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UPPCS PRE 2025

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 UPPCS PRE EXAM-2025
1. Which of the following is not a feature of a 5. Which constitutional amendment is not
federal constitution? related to the increase in the number of
languages in the 8th Schedule related to
(a) Written constitution language?
(b) Supremacy of the constitution (a) 21st Constitutional Amendment
(c) Independence of the judiciary (b) 13th Constitutional Amendment
(d) Declaration of emergency (c) 71st Constitutional Amendment
2. Identify the wrong pair of constitutional (d) 92nd Constitutional Amendment
amendments-
6. In which of the following cases, the
(a) 61st - Voting age reduced from 21 to 18 Supreme Court said that the subjects
added in the 9th Schedule after 1973 can
(b) 52nd - Tenth schedule added be subjected to judicial review?
(c) 101st - Amendment in articles for GST
(a) Maneka Gandhi vs Union of India
(d) 91st - Eligibility to become a minister
(b) Minerva Mills vs Union of India
3. The Attorney General of India is the first
law officer of the Government of India, (c) Indira Gandhi vs Rajnarayan case
regarding whom what is not correct?
(d) Baman Rao vs Union of India
(a) The Attorney General of India is not a
member of the Cabinet. 7. In which constitutional amendment it was
determined that 10% reservation will be
(b) By virtue of his position, the Attorney given in government jobs for economically
General has the privileges of a Member backward people?
of Parliament.
(a) 102nd Constitutional Amendment
(c) The Attorney General has the right to
speak only in the Rajya Sabha and (b) 103rd Constitutional Amendment
participate in its proceedings.
(c) 104th Constitutional Amendment
(d) The Attorney General can neither give
advice against the Government of India, (d) 101st Constitutional Amendment
nor plead against the Government of India.
8. Consider the following statements-
4. Consider the following regarding the
Comptroller and Auditor General- 1. The Constituent Assembly was a fully
nominated body.
1. He can resign from his post at any time
by writing under his signature addressed 2. Its members were elected by indirect
to the President. method.
2. He can be removed by impeachment 3. The members of the Assembly were
under Article 66. elected by limited suffrage.
3. He will become vacant on attaining the The correct statements among the above are-
age of 65 years before the completion of
the term of 6 years. (a) 1 and 2
Which of the statements given above is/are (b) 2 and 3
correct?
(c) 1 and 3
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 1 and 3

1
 UPPCS PRE EXAM-2025
9. Match- 13. Which of the following fundamental duties
has been added by the 86th Constitutional
List-I List-II
Amendment?
A. Article-98 1. Privileges of
Parliament (a) Promote scientific outlook and humanism
B. Article-100(1) 2. Disqualifications of (b) Parents should provide educational
Members of opportunities to children aged 6-14 years
Parliament (c) Protect public property
C. Article-102 3. Casting vote of the
Chairman or (d) Understand cultural heritage and glorious
Speaker traditions.
D. Article-105 4. Secretariat of 14. By which of the following Acts was it made
Parliament possible for Indians to take part in the
A B C D administration of their country?
(a) 3 2 1 4 (a) Charter Act, 1833
(b) 4 3 1 2 (b) Charter Act, 1853
(c) 4 3 2 1 (c) Government of India Act, 1858
(d) 2 1 4 3
10. The correct statement about the (d) Indian Council Act, 1861
Legislative Council is/are- 15. ‘A constitution is a lifeless thing like a
1. The Parliament has the right to establish machine, it is breathed into life by those
or abolish it under Article 169. who control it, all that is needed in India is
2. The total number of members of the a few honest men for whom national
Legislative Council shall not exceed 2/3 interest is paramount’ – who among the
of the total number of members of the following said this?
State Legislative Assembly. (a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
3. 1/12 of its members are elected by persons (b) Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar
who have graduated at least three years
ago. (c) Jayaprakash Narayan
Code: (d) C. Rajagopalachari
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 16. Which of the following is not correctly
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 matched?
11. Which of the following statements is not (a) Article 39A - Equal justice and free legal
correct about the fundamental duties? aid
(a) They were added to the Constitution on (b) Article 40 - Organization of village
the recommendation of the Swarn Singh panchayats
Committee. (c) Article 44 - Uniform civil code
(b) They were added through the 44th
(d) Article 48 - Separation of judiciary from
Constitutional Amendment.
executive
(c) Their source is the Constitution of the
Soviet Union. 17. Consider the following statements –
(d) It was placed in Part 4(A) of the 1. The Indian national flag was designed by
Constitution. Pingali Venkaiah.
12. Which of the following is correctly 2. The national anthem has been taken from
matched? the novel Anandmath.
(a) Article-20 - Protection from arrest and 3. The national song has been taken from
detention in certain cases the book Geetanjali.
(b) Article-24 - Prohibition of forced labour
Which of the following statements is/are
and human abuse
correct?
(c) Article-25 - Freedom to manage religious
activities Code:

(d) Article-29 - Protection of interests of (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2

minority groups (c) 1 and 3 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

2
 UPPCS PRE EXAM-2025
18. Consider the following – 25. Which article of the Constitution defines
1. Chhattisgarh 2. Arunachal Pradesh the duties of the Chief Minister?
3. Jharkhand 4. Sikkim (a) Article 165 (b) Article 166
What will be the correct chronological order of (c) Article 167 (d) Article 168
the above states according to their formation?
26. By which one of the following
Code: Constitutional Amendments was Mizoram
(a) 4, 1, 3, 2 (b) 4, 2, 1, 3 given the status of a state?
(c) 3, 2, 1, 4 (d) 1, 4, 2, 3 (a) 51st Constitutional Amendment
19. In which article of the Indian Constitution, (b) 53rd Constitutional Amendment
the principle of due process of law has been
included? (c) 61st Constitutional Amendment
(a) Article 14 (b) Article 16 (d) 63rd Constitutional Amendment
(c) Article 19 (d) Article 21 27. Match List-I with List-II -
20. If the post of President of India becomes List-I List-II
vacant and there is no Vice President, then A. Article 54 1. Appointment of
who will be the Acting President? Chief Minister
(a) Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha
B. Article 75 2. Appointment of
(b) Speaker of Lok Sabha Governor
(c) Attorney General of India C. Article 155 3. Appointment of
(d) Chief Justice of Supreme Court Prime Minister
21. When was the first general election of Lok D. Article 164 4. Election of
Sabha held in India? President
(a) In 1949-50 (b) In 1950-51 Code:
(c) In 1951-52 (d) In 1952-53 A B C D
22. Which of the following is not correctly (a) 1 2 3 4
matched?
(a) Indian Contract Act - 1970 (b) 4 3 2 1
(b) Sale of Goods Act - 1930 (c) 2 1 3 4
(c) Explosive Substances Act - 1908 (d) 1 2 4 3
(d) Disaster Management Act - 2005 28. Consider the following statements -
23. The power of the Supreme Court of India 1. Rajya Sabha is never dissolved, it It is
to decide the disputes between the Center the permanent house of the Parliament.
and the States comes under which of the 2. When the Lok Sabha is dissolved, the
following? Rajya Sabha cannot be convened either.
(a) Under Advisory Jurisdiction Choose the correct statement from the above-
(b) Under Appellate Jurisdiction (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Under Original Jurisdiction (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Under Writ Jurisdiction 29. Who administers the oath of office to the
24. Which country is the origin of the concept Speaker of the Legislative Assembly?
of public interest litigation?
(a) Governor
(a) Australia
(b) Chief Justice of the High Court
(b) United States of America
(c) Outgoing Speaker of the Legislative
(c) Ireland Assembly
(d) United Kingdom (d) No oath taking is required

3
 UPPCS PRE EXAM-2025
30. Arrange the following officials of the 34. Members of Panchayat Samiti –
Central Government in order of
(a) Are directly elected by the people.
precedence -
1. Prime Minister (b) Are elected by the members of the
Panchayat.
2. Former President
(c) Are nominated by the District Magistrate.
3. Chief Justice of India
(d) Are recruited on the basis of open
4. Ministers of the Union Cabinet
competition.
5. Comptroller and Auditor General
35. The area of an area Panchayat is
Select the correct answer using the code given determined by –
below -
(a) State Election Commission
(a) 1-2-3-4-5 (b) 3-1-4-2-5
(b) State Government
(c) 1-3-4-5-2 (d) 3-1-4-5-2
31. Consider the following pairs in the context (c) Divisional Commissioners
of Parliamentary Committees – (d) District Magistrate
Committee Member Number 36. In which part of the Indian Constitution
1. Estimates Committee 22 are subordinate courts mentioned?
2. Public Accounts Committee 30 (a) Part - II
3. Public Enterprises Committee 22 (b) Part - III
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly (c) Part - IV
matched?
(d) Part - VI
(a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 2
37. Consider the following statements
(c) Only 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 regarding the Supreme Court –
32. Panchayati Raj was first started in India
on 2 October, 1959 – 1. It is the guarantor of the fundamental
rights of the citizens
(a) Rajasthan (b) Uttar Pradesh
2. It is the guardian of the Indian
(c) Kerala (d) Madhya Pradesh Constitution.
33. Match List-I and List-II and choose the 3. It is the highest court of appeal in India.
correct answer –
List-I List-II Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. Balwant Rai 1. Two-tier system (a) 1 and 2.
Mehta (b) 1 and 3
B. Ashok Mehta 2. Three-tier system (c) 2 and 3
C. L. M. Singhvi3. Improvement in the (d) 1, 2 and 3
methods of 38. Consider the following pairs –
representation
(Body/Institution) (Tenure of Member)
D. G. V. K. Rao 4. Local self-
1. Central Vigilance Commission – 5 years
government
2. Union Public Service Commission – 6
system years
Code:
3. Comptroller and Auditor General – 5 years
A B C D
Which of the above pairs is/are not correctly
(a) 1 2 3 4 matched?
(b) 4 3 2 1 (a) Only 1
(c) 2 1 4 3 (b) Only 2
(d) 3 4 1 2 (c) 1 and 3
(d) None of the above

4
 UPPCS PRE EXAM-2025
39. Consider the following statements with 45. Which of the following provides for
reference to the Finance Commission – economic justice as one of the objectives
1. The members of the Finance Commission of the Constitution of India?
are eligible for reappointment. (a) Preamble and Fundamental Rights.
2. The recommendations of the Finance (b) Preamble and Directive Principles of State
Commission are binding on the Policy.
government. (c) Fundamental Rights and Directive
Choose the correct statement from the above– Principles of State Policy.
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (d) None of the above.
(c) 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 46. When was the fundamental right to
property abolished?
40. Consider the following statements with
reference to the Central Information (a) By the 44th Constitutional Amendment in
Commission – 1978
1. It is a constitutional body. (b) By the 46th Constitutional Amendment in
1982
2. This commission will have one Chief
Information Commissioner and a (c) By the 31st Constitutional Amendment in
maximum of 6 Information 1973
Commissioners. (d) None of the above
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 47. Where among the following can a
Codes: resolution to remove the Vice President
of India be proposed?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(a) Only in the Lok Sabha
(c) 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) In any House of the Parliament
41. Who among the following disposes of the (c) Joint sitting of the Parliament
cases of disqualification under the Tenth
Schedule? (d) Only in the Rajya Sabha
48. Match the following pairs-
(a) President
A. Sikkim 1. 371 (g)
(b) Election Commission
B. Nagaland 2. 371 (a)
(c) Speaker/Chairman of the House
C. Mizoram 3. 371 (b)
(d) Supreme Court D. Assam 4. 371 (f)
42. Which one of the following is not the main Code:
duties of the Election Commission of
A B C D
India?
(a) 1 3 4 2
(a) Control and conduct of elections
(b) 4 3 2 1
(b) Supervision of elections
(c) 2 4 1 3
(c) Direct elections (d) 4 2 1 3
(d) Conduct of local body elections 49. Which of the following members is not
43. State land reform acts have been included included in the Committee for the
to provide constitutional protection – Appointment of the Chairperson and
Members of the National Human Rights
(a) Seventh Schedule (b) Ninth Schedule
Commission?
(c) Eighth Schedule (d) Tenth Schedule
(a) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
44. What special provision has been made
regarding the Finance Bills under this (b) Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
article?
(c) Leader of the Opposition in the Lok
(a) Article 117 (b) Article 116 Sabha

(c) Article 115 (d) Article 118 (d) Leader of the Opposition in the Rajya
Sabha

5
 UPPCS PRE EXAM-2025
50. Who was the first temporary Deputy 56. By which of the following Acts, residual
Chairman of the Constituent Assembly? powers were granted to the Governor
General?
(a) H. C. Mukherjee
(a) Government of India Act of 1919
(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(b) India Council Act of 1861
(c) Frank Anthony (c) Government of India Act of 1935
(d) David Voltaire (d) India Council Act of 1892
51. Which one of the following is not correctly 57. Consider the following statements about
matched? the Governor -
(a) Elections - Part XV 1. It is his prerogative to call a session of the
(b) Fundamental Rights - Part IV Legislative Assembly.
(c) Panchayats - Part IX 2. He appoints the State Election
Commissioner.
(d) Constitution Amendment - Part XX
3. Under Article 356, he can recommend
52. Which of the following petitions examines imposition of President's rule in the state.
the functioning of subordinate courts?
The correct statement among the above
(a) Quo warranto (b) Mandamus statements is/are-
(c) Certiorari (d) Habeas Corpus (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
53. Who among the following has called the (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Directive Principles of State Policy as a
58. Consider the following -
‘manifesto of aims and aspirations’?
1. Gopal Swami Iyengar 2. Dr. K. M. Munshi
(a) T. T. Krishnamachari
3. H. C. Mukherjee 4. S. Varadachariar
(b) Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar
Who among the above were members of
(c) K. C. Wheare the Drafting Committee of the Constituent
(d) Ivor Jennings Assembly?
54. In which of the following circumstances is (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
a Member of Parliament disqualified? (c) 1, 2, and 3 (d) 1, 2, and 4
1. If he voluntarily leaves the membership 59. Which of the following Fundamental Rights
of his political party. are available only to Indian citizens?
2. If he joins a party after being elected as 1. Fundamental Rights granted under Article
an independent member. 19
3. If he votes contrary to the instructions 2. Fundamental Rights granted under Article
given by his political party. 21
Select the correct answer using the code given 3. Fundamental Rights granted under Article
below - 29
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 Code:
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2, and 3 (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
55. Consider the following- (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
1. Parliament can also make laws on the 60. Which of the following is not correctly
subjects of the State List. matched -
2. The powers of the Rajya Sabha on the (a) 31st Constitutional Amendment - Increase
Constitution Amendment Bill are more in the number of members of Lok Sabha
than those of the Lok Sabha.
(b) 52nd Constitutional Amendment - Related
3. The President has the right to adjourn the to anti-defection law
House indefinitely.
(c) 91st Constitutional Amendment - Related
Which of the above statements is/are correct- to education of children
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(d) 100th Constitutional Amendment - Land
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 1 and 3 agreement between India and Bangladesh

6
 UPPCS PRE EXAM-2025
61. Consider the following statements 66. Under which of the following articles, the
regarding the Directive Principles of State President has the right to seek
Policy - consultation from the Supreme Court?
1. They are not justiciable. (a) Article-123 (b) Article-143
2. They have moral and political recognition.
(c) Article-103 (d) Article-104
3. Legislation is required to implement them.
67. How many articles of the Constitution
Which of the above is true- became effective when the Constitution
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 was adopted on 26 November 1949?
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) 13 articles (b) 14 articles
62. Which of the following is not correctly (c) 15 articles (d) 16 articles
matched - 68. Consider the following statements with
(a) Article 54 - Election of President reference to the Comptroller and Auditor
General of India (CAG) –
(b) Article 56 - Tenure of office of President
1. The post of CAG is provided for in Article
(c) Article 58 - Conditions of office of
148 of the Constitution.
President
(d) Article 60 - Oath or affirmation by 2. The CAG is appointed by the President
President and holds office during the pleasure of the
President.
63. The ‘Objective Resolution’ presented by
Pandit Nehru in the Constituent Assembly 3. The salary and allowances of the CAG
was accepted on – are determined by the President.
(a) 22 January, 1947 (b) 22 July, 1947 The correct statements among the above are–
(c) 20 August, 1949 (d) 24 November, 1950 (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2
64. Which statement is/are false regarding the
ordinance issued by the Governor? (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
1. The Governor can issue ordinance under 69. Which of the following is not correctly
Article 123. matched with reference to the source of
2. This power of the Governor extends to the Indian Constitution?
the subjects of the State List and the (a) Idea of Preamble – United States of
Concurrent List. America
3. Prior permission of the President is (b) Language of Preamble – Russia
necessary for ordinances related to some
subjects. (c) Doctrine of Residual Powers – Canada
4. The Governor can withdraw the ordinance (d) Rule of Law – Britain
only after 42 days.
70. How many members of the Scheduled
Code: Tribes were included in the Constituent
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 1 and 2 Assembly?
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4 (a) 26 (b) 33
65. In which of the following circumstances,
Parliament can make laws on the subjects (c) 73 (d) 79
of the State List? 71. By which of the following Acts, the Union
1. During a national emergency Budget was separated from the State
2. During President's rule Budget?
3. On the request of at least three or more (a) India Council Act, 1909
states
4. To implement international agreements (b) Government of India Act, 1919
Code:
(c) Government of India Act, 1935
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 (d) None of the above

7
 UPPCS PRE EXAM-2025
72. Consider the following statements with 77. Consider the following statements related
reference to the provisions of the to Fundamental Rights –
Government of India Act, 1935 –
1. The propagation of Christianity by
1. It abolished the system of dual governance Christian missionaries in India is contrary
at the centre. to the spirit of Article 25.
2. The Constitution does not permit forced
2. It introduced dual governance in the conversion.
provinces.
Code:
3. It introduced bicameralism in 11 states.
(a) Statement one is correct.
Choose the correct statement/statements from (b) Statement two is correct.
the above –
(c) Both statements are correct.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 3 (d) Both statements are incorrect.
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None of the above 78. The provisions of which of the following
Acts were termed as benevolent
73. Which of the following was adopted as the despotism?
symbol (seal) by the Constituent
(a) Government of India Act, 1919
Assembly?
(b) Indian Councils Act, 1892
(a) Lion (b) Cow
(c) Government of India Act, 1935
(c) Elephant (d) Chakra (d) Indian Councils Act, 1909
74. Under which of the following articles of the 79. The Federal Court was established in
Constitution is there a provision for the Delhi. It could have one Chief Justice and
oath taking of the judges of the High a maximum of 6 other judges. Who were
Court? appointed by the Emperor. Who was its
first Chief Justice?
(a) Article – 214
(a) Elijah Impey (b) Sir Morris Gwyer
(b) Article – 216 (c) Lord Burn (d) C R Attlee
(c) Article – 219 80. ‘No state is free to separate from India,
that is, India is an indestructible union of
(d) Article – 223 destructible states’, this provision is
contained under which article of the
75. In which of the following can ad-hoc judges Constitution?
be appointed?
(a) Article 4 (b) Article 3
(a) Supreme Court only (c) Article 2 (d) Article 1
(b) High Court only 81. Consider the following –

(c) Both Supreme Court and High Court 1. Right to go abroad

2. Right to do street trading
(d) Subordinate Court
3. Right to shelter
76. Under Article 30 of the Constitution, on 4. Right to get free food items
what basis minorities have been classified
in the Constitution? Which of the above rights are included in the
Fundamental Rights under Article 21?
(a) On the basis of language
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) On the basis of religion
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) On the basis of language and religion (c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) On the basis of population (d) 2, 3 and 4

8
 UPPCS PRE EXAM-2025
82. Which of the following Directive Principles 87. Consider the following statements –
is not called Gandhian Directive
Principles? 1. Money Bill can be proposed in any House.
(a) Formation of village panchayats 2. President's consent is necessary before a
Money Bill is introduced in the Lok Sabha.
(b) Raising the standards of nutrition and living
3. Whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not is
(c) Conservation of monuments of national decided by the Council of Ministers.
importance
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(d) Promotion of international peace and
security (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
83. Which of the following Directive Principles (c) 1 and 2 (d) 1 and 3
is based on socialist principles? 88. Money is withdrawn from the Consolidated
1. Formation of Gram Panchayats Fund through which of the following Bills/
Demands?
2. Free legal aid
(a) Appropriation Bill
3. Uniform civil code
(b) Vote on Account
4. Right to employment
(c) Vote on Credit
Code:
(d) Supplementary Grant
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
89. Consider the following –
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 4
Statement (A): Parliamentary committees are
84. Which of the following pairs is not correctly an indispensable and integral part of the present
matched? system.
(a) 97th Constitutional Amendment - Co- Reason (R): Parliament performs legislative
operative Societies functions and controls the executive through
(b) 86th Constitutional Amendment - these committees.
Recognition of free education for children Select the correct answer using the code given
as a fundamental right below –
(c) 100th Constitutional Amendment - (a) Statement is correct, reason is wrong.
Provision of National Judicial Appointment
Commission in place of Collegium System (b) Statement is wrong, reason is correct.
(d) 101st Constitutional Amendment - (c) Both statement and reason are correct;
Provision of GST reason correctly explains the statement.
85. Which of the following committees/ (d) Both statement and reason are correct;
commissions is not related to the Centre- reason does not correctly explain the
State relations? statement.
(a) Setalvad Committee 90. Consider the following statements –
(b) Venkatachalaiah Commission 1. Censure motion can be brought against a
(c) Rajamannar Committee minister or a group of ministers or the
entire Council of Ministers.
(d) Tarkunde Committee
2. Censure motion can be brought only in
86. Which state of India has adopted the ‘four-
Lok Sabha, not in Rajya Sabha.
tier panchayat system’?
3. If censure motion is passed in Lok Sabha,
(a) Arunachal Pradesh
then the Council of Ministers is required
(b) West Bengal to resign from the post.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2
(d) Nagaland
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

9
 UPPCS PRE EXAM-2025
91. Consider the following- 95. Consider the following –
Statement (A): The Indian Constitution is both Statement (A): The head of the Union Executive
partially flexible and rigid in nature. is the President of India.
Reason (R): The provisions of the Constitution Reason (R): There is no limit to the powers of
can be amended by both the Parliament and the President.
the State Legislatures.
Which one of the above is/are correct?
Choose the correct option in respect of the
above- (a) Both Statement (A) and Reason (R) are
(a) Statement A and Reason R both are correct; Reason (R) explains Statement
correct and R is the correct explanation (A)
of A. (b) Both Statement (A) and Reason (R) are
(b) Statement A and Reason R both are correct; Reason (R) does not explain
correct but R is not the correct explanation Statement (A)
of A.
(c) Statement (A) is correct but Reason (R)
(c) Statement A is correct but Reason R is is wrong.
wrong.
(d) Statement (A) is wrong but Reason (R)
(d) Statement A is wrong but Reason R is is correct.
correct.
92. Consider the following statements – 96. To whom are the members of the Council
of Ministers personally responsible?
Statement (A): Estimates Committee is called
mini Lok Sabha. (a) Prime Minister (b) President
Reason (R): Its members are elected by (c) Lok Sabha (d) Parliament
proportional representation system by single 97. Which of the following types of freedom is
transferable vote. not contained in the Preamble of the Indian
Choose the correct option based on the above– Constitution?
(a) Both statement (A) and reason (R) are (a) Freedom of thought
correct and R is the correct explanation
of A. (b) Freedom of religion
(b) Both statement (A) and reason (R) are (c) Economic freedom
correct but R is not the correct explanation (d) Freedom of belief
of A.
98. Consider the following –
(c) Statement (A) is correct but reason (R)
is wrong. Statement (A): Fundamental rights are
(d) Statement (A) is wrong but reason (R) is unlimited.
correct. Reason (R): The government cannot impose
93. According to Article-107, the true any kind of restriction on them.
statement regarding the effect of Select the correct answer using the code given
dissolution of Lok Sabha on pending bills below –
is/are –
1. Some bills pending in Lok Sabha do not (a) Both statement (A) and reason (R) are
expire. correct; reason (R) explains statement (A).
2. The bill pending in Rajya Sabha which has (b) Both statement (A) and reason (R) are
not been passed by Lok Sabha will expire. correct; reason (R) does not explain
Code: statement (A).
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Statement (A) is correct but reason (R)
(c) 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1, nor 2 is wrong.
94. In which of the following cases, the right (d) Both statement (A) and reason (R) are
to remain silent was considered a wrong.
fundamental right under Article 19? 99. The idea of joint sitting of both the houses
(a) Naveen Jindal vs Union of India of the Parliament has been taken from –
(b) Emmanuel vs State of Kerala (a) Constitution of Germany
(c) Maneka Gandhi vs Union of India (b) Constitution of Australia
(c) Constitution of Canada
(d) Indian Express Newspaper vs Union
(d) None of the above.

10
 UPPCS PRE EXAM-2025
100. How can Indian citizenship be renounced? 106. What is the prescribed portion of the total
(a) On acquiring citizenship of any other deposits and reserves of various
country commercial banks with the Reserve Bank
of India called?
(b) On renouncing citizenship
(c) On being deprived by the Government of (a) Balance of Payments
India (b) Bank Guarantee
(d) All of the above
(c) Security Deposit
101. Which statement is false regarding NITI
Aayog? (d) Cash Reserve Ratio
(a) It was established on 1 January 2015. 107. Which of the following is not correctly
(b) A maximum of 5 members of the Union matched with respect to the committee
Council of Ministers nominated by the and its scope?
Prime Minister can join it as ex-officio (a) Wanchoo Committee - Motor Vehicle Tax
members.
(c) A maximum of 2 members from leading (b) Raja Chelliah Committee - Tax Reforms
research institutes can also be its ad-hoc (c) Parth Sarathi Som Committee - Tax Policy
members.
(d) The Chief Executive Officer (CEO) is (d) Rangarajan Committee – 2 - Tariff
appointed by the Prime Minister for a Structure on Petroleum Products
fixed tenure. 108. The most appropriate measure of economic
102. Which of the following is not included in growth of a country is –
the calculation of Gross Domestic Product
(a) Gross Domestic Product
(GDP)?
(a) Stock of unused intermediate goods (b) Net Domestic Product
(b) Gifts received from abroad (c) Net National Product
(c) Free services received by the public (d) Per Capita Product/Income
(d) Expenditure by foreign tourists
109. Reserve Bank of India issues currency in
103. Which of the following economic activities exchange of which of the following?
is not included in the tertiary sector or
service sector of the economy? (a) Gold
(a) Public administration and defence (b) Foreign security
(b) Gas, water and electricity supply
(c) Government of India security
(c) Banking and insurance services
(d) Real estate (d) All of the above
104. Which of the following options is not 110. On which model was the Second Five Year
correct with reference to the effect of Plan based?
inflation?
(a) Solow Model
(a) Producer get benefits
(b) Domar Model
(b) Lender suffers a loss
(c) Public savings increase (c) Robinson Model
(d) Both (b) and (c) (d) Mahalanobis Model
105. The S. S. Tarapore Committee was formed 111. In which of the following Five Year Plans,
to reform the banking sector. The human development was considered the
objective of Tarapore Committee was – essence of all development efforts?
(a) Improvement in customer service
(a) Third Five Year Plan
(b) Providing loans to small and medium
industries (b) Fifth Five Year Plan
(c) Capital account convertibility (c) Sixth Five Year Plan
(d) Improvement in the field of agricultural (d) Eighth Five Year Plan
credit

11
 UPPCS PRE EXAM-2025
112. In which of the following matters does the 117. If both prices and monetary income double
Reserve Bank of India regulate in a given time period, what will be the real
commercial banks? income?
1. Liquidity of assets 2. Branch expansion
(a) It will double
3. Merger of banks 4. Closure of banks
Code: (b) It will remain half
(a) 1 and 4 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) It will remain unchanged
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) It will first halve and then double
113. Match the following five year plans and
their objectives – 118. Disguised unemployment means –
(Five Year Plan) (Aim)
(a) Unemployed persons
A. First Plan 1. Self-sufficiency in
food grains (b) Unemployment among housewives
B. Second Plan 2. Rapid development
(c) Unemployment among persons above 60
C. Third Plan 3. Heavy and basic years of age
industries
(d) More persons than required engaged in a
D. Fourth Plan 4. Increase in work
agricultural
production 119. Grazing animals on natural vegetation
without plowing, sowing etc. of a land is
Code: called –
A B C D
(a) 2 4 1 3 (a) Specialized agriculture
(b) 3 1 2 4 (b) Ranching agriculture
(c) 1 2 3 4
(c) Mixed agriculture
(d) 4 3 1 2
114. If interest payment is included in primary (d) Dry agriculture
deficit, it is equal to –
120. Which of the following is not correctly
(a) Budget deficit matched –
(b) Fiscal deficit
(a) Horticulture – Production of vegetables
(c) Financing of deficit
(d) Revenue deficit (b) Vermiculture – Earthworm rearing
115. Which of the following taxes have been (c) Aeroponics – Growing plants in the air
replaced by Goods and Services Tax
(GST)? (d) Viticulture – Cultivation of grapes
1. Central Excise Duty 2. Service Tax
121. Which of the following committees related
3. Entertainment Tax 4. Central Sales Tax
to banking reform is not correctly
Code: matched–
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(a) M. N. Goiporia Committee –
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Improvement in customer service
116. In the measurement of money supply,
which of the following money is called (b) A. Ghosh Committee – To prevent frauds
narrow money? in banks
(a) M0
(c) S. S. Tarapore Committee – Capital
(b) M1 account convertibility in foreign exchange
(c) M2
(d) D. Subbarao Committee – To improve
(d) M3 agricultural credit sector

12
 UPPCS PRE EXAM-2025
122. In the context of balance of payments, 128. Which of the following is included in non-
which of the following forms the current agricultural productive activities?
account?
1. Food processing 2. Small manufacturing
1. Trade balance
3. Land and irrigation
2. Foreign assets
Code:
3. Balance of invisible items
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
4. Special drawing rights
(c) 1 and 2 (d) All of the above
Code:
129. Which of the following factors affect the
(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3 location of an industry?
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 4
1. Raw material 2. Transport
123. Which of the following forms the capital
account? 3. Government policies 4. Market access
1.Foreign debt 2.Foreign direct investment Code:
3.Private remittances 4. Portfolio investment (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
Code: (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) All of the above
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
130. Inflation in developing countries is
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4 considered to be sustainable –
124. Who were involved in calculation of
national income and per capita income of (a) 2-3 percent (b) 3-4 percent
India before independence? (c) 5-6 percent (d) 6-8 percent
1. Dadabhai Naoroji 2. Dr. V.K.R.V. Rao 131. Which of the following elements is not
3. R.C. Desai included in the Human Development Index
Code: (HDI)?
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 (a) Consumption expenditure
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of the above (b) Infant mortality rate
125. Which of the following is a source of human
capital? (c) Adult literacy rate
1. Investment in education (d) Health
2. Provision of clean drinking water 132. The words Bull and Bear are related to
3. Vaccination which of the following fields –
Code: (a) Foreign trade (b) Fiscal policy
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Stock market (d) Monetary policy
(c) 1 and 2 (d) All of the above
133. When a country devalues its currency, the
126. In which of the following situations does effect is that –
demand definitely increase in an
economy? (a) Imports become cheaper while exports
become costlier
1. When national income increases
2. When inflation increases (b) Imports become costlier while exports
become cheaper
3. When per capita income increases
Code: (c) There is no effect on imports and exports
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (d) Both imports and exports become costlier
(c) Only 3 (d) Only 1 and 3 134. Which of the following currencies is
127. Before independence, the first estimate of considered an artificial currency?
national income in India was made by
(a) ADR
Dadabhai Naoroji in the year 1868.
According to him, what was the per capita (b) GDR
national income in India in the year 1868?
(c) SDR
(a) Rs. 20 (b) Rs. 42
(d) ADR and SDR
(c) Rs. 68 (d) None of the above

13
 UPPCS PRE EXAM-2025
135. What is Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR)? 141. According to the Union Budget 2025–26,
the ‘National Institute of Food Technology
(a) A part of the total deposits of a commercial
Entrepreneurship and Management’ will
bank with the RBI
be established at which of the following
(b) That part of the total deposits of a places?
commercial bank which is with the same
(a) Karnataka (b) Assam
bank
(c) Bihar (d) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Total lending given by commercial banks
142. Consider the following statements with
(d) Both (a) and (b) reference to the Union Budget 2025–26–
136. Which of the following reports is not 1. Bharat Tradenet will be established for
released by the World Bank? international trade.
(a) World Development Report 2. 70 top tourist destinations will be
(b) Ease of Doing Business developed in the country with the
participation of states.
(c) Global Economic Prospects
3. Jal Jeevan Mission has been extended up
(d) Global Gender Gap Report to the year 2027.
137. Twenty Point Economic Program was first Which of the above statements is/are correct?
started in –
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1969 (b) 1975
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1977 (d) 1980 143. Consider the following statements with
138. Bank rate is the rate at which – reference to Economic Survey 2024–25–
(a) A bank lends to the public 1. India’s real GDP is projected to grow by
6.4% in FY25 (2024-25).
(b) RBI lends to the public
2. Retail inflation averaged 4.9% in 2024,
(c) RBI lends to commercial banks lower than 5.4% in FY24.
(d) Government of India lends to other countries 3. India remained the top recipient of
139. Which of the following measures have remittances in the world. This helped in
been proposed for the agriculture sector keeping the current account deficit at
in Budget 2025-26? 1.2% of GDP.

1. Establishment of Makhana Board in Bihar. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
2. Increasing the loan limit of Kisan Credit
Card (KCC) from ?3 lakh to ?5 lakh. (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
3. Increase in premium rates under Pradhan 144. According to the Economic Survey 2024–
Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana. 25, which of the following is not correctly
matched?
Codes:
(Sector) (Expected growth
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
rate in the year 2025)
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
1. Agriculture – 3.8 percent
140. According to the Union Budget 2025 – 26, 2. Industrial sector – 6.8 percent
a urea plant with an annual production
capacity of 12.7 lakh metric tonnes will be 3. Service sector – 7.2 percent
set up at which of the following locations? Code:
(a) Bareilly, Uttar Pradesh (a) Only 1
(b) Namrup, Assam (b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 3
(c) Jodhpur, Rajasthan
(d) 2 and 3
(d) Pune, Maharashtra

14
 UPPCS PRE EXAM-2025
145. Consider the following statements with 148. Which of the following pairs is not correctly
reference to PM-WANI scheme – matched?

1. The objective of PM WANI scheme is to (Scheme) (Launch)

set up Wi-Fi hotspot network at public (a) PM Gatishakti Yojana- 13 October, 2021
places across the country.
(b) Hriday Yojana - 21 January, 2017
2. Public Data Offices (PDOs) can be (c) Uday Yojana - 05 November,
opened without license and fee under this 2015
scheme.
(d) PM Gram Sadak Yojana - 25 December,
3. PM WANI scheme was launched by the 2000
Government of India in the year 2022. 149. Which of the following pairs is not correctly
matched?
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(Scheme) (Launched)
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (a) Soil Health Card - 19 February, 2015
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 Scheme
(b) E-National - 14 April, 2018
146. Consider the following statements with
reference to Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Agriculture Market
Yojana – (c) Start-Up India - 16 January, 2016
1. This scheme was launched on 28 August (d) Stand-Up India - 05 April, 2016
2014. Under this, a bank account can be 150. Which of the following pairs is not correctly
opened with zero balance. matched in the context of schemes of Uttar
Pradesh?
2. Under this scheme, account holders get
RuPay debit card and accident insurance (Scheme) (Launch)
coverage of up to ? 2 lakh. (a) Chief Minister Kanya Sumangala Yojana
- 25 October, 2018
3. This scheme was implemented only for
(b) Chief Minister Abhyudaya Yojana
rural areas.
- 15 February, 2021
Which of the above statements is/are correct? (c) Naya Savera Yojana
- 16 June, 2017
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(d) One District, One Product Scheme
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 - 24 January, 2018

147. Consider the following statements related

to PM Gati Shakti Yojana –

1. PM Gati Shakti Yojana was launched by

Prime Minister Narendra Modi in the year
2021.

2. This scheme acts as a master plan to

promote multi-modal connectivity.

3. The estimated cost of the ‘National Master

Plan’ under this scheme is Rs 100 lakh
crore.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

15
1. Answer: d Assembly were taken from the British provinces
Explanation: Declaration of emergency is not and the princely states. While the members of
a feature of a federal constitution. It is a feature the provinces were elected by the members of
of a unitary constitution. Because emergency the provincial assembly, the representatives of
can be declared only by the central government, the princely states were selected by the heads
not the state government. of the princely states. Thus the Constituent
2. Answer: d Assembly was partially elected and partially
nominated body.
Explanation: The 91st amendment was not
related to the eligibility to become a minister 9. Answer: c
but this amendment provided that the total Explanation:
number of ministers in the center and the state Article-98 — Secretariat of Parliament
will not exceed 15% of the total number of Article-100(1) — Casting vote of the Chairman
members. All others are correctly matched. or Speaker
3. Answer: c Article-102 — Disqualifications of Members
Explanation: The Attorney General is of Parliament
described in Article 76 of the Indian Article-105 — Privileges of Parliament
Constitution. The Attorney General has the right
10. Answer: c
to speak in both the Houses of the Parliament
and participate in their proceedings. The Explanation: The Legislative Council is
Attorney General is the chief law officer of established by the Parliament under Article 169.
the Government of India. The number of Legislative Council members
shall not exceed 1/3 of the Legislative Assembly
4. Answer: d
members. But in no case shall it be less than
Explanation: Under Article 148 (1), the 40. Election of members in Legislative Council
Comptroller and Auditor General shall be elections-
removed from his office only in the same
1/3 by Legislative Assembly
manner and on the same grounds as the
removal of Judges of the Supreme Court. 1/3 by local self-government institutions
5. Answer: b 1/12 by graduates
Explanation: 13th amendment is related to 1/12 by teachers
granting statehood to Nagaland while other 1/6 by the President
options are related to the increase in the number 11. Answer: b
of languages in the 8th Schedule. Explanation: The fundamental duties were
21st Amendment - Sindhi was added. added to the Constitution through the 42nd
71st Amendment - Nepali, Kokani, Manipuri Constitutional Amendment in the year 1976. All
were added. other statements are correct about the
91st Amendment - Maithili, Bodo, Dogri, fundamental duties.
Santhali were added. 12. Answer: d
6. Answer: d Explanation: Article-29 protects the interests
Explanation: In the case of Baman Rao vs of minority groups. The correct match of the
Union of India (1981), the Supreme Court said others will be -
that any subject or act that has been inserted in Article-20: Protection against conviction for
the 9th Schedule after 1973 can be subjected crimes
to judicial review. Article-24: Prohibition of employment of
7. Answer: b children in factories etc.
Explanation: Through the 103rd Constitutional Article-25: Freedom of conscience and free
Amendment, 2019, provision was made for 10% practice of religion
reservation in government jobs for economically 13. Answer: b
backward people. Explanation: It is the duty of parents to provide
8. Answer: b educational opportunities to children aged 6-14
Explanation: The members of the Constituent years. This is the 11th fundamental duty and

3
 was added through the 86th constitutional Lok Sabha in India was held between 25
amendment. October, 1951 and 21 February, 1952.
14. Answer: a 22. Answer: a
Explanation: The Charter Act, 1833 declared Explanation: The following is the match of
that ‘no Indian shall be ineligible for any office the above –
under the Company on account of his religion, Indian Contract Act - 1872
place of birth, descent or caste’.
Sale of Goods Act - 1930
15. Answer: a
Explosive Substances Act - 1908
Explanation: ‘A constitution is like a machine,
Disaster Management Act - 2005
life is given to it by those who control it, India
just needs some honest people for whom 23. Answer: c
national interest is paramount’ – this statement Explanation: The power of the Supreme Court
is of Dr. Rajendra Prasad. of India to decide the disputes between the
16. Answer: d Center and the States comes under its original
jurisdiction.
Explanation: In the Directive Principles of
Policy of the Indian Constitution, separation of 24. Answer: b
judiciary from executive is mentioned in Article Explanation: The country of origin of the
50 while organization of agriculture and animal concept of public interest litigation is the United
husbandry is mentioned in Article 48. States of America.
17. Answer: a 25. Answer: c
Explanation: Indian national flag was designed Explanation: The duties of the Chief Minister
by Pingali Venkaiah, hence statement 1 is are mentioned in Article 167 of the Constitution
correct. National anthem is taken from Gitanjali of India.
composed by Gurudev Rabindranath Tagore. 26. Answer: b
National song is taken from the novel Explanation: Mizoram was given the status
Anandmath written by Bankim Chandra of a full-fledged state of India by the 53rd
Chatterjee. Hence statements 2 and 3 are false. Constitutional Amendment, 1986. On February
18. Answer: b 20, 1987, Mizoram became the 23rd state of
Explanation: The year of formation of the the Indian Union.
above states is as follows – 27. Answer: b
Sikkim – 16 May, 1975 Explanation: The following is the match of
Arunachal Pradesh – 20 February, 1987 the articles given in the question and their related
Chhattisgarh – 1 November, 2000 subject matter -
Jharkhand – 15 November, 2000 Article 54 - Election of President
19. Answer: d Article 75 - Appointment of Prime Minister
Explanation: The principle of due process of Article 155 - Appointment of Governor
law has been included in Article 21 of the Indian Article 164 - Appointment of Chief Minister
Constitution. 28. Answer: a
20. Answer: d Explanation: The Rajya Sabha is never
Explanation: According to the Indian completely dissolved. It is the permanent house
Constitution, in case of death, resignation or of the Parliament. When the Lok Sabha is
removal, when the post of President becomes dissolved and elections are pending, the Rajya
vacant, the order of persons available to Sabha can be convened.
perform the functions of the President as Acting 29. Answer: d
President is – Vice President > Chief Justice Explanation: The Speaker of the Legislative
of Supreme Court > Senior-most Judge of Assembly is not required to take his oath.
Supreme Court
30. Answer: a
21. Answer: c
Explanation: The order of precedence of the
Explanation: The first general election of the

5
 officials given in the question: President – Vice the Constitution has made many provisions to
President – Prime Minister – Governors of ensure the independence and impartial
States – Former President – Chief Justice of functioning of the Supreme Court. Such as –
India – Ministers of Union Cabinet – 1. Security of tenure of judges
Comptroller and Auditor General
2. Fixed service conditions
31. Answer: c
3. Expenditure from the Consolidated Fund
Explanation: The parliamentary committees
38. Answer: c
given in the question and their membership
numbers are as follows – Explanation: Union Public Service
Commission (6 years or 65 years of age,
Public Accounts Committee: 22 members (15
whichever is earlier)
from Lok Sabha and 7 from Rajya Sabha)
Comptroller and Auditor General (6 years or
Public Enterprises Committee: 22 members (15
65 years of age, whichever is earlier)
from Lok Sabha and 7 from Rajya Sabha)
Central Vigilance Commission (4 years or 65
Estimates Committee: 30 members (all from
years of age, whichever is earlier)
Lok Sabha)
39. Answer: a
32. Answer: a
Explanation: The members of the Finance
Explanation: Panchayati Raj system was first
Commission are eligible for reappointment. The
implemented in Nagaur district of Rajasthan on
recommendations of the Finance Commission
2 October, 1959. After this, it was implemented
are advisory to the government and not binding.
in Andhra Pradesh.
40. Answer: d
33. Answer: c
Explanation: The Central Information
Explanation: The correct match is as follows–
Commission was set up by the Central
Committees Suggestion Government in the year 2005. It has been
Balwant Rai Mehta Three-tier system constituted under the provisions of the Right to
Ashok Mehta Two-tier system Information Act, 2005. Hence, it is not a
L. M. Singhvi Local self-government system constitutional body. The Commission consists
of one Chief Information Commissioner and not
G. B. R. Rao also suggested methods of more than ten Information Commissioners.
representation
41. Answer: c
34. Answer: a
Explanation: The cases of disqualification
Explanation: Members of the Panchayat
under the Tenth Schedule are disposed of by
Samiti are directly elected by the public. In the
the Chairman in Rajya Sabha and Speaker in
Panchayati Raj system, Panchayat Samiti
Lok Sabha and not by the President of India.
(second level) is a block level system.
42. Answer: d
35. Answer: b
Explanation: Elections to local bodies are
Explanation: The area of an area Panchayat
conducted by the State Election.
is determined by the State Government.
The Election Commission of India is an
36. Answer: d
autonomous constitutional body responsible for
Explanation: In Part VI of the Constitution, the conduct of Union and State election
from Articles 233 to 237, the provisions ensuring processes in India. Part XV of the Constitution
the organization of subordinate courts and their of India deals with elections and establishes a
independence from the executive have been Commission for these matters. Articles 324 to
described. The appointment of District Judges 329 of the Constitution of India deal with the
is done by the Governor in consultation with powers, functions, tenure, eligibility, etc. of the
the High Court of the state. Commission and the members.
37. Answer: d The Superintendent of the Election Commission
Explanation: The Supreme Court is a federal of India directs and controls the entire process
court and the final court of appeal. It is the of holding elections to the Parliament and the
guarantor of the rights of the citizens of India Legislature of every State and to the offices of
and the guardian of the Constitution. Therefore, the President and Vice-President of India. It

7
 prepares electoral rolls, issues electronic photo Article-371 (z) : Goa
identity cards. Article-371 (j) : Karnataka
43. Answer: b 49. Answer: b
Explanation: Ninth Schedule was added to the Explanation: The following members are
Constitution by the First Constitutional included in the Committee constituted for the
Amendment Act, 1951. Under this, the methods appointment of the Chairperson and Members
of acquisition of property by the state have been of the National Human Rights Commission –
mentioned. The subjects included in this
Prime Minister (Chairman)
schedule cannot be challenged in the court. At
present there are 284 acts in this schedule. Home Minister
Note: Till now it was believed that the laws Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha
included in the Ninth Schedule cannot be Leader of the Opposition in the Rajya Sabha
judicially reviewed. By a decision of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Constitution Bench of January 11, 2007, it was Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
established that any law included in the Ninth
Schedule can be challenged on the ground that Note: The appointment of the Chairperson and
it violates the fundamental rights and the Members of the National Human Rights
Supreme Court can review these laws. Commission is done by the President on the
recommendation of this Committee. The
44. Answer: a appointment of the Chairperson and Members
Explanation: of the State Human Rights Commission is done
Money Bill - Article 110 by the Governor.
Financial Bill (I) - Article 117(1) 50. Answer: c
Financial Bill (II) - Article 117(3) Explanation: The first temporary Deputy
45. Answer: b Chairman of the Constituent Assembly was
Frank Anthony while the first permanent Deputy
Explanation: The provision for economic
Chairman was H. C. Mukherjee. The first
justice in the Constitution of India is included in
temporary Chairman of the Constituent
the Preamble and Directive Principles of State
Assembly was Dr. Sachchidanand Sinha while
Policy.
the first permanent Chairman of the Constituent
46. Answer: a Assembly was Dr. Rajendra Prasad.
Explanation: The fundamental right to 51. Answer: b
property was abolished by the 44th
Explanation: Provisions related to
Constitutional Amendment.
Fundamental Rights are given in Part III of the
47. Answer: d Constitution. Provisions related to Directive
Explanation: A resolution to remove the Vice Principles of State Policy are included in Part
President of India can be proposed only in the IV of the Constitution. Other options are
Rajya Sabha. Its provision is given in Article correctly matched.
67 of the Constitution. 52. Answer: c
48. Answer: d Explanation: Certiorari and prohibition
Explanation: Article-371 of the Indian petitions examine the functioning of subordinate
Constitution has special provisions for some courts.
states which are as follows – 53. Answer: c
Article-371 (a) : Nagaland Explanation: K. C. Wheare has called the
Article-371 (b) : Assam Directive Principles of State Policy as a
Article-371 (c) : Manipur ‘manifesto of aims and aspirations’. Some other
Article-371 (d) & (e) : Andhra Pradesh statements regarding DPSP-
Article-371 (f) : Sikkim Ivor Jennings- Ritualistic aspirations
Article-371 (ch) : Mizoram K. T. Shah- Compares it with a bank cheque.
Also, he is called an excessive ritualist.
Article-371 (j) : Arunachal Pradesh

9
 T.T. Krishnamachari- called him a 'permanent Dr. Bhim Rao Ambedkar (Chairman)
garbage dump of emotions'. N. Gopal Swami Iyengar
54. Answer: d Alladi Krishnaswamy Iyer
Explanation: In all the three circumstances Dr. K. M. Munshi
mentioned above, the membership of any Syed Mohammed Saadulla
Member of Parliament can be cancelled. These
provisions were introduced in 1985 through the N. Madhava Rao (in place of B. L. Mitra)
52nd Constitutional Amendment under the Anti- T. T. Krishnamachari (in place of DP Khaitan)
Defection Law. Through this amendment, the 59. Answer: c
10th Schedule was added to the Constitution Explanation: Fundamental Rights granted
and a provision was made to prevent defection. under Article 19 and Article 29 are available to
It is noteworthy that questions related to Indian citizens. The rights given under Article
disqualification on the basis of defection are 21 are available to Indians as well as foreigners.
decided by the Speaker or Chairman of the
Fundamental Rights available only to Indians:
House as the case may be.
Fundamental Rights granted under Articles 15,
55. Answer: a 16, 19, 29, 30.
Explanation: Under Article 249, the Fundamental rights enjoyed by foreigners along
Parliament has the right to make laws on the with Indians: Rights enjoyed under Articles 14,
subjects of the State List. The Lok Sabha and 20, 21, 22, 23, 24, 25, 26, 27, 28.
the Rajya Sabha have equal powers on the
60. Answer: c
Constitution Amendment Bill. The presiding
officer has the right to adjourn the House Explanation: 91st Constitutional Amendment
indefinitely. This type of adjournment is called is related to the number of members of the
'sine die adjournment'. Council of Ministers, through this Constitutional
Amendment it was determined that the total
56. Answer: c
number of the Council of Ministers will not
Explanation: Residual powers were granted exceed 15% of the total number of members.
to the Governor General by the Government of All others are correctly matched.
India Act, 1935. By this Act, dual rule was
61. Answer: d
implemented at the centre and powers were
divided between the centre and the provinces. Explanation: All the three statements given
However, this system could not be implemented are true. Directive Principles of State Policy
in British India due to the refusal of the native (Article 36 to Article 51) have not been made
princely states. It is worth noting that by the justiciable. It has been left to the state to decide
Act of 1919, dual rule was implemented in the when and how they will be implemented. Also,
provinces. they have moral and political recognition and
they are not implemented automatically,
57. Answer: c
legislation is required to implement them.
Explanation: The State Election
62. Answer: c
Commissioner is appointed by the President,
not the Governor. It is the prerogative of the Explanation: Article 58 talks about the
Governor to call a session of the Legislative eligibility to be elected President. While the
Assembly. If the Governor feels that a conditions for the post of President are given
constitutional crisis is arising in the state and in Article 59. All others are correctly matched.
the governance of the state is not being carried 63. Answer: a
out in accordance with the constitutional Explanation: Pandit Nehru presented the
provisions, then he can send a recommendation ‘Objective Resolution’ in the Constituent
to the President that President's rule should be Assembly on 13 December, 1946. This
imposed in the state. resolution was unanimously accepted on 22
58. Answer: a January, 1947. The modified form of this
Explanation: In the given options, Gopal resolution became the resolution of the Indian
Swami Commission and Dr. K. M. Munshi Constitution.
were members of the Drafting Committee. 64. Answer: a
Other members of the Drafting Committee Explanation: The Governor can issue an
were- ordinance under Article 213 when both the

11
 Houses of the Legislative Assembly (bicameral Britain.
system) are not in session. This power of his 70. Answer: b
extends to state and concurrent subjects. The
Explanation: In the Constituent Assembly, 15
Governor can withdraw the ordinance at any
members were women, 26 members were
time. In some cases, prior consent of the
from Scheduled Castes and 33 members were
President is necessary.
from Scheduled Tribes.
65. Answer: b
71. Answer: b
Explanation: Parliament can make laws on
Explanation: By the Government of India Act,
the subjects of the State List in the following
1919, for the first time, the Union Budget was
circumstances –
separated from the State Budget and the State
During a national emergency under Article 359 Assemblies were authorized to make their own
During President's rule under Article 356 budget.
For international agreements under Article 253 72. Answer: d
On the request of two or more states under Explanation: None of the above statements
Article 252 is true. The Government of India Act, 1935
On the proposal of Rajya Sabha under Article abolished dual governance in the provinces and
249 introduced dual governance at the centre. The
66. Answer: b Government of India Act, 1935 introduced
bicameralism in 6 states. These states include–
Explanation: Under Article-143, the President Bengal, Bombay, Madras, Bihar, United
has the right to seek advice from the Supreme Provinces and Assam. Legislative Assembly
Court on questions of law and public importance. and Legislative Council were established in these
But he is not bound to accept the advice given states.
by the Supreme Court.
73. Answer: c
67. Answer: d
Explanation: Elephant was adopted as the
Explanation: The Constituent Assembly symbol (seal) by the Constituent Assembly.
adopted the Indian Constitution on 26
74. Answer: c
November 1949 and on the same day 16 articles
of the Indian Constitution became effective. Explanation: Under Article – 219 of the
Articles 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 60, 324, 366, 367, 379, 380, Constitution, the judges of the High Court take
388, 391, 392, 393 and 394 effective on 26 oath.
November 1949. The entire Constitution was 75. Answer: a
implemented on 26 January 1950. Explanation: The provision of appointment of
68. Answer: a ad hoc judges in Indian Judiciary is inspired from
Explanation: The provision for the post of the Constitution of France. Ad hoc judges can
CAG is given in Article 148 of the Constitution. be appointed only in Supreme Court and not in
CAG is appointed by the President but he does High Court.
not hold his post during the pleasure of the 76. Answer: c
President. He can be removed by the President Explanation: The term minority has not been
through the same process by which a judge of defined in the Constitution of India. On the basis
the Supreme Court is removed. The salary and of Article 30, minorities have been classified in
allowances of CAG are not determined by the the Constitution on linguistic and religious basis.
President but are determined by the Parliament. Politically, minorities are classified on the basis
69. Answer: b of population percentage.
Explanation: The source of the language of 77. Answer: b
the Preamble is the Constitution of Australia. Explanation: Articles 25–28 provide the right
The idea of the Preamble is influenced by the to freedom of religion, according to Article 25,
Constitution of the United States of America. the right to free profession, practice and
The principle of residual powers has been taken propagation of religion is guaranteed. Therefore,
from the Constitution of Canada. The rule of it is a constitutional right for followers of any
law has been taken from the Constitution of religion to propagate their religion. This also

13
 includes the freedom to change religion. Explanation: In the given option, the right to
However, the Constitution does not permit do street trading does not come under Article
forced conversion. 21. It is a Fundamental Right under Article 19
Note: In May 2023, a petition was filed in the (1) (g).
Tamil Nadu High Court by the petitioner alleging Right to go abroad (Maneka Gandhi vs Union
forced conversion behind the death of a 17- of India)
year-old girl, then the Tamil Nadu High Court Right to shelter (Chameli Singh vs State of Uttar
gave a milestone verdict and also banned – 'If Pradesh)
their act of propagating their religion is contrary
Right to get free food items (PUCN vs Union
to public order, morality and health and against
of India)
other provisions of Part III of the Constitution,
then it should be taken seriously.' The above 3 rights have been considered by
the Supreme Court as Fundamental Rights
78. Answer: d
under Article 21.
Explanation: The provisions of the Indian
82. Answer: d
Councils Act, 1909 are termed as benevolent
despotism or constitutional dictatorship because Explanation: Promotion of international peace
the people got only nominal reforms through and security is not a Gandhian Directive
the reforms of 1909. Communalism was given Principle. It comes under the category of liberal
legality through this. Directive Principles. While the other options
given are called Gandhian Directive Principles.
79. Answer: b
83. Answer: d
Explanation: The Federal Court was
established in Delhi. It could have one Chief Explanation: Free legal aid and right to
Justice and a maximum of 6 other judges. They employment are called socialist directive
were appointed by the Emperor. This court principles. Formation of Gram Panchayats is a
became functional from 1 October 1937. It had Gandhian directive principle, while Uniform Civil
original appellate and advisory jurisdiction. Its Code comes under the category of liberal
first Chief Justice was Sir Morris Gwyer while directive principle.
two of the six other judges were Indians. The 84. Answer: c
first was Justice MR Jacob and the second was Explanation: Through the 100th Constitutional
Justice MS Sultan. Amendment, the 'Land Boundary Agreement'
80. Answer: b between India and Bangladesh was ratified.
Explanation: Article 3 of the Constitution The 99th Constitutional Amendment is related
authorises the Parliament to – to the provision of National Judicial
Appointment Commission in place of Collegium
create a new State by separating territory from
System. Later, this Constitutional Amendment
any State or by uniting two or more States or
was repealed by a 5-member Constitutional
parts of States or by uniting any part of any
Bench of the Supreme Court and the Collegium
State.
System was reinstated.
increase the area of any State,
85. Answer: d
reduce the area of any State,
Explanation: Tarkunde Committee is related
alter the boundaries of any State, and to election reform. This committee first reduced
change the name of any State. the voting age from 21 years to 18 years. Which
However, Article 3 mentions two conditions in was adopted through the 61st Constitutional
this regard, (1) any Bill relating to the above Amendment. Other committees/commissions
change can be introduced in Parliament only given in the options are related to center-state
after the previous approval of the President and relations. Other committees/commissions
(2) before assent, the President sends the Bill formed on center-state relations –
to the Legislature of the concerned State for Sarkaria Commission
its opinion. This opinion should be given within Puncchi Commission
a specified time limit.
Anandpur Sahib Proposal
81. Answer: c

15
86. Answer: b Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct while
Explanation: West Bengal has a four-tier statement 3 is false.
panchayati raj system. 91. Answer: c
1. Gram Panchayat 2. Anchal Panchayat Explanation: The power to amend the Indian
3. Zonal Council 4. Zilla Parishad Constitution lies only with the Parliament. A
special majority of the Parliament is required
Note:
to amend some of its provisions and some of
1. There is no provision of reservation for its provisions can be amended by a simple
scheduled castes in Panchayat elections in majority in the Parliament like the normal
Arunachal Pradesh. (83rd Constitutional legislative process. Hence, it is considered to
Amendment) be both partially flexible and rigid. State
2. Andhra Pradesh is the second state to adopt legislatures have no power to amend the
Panchayati Raj system after Rajasthan. Constitution. For amendment of some
3. Panchayats have not been formed in Nagaland, provisions, approval of more than half of the
Mizoram and Meghalaya. states is necessary.
87. Answer: b 92. Answer: b
Explanation: The consent of the President is Explanation: Estimates Committee is called
necessary before introducing a Money Bill in mini Lok Sabha because all its 30 members are
the Lok Sabha. The other two statements given taken from Lok Sabha. Its members are
in the option are not true. Money Bill is elected by the proportional representation
introduced only in the Lok Sabha, not in the system and its main function is to review the
Rajya Sabha. Whether a Bill is a Money Bill or expenditure proposed by the government in the
not is decided by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha. budget.
88. Answer: a 93. Answer: d
Explanation: Article 114 of the Constitution Explanation: Article-107 Effect of dissolution
states that money can be withdrawn from the of Lok Sabha –
Consolidated Fund only through an All the bills pending in Lok Sabha expire.
Appropriation Bill. The Appropriation Bill is The bills pending in Rajya Sabha which have
introduced only in the Lok Sabha. It specifies not been passed by Lok Sabha do not expire.
the demands for grants and the expenditure
The bills passed by Lok Sabha which are
charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.
pending in Rajya Sabha expire.
Note: Every Appropriation Bill is a Money Bill
94. Answer: b
and is passed according to the same procedure
as a Money Bill. Explanation: In the case of Emmanuel vs
State of Kerala, 1986, the Supreme Court held
89. Answer: c
that the right to remain silent is a fundamental
Explanation: Parliamentary committees are right under freedom of speech and expression.
an indispensable and integral part of the present This case was related to singing the national
system. All bills presented before the anthem.
Parliament are thoroughly and thoroughly
95. Answer: c
scrutinised by the Parliament. Thus, Parliament
performs legislative functions and controls the Explanation: Under Article 53 of the
executive through these committees. Constitution, the executive power of the Union
is vested in the President. Hence, Statement
90. Answer: b
(A) is correct that the head of the Union
Explanation: Censure motion can be brought Executive is the President of India. Under
against a minister or a group of ministers or the Article 74(1), the President exercises his
entire Council of Ministers to express functions on the advice of the Council of
disagreement with their policies. It can be Ministers and hence its powers are subject to
brought only in Lok Sabha, not in Rajya Sabha. limitations under the Constitution. Hence,
If it is passed in Lok Sabha, then the Council of reason (R) is wrong.
Ministers is not required to resign from the post.

17
96. Answer: b Imprisonment of 2 years by any other country
Explanation: The members of the Council of within 5 years of acquiring citizenship by
Ministers are personally responsible to the registration or naturalization
President as they hold office during the 101. Answer: b
pleasure of the President. Explanation: Statement B is false. A
97. Answer: c maximum of 4 members of the Union Council
Explanation: Economic freedom has not been of Ministers nominated by the Prime Minister
discussed in the Preamble of the Indian can join NITI Aayog as ex-officio members.
Constitution. The constitution talks about The other three statements are true. The Prime
freedom of thought, expression, religion and Minister is the ex-officio Chairman of NITI
worship. For all the citizens of the country, it Aayog while the Vice-Chairman is appointed
talks about 'economic justice' along with social by the Prime Minister.
and political justice. 102. Answer: b
98. Answer: d Explanation: The value of final goods and
Explanation: Both statement and reason are services produced within the domestic boundary
wrong. Fundamental rights are not unlimited; of a country in a financial year is called Gross
reasonable restrictions can be imposed on them Domestic Product (GDP). Gifts received from
by the government. For example, during a abroad, goods not produced in a financial year,
national emergency declared under Article 352, capital gains or loss are not included in the
Article 19 is automatically suspended. calculation of Gross Domestic Product (GDP).
Apart from this, when martial law is imposed 103. Answer: b
anywhere in the country under Article 34, Explanation: Various types of services are
restrictions can be imposed on fundamental produced in the tertiary sector of the economy.
rights. In such a situation, compensation rules This sector is also called the service sector.
can be made by the Parliament. But this The economic activities included in this sector
compensation act cannot be challenged in any are as follows –
court on the ground that it is a violation of • Trade, Hotels and Restaurants
fundamental rights. The Supreme Court has the • Public Administration and Defence
power to prevent violation of these provisions.
• Transport, Communication and Storage
99. Answer: b
• Medical Services
Explanation: In the Constitution of India, the
• Financial Services like Banking and Insurance
idea of the concurrent list and joint sitting of
both the houses of the Parliament has been • Real Estate
taken from the Constitution of Australia. Apart • Other Services
from this, the provision of concurrent list, Gas, water and electricity supply belong to the
freedom of trade and commerce has also been secondary sector of the economy and not to
taken from the Constitution of Australia. the tertiary sector.
100. Answer: d 104. Answer: c
Explanation: The renunciation of citizenship Explanation: In the event of inflation, the
of an Indian can happen in the following ways– producer benefits because his goods get a
On acquiring citizenship of any other country higher price. The lender suffers a loss while
On renouncing citizenship the borrower benefits. Public savings do not
increase but decrease.
On being deprived of citizenship by the
Government of India 105. Answer: c
The Government of India can deprive any Explanation: S.S. Tarapore Committee was
person of Indian citizenship on the following formed with the objective of capital account
grounds – convertibility in foreign exchange. M.N.
Goiporia Committee was formed with the
If he shows disloyalty to the Constitution.
objective of improving customer service. R.V.
Helps the enemy during war. Gupta Committee was formed with the
Acquires citizenship by wrong means. objective of improving the agricultural credit

19
 sector. regulates the commercial banks.
106. Answer: d 113. Answer: d
Explanation: The prescribed portion of the Explanation: Five Year Plans and their
total deposits and reserves of various objectives –
commercial banks with the Reserve Bank of • First Five Year Plan – Increase in agricultural
India is called Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR). production
107. Answer: a • Second Five Year Plan – Development of heavy
Explanation: Wanchoo Committee was industries and basic industries
constituted to investigate about direct tax and • Third Five Year Plan – Achieving self-
not about motor vehicle tax. Bhure Lal sufficiency in the production of food grains
Committee was constituted to investigate the
• Fourth Five Year Plan – Accelerating the
increase in motor vehicle taxes and submit its
process of development
report.
114. Answer: b
108. Answer: d
Explanation: If interest payment is subtracted
Explanation: The most appropriate measure
from fiscal deficit, primary deficit is obtained –
of economic growth of a country is per capita
product/income. • Primary deficit = Fiscal deficit – Interest
payment, Hence
109. Answer: d
• Fiscal deficit = Primary deficit + Interest
Explanation: The Reserve Bank of India
payment,
issues currency in exchange for gold reserves,
foreign securities and Government of India If interest payment is included in primary
securities. deficit, it is equal to fiscal deficit.
110. Answer: d 115. Answer: d
Explanation: The First Five Year Plan was Explanation: Goods and Services Tax (GST)
based on the 'Harrod-Domar Model'. The has replaced Central Excise Duty, Service Tax,
Second Five Year Plan was based on the 'P.C. Central Sales Tax, Additional Customs Duty,
Mahalanobis Model'. The Third Five Year Plan Central Surcharge and Cess, State VAT, State
was influenced by the 'J. Sandy, Sukhamoy Entry Tax, Entertainment Tax, Luxury Tax, Tax
Chakravarty and Mahalanobis Model'. The on Lottery, Gambling and Betting, Tax on
Fourth Five Year Plan was based on the 'D.R. Advertisements, State Surcharge and Cess.
Godgil Model'. The main objective of the Second 116. Answer: b
Five Year Plan was to establish a socialist Explanation: In the measurement of money
society. In the Second Five Year Plan, priority supply, M1 type of money is called narrow
was given to the development of industries. money. The types of money are as follows –
111. Answer: d • M0 (Reserve Money) = Money in circulation +
Explanation: In the Eighth Five Year Plan, Deposits of RBI banks + Other deposits with
human development was considered the RBI
essence of all development efforts. Its main • M1 (Narrow Money) = Money with public +
goal was 'all-round human development' by Demand deposits with banks + Other deposits
creating adequate opportunities for productive with RBI
employment. In this Five Year Plan, an attempt • M2 = M1 + Deposits in post offices
was made to make primary education universal
• M3 (Broad Money) = M1 + Time Deposits with
and completely eliminate illiteracy among people
banks
between 15 and 35 years of age. In this plan,
provision was made for drinking water, • M 4 = M 3 + Deposits with post offices
vaccination and primary medical facilities in all (excluding National Savings Certificates)
villages. An attempt was made to completely 117. Answer: c
eliminate the practice of manual scavenging. Explanation: Doubling of both prices and
112. Answer: d monetary income in a given time period will
Explanation: In all the above cases RBI not have any effect on the real income.

21
118. Answer: d per capita income of India before independence.
Explanation: Disguised unemployment means 125. Answer: d
a situation in which more persons than required Explanation: Investment in education is the
are engaged in a work. In this situation, it main source of human capital, while provision
appears from outside that those people have of clean drinking water and vaccination are
employment but if those persons are removed health expenditure. Health expenditure is also
from that work, then there is no adverse effect considered a source of human capital. Hence,
on the total production. The marginal all the above options are sources of human
productivity of these workers is zero or capital.
negligible. This type of invisible disguised 126. Answer: c
unemployment is found more in agriculture.
Explanation: In any economy, when per capita
119. Answer: b income increases, demand definitely increases.
Explanation: In ranching farming, plowing, 127. Answer: a
sowing and weeding of land is not done and
neither crops are produced, rather different Explanation: Before independence, the first
types of animals like sheep, goat etc. are grazed estimate of national income in India was made
on natural vegetation. by Dadabhai Naoroji in the year 1868.
According to him, the per capita national
120. Answer: a income in India in the year 1868 was Rs. 20.
Explanation: Horticulture is called gardening 128. Answer: c
activity. Other options are correctly matched.
Explanation: Activities included in non-
121. Answer: d agricultural productive activities include –
Explanation: The following are the matched education, health services, food processing,
committee and its objectives – small manufacturing, transport, hotels, banking,
• M. N. Goiporia Committee – Improvement in shopping malls, shops etc.
customer service 129. Answer: d
• A. Ghosh Committee – To prevent frauds in Explanation: The major factors affecting the
banks location of an industry are – raw material, power,
• S. S. Tarapore Committee – Capital account transport, market access, cheap labour,
convertibility in foreign exchange availability of water, capital, government
• D. Subbarao Committee – For technical advice policies and climate etc.
on monetary policy 130. Answer: c
122. Answer: c Explanation: Inflation in developing countries
Explanation: The current account of balance is considered to be sustainable at 5-6 percent.
of payments also includes the receivables and 131. Answer: b
liabilities of trade balance and invisible items Explanation: The Human Development Index
(insurance, transport, tourism, gifts etc.). (HDI) is prepared on the basis of health,
123. Answer: b education and income level/consumption
Explanation: Private remittances are not expenditure. Infant mortality rate is not included
included in the capital account. It includes direct in it. It is prepared by the United Nations
private investment made by foreign countries Development Programme (UNDP).
in the country, direct private investment made 132. Answer: c
abroad, loan receipt from foreign countries and Explanation: The words Bull and Bear are
loan repayment to foreign countries, internal and related to the stock market.
external flow of banking capital, loan receipt Bull: A bull is a broker who either stops selling
from international institutions and loan shares immediately with the thought of a rise
repayment to them, portfolio investment etc. in share prices in the coming time or starts
124. Answer: d buying them at cheaper prices at present. Bulls
Explanation: Dadabhai Naoroji, Dr. V.K.R.V. buy shares in large quantities, which leads to a
Rao, R.C. Desai, Fidely Shiraz etc. were rise in the price of shares.
involved in calculation of national income and

23
 Bear: A broker who sells his shares in large 139. Answer: a
quantities with the thought of a fall in the price
Explanation: Budget 2025-26 has proposed
in the coming time, which increases the supply
several measures for the agriculture sector,
of shares and as a result the prices of shares
including setting up of a Makhana Board in
start falling.
Bihar and raising the loan limit of Kisan Credit
133. Answer: b Card from ?3 lakh to ?5 lakh. However, there
Explanation: Devaluation of a currency is a is no mention of an increase in premium rates
decrease in the value of a currency in relation under the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana.
to other currencies. It is a deliberate downward 140. Answer: b
adjustment of the value of a country’s currency
Explanation: According to the Union Budget
relative to another currency, basket of
2025 – 26, a urea plant with an annual
currencies or standard. Devaluation increases
production capacity of 12.7 lakh metric tonnes
the value of the domestic currency in the
will be set up at Namrup (Assam).
country, making imports costlier and reducing
imports, while the value of the domestic 141. Answer: c
currency decreases in relation to foreign
Explanation: According to the Union Budget
currencies, making exports cheaper and more
2025 – 26, the ‘National Institute of Food
profitable, leading to an increase in exports.
Technology Entrepreneurship and
134. Answer: c Management’ will be established in Bihar.
Explanation: Special Drawing Rights (SDR) 142. Answer: a
is an international reserve asset issued by the
Explanation: Only statement 1 is correct.
International Monetary Fund. SDR is neither a
Bharat TradeNet (BTN) will be set up for
currency nor can it be claimed on the IMF. It is
international trade as a common platform for
a type of international monetary reserve
trade documentation and financing solutions. 50
currency which acts as a supplement to the
top tourist destinations will be developed in the
existing money reserves of member countries
country with the participation of states. Jal
by the IMF.
Jeevan Mission has been extended up to the
135. Answer: a year 2028.
Explanation: Cash Reserve Ratio is a certain 143. Answer: d
percentage of the total deposits of a commercial
Explanation: All the above statements are
bank which is deposited with the RBI. RBI does
correct. According to the Economic Survey
not pay interest to commercial banks on the
2024 – 25, India’s real GDP is projected to grow
money deposited in the form of CRR.
by 6.4% in FY 2025 (2024-25). India’s GDP is
136. Answer: d projected to grow between 6.3 and 6.8% in FY
2026 (2025-26). Retail inflation averaged 4.9%
Explanation: Global Economic Prospects is
in 2024, down from 5.4% in FY 2024. India
released by the World Economic Forum.
continued to be the top recipient of remittances
137. Answer: b in the world. This helped in keeping the current
Explanation: Twenty Point Economic account deficit at 1.2% of GDP.
Program was first started in the year 1975. 144. Answer: b
138. Answer: c Explanation: According to the Economic
Explanation: Bank rate is the rate at which Survey 2024 – 25, the agricultural sector can
the central bank provides credit facilities to see a growth of 3.8 percent in the financial year
commercial banks on first-rate securities. 2025. At the same time, the industrial sector is
When there is a situation of inflation in the estimated to grow by 6.2 percent in the year
country, the bank rate is increased and when 2025. The service sector is expected to grow
there is a situation of contraction, the bank rate by 7.2 percent in the year 2025 due to increasing
is decreased. activities in financial, real estate, professional
services, public administration, defense and
other services.

25
145. Answer: a estimated cost of Rs 100 lakh crore. Its
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. The objective is to remove the shortcomings of
objective of PM WANI (Pradhan Mantri Wi- infrastructure and complete the projects
Fi Access Network Interface) scheme is to expeditiously by 2024-25.
provide free or affordable Wi-Fi hotspots at 148. Answer: b
public places like railway stations, bus stops, Explanation: The correct match is as follows–
markets, villages etc. across the country, to give
• PM Gatishakti Yojana - 13 October, 2021
impetus to the Digital India campaign.
• Hriday Yojana - 21 January, 2015
Statement 2 is correct. Under this scheme, any
interested person or shop can become a Public • Uday Yojana - 05 November, 2015
Data Office (PDO) without any license, fee or • PM Gram Sadak Yojana - 25 December, 2000
registration fee. There is only a common 149. Answer: b
registration process for this. Explanation: The correct match is as follows–
Statement 3 is incorrect. PM Vani Yojana was • Soil Health Card Scheme - 19 February, 2015
launched on 9 December 2020, not in 2022.
• E-National Agriculture Market - 14 April, 2016
The scheme is based on the recommendations
of TRAI and aims to “provide easy access to • Start-Up India - 16 January, 2016
high-speed internet to everyone”. • Stand-Up India - 05 April, 2016
146. Answer: a 150. Answer: a
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Pradhan Explanation: Chief Minister Kanya
Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana was launched on 28 Sumangala Yojana was launched on 25 October,
August 2014. Under Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan 2019 while it was implemented from 01 April,
Yojana, any person is allowed to open a bank 2019. Other options are correctly matched.
account without minimum balance (zero • Chief Minister Abhyudaya Yojana - 15 February,
balance), so that all citizens can be connected 2021
to the formal banking system.
• Naya Savera Yojana - 16 June, 2017
Statement 2 is correct. RuPay debit card is given
• One District, One Product Scheme - 24
with Jan Dhan account and if the account is
January, 2018
active, the account holder gets accident
insurance cover up to Rs. 2 lakh (earlier it was
Rs. 1 lakh, which was later increased). Apart
from this, life insurance up to Rs. 30,000 was
also provided (under certain conditions).
Statement 3 is incorrect. This scheme was
implemented for both rural and urban areas.
Its aim was to provide banking facilities to all
citizens, irrespective of where they lived.
147. Answer: d
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. PM Gati
Shakti Yojana was launched by Prime Minister
Narendra Modi on October 13, 2021. It is a
mega infrastructure scheme that coordinates
between various ministries and departments.
Statement 2 is correct. The objective of this
scheme is to promote multi-modal connectivity
so that there is better coordination between
various modes of transport (such as road, rail,
water, air) and increase the efficiency of
logistics.
Statement 3 is correct. The 'National Master
Plan' prepared under this scheme has an

27