Don O2 masks

Ensure 100% is selected (flap pushed toward your face)

Establish crew communication (selector to mask)
A 'cabin altitude' eicas appears Check the pressurization panel to confirm the problem
(If uncontrollable in MAN)
- what are your immediate Select lower level on MCP
FLCH

actions? Idle
speedbrake
descend at Vmo/Mmo
Set MCP level to MSA or 10000'

# In the event of a dual engine

Below 30000' - 240kts Above
failure what speed should be
30000' - 300kts
flown?

##At the planning stage what +/- 1 hour before ETA RVR/visibility
are the destination weather above minima for expected approach (if
using non-precision/circling approach -
requirements? What do you do cloud ceiling must be above minima also)
if you don't meet these If these can not be met - 2 suitable
requirements? alternates are required

The safety of the aircraft and everything/everyone on board from

the moment they arrive on the aircraft to the moment they leave.
##Describe 4 general -
To act as the senior official of the company when away from base.
responsibilities of the -
To use best endevours to maintain a high standard of discipline,
commander. appearence and behaviour of the crew away from base.
-
To report any event of note via EFOS.

##On the LIDO flight plan -

Tankering for business reasons
what does (B) next to tanker
(i.e. profit)
indicate?
##What additional factor must
be added to the landing 1.15 x DRY landing distance
distance required on a WET required
runway during planning?

The maximum planned landing weight

should be at least 1500kg below maximum
##What are your landing weight. Consideration of wing ice at
considerations when tankering destination also - max 3500kg per wing on
arrival.
fuel? (Tankering for profit is not allowed if take-off
& landing is in slippery conditions)

There is a specific operating (or change to)

##What does (O) indicate on procedure to be followed - usually by flight
crew.
an MEL item? (A blue box indicates the entire
procedure can be done by pilots)

##What is the calculation to

determine the required landing
1.67 x actual landing distance.
distance from the actual
landing distance during
preflight planning?

##When does the Captain From arrival on board, to

become responsible For the leaving the aircraft at the
Aircraft, Cargo and Occupants? end of the flight.
 No weather available for
##When must 2 alternate
destination or Weather below
airfields be selected?
minima for planned approach

##Where can a list of Captains'

Part A Section 1.4
responsibilities be found?term-
167

#How do you determine the Vref80 +50 to M.76

maximum climb rate speed?

A DC hydraulic pump on a standpipe

on the left hydraulic system. Once
#How does the alternate gear
the doors are opened the gear
extension work? freefalls into position and the door
remains open

• ENG OIL PRESS light does not extinguish

when engine stabilised at idle.
#Under what conditions must • EGT fails to rise within 20 seconds of
selecting RUN.
you abort an engine start? • EGT rising rapidly or approaching limit.
• Reported tailpipe fire.
• Engine fails to accelerate normally.
 A - No time specified (Days/hours/cycles
#What are the MEL stated in MEL item remarks
rectification intervals A, B, C B - 3 days (a B looks a bit like I 3)
C - 10 days (1C looks like 10)
and D?
D - 120 days

Poor (<.25 /91) / Medium/Poor

#What are the take-off and (>.26 /92) /Medium/Poor (>.26
landing braking action /92). Note it is reduced as per
minimums? the table from performance in
flight if there is a crosswind.

#What are the visual

3 Consecutive lights (Appr,
requirements for a Cat IIIa
TDZ, C/L, Edge)
landing?

A significant difference between

#What does a flashing IRS
the last entered position or no
light mean?
position entry.

#What is the Flap 20 limit 195kts

speed?
 #What is the flap 25 limit 190kts
speed?

#What is the maximum

210/230kts??
holding speed at 6000' in
Germany?

#What is the range of rudder 7 degrees.

pedal nose wheel steering?

Apply rudder and trim.

#What should be your Disarm autothrottle.
immediate actions if you have Select CON on the Thrust mode
an engine failure in the cruise? select panel.
Manually select CON.

#When must the autopilot be

disengaged during approach 300' using V/S. 180' using
using V/S? And single channel single channel ILS
ILS approach?
 For unacceptable flightpath deviations caused by
windshear.
In general "unacceptable" = uncontrolled changes below
#When should you call 1000' AGL by any of the following -
15kts IAS
"windshear"? 500fpm vertical speed
5 degrees pitch
1 dot displacement from the glideslope
unusual thrust lever position for a long period.

#Which hydraulic systems Centre and Right

control the stabiliser on the 757

~As a new captain, when are

you permitted to allow FOs to 30 sectors or 100 hours
carry out take offs and
landings?

Uncommanded autopilot
~Describe Boeing bulletin
engagement, flight mode and
DHL-10
speed changes.

Autopilot & Autothrottle -

disengage
~Describe the recall actions for
Flight directors (both) - off
unreliable airspeed.
Establish normal pitch and
power for the phase of flight
 ~During an engine crossbleed
start what power setting should Approximately 65% N3
be selected on the operating
engine?

~During descent why does the

VNAV plan for a default target To allow for unknown
speed 10kts below the normal tailwinds.
transition speed?

Until one of the following occurs;

~During engine start, new Engine reaches idle RPM
caution and advisory alerts are The start is aborted
inhibited until when? 2 minutes after starter switch
engagement

FO - 2 min (or 4min extended)

~During engine start, what is
start cycle.
the purpose of the FO's and
CPT - Fuel in to light up (20
Capt's stopwatch timing?
seconds)

~During GA what does the Ground track at time of

AFDS roll mode command? engagement.
 ~During high engine power
LP compressor
operations what is the source
for engine bleed air?

~During landing what happens

Auto speedbrakes deploy and
when the thrust reversers are
autothrottle disconnects.
pulled aft into the inter-lock?

~Engine anti-ice provides

Engine inlet cowl.
protection to which part of the
engine?

~Following an engine failure The pitch commands the

on takeoff at V1, what happens greater of V2 or the speed at
to the AFDS pitch command? liftoff.

If aircraft >15kts below target speed to

~For a non-entered headwind, maintain path = from IDLE/HOLD to SPD
how is VNAV PATH
If aircraft is <16kts from Vmo/Mmo =
maintained?
VNAV SPD
 ~For all aircraft except G-
BMRJ what is the single engine 4.5% (300fpm)
gross climb gradient at
MATOW?

~For an OAT of 42 degrees,

At least 1 pack or ground
what is the minimum level of
cooling equivalent.
cooling required?

~How are EICAS warning By clearing the fault.

alerts cancelled?

Flap selected 1 or greater(to

~How does the auto-slat
20)= midrange slat
system operate?
Flap 25/30 = Land slat

The aircraft starts a VNAV economy

~How does VNAV control the descent descent at approximately
1250fpm. Once the descent is established
descent after DES NOW has the A/T mode changes to THR HOLD to
been activated? allow the pilot to adjust the rate of
descent. Pitch mode is VNAV SPD.
 ~How is a failure of the No Localiser and a yellow line
Localiser ground transmitter through LOC
displayed? (aircraft fault = yellow box)

~How is aileron trim Trim indicator on the control

indicated? column

Using a higher temperature

~How is assumed temperature
than ambient, providing a
takeoff thrust limited?
maximum derate of 25%.

Using the highest 2nm x 2nm

~How is MSA calculated on the
grid MORA box within 10nm of
LIDO flightplan?
track

~How is the ground handling Only on the ground from either

bus powered? the APU or external power
 ~How long are the digital
During takeoff or go-around
readouts of EGT, N1, N2 and
they are inhibited for 5
N3 inhibited from turning
minutes.
amber?

~How long does IRS full Approximately 10 minutes and

allignment take? varies with latitude.

~If a fault is detected in the

reverser system in flight when After landing.
is the message displayed to the
crew?

~If an autopilot or flight

director is first turned on in V/S & HDG (or ATT if >5
flight which AFDS modes will degrees of bank).
be displayed?

Fire extinguishers
Spar and APU fuel shutoff valves
~Name any three items CPT and FO clock
Fuel guage
powered by the hot battery bus. Ground fuelling system
IRS emergency power
Parking brake valve
~On approach using V/S what
300'
is the minimum autopilot
disengagement height?

~On the ground with the APU APU will cooldown and
running, what will happen if shutdown. There may be no
the battery is switched off? APU fire detection.

By pressing GA or turning the

~Once captured, how can LOC
FD and disconnecting to
and GS be de-activated?
autopilot.

Employees of DHL, subsiduaries and associates.

3rd party European AOC contractors.
~Under what conditions is the CAA.

Commander permitted to carry And approved by NOC (network operations

passengers? control)/NCG (network control group)

And, able to use self-help exits

~What action should crew

Reduce thrust to mid position
always take before switching off
to prevent exceeding limits.
an EEC or ELC?
 To calculate thrust limits and settings or follow
FMC thrust settings.

~What are the 4 basic functions Detect and transmit autothrottle failures.
of the TMC?
Actuate thrust levers.

Generate the fast slow pointer on the ADI.

System alerts (Time critical warning,

~What are the different alerts Warning, Caution and Advisory)
generated by the warning Comunication alerts
system? Status information
Maintainance information

Fire bell and master warning

~What are the indications of a
FWD, AFT or MAIN CARGO
cargo fire?
light illuminates

1. A sufficient quantity of fuel is carried for the

intended flight with a safe margin for contingencies
~What are the primary 4 2. The range capability of the aircraft is fully
exploited.
objectives of the DHL fuel 3. The uneconomic carriage of fuel is minimised.
policy? 4. The aircraft should not be delayed by requests for
unnecessary extra fuel over that provided by the
operational flight plan.

~What condition would cause Forward equipment cooling

an EICAS message 'EQPT system being inoperative
OVHT'? (supply fan falure).
 Automatically on left engine
~What conditions will cause a shutdown or when left engine-
PTU to operate? driven hydraulic pump
pressure is low.

Loads are automatically shed

~What happens during flight if
by priority until the load is
electrical loads exceed the
within limits, starting with the
power available?
utility busses.

~What happens to the EPR

It turns magenta.
reference bug when AFDS
VNAV mode is engaged?

Reserve fuel in the right hydraulic system

is used via right electrical hydraulic pump
~What happens when the
(independant of normal pump switch
reserve brake switch is pressed position) and isolates pump output only to
the normal brakes.

Information to left and centre

~What information is provided symbol generator.
by the left IRS? Left VSI
Right RMI
~What is indicated by MEL This does not indicate a system
item N/A failure.

~What is the approximate

21000kg
maximum quantity of fuel in
the centre tank?

~What is the crosswind limit 30kts

for takeoff on a wet runway?

Fuel is shut off to the APU

~What is the effect of pulling APU Bleed valve is closed
the APU fire switch? APU generator is tripped off
The extinguisher is armed

~What is the EGT limit for 850 degrees for 5 minutes

takeoff?
~What is the function of the
Inhibits GLIDESLOPE caution
ground proximity glide slope
below 1000'
inhibit switch?

~What is the highest latitude

87 degrees North and South
that the navigation and display
system can be used?

~What is the maximum

allowable depth of standing 12mm
water for a contaminated
runway?

~What is the maximum

allowable fuel load in the 900kg
centre tank with less than full
wings?

~What is the maximum

120 degrees
intercept angle for localiser
capture?
 ~What is the maximum 30kts
permissable taxi speed?

~What is the minimum duct

30psi
pressure for an engine ground
pneumatic start?

~What is the minimum 2 x ADC, Main altimeter

equipment required to enter 1 x Autopilot, altitude alerting
RVSM airspace? and transponder

-45 degrees or >3 degrees

~What is the minimum fuel
above fuel freezing point,
temperature?
whichever is higher.

~What is the minimum oil There is no minimum quantity.

quantity for flight?
 ~What is the minimum oil -40 degrees
temperature for engine start?

~What is the minimum

turnaround time for a BTMS 45 minutes
value of 5 or if the 'BRAKE
TEMP' light is on?

~What is the normal level of

fire cover required for the 757 CAT 6, and 5 for alternates (4
and what can this be reduced for ETOPS).
to?

~What is the normal minimum

46m
width required for a 180 degree
turn on the runway?

~What is the power source for TRUs from main AC busses.

the DC electrical system?
~What is the recommended N3 25% or Max motoring (min
speed for starter engagement? 15%)

~What is the vertical FL290 - FL410

dimension of MNPS airspace?

~What is the vertical range of

7000' above to 2700' below
the TCAS display when selected
(N = 2700' either side)
to above?

~What is the wind limit for 40kts

operating the cargo door?

The main battery charger

~What items are powered by The APU battery charger
the ground service bus? Miscelaneous cabin and system
loads
 ~What should you always
Flap 20, Vref 20 for landing
consider anytime full power is
and flap 5 for go around.
not available for landing?

~What will cause the BRAKE BTMS of =>5

TEMP light to illuminate?

~What would cause the amber If speedbrake is deployed below

speedbrake light to illuminate? 800' RA or land flap is selected.

~What would cause the L or R Engine fuel filter is blocked and

ENG FUEL FILTER EICAS approaching a level sufficient to
message to be displayed? cause filter bypass.

~What would cause the

primary and secondary engine After CRT failure.
indications to display in
compacted format?
 If >150M RVR, the first RVR can be
~When are commanders assessed by the Captain.

allowed to 'self assess' RVR for When the RVR is not reported and they
take off? can confirm the visibility along the runway
is better than required.

~When do safety reports have Before the finish of a duty.

to be submitted by?

~When does the fast slow Following a selection of any

pointer appear on the ADI? mode other than T/O, T/O.

When the planned flight is less than 6 hours

AND
~When is a destination 2 seperate runways are available at destination
AND
alternate not required? At ETA +/- 1 hour =
Visibility >5km
Ceiling >2000'(or circling +500' if higher)

~When is it permissable to use Providing the approach is

LNAV during a non-precision selected from the FMC and not
approach? self-constructed.
~When is operation at reduced
On a contaminated runway.
thrust not permitted for
takeoff?

~When is power supplied to When an engine is running.

heat probes? (TAT when airbourne)

>3mm of standing water or

~When is the runway
equivalent of slush/snow
considered to be
covering more than 25% of the
contaminated?
runway surface area.

~When operating P-RNAV

Within 1nm 95% of the time
what is the minimum required
track keeping accuracy?

~When resetting the MCP

altitude window for a cruise
If the altitude change is 4000'
descent when will the new
or less.
altitude be displayed in the
FMC scratchpad?
 ~When should flap 25 be If approach bug speed >150kts
considered for landing?

~When using the alternate flap Slats are fully extended when
system what happens when flap 20 is selected on the
Flap 20 is selected? alternate system.

~When will you see TCAS

Within 6 NM and 1200', but
traffic as 'Proximate' (solid
>40 seconds away
diamond)?

~Where is the fuel temperature Right main tank

measured from?

ENG FUEL VAL

~Which EICAS messages are
ENG STARTER
not inhibited during engine
STARTER CUTOUT
start?
ENG SHUTDOWN
 ~Which hydraulic systems
Centre and Right.
power the stabilizer trim
control?

~Which valves are controlled Engine and Spar fuel valve

by the fuel control switches?

~With a 2 step de-icing

At the beginning of the second
procedure, when does the
step.
holdover time start?

~With a failure of the rudder

By automatically
ratio system how is structural
depressurising the left
protection provided to the
hydraulic system actuator.
rudder?

~With Cabin AUTO 1 or 2

The outflow valve automatically
selected, what happens if the
closes.
cabin altitude exceeds 11000'?
~With the main wheels on the
ground and the struts At 12 degrees pitch.
extended, at what pitch will a
tailstrike occur?

~With wing anti-ice selected on EPR idle becomes approach

how is EPR affected? idle. Max EPR is also reduced.

At what distances from the far

3000' - alternating red and
threshold do the colour of the
white. 1000' - all red
centreline lights change?

At what point would you call +10kts or -5kts

"Speed" during an approach?

Before what point must your

Top of descent.
predicted fuel be above CMR at
arrival?
 Below what visibility is it
400m
considered a low visibility take-
off?

Compared to the normal No asymmetry protection

system what are the differences Load relief not available
or limitations of the alternate Manual slat (not auto)
Flap/Slat system? Slow to operate

A declared take-off alternate

400nm
should be within what
distance?

Define the 2nd climb Segment Gear retraction to minimum

flap retraction altitude

Define the 3rd climb Segment. Acceleration to Flaps UP.

Define the 4th climb Segment Final climb to 1500 ft above
reference zero.

During an engine start what

The start valve has failed to
would a L or R STARTER
close automatically.
CUTOUT?

During an engine start when

47% N3
does the start selector normally
return to AUTO?

During an ILS approach with

Auto nose up trim.
LAND2 annunciated, what
happens at 330'RA?

During flight what is the order Respective IDG

of priority to power the APU
electrical busses? Other IDG
 When the wheels have spun up
During landing when does and the thrust is at idle.
autobraking occur? Braking is limited until pitch is
<1 degree

During normal operation what

Right main bus.
is the power source for the
Ground service bus?

During start, when does the red When the engine is stabilized.
max start limit line disappear?

During takeoff when is the 80kts to 400ft or 20 seconds.

master caution inhibited?

During takeoff when is the Nose gear extension (rotation)

master warning ingibited? to 400 feet or 20 seconds.
 Following a sequence of
reduced rest and extended No
FDP, may you reduce rest
again?

For a contaminated runway,

what is the maximum 12mm of water or 6cm of dry
precipitation depth allowable snow.
for takeoff?

Either by pressing GA button or

How can you change from
turning the flight directors and
LOC/GS mode?
autopilot off.

Using a table in Part A section

How do you calculate 8 (only for 800m vis, there is
RVR/CMV from visibility? no RVR available AND, not to
be used for take-off)

Using the Left hydraulic system through

How is antiskid provided antiskid valves - Only provides antiskid to
through the alternate braking laterally paired wheels.
(Automatically available if Right hydraulic
system?
pressure to the brake system is low)
 How is the LIDO MSA value MSA within 10NM of planned
calculated? track.

The most limiting of -

The limit weight at which the aircraft can
How is the takeoff field limit achieve 35ft at the end of TODA with one
engine inoperative (15ft WET).
calculated? 115% of the distance to 35ft all engines
operating, which also allows you to stop
within ASDA.

How long does the fast IRS 30 seconds

allignment take?

How long may a FDP be

3 hours
extended prior to the start of a
single sector flight?

How many approach attempts

3, unless there is a significant
may be made before a
improvement in weather.
diversion?
 How many broken locks are 1
allowed per ULD?

How many take-offs and

landings must a captain have 3 as PF
done within 90 days to remain
current?

ALL Captains are able to

How may a Category A airfield
operate there with the relevant
be described?
area competency complete.

How often should crews select Every 400nm

an en route alternate?

How would you conduct a Maintain MSA until within the

visual approach at night? defined area for circling.
If a report is delayed by 4 hours
The original report time.
- when does the FDP
commence?

If a V2 turn is mandated Where V2 turns are prescribed

during an EFP - what bank then the use of 15° angle of
angle should be flown? bank is mandatory.

While it may be legal, guidance

If an aircraft has multiple MEL must be sought from DHL
items which allow for dispatch operations regarding the
- what are your considerations? degradation in safety (if
applicable) From Part A.

If at any point after top of

Yes - as long as you are
descent may you continue to
confident a safe landing can be
your planned destination when
assured.
fuel drops below CMR?

You have lost incoming air for

If Both PACK OFF lights are pressurisation - descent to
illuminated what does this 10000' or MSA. Increase speed
mean? to 290kts and reduce cockpit
heat sources to aid cooling.
If called in from standby within The sum of the time spent on
the first 6 hours - what is the standby plus the FDP as found
allowable duty? in Part A 7.13

If non flying duties are carried The time spent on other duties
out before commencing a flight, shall be included in the
are there any implications? subsequent FDP.

If not operating on the DHL

night variation how many night maximum 3 in a row and 4 in 7
duties can you do in a row? consecutive days.
And in 7 days?

If on standby and called out The max duty is 6 hours plus

after 6 hours - what is your the max FDP found in Part A
maximum available duty? 7.13

If operating a split duty with a 2.5 hours. (When resting for >3
5 hour break - how long may hours you may extend the duty
you extend the duty? by half of that split rest period)
 If the company request you
divert for commercial reasons No. The request must be
after top of descent may you do received before top of descent.
it?

If there is a ACCESS DOOR or

No. Pressurisation ensures the
CARGO DOOR Eicas and the
door is safe.
Px is normal, is that a problem?

If there is a CARGO DOOR or

ACCESS DOOR Eicas with the Set cabin alt to 9500' to reduce
Px abnormal? What are your differential.
considerations?

If you are given a direct routing

Jeppersen en route chart 1000'
where would you find your
on terrain/obstacles below
minimum flight altitude? what
5000' 2000' on
clearance does this give you
terrain/obstacles above 5000'
from obstacles?

If you get L ENG VIB and L

Shutting down the Left engine.
OIL FILT what will this result
in?
 If you have an unresponsive
Engine limit or Surge or Stall
engine, which checklist should
checklist
you call for?

Stby Altimeter, Altitude, speed and ILS(Centre)

Standby engine instruments

If you lose both AC busses - Only right IRS after 5 minutes

Left VHF
For 90 minutes
What will you have left and for Note -
Manual cabin altitude pressurisation
how long? Manual speedbrake
Partial antiskid
No flap indicator.

Centre autopilot
If you lose the Centre hydraulic Left autopilot stab trim (use
system what have you lost? right autopilot)
A spoiler panel on each wing

Some pitot heat probes

If you lose the Left AC bus, All autopitots
what will be inoperative? Left and Centre flight directors
Flap indicator

Left autopilot
Some spoilers
If you lose the Left hydraulic Rudder Ratio
system what have you lost? Left thrust reverser
(PTU needed for normal operation of gear
and flaps)
 Some pitot heat probes
If you lose the Right AC bus,
Right flight director
what will be inoperative?
Right autopilot

Right autopilot
Right stab trim
If you lose the Right hydraulic
Autobrake
system what have you lost?
Some spoiler panels
Right thrust reverser

Declare a mayday Fly at

In the event of a bomb warning
M.78/290kts Set present cabin
in flight - what may you expect
Alt in the landing alt window
to do as part of the emergency
Divert to the nearest suitable
check-list
airfield.

In the event of a lightning Contact Operations as soon as

strike what should you do? possible - From B3

Yes (unless specified!). All SID departures are

In the event of an engine included in the calculation of the EFP. If the engine
fails when already established in the SID then a turn
failure while following a SID the nearest way to the Engine Failure Holding point
can be performed. For SID departures surrounded by
may you proceed to the high terrain where this assurance can not be provided
designated EFP holding point? then a special EFP is designed and published (e.g.
two-step procedure in Nice).
 Check the cabin altitude to confirm the
In the event of CABIN
problem If the cabin altitude is
ALTITUDE, what are your uncontrollable - Thrust levers - Idle Extend
actions after donning masks speed brakes (if structural integrity is in
doubt - limit speed) Descend at Mmo/Vmo if
and establishing coms? uncoordinated descent - squawk 7700

Is positioning counted as duty? It is counted as DUTY but not

Flight duty.

LNAV will engage within what

2.5nm
lateral distance of the active
route leg?

The operator may permit a one-

May an MEL item be extended?
time extension on B, C and D
items.

Only exceptionally and only

May the commander extended
when the delay becomes
FDP following a reduced rest?
apparent during the last sector.
 Regulations prohibit scheduling
take-off with a V1 less than the
Must V1 be lesser or greater
minimum V1 for control on the
than Vmcg?
ground, V1(MCG). Check when V1
is 117kts or less!

Aborted engine start.

Engine fire, severe damage or separation
Name all of the QRH checks Dual engine failure.
Cabin alt or rapid de-pressurisation.
with memory items. Engine limit, surge or stall.
Airspeed unreliable
and Manoeuvres

• A systematic and documented approach

• Senior management commitment plus front-line engagement
• Safety accountabilities and responsibilities for all employees
Name some of the guiding • Effective safety reporting procedures
• An open and just safety culture
principles of the DHK safety • A proactive risk based approach
• Review and investigation of safety occurrences and sharing of lessons

management system (SMS) learned

• Provision of safety training and communications
• Continuous improvement through measuring performance and
review.

On the LIDO flight plan - what

Volume (i.e. no fuel available /
does (V) next to tanker
quick turn around etc.)
indicate?

On the LIDO flight plan, at the

Callsign and date.
top left - what does
BCS4299/23 indicate?
On the LIDO flight plan, what
The date and time of
does 'COMP 23 APR 2105'
computing.
indicate?

Under what circumstances may

an unstable approach be It can't - an immediate go-
continued below 1000' IMC or around should be executed.
500' VFR?

Take-off on wet ice is NOT to

Under what circumstances may
be attempted whatever the
you take-off on wet ice?
reported braking action.

Until what point is an Until 2 seconds after roll-out is

automatic go-around available? activated.

Up to what altitude can the

pneumatic pressure 17000'.
APU provide pneumatic
electrical power - service ceiling
pressure and electrical power?
 Up to which altitude can you
To the top of the aircraft flight
use the APU for electrical
envelope.
power?

What action signifies that a

Entry of a staff number into
crew member is declaring
ACARS or the tech log.
themselves fit to fly?

Part A Part B Part B4

(performance) Part B8
What are the 7 "grey books"
(CDL/FRM) Part B9 (MEL)
that should be on the aircraft?
Part B12 (Boeing operating
manual) & Part C.

What are the absolute limits of 9%-39% (below 90t)

757 CofG in terms of MAC?

Autopilot and Autothrottle - disconnect

What are the actions by the PF Max thrust
Pull to 20degrees and level wings
in the event of a GPWS pull up Ensure speedbrake lever is down
warning? If terrain collision is likely - Pull to stick
shaker
 Missed App climb gradient.
Brake cooling - possible tyre
What are the considerations for
deflation. Flap 30/25 due to
an overweight landing?
high Vref Autoland not certified
Use max reverse

5 minutes at low power. With a

What are the engine warm-up
turnaround <3hours - 3
limits?
minutes at low power.

Warning
What are the four levels of Caution
system alert messages? Advisory
Status

2 auto lands in the preceding 6

What are the LVO recency months using CAT II/III
requirements? procedures (one of which must
be in a simulator)

What are the maximum

2000kg for fuel
allowable last minute changes
500kg for anything else
to a loadsheet?
 What are the maximum Payload +/-500kg Fuel +/-
payload and fuel LMCs 2000kg

Autothrottle arm switch - OFF

What are the memory items for
Thrust lever (affected side) -
'Engine limit or Surge or Stall'
Retard until engine within
checklist
limits or Idle.

Start selectors BOTH - FLT(twist all the

way right). Thrust levers BOTH - Idle. Fuel
What are the memory items for control switches BOTH - Cut-off, then Idle,
a dual engine failure? Monitor the start (repeat if necessary) use
placard engine limit by standby engine
instruments for start.

What are the memory items for Fuel control switch (affected
Aborted Engine Start? side) - Cut-off.

The lowest requirement (50C and 5

What are the O2 requirements occupants) for dispatch is 1155psi. DHL
on the 757, and where can they normally dispatch with at least 1400psi.
Part B section 1.14 (dispatch) Part B
be found?
section 10.3.11 (usage at 25000')
 If it is a Cat II/III approach - weather
What are the planning weather for Cat I, Cat I - Non-precision
requirements when selecting an minima (including cloud ceiling),
alternate? Non-precision - Non-precision +200'
and 1000M, Circling - Circling

•Light to moderate turbulence

•Static discharge around the
What are the possible
wind shield (St. Elmo's fire)
indications of Ice crystal icing?
•Smell of sulphur •Smell of
ozone •Humidity increase

LVPs in force Approved lighting - High

What are the requirements for intensity runway centreline lighting 15m,
edge lighting 60m (or less) A 90m visual
take-off in 125m RVR? segment (6 CL lights @ 15m spacing) All
relevant RVR is 125m Crews are trained

40' between altimeters. 75'

What are the RVSM altimeter
between altimeters and
difference limits?
elevation

What are the speed brake Not to be used with flap 25 or

limitations? 30
 What are the standard and Standard = 45min. Home base
home base report times? = 60min

What are the visual 3 Consecutive lights (Appr,

requirements for a Cat II TDZ, C/L, Edge) + lateral
landing? element.

What are the visual

1 CL light.
requirements for a Cat IIIb
approach with a DH?

What causes the landing gear Gear not down and locked with
configuration warning to either land flap or <800ft rad
trigger? alt.

What clearance do Minimum 1000' within 10nm of intended

Flight Altitudes (MFAs) give? track
What conditions will cause the
Warnings at 10000' and they
'Cabin Altitude' warnings to
will cease when the cabin
occur and when will they
altitude drops below 8500'
cease?

Centre fuel pumps off with >600KG

What conditions would cause a in the Centre tank
'FUEL CONFIG' Eicas to be >816KG imbalance between Left and
displayed? Right wings
<1000KG in either Left or Right tank

What conditions would cause a Low oil pressure or high oil

L or R GEN DRIVE Eicas? temperature.

Credit is given for one reverser, and a

What credit is given for use of screen height of 15 ft, for WET runway
take-offs. On DRY runway take-offs no
reverser in performance credit is given for reverser. Landing on
calculation? slippery and contaminated runways
requires both reverser to be available.

What does 'Brake Source' light Both Normal and Alternate

indicate? brake system pressure is low.
 What does "(M)/(O)" in the Indicates (M) and/or (O)
MEL indicate? options available.

There is a specific maintenance

What does (M) in the MEL procedure to follow when
refer to? specified - Usually by
maintenance.

When a crew member has spent

What does acclimatised mean? 3 consecutive local nights on
the ground within a time zone
which is 2 hrs wide.

Visibility of 10km No cloud

What does CAVOK indicate? below 5000' (or MSA if higher)
No significant weather in the
vicinity

A flight control system is fail-operational if,

What does fail-operational
in the event of a failure below alert height,
mean when referring to the the approach, flare and landing, can be
flight control system during completed automatically. In the event of a
failure, the automatic landing system will
landing? operate as a fail-passive system.
 A flight control system is fail-passive if, in the
event of a failure, there is no significant out-of-
What does fail-passive mean trim condition or deviation of flight path or
when refering to the flight attitude but the landing is not completed
automatically. For a fail-passive automatic flight
control system during landing? control system the pilot assumes control of the
aeroplane after a failure.

The appropriate Generator

What does L/R GEN DRIVE drive has disconnected because
Eicas signify? of either high oil temperature
or low oil pressure.

What does NCD on a METAR No cloud detected

indicate?

one of the following -• A turn is required at a set

DME distance from a given beacon or altitude
What does NON-STD mean other than 1500'. • Maintenance of V2 is required
during the initial turn. • A turn can be required at
when referring to an EFP? a prescribed angle of bank and speed limitation,
for instance, "Maintain 25 degrees angle of bank
and max 160 kts."

What does R/L ENG ANTI-ICE The appropriate valve is not in

Eicas indicate? the commanded position.
What does the CMR fuel on the Alternate 1 fuel + final reserve
LIDO flight plan indicate?

What does the Eicas 'Spoilers' One or more spoiler pairs are
indicate? inoperative.

What does the Eicas 'Stab Trim' The trim is operating at half
indicate? rate.

What does WS on a metar refer Wind shear

to?

CAT 6 for destinations (2 fire

What fire cover is required for
tenders) CAT 5 for alternates (2
DHK (757)?
tenders - less foam)
 Right Pack and Recirc fan are turned off.
What happens when the cargo Left Pack goes to low flow
Valves supplying air to the cargo area are
fire switch is pressed? closed
The aircraft gradually depressurizes.

An electric driven pump

What happens when the
activates using reserve fluid
Reserve brake switch is
and isolates it to the normal
pressed?
brakes.

Fuel is shutoff to the respective

engine along with hydraulic
What happens when you pull
fluid. The bleed and the
an engine fire switch?
generator are turned off. The
extinguisher is armed.

A balanced field length exists

when the take-off distance
What is a balanced field?
available is equal to the accelerate
stop distance available, i.e.
Clearway is equal to Stopway.

What is a category B One which requires a BRIEF to

aerodrome? be read.
 One which requires a CHECK
What is a Category C
flight or simulator to operate
aerodrome?
there.

What is a local night? A period of 8 hours between

2200L and 0800L

What is a night duty? When any part of the duty falls

between 0200 and 0459

What is an early start? A duty which commences

between 0500-0659

A period free from all duties

What is classed as a day off?
which should include 2 local
nights.
 A value (equivalent to an RVR)
What is converted met which is derived from the
visibility? reported meteorological
visibility. See Part A section 8

One or more of these occur:

What is indicated by FLT DECK •A fault in the zone
TEMP? temperature controller.
•The trim air switch is off.

What is indicated by R/L PACK A pack valve is closed.

OFF?

The length of the runway which

is declared available by the
What is landing distance
appropriate Authority and
available (LDA)?
suitable for the ground run of
an aeroplane landing.

What is Part B section 4 Performance

 What is Part B section 7, and Loading - all aspects of loading
what information will you find the aircraft, including dealing
there? with spills, ground damage etc.

Reference Zero (RZ) is defined

What is Reference Zero (RZ)? as an horizontal plane 35 ft
vertically beneath the aeroplane
at the end of the TODR.

Airplane general, emergency

What is section 1 in the QRH, equipment, doors, windows.
and why? Because the sections are
alphabetical.

What is the 757 maximum 350kts / M.84

airspeed?

What is the 757 maximum 89992kg

landing weight?
 3 hours - if the sector is more than
What is the absolute maximum 7 hours (normally 2 hours).
that a FDP may be extended However, in an emergency
and in what circumstance? situation - completely at the
commanders discression.

What is the absolute minimum 200M

for a Cat IIIa approach?

What is the absolute minimum 300M

RVR for a Cat II approach?

What is the absolute minimum 75M

RVR for a Cat IIIb approach?

125M /125M (if relevant for

What is the absolute minimum
RTO) /125m (if relevant for
RVR for take-off?
RTO)
 The length of the take-off run available plus
the length of stopway, if such stopway is
What is the Accelerate Stop declared available by the appropriate
Distance Available (ASDA)? Authority and is capable of bearing the
weight of the aeroplane under the prevailing
operating conditions.

What is the alert height on a 200'

Cat II/III approach?

What is the APU start duty 3 attempts/starts within 60

cycle? minutes.

What is the APU starter duty 3 starts in 60 minutes

cycle limit?

What is the bird strike 313kts below 8000'

protection speed?
What is the criteria for a TCAS Traffic within TCAS collision
RA? airspace within 20-30 seconds

What is the criteria for a TCAS Traffic within TCAS collision

TA? airspace within 35-40 seconds

What is the crosswind limit for 30kts (B3 Ops info)

takeoff on a wet runway?

The surface is not dry, but when the

moisture on it does not give it a shiny
What is the definition of a
appearance. For performance purposes a
damp runway? Damp Runway may be considered to be
DRY.

What is the definition of a dry A dry runway is one which is

runway neither wet nor contaminated
What is the definition of APS Sum of manufacturer's empty
weight? weight and operator's items.

What is the definition of ZFW? APS + payload

Normal Cycle 2 minutes on then run down

to zero N3 then 2 minutes on then run
What is the engine starter duty down to zero N3 then 2 minutes on then
cycle? run down to zero N3 and allow to cool for
15 minutes. Extended Cycle 4 minutes on
then 15 minutes cooling

What is the Flap 1 limit speed? 240kts

What is the Flap 5 limit speed? 220kts

What is the Flap 15 limit speed? 210kts

What is the Flap 30 limit 162kts

speed?

What is the max EGT for start, 570 Start, Ground and Flight.
ground and flight? And take- 850 Takeoff . 795 Max
off? Max cont? continuous.

What is the maximum altitude FL200

for flap extension?

What is the maximum blood

0.2 mg per ml
alcohol limit when reporting
for duty?
What is the maximum depth of
12mm - Water / Wet snow /
precipitation allowable for
Slush. 60mm - Dry snow
take-off?

What is the maximum fuel

816Kg
imbalance between left and
right main tanks?

What is the maximum fuel in

900Kg (that PLUS ZFW must
the centre tank with less than
be less than max ZFW)
full fuel in the wings?

What is the maximum fuel load 34T... Wings = 13T. Centre =

of the 757-200? 21T

What is the maximum number

7 Days
of consecutive duties before 2
days off?
What is the maximum number 7 - 55 (extendable to 60 with
of duty hours in 7, 14 and 28 unforeseen delays) 14 - 95 28 -
days? 190

What is the maximum number

of sectors when operating on 2 sectors - night one. 4 sectors
the first night of a variation on other nights
trip?

What is the maximum

25%
permissible EPR thrust
reduction?

What is the maximum

816kg
permitted fuel imbalance
between left and right wings??

What is the maximum take-off

15kts
and landing tailwind
component?
What is the maximum weight 5000kg - More than 5000kg
difference between LIDO and above and below this a new
actual? fuel plan is required.

What is the minimum autopilot 500' AGL

engagement height?

Poor - Medium/Poor - Medium/Poor

What is the minimum braking or
action for takeoff or landing in <.25 - >.26 - >.26
still wind? or
91 - 92 - 92

What is the minimum distance

and time between a departed 5nm 2min
"heavy" and a departing 757s
due to wake turbulence?

-45C or 3 degrees above

What is the minimum fuel
freezing point - whichever is
temperature?
higher.
What is the minimum number 8 days off
of days off in 28 days?

What is the minimum oil

-10degrees
temperature at which you may
advance the thrust levers?

What is the minimum oil -40degrees

temperature for starting?

What is the minimum oil

-40C For start and -10C for
temperature for starting? And
advancing thrust.
for advancing the throttles?

What is the minimum rest

34 Hours
period to break a series of
consecutive nights?
 12 hours or at least as long as the
preceding duty period whichever is greater
What is the minimum rest (this may be reduced by 1 hour
period? exceptionally - if the time spent in a taxi is
less than 30 minutes AND the hotel room
is available for 10 hours)

What is the minimum time

8 Hours
between drinking alcohol and
starting a duty?

What is the minimum width

46m
required for a 180degree turn
on the ground?

The Net Take-off Fight Path

What is the Net Take-off Fight extends from reference zero to
Path a point 1500 ft above reference
zero.

2 Minutes then N3 to Zero

What is the normal duty cycle
3 times then 15 Minute cool
of the engine starter?
down period.
What is the range of glideslope
3.1degrees - 2.5degrees
angle in which an autoland is
permitted?

Air comes from Left and Right

What is the source of flight
packs, prior to the mix
deck air and how is potential
manifold. Air is supplied at a
smoke prevented from entering
higher pressure than air to the
the flight deck?
cabin.

What is the speed limit for 270kts/.82M

normal gear extension?

What is the time limit for full 5 minutes

takeoff thrust?

What is the title of Part A Qualification requirements.

section 5?
What is the title of Part A Crew health precautions.
section 6?

What is the title of Part A Flight time limitations.

section 7?

What is the title of Part B Normal Procedures.

section 2?

What is the title of Part B Supplementary normal

section 2a? procedures.

What is the title of Part B Abnormal and emergency

section 3? procedures. 3.3 is the QRH(B3)
What is the title of Part B Flight planning.
section 5?

What is the title of Part B8 Configuration deviation list.

What is the title of the B9? MEL - minimum equipment

list.

What is the turbulent air M.78/290kts

penetration speed?

What is the usual taxiway 30m. 15/7m on bends.

lighting spacing?
 Medium; however it is classed
What is the wake turbulence
as Heavy if preceding (see Jepp
category for the 757-200?
text - ATC - Germany)

What is the wingspan of the 38 Meters

757-200?

The length of the take-off run

What is TODA?
available plus the length of the
clearway available.

The length of runway which is

declared available by the
What is TORA?
appropriate Authority and
suitable for the ground run of
an aeroplane take-off

What is your first action in the Don O2 masks (On and 100%)
event of CABIN ALTITUDE?
 What procedure should be
CAMI Confirm Action Monitor
followed when executing FMC
Intervene (if necessary)
mode changes?

Taxi Trip Contingency (5% of trip,3% of trip with

en route alternate or 320kg (5 min at 1500')
What separate elements of Fuel Alternate - including missed approach, climb,
cruise and approach at alternate Final reserve -
are required for a flight? (30min at 1500') Additional fuel (to cover the extra
requirement in the event of an engine failure at the
critical point) Extra fuel

All information must be taken into account including weather,

What should you do if you are traffic and other available aerodromes in deciding whether to divert
so as not to use the final reserve fuel. A flight may not continue if
en route and your fuel at BEFORE top of descent if if the fuel at destination will be below
CMR.
destination is going to be less If a change to any clearance may result in landing below Final
reserve - "Minimum fuel" should be broadcast.
than CMR? "MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY FUEL" is to be declared when the
calculated fuel at arrival is less than final reserve.

Use flaps 30 and fly at Vref 30 on final

approach aim to touchdown at 12 degrees
What should you use as your nose up parallel to waves on the windward
ditching technique side. (Speed brakes down, Gear up, packs
off, cabin alt mode select - MAN with
outflow closed)

What thrust is available to the 37400lbf

RB211-535C engine?
What width is required to turn 46m
the 757?

What would an Eicas of L or R The respective start valve has

ENG STARTER indicate? failed to open.

What would cause the 'LOW

<1000KG in either tank
FUEL' Eicas message to be
displayed?

When are the cold weather When the airfield temperature

correction tables available for is below 0C.
use? What should not be Assigned radar altitudes should
corrected? not be corrected.

When are you allowed to use HIRCL 15M, visual segment

125M (absolute minimum) 90M (6 lights), LVPs in force
take-off RVR? and Jepp minima is 125M.
 If there are 2 separate runways at the
aerodrome and weather forecast is
When are you not required to
visibility 5km cloud ceiling 2000' (or
select an alternate airfield? circling minima +500 if higher) for +/-
1hour of ETA or the aerodrome is isolated

When carrying out a circling

Cat D minima
approach - what minima
should be used?

When carrying out a low

90m (6 centreline lights at 15m
visibility take-off what distance
spacing)
must be visible?

When does LIDO indicate "for If it is generated more than 90

information only"? minutes before departure.

When does RTO activate and When on takeoff run >85kts

what level of braking does it and thrust is selected to idle.
provide? Provides Max brake pressure.
 When reporting for a flight
When does the flying duty
duty. It finishes at chocks on,
period start (FDP)?
on the last sector.

When does the TCAS display

When the traffic is climbing or
show traffic with a climbing or
descending >500fpm.
descending arrow?

When en route how do you

determine required aerodrome Using the Jeppesen plates.
minima in the event of a
diversion?

The flight time does not exceed 6 hours

When is a destination alternate AND
Two runways are available at destination, with the
not required if not an isolated weather >5km and cloud ceiling >2000ft (or
aerodrome? circling+500, if higher) for ETA +/- 1 hour
Note - only 15 minutes final reserve is required.

A runway is considered wet when the runway

surface is covered with water, or equivalent,
When is a runway wet? less than 3 mm or when there is sufficient
moisture on the runway surface to cause it to
appear reflective, but without significant
areas of standing water.
 When is en-route alternate
weather and NOTAMS When the aerodrome falls
automatically generated by within 40nm of planned track.
LIDO?

When is Go-Around mode Flaps away from up OR G/S

armed? capture

When is the approach ban 1000' AAL

point?

Brake temperature monitor

system (BTMS) indication on
When is the brake temperature
EICAS may be used to 10 to 15
monitor system reliable?
minutes after aeroplane has
come to a complete stop.

• Visual conditions are achieved and can be

When may you deviate from maintained. • Positive radar cover is
the company EFP (engine confirmed providing terrain clearance. •
The MSA is achieved (flight path to remain
failure procedure)
inside 25 miles for flight at MSA).
 An engine start is needed and all of the
When may you do an engine in- following are true: •There was no engine
flight start? fire. •There is N1 rotation. •There is no
abnormal airframe vibration.

After Dispatch - when the

When may you reference the
aircraft first moves under its
MEL but not have to comply
own power for the purpose of
with it?
flight.

When must crew write to the

On the 21st day of absence.
CAA to advise them of sick
absence?

When must speedbrakes not be With land flap or below 800ft

used in flight?

When not on the variation -

what is the maximum number 100 hours and 900 hours
of flying hours in 28 days, and
12 months?
When operating a flight duty
which involves 2 or more
2 hours.
sectors, what is the maximum a
FDP may be extended (not
including an emergency)

When operating on the night

variation - what is the 6
maximum number of night
duties in 9 days?

When operating on the night

10 hours 15 minutes
variation what is the maximum
duty period?

When rostered more than half

of the year on night duties, the
80 hours in 28 days and 750
maximum hours in 28 days
hours in 12 months.
and 12 months is reduced.
What are those limits?

When crew member is acclimatised and is

When should the Maximum not flying on a regular pattern of blocks of
FDP table in Part A 7.13 be night rosters for 4 or 5 consecutive nights
in accordance with the conditions laid out
used?
in with the DHL night duties variation
 When should you make a +10kts/-5kts
"Speed" deviation call?

When will crew be contacted to

If the departure is delayed by 1
be notified of a delay to
hour
departure?

Where would you find a list of

The end of Part B section 2
airfields with ACARS DATIS
(ACARS users guide)
and clearance?

Which circuit breakers are Any fuel pump circuit breakers.

forbidden from being reset?

Which is more important - Oil Oil pressure - There is no

quantity or pressure? airborne limit on Oil quantity.
Which is the most limiting one The second segment is the most
engine climb segment on the limiting. 2.4% is the legal
757? and what must it legally minimum gradient for the
be able to attain? second segment.

2000' above "Optimum" is the

recommended cruise level.
Which level gives best fuel The "Maximum" FMC (provides 1.4g buffet
protection). "Optimum" is not as efficient
economy? but provides better stall protection (1.6g),
and should be used if turbulence is
predicted.

Which part of the engine is the N3 Rotor

starter connected to?

Which part of the wing is The 3 mid-wing leading edge

protected by Wing Anti-Ice? slats.

While contactable, what is the

10 Hours
minimum notice to report for
duty?
While parked on the ramp you
notice 'AIR GND SYSTEM' or No takeoff allowed
'NOSE AIR GND' what are the
implications?

Paul Bishop - MD / Accountable

manager Tom Mackle - DFO Phil
Who are the DHK AOC post
Greetham - Director Ground Ops
holders?
David Williams - Technical
Director Mark Whitaker - FCTM

Who is responsible before a

flight to ensure that the crew The captain.
recency and competency
requirements are met?

Who is responsible to ensure The captain.

that FTLs have been observed?

Who makes the decision over

The duty pilot.
jump seat priority in the event
of a dispute?
Who may make a "Go-around" Either pilot
call?

With a Cat III landing

10kts
(RVR150m) what is the
maximum crosswind?

The IRSs are powered by the

With a total loss of AC power
standby power system. The Left
what happens to the IRS
and Centre IRS will only
system?
remain powered for 5 minutes.

With both AC Buses Off - how 90 minutes with Main battery

long do you have available and APU battery tied 60
operating on standby minutes with Main battery
instruments? only.

Within a whole duty block on

the night variation - what is the 2 hours
maximum total discretion
available?
 Within how many days should
Within 45 days.
a pilot have completed at least 1
take-off and landing?

The engine bleed system

You have a L ENG HIGH
pressure is excessive and the
STAGE Eicas - What has
high stage bleed valve has
happened?
closed

You have a L/R ENG BLEED

A bleed air overheat has
VAL Eicas - What has
occurred.
happened?

The AC bus is not powered. You may

You have a R/L AC BUS OFF attempt one GEN CONT switch reset.
Eicas - what has happened and Consider implications of attempted
what are your considerations? reset (May lose the other Bus?).
Consider the APU also.

The engine bleed valve has

You have an ENGINE BLEED
closed because of a system
VALVE - what has happened?
fault.