1.

Distichiasis is:
A. Misdirected eyelashes
B. Accessory row of eyelashes
C. Downward drooping of upper lid
D. Outward protrusion of lower lid
Answer» B. Accessory row of eyelashes
discuss
2. Band shaped keratopathy is commonly caused by deposition of:
A. Magnesium salt
B. Calcium salt
C. Ferrous salt
D. Copper salt
Answer» B. Calcium salt
discuss
3. Irrespective of the etiology of a corneal ulcer, the drug always indicated
A. Corticosteroids
B. Cycloplegics
C. Antibiotics
D. Antifungals
Answer» B. Cycloplegics
discuss
4. Dense scar of cornea with incarceration of iris is known as:
A. Adherent Leucoma
B. Dense leucoma
C. Ciliary staphyloma
D. Iris bombe
Answer» A. Adherent Leucoma
discuss (1)
5. Corneal sensations are diminished in:
A. Herpes simplex
B. Conjunctivitis
C. Fungal infections
D. Marginal keratitis
Answer» A. Herpes simplex
discuss
6. The color of fluorescein staining in corneal ulcer is:
A. Yellow
B. Blue
C. Green
D. Royal blue
Answer» C. Green
discuss
7. Phlycten is due to:
A. Endogenous allergy
B. Exogenous allergy
C. Degeneration
D. None of the above
Answer» A. Endogenous allergy
discuss
8. A recurrent bilateral conjunctivitis occurring with the onset of hot weat
boys with symptoms of burning, itching, and lacrimation with large flat
stone papillae raised areas in the palpebral conjunctiva is:
A. Trachoma
B. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis
C. Mucopurulent conjunctivitis
D. Vernal keratoconjunctivitis
Answer» D. Vernal keratoconjunctivitis
discuss
9. Which of the following organism can penetrate intact corneal epithelium
A. Strept pyogenes
B. Staph aureus
C. Pseudomonas pyocyanaea
D. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
Answer» D. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
discuss
10. A 12 years old boy receiving long term treatment for spring catarrh, dev
defective vision in both eyes. The likely cause is:
A. Posterior subcapsular cataract
B. Retinopathy of prematurity
C. Optic neuritis
D. Vitreous hemorrhage
Answer» A. Posterior subcapsular cataract
discuss
11. A young child suffering from fever and sore throat began to complain of
On examination, follicles were found in the lower palpebral conjunctiva
preauricular lymph nodes. The most probable diagnosis is:
A. Trachoma
B. Staphylococal conjunctivitis
C. Adenoviral conjunctivitis
D. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis
Answer» C. Adenoviral conjunctivitis
discuss
12. Patching of the eye is contraindicated in:
A. Corneal abrasion
B. Bacterial corneal ulcer
C. Mucopurulent conjunctivitis
D. After glaucoma surgery
Answer» C. Mucopurulent conjunctivitis
discuss (1)
13. Ten years old boy complains of itching. On examination, there are muco
smooth rounded surface on the limbus, and mucous white ropy mucopu
conjunctival discharge. He most probably suffers from:
A. Trachoma
B. Mucopurulent conjunctivitis
C. Bulbar spring catarrh
D. Purulent conjunctivitis
Answer» C. Bulbar spring catarrh
discuss
14. In viral epidemic kerato-conjunctlvitis characteristically there is usually
A. Copious purulent discharge
B. Copious muco-purulent discharge
C. Excessive watery lacrimation
D. Mucoid ropy white discharge
Answer» C. Excessive watery lacrimation
discuss
15. Corneal Herbert's rosettes are found in:
A. Mucopurulent conjunctivitis
B. Phlyctenular keratoconjunctivitis
C. Active trachoma
D. Spring catarrh
Answer» C. Active trachoma
discuss
16. A patient complains of maceration of skin of the lids and conjunctiva red
inner and outer canthi. Conjunctival swab is expected to show:
A. Slaphylococcus aureus.
B. Streptococcus viridans.
C. Streptococcus pneumonae
D. Morax- Axenfeld diplobacilli
Answer» D. Morax- Axenfeld diplobacilli
discuss
17. Tranta's spots are noticed in cases of:
A. Active trachoma
B. Bulbar spring catarrh
C. Corneal phlycten
17. Tranta's spots are noticed in cases of:
D. Vitamin A deficiency
Answer» B. Bulbar spring catarrh
discuss
18. A painful, tender, non itchy localized redness of the conjunctiva can be d
A. Bulbar spring catarrh.
B. Episcleritis.
C. Vascular pterygium.
D. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis.
Answer» A. Bulbar spring catarrh.
discuss
19. In trachoma the patient is infectious when there is:
A. Arlt's line
B. Herbert's pits
C. Post-trachomatous concretions.
D. Follicles and papillae in the palpebral conjunctiva.
Answer» D. Follicles and papillae in the palpebral conjunctiva.
discuss
20. A female patient 18 years old, who is contact lens wearer since two years
of redness, lacrimation and foreign body sensation of both eyes. On exam
acuity was 6/6 with negative fluorescein test. The expected diagnosis can
A. Acute anterior uveitis.
B. Giant papillary conjunctivitis.
C. Bacterial corneal ulcer.
D. Acute congestive glaucoma
Answer» B. Giant papillary conjunctivitis.
discuss
21. Fifth nerve palsy could cause:
A. Ptosis
B. Proptosis
C. Neuropathic keratopathy
D. Lagophthalmos
Answer» C. Neuropathic keratopathy
discuss
22. Topical steroids are contraindicated in a case of viral corneal ulcer for f
A. Secondary glaucoma
B. Cortical cataract.
C. Corneal perforation
D. Secondary viral infection.
Answer» C. Corneal perforation
discuss (1)
23. The sure diagnostic sign of corneal ulcer is
A. Ciliary injection
B. Blepharospasm
C. Miosis
D. Positive fluorescein test.
Answer» D. Positive fluorescein test.
discuss
24. The effective treatment of dendritic ulcer of the cornea is:
A. Surface anesthesia
B. Local corticosteroids
C. Systemic corticosteroids
D. Acyclovir ointment
Answer» D. Acyclovir ointment
discuss
25. Herpes simplex keratitis is characterized by:
A. Presence of pus in the anterior chamber
B. No tendency to recurrence
C. Corneal hyposthesia
D. Tendency to perforate
Answer» C. Corneal hyposthesia
discuss
26. Bacteria, which can attack normal corneal epithelium:
A. Neisseria gonorrhea.
B. Staphylococcal epidermidis
C. Moraxella lacunata.
D. Staphylococcal aureus
Answer» A. Neisseria gonorrhea.
discuss
27. Advanced keratoconus is least to be corrected when treated by:
A. Hard contact Lens,
B. Rigid gas permeable (RGP) contact lens
C. Spectacles.
D. Keratoplasty.
Answer» C. Spectacles.
discuss
28. Organisms causing angular conjunctivitis are:
A. Moraxella Axenfeld bacilli
B. Pneumococci
C. Gonococci
D. Adenovirus
Answer» A. Moraxella Axenfeld bacilli
discuss
29. Chalazion is a chronic inflammatory granuloma of
A. Meibomian gland
B. Zies’s gland
C. Sweat gland
D. Wolfring’s gland
Answer» A. Meibomian gland
discuss
30. Deep leucoma is best treated by:
A. Tattooing
B. Lamellar keratoplasty
C. Keratectomy
D. Penetrating keratoplasty
Answer» D. Penetrating keratoplasty
discuss
31. Blood vessels in a trachomatous pannus lie:
A. Beneath the Descemet's membrane.
B. In the substantia propria.
C. Between Bowman's membrane & substantia propria.
D. Between Bowman's membrane & Epithelium.
Answer» D. Between Bowman's membrane & Epithelium.
discuss
32. In vernal catarrh, the characteristic cells are:
A. Macrophage
B. Eosinophils
C. Neutrophils
D. Epitheloid cells
Answer» B. Eosinophils
discuss
33. Ptosis in Horner's syndrome, is due to paralysis of:
A. Riolan's muscle
B. Horner's muscle
C. Muller's muscle
D. The levator palpebral muscle
Answer» C. Muller's muscle
discuss
34. Severe congenital ptosis with no levator function can be treated by:
A. Levator resection from skin side
B. Levator resection from conjunctival side
C. Fascia lata sling operation
D. Fasanella servat operation
Answer» C. Fascia lata sling operation
discuss
35. The commonest cause of hypopyon corneal ulcer is:
A. Moraxella
B. Gonococcus
C. Pneumococcus
D. Staphylococcus
Answer» C. Pneumococcus
discuss
36. Irrespective of the etiology of a corneal ulcer, the drug always indicated
A. Corticosteroid
B. Atropine
C. Antibiotics
D. Antifungal
Answer» B. Atropine
discuss
37. Fleischer ring is found in:
A. Keratoconus
B. Chalcosis
C. Argyrosis
D. Buphthalmos
Answer» A. Keratoconus
discuss
38. Intercalary staphyloma is a type of:
A. Equatorial staphyloma
B. Posterior staphyloma
C. Scleral staphyloma
D. Anterior staphyloma
Answer» C. Scleral staphyloma
discuss (1)
39. Cornea is supplied by nerve fibers derived from:
A. Trochlear nerve
B. Optic nerve
C. Trigeminal nerve
D. Oculomotor nerve
Answer» C. Trigeminal nerve
discuss
40. Ciliary injection is not seen in:
A. Herpetic keratitis
B. Bacterial ulcer
C. Chronic iridocyclitis
D. Catarrhal conjunctivitis
Answer» D. Catarrhal conjunctivitis
discuss
41. Most of the thickness of cornea is formed by:
A. Epithelial layer
B. Substantia propria
C. Descemet's membrane
D. Endothelium
Answer» B. Substantia propria
discuss
42. A 30 years old male presents with a history of injury to the eye with a lea
and pain, photophobia and redness of the eye for 2 days. What would be
pathology?
A. Anterior uveitis
B. Conjunctivitis
C. Fungal corneal ulcer
D. Corneal laceration
Answer» C. Fungal corneal ulcer
discuss
43. Ptosis and mydriasis are seen in:
A. Facial palsy
B. Peripheral neuritis
C. Oculomotor palsy
D. Sympathetic palsy
Answer» C. Oculomotor palsy
discuss
44. Commonest cause of posterior staphyloma is:
A. Glaucoma
B. Retinal detachment
C. Iridocyclitis
D. High myopia
Answer» D. High myopia
discuss
45. In DCR, the opening is made at:
A. Superior meatus
B. Middle meatus
C. Inferior meatus
D. none
Answer» B. Middle meatus
discuss
46. Schirmer’s test is used for diagnosing:
A. Dry eye
B. Infective keratitis
C. Watering eyes
D. Horner’s syndrome
46. Schirmer’s test is used for diagnosing:
Answer» A. Dry eye
discuss
47. 3 months old infant with watering lacrimal sac on pressing causes regur
mucopus material. What is the appropriate treatment?
A. Dacryocystorhinostomy
B. Probing
C. Probing with syringing
D. Massage with antibiotics up to age of 6 months
Answer» D. Massage with antibiotics up to age of 6 months
discuss
48. Most common cause of adult unilateral proptosis
A. Thyroid orbitopathy
B. Metastasis
C. Lymphoma
D. Meningioma
Answer» A. Thyroid orbitopathy
discuss
49. Evisceration is:
A. Excision of the entire eyeball
B. Excision of all the inner contents of the eyeball including the uveal tissue
C. Photocoagulation of the retina
D. Removal of orbit contents
Answer» B. Excision of all the inner contents of the eyeball including the uveal tissue
discuss
50. Lagophthalmos can occur in all of the following except;
A. 7th cranial nerve paralysis
B. 5th cranial nerve paralysis
C. Thyrotoxic exophthalmos
D. Symblepharon
Answer» B. 5th cranial nerve paralysis
discuss
51. The most important symptom differentiating orbital cellulitis from pano
A. Vision
B. Pain
C. Redness
D. Swelling
Answer» A. Vision
discuss
52. The commonest cause of unilateral exophthalmos is:
A. Thyroid eye disease
B. Lacrimal gland tumour
52. The commonest cause of unilateral exophthalmos is:
C. Orbital cellulitis
D. Cavernous sinus thrombosis
Answer» A. Thyroid eye disease
discuss
53. Proptosis is present in the following condition except:
A. Horner's syndrome
B. Orbital cellulitis
C. Thyroid ophthalmopathy
D. Cavernous sinus thrombosis
Answer» A. Horner's syndrome
discuss
54. All of the following are part of uvea except:
A. Pars plicata
B. Pars plana
C. Choroid
D. Schwalbe’s line
Answer» D. Schwalbe’s line
discuss
55. One of the earliest features of anterior uveitis includes:
A. Keratic precipitates
B. Hypopyon
C. Posterior synechiae
D. Aqueous flare
Answer» D. Aqueous flare
discuss
56. In anterior uveitis the pupil is generally:
A. Of normal size
B. Constricted
C. Dilated
D. none
Answer» B. Constricted
discuss
57. Koeppe’s nodules are found in:
A. Cornea
B. Sclera
C. Iris
D. Conjunctiva
Answer» C. Iris
discuss
58. Aqueous humour is formed by:
A. Epithelium of ciliary body
B. Posterior surface of iris
58. Aqueous humour is formed by:
C. Lens
D. Pars plana
Answer» A. Epithelium of ciliary body
discuss
59. The earliest feature of anterior uveitis includes:
A. Keratic precipitates
B. Hypopyon
C. Posterior synechiae
D. Aqueous flare
Answer» D. Aqueous flare
discuss
60. Which laser is used for capsulotomy?
A. Diode laser
B. Carbon dioxide laser
C. Excimer laser
D. ND: YAG laser
Answer» D. ND: YAG laser
discuss
61. Unilateral aphakia is likely to be corrected by any of the following excep
A. Anterior chamber intraocular lens
B. Posterior chamber intraocular lens
C. Contact tens
D. Glasses
Answer» D. Glasses
discuss
62. Phakolytic glaucoma is best treated by:
A. Fistulizing operation
B. Cataract extraction
C. Cyclo-destructive procedure
D. Miotics and Beta blockers
Answer» B. Cataract extraction
discuss
63. Lens induced glaucoma is least likely to occur in:
A. Intumescent cataract.
B. Anterior lens dislocation,
C. Posterior subcapsular cataract
D. Posterior lens dislocation
Answer» C. Posterior subcapsular cataract
discuss
64. Earliest visual rehabilitation occurs with:
A. Phacoemulsification plus intraocular lens implantation
B. Intracapsular cataract extraction plus intraocular lens implantation
64. Earliest visual rehabilitation occurs with:
C. Extracapsular cataract extraction plus intraocular lens implantation
D. Small incision cataract extraction
Answer» A. Phacoemulsification plus intraocular lens implantation
discuss
65. Best site where intraocular lens is fitted:
A. Capsular ligament
B. Endosulcus
C. Ciliary supported
D. Capsular bag
Answer» D. Capsular bag
discuss (1)
66. After 48 hours of a cataract extraction operation, a patient complained o
and visual loss. On examination, this eye looked red with ciliary injectio
oedema and absent red reflex. The first suspicion must be:
A. Secondary glaucoma.
B. Anterior uveitis.
C. Bacterial endophthalmitis.
D. Acute conjunctivitis
Answer» C. Bacterial endophthalmitis.
discuss
67. All the following associated open angle glaucoma include all the followin
A. Roenne’s nasal step
B. Enlarged blind spot
C. Generalized depression of isopters
D. Loss of central fields
Answer» D. Loss of central fields
discuss
68. The treatment of choice for the other eye in angle closure glaucoma is:
A. Surgical peripheral iridectomy
B. Yag laser iridotomy
C. Trabeculotomy
D. Trabeculectomy
Answer» B. Yag laser iridotomy
discuss
69. Topical atropine is contraindicated in:
A. Retinoscopy in children
B. Iridocyclitis
C. Corneal ulcer
D. Primary angle closure glaucoma
Answer» D. Primary angle closure glaucoma
discuss
70. Neovascular glaucoma follows:
A. Thrombosis of central retinal vein
B. Acute congestive glaucoma
C. Staphylococcal infection
D. Hypertension
Answer» A. Thrombosis of central retinal vein
discuss
71. A one-month old baby is brought with complaints of photophobia and w
Clinical examination shows normal tear passages and clear but large cor
likely diagnosis is:
A. Congenital dacryocystitis
B. Interstitial keratitis
C. Keratoconus
D. Buphthalmos
Answer» D. Buphthalmos
discuss
72. You have been referred a case of open angle glaucoma. Which of the foll
an important point in diagnosing the case?
A. Shallow anterior chamber
B. Optic disc cupping
C. Narrow angle
D. visual acuity and refractive error
Answer» B. Optic disc cupping
discuss
73. Number of layers in neurosensory retina is:
A. 9
B. 10
C. 11
D. 12
Answer» A. 9
discuss (1)
74. In retinal detachment, fluid accumulates between:
A. Outer plexiform layer and inner nuclear layer.
B. Neurosensory retina and layer of retinal pigment epithelium
C. Nerve fiber layer and rest of retina.
D. Retinal pigment epithelium and Bruch’s membrane.
Answer» B. Neurosensory retina and layer of retinal pigment epithelium
discuss
75. 100 days glaucoma is seen in:
A. Central Retinal Artery Occlusion
B. Branch Retinal Artery Occlusion
C. Central Retinal Vein Occlusion
75. 100 days glaucoma is seen in:
D. Branch Retinal Vein Occlusion
Answer» C. Central Retinal Vein Occlusion
discuss
76. A young patient with sudden painless loss of vision, with systolic murmu
examination reveals a cherry red spot with clear AC, the likely diagnosis
A. Central Retinal Artery Occlusion
B. Central Retinal Vein Occlusion
C. Diabetes Mellitus
D. Branch Retinal Vein Occlusion
Answer» A. Central Retinal Artery Occlusion
discuss
77. Amaurotic cat's eye reflex is seen in:
A. Papilloedema
B. Retinoblastoma
C. Papillitis
D. Retinitis
Answer» B. Retinoblastoma
discuss
78. Commonest lesion which hinders vision in diabetic retinopathy is:
A. Macular oedema
B. Microaneurysm
C. Retinal hemorrhage
D. Retinal detachment
Answer» A. Macular oedema
discuss
79. Commotio retinae is seen in:
A. Concussion injury
B. Papilloedema
C. Central retinal vein thrombosis
D. Central retinal artery thrombosis
Answer» A. Concussion injury
discuss
80. Night blindness is caused by:
A. Central retinal vein occlusion
B. Dystrophies of retinal rods
C. Dystrophies of the retinal cones
D. Retinal detachment
Answer» B. Dystrophies of retinal rods
discuss
81. In Central retinal artery occlusion, a cherry red spot is due to:
A. Hemorrhage at macula
81. In Central retinal artery occlusion, a cherry red spot is due to:
B. Increased choroidal perfusion
C. Increase in retinal perfusion at macula
D. The contrast between pale retina and reddish choroids
Answer» D. The contrast between pale retina and reddish choroids
discuss
82. The most common primary intraocular malignancy in adults is:
A. Retinoblastoma
B. Choroidal melanoma
C. Squamous cell carcinoma of conjunctiva
D. Iris nevus
Answer» B. Choroidal melanoma
discuss
83. A patient of old standing diabetes mellitus noticed sudden muscae volita
examination, the red reflex was dim, with no details of fundus could be s
have:
A. Non proliferative diabetic retinopathy
B. Cystoid macular edema
C. Vitreous hemorrhage
D. Central retinal vein occlusion
Answer» C. Vitreous hemorrhage
discuss
84. Occlusion of the lower nasal branch of the central retinal artery results
following field defects:
A. Lower nasal sector field defect
B. Upper nasal sector field defect
C. Upper temporal field defect
D. Lower temporal sector field defect
Answer» C. Upper temporal field defect
discuss
85. Primary optic atrophy results from:
A. Retinal disease
B. Chronic glaucoma
C. Papilledema
D. Neurological disease
Answer» D. Neurological disease
discuss
86. Retro-bulbar optic neuritis is characterized by:
A. Marked swelling of the optic disc.
B. Impaired direct light reflex in the affected eye
C. Impaired consensual light reflex in the affected eye
D. Normal visual acuity
86. Retro-bulbar optic neuritis is characterized by:
Answer» B. Impaired direct light reflex in the affected eye
discuss
87. The type of optic atrophy that follows retro-bulbar neuritis is:
A. Secondary optic atrophy
B. Consecutive optic atrophy
C. Glaucomatous optic atrophy
D. Primary optic atrophy
Answer» A. Secondary optic atrophy
discuss (1)
88. A male patient 30 years old with visual acuity of 6/6 in both eyes. Twelve
presented with drop of vision of the left eye. On examination, visual acui
the right eye and 6/60 in the left eye. Fundus examination showed blurre
left optic disc. The most probable diagnosis is:
A. Raised intra cranial pressure
B. Raised ocular tension
C. Central retinal artery occlusion
D. Optic neuritis
Answer» D. Optic neuritis
discuss
89. All are seen in 3rd nerve palsy except:
A. Ptosis
B. Diplopia
C. Miosis
D. Outwards eye deviation
Answer» C. Miosis
discuss
90. Homonymous hemianopia is due to lesion at:
A. Optic tract
B. Optic nerve
C. Optic chiasma
D. Retina
Answer» A. Optic tract
discuss
91. Which is not found in papilloedema?
A. Blurred vision
B. Blurred margins of disc
C. Cupping of disc
D. Retinal edema
Answer» C. Cupping of disc
discuss
92. Optic disc diameter is:
A. 1 mm
B. 1.5 mm
C. 2 mm
D. 3 mm
Answer» B. 1.5 mm
discuss
93. Optic nerve function is best studied by:
A. Direct Ophthalmoscope
B. Retinoscope
C. Perimetry
D. Gonioscopy
Answer» C. Perimetry
discuss
94. Optic nerve axon emerges from:
A. Ganglion cells
B. Rods and cones
C. Amacrine cells
D. Inner nuclear layer
Answer» A. Ganglion cells
discuss
95. Papilloedema has all the following characteristics except:
A. Marked loss of vision
B. Blurring of disc margins
C. Hyperemia of disc
D. Field defect
Answer» A. Marked loss of vision
discuss
96. Homonymous hemianopia is the result of a lesion in:
A. Optic chiasma
B. Retina
C. optic tract
D. Optic nerve
Answer» C. optic tract
discuss
97. Mydriasis is present in all the following except:
A. Third nerve lesion
B. Pontine haemorrhage
C. Datura poisoning
D. Fourth stage of anesthesia
Answer» B. Pontine haemorrhage
discuss
98. D-shaped pupil occurs in:
A. Iridocyclitis
B. Iridodenesis
C. Cyclodialsis
D. Iridodialysis
Answer» D. Iridodialysis
discuss
99. In complete third nerve paralysis the direction of the affected eye in the
position is:
A. Inward
B. Outward
C. Outward and up
D. Outward and down
Answer» D. Outward and down
discuss
10
0. All the following are extraocular muscle of eye except
A. Superior rectus
B. Ciliary muscle
C. Inferior oblique
D. Superior oblique
Answer» B. Ciliary muscle

101. The action of superior rectus is:

A. Elevation, intorsion, abduction
B. Elevation, intorsion, adduction
C. Elevation, extorsion, adduction
D. Elevation, extorsion, abduction.
Answer» B. Elevation, intorsion, adduction
discuss
102. The action of inferior oblique is:
A. Depression, extorsion, abduction
B. Depression, extorsion, adduction
C. Elevation, extorsion, adduction
D. Elevation, extorsion, abduction
Answer» D. Elevation, extorsion, abduction
discuss
103. The only extraocular muscle which does not arise from the apex of the o
A. Superior rectus
B. Superior oblique
C. Inferior oblique
D. Inferior rectus
103. The only extraocular muscle which does not arise from the apex of the o
Answer» C. Inferior oblique
discuss
104. In concomitant squint:
A. Primary deviation > Secondary deviation
B. Primary deviation < Secondary deviation
C. Primary deviation = Secondary deviation
D. None of the above
Answer» C. Primary deviation = Secondary deviation
discuss
105. In paralytic squint, the difference between primary and secondary devia
of direction of the paralytic muscle:
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Remains the same
D. none
Answer» A. Increases
discuss
106. In grades of binocular vision; grade 2 is:
A. Simultaneous macular vision
B. Fusion
C. Stereopsis
D. none
Answer» B. Fusion
discuss
107. The best treatment for amblyopia is:
A. Orthoptic exercises
B. Occlusion
C. Surgery
D. Best treat after age 10 years
Answer» B. Occlusion
discuss
108. All the following are true about retina, except:
A. Composed of 10 separable layers
B. There is a loose attachment between neurosensory and Retinal pigment epithelium
C. The Fovea is not supplied by the central retinal artery
D. Soft exudates are swollen axons of ganglion cells
Answer» A. Composed of 10 separable layers
discuss
109. Cause of blindness in HIV (Human immunodeficiency virus) patient; on
A. Cotton wool spots
B. HIV microangiopathy
109. Cause of blindness in HIV (Human immunodeficiency virus) patient; on
C. Cytomegalovirus retinitis
D. Kaposi sarcoma
Answer» C. Cytomegalovirus retinitis
discuss
110. Pseudophakia is the loss of:
A. Accommodation
B. Conversion
C. Saccadic eye movements
D. Contrast sensitivity
Answer» A. Accommodation
discuss
111. All are used for treatment of myopia, except:
A. Convex lenses
B. Concave lenses
C. Lens refractive surgery
D. LASIK
Answer» A. Convex lenses
discuss
112. One of the following is indicative of past optic neuritis in multiple sclero
A. Mild Relative afferent pupillary defect
B. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia
C. Nystagmus
D. Diplopia
Answer» A. Mild Relative afferent pupillary defect
discuss
113. Emmetropia is:
A. Parallel rays of light brought on retina
B. Visual acuity of 6/6
C. Parallel rays of light brought before retina
D. (A) & (B)
Answer» A. Parallel rays of light brought on retina
discuss
114. One of the following does not cause exophthalmos:
A. Orbital varix
B. Optic nerve tumor
C. Blow out fracture
D. Orbital cellulitis
Answer» C. Blow out fracture
discuss
115. One of the following is not a cause of entropion:
A. Facial nerve palsy
115. One of the following is not a cause of entropion:
B. Congenital
C. Cicatricial pemphigoid
D. Conjunctival scaring
Answer» A. Facial nerve palsy
discuss
116. Which one is responsible for strongest refraction in the eye:
A. Tear film
B. Cornea
C. Lens
D. Vitreous
Answer» B. Cornea
discuss
117. Chronic blepharitis is associated with all, except:
A. Ectropion
B. Eyelid margin ulceration
C. Red eye
D. Obstruction of meibomian glands
Answer» B. Eyelid margin ulceration
discuss
118. Carotid–cavernous sinus fistula causes all the following, except:
A. Bruit over globe
B. Pulsatile tinnitus
C. Proptosis
D. Scleral veins congestion
Answer» B. Pulsatile tinnitus
discuss
119. All the following are risk factors for bacterial keratitis, except:
A. Chalazion
B. Contact lenses
C. Trauma
D. Dry eye
Answer» A. Chalazion
discuss
120. About trichiasis; all the following are true, except:
A. Signs of dry eye
B. Iris atrophy
C. Corneal opacity
D. Backward misdirection of eye lashes
Answer» B. Iris atrophy
discuss
121. All the following are true about herpetic infection, except:
A. A Dendritic ulcer is characteristic
B. Primary infection is asymptomatic
C. Caused by Herpes simplex virus type 2
D. Steroids may be used for treatment
Answer» D. Steroids may be used for treatment
discuss
122. All the following are used in treatment of open angle glaucoma, except:
A. Steroids
B. Parasympathomimetics
C. Betablockers
D. Alpha agonists
Answer» A. Steroids
discuss
123. All the following are true about open angle glaucoma, except:
A. Commonly causes headache
B. Optic disc cupping
C. Peripheral visual loss
D. Medical treatment is the first line of treatment
Answer» A. Commonly causes headache
discuss
124. All the following are signs of keratoconus, except:
A. Thickening of central cornea
B. Corneal thinning, especially in the inferior cornea
C. Munson sign
D. Prominent corneal nerves
Answer» A. Thickening of central cornea
discuss
125. All the following are used for the treatment of keratoconus, except:
A. LASIK
B. Intracorneal rings
C. Contact lenses
D. Keratoplasty
Answer» A. LASIK
discuss
126. what type of surgery is performed for a patient with large angle right es
A. Right recession
B. Right resection
C. Lateral rectus resection & medial rectus recession on right eye
D. Lateral rectus resection & medial rectus recession on left eye
Answer» C. Lateral rectus resection & medial rectus recession on right eye
discuss
127. All the following are true about branch vein occlusion, except:
A. Improves with time and minimal visual loss
B. Surgery is indicated if the macula is not involved
C. Steroids and anti-VGEF are rarely used
D. There are two types; ischemic & non ischemic
Answer» B. Surgery is indicated if the macula is not involved
discuss
128. In diabetic macular edema, one is true:
A. Pan retinal photocoagulation is the first line of management
B. Anti-VGEF is the first line of treatment
C. All treatment modules have poor visual acuity
D. Treatment protocol depends on presenting vision
Answer» D. Treatment protocol depends on presenting vision
discuss
129. All the following are true regarding retinal detachment, except:
A. Uveitis cause exudative type
B. DM cause tractional type
C. Posterior vitreous detachment causes rhegmatogenous type
D. Surgery indicated for all types
Answer» D. Surgery indicated for all types
discuss
130. One of the following regarding age-related macular degeneration is corr
A. The dry type does not convert to the wet type
B. Anti-VEGF is the drug of choice
C. There is reduction in central vision
D. Fluorescein angiography and optical coherence tomography can be used for diagnosis
Answer» B. Anti-VEGF is the drug of choice
discuss
131. All the following are true regarding retinitis pigmentosa, except:
A. Day light vision spared all over life
B. Complains of loss of night vision
C. Autosomal Dominant type is the mildest form
D. Loss of peripheral vision
Answer» A. Day light vision spared all over life
discuss
132. All the following are related to angle closure glaucoma, except:
A. Common in high myopes
B. Painful red eye
C. Acute presentation
D. Treatment for both eyes
Answer» A. Common in high myopes
discuss
133. Most common nerve affected by blow-out fracture:
A. Infra-orbital nerve.
B. Supratrochlear nerve.
C. Optic nerve.
D. Nasocilliary nerve.
Answer» A. Infra-orbital nerve.
discuss
134. About choroidal melanoma, one of the following is true:
A. If there is no visual potential for the eye, enucleation is recommended
B. Can be preceded by choroidal nevus
C. Lymphatic spread is common
D. Brachytherapy can be used for tumors of any size
Answer» A. If there is no visual potential for the eye, enucleation is recommended
discuss
135. All the following are caused by blunt trauma, except:
A. Uveitis
B. Glaucoma
C. Cataract
D. Sympathetic ophthalmitis
Answer» D. Sympathetic ophthalmitis
discuss
136. About chemical injury of the eye, all the following are true, except:
A. Alkali is neutralized with weak acid
B. Alkali most severe
C. Limbal ischemia means poor prognosis
D. Do not use Vit. C in non-alkali burns
Answer» A. Alkali is neutralized with weak acid
discuss
137. All the following are side effects of acetazolamide, except:
A. Bronchial asthma
B. Renal stones
C. Aplastic anemia
D. Steven Johnson syndrome
Answer» A. Bronchial asthma
discuss
138. One of the following does not cause leukocoria:
A. Retinitis pigmentosa
B. Cataract
C. Retinoblastoma
D. Old total retinal detachment
Answer» A. Retinitis pigmentosa
discuss
139. Which of the following is an indication for oral steroids in thyroid eye di
A. Corneal exposure
B. Periorbital edema
C. Chemosis
D. Dry eyes
Answer» A. Corneal exposure
discuss
140. Bitemporal hemianopia is caused by a problem in the:
A. Optic chiasm
B. Optic radiation
C. Thalamus
D. Optical cortex
Answer» A. Optic chiasm
discuss
141. Which of the following is present only in acute phase of thyroid eye disea
A. Lid retraction
B. Lid lag
C. Diplopia
D. Chemosis
Answer» D. Chemosis
discuss
142. Which of the following is not part of the thyroid eye disease?
A. Optic disc swelling
B. Choroidal neovascular membrane
C. Restrictive myopathy
D. Ophthalmoplegia
Answer» B. Choroidal neovascular membrane
discuss
143. Which cataract does improve near vision?
A. Cortical
B. Sutural
C. Nuclear
D. Morgagnian
Answer» C. Nuclear
discuss
144. In which cataract does vision improve with changing glasses or wearing
A. Christmas tree
B. Nuclear
C. Hypermature
D. Lamellar
Answer» B. Nuclear
discuss
145. Which cataract is associated with intraocular inflammation?
A. Nuclear
B. Posterior subcapsular
C. Hypermature
D. Cortical
Answer» B. Posterior subcapsular
discuss
146. Which of the following Least systemic diseases to cause least peripheral
keratitis:
A. Systemic lupus erythematosus
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. Weigner granulomatosis
D. Sarcoidosis
Answer» D. Sarcoidosis
discuss
147. Regarding the optic nerve, which of the following is false?
A. The intracanalicular segment is the longest
B. The intraocular segment is the shortest
C. It has a central cavity called the cup
D. It represents the blind spot
Answer» A. The intracanalicular segment is the longest
discuss
148. Which is most common type of cataract due to chronic use of steroids:
A. Posterior subcapsular
B. Nuclear
C. Anterior subcortical
D. Christmas tree
Answer» A. Posterior subcapsular
discuss
149. Ethambutol (used to treat tuberculosis) causes:
A. Optic neuropathy
B. Cataract
C. Glaucoma
D. Keratopathy
Answer» A. Optic neuropathy
discuss
150. The left eye is looking straight on primary position, while the right eye is
upward, which of the following is true?
A. Left hypertropia
B. Left hypotropia
C. Right hypertropia
D. Left hypermetropia
150. The left eye is looking straight on primary position, while the right eye is
upward, which of the following is true?
Answer» C. Right hypertropia
discuss
151. Left esotropia surgical correction includes:
A. Right medial rectus recession and left lateral rectus recession
B. Left lateral rectus recession only
C. Left lateral rectus recession and medial rectus recession
D. None of the listed
Answer» D. None of the listed
discuss
152. The yoke muscle of right superior oblique is:
A. Left inferior rectus
B. Left lateral rectus
C. Left superior rectus
D. Left superior oblique
Answer» A. Left inferior rectus
discuss
153. All the following regarding fungal keratitis are true, except:
A. Can be cause by eye trauma to plant
B. Amphotericin B are used in the treatment
C. Caused by fusarium
D. Surgery is contraindicated in active infection
Answer» D. Surgery is contraindicated in active infection
discuss
154. All the following are true regarding acute closed angle glaucoma, except
A. Corneal edema
B. Fix dilated pupil
C. Optic disc cupping
D. Severe headache
Answer» C. Optic disc cupping
discuss
155. Regarding optic neuritis in adults, all the following are true, except:
A. More in white
B. Usually, bilateral
C. Central scotoma
D. Loss of color vision
Answer» B. Usually, bilateral
discuss
156. Ultrasound is used in dense cataract patient to show:
A. Optic atrophy
B. Macula edema
156. Ultrasound is used in dense cataract patient to show:
C. Macula hole
D. Retinal detachment
Answer» D. Retinal detachment
discuss
157. The most common ophthalmologic complication in multiple sclerosis is:
A. Optic neuritis
B. Intranuclear ophthalmoplegia
C. Diplopia
D. Nystagmus
Answer» A. Optic neuritis
discuss
158. Patient with benign intracranial hypertension, one of the following is tru
A. Lumbar puncture is diagnostic and therapeutic
B. 3rd nerve palsy
C. Abnormal imaging
D. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor is contraindicated
Answer» A. Lumbar puncture is diagnostic and therapeutic
discuss
159. All the following are risk factorsfor glaucoma, except:
A. Steroids
B. Myopia
C. Thin cornea
D. Being black, Asian, or Hispanic
Answer» C. Thin cornea
discuss
160. Best method to deal with alkali trauma:
A. Irrigation with copious fluids
B. Mild steroids
C. Patching
D. Neutralize alkali with weak acid
Answer» A. Irrigation with copious fluids
discuss
161. What is true about the commonest ocular tumor in adults?
A. Has good prognosis
B. Hematogenous spread
C. Primary metastasis is to the bone
D. It is rhabdomyosarcoma
Answer» B. Hematogenous spread
discuss
162. The eyelid tumor with the worst prognosis:
A. Sebaceous gland carcinoma
162. The eyelid tumor with the worst prognosis:
B. Basel cell carcinoma
C. Squamous cell carcinoma
D. Merkel cell carcinoma
Answer» A. Sebaceous gland carcinoma
discuss
163. Large eyesare associated with:
A. Axial myopia
B. Refractive myopia
C. High myopia
D. Index myopia
Answer» C. High myopia
discuss
164. In third cranial nerve palsy, all are true, except:
A. Diplopia
B. Dilated pupils
C. Absent pupillary reflex
D. Relative afferent pupillary defect
Answer» D. Relative afferent pupillary defect
(2)
discuss
165. Neural fiber layer of retina is:
A. Axons of bipolar cells
B. Axons of photoreceptors
C. Axons of ganglion cells
D. None of the above
Answer» C. Axons of ganglion cells
discuss
166. Patient with unilateral cataract, the most common etiology is:
A. Trauma
B. Intrauterine infection
C. Posterior pole tumors
D. Posterior lenticonus
Answer» A. Trauma
discuss
167. All the following can be used to differentiate between orbital cellulitis an
cellulitis, except:
A. Ptosis
B. Proptosis
C. Decreased ocular motility
D. Decreased visual acuity
Answer» A. Ptosis
discuss
168. All the following are risk factors for glaucoma, except:
A. White race
B. Central corneal thinning
C. Positive family history
D. Black, Asian, or Hispanic
Answer» A. White race
discuss
169. All the following are seen in blow-out fractures, except:
A. Exophthalmos
B. Double vision
C. Bruising, tenderness and swelling around the eye
D. Limitation of eye movement
Answer» A. Exophthalmos
discuss
170. Dysthyroid eye disease has which of the following complications:
A. Macular edema
B. Retinal detachment
C. Decrease in visual acuity
D. Cataract
Answer» C. Decrease in visual acuity
discuss
171. Allthe following cause ectropion, except:
A. Age
B. Burn of the face
C. 3rdcranial nerve palsy
D. Congenital
Answer» C. 3rdcranial nerve palsy
discuss
172. The most important risk factor for retinal vein occlusion is:
A. Diabetes Mellitus
B. Hypertension
C. Age
D. Cardiovascular disease
Answer» B. Hypertension
(1)
discuss
173. All the following are true about chemical burn treatment, except:
A. Acids cause worse injury than alkali
B. Irrigation is the treatment of choice
C. Evert and double evert lids for all cases
D. No patching is done
Answer» A. Acids cause worse injury than alkali
discuss
174. The main risk factor regardingdiabetic retinopathy:
A. Duration of the DM
B. Control of DM
C. (A) & (B)
D. Age
Answer» C. (A) & (B)
discuss
175. All the following are true regarding dermoid cysts, except:
A. Located at the superio-lateral aspect
B. Main treatment is by excision
C. It is commonly seen in adulthood (mainly in children)
D. Present at birth
Answer» C. It is commonly seen in adulthood (mainly in children)
discuss
176. One of the following is considered as motor adaption for strabismus:
A. Head tilt
B. Face turn
C. Chin elevation
D. All the above
Answer» D. All the above
discuss
177. One of the following statements is true:
A. The most common cause of tractional retinal detachment is diabetic retinopathy
B. Rhegmatogenous retinal detachment is always treated by surgery
C. The most common cause of rhegmatogenous detachment is hypertension
D. In exudative retinal detachment, there are holes and tears in the retina
Answer» A. The most common cause of tractional retinal detachment is diabetic retinopathy
discuss
178. In right 6th nerve palsy, one of the following is true?
A. Esotropia + limitation of adduction
B. Esotropia + limitation of abduction
C. Exotropia + limitation of adduction
D. Exotropia + limitation of abduction
Answer» B. Esotropia + limitation of abduction
discuss
179. All the following are considered as complications of anterior uveitis, exc
A. Glaucoma
B. Cataract
C. Macular edema
D. Retinal detachment
Answer» D. Retinal detachment
discuss
180. Regarding hyphema, all the following are true, except:
A. Atropine will be used in treatment
B. Always treated by surgical evacuation
C. Iris & ciliary body are source of blood
D. May cause increased intra ocular pressure
Answer» B. Always treated by surgical evacuation
discuss
181. One of the following is the most common cause of amblyopia?
A. Farsightedness
B. Strabismus
C. Nearsightedness
D. Deprivation
Answer» B. Strabismus
discuss
182. One of the following is caused by infection:
A. External hordeolum
B. Sebaceous cyst
C. Milia
D. Eccrine hidrocystoma
Answer» A. External hordeolum
discuss
183. In optic tract lesion, all the following are true, except:
A. Central scotoma
B. Normalvisual acuity
C. Normal color vision
D. Positive RAPD
Answer» A. Central scotoma
discuss
184. Regarding the fovea, all the following are true, except:
A. Rich in cons
B. Lateral to optic disc
C. Responsible for color
D. Sensitive in dim light
Answer» D. Sensitive in dim light
discuss
185. Regarding giant cell arteritis, all the following is true, except:
A. ESR> 60mm/h
B. Anterior ischemic neuropathy
C. Jaw claudication may be presented
D. Gradual loss of vision
Answer» D. Gradual loss of vision
discuss
186. Regarding antiglaucoma medications, which one of the following is true?
A. Timolol is contraindicated in bronchial asthma
B. Sympathomimetic drug used as anti-glaucoma
C. Prostaglandins analogue treat glaucoma by increase the outflow of aqueous humor
D. All the above
Answer» D. All the above
discuss
187. Optic tract lesion is:
A. Bitemporal hemianopia
B. Homonymoushemianopia
C. Congruous hemianopia
D. Incongruous hemianopia
Answer» B. Homonymoushemianopia
discuss
188. Least one to cause severe ptosis is:
A. Congenital ptosis
B. Involutional ptosis
C. Third nerve palsy
D. Horner's syndrome
Answer» D. Horner's syndrome
discuss
189. Regarding myopia, all are true, except:
A. Corrected by convex spectacles
B. Corrected by concave spectacles
C. Corrected by contact lenses
D. Corrected b a minus lens
Answer» A. Corrected by convex spectacles
discuss
190. All are found in carotid cavernous fistula, except:
A. Bruit over the globe
B. Lid retraction
C. Proptosis
D. Ophthalmoplegia
Answer» B. Lid retraction
discuss
191. Subluxated lens is found in all the following, except:
A. Marfan Syndrome
B. Homocystinuria
C. Trauma.
D. Heterochromic Fuchs' syndrome
Answer» D. Heterochromic Fuchs' syndrome
discuss
192. Which type of cataract is associated with myopic shift?
A. Anterior subcapsular
B. Sclerosing nuclear
C. Posterior subcapsular
D. Diabetic
Answer» B. Sclerosing nuclear
discuss
193. Safest method to treat myopia:
A. Glasses
B. Contact lens
C. LASIK
D. PRk
Answer» A. Glasses
discuss
194. Which is wrong about the optic nerve?
A. Intraorbital segment is the longest
B. Have 4 compartments
C. Pial vessels supply most of the course
D. It passes out of the eye through the cribriform plate of the sclera
Answer» C. Pial vessels supply most of the course
discuss
195. First line of treatment for diabetic macular edema:
A. Panretinal photocoagulation
B. Intravitreal Steroids Injection
C. Intravitreal anti-VEGF
D. Focal/Grid Laser
Answer» C. Intravitreal anti-VEGF
discuss
196. First line of treatment for old man with wet AMD:
A. Panretinal photocoagulation
B. Intravitreal Steroids Injection
C. Intravitreal anti-VEGF
D. Focal/Grid Lase
Answer» C. Intravitreal anti-VEGF
discuss
197. Which muscle is mostly affected in dysthyroid eye disease:
A. Superior rectus
B. Inferior rectus
C. Medial rectus
D. Lateral rectus
Answer» B. Inferior rectus
discuss
198. 30 year-old female complains that she is annoyed by car flashlight at nig
most likely diagnosis?
A. Vortex keratopathy
B. Optic neuritis
C. Posterior subscapular cataract
D. Myasthenia gravis
Answer» C. Posterior subscapular cataract
discuss
199. 60 year-old female with Systemic lupus erythematosusis on systemic ster
of cataract she could have?
A. Posterior subscapular
B. Nuclear
C. Cortical
D. Anterior subscapular
Answer» A. Posterior subscapular
discuss
200. 60 year-old male assumes that he can read without using glasses. What t
he has?
A. Posterior subscapular
B. Nuclear
C. Cortical
D. Anterior subcapsular
Answer» B. Nuclear

201. Fovea:
A. Receive nutrients from the choroid
B. Mostly rods
C. Sensitive to dim light
D. Located nasally to the optic disc
Answer» A. Receive nutrients from the choroid
discuss
202. The following are appropriate interventions for acute Dacryocystitis, ex
A. DCR
B. Warm compressors
C. Topical antibiotics
D. Systemic antibiotics
Answer» C. Topical antibiotics
discuss
203. Regarding benign intracranial hypertension, one of the following is false
A. Bilateral 6th nerve palsy
B. Headache
203. Regarding benign intracranial hypertension, one of the following is false
C. Visual disturbances
D. Nausea/vomiting
Answer» A. Bilateral 6th nerve palsy
discuss
204. Which of the following is not supplied by the 3rd cranial nerve:
A. Ciliary muscle
B. Dilator papillae
C. Superior oblique
D. Superior rectus
Answer» C. Superior oblique
discuss
205. One of the following is not a treatment for esotropia:
A. Bilateral lateral rectus resection
B. Medial rectus recession, Lateral rectus resection
C. Bilateral medial rectus recession
D. Bilateral medial rectus recession and resection of one lateral rectus
Answer» A. Bilateral lateral rectus resection
discuss
206. One of the following is false regarding ophthalmia neonatorum?
A. Bilateral purulent discharge is typical of gonorrheal conjunctivitis
B. Systemic antibiotics can be used
C. Most commonorganism is Chlamydia trachomatis
D. Single instillation of povidone-iodine 2.5% solution is effective against common pathogens.
Answer» A. Bilateral purulent discharge is typical of gonorrheal conjunctivitis
discuss
207. All are complications of chronic anterior uveitis, except:
A. Retinal detachment
B. Iris atrophy
C. Glaucoma
D. Cataract
Answer» A. Retinal detachment
discuss
208. One of the following is not associated with 3rd nerve palsy:
A. Miosis
B. Mydriasis
C. Ptosis
D. Affected eye turns slightly outward and downward
Answer» A. Miosis
discuss
209. One of the following eye drops is not used for glaucoma treatment?
A. Dorzolamide
B. Tropicamide
209. One of the following eye drops is not used for glaucoma treatment?
C. Brimonidine
D. Pilocarpine
Answer» B. Tropicamide
discuss
210. The most common orbital metastasis in men are cancer of the:
A. Carcinoid
B. Colon
C. Melanoma
D. Lung
Answer» D. Lung
discuss
211. All are causes of secondary open angle glaucoma, except:
A. Trauma
B. Exfoliative
C. Rubeosis iridis
D. Pigmentary
Answer» C. Rubeosis iridis
discuss
212. All are true regarding optic nerve glioma, except:
A. Gradual onset
B. Optic atrophy
C. Painful
D. Proptosis
Answer» C. Painful
discuss
213. Chronic intermediate uveitis will cause:
A. Glaucoma
B. Cystoid macular edema
C. Cataract
D. All the above
Answer» D. All the above
discuss
214. All are true regarding accommodation, except:
A. Better in adult
B. Pupillary constriction
C. Relaxed ciliary
D. Lens increases in curvature
Answer» A. Better in adult
discuss
215. Measurement of intraocular lens power is called:
A. Pachymetry
B. Biometry
215. Measurement of intraocular lens power is called:
C. Gonioscopy
D. Keratometry
Answer» B. Biometry
discuss
216. Which of the following is not a risk factor for chronic open angle glauco
A. Myopia
B. Hypermetropia
C. Diabetes mellitus
D. Family history
Answer» B. Hypermetropia
discuss
217. Which of the following is not associated with increased VEGF?
A. Retinopathy of Prematurity
B. Proliferative Diabetic Retinopathy
C. Central retinal vein occlusion
D. None of the above
Answer» D. None of the above
discuss
218. Which of the following not associated with uveitis:
A. Behcet’s disease
B. Sarcoidosis
C. Wilson's disease
D. Toxoplasmosis
Answer» C. Wilson's disease
discuss
219. Which one of the following is not recommended for contact lenses?
A. 3-old-month baby with aphakia
B. Keratoconus
C. Myopia
D. Hypermetropia
Answer» A. 3-old-month baby with aphakia
discuss
220. Regarding retinitis pigmentosa, one of the following is true:
A. Macular edema is treated by grid laser
B. Only rods affected
C. Macular edema may respond to oral acetazolamide
D. Nyctalopia and dark adaptation difficulties are late symptoms
Answer» C. Macular edema may respond to oral acetazolamide
discuss
221. One of the following is false regarding giant cell arteritis:
A. CRP morereliable that ESR
B. Phenomenon of “skip” lesions is present
221. One of the following is false regarding giant cell arteritis:
C. Color Doppler shows a hypoechoic halo around the artery lumen in around 75%
D. Elevated platelets and anemia are commonly present
Answer» A. CRP morereliable that ESR
discuss
222. Which one of the following is false about the drug and its side effects?
A. Isoniazid: Glaucoma
B. Chlorpromazine: Dry eye and dry mouth
C. Amiodarone: Keratopathy
D. Chloroquine: Maculopathy
Answer» A. Isoniazid: Glaucoma
discuss
223. Which of the following cancers is not associated with sun exposure?
A. Lentigo
B. Basal cell carcinoma
C. Malignant melanoma
D. Squamous cell carcinoma
Answer» A. Lentigo
discuss
224. All the following drugs can cause cataract except:
A. Chlorpromazine
B. Steroids
C. Amiodarone
D. Erythromycin
Answer» A. Chlorpromazine
discuss
22
5. All are signs of keratoconus, except:
A. Vogt’s striae
B. Munson’s sign
C. Thinning of central cornea
D. Keyser Fleisher rings
Answer» D. Keyser Fleisher rings

1. Excimer laser is used in

a) LASIK

b) LASEK

c) PRK

d) All
2. IOL Master uses the principle of

a) Ultrasound

b) Coherence Interferometry

c) Linear Polarization

d) Fraunhofer Diffraction

3. Power of Prism mostly depends upon

a) Media in which it is kept

b) Angle

c) Thickness

d) All

4. The correct one about Stenopic slit is

a) Used to assess the site for optical PI in corneal opacity

b) Works on the principle of Prism

c) The rays of light are limited on the meridian perpendicular to the axis of slit

d) All

5. World Sight Day is celebrated on:

a) 2nd Thursday of October each year

b) 2nd Thursday of October alternate year

c) 2nd Wednesday of October each year

d) 2nd Wednesday of October alternate year

6. Human Crystalline lens develops from

a) Neuro-ectoderm

b) Surface ectoderm

c) Mesenchyme

d) Mesoderm

7. The latest version of disease classification system developed by WHO is

a) ICD-8

b) ICD-9

c) ICD-10

d) ICD-11

8. The longest part of optic nerve is

a) Intra-ocular

b) Intra-orbital

c) Intra-cranial

d) Intra-canalicular

9. Which of the following is true about cortical blindness except

a) Pupillary Light Reflex is intact

b) Funduscopy reveals normal finding

c) VEP can be used as the accurate diagnostic test

d) Afferent pathway not affected

10. Onset of presbyopia depends upon all except

a) Refractive error
b) Pupil size

c) Ciliary tone

d) AC Depth

11. The co-efficient of correlation lies between

a) 0 to 1

b) -1 to 0

c) +1 to -1

d) +0.5 to -0.5

12. In axial myopia

a) Posterior staphyloma is associated

b) Rays of light focused beyond retina

c) No risk of progressive retinal degeneration

d) Yielding of the elastic membrane of the sclera

13. ERG b-wave amplitude is reduced in

a) Oguchi’s Disease

b) Punctata Albicans

c) Diabetic

d) Optic Atrophy

14. Gender (male/female) is which entity?

a) Nominal

b) Ordinal

c) Cardinal

d) Interval

15. IOL power is increased if

a) Corneal curvature increases and axial length is increases

b) Corneal curvature increases and axial length decreases

c) Corneal curvature decreases and axial length decreases

d) Corneal curvature decreases and axial length increases

16. Contrast sensitivity peaks at

a) 2 cycles/degree

b) 3 cycles/degree

c) 3.5 cycles/degree

d) 4 cycles/degree

17. Which of the following is a parametric test?

a) Chi-square test

b) The Kruskal Wallis test

c) Wilcoxon Signed Rank test

d) t-test

18. Prism produces……………image

a) Erect

b) Laterally inverted

c) Virtual

d) Shifted towards its base

19. The change in stimuli perception from scotopic vision condition to photopic vision
condition is best explained by

a) Purkinje Shift

b) Photochromatic interval

c) Visual adaptation
d) Biphasic threshold

20. A case of Retinitis Pigmentosa might be best benefitted by

a) Field expanding channel lenses

b) Corning Photochromatic Filters

c) Telemicroscope

d) CCTV

21. Blue end of visible light causes

a) Photoophthalmia

b) Maculopathy

c) Corneal burns

d) Xanthelasma

22. The prism used in the slit lamp to make the inverted image erect is

a) Internal doubling prism

b) Porro Abbe prism

c) Integrated Fresnel Prism

d) Reflective polyhedral prism

23. Choose the wrong about the range of wavelength

a) UVC 220-280 nm

b) UVB 280-315

c) UVA 315-400 nm

d) IR A 780-3000 nm

24. Public health does not deal with………..care

a) Promotive

b) Rehabilitative
c) Curative

d) Preventive

25. One is regarded as Basement’s membrane

a) Bowman’s layer

b) Stroma

c) Descement’s membrane

d) Retinal pigment epithelium

26. The contact lens seems loose and rides high while blinking on slit lamp
examination. With the diameter constant, altering which of the following parameters do
we obtain an optimal fit?

a) Lens thickness increase

b) BOZR decrease

c) Peripheral optic zone decrease

d) Oxygen permeability increase

27. The image formed by reflection of light

a) Dioptric

b) Catoptric

c) Rectilinear

d) Both b and c

28. Of the four Purkinje-Sanson’s image, which one is inverted?

a) P1

b) P2

c) P3

d) P4

29. In orbital trauma the bone most likely to be damaged is

a) Lateral Zygomatic

b) Orbital floor of maxillary

c) Nasal

d) Ethmoid

30. Diplopia is permitted in

a) If retinal disparity is not within Panum’s Fusional area

b) ARC

c) Eccentric fixation

d) All

31. ……assist a low vision patient

a) Anomaloscope

b) Typoscope

c) Periscope

d) Orthoscope

32. Lea Grating chart is a………acuity

a) Recognition

b) Forced Preferential looking

c) Resolution

d) OKN

33. Full form of RAAB is

a) Rapid Assessment of Avoidable Blindness

b) Re Assessment of Avoidable Blindness

c) Random Assessment of Avoidable Blindness

d) Revised Assessment of Avoidable Blindness

34. False about Hess Charting

a) Performed at 135 cm

b) Red-green goggles are better than red-green glasses

c) Follows Herring’s and Sherrington’s law

d) 25 test points

35. The luminous efficiency of human eye is maximum at

a) 500nm

b) 550 nm

c) 650 nm

d) 700 nm

36. One is incorrect about children’s vision test

a) CSM is recorded for children 1 year or above

b) Cardiff acuity test consists of vanishing optotypes

c) At birth a child has 3/60 VA

d) Teller Acuity is modified form of preferential looking

37. Which of the following is not included under occupational care of optometry

a) Workplace survey

b) Vision screening

c) Steps in implementation of program

d) Epidemiological survey

38. Father of Modern optometry is

a) Theodore Grosvenor

b) Charles Prentice
c) Irvin Borish

d) Gunter K von Noorden

39. Spasmus Nutans is not characterized by

a) Jerky nystagmus

b) Torticolis

c) Fades away as child grows

d) Thiamine and Iron deficiency

40. The angle between the line of direction from fovea to the anomalously fixated
point in retina is

a) Objective angle

b) Subjective angle

c) Angle of anomaly

d) Angle kappa

41. In JCC, the axis of Jackson cylinder is held ……to the axis of correcting cylinder
while refining the cylindrical axis

a) 45 degree

b) 90 degree

c) 135 degree

d) Both a & c

42. A patient complains that the reading materials appear distorted when looking
through a hand magnifier. Which of the following do you think is responsible for this
complaint?

a) The patient maybe holding the reading material farther than the focal length of the
magnifying lens

b) The magnifying lens might be held at an incorrect angle to the reading material
c) The magnifying lens maybe of poor quality

d) All

43. The new born baby does not have………color perception

a) Red

b) Green

c) Blue

d) All

44. The industrial safety standards advise which materials to be used?

a) CR-39

b) Ophthalmic Flint

c) Polycarbonate

d) PMMA

45. In dendritic keratitis, …………ointment acyclovir is applied

a) 3%, 3 times

b) 5%, 5 times

c) 3%, 5 times

d) 5%, 3 times

46. Light

a) Is a wave

b) Is an energy

c) Propagates transversely

d) All

47. Which of the following property of image is not possible when formed by convex
lens?
a) Real, inverted

b) Real, upright

c) Virtual, inverted

d) Virtual, upright

48. Prevalence of cataract in a city is based estimated by…….study

a) Cohort

b) Cross-sectional

c) Longitudinal

d) Case-control

49. For a sportswear, prescription glass should pass

a) ANSI z87.1

b) 0.25 ounce drop ball test

c) ASTM F803

d) All

50. Neutral density filters allow

a) Long wavelength

b) Short wavelength

c) Broad spectrum

d) Narrow spectrum

51. In PDR, there should be

a) Cotton wool spot

b) IRMA

c) Rubeosis

d) Neovascularization
52. In 24-2 program of Humphrey field analyzer, total points tested are

a) 54

b) 72

c) 76

d) 48

53. Unit of Dk/t is

a) Cm2 ml O2/sec.ml mmHg

b) Cm ml O2 / sec. ml mmHg

c) Cm ml O2 sec / ml mmHg

d) Cm ml O2 mmHg / sec ml

54. Which sampling is appropriate for a homogenous population?

a) Systematic

b) Simple random

c) Purposive

d) Stratified

55. Koeppe’s nodule is found in

a) Choroid

b) Ciliary body

c) Iris

d) Eyelids

56. In OCT the high reflectivity is obtained from……….layer

a) Outer plexiform
b) Inner Nuclear

c) Nerve fiber layer

d) Internal limiting membrane

57. Most common stabilization technique for soft toric

a) Double truncation with peripheral slab off

b) Prism ballasting with superior shifting of optical center

c) Single truncation with dynamic stabilization

d) Double slab off with periballast

58. Which is not altitude based scanning of cornea?

a) ORBSCAN

b) Pantacam

c) Oculyzer

d) Videokeratographer

59. An object is placed 45 cm ahead of a diverging lens of focal length 15 cm. Which
is correct?

a) Image distance=11.24, M=4

b) Image distance=-11.25, M=0.25

c) Image distance=22.5, M=2

d) Image distance=-22.5, M=0.5

60. Which parameter of light remains constant when a light enters another medium
from the first of any?

a) Wavelength

b) Velocity

c) Frequency

d) Color
61. B Scan means

a) Frequency scan

b) Brightness scan

c) Axial scan

d) Mode scan

62. The second most common cause of blindness in the world

a) Diabetic retinopathy

b) Glaucoma

c) Onchocerciasis

d) Age related macular degenerations

63. Most reliable method of Gonioscopy includes…..lens

a) Koeppe

b) Barkan

c) Goldman

d) 4 mirror

64. The add required for a 40 year old with working distance <30cm

a) +0.75 D

b) +1 D

c) +1.25 D

d) +1.5 D

65. Contrast sensitivity is fully developed at

a) 3 months

b) 6 months

c) 9 months
d) 12 months

66. A patient comes with the splashing of detergent in the eyes. After thorough wash,
you see punctuate keratopathy with NO epithelial defect. Which treatment protocol
would you like to follow?

a) Topical antibiotic with analgesia

b) Topical antibiotic, steroid with analgesia

c) Topical potassium citrate with analgesia

d) Topical potassium ascorbate with lubricants

67. Which one does have hereditary correlation

a) Green color defect

b) Blue Defect

c) Red defect

d) All

68. 1M letter subtends 5 degree angle at the nodal point of eye when the object of
regard is kept at

a) 40 cm

b) 1m

c) 5m

d) 25 cm

69. …………is not a low vision aid

a) Text scanner

b) Plus plano cylinder

c) Concave mirror

d) Channel lenses
70. The illuminance of the room while using computer should be

a) 50 lux

b) 100-200 lux

c) 300-500 lux

d) 500-700 lux

71. A person wears +4 D spherical spectacles but his glasses are pantoscopically tilted
by 10 degrees. Which is false?

a) The optical center should have been shifted lower by 5 mm

b) The tilt will develop a plus cylinder whose axis will be at 180 degrees

c) The effective spherical power will be less than +4 D

d) None

72. The first field defect in POAG

a) Isolated nasal scotima

b) Bjerrum’s scotoma

c) Arcuate Scotoma

d) Ring Scotoma

73. The action of superior oblique is best explained by

a) Abduction, elevation, extorsion

b) Adduction, elevation, intorsion

c) Abduction, depression, intorsion

d) Abduction, depression, extorsion

74. The cycloplegic effect of tropicamide would last

a) 30-45 min

b) 45- 90 min
c) 2-4 hours

d) 6 hours

75. Disc edema is observed in all except

a) Papillitis

b) CRVO

c) BRVO

d) Neovascular Glaucoma

76. Metamorphopsia is demonstrated best in……char of Amsler Grid

a) Chart 2

b) Chart 5

c) Chart 6

d) Both b and c

77. In Amsler chart 1, each square will constitute ……degree of visual field

a) 0.5

b) 1

c) 2

d) 10

78. In divergence excess type of exodeviation, one among all is false

a) High AC/A ratio

b) Normal near point of convergence

c) Normal near point of accommodation

d) Near exo= 25 prism, far exo= 10

79. What percentage of cyclepentolate is recommended in the cycleplegic refraction of

a young child more than 3 years old?
a) 0.25%

b) 0.5%

c) 1%

d) 2%

80. A 53 year old male has been wearing add +1.75Ds. He has no distance error. He
complains of slight difficulty reading small prints. What changes would he have to
make if he wanted to see clearly with the same diopters?

a) Use a progressives of same prescription in a hard design

b) Use the lenses to fit into separate frame so that segment height is slightly elevated

c) Move the glasses away from the corneal apex thereby increasing the vertex
distance

d) Use the low powered hand magnifier when needed

81. The disadvantage of monovision fitting of contact lens in presbyopia instead of

bifocal contact lens is

a) Loss of stereopsis

b) Dizziness and headache until adaptation

c) Relative loss of contrast

d) Reduced field of view

82. All are signs of anterior uveitis except

a) Reduced VA

b) Miosis

c) Circum-ciliary injection

d) Papillae

83. The test of Psychophysical test does not include

a) Visual Acuity

b) Color Vision
c) Contrast sensitivity

d) VEP

84. Third Nerve Palsy is best demonstrated by

a) Ptosis, diplopia and esodeviation

b) Ptosis, mydriasis and exodeviation

c) Ptosis, miosis and exodeviation

d) Diplopia, exodeviation and miosis

85. All are used for binocular vision test except

a) WFD test

b) Anaglyph

c) Maddox rod

d) Duochrome test

86. Bilateral superior oblique muscle palsy is elucidated by all except

a) V pattern

b) Bielshowsky head tilt test positive

c) Spontaneous torsional diplopia

d) Associated history of trauma

87. In thyroid ophthalmopathy there is NOT

a) Proptosis

b) Ptosis

c) Thickening of orbital tissues

d) Restriction in eye movement

88. DRS type II is characterized by all except

a) Marcus jaw winking

b) Crocodile tears

c) Retraction of the eyeball as the eye moves inward

d) Poor abduction, good adduction

89. Which color vision is hereditary in nature

a) Red

b) Green

c) Blue

d) All

90. Nepal government signed the global initiative vision 2020 the right to sight in

a) 1998

b) 1999

c) 2000

d) 2001

91. Optotypes of ETDRS contrast charts have

a) Gradual progression of 5/4 ratio

b) 0.1 log unit larger than the ones in the preceding line

c) Charts can only be used either 2m or 4m

d) Non-sheriff consistent number of letters

92. In GAT, 4D of corneal astigmatism bring about the change in IOP error by

a) 1 mmofHg
b) 2 mm of Hg

c) 3 mm of HG

d) 4 mm of Hg

93. World optometry day is observed in

a) 22 March

b) 23 March

c) 24 March

d) 25 March

94. Glaucoma has the essential feature of

a) Raised intra-ocular pressure

b) Associated family history

c) Visual field defect

d) Tunnel vision

95. Which of the following telescopes has the largest exit pupil

a) 7x50

b) 8x35

c) 10x20

d) 10x40

96. In Bruckner test, the affected eye

a) shines with dull, red reflex

b) shines with bright, red reflex

c) shines with dim, yellow reflex

d) shines with bright, yellow reflex

97. In which condition B Scan is suggested even if the media is clear?

a) Absolute glaucoma with NPL vision

b) Retrobulbar neuritis

c) Retinal detachment

d) Macular hole

98. Piezo-electric crystals are used in

a) Biometric probe

b) Pneumatic Tonometer

c) B scan transducer

d) Ultrasonic pachymeter

99. The removal of ocular structures with the sclera and extraocular muscle remaining
in situ is

a) Enucleation

b) Exenteration

c) Evisceration

d) Orbitotomy

100. With regard to pin-hole, one is FALSE

a) The vision through the pinhole is usually worse in patient with macular disease

b) It may allow presbyopic patients to read comfortably without optical correction

c) Failure of the vision to improve to 6/6 with pinhole indicates the presence of
macular disease

d) Too small a pinhole can affect vision through interference

101. Spot of stationary light fades away due to the retinal bleaching is described by

a) Broca-Sulzer Effect

b) Troxler effect

c) Bruckner Belzowsky effect

d) None

102. Saccadic motion to the left involves…..as agonist

a) Left medial rectus

b) Right lateral rectus

c) Left lateral rectus

d) Both lateral recti

103. Age related changes in the eye encompass all except

a) Syneresis

b) Dermatochalasis

c) Xanthelasma

d) Mesopia at higher level of ambient luminance

104. The exact anatomic location of intra-ocular lens to be implanted is

a) Zonular fossa

b) Capsular bag

c) Intracapsular bag

d) Vitreous cavity

105. The prismatic effect when a +5Ds lens is decentered by 10mm is……prism diopter

a) 50

b) 0.5

c) 5

d) 2

106. Specular microscopy visualizes mosaic pattern of

a) Epithelium

b) Endothelium
c) Bowman’s layer

d) Descemet’s membrane

107. The donated cornea is cryopreserved in M-K medium at…..degree Celsius

a) Less than 0

b) 2-8

c) 10-25

d) 28-37

108. Hypopyon is the

a) Blood in the AC

b) Foreign body in the AC

c) Pus in the AC

d) Flares in the AC

109. In case of Anisometropia,

a) Of more than 1D in hyperopic patients can usually be controlled through

accommodation of the more hypermetropic eye

b) Is a common cause of amblyopia in patients with uncorrected low myopia

c) Of recent onset may be caused by development of posterior subcapsular cataract

d) May result from unilateral central serous retinopathy

110. Patient with significant peripheral visual field loss may not be relieved from

a) Prism with base towards the area of visual field loss

b) Mirror mounted on glasses

c) Galilean telescope

d) Concave lens

111. All are tests of Eikonometry except

a) Turville Test

b) Brecher’s Procedure

c) Horizontal Miles Procedures

d) Forced duction test

112. Hiedelberg’s Retinal tomography uses

a) Lasers

b) Infrared

c) Neons

d) Halogens

113. A patient has -3..00/-3.00 x 180 spectacle Rx. A trial toric of -3.3/-3.00 x 170 is
selected to observe right hand side rotation with respect to the patient by 10 degrees.
The final power of the prescriptions, provided all other things are constant, is:

a) -3.00/-3.00 x 10

b) -3.00/-2.5 x 10

c) -3.00/-3.00 x 160

d) -3.00/-2.5 x 180

114. The materials used in making prosthetic eye

a) Plasters of Paris

b) Hydroxy-appetites

c) Alginates

d) Borro-sillicates

115. A 5ml vial of an ophthalmic drug contains……drops of medicines

a) 50-60
b) 80-90

c) 110-120

d) 140-150

116. The pH value of human healthy tear is

a) 6.5

b) 6.8

c) 7.1

d) 7.4

117. Which of the following drug has been recently postulated to be effective for the
reversal of crystalline aggregation and cataract formation?

a) Cholecalciferol

b) Lanosterol

c) Inositol

d) Fludrocortisol

118. The first antibiotic that was discovered by humankind acted against which of the
following bacterial mechanism

a) Protein Synthesis

b) DNA Synthesis

c) Cell wall synthesis

d) Folic Acid synthesis

119. First order neuron is defined by

a) Horizontal cells

b) Retinal Bipolar Cells

c) Retinal Ganglion Cells

d) Amacrine cells
120. Pie in the sky defect in the visual field is seen when a lesion affects

a) Medullary optic lamina of optic radiation

b) Visuopsychic peristriate area 18

c) Mayer's Loop

d) Dorsolateral aspect of optic tract

121. A man has central corneal thickness of 542 μm in the right eye with IOP 22
mmHg. Keeping all other parameters constant, what would be the predicted IOP if his
right eye would have measured 522 μm in pachymetry?

a) 20 mmHg

b) 21 mmHg

c) 23mmHg

d) 24 mmHg

122. The geometrical shape of a normative adult cornea can best be described as

a) Prolate Ellipsoid

b) Oblate Ellipsoid

c) Prolate Spheroid

d) Oblate Spheroid

123. Due to an acquired retinal disease a person's visual condition was so worse that he
is diagnosed to fall under low vision criteria. He undergoes a sequential psychological
process in the order as:

a) Denial, anger, depression, bargaining, acceptance

b) Denial, bargaining, anger, depression, acceptance

c) Denial, bargaining, anger, acceptance, finding meaning

d) Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance

124. Which are the FOUR original guiding principles for optometry profession stated by
Beauchamp and Childress ?
a) Beneficence, justice, respect of autonomy, non-maleficience

b) Beneficence, justice, respect of autonomy, confidentiality

c) Beneficence, justice, non-maleficience, collegiality

d) Beneficience, justice, respect of autonomy, protecting the vulnerable

125. A monochromatic light comes from a source kept at 50 cm from a convex lens of
10 diopters. The approximate optical path distance between object and image if this
phenomenon occurs in air:

a) 40 cm

b) 60 cm

c)80 cm

d) 100 cm

126. The critical cut-off value of corneal thickness to determine whether to go for a
refractive LASIK surgery is

a) 470

b) 500

c) 530

d) 550

127. Of all below, one falls under low order aberrations

a) Spherical aberration

b) Secondary astigmatism

c) Coma

d) Piston

128. The correctional mechanism against the lag of target to position on fovea is called

a) Vestibular reflex

b) Version
c) Saccade

d) Pursuit

129. All of the following represent a form of adaptation to neurogenic palsy of extra-
ocular muscles. Odd one out:

a) Amblyopia

b) Supression

c) Torticollis

d) Abnormal Retinal Correspondence

130. Which of the following is not responsible for reduced corneal sensation?

a) Neurotrophic keratitis

b) Fungal corneal ulcer

c) Penetrating Keratoplasty

d) Hansen's Disease

131. Mechanical obstruction in ocular motility cannot be diagnosed by

a) Forced duction test

b) Hess charting

c) Force generation test

d) Positional tonometry

132. Bacteria that cannot break into the intact cornea

a) Corneybacteerium diptheriae

b) Neisseria gonorrhoeae

c) Streptococcus hemolyticus

d)Nesseria mengitidis
133. The classical triad of Horner's syndrome is

a) Mydriasis, ptosis and anhidrosis

b) Miosis, proptosis and anhidrosis

c) Miosis, ptosis and anhidrosis

d) Anisocorea, proptosis and anhidrosis

134. Mettendorf's dots are found in

a) iris

b) lens

c) lens capsule

d) vitreous

135. The viewing of anterior chamber structures is possible if the rays of light coming
from the angle strikes the line normal to cornea at

a) 420

b) 460

c) 500

d) 540

136. Which one of the following would you prioritize as ocular emergency?

a) Corneal Abrasion

b) Hyphema

c) Macular Edema

d) orbital cellulitis

137. Cotton wool spots as seen in diabetic retinopathy lies in which layer of retina?

a) Internal Limiting Membrane

b) Nerve fiber layer

c) Outer Plexiform Layer

d) Pigment Epithelial layer

138. The clinical presentation of CRVO is most often seen in ……..retina

a) Infero-nasal

b) Infero-temporal

c) supero-nasal

d) supero-temporal

139. Dilation of pupil while going in the dark demonstrate the integrity of

a) Afferent Pathway

b)Efferent Pathway

c) Sympathetic Pathway

d) Parasympathetic Pathway

140. One is false about Ishihara Pseudo-isochromatic plates

a) It consists of 4 types of diagnostic plates: vanishing, transformation, hidden-digit, and

qualitatively diagnostic.

b) The only systematic difference between the figure and background dots is in color:
the figure is composed of dots of one or more colors, and the background is composed
of dots of different color or colors.

c) The failure to read even the diagnostic plate is a sign of non-physiologic visual loss

d) Minimum distance BCVA required in order for the reliable results is 6/18

141. In a before-and-after study design, the effect that brings about the error in outcome
variable when the measurement time after the treatment is significantly delayed is called
a) Regression effect
b) Hawthorne effect

c) Maturation effect
d) Reactive effect

142. Which of the following drug acts by inhibiting protein synthesis of micro-
organism?
a) Ciprofloxacin
b) Chloramphenicol
c) Natamycin
d) Acyclovir

143. Odd one out about an ideal artificial tear substitute

a) should lower the surface tension of the tear film

b) should be preservative-free if intended for use by patients who require frequent
instillation
c) pH does not account much as long as it is isotonic at 300 m Osm/L
d) should aid in the formation of a hydrophilic layer that is compatible with adsorbed
mucin and enhance tear volume

144. One with the lowest index of refraction is

a) Ophthalmic Flint
b) Ophthalmic Crown
c) Polycarbonate
d) Columbia Resin

145. A +3.50 Ds hypermetrope has a near point that is 50cm from her cornea when she
is not wearing her spectacles. With her spectacles (vertex distance 15mm) on, how far
from her cornea is her near point now located?

a) Infinity
b) 67.7 cm
c) 33.3 cm
d) None
146. What is the spectacle magnification of a spectacle lens of back vertex power -
5.00Ds refractive index 1.523 and center thickness 4.0mm) made with a front surface
power if +5.00Ds and placed 13 mm from the cornea?
a) 0.95
b) 0.07
c) 2.35
d) 1.03

147. One is false about the normal distribution curve

a) standard normal variate implies how many standard deviation away is the given point
from the mean
b) mean, median and mode all lie on a single plane which divides the curve into mirror
halves
c) Within one standard deviation interval, there is 68.26% of sample population
d) The maximum probability of a sample being selected on a random picking is at three
standard deviation away from mean

148. one is not a RGP complication

a) Residual refractive error
b) Dimple veling
c) Lens flexure
d) Ptosis

149. Principle of wavefront aberration finds the clinical utility in

a) refractive and cataract surgeries
b) understanding to minimize coma and secondary astigmatism
c) correcting the piston
d) designing wavefront-guided progressive lenses to counter high order aberrations

150. which method of lamellar corneal transplant is most common in Nepal?

a) SALK
b) DALK
c) DLEK
d) DSAEK
151. Which of the following part of the eye is not transparent?
a) Cornea
b) Conjunctiva
c) Lens
d) Iris

152. The portion that connects eye to the brain is

a) Retina
b) Choroid
c) Optic Nerve
d) Sclera

153. The resolving power of the eye is called

a) vision
b) visual acuity
c) eye capacity
d) color vision

154. When presenting visual acuity of a patient is 6/18, we call it

a) mild visual impairment
b) moderate visual impairment
c) low vision
d) severe visual impairment

155. The person is said to be blind when visual acuity is……in the better seeing eye
a) less than 6/60
b) less than 3/60
c) less than 1/60
d) not perceiving the light

156. the chart used to assess the visual acuity is

a) Ishihara Chart
b) Near Acuity chart
c) Snellen’s chart
d) Pelli-Robson chart

157. Most common ocular disease that causes blindness in Nepal is

a) High power
b) glaucoma
c) cataract
d) trauma

158. The treatment option for low vision is

a) refractive error correction
b) surgery
c) rehabilitation
d) medicines

159. The cause of deafblind condition is mostly

a) due to trauma
b) congenital
c) viewing eclipse
d) ear infection & sinusitis

160. Leukocorea is
a) childhood condition which can be seen through torch light
b) white pupil in one or both eye
c) a condition that warrants referral to eye hospital soon as possible
d) all of above

161. All of the following are the important Zernike's coefficients affecting visual quality
except
a) coma
b) spherical aberration
c) Oblique Astigmatism
d) Trefoil

162. one is false

a) Compared with shapes derived from Zernike polynomial analysis, the shapes derived
from Fourier analysis are more detailed, theoretically allowing for the measurement and
treatment of more highly aberrant corneas.
b) Myopia, hyperopia, and regular astigmatism are all lower-order (second-order)
aberrations
that can be expressed as wavefront aberrations
c) Myopia produces negative defocus while hyperopia produces positive defocus.
d) Regular (cylindrical) astigmatism produces a wavefront aberration that has
orthogonal and oblique components

163. The underlying main cause of night myopia is

a) induced accommodation
b) spherical aberration
c) Increased depth of field
d) decreased contrast sensitivity

164. Nine diopters of myopia is to be corrected for the optical zone diameter of 3
mm. The excimer laser photoablation depth should be
a) 9 micron
b) 27 micron
c) 81 micron
d) none

165. Which one of the following causes of irregular astigmatism is self-reversible?

a) Keratoconus
b) Toric IOL rotation
c) corneal warpage due to RGP
d) Pellucid marginal degeneration

166. The hallmark sign of proliferative diabetic retinopathy is

a) Rubeosis Irides
b) Cotton wool spots
c) Neovascularization
d) Micro-aneurysm

167. Advanced diabetic eye disease is a vision threatening condition most probably due
to
a) Macular Edema
b) Cataract
c) Retinal Detachment
d) retinal arterial abnormalities

168. The relative shift in refractive error is a commonly observed clinical phenomenon
in
a) HIV/AIDS
b) Rubella
c) Hypertension
d) Diabetes mellitus

169. Vitamin A deficiency dry eye is termed as

a) Keratoconjunctivitis Sicca (KCS)
b) Xerosis
c) Xerophthalmia
d) Sjogren Syndrome

170. The role of vitamin A in eye is

a) Synthesis of photoreceptor proteins
b) Maintain the transparency of ocular media
c) Facilitate in the focusing mechanism of lens
d) Act as effective anti-oxidant agent

171. One of the following is strictly a corneal sign of Vitamin A deficiency

a) Keratinization
b) Xerosis
c) Keratomalacia
d) Nyctalopia

172. The most commonly affected extra-ocular muscle in thyroid eye disease is
a) Lateral Rectus
b) Inferior Rectus
c) Medial Rectus
d) Inferior Oblique
Answer b) Inferior Rectus

173. In thyroid eye disease, all of the following can be ocular signs EXCEPT
a) Lid lag on lower gaze
b) Lid retraction
c) staring or bulging eyes
d) convergence excess
174. A 37 year old lady underwent ocular examination and there was clear signs of
anterior granulomatous uveits. Which of the following disease would you presume if
this uveitis has a systemic association?
a) Hashimoto's disease or thyroiditis
b) Diabetes Mellitus
c) Leprosy or Hansen's disease
d) Xeophthalmia

175. Which of the following bacterial species can readily and vigorously invade intact
cornea?
a) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
b) Corynebacterium diptheriae
c) Corynebacterium xerosis
d) Neisseria meningitidis

176. Which of the following correctly describes the retinal signs of hypertensive eye
disease?
a) Focal arteriolar narrowing, venous outpouchings, copper wiring
b) Arteriovenous nipping, tomato-splashed appearance, edema
c) arteriosclerosis, flame-shaped hemorrhage, optic disc swelling
d) Genaralized arteriolar narrowing, hard exudates, Hollenhorst plaques

177. All of the infections can be vertically transmitted to a newborn child EXCEPT?
a) Toxoplasmosis
b) Rubella
c) Syphillis
d) Gonorrhea

178. Feature of congenital rubella syndrome

a) cataract
b) Aniridia
c) Big eyes
d) Exotropia

179. Treatment option for diabetic eye disease

a) Medical therapy
b) surgical therapy
c) laser therapy
d) All of the above

180. HIV/AIDS most commonly affects the human eye in

a) cornea
b) lens
c) retina
d) optic nerve

181. One of the following is a binocular eye movement

a) Extortion
b) Depression
c) Dextroversion
d) Abduction

182. The primary function of superior oblique muscle is

a) Intortion
b) Depression
c) Elevation
d) Abduction

183. Sixth cranial nerve supplies which extra-ocular muscle?

a) Levator palpebral superioris
b) Lateral Rectus
c) Superior Oblique
d) Inferior Oblique

184. Magnitude of tropia can be found by

a) Cover test
b) Alternate cover test
c) Prism Cover test
d) Cover Uncover test

185. Which one is monocular phenomenon?

a) Eccentric Fixation
b) Anomalous correspondence
c) Suppression
d) Stereopsis

186. In Hirschberg corneal reflection test, each 1 mm of decentration of the corneal

reflection roughly corresponds to……..of deviation of visual axis
a) 7°
b) 15°
c) 30°
d) 45°

187. Krimsky test needs

e) Trial Frame
f) Prism
g) Maddox rod
h) Synoptophore

188. The unit of measurement of convergence is

a) Arc meter
b) Meter diopter
c) Meter angle
d) Radian diopter

189. Suppression is a sensory adaptation to avoid

a) Asthenopia
b) Aniseikonia
c) binocular rivalry
d) diplopia

190. The four prism diopter base out test is a clinical test for
a) simultaneous macular perception
b) Small suppression scotoma
c) Anomalous retinal correspondence
d) Functional Amblyopia

191. Stereopsis is tested by

a) stereogram
b) haploscope
c) Ishihara Chart
d) Wesson Card

192. Stimulus to accommodation is

a) diplopia
b) ghost image
c) blur
d) nearness

193. Accommodative facility can be clinically measured by

a) prism flippers
b) Jackson cross cylinder
c) Minus lens
d) Lens flippers

194. Age related physiological decrease in accommodation leads to

a) presbyopia
b) plus power
c) Accommodative excess
d) Pseudomyopia
 195. Gross test of convergence can be done by
a) torch and pencil
b) pencil and scale
c) Occluder and target
d) torch and occluder

196. The keratometry reading of a myopic eye of 5 Diopters is 43 Diopters and 41 Diopters
horizontally and vertically respectively. What is the expected average k-reading after refractive
surgery in general?
a) 38
b) 40
c) 41
d) 45

197. The typical irregular against-the-rule astigmatism in which the topographic

steepening nasally and temporally connects inferiorly is seen in
a) Keratoconus
b) Post-pk
c) PMD
d) Keratoglobus

198. One thing is true about the Maddox wing:

a. Certain time should be given to the patient to allow the binocular dissociation
b. This can be employed to measure the deviation both for near and distance
c. It cannot measure the latent cyclo-deviations
d. Works well even if the patient has anomalous retinal correspondence

199. Fluorophotometry is an useful measure of

a) the pattern of sodium fluorescein in RGP fitting
b) the expulsion of post-lens tear volume in Silicone hydrogels
c) tear exchange in hydrogel soft lenses
d) movement of debris and metabolites in pre-corneal tear film

200. According to Holden and Mertz criteria, hydrogel lens with the critical oxygen
transmissibility of 87.0 ± 3.3 x 1-9 (cm x ml O2) /(sec X ml x mmHG) may create the
edema of……..on overnight wear
a) 4%
b) 8%
c) 9.9%
d) 12.1%

201. In a typical commercial PAL, a progressive corridor is given by

a) length from the distance circle to the near circle
 b) length from the prism reference point to near add circle
c) length from the fitting cross to near add circle
d) length from fitting cross to the point with 85% of near add

202. A point in the horizontal line 3.0mm away from the umbilics of a progressive lens
has a 6 diopters of astigmatism. What is its rate of change in the spherical add power per
mm?
a) 0.5
b) 1
c) 1.8
d) 2

203. A bifocal has following parameters: segment depth: 4.5mm, segment drop 1.5mm,
segment width 6.5mm segment inset 2mm. What is your expected segment height for
this bifocal lens?
a) 2mm
b) 4mm
c) 6mm
d) 8mm

204. In the brown tinting of an ophthalmic lens, which element is most likely to be
used?
a) Uranium
b) Sulphur
c) Nickel
d) Cerium

205. In subtractive color system, the three primary colors are

a) Red, green, yellow
b) Cyan, Magenta, yellow
c) Red, green, blue
d) Cyan, magenta, green

206. One is false about bifocals

a) In flat-top bifocals the segment optical center is generally 5 mm below the top
b) Blended bifocals and fused bifocals terms can be used interchangeably.
c) Ribbon-segments are available only in glass
d) If the major reference point falls farther than 2 mm outward from the geometrical
center, the total inset will be out.

207. Geneva lens measure works closely on the principle of

a) Lens guage regression formula
b) Vector law of Radiuscope
c) spherometer and lensometer
d) Sagittal depth formula

208. A CR-39 prism shifts an object by 8 degrees. The apical angle of this prism should
approximate to:
a) 2 degrees
b) 4 degrees
c) 12 degrees
d) 16 degrees

209. Find out the correct tube length of a Galiliean telescope whose objective and
eyepiece are of forty and twenty diopters respectively.
a) 2cm
b) 2.5cm
c) 6.5 cm
d) 7.5 cm

210. The ophthalmic lenses did have inbuilt UV protective properties, which contact
lenses did not. Later to incorporate these properties in contact lens a chemical additive
was added, the name of which is
a) Chromatin
b) Chromosphere
c) Chromophore
d) Chromium

211. The ghost images seen in high power spectacles are the product of
a) Internal reflection
b) Spherical aberration
c) Prismatic effect
d) Jack-in-the-box phenomenon

212. A patient is advised to have a variable vertex distances for reading, intermediate
and distance viewing. Which feature of frame would you think suite her?
a) Comfort cable
b) Skull temple
c) Library temple
d) Clip-on frame

213.Corneal epithelium consists 3 layers of cells. Exclude the one which does not fall in
those layers:
a) Goblet cells
b) Superficial cells
c) Wing cells
d) Basal cells
 214. These lenses incorporate a reading or near segment located eccentrically. These
lens move on the cornea in such a way that the wearer views distance and near through
the appropriate segment at the appropriate time. To be effective, the contact lens must
translate upwards on the cornea when eyes look down to view near objects. As the
design is rotationally asymmetric, lens must remain correctly at all times. All points
make a case for
a) Concentric design contact lenses
b) Diffractive design contact lenses
c) Aspheric design contact lenses
d) Alternating vision contact lenses

215. One of the following is true

a) Lens flexure will induce a plus cylinder whose axis is aligned with flattest corneal
meridian
b) Lens flexure will induce a minus cylinder whose axis is aligned with flattest
corneal meridian
c) Lens flexure will induce a plus cylinder whose axis is aligned with steepest
corneal meridian
d) Lens flexure will induce a minus cylinder whose axis is aligned with steepest
corneal meridian

216. Nepal Eye Bank was established in

a) 1981
b) 1994
c) 1999
d) 2001

217. Endothelial decompensation occurs if endothelial cell density is below

a) 2000/mm sq
b) 1000 mm sq
c) 500 /mm sq
d) 250/ mm sq

218. coefficient of variation in specular microscopy measures which of the following

endothelial attributes:

a. Polymegathism
b. Blebs

c. Pleomorphism

d. Guttata

219. Hospital Cornea Retrieval Program from Nepal Eye Bank was started in
a) 2008
b) 2011
c) 2013
d) 2015

220. Enormous corneal sensitivity is due to the thousands of nerves entering into the
cornea. The number of nociceptors approximate to
a) 5500 /mm sq
b) 7000 /mm sq
c) 10,000 /mm sq
d) 15, 000/ mmsq

221. Which one is not a contraindication for donor tissue for a cornea transplant?
a) Hepatitis B and C
b) HIV
c) Lung Cancer
d) Syphilis

222. One of the following seems the most feasible age criteria to be a cornea donor
(death at:)
a) Birth-100 years
b) 2 years - 80 years
c) 5 years - 70 years
d) 10 years - 50 years

223. Prior to tissue retrieval the technician should wash the anterior ocular surface by
sterile phosphate buffered saline followed by 3 minutes rinsing of povidone iodine
solution whose percentage should be
a) 2%
b) 5%
c) 10%
d) 12%

224. The corneal tissue would not be worth for optical transplantation if the endothelial
count is below
a) 2000 / sq mm
b) 1500 sq mm
c) 1000 sq mm
d) 2500 sq mm

225. The first surgeon who performed the penetrating keratoplasty in Nepal is
a) Dr. Dev Narayan Shah
b) Dr. Madan Prasad Upadhyaya
c) Dr. ND Joshi
d) Dr. PC Karmacharya

226. McCarey-Kaufman medium is a tissue storage media where we can store the
corneal tissue for up to:
a) 3-4 days
b) 7-8 days
c) 14-15 days
d) 29-30 days

227. Optisol cornea storage media is enriched with

a) Mucopolysaccharides and gentamicin
b) Chondroitin sulfate and dextran
c) Glucose and benzalkonium chloride
d) Sucrose and streptomicin

228. Hypothermic storage modality of donated tissue the chamber temperature is

maintained at
a) Below 0 degree Celsius
b) 2 to 8 degree Celsius
c) 1 to 15 degree Celsius
d) -10 degree Celsius

229. DSAEK, a type of corneal lamellar graft, stands for

a) Descement Stripping Automated Epithelial Keratoplasty
b) Descement Stripping Automated Endothelial Keratoplasty
c) Directly Stimulated Alloplastic Endothelial Keratoplasty
d) Direct Stromal Automated Epi Keratoplasty

230. If a cornea retrieved from a crematorium disqualifies for optical transplant in that
the polymegathism is 80% of total endothelial. We can do all of the following to this
tissue except
a) use for tectonic graft
b) use for therapeutic purpose
 c) use for research and training
d) discard it in a safe place

231. When the whole eye ball is enucleated, we can also preserve the severed sclera in
90% ethanol after processing. The preservation period during which it is accepted for
surgical procedures
a) 15 days
b) 30 days
c) 6 months
d) 2 years

232. The poor candidate for eye donation

a) Old age
b) Bilateral cataract surgery
c) Suspected social behavior
d) All

233. The first human corneal graft was done in 1886 by

a. Edward Konrad
b. Von Hippel
c. Ludwig Rehn
d. Ebers Papyrus

234. Event of graft rejection can occur in the recipient in

a) 6 months
b) 1 years
c) 2 years
d) Throughout life

235. Which disease warrants an excellent prognosis in penetrating keratoplasty?

a) Keratocounus
b) Inactive herpetic scars
c) Keratoglobus
d) Severe dry eyes

236. Hospital Cornea Retrieval Program (HCRP) in Nepal, an initiative to collect cornea from
the general hospitals where death toll is high, was started in:
a) 2013
b) 1991
c) 1994
d) 1999
 237. One among the following is false about the Krimsky test
a) Prism base is kept opposite to the direction of deviation
b) It is used when patient has manifest deviation and fairly poor vision in one eye
c) Estimated amount of prism is kept in the front of fixating eye
d) Patient fixates at light kept at 6m distance

238. Which portion of the visible spectrum of light is particularly harmful to the retina?

a) 390-400 nm

b) 440-450 nm

c) 550-560 nm

d) 700 – 710 nm

239. which of the following materials would you least prefer to recommend for a typical
sportswear?

a) Polycarbonate

b) NXT

c) CR-39

d) Trivex

240. Which sunwear filter does not taint the perception of natural colors?

a) Amber Filters

b) Photochromatic filter

c) Green-range tints

d) Neutral density filters

241. Normal indoor office environment should have a luminance of

a) 100-200 Lux

b) 300-500 Lux

c) 600- 750 Lux

d) 800-1000 Lux

242. In Age Related Eye Disease Study Phase 2 (AREDS2), which two of the following
ingredients were replaced in place of beta-carotene used in AREDS1?

a) Vitamin C and E

b) Zinc and Copper

c) Lutean and Zeaxanthin

d) Flavinoids and Omega-3 fatty acids

243. False one is

a) The average latency of initiation of saccades is more than that of pursuits.

b) If a target trajectory is predictable then latencies for both saccades and pursuit can be
minimized

c) Pursuit eye movements have the capacity to follow targets at speeds of up to 40 degrees/second
(or faster if the trajectory is predictable)

d) saccadic eye movements have the capacity for speeds up to 100 degrees/second

Answers

1d 2b 3b
4d 5a 6b
7d 8b 9c
10 d 11 c 12 a
13 c 14 a 15 c
16 d 17 d 18 a
19 b 20 b 21 b
22 b 23 d 24 c
25 a 26 b 27 b
28 d 29 b 30 a
31 b 32 c 33 a
34 a 35 b 36 a
37 d 38 c 39 d
40 a 41 d 42 d
43 d 44 c 45 c
46 d 47 c 48 b
49 d 50 c 51 d
52 a 53 b 54 b
55 c 56 c 57 b
58 d 59 b 60 c
61 b 62 c 63 d
64 c 65 c 66 a
67 d 68 b 69 b
70 c 71 d 72 a
73 c 74 d 75 d
76 d 77 b 78 d
79 c 80 c 81 b
82 d 83 d 83 d
85 d 86 b 87 b
88 d 89 d 90 b
91 c 92 a 93 b
94 c 95 a 96 d
97 c 98 c 99 c
102
100 c 101 b c
105
103 c 104 b c
108
106 b 107 b c
111
109 b 110 c d
114
112 a 113 d c
117
115 b 116 d b
120
118c 119 b c
123
121 b 122 a d
126
124 a 125 c a
129
127 d 128 c c
132
130 b 131 b c
133 c 134 c 135
 a
138
136 d 137 b d
141
139 c 140 d c
144
142 b 1143 c d
147
145 d 146 a d
150
148 a 149 c b
153
151 d 152 c b
156
154 a 155 c c
159
157 c 158 c b
162
160 d 161 c b
165
163 b 164 b c
168
166 c 167 c d
171
169 c 170 a c
174
172 b 173 d c
177
175 a 176 c d
180
178 a 179 d c
183
181c 182 a b
186
184 c 185 a a
189
187 b 188 c d
192
190 b 191 a c
195
193 d 194 a b
198
196 a 197 c a
 201
199 b 200 a d
204
202 b 203 d c
207
205 b 206 b d
210
208 d 209 b c
213
211 a 212 c a
216
214 d 215 a b
219
217 c 218 c c
222
220 b 221 c b
225
223 b 224 a c
228
226 a 227 b b
231
229 b 230 d d
234
232 d 233 b d
237
235 a 236 a d
240
238 b 239 c d
241 b 242 c 243d
244 245 246
247 248 249
250