds are collected from the cross WwYy x (4) Physical association of genes on a chromosome
WwYy. Find the number of plants produced with
first dominant and second recessive trait. 37. In a dihybrid test cross, if the parental types exceed
the recombination types among the resultant
(1) 96 (2) 288 progeny, it is due to
(3) 320 (4) 32
(1) Complete linkage (2) Linkage
31. A human male produces sperms with the genotypes (3) Crossing-over (4) Indepenent
AB, Ab, aB and ab pertaining to two dynamic assortment
characters in equal proportions. What is the
corresponding genotype of the person? 38. Linkage reduces the frequency of

(1) AaBb (2) AaBB (1) All parental types (2) Hybrids

(3) AABB (4) AABb (3) Heterozygous (4) Homozygous

recessive parents recessive parents
32. How many genetically different gametes will be
produced by a heterozygous plant having the 39. Chromosome maps were first constructed by
genotype Aa Bb Cc? (1) Morgan (2) Sulton and Boveri
(1) 4 (2) 12 (3) Hugo de vries (4) Sturtevant
(3) 16 (4) 8
40. The map distance between genes A and B is 3 units
33. What concept do the following sentences explain? between B and C is 10 units and between C and A is
i. Human height is an eg, of this trait 7 units. The order of the genes in a linkage map
ii. Human skin colour is another classic example for constructed on the above data will possibly be
this (1) A, B, C (2) B, A, C
iii. It takes into account the influence of environment
iv. In this trait,the effect of each allele is additive
(3) A, C, B (4) B, C, A

(1) Multiple allelism (2) Pleiotropy 41. Today genetic maps are extensively used as a starting
point in the sequencing of whole genomes in ...........
(3) Polygenic inheritance(4) Codominance
(1) Human Genome (2) Human Genetics
34. Two alternative forms of a gene do not blend with Process Project
each other and maintain its discrete nature it is
explained by
(3) Human Nuclear (4) Human Genome
Project Project
(1) Law of dominance (2) Law of segregation
(3) Law of independent (4) Unit of hypothesis
assortment

54
42. Genetic maps are beneficial as they were 48. A medical technician while observing a human blood
smear under the microscope notes the presence of
(1) Extensively used as a starting point in the
barr body close to the nuclear membrane in the
sequencing of whole genomes
WBC. This indicates that person under investigation
(2) It helps to measure the distance between genes is
(3) Mapping the position of genes on
(1) Normal female (2) Colourblind
chromosomes
(4) All the above
(3) Haemophilic (4) Normal male

43. Pleiotropic genes shows

49. An offspring formed from the union of a sperm and
an egg develops as a .........., and an unfertilised egg
(1) One gene regulates many phenotypic characters develops as a ............ by means of parthenogenesis.
(2) One gene one (3) Multiple allelism (1) Queen or worker, (2) Only queen, drone
character drone
(4) Polygenic inheritance (3) Drone, queen or (4) Only worker, drone
worker
44. The initial clue about the genetic/chromosomal
mechanism of sex determination can be traced back 50. The unfertilised eggs in honeybees develop into
to some of the experiments carried out in
(1) Worker (2) Queen
(1) Birds (2) Humans
(3) Males (4) 1 and 3
(3) Fishes (4) Insects
51. Which of the following male animals is NOT
45. In XO type of sex determination. heterogametic?
(1) Females produce two different types of gametes (1) Animal - Fowl , Chromosome complement - 2n
(2) Male produce two different types of gametes = 14 + XX
(3) Females produce gametes with Y chromosome (2) Animal - Fruit fly , Chromosome complement -
(4) Males produce 2n = 6 + XY
gametes with Y (3) Animal - Human , Chromosome complement -
chromosome 2n = 44 + XY
(4) Animal - Grasshopper , Chromosome
46. In the following identify A, B, C, D correctly w.r.t.
complement - 2n =16+X0
Drosophila
52. Mutation is a phenomenon which results in
alteration of DNA sequences and consequently
results in changes in the

(1) Only genotype (2) Only Phenotype

(1) A-XX, B-male, C- (2) A-XY, B-male, C- (3) Affects genotype sometimes but phenotype is
female, D-XY female, D-XX never affected
(3) A-XY, B-female, C - (4) OA-XX, B-female, (4) Genotype and the
male, D-XX C-male, D-XY phenotype

47. Heterogamety is seen in 53. A mutation is a

(1) Male fruit fly, male (2) Male butterfly (1) Change in phenotype followed by a change in
humans genotype.
(3) Female human and (4) Male birds (2) Sudden temporary change in an organism's
male human genetic material.
(3) Change in genotype which may result in a new
expression of a characteristic.
(4) Change in hereditary material never directed by
a changing environment

55
54. Which of the folowing phenomena leads to variation 62. Which one of the following is hereditary character of
in DNA? blood?

(1) Linkage, mutation (2) Recombination, (1) Nucleus (2) Haem

linkage (3) Blood group (4) None of these
(3) Mutation, (4) Aneuploidy, linkage
recombination 63. Double lines in pedigree analysis show:

55. Absence or excess or abnormal arrangement of one

(1) Consanguineous (2) Normal mating
marriage
or more chromosomes results in
(3) Sex unspecified (4) Unaffected offspring
(1) Point mutation (2) Chromosomal
disorders 64. Match the columns I and II with respect to Pedigree
(3) Mendelian disorders (4) Gene mutation analysis.

56. Chromosomal aberrations are commonly observed

in

(1) Stomach cells (2) Healthy cells

(3) Cancer cells (4) Normal cells

57. Which of the following statements about mutations (1) A-R, B-P, C-Q, D-S (2) A-Q, B-R, C-P, D-S
is false? (3) A-P, B-R, C-Q, D-S (4) A-Q, B-P, C-R, D-S
(1) Organisms are able to create mutations to meet
their specific needs
65. Which one is the incorrect match?

(2) Mutations are the source of new alleles for (1) (2)
genes.
(3) (4)
(3) Most mutations tend to be harmful or have no
effect on organisms.
(4) Mutations are random events and can 66. The symbol used inpedigree chart to represent
happen in any cell at any time consanguieous mating?

(1) (2)
58. Pedigree analysis is the study of particular traits in

(1) A several generation (2) Two generation only

(3) Two species (4) Two families

59. Pedigree chart is used to identify: (3) (4)

(1) Genetic drift (2) Genetic diversity
(3) Genetic diseases (4) Genetic mutation

60. In Down's syndrome of a male child, the sex

complement is
67. Broadly, genetic disorders may be grouped into two
(1) XO (2) XY categories -
(3) XX (4) XXY
(1) Morganian disorders & Mendelian disorders
61. In human genetics, pedigree study provides a strong (2) Mendelian disorders and Chromosomal
tool, which is utilised to trace the inheritance of disorders
(1) A specific trait (2) Abnormality (3) Morganian disorders and Chromosomal
disorders
(3) Disease (4) All of them
(4) Morganian disorders
and Gene disorders

56
68. Mendelian disorders are mainly determined by 76. Gene for colour blindness is located on
alteration or mutation in the
(1) X-chromosomes (2) Y-chromosomes
(1) Single codon (2) Single base (3) 21 st chromosomes (4) 13 th chromosomes
(3) Multiple gene (4) Single gene
77. A colourblind daughter is born when
69. The pattern of inheritance of Mendelian disorders
(1) Mother is carrier,
can be traced in a family by the ----------
father is normal
(1) Ishiharas chart (2) Mother is carrier, father is colourblind.
(2) Physical examination of the head of the family (3) Father is (4) Mother is
(3) Pedigree analysis (4) ELISA test colourblind, mother colourblind, father is
is normal normal
70. Which of the following are Mendelian disorders?

(1) Haemophilia, Cystic (2) Phenylketonuria,

78. Abnormal woman whose father was colourblind, is
married to a normal man. The sons would be
fibrosis Thalassemia
(3) Sicklecell anaemia, (4) All of them (1) 75% colourblind (2) All normal
Colour blindness (3) 50% colourblind (4) All colourblind

71. Which of the following is not a hereditary disease? 79. .............. is an example of X-linked recessive trait

(1) Cystic fibrosis (2) Phenylketonuria (1) Hemophilia (2) Colur blindness
(3) Haemophilia (4) Cretinism (3) Cystic fibrosis (4) Both 1&2

72. If a character is always transmitted directly from a 80. Match the columns I and II with its chromosome
father to all his sons and from their sons to all their complement.
sons, then which chromosome carries the gene for
the character?

(1) X-Chromosome (2) Y-Chromosome

(3) Autosome (4) None of these
(1) A-R, B-P, C-Q (2) A-Q, B-R, C-P
73. Which one of the following statements is wrong? (3) A-P, B-R, C-Q (4) A-Q, B-P, C-R

(1) There are six different genotypes of the human 81. A daughter will not normally be colour blind, unless
ABO blood types. her mother is a--------- and her father is---------
(2) ABO blood grouping provides a good example
(1) Colour blind, carrier (2) Carrier, carrier
of multiple alleles.
(3) Mendelian disorders cannot be traced in a
(3) Colour blind,colour (4) Carrier, colour blind
blind
family by the pedigree analysis.
(4) The genetic make-up of the sperm determines 82. Mark the correct match.
the sex of the child.
(1) Turner's syndrome - (2) Phenylketonuria -
74. In human genetic counseling, which one of the 44+ XO 44+XYY
following techniques is employed? (3) Klinefelter's (4) Downs - 44 + XXY
syndrome - 44+ XX
(1) Polyploidy (2) Amniocentesis
(3) Genetic engineering (4) Pedigree analysis 83. Colour blindness occurs in about 8 per cent of males
and only about 0.4 per cent of females. This
75. Persons who are colourblind cannot distinguish statements explains that
(1) Yellow and white (2) Red and green (1) Males have two X (2) Males have only one
colour colour chromosome X chromosome
(3) Black and white (4) Yellow and blue (3) Females have no X (4) Females have only
colour colour chromosome one X chromosome

57
84. In Phenylketonuria, what is poorly absorbed in 91. A man having Klinefelter's syndrome is
kidney?
(1) Intersex with secondary sexual characters on
(1) Homogentisic acid (2) Phenylpyruvic acid the side of female
(3) Phenylalanine (4) Tyrosine (2) Female with secondary sexual characters of
male
85. In which of the following disorder's affected
(3) Male with secondary sexual characters of
individual's possess 45 chromosomes?
female
(1) Turner's syndrome (2) Klinefelter's (4) Normal fertile male
syndrome
(3) Down's syndrome (4) Both (2) & (3) 92. Which of the following is an eg of single gene
mutation?
86. If mother is a carrier for colour blindness and father
(1) Downs syndrome (2) Sickle cell anaemia
is normal, then in the offsprings this disease may be
seen in (3) Phenylketonuria (4) Both 2&3

(1) 50% sons and 50% (2) All the sons and not 93. Name the disease in which a single protein that is a
daughters (carriers) in daughters part of the cascade of proteins involved in the
(3) All the daughters (4) All the sons clotting of blood is affected?

87. Phenylketonuria is caused by mutation in the gene

(1) Haemophilia (2) Sickle cell anemia

that codes for the enzyme (3) Beta-thalasemia (4) Color blindness

(1) Phenyl alanine (2) Phenyl alanine 94. The condition in which there are more than two set
oxidase hydroxylase of chromosomes is called
(3) Phenyl alanine (4) Alanine hydroxylase (1) Polytene (2) Aneuploidy
hydrogenase
(3) Monoploidy (4) Polyploidy
88. A person affected with phenylketonuria, lacks an
95. Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive trait in
enzyme that converts the amino acid phenylalanine
humans. If a father is normal and the son is
into
haemophilic, but the mother is normal, her genotype
(1) Valine (2) Glutamic acid must be
(3) Phenylalanine (4) Tyrosine (1) XX (2) XʰX

89. Due to nondisjunction of chromosomes during (3) XʰXʰ (4) XY

spermatogenesis, sperms carry both sex
chromosomes (22A+XY) some sperms do not carry
96. Number of autosomes present in in skin cells of a
human female is
any sex chromosomes (22A+0). If these sperms
fertilize normal eggs (22+X). What types of genetic (1) 22 autosomes (2) 22 pairs
disorders appear among offsprings: (3) 23 autosomes (4) 23 pairs
(1) Down syndrome and (2) Down syndrome and
Klinefelter syndrome Turner syndrome
97. Match the columns I and II

(3) Klinefelter syndrome and Turner syndrome

(4) Down syndrome and
Cri-du-chat
syndrome (1) A-R. B-P. C-Q (2) A-Q, B-R, C-P

90. Haemophillic man marries a normal woman. Their

(3) A-P. B-R. C-Q (4) A-Q, B-P. C-R
offsprings will be

(1) All boys (2) All haemophillic

haemophillic
(3) All girls (4) All normal

58
98. Failure of cytokinesis after telophase stage of cell 105. Cystic fibrosis, Myotonic dystrophy and
division results in an increase in a whole set of Thalassemia are
organism. The phenomenon is called as
(1) Chromosomal (2) Autosomal recessive
(1) Haploidy (2) Aneuploidy disorders disorders
(3) Polyploidy (4) Diploidy (3) Mendelian disorders (4) Autosomal dominant
disorders
99. The incorrect statement with regard to haemophilia
is 106. Name the autosome-linked recessive blood disease
transmitted from parents to the offspring?
(1) It is a recessive (2) It is an Autosomal
disease disease (1) Cystic fibrosis (2) Phenylketonuria
(3) A single protein involved in the clotting of (3) Thalasemina (4) colour blindness
blood is affected
(4) It is a sex-linked
107. Match the columns I and II

disease

100. Select the incorrect statement with respect

toPhenylketonuria
I. Accumulation of pyruvic acid in brain. results in
mental retardation.
(1) A-R, B-P, C-Q (2) A-Q, B-R, C-P
II. Phenylpyruvic acid are also excreted through
urine because of its poor absorption by kidney. (3) A-P, B-R, C-Q (4) A-Q, B-P, C-R

(1) I (2) II 108. α Thalassemia is controlled by two closely linked

(3) Both (4) None genes

(1) HBB (2) HBA2

101. Aneuploidy is
(3) HBA1 (4) HBA1 and HBA2
(1) Gain of chromosome (2) Loss of chromosome
(3) Gain of a gene (4) Both (1) and (2) 109. The family pedigree of Queen Victoria shows a
number of descendents as she was a carrier of the
102. Mark the correct statements. disease.
i. β Thalassemia is controlled by a gene on
(1) Thalesemia (2) Haemophilic
chromosome 11 of each parent
ii. αThalassemia is controlled by genes on (3) Colour blind (4) Sickle cell anaemia
chromosome 16 of each parent
110. Select the incorrect statement with respect to
(1) Only i is correct (2) Only ii is correct Sickle-cell anemia
(3) Both are correct (4) Both are incorrect a. It is an eg. of lethal gene
b. It involves the 11th chromosome
103. Mark the correct statements. c. All the carriers die when they are born
i. Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive disease d. Under low oxygen tension, RBCs break due to
ii. Sickle cell anaemia is an X-linked recessive gene sickle formation
disorder
(1) Only a (2) Only c
ill. Phenylketonuria is an autosomal recessive gene
disorder (3) Only b (4) Only d

(1) i only (2) I and II is correct

(3) I and III is correct (4) All are correct

104. β Thalassemia is controlled by a single gene

(1) HBB (2) HBAI

(3) HBA2 (4) HBA1 and HBA2

59
111. Select the correct statement 116. The mutant haemoglobin molecule in Sickle cell
a. Thalassemia is a qualitative problem of anaemia undergoes polymerisation under ...........
synthesising too few globin molecule oxygen tension causing the change in the shape of
b. Sickle-cell anaemia is a qualitative problem of the ............ from biconcave disc to elongated sickle
synthesising an incorrectly functioning globin like structure

(1) a (2) b (1) Low, RBC (2) High, RBC

(3) Both (4) Select the correct (3) Low, WBC (4) High, WBC
statement
None 117. Mendel's law of segregation, is applied to the
behaviour of chromosomes in meiosis, means that
112. Sickle-cell anemia is caused by the substitution of
(1) Pairing of homologues will convert one allele
........ by ........ at the ....... position of the ........ globin
into the other, leading to separation of the
chain of the hemoglobin molecule.
types.
(1) Valine, glutamic (2) Glutamic acid, (2) Genes on the same chromosome will show 50%
acid, sixth, beta valine, sixth, alpha recombination.
(3) Glutamic acid, (4) Valine, glutamic (3) Alleles of a gene will be linked and passed on
valine, sixth, beta acid, sixth, alpha together through meiosis.

113. In sickle cell anemia, the sequence of amino acids (4) Alleles of a gene separate from each other when
from the first to the seventh position of the beta- homologues separate in meiosis I.
chain of hemoglobin's is
118. In the human ABO blood system, the alleles A and B
(1) His, Leu, Thr, Pro, (2) Val, His, Leu, Thr, are dominant to O. What will be number of different
Glu, Val, Val Pro, Glu, Glu possible genotype?
(3) Thr, His, Pro, Val, (4) Val, His, Leu, Thr, (1) 4 (2) 12
Pro, Val, Glu Pro, Val, Glu
(3) 6 (4) 8
114. Sickle-cell anaemia is an ..................
119. Which of the following Statements are TRUE?
(1) Autosome linked (2) Sex-linked dominat i. A recessive allele is weaker than a dominant allele
dominat trait trait ii. A recessive allele do not show its effects when
(3) Autosome linked (4) Sex-linked recessive paired with a dominant allele
recessive trait trait iii. A dominant allele is always better for an
organism
115. A couple has two babies and each is found to be a iv. A dominant allele determines the phenotype
carrier of the sickle-cell trait. Which of the following when paired with a recessive allele
statements regarding the described situation cannot
be true?
(1) ii, iii and iv (2) ii and iv
(3) i, ii and iii (4) i, iii and iv
(1) Mother is the carrier of the disease while the
father is the sufferer of the disease. 120. One child is haemophilic (sex- linked trait) whereas
(2) Father is the carrier of the disease while the his fraternal twin brother is normal. Which one of
mother is the sufferer of the disease the following informations is most appropriate?

(3) Both the mother and the father are sufferers of (1) The child is a (2) The haemophilic
the disease monozygotic twin child is male
(4) Both the mother and the father are carrier (3) The other child is a female and the father is
of the disease haemophilic
(4) The mother must
have been
heterozygous

60
121. A man suffering from a disease marries a normal 129. Mendel's Law of independent assortment holds good
woman and they have 5 daughters diseased and 3 for genes situated on the:
sons normal. All the daughters inherit the disease.
The disease is
(1) Non-homologous (2) Homologous
chromosomes chromosomes
(1) Sex linked dominant (2) Sex linked recessive (3) Extra nuclear genetic (4) Same chromosome
(3) Sex limited (4) Autosomal dominant element

122. A dwarf pea plant was treated with GA. The plant 130. Mother and father of a person with 'O' blood group
became tall. The treated plant was then crossed with have 'A' and 'B' blood group, respectively. What
a homozygous tall pea. The results in F₂ are expected would be the genotype of both mother and father?
to be
(1) Mother is homozygous for 'A' blood group and
(1) Tall and dwarf in 3:1 (2) All tall father is heterozygous for 'B'
ratio (2) Mother is heterozygous for 'A' blood group and
(3) All dwarf (4) 50% dwart father is homozygous for 'B'

123. Conditions of a karyotype 2n +1, 2n-1 and 2n +2,

(3) Both mother and father are heterozygous for
'A' and 'B' blood group, respectively
2n-2 are called:
(4) Both mother and father are homozygous for 'A'
(1) Aneuploidy (2) Polyploidy and 'B' blood group, respectively
(3) Allopolyploidy (4) Monosomy
131. In the F₂ generation of a Mendelian dihybrid cross
124. If a genetic disease is transferred from a the number of phenotypes and genotypes are:
phenotypically normal but carrier female to only
some of the male progeny, the disease is:
(1) Phenotypes - 4; (2) Phenotypes 9;
genotypes - 16 genotypes - 4
(1) Autosomal dominant(2) Autosomal recessive (3) Phenotypes - 4; (4) Phenotypes - 4;
(3) Sex-linked dominant (4) Sex-linked recessive genotypes - 8 genotypes - 9

125. A cross between two tall plants resulted in offspring 132. Statement-A: Drones are produced by sexual
having few dwarf plants. What would be the reproduction in honey bees.
genotypes of both the parents? Statement-B: Worker bee is a product of
parthenogenesis.
(1) TT and Tt (2) Tt and Tt
(3) TT and TT (4) Tt and tt (1) Statement-A is (2) Statement-B is
correct. correct.
126. Which of the following will not result in variations (3) Both statements are (4) Both statements are
among siblings? correct. incorrect.
(1) Independent (2) Crossing over
133. Statement-A: Thalassemia is a qualitative disorder.
assortment of genes
Statement-B In Thalassemia the alpha. and beta
(3) Linkage (4) Mutation chain of globin is defective

127. Occasionally, a single gene may express more than (1) Statement-A is (2) Statement-B is
one effect. The phenomenon is called: correct. correct.

(1) Multiple allelism (2) Mosaicism

(3) Both statements are (4) Both statements are
correct. incorrect.
(3) Pleiotropy (4) Polygeny

128. The inheritance pattern of a gene over generations

among humans is studied by pedigree analysis.
Character studied in the pedigree analysis is
equivalent to:

(1) Quantitative trait (2) Polygenic trait

(3) Mendelian trait (4) Maternal trait

61
134. Statement-A: In humans, gamete contributed by the 139. Chromosomes were first seen by
male determines whether the child produced will be
male or female.
(1) Flemming (2) Waldeyer

Statement-B: Y- bearing sperm and egg contributes (3) Strasburger (4) Hofmeister
to a male child.
140. Two non-allelic genes produce the new phenotype
(1) Statement-A is (2) Statement-B is when present together but fail to do so
correct correct independently, it is called
(3) Both statements are (4) Both statements are (1) Epistasis (2) Non-complementary
correct. incorrect. gene

135. Assertion: In brids the sex of the young ones is (3) Polygene (4) Complementary gene
determined by the sex chromosomes of the mother.
Reason: Mother has ZW sex chromosomes
141. In his experiments, Mendel obtained wrinkled pea.
The wrinkling was due to deposition of sugar instead
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and of starch. This happened due to the?
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(1) Amylase enzyme (2) Absence of starch
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but branching enzyme
Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion.
(3) Invertase enzyme (4) Diastase enzyme

(3) Assertion is true but (4) Both Assertion and 142. The genes controlling the seven pea characters
Reason is false. Reason are false. studied by Mendel are known to be located on how
many different chromosomes?
136. Assertion: In a monohybrid cross, we study two
characters. (1) Four (2) Five
Reason: In a monohybrid cross, alleles exhibit (3) Six (4) Seven
recessive relationship.
143. Which of the following conditions in human is
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and correctly matched with its chromosomal
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion. abnormality/linkage?
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but
Reason is not the correct explanation of
(1) Klienefelter's syndrome -44 autosomes + XXY
Assertion. (2) Down's syndrome (3)Erythroblastosisfoetalis
(3) Assertion is true but (4) Both Assertion and
-44 autosomes +XO - X linked
Reason is false. Reason are false. (4) Colour blindness - Y
linked
137. Assertion: Both Down's syndrome and Turner's
syndrome are examples of aneuploidy. 144. Which of the following statements is not true of two
Reason: Both Down's syndrome and Turner's genes that show 50 % recombination frequency?
syndrome have one extra chromosome.
(1) The genes may be on different chromosomes
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and (2) The gene show
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion. independent
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but assortment
Reason is not the correct explanation of (3) If the genes are present on the same
Assertion. chromosome, they undergo more than one
(3) Assertion is true but (4) Both Assertion and crossovers in every meiosis
Reason is false. Reason are false. (4) The genes are tightly
linked
138. The literal meaning of chromosome is

(1) Genetic body (2) Coloured body

(3) Replicating body (4) Thread-like body

62
145. Alleles are : 151. How many true breeding pea plant varieties did
Mendel select as pairs, which were similar except in
(1) Different phenotype (2) Different molecular
one character with contrasting traits?
forms of a gene
(3) Heterozygotes (4) True breeding (1) 2 (2) 14
homozygotes (3) 8 (4) 4

146. A pleiotropic gene 152. Which of the following pairs is wrongly matched?

(1) Controls a trait only in combination with (1) XO type sex: (2) ABO blood
another gene Grasshopper grouping: Co-
(2) Is expressed only in determination dominance
primitive plants (3) Starch synthesis in pea: Multiple alleles
(3) Controls multiple traits in an individual (4) Morgan: Linkage
(4) Is a gene evolved
153. What map unit (Centimorgan) is adopted in the
during Pliocene.
construction of genetic maps?
147. Among the following characters, which one was not (1) A unit of distance between two expressed genes
considered by Mendel in his experiments on pea? representing 10% cross over.
(1) Trichomes- (2) Seed-Green or (2) A unit of distance between two expressed genes
Glandular or non- Yellow representing 100% cross over.
glandular (3) A unit of distance between genes on
(3) Pod-Inflated or (4) Stem-Tall or Dwarf chromosomes, representing 1% cross
Constricted (4) A unit of distance between genes on
chromosomes, representing 50% cross
148. Which of the following characteristics represent
'Inheritance of blood groups in humans? 154. The production of gametes by the parents,
A. Dominance formation of zygotes, the F1 and F, plants, can be
B. Co-dominance understood from a diagram called:
C Multiple allele
D. Incomplete dominance (1) Bullet square (2) Punch square
E. Polygenic inheritance (3) Punnett square (4) net square

(1) A, B and C (2) B. D and E 155. In a cross between a male and female, both
(3) B, C and E (4) A. Cand E heterozygous for sickle cell anaemia gene, what
percentage of the progeny will be diseased?
149. Variations caused by mutation, as proposed by
Hugo de Vries are (1) 50% (2) 75%

(1) Random and (2) Random and

(3) 25% (4) 100%

directional directionless 156. Sickle cell anaemia is

(3) Small and directional (4) Small and
directionless
(1) Characterized by elongated sickle cell like
RBCs with a nucleus
150. Select the incorrect statement. (2) Caused by substitution of valine by glutamic
acid in the beta globin chain of haemoglobin
(1) Male fruit fly is
heterogametic (3) Caused by a change in a single base pair of
DNA
(2) In male grasshoppers 50% of sperms have no
sex chromosome (4) An autosomal
dominant trait
(3) In domesticated fowls, sex of progeny depends
on the type of sperm rather than egg
(4) Human males have one of their sexchromosome
much shorter than the other

63
157. In his classic experiments on pea plants. Mendel did 164. Select the correct statement for truebreeding line
not use ______

(1) Seed shape (2) Seed colour (1) Undergoes (2) Shows stable trait
(3) Flower position (4) Podlength continuous self- inheritance
pollination
158. When both alleles express their effect on being (3) Expression for (4) All of them
present together, the phenomenon is called several generations.
(1) Dominance (2) Pseudodominance
165. Select the correct order for the experiments
(3) Aphidominance (4) Codominance conducted by Mendel -

159. A gene is said to be dominant if it (1) Selection of pure lines, cross pollination, self
pollination
(1) Expresses only in heterozygous condition
(2) Cross pollination,selection of pure lines, self
(2) Expresses in both homozygous and
pollination
heterozygous conditions
(3) Selection of pure lines, self pollination, cross
(3) Expressesits effect only in homozygous stage
pollination
(4) Is never expressed in
(4) Cross pollination, self pollination, Selection of
any condition
pure lines
160. Select the option which is correct
166. Find the correct option
A. Mutation arise due to change in a single base pair
of DNA. (1) F1-offsprings obtained after self pollination of
B. Deletions and insertions of base pairs of DNA, pure parents
causes frame-shift mutations (2) F2-offsprings obtained after self pollination of
C. UV radiations cause mutations in organisms. pure parents
(1) Only A is correct (2) Only B,C is correct (3) F1-offsprings obtained after cross pollination
(3) Only A, C is correct (4) All are correct of pure parents
(4) F2-offsprings obtained after cross pollination
161. Harmful mutations does not get eliminated from of pure parents
gene pool because
167. Out of the four progenies obtained in F₂ generation
(1) They are recessive and carried by heterozygous
by crossing pure tall and pure dwarf, what
individuals.
percentage of them will receive only recessive trait
(2) They are recessive and carried by homozygous from both of the parents?
individuals.
(1) 50 (2) 100
(3) They show genetic (4) They are formed
drift. repeatedly. (3) 25 (4) 75

162. The phenotypic expression of phenylketonuria is 168. Ratio of progeny when a red coloured heterozygote
characterised by is crossed with a white coloured plant in which red
colour is dominant over white colour
(1) Mental retardation (2) Reduction in hair
(1) 1:2:1 (2) 3:1
(3) Skin pigmentation (4) All of them
(3) 9:3:3:1 (4) 1:1
163. The plant Mendel selected for his experiments
belonged to _____ family 169. When Mendel crossed plants with a pair of
contrasting characters, he derived the
(1) Solanaceae (2) Fabaceae
(1) Law of co- (2) Law of dominance
(3) Liliaceae (4) Brassicaceae
dominance
(3) Law of genes (4) Law of incomplete
dominance

64
170. Test cross is when 175. Drosophila melanogaster find very suitable for
genetic studies because
(1) F₁ crossed with homozygous recessive parent
(i) They could be grown in simple synthetic medium
(2) F₁ crossed with in the laboratory.
heterozygous parent (ii) They complete their life-cycle in about 14 days.
(3) F₁ crossed with homozygous dominant parent (iii) A single mating could produce a large number of
(4) F₁ crossed with progenies.
homozygous parent (iv) Male and females are clearly distinguishable.
(v) It has few hereditary variations that can be seen
171. The law of segregation of characters postulated by with high power microscopes.
Mendel can be related to Select how many are correct statement?

(1) A gamete receiving only one of the two (1) 5 (2) 4

homologous chromosomes during meiosis (3) 2 (4) 3
(2) The presence of two genes for each character in
a somatic cell 176. Test cross is a cross between

(3) Presence of both genes on the same (1) Hybrid x Dominant (2) Hybrid x Recessive
chromosome. parent (Tt x TT) parent (Tt x tt)
(4) None of the above (3) Hybrid x Hybrid (Tt (4) All the above
x Tt)
172. Match the column I with column II, and choose the
correct option. 177. Read the following statements.
(i) In haplo-diploid sex-determination system, the
males do not have father and thus cannot have sons,
but have a grandfather and can have grandsons.
(ii) In honey bee, queen are developed by the
unfertilized egg by means of parthenogenesis.
(iii) In human skin colour, the effect of each allele is
(1) A−2, B−4, C−3, D−1, (2) A−4, B−5, C−1, D−2, additive.
E−5 E−3 (iv) In XO type of sex-determination, male have half
(3) A−2, B−4, C−5, D−3, (4) A−5, B−3, C−2, D−1, number of chromosome than the female.
E−1 E−4 Select the incorrect statement.

173. A mutation in DNA molecule involving replacement

(1) i, iii (2) ii, iii

of one nucleotide base pair with another is (3) ii, iv (4) i, iv

(1) Point mutation (2) Frame-shift 178. Assertion (A): During Mendel's investigations into
mutation inheritance patterns, it was for the first time that
(3) Deletion mutation (4) A transposon statistical analysis and mathematical logic were
applied to problems in biology.
174. For the ABO blood group system of the human, Reason (R): His experiments had a large sampling
which is correct? size, which gave greater credibility to the data that
(i) Multiple allele he collected.
(ii) Incomplete dominance
(iii) Co-dominance
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A).
(iv) Dominance
(v) Polygenic inheritance (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the
(vi) Pleiotropy correct explanation of (A).

(1) i, ii, v, vi (2) ii, iv, vi

(3) (A) is correct, but (4) Both (A) and (R) are
(R) is not correct. incorrect.
(3) i, iii, iv, vi (4) i, iii, iv

65
179. Assertion (A): In a monohybrid cross, Mendel self- 183. Colour blindness occurs due to
pollinated the tall F₁ plants and to his surprise found
that in the Filial₂ generation some of the offspring
(1) Recessive gene on X- (2) Dominant gene on
chromosome X-Chromosome
were 'dwarf'; the character that was not seen in the
F₁ generation was now expressed. (3) Recessive gene on an (4) Dominant gene on
Reason (R): The proportion of plants that were autosome an autosome
dwarf was 3/4th of the F₂ plants while 1/4th of the F₂
plants were tall.
184. Study the pedigree chart given below. What does it
show?
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct, but (4) Both (A) and (R) are
(R) is not correct. incorrect.

180. Assertion (A): Alleles can be similar as in the case of

homozygotes TT and tt or can be dissimilar as in the (1) Autosomal dominant(2) Autosomal recessive
case of the heterozygote Tt. trait trait
Reason (R): Since the Tt plant is heterozygous for
genes controlling one character (height), it is a
(3) Sex linked recessive (4) Sex linked dominant
trait trait
monohybrid and the cross between TT and tt is a
monohybrid cross. 185. In Drosophila female has a pair of chromosomes
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the (1) ZZ (2) XX
correct explanation of (A).
(3) YY (4) ZW
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A). 186. Statement A: Homozygous ZZ determine female sex
(3) (A) is correct, but (4) Both (A) and (R) are is birds
(R) is not correct. incorrect. Statement B: XO determines male sex in
Grasshopper.
181. Assertion (A): Mendel self-pollinated the F₂ plants
(1) Statement B is correct and statement A is
and found that dwarf F₂ plants continued to
wrong
generate dwarf plants in F₃ and F₄ generations.
Reason (R): The genotype of the dwarfs was (2) Both the statements
homozygous-tt. A and B are correct

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the
(3) Statement A is correct and statement B is
wrong
correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the
(4) Both the statements
A and B are wrong.
correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct, but (4) Both (A) and (R) are 187. Which of the following pairs is wrongly matched?
(R) is not correct. incorrect.
(1) Starch synthesis in pea: Multiple alleles
182. Which one from those given below is the period for (2) ABO blood (3) XO type sex
Mendel's hybridization experiments? grouping: Co- determination:
dominance Grasshopper
(1) 1840-1850 (2) 1857-1869
(3) 1870-1877 (4) 1856-1863
(4) T.H. Morgan:
Linkage

188. In mongolism/Down's syndrome, the patient has

(1) Tetrasomy (2) Trisomy

(3) Monosomy (4) Nullisomy

66
189. Match the column I with column II and choose the 193. In a dihybrid cross, if you get 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 ratio, it
correct option. denotes that

(1) The alleles of two genes are interacting with

each other
(2) It is a multigenic (3) It is a case of
inheritance multiple allelism
(1) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1 (2) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4 (4) The alleles of two genes are segregating
(3) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3 (4) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1 independently

190. In the following figure, the female is inflicted with 194. Polygenic inheritance
A. Traits are spread across a gradient
B. Takes into account the influence of environment
C. The phenotype reflects the contribution of each
allele and the effect of each dominant allele is
additive

(1) Only (A) is correct (2) Only (B) is correct

(3) Only (B) and (C) are (4) All (A), (B) and (C)
correct are correct

195. In the following diagram the alphabets represented

in circles besides the square represents.
(1) A monosomic (2) A trisomic disorder
disorder
(3) A mendelian (4) A polyploid disorder
disorder

191. How many of the following trait(s) in Pisum sativum

is/are dominant?
Dwarf stem height, Violet flower colour, Axillary
flower position, Yellow pod colour, Inflated pod
shape, Round seed shape

(1) Four (2) Three

(3) Two (4) Five (1) Only one parental
gamete
192. How many genotypes are represented only once in (2) Both the parentai gametes on either side
Mendelian dihybrid F₂ generation?
(3) Genotype of F₁ (4) Phenotype of F₁
(1) 2 (2) 6
(3) 3 (4) 4

67
 1 A 43 A 85 A 127 C 169 B
2 C 44 D 86 A 128 C 170 A
3 D 45 B 87 B 129 A 171 A
4 D 46 B 88 D 130 C 172 C
5 D 47 A 89 C 131 D 173 A
6 D 48 A 90 D 132 D 174 D
7 D 49 A 91 C 133 B 175 B
8 B 50 C 92 D 134 C 176 B
9 B 51 A 93 A 135 A 177 C
10 C 52 D 94 D 136 D 178 B
11 D 53 C 95 B 137 C 179 C
12 A 54 C 96 B 138 B 180 B
13 C 55 B 97 C 139 A 181 A
14 A 56 C 98 C 140 D 182 D
15 C 57 A 99 B 141 B 183 A
16 D 58 A 100 A 142 A 184 A
17 B 59 C 101 D 143 A 185 B
18 D 60 B 102 C 144 D 186 A
19 D 61 D 103 C 145 B 187 A
20 A 62 C 104 A 146 C 188 B
21 B 63 A 105 C 147 A 189 C
22 C 64 C 106 C 148 A 190 A
23 B 65 A 107 C 149 B 191 A
24 C 66 D 108 D 150 C 192 D
25 C 67 B 109 B 151 B 193 D
26 D 68 D 110 B 152 C 194 D
27 C 69 C 111 B 153 C 195 B
28 D 70 D 112 C 154 C
29 B 71 D 113 D 155 C
30 A 72 B 114 C 156 C
31 A 73 C 115 C 157 D
32 D 74 D 116 A 158 D
33 C 75 B 117 D 159 B
34 B 76 A 118 C 160 D
35 C 77 B 119 B 161 A
36 D 78 C 120 D 162 D
37 B 79 D 121 A 163 B
38 B 80 C 122 B 164 D
39 D 81 D 123 A 165 A
40 B 82 A 124 D 166 C
41 D 83 B 125 B 167 C
42 D 84 B 126 C 168 D
68
 MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITENCE

1. The nucleic acids found in living organism are 9. Haploid content of human DNA is ...........

(1) DNA and RNA (2) RNA and proteins (1) 1.65 x 10⁹ bP (2) 3.1-3.3 x 10⁹ bP
(3) DNA and enzymes (4) DNA only (3) 4.6 × 10⁹ bP (4) 3.3 x 10⁹ bP

2. Monomer of DNA is 10. The length of DNA is usually defined as number of

.............
(1) Nucleoside (2) Fatty acids
(3) Nucleotide (4) Amino acids (1) Nucleosides (2) Nitrogen bases
(3) Nucleotides (4) Sugars
3. DNA can make an exact copy of itself

(1) Replication (2) Translation

11. Genetic material of Bacteriophage lambda contain

(3) Trancription (4) Transduction (1) 4502 base pairs (2) 5386 nucleotides
(3) 48502 base pairs (4) 5386 base pairs
4. The connecting link between two generations is

(1) Ribonucleic acid (2) Nucleoplasm

12. Genetic material of bacteriophage φ×174 and it has
............. nucleotides
only
(3) Deoxyribonucleic (1) ss DNA, 5386 (2) ss RNA, 5386
acid only (3) ds DNA,5368 (4) ss DNA, 5368
(4) Ribonucleic acid + Deoxyribonucleic acid
13. A nucleoside differs from nucleotide in not having
5. The genetic material found in most of organisms is the

(1) Proteins (2) Ribonucleic acid (1) Phosphate group (2) Sugar

(3) Deoxyribonucleic (4) Enzymes (3) Nitrogenous base (4) Glucose

acid
14. Which one of the following pairs of nitrogenous
6. The process of transfer of genetic information from bases of nucleic acids, is correctly matched with the
DNA to RNA/formation of RNA from DNA is category mentioned against it?

(1) Transversion (2) Transcription (1) Cytosine, Adenine - (2) Adenine, Thymine -
Purines Purines
(3) Translation (4) Translocation
(3) Thymine, Uracil - (4) Adenine, Cytosine -
7. DNA is not directly involved in the synthesis of the Pyrimidines Pyrimidines
following:
15. In Ribose sugar has an additional ____ group
(1) Protein (2) mRNA present at ______ carbon:
(3) rRNA (4) tRNA
(1) OH, 3 (2) OH, 4'
8. Genetic material is (3) OH, 2' (4) OH, 1'

(1) Any nucleic acid 16. Match the columns I and II with respect to DNA.
(2) A nucleic acid made from a nucleic acid
template that has been or is capable of being
used as a template in replication only
(3) A nucleic acid that is capable of being used as a
template in transcription only
(4) A nucleic acid that is capable of being used as a
(1) A-R, B-P, C-Q (2) A-Q, B-R, C-P
template in replication and transcription (3) A-P, B-R, C-Q (4) A-Q, B-P, C-R

69
17. Thymosine is a 26. Which nitrogenous base is absent in RNA?

(1) Nucleoside (2) Nitrogen base (1) Thymine (2) Adenine

(3) Nucleotide (4) None of the above (3) Cytosine (4) Guanine

18. The backbone of DNA double helix consist of: 27. Uridine, present only in RNA is a

(1) Sugar-Base (2) Hydrogen bond (1) Nucleoside (2) Pyrimidine

(3) Sugar-Phosphate (4) Nitrogen base (3) Nucleotide (4) Purine

19. Identify the purine out of the structure. 28. Hydrogen bonds between Adenine and thymine are:

(1) 3 (2) 1
(3) 2 (4) 4

29. Select the correct statement

(1) Two strands of DNA are parallel and

(1) B-Adenine (2) A-Adenine complimentary
(3) C-Adenine (4) A-Guanine (2) Two strands of DNA are anti-parallel and non-
complimentary
20. The double helical model of DNA resembles a (3) Two strands are anti- parallel and
twisted ladder in which the rungs of the ladder are: complimentary Two strands of DNA
(1) A purine paired with (2) A paired G and C (4) All the above
a pyrimidine paired with T
(3) Sugar phosphate paired with sugar phosphate
30. Adenine is 30%. What would be percentage of
guanine?
(4) Both (1) and (2) are
correct (1) 10% (2) 20%
(3) 30% (4) 40%
21. Total amount A and T in DNA is 45% Amount of
guanine will be.... 31. The base paired structure of DNA implies that it
(1) 22.5% (2) 27.5% (1) Can be used to make (2) Used as a template
(3) 35% (4) 55% more copies of DNA to make RNA
(3) It the hereditary (4) 1 and 2
22. The length of DNA having 23 base pairs is material
(1) 74.8 Å (2) 78 Å
32. The prokaryotic genome contains
(3) 78.4 Å (4) 78.2 Å
(1) DNA and histone (2) No DNA and
23. If there are 120 adenine molecules in B-DNA double histone
helical structure showing 20 coils. what is pyrimidine (3) DNA and no histone (4) No DNA and no
nucleotides forming three hydrogen bonds in it... histone
(1) 80 (2) 100
33. In the year 1869, the nucleic acid in nucleus was
(3) 120 (4) 140 discovered by

24. DNA is acidic due to (1) Fredrich Miescher (2) Watson

(1) Sugar (2) Purine (3) Chargaff (4) Francis Crick

(3) Phosphoric acid (4) Pyrimidine 34. Nucleotide arrangement in DNA can be studied by:

25. The purines found in DNA are (1) Ultracentrifuge (2) X-ray
crystallography
(1) Adenne (2) Guanine
(3) Thymine (4) Both 1 & 2
(3) Light microscope (4) Electron microscope

70
35. The scientist who identified DNA as an acidic 41. Given the figure represent the DNA double helix
substance____ called it_______, in the year______ model as proposed by Watson and Crick (1953).
Select the option that shows correct measurement of
(1) Friedrich Meischer, 'Nucleotide' in 1896
A, B and C.
(2) Friedrich Meischer, (3) Friedrich Meischer,
'Nuclein' in 1896 'Nuclein' in 1869,
(4) Francis
Crick,Nucleotide, in
1869

36. Chargaff's rule is applicable to:

(1) Double stranded (2) Single stranded

DNA RNA
(3) Single stranded (4) Single stranded
DNA DNA and RNA
(1) A-3.4nm, B-0.34nm, (2) A-34nm, B-3.4nm,
37. Watson and Crick were awarded Nobel prize for C-2 nm C-20nm
showing that (3) A-3.4 Å, B-0.34 Å, (4) A-34 Å, B-3.4 Å, C-2
C-20 Å Å
(1) DNA is composed of pentose sugar,
nitrogenous base and phosphate 42. The DNA in nucleoid is organised in
(2) RNA is double (3) DNA is genetic
(1) Large loops held by (2) Large loops held by
helical material
histones nucleotides
(4) DNA is double
(3) Large loops held by (4) Large loops held by
helical
sugar proteins
38. The pitch of double helix model of B-DNA has:
43. DNA is associated with highly basic proteins called
(1) 0.34 nm (2) 34 Å
(1) Globulins (2) Non-histones
(3) 3.4 nm (4) Both 2 and 3
(3) Histones (4) Albumins
39. In 1953 that James Watson and Francis Crick, based
44. Lysine, Arginine are found in?
on the
(1) Sugars (2) Acidic proteins
(1) X-ray Refraction data produced by Rosalind
Franklin only (3) Non histone (4) Histones
chromosomal
(2) X-ray diffraction data produced by Maurice
proteins
Wilkins only
(3) X-ray diffraction data produced by Maurice 45. Biochemically what are Lysine, Arginine?
Wilkins and Rosalind Franklin
(1) Nitrogen bases (2) Fatty acids
(4) X-ray diffraction data produced by Chargaff
(3) Sugars (4) Amino-acids
and Rosalind Franklin

40. Match the columns I and II.

46. In a nucleosome, there are ____ histones and are
organised in ________ structure?

(1) 8,Octamer (2) 8, Hexamer

(3) 6,Octamer (4) 9,Octamer

47. Nucleosome contains:

(1) A-R, B-P, C-Q (2) A-Q, B-R, C-P (1) Both DNA and (2) Only DNA
histone protein
(3) A-P, B-R, C-Q (4) A-Q, B-P, C-R
(3) Only histone protein (4) Both DNA and
RNA

71
48. Histones are rich in which sugar? 54. Refer to the given figure of nucleosome, and select
the correct option:
(1) Cysteine, Arginine (2) Lysine, Arginine
(3) Lysine, methionine (4) None of them

49. Chromatin fibres coil and condense at ______ stage

of cell division to form _____

(1) Metaphase, (2) Metaphase,

(1) Structure A is H₁ protein, which is rich arginine
and aspartic acid.
Nucleosome Chromosome
(3) Metaphase, (4) Metaphase,
(2) Structure A is the histone core with two
molecules each of four histone proteins.
Chromatin Chromatid
(3) Structure C is single-stranded DNA made. up
50. Which part of chromatin is transciptionally inactive of 200 nucelotides.
and active respectively? (4) Structure B is called Nu-Body, which has five
(1) Heterochromatin (2) Nucleosome and types of histone proteins.
and Euchromatin Euchromatin
55. The bacterium used in Griffith's experiment was
(3) Euchromatin and (4) Chromosome and
heterochromatin Euchromatin (1) Streptococcus (2) Bacillus pneumoniae
pneumoniae
51. Match the columns I and II (3) Streptococcus coli (4) Staphylococcus
pneumoniae

56. Streptococcus pneumoniae used by Griffith is

(1) Virulent form is (2) Virulent form is

rough. smooth.
(1) A-R, B-P, C-Q (2) A-Q, B-R, C-P
(3) A-P, B-R, C-Q (4) A-Q, B-P, C-R
(3) Nonvirulent form is (4) All forms are
capsulated. smooth.
52. In the diagram how many histone proteins are
57. Select the correct statement
depicted
(1) R strain bacteria has (2) S strain is virulent
a mucous coat
(3) R strain is virulent (4) Both S and R strain
are virulent

(1) 9 (2) 8
58. The first evidence about DNA is the genetic material
came from
(3) 10 (4) 11
(1) DNA as a cheif chemical constituent of
53. The following structure represents chromosomes
(2) DNA as a self-
replicating agent
(3) Transformation of rough-coated region strain
of Diplococcus pneumoniae into smooth coated
(1) 'Beads on string' structure of nucleosome in strain
chromatin (4) Transduction of bacteria by action of
(2) 'Beads on string' under electron microscope bacteriophage

(3) 'Beads on string' under compound microscope 59. Transformation experiments on Streptococcus was
(4) Both 1 & 2 performed by:

(1) James watson (2) Chargaff

(3) F. Griffith (4) F.H. Crick

72
60. WhenGriffith injected a mixture of heat- killed S and 66. Mention in which test-tube did Overy at al found
live R bacteria transformation

(1) The mice developed (2) The mice survived

typhoid
(3) The mice died (4) The mice developed
jaundiced and died

61. The conclusion of Griffiths experiment was

(1) The S-strain bacteria had somehow been (1) A (2) B

transformed by the heat killed R-strain
(3) C (4) D
bacteria.
(2) The R-strain bacteria had somehow been 67. ______ repeated the experiment in- vitro to identify
transformed by the heat killed S-strain bacteria. the biochemical nature of transforming substance.
(3) The R-strain bacteria had somehow been (1) Oswald Avery, Colin McCarty and Maclyn
transformed by the heat killed R-strain McCarty(1936-44)
bacteria.
(2) Oswald Avery, Colin Macleod and Maclyn
(4) The S-strain bacteria had somehow been McCarty(1933-44)
transformed by the heat killed S-strain bacteria.
(3) Oswald Griffith, Colin Macleod and Maclyn
62. What is the difference between DNAS and DNase? McCarty(1933-44)
(4) Oswald Avery, Colin Macleod and Maclyn
(1) Genetic material - (2) DNA digesting
McCarty(1933-43)
DNA digesting enzyme-Genetic
enzyme material 68. The experiment which provides unequivocal proof
(3) Protein-Peptide (4) None of the above that DNA is genetic material came from the
experiment of:
63. Oswald Avery, Colin MacLeod and Carty (1933-44)
worked to determine the _____ nature of (1) Martha Hershey and (2) Alfred Wilkins and
'transforming principle' in Griffith's experiment? Alfred Chase Martha Franklin
(3) Alfred Hershey and (4) Avery, MacLeod and
(1) Physical (2) Morphological
Martha Chase Maclyn McCarty
(3) Structural (4) Biochemical
69. The unequivocal proof of DNA as the genetic
64. RNA digesting enzymes are commonly known as: material came from the studies on:
(1) Ribozymes (2) Ribosomes (1) Prion (2) Viroid
(3) RNases (4) Ribulose (3) Plant virus (4) Bacteriophage

65. The conclusion of Griffith's experiment was: 70. Who proved that DNA is basic genetic material?
(1) The live S-strain of S. pneumonia were injected (1) Griffith (2) Hershey and chase
in R stain and this causes transformation
(3) Watson (4) Boveri and Sutton
(2) The heat killed S-strain of S. pneumonia were
injected in R strain and this causes 71. Identify the organism A & its radioactive B & C.
transformation
(3) The heat killed R-strain of S, pneumonia were
injected in s strain and this causes
transformation
(4) The live R-strain of S. pneumonia were injected (1) A-Bacteriophage, B - (2) A-Plant virus, B-
in S strain and this causes transformation Protein, C-DNA Protein, C-DNA
(3) A-Animal virus, B - (4) A-Bacteriophage, B -
Protein, C-DNA DNA, C-Protein

73
72. In the Hershey Chase experiments, the organisms 79. Taylor conducted his experiments to prove
used were _______ semiconservative DNA or chromosome replication
on:
(1) Bacteria- E.coli, (2) Bacteria- E.coli,fungi
virus (1) E.coli (2) Vicia faba
(3) Bacteria- (4) Bacteria- (3) Pisum sativum (4) Bacteriophage
S.pneumonia,virus S.pneumonia,fungi
80. Taylor conducted his experiments to prove
73. "It has not escaped our notice that the semiconservative DNA or chromosome replication
specificpairing we have postulated immediately on a plant belonging to family that also contains
suggests a possible copying mechanism for the
genetic material"
(1) Potato (2) Ficus
(3) Sunhemp (4) Gloriosa
(1) Watson and Crick, (2) Watson and Crick,
1952 1953 81. Taylor conducted his experiments to prove
(3) Crick, 1953 (4) Watson, 1953 semiconservative DNA or chromosome replication
on a plant belonging to family
74. Experimental material in the study of DNA
(1) Solanaceae (2) Fabaceae
replication has been
(3) Brassicaceae (4) Liliaceae
(1) Neurospora crassa (2) Pneumococcus
(3) Escherichia coli (4) Drosophila 82. The radioactive probe used by Taylor to detect
melanogaster distribution of newly synthesized DNA in
chromosomes:
75. In the following diagram, depicting the Messelson &
(1) Thymidine (2) Adenosine
Stahl expt. Identify the type of DNA A, B & C.
(3) Guanidine (4) Cytosine

83. Match the columns I and II

(1) A-R, B-P, C-Q (2) A-Q, B-R, C-P

(1) A- N¹⁴ N¹⁴, B - N¹⁵ (2) A- N¹⁵ N¹⁵, B - N¹⁵ (3) A-P, B-R, C-Q (4) A-Q, B-P, C-R
N¹⁴, C-N¹⁵ N¹⁵ N¹⁴, C-N¹⁴ N¹⁴
84. In Messelson and Stahl's experiment heavy DNA
(3) A- N¹⁴ N¹⁴, B - N¹⁴ (4) A- N¹⁵ N¹⁵, B - N¹⁵
molecule could be distinguished from the normal
N¹⁴, C-N¹⁵ N¹⁵ N¹⁵, C-N¹⁴ N¹⁴
DNA by
76. Matthew Meselson and Franklin Stahl performed (1) Centralisation in a cesium chloride (CsCl)
the experiment in density gradient
(1) 1956 (2) 1952 (2) Centrifugation in a cesium chloride (CsCl)
(3) 1953 (4) 1958
density gradient
(3) Centrifugation in a cesium bromide (CsBr)
77. Isotopes used for proving semi-conservative density gradient
replication of DNA are (4) Centrifugation in a cesium fluoride (CSFl)
(1) ¹⁴N and ³¹P (2) ¹⁴N and ¹⁴C density gradient
(3) ¹⁴C and ³¹P (4) ¹⁴N and ¹⁵N 85. In process of replication deoxyribonucleoside
triphosphate
78. RNA primer helps in:

(1) Transcription (2) Translation

(1) Acting as substrate (2) Provides energy

(3) Replication (4) Transformation

(3) Both 1 and 2 (4) None

74
86. Which of the following statement is correct about 91. The process of replication of DNA in E.coli requires
DNA polymerase? an enzyme referred to as:

(1) DNA polymerase can synthesize mRNA in the (1) DNA dependent (2) RNA polymerase
3' to5' direction. DNA polymerase
(2) DNA polymerase can synthesize DNA in the 5' (3) RNA dependent (4) ORI
to 3'direction. DNA polymerase
(3) DNA polymerase can synthesize mRNA in the
92. Replication fork is
5' to3' direction.
(4) DNA polymerase can synthesize DNA in the 3' (1) Large opening of the (2) Small opening of the
to 5' direction. RNA helix DNA helix
(3) Large opening of (4) Small opening of the
87. Discontinuous synthesis of DNA occurs in one theDNA helix RNA helix
strand because:

(1) DNA dependent DNA polymerase catalyses

93. Which of the following enzymes is used to join
fragments of DNA?
polymerization only in one direction (3'→ 5')
(2) DNA dependent DNA polymerase catalyses (1) Primase (2) Endonuclease
polymerization only in one direction (5'→3') (3) DNA polymerase (4) Ligase
(3) RNA dependent DNA polymerase catalyses
polymerization only in one direction (5'→3')
94. A molecule that can act as a genetic material must
fulfill the following criteria:
(4) DNA dependent RNA polymerase catalyses
polymerization only in one direction (3'→3') (1) Replication (2) Mutation, Stability
(3) Expression of (4) All of them
88. Ligase is an enzyme required for mendelian character
(1) Breaking of DNA (2) Renaturation of
DNA
95. RNA is a better genetic material because

(3) Proof reading of (4) Joining DNA (1) It is chemically and structurally stable
DNA segments (2) It is able to generate
its replica
89. Match the columns I and II.
(3) 2'-OH group present at every nucleotide in
RNA as an additional moiety, which makes
RNA more stable.
(4) None

96. Select the incorrect statement.

(1) DNA was the first

(1) A-R, B-P, C-Q, D-S (2) A-Q, B-R, C-P, D-S genetic material.
(3) A-P, B-R, C-Q, D-S (4) A-Q, B-P, C-R, D-S (2) Some essential life processes like metabolism,
translation and splicing evolved around RNA.
90. Select the incorrect statement regarding DNA
Replication (3) DNA has evolved from RNA with chemical
modification.
(1) DNA Polymerase catalyses polymerisation in 3
→'5' direction
(4) RNA acts as genetic material as well as non
genetic material and helps in translation.
(2) Okazaki fragments are found in 5' → 3'
direction 97. Ribozyme is
(3) Leading strand is formed in 5' → 3' direction (1) RNA having (2) RNA without sugar
(4) DNA Polymerase catalyses polymerisation in enzymatic activity
5'→ 3' (3) RNA without (4) RNA with extra
phosphate phosphate

75
98. A fundamental requirement for the function of 105. Choose the correct pair.
genetic material is that it must be
(1) Promoter - Binding site for RNA polymerase
(1) Conserved among all organisms with very little (2) Terminator - end of the transcription process
variation
(3) Both 1 and 2
(2) Passed intact from organism to organism.
(4) Regulatory genes - code for any RNA or
(3) Replicable (4) Found out side of proteins genes
the nucleus
106. Select the appropriate option
99. RNA can easily express the character because i. All the reference point while defining a
(1) It has 2'-OH group at every nucleotide in its transcription unit is made with coding strand.
deoxyribose sugar ii. Promoter is a DNA sequence that provides
binding site for RNA polymerase
(2) It has uracil
(3) It can directly code for the synthesis of protein (1) i is correct ii is wrong (2) ii is only correct

(4) All of the above (3) Both are correct (4) Both are wrong

100. Match the columns I and II. 107. The diagram represents the central dogma of
molecular biology Choose the correct combination
of labelling.

(1) A-R, B-P, C-Q (2) A-Q, B-R, C-P

(3) A-P, B-R, C-Q (4) A-Q, B-P, C-R

101. Information flow or central dogma of modern

biology is

(1) RNA - Proteins - (2) DNA - RNA - RNA

DNA (1) A-DNA , B-RNA, (2) A-RNA , B-DNA ,
C-Protein , D-DNA C-Protein, D-RNA
(3) RNA - DNA - (4) DNA - RNA -
Proteins Proteins (3) A-DNA , B-Protein, (4) A-Protein , B-DNA ,
C-Protein, D-DNA C-DNA , D-Protein
102. 'Central dogma' of molecular biology includes:
108. A transcription unit in DNA is defined primarily by
(1) Transcription (2) Transformation the following regions in the DNA:
(3) Translation (4) Both (1) and (3)
(1) A Promoter (2) The Structural gene
103. Molecule into which the coded information in DNA (3) A Terminator (4) All of them
is transcribed is
109. Identify A & B in the following structure.
(1) tRNA (2) rRNA
(3) snRNA (4) mRNA

104. If both the strands copied during transcription, then

what will happen?

(1) The segment of DNA would be coding for two (1) A-Coding strand B - (2) A - Template strand
different proteins Coding strand B - Coding strand
(2) Two RNA will be produced simultaneously (3) A-Coding strand B- (4) A-Template strand B
complementory to each other. Template strand - Template strand
(3) There will be formation of double helical RNA
(4) All of the above

76
110. Promoter and terminator flanks the 118. Intron segments are removed by

(1) Non sense gene (2) Structural gene (1) DNA primase (2) Spliceosome
(3) Polypeptide (4) Transcription unit (3) RNA protease (4) RNA polymerase

111. During transcription, the strand that has the polarity 119. Transcription is intiated by
______ acts as a template, and is also referred to as
_____
(1) Only σ(sigma) factor (2) Only DNA
dependent RNA
(1) 5' → 5', template (2) 3' → 5', template polymerase
strand. strand. (3) Only ρ(Rho) factor
(3) 5' → 3', template (4) 3' → 3', template (4) RNA polymerase when it associates transiently
strand. strand. with σ (sigma) factor

112. Gene and cistron words are sometimes used 120. Match the columns I and II
synonymously because

(1) One gene contains (2) One cistron contains

one cistron many genes
(3) One gene contains (4) One gene contains
many cistrons no cistron
(1) A-R, B-P, C-Q (2) A-Q, B-R, C-P
113. Which of the following is transcribed and then (3) A-P, B-R, C-Q (4) A-Q, B-P, C-R
translated to form a protein product?
121. RNA polymerase I transcribes_____ eukaryotes.
(1) Gene for tRNA (2) Intron
(1) (28S, 18S, and 5.8S) (2) (28S, 18S, and 5.8S)
(3) Gene for r-RNA (4) Gene for a
t-RNA r-RNA
transcription factor
(3) (28S, 18S, and 5.8S) (4) (8S, 18S, and 5.8S) r-
114. Identify the process showed in the process diagram sn-RNA RNA

122. Select the correct option

(1) Introns are said to be those sequence that

appear in mature or processed RNA
(1) Capping (2) RNA splicing
(3) Poly adenylation (4) All of these
(2) Exons or intervening sequences do not appear
in mature or processed RNA.
115. When mRNA is synthesized on DNA, the unwanted (3) The split-gene arrangement further simplify the
mRNA regions are removed and regions coding for definition of a gene in terms of a DNA segment
amino acids are joined together, the removed regions (4) Inheritance of a character is also affected by
are called as promoter and regulatory sequences of a
(1) Exons (2) Introns structural gene.

(3) Operon (4) Cistron 123. When RNA polymerase associates transiently with σ
(sigma) factor
116. Which of the following steps in transcription is
catalysed by RNA polymerase? (1) Transcription is (2) Translation is
terminated initiated
(1) Initiation (2) Elongation
(3) Termination (4) All of these
(3) Transcription is (4) Translation is
initiated terminated
117. The genetic code is present on the
124. The arrangement of three bases in the genetic code
(1) Polypeptide (2) r-RNA signifies a specific
(3) t-RNA (4) m-RNA (1) Amino acid (2) Protein
(3) Plasmid (4) Nucleic acid

77
125. Which of the following is correct statement? 130. The following structure represents.

(1) In prokaryotes RNA polymerase III catalyses

the synthesis of 5sr RNA, tRNA & snRNA.
(2) RNA polymerase III helps in transcription of r-
RNA (1) r-RNA (2) hn-RNA

(3) In eukaryotes RNA polymerase III catalysis the (3) m-RNA (4) t-RNA
synthesis of 5sr RNA, tRNA & snRNA
131. During transcription, in eukaryotes, there are two
(4) RNA polymerase III helps in transcription of additional complexities
28S rRNA.
(1) There are at least two RNA polymerases in the
126. Which of the following is incorrect? nucleus, the primary transcripts contain both
the exons and the introns.
(1) RNA polymerase III helps in transcription of
tRNA (2) There are at least three RNA polymerases in
the nucleus, the secondary transcripts contain
(2) RNA polymerase II transcribes precursor of
both the exons and the introns.
mRNA
(3) There is only one RNA polymerases in the
(3) RNA polymerase III helps in transcription of 5
nucleus, the primary transcripts contain both
sr RNA
the exons and the introns.
(4) RNA polymerase II is responsible for
(4) There are at least three RNA polymerases in
transcriptionof tRNA, 5 sr RNA & snRNA.
the nucleus, the primary transcripts contain
127. Select the incorrect option both the exons and the introns.
A. RNA polymerase polymerises in template
132. Match the columns I and II.
depended fashion following the rule of
complementarity
B. Once the polymerases reaches the terminator
region, the nascent RNA falls off, so also the RNA
polymerase.
C. The RNA polymerase is only capable of
catalysing the process of termination.
(1) A-R, B-P, C-Q (2) A-Q, B-R, C-P
D. RNA polymerase associates transiently with
initiation-factor (σ) and termination- factor (ρ) to (3) A-P, B-R, C-Q (4) A-Q, B-P, C-R
initiate and terminate the transcription, respectively
133. Choose the correct option.
(1) A, B (2) B
(1) Splicing represent the dominance of RNA
(3) C (4) D world

128. Name the nucleotide added to 5' end of hnRNA in (2) The presence of exons is reminiscent of
capping. antiquity
(3) Split gene arrangments represent an ancient
(1) Ethyl guanosine (2) Ethyl guanosine
feature of the genome
monophosphate triphosphate
(4) 1&3
(3) Methyl guanosine (4) Methyl guanosine
triphosphate monophosphate 134. Most of the amino acids are represented by more
than one codons, the genetic code is said to be
129. When mRNA is synthesized on DNA, the unwanted
mRNA regions are removed and regions coding for (1) Degenerate (2) Deaminated
amino acids are joined together, this process is called (3) Comma less (4) Overlapping
as

(1) Splicing (2) Lysogeny

(3) Replication (4) Central dogma

78
135. In eukaryotes, the structural gene in a transcription 142. The salient features of genetic code are as follows:
unit could be said as i. The codon is triplet. 61 codons code for amino
acids and 3 codons do not code for any amino acids,
(1) Monocistronic
hence they functionas stop codons.
(2) Encoding only one polypeptide per RNA ii. One codon codes for only one amino acid, hence,
molecule it is ambiguous and specific.
(3) Polycistronic (4) Both (1) and (2) iii. Some amino acids are coded by more than one
codon, hence the code is generate.
136. The chemical method developed by______ was iv. The codon is read in mRNA in a contiguous
instrumental in synthesizing RNA molecules with fashion. There are no punctuations.
defined combination of bases (homopolymers and v. AUG has dual functions. It codes for Methionine
copolymers): (met), and it also act as initiator codon.
(1) Marshal Nirenberg (2) George Gamow
Select the incorrect options

(3) Har Gobind (4) Sanger (1) i & iii are incorrect (2) i, ii & iii are incorrect
Khorana (3) i, ii, iii & iv are (4) ii & iii are incorrect
incorrect
137. _____________(polynucleotide phosphorylase) was
also helpful in polymerising______ defined with 143. In protein synthesis, a polypeptide of five amino
sequences in a template independent manner acids is synthesized. Which one of the following can
(enzymatic synthesis of RNA). be the correct polypeptide ?
(1) Marshal Nirenberg (2) Marshal Nirenberg (1) Glycine-valine - methionine - histidine - lysine
enzyme , DNA enzyme, RNA
(2) Lysine-methionine - valine - glycine - histidine
(3) Severo Ochoa (4) Severo Ochoa
(3) Valine-methionine - glycine - histidine- lysine
enzyme, DNA enzyme, RNA
(4) Methionine - lysine - glycine - valine - histidine
138. Genetic code translates the language of
144. UUU would code for Phenylalanine (phe). Some
(1) Proteins into that of (2) Amino acids into exceptions to this rule have been found in
RNA that of RNA
(1) Chloroplast codons, and in some protozoans.
(3) RNA into that of (4) RNA into that of
proteins DNA (2) Mitochondrial codons, and in some plants
(3) Mitochondrial codons, and in some monera
139. Degeneration of a genetic code is attributed to the:
(4) Mitochondrial codons, and in some
(1) Entire codon (2) First member of protozoans.
codon
145. UUU, UUC code for which amino acids?
(3) Second member of (4) Third member of
codon codon (1) Alanine, (2) Phenylalanine,
phenylalanine alanine respectively
140. One of the following is true with respect to AUG: respectively
(1) It codes for (2) It is also an initiation (3) Phenylalanine,
methionine codon methionine
(3) It codes for methionine in both prokaryotes
respectively
and eukaryotes (4) Phenylalanine, phenylalanine respectively
(4) All of the above
146. One codon codes for only one amino acid, hence the
141. Ribozyme and RNA polymerase ---following
code is
enzymes are required in which process? (1) Ambiguous and (2) Unambiguous and
(1) Translation, (2) Transcription,
specific specific
transcription translation (3) Ambiguous and non- (4) Unambiguous and
(3) Replication, (4) All of these
specific non-specific
translation

79
147. Match the columns I and II. 155. Protein synthesis requires

(1) Sugars (2) Aminoacids

(3) Fatty acids (4) Nucleotides

156. During protein synthesis, the correct amino acid is

brought to the ribosome and inserted in correct
sequence in the growing polypeptide chain by
(1) A-R, B-P, C-Q, D-S (2) A-Q, B-R, C-P, D-S
(3) A-P, B-R, C-Q, D-S (4) A-Q, B-P, C-R, D-S
(1) Base pairing between (2) Interaction between
DNA and tRNA two anticodons
148. Mutations are responsible for (3) Base pairing between mRNA codons and
anticodon in tRNA
(1) Variation in (2) Increasing the
organisms population rate (4) Interaction between
two triplet codons
(3) Maintaining the (4) Change in the
genetic continuity environment 157. There are 64 types of codons in genetic code
dictionary because
149. Sickle cell anaemia is a classic example of:
(1) Genetic code is
(1) Frame shift mutation(2) Point mutation
triplet
(3) Deletion mutation (4) Sentence mutation
(2) There are 64 types of tRNAs found in cell
150. One of the following which causes mutation is (3) There are 44 meaningless and 20 codons for
amino acids
(1) Crossing over (2) X-rays
(4) There are 64 amino
(3) Cosmic rays (4) Colchicine acids for coding
151. In E. coli, the lac operon gets switched on when: 158. Select the correct options
(1) Lactose is present and it binds to the repressor i. The cellular factory responsible for synthesising
proteins is the ribosome..
(2) Repressor binds to (3) RNA polymerase
ii. The ribosome consists of structural RNAs and
operator binds to the operator
about 60 different proteins.
(4) Lactose is present and it binds to RNA iii. In its active state, ribosome exists as two
polymerase subunits; a large subunit and a small subunit.
iv. The ribosome also acts as a catalyst (23S rRNA
152. There are no tRNAs for
in bacteria is the enzyme- ribozyme) for the
(1) Start codon (2) Anticodon formation of peptide bond.
(3) Initiator codon (4) Stop codons (1) i & iii are correct (2) i, ii & iii are correct

153. Transfer of genetic information from m RNA to (3) i,ii,iii & iv are correct (4) i & iv are correct
formation of proteins is referred as
159. Lactose is the substrate for the lac enzyme β-
(1) Transcription (2) Splicing galactosidase, it regulates
(3) Replication (4) Translation (1) Switching off of the (2) Switching on of the
operon operon
154. Translation is
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Synthesis of
(1) Formation of (2) Protein formation polypeptide chain
enzymes only
(3) Formation of DNA (4) Formation of RNA 160. In prokaryotes, the predominant site for control of
from DNA from DNA gene expression, is the control of

(1) Processing (2) Translation

(3) Rate of transcription (4) Exit of mRNA from
initiation nucleus

80
161. Find out which statement with respect to translation 165. Select the incorrect options
is correct i. tRNA has an anticodon loop that has bases
i. The UTRs are present at both 5'-end (before start complementary to the code.
codon) and at 3'-end (after stop codon). They are ii. tRNA has an amino acid acceptor end to which it
required for efficient transription process. binds to aminoacids.
ii. For initiation, the ribosome binds to the mRNA iii. Watson postulated the presence of an adapter
at the start codon (AUG) that is recognised only by molecule that would on one hand read the code and
the initiator tRNA. on other hand would bind to specific amino acids.
iii. The ribosome moves from codon to codon along iv. For termination, there is another specific tRNA
the mRNA. that is referred to as initiator tRNA.
iv. At the end of transcription, a release factor binds
to the stop codon, terminating translation
(1) i & iv are incorrect (2) i, ii & iii are incorrect
(3) i,ii,iii & iv are (4) iii & iv are incorrect
(1) ii & iii are correct (2) i, ii & iii are correct incorrect
(3) i,ii,iii & iv are correct (4) i & iv are correct
166. What is incorrect for UTR?
162. Select the correct option
(1) Present in between the translational unit in
A. Gene expression results in the formation of a
mRNA
polypeptide
B. Beta galactosidase causes hydrolysis of a tri - (2) The UTRs are present at both 5'-end (before
saccharide, lactose into galactose and glucose start codon) and at 3'-end (after stop codon)
C. The development and differentiation of embryo (3) Required for efficient translation process
into adult organisms are also a result of the (4) Not identified by any
coordinated regulation of expression of several sets tRNA
of genes

(1) A & Bare correct (2) A & C are correct

167. The elucidation of the lac operon was a result of a
close association between
(3) Only A is correct (4) Only C is correct
(1) A geneticist, Francois Jacob and a chemist,
163. Select the incorrect matching Jacque Monod.

(1) Operator gene- repressor combines with it (2) A biochemist, Francois Jacob and a geneticist,
Jacque Monod.
(2) i gene- Produces
repressor protein (3) A geneticist, Francois Jacob and a biologist,
Jacque Monod.
(3) Promoter gene- Site for binding of RNA
polymerase (4) A geneticist, Francois Jacob and a biochemist,
Jacque Monod.
(4) Structural gene- synthesis of galactosides

164. Read statement 1 - 4

168. Mark the incorrect option w.r.t. lac operon

(1) In transcription thymine pairs with uracil (1) Lactose is inducer (2) Controls anabolic
(2) Regulation of lac operon by repressor is positive pathway
and negative regulation (3) Doesnot show feed (4) Discovered by Jacob
(3) Human genome has appoximate 80,000 genes back repression and Monod
(4) One nucleosome contain 146 bp
How many of the above statements are correct 169. The repressor of the operon is synthesised (all- the-
time constitutively) from the ______
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 1 (1) i gene. (2) z gene
(3) y gene. (4) a gene.

170. In Operon concept, regulator gene functions as

(1) Regulator (2) Inhibitor

(3) Repressor (4) All of these

81
171. Inducible enzymes are 178. The following figure represents.

(1) Usually involved in the anabolic pathways

(2) Produced when an activator molecule enhances
the attachment of RNA polymerase with the
operator
(3) Produced when a small molecule inactivates the
repressor protein
(4) Regulated by inherently inactive repressor (1) Human genetics plan (2) Human genetics
process
172. The promoter site and the terminator site for (3) Human genome (4) Human genome plan
Transcription are located at: project
(1) 3' (downstream) end and 5' (upstream) end,
179. ELSI strands for:
respectively of the transcription unit
(2) 5' (upstream) end and 3' (downstream) end, (1) Ecological, Logical (2) Ethical, Legal and
respectively of the transcription unit and Society Issues Social Issues

(3) 3' (upstream) end and 5' (downstream) end, (3) Ethical, Logical and (4) Economical, Legal
respectively of the transcription unit Social Issues and Society Issues

(4) 5' (downstream) end and 3' (upstream) end, 180. Each individual has a unique DNA Fingerprint as
respectively of the transcription unit individuals relies on

173. Enzyme needed for transportation of lactose into the (1) Location of minisatellites on chromosome
cells is (2) Number of (3) Size of minisatellites
(1) Galactosidase (2) Transacetylase minisatellites on on chromosome
chromosome
(3) Permease (4) Lactase
(4) All the above
174. The i gene codes for the ______ of the lac operon
181. Under HGP, scientists have, located 1.4 million
(1) Inducer (2) Inhibitor locations where difference in single DNA base exists.
(3) Repressor (4) Operator It is termed as :

175. Identify the incorrect statement. (1) Minisatellite (2) Single nucleotide
polymorphism
(1) Chromosome Y has
(3) Microsatellites (4) Simple nucleotide
231 genes
polymorphism
(2) Less than 2% of the genome codes for proteins
(3) Average gene 182. In HGP, many non-human model organisms, such
consists of 30,000 bp as _______ have also been sequenced.

(4) Human genome consists of 3164.7 million (1) Caenorhabditis elegans Drosophila, plants (rice
nucleotide bases and Arabidopsis)
(2) Bacteria, yeast, Caenorhabditis elegans
176. Lac Operon is an example of
Drosophila,plants (rice and Arabidopsis)
(1) Inducible operon (2) Repressible operon (3) Bacteria, yeast, Drosophila,plants (rice and
(3) Overlapping genes (4) None of these Arabidopsis)
(4) Bacteria, yeast, Caenorhabditis elegans
177. Human Genome project was a _____ year long
Drosophila
project starting from ________ to ___________.

(1) 15, 1990, 2005 (2) 13, 1953, 1968 183. Expressed sequence tags (ESTs) ia an approach
practiced in
(3) 13, 1990, 2003 (4) None of them
(1) DNA fingerprinting (2) RNA replication
(3) DNA sequencing (4) RNA splicing

82
184. YAC, a vector used in biotechnology for cloning, 191. How many locations have been identified in human
stands for: genome having single base differences occur?

(1) Yeast Annoted (2) Yeast Artificial (1) 1.4 billion (2) 14 million
Chromosome Chromosome (3) 1.4 million (4) 14 billion
(3) Yeast Aligned (4) None of the above
Chromosome 192. Number of genes found in l- chromosomes and Y-
chromosomes are
185. The credit for developing a method for
(1) 2986 and 231 (2) 2968 and 231
determination of nucleotide sequence in DNA as
respectively respectively
well as amino acid sequence in protein goes to:
(3) 2968 and 321 (4) 2968 and 213
(1) Frederick Taylor (2) James Sanger respectively respectively
(3) Frederick Sanger (4) Jacob Sanger
193. ___________make up very large portion of the
186. DNA of which non-human model organism is human genome.
sequenced
(1) Non-Coding (2) Coding sequences
(1) Arabidopsis and rice (2) Drosophila, Yeast sequences
and E.coli. (3) Repeated sequences (4) All of these
(3) Caenorhabditis (4) All of these
elegans 194. Regulatory proteins are the accessory proteins that
interact with RNA polymerase and affect its role in
187. ESTs (Expressed Sequence Tags) are transcription. Which of the following statements is
correct about regulatory protein?
(1) Gene that expressed (2) DNA fingerprinting
as RNA (1) They only increase (2) They only decrease
(3) DNA profiling (4) Gene that expressed expression expression
as DNA (3) They interact with RNA polymerase but do not
affect the expression
188. The lowest gene, largest gene and maximum number
(4) They can act both as activators and as
of gene are respectively found on which human
repressors
chromosomes

(1) 1st, Y and X (2) Y, X and 1st 195. Select correct matching.

(3) 1st, 21st and X (4) 1st, X and Y (1) HGP -Human (2) ESTs - Expressed
Genome Process sequence tags
189. The percentage of similarity between the nucleotides
(3) YAC -Yeast (4) SNP- Single
of two individuals is
Artificial Chromatid Nucleoside
(1) 100% (2) 99% Polymorphism
(3) 99.9% (4) 99.8%
196. Select the correct option from the following
190. How genetic and physical maps were generated in statements
HGP? A. Lactose is the inducer
B. A very high level of expression of lac operon has
(1) By using restriction exonuclease, microsatellites to be present in the cell all the time, otherwise lactose
(2) By using RNase, cannot enter the cells.
microsatellites C. The repressor protein binds to the operator
(3) By using restriction endonuclease recognition
region of the operon and prevents RNA polymerase
from transcribing the operon.
sites, microsatellites
D. In the presence of an inducer, such as lactose or
(4) By using automated allolactose, the repressor is activated by interaction
DNA sequences with the inducer

(1) A, D (2) B, D
(3) B, C (4) A, C

83
197. Repetitive DNA make up very large portion of 204. VNTR varies in size from
human genome and are important for studying
(1) 0.1-20 mb (2) 0.1-20 kb
(1) Chromosome (2) Chromosome (3) 0.1-20 gb (4) 0.4-15 kb
structure dynamics, Evolution
(3) Both 1 & 2 (4) None of these 205. DNA from every tissue (such as blood, hair- follicle,
skin, bone, saliva, sperm etc.), from an individual
198. The human chromosome with the highest and least show the ________
number of genes in them are respectively:
(1) Same degree of (2) No degree of
(1) Chromosome 21 and (2) Chromosome 1 and polymorphism polymorphism
Y X (3) Variable degree of (4) Same degree of
(3) Chromosome 1 and (4) Chromosome X and polymorphism monomorphism
Y Y
206. Gel electrophoresis is used for
199. SNP-Single Nucleotide Polymorphism is
(1) Construction of recombinant DNA by joining
(1) Location on RNA where the single base differs with cloning vectors
(2) Location on proteins where the single base (2) Cutting of DNA into
differs fragments
(3) Location on genome where the single base of (3) Separation of DNA fragments according to
DNA differs their size
(4) Location on genome where bases of DNA (4) Isolation of DNA
differs molecule

200. Which one of the following techniques is employed 207. The basis of DNA fingerprinting
in human genetic counselling?
(1) Medium degree of polymorphism in sequences
(1) Serological technique(2) Pedigree analysis (2) Low degree (3) High degree of
(3) Polyploidy (4) Genetic engineering polymorphism polymorphism

201. Match the columns I and II wrt HGP.

(4) SNP

208. VNTR belongs to the class of satellite DNA referred

to as

(1) Minisatellite DNA (2) Microsatellite DNA

(3) Nanosatellite DNA (4) Repetitive DNA

209. RNA has additional roles as well. It functions as

(1) A-R, B-P, C-Q, D-S (2) A-Q, B-R, C-P, D-S
(1) Adapter (2) Structural
(3) A-P, B-R, C-Q, D-S (4) A-Q, B-P, C-R, D-S
(3) As a catalytic (4) All of the above
202. DNA probes used in finger printing are molecule

(1) Highly sensitive (2) UV beams 210. The process of protein synthesis inside the cell is
electron microscope called as
(3) DNA segments having radioactive isotopes (1) Transduction (2) Translation
(4) X-ray scanners (3) Transcription (4) Transformation

203. HGP was closely associated with the rapid 211. Which nucleic acid in some viruses can also act as
development of __________ genetic material?
(1) Biotechnology (2) Genetics (1) DNA (2) RNA
(3) Geno informatics (4) Bioinformatics (3) mRNA (4) tRNA

84
212. The first genetic material could be: 221. What is nucleosome?

(1) DNA (2) Fats (1) They are similar to

(3) Protein (4) RNA endosomes
(2) A structure formed by wrapping of negatively
213. Find the correct functions of RNA? charged DNA around positively charged
(1) It is a carrier of genetic information from DNA histone octamer
to ribosomes synthesis polypeptides (3) Negatively charged (4) Both 2 & 3.
(2) It carries amino acids(3) It is a part of histone octamers
to ribosomes ribosomes
222. Match the columns I and II with respect to
(4) All of the above nucleosome.

214. A nucleoside consists of

(1) Nitrogen Base (2) Sugar

(3) Phosphate group (4) Both 1& 2

215. A nucleotide is formed by (1) A - R, B - P ,C - Q (2) A - Q ,B-R, C-P

(1) Purines, pyrimidines (2) sugar and phosphate (3) A-P, B - R, C - Q (4) A - Q ,B - P ,C - R
and phosphate
223. Typical nucleosome consists of how many base
(3) Nitrogen base, sugar (4) Pyrimidines and pairs:
and phosphate sugar
(1) 146 (2) 200
216. The two polynucleotide chains in DNA are (3) 54 (4) 246
(1) Discontinous (2) Antiparallel
224. Human genome consists of approximately
(3) Semi-conservative (4) Parallel
(1) 20,000-25,000 (2) 22×10⁴ bp
217. DNA strands are antiparallel because of the (3) 3×10⁹ bp (4) 6×10⁹ bp
presence of

(1) H-bonds (2) Phosphodiester

225. What is incorrect for human chromosome 1'?
bonds (1) It is one of the (2) Its sequence was
(3) Peptide bonds (4) Disulphide bonds largest chromosome completed in May
2006
218. Which of the following is correct for Watson and (3) Chromosome 1 has
Crick's model of DNA. It resembles most genes (2968)
(1) 10 base pairs and 3.4 A distance for every turn. (4) It was the first chromosome to be sequenced
(2) 10 base pairs and 3.4 nm distance for each turn
of spiral.
226. DNA fingerprinting method is very useful for

(3) 20 base pairs and 34 (4) None of the above (1) DNA tests for identify and relationships
Å for each turn. (2) Forensic studies (3) Polymorphism

219. The coiling of double strands in B- DNA is:

(4) All

(1) Right-handed (2) Left-handed 227. In DNA fingerprinting digestion of DNA is followed
by
(3) Parallel (4) Symmetrical
(1) Southern blotting (2) Western blotting
220. Form of B-DNA is
(3) Isolation of DNA (4) Electrophoresis
(1) Right handed with (2) Left handed with 10
11bp per turn bp per turn
(3) Right handed with (4) Left handed with 9
10 bp per turn bp per turn

85
228. Identify P,Q,R. 231. In the following diagram, Identify the parental DNA
which is synthesised continuously & discontinuously
respectively

(1) P-Phosphate group, Q-Deoxyribose sugar, R-

Nitrogen base
(2) P-Nitrogen base, Q-Deoxyribose sugar, R-
Phophate group (1) Parental DNA- (2) Parental DNA -
3'-5',5'-3' 5'-3',3'-5''
(3) P-Nitrogen base, Q-Ribose sugar, R-Phosphate
group (3) Parental DNA- (4) Parental DNA-
5'-3',5'-3' 3'-5',3'-5'
(4) P-Phosphate group, Q-Ribose sugar, R-
Nitrogen base 232. Match the columns I and II.
229. Match the columns I and II.

(1) A-R, B-P, C-Q (2) A-Q, B-R, C-P

(3) A-P, B-R, C-Q (4) A-Q, B-P, C-R

(1) A-R, B-P, C-Q (2) A-Q, B-R, B-R, C-P

233. At which end does polyadenylation and capping
occurs?
(3) A-P, B-R, C-Q (4) A-Q, B-P, C-R

230. Choose the correct option for the below figure

(1) A-nucleotide; B - nucleoside; C - Phosphate

(2) A-nucleoside; B - nucleotide; C - Phosphate
(1) A-3' B-5' (2) A-3' A-3'
(3) A-Phosphate; B - nucleotide; C-nucleoside
(3) A-5' B-3' (4) B-5' B-5'
(4) A-nucleoside; B - Phosphate; C-nucleotide

86
234. With respect to ribosome what does A & P 237. In the following diagram the direction of anticodon
represent. is?

(1) t-RNA -3'-3' (2) t-RNA-3'-5'

(3) t-RNA-5'-3' (4) t-RNA-5'-5'

238. Match the columns I and II

(1) A-Peptidyl site P-t- (2) A-tRNA-binding site

RNA binding P- peptidyl site
(3) A-m-RNA site P- (4) A-t-RNA binding
peptidyle site site P-ATP site

235. The following represents a polysome, how many m-

(1) A-R, B-P, C-Q, D-S (2) A-Q, B-R, C-P, D-S
RNA are represented here? (3) A-P, B-R, C-Q, D-S (4) A-Q, B-S, C-R, D-P

239. Identify A, B, C, D, E.

(1) Only one (2) As many as

polypeptides are (1) A = Inhibitor, B = Operator, C = y gene, D= z
present gene, E = a gene, D= z gene

(3) Itcan be variabe (4) None of these (2) A = inducer, B = Operator, C = z gene, D= y
gene, E = a gene
236. Match the columns I and II WRT Translation. (3) A = inhibitor gene, B = operator, C = z gene,
D= y gene, E = a gene
(4) A = inducer, B = operator, C = y gene, D= z
gene, E = a gene

(1) A-R, B-P, C-Q, D-S (2) A-Q, B-R, C-P, D-S
(3) A-P, B-R, C-Q, D-S (4) A-Q, B-P, C-R, D-S

87
240. DNA Fingerprinting involves the following steps,
find out the missing steps
i. A
ii. Digestion of DNA by restriction endonucleases,
iii. Separation of DNA fragments by electrophoresis,
iv. B
v. Hybridisation using labelled VNTR probe, and
vi. C

(1) A. isolation of RNA, B-transferring (blotting)

of separated RNA fragments to synthetic
membranes, such as nitrocellulose or nylon C.
detection of hybridised RNA fragments by
autoradiography
(2) A. isolation of RNA, and converting into DNA
B-transferring (blotting) of separated DNA
fragments to synthetic membranes, such as
nitrocellulose or nylon C. detection of
hybridised DNA fragments by autoradiography
(3) A. isolation of DNA, B-transferring (blotting)
of separated DNA fragments to synthetic
membranes. such as nitrocellulose or nylon C.
detection of hybridised DNA fragments by
autoradiography
(4) A. isolation of RNA, B-transferring (blotting)
of separated DNA fragments to synthetic
membranes. such as nitrocellulose or nylon C.
detection of hybridised DNA fragments by
autoradiography

88
 Answer key

1 A 44 D 87 B 130 C 173 C 216 B

2 C 45 D 88 D 131 D 174 C 217 A
3 A 46 A 89 B 132 B 175 C 218 B
4 C 47 A 90 A 133 D 176 A 219 A
5 C 48 D 91 A 134 A 177 C 220 C
6 B 49 B 92 B 135 D 178 C 221 B
7 A 50 A 93 D 136 C 179 B 222 B
8 D 51 D 94 D 137 D 180 D 223 B
9 D 52 A 95 D 138 C 181 B 224 C
10 C 53 D 96 A 139 D 182 B 225 D
11 C 54 B 97 A 140 D 183 C 226 D
12 A 55 A 98 C 141 A 184 B 227 D
13 A 56 B 99 C 142 D 185 C 228 B
14 C 57 B 100 A 143 D 186 D 229 B
15 C 58 C 101 D 144 D 187 A 230 B
16 D 59 C 102 D 145 D 188 B 231 A
17 D 60 C 103 D 146 B 189 C 232 A
18 C 61 B 104 D 147 D 190 C 233 A
19 B 62 A 105 C 148 A 191 C 234 B
20 A 63 D 106 C 149 B 192 B 235 A
21 B 64 C 107 A 150 B 193 C 236 B
22 D 65 B 108 D 151 A 194 D 237 B
23 A 66 D 109 C 152 D 195 B 238 D
24 C 67 B 110 B 153 D 196 D 239 C
25 D 68 C 111 B 154 B 197 C 240 C
26 A 69 D 112 A 155 B 198 C
27 A 70 B 113 D 156 C 199 C
28 C 71 A 114 D 157 A 200 B
29 C 72 A 115 B 158 D 201 D
30 B 73 B 116 B 159 C 202 C
31 D 74 C 117 D 160 C 203 D
32 C 75 B 118 B 161 A 204 B
33 A 76 D 119 D 162 B 205 A
34 B 77 D 120 A 163 D 206 C
35 C 78 C 121 B 164 D 207 C
36 A 79 B 122 D 165 D 208 A
37 D 80 C 123 C 166 A 209 D
38 D 81 B 124 A 167 D 210 B
39 C 82 A 125 C 168 B 211 B
40 B 83 B 126 D 169 A 212 D
41 A 84 B 127 C 170 D 213 D
42 D 85 C 128 C 171 C 214 D
43 C 86 B 129 A 172 B 215 C
89
 EVOLUTION

1. Theory of natural selection dwells on 8. If the frequency of dominant allele is 60%, find out
the percentage of heterozygous individuals in the
(1) Role of environment population
in evolution
(2) Natural selection acting on favourable (1) 48% (2) 50%
variations (3) 47% (4) 45%
(3) Changes in gene complex resulting in heritable
9. Which of the following statement is/are correct?
variations
(4) None of the above (i) Adaptative ability is inherited

(ii) Adaptative ability has a genetic basis

2. The embryological support for evolution was
disproved by whose keen observations? (iii) Fitness is the end result of the ability to adapt
and get selected by nature
(1) Karl Ernst Von Baer (2) Ernst Heckel
(3) Charles Darwin (4) Alfred Wallace (1) Only (ii) (2) Both (i) and (iii)
(3) All of these (4) None of these
3. Theory of 'Saltations' was given by
10. Select the correct statement(s)
(1) G Mendel (2) Hugo de Vries
(i) Microbial experiment show the pre-existing
(3) J B S Haldane (4) H J Miller
advantageous mutations when selected will result in
4. Biochemical similarities performing a given function the observation of new phenotypes. Over few
among diverse organisms give clues for generation this would result in speciation.

(ii) Neanderthal fossils represent a human relative

(1) Common ancestry (2) Diverse ancestry
(3) Analogy (4) Convergence (iii) In 1938, a fish caught in South Africa happened
to be a coelacanth (lobe fins) which was thought to
5. Variation in gene frequencies within populations can be extinct. These animals evolved into the first
occur by chance rather than by natural selection. amphibians living on both land and water.
This is referred to as:
(iv) Lichens can be used as water pollution
(1) Genetic drift (2) Random mating indicators.

(3) Genetic load (4) Genetic flow (v) Alfred Wallace, a naturalist, who worked in
Malay Archaepelago (present Indonesia) had also
6. Darwin's finches are an excellent example of come to similar conclusion on natural selection as
reached by Darwinism
(1) Adaptive radiation (2) Seasonal migration
(3) Brood parasitism (4) Connecting links (1) (i) and (ii) (2) (i), (ii), (iii) and (v)
(3) (iii) and (iv) (4) (iv) and (v)
7. Industrial melanism is an example of
11. According to Oparin, which one of the following
(1) Drug resistance. was not present in the primitive atmosphere of the
(2) Darkening of skin due to smoke from industries earth?
(3) Protective resemblance with the surroundings
(4) Defensive adaptation of skin against ultraviolet (1) Methane (2) Oxygen
radiations.
(3) Hydrogen (4) Water vapour

90
12. Which of the following is a correct? 17. The term living fossil refers to a

(1) Homo erectus lived in east and central Asia and (1) Life like fossil well preserved in amber
used hides to protect their bodies. (2) Fossil formed from a
(2) Agriculture came living animal
around 18000 yrs (3) Living animal which is about to the fossilized.
back.
(4) Living organisation showing some very
(3) The skull of modern human resembles more primitive characters.
closely to baby chimpanzee than to adult
chimpanzee. 18. Stanley L. Miller conducted experiments before 1953
(4) All of the above on prebiotic earth environment using special
apparatus. The primary surprising products were
13. Choose the wrong statement regarding Hardy-
Weinberg principle. (1) Amino acids (2) Peptides
(3) Nucleotides (4) Simple sugars
(1) Allele frequencies in a population are stable
and constant from generation to generation. 19. Homologous organs show
(2) Sum total of all the allelic frequencies in a
population is 1
(1) Divergent evolution (2) Convergent
evolution
(3) Variation due to genetic drift results in changed
frequency of genes and alleles in future
(3) Parallel evolution (4) Both (b) and (c)
generations. 20. Which of the following statement is correct?
(4) Genetic recombination helps in maintaining
Hardy�Weinberg equilibrium (1) Life appeared about 500 M. yrs after the
formation of earth.
14. Select the correct order of geological time scale of (2) Louis Pasteur belived that life appeared only
earth from pre-existing life.
(1) Palaeozoic → (2) Archaeozoic → (3) Oparin advocated that life came from pre-
Archaeozoic → Palaeozoic → existing non-living organic molecules.
Coenozoic Proterozoic (4) All of the above
(3) Palaeozoic → (4) Mesozoic →
Mesozoic Archaeozoic →
21. The given figure shows an example of
→ Coenozoic Proterozoic

15. Which of the following features are correct for

Homo erectus ?
(i) Had a large brain around 900 c.c.
(ii) Probably ate meat.
(iii) Appeared about 1.5 mya year ago. (1) Homologous organs (2) Convergent
(iv) Evolved from H. habilis. evolution

(1) (i) and (ii) (2) (ii) and (iii) (3) Divergent evolution (4) Both (a) and (c)

(3) None of these (4) All of these 22. Hugo de vries gave his mutation theory on organic
evolution while working on
16. Fossil remains of Archaeopteryx indicates that
(1) Pisum sativum (2) Drosophila
(1) It was a flying reptile (2) It was a flying reptile
melanogaster
from Triassic. from Permian
(3) Oenothera (4) Althea rosea
(3) Reptiles gave rise to birds during Permian.
lamarckiana
(4) Reptiles gave rise to birds during Jurassic

91
23. The eye of octopus and eye of cat show different 29. Which of the following features is not of Homo
patterns of structure, yet they perform similar habilus
function. This is an example of
(1) First human like (2) 650-800cc brain
(1) Homologous organs that have evolved due to being capacity
divergent evolution. (3) Did not eat fruit (4) Hominid
(2) Analogous organs that have evolved due to surely
convergent evolution.
(3) Analogous organs that have evolved due to
30. Although all mammals have some common
characters, but they shows conspicuous differences
divergent evolution.
due to
(4) Homologous organs that have evolved due to
convergent evolution (1) Genetic drift (2) Convergence

24. According to Darwin, two different areas within a

(3) Divergence (4) Normsalisation
continent have different species because they have 31. Genetic drift is change of
different
(1) gene frequency in (2) appearance of
(1) Evolutionary (2) Ancestors same generation recessive genes
mechanisms
(3) gene frequency from one generation to next
(3) Environments (4) Evolutionary times
(4) None of the above
25. Who proposed that the first form of life could have
come from pre-existing non-living organic
32. Adaptive radiation refers to
molecules?
(1) adaptations due to geographical isolation
(1) S L Miller (2) Oparin and Haldane (2) evolution of different species from a common
ancestor
(3) Charles Darwin (4) Alfred Wallace
(3) migration of members of a species to different
26. Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of Cucurbita geographical areas
are examples of (4) power of adaptation in an individual to a
variety of environments
(1) Analogous organs (2) Homologous organs
(3) Vestigial organs (4) Retrogressive 33. When two species of different geneology come to
evolution resemble each other as a result of adaptation, the
phenomenon is termed
27. Among the human ancestors the brain size was more
than 1000 cc in: (1) divergent evolution (2) micro-evolution

(1) Homo (2) Homo erectus

(3) co-evolution (4) convergent evolution

neanderthalensis 34. The concept of chemical evolution is based on

(3) Ramapithecus (4) Homo habilis
(1) crystallization of
28. A location with luxuriant growth of lichens on the chemicals
trees indicates that the:- (2) interaction of water, air, and clay under intense
heat
(1) Trees are very (2) Trees are heavily
healthy infested (3) effect of solar
radiation on
(3) Location is highly (4) Location is not
chemicals
polluted polluted
(4) the possible origin of life by the combination of
chemicals under suitable environmental
conditions

92
35. Which one of the following describes correctly the 39. In the Hardy- Weinberg equation, the frequency of
homologous structures? heterozygous individual is represented by

(1) Organs appearing only in embryonic stage and (1) P² (2) 2pq
disappearing later in the adult
(2) Organs with anatomical similarities, but (3) pq (4) q²
performing different functions
(3) Organs with anatomical dissimilarities, but
40. Analogous structures are a result of
performing same functions
(4) Organs that have no function now, but had an (1) Convergent (2) shared ancestry
important function in ancestors evolution

36. The now extinct reptile group that evolved into

(3) stabilising selection (4) divergent evolution

mammals was: 41. The slow process by which new types of organism
arise from existing forms by genetic variation is
(1) Therapsids (2) Dinosaurs
called
(3) Thecodants (4) Sauropsids
(1) Hybridisation (2) Mutation
37. Directional selection favours:
(3) Evolution (4) Transformation
(1) Both extremes of a (2) Intermediate form of
42. The early-stage human embryo distinctly possesses
trait a trait
(3) Environmental (1) gills (2) gill slits
differences (3) external ear (pinna) (4) eyebrows
(4) One extreme form over the other extreme form
and over intermediate forms of the trait 43. In Miller's experiment, he used a mixture of CH₄,
NH₃, H₂ and water vapour in a closed flask to mimic
38. Given below is the representative evolutionary early earth conditions. What was the temperature at
history of vertebrates through geological periods. which this flask was kept?
A,B,C and D respectively are :
(1) 800 ° C (2) 1200 ° C
(3) 200 ° C (4) 400 ° C

44. Which of the following theory is dismissed by Louis

Pasteur's Experiment?

(1) Theory of (2) Theory of

panspermia spontaneous
generation
(3) Theory of special (4) Catastrophic theory
creation
(1) Dinosaurs, Thecodonts, Therapsids and
45. The eye of the octopus and mammals, this example
Pelycosaurs
does not hold similarity with which of the following
(2) Dinosaurs, Therapsids, Thecodonts and examples?
Pelycosaurs
(3) Pelycosaurs, Therapsids, Thecodonts and (1) Wings of butterfly (2) Flippers of Penguins
Dinosaurs and birds and Dolphins

(4) Therapsids, Dinosaurs, Pelycosaurs and (3) Brains of vertebrates (4) Both A and B
Thecodonts

93
46. Biochemical similarities performing a given function 51. Fitness according to Darwin refers to
among diverse organisms give clues for
(1) Number of species in (2) Useful variation is
(1) Common ancestry (2) Diverse ancestry community population

(3) Analogy (4) Convergence (3) Strength of an (4) Reproductive fitness

individual of an organism.
47. Which of the following conclusions is from
industrial melanism? 52. Which of the following statements is true?

(1) Camouflage causes the white moths to get

(1) A British scientist created the conditions
proposed by Oparin and Haldane in a closed
caught by predators more even in rural areas
flask with temperature of 800 degree Celsius in
during industrialisation.
electric discharge along with gases methane,
(2) During industrialisation, white variant of hydrogen, ammonia and water vapour and
moths got wiped out completely in urban areas. observed formation of amino acid.
(3) During industrialisation, lichen will increase in (2) Some similar experimental setups were also
number. prepared by other scientists and formation of
(4) In a mixed population, those that can better sugar, nitrogenous bases, Pigments and Fats
adapt, survive and increase in population size. was recorded.
(3) The processes of chemical evolution were
48. If p=0.8 calculate q
occurring elsewhere in space was concluded by
(1) 0.8 (2) 0.2
the analysis of content of gaseous cloud.

(3) 6.4 (4) 0.4

(4) The first self replicating metabolic capsule of
life arose 3 billion years back
49. Read the given statements and select the correct ones
.
53. In the experiment given diagram which of the
following groups of gases were used to simulate
(i) Swan-necked flask experiment done by Louis
primitive atmosphere?
Pasteur
(ii) The early belief of the spontaneous origin of life
was disproved Louis Pasteur
(iii)Louis Pasteur is famous for supporting biogenisis
(iv) The idea that life originates from pre-existing life
is referred to as biogenesis theory.
(v) Father Suarez was one of the greatest supporter
of theory of special creation
(vi) Cosmozoic theory of the origin of life states life
came from outter space

(1) (i), (ii),,(iv) only (2) (ii), (v)

(3) (iii), (iv), (v) (4) (i), (ii), (iii),(iv) ,(v) (1) N₂,CH₄,C₂H₆ (2) NH₃,H₂O,CH₄,H₂
(3) N₂O,H₂O,NO₂,SO₂ (4) CH₄,H₂,NO₂,SO₂
50. According to one of the most widely accepted
theories earth’s atmosphere before origin of life was 54. Alfred Wallace worked in
(1) Oxidising (2) Oxidizing along with (1) Galapagos Island (2) Australian island
H₂ Continent
(3) Reducing with free (4) Reducing with (3) Malay Archipelago (4) None of these
O₂ in small amount oxygen absent in O₂
form

94
55. Which of the following statement is true? 59. Replacemetn of the lighter coloured variety of
peppered moth (Biston betulari1) to its darker
(1) Wings of birds and insects are homologous
variety (biston carbonari1) in England is the
organs
example of
(2) Human hands and bird’s wings are analogous
organs. (1) Natural selection (2) Regeneration

(3) Human hands and bat’s wings are analogous (3) Genetic isolation (4) Temporal isolation
organs
60. Refer to the given figure. What does it represent
(4) Flipper of penguin and dolphin are analogous
organs

56. One of the following options gives one correct

example each of convergent evolution and divergent
evolution?

(1) Convergent (2) Adaptive radiation

evolution
(3) Divergent evolution (4) Both (2) and (3)

61. The diversity in the type of beaks of finches adapted

(1) A (2) B to different feeding habits on the Galapogos islands,
as observed by Darwin, provides evidence for
(3) C (4) D
(1) Intraspecific (2) Interspecific
57. Evolutionary convergent is characterized by competition competition
(1) Development of dissimilar characteristics in (3) Origin of species by (4) Origin of species by
closely related groups natural selection mutation.
(2) Developments of common set of characteristics
62. Read the following statements carefully and select
in groups of different ancestry
the correct ones.
(3) Development of characteristics by random i)Alfred Wallace, naturalist who worked in Malay
mating Archipelago had also come to similar conclusions as
(4) Replacement of common characteristics in Darwin around the same time.
different groups ii)August Weismann by careful experimentation
demonstrated that life comes only form pre- existing
58. Industrial melanism as observed in peppered moth life.
proves that iii)The organs which have the same fundamental
(1) The dark melanic form of the moth has no structure but are different in functions are called
selective advantage over lighter form in homologous organs.
industrial area iv)Rate of appearance of new form is directly
proportional to life span of organism.
(2) The lighter-form moth has no selective
advantage either in polluted industrial area or (1) (i) and (iii) (2) (i) and (ii)
non polluted area (3) (ii) and (iv) (4) (iii) and (iv)
(3) Melanism is a pollution generated features
(4) The true black melanic forms escaped
unnoticed so they managed to survive resulting
in more population of black moths.

95
63. By the statement ‘survival of the fittest’, Darwin 67. Given below are four statements (A-4) each with one
meant that or two blanks. Select the option which correctly fills
up the blanks in two statements.
(1) The strongest of all
(1) Wings of butterfly and birds look alike and are
species survives
the results of (i) evolution.
(2) The most intelligent of the species survives (2) Miller showed that CH₄,H₂,NH₃ and …(i)when
(3) The cleverest of the exposed to electric discharge in a flask resulted in
species survives formation of (ii).
(4) The species most adaptable to changes survives. (3)Vermiform appendix is a (i) organ and an (ii)
evidence of evolution.
64. Which of the following are the two key concepts of (4)According to Darwin evolution took place due to
Darwinian theory of evolution? (i) and (ii) of the fittest.

(1) Genetic drift and (2) Adaptive radiation (1) (A-)(i) convergent; (4) –(i) small variations, (ii)
mutation and homology survival
(3) Mutation and (4) Branching descent (2) (1)-(i) convergent; (2)-(i) oxygen , (ii)
natural selection and natural selection nucleosides
(3) (2)-(i) water vapour, (ii) amino acids; (3) –(i)
65. Given below are the three statements each with one homologous, (ii) anatomical
or two blanks. Select the option which correctly fills
up the blanks in any two statements .
(4) (3)-(i) vestigial, (ii) anatomical; (4) –(i)
mutations, (ii) multiplication
1)For a long time it was also believed that life came
out of decaying and rotting matter like straw, mud,
68. Darwinism explains all the following except
etc. This was the theory of (i).
2)During post- industrialisation period, the tree (1) Offspring with better traits that overcome
trunks became dark due to industrial smoke and competition are best suited for the environment
soots. Under this condition the…(i) did not survive (2) Variations may or may not be inherited from
due to predators, while (i)… survived. parents to offspring through genes
3)Lamarck said that evolution of the life forms had
occurred but driven by (i) of organs.
(3) Within each species, there are variations
(4) Organisms tend to produce more number of
(1) (1) –(i) panspermia, (3) –(i)natural selection offspring than can survive.
(2) (2)-(i) white – winged moth,(i) dark- winged
moth (3) -(i) use and disuse 69. Single step large mutation leading to speciation is
also called
(3) (1)-(i) spontaneous generation(2)-(i)dark-
winged moth, (ii) white-winged moth (1) Founder effect (2) Saltation
(4) (1)-(i) eternity of life (3)-(i) use and disuse (3) Branching descent (4) Natural selection.

66. Which of the following statements about natural 70. Match column I with column II and select the
selection are correct? correct option from the given codes.
i)Tends to increase the characters that enhance
survival and reproduction
ii)Individuals with better adaptive ability leave more
progeny
iii)Was considered as mechanism of evolution by
Darwin
(1) A-(iii),B-(iv), C- (2) A-(iv),B-(iii),C-
(1) (i),(ii) and (iii) (2) (i) and (ii) only (i),D-(ii) (ii),D-(i)
(3) (III) only (4) (i) and (iii) only (3) A-(ii),B-(iii),C-(i),D- (4) A-(i),B-(iv),C-(iii),D-
(iv) (ii)

96
71. Match column I with column II and select the 77. Early Greek thinkers thought units of life called
correct option from the given codes. spores were transferred to different snob planets
including earth. What is this theory referred to as ?

(1) Cosmic panspermia (2) Special creation

theory theory
(3) Theory of (4) Theory of biogenesis
abiogenesis
(1) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(ii), (2) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv),
78. How many examples in the list given below represent
D-(i) D-(iii)
homology?
(3) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(ii), (4) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(iii), (i) Forelimbs of cheetah and human
D-(iii) D-(ii) (ii) Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of cucurbita
(iii) Eyes of octopus and mammals
72. At a particular locus, frequency of alleleb 'b' is 0.6
(iv) Brain of vertebrates
and that of allele a is 0.4. What would be the
(v) Tendrils of cucurbita and pea
frequency of heterozygotes in a random mating
(vi) Sweet potato and potato
population at equilibrium?
(1) Two (2) Three
(1) 0.36 (2) 0.16
(3) Four (4) Five
(3) 0.24 (4) 0.48
79. According to theory of spontaneous generation:
73. How long did the earth exist before life appeared on
it? (1) Life was created by
special creation
(1) 500 Million years (2) 1 billion year ago
ago (2) Life came from pre-existing non-living organic
molecules
(3) 10 billion years ago (4) 4 billion years ago
(3) Life came from dead (4) Life came from
74. Who experimentally discarded the theory of and decaying matter another planet
spontaneous generation?
80. Which of the following is a correct flowchart with
(1) Louis Pasteur (2) Oparian & Haldane respect to evolution of mammals?
(3) Darwin (4) Alfred Wallace
(1) Synapsids → Pelycosaurs → Therapsids →
75. Embryological support for evolution given by Ernst
Mammals
Haeckel includes the (2) Sauropsids → Synapsids → Thecodont→
Mammals
(1) Presence of gill slits all over the body in adult
human
(3) Therapsids → Pelycosaurs → Synapsids →
Mammals
(2) Absence of vestigial gill slits in invertebrates's
embryo
(4) Therapsids → Synapsids → Pelycosaurs →
Mammals
(3) Absence of vestigial gill slits in human's embryo
(4) Presence of row of vestigeal slits in embryo of 81. Choose the correct order in which the evolution of
all vertebrates behind the head plant forms occurred through geological periods.

76. What does presence of homologous organs in

(1) Chlorophyte ancestor → Rhynia-type plant →
Psilophyton → Tracheophyte ancestor
different animals indicate?
(2) Psilophyton → Rhynia-type plants
(1) Different ancestry (2) Common ancestry →Tracheophyte ancestor → Chlorophyte
(3) Sometimes different ancestors
ancestry (3) Rhynia-type plants → Chlorophyte ancestors
(4) Sometimes common but finally different →Tracheophyte ancestor → Psilophyton
ancestry (4) Chlorophyte ancestors →Tracheophyte
ancestors → Rhynia-type plants → Psilophyton

97
82. Which of the following differences between 85. Match Column-I with Column-II.
Lamarckism and Darwinism is incorrect? Select the correct option.

(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D
(1) a - 1, b - 4, c - 2 , d - (2) a - 4, b - 1, c - 2 , d -
83. Identify the correct conclusion regarding the given 3 3
statements.
i. There are patterns in the fossil record that suggest
(3) a - 4, b - 2 , c - 1, d - (4) a - 4, b - 1, c- 3, d - 2
3
other species have diverged from a single ancestor
species.
86. How many examples in the list given below represent
ii. There are biogeographic patterns in the
homology?
distribution of species, for instance distinct bird
(i) Forelimbs of cheetah and human
species on an island tend to resemble one another,
(ii) Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of cucurbita
suggesting a common ancestor.
(iii) Eyes of octopus and mammals
iii. There are common stages in the early
(iv) Brain of vertebrates
embryological development of organisms
(v) Tendrils of cucurbita and pea
representing several distinct vertebrate groups.
(vi) Sweet potato and potato
iv. Anatomical structures, such as forelimbs, in
different groups appear to be modified versions of (1) Two (2) Three
structures that might have been present in a common (3) Four (4) Five
ancestor.
87. Select the correct statement about the Big Bang
(1) These are the example of a macro evolutionary
theory.
process.
(2) They are the evidences for Lamarck's theory of (1) It talks of a many huge explosions
inheritance. unimaginable in physical terms.

(3) They are the evidences for Darwin's theory of (2) The universe expanded and hence, the
common descent. temperature increased. Hydrogen and Helium
formed sometime later
(4) They are the examples of natural selection
which occurs within populations, where (3) The gases condensed under gravitation and
artificial selection does not occur. formed the galaxies of the present day universe.
(4) In the solar system of the Milky Way galaxy,
84. Select the correct statement among the following. earth was supposed to have been formed about
(1) The universe is very old – almost 20000 million 4.5 million years back.
years old.
88. When did life appear on earth?
(2) Huge clusters of galaxies comprise the universe.
Galaxies contain stars and clouds of gas and (1) 500 billion years after the formation of Earth
dust. (2) Almost four billion (3) Both A and B
(3) The Big Bang theory attempts to explain to us years back.
the origin of universe. (4) Almost three billion
(4) All of these years back

98
89. Select the correct statement among the following. 95. Special creation theory has three connotations.
Select the correct connotation among the following.
(1) Some scientists believe that life came from
outside. (1) All living organisms (species or types) that we
(2) Early Greek thinkers thought units of life called see today were created as such.
spores were transferred to different planets (2) The diversity was always the same since
including earth. creation and will be the same in future also.
(3) ‘Panspermia’ is still a favourite idea for some (3) Earth is about 40000 (4) Both (A) and (B)
astronomers. years old
(4) All of these
96. Select the correct statement among the following.
90. For a long time it was also believed that life came (1) All the ideas of Special creation theory were
out of decaying and rotting matter like straw, mud, strongly challenged during the eighteenth
etc. This was the theory of _________. century
(1) Biogenesis (2) Spontaneous (2) Based on observations made during a sea
generation voyage in a sail ship called H.M.S. Beagle
(3) Non-Spontaneous (4) Both A and B round the world, Charles Darwin concluded
generation that existing living forms share similarities to
varying degrees not only among themselves but
91. Select the incorrect statement among the following. also with life forms that existed millions of
years ago. Many such life forms do exist
(1) Louis Pasteur by careful experimentation
anymore.
demonstrated that life comes only from pre-
existing life. (3) There had been extinctions of different life
forms in the years gone by just as new forms of
(2) Louis Pasteur showed that in presterilised
life arose at same periods of history of earth.
flasks, life did not come from killed yeast while
in another flask open to air, new living (4) Any population has built in variation in
organisms arose from ‘killed yeast’. characteristics.

(3) Spontaneous generation theory was dismissed 97. Chemical evolution refers to-
by Louis Pasteur.
(4) Louis Pasteur answered how the first life form
(1) Formation of diverse inorganic molecules from
organic constituents
came on earth.
(2) Formation of diverse organic molecules from
92. In S.L. Miller’s electric discharge experiment, he radioactive constituents
observed formation of _______. (3) Formation of diverse organic molecules from
(1) Amino sugar (2) Glucosamine inorganic constituents

(3) Amino acid (4) Proteins (4) Formation of diverse non-reducing molecules
from inorganic constituents
93. In experiments similar to S.L. Miller’s discharge
experiment others observed, formation of how many 98. Fossils are _____
of the following substances. Sugars, Nitrogen gas, (1) The preserved remains of the past life forms.
Pigment, Fats, Nitrogen bases, Amino sugar
(2) Mineralized form of hard body parts such as
(1) 3 (2) 4 bones, teeth, etc.
(3) 5 (4) 6 (3) Found mainly in the layers of sedimentary
rocks.
94. The history of Earth can be studied in terms of-
(4) All of these
(1) Epochs (2) Periods
(3) Eras (4) All of these

99
99. Consider the following statements about fossils: 102. Embryological support for evolution was proposed
(a) Rock sediments of different ages contain fossils by ______ based upon the observation of certain
of life forms that died during the formation of that features during embryonic stage common to all
particular layer of sediment. vertebrates that are absent in adult.
(b) Fossil records are based on the sequence of
occurrence of fossils in
(1) Ernst Mayr (2) JBS Haldane

various strata of sedimentary rocks. (3) Ernst Haeckel (4) Charles Lyell
Select the correct option.
103. Sweet potato is a ___(I)___ modification whereas
(1) Both (a) and (b) are (2) (a) is true but (b) is potato is a ___(II)___ modification.
true. false.
(1) (I)- Stem (2) (II)- Root
(3) Both (a) and (b) are (4) (a) is false but (b) is
false. true.
(3) Both A and B (4) None of these

100. Which of the following represents the

104. The similar structures with different functions
present in different species because of their common
paleontological evidence of evolution?
ancestry is known as _____
(1) Preserved remains of Dinosaurs obtained from
sedimentary rocks.
(1) Analogous structures (2) Homologous
structures
(2) Presence of (3) Presence of
homologous analogous structures.
(3) Vestigial organs (4) Homoplasy
structures. 105. Presence of homologous structures in different but
(4) Presence of vestigial related organisms is the result of _______
parts.
(1) Common ancestry (2) Divergent evolution
101. Given below is the family tree of dinosaurs and their (3) Convergent (4) Both A and B
living present day counterpart organisms. Which of evolution
the given options correctly name A, B and C?
106. The image shows the forelimbs of a whale, bat,
cheetah and human (all mammals). Choose the
correct option regarding the same.

(1) A: Triceratops; B: Archaeopteryx; C:

Crocodilian
(2) A: Triceratops; B: Crocodilian; C:
Archaeopteryx (1) The basic similarities in the arrangement of
bones in forelimbs of whales, bats, cheetahs and
(3) A: Archaeopteryx; B: Triceratops; C:
humans reflect their common ancestry.
Crocodilian
(2) The forelimbs of whales, bats, cheetahs and
(4) A: Archaeopteryx; B: Crocodilian; C:
humans are analogous structures.
Triceratops
(3) The image represents structures that evolved
from convergent evolution.
(4) The image represents vestigial structures.

100
107. Which of the following structures represent 113. Match Column-I with Column-II.
homology? Select the correct option.

(1) Wings of butterflies (2) Eyes of octopus and

and birds mammals
(3) Thorns and tendrils of Bougainvillea and
Cucurbita
(4) Flippers of penguins
and dolphins

108. Which of the following structures is homologous to

the wing of a bird? (1) a - 1, b - 4, c - 2 , d - (2) a - 4, b - 1, c - 2 , d -
3 3
(1) Wing of a moth (2) Hind limb of the
rabbit (3) a - 4, b - 2, c - 1, d - 3 (4) a - 4, b - 1, c - 3, d - 2

(3) Flipper of the whale (4) The dorsal fin of a 114. Select the incorrect match from the following
shark options.

109. Independent evolution of structures with similar (1) Tendrils and passionflower and thorns of
functions but different anatomy in distantly related pomegranate - homologous organs.
organisms is known as _____ (2) Tendrils of Vitis and thorns of Carissa –
(1) Convergent (2) Divergent evolution homologous organs.
evolution (3) Tendrils of balloon vine and bulbils of Agave –
(3) Homology (4) Mutation homologous organs.
(4) Scale leaves of onion and spines of Opuntia –
110. The process of _____ evolution develops similar analogous organs.
features in organisms with separate ancestries.

(1) Divergent (2) Convergent

115. Industrial melanism is an example of

(3) Homology (4) Speciation (1) Neo Darwinism (2) Natural selection
(3) Mutation (4) Neo Lamarckism
111. Analogous structures are a result of ______

(1) Stabilizing selection (2) Divergent evolution

116. The given image shows white-winged and dark-
winged moths.
(3) Convergent (4) Shared ancestry (a) Image I represents the survival advantage of
evolution white winged moths in unpolluted areas.
(b) Image II represents the survival advantage of
112. Match Column-I with Column-II.
dark winged moths in polluted areas.
Select the correct option.
Select the correct option.

(1) Both (a) and (b) are (2) (a) is true but (b) is
true. false.
(3) Both (a) and (b) are (4) (a) is false but (b) is
(1) a - 1, b - 4, c - 2 , d - (2) a - 4, b - 1, c - 2 , d - false. true.
3 3
117. Which of the following serves as an indicator of
(3) a - 4, b - 2, c - 1, d - 3 (4) a - 4, b - 1, c - 3, d - 2
atmospheric pollution?

(1) Lichens (2) Rhizopus

(3) Penicillin (4) Lycopodium

101
118. Match Column-I with Column-II. 124. Consider the following statements.
Select the correct option. (a) Darwin compared the animals and plant species
of Galapagos Islands with those of mainland of
South America
(b) He found observable and distinct similarities and
differences among them.
(c) Flora and fauna of the Galapagos Islands do not
exhibit resemblances to that of the South American
mainland.
(1) a - 1, b - 4, c - 2 , d - (2) a - 4, b - 1, c - 2 , d -
Select the correct option.
3 3
(3) a - 4, b - 2, c - 1, d - 3 (4) a - 4, b - 1, c - 3, d - 2 (1) Both (a) and (b) are (2) (a) is true but (b and
true. c) are false.
119. Assertion: Evolution is not a directed process in the (3) Both (a) and (b) are (4) All are false.
sense of determinism. Reason: Evolution is based on false.
chance events that occur in nature.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and

125. Adaptive radiation occurs when
Reason is correct explanation of Assertion. (1) Lineages of an ancestral speciesencounter an
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but empty niche.
Reason is not the correct explanation of (2) Populations of a species exhibit random
Assertion. mating.
(3) Assertion is true, but (4) Assertion is false, but (3) Gene flow between the populations of a species
Reason is false. Reason is true continues.

120. The mechanism of adaptive radiation was first

(4) Adaptive radiation does not occur in nature.
explained by 126. Darwin’s finches are an example of
(1) Darwin (2) Morgan (1) Adaptive radiation (2) Microevolution
(3) Lamarck (4) Hugo de Vries (3) Genetic drift (4) Gene flow
121. Select the correct order of extinction of following 127. Adaptive radiation occurs when
dinosaurs?
I. Stegosaurus (1) Lineages of an ancestral speciesencounter an
II. Brachiosaurus empty niche.
III. Pteranodon (2) Populations of a species exhibit random
IV. Triceratops mating.
V. Tyrannosaurus
(3) Gene flow between the populations of a species
(1) II, I, III, V, IV (2) II, I, V, IV, III continues.
(3) III, V, IV, II, I (4) None of these (4) Adaptive radiation does not occur in nature.

122. Diversification of single ancestral species into many 128. Evolution of different species in a given area starting
species in a relatively short period of time is called from a point and spreading to other geographical
areas is known as
(1) Artificial selection (2) Adaptive radiation
(3) Homology (4) Natural selection
(1) Adaptive radiation (2) Natural selection
option
123. Lamarck was a ________. (3) Migration option (4) Divergent evolution
(1) French zoologist (2) German botanist 129. _______ and ___________ are the two key concepts
(3) French naturalist (4) British botanist of Darwinian theory of Evolution.

(1) Branching descent (2) Natural Selection

(3) Both A and B (4) None of these

102
130. The evolution of multiple species by the process of 134. Evolution by natural selection requires
adaptive radiation cannot occur
(1) Presence of acquired variations among the
(1) On remote islands (2) In Darwin’s finches individuals
(3) In Australian (2) Presence of genetic variations among the
marsupials individuals
(4) In a habitat with a large number of existing (3) Isolated habitat (4) Constant
species environmental
conditions
131. When more than one (i) appeared to have occurred
in an isolated geographical area (representing 135. Match the placental mammals given in column-I to
different habitats), one can call this (ii). their corresponding Australian marsupials given in
Select the correct option regarding the given column-II
statement.

(1) (i) Adaptive radiation; (ii) Divergent evolution

(2) (i) Adaptive radiation; (ii) Convergent
evolution
(3) (i) Convergent evolution; (ii) Adaptive
radiation
(4) (i) Divergent evolution; (ii) Adaptive radiation
(1) a - 1, b - 4, c - 2 , d - (2) a - 4, b - 1, c - 2 , d -
3 3
132. Australian marsupials correspond to the placental (3) a - 4, b - 2, c - 1, d - 3 (4) a - 4, b - 1, c - 3, d - 2
mammals present in North America because
136. Consider the following statements:
(1) Gene flow occurred between Australian (a) Evolution by natural selection started with the
marsupials and North American placental origin of cellular life forms with differences in
mammals metabolic capability.
(2) Adaptive radiation in Australian marsupials (b) The theory of natural selection was given by
paralleled the evolution of placental mammals Lamarck.
in North America. Select the correct option.
(3) Some North American placental mammal (1) Both (A) and (B) are (2) (A) is true but (B) is
served as founder population for Australian true. false.
marsupials.
(3) Both (A) and (B) is (4) (A) is false but (B) is
(4) some Australian marsupials served as founder false. true
population for North American placental
mammals 137. The rate of evolution of new species in fishes is
slower than that of in bacterial populations because
133. Match the placental mammals given in Column-I to
their corresponding Australian marsupials given in (1) The evolution of new species is linked to their
Column-II. lifespan.
Select the correct option. (2) Evolution of new species is linked to the
habitat.
(3) Both fishes and bacteria exhibit the same rate
of evolution.
(4) Species do not evolve
at all.

(1) a - 1, b - 4, c - 2 , d - (2) a - 4, b - 1, c - 2 , d -
3 3
(3) a - 4, b - 2, c - 1, d - 3 (4) a - 4, b - 1, c - 3, d - 2

103
138. Evolution of antibiotic-resistant bacterial population 144. Select the correct option regarding Lamarck’s
represents the fact that principles of evolution

(1) Acquired traits are (2) Nature selects for (1) Use and disuse; inheritance of acquired
inherited. fitness. characters.
(3) Genetic variations are not a prerequisite factor (2) Natural selection;
for natural selection. fitness.
(4) The theory of spontaneous generation of life .
holds true. (3) Mutation; inheritance of acquired characters.

139. Fitness refers to

(4) Inheritance of acquired characters; gene flow

(1) The ability of some organisms to survive under 145. Evolution of long and muscular neck of present day
hostile conditions due to the presence of giraffe occurred as giraffes
adaptive genetic features. stretched their necks higher to reach the higher
canopy of tall trees. The given
(2) The ability of an organism to survive hostile
statement represents the view of ………… about
conditions due to acquired
evolution.
features with no genetic basis.
(3) The ability of (4) Both a and b are (1) Darwin (2) Lamarck
organisms to true. (3) Louis Pasteur (4) Cuvier
migrate.
146. Match the aspects of Darwin’s theory of natural
140. _____ is the end result of the ability to adapt and get selection in Column-I with the correct description in
selected by nature. Column-II.

(1) Mutation (2) Fitness

(3) Adaptation (4) Acclimatization

141. Which of the following options correctly represent

the two key features of Darwin’s theory of
evolution?
(1) a- 2, b - 4, c - 1 , d - 3 (2) a - 4, b - 1, c - 3 , d -
(1) Mutation and (2) Artificial and natural 2
natural selection. selection.
(3) a - 4, b - 1, c - 2, d - 3 (4) a - 4, b - 2, c - 1, d - 3
(3) Branching descent and natural selection.
(4) Branching descent 147. Hugo Devries explained mutations as a source of
and mutation. genetic variations while working on

(1) Evening primrose (2) Garden pea

142. Saltation is referred as-
(3) Finches (4) Fruit fly
(1) Single step small (2) Multiple step small
mutation mutation 148. Variations caused by mutation, as proposed by
(3) Single step large (4) None of these Hugo de Vries, are
mutation (1) Random and (2) Random and
directional directionless
143. The first scientist to propose that evolution is a
natural process rather than a divine intervention was (3) Small and directional (4) Small and
directionless
(1) Darwin (2) Lamarck
(3) Pasteur (4) Hugo de Vries 149. According to Hugo Devries and Darwin, the driving
factor for evolution is _____ and _____ respectively.

(1) Minor variations, (2) Natural selection,

mutation mutation
(3) Mutation, minor (4) Mutation, acquired
variations variations

104
150. Mutations are random and directionless while 155. How many of the following factors are known to
Darwinian variations are affect Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
Gene migration, gene flow, genetic drift, mutation,
(1) Small and directional (2) Large and
genetic recombination, natural selection
directional
(3) Small and (4) Large and (1) 4 (2) 5
directionless directionless (3) 6 (4) 3

151. Consider the following statements 156. Total genes and their alleles in a population make
(a) For Darwin, evolution was gradual and driven by
small genetic variations.
(1) Gene pool (2) Genotype

(b) For de Vries, evolution was a single step process (3) Phenotype (4) Mutation
driven by large mutation.
Select the correct option
157. Consider the following statements:
(a) Allele frequencies are supposed to remain
(1) Both (a) and (b) are (2) (a) is true but (b) is constant over generations.
true. false. (b) Hardy Weinberg equation is the algebraic
(3) Both (a) and (b) are (4) (a) is false but (b) is representation of the allele frequencies of a
false. true. population.
Select the correct option.
152. According to Hugo de Vries, large differences
(1) Both (a) and (b) are (2) (a) is true but (b) is
among the individuals evolve by ______ without any
true. false.
intermediate forms.
(3) Both (a) and (b) are (4) (a) is false but (b) is
(1) Gradual and small (2) Natural selection false. true.
changes
(3) Saltation (4) Gene flow 158. Genetic equilibrium represents that

153. Assertion: Evolution refers to modification in the

(1) The population is not evolving for the locus
under study.
lines of descent
Reason: Natural selection is the equal survival (2) The allele frequencies and genotype frequencies
success of individuals of a population. remain constant over generations.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and

(3) The allele frequencies remain constant over
generations but genotype frequencies change.
Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but
(4) Both (A) and (B) are
correct.
Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion. 159. Select the incorrect match:
(3) Assertion is true, but (4) Assertion is false, but
Reason is false. Reason is true.
(1) Frequency of a dominant allele in the
population – p.
154. Assertion: Darwin’s theory of evolution was based (2) Frequency of a recessive allele in the population
on the inheritance of adaptive genetic variations. – q.
Reason: He could not recognize the mechanism of (3) Frequency of heterozygous dominant genotype
inheritance. – 2pq.
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and (4) Frequency of homozygous dominant genotype
Reason is correct explanation of Assertion. – q2.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but
Reason is not the correct explanation of
160. The binomial expansion of (p + q)² is
Assertion. (1) p² + 2 pq + q² = 1 (2) p² + q² = 1
(3) Assertion is true, but (4) Assertion is false, but (3) p² + 2 pq = 1 (4) p+q=1
Reason is false. Reason is true.

105
161. Differences between expected and observed allele 166. Genetic drift operates in
frequencies in a population represent that
(1) A small isolated (2) Large isolated
(1) The population is at hardy-Weinberg population population
equilibrium. (3) Non-reproductive (4) Slow reproductive
(2) The population is population population
evolving.
(3) The population is deviating from hardy-
167. Match the terms in Column-I with the correct
description in Column-II.
Weinberg equilibrium.
(4) Both (B) and (C) are
correct.

162. A population will not exist in Hardy Weinberg

equilibrium if

(1) There is no (2) The population is

migration large (1) a- 1, b - 4, c - 2 , d - 3 (2) a - 2, b - 1, c - 4 , d -
3
(3) Individuals mate (4) There are no
selectively mutations (3) a - 3, b - 2, c - 4, d - 1 (4) a - 4, b - 1, c - 3, d - 2

163. Consider the following statements: 168. A small number of finches from the mainland were
(a) Gene flow, genetic drift, mutation, natural blown by a cyclone to a new island. The resultant
selection and genetic recombination deviate the new population of finches had distinct gene pool
population from the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. from the source population. It
(b) Small population size is required to maintain represents the
constant allele frequencies over generations.
(1) Gene flow (2) Mutation
Select the correct option.
(3) Founder effect (4) Selective mating
(1) Both (a) and (b) are (2) (A) is true but (B) is
true. false. 169. Name the types of natural selection as depicted in
(3) Both (A) and (B) are (4) (A) is false but (B) is images I, II and III. Select the correct option.
false. true.

164. Select the correctly matched option.

(1) Gene flow: Changes in allele frequencies by a

chance event.
(2) Mutation: Migration of individuals of the
population.
(3) Random mating: Equal chances of each
individual in a population to mate with any
other individual.
(4) Natural selection: Selection of mate on the
(1) I-Stabilizing; II-Disruptive; III-Directional
basis of morphological features. (2) I-Stabilizing; II-Directional; III-Disruptive
(3) I-Directional; II-Stabilizing; III-Disruptive
165. Addition or removal of alleles from the gene pool of
a population due to migration of individuals is
(4) I-Disruptive; II-Stabilizing; III-Directional
known as
170. Name the type of natural selection that tends to
(1) Genetic drift (2) Gene flow reduce the genetic variations in the population
without affecting the mean.
(3) Natural selection (4) Artificial selection
(1) Disruptive selection (2) Directional selection
(3) Stabilizing selection (4) Both a and b are
correct

106
171. The black-bellied finches with large beak sizes are 177. _______ were present but they all fell to form coal
able to feed on the most abundant food types in the deposits slowly.
habitat while the finches intermediate and small
beak size die at a young age due to starvation. This
(1) Giant grass (2) Giant ferns

represents: (3) Pteridophytes (4) Both B and C

(1) Disruptive selection (2) Directional selection 178. South America mammals resembled how many of
(3) Stabilizing selection (4) Sexual selection the following animals?
Horse, Cow, Monkey, Hippopotamus, Bear, Deer,
172. Natural selection in which more individuals acquire Rabbit
mean character value is known as ________ while
the one wherein more individuals acquire peripheral
(1) 5 (2) 4

character value at both ends of the distribution curve (3) 3 (4) 2

is ________
179. Select the incorrect statement among the following.
(1) Stabilizing selection; disruptive selection
(1) Due to continental drift, when South America
(2) Disruptive selection; stabilizing selection joined North America, these animals were
(3) Disruptive selection; directional selection overridden by North American fauna
(4) Stabilizing selection; directional selection (2) Due to continental drift pouched mammals of
Australia survived because of lack of
173. Which of the given statement is incorrect? competition from any other mammal.
(1) The peak of the distribution curve gets higher (3) Evolution of horse, elephant, virus, etc., are
and narrower by stabilizing selection. special stories of evolution.
(2) Directional selection shifts the peak of the (4) The most successful story is the evolution of
distribution curve in one direction. man with language skills and self-
(3) Disruptive selection does not affect the peak of consciousness.
the distribution curve.
180. Select the correct statement about cells with a
(4) Stabilizing selection does not affect the mean of membranous envelope
the phenotype.
(1) The mechanism of how non-cellular aggregates
174. Sea weeds and few plants existed probably around of giant macromolecules could evolve into cells
with membranous envelope is not known.
(1) 0.32 bya (2) 400 mya
(3) 500 mya (4) 3.2 bya
(2) Some of these cells had the ability to release O2.
(3) The reaction could have been similar to the
175. Jawless fish probably evolved around - light reaction in photosynthesis where water is
split with the help of solar energy captured and
(1) 400 mya (2) 350 mya
channelised by appropriate light harvesting
(3) 450 mya (4) 600 mya pigments.

176. Select the correct statement among the following

(4) All of these

(1) By the time of 500 mya, invertebrates were 181. Fish with stout and strong fins could move on land
formed but were not active. and go back to water. This was about -
(2) The first organisms that invaded land were (1) 360 mya (2) 350 mya
plants. They were widespread on land when
(3) 0.4 bya (4) 3.5 bya
animals invaded land.
(3) The amphibians evolved into reptiles. They lay
thin-shelled eggs which do not dry up in sun
unlike those of amphibians
(4) After amphibians in the next 2000 million years
or so, reptiles of different shapes and sizes
dominated on Earth.

107
182. Select the correct statement about Coelacanth. 188. Which of the following is the immediate ancestor of
genus Homo?
(1) In 1938, a fish caught in South America
happened to be a Coelacanth which was (1) Dryopithecus (2) Ramapithecus
thought to be extinct (3) Australopithecines (4) Sahelanthropus
(2) Coelacanth called lobefins evolved into the first
reptile that lived on both land and water. 189. Match Column-I with Column-II.
Select the correct option
(3) There are no specimens of Coelacanth left with
us.
(4) Coelacanth were ancestors of modern day frogs
and turtles.

183. Select the correct statement about Tyrannosaurus

rex? (1) a- 1, b - 4, c - 2 , d - 3 (2) a - 4, b - 1, c - 2 , d -
3
(1) Tyrannosaurus rex had huge fearsome dagger
like teeth. (3) a - 2, b - 4, c - 1, d - 3 (4) a - 4, b - 1, c - 3, d - 2

(2) Tyrannosaurus rex was about 20 feet in height. 190. Consider the following statement.
(3) Tyrannosaurus rex was biggest of all dinosaurs. (a) Homo habilis is also known as ‘handy man’ and
(4) All of these could cook food using fire.
(b) Homo erectus was about 5 feet tall upright
184. The probable reason for disappearance of dinosaur hominid and exhibited improved hunting skills.
was/were- Select the correct option.

(1) Climatic changes (2) Most of them (1) Both (a) and (b) are (2) (a) is true but (b) is
killed them evolved into birds. true. false.
(3) Both (A) and (B) (4) Dinosaurs did not (3) Both (a) and (b) are (4) (a) is false but (b) is
disappear. false. true.

185. How many of the following animals live wholly in 191. Which of the following pair is incorrectly matched?
water?
Whales, Shark, Dolphins, Turtles, Seals, Sea cows
(1) Australopithecines – (2) Pre-historic cave art
Fruit eater –18000 years ago
(1) 5 (2) 4 (3) Agriculture and human settlements – 10000
(3) 3 (4) 2 years back
(4) Origin of modern Homo sapiens – 1,00,000–
186. Consider the following statements:
40,000 years back
(a) Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus lived on Earth
about 15 mya. 192. According to Hardy-Weinberg principle, allele and
(b) They were primates with a hairy appearance and genotype frequencies in a population will remain
walked like gorillas. constant from generation to generation in the
Choose the correct option. absence of other evolutionary influences. It makes
(1) Both (a) and (b) are (2) (a) is true but (b) is several assumptions which were given below.
true. false. i. Random Mating
ii. Sexual Reproduction
(3) Both (a) and (b) are (4) (a) is false but (b) is
iii. Non-overlapping Generations
false. true.
iv. Occurrence of Natural Selection
187. Ramapithecus was more _____ while Dryopithecus v. Small size of population
was more _____ Identify two assumptions which do not met for a
population to reach Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium?
(1) Great ape-like; man- (2) Man-like; ape-like
like (1) iv and v (2) ii and iv

(3) Ape-like; man-like (4) Both a and b are true (3) iii, iv and v (4) i, ii and iii

108
193. Arrange the following events in a sequential order to 197. Consider the following three statements and select
describe the phenomenon of speciation the correct option stating which one is true(T) and
I. Over production rapid multiplication which one is false(F).
II. Limited food and space i)Oparin of Russia and Haldane of England
III. Struggle for existence proposed that the first form of life could have come
IV. Speciation form pre-existing non- living organic molecules (e.g,
V. Inheritance of useful variation RNA, protein, etc) and that formation of life was
VI. Natural selection/survival of the fittest preceded by chemical evolution.
VII. Appearance of variation (ii)Based on observations made during a sea voyage
The correct sequence is round the world, Charles Darwin concluded that
existing living forms share similarities to varying
(1) I, II, III, V, VI, VII, (2) I, IV, II, III, VI, VII,
degrees only among themselves.
IV V
(iii)Evolution by natural selection must have started
(3) I, II, IV, VI, III, VII, (4) I, II, III, VII, VI, V, when cellular forms of life with different metabolic
V IV capability originated on Earth.

194. The occurrence of endemic species in South America

and Australia is due to

(1) Extinction of these species from other regions

(2) Continental (3) No terrestrial route
separation to these places
(4) Retrogressive
evolution
(1) A (2) B
195. Two key concepts of Darwinian theory of evolution
are (3) C (4) D
I. branching descent
198. Select the correct option about the given figure.
II. use and disuse of organs
III. natural selection
IV. somatic variance
The correct combination is

(1) I and II (2) III and IV

(3) I and III (4) II and IV

196. The sequence of origin of life may be

(1) Inorganic materials → Organic materials →

colloidal aggregate → Eobiont → cell
(2) Organic materials → In organic materials → (1) The given figure represents diagrammatic
Colloidal aggregate → Eobiont → Cell representation of Miller’s Experiment.
(3) Inorganic materials → Organic material → (2) X- Vacuum pump
Eobiont → cell → colloidal aggregate
(3) Y – Water containing inorganic compounds
(4) Organic materials → Inorganic materials →
(4) Z – Spark discharge
Eobiont → Cell → Colloidal aggregate

109
199. Select the correct option for the given image: 200. The diagram represent Miller’s experiment. Choose
the correct combination of labelling

(1) Convergent evolution in Australian marsupials

(2) Gene flow (1) A - Electrodes, B − NH₃ + H₂ + H₂O + CH₄, C-
Cold water, D- Vacuum, E- U-trap
(3) Adaptive radiation in Australian marsupials
(2) A - Electrodes, B − NH₄ + H₂ + H₂O + CO₂ +
(4) Both a and c are
CH₃ C- Hot water , D- Vacuum, E- U-trap
correct
(3) A-Electrodes, B − NH₃ + H₂O, C- Steam, D- U-
trap, E- Vacuum
(4) A-Electrodes, B − NH₃ + H₂ + H₂O + CH₄, C-
Steam, D- Vacuum, E- U-trap

110
 1 B 43 A 85 B 127 A 169 B
2 A 44 B 86 B 128 A 170 C
3 B 45 C 87 D 129 C 171 B
4 A 46 A 88 B 130 D 172 A
5 A 47 D 89 D 131 B 173 C
6 A 48 B 90 B 132 B 174 A
7 C 49 D 91 D 133 A 175 B
8 A 50 D 92 A 134 B 176 B
9 C 51 D 93 B 135 B 177 B
10 B 52 B 94 D 136 B 178 B
11 B 53 B 95 D 137 A 179 C
12 C 54 C 96 B 138 B 180 D
13 D 55 D 97 C 139 A 181 B
14 C 56 A 98 D 140 B 182 C
15 D 57 B 99 A 141 C 183 D
16 D 58 D 100 A 142 C 184 C
17 D 59 A 101 C 143 B 185 B
18 A 60 D 102 C 144 A 186 A
19 A 61 C 103 D 145 B 187 B
20 D 62 A 104 B 146 A 188 C
21 D 63 D 105 B 147 A 189 B
22 C 64 D 106 A 148 B 190 A
23 B 65 B 107 C 149 A 191 D
24 C 66 A 108 C 150 A 192 A
25 B 67 A 109 A 151 A 193 D
26 B 68 B 110 B 152 C 194 B
27 A 69 B 111 C 153 C 195 C
28 D 70 A 112 B 154 A 196 A
29 C 71 D 113 C 155 C 197 B
30 C 72 D 114 D 156 A 198 A
31 C 73 A 115 B 157 A 199 C
32 B 74 A 116 A 158 D 200 A
33 D 75 D 117 A 159 D
34 D 76 B 118 B 160 A
35 B 77 A 119 A 161 D
36 A 78 B 120 A 162 C
37 D 79 C 121 A 163 B
38 B 80 A 122 B 164 C
39 B 81 D 123 C 165 B
40 A 82 B 124 A 166 A
41 C 83 C 125 A 167 B
42 B 84 D 126 A 168 C
111
 HUMAN HEALTH & DISEASES

1. From the given statements, select the incorrect 7. Measures of personal hygiene include.
statement.
I. Health, for a long time, was considered as a state
(1) Balanced diet (2) Keeping the body
clean
of body and mind where there was a balance of
certain 'humors'. (3) Consuming outside (4) Both (1) and (2)
II. This is what early Greeks like Hippocrates as well food
as Indian Ayurveda system of medicine asserted.
III. It was thought that persons with 'Brown bile'
8. Select the correct option with respect to maintaining
good health.
belonged to hot personality and would have fevers.
i. Balanced diet, personal hygiene and regular
(1) I only (2) II only exercise
(3) III only (4) All of them ii. Yoga to achieve mental health only.
iii. Awareness about diseases and their effect on
2. "Good humour' hypothesiss was disproved by different bodily functions
iv. Vaccination (immunisation) against infectious
(1) Edward Jenner (2) Edward Wilson
diseases
(3) William Harvey (4) William Wilson v. Proper disposal of wastes, control of vectors
vi. Maintenance of hygienic food and water
3. The discovery of blood circulation by William
resources
Harvey using experimental method and the
demonstration of ................. with blackbile using (1) i, ii, iii (2) ii, iii, iv, v
thermometer disproved the 'good humor' hypothesis (3) i, iii, iv, v, vi (4) i, iii, v
of health.

(1) High body (2) Low body

9. A disease which can easily transmit from one person
to another is called
temperature in temperature in
persons persons (1) Non-infection (2) Infectious disease
(3) Normal body (4) None of them disease
temperature in (3) Pathogenic disease (4) Life style disease
persons
10. Which of the following disease is non- infectious as
4. Which of the following adversely affect human well as the major cause of death in humans?
health?
(1) Malaria (2) Asthma
(1) Change in lifestyle (2) Genetic disorders (3) AIDS (4) Cancer
(3) Infections (4) All of these
11. Which of the following disease is not a non-
5. Health is a combination of communicable?

(1) Physical well being (2) Mental and social (1) Obesity (2) Hypertension
well-being (3) Cancer (4) Malaria
(3) Absence of disease (4) All of them
12. Which of the following pair contains infectious
6. Necessary steps for achieving good health are disease?

(1) Awareness about (2) Improper disposal of (1) Typhoid and Obesity (2) AIDS and Cancer
diseases. wastes (3) Pneumonia and (4) Cancer and malaria
(3) Vaccination (4) Both 1 and 3 malaria

112
13. Agents that cause infectious diseases are called 21. Salmonella typhi generally enter the ............ through
food and water contaminated with them and migrate
(1) Carcinogens (2) Mutations
to other organs through ...............
(3) Pathogens (4) Micro-organisms
(1) Small intestine, (2) Large intestine,
14. Pathogens could belong to blood blood

(1) Bacteria, viruses (2) Fungi (3) Small intestine, (4) Large intestine,
lymph lymph
(3) Protozoans, (4) All of them
helminths 22. The sympmtoms of typhoid are

15. One of the biggest challenge for the parasites in the (1) Sustained high fever (2) Stomach pain,
host gut is (39° to 40°C) constipation,

(1) Surviving in the stomach at high pH and (3) Weakness,headache (4) All of them
resisting the various digestive enzymes. and loss of appetite

(2) Surviving in the stomach at low pH and 23. Intestinal perforation and death may occur in
resisting the various digestive enzymes.
(3) Resisting the heat of (4) None of them
(1) Malaria (2) Cholera

the body (3) Typhoid (4) Lung Cancer

16. Causative agent of Typhoid fever is 24. A classic case in medicine, that of Mary Mallon
nicknamed
(1) Entamoeba (2) Mycobacterium
histolytica (1) Typhoid Mary (2) Cholera Mary

(3) Salmonella typhi (4) Triponema pallidum (3) Cancer Mary (4) Tuberculosis Mary

17. Salmonella typhi affects ................... to cause 25. Identify the correct statement about typhoid
typhoid A. Mary Mallon was a cook by profession and was a
typhoid carrier who continued to spread typhoid for
(1) Heart (2) Lungs several years through the food she prepared.
(3) Intestine (4) Liver B. Salmonella typhi is a pathogenic moneran which
causes typhoid fever in human beings.
18. Which test is carried out if disease is caused by
Salmonella typhi? (1) Only A (2) Only B
(3) Both are correct (4) Both are incorrect
(1) WIDAL TEST (2) Lisman test
(3) Blood test (4) Barium test 26. Salmonella typhi pathogen causes lesions and
ulcertion in the ---------
19. Which test is an antigen-antibody depended for the
confirmation of typhoid fever? (1) Stomach wall (2) Intestinal wall
(3) Liver (4) Blood vessels
(1) ECG (2) Mantoux test
(3) Widal test (4) Urine test 27. In which of the following disorder, the alveoli get
filled with fluid leading to severe problems in
20. Which one of the following diseases is caused by respiration?
bacteria and spreads through faecal matter by
houseflies? (1) Common cold (2) Typhoid
(3) Pneumonia (4) Diphtheria
(1) Pertusis (2) Typhoid
(3) Diphtheria (4) Chickenpox 28. The symptoms of pneumonia include ..................

(1) Fever, chills (2) Cough

(3) Headache (4) All of them

113
29. Name the microorganism that cause Pneumonia 35. Which of the following statement is correct?

(1) Staphylococci and Haemophilus influenzae (1) Pneumonia can be transmitted to a healthy
(2) Mycobacterium sp. and Streptococcus person by inhaling the droplets released by an
pneumoniae infected person and also by sharing utensils.

(3) Haemophilus influenzae and Staphylococci (2) Pathogens causing pneumonia are
Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus
(4) Haemophilus influenzae and Streptococcus
influenzae.
pneumoniae
(3) The symptoms of pneumonia include fever,
30. In severe cases finger nails and lips may turn gray to chills, cough and headache.
bluish in color in which of the following disease (4) All of these.
(1) Pneumonia (2) Malariaeg
36. Out of the following diseases which caused due to
(3) Typhoid (4) Filariasis bacterial infection?
a. Typhoid
31. Choose the incorrect sentence from the following
b. Diphtheria
(1) Pneumonia is caused by Streptococcus c. Cholera
pneumoniae d. Tuberculosis
(2) Characteristic Typhoid fever is accompained by (1) a & b only (2) b & c only
chills and vomitting
(3) a, c & d only (4) All of them
(3) Pneumonia is caused by Haemophilus
influenzae 37. Which of the following is not a bacterial disease in
(4) Respiratory effeciency is decreased due to humans?
collection of lymph and mucus in bronchioles (1) Dysentery (2) Diphtheria
and alveoli in pneumonia.
(3) Plague (4) AIDS
32. Infection of lung alveoli is caused by
38. Diphtheria is caused by
(1) Streptococcus species(2) Plasmodium species
(1) Nematodes (2) Virus
(3) Salmonella (4) Mycobacterium
(3) Bacteria (4) None of these
33. A healthy person acquires the infection
39. Which one of the following sets includes bacterial
(1) By inhaling the droplets/aerosols released by an diseases?
infected person
(1) Tetanus,
(2) By sharing glasses and utensils with an infected tuberculosis, mumps,
person measles
(3) Both 1 and 2 (4) By wearing black (2) Diphtheria, Leprosy, Plague, Tuberculosis
goggles
(3) Cholera, typhoid,
34. Which of the following is not correct about Tuberculosis, mumps
pneumonia (4) Malaria, Tuberculosis,mumps, poliomyelitis

(1) It is caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae 40. The causative agent of Tuberculosis is

(2) Infects the alveoli of
(1) Mycobacterium (2) Aspergillus
the lungs.
(3) Symptoms of pneumonia include fever, chills,
(3) Rhabdovirus (4) HIV

cough and headchae 41. Which is not a viral droplet infection:-

(4) All are correct
(1) Measles (2) Mumps
(3) Whooping cough (4) Influenza

114
42. Oral Rehydration therapy is recommended for 50. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t common cold

(1) Tubercolosis (2) Typhoid (1) Rhinovirus causes

(3) Tetanus (4) Cholera common cold
(2) Rhinovirus infects the nose, respiratory passage
43. Name the disease that spreads through but not lungs
Contaminated water.
(3) Common cold is characterised by nasal
(1) Amoebiasis (2) Typhoid congestion and discharge, sore throat,
(3) Cholera (4) All the above hoarseness, cough, headache, tired ness etc.
(4) Droplets resulting from cough or sneezes of an
44. Choose the ood one out w.r.t. bacterial disease. infected person is not harmful
(1) Typhoid (2) Dengue
51. Which of the statements are incorrect about
(3) Shigellosis (4) Tuberculosis common cold?

45. Common cold is not cured by antibiotics because it (1) It is caused by rhino (2) Infection of alveoli
is virus of the lungs

(1) Not an infectious (2) Caused by a Gram-

(3) Symptoms are nasal congestion and discharge
sore throat hoarseness, cough, headache,
disease negative bacterium
tiredness.
(3) Caused by a Gram- (4) Caused by a virus
positive bacterium
(4) Usually last for 3-7
days
46. Which of the following viruses causes common cold?
52. Which disease is not transmitted through placenta:-
(1) Rhino virus (2) T4 virus
(1) Common cold (2) Hepatitis-B
(3) MSZ virus (4) Simian Virus 40
(3) AIDS (4) Syphilis
47. The virus causing common cold affects
53. Small pox and Chicken pox is caused by ...............
(1) Alveoli of lungs (2) Nasal epithelium
(1) Fungi (2) Bacteria
(3) Nasal epithelium and
lungs.
(3) Virus (4) Protozoa

(4) Nasal epithelium and upper part of respiratory 54. Statement-A: HIV virus is a Retro virus.
tract Statement-B: It can form HIV DNA by reverse
transcriptase
48. Which of the following pair of disease is caused by
virus? (1) Statement A is (2) Statement B is
correct correct
(1) Rabies, mumps (2) AIDS, Syphilis
(3) Both statements are (4) Both statements are
(3) Typhoid, Tetanus (4) Cholera, correct incorrect
Tuberculosis
55. Statement-A: Smoking increases blood pressure.
49. Rhinovirus causing cold .................. Statement-B: Nicotine causes tension that constricts
(1) Usually last for 3-7 (2) Usually last for 13- the arteries, raising the blood pressure
days 17 days (1) Statement A is (2) Statement B is
(3) Usually last for 20 (4) Usually last for 3-7 correct correct
days weeks (3) Both statements are (4) Both statements are
correct incorrect

115
56. Statement-A: Dependence leads the patient to ignore 61. Statement-A: In severe cases of pneumonia, the lips
all social norms in order to get sufficient funds to and finger nails may turn grey to bluish in colour.
satiate his/her needs. Statement-B: In pneumonia the Alveoli get filled
Statement-B: Excessive doses of drugs may lead to with fluid leading to severe problems in transport of
coma and death due to respiratory failure, heart Respiratory gases.
failure or cerebral hemorrhage
(1) Statement A is (2) Statement B is
(1) Statement A is (2) Statement B is correct correct
correct correct (3) Both statements are (4) Both statements are
(3) Both statements are (4) Both statements are correct incorrect
correct incorrect
62. Statement-A: A disease causing organisms are called
57. Statement-A: Salmonella typhi causes Typhoid fever pathogens.
in human beings Statement-B: Pathogens are harmful to our body, as
Statement-B: Widal test is used to confirm typhoid. they cause diseases.

(1) Statement A is (2) Statement B is (1) Statement A is (2) Statement B is

correct correct correct correct
(3) Both statements are (4) Both statements are (3) Both statements are (4) Both statements are
correct incorrect correct incorrect

58. Statement-A: Those who take drugs intravenously 63. Statement-A: Ringworms are generally grown in
are much more likely to acquire AIDS and Hepatitis skin folds.
B.. Statement-B: Heat and moisture help ringworm to
Statement-B: The chronic use of drugs and alcohol grow.
damages nervous system and liver (cirrhosis).
(1) Statement A is (2) Statement B is
(1) Statement A is (2) Statement B is correct correct
correct correct (3) Both statements are (4) Both statements are
(3) Both statements are (4) Both statements are correct incorrect
correct incorrect
64. Assertion : Antibiotic like pencillin can be used to
59. Statement-A: Interferons help eliminate viral treat common cold.
infections Reason : Pencillin causes lysis of viral cells
Statement-B: Interferons released by infected cells
reach the nearly uninfected cells and make them
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
resistant to viral infection.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and but
(1) Statement A is (2) Statement B is Reason is not the correct explanation of
correct correct Assertion
(3) Both statements are (4) Both statements are (3) Assertion is true but (4) Both Assertion and
correct incorrect Reason is false Reason are false

60. Statement-A: Asthma patients must never be 65. Assertion: Any agent that induces cancer is
exposed to allergen. Carcinogenic or oncogenic agent.
Statement-B: Allergic response may cause vaso Reason : Cancer can be caused by a virus
constriction and death.
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
(1) Statement A is (2) Statement B is Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
correct correct
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and but
(3) Both statements are (4) Both statements are Reason is not the correct explanation of
correct incorrect Assertion
(3) Assertion is true but (4) Both Assertion and
Reason is false Reason are false

116
66. Assertion: Vaccination (immunisation) against 70. Assertion: Streptococcus pneumoniae and
infectious disease are necessary for achieving good Haemophilus influenzae are responsible for causing
health infectious diseases in human beings.
Reason : Vaccination is always carried by attenuated Reason: A healthy person acquires the infection by
pathogen inhailing the droplets/ aerosols released by an
infected person.
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion (1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and but Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
Reason is not the correct explanation of (2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and but
Assertion Reason is not the correct explanation of
(3) Assertion is true but (4) Both Assertion and Assertion
Reason is false Reason are false (3) Assertion is true but (4) Both Assertion and
Reason is false Reason are false
67. Assertion: Innate immunity is non-specific defence.
Reason : It consists of four types of barriers. 71. Assertion : Acquired immunity is pathogen specific.
Reason : It is characterised by memory
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion (1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and but Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
Reason is not the correct explanation of (2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and but
Assertion Reason is not the correct explanation of
(3) Assertion is true but (4) Both Assertion and Assertion
Reason is false Reason are false (3) Assertion is true but (4) Both Assertion and
Reason is false Reason are false
68. Assertion : T-lymphocytes mediate CMI response.
Reason : The above response makes it easy to 72. Assertion: The yellowish fluid colostrum secreted by
transplant organs mother during the
initial days of lactation has abundant antibodies
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
(IgA)
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
Reason : The foetus also receives some antibodies
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and but from their mother, through the placenta during
Reason is not the correct explanation of pregnancy.
Assertion
(3) Assertion is true but (4) Both Assertion and
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
Reason is false Reason are false
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and but
69. Assertion. An antibody is represented by H₂L₂. Reason is not the correct explanation of
Reason : Each antibody is made of four peptide Assertion
chains. (3) Assertion is true but (4) Both Assertion and
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is false Reason are false
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
73. Which of the following diseases is caused by virus?
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and but
Reason is not the correct explanation of (1) Small pox and (2) Tuberculosis and
Assertion dengue dengue

(3) Assertion is true but (4) Both Assertion and (3) Malaria and small (4) Cholera and dengue
Reason is false Reason are false pox

74. Hepatitis infections affect the

(1) Stomach (2) Heart

(3) Liver (4) Skin

117
75. What is the mode of transmission of Chicken gunya? 83. Which plasmodium cause malignant malaria and it
is the most serious one and can even be fatal?
(1) Air borne, droplets (2) Faeces
(3) Aedes mosquito (4) Water borne (1) Plasmodium vivax (2) Plasmodium
malariae
76. Identify the viral diseases from the following. (3) Plasmodium (4) All of these
(1) Chicken pox, polio, (2) Polio, mumps, falciparum
tuberculosis cholera
84. Where will you look for the sporozoites of the
(3) Polio, chicken pox, (4) Polio, chicken pox, malarial parasite?
malaria small pox
(1) RBCs of human (2) Spleen of infected
77. Choose the odd one out w.r.t. Viral disease. suffering from person
malaria
(1) Malaria (2) Dengue
(3) Salivary glands of freshly moulted female
(3) Common cold (4) AIDS
Anopheles mosquito
78. Which one of the following diseases is caused by a (4) Saliva of infected female Anopheles mosquito
protozoan?
85. Haemozoin, is a toxic substances present in which
(1) Cholera (2) Malaria cell?
(3) Tuberculosis (4) Typhoid
(1) Human RBC (2) Human WBC
79. Malaria is caused by (3) Mosquito RBC (4) Mosquito WBC

(1) Plasmodium vivax (2) Plasmodium 86. Which of the following toxic substance is responsible
malariae for the chill and high fever in malaria?
(3) Plasmodium (4) All of these
(1) Plasma (2) Haemozoin
falciparum
(3) Haemoglobin (4) Sporozoites
80. Infective stage of malaria is
87. Identify the genus of the mosquito that is responsible
(1) Gametocyte (2) Ring state for the transmission of Malaria
(3) Sporozoite (4) Merozite
(1) Female Anopheles (2) Female Aedes
81. Female Anopheles mosquito is a vector of (3) Female Culex (4) Female Malariae

(1) Filariasis (2) Malaria 88. Select the incorrect option amongst the following.
(3) Typhoid (4) AIDS i. Radiotherapy ............ tumor cells are irradiated
lethally.
82. Which of the following statements is not correct ii. Chemotherapy ............. drugs are usedto kill
regarding malarial infection? cancerous cells.
iii. MRI .......... detect pathological and physiological
(1) Plasmodium enters the human body as
changes in the living tissue
sporozoites through the bite of female
iv. Computed tomography. ............. uses X-rays to
Anopheles mosquito
generate a four-dimensional image of the internals of
(2) High fever recurring every three to four hours an object.
(3) Sporozoites initially multiply within the liver
cells and then attack the RBCs resulting in their
(1) i (2) ii
rupture (3) iii (4) iv
(4) When a female Anopheles mosquito bites an 89. The formation of gametocytes of plasmodium takes
infected person, the parasites multiply within place inside ............
them to form sporozoites that are stored in
their salivary glands (1) Human RBC (2) Human Liver
(3) Mosquito RBC (4) Mosquito salivary
gland

118
90. Malaria is a disease which is affected when the 97. Entamoeba belongs to which kingdom?
sickle-shaped sporozoite is injected into the blood of
a healthy human being by the bite of infected
(1) Kingdom Monera- (2) Kingdom Protista-
Protozoa Protozoa
Anopheles mosquito. It damages the
(3) Kingdom Protista- (4) Kingdom Animalia-
(1) Lungs (2) Heart Dinoflagellates Protozoa
(3) liver (4) Kidney
98. Which of the following symptoms belong to
91. The fertilisation of gametocytes of plasmodium Acscariasis?
takes place inside ---------
(1) Constipation (2) Abdominal pain and
(1) Human RBC (2) Human Liver cramps
(3) Mosquito gut (4) Mosquito salivary (3) Stools with excess mucous and blood clots
gland (4) All of theses

92. Plasmodium belongs to which kingdom? 99. .................. act as mechanical carriers and serve to
(1) Kingdom Monera (2) Kingdom Protista transmit the parasite.

(3) Kingdom Fungi (4) Kingdom Animalia (1) Drosophila (2) Musca domestica

93. Identify the following.

(3) Anopheles (4) Aedes

100. What is the source of infection for amoebiasis?

(1) Bite of mosquito (2) Aerosol

(3) Drinking water and food contaminated by the
faecal matter
(1) Sporozoite in RBC (2) Sporozoite in (4) Bite of house fly
salivary gland
(3) Merozoite in salivary (4) Gametocyte in RBC
101. Identify the correct statement
I. Malaria is caused by a protozoa but the vector is
gland
an arthropod
94. Causative organism of Amoebiasis is II. Ascariasis is caused by a protozoa but the vector
is an annelid
(1) Plasmodium vivax (2) Entamoeba
histolytica (1) Only I is correct (2) Only II is correct

(3) Streptococcus (4) Salmonella sp. (3) Both are correct (4) None are correct
pneumoniae
102. Select amongst the following disease which have a
95. Causative organism of dysentry caused by a protista arthropod vector?
is i. Malaria
ii. Amoebiasis
(1) Plasmodium vivax (2) Entamoeba iii. Dengue
histolytica iv. Filaria
(3) Streptococcus (4) Salmonella sp.
(1) i only is correct (2) i, ii only is correct
pneumoniae
(3) i, ii,ii only is correct (4) All are correct
96. Entamoeba histolytica is a parasite, which body part
does it affect? 103. Choose the ood one out w.r.t. protozoal disease.

(1) Stomach (2) Liver (1) Malaria (2) Filariasis.

(3) Small intestine of (4) Large intestine of (3) Amoebiasis (4) Sleeping sickness
human human

119
104. Mark the incorrect statement w.r.t. function of 111. Internal bleeding, muscular pain, fever, anaemia and
Entameoba histolytica blockage of the intestinal passage are the common
symtoms of
(1) It is a protozoan
parasite of human (1) Amoebiasis (2) Elephantiasis
(2) It is characterised by constipation and (3) Ascariasis (4) Typhoid
abdominal pain.
(3) It is a parasite in small Intestine of man
112. Infection of Ascaris usually occurs by

(4) Houseflies act as mechanical carriers and serve (1) Eating imperfectly cooked pork of Ascaris
to transmit the parasite from faeces of infected (2) Tse-Tse fly (3) Mosquiote bite
person to food & food products. (4) Drinking water containing eggs of Ascaris

105. Which of the following is not a symptom of 113. The causative agent of Filariasis is
amoebiasis?
(1) Wuchereria bancrofti(2) Wuchereria malayi
(1) Constipation (2) Abdominal pain and
cramps
(3) Wuchereria (4) Both 1 and 2
lumbricoides
(3) Stool with excess mucous and blood clots
(4) Lymphatic blockage 114. The filarial worm that causes elephantiasis belongs
to phylum
106. Internal bleeding, muscular pain, fever, anaemia and
blockage of the intestinal passage are the common
(1) Platyhelminthes (2) Aschelminthes
symptoms of (3) Protozoa (4) Arthropoda

(1) Amoebiasis (2) Elephantiasis 115. Which one is true about Filariasis?
(3) Ascariasis (4) Typhoid (1) Pathogen affects lower limbs and genital organs
107. Which one is not a symptom of disease caused in (2) Caused by a (3) Blockage of lymph
Amoebiasis? digenetic worm vessel occurs

(1) Congestion in chest (2) Constipation

(4) All are true
smacked 116. Wuchereria bancrofti causes
(3) Abdominal pain and
cramps
(1) Ascaris (2) Elephantiasis

(4) Stools with excess mucus and blood clots

(3) Amoebiasis (4) Both 2 and 3

108. Which of the following is a protozoan disease?

117. Which one is responsible for the disease from the
given figure
(1) Sleeping sickness (2) Amoebiasis
(3) Malaria (4) All of these

109. Name the pathogen that cause Ascariasis

(1) Ascaris lumbricoides (2) Plasmodium Sp.

(3) Entamoeba (4) Treponema pallidum
histolytica

110. Ascaris lumbricoides lives in the intestine of

(1) Ringworm (2) Filarial worm
(1) Sheep and goat (2) Monkey
(3) Amoebiasis (4) Plasmodium
(3) Homo sapiens (4) Pig

120
118. Wuchereria are transmitted to a healthy person 126. Match the columns I and II.
through the .............

(1) Bite by the female (2) Bite by the female

Culex vectors. Anopheles vectors.
(3) Bite by the female (4) Bite by the female
Aedes vectors. house fly
(1) A-R, B-P, C-Q, D-S (2) A-S, B-P, C-Q, D-R
119. Select the appropriate option (3) A-P, B-R, C-Q, D-S (4) A-Q, B-P, C-R, D-S
I. Malaria is an arthropod - mosquito protozoal
disease. 127. Match the columns I and II.
II. Filaria is an arthropod - mosquito helminthic
disease.

(1) Only I is correct (2) Only II is correct

(3) Both are correct (4) None are correct

120. Many fungi belonging to which genera are

responsible for skin infections

(1) Microsporum (2) Trichophyton

(3) Epidermophyton (4) All of them

121. Many fungi are responsible for skin lesions called: (1) A-R, B-P, C-Q, D-S (2) A-S, B-R, C-P, D-Q

(1) Filariasis (2) Ascariasis (3) A-P, B-R, C-Q, D-S (4) A-Q, B-P, C-R, D-S

(3) Ringworms (4) Amoebiasis 128. Match the column I with column II.

122. The pathogens of genera, Microsporum,

Trichophyton and Epidermophyton are generally
acquired

(1) From soil or by

using towels,
(2) Clothes or even the comb of infected
(1) A-R, B-P, C-Q, D-S (2) A-S, B-R, C-P, D-Q
individuals
(3) Bite of mosquito (4) Both 1 and 2
(3) A-P, B-Q, C-S, D-R (4) A-Q, B-P, C-R, D-S

123. What are the main symptoms of Ringworm?

129. Match the columns I and II

(1) Appearance of dry, scaly lesions on various

parts of the body
(2) Lesions are accompanied by intense itching.
(3) Oozing of pus (4) Both 1 and 2
(1) A-R, B-P, C-Q, D-S (2) A-S, B-R, C-P, D-Q
124. What body parts are affected in ringworm?
(3) A-P, B-Q, C-S, D-R (4) A-Q, B-P, C-R, D-S
(1) Skin, nails and scalp (2) Lungs
130. Name the diseases transmitted through food and
(3) Digestive system (4) Lymphatic system
water?
125. What helps the fungi to grow in the skin folds? (1) Amoebiasis (2) Typhoid
(1) Moisture alone (2) Dryness alone (3) Ascariasis (4) All of them
(3) Heat and moisture (4) Closed areas

121
131. What measures have to be taken to prevent the 137. Select the most appropriate statement
spread of mosquitoes? A. Aedes mosquitoes- mosquito is the causative
i. agent for diseases like dengue and Filaria in many
Avoiding stagnation of water in and around parts of India
residential areas B. Smallpox is a completely eradicated disease.
ii.
Regular cleaning of household coolers,
(1) Only A is correct (2) Only B is correct

iii. Use of mosquito nets, (3) Both are correct (4) None are correct
iv. Introducing fishes like Gambusia in ponds that
feed on mosquito larvae,
138. Which one of the following diseases is spread by
housefly and mosquito respectively?
v. Spraying of perfumes in ditches, drainage areas
and swamps (1) Typhoid, Amoebiasis(2) Amoebiasis,
vi. Doors and windows should be always kept open Encephalitis
(1) Only i, ii and iii (2) Only ii, iii and iv (3) Amoebiasis, (4) Amoebiasis,
Filariasis pneumonia
(3) Only i, ii, iii and iv (4) All of them

132. Which of the following disease is not transmitted by

139. Match the column I with column II.
Aedes aegypti?

(1) Chikungunya (2) Dengue

(3) Chicken - pox (4) Both (1) and (2)

133. Which of the following fish is introduced in pond to

control or eliminate the vector mosquito?
(1) A-R, B-S, C-P, D-Q (2) A-S, B-R, C-P, D-Q
(1) Rohu (2) Gambusia (3) A-R B-S C-P D-Q (4) A-Q, B-S, C-P, D-R
(3) Catla (4) Betta
140. The ability of the host to fight the disease- causing
134. Name the diseases that are controlled by vaccines? organisms, is called

(1) Polio, diphtheria (2) Diphtheria, (1) Allergy (2) Immunity

pneumonia (3) DNA technology (4) Antibody
(3) Pneumonia and (4) All of them
tetanus 141. Another name for innate immunity

(1) Is explicit immunity (2) Is non-specific

135. The use of vaccines and immunisation programmes
immunity
have enabled us to completely eradicate a deadly
disease like (3) Is specific immunity (4) Is immunity

(1) Polio (2) Tetanus 142. Immunity acquired after an infection is

(3) Diptheria (4) Small pox (1) Active immunity (2) Passive immunity

136. Recombinant DNA technology is used for the (3) Innate immunity (4) Both (2)and (3)
production of 3rd generation vaccine
143. An antibody is
(1) Hepatitis B (2) Typhoid
(1) Phagocyte
(3) Tuberculosis (4) None of the above
(2) Molecule that are prodcued in antigenic
response.
(3) Component of RBC
in antigenic
response.
(4) Component of blood in antigenic response.

122
144. An antigen is 152. Physiological barriers consists of which of the
following?
(1) Residue of antibody (2) Stimulus for
antibody formation (1) Saliva in the mouth, (2) Tears form eyes
(3) Results of antibody (4) Opposite to an (3) Acid in the stomach (4) All of them
antibody
153. The only blood cells that are not considered to be
145. Non-specific host defence that is present prior to the part of the immune system are:
expossure to an antigen is called
(1) Glial cells (2) Lymphocytes
(1) Innate immunity (2) Passive immunity (3) RBC (4) Leucocytes
(3) Artificial immunity (4) Active immunity
154. NK cells provides:-
146. Innate immunity consist of four types of barriers
(1) Cell mediated (2) Cellular barrier in
(1) Physiological, (2) Cellular acquired immunity innate immunity
Physical (3) Cytokine barrier of
(3) Cytokine (4) All of them innate immunity

147. The physical barriers that form part of the immune

(4) Immunity against only viral infected cells

system are: 155. Lymphocytes acquire their antigen specificity

(1) The bones and the (1) As they enter the tissues from the circulation
mucosal membranes
(2) Before they (3) Depending on which
(2) The skin, body temperature and the mucosal encounter antigen antigens are present
membranes
(4) From contact with
(3) The skin and the (4) All the above self antigen
mucosal membranes
156. Macrophages are
148. Which barrier provides Low pH and normal body
temperature involved in Innate Immunity? (1) Cytokine barriers (2) Cellular barrier

(1) Cellular barrier giving acquired immunity

(3) Physical barriers (4) Physiological barrier

(2) Physiological barrier providing innate 157. Which of the following cells are not included in
immunity cellular barrier of innate immunity?
(3) Physiological barrier providing acquired (1) Neutrophilis (2) NK cells
immunity
(3) Helper T cells (4) Macrophages
(4) Cytokine barriers
158. Globulins contained in human blood plasma are
149. Which system contains mucus coating of the primarily involved in
epithelium?
(1) Defense mechanism (2) Osmotic balance of
(1) Respiratory (2) Gastrointestinal of the body the body fluids
(3) Urogenital (4) All of them (3) Oxygen transport in (4) Clotting of the blood
the blood
150. Which of the following is not a component of innate
immunity? 159. Interferon which protect non-infected cells from
(1) Interferon (2) HCl viral infection are a part of

(3) Skin (4) Antibodies (1) Physical barriers (2) Cytokine barriers

151. First line of defense of immunity includes

(3) Cellular barriers (4) Physiological
barriers
(1) Skin (2) Mucus
(3) Both 1 & 2 (4) NK cells

123
160. Full form of PMNL is 169. Acquired immunity is

(1) Poly Morpho- (2) Poly Meta-Nuclear (1) Pathogen specific (2) Characterised by
Nuclear Leucocytes Lymphocytes memory
(3) Poly Mega-Nuclear (4) Poly Morpho- (3) Oncogenic (4) Both 1 and 2
Leucocytes Neutrophilo
Lymphocytes 170. When our body encounters a pathogen for the first
time produces a response called .......... Subsequent
161. The interferons can be used as encounter with the same pathogen elicits.............
respectively
(1) Antibacterial drugs (2) Antiviral drugs
(3) Antibiotic drugs (4) Antifungal drugs (1) Primary response, (2) Primary response,
secondary response anamnestic response
162. A person has developed interferons in his body. He (3) Anamnestic, (4) Both 1 and 2
seems to carry an infection of secondary response
(1) Cholera (2) Malaria
171. Which of the following is a non-specific type of
(3) Tuberculosis (4) Dengue defense and pathogen specific?

163. Which out of the following are involved in body (1) Acquired immunity,
defense? Innate immunity

(1) Neutrophils (2) Macrophages (2) Humoral immune response, Innate immunity

(3) Lymphocytes (4) All the above (3) Cell mediated (4) Innate immunity,
immunity, Innate Acquired immunity
164. Which out of the following cells is present in tissues immunity
that can phagocytose and destroy microbes?
172. The meaning of T in T lymphocyte refers to
(1) Monocyte (2) Macrophages
(1) Tonsil (2) Thyroid
(3) Neutrophils (4) Lymphocyte
(3) Teeth (4) Thymus
165. Interferons are synthesised in response to
173. Identify the correct statement
(1) Mycoplasma (2) Bacteria I. T-cells themselves do not secrete antibodies but
(3) Viruses (4) Fungi help B cells produce them.
II. Antibodies in our body are IgB, IgM, IgE, IgG
166. Cytokines are:
(1) Only I is correct (2) Only II is correct
(1) Proteins (2) Viruses (3) Both are correct (4) None are correct
(3) Carcinogens (4) Bacteria
174. Number of polypeptide chain present in a molecule
167. Interferon is secreted when of antibody
(1) Antibody reacts with antigen in our body (1) 2 (2) 4
(2) Serotonin become (3) Lymphocytes (3) 6 (4) 8
active become active
(4) Our body cells are
175. An antibody molecule is represented as
infected by virus (1) H₂L₂ (2) H₂L₃

168. The major phagocytic cells are

(3) H₃L₂ (4) H₄L₄

(1) Lymphocytes (2) Mast cells 176. Two heavy chains and Two light chains are
(3) Macrophages (4) Plasma cells
associated with ------- structure.

(1) Antibody (2) Antigen

(3) NK- cells (4) Both 2 & 3

124
177. Both B-cells and T-cells are derived from 183. Antigen binding site in an antibody is formed by

(1) Lymph nodes (2) Thymus gland (1) Two light chains (2) Two heavy chains
(3) Liver (4) Stem cells in bone (3) One heavy and one
marrow light chain

178. Mark the correct statement

(4) Either between two light chains or between one
heavy and one light depending upon the nature
(1) The anamnestic (secondary) response against a of antigen
pathogen is highly intensified.
(2) The T-Lymphocytes
184. Cells involved in immune mechanism are

produce antibodies (1) Erythrocytes (2) Lymphocytes

(3) The B-Lymphocytes procues cell mediated (3) Eosinophils (4) Thrombocytes
responses.
(4) An antibody is
185. The function of helper T-cell is to
represented by H₂L₄ (1) Kill the antigen (2) Kill the antibodies

179. An immunoglobulin G molecule is composed of:

(3) Suppress B-cells (4) Stimulate B-cells

(1) Two different heavy chains and two identical 186. Mark the correct statement.
light chains (1) The anamnestic response against a pathogen is
(2) Two identical heavy chains and two different very low intensified
light chains (2) T-cells themselves
(3) Two identical heavy chains and two identical secrete antibodies.
light chains (3) The B lymphocytes produce cell mediated
(4) Two different heavy chains and two different response
light chains (4) An antibody is
represented by H₂L₂
180. Humoral immunity is due to

(1) T-lymphocytes (2) L-lymphocytes 187. When body starts rejecting its own cells, it is called
(3) P-lymphocytes (4) B-lymphocytes (1) Immunodeficiency (2) Immunosuppression

181. Identify A & B in the following figure.

(3) Autoimmunity (4) Autografting

188. Organ transplantation and graft rejection involves

(1) AMI (2) CMI

(3) Both AMI and CMI (4) Interferons

189. The cell-mediated immune response is able to

differentiate 'self' and 'nonself' and is responsible for
the

(1) A - heavy chain, B - (2) A - light chain, B - (1) Organ transplant (2) Graft rejection
light chain heavy chain failure
(3) A - light chain, B - (4) A - heavy chain, B - (3) It causes no problem (4) Both 1 and 2
light chain heavy chain
190. Antibodies of the Humoral immune system are
182. Which of the following is not present in human milk present in

(1) Nutrients (2) Fat (1) Blood (2) Lymph

(3) IgM (4) IgA (3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of these

125
191. The process of removal and replacement of the 198. Passive immunity is obtained through injecting
damage tissues or organs like heart, eye, liver, kidney
with healthy ones from a donor is called as
(1) Antibiotics (2) Vaccines
(3) Antibodies (4) Antigen
(1) Transplantation (2) Repair and
replacement 199. Which of the following immunoglobulins (Ig) is
(3) Replacement therapy (4) Organectomy present in colostrum?

192. Antibodies produced in the host body on exposure

(1) IgM (2) IgG

to antigen is called ................ (3) IgA (4) IgE

(1) Active immunity (2) Passive immunity 200. Preformed antibodies are given to a person suffering
(3) Innate immunity (4) Both active & from.
passive immunity (1) Chicken fox (2) Tetanus

193. Antigens can be (3) Cold (4) TB

(1) Living or dead (2) Dead microbes 201. Artificial active immunity can be aquired from
microbes
(1) Acute infection (2) Vaccination
(3) Proteins (4) All of them
(3) Repeated exposure (4) Treatment with
194. Passive immunity is defined as immunity to the some microbes antibiotics

(1) Inherited from (2) Not achieved 202. The vaccines generate ............. that recognise the
parents through vaccination pathogen quickly on subsequent exposure.
(3) Achieved through first exposure to the disease (1) Memory - B cells (2) Memory T-cells
(4) Achieved through the sera of other animal (3) Both of them (4) None of them
enriched in antibodies
203. In case of snakebites, the injection which is given to
195. Administration of antivenom after snake bite is an the patients, contains .................
example of
(1) Preformed antibodies against the snake venom.
(1) Naturally aquired (2) Artificially acquired
active immunity active immunity
(2) Preformed antibiotics against the snake venom.

(3) Artificially aquired (4) Naturally aquired

(3) Antibiotics against (4) Painkiller
the snake Bacteria
passive immunity passive immunity

196. Match the columns I and II.

204. Match the columns I and II.

(1) A-R, B-S, C-Q, D-P (2) A-S, B-R, C-P, D-Q

(1) A-R, B-S, C-Q, D-P (2) A-S, B-R, C-P, D-Q
(3) A-R, B-S, C-P, D-Q (4) A-Q, B-P, C-R, D-S

(3) A-P, B-R, C-Q, D-S (4) A-Q, B-P, C-R, D-S 205. Hepatitis-B vaccine produced from

197. Immunological memory exists in (1) Bacteria (2) Recombinant RNA

Technology
(1) Active immunity (2) Passive immunity
(3) Fungus (4) Both 2 and 3
(3) Innate immunity (4) Both active &
passive immunity

126
206. Select the correct statement. 214. Hypersensitivity of an allergen is associated with
I. In vaccination, a preparation of antigenic proteins
of pathogen or inactivated/ weakened pathogen
(1) Aberrant functioning of the immune
mechanism
(vaccine) are introduced into the body.
II. Hepatitis B vaccine produced from yeast. (2) Increase in ambient (3) Age of the individual
temperature
(1) Only I is correct (2) Only II is correct
(4) Food habits
(3) Both are correct (4) None are correct
215. An insect bite may result in inflammation of that
207. The exaggereted response of the immune system to spot. It is triggered by alarm chemicals such as
certain antigens is called
(1) Histamine and (2) Histamines and
(1) Primary immune (2) Secondary immune dopamines seratonin
response response
(3) Interferon and (4) Interferon and
(3) Amnestic immune (4) Allergy opsonin histamines
response
216. Which of the following diseases is due to an allergic
208. A substance that causes an allergic reaction is called reaction?
(1) Allergen (2) Mutagen (1) Goitre (2) Skin cancer
(3) Foreign substance (4) Oncogen (3) Hay fever (4) Enteric fever

209. Common examples of allergens are 217. Select how many statements are true i. Somehow,
(1) Animal dander (2) Pollen grains modern-day life style has resulted in increasing of
immunity and more sensitivity to allergens
(3) Mites in dust (4) All of these
ii. More and more children in metro cities of India
210. An allergic response appears at the site of infection suffer from allergies and asthma due to sensitivity to
causes sneezing, watery eyes, running nose, pain and the environment.
heat due to the certain chemicals (allergens), they are iii. This could be because of the protected
environment provided early in life.
(1) Histamine and (2) Histamine and
serotonin cerumen (1) Only i is correct (2) Only ii is correct

(3) Cerumen and (4) Mucus and cerumen (3) Only ii, iii is correct (4) All are correct
serotonin
218. Memory-based acquired immunity is evolved in
211. What is injected into the patient's body for ...............
determining the cause of allergy? (1) Lower vertebrates (2) Higher vertebrates
(1) Allergen to which the patient is allergic (3) Higher chordates (4) Lowerchordates
(2) IgG (3) IgE
219. All are autoimmune diseases except
(4) Steroids
(1) Rheumatoid arthritis (2) Hashimoto's
212. Antihistamine drug is effective in thyroiditis

(1) Bacterial infection (2) Viral infection (3) Amoebiasis (4) Myasthenia gravis

(3) Fungal infection (4) Allergy 220. Primary lymphoid organ is

213. A person who has allergy, the type of antibody (1) Tonsils (2) Thymus
produced in his body is (3) Lymph nodes (4) Peyer's patches
(1) IgE (2) IgA
221. Which of the following is an autoimmune disease?
(3) IgM (4) IgG
(1) Asthma (2) Cirrhosis
(3) AIDS (4) Rheumatoid arthritis

127
222. The site where immature lymphocytes differentiate 229. Thymus is a lobed organ located near the ......A....
into antigen sensitive lymphocytes are and beneath the ....B...... The most appropriate
combination for A and B is
(1) Secondary lymphoid (2) Primary lymphoid
organs organs (1) A-heart ; B- breast (2) A-liver ; B - ribs
(3) Bone marrow (4) Tonsils bone
(3) A-heart ; B- ribs (4) A- intestine ; B - ribs
223. What is the main lymphoid organ where all blood
cells including lymphocytes are produced? 230. Surgical removal of thymus due to pathological
reasons, shall result in the failure to produce
(1) Bone marrow (2) Tonsils
(3) Peyers patches (4) Spleen (1) Thrombocyte (2) Thymogens
(3) B-lymphocyte (4) T-lymphocytes
224. B-lymphocytes mature in the ...........while T-
lymphocyte mature in the ................. 231. Correct about bone marrow is:
Most appropriate combination of words to fill the (a) Primary lymphoid organ
blanks is (b) main lymphoid organ where all blood cells are
produced
(1) Thymus; bone (2) Bone marrow;
(c) Provide micro environment for the development
marrow thymus
of T-cells
(3) Thyroid; bone (4) Thyroid, Thymus (d) Produces B-cells
marrow
(1) a (2) b
225. Which of the following include the primary (3) a, b + c (4) All statements are
lymphoid organs? correct
(1) Thymus, lymph (2) Bone marrow and
232. Name the beanshaped organ which contributes in
nodes thymus
immunity?
(3) Bone marrow, (4) Thymus, and tonsils
Peyer's patches (1) Thymus (2) Spleen
(3) Tonsils (4) Lymph nodes
226. Identify the correct number of secondary lymphoid
organs ? 233. Identify the correct functions of the Spleen?
Spleen, lymph nodes, thymus,, heart, tonsils, Peyer's
patches of small intestine, liver, bone marrow,
(1) It acts as a filter of the blood by trapping
blood-borne microorganisms.
appendix.
(2) It mainly contains lymphocytes and
(1) 4 (2) 5 phagocytes.
(3) 3 (4) 6 (3) It has a large reservoir of erythrocytes.

227. The secondary lymphoid organs provide the sites (4) All of them
for,
234. Antigens trapped in the lymph nodes are responsible
(1) Interaction of lymphocytes with the antigen for
(2) Proliferation to (3) To become mature B (1) Deactivation of lymphocytes & initiation of the
become effector cells. and T cells immune response.
(4) Both 1 and 2 (2) Activation of lymphocytes & deactivation of
the immune response.
228. Which is not involved in elicitation of immune
response? (3) Activation of lymphocytes & initiation of the
immune response.
(1) Thymus (2) Spleen
(4) None of them
(3) Brain (4) Lymph nodes

128
235. Which of the following is not a secondary lymphoid 243. HIV decreases natural immunity of the body by
organ?
(1) Destroying (2) Destroying
(1) Thymus (2) Spleen antibodies erythrocytes
(3) MALT (4) Appendix (3) Attacking T- (4) Attacking B-
lymphocytes lymphocytes
236. Match the column I with column II
244. Among the non-infectious diseases, which of the
following is most common fatal diseases of human
beings?

(1) AIDS (2) Cancer

(3) Cystic fibrosis (4) Cholera
(1) A-R, B-P, C-Q, D-S (2) A-S, B-R, C-P, D-Q
(3) A-P, B-Q, C-S, D-R (4) A-Q, B-R, C-P, D-S 245. AIDS virus is transmitted by

237. Full form of MALT is

(1) All body fluids (2) Infected blood and
semen
(1) Mucosal Associated (2) Mucosal Associated (3) Only saliva (4) Tears and saliva
Lymphoid Tissue Leucoid Tissuee
(3) Mucosal Antigenic (4) Mucosa Associated 246. AIDS can not be transmitted by
Lymphoid Tissue Lymphocyte Tissue (1) Blood transfusion (2) Courtship

238. MALT constitutes about .............. percent of the (3) Handshake (4) All the above
lymphoid tissue in human body.
247. AIDS virus has
(1) 50% (2) 20%
(1) SS-DNA (2) DS-DNA
(3) 70% (4) 10%
(3) SS-RNA (4) DS-RNA
239. MALT is the lymphoid tissue located within the
248. Genetic material found in Human
lining of
Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) is
(1) Digestive system (2) Respiratory system
(1) One strand of (2) One strand of Single
(3) Urogenital system (4) All of them Double-stranded stranded DNA
RNA
240. Match the columns I and II.
(3) Two strand of (4) Two strand of
Double-stranded Single-stranded
DNA RNA

(1) A-R, B-P, C-Q (2) A-Q, B-R, C-P 249. HIV enters human body and it enters into
_________ where RNA genome of virus replicates to
(3) A-P, B-R, C-Q (4) A-Q, B-P, C-R
form DNA
241. Human immunodeficiency virus is a/an (1) W.B.C (2) R.B.C
(1) Adeno virus (2) DNA retrovirus (3) Macrophages (4) Erythrocytes
(3) RNA retrovirus (4) Adeno retrovitus
250. Virus that causes AIDS parasitizes
242. The causative organism of AIDS spreads by (1) B-cells (2) Cytotoxic T-cells
(1) Unsafe sexual (2) Transfusion of (3) Helper T-cells (4) The membrane of
relationships infected blood lymph nodes
(3) Sharing infected (4) All of these
needles and syringes

129
251. The following structure represents which bacteria? 258. HIV patients can also contract oppurtunistic
infection like

(1) Mycobacterium (2) Viruses, fungi

(3) Parasites like (4) All of them
Toxoplasma.

259. Select the correct statements.

I. AIDS was first reported in 1981 and the word
'syndrome' in this means a group of symptomss.
(1) Salmonella (2) Mycobacterium II During HIV infection, the macrophages cells of
(3) Haemophilus (4) None of these body continues produce virus and in this way acts
like a HIV factory.
252. During replication of retrovirus (HIV)
A. Viral DNA is produced by reverse transcriptase (1) Only I is correct (2) Only II is correct
B. Viral RNA gets incorporated into host genome. (3) Both are correct (4) None are correct
C. New viral RNA are produced by infected cells.
D. New viral DNA are produced by infected cells. 260. Match the columns I and II

(1) A & C are correct (2) B & C are correct

(3) Only A is correct (4) Only D is correct

253. Expand 'ELISA' used for diagnosing AIDS

(1) Enzyme Leucocyte (2) Enzyme Linked

Immuno Secretory Immuno Sorbent
Assay Assay (1) A-R, B-P, C-Q, D-S (2) A-S, B-R, C-P, D-Q
(3) Enclosed Lymphocyte Immuno Sorbent Assay (3) A-P, B-Q, C-S, D-R (4) A-Q, B-R, C-P, D-S
(4) None of these
261. Which of the above statements are correct?
254. Transmission of HIV infection from infected mother I. A widely used diagnostic test for AIDS is enzyme
to her child occurs through linked immuno-sorbent assay (ELISA).
II. Ist December is celebrated as World AIDS Day.
(1) Liver (2) Placenta
(3) RBC (4) None of these (1) Only I is correct (2) Only II is correct
(3) Both are correct (4) None are correct
255. In an infected human body the 'HIV factory' is
262. Which of the following is correct regarding AIDS
(1) Sperm (2) Ova
causative agent HIV?
(3) Macrophages (4) RBC
(1) HIV is enveloped virus containing one molecule
256. The test suggested for AIDS detection is? of single-stranded RNA and one molecule of
reverse transcriptase
(1) ELISA (2) MRI
(2) HIV is enveloped virus that contains two
(3) Ultrasound (4) X-RAY
identical molecules of reverse transcriptase with
ss-RNA
257. The word NACO stands for
(3) HIV is un-enveloped
(1) Non-governmental AIDS Control Organisation virus
(2) National AIDS (3) National AIDS (4) HIV does not escape but attacks the acquired
Control Coordination immune response
Organisation Organisation
(4) Both (2) and (3)

130
263. At which stage of HIV infection does one usually 269. Which of the following properties is proposed by
show symptoms of AIDS? malignant tumors?

(1) Within 15 days of sexual contact with an (1) Metastasis (2) Uncontrolled cell
infected person division
(2) When the infected retro virus enters host cells (3) Loss of contact (4) All of them
(3) When HIV damages large number of T- inhibition
lymphocytes
270. Transformation of normal cell into cancerous cell is
(4) When the viral DNA is produced by reverse induced by
tanscriptase
(1) Carcinogens (2) Antigen
264. Cancer is caused by (3) Proteins (4) All of these
(1) Stagnant at GO (2) Uncontrolled meiosis
271. Physical carcinogens, e.g. UV-ray, X-ray and y-rays
(3) Uncontroled mitosis (4) Stagnant at G1 cause

265. Which of the following are the measures taken to (1) DNA damage (2) RNA damage
combat AIDS? (3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Complete damage to
I. Making blood (from blood banks) safe from HIV the organisms
II. Ensuring the use of only disposable needles and
syringes in public and private hospitals and clinics 272. Cancer causing viruses are called
III. Free distribution of condoms
IV. Controlling drug abuse
(1) Corona virus (2) Retroviruses
V. Advocating safe sex and promoting regular (3) Adenoviruses (4) Oncogenic viruses
check-ups for HIV in susceptible populations
273. Oncogene is another name for
(1) Only I,II is correct (2) Only II, III, IV is
correct
(1) Inducer gene (2) Jumping gene

(3) Only II, III, IV, V is (4) I, II, III, IV, V is

(3) Structural gene (4) Cancer causing gene
correct correct
274. The genes which can lead to the oncogenic
266. The spread of cancerous cells to distant sites is
transformation of the cells in which these are
present, are called
termed as

(1) Metastasis (2) Metachrosis

(1) Oncogenes (2) Protooncogenes

(3) Metamorphosis (4) Metagenesis

(3) Cellular oncogenes (4) Both (2) and (3)

267. The property of normal cells by virtue of which

275. Characteristics of cancer are
contact with other cells inhibits their uncontrolled (1) All viruses are (2) All tumours are
growth is called oncogenic cancers
(1) Contact inhibition (2) Metastasis (3) Cancerous cells show property of contact
(3) Benign tumor (4) Angiogenesis
inhibition
(4) Cancer cells show
268. Which form of the tumor remains confirmed to their metastasis
original location and do not spread to other parts of
the body? 276. Select the correct answer
I. Malignant tumors normally remain confined to
(1) Benign tumor (2) Malignant tumour their original location and do not spread to other
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Leukaemia parts of the body and cause little damage.
II. The Benign tumors, are a mass of proliferating
cells called neoplastic or tumor cells.

(1) Only I is correct (2) Only II is correct

(3) Both are correct (4) None are correct

131
277. Blood cancers is otherwise called as 283. The malarial parasite requires two hosts .......... to
complete its life cycle
(1) Anaemia (2) Polycythemia
(3) Leucopenia (4) Leukemia (1) Primary host - human and intermediate
mosquitoes
278. Cancer cells are more easily damaged by radiation (2) Primary host- mosquitoes and intermediate
than normal cells because they are human
(1) They do not undergo (2) Undergoing rapid (3) Primary host- human male and intermediate
cell division division human female
(3) Different in structure (4) They are in GO (4) Primary host - Female mosquito and
phase intermediate male mosquitoes

279. Which one of the following is not communicable 284. Drug called 'Heroin' is synthesized by
disease
(1) Methylation of (2) Acetylation of
(1) Tuberculosis (2) Diphtheria morphine morphine
(3) Cholera (4) Cancer (3) Glycosylation of (4) Nitration of
morphine morphine
280. In ...................... , a piece of the suspected tissue cut
into thin sections is stained and examined under 285. α- interferons are used in the treatment of
microscope ............ by a pathologist.
(1) Bacterial infections (2) Typhoid
(1) X-ray, MRI (2) Biopsy, (3) Pneumonia (4) Cancer
histopathological
studies 286. A drug that speeds up your Central Nervous System
(3) Biopsy, MRI (4) Histopathological is called a:
studies, biopsy (1) Opiate (2) Stimulant

281. Select the correct answer (3) Inhalant (4) Depressant

i. Computed tomography uses X-rays to generate a
three-dimensional image of the internals of an
287. A drug that is a sedative is called a:

object. (1) Depressant (2) Opiate

ii. MRI uses strong magnetic fields and non- ionising (3) Stimulant (4) Hallucinogen
radiations to accurately detect pathological and
physiological changes in the living tissue. 288. A drug that alters your thoughts, moods and senses
iii. Antibodies against cancer-specific antigens are is a:
also used for detection of certain cancers.
(1) Depressant (2) Stimulant
(1) Only i is correct (2) Only ii is correct (3) Inhalant (4) Hallucinogen
(3) Only ii, iii is correct (4) All are correct
289. Opioids are the drugs, which bind to specific opioid
282. Treatment and detection of cancer can be done by receptors present in our
aides ?
(1) Central nervous (2) Gastrointestinal
(1) Chemotherapy (2) Radiography system system
(3) Surgery (4) All of these (3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Reproductive system

132
290. Smack is chemically.....A..... which is white and 296. The plant depicted in the diagram produces the
odourless and crystalline in nature. This is obtained drug.
by .... B..... Here A and B refers to

(1) A diacetylmorphine; B-acetylation of morphine

(2) Amorphine;B-
acetylation of
hashish
(3) A diacetylmorphine;B- acetylation of alcohol
(1) LSD (2) Smack
(4) (4) A diacetylmorphine; B- acetylation of
hashish (3) Coca (4) Ganja

291. Which of the following drug is extracted from the 297. Which one includes all other three?
latex of poppy plant Papaver somniferum, generally (1) Cannabinoids (2) Marijuana
taken by snorting and injection, is a depressant and
slows down body functions?
(3) Ganja (4) Charas

(1) LSD (2) Ganja 298. Cannabinoid receptors are present principally in

(3) Barbiturate (4) Heroin (1) Brain (2) Neuron

292. An opiate is type of drug that:

(3) GIT (4) CVS

(1) Relieves pain (2) Causes stress 299. Cannabinoids are obatined from

(3) Causes pain (4) Relieves anger (1) Inflorescence of the plant Cannabis sativa'

293. Read the following statements

(2) Fruits of the plant (3) Late of the plant
Papaver somniferum Cannabis sativa
a. Heroin, commonly called smack, is obtained by
acetylation of morphine. (4) Plant Papaver
b. Heroin is a depressant and slows down body somniferum
functions inflorescene
C. Heroin is obtained from the latex of the poppy
plant Papaver somniferum
300. The flower tops, leaves and the resin of Cannabis
sativa are used to produce
d. Morphine is an effective sedative and pain killer.
Mark the option which includes both correct (1) Charas (2) Hashish
statement. (3) Marjuana (4) All of these
(1) a&b (2) a, b, c
301. The drug that produces profound cardiovascular
(3) c&d (4) All are correct effects in human beings is
294. Smack' is a drug obtained from the (1) Cocaine (2) Ganja
(1) Latex of Papaver (2) Leaves of Cannabis (3) Smack (4) Ethanol
somniferum sativa
302. Which plant is responsible for hallucination?
(3) Flowers of Dhatura (4) Fruits of
pinata Erythroxylum coca (1) Atropa Beladona (2) Datura
(3) Erythroxylum coca (4) All of the given
295. Opium : Morphine:: Cannabinoid : options
(1) Tobacco (2) Cocaine
(3) Marijuana (4) Ergot

133
303. Which kind of drug are obtained from given leaf of 310. Match the columns I and II.
the plant?

(1) Hashish (2) Charas (1) A-R, B-P, C-Q, D-S (2) A-S, B-R, C-P, D-Q

(3) (3) Ganja (4) All of these (3) A-P, B-R, C-Q, D-S (4) A-Q, B-P, C-R, D-S

304. The following represents the structure of 311. Select the correct option from the folowing
i. These days cannabinoids are also being abused by
some sportspersons.
ii. Cannabinoids are generally taken by inhalation
and oral ingestion

(1) Only i is correct (2) Only ii is correct

(1) Smack (2) Cocaul (3) Both are correct (4) Both are incorrect

(3) Cannabinoids (4) LSD 312. Match the columns I and II.

305. One major side effect of snorting cocaine (coke) is:

(1) It interferes transport of dopamine -

Hallucinations
(2) It calms the body by (3) It depresses the brain
sedation activity (1) A-R, B-P, C-Q, D-S (2) A-S, B-R, C-P, D-Q

(4) Ít relieves anxiety act (3) A-P, B-R, C-Q, D-S (4) A-Q, B-P, C-R, D-S
as tranquilizer
313. Chronic bronchitis is caused by the use of
306. Cocaine is commonly called as (1) Alcohol (2) Tobacco
(1) Coke (2) Crack (3) Opium (4) Contaminated food
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Smack
314. Because of smoking which kind of change occurs in
307. Anesthesia given during surgery is obtained from blood?

(1) Datura (2) Papaver somniferum (1) Proportion of CO₂ decrease and in Hb also CO₂
decreases
(3) Cannabis (4) Alcohol
(2) Proportion of O₂ decreases and in Hb
308. Which one of the following is a stimulant? proportion of O₂ increases

(1) Smack (2) Cocaine (3) Proportion of O₂ increases and in Hb

proportion of O₂ decreases
(3) Alcohol (4) Heroin
(4) Proportion of CO₂ increases and in Hb
309. Tick mark the incorrect match with respect to the proportion of O₂ decreases
drug, source and its action.
315. Nicotine stimulates .............. to release adrenaline
(1) Drug : Smack, and nor-adrenaline into blood circulation, both of
Action : Depressant which .............. blood pressure and ............... heart
(2) Drug : Cocaine, Action : Sense of euphoria rate.
(3) Drug : Coke, Action (4) Drug : Hashish, (1) Adrenal gland, (2) Adrenal gland,
: Hallucinations Action : decrease, increase increase, decrease
Hallucinations
(3) Adrenal gland, (4) Adrenal gland,
increase, increase decrease, decrease

134
316. Smoking is associated with increased incidence of 324. The side-effects of the use of anabolic steroids in
females include
(1) Cancers of lung, urinary bladder and throat
i. Masculinisation (features like males)
(2) Bronchitis, (3) Coronary heart ii. Increased aggressiveness,
emphysema disease, gastric ulcer iii. Mood swings, depression
(4) All of them iv. Abnormal menstrual cycles
V. Excessive hair growth on the face and body,
317. During what age is considered as adolescence vi. Enlargement of penis, deepening of voice
period? vii. Breast enlargement
(1) Between 12-18 (2) Between 12-18 years (1) Only i, ii, iii is (2) Only ii,iii, iv is
months of age of age correct correct
(3) Between 2-18 years (4) Between 12-8 years (3) Only ii, iii, iv,v,vi is (4) Onlyi, ii,iii, iv,v is
of age of age correct correct

318. Withdrawal syndrome is characterised by 325. Increased asthmatic attacks in certain seasons are
(1) Anxiety, shakiness (2) Nausea
related to

(3) Sweating (4) All of these (1) Hot and humid

environment
319. Alcohol is considered a (2) Eating fruits preserved in tin containers
(1) Stimulant (2) Hallucinogen (3) Inhalation of (4) Low temperature
(3) Relaxant (4) Depressant seasonal pollen

320. Alcohol addiction causes 326. Which one of the following is the correct statement
regarding the particular psychotropic drug specified?
(1) Hepatitis A (2) Hepatitis B
(3) Liver cirrhosis (4) Emphysema
(1) Hashish causes altered thought, perceptions
and hallucination
321. Cirrhosis is caused by (2) Opium stimulates nervous system and causes
hallucinations
(1) Tobacco (2) Opium
(3) Alcohol (4) Cocaine
(3) Morphine leads to delusions and disturbed
emotions
322. Name two diseases that can be transferred due to (4) Barbiturates causes relaxation and temporary
drug abuse? euphoria

(1) Malaria and AIDS (2) AIDS and hepatitis 327. Which one of the following statements is correct
A with respect to immunity?
(3) AIDS and hepatitis (4) Malaria and
(1) Rejection of a kidney graft is the function of B-
B hepatitis B
lymphocytes
323. With repeated use of the drugs, what happens to the (2) Preformed antibodies need to be injected to
tolerance level of the receptors? treat the bite by a viper snake

(1) Decreases (2) Same as usual (3) The antibodies against small pox pathogen are
produced by T-lymphocytes
(3) Increases (4) Fluctuates
(4) Antibodies are protein molecules each of which
has four light chains

135
328. Which particular type of drug is obtained from the 333. Identify the wrong statement with reference to
plant whose one flowering branch is shown below immunity.

(1) When ready-made antibodies are directly given,

it is called "Passive immunity".
(2) Active immunity is quick and gives full
response.
(3) Foetus receives some antibodies from mother, it
is an example for passive immunity.
(1) Hallucinogen (2) Depressant (4) When exposed to antigen (living or dead)
(3) Stimulant (4) Pain-killer antibodies are produced in the host's body. It is
called "Active immunity".
329. Antivenom injection contains preformed antibodies
while polio drops that are administered into the 334. Match the following diseases with the causative
body contains organism and select the correct option.
(1) Activated pathogens (2) Harvested antibodies
(3) Gamma globulin (4) Attenuated
pathogens

330. Match the following sexually transmitted diseases

(Column-I) with their causative agent (Column-II)
(1) A−III, B−IV, C−I, (2) A−II, B−I, C−III,
and select the correct option
D−II D−IV
(3) A−IV, B−I, C−II, (4) A−II, B−III, C−II,
D−III D−IV

335. Asserion : Innate immunity is accomplished by

providing different types of barriers to the entry of
the foreign agents into our body.
(1) A − 2 , B − 3, C − 4, (2) A − 1, B − 3, C − 4,
Reason : Acquired immunity is accomplished by B-
D−1 D−2
lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes.
(3) A − 2 , B − 2 , C − 4, (4) A − 2 , B − 3, C − 1,
D−3 D−4 (1) If both assertion and reason are true and the
reason is the correct explanation of the
331. Which part of poppy plant is used to obtain the drug assertion.
"Smack"? (2) If both assertion and reason are true, but
(1) Roots (2) Latex reason is not the correct explanation of the
assertion.
(3) Flowers (4) Leaves
(3) If assertion is true, but reason is false.
332. In which disease does mosquito transmitted (4) If both assertion and
pathogen cause chronic inflammation of lymphatic reason are false.
vessels?

(1) Ringworm disease (2) Ascariasis

336. Which one of the following options gives the correct
matching of a disease with its causative organism
(3) Elephantiasis (4) Amoebiasis and mode of infection?

(1) Elephantiasis - Wuchereria bancrofti - Bite of

female Anopheles
(2) Typhoid - Salmonella typhi - With inhaled air
(3) Pneumonia - Streptococcus pneumonia -
Droplet infection
(4) Malaria - Plasmodium vivax - Bite of male
Culex

136
337. Transplantation of tissues/organs to save certain 339. Identify the bond dipicting 'X' in the following
patients often fails due to rejection of such diagram.
tissues/organs by the patient. Which type of immune
response is responsible for such rejections?

(1) Auto-immune (2) Humoral immune

response response
(3) Physiological (4) Cell-mediated
immune response immune response

338. Which of the following statements regarding the

disease typhoid is/are correct? (1) Hydrogen bond (2) Disulphide bond
(i) Salmonella typhi are the pathogenic virus which (3) Ester bond (4) Glycosidic bond
enter human intestine through contaminated food
and water and migrate to other organs through 340. Identify the following structure labelled A&B.
blood.
(ii) Sustained high fever (39°F to 40°F), weakness,
stomach pain, constipation, headache and loss of
appetite are some common symptoms of typhoid.
(iii) Widal test is used for diagnosis of typhoid fever.
(iv) A classic case in medicine, of Mary Mallon
nicknamed, Typhoid Mary who was a carrier

(1) (i) and (ii) (2) (iii) and (iv)

(3) (ii) and (iv) (4) (i) & (iv)
(1) A- Thymus, B - (2) A- Thymus, B-
Lymphatic vessel Lymph nodes
(3) A- Thyroid, B- (4) A- Thyroid, B-
Lymph nodes Lymphatic vessel

137
 ANSWER KEY

1 C 44 B 87 A 130 D 173 A 216 C 259 C 302 D

2 C 45 D 88 D 131 C 174 B 217 C 260 D 303 D
3 C 46 A 89 A 132 C 175 A 218 B 261 C 304 C
4 D 47 D 90 C 133 B 176 A 219 C 262 B 305 A
5 D 48 A 91 C 134 D 177 D 220 B 263 C 306 C
6 D 49 A 92 B 135 D 178 A 221 D 264 C 307 B
7 D 50 D 93 B 136 A 179 C 222 B 265 D 308 B
8 C 51 B 94 B 137 B 180 D 223 A 266 A 309 D
9 B 52 A 95 B 138 C 181 A 224 B 267 A 310 D
10 D 53 C 96 D 139 D 182 C 225 B 268 A 311 C
11 D 54 C 97 B 140 B 183 C 226 B 269 D 312 A
12 C 55 C 98 D 141 B 184 B 227 D 270 A 313 B
13 C 56 C 99 B 142 A 185 D 228 C 271 A 314 D
14 D 57 C 100 C 143 B 186 D 229 A 272 D 315 C
15 B 58 C 101 A 144 B 187 C 230 D 273 D 316 D
16 C 59 C 102 D 145 A 188 B 231 D 274 D 317 B
17 C 60 C 103 B 146 D 189 D 232 B 275 D 318 D
18 A 61 C 104 C 147 C 190 C 233 D 276 D 319 D
19 C 62 C 105 D 148 B 191 A 234 C 277 D 320 C
20 B 63 C 106 C 149 D 192 A 235 A 278 B 321 C
21 A 64 D 107 A 150 D 193 D 236 A 279 D 322 C
22 D 65 B 108 D 151 C 194 D 237 A 280 B 323 C
23 C 66 C 109 A 152 D 195 C 238 A 281 D 324 D
24 A 67 B 110 C 153 C 196 A 239 D 282 D 325 C
25 C 68 C 111 C 154 B 197 A 240 B 283 B 326 A
26 B 69 A 112 D 155 C 198 C 241 C 284 B 327 B
27 C 70 B 113 D 156 B 199 C 242 D 285 D 328 A
28 D 71 A 114 B 157 C 200 B 243 C 286 B 329 D
29 D 72 B 115 D 158 A 201 B 244 B 287 A 330 A
30 A 73 A 116 B 159 B 202 C 245 B 288 D 331 B
31 B 74 C 117 B 160 A 203 A 246 C 289 C 332 C
32 A 75 C 118 A 161 B 204 C 247 C 290 A 333 B
33 C 76 D 119 C 162 D 205 D 248 D 291 D 334 A
34 D 77 A 120 D 163 D 206 C 249 C 292 A 335 B
35 D 78 B 121 C 164 B 207 D 250 C 293 D 336 C
36 D 79 D 122 D 165 C 208 A 251 D 294 A 337 D
37 D 80 C 123 D 166 A 209 D 252 A 295 C 338 B
38 C 81 B 124 A 167 D 210 A 253 B 296 B 339 B
39 B 82 B 125 C 168 C 211 A 254 B 297 A 340 B
40 A 83 C 126 B 169 D 212 D 255 C 298 A
41 C 84 D 127 D 170 D 213 A 256 A 299 A
42 D 85 A 128 C 171 D 214 A 257 B 300 D
43 D 86 B 129 D 172 D 215 B 258 D 301 B
138
 MICROBES IN HUMAN WELFARE

1. Given diagram represents 8. Which bacterium helps in the production of 'Swiss

cheese'?

(1) Propionibacterium (2) Trichoderma

sharmanii polysporum
(3) Saccharomyces (4) Aspergillus niger
cerevisiae

9. Which gas is responsible for the puffed-up

appearance of dough?

(1) SO₂ (2) CO₂

(3) O₂ (4) NO₂
(1) TMV (2) rhinonovirus
(3) Bacteriophage (4) adenovirus 10. Saccharomyces cerevisiae is employed in production
of
2. Adenoviruses commonly causes
(1) Idli (2) Bread
(1) Diarrhoea (2) Pneumonia (3) Beer (4) All of these
(3) Encephalitis (4) Vomiting
11. Which of the following statements is incorrect
3. Conversion of milk to curd improves its nutritional regarding fermentation ?
value by increasing the amount of
(1) Propionibacterium is used to ferment the
(1) vitamin D (2) vitamin A cheese.
(3) vitamin B₁₂ (4) vitamin E (2) The puffed-up appearance of dough is due to
the production of CO₂ gas.
4. Dough kept overnight in warm weather becomes soft
(3) Fermentation in muscle produces ethanol.
and spongy because of
(4) Toddy is made by fermenting sap from palms.
(1) Absorption of carbon dioxide from atmosphere
(2) Fermentation (3) Cohesion 12. Food item not commonly related with fermentation
is
(4) Osmosis.
(1) Fish (2) Soyabean
5. During the formation of bread it becomes porous
(3) Bamboo-roots (4) Beer
due to release of CO₂ by the action of

(1) Yeast (2) Virus 13. Lactobacillus mediated change of milk to curd
occurs due to
(3) Bacteria (4) Protozoans
(1) Coagulation and partial digestion of milk fats.
6. Glucose fermentation by yeast yields
(2) Coagulation and partial digestion of milk
(1) ethanol + CO₂ (2) ethanol + H₂O proteins.
(3) methanol + CO₂ (4) H₂O + CO₂ (3) Coagulation of milk proteins and complete
digestion of milk fats.
7. Roqueferti cheese are characterised by their
(4) Coagulation of milk fats and complete
(1) Taste (2) Smell digestion of proteins.
(3) Flavour (4) Texture

139
14. Match the following columns and select the correct 19. Match the following list of microbes and their
option. importance.

(1) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(i), (2) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(iv),

D-(iii) D-(ii)
(1) (A)-(iii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(2) (A)-(ii), (B)-(i), (C)-
(ii), (D)-(i) (iv), (D)-(iii)
(3) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), (4) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-
D-(ii) (ii),D-(i)
(3) (A)-(i), (B)-(ii), (C)- (4) (A)-(iv), (B)-(iii), (C)-
(iv), (D)-(iii) (ii), (D)-(i) 20. Which of the following is wrongly matched in the
given table?
15. Which of the following is a commercial blood
cholesterol lowering agent? (1) Microbe - Streptococcus
Product - Streptokinase
(1) Lipases (2) Statin Application - Removal of clot from blood
(3) Cyclosporin A (4) Streptokinase vessel

16. Which of the following is correctly matched for the

(2) Microbe - Clostridium butylicum
Product - Lipase
product produced by them?
Application - Removal of oil stains
(1) Methanobacterium: (2) Penicillium notatum: (3) Microbe - Trichoderma polysporum
Lactic acid Acetic acid Product - Cyclosporin A
(3) Sacchromyces (4) Acetobacter aceti: Application - Immuno- suppressive drug
cerevisiae: Ethanol Antibiotics (4) Microbe - Streptococcus
Product - Streptokinase
17. Match column I with column II and select the
Application - Clot buster
correct option using the codes given below.
21. The large vessels for growing microbes on an
industrial scale are called _______.

(1) Petridish (2) Biogas vessel

(3) Digestors (4) Fermentors

22. Match the List-I with List-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given
below
(1) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii), (2) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(iv),
D-(iv) D-(ii)
(3) A-(i), B-(iv), C-(ii), (4) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i),
D-(iii) D-(ii)

18. A good producer of citric acid is

(1) Clostridium (2) Saccharomyces

(3) Aspergillus (4) Pseudomonas.
(1) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2 (2) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(3) A-2 , B-3, C-1, D-4 (4) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3

140
23. Identify the microorganism which is responsible for 29. Select the correct pair of microorganism and the
the production of an immunosuppressive molecule product obtained from it.
cyclosporin A:
(1) Monascus purpureus - produces large holes in
(1) Trichoderma (2) Clostridium Swiss cheese.
polysporum butylicum (2) Saccharomyces cerevisiae used for making wine
(3) Aspergillus niger (4) Streptococcus and beer after distillation.
cerevisiae (3) Streptococcus - produces streptokinase which is
used to remove clots.
24. A patient brought to a hospital with myocardial
infarction is normally immediately given (4) Aspergillus niger - produces citric acid and
butyric acid.
(1) Penicillin (2) streptokinase
(3) Cyclosporin-A (4) Statins. 30. Select the incorrect match.

25. Read the following four statements (A-D).

(1) Citric acid- (2) Streptokinase -
Aspergillus niger Streptococcus
(A) Colostrum is recommended for the new born
because it is rich in antigens. (3) Butyric acid - (4) Cyclosporin-A -
(B) Chikungunya is caused by a Gram negative Clostridium Monascus purpureus
bacterium. butylicum
(C) Tissue culture has proved useful in obtaining
virus-free plants.
31. The turbidity of bottled fruit juices is cleared with
the help of enzyme
(D) Beer is manufactured by distillation of
fermented grape juice. (1) Pectinases (2) Lipases
How many of the above statements are correct? (3) Amylases (4) Streptokinase
(1) Two (2) Three
32. Select the correct statement.
(3) Four (4) One
(1) Acetobacter aceti
26. Ethanol is commercially produced through a produces citric acid.
particular species of (2) Saccharomyces cerevisiae is used as clot buster.
(1) Saccharomyces (2) Trichoderma (3) Penicillium notatum restrict the growth of
(3) Clostridium (4) Aspergillus. Staphylococci.
(4) Methanogens are found in aerobic conditions.
27. First antibiotic was obtained while working on a :-

(1) Fungus (2) Plant

33. Secondary sewage treatment is mainly a

(3) Bacteria (4) Protist (1) Physical process (2) Chemical process
(3) Mechanical process (4) Biological process.
28. Assertion : While working on Staphylococci,
Alexander Fleming observed that Penicillium 34. Which of the following is mainly produced by the
notatum inhibits the growth of the bacteria. activity of anaerobic bacteria on sewage?
Reason : This inhibiting chemical was commercially
extracted and its full potential was established by
(1) Laughing gas (2) Propane
Alexander Fleming (3) Mustard gas (4) Biogas

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and 35. Insect resistant transgenic cotton has been produced
Reason is the correct explanation for Assertion by inserting a piece of DNA from
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but (1) An insect (2) A wild relative of
Reason is not the correct explanation for cotton
Assertion
(3) A bacterium (4) A virus
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
(4) Both Assertion and
Reason are incorrect

141
36. Microbes are used in the 43. The technology of biogas production was developed
I. primary treatment of sewage. in India mainly due to the efforts of
II. secondary treatment of sewage.
III. anaerobic sludge digester.
(1) Indian Agricultural Research Institute (IARI)
and Khadi and Village Industries Commission
IV. production of bioactive molecules.
(KVIC).
Choose the correct option showing the uses of
microbes. (2) National Botanical Research Institute (NBR1).

(1) II, III, IV (2) I, II, III, IV

(3) Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR).

(3) I, III, IV (4) IV, I, II

(4) Indian Council of Agricultural Research
(ICAR).
37. The guts of cow and buffalo possess
44. Select the correct statement.
(1) Methanogens (2) Cyanobacteria
(1) Acetobacter aceti
(3) Fucus sp. (4) Chlorella sp. produces citric acid.

38. In gobar gas, the maximum amount is that of (2) Saccharomyces cerevisiae is used as clot buster.

(1) Butane (2) Methane

(3) Penicillium notatum restrict the growth of
Staphylococci.
(3) Propane (4) Carbon dioxide
(4) Methanogens are found in aerobic conditions.
39. Organisms called methanogens are most abundant in
45. Which of the following groups of organisms has not
a
commonly used microbes as BIOCONTROL
(1) Sulphur rock (2) Cattle yard AGENTS
(3) Polluted stream (4) Hot spring (1) Nostoc, trichoderma,(2) Ladybird, bacillus,
baculovirus baculovirus
40. Select the correct statement from the following.
(3) Trichoderma, (4) Trichoderma,
(1) Biogas is produced by the activity of aerobic baculovirus, bacillus dragonfly, bacillus
bacteria on animal waste.
(2) Methanobacterium is an aerobic bacterium 46. Which of the following statements is correct?
found in rumen of cattle. (1) Aspergillus niger is used for producing
(3) Biogas, commonly called gobar gas, is pure cyclosporin A.
methane. (2) Activated sludge is digested by aerobic bacteria
(4) Activated sludge-sediment in settlement tanks to produce biogas.
of sewage treatment plant is a rich source of (3) Fleming, Chain and Florey were awarded with
aerobic bacteria. Nobel Prize for discovering penicillin.

41. Methanogenic bacteria are present in (4) BOD is amount of oxygen produced by
bacteria on decomposition.
(1) Anaerobic sludge (2) Rumen (a part of
stomach) of cattle 47. Read the following statements on Trichoderma
(3) Both (a) and (b) (4) None of the above A. Some species are used to control many plant
diseases
42. During sewage treatment, biogases produced include B. They are usualy SYMBIOTIC
which of the following gases? C. They are common in Shoot ecosystem
D. Some species are used to make bioactive
(1) Methane, oxygen, molecules
hydrogen sulphide E. Used to control many plant pathogens
(2) Hydrogen sulphide, methane, sulphur dioxide How many are not true
(3) Hydrogen sulphide, (1) 1 (2) 2
nitrogen, methane
(3) 3 (4) 4
(4) Methane, hydrogen sulphide, carbon dioxide

142
48. Baculoviruses (nucleopolyhedrovirus) does not show 54. Which of the following can be used as a biocontrol
agent in the treatment of plant disease?
(1) Host specificity. (2) Narrow spectrum
applications. (1) Lactobacillus (2) Trichoderma
(3) Effects on non-target (4) Utility in IPM (3) Chlorella (4) Anabaena
pathogens. programme.
55. A biocontrol agent to be a part of an integrated pest
49. Baculoviruses are excellent candidates for management should be

(1) species-specific narrow spectrum pesticidal (1) Species-specific and (2) Free living and
applications. symbiotic broad spectrum
(2) species-specific broad spectrum pesticidal (3) Narrow spectrum
applications and symbiotic
(3) species-specific narrow spectrum insecticidal (4) Species-specific and inactive on non-target
applications. organisms.
(4) species-specific broad spectrum insecticidal
56. The domestic sewage in large cities
applications.
(1) Has a high BOD as it contains both aerobic
50. Microbe used for biocontrol of pest butterfly and anaerobic bacteria
caterpillars is
(2) Is processed by aerobic and then anaerobic
(1) Trichoderma sp. (2) Saccharomyces bacteria in the secondary treatment in Sewage
cerevisiae Treatment Plants (STPs)
(3) Bacillus thuringiensis (4) Streptococcus sp. (3) When treated in STPs does not really require
the aeration step as the sewage contains
51. Which one of the following is an example of carrying adequate oxygen
out biological control of pests/diseases using
microbes?
(4) Has very high amount of suspended solids and
dissolved salts.
(1) Trichoderma sp. against certain plant
pathogens. 57. Which of the following in sewage treatment removes
suspended solids?
(2) Nucleopolyhedrovirus against white rust in
Brassica. (1) Secondary treatment (2) Sludge treatment
(3) Bt-cotton to increase (3) Primary treatment (4) Tertiary treatment
cotton yield
(4) Lady bird beetle against aphids in mustard.
58. Which of the following is put into anaerobic sludge
digester for further sewage treatment?
52. Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) strains have been used as (1) Primary sludge (2) Floating debris
(1) Biofertilizers (2) Biometallurgical (3) Effluents of primary (4) Activated sludge
techniques treatment
(3) Biomineralization (4) Bioinsecticidal plants
59. Ganga and Yamuna action plan is initiated by
processes
(1) Ministry of (2) Ministry of
53. Bt cotton variety that was developed by the environment and agriculture.
introduction of toxin gene of Bacillus thuringiensis forest.
(Bt) is resistant to
(3) Ministry of wild-life (4) None of the above
(1) Insect pests (2) Fungal diseases conservation.
(3) Plant nematodes (4) Insect predators

143
60. Which one of the following statement regarding 66. Which one of the following microbes forms
BOD is true? symbiotic association with plants and helps them in
(a) The greater the BOD of waste water, more is its their nutrition?
polluting potential.
(b) The greater the BOD of waste water, less is its
(1) Azotobacter (2) Glomus

polluting potential. (3) Aspergillus (4) Trichoderma

(c) The lesser the BOD of waste water, more is its
polluting potential.
67. Which one of the following helps in absorption of
phosphorus from soil by plants?
(d) The lesser the BOD of waste water, less is its
polluting potential. (1) Glomus (2) Frankia
(1) B,C (2) A,B (3) Rhizobium (4) Anabaena
(3) A,D (4) A,B,.C 68. Which one of the following is not a biofertiliser?
61. BOD refers to (1) Agrobacterium (2) Rhizobium
(1) bacteria oxygen (2) biochemical oxygen (3) Nostoc (4) Mycorrhiza
demand demand
69. Assertion : Saccharomyces cerevisiae produces acetic
(3) biochemical (4) biological organism acid.
operation demand demand Reason : Trichoderma polysporum produces blood
cholestrol lowering agent.
62. Sewage purification is done by

(1) Microbes (2) Antibiotics

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and
Reason is the correct explanation for Assertion
(3) Fertilizers (4) Antiseptics
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but
63. Trichoderma harzianum has proved a useful Reason is not the correct explanation for
microorganism for Assertion

(1) Gene transfer in

(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect

higher plants (4) Both Assertion and

Reason are incorrect
(2) Biological control of soil-borne plant pathogens
(3) Bioremediation of (4) Reclamation of 70. Consider the following statements (A-D) about
contaminated soils wastelands. organic farming.
(A) Utilizes genetically modified crops like Bt cotton
64. What triggers activation of protoxin to active toxin (B) Uses only naturally produced inputs like
of Bacillus thuringiensis in bollworm? compost
(1) Acidic pH of (2) Body temperature (C) Does not use pesticides and urea
stomach (D) Produces vegetables rich in vitamins and
minerals
(3) Moist surface of (4) Alkaline pH of gut
Which of the above statements are correct?
midgut
(1) B, C and D (2) B and C only
65. Which of the following groups of organism are used
(3) C and D only (4) A and B only
as biofertilizers

(1) Trichoderma, (2) Glomus, oscillatoria, 71. Which one of the following is not used in organic
nostoc, glomus acetobacter farming?

(3) Rhizopus, glomus, (4) Azospirillum, (1) Glomus (2) Earthworm

azotobacter nostoc, glomus (3) Oscillatoria (4) Snail

72. Which of the following plants is used as biofertilizer

(1) Nostoc (2) Volvox

(3) Funaria (4) Rhizopus

144
73. Which of the following serve as biofertilizer in paddy 78. Which one of the following statements is correct?
fields?
(1) Legumes fix nitrogen only through the
(1) Bacteria (2) Yeast specialized bacteria that live in their roots.
(3) Cyanobacteria (blue- (4) Fungi (2) Legumes fix nitrogen independently of the
green algae) specialized bacteria that live in their roots.

74. A free living nitrogen-fixing cyanobacterium which

(3) Legumes fix nitrogen only through specialized
bacteria that live in their leaves.
can also form symbiotic association with the water
fern Azolla is (4) Legumes are incapable of fixing nitrogen.

(1) Anabaena (2) Chlorella 79. Read the following

(3) Tolypothrix (4) Nostoc 1.Tolerance to salinity
2.Availability of more phosphorous from soil
75. The symbiotic association between fungi and roots 3.Availabilty of more nitrogen fixed from
of higher plants is called atmosphere
4.Tolerance to drought
(1) Lichen (2) Biofertilizer
5.Resistance to shoot-borne pathogens
(3) Mycorrhiza (4) BOD 6.Overall increase in plant growth and development
Among ABOVE statements,how many are benefits
76. Symbiotic asociation is exhibited by for plants from a MYCORRHIZAL
I. Mycorrhiza ASSOCIATION
II. Rhizobium
III. Heterocyst (1) 3 (2) 4
IV. Yeast (3) 5 (4) 6
(1) I, III, IV (2) I, II, III, IV
80. Which of the following diseases cannot be cured by
(3) II, III, IV (4) I,II antibiotics?

77. Which of the following species does not have the (1) Kali khansi (2) Gal Ghotu
ability to fix atmospheric nitrogen? (3) Kusht rog (4) Cancer
(1) Azotobactor (2) Anabaena
(3) Nostoc (4) Spirogyra

145
 ANSWER KEY

1 D 43 A
2 B 44 C
3 C 45 A
4 B 46 C
5 A 47 B
6 A 48 C
7 C 49 C
8 A 50 C
9 B 51 A
10 D 52 D
11 C 53 A
12 C 54 B
13 B 55 D
14 B 56 B
15 B 57 C
16 C 58 D
17 B 59 A
18 C 60 C
19 C 61 B
20 B 62 A
21 D 63 B
22 A 64 D
23 A 65 D
24 B 66 B
25 D 67 A
26 A 68 A
27 C 69 D
28 C 70 B
29 C 71 D
30 D 72 A
31 A 73 C
32 C 74 A
33 D 75 C
34 D 76 D
35 C 77 D
36 A 78 A
37 A 79 B
38 B 80 D
39 B
40 D
41 C
42 D
146
 BIOTECHNOLOGY: PRINCIPLES AND
PROCESSES
1. The construction of the first recombinant DNA by 8. Given below are four statements pertaining to the
linking antibiotic resistance gene with a native separation of DNA fragments using Gel
plasmid of Salmonella typhimurium was done by electrophoresis. Identify the incorrect statements:
a. DNA is a negatively charged molecule and so it is
(1) Arber and Nathans (2) Kary Mullis
loaded on gel towards the anode terminal.
(3) Herbert Boyer and (4) Smith and Wilcox b. DNA fragments travel along the surface of the gel
Stanley Cohen whose concentration does not affect the movement
of DNA.
2. The DNA fragments separated on an agarose gel can
C. Smaller the size of the DNA fragment, larger the
be visualised after staining with
distance it travels through it.
(1) Bromophenol blue (2) Acetocarmine d. Pure DNA can be visualized directly by exposing
(3) Aniline blue (4) Ethidium bromide
it to UV radiation.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
3. Agarose extracted from sea weeds finds use in below:

(1) Tissue culture (2) PCR (1) (a), (c) and (d) (2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) Gel electrophoresis (4) Spectrophotometry (3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b) and (d)

4. What is the criterion for DNA fragments movement 9. Consider the following statements:
on agarose gel during gel electrophoresis ? I: Asexual reproduction preserves genetic
information while sexual reproduction permits
(1) The larger the fragment size, the farther it variations.
moves II: Traditional hybridization often leads to the
(2) The smaller the fragment size, the farther it inclusion and multiplication of undesirable genes
moves along with the desired genes.
(3) Positively charged fragments move to farther III: rDNA technology allows us to isolate and
end introduce only one or a set of desirable genes
without introducing undesirable genes in the target
(4) Negatively charged fragments do not move
organism.
5. DNA fragments generated by the restriction Which of the above statements are true?
endonucleases in a chemical reaction can be (1) I and II only (2) I and III only
separated
by
(3) II and III only (4) I, II, and III

(1) Centrifugation (2) Polymerase chain 10. Which one is considered as molecular glue in
reaction recombinant DNA technology?

(3) Electrophoresis (4) Restriction mapping (1) Endonuclease (2) DNA ligase

6. If any protein-encoding gene is expressed in a

(3) Polymerase (4) Alkaline
phosphatase
heterologous host, it is termed as

(1) Recombinant protein(2) Single-cell protein 11. The enzyme known as molecular scissors in genetic
engineering is
(3) Humulin (4) Transposon
(1) DNA ligase (2) Transferases
7. The Taq polymerase enzyme is obtained from
(3) DNA polymerase (4) Restriction
(1) Thiobacillus (2) Bacillus subtilis endonuclease
ferroxidans
(3) Pseudomonas (4) Thermus aquaticus
subtilis

147
12. The first recombinant DNA was constructed by 16. During the process of gel electrophoresis, DNA
linking an antibiotic resistant gene with the native moves towards the __A__ of the electrophoretic
plasmid of chamber as the charge of DNA is _B_
Choose the option that fills the blanks correctly.
(1) Escherichia coll (2) Salmonella
typhimurium (1) A-Cathode B- (2) A-Cathode B-
(3) Clostridium (4) Acetobacter aceti Positive Negative
butylicum (3) A-. Anode B-Positive (4) A-Anode B-
Negative
13. Gel electrophoresis is used for

(1) Cutting of DNA into

17. All the following are transformation procedures
except
fragments
(2) Separation of DNA fragments according to (1) Microinjection (2) Biolistics
their size (3) Spooling (4) Electroporation
(3) Construction of recombinant DNA by joining
18. Which of the following are used in gene cloning:
with cloning vectors
(4) Isolation of DNA (1) Lomasomes (2) Mesosomes
molecule (3) Plasmids (4) Nucleoids

14. In rDNA technology or genetic engineering elution 19. Part of a plasmid such as pBR322 responsible for
means:- controlling the copy number of the linked alien
DNA is
(1) Remove the DNA from centrifuge tube after
centrifugation (1) Ori (2) rop
(2) Separation of the recombinant protein from (3) ampᴿ (4) tetᴿ
recombinant cell
(3) Insertion of recombinant DNA into host cell
20. Rop segment codes for pBR322?

(4) The separated band of DNA are cut out from (1) Resistance protein (2) Protein for
the gel and extracted from the gel piece replication
(3) Proteins for (4) Cloning site
15. In the above diagram showing a typical agaro gel translation
electrophoresis
21. A and B in pBR322, shown in the diagram given
below, respectively represent recognition sequences
of

(1) Lane 1 shows

undigested DNA
fragment
(2) Lane 4 shows largest DNA particles towards 'y'
(3) The procedure helps to form clones of DNA
(4) The procedure takes place as the DNA
fragments are double stranded
(1) BamH I and Sma I (2) Hind II and Sma l
(3) BamH I and Sal l (4) Sal I and Hind II

148
22. Which of the following options is correct about 27. Read the following statements
Agrobacterium tumifaciens? Statement-A Restriction enzymes are obtained only
from eukaryotes.
(1) It is a pathogen of
Statement-B: The first discovered restriction
angiosperms
endonuclease was EcoRI
(2) It is able to deliver a piece of DNA known as T- Choose the correct option.
DNA to transform bacterial cell and direct the
cell to produce chemicals required by the (1) Both statements are (2) Both statements are
pathogen correct incorrect

(3) Its Ti plasmid is now modified into an (3) Statement A is correct but B is incorrect
expression vector (4) Statement B is correct but A is incorrect
(4) Its Ti plasmid is modified into a cloning vector
28. Restriction enzymes are synthesized by:
which is no more pathogenic
(1) Bacteria only (2) Yeast and bacteria
23. 'Insertional inactivation' is used for only
(1) Selection of (2) Producing pest (3) Eukaryotic cells only (4) All kinds of cells
recombinants resistant crops
(3) Enhancing (4) Reducing post
29. In order to make the host cell competent Divalent
cations such as calcium are used-
nutritional value of harvest losses
food (1) The divalent ions have to be in a specific
concentration
24. Selection of recombinants is based on all except one.
(2) They cause the DNA
Find out the exception
uptake by the cell
(1) Expression and non-expression of genes (3) They increase the efficiency with which DNA
encoding for tetracycline-resistant compound enters the bacterium through pores in its cell
(2) Expression and non-expression of genes wall.
encoding for insulin-resistant compound (4) All of the above
(3) Expression and non-expression of genes
encoding for ampicillin-resistant compound 30. Which of the following step is last for isolating the
desired DNA fragment?
(4) Insertional
inactivation (1) Running of gel (2) Elution

25. When recombinant DNA is inserted within the

(3) Staining (4) Visualization

coding sequence of an enzyme β- galactosidase. This 31. A host cell normally does not take up a foreign
results in the following except DNA until it has been made competent to do so.
(1) Insertional This is because:
inactivation (1) DNA is a (2) DNA is a very large
(2) Recombinant colonies do not produce any hydrophilic molecule molecule
color (3) There are no receptors for DNA on the cell
(3) Inactivation of membrane
enzyme (4) DNA is an inert
(4) Chromogenic substrate is converted into molecule
product by recombinant colonies
32. When isolating the pure DNA from a bacterial cell,
26. Today we know more than ........ restriction enzymes the cell should not be treated with:
that have been isolated from over........ strains
(1) Lysozyme (2) Proteases
(1) 700; 350 (2) 900; 230 (3) Ribonuclease (4) Deoxyribonuclease
(3) 600, 270 (4) 550, 210

149
33. Elution is: 39. If you transform a cell with an alien piece of DNA
only, What is the possibility?
(1) Separating the restricted DNA fragments on
agarose gel. (1) This alien piece becomes a part of the host
(2) Staining the separate DNA fragments with genome.
ethidium bromide (2) It doesn't become a part of the host's genome
(3) Cutting out of the separated band of DNA but keeps on replicating
from the agarose gel and extracting them from (3) The cloning of genes won't get affected in the
the gel piece. absence of Origin of replication.
(4) Constructing rDNA by joining the purified (4) Multiple identical copies of an alien piece of
DNA fragments to the cloning vector. DNA can be formed irrespective of its
integration into the host's genome.
34. DNA from Agrobacterium tumefaciens can be
extracted through use of enzyme 40. The source of taq polymerase used in PCR is a

(1) Chitinase (2) Cellulase (1) Thermophilic fungus (2) Mesophilic fungus
(3) Lysozyme (4) DNAse (3) Thermophilic (4) Halophilic bacterium
bacterium
35. Which of the following enzyme is involved in the
isolation of genetic material like DNA from a plant 41. The process of separation and purification of
cell? expressed protein before marketing is called
I. Cellulase
II. Lysozyme
(1) Upstream processing (2) Downstream
processing
III. Ribonuclease
IV. Protease (3) Bioprocessing (4) Postproduction
processing
(1) I, II, III and IV (2) I and II only
(3) I only (4) I, III and IV 42. What is true about the DNA polymerase used in
PCR?
36. The definition of biotechnology given by EFB
(1) Isolated from a virus (2) Stable at high
encompasses
temperatures
(1) Traditional view (2) Modern molecular (3) Used as selectable (4) Has methylated
biotechnology marker bases
(3) Both 1 and 2 (4) Only Molecular
analogs 43. Which of the following equipment is essentially
required for growing microbes on a large scale for
37. What limitation of traditional hybridization used for the industrial production of enzymes?
plant and animal breeding has been overcome by
the use of rDNA techniques?
(1) Bioreactor (2) BOD incubator
(3) Sludge digester (4) Industrial oven
(1) High cost (2) Insertion of
undesirable genes 44. Taq polymerase is used in the polymerase chain
(3) Complexity of the (4) Antigenicity of the reaction because:
procedure product (1) It replicates DNA faster than other enzymes

38. Cohen and Boyer are known for which of the (2) It is the only enzyme that can replicate DNA
following discoveries? invitro

(1) Antibiotic resistance (2) Recombinant DNA

(3) It does not require an RNA primer to function

gene (4) It is thermostable

(3) Restriction Digestion(4) Plasmid

150
45. During gel electrophoresis for separation of DNA 50. The synthesis of DNA in PCR will be in
fragment
(1) 5'-3' (2) 3'-5"
(1) Smallest fragment will move to the farthest (3) It won't be
point towards cathode depending on
(2) Smallest fragment will move to the farthest direction
point towards anode (4) For one strand 5'-3' in another opposite to it
(3) Largest fragment will move to the farthest
point towards cathode 51. The two antibiotic resistance genes on vector PBR
322 are for:
(4) Largest fragment will move to the farthesr
point towards anode (1) Ampicillin and (2) Ampicillin and
Tetracycline Chloramphenicol
46. Stirred-tank bioreactors have been designed for:
(3) Chloramphenicol (4) Tetracycline and
(1) Purification of and Tetracycline Kanamycin
product
(2) Addition of preservatives to the product
52. A gene, whose expression helps to identify
transformed cells is known as
(3) Availability of oxygen throughout the process
(4) Ensuring anaerobic conditions in the culture
(1) Selectable marker (2) Vector

vessel (3) Plasmid (4) Structural gene

47. The bioreactor shown in the diagram is: 53. A selectable marker is used to:

(1) Help in eliminating the non-transformants so

that the transformants can be regenerated.
(2) Identify the gene for the desired trait in an alien
organism.
(3) Select a suitable vector for transformation in a
specific crop.
(1) Sparged stirred tank (2) Airlift type (4) Mark a gene on a chromosome for isolation
type using a restriction enzyme.
(3) Simple stirred tank (4) Fluidized bed type
type 54. How are transformants selected from non
transformants?
48. Continuous culture leads to
(1) Presence of more than one recognition site in
(1) Smaller biomass (2) Higher yields of the vector DNA.
desired proteins (2) Presence of alien DNA into the vector DNA
(3) Both A and B (4) Higher yields of results into insertional inactivation of selectable
recombinant DNA marker

49. Which one is a true statement regarding DNA

(3) Antibiotic resistance gene gets inactivated due
to insertion of alien DNA.
polymerase used in PCR?
(4) Both 2 and 3.
(1) It is used to ligate introduced DNA in recipient
cells 55. In genetic engineering, the antibiotic-resistance gene
(2) It serves as a (3) It is isolated from a is used:
selectable marker virus (1) To select healthy
(4) It remains active at vectors
high temperature (2) As sequences from where replication starts
(3) To keep the cultures (4) As selectable
free of infection markers

151
56. Insertional inactivation of a gene helps in 62. For transformation, microparticles coated with
DNA to be bombarded with gene gun are made up
(1) Identification of (2) Identification of
of
recombinant clones deletion mutants
(3) Identification of recombinant transformants (1) Silver or platinum (2) Platinum or zinc

(4) Elimination of (3) Silicon or platinum (4) Gold or tungsten

suppression mutants
63. ______________ is a thermophilic bacterium that
57. In the screening process during rDNA experiments, can survive temperatures upto 95°C. Select the
clones that metabolize β-gal turn: option which fills the blank correctly.

(1) Colorless (2) Blue (1) Thermus aquaticus (2) Salmonella typhi

(3) Yellow (4) Green (3) E.coli (4) Lactobacillus

58. The colonies of recombinant bacteria appear white 64. Which of these are most widely used in genetic
in contrast to blue colonies of non- recombinant engineering?
bacteria because of (1) Plastid (2) Plasmid
(1) Non-recombinant bacteria containing B- (3) Mitochondrion (4) Ribosome
galactosidase
(2) Insertional inactivation of a-galactosidase in
65. The cutting of DNA at specific locations became
possible with the discovery of
non-recombinant bacteria
(3) Insertional inactivation of B-galactosidase in (1) Restriction enzymes (2) Probes
recombinant bacteria (3) Selectable markets (4) Ligases
(4) Inactivation of glycosidase enzyme in
recombinant bacteria
66. Which one of the following is commonly used in
transfer of foreign DNA into crop plants?
59. Two bacteria found to be very useful in genetic (1) Trichoderma (2) Meloidogyne
engineering are harzianum incognita
(1) Diplococcus and (2) Rhizobium and (3) Agrobacterium (4) Penicillium
Streptomyces Xanthomonas tumefaciens expansum
(3) Vibrio and (4) Escherischia and
Escherischia Agrobacterium
67. Which one of the following represents a palindromic
sequence in DNA?
60. Biolistic method makes use of microparticles coated (1) 5'- GAATTC-3' (2) 5'-CCAATG-3'
with DNA bombarded at cells to be transformed. 3' - CTTAAG-5' 3' - GAATCC-5'
These particle are made up of
(3) 5'-CATTAG-3' (4) 5'-GATACC-3'
(1) Zinc or tungsten (2) Silicon or gold 3' - GATAAC-5 3'-CCTAAG-5'
(3) Tungsten or gold (4) Selenium or
Platinum
68. Which of the following is not a method of
introducing alien DNA into host cells?
61. Given below is a sample of portion of DNA strand (1) Microinjection (2) Heat shock method
giving the base sequence on the opposite strands.
What is so, special shown in it?
(3) Being placed along with the cell into a gene gun
5' ___GAATTC_3" (4) Gel electrophoresis
3' ___CTTAAG___5'
69. To be useful in genetic engineering a vector must
(1) Deletion mutation (2) Start codon at the 5' have
end
(1) An origin for (2) Low copy number
(3) Palindromic (4) Replication replication
sequence of base completed
pairs
(3) Low rates of (4) Many cloning sites
multiplication for the same enzyme

152
70. There is a restriction endonuclease called Eco RI. 77. How does a bacterial cell protect its own DNA from
What does 'co' part in it stand for? restriction enzymes?

(1) Coelom (2) Coenzyme (1) By adding methyl groups to adenine and
(3) Coli (4) Colon cytosines.
(2) By reinforcing bacterial DNA structure with
71. A gene has been inserted into a vector for the covalent phosphodiester bonds.
purpose of cloning the sequence only. This vector is
called
(3) By adding histones to protect the double-
stranded DNA.
(1) Suppression vector (2) Expression vector (4) By forming "sticky ends" of bacterial DNA to
(3) Cloning vector (4) None of these prevent the enzyme from attaching

72. A tumor inducing plasmid widely used in the 78. The following palindrome is recognized by the
production of transgenic plants is that of restriction enzyme:

(1) Escherichia coll (2) Bacillus thuringiensis

(3) Staphylococcus (4) Agrobacterium
aureus tumefaciens.
(1) BamHI (2) EcoRI
73. Which of the following restriction sites is located (3) HindIl (4) Pstl
within the gene for tetracycline resistance in the
plasmid pBR322? 79. Biolistic (gene gun) is suitable for
(1) BamHI (2) Psti (1) Disarming pathogen (2) Transformation of
(3) Clai (4) Pvull vectors plant cell
(3) Constructing recombinant DNA by joining
74. Plasmid vector in DNA recombinant technology with vectors
means
(4) DNA fingerprinting
(1) A virus that transfers
gene to bacteria 80. Consider the following statements:
I. Ori is responsible for the copy number of the
(2) Extra-chromosomal autonomously replicating
linked DNA.
circular DNA
II. Transformation is a process through which a
(3) Sticky end of DNA piece of DNA is introduced into a host bacterium.
(4) Any fragment of DNA carrying desirable gene III: Bacteriophages have very high copy numbers of
their genome within the bacterial cell.
75. The DNA molecule to which the gene of interest is Which of the above statements are true?
integrated for cloning is called:
(1) I and II only (2) I and III only
(1) Transformer (2) Vector
(3) II and III only (4) I, II, and III
(3) Template (4) Carrier
81. For the multiplication of any alien piece of DNA in
76. Similarity between microinjection and biolistic gene an organism:
gun method is
(1) It must be devoid of
(1) Used to transform (2) Used to transform any introns in it
the plant host cells. the animal host cells
(2) It must be a part of a chromosome with an ori
(3) Recombinant DNA is directly injected into host
(3) It must have recognition sequence of at least
cells.
one restriction enzyme
(4) Used to transform the bacterial host cells
(4) It must have
selectable markers

153
82. Which one of the following is used as vector for 88. Microinjection is suitable for:
cloning genes into higher organisms?
(1) Injecting an ovum (2) Transforming animal
(1) Baculovirus (2) Salmonella into the sperm in cells
typhimurium IVF
(3) Rhizopus nigricans (4) Retrovirus (3) Injecting very small sized drug particles into
neurons
83. The restriction endonuclease breaks bonds between:
(4) Conferring antibiotic resistance to a certain
(1) DNA-RNA hybrid (2) Introns strain of bacteria
(3) Nucleotides, Le., breaks the phosphodiester
89. Which of the following does not have the ability to
bond
replicate within bacterial cells independent of the
(4) Pentose sugar and nitrogenous base, ie., breaks control of chromosomal DNA?
N-glycosidic bond
(1) Plastid (2) Bacteriophages
84. Which of the following is a cloning vector? (3) BAC (4) Plasmid
(1) DNA of Salmonella (2) Ti plasmid
90. If Pvu I restriction endonuclease is used for cleaving
typhimurium
pBR322 cloning vector for inserting foreign DNA,
(3) Amp' and Tet' loci (4) Ori minus PBR322 which of the following can be expected in
recombinants?
85. What is the source of EcoRI?
(1) They remain resistant to tetracycline but not to
(1) Escherichia coli R 1 (2) Escherichia coli RI
ampicillin
13
(2) They would die in tetracycline containing
(3) Escherichia coli RY (4) Escherichia coli R X
medium but remain alive in ampicillin
13 13
containing medium
86. When we ligate a foreign DNA at the sal I site of (3) Replication of recombinant plasmid get
tetracycline resistance gene in a vector PBR 322, the prevented
_____a____ plasmid will lose tetracycline resistance (4) They do not show resistance to ampicillin as
due to insertion of foreign DNA but can still be well as tetracycline
selected out from _____b______ ones by plating the
_____c______on tetracycline medium 91. In 1960's two enzymes were discovered in bacteria
that were responsible for providing immunity
(1) a-Non-recombinant , b-Recombinant, c-
against bacteriophages. One was Restriction
Transformant
Endonuclease and the other was
(2) a-Recombinant , b-Non-recombinant, c-
Transformant (1) Methylase (2) Exonuclease

(3) a-Transformant , b-Non-recombinant , c- (3) Aminotransferase (4) Terminal

Recombinant Transferase

(4) a-Recombinant , b-Transformant , c-Non- 92. The plasmid pBR322 does not contain:
recombinant
(1) An origin of
87. Identify a character that is not desirable in a cloning replication site
vector: (2) A gene that encodes for replication of plasmid
(1) An inactive (2) An origin of copy number
promoter replication site (3) Gene for Ampicillin and Streptomycin
(3) Selectable markers such as genes for antibiotic resistance
resistance (4) Sites for many
(4) One or more unique restriction endonuclease restriction enzymes
sites

154
93. Arrange the following steps in order: 97. Following enzymes/techniques are used in the
1) Restriction Digestion process of recombinant DNA technology
2) Running Agarose gel a. EcoRI to cut the isolated genome
3) Elution of bands b. DNA ligase
4) Purification of DNA c. Protease and ribonuclease for removal of proteins
5) ligation and RNA from DNA
6) transformation d. Production of recombinant hosts
7) Cloning e. Lysozyme for isolation of the genetic material
(DNA)
(1) 1-2-3-4-5-6-7 (2) 1-5-6-7-2-3-4
f. Gel electrophoresis for separation and isolation of
(3) 1-2-3-5-6-7-4 (4) 2-3-4-1-5-6-7 DNA fragments
Mark the correct sequence of their use
94. The introduction of genes into plant cells often
makes use of (1) c, e, b, f, a, d (2) e, c, a, b, f, d

(1) Disarmed (2) Disarmed retroviral (3) e, c, a, f, b, d (4) a, e, c, b, d, f

Agrobacterium vectors
vectors
98. What is true regarding A, B and C in the given
diagrammatic representation of rDNA technology?
(3) Ti plasmid of (4) Ri plasmid of I: At A, same restriction enzyme is used to cut both
Agrobacterium Agrobacterium foreign and vector DNA
II: The enzyme used at B is DNA ligase
95. Consider the following statements:
III: Step C can be called as transformation
Exonucleases remove nucleotides from the ends of
DNA whereas, endonucleases make cuts at specific
positions within DNA.
II: To visualize pure DNA fragments, it is stained
with ethidium bromide and seen in UV light.
III. Plasmids and phage DNA are used as vectors in
genetic engineering as they are extrachromosomal
DNA molecules.
Which of the above statements are true?

(1) I and II only (2) I and III only

(3) II and III only (4) I, II, and III
(1) I and II only (2) I and III only
96. Given below are the three basic steps in genetically (3) II and III only (4) I, II and III
modifying an organism
a. Introduction of the identified DNA into the host 99. Biotechnology mainly uses
b. Maintenance of introduced DNA in the host and
transfer of the DNA to its progeny.
(1) GMO (2) Bacteria

c. Identification of DNA with desirable genes. (3) Virus (4) Animals

Choose the option with respect to correct sequence
of the given steps
100. Which of the following is true about EFB definition
of biotechnology?
(1) a→c→b (2) c→b→a
(1) It includes
(3) c→a→b (4) b→a→c traditional view.
(2) It includes modern molecular biotechnology.
(3) Definition is the integration of natural science
and organisms, cells, parts thereof, and
molecular analogues for products and services.
(4) All the above

155
101. Which of the following can be biotechnological 108. Hind II recognizes a specific sequence of how many
products? base pairs?

(1) Antibiotics (2) Vaccine (1) 4 (2) 6

(3) Enzymes (4) All of these (3) 8 (4) 10

102. Select the false statement from the following. 109. The sequence recognized by restriction
endonucleases
(1) Genetic engineering includes techniques to alter
chemistry of genetic material (DNA and RNA). (1) ORI (2) Recognition
(2) Sexual reproduction is more advantageous than sequence
asexual reproduction. (3) Palindrome sequence (4) Both (b) and (c)
(3) Genetic engineering allows us to introduce
110. Select the incorrect statement,
desirable set of genes without the undesirable
gene into the target organism. (1) More than 900 restriction enzymes have been
(4) Plasmid is autonomously replicating linear isolated from over 230 strain of bacteria.
extra chromosomal DNA. (2) In the year 1963, the two enzymes responsible
for restricting the growth of bacteriophage in
103. We can cut DNA with the help of Escher- ichia coli were isolated.
(1) DNase (2) RNase (3) Some key tools for recombinant DNA tech-
(3) Knife (4) Restriction enzyme nology are restriction enzyme, polymer- ase
enzyme, ligase, vectors and host root
104. For making GMO, the three basic steps that are organisms.
required are (4) EcoRI cut the DNA between bases A and T
(1) Identification of DNA with desirable gene. only when the sequence GAATTC is present in
the DNA.
(2) Introduction of identified DNA into the host.
(3) Maintenance of introduced DNA in the host 111. In 'EcoRI' R stands for
and transfer of the DNA to its progeny.
(1) Genus (2) Species
(4) All the above
(3) Strain (4) Restriction enzyme
105. Who isolated antibiotic resistance gene from salmo-
112. In 'EcoRI' 'co' stands for
nella typhimurium in 1972?

(1) Jacob and Monod (2) Stanley Cohen and

(1) Genus (2) Species

Herbert Boyer (3) Strain (4) Restriction enzyme

(3) Osborn (4) Boliver 113. What is 'B' in the figure?

106. Genetic engineering is possible because of the

discovery of

(1) Transduction (2) Transformation

(3) Restriction enzyme (4) Electron microscopy
and DNA ligase

107. Which diagram correctly represents the cutting of

both strands of DNA by EcoRI?

(1) (2)
(1) Transformation (2) Transduction
(3) (4) (3) Conjugation (4) Vector DNA

156
114. The sequence recognized by EcoRI is 120. Which of the following antibiotic resistance genes
are used as selectable marker for E. coli?
(1) 5'-GAATTC-3' 3'- (2) 5'-CCAATG-3' 3'-
CTTAAG-5' GAATCC-5' (1) Chloramphenicol (2) Tetracycline
(3) 5'-GATACC-3' 3'- (4) 5'-CATTAG-3' 3'- (3) Kanamycin (4) All of these
CCTAAG-5' GATAAC-5'
121. If alien DNA is introduced using Sall in pBR322
115. Bacteria possessing restriction endonuclease enzymes then transformant will grow on
remain
(1) Ampicillin (2) Tetracycline
(1) Affected by (2) Unaffected by (3) Both (a) and (b) (4) None of these
bacteriophages bacteriophages
(3) Resistant to drugs (4) None of these 122. Select the incorrect statement.
and heat (1) Selection of recombinants due to inactivation
of antibiotic is a cumbersome procedure.
116. Which of the following DNA is undigested by
restriction endonuclease in this diagram? (2) Insertional inactivation of β-galactosidase leads
to colourless colonies.
(3) Insertional inactivation of β-galactosidase leads
to blue color colonies.
(4) In insertional inactivation, the rDNA is insert-
ed within the coding sequence of an enzyme β-
galactosidase

123. Which vector is use to deliver gene in animal cell?

(1) Lane 1 (2) Lane 2
(3) Lane 3 (4) Lane 4 (1) Retroviruses (2) Disarmed
retroviruses
117. Gel electrophoresis is used for (3) Ti-plasmid (4) E. coli
(1) Construction of (2) Isolation of DNA
124. Which one of the following is commonly used in the
rDNA
transfer of foreign DNA to crop plants?
(3) Cutting of DNA
(1) Penicillium (2) Trichoderma
(4) Separation of DNA fragments according to
expansum harzianum
their size or length
(3) Meloidogyne (4) Agrobacterium
118. For cloning of foreign DNA it is attached with ori incognita tumefaciens
gene of vector which controls
125. Significance of the 'heat shock' method in bacterial
(1) Replication (2) Copy number of transformation is to facilitate
replicating DNA
(1) Binding of DNA to
(3) Both (a) and (b) (4) None of these
the cell wall.
119. Find the true statement. (2) Uptake of DNA through membrane transport
proteins.
(1) Ori means origin of
transcription.
(3) Uptake of DNA through transient pores in the
bacterial cell wall.
(2) Some bacterial cell may have copy number of
plasmid that varies from 15-100.
(4) Expression of antibiotic resistance gene.

(3) Vector should have many recognition sites for 126. In majority of organisms the genetic material is
commonly used restriction enzymes so that
alien DNA can attach to any one of the sites (1) DNA (2) RNA
easily. (3) mRNA (4) Protein
(4) TetR gene in pBR322 can be cleaved by Pvul
and Pstl.

157
127. 30 cycles of PCR amplified DNA approximately is 135. Assertion: Restriction endonuclease restricts the
how many times? growth of bacteriophage in bacteria.
Reason: Restriction endonuclease add methyl
(1) 1 billion times (2) 1 million times
groups to bacterial DNA.
(3) 100 times (4) 1000 times
(1) If both the assertion and the reason are true
128. If any protein encoding gene is expressed in a and the reason is a correct explanation of the
___________ host, it is called a ___________ protein. assertion.

(1) Homologous host, (2) Heterologous host, (2) If both the assertion and reason are true but the
recombinant recombinant reason is not a correct explanation of the
assertion.
(3) Heterologous host, (4) Homologous host,
non-recombinant non-recombinant (3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) If both the assertion and reason are false.
129. Bioreactors have
136. Assertion: In rDNA technology, the restriction
(1) Foam control system, temperature control
enzymes, those produce sticky ends are commonly
system
used.
(2) Oxygen delivery (3) pH control system Reason: Sticky ends facilitates the action of enzyme
system DNA ligase.
(4) All the above
(1) If both the assertion and the reason are true
130. PCR technique is considered as best for
and the reason is a correct explanation of the
assertion.
(1) DNA synthesis (2) DNA amplification (2) If both the assertion and reason are true but the
(3) Protein synthesis (4) Amino acid synthesis reason is not a correct explanation of the
assertion.
131. The enzyme used in PCR technology is
(3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
(1) DNA polymerase (2) Taq polymerase (4) If both the assertion and reason are false.
(3) Reverse transcriptase (4) Both (a) and (b)
137. Assertion: Cloning vector should have selectable
132. In the PCR technology, the DNA segment is repli- marker.
cated over a billion times. This repeated replication Reason: Selectable marker, helps in identifying and
is catalyzed by the enzyme eleminating non-transformants and selectively
permitting the growth of transformants.
(1) DNA polymerase (2) Taq polymerase
(3) DNA dependent (4) Primase (1) If both the assertion and the reason are true
RNA polymerase and the reason is a correct explanation of the
assertion.
133. While isolating DNA from bacteria, which of the (2) If both the assertion and reason are true but the
following enzymes is not used? reason is not a correct explanation of the
(1) Lysozyme (2) Ribonuclease assertion.

(3) Deoxyribonuclease (4) Protease (3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) If both the assertion and reason are false.
134. Which of the following statements does not hold
true for restriction enzyme? 138. Which one of the following techniques made it
possible to genetically engineer living organisms?
(1) It recognizes a palindromic nucleotide sequence
(2) It is an endonuclease (3) It is isolated from (1) Hybridization (2) Recombinant DNA
viruses techniques

(4) It produces the same kind of sticky ends in (3) X-ray diffraction (4) Heavier isotope
differ- ent DNA molecules labelling

158
139. Assertion: Alien DNA if linked to plasmid it can be 143. Which of the following statements is incorrect with
cloned. respect to polymerase chain reaction?
Reason: Plasmid contains ORI.
(1) Repeated amplification is achieved by the use
(1) If both the assertion and the reason are true of thermostable DNA polymerase
and the reason is a correct explanation of the (2) Thermostable DNA polymerase is isolated
assertion. from a bacterium, Thermus aquaticus
(2) If both the assertion and reason are true but the (3) Each cycle in PCR has three steps, first is
reason is not a correct explanation of the primer annealing, second is denaturation and
assertion. third is extension of primers
(3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false. (4) In polymerase chain reaction, multiple copies of
(4) If both the assertion and reason are false. gene of interest are synthesized in vitro using
two sets of primers and enzyme DNA
140. Assertion: Restriction endonucleases are also known polymerase
as molecular scissors.
Reason: It is used to cut DNA (Biomolecules) at spe- 144. Downstream processing does not involve
cific site.
(1) Biosynthesis (2) Separation
(1) If both the assertion and the reason are true (3) Purification (4) Centrifugation
and the reason is a correct explanation of the
assertion. 145. Assertion: In EcoRI, the latter R is derived from the
(2) If both the assertion and reason are true but the genus of bacteria.
reason is not a correct explanation of the Reason: EcoRI is the name of palindromic
assertion. nucleotide sequences.

(3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false. (1) If both the assertion and the reason are true
(4) If both the assertion and reason are false. and the reason is a correct explanation of the
assertion.
141. Assertion: In electrophoresis DNA is move towards (2) If both the assertion and reason are true but the
anode. reason is not a correct explanation of the
Reason: DNA is +vely charged molecule. assertion.
(1) If both the assertion and the reason are true (3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
and the reason is a correct explanation of the (4) If both the assertion and reason are false.
assertion.
(2) If both the assertion and reason are true but the 146. Consider the following statements:
reason is not a correct explanation of the I: Asexual reproduction preserves genetic
assertion. information while sexual reproduction permits
variations. II: Traditional hybridization often leads
(3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
to the inclusion and multiplication of undesirable
(4) If both the assertion and reason are false. genes along with the desired genes.
III: rDNA technology allows us to isolate and
142. Assertion: Selection of recombinants due to inactiva-
introduce only one or a set of desirable genes
tion of antibiotics is complicated process. Reason: It
without introducing undesirable genes in the target
requires simultaneous plating in two plates having
organism.
different antibiotic.
Which of the above statements are true?
(1) If both the assertion and the reason are true
(1) I and II only (2) I and III only
and the reason is a correct explanation of the
assertion. (3) II and III only (4) I, II and III

(2) If both the assertion and reason are true but the
reason is not a correct explanation of the
assertion.
(3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) If both the assertion and reason are false.

159
147. Following are the steps in the formation of 149. If the gene of interest is cloned at ECoRI in pBR322,
recombinant DNA by action of a restriction the recombinant E-coli after transformation are
endonuclease. Which one of the given option
incorrectly identifies the steps, components labelled
as A, B, C, and D?

(1) Susceptible to ampicillin and tetracyline.

(2) Sensitive to (3) Resistant to
tetracycline. kanamycin.
(1) A - Exonuclease cuts the DNA between bases
(4) Resistant to ampicillin and tetracycline
G and A only when the sequence GAATTC is
present in the DNA 150. Restriction enzymne 'A' is
(2) B-Sticky ends are
formed.
(3) C- The DNA fragments join at sticky ends by
DNA ligase.
(4) D - Restriction enzyme Eco RI cuts the strand
of DNA a little away from centre of the
palindromic sites, but between the same two
bases on the opposite strands

148. Match the following enzymes with their functions:

Select the correct option from the following:
(1) PstI (2) Pvull
(3) BamHI (4) Sall

(1) (a)-iii, (b)-i, (c)-iv, (2) (a)-iii, (b)-iv, (c)-i,

(d)-ii (d)-ii
(3) (a)-iv, (b)-iii, (c)-i, (4) (a)-ii, (b)-iv, (c)-i,
(d)-ii (d)-iii

160
 1 C 43 A 85 C 127 A
2 D 44 D 86 B 128 B
3 C 45 B 87 A 129 D
4 B 46 C 88 B 130 B
5 C 47 C 89 A 131 D
6 A 48 B 90 A 132 B
7 D 49 D 91 A 133 C
8 D 50 A 92 C 134 C
9 D 51 A 93 A 135 C
10 B 52 A 94 A 136 A
11 D 53 A 95 A 137 A
12 B 54 D 96 C 138 B
13 B 55 D 97 C 139 A
14 D 56 C 98 D 140 A
15 A 57 B 99 A 141 C
16 D 58 C 100 D 142 A
17 C 59 D 101 D 143 C
18 C 60 C 102 D 144 A
19 A 61 C 103 D 145 D
20 B 62 D 104 D 146 D
21 C 63 A 105 B 147 A
22 D 64 B 106 C 148 B
23 A 65 A 107 B 149 D
24 B 66 C 108 B 150 B
25 D 67 A 109 D
26 B 68 D 110 D
27 B 69 A 111 C
28 A 70 C 112 B
29 D 71 C 113 A
30 B 72 D 114 A
31 A 73 A 115 B
32 D 74 B 116 A
33 C 75 B 117 D
34 C 76 C 118 C
35 D 77 A 119 B
36 C 78 B 120 D
37 B 79 B 121 A
38 B 80 D 122 C
39 A 81 B 123 B
40 C 82 D 124 D
41 B 83 C 125 C
42 B 84 B 126 A
161
 BIOTECHNOLOGY AND ITS
APPLICATIONS
1. Transgenic plants (genetically modified or GM 9. Select the correct matching.
plants) are produced by inserting desired genes in the
plasmid of
(1) Lepidopterans Tobacco bud worm, armyworm
(2) Coleopterans Beetles (3) Dipterans Flies,
(1) E. coli (2) Pseudomonas and bud worm mosquitoes, spiders
(3) Bacillus subtilis (4) Agrobacterium (4) Aves Lady bird,
hummingbird
2. Golden rice is a

(1) Hybrid (2) GM plant 10. Protein encoded gene cryIAb controls

(3) Transgenic plant (4) Both (b) and (c) (1) Cotton bollworm (2) Beetles

3. Which of the GMO is used by biotechnology?

(3) Corn borer (4) Flies

(1) Microbes and fungi (2) Plants 11. Bt-crops are not affected by Bt-toxin because

(3) Animals (4) All of these (1) Toxin exist as

inactive protoxin.
4. Food production can be increased by
(2) It has special antibodies against toxin.
(1) Agrochemical based (2) Organic agriculture (3) Its intracellular medium is alkaline so toxin
agriculture remains inactive.
(3) Genetically engineered based agriculture (4) All the above
(4) All of these
12. Genetically engineered insulin for human is
5. Increased yield in Green Revolution is due to produced from:

(1) Use of agrochemicals (fertilizers and pesticides) (1) Psuedomonas putida (2) Bacillus thuringiensis
(2) Use of improved (3) Use of better (3) Escherichia coli (4) Rhizobium meliloti
crop varieties (b management practice
(4) All of these
13. Bt-toxin is insecticidal because

(1) Activated toxin binds to the surface of midgut

6. The following are the advantages of GM crops epithelial cells and creates pores that causes
except swelling and lysis and eventually cause death of
(1) They reduce reliance on chemical pesticides the insect.

(2) Increase efficiency of (3) Enhanced nutritional (2) It decreases the growth of the nervous system of
mineral usage value of food the insect.

(4) Post harvest losses (3) It makes the insects

are more unable to fly
(4) It kills insects by affecting its blood flow
7. Bt stands for
14. Bt-toxin is obtained from
(1) Bacterial toxin (2) Botulinum toxin
(3) Bacillus thuringiensis (4) Bacillus toxin (1) Bacilli (2) Cocci
(3) Vibrio (4) Spirillum
8. Some strains of Bacillus thuringiensis produce
proteins that kill certain insects like 15. The first transgenic crop plant was

(1) Lepidopterans (2) Coleopterans (1) Cotton (2) Cereals

(3) Dipterans (4) All of these (3) Tobacco (4) Pea

162
16. A nematode _________________ infects the roots of 24. Some of the characteristics of Bt-cotton are
tobacco plants and causes great reduction in yield.
(1) Long fibre and
(1) Ancylostoma (2) Hookworm resistance of aphids.
(3) Meloidogyne (4) Wuchereria (2) Maximum yield, long fibre and resistance to
incognita beetle pests.

17. RNAi process takes place in

(3) High yield and production of toxin protein
crystal which kills dipteran pests only.
(1) Prokaryotes (2) Unicellular (4) High yield and
eukaryotes only resistance to
(3) Multicellular (4) All eukaryotes bollworms.
eukaryote only
25. In RNAi, genes are silenced using
18. Which American company in 1983 prepared
(1) ssDNA (2) dsDNA
humulin?
(3) dsRNA (4) ssRNA
(1) Eli Lilly (2) Ranbaxy
(3) Sun pharma (4) Glaxosmithkline 26. Crystals of Bt-toxin produced by some bacteria do
not kill the bacteria themselves because
19. Which of the following vector is used to transfer
(1) Bacteria are resistant (2) Toxin is immature
nem- atode specific gene in host plant?
to the toxin
(1) Virus (2) Rhizobium (3) Toxin is inactive
(3) Agrobacterium (4) Cosmid (4) Bacteria encloses toxin in a special sac

20. What is true about Bt-toxin? 27. What triggers the activation of protoxin to active Bt
(1) The concerned toxin of Bacillus thuringiensis in bollworms?
bacillus has (1) Acidic pH of the (2) Body temperature
antitoxins. stomach
(2) The inactive protoxin gets converted into active (3) Alkaline pH of the (4) Moist surface of
form in the insect gut. gut midgut
(3) Bt-protein exists as active toxin in the bacillus.
(4) The activated toxin enters the ovary of pest to
28. How many recombinant therapeutics have been
approved for human use all over the world?
sterilize it and thus prevent its multiplication
(1) 10 (2) 20
21. RNAi stands for
(3) 30 (4) 90
(1) RNA infection (2) RNA induction
(3) RNA interference (4) RNA inhibition
29. Which of the following is produced by genetically
engineered bacterium?
22. The abbreviation 'B' in Bt-toxin stands for (1) Tyrosine (2) Insulin
(1) Biotechnology (2) Biotoxin (3) Glycogen (4) ADH
(3) Bacillus (4) Toxin released by
30. How many recombinant products are presently
bacterium
being marketed in India?
23. The Adenosine deaminase deficiency results into (1) 10 (2) 20
(1) Digestive disorder (2) Addison's disease (3) 12 (4) 30
(3) Dysfunction of (4) Parkinson's disease
Immune system

163
31. The main challenge for the production of insulin 37. Select the true statements from the following.
using rDNA technique is (1) Insulin from animal source, may develop allergy
in some patients.
(1) Production of A (2) Production of B
(2) C-peptide is not present in mature insulin.
peptide peptide
3) Recombinant therapeutics do not induce unwant-
(3) Getting insulin assembled into a mature form ed immunological response.
(4) All the above (4) Insulin can be administered orally to diabetic
patients
32. Transgenic plants are produced by
(1) 1 and 3 only (2) 1 and 2 only
(1) Inducing gene (2) Arresting spindle
(3) 3 and 4 only (4) 1, 2 and 3 only
mutation fibre formation
(3) Deleting sex (4) Introducing foreign 38. Which of the following peptide chain is removed
chromosome genes during maturation of pro-insulin into insulin?

33. Peptide A and peptide B is linked by how many (1) A-peptide (2) B-peptide
disulphide in proinsulin? (3) C-peptide (4) B and C peptide

(1) 1 (2) 2 39. The Bt-toxin is not toxic to human beings because
(3) 3 (4) 4
(1) The pro Bt-toxin inactivation requires above
34. Some of the steps involved in the production of human body temperature.
humulin are given below. Choose the correct (2) The Bt-toxin recognizes only insect specific
sequence. target.
(1) Purification of humulin. (3) The Bt-toxin formation from pro Bt-toxin
(2) Extraction of recombinant gene product from E. requires pH lower than that present in the
coli. human stomach.
(3) Culturing recombinant E. coli in bioreactors.
(4) Introduction of recombinant plasmid into E. coli.
(4) Conversion of pro Bt-toxin to Bt-toxin takes
place only in highly alkaline conditions.
(5) Synthesis of gene for human insulin artificially.
(6) Insertion of human insulin gene into plasmid. 40. Pro-insulin contains
(1) 2, 1, 4, 3, 5, 6 (2) 1, 3, 5, 6, 2, 4 (1) A-peptide (2) B-peptide
(3) 5, 6, 4, 3, 2, 1 (4) 3, 5, 2, 1, 6, 4 (3) C-peptide (4) All of these

35. Which of the following is the source of 41. The first clinical gene therapy was given in
complementary strand in mRNA silencing?
(1) 1992 (2) 1990
(1) An infection by viruses having RNA genome
(3) 1995 (4) 1997
(2) Mobile genetic (3) Both (a) and (b)
elements 42. ADA deficiency is due to
(Transposons)
(1) Insertion of gene (2) Deletion of gene
(4) Proteins
(3) Duplication of gene (4) Translocation of
36. During the process of prohormone 'proinsulin' into gene
mature insulin synthesis
43. Permanent cure for ADA deficiency is
(1) C-peptide is added to (2) C-peptide is removed
proinsulin from proinsulin
(1) Genetically (2) Bone marrow
engineered transplantation
(3) β-peptide is added to (4) β-peptide is removed lymphocyte
proinsulin from proinsulin
(3) Enzyme replacement
therapy
(4) ADA gene introduced in early embryonic stages

164
44. The first clinical gene therapy was given to a 51. Which gene does not appear in photographic film in
_____________old girl. autoradiography?

(1) 2 year (2) 6 year (1) Housekeeping gene (2) Structural gene
(3) 4 year (4) 8 year (3) Mutated gene (4) Transcriptionally
active gene
45. The conventional method of diagnosis involves

(1) Urine analysis (2) ELISA

52. Which of the following is based on antigen-antibody
reaction?
(3) PCR (4) rDNA technology
(1) PCR (2) ELISA
46. PCR is used in the detection of (3) Serum analysis (4) Southern blotting
(1) HIV (AIDS) (2) Cancer
53. Which of the following can be detected in ELISA?
(3) Genetic disorder (4) All of these
(1) Protein antigen (2) Glycoprotein antigen
47. With regard to insulin, choose the correct options: (3) Antibodies (4) Any of these
a. C-peptide is not present in mature insulin. synthesized against
b. The insulin produced by rDNA technology has C- pathogen
peptide.
c. The pro-insulin has C-peptide. 54. The first clinical gene therapy was done for the
d. A-peptide and B-peptide of insulin are treatment of
interconnected by disulphide bridges.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
(1) AIDS (2) Cancer

below: (3) Cystic fibrosis

(1) (a), (c) and (d) only (2) (a) and (d) Only
(4) SCID (Servere Combined Immuno Deficiency
resulting from the deficiency of ADA)
(3) (b) and (d) only (4) (b) and (c) only
55. ADA is an enzyme which is deficient in the genetic
48. Which of the following is a benefit to have insulin disorder SCID. What is the full form of ADA?
produced by biotechnology?
(1) Adenosine (2) Adenosine
(1) It is just as effective and is less expensive deoxyaminase deaminase
(2) It can be produced in (3) It is non-allergic (3) Aspartate deaminase (4) Arginine dearginase
large quantity
(4) All of these 56. Humulin is a

49. A functional ADA cDNA can be introduced into

(1) Natural insulin

cells of the patients receiving gene therapy by using (2) Human insulin synthesized by genetically
vector constituted by engineered E. coli

(1) E. coli (2) Reovirus

(3) Human insulin (4) Chemically
synthesized by synthesized insulin
(3) Retrovirus (4) Agrobacterium pancreas

50. Which of the following is used as probe? 57. Humulin was first marketed by
(1) Single stranded (1) Eli Lilly (2) Sun pharma
DNA
(3) Nova Industry (4) May and Baker
(2) dsDNA tagged with a radioactive molecule
(3) Single stranded RNA tagged with a radioactive 58. Engineered bacteria have successfully been used for
molecule the commercial production of

(4) dsRNA (1) Human insulin (2) Melatonine

(3) Thyrosine (4) Testosterone

165
59. Over 95 per cent of all existing transgenic animals 66. How many varieties of rice have been estimated to
are be present in India?

(1) Pig (2) Mice (1) 200 (2) 20,000

(3) Sheep (4) Cow (3) 200,000 (4) 2,000,000

60. Transgenic organisms are used 67. The use of bioresources by multinational companies
and other organizations, without proper
(1) To study disease (2) To produce
authorization from the countries and people
biological product
concerned without compensatory payment, is called
(3) To test vaccine safety (4) All of these
(1) Bioethics (2) Biopiracy
61. Match the columns (3) Bioterror (4) Bioweapon

68. Which variety or rice was patented by a US

company even though the highest number of
varieties of this rice is found in India?

(1) Sharbati Sonora (2) Co-667

(3) Basmati (4) Lerma Roja

69. The Government of India took what step to cater to

(1) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4 (2) A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2 the requirement of patent terms and other
(3) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4 (4) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
emergency provisions with regard to biopiracy?

(1) Biopiracy act (2) India Patents Bill

62. Transgenic animals are prepared for the following
disease analysis except
(3) RTI Act (4) Negotiable
Instruments Act
(1) Cancer (2) Cystic fibrosis and
Alzheimer's 70. Which Indian plants have either been patented or
(3) Rheumatoid arthritis (4) AIDS
attempts have been made to patent them by western
nations for their commercial use?
63. Rosie' a transgenic cow known to produce a type of (1) Basmati rice (2) Turmeric
milk which has all the following characteristics
except
(3) Neem (4) All of these have
been targeted
(1) Protein content of (2) Has human α-
2.4 gm/litre lactalbumin 71. The genetic defect-adenosine deaminase (ADA)
(3) More balance diet than normal milk for babies
deficiency may be cured permanently by

(4) Rich in cholesterol (1) Administering adenosine deaminase activators

(2) Introducing the gene isolate from bone marrow
64. Rosie was produced in the year cells producing ADA into cells at early
(1) 2000 (2) 1999 embryonic stages
(3) 1997 (4) 2007 (3) Enzyme replacement
therapy
65. GMO transgenic animal are used in testing safety of (4) Periodic infusion of genetically engineered
polio vaccine before they are used on human? lymphocytes having functional ADAcDNA
(1) Transgenic sheep (2) Transgenic cow
72. The bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis is widely used
(3) Transgenic viruses (4) Transgenic mice in contemporary biology as

(1) Insecticide (2) Agent for production

of dairy products
(3) Source of industrial (4) Indicator of water
enzyme pollution

166
73. Bt cotton is not 80. Genetic engineering has been successfully used for
producing
(1) A GM plant (2) Insect resistant
(3) A bacterial gene (4) Resistant to all (1) Transgenic mice for testing safety of polio
expressing system pesticides vaccine before use in humans
(2) Transgenic models for studying new treatments
74. C-peptide of human insulin is for certain cardiac diseases
(1) A part of mature (3) Transgenic cow Rosie which produces high fat
insulin molecule. milk for making ghee
(2) Responsible for the formation of disulphide (4) Animals like bulls are used in farm work as
bridges. they have super power
(3) Removed during the maturation of pro-insulin
81. Which one of the following is used as vector for
to insulin.
clon- ing genes into higher organisms?
(4) Responsible for its biological activity.
(1) Baculovirus (2) Salmonella
75. GEAC stands for typhemurium

(1) Genome Engineering (2) Ground (3) Rhizopusnigricans (4) Retrovirus

Action Committee Environment Action
Committee
82. The process of RNA interference has been used in
the development of plants resistant to:
(3) Genetic Engineering
Approval Committee (1) Fungi (2) Viruses

(4) Genetic and Environment Approval Committee (3) Insects (4) Nematodes

76. α-1 antitrypsin is 83. Silencing of mRNA has been used in producing
transgenic plants resistant to
(1) An antacid (2) An enzyme
(3) Used to treat (4) Used to treat
(1) Bollworms (2) Nematodes

arthritis emphysema (3) White rusts (4) Bacterial blights

77. A probe which is a molecule is used to locate specific 84. Bacillus thuringiensis forms protein crystals which
sequences in a mixture of DNA or RNA molecules, contain insecticidal protein. This protein
it could be (1) Binds with epithelial cells of midgut of the
(1) A single stranded (2) A single stranded insect pest ultimately killing it.
RNA DNA (2) Is coded by several genes including the gene cry.
(3) Either RNA or DNA(4) Can be ssDNA but (3) Is activated by acid PH of the foregut of the
not ssRNA insect pest.

78. A protoxin is
(4) Does not kill the carrier bacterium which is
itself resistant to this toxin.
(1) A primitive toxin (2) A denatured toxin
(3) Toxin produced by (4) Inactive toxin
85. Maximum number of existing transgenic animals is
of.
protozoa
(1) Mice (2) Cow
79. DNA or RNA segment tagged with a radioactive
(3) Pig (4) Fish
molecule is called

(1) Vector (2) Probe 86. The first clinical gene therapy was given for treating:

(3) Clone (4) Plasmid (1) Chicken pox (2) Rheumatoid arthritis
(3) Adenosine (4) Diabetes mellitus
deaminase deficiency

167
87. Tobacco plants resistant to a nematode have been 94. The two polypeptides of human insulin are linked
developed by the introduction of DNA that together by:
produced (in the host cells):
(1) Hydrogen bonds (2) Phosphodiester bond
(1) A particular (2) An antioxidant (3) Covalent bond (4) Disulphide bridges
hormone
(3) A toxic protein (4) Both sense and anti- 95. Which of the following is commonly used as a vector
sense RNA for introducing a DNA fragment in human
lymphocytes?
88. Consumption of which one of the following foods
(1) Retrovirus (2) λ phage
can /prevent the kind of blindness associated with
vitamin 'A' deficiency? (3) Ti plasmid (4) PBR 322

(1) 'Flaver Savr tomato (2) Canolla 96. Use of bioresources by multinational companies and
(3) Golden rice (4) Bt-Brinjal organizations without authorization from the
concerned country and its people is called
89. Which of the following Bt crops is being grown in
(1) Bio-infringement (2) Biodegradation
India by the farmers?
(3) Biopiracy (4) Bio exploitation
(1) Maize (2) Cotton
(3) Brinjal (4) Soybean 97. A 'new' variety of rice was patented by a foreign com
pany, though such varieties have been present in
90. The introduction of t-DNA into plants involves: India for a long time. This is related to

(1) Altering the pH of soil, then heat-socking the (1) Co-667 (2) Lerma Rojo
plants (3) Sharbati Sonora (4) Basmati
(2) Exposing the plants to cold for a brief period
(3) Allowing the plant roots to stand in water
98. Which of the following is true for Golden rice?

(4) Infection of the plant by Agrobacterium (1) It is pest resistant, with a gene from Bacillus
tumefaciens thuringiensis
(2) It is drought tolerant, developed using
91. Which body of the Government of India regulates Agrobacte- rium vector
GM research and safety of introducing GM
organism for public services?
(3) It has yellow grains, because of a gene
introduced from a primitive variety of rice
(1) Bio-safety committee (2) Indian Council of (4) It is Vitamin A enriched, with a gene from
Agricultural daffodil
Research
(3) Genetic Engineering 99. What triggers activation of protoxin to active Bt
Approval Committee toxin of Bacillus thuringiensis in bollworm?

(4) Research Committee on Genetic Manipulation (1) Moist surface of (2) Alkaline pH of gut
midgut
92. Which kind of therapy was given in 1990 to a four-
(3) Acidic pH of (4) Body temperature
year-old girl with adenosine deaminase (ADA)
stomach
deficiency?

(1) Chemotherapy (2) Immunotherapy 100. Genetically modified (GM) crops can be produced
by
(3) Radiation therapy (4) Gene therapy
(1) Recombinant DNA (2) Somatic
93. Which part of the tobacco plant is infected by technology hybridization
Meloidogyne incognita?
(3) Cross breeding (4) Micropropagation
(1) Flower (2) Leaf
(3) Stem (4) Root

168
101. Assertion: GEAC is genetic engineering approval 105. Assertion: Bt toxin do not kill bacillus.
committee. Reason: Bt toxin protein exists in bacillus as inactive
Reason: GEAC will make decisions regarding the prototoxins.
validity of GM research.
(1) If both the assertion and the reason are true
(1) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the
and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
assertion. (2) If both the assertion and reason are true but the
(2) If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the
reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
assertion. (3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
(3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false. (4) If both the assertion and reason are false.
(4) If both the assertion and reason are false.
106. Assertion: GM plants are useful to us.
102. Assertion: Alpha - 1-antitrypsin is used to treat Reason: We have introduced many useful characters
emphysema. in GM plants like resistance to abiotic stress,
Reason: Transgenic mice are being used to test the enhanced nutritional value of food.
safety of the polio vaccine.
(1) If both the assertion and the reason are true
(1) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the
and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
assertion. (2) If both the assertion and reason are true but the
(2) If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the
reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
assertion. (3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
(3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false. (4) If both the assertion and reason are false.
(4) If both the assertion and reason are false.
107. Assertion: ADA deficiency can be cured by bone
103. Assertion: ELISA is used to detect infection by marrow transplantation.
pathogen, that can be detected by the presence of Reason: ADA deficiency can be treated by enzyme
antigens or by detecting the antibodies synthesized replacement therapy
against the pathogen
Reason: ELISA is based on the principle of antigen
(1) If both the assertion and the reason are true
and the reason is a correct explanation of the
antibody interaction.
assertion.
(1) If both the assertion and the reason are true (2) If both the assertion and reason are true but the
and the reason is a correct explanation of the reason is not a correct explanation of the
assertion. assertion.
(2) If both the assertion and reason are true but the (3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
reason is not a correct explanation of the
assertion.
(4) If both the assertion and reason are false.

(3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false. 108. Which of the following is not a critical research area
(4) If both the assertion and reason are false. of biotechnology

104. Which of the following cannot be a mean of

(1) Providing a best catalyst in the Form of
improved organism usually microbe or pure
increasing food production?
enzyme
(1) Agro-chemical based (2) Organic agriculture (2) Creating optimal conditions through
agriculture and engineering for a catalyst to act
(3) Genetically engineered crop-based agriculture (3) Downstream processing technologies to purify
(4) Inorganic chemical the protein or organic compound
engineering (4) Upstream processing of all the activated
antibodies and plasminogens in plant body

169
109. Assertion: Transgenic animals are made that carry 113. Farmers of developing world cannot rely completely
genes which makes them more sensitive to toxic on agrochemicals because
substances than non transgenic animals.
Reason: Toxicity testing in such animals will allow
(1) They are expensive (2) Don't know how to
use
us to obtain result in less time.
(3) Are not trained to (4) Of infertile soil
(1) If both the assertion and the reason are true use them
and the reason is a correct explanation of the
assertion. 114. Which of the following is not an example of
(2) If both the assertion and reason are true but the biopesticide
reason is not a correct explanation of the (1) Bt cotton (2) Bt corn
assertion.
(3) Bt Soyabean (4) Chilli
(3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) If both the assertion and reason are false. 115. Three critical research areas of biotechnology are:
1. Providing the best catalyst in the form of
110. Assertion: ELISA is used to detect antigen or improved organism usually a microbe or pure
antibody. enzyme
Reason: ELISA is a method of molecular diagnosis II. Multiple Ovulation Transfer Technology
based on antigen- antibody reaction. (MOET)
III. Creating optimal conditions through engineering
(1) If both the assertion and the reason are true
for a catalyst to act.
and the reason is a correct explanation of the
IV. Downstream processing technologies
assertion.
(2) If both the assertion and reason are true but the (1) I, II, III, IV (2) I, III, IV
reason is not a correct explanation of the (3) I, II (4) II and IV
assertion.
(3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
116. The increased crop production during green
revolution in India was mainly due to:
(4) If both the assertion and reason are false.
(1) Improved crop (2) Agrochemicals
111. Assertion: PCR is now routinely used to detect HIV varieties
in suspected AIDS patient. (3) Better management (4) Both b and c.
Reason: Very low concentration of Virus can be de- practices
tected by the amplification of the nucleic acid by
PCR 117. Which of the following is not a reason of less yield
by farmers of developing countries?
(1) If both the assertion and the reason are true
and the reason is a correct explanation of the (1) Expensive agro- (2) Conventional
assertion. chemicals breeding
(2) If both the assertion and reason are true but the (3) Existing varieties (4) GMO
reason is not a correct explanation of the
assertion. 118. The protein products of the following Bt toxin genes
(3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
cry | Ac and cry II Ab are responsible for controlling

(4) If both the assertion and reason are false. (1) Bollworm (2) Roundworm
(3) Moth (4) Fruit fly
112. Genetic modifications cannot cause

(1) Made crops more tolerant to Abiotic stresses

119. Bt toxin does not harm

(2) Reduced reliance on (1) Tobacco budworm (2) Armyworm

chemical pesticides (3) Beetles (4) Bacillus
(3) Increased efficiency of mineral usage by plants
(4) Early exhaustion of
fertility of soil

170
120. Bt toxin is harmful to insects like: 127. The bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis is widely used
in contemporary biology as a/an
(1) Lepidoterans (tobacco budworm, armyworms)
(2) Coleopterans (3) Dipterans (flies and (1) Indicator of water (2) Insecticide
(beetles) mosquito) pollution

(4) All are correct (3) Agent for production(4) Source of industrial
of dairy products enzyme
121. In Bt cotton, the Bt toxin present in plant tissue as
pro-toxin is converted into active toxin due to 128. Which of the following lepidoptera is killed by
proteins produced by a particular strain of Bacillus
(1) Alkaline pH of the (2) Acidic pH of the thuringienesis?
insect gut insect gut
(3) Action of gut
(1) Mosquitoes (2) Flies

microorganisms (3) Beetles (4) Tobacco budworm

(4) Presence of conversion factors in insect gut 129. Cry toxin acts by

122. What is true about Bt toxin? (1) Lysis of intestinal (2) Binding to midgut
cells epithelium
(1) The inactive protoxin gets converted into active
form in the insect gut (3) Cell swelling (4) More than one
correct
(2) Bt protein exists as active toxin in the Bacillus
(3) The activated toxin enters the ovaries of the 130. Given below are two statements:
pest to sterilize it and thus prevent its Statement I: Proteins encoded by genes crylAc and
multiplication cryllAb control corn borer, that of crylAb
(4) The concerned control the cotton bollworms
Bacillus has Statement II: Bt toxin protein exist as inactive
antitoxins protoxins but once an insect ingests the inactive
toxin, it is converted into an active form of toxin due
123. Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) strains have been used for to the alkaline pH of the gut light of the above
designing novel - statements, choose the most appropriate answer
from the options given below:
(1) Bioinsecticidal plants (2) Bio-mineralization
processes (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(3) Biofertilizers (4) Bio-metallurgical (2) BothStatement I and Statement II are false
techniques (3) Statement I is true and Statement II is false

124. The activated Bt toxin binds to (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

(1) Surface of midgut (2) Surface of hindgut 131. Read the following statements carefully.
epithelial cells eithelial cells Statement A: Increased agricultural yields have been
(3) Surface of foregut (4) Surface of gut partly due to the use of better management practices
epithelial cells endothelial cells and use of agrochemicals, but mainly due to the use
of improved crop varieties.
125. B. thuringienesis produces protein ..... during .... Statement B: GMOs increased reliance on chemical
their life cycle. pesticides by producing pesticide-resistant crops.

(1) Solution, specific (2) Crystal, specific (1) Both statements A (2) Both statements A
phase of phase of and B are correct and B are incorrect
(3) Crystal, all through (4) Solution, all through (3) Statement A is (4) Statement A is
correct, B is incorrect incorrect, B is correct
126. Most of the Bt toxin genes are

(1) Insect group specific (2) Pest specific

(3) Weed specific (4) Bacteria specific

171
132. Which of the following cannot be a mean of 138. A single stranded DNA or RNA, tagged with a
increasing food production? radioactive molecule is known as probe. This
molecule is
(1) Agro-chemical based (2) Organic agriculture
agriculture and (1) Used to provide
(3) Genetically engineered crop-based agriculture resistance to insects

(4) Inorganic chemical (2) Allowed to hybridise to its complimentary

engineering DNA in a clone of cells followed by detection
using autoradiography
133. The Green revolution increased the food supply to (3) Extracted and combined by creating disulphide
(1) Triple fold (2) Double fold bonds

(3) Four fold (4) One and half fold (4) Used in replication via a DNA intermediate

134. Which of the following is not an Abiotic stress? 139. Biopiracy is

(1) Pest (2) Cold (1) Use of bio-resources by MNCs and other
organisations without proper authorisation
(3) Drought (4) Heat
from the countries and people concerned
135. The year in which an American company got patent
without compensatory payment
rights on Basmati rice through the US patent and (2) Ethical standards to evaluate morality of all
trademark office is the same year in which human activities

(1) Eli Lily prepared

(3) Manipulation of living organisms by human
race
human insulin
(2) First gene therapy was given to a 4-year old girl
(4) Exploitation of bio-
resources legally
(3) First transgenic cow (4) Restriction
was made endonuclease was 140. In RNA interference, the specific mRNA is silenced
discovered due to a complimentary

136. Which of the following is not the critical research (1) Double stranded nucleic acid, containing uracil
areas of biotechnology? as a nitrogenous base

(1) Providing the best catalyst in the form of

(2) Double stranded nucleic acid with deoxy ribose
sugar
Improved organism usually a microbe or pure
enzyme (3) Single stranded nucleic acid with deoxyribose
(2) Downstream processing technologies to purify
sugar
the protein/organic compound (4) Double stranded nucleic acid which contains
(3) Creating optimal conditions through
thymine as a nitrogenous base
engineering for a catalyst to act
141. Assertion: PCR and ELISA are techniques that serve
(4) Upstream processing technologies to purify the the purpose of early diagnosis.
organic compounds/proteins Reason: For the treatment of a disease, early
diagnosis is very important.
137. There are an estimated of rice in Incia alone and
varieties documented varieties of Basmati are grown (1) If both the assertion and the reason are true
in India. and the reason is a correct explanation of the
Choose the correct option that fills the blanks assertion.
respectively. (2) If both the assertion and reason are true but the
(1) 27,000; 27 (2) 200,000; 270
reason is not a correct explanation of the
assertion.
(3) 200,000; 27 (4) 2000: 270,000
(3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) If both the assertion and reason are false.

172
142. Assertion: serum and urine analysis is not sensitive 146. Assertion: A double stranded DNA or RNA tagged
methods of diagnosis with radioactive molecule is used as probe.
Reason: Early detection of pathogen is not possible Reason: Because double stranded DNA or RNA is
by these methods. easily hybridized with single stranded DNA.

(1) If both the assertion and the reason are true (1) If both the assertion and the reason are true
and the reason is a correct explanation of the and the reason is a correct explanation of the
assertion. assertion.
(2) If both the assertion and reason are true but the (2) If both the assertion and reason are true but the
reason is not a correct explanation of the reason is not a correct explanation of the
assertion. assertion.
(3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false. (3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) If both the assertion and reason are false. (4) If both the assertion and reason are false.

143. Which of the following is the source of 147. Select incorrect statement, regarding chemical
complementary strand in mRNA silencing? structure of insulin:

(1) An infection by viruses having RNA genome (1) Mature insulin molecule consists of three
(2) Mobile genetic (3) Both (a) and (b) polypeptide chains - A, B and C.
elements (2) Insulin is synthesized as prohormone which
(Transposons) contains extra stretch of C-peptide.
(4) Proteins (3) C-peptide is not present in mature insulin
molecule
144. The applications of Biotechnology include
(4) Polypeptide chains A and B are linked to
(A) Therapeutics
disulphide bridges.
(B) Diagnostics
(C) GM crops for agriculture 148. Critical research areas of biotechnology are
(D) Processed food
(E) Bioremediation (1) Providing the best catalyst in the form of im
(F) Waste treatment proved organism usually a microbe or pure
(G) Energy production. enzyme.

(1) A, B, C, E only (2) C only

(2) Creating optimal condition through
engineering for a catalyst to act.
(3) B, C, D, E only (4) All of these
(3) Downstream processing technologies to purify
145. Which of the following crops are now genetically the protein organic compound.
modified by Bt-toxin gene? (4) All the above
(A) Cotton
(B) Corn 149. Match column I with column II and select the
(C) Rice correct option.
(D) Tomato
(E) Potato
(F) Soyabean

(1) A, B and C only (2) D and E only

(3) A and F only (4) All of these

(1) a-(ii), b-(iv), c-(i), d- (2) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-

(iii) (iv)
(3) a-(iv), b-(ii), c-(i), d- (4) a-(ii), b-(iv), c-(iii), d-
(iii) (i)

173
150. Identify A, B and C in the diagram. 153. Golden rice is helpful in all of the following. except

(1) Preventing night (2) Enhancing

blindness nutritional value of
food
(3) To alleviate vitamin (4) To increase in
A deficiency vitamin A deficiency

154. Widely used diagnostic test for AIDS which Detects

the pathogen in blood by the presence of antigens, is
based on the principle of

(1) Antigen-antibody (2) Antibody-antibody

(1) A Proinsulin, B Free C peptide, C Insulin interaction interaction
(2) A Free C peptide, B Proinsulin, C Insulin (3) Antigen-antigen (4) Pathogen-pathogen
(3) A Insulin, B Proinsulin, C Free C peptide interaction interaction

(4) A Free C peptide, B Insulin, D Proinsulin 155. Which triggers activation of protoxin to active Bt
toxin of Bacillus thuringiensis in bollworm
151. Corn borers are controlled by

(1) CrylAb (2) CrylAc

(1) Moist surface of (2) Alkaline pH of gut
midgut
(3) CryllAb (4) Both B and C
(3) Acidic pH of (4) Body temperature
152. Farmers of developing world cannot rely completely stomach
on agrochemicals because

(1) They are expensive (2) Don't know how to

use
(3) Are not trained to (4) Of infertile soil
use them

174
 1 D 43 D 85 A 127 B
2 D 44 C 86 C 128 D
3 D 45 A 87 D 129 D
4 D 46 D 88 C 130 D
5 D 47 A 89 B 131 B
6 D 48 D 90 D 132 D
7 C 49 C 91 C 133 A
8 D 50 C 92 D 134 A
9 A 51 C 93 D 135 C
10 C 52 B 94 D 136 D
11 A 53 D 95 A 137 C
12 C 54 D 96 C 138 B
13 A 55 B 97 D 139 A
14 A 56 B 98 D 140 A
15 C 57 A 99 B 141 B
16 C 58 A 100 A 142 A
17 D 59 B 101 A 143 C
18 A 60 D 102 B 144 D
19 C 61 A 103 A 145 D
20 B 62 D 104 D 146 D
21 C 63 D 105 A 147 A
22 C 64 C 106 A 148 D
23 C 65 D 107 B 149 A
24 D 66 C 108 D 150 A
25 C 67 B 109 A 151 A
26 C 68 C 110 A 152 A
27 C 69 B 111 A 153 D
28 C 70 D 112 D 154 A
29 B 71 B 113 A 155 B
30 C 72 A 114 D
31 C 73 D 115 B
32 D 74 C 116 D
33 B 75 C 117 D
34 C 76 D 118 A
35 C 77 C 119 D
36 B 78 D 120 D
37 D 79 B 121 A
38 C 80 A 122 A
39 D 81 D 123 A
40 D 82 D 124 A
41 B 83 B 125 B
42 B 84 A 126 A
175
 ORGANISMS AND POPULATIONS

1. .................... is Known as the Father of Ecology in 8. The factors responsible for causing annual variation
India. in the intensity and duration of temperature are
..........
(1) Varghese Kurein (2) Amartya Sen
(3) Ramdeo Misra (4) Hargobind Khurana (1) Rotation of venus in (2) Rotation of earth
solar system around sun
2. Ecology is a subject which studies the interactions (3) Tilt in axis of earth (4) Both (b) and (c)
among organisms and ..........

(1) Amongst the organism and its chemical

9. Precipitation due to annual variation in seasons
includes
environment
(2) Between the organism and its physical (1) Rain (2) Snow
environment (3) Dew (4) Both (a) and (b)
(3) Amongst the (4) Between the
10. Precipitation is an important factor for the
organism and its organism and its
formation of major biome such as
habitat biosphere
(1) Rain forest (2) Tundra
3. Basically, ecology is concerned with how many levels
(3) Desert (4) All of the above
of biological organizations?

(1) 3 (2) 4 11. A: Regional and local variations occurs with each
habitat
(3) 5 (4) 7
B: It causes formation of a wide variety of biomes
4. The levels of biological organization in ecology are (1) A is true and B is (2) A is false but B is
(1) Cell, Organism, (2) Organisms, Family, also true true
Community, Communities, (3) A is false but B is (4) A is false and B is
Biosphere Biomes true also false
(3) Species, Populations, Communities, biomes
12. Rain-soaked forest occurs in which state of India?
(4) Organisms, Populations, Communities, biomes
(1) Assam (2) Meghalaya
5. Ecology at the level of an individual organism is (3) Arunachal Pradesh (4) Nagaland
essentially a ..................

(1) Systemic ecology (2) Somatic ecology

13. Which part of human body is a unique habitat for
hundreds of species of microbes?
(3) Physiological (4) Physical ecology
ecology (1) Mouth (2) Urinary bladder
(3) Intestine (4) Spleen
6. Which important life process is considered at
organism level of ecology? 14. Following are major biome of India

(1) Respiration (2) Immunity (1) Tropical rain forest (2) Deciduous forest
(3) Reproduction (4) Homeostasis (3) Desert and Sea coast (4) All of these

7. How does seasonal variation take place on earth? 15. Following places or organ can act as habitat

(1) Rotation of other (2) Rotation around sun (1) Thermal spring (2) Compost pits
planet (3) Intestine (4) All of these
(3) Rotation of moon (4) Both (a) and (b)
around earth

176
16. The key elements which lead to much variation in 22. ........ are not found in Kerala forests.
the physical and chemical conditions of different
habitat are enlisted below:
(1) Snakes (2) Snow leopards

Temperature, Wind, Water, light, Soil, Humidity, (3) Elephants (4) Monkeys
UV rays
23. ......... fish is rarely caught beyond tropical latitudes
(1) 5 (2) 6 in ocean.
(3) 4 (4) 3 (1) Salmon (2) Shark

17. The organisms through natural selection have (3) Tuna (4) Pomphret
evolved .......... to optimize its survival and
reproduction in its habitat.
24. Which of the following is most commonly affected
by temperature of habitat?
(1) Camouflage (2) Adaptations
(1) Hormones (2) Inflammatory
(3) Specialized (4) Higher reproduction mediators
Physiology rate
(3) Enzymes (4) Neurotransmitters
18. Select Correct matching for below diagram:
25. The organisms which can tolerate and thrive in a
wide range of temperature are called as

(1) Stenothermal (2) Homeotherm

(3) Eurythermal (4) Poikilotherm

26. The organisms which thrive in a very narrow range

of temperatures are known as

(1) Stenothermal (2) Poikilotherm

(3) Homeotherm (4) Eurythermal

(1) P: Desert, Q: Tropical forest, R: Temperate 27. The level of thermal tolerance of different species
forest, S: Coniferous forest determines the extent of ......

(2) P: Grassland, Q: Temperate forest, R: Desert, (1) Survival (2) Geographical

S: Arctic and Alpine tundra distribution
(3) P: Arctic and Alpine tundra, Q: Coniferous (3) Morphology (4) Biodiversity
forest, R: Temperate forest, S: Tropical forest
(4) P: Coniferous forest, Q: Grassland, R: Desert,
28. The salt concentration is measured as salinity in
parts per ......
S: Tropical forest
(1) Billion (2) Million
19. In tropical deserts, the temperature goes ......
(3) Hundred (4) Thousand
(1) > 40°C (2) > 60°C
(3) > 50°C (4) > 70°C
29. The salinity of inland waters is less than

(1) 3 (2) 4
20. Habitats such as thermal springs and deep sea
(3) 5 (4) 2
hydrothermal vents have average temperature
exceeding 30. The salinity of sea water is
(1) 100°C (2) 150°C (1) > 100 (2) 30 - 35
(3) 80°C (4) 1000°C (3) 60 - 80 (4) 10 - 15

21. Mango cannot grow in countries like, 31. The organisms which are tolerant of a wide range of
(1) Canada (2) Germany salinities are

(3) Africa (4) Both (a) and (b) (1) Salinotrophs (2) Euryhaline
(3) Salinosomes (4) Stenohaline

177
32. The organisms which are restricted to a narrow 40. Which of the natural habitat on earth that is
range of salinity are known as inhabited just by a single species

(1) Salinosomes (2) Salinotolerants (1) Hot vents (2) Forest

(3) Euryhaline (4) Stenohaline (3) Polar region (4) None of these

33. Fresh water animals cannot live for long in sea water 41. The 'success' of mammals is due to
because they would face problems of
(1) Presence of (2) Efficient
(1) Vapor pressure (2) Purity mammary glands osmoregulation
(3) Osmotic (4) Thermal change (3) Efficient (4) Efficient
Thermoregulation magnetoception
34. Assertion: Photosynthesis is an essential life process
of plants 42. 'Shivering' during cold is beneficial for mammals? It
Reason: Small plants growing in forest are adapted helps to
to other process than photosynthesis because they
are over shadowed by tall canopied trees.
(1) Decrease body (2) Increase body
temperature temperature
(1) A is true and R is (2) R is true and A is (3) No change in body (4) None of the above
also true false temperature
(3) A is true but R is (4) Both A and R are
false false 43. Which is the most effective way to get relief from
high temperature?
35. For many animals, light is an important factors
(1) Oil secretion (2) Frequent urination
which regulates...... variations.
increases
(1) Nocturnal (2) Diurnal and seasonal (3) High water intake (4) Profuse sweating
(3) Urinal (4) Crepuscular
44. Statement I: Due to changes in seasons, temperature
36. The animal activities like foraging, reproductive and also changes.
migratory activities depends on Statement II: To cope up with this, plants can
regulate internal body temperature
(1) Temperature (2) Water
(3) Light (4) Air (1) Statement I is true and Statement II is also true
(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
37. The factors which affect percolation and water
(3) Statement I is true and Statement II is false
holding capacity of soil are
(4) Statement I and
(1) Soil composition (2) Grain size Statement II are false
(3) Aggregation (4) All of the above
45. Thousands of migratory birds from Siberia come to
38. Vegetation in any area depend on ........ in India.

(1) pH of soil (2) Mineral composition (1) Jim Corbett (2) Nal Sarovar
(3) Topography (4) All of the above National Park
(3) Keolado National (4) Maan Sarovar
39. The...... characteristics often determine the type of Park
benthic animals than can thrive there
46. In case of unfavorable conditions, many lower
(1) Composition (2) Sediment
oganisms develop ........... which help them to
(3) Grain size (4) Water holding survive.
capacity
(1) Spores (2) Buds
(3) Gametes (4) Clones

178
47. Bears undergo a period of..... to escape stress during 53. Many adaptations of an organism have evolved over
winter. a long duration of evolution and are .........

(1) Hibernation (2) Aestivation (1) Genetically unstable (2) Genetically fixed
(3) Sedation (4) Metamorphosis (3) Genetically (4) Genetically
disadvantageous extemporaneous
48. Snails and fish undergo aestivation to avoid summer
related problems of heat and .......... 54. ......... in North American deserts is capable of
meeting all its water requirements through its
(1) Hygroscopicity (2) Dessication
internal biochemical process.
(3) Efflorescence (4) Starvation
(1) Llama (2) Coyote
49. Under unfavorable conditions, many species of (3) Kangaroo rat (4) Weasel
zooplankton which lives in small water bodies are
known to enter .......... 55. By which biochemical process, kangaroo rat meets
its water requirement?
(1) Diapause (2) Metapause
(3) Neopause (4) Monopause (1) Reduction of fats (2) Oxidation of
proteins
50. The figure given below is a diagrammatic (3) Reduction of (4) Oxidation of fats
representation of response of organisms to abiotic proteins
factors. What do (A), (B) and (C) represent
respectively ? 56. Desert animals have the capability of formin .........
urine.

(1) Hypotonic (2) Isosmotic

(3) Concentrated (4) Dilute

57. An important feature regarding CAM pathway in

desert plants

(1) Enables stomata to increase the number of

chloroplasts
(2) Enables stomata to remain open during any
(1) A: Conformers, B: Partial regulaters,
Lime
C:Regulaters (3) Enables stomata to remain closed during day
(2) A: Partial regulaters, B: Conformers, C:
time
Regulaters (4) Enables stomata to open during rainy weather
(3) A: Regulaters, B: Partial regulaters, C:
58. Some desert plants like ........ have no leaves.
Conformers
(4) A: Conformers, B: Regulaters. C: Partial (1) Meuhlenbeckia (2) Opuntia
regulaters (3) Nephrolepis (4) All of the above

51. ........ is any attribute of an organism that enables the 59. Photosynthetic function in opuntia is performed by
organism to survive and reproduce in its habitat.
(1) Roots (2) Flowers
(1) Mutation (2) Evolution (3) Fruits (4) Stems
(3) Adaptation (4) Conformation
60. In opuntia, leaves are reduced to ...........
52. Adaption includes........... attribute of an organism.
(1) Thorns (2) Prickles
(1) Behavioural (2) Physiological (3) Spines (4) Buds
(3) Morphological (4) All of the above

179
61. Allen's rule is with respect to ......... 70. The main reason behind building burrows in soil by
burrowing animals is
(1) Reptiles (2) Mammals
(3) Aves (4) Amphibia (1) To escape from
predators
62. Mammals from colder climates generally have ......... (2) To derive nutrition parts of plants from
ears and limbs to minimize heat loss. underground
(1) Reduced (2) Shorter (3) The mode of evolution chose burrows as a
(3) Longer (4) Wider specific habitat
(4) To hide and escape from the above-ground heat
63. Aquatic mammals in polar seas have a thick layer of
fat known as 71. Diapause is

(1) Blubber (2) Flubber (1) Adaptation to

(3) Rubber (4) Stubber terrestrial life
(2) Stage of suspended development seen in
64. A thick layer of fat under skin in aquatic mammals unfavourable conditions in many zooplankton
essentially act as species in lakes and ponds
(1) Food reservoir (2) Insulator (3) Method of migration from stressful habitat to a
(3) Conductor (4) Heat generator
more hospitable are
(4) It is a type of
65. With the increase in altitude of a place ....... Symbiosis
(1) Atmospheric (2) Atmospheric 72. Which of the following is not a population attribute?
pressure decreases pressure increases
(3) Atmospheric (4) Either (a) or (b)
(1) Majority of them live in groups in a welldefined
geographical location
pressure remain
constant (2) Share or compete for (3) Potentially
similar resources interbreed
66. The symptoms of altitude sickness are (4) Single individuals of any species cannot live in
(1) Nausea (2) Heart palpitations isolation
(3) Fatigue (4) All of the above 73. Population ecology is a bridge between evolution
and
67. Which bacteria can flourish in hot springs and deep
sea hydrothermal vents? (1) Population (2) Population genetics
morphology
(1) Cyanobacteria (2) Archaebacteria
(3) Actinobacteria (4) Acidobacteria
(3) Population (4) Population variation
proteomics
68. Many fish thrive in Antarctic water where the
temperature is
74. How much pressure is experienced by marine
invertebrates and fishes living at the great depths in
(1) Always above zero (2) Always above 4°C oceans?
(3) Always below zero (4) Sometimes below (1) < 100 times that of normal atmospheric
zero pressure

69. The population size of Siberian cranes at Bharatpur (2) < 100 times that of hydrostatic pressure
wetlands in any year is ......... (3) 100 times that of
hydrostatic pressure
(1) < 10 (2) < 100
(3) < 1000 (4) <5
(4) > 100 times that of normal atmospheric
pressure

180
75. Population size in any given habitat is also known as 81. While developing theory of natural selection
Darwin observed that each species can realize fully
(1) Population cluster (2) Population explosion
its innate potential to grow in number provided in a
(3) Population (4) Population density particular habitat .......
abundance
(1) Favorable environmental conditions are
76. Tiger census in our national parks and tigers reserves prevalent
is done by counting (2) Absence of natural disasters like floods and
(1) Tiger cubs (2) Tiger pug marks famine

(3) Tiger fecal pellets (4) Both (b) and (c) (3) Availability of
unlimited resources
77. Natality refers to (4) Development of mutation in certain species
(1) No. of births in a given geographical area
82. Study the following equation in context of
(2) No. of births in a population growth and choose the correct option
given time period dN/dt = (b − d) × N
(3) No. of births under influence of given Substituting r in place of b − d then
environmental factor dN / dt = rN
(4) No. of deaths in a
Here 'r' is known as
given time period (1) Extrinsic rate of (2) Intrinsic rate of
natural decrease natural decrease
78. Select incorrect matching
(3) Intrinsic rate of (4) Extrinsic rate of
(1) Natality: Number of births during a given natural increase natural increase
period in the population that are added to
initial 83. The r value for Norway rat, flour beetle and human
density. population (in 1981) is.
(2) Immigration: Number of individuals of the (1) 0.15, 0.12, 0.0205 (2) 0.0015, 0.0205, 0.12
same species that have come into habitat from
(3) 0.015, 0.12,0.0205 (4) 1.5, 0.012, 0.0502
elsewhere during given time period
(3) Mortality: Number of individual of population 84. Any species growing exponentially under ............
who left the habitat and gone elsewhere during resource conditions can reach massive population
given time period densities in a short time span
(4) Adaptation: It is any attribute of an organism (1) Limited (2) Unlimited
that enables the organism to survive and
reproduce in its habitat
(3) Essential (4) Non - essential

79. Identify the correct equation for population density

85. Statement I: A particular species in nature can
achieve exponential growth
at time t + 1
Statement II: Availability of unlimited resources
(1) N = Nt + [(D + I) (2) N = Nt + [(B + I) makes it possible
− (B + E)] − (D + E)]
(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Nt+1 = Nt (4) Nt+1 = Nt
(2) Statement II is correct and Statement I is
+ [(B + D) + [(B + I )
incorrect
− (I + E)] − (D + E)]

(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

80. If a new habitat is just being colonized then which of (4) Both Statement 1 and Statement II are
the following option do you think would have a incorrect
greater contribution towards population density?

(1) Mortality (2) Natality

(3) Immigration (4) Emigration

181
86. Carrying capacity K means 92. The organism breeding only once in its lifetime is

(1) Organism's capability of maximum (1) Atlantic tuna fish (2) Indian pomfret fish
reproduction (3) Pacific salmon fish (4) Arctic whale
(2) Nature's limit for supporting maximum number
of species 93. Amongst plants, select the correct option which
breeds only once in lifetime.
(3) Nature's limit for supporting maximum growth
of a species (1) Banyan (2) Bamboo
(4) Organism's capability to withstand (3) Oak (4) Pine
environmental odds
94. Pick out the essential resources for a population in a
87. If a population grows in a habitat with limited given habitat from the following Food, Water, Air,
resources, then following phases of achievement are Space
observed
(1) Food and water (2) Food and Space
(1) Lag → Acceleration → Deceleration → (3) Air and Space (4) Water and Space
Asymptote
(2) Lag → Deceleration → Acceleration → 95. Following breeds many times during their lifetime
Asymptote except
(3) Lag → Acceleration → Deceleration → (1) Birds (2) Mammals
Asymptote (3) Amphibians (4) Pacific salmon fish
(4) Lag → Acceleration → Asymptote
→Deceleration 96. Which of the following produce Large number of
small sized offspring
88. The sigmoid curve of population growth is also
known as
(1) Oyster (2) Pelagic fishes
(3) Mammals (4) Both (a) and (b)
(1) Wagner - Nelson (2) Lineweaver - Burk
logistic growth logistic growth 97. Populations evolve to maximize their
(3) Verhulst - Pearl (4) Darwin's logistic
(1) Health fitness (2) Body fitness
logistic growth growth
(3) Mental fitness (4) Reproductive fitness
89. Which of the following equation correctly describes
sigmoid growth curve? 98. What type of human population is represented by
the adjacent pyramid?
(1) dN/dt (2) dN/dt

K−N K−N
= rN ( ) = rN ( )
r t

(3) dN/dt (4) dN/dt

K−N K−N
= N( ) = rN ( )
N K

90. The reproductive fitness of a population in a certain

habitat is also termed as

(1) Verhulst's fitness (2) Darwin's fitness

(3) Lamarkian fitness (4) Huxley's fitness

91. In order to achieve maximum population in a

(1) Expanding (2) Vanishing
population population
habitat, which of the following is correct?
(3) Stable population (4) Declining population
(1) High r value (2) Low r value
(3) Independent of r (4) Optimum r value
value

182
99. Above diagram represent population growth curve. 102. Plot b is known as
Graph 'a' represented by formula

(1) Exponential growth (2) Logistic growth

(1) dN
= rN
(2) dN
= N
curve curve
(3) (4)
dt dt
Verhulst − Pearl Both (b) and (c)
(3) dN
= rN (
K−N
)
(4) dN
= N (
K−N
)
Logistic Growth
dt K dt K

curve
100. Above diagram represent population growth curve.
Graph b represented by formula 103. Identify the A, B, C and D in this figure?

(1) dN
= rN
(2) dN
= N
(1) A: Immigration (I), B: Emigration (E), C:
dt dt
Natality (B), D: Mortality (D)
(3) dN
= rN (
K−N
)
(4) dN
= N (
K−N
) (2) A: Natality (B), B: immigration (I), C:
dt K dt K

Mortality (D), D: Emigration (E)

101. What is the meaning of K in graph (3) A: Mortality (D), B: Emigration (E), C:
Natality (B), D: Immigration (I)
(4) A: Mortality (D), B: Natality (B), C:
Emigration (E), D: Immigration (I)

104. Identify A, B and C in below figure of age pyramid

for human population?

(1) Intrinsic rate of (2) Population density at (1) A: Declining, B: (2) A: Stable, B:
natural increase time zero Stable, C: Expanding Expanding, C:
Declining
(3) Carrying capacity (4) Population density
after time t (3) A: Expanding, B: (4) A: Stable, B:
Stable, C: Declining Declining, C:
Expanding

183
105. Most important factors influencing population 110. The interacting species live closely to together in
density under normal conditions:
(1) Predation (2) Parasitism
(1) Birth rate, (2) Emigration, (3) Commensalism (4) All of these
Immigration Immigration
(3) Death rate, Birth (4) Death rate, 111. The interaction in which one species is benefitted
rate Emigration and the other neither benefitted nor harmed is
known as
106. A population has more young individuals compared
(1) Predation (2) Parasitism
to the older individuals. What would be the status of
the population after some years? (3) Commensalism (4) Amensalism

(1) It will decline (2) It will stabilize 112. The interaction which is beneficial to one species and
(3) It will increase detrimental to other is known as

(4) It will first decline and then stabilize (1) Predation (2) Parasitism

107. Which of the following would necessarily decrease

(3) Commensalism (4) Both (a) and (b)

the density of a population in a given habitat? 113. The interaction which is beneficial to both species
(1) Natality > mortality (2) Immigration > (1) Predation (2) Parasitism
emigration
(3) Commensalism (4) Mutualism
(3) Mortality and (4) Natality and
emigration immigration 114. The interaction which is detrimental to both species

108. A protozoan reproduces by binary fission. What will (1) Predation (2) Parasitism
be the number of protozoans in its population after (3) Commensalism (4) Competition
six generations?
115. Nearly ............ % of all insects is known to be
(1) 128 (2) 24 phytophagous
(3) 64 (4) 32
(1) 25% (2) 35%
109. Fill in the blanks A, B, C, and D respectively (3) 45% (4) 10%

116. Thorns are the most common morphological means

of defense in

(1) Acacia (2) Cactus

(3) Calotropis (4) Both (a) and (b)

117. Which of the following weed plant produce cardiac

glycosides (highly poisonous material)

(1) Acacia (2) Cactus

(3) Calotropis (4) All of the above
(1) A: Commensalism, B: Predation, C:
Amensalism, D: Competition 118. In a field experiment, when all the starfish were
(2) A: Predation, B: Parasitism, C: Commensalism, removed from an enclosed intertidal area more than
D: Amensalism ........(A).......... species of invertebrates becomes
extinct within a year, because of.......B.......
(3) A: Competition, B: Predation, C:
completion.
Commensalism, D: Amensalism
(4) A: Competition, B: Predation, C: Amensalism, (1) A−10, B-Intra (2) A−10, B-Inter
D: Commensalism specific specific
(3) A−20, B-Intra (4) A−20, B-Inter
specific specific

184
119. Which of the following substance are produced by 126. Following example best represent the maintenance
plants as defense against grazers and browsers of species diversity by predation
(count number)?
Nicotine, Caffeine, Quinine, Strychnine, Opium
(1) Spreading of cactus in rangeland of Australia
(2) Removal of Pisaster fishes from rocky intertidal
(1) 2 (2) 3 communities of the American Pacific Coast in
(3) 4 (4) 5 field experiment lead to extinction of more than
10 invertebrate species within a year
120. Following is true about predators
(3) Exclusion of Cathamalus by Balanus in
(1) They keep prey intertidal area in Connell's elegant field
population under experiment
control (4) All of these
(2) They may help in maintaining species diversity
in a community by reducing the intensity of 127. Cryptical coloration to camouflage is found in
competition among competing prey species (1) Some insect species (2) Frogs
(3) They are prudent in (4) All of above (3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of these
nature
128. Monarch butterfly is highly distasteful because of
121. Which butterfly is highly distasteful to its predator chemical which acquired by butterfly in which stage
bird because of a special chemical present in its of its life cycle by feeding on poisonous weed
body?
(1) Adult (2) Caterpillar
(1) Apis mellifera (2) Viceroy
(3) Pupa (4) Nymph
(3) Monarch (4) Apis indica
129. Development of thorns in Acacia is ............ means
122. True about predation of defense
(1) It is method to transfer energy across various (1) Physiological (2) Behavioral
trophic levels
(3) Morphological (4) None of these
(2) It helps in keeping control over prey population
(3) It helps in maintaining species diversity in a 130. Who propose competitive exclusion principle?
community (1) Gause (2) Robert May
(4) All of these (3) Darwin (4) Von Humbolt

123. Biological control methods in agriculture pest 131. Abingdon tortoise in Galapagos Islands became
control is mainly based on which biological extinct within a decade after ........... were introduced
interaction on the island, because of the greater browsing
(1) Predation (2) Parasitism efficiency of introduced animal.

(3) Commensalism (4) Mutualism (1) Cow (2) Buffaloes

124. The prickly pear cactus introduced into Australia

(3) Goat (4) Camel

caused havoc by rapid spreading in rangeland, 132. A species whose distribution is restricted to a small
finally this cactus brought under control by geographical area because of the presence of a
(1) Predator moth (2) Predator butterfly competitive superior species is found to expand its
distributional range dramatically when the
(3) Predator deer (4) Predator helminth
competing species is experimentally removed. This
125. Predators are prudent in nature because phenomenon is known as

(1) It overexploit its prey(2) It is too efficient in (1) Competitive (2) Competitive release
predation exclusion

(3) They do not over (4) All of these (3) Interference (4) Resource
exploit their prey competition partitioning

185
133. Who showed that five closely related species of 139. Find out true statement
warblers living on the same tree were able to avoid
competition and co-exist due to behavioral
(1) Totally unrelated species could also compete
for the same resources
differences in their forging activities?
(2) Resources need not to be limiting for
(1) Connell (2) Mac Arthur competition to occur
(3) Gause (4) Darwin (3) In interference competition, feed efficiency of
one species might be reduced due to the
134. In general, which of the following appears to be
interfering and inhibitory presence of the other
more adversely affected by competition?
species, even if resources are abundant
(1) Herbivores (2) Plants (4) All are true
(3) Carnivores (4) Both (a) and (b)
140. Which of the following are adaptations of parasite?
135. Gause's competitive exclusion principle states that
(1) Loss of unnecessary (2) Loss of digestive
(1) Two unrelated species competing for the same sense organ system
resources cannot co-exist indefinitely and (3) High reproductive (4) All of the above
competitively inferior one will eliminated capacity
eventually
(2) Two closely related species competing for the 141. Liver fluke complete its cycle in how many
same resources cannot co-exist indefinitely and intermediate hosts?
competitively inferior one will eliminated (1) 1 (2) 2
eventually
(3) 3 (4) 4
(3) Two unrelated species competing for the same
resources can co-exist indefinitely and can grow 142. Human liver fluke has two intermediate hosts in its
together life cycle, these are
(4) Two closely related species competing for the (1) Snail and Hydra (2) Crustacean and fish
same resources can co-exist indefinitely and can
grow together
(3) Snail and fish (4) Mosquito and Snail

136. Connell's elegant field experiments showed that on

143. Effect of parasite on host
rocky sea coasts of Scotland, the larger and (1) Reduce survival (2) Reduce growth and
competitively superior barnacle ........... dominates reproduction
the intertidal area, and exclude smaller barnacle (3) Reduce its (4) All of the above
.......... from that zone population density
(1) Chathamalus, (2) Balanus, Balanus
Balanus
144. Malaria parasites require which vector to spread to
other hosts
(3) Chathamalus, (4) Balanus,
Chathamalus Chathamalus (1) Snail (2) Fish
(3) Housefly (4) Mosquito
137. According to Darwin which competition is a potent
force of in organic evolution? 145. Following are correct example of ectoparasite
(1) Inter specific (2) Intra specific (1) Lice on humans (2) Ticks on dogs
(3) Both (a) and (b) (4) None of these (3) Copepods on marine (4) All are correct
fishes
138. In some shallow South American lakes, which of the
following compete for the same food that is 146. Plant offer following reward pollinators
zooplanktons of lake?
(1) Pollen (2) Nectar
(1) Visiting flamingoes (2) Resident fishes
(3) Juicy or nutritious (4) Any or all of these
(3) Both (a) and (b) (4) None of these fruit

186
147. Female mosquito require our blood for 156. What is function of fungus in mycorrhizae

(1) Respiration (2) Locomotion (1) Absorption of

(3) Digestion (4) Reproduction nutrient from soil
(2) Provide energy yielding substrate to plant
148. Which of the following is not parasite?
(3) Provide ATP to (4) All of these
(1) Tapeworm (2) Female anopheles plant
mosquito
(3) Liver fluke (4) Lice
157. Pseudo copulation helps in pollination in

(1) Fig plant (2) Orchid

149. Example of brood parasitism
(3) Cuscuta (4) Sunflower
(1) Cuckoo (koel) and (2) Crow and Parrot
Crow 158. Best example of co-evolution

(3) Parrot and Pigeon (4) Koel and Parrot (1) Fig trees and pollinator species of wasp

150. Which of the following shows commensalism?

(2) Fungus and (3) Sea anemone and
cyanobacteria clown fish
(1) Sea anemone and (2) Lichens (4) All of them
clown fish
(3) Lice and human (4) Mycorrhizae 159. Fruit of fig species provide

151. Commensalism is shown by all except

(1) Egg laying site to female wasp for oviposition
(2) Developing seed as food for the developing
(1) Orchid on mango (2) Cattle egret and wasp larvae
branch. grazing cattle
(3) Both (a) and (b) (4) None of these
(3) Sea anemone and (4) Cuckoo (Koel) and
clown fish crow 160. In Ophrys, one petal of female flower bears an
uncanny resemblance to the female of the bee in
152. Lichens are mutualistic relationship between which of the following aspect
(1) Fungus and (2) Fungus and (1) Size (2) Color
photosynthetic algae cyanobacteria
(3) Markings (4) All
(3) Fungus and roots of (4) Both (a) and (b)
higher plants 161. Cuscuta, a parasitic plant that is commonly found
growing on hedge plants has lost its .......... and
153. Barnacles growing on the back of a whale are .......... in the course of evolution
example of
(1) Root and stem (2) chlorophyll and
(1) Predation (2) Parasitism leaves
(3) Commensalism (4) Mutualism (3) Root and leaves (4) Leaves and stem

154. Stinging tentacles are found in 162. Find out false statement
(1) Clown fish (2) Lichens (1) Parasite that feeds on the external surface of the
(3) Sea anemone (4) Egrets host organism are called ectoparasite
(2) The life cycle of endoparasites are more
155. Mycorrhizae are association between
complex because of their extreme specialization
(1) Fungus and (2) Fungus and roots of (3) Parasitism evolved in so many taxonomic
photosynthetic algae higher plants groups from plants to higher vertebrates
(3) Fungus and (4) Fig plant and wasp (4) Endoparasites have greatly complex
cyanobacteria morphological and anatomical feature along
with high reproductive potential

187
163. Below diagram represent which flower? 167. Which plant is pollinated by below insect?

(1) Orchid flower (2) Fig flower

(1) Orchid flower (2) Fig flower (3) Sunflower (4) Lotus flower

(3) Sunflower (4) Rose flower 168. Which of the growth curve is considered a more
realistic one
164. Below diagram shows some insect laying eggs in fruit
of figure? Find out insects from the following?

(1) Wasp (2) Female anopheles

(3) Culex (4) Honeybee
(1) Curve a (2) Curve b
(3) Both (a) and (b) (4) None of these
165. Select incorrect statement
169. The productivity and distribution of plants mainly
(1) The Mediterranean orchid ophrys employs depends on
sexual deceit to get pollinated
(2) In mycorrhizal association fungi help the plant
(1) Soil (2) Temperature
in the absorption of essential nutrients from the (3) Water (4) Light
soil
170. Find out incorrect statement
(3) Pinus seeds cannot germinate and establish
without the presence of mycorrhizae (1) In brood parasitism (of Koel and Crow), the
(4) When resources are unlimited, the growth is eggs of parasitic bird have evolved to resemble
usually logistic but when resources become the host's egg in size and color to reduce the
progressively limiting, the growth pattern turns chance of the host bird detecting the foreign
exponential eggs and ejecting them from the host
(2) Majority of parasite
166. I. Salt concentration (parts par thousand) in sea harming the host
water is ...A... . (3) Many parasites have evolved to be host specific
II. Salt concentration (parts per thousand) in in such a way that both host and the parasite
hypersaline water is .. .B... . tend to co-evolve
Choose the correct option for A and B.
(4) Monarch butterfly require chemical by feeding
(1) A-30-35%; B-> 100% (2) A-> 100%; B-30-35% on a poisonous weed in its adult stage, that
(3) A-> 100%; B-< 10% (4) A-< 10%; B-< 10% chemical make it high distasteful to its bird

188
 ANSWER KEY

1 C 43 D 85 C 127 C 169 C
2 B 44 C 86 B 128 B 170 D
3 D 45 C 87 A 129 C
4 D 46 A 88 C 130 A
5 C 47 A 89 D 131 C
6 C 48 B 90 B 132 B
7 D 49 A 91 A 133 B
8 D 50 A 92 C 134 D
9 D 51 C 93 B 135 B
10 D 52 D 94 A 136 D
11 D 53 B 95 D 137 A
12 B 54 C 96 D 138 C
13 C 55 D 97 D 139 D
14 D 56 C 98 D 140 D
15 D 57 C 99 A 141 B
16 C 58 B 100 C 142 C
17 B 59 D 101 C 143 D
18 C 60 C 102 D 144 D
19 C 61 B 103 A 145 D
20 A 62 B 104 C 146 D
21 D 63 A 105 C 147 D
22 B 64 B 106 C 148 B
23 C 65 A 107 C 149 A
24 C 66 D 108 C 150 A
25 C 67 B 109 C 151 D
26 A 68 C 110 D 152 D
27 B 69 A 111 C 153 C
28 D 70 D 112 D 154 C
29 C 71 B 113 D 155 B
30 B 72 D 114 D 156 A
31 B 73 B 115 A 157 B
32 D 74 D 116 D 158 D
33 C 75 D 117 C 159 C
34 C 76 D 118 B 160 D
35 B 77 B 119 D 161 B
36 C 78 C 120 D 162 D
37 D 79 D 121 C 163 B
38 D 80 C 122 D 164 A
39 B 81 C 123 A 165 D
40 D 82 C 124 A 166 A
41 C 83 C 125 C 167 A
42 B 84 B 126 B 168 B
189
 ECOSYSTEM

1. Ecosystem may be defined as 8. Biotic community along with its interacting physical
environment comprises
(1) A species along with (2) Plants found in
environment water (1) Phytosociology (2) Phytogeography
(3) Plants found on land (3) Ecosystem (4) Ecology
(4) All plants and animal species along with their
9. Vertical distribution of different species occupying
environment
different levels in an ecosystem is called
2. The importance of ecosystem lies in (1) Stratification (2) Decomposition
(1) Cycling of materials (2) Flow of energy (3) Fragmentation (4) Humification
(3) Both (a) and (b) (4) Its biomass
10. Stratification is more pronounced in
3. Driving force of any ecosystem is (1) Tropical rainforest (2) Deciduous forest
(1) Organic fuels and (2) Biomass (3) Temperate forest (4) Tropical savannah
carbohydrates
(3) Solar energy (4) Decomposers
11. Assertion (A): An ecosystem is an interaction
between bio tic and abiotic components.
4. Consider the following statements. Reason (R): A.G Tansley coined the term ecosystem.
I. Producer are also called as transducers because (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
they are able to change radiant energy into chemical explanation of A
form.
II. Consumers are animals, which feed on other
(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct
explanation of A
organisms or their parts.
III. Decomposers are saprotrophs, which feed on (3) A is true, but R is (4) Both A and R are
dead bodies of organisms. false false
Which of the statements given above are correct?
12. Study the diagram carefully and fill in the blanks.
(1) I, II and III (2) I and II Choose the correct option for A, B, C, D and E.
(3) I and III (4) II and III

5. The primary consumers in a pond ecosystem are

(1) Phytoplankton (2) Zooplankton

(3) Fishes (4) Bacteria

6. The living organisms present in an ecosystem forms

(1) Abiotic components (2) Biotic components (1) A -Biotic, B-Abiotic, C-Decomposers, D-
(3) Physical components (4) Chemical Photoautotrophs, E-Chemoautotrophs
components (2) A -Physical, B-Chemical, C-Phytoplanktons,
D-Plants, E-Parasites
7. Abiotic components refers to
(3) A -Biotic, B-Abiotic, C-Decom posers, D-
(1) Non-living physico- (2) Living physico- Autotrophs, E-Mixotrophs
chemical factors chemical factors (4) A -Physical, B-Chemical, C-Bacteria and
(3) Gases produced by (4) Living organisms Fungi, D-Autotrophs, E-Heterotrophs
industries

190
13. Match the following columns. 20. The sunlight directly regulates the primary
productivity because

(1) Gross primary productivity is utilised by plants

in respiration
(2) The plants perform respiration with the help of
sunlight
(3) The plants perform photosynthesis with the
help of sunlight
(1) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4 (2) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
(3) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4 (4) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
(4) None of the above

14. The rate of biomass production per unit area over a

21. Secondary productivity is

time period by plants during photosynthesis is called (1) The rate of formation of new organic matter by
consumers
(1) Primary productivity (2) Net primary
productivity (2) Greater than (3) 5% less than primary
primary productivity productivity
(3) Secondary (4) Decomposition
productivity (4) Equal to the gross
primary productivity
15. Primary productivity is
22. Gross primary productivity is utilised by ...A... in
(1) The rate of formation of new organic matter by ...B... . Choose the correct option for A and B.
consumers
(2) The rate of conversion of light into chemical
(1) A -plants; B- (2) A -plants; B-
photosynthesis respiration
energy in an ecosystem
(3) The rate of energy production per unit area
(3) A -animal; B- (4) A -animal; B-
respiration digestion
over a time period during photosynthesis
(4) None of the above 23. Primary productivity depends upon

16. Energy storage at the consumer level is called (1) Availability of (2) Photosynthetic
nutrients capacity of plants
(1) Gross primary (2) Secondary
(3) Both (a) and (b) (4) None of the above
productivity productivity
(3) Net productivity (4) Net primary 24. Rate of conversion of light energy into chemical
productivity energy of organic molecules in an ecosystem is

17. Highest value in g/m²/yr of a grassland ecosystem (1) Gross primary (2) Net primary
would be productivity productivity

(1) Gross primary (2) Net primary

(3) Net secondary (4) Gross secondary
productivity productivity
productivity productivity
(3) Secondary (4) Tertiary productivity 25. Greater primary productivity depends upon
productivity
(1) Rain (humidity) (2) Availability of
18. Maximum primary productivity of pond is achieved nutrients
by (3) Both (a) and (b) (4) None of these

(1) Phytoplankton (2) Zooplankton 26. Building of biomass or storage of energy by green
(3) Floating plants (4) Red algae plants in a unit time and area is called

19. Ecosystem having the highest primary productivity (1) Productivity (2) Net primary
is productivity

(1) Pond (2) Ocean

(3) Gross primary (4) Primary productivity
productivity
(3) Desert (4) Forest

191
27. Net primary productivity is utilised by 34. Breakdown of detritus into smaller particles by
earthworm is a process called
(1) Autotrophs (2) Heterotrophs
(3) Decomposers (4) All of the above (1) Humification (2) Fragmentation
(3) Mineralisation (4) Catabolism
28. The energy invested in the production of new tissue
by autotrophic organisms is termed 35. What will happen if all the bacteria and fungi are
destroyed?
(1) Gross primary (2) Decomposition
production (1) There will be no (2) No antibiotics would
(3) Gross photosynthetic(4) Net primary disease and death become available
activity production (3) Dead bodies and (4) Soil will become rich
excretions will pile of all nutrients
29. The rate of formation of new organic matter by up
rabbit in a grassland is called

(1) Net productivity (2) Secondary

36. The organisms which physically and chemically
breaks the complex dead organic remains are known
productivity
as
(3) Net primary (4) Gross primary
productivity productivity (1) Scavengers (2) Decomposers
(3) Both (a) and (b) (4) Parasites
30. Productivity is the rate of production of biomass
expressed in terms of 37. The products of decomposition process are
I. (kcal m)⁻³yr⁻¹
II. gm⁻² yr⁻¹
(1) Humus (2) Inorganic nutrients

III. g⁻¹ yr⁻¹ (3) Organic nutrients (4) Both (a) and (b)
IV. (kcal m⁻²)yr⁻¹
Choose the correct option.
38. Humus is

(1) II (2) III

(1) Dark coloured amorphous organic matter rich
in lignin
(3) II and IV (4) I and III
(2) Dark coloured organic matter rich ;n cellulose
31. Decomposers of an ecosystem includes (3) Both (a) and (b) (4) Red coloured
substance rich in iron
(1) Microscopic animals (2) Bacteria and fungi
(3) Earthworm and (4) All of the above 39. The process of accumulation of a dark
Arctic Raven coloured......A...... substance called ......B....... that is
highly resistant to microbial action and undergoes
32. ....…..temperature is required for the proper decomposition at an extremely slow rate is called
functioning of an enzyme. The most appropriate .....C......
word. Choose the correct option for A, B and C.
(1) Low (2) High (1) A -amorphous, B- (2) A -solid, B-minerals,
(3) Optimum (4) None of the above humus, C- C-mineralisation
humification
33. A detrivore is
(3) A -water soluble, B-inorganic nutrients,
(1) Animal feeding on Cleaching
plant matter (4) A -enzymatic, B-
(2) Animal feeding on dead and decaying organic detritus, C-
matter catabolism
(3) A plant feeding on (4) Animal feeding on
an animal another animal

192
40. The process of mineralisation by microorganisms 46. In a food chain, the maximum population is of
helps in the release of
(1) Producers (2) Primary consumers
(1) Inorganic nutrients (3) Secondary consumer (4) Tertiary consumers
from humus
(2) Both organic and inorganic nutrients from 47. A sequence of species or organism through which
detritus the food energy pass in a community is called

(3) Organic nutrients (1) Pyramid of energy (2) Food chain

from humus (3) Nutrient cycle (4) None of these
(4) Inorganic nutrients from detritus and
formation of humus 48. Food chain starts with

41. In an aquatic ecosystem, the trophic level equivalent

(1) N₂-fixation (2) Osmosis
to cows in grasslands is (3) Respiration (4) Photosynthesis

(1) Phytoplanktons (2) Zooplanktons 49. Food chain consists of

(3) Nektons (4) Benthos (1) Autotrophs (2) Herbivores
42. Which one of the following types of organisms (3) Carnivores (4) All of these
occupy more than one trophic level in a pond
ecosystem?
50. A plant is

(1) Frog (2) Phytoplanktons

(1) An autotroph (2) A heterotroph

(3) Fish (4) Zooplanktons

(3) A primary producer (4) Both (a) and (c)

43. Regarding the mode of obtaining food, the

51. The role of a cow in a food chain is
organisms occurring in an ecosystem are classified (1) Primary consumer (2) Heterotroph
into plants, animals and microorganisms. These are
(3) Herbivore (4) All of these
respectively called

(1) Producer, consumers 52. Autotrophs

and decomposers (1) Make their own food (2) Are the base of the
(2) Primary, secondary and tertiary consumers food chain
(3) Consumers, (4) Autotrophs, (3) Are primary (4) All of the above
producer and heterotrophs and producers
decomposers producers
53. The food chain which begin with dead organic
44. Green plants and green sulphur bacteria, prepare matter is called
their organic food themselves with the help of
sunlight, are known as
(1) Detritus food chain (2) Predator food chain
(3) Parasitic food chain (4) Grazing food chain
(1) Chemoautotrophs (2) Photoautotrophs
(3) Heterotrophs (4) Chemotrophs 54. ..... begins with dead organic matter and saprophytes
make the first tropic level. Most appropriate word
45. Food chain refers to for filling blank space is

(1) Number of humans forming a chain for food (1) Detritus food chain (2) Grazing food chain
(2) Animals gathered (3) Complex food chain (4) Normal food chain
near a source of food
(3) Transfer of energy from producers to
55. A much large fraction of energy flows in aquatic
ecosystem through
consumers
(4) None of these (1) Grazing food chain (2) Detritus food chain
(3) Complex food chain (4) Food web

193
56. Energy for the detritus food chain comes from 66. What is common in earthworm, soil mites and dung
beetle in an ecosystem?
(1) Organic remain (2) Air
(3) Radiation (4) Water (1) They all are (2) Primary consumer
detritivores
57. Frog, that feeds on insects, is a (3) Secondary consumer (4) Tertiary consumer
(1) Primary consumer (2) Secondary consumer
67. Each tropical level has a certain mass of living
(3) Tertiary consumer (4) Decomposer material at a particular time called

58. Which of the following pair belongs to the category (1) Standing crop (2) Biomass
of primary consumers? (3) Branching lines (4) Progressive straight
(1) Insects and cattle (2) Eagle and snakes line

(3) Insects and snakes (4) Snakes and frogs 68. Select the incorrect food chain.

59. Which food chain correctly describes the flow of (1) Grass → frog → (2) Grass→
energy in an ecosystem? vulture grasshopper→ frog
→snake→ eagle
(1) Grass→ (2) Caterpillar→ leaf →
cow→human human (3) Grass→ deer→ lion

(3) Cow → grass → (4) Leaf→ bird (4) Phytoplankton → zooplankton → fish (perch)
human →caterpillar → (fish (bass) → man

60. Rabbits eats grass and other plants to survive, but 69. In an ecosystem, in which an organism occupies a
they do not eat animals. Refer the best category for specific place in a food chain.
rabbits? (1) Branching lines (2) Progressive straight
(1) Decomposers (2) Carnivores line

(3) Producers (4) Herbivores (3) Trophic level (4) Standing crop

61. A lion that eats a zebra that ate grass is a 70. The tiger biomass is 10 kg in grass-deer-tiger food
chain. The grass biomass will be
(1) Primary producer (2) Primary consumer
(1) 100 kg (2) 2000 kg
(3) Secondary consumer (4) Quaternary
consumer (3) One tonne (4) 10 tonnes

62. A person who eats a chicken that ate grain is a 71. What percentage of herbivore's chemical energy is
transferred to the chemical energy within the
(1) Primary producer (2) Primary consumer carnivore tissue?
(3) Secondary consumer (4) Quaternary
(1) 100% (2) 50%
consumer
(3) 1% (4) 10%
63. Vegetable eating person act as
72. PAR stands for
(1) Primary producer (2) Primary consumer
(1) Photosynthesis (2) Photosynthesis
(3) Secondary consumer (4) Tertiary consumer
Active Reaction Absorb Radiation
64. Energy enters in any ecosystem through (3) Photosynthetically (4) Photosynthetically
Active Radiation Active Reaction
(1) Herbivores (2) Carnivores
(3) Producers (4) Decomposers 73. Percentage of Photosynthetically Active Radiation
(PAR) that is captured by plants in synthesis of
65. The 10% law for energy transfer in food chains was organic matter is
given by
(1) 50-80% (2) 40-60%
(1) Stanley (2) Tansley
(3) 70-100% (4) 2-10%
(3) Lindeman (4) Weismann

194
74. All the animals that depend on plants for food called 80. Fill up the blanks.
I. Herbivores are also called ...A...
(1) decomposers (2) Root feeders
II. Secondary consumers are eaten by larger ...B...
(3) Consumers (4) Grazers III. ...C... consumers eats the secondary consumers.
IV. A network of many food chains is called a...D...
75. The organisms, which attack dead animals are
Choose the correct option for A, B, C and D
(1) First link of the food chain and are known as
(1) A -secondary consumers, B-top predator, C-
primary producers
quaternary, D-food web
(2) Second link the food chain and are herbivorous
(2) A -primary consumer, B-predators, C-tertiary
(3) Third link of the food chain and are tertiary consumer, D-food web
consumers
(3) A -tertiary consumers, B-natural enemies, C-
(4) Present at the end of food chain and are primary consumer, D-food web
detritivores
(4) A -quaternary consumers, B-alligator, C-Top
76. The 10% law is related to
consumer, D-Food web

(1) Mendelian genetics (2) Non-Mendelian 81. If a predator is overexploits its prey in a ecosystem
genetics then what might be consequences of this?
(3) Energy transfer from lower trophic level to (1) Prey might be extinct (2) Predator might be
higher trophic level extinct
(4) Energy consumption during photosynthesis in (3) Both (a) and (b) (4) No affect on prey
C₄-plants and predator

77. Solar energy is first transformed by .............. when it 82. Match the following columns
enters an ecosystem. The most appropriate word to
fill the blank is

(1) Producers (2) Primary consumers

(3) Secondary (4) Detritivores
consumers

78. In a grassland ecosystem the largest population is of

(1) Producers (2) Primary consumers

(1) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4 (2) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1

(3) Secondary (4) Herbivores

(3) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2 (4) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3

consumers 83. A food web is more realistic than a food chain for
showing the feeding relationships in an ecosystem
79. Consider the following statements about food chain
because
I. The transfer of energy from producers to top
consumers through a series of organisms is called (1) It compares the number of consumers to the
food chain. number of microorganisms in an ecosystem
II. A food chain is always straight and proceeds in a (2) Food chains use only a small sampling of
progressive straight line. organisms
III. In a food chain, there is unidirectional flow of
energy from sun to producers and subsequently to
(3) A food web explains why there are more
producers than consumers
series of different types of consumers
Which of the statements given above are correct? (4) Producers are usually eaten by many different
consumers and most consumers are eaten by
(1) I and II (2) I and III more than one predator
(3) II and III (4) I, II and III

195
84. Match the following columns. 88. Grazing food chain.
I. It starts with green plant called producers as first
trophic level.
II. A much less fraction of energy flows through this
type of food chain in terrestrial ecosystem.
III. Energy for grazing food chain comes from
organic remain or detritus.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

(1) I and II (2) I and III

(1) A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3 (2) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2 (3) II and III (4) I, II and III
(3) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1 (4) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
89. Regarding detritus food chain.
85. What do ecologists call the transfer of energy that I. It begins with dead organic matter and
begins with the sun and passes from one organism to decomposers called saprophytes as first trophic level.
the next in a food chain? II. A much large fraction of energy flows through
this type of food chain in terrestrial ecosystem.
(1) A food web (2) A top consumer
III. Energy for detritus food chain comes from sun.
(3) Energy flow (4) A pyramid of Which of the statements given above are correct?
number
(1) I and II (2) I and III
86. Which of the following organisms in the given food (3) II and III (4) I, II and III
web act as a secondary consumers?
90. Given flow chart represent grazing and detritus food
chain. Grazing food chain: Grass → Rabbit → Lion
Detritus food chain: Dead leaves→ Wood louse →
black bird
The organisms which constitutes the first trophic
level of the grazing food chain and the detritus food
chain are respectively

(1) Grass and dead (2) Grass and wood

leaves louse
(1) I and IV (2) V and VI (3) Rabbit and wood (4) Rabbit and black
(3) III and VI (4) IV and VII louse bird

87. Which of the following organisms in the given food 91. Fill up the blanks.
web acts as a primary consumers? I. Animals which feed directly on plants, are called
...A...
II. Consumers that feed on primary consumers are
called ...B...
III. In an ecosystem two laws of thermodynamics
govern the ...C...
Choose the correct option for A, B and C.

(1) A-Herbivores, B-Carnivores, C-Flow of energy

(2) A -Autotrophs, B-Heterotrophs, C-Tropic level
(3) A-Photosynthesizers, B-Higher levels
(1) II, IV and V (2) I, II and III predators, C-Flow of energy
(3) II, III and IV (4) IV, VII and VIII (4) A-Predators, B-
Grazers, C-Tropic
level

196
92. Select the options that correctly identifies A, B, and 97. The ecological pyramid that is always upright
C in the given table.
(1) Pyramid of energy (2) Pyramid of biomass
(3) Pyramid of number (4) None of these

98. The pyramid of biomass will be inverted in the

ecosystem of

(1) A-Secondary (2) A -Top carnivore, B- (1) Forests (2) Ponds

consumer, B- Detritus, C-Frog (3) Grasslands (4) Dry lands
Grazing, CAlgae
(3) A -Scavenger, B- (4) A -Decomposer, B-
99. In ecological pyramid the base always represent the
... A... and the apex represents ... B... Here A and B
Grazing, C-Hawk Detritus, C-Perch
represents.
93. Suppose 2000 J of solar energy is incident on green (1) A -producers; B-top (2) A -top level
vegetation. On the basis of 10% law of Lindeman. level consumers consumers; B-
Identify A, B and C. producers
(3) A -producers; B- (4) A -producers; B-
secondary consumers primary consumers

100. Organisms are according to classified into trophic

levels according to

(1) Their habitat (2) The source of their

nutrients
(1) A -20J,B-2J,C-0.2 J (2) A -200J,B-20J,C-2J
(3) How much they (4) All of the above
(3) A -400J, B-40J.C-4J (4) A -40J,B-4J,C-0.4J weight

94. Assertion (A) : Herbivores are also called as first 101. Peacock eats a snake and snake eats frog and frog
order consumers. eats insects, while insects eat green plants. The
Reason (R) : Herbivores obtain their food directly position of peacock is
from plants.
(1) Primary producer (2) Secondary producer
(1) Both A and Rare true and R is the correct
explanation of A
(3) Decomposer (4) At the apex of food
ecological pyramid
(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct
explanation of A 102. Which one of the following is not used for the
(3) A is true, but R is (4) A is false, but R is construction of ecological pyramids?
false true (1) Dry weight (2) Number of
individuals
95. The relation between producers and consumers in an
ecosystem can be graphically represented in the form (3) Rate of energy flow (4) Fresh weight
of a pyramid called
103. Inverted pyramid is found in
(1) Ecological pyramid (2) Tropical level
(1) Biomass pyramid of (2) Energy pyramid of
(3) Pi chart (4) Pyramid of biomass aquatic system grassland
96. The pyramid of number of a parasitic food chain in (3) Biomass pyramid of (4) Pyramid of number
tree ecosystem is grassland of aquatic system

(1) Always inverted (2) Always upright 104. Which is an example of true pyramid in an
(3) Mixture of inverted ecosystem?
and upright (1) Pyramid of biomass (2) Pyramid of number
(4) Sometimes inverted and sometimes upright (3) Pyramid of energy (4) None of these

197
105. Total amount of living material at the various 111. Which kind of pyramid is represented by the given
trophic levels of a food chain is depicted by diagram?
pyramids of

(1) Numbers (2) Energy

(3) Biomass (4) All of the above

106. Which one of the following statements for pyramid (1) Pyramid of number (2) Pyramid of biomass
of energy is incorrect, whereas the remaining three in tree ecosystem in tree ecosystem
are correct? (3) Pyramid of biomass (4) Pyramid of energy in
in aquatic ecosystem tree ecosystem
(1) It is upright in shape (2) Its base is broad
(3) It shows the energy content of organisms at 112. Which of the following representations show the
different trophic level pyramid of numbers in a grassland ecosystem?
(4) It is sometimes
inverted in shape

107. To show how many organisms are present at each

level of a food chain, ecologists use a model called

(1) An energy flow (2) Pyramid of numbers

pyramid
(3) Pyramid of energy (4) Food chain/food web (1) A (2) B
pyramid
(3) C (4) None of these
108. A pyramid of number in grassland ecosystem shows
113. The pyramid of energy is always upright for any
(1) There are always a large number of producers ecosystems. This situation indicates the fact that
at the bottom and fewer top consumers
(1) Producers have the lowest energy conversion
(2) There are always a large number of top efficiency
consumers and fewer producers
(2) Carnivores have a better energy conversion
(3) There are an equal number of producers and efficiency than herbivores
consumers
(3) Energy conversion efficiency is the same in all
(4) There are more top consumer than primary trophic
consumers
(4) Herbivores have a better energy conversion
efficiency than carnivores
109. Which of the following ecological pyramid are
always inverted?
114. Given below is one of the types of ecological
(1) Pyramid of number in parasitic food chain and pyramids.
pyramid of biomass in pond ecosystem
(2) Pyramid of number in pond ecosystem and
pyramid of biomass in pond ecosystem
(3) Pyramid of number in pacific food chain and
pyramid of number in pond ecosystem
(4) All of the above

110. Which of the following always has a pyramidal (1) Pyramid of number in a grassland ecosystem
shape, that is, decreasing values at higher trophic
(2) Pyramid of energy in (3) Pyramid of biomass
levels?
forest ecosystem in sea ecosystem
(1) Pyramids of number (2) Pyramids of biomass (4) Pyramid of biomass in terrestrial ecosystem
(3) Both (a) and (b) (4) Pyramids of energy

198
115. Given below is one of the type of ecological 119. The given figure best represents.
pyramids this type represents

(1) Pyramid of energy in (2) Pyramid of biomass

a grassland
(3) Pyramid of number (4) Pyramid of energy in
in a lake a fallow land (1) Pyramid of number in parasitic food chain
116. Given below is the diagram of the ecological (2) Pyramid of biomass
pyramids.This type represents in forest ecosystem
(3) Pyramid of number in grassland ecosystem
(4) Pyramid of number
in forest ecosystem

120. Given diagram represents a pyramid of biomass in-

an aquatic system Identifies A of B and select correct
options
(1) Pyramid of number (2) Pyramid of biomass
in a grassland in a lake
(3) Pyramid of biomass (4) Pyramid of energy
in a land

117. Consider the following statements about pyramid of

biomass.
I. When we plot the biomass (net dry weight) of
(1) A is phytoplanktons and B is zooplanktons
producers, herbivores, carnivores and so on we have
a pyramid of biomass. (2) A is zooplanktons and B is phytoplanktons
II. Two types of pyramid of biomass are found, i.e., (3) A is small body (4) B is small body
upright and inverted. animals animals
III. When larger weight of producers support a
smaller of biomass weight of consumers an upright 121. Which of the following ecological pyramids may be
pyramid results. upright or inverted?
IV. When smaller weight of producers support larger I. Pyramid of energy
weight of consumers an inverted pyramid of biomass II. Pyramid of number
is formed. III. Pyramid of biomass
Which of the statements given above are correct? Choose the correct option.

(1) I, II and III (2) I, III and IV (1) I and II (2) I and III

(3) II, III and IV (4) I, II, III and IV (3) II and III (4) I, II and III

118. An inverted pyramid of ...A... may occasionally be

observed in ...B... communities.

(1) A -energy; B- (2) A -energy; B-forest

grassland
(3) A -biomass; B- (4) A -biomass; B-
marine grassland

199
122. Assertion (A) : The pyramid of number of pond 124. Consider the following statements about limitations
ecosystem is upright. of ecological pyramids.
Reason (R) : Phytoplanktons are maximum and I. It never takes into account the same species
secondary consumers are least in number. belonging to two or more trophic levels.
II. It assumes a simple food chain, which never exists
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
in nature.
explanation of A
III. In split of the vital role played by
(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct saprophytes/decomposers, they are not given any
explanation of A position in ecological pyramids.
(3) A is true, but R is (4) A is false, but R is Which of the statements given above are correct?
false true
(1) I and II (2) l and III
123. Consider the following statements. (3) II and III (4) I, II and III
I. The pyramid of biomass is inverted in a pond
ecosystem. 125. Given below are two statements:
II. Pyramid of energy is never inverted. Statement I: The primary source of energy in an
III. Pyramid of number is inverted in a tree ecosystem is solar energy.
ecosystem. Statement II: The rate of production of organic
IV. Pyramid of biomass in forest ecosystem is matter photosynthesis in an ecosystem is called net
upright. primary productivity (NPP).
Which of the statements given above are correct? In the light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from this options given below.
(1) I, II and III (2) I, III and IV
(3) II, III and IV (4) I, II, III and IV
(1) Statement I is correct but statement II is
incorrect
(2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
correct
(3) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(4) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

200
 ANSWER KEY

1 D 43 A 85 C
2 C 44 B 86 C
3 C 45 C 87 A
4 A 46 A 88 A
5 B 47 B 89 A
6 B 48 D 90 A
7 A 49 D 91 A
8 C 50 D 92 B
9 A 51 D 93 A
10 A 52 D 94 A
11 B 53 A 95 A
12 A 54 A 96 A
13 B 55 A 97 A
14 A 56 A 98 B
15 B 57 B 99 A
16 B 58 A 100 B
17 A 59 A 101 D
18 A 60 D 102 D
19 D 61 C 103 A
20 C 62 C 104 C
21 A 63 B 105 C
22 B 64 C 106 D
23 C 65 C 107 B
24 A 66 A 108 A
25 B 67 A 109 A
26 A 68 A 110 D
27 B 69 C 111 C
28 D 70 C 112 B
29 B 71 D 113 D
30 C 72 C 114 A
31 B 73 D 115 B
32 C 74 C 116 D
33 B 75 D 117 D
34 B 76 C 118 C
35 C 77 A 119 B
36 B 78 A 120 A
37 D 79 D 121 C
38 C 80 B 122 A
39 A 81 C 123 D
40 A 82 A 124 D
41 B 83 D 125 A
42 C 84 B
201
 BIODIVERSITY AND ITS
CONSERVATION
1. In India, we find mangoes with different flavours, 8. How many hot spots cover India's high biodiversity
colours, fibre content, sugar content and even shelf regions?
life. Such large variation is on account of
(1) 25 (2) 3
(1) Species diversity (2) Induced mutations (3) 34 (4) 2
(3) Genetic diversity (4) Hybridisation
9. Overexploitation has resulted in the extinction of
2. Alexander von Humbolt described for the first time
(1) Steller's sea cow (2) Lantana
(1) Population growth (2) Ecological (3) Passenger pigeon (4) Both A and C
equation biodiversity
(3) Law of limiting (4) Species area 10. The main reason for extinction of species is
factor relationships (1) Hunting (2) Destruction of
habitat
3. A taxon which is facing an extremely high risk of
extinct in the wild in immediate future is known as (3) Pollution (4) None of the above

(1) Critically endangered(2) Vulnerable 11. The establishment of national parks and wildlife
(3) Rare (4) Exotic sanctuaries is a strategy for:

4. Out of more than 1.5 million known species a insects

(1) Conservation of (2) Creating awareness
biodiversity about wildlife
are __________of total animals.
(3) Preventing wild animals from entering villages
(1) 70% (2) 25%
(4) Studying wildlife
(3) 50% (4) 75% biology

5. Threats to biodiversity come from 12. The common man would find it hard to believe that
(1) Habitat loss (2) Over exploitation there are more than_______ species of ants,
___________ species of beetles, ____________
(3) Alien species (4) All of the above
species of fishes.
invasion
(1) 3,00,000, 20,000, (2) 28,000, 20,000,
6. Which of the following exotic species has become 28,000 3,00,000
menace to many water bodies in India
(3) 3,00,000,20,000, (4) 20,000, 3,00,000,
(1) Lantana camara (2) Eicchornia crassipes 28,000 28,000
(3) Parthenium (4) Eupatorium
13. Species richness in any habitat is related to
hysterophorus odoratum
(1) Genetic diversity (2) Species diversity
7. How many species became extinct in the last 500
(3) Ecosystem diversity (4) All of the above
years?

(1) 338 (2) 359 14. The major cause of biodiversity reduction are termed
as
(3) 784 (4) 2000
(1) Quartet (2) Devil quartet
(3) Biodiversity loss (4) Evil quartet

202
15. 34 hotspots of the world occupy an area of about 22. India's share in the global species diversity is about

(1) 0.2% (2) 0.4% (1) 2% (2) 4%

(3) 0.8% (4) Less than 2% (3) 6% (4) 8.1%

16. Dodo of Mauritius became extinct due to 23. According to, May's global estimates how many
species of animals are yet to be discovered and
(1) Overexploitation (2) Habitat destruction
described from India?
(3) Global warming (4) Predation
(1) More than 1,00,000 (2) More than 3,00,000
17. Introduction of Nile perch in Lake Victoria of South (3) 90,000 (4) 45,000
Africa resulted in

(1) Excessive growth of (2) Elimination of water

24. The pattern of biodiversity is affected by

water weeds weeds (1) Latitudinal gradients (2) Species-area

(3) Elimination of many species of cichlid fish relationships

(4) Excessive growth of (3) Both A and B (4) None of the above
cichlid fish.
25. As we move from the equator to the poles, the
18. Red list contains data or information on species diversity

(1) All economically (1) Increases (2) Decreases

important plants (3) Remains the same (4) First decreases then
(2) Plants whose products are in international increases
trade
26. Approximate number of species of mammals in
(3) Threatened species (4) Marine vertebrates Amazon forest
only
(1) 900 (2) 600
19. Maximum biodiversity is found in (3) 427 (4) 300
(1) Tropical rainforest (2) Temperate rainforest
27. Species richness or number of species per unit area
(3) Mangrove vegetation (4) Tundra denotes the measure of species diversity

20. IUCN stands for (1) True (2) Not defined

(1) Indian Union for (3) False (4) Both B and C

Conservation of
Nature
28. What are the reasons for greater biodiversity in the
tropics ?
(2) International Union for Conservation of
Nature (1) Speciation (2) Tropical
environments
(3) Indian Union for
Chemical (3) More solar energy available in the tropics
Nomenclature (4) All of them
(4) International Union for Conservation of
Nutrients
29. Alexander von Humboldt observed that, within a
region species richness _________ with increasing
21. Western ghats have a greater number of amphibian explored area. The most appropriate word to fill the
species than the Eastern ghats. What kind of blank is?
diversity does it represent? (1) Remains same (2) Decreased
(1) Species diversity (2) Genetic diversity (3) Increased (4) Decreased upto a
(3) Ecological diversity (4) None of the above limit

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30. The relation between specises richness and area is 37. Select the incorrect with respect to recent extinction
described on a logarithmic scale by the equation
[where S = species richness, A = area, Z = slope of
(1) Quagga-Indonesia (2) Thylacine-Australia

the line (regression coefficient ), C= Y - intercept] (3) Steller's sea cow - (4) Dodo - Mauritius
Russia
(1) log S = log C (2) log S = Z log A
(3) log S = log C − Z log (4) log S = log C + Z log 38. In the IUCN red book which category has maximum
A A extinction of species in the last 500 years ?

31. The relation between species richness and area for a

(1) Vertebrates (2) Invertebrates

wide variety of taxa appears as (3) Plants (4) Birds

(1) Straight line (2) Sigmoid Curve 39. In IUCN Red List (2004), extinction of species
(3) Zig zag line (4) Rectangular includes
hyperbola 1. 338 Species of vertebrates
2. 359 species of plants
32. In the species area relationship, 'S' represents 3. 87 species of plants
4. 359 species of birds
(1) Species Richness (2) Slope of the line
(3) Species genus (4) Species extinct (1) 1 & 3 are correct (2) 1, 2 & 3 are correct
(3) 1, 3 & 4 are correct (4) All of them
33. In the Species area relationship, "Z" represents

(1) Regression (2) Species Coefficient

40. Name the three sub species of tiger which are extinct

Coefficient (1) Sumantaran, Javan, (2) Bali, Javan, Indian

(3) Species Richness (4) None of the above Caspian Bengal
(3) Bali, Siberian, (4) Bali, Javan, Caspian
34. Who confirmed communities with more species tend Caspian
to be more stable than those with less species?

(1) Alexander von (2) David Tilman

41. The last twenty years alone have witnessed the
disappearence of
Humboldt
(3) Paul Ehrlich (4) Edward Wilson (1) 31 species (2) 12 species
(3) 27 species (4) 32 species
35. Tilman found that plots with more species showed

(1) Less year to year variation in total biomass

42. Dodo is a:

(2) Higher Productivity (3) Both 1 and 2 (1) Rare species (2) Extinct species

(4) Nothing like that (3) Endangered species (4) critically endangered
happens species

36. 'Rivet popper hypothesis' to explain the role of 43. Amongst the birds, mammals, amphibians and
species richness for ecosystem health was given by Gymnosperms, the minimum and maximum threat
of extinction is faced respectively on
(1) American ecologist (2) German ecologist
Paul Ehrlich Paul Ehrlich (1) Birds, Amphibians (2) Amphibians,
Gymnosperms
(3) Stanford ecologist (4) German Geographer
Paul Ehrlich Paul Ehrlich (3) Mammals, (4) Mammals, Birds
Amphibians

204
44. Which group of vertebrates among the following 50. The main reason behind extinction of Steller’s sea
comprises the highest number of endangered species. cow, passenger pigeon is

(1) Birds (2) Mammals (1) Alien species (2) Co-extinctions

(3) Fishes (4) Reptiles invasions
(3) Over-exploitation (4) Epidemic disease
45. Anthropogenic extinction refers to which extinction

(1) Sixth mass extinction (2) Fourth mass

51. African catfish was introduced in Indian water it is
an example of
extinction
(3) Fifth mass extinction (4) Seventh mass (1) Disturbance and (2) Coextinction
extinction degradation
(3) Alien Species (4) Overexploitation
46. The loss of biodiversity in a region may lead to invasions
[a] Decline in plant production
[b] Increased resistance to environmental 52. One of the ex situ conservation methods for
perturbations such as drought endangered species is
[c] Increased variability in certain ecosystem
processes such as plant productivity, water use and
(1) Wild life sanctuaries (2) Biosphere reserves

pest and disease cycles (3) Cryopreservation (4) National parks

[d] Lowered resistance to environmental
perturbations such as drought
53. Which group of vertebrates comprises the highest
number of endangered species?
[e] Decreased variability in certain ecosystem
processes such as plant productivity, water use and (1) Fishes (2) Reptiles
pest and disease cycles (3) Birds (4) Mammals
(1) a,b,c (2) a,c,d
54. The worst dangerous threat to wild life is by
(3) a,c,e (4) a,b,e
(1) Habitat destruction (2) Hunting
47. The term “the evil quartet” is related with four (3) Overgrazing (4) Exotic species
major causes of

(1) Forest loss (2) Population explosion

55. More than 70 percent of all the recorded biotic
components are
(3) Air pollution (4) Biodiversity losses
(1) Animals (2) Plants
48. Which of the following is responsible for the loss of (3) Human beings (4) None of the above
biodiversity ?

(1) Habitat loss and (2) Alien species

56. Plant comprise not more than
fragmentation invasions (1) 20 percent of the (2) 22 percent of the
(3) Over exploitation (4) All of the above total species total species
and co extinction (3) 32 percent of the (4) 30 percent of the
total species total species
49. Which forest harbouring probably millions of
species, is being cut and cleared for cultivating 57. The largest tropical Amazonian rain forest is in
_______________ or for conversion to grasslands for
raising beef cattle. (1) North America (2) South America
(3) India (4) Pakistan
(1) The Equador, faba (2) The Equador, Soya
beans beans
(3) The Amazon, faba (4) The Amazon, Soya
beans beans

205
58. In situ conservation refers to 66. The graph between species-area relationships is

(1) On site conservation (2) Off site conservation (1) Straight-line (2) Square
(3) Could be both (a) (4) None of the above (3) Hyperbola (4) None of the above
and (b)
67. Who found that plots with more species showed less
59. Endemism refers to year to year variation in total biomass?

(1) Species confined to that region and not found (1) Paul Ehrlich (2) Alexander Von
anywhere else Humbolt
(2) Species confined to. that Region and also found (3) David Tillman (4) Robert May
anywhere else
(3) Species of all (4) None of the above
68. More conservative and scientifically sound estimate
made by Robert May places the global species
varieties
diversity at about
60. ………………. is the diversity of genes within a (1) 1.5 million (2) 7 million
species.
(3) 1.7 million (4) 17 million
(1) Species diversity (2) Genetic diversity
(3) Ecological diversity (4) Alpha diversity
69. Read the following statements
(1) India has a greater ecosystem diversity than
61. Some extreme estimates of species range from 20 to Norway
………………. million. (2) According to the IUCN (2004), the total number
of plant and animal species described so far is
(1) 60 (2) 51 slightly more than 15 million.
(3) 50 (4) 64
(1) Both (1) and (2) are (2) Only (2) is correct
62. Out of every 10 animals on this planet, 7 are correct
………………. (3) Both (1) and (2) are (4) Only (1) is correct
incorrect
(1) Fishes (2) Mammals
(3) Insects (4) Mammals 70. In global biodiversity of plants, the

63. Fourteen Biosphere reserves have been planned in (1) Angiosperms (2) Algae represent the
India. represent maximum minimum number
number
(1) Not given (2) False
(3) Fungi represent the (4) Mosses represent the
(3) True (4) Not defined minimum number maximum number

64. More than___________ million species have been 71. Which of the following taxon shows maximum
recorded in the world. species diversity?
(1) 7 (2) 1.5 (1) Fishes (2) Beetles
(3) 20 (4) 50 (3) Ants (4) Orchids

65. Name one country located near the equator which 72. Conventional taxonomic methods are not suitable
has nearly 1,400 species of birds. for identifying
(1) Ecudor (2) Colombia (1) Amphibian species (2) Insect species
(3) Sudan (4) India (3) Microbial species (4) Gymnospermic
species

206
73. India has % of the world’s land area. Its share of the 80. ____________ is defined as an ecological state of a
global species diversity is an impressive % species being unique to a specific geographic
location.
(1) 8.1, 2.4 (2) 22, 12
(3) 12, 22 (4) 2.4, 8.1 (1) Exotic species (2) Endemic species
(3) Ecosystem (4) None of the above
74. According to rivet popper hypothesis key species are
represented by 81. ___________ is defined as the number of species
represented in a specific region, landscape or
(1) Air plane (2) Rivets on the
ecological community.
windows
(3) Rivets on the wings (4) Both B and C (1) Coevolution (2) Commensalism
(3) Species richness (4) Population density
75. Read the following statements :
(1) Tropics harbor more species than temperate or 82. What is the name of the species whose population
polar areas. has been reduced to a critical level?
(2) Colombia located near the equator has nearly
1400 species of birds.
(1) Indeterminate (2) Rare

(3) India has less than 105 species of birds. (3) Vulnerable (4) Endangered

(1) 1 and 2 are incorrect (2) 2 and 3 are incorrect 83. What is the name of the species whose population
(3) 1 and C are incorrect (4) Only 3 is incorrect has recently declined and continues to decline?

76. Amazonian rain forest in South America is home to

(1) Endangered (2) Rare

more than .......... species of plants and species of (3) Vulnerable (4) Indeterminate
fishes
84. According to which utilitarian, do humans derive
(1) A – 3000, B – 40000 (2) A – 1500. B – 2500 numerous direct economic benefits from nature?
(3) A – 40000, B – 3000 (4) A – 427, B – 378 (1) Big utilitarian (2) Broadly utilitarian

77. Species are relationships among very large areas like (3) Narrowly utilitarian (4) Small utilitarian
the entire continents the Z values in the range of
85. Threatened animals and plants are placed in a
(1) 0.1 to 0.2 (2) 1.15 separate care unit for protection. It is called _____
(3) 0.3 to 0.6 (4) 0.6 to 1.2 (1) Ex-situ conservation (2) In situ conservation

78. _________ is one of the most prevalent hotspots of (3) Wildlife sanctuary (4) National park
biodiversity in India.
86. What determines biodiversity?
(1) Sundarbans (2) Western Ghats
(1) Number of (2) Species richness
(3) Ganges (4) None of the above individuals in an
area
79. ___________ occurs when the death of the last
individual in a species occurs. (3) Evenness (4) Both (b) and (c)

(1) Adaptation (2) Phylogenic diversity 87. What is the greatest threat to global biodiversity?
(3) Speciation (4) Extinction (1) Natural disasters (2) Pollution.
such as storms.
(3) Overexploitation of (4) Human alteration of
natural resources. habitats.

207
88. According to the concept of species-area relations 94. Where are the plant genes of endangered species
stored?
(1) The number of species in an area increases with
the size of the area. (1) Gene library (2) Gene bank
(2) Larger species require larger habitat areas than (3) Herbarium (4) None of these
do smaller species.
(3) Most species within any given area are endemic.
95. Where are most biodiversity hot spots found?

(4) The larger the area, the greater the extinction (1) Tropical forests (2) Mountainous
rate. regions
(3) Dry shrublands (4) Wetlands
89. What is genetic diversity? (chaparral)
(1) The total phenotypic information contained
96. Why do migratory species pose special preservation
within all individuals of a species
challenges?
(2) The total genetic information contained within
all individuals of species (1) Because they are endemic, they are especially
susceptible to habitat destruction.
(3) The variety of life-
forms on Earth. (2) Their conservation may require international
cooperation when they require habitats in
(4) The variety of biotic communities in a region
different countries.
along with abiotic components
(3) They are often prone to population number
90. How many plant species have been recorded from decline during their long migratory journeys.
India? (4) They reside in biodiversity hot spots that are
(1) 90000 (2) 100000 most susceptible to habitat degradation.

(3) 45000 (4) 50000 97. When germplasm is preserved by cryopreservation,

what temperature is maintained?
91. Species diversity increases as one progresses from?

(1) High altitude to low altitude and high latitude

(1) – 196° F (2) 0° F

to low latitude (3) – 100° F (4) None of the above

(2) Low altitude to high altitude and high latitude 98. Colonisation of tropical Pacific Islands by humans
to low latitude have resulted in extinction of more than
(3) Low altitude to high altitude and low latitude
(1) 338 Species of (2) 359 Species of
to high latitude
Vertebrates invertebrates
(4) High altitude to low altitude and low latitude to
(3) 87 Species of plants (4) 2000 species of
high latitude
native birds
92. The maximum number of species have extincted
from?

(1) Mainland (2) Islands

(3) Oceans (4) Freshwater bodies

93. What is conservation?

(1) Protection of natural (2) Management of

resources natural resources
(3) Proper use of natural (4) All of the above
resources

208
99. Relationship between species richness (S) and area 100. Which of the following statement is wrong?
(A) represented in the following graph is described (A) A stable community should show much
by the equation. variation in productivity from year to year
(B) According to Tilman’s long term ecosystem
experiments increased diversity contributed to higher
productivity
(C) Stable community must be resistant to
occasional disturbances
(D) Rich biodiversity is essential for ecosystem
health but imperative for the very survival of the
human race on this planet.

(1) A and B (2) A only

(3) All correct (4) All wrong
(1) Log S = log A + Z (2) Log S = log C + Z
log C log A
(3) Log C = log A + S (4) Log C = log S + Z
log A log A

209
 1 C 43 B 85 A
2 D 44 B 86 D
3 A 45 A 87 D
4 A 46 B 88 A
5 D 47 D 89 B
6 B 48 D 90 C
7 C 49 D 91 A
8 B 50 C 92 B
9 D 51 C 93 D
10 B 52 C 94 B
11 A 53 D 95 A
12 D 54 A 96 B
13 B 55 A 97 D
14 D 56 B 98 D
15 D 57 B 99 B
16 A 58 A 100 B
17 C 59 A
18 C 60 B
19 A 61 C
20 B 62 C
21 A 63 C
22 D 64 B
23 B 65 B
24 C 66 C
25 B 67 C
26 C 68 B
27 A 69 D
28 D 70 A
29 C 71 B
30 D 72 C
31 D 73 D
32 A 74 C
33 A 75 D
34 B 76 C
35 C 77 D
36 C 78 B
37 A 79 D
38 B 80 B
39 A 81 C
40 D 82 D
41 C 83 C
42 B 84 C
210
Key Questions

211