23-02-2025

2701CMD303035240001 MD

PHYSICS

1) A particle peforms a SHM of amplitude A and period T. If the particle is half way between the
mean position and the extreme position, then its speed at that point will be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) For a linear harmonic oscillator, period is second and amplitude is 5 cm. The velocity of the
oscillator, when it is at a distance of 1 cm from the extreme position is :

(1) 6 cm/s
(2) 5 cm/s
(3) 4 cm/s
(4) 3 cm/s

3) The displacement of a particle executing a linear SHM is given by metre.

Then the period and the maximum velocity of the particle are given by :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) A particle is executing a linar SHM. Its velocity at a distance x from the mean position is given by
[x is in metre]
What is the amplitude of SHM ?

(1) 2 m
(2) 4 m
(3) 3 m
(4) 5 m

5) A particle performs a SHM of period sec. and amplitude 2 cm. At what distance from the mean
position, its velocity and acceleration are numerically equal ?

(1) cm
(2) cm
(3) cm
(4) cm

6) A mass M attached to a spring oscillates with a period of 1 s. If the mass is increased by 3 kg the
period increases by 1 s. What is the value of M, assuming that Hooke’s law is obeyed ?

(1) 3 kg
(2) 2 kg
(3) 1 kg
(4) 5 kg

7) A particle executes simple harmonic motion between and . It takes time t1 to go

from 0 to A/2 and t2 to go from A/2 to A. What is the ratio T2/T1 ?

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

8) Whan the displacement of a simple harmonic oscillator is half of its amplitude, its potential energy
is 3 J. Its total energy is :

(1) 6 J
(2) 12 J
(3) 15 J
(4) 20 J

9) A body is executing a linear SHM. At a displacement x its potential energy is E1 and at a

displacement y its potential energy E2. What is its potential enegy E at displacement (x + y) ?

(1)
(2) E = E1 + E2
(3) E = E1 - E2
(4)

10) For small amplitudes, the force constant of a simple pendulum is :

(1) directly proportional to the acceleration due to gravity

(2) inversely proportional to the acceleration due to gravity
(3) independent of the mass of the bob and the length of the pendulum
(4) directly proportional to the mass of the bob
11) A simple pendulum, suspended from the celling of a lift, has a period of oscillation T, when the
lift is at rest. If the lift starts moving upwards with an acceleration a = 3g, then the new period will
be :

(1) 2T
(2) 4T
(3) T/3
(4) T/2

12) A simple pendulum is executing a linear SHM of period T. If the length of the simple pendulum
is increased by 21%, thent he increase in the periodic time of the wimple pendulum will be :

(1) 50%
(2) 40%
(3) 20%
(4) 10%

13) Five identical springs are used in the following three configurations as shown in the figure. The
time periods of vertical oscillations in configuration (a), (b) and (c) are int he ratio

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) Statement - 1 : For a simple pendulum of infinite length, the periodic time is infinite, since

.
Statement - 2 : The period of a simple pendulum of infinite length is about 85 minutes.

where Re is the radius of the earth.

Statement - 1 is true, statement - 2 is true,

(1)
statement - 2 is a correct explanation for statement - 1
Statement - 1 is true, statement - 2 is true,
(2)
statement - 2 is not a correct explanation for statement - 1
(3) Statement - 1 is True, Statement - 2 is Wrong
(4) Statement - 1 is Wrong, Statement - 2 is True

15) For a particle executing a linear simple harmonic motion, the displacement x is given by .
Identify the graphs which represent the variation of potential energy (P.E.) as a function of time t

and displacement x.

(1) I, IV
(2) I, III
(3) II, IV
(4) II, III

16) We consider a thermodynamics system. If represents the increase in its internal energy and
dW the work done by the system then which of the following statements is true ?

(1) is an isothermal process

(2) is an adiabatic process
(3) is an isorthermal process
(4) is an adiabatic process

17) If the specific heat of a gas at constant volume is then the value of will be :

(1) 5/2
(2) 5/3
(3) 5/4
(4) 3/5

18) During an adiabatic process, the pressure of a gas is found to be proportional to the cube of its

absolute temperature. What is the value of for the gas ?

(1) 2
(2) 3/2
(3) 4/3
(4) 5/3

19) Which one of the following parameters does not represent a thermodynamic state of a gas ?

(1) Work
(2) Volume
(3) Pressure
(4) Temperature
20) A sample of gas gas expands from volume V1 to V2. The amount of work done by the gas is
maximum when the expansion is :

(1) Adiabatic
(2) Isobaric
(3) Isothermal
(4) Equal in all above cases

21) When a diatomic gas undergoes adiabatic change, its pressure (P) and temperature (T), are
related by the relation . What is the value of C ?

(1) 2.5
(2) 3.5
(3) 1.4
(4) 2.25

22) A monoatomic ideal gas, initially at temperature T1, is enclosed in a cylinder fitted with a
frictionless piston. The gas is allowed to expand adiabatially to a temperature T2 by releasing the
piston suddenly. L1 and L2 are the lengths of the gas columns before and after the expansion

respectively. What is the value of ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) A monoatomic gas is heated at constant pressure. What is the percentage of total heat used for
doing external work ?

(1) 30%
(2) 40%
(3) 50%
(4) 60%

24) An ideal gas with pressure P, volume V and temperature T is expanded isothermally to a volume
2V and a final pressure Pi. If the same gas is expanded adiabatically to a volume 2V, the final

pressure is Pa. What is the ratio if

(1) 0.43
(2) 0.53
(3) 0.63
(4) 0.73

25) If R is universal gas constant then the amount of heat needed to raise the temperature of 2
moles of an ideal monoatomic gas from 273 K to 373 K when no work is done is :

(1) 500 R
(2) 300 R
(3) 150 R
(4) 100 R

26) An ideal monoatomic gas is heated at constant pressure. What is the fraction of the hat energy
supplied to the gas that is used to increase the internal energy of the gas ?

(1) 3/7
(2) 3/5
(3) 2/5
(4) 5/7

27) A carnot engine working between 450 K and 600 K has a work output of 300 J/cycle. What is the
amount of heat energy supplied to the engine from the source in each cycle ?

(1) 400 J
(2) 800 J
(3) 1200 J
(4) 1600 J

28) In the P-V diagram, I is the initial state and F is the final state. The gas goes from I to F by

i) IAF, ii) IBF and (iii) ICF The heat absorbed by the gas is :

(1) The ame in all the three processes

(2) The same in (i) and (ii)
(3) More in (i) than in (ii)
(4) The same in (ii) and (iii)

29) An ideal gas is taken round the cycle ABCDA as shown in the figure. What is the work done

during the cycle ABCDA ?

(1) Zero
(2) PV
(3) 2PV
(4) PV / 2

30) One mole of an ideal monoatomic gas is taken round the cyclic process ABCA as shown in the
following figure.

What is the heat energy absorbed by the gas in the process

(1) P0V0
(2) 2P0V0
(3) 3P0V0
(4) 5/2P0V0

31) Five particles of mass = 2 kg are attached to the rim of a circular disc of radius 0.1 m and
negligible mass. Moment of inertia of the system about the axis passing through the centre of the
disc and perpendicular to its plane is

(1) 1 kg m2
(2) 0.1 kg m2
(3) 2 kg m2
(4) 0.2 kg m2

32) Moment of inertia of a uniform circular disc about a diameter is I. Its moment of inertia about an
axis perpendicular to its plane and passing through a point on its rim will be

(1) 5 I
(2) 6 I
(3) 3 I
(4) 4 I

33) Three rods each of length L and mass M are placed along X, Y and Z-axes in such a way that one
end of each of the rod is at the origin. The moment of inertia of this system about Z axis is

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

34) Two identical rods each of mass M. and length l are joined in crossed position as shown in figure.

The moment of inertia of this system about a bisector would be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) Four spheres, each of mass M and radius are situated at the four corners of square of side R.
The moment of inertia of the system about an axis perpendicular to the plane of square and passing

through its centre will be

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

36) The resultant of the system in the figure is a force of 8 N parallel to the given force through R.

The value of PR equals to

(1) 1/4 RQ
(2) 3/8 RQ
(3) 3/5 RQ
(4) 2/5 RQ

37) A thin circular ring of mass M and radius R is rotating about its axis with a constant angular
velocity w. Four objects each of mass m, are kept gently to the opposite ends of two perpendicular
diameters of the ring. The angular velocity of the ring will be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

38) A circular disc X of radius R is made from an iron plate of thickness t, and another disc Y of
radius 4R is made from an iron plate of thickness T/4. Then the relation between the moment of
inertia IX and IY is

(1) IY = 64IX
(2) IY = 32IX
(3) IY = 16IX
(4) IY = IX

39) A solid cylinder of mass M and radius R rolls without slipping down an inclined plane of length L
and height h. What is the speed of its centre of mass when the cylinder reaches its bottom
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) A sphere rolls down on an inclined plane of inclination q. What is the acceleration as the sphere
reaches bottom

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

41) A thin uniform circular ring is rolling down an inclined plane of inclination 30° without slipping.
Its linear acceleration along the inclined plane will be

(1) g/2
g/3
(2)

(3) g/4
(4) 2g/3

42) A uniform horizontal meter scale of mass m is suspended by two vertical strings attached to its
two ends. A block o mass 3m is placed on the 60 cm mark. The tensions in the two strings are in
the ratio

(1) 17 : 19
(2) 19 : 21
(3) 17 : 23
(4) 19 : 23

43) A rod of length L, hinged at the bottom is held vertically and thn allowed to fall, the linear
velocity of its top when it hits the floor is :
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44) A particle of mass 5 g is moving with a uniform speed of in the x – y plane along the
line Th emagnitude of its angular momentum about the origin in g cm2/s is

(1) 0
(2) 30
(3)
(4) 60

45) A disc and a ring of same mass are rolling and if their kinetic energies are equal, then the ratio
of their velocities will be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

CHEMISTRY

1) A mixture of aniline and chloroform is separated by

(1) Sublimation
(2) Separating funnel
(3) Crystallization
(4) Distillation

2) A mixture contains four solid compounds A, B, C and D. On heating, only C changes from solid to
vapour state, C can be easily separated from the rest of the mixture by

(1) Fractional crystallization

(2) Fractional distillation
(3) Sublimation
(4) Steam distillation

3) Which of the following metal is used in Lassaigen’s test?

(1) Na
(2) Ni
(3) K
(4) Cs

4) For the detection of phosphorus, the organic compound after fusion with Na2O2 is extracted with
water, boiled with HNO3 and then ammonium molybdate added to it. A yellow ppt. is obtained which
is due to the formation of

(1) Ammonium phosphate

(2) Ammonium phosphomolybdate
(3) Ferric phosphate
(4) Disodium ammonium phosphate

5) An organic compound containing N, S and O as extra elements is fused with sodium metal and
then extracted with water. The species which is not present in the sodium extract is

(1) CN–
(2) CNS–
–
(3) NO 3
(4) S–2

6) The Lassaigne’s extract is boiled with dil. HNO3 before testing for halogens because

(1) Silver halides are soluble in HNO3

(2) Na2S and NaCN are decomposed by HNO3
(3) Ag2S is soluble in HNO3
(4) AgCN is soluble in HNO3

7) The sodium extract prepared from sulphanilic acid, contains SCN–. It gives blood-red colouration
with

(1) FeCl3
(2) Na2CS3
(3) FeSO4
(4) A mixture of Na2S & CS2

8) In Kjeldahl’s method, during digestion, the nitrogen of the organic compound is converted into

(1) NH4Cl
(2) (NH4)2SO4
(3) NH4NO3
(4) NH3

9) Which of the following compounds does not show Lassaigne’s test for nitrogen.
(1) Phenylhydrazine
(2) Azobenzene
(3) Urea
(4) Hydrazine

10) In Lassaigne’s test the organic compound is fused with sodium metal to :

(1) Ignite the compound

(2) Oxidise the compound
(3) Convert the elements in ionic form
(4) Reduce the compound

11) A student tried two reactions for preparing tertbutyl ethyl ethter :

Which reaction will give better yield of tert butyl ether ?

(1) Only I
(2) Only II
(3) Both I and II
(4) Neither I nor II

12) In SN1 the first step involves the formation of

(1) free radical

(2) carbonion
(3) carbocation
(4) carbene

13) To form alkane isonitrile, alkyl halide is reacted with :

(1) KCN
(2) AgCN
(3) NaCN
(4) NH4CN

14) SN1 reaction on an optically active substrate having only one chircal centre which is also
reaction centre, gives :

(1) Retention in configuration

(2) Inversion in configur1ation
(3) Partially recemised product
(4) Complete racemised product

15) Arrange the following compounds in the increasing order of their SN2 reactivity ?

(1) a < b < c < d

(2) a < c < d < b
(3) d < c < b < a
(4) b < d < c < a

16) Which gas is liberated when Al4C3 is hydrolysed ?

(1) CH4
(2) C2H2
(3) C2H6
(4) CO2

17) Hydrolysis of which of the following does not occur?

(1) VCl4
(2) TiCl4
(3) SiCl4
(4) CCl4

18) Which of the following is used as black pigment in black ink ?

(1) Carbon black

(2) Germanium
(3) Graphite
(4) Coke

19) Purity wise only pure form of carbon is :

(1) Dimond
(2) Fullerene
(3) Graphite
(4) Coal

20) Of the group 13 elements, the element with lowest electronegativity is :

(1) B
(2) Tl
(3) Al
(4) In
21) The hydridized state of Al3+ in the complex ion formed when AlCl3 is treated with aqueous acid is
:

(1) sp3
(2) dsp2
(3) sp3d2
(4) sp2d

22) In the structure of borax, the number of boron atoms and B-O-B units, respectively, are :

(1) 4 and 5
(2) 4 and 3
(3) 5 and 4
(4) 5 and 3

23) The correct order of atomic radii in group 13 elements is :

(1) B < Ga < Al < Tl < In

(2) B < Al < Ga < In < Tl
(3) B < Al < In < Ga < Tl
(4) B < Ga < Al < In < Tl

24) The chemical formula of bauxite is :

(1) Al2O3
(2) Al2O3.2H2O
(3) Na3AlF4
(4) Al2Cl6

25) One litre of a buffer solution containing 0.01 M NH4Cl and 0.1 M NH4OH having pKb of 5 has
pH of :

(1) 9
(2) 10
(3) 4
(4) 6

26) Which of the following pairs constitutes a buffer ?

(1) HNO3 and NH4NO3

(2) HCl and KCl
(3) HNO2 and NaNO2
(4) NaOH and NaCl

27) The Lewis acid strength of BBr3, BCl3 and BF3 is in the order :
(1) BBr3 < BCl3 < BF3
(2) BCl3 < BF3 < BBr3
(3) BF3 < BCl3 < BBr3
(4) BBr3 < BF3 < BCl3

28) The pH of a solution obtained by mixing 50 ml of 1 N HCl and 30 ml of 1 N NaOH is [log 2.5 =
0.3979]

(1) 3.979
(2) 0.6021
(3) 12.042
(4) 1.2042

29) Ammonium cyanide is a salt of NH4OH (Kb = 1.8 × 10–5) and HCN (Ka = 4.0 × 10–10). The
hydrolysis constant of 0.1 M NH4CN at 25°C is :

(1) 1.4
(2) 7.2 × 10–15
(3) 7.2 × 10–1
(4) 1.4 × 10–6

30) At 100°C, Kw = 10–12, pH of pure water at 100°C will be :

(1) 6.0
(2) 7.0
(3) 8.0
(4) 12.0

–3
31) The pH value of 10 M aqueous solution of NaCl is:

(1) 7
(2) 3
(3) 11
(4) 14

32) What is the [H+] in 0.40 M solution of HOCl, Ka = 3.5 × 10–8 ?

(1) 1.4 × 10–8 M

(2) 1.2 × 10–4 M
(3) 1.9 × 10–9 M
(4) 3.7 × 10–4 M

33) The first and second ionization constant of H2S are 9.1 × 10–8 and 1.2 × 10–13. The ionization
constant of the reaction will be :
(1) (9.1 × 10–8) + (1.2 × 10–13)
(2) (9.1 x× 10–8) – (1.2 × 10–13)
(3) (9.1 × 10–8) × (1.2 × 10–13)
(4) (9.1 × 10–8) (1.2 × 10–13)

34) Heat of combustion for C(s), H2(g) and CH4(g) are –94, –68 and –213 kcal/mol. Then for
is :

(1) –17 kcal

(2) -111 kcal
(3) –170 kcal
(4) –85 kcal

35)

(1) A - s, B - r, C - p, D - q
(2) A - r, B - s, C - q, D - p
(3) A - q, B - r, C - p, D - s
(4) A - s, B - r, C - q, D - p

36) Assertion (A) : Addition of silver to a mixture of aqueous sodium chloride and sodium bromide
solution will first precipitate AgBr than AgCl.
Reason (R) : Ksp of AgCl > Ksp of AgBr.

If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the
(1)
assertion.
If both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false
(4) If both assertion and reason are false

37) The enthalpy at 298 K of the reaction :

is –23.5 kcal mol–1 and enthalpy of formation of H2O2(l) –44.8 kcal mol–1. The enthalpy of formation of
H2O(l) is :
(1) –68.3 kcal / mol
(2) 68.3 kcal / mol
(3) –91.8 kcal / mol
(4) 91.8 kcal / mol

38) Enthalpies of formation of CO(g), CO2(g), N2O(g) and N2O4(g) are –110, –393, 81 and 9.7 kJ mol–1
respectively. Find the value of H for the reaction:

(1) –77.77 kJ
(2) –777.7 kJ
(3) –920.3 kJ
(4) +920.3 kJ

39) Kirchoff’s equation is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) Which of the following is a path function ?

(1) Internal energy

(2) Enthalpy
(3) Work
(4) Entropy

41) In which one of the following sets, all the properties belong to same category (all extensive or all
intensive)?

(1) Mass, volume, pressure

(2) Temperature, pressure, volume
(3) Heat capacity, density, entropy
(4) Enthalpy, internal energy, volume

42) 4.4 g of CO2 and 2.24 litre of H2 at STP are mixed in a container. The total number of molecules
present in the container will be :

(1) 6.22 × 1023

(2) 1.2044 × 1023
(3) 6.022 × 1026
(4) 6.022 × 1024

43) The number of g-atom of oxygen in 6.02 × 1024 CO molecules is :

(1) 1
(2) 0.5
(3) 5
(4) 10

44) If 1021 molecules are removed from 200 mg of CO2, then the number of moles of CO2 left are :

(1) 2.88 x 10-3

(2) 28.8 x 10-3
(3) 0.288 x 10-3
(4) 1.66 x 10-2

45) The density of 3 M solution of NaCl is 1.25 g mL–1. Calculate the molality of the solution :

(1) 2.8 m
(2) 2.6 m
(3) 2.4 m
(4) 2.2 m

BIOLOGY

1)

(1) a–4, b–3, c–1, d–2

(2) a–2, b–3, c–4, d–1
(3) a–3, b–4, c–1, d–2
(4) a–1, b–3, c–2, d–4

2) Mark the incorrect statement

(1) Some tissues especially the neural tissues hav lipids with more complex structures.
(2) Glycerol is a simple lipid which is trihydroxy propane
(3) Gingerly oil remains oil in winters also
(4) Palmitic acid is an 18 C compound
3) Assertion: In C3 cycle the first stable compound is 3C compound
Reason: In C4 plants Calvin cycle is absent

If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the
(1)
assertion.
If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion
(3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false
(4) If both the assertion and reason are false.

4) Statement-I: The primary CO2 acceptor in C4 plants is phosphoenolpyruvate and is found in the
mesophyll cells.
Statement-II: Mesophyll cells of C4 plants lack RuBisCo enzyme.

(1) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

(2) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
(3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.

5) Which of the following is not always required for chemiosmosis?

(1) Membrane
(2) Proton pump
(3) OEC
(4) ATP synthase

6) How does PS-II supply electrons continuously?

(1) By removing electrons from photon

(2) By removing electrons from H2O
(3) By removing electrons from CO2
(4) By removing electrons from constituent carotenoids

7) Assertion: A sigmoid curve is a characteristic of living organism growing in a natural

environment.
Reason: Sigmoid curve is an S shaped curve.

If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the
(1)
assertion.
If both the assertion and reason are true but thereason is not a correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion
(3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) If both the assertion and reason are false.

8)
in this given equation H2A represents to:
(1) Suitable reducible compounds
(2) Suitable oxidisable compound
(3) Suitable buffer
(4) Both (1) and (2)

9) Which is one of the most fundamental and conspicuous characteristics of living being?

(1) Development
(2) Differentiation
(3) Maturation
(4) Growth

10) Growth is accompanied by

(1) Anabolism
(2) Catabolism
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None of these

11) By how many times, the cells of watermelon increase in size?

(1) 3,15,000
(2) 3,50,000
(3) 3,25,000
(4) 3,17,000

12) Which of the following plant growth regulators is responsible for “respiratory climactic” ?

(1) Auxin
(2) Ethylene
(3) ABA
(4) Cytokinin

13) The activity of an enzyme is also sensitive to the presence of specific chemicals that bind to the
enzyme. When the binding of the chemical shuts off enzyme activity, the process is called_________
and the chemical is called an _________ .

(1) Activation, activator

(2) Inhibition, inhibitor
(3) Inhibition, promoter
(4) Activation, inhibitor

14) The ability of plants to follow different pathways in response to environment or phases of life to
form different kind of structures is called?

(1) Adaptation
(2) Differentiation
(3) Maturation
(4) Plasticity

15) Leaves of which plant show environmental heterophylly?

(1) Cotton
(2) Coriander
(3) Larkspur
(4) Buttercup

16) Which of the following is not a plant growth promoter?

(1) Auxins
(2) Gibberellins
(3) Ethylene
(4) Abscisic acid

17) Arithmetic growth is related to:

rt
(1) Lt = L0e
rt
(2) W1 = W0e
(3) Lt = L0 + rt
rt
(4) L0 = Lte

18) Auxins promote flowering in

(1) Tomatoes
(2) Pineapples
(3) Oranges
(4) None of these

19) ‘Bakane disease of rice seedlings’ was caused by Gibberella fujikuroi’ Which is ?

(1) A Bacteria
(2) An Algae
(3) A Protista
(4) A Fungus

20) Growth is measured by a variety of parameters, among following which is not included in these?

(1) Fresh weight

(2) Dry weight
(3) Surface area
(4) Cell type
21) Spraying of which of the following phytohormone on juvenile conifers helps hastening the
maturity period, that leads early seed production?

(1) Indole-3-butyric Acid

(2) Gibberellic Acid
(3) Zeatin
(4) Abscisic Acid

22) Select out the incorrect match

(1) Water – Cell enlargement

(2) Oxygen – Enzyme activation
(3) Proteins – structure & function
(4) Light – Flowering

23) Which of the following PGR is widely used to kill dicotyledonous weeds?

(1) Ethylene
(2) NAA
(3) 2, 4–D
(4) ABA

24) Auxin helps in what?

(1) Controlling phloem differentiation

(2) Controlling xylem differentiation
(3) Cell division
(4) Both (2) and (3)

25) Spraying of gibberellins over sugarcane can increase the yield by how much?

(1) 20 tonnes/acre
(2) 20 kg/acre
(3) 20 quintet/acre
(4) None of these

26) Abscisic acid treatment results in -

(1) Leaf expansion

(2) Stem elongation
(3) Stomatal closure
(4) Root elongation

27) Among the following which helps in ripening of fruits?

(1) Methane
(2) Ethylene
(3) CO2
(4) CO

28) Seed dormancy is due to the

(1) Ethylene
(2) Abscisic acid
(3) IAA
(4) Starch

29) Apical dominance can be overcome by application of

(1) Auxin
(2) Gibberellin
(3) Cytokinin
(4) Florigen

30) In germinating seeds Amylase, Proteases, Lipases are stimulated by:

(1) Auxin
(2) Gibberellin
(3) Cytokinin
(4) Ethylene

31) Apical dominance means:

(1) Suppression of growth of apical bud by axillary buds

(2) Suppression of growth of axillary buds by the presence of apical bud.
(3) Stimulation of growth of axillary buds by removal of apical bud
(4) Inhibition of growth of axillary buds by removal of apical bud.

32) Removal of shoot tips is a very useful technique to boost the production of tea-leaves. This is
because

(1) Gibberellins prevent bolting and are inactivated

(2) Auxins prevent leaf drop at early stages
(3) Effect of auxins is removed and growth of lateral buds is enhanced.
(4) Gibberellins delay senescence of leaves.

33) In order to increase the yield of sugarcane crop, which of the following plant growth regulators
should be sprayed?

(1) Ethylene
(2) Auxins
(3) Gibberellins
(4) Cytokinin’s

34) Who isolated Auxin from tip of coleoptiles of oat seedlings?

(1) Chales Darwin

(2) Kogl
(3) F.W. Went
(4) Skoog

35) (i) Promote nutrient mobilization

(ii) Overcome the apical dominance
(iii) promote lateral shoot growth
All the above physiological effects are related to which of the following plant growth regulators?

(1) Auxins
(2) Gibberellins
(3) Abscisic acid
(4) Cytokinins

36) The given structures A, B, C is of

(1) Alanine, serine, cholesterol

(2) Alanine, serine, lecithin
(3) Alanine, glycine, cholesterol
(4) Alanine, serine, triglyceride

37) Pick out the wrong statement

(1) Amino acids are substituted methane

(2) Glycerol is a trihydroxy propane
(3) Tryptophan is a neutral amino acid
(4) Lecithin is a phospholipid

38) In which of the following groups, all the three are examples of polysaccharide?

(1) Starch, glycogen, cellulose

(2) Starch, sucrose, Lactose
(3) Inulin, Glycogen fructose
(4) Cellulose, maltose, galactose

39) Which one of the following is a non-reducing carbohydrate?

(1) Maltose
(2) Sucrose
(3) Lactose
(4) Ribose 5 – phosphate

40) In lipids, glycerol and fatty acids are joined by

(1) Esterification
(2) Glycosidic linkage
(3) Aldehyde
(4) None of these

41) Read the following four statements (A to D) and mark the option that has correct statements
A. Enzymes are divided into 6 classes each with 4-13 subclasses & named accordingly by a
four-digit number.
B. Zinc is a cofactor for the proteolytic enzyme carboxypeptidase.
C. Sucrose is non-reducing sugar
D. At each step of ascent the strand of DNA turns 63 degrees

(1) A, B, C
(2) B, C
(3) C, D
(4) A, B, C, D

42)
These types of reactions can be catalysed by

(1) Class 1 and 2 enzyme respectively

(2) Class 3 and 2 enzyme respectively
(3) Class 3 and 4 enzyme respectively
(4) Class 5 and 6 enzyme respectively

43) Which of the following statement is/are incorrect?

1. The tertiary structure is necessary for many biological activities of proteins.
2. ‘Hb’ is an example of quaternary structure of protein.
3. Unlike starch the cellulose does not hold iodine
4. Insulin is a polymer of fructose
5. Enzymes increase the activation energy of reactions and enhance greatly the rate of the
reactions.

(1) 1 and 5 only

(2) 2 and 3 only
(3) 4 and 5 only
(4) 3, 4, 5

44) Secondary metabolites are synthesized in all of the following except …….. in many cases.
(1) Plant
(2) Fungus
(3) Microbial cells
(4) Animals

45) Which hormone promotes internode/petiole elongation in deep water rice?

(1) GA3
(2) Ethylene
(3) 2,4-D
(4) Kinetin

46) Choose the hormone which has no role in maintenance of blood calcium level.

(1) Vitamin D
(2) Parathyroid hormone
(3) Thyrocalcitionin
(4) Thymosin

47) Match column - I with column - II and choose the correct option :

(1) a - i, b - ii, c - iv, d - iii, e - v

(2) a - iv, b - ii, c - iii, d - v, e - i
(3) a - iii, b - ii, c - iv, d - i, e - v
(4) a - iv, b - ii, c - iii, d - i, e - v

48) Sleep - awake cycle is regulated by the hormone

(1) Melatonin
(2) Calcitonin
(3) Prolactin
(4) Adrenaline

49) Which of the following hormones interact with membrane-bound receptor and generate second
meassengers inside the target cell to regulate metabolism ?
a) GHRH and somatostatin
b) FSH and LH
c) Cortisol and estradiol
d) Insulin and glucagon
e) Thyroid hormone

(1) ‘a’ and ‘d’

(2) ‘a’, ‘b’ and ‘d’
(3) ‘b’, ‘c’, ‘d’ and ‘e’
(4) ‘a’, ‘b’, ‘d’ and ‘e’

50) The pituitary gland is located in a bony cavity called __X _ and is attached to Y by a stalk
called Z . Choose the correct option for X, Y, Z.

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

51) The given structure showes dorsal view of a gland that shows Structure of following diagram are
labelled as ‘A’ and ‘B’. Find the correct function of hormone from ‘A’ and ‘B’ and choose the correct
option.

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
52) Match the column - I with column - II and choose the correct option :

(1) a - ii, b - iv, c - i, d - iii

(2) a - iv, b - i, c - iii, d - ii
(3) a - i, b - ii, c - iii, d - iv
(4) a - iii, b - i, c - iv, d - ii

53) T-cell differentiation involves the activity of

(1) Pineal gland

(2) Thymus gland
(3) Thyroid gland
(4) Pituitary gland

54) How many of the following hormones are steroid in nature ?

[Cortisol, Thyroxin, Insulin, Aldosterone, Adrenaline, Parathormone, Thyrocalcitonin, Oxytocin,
Progesterone]

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 5
(4) 4

55) Which of the following hormone is secreted by pars intermedia ?

(1) FSH
(2) TSH
(3) Melatonin
(4) MSH

56) Which hormone is not a steroid ?

(1) Estrogen
(2) Cortisol
(3) Progesterone
(4) Epinephrine

57) Which of the following hormones is likely to be present in hypothalamo hypophyseal portal vein ?

(1) ADH
(2) Somatostatin
(3) Oxytocin
(4) TCT

58) Which of the following is not correctly matched with its specific function ?

(1) Collip’s hormone PTH - Decrease calcium level in blood

(2) Oxytocin - Meant for contraction of myometrium
(3) Adrenaline - Increases heart rate
(4) Vasopressin - Osmoregulatory action

59) Which of the following hormones can cross plasma membrane barrier of target cells directly ?

(1) Insulin
(2) Vasopressin
(3) TSH
(4) Aldosterone

60) Which of the following is incorrectly matched with the chemical nature ?

(1) Oxytocin - Peptide

(2) Cortisol - Polypeptide
(3) Epinephrine - Amino acid derivative
(4) Progesterone - Steroid

61) Hypothalamus A Anterior Pituitary B Thyroid gland C Controls BMR. Identify

A, B, C respectively

(1) Thyroxine, ACTH, TSH

(2) TSH, TRH, T3 and T4
(3) CRH, ACTH, Cortisol
(4) TRH, TSH, T3 and T4

62) Given below are steps of working mechanism of protein hormone. Choose the correct one
(a) Hormone binds to surface receptor
(b) Formation of hormone receptor complex
(c) Physiological response
(d) Biochemical responses
The correct sequences is :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

63) Which hormone does not require extracellular receptor for its action ?

(1) Estrogen
(2) PTH
(3) TSH
(4) Gastrin

64)

(1) A - i, B - iii, C - ii, D - iv

(2) A - i, B - iv, C - ii, D - iii
(3) A - i, B - ii, C - iii, D - iv
(4) A - iv, B - i, C - iii, D - ii

65)

(1) A - ii, B - i, C - iv, D - iii

(2) A - iii, B - i, C - iv, D - ii
(3) A - ii, B - iv, C - iii, D - i
(4) A - ii, B - i, C - iii, D - iv

66) Assertion : The phylum Aschelminthes represent pseudocoelomates.

Reason : In Aschelminthes, mesoderm is present as scattered pouches in between ectoderm and
endoderm.

If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the
(1)
assertion.
If both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of
(2)
the assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

67) Which one of the following is oviparous ?

(1) Platypus
(2) Flying fox (Bat)
(3) Elephant
(4) Whale
68) Bilaterally symmetrical and acoelomate animals are exemplified by :

(1) Platyhelminthes
(2) Aschelminthes
(3) Annelida
(4) Ctenophora

69) Read the following statements :

i) Metagenesis is observed in Helminths.
ii) Echinoderms are triploblastic and ceolomate animal
iii) Round worms have organ-system level of body organization.
iv) Comb plates present in ctenophores help in digestion
v) Water vascular system is characteristic of Echinoderms
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) ii, iii and v are correct

(2) iii, iv and v are correct
(3) i, ii and iii are correct
(4) i, iv and v are correct

70)

(1) A - iv, B - i, C - ii, D - iii

(2) A - iv, B - iii, C - i, D - ii
(3) A - iii, B - iv, C - i, D - ii
(4) A - iii, B - iv, C - ii, D - i

71)

(1) A - i, B - iv, C - iii, D - ii

(2) A - ii, B - iii, C - i, D - iv
(3) A - iv, B - i, C - iii, D - ii
(4) A - ii, B - iii, C - iv, D - i

72) Which one of the following organisms bears hollow and pneumatic long bones ?

(1) Ornithorhynchus
(2) Neophron
(3) Hemidactylus
(4) Macropus

73) In which of the following animals, digestive tract has additional chambers like crop and gizzard ?

(1) Bufo, Balaenoptera, Bangarus

(2) Catla, Columba, Crocodilus
(3) Pavo, Psitacula, Corvus
(4) Corvus, Columba, Chameleor

74) Arrange the following in the order of increasing volume?

A) Tidal volume
B) Residual volume
C) Inspiratory reserve volume
D) Vital capacity

(1) A < B < C < D

(2) A < C < B < D
(3) A < D < C < B
(4) A < D < B < C

75) Select the correct events that occurs during inspiration.

i) Contraction of diaphragm
ii) Contraction of external inter-costal muscles
iii) Pulmonary volume decreases
iv) Intra pulmonary pressure increases

(1) iii and iv

(2) i, ii and iv
(3) only iv
(4) i and ii

76) Vital capacity of lung is ........

(1) IRV + ERV + TV

(2) IRV + ERV
(3) IRV + ERV + TV + RV
(4) IRV + ERV + TV - RV

77) Persons with ‘AB’ blood group are called as ‘Universal recipients’. This is due to :
(1) Absence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B, in plasma
(2) Absence of antigens A and B on the surface of RBCs
(3) Absence of antigens A and B in plasma
(4) Presence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B on RBCs

78) Which enzyme is responsible for the conversion of inactive fibrinogens to fibrins ?

(1) Thromobokinase
(2) Thrombin
(3) Renin
(4) Epinephrine

79)

(1) A - iv, B - iii, C - i, D - iii

(2) A - ii, B - iv, C - iii, D - i
(3) A - iv, B - iii, C - i, D - ii
(4) A - iii, B - ii, C - iv, D - i

80) Which one of the following statements is correct ?

The tricuspid and the bicuspid valves open due to the pressure exerted by the
(1)
simultaneous contraction of the atria
(2) Blood moves freely from atrium to the ventricle during joint diastole
(3) Increased ventricular pressure cause closing of the semilunar valves
(4) The atrio-ventricular node (AVN) generates an action potential to stimulate atrial contraction
81)

(1) A - i, B - ii, C - iii, D - iv

(2) A - iii, B - i, C - iv, D - ii
(3) A - iv, B - iii, C - ii, D - i
(4) A - ii, B - iv, C - i, D - iii

82) The thymus gland :

(1) Is a secondary lymphoid organ of immune system

(2) Secretes the steroid hormone called thymosin
(3) Degenerates in old individuals resulting in a decreased production of thymosins
(4) Is located near kidney

83) Hormones secreted by thyroid gland is :

(1) TCT
(2) T3, T4 and TSH
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) TSH

84) Which of the following is not incorrect ?

(1) Estrogen is synthesised and secreted by the growing ovarian follicles and corpus luteum
After ovultion, the ruptured follicle is converted into corpus callosum, which mainly
(2)
scretes progesterone
(3) Progesterone promotes uterine contraction
(4) Each ovary normally produces multiple ova during each menstrual cycle

85) Mary is about to face an interview. But during the first five minutes before the interview she
experiences sweating, increased rate of heart beat, respiration etc. Which hormone is responsible
for her restlessness ?

(1) Estrogen and progesterone

(2) Oxytocin and vasopressin
(3) Adrenaline
(4) Insulin and glucagon
86) Which of the following hormoes are produced in the hypothalamus and stored in the posterior
pituitary ?

(1) FSH and LH

(2) ADH and oxytocin
(3) TSH and STH
(4) ACTH and MSH

87) Life saving hormone is secreted by which gland ?

(1) Adrenal gland

(2) Hypothalamus gland
(3) Pituitary gland
(4) Thyroid gland

88) A temporary endocrine gland in the human body is :

(1) Corpus cardiacum

(2) Corpus luteum
(3) Corpus allatum
(4) Pineal gland

89) The luteinizing hormone (LH) :

(1) In males is also called interstitial cell stimulating hormone (ICSH)

(2) Activates leydig cells of testes to screte testosterone
Induces ovulation of fully mature Graafian follicles and maintains the corpus luteum formed
(3)
from the remnants of the Graafian follicles after ovulation
(4) Is related to all of the above

90) The functions of vasopressin include :

(1) Constriction of blood vessels

(2) Stimulates reabsorption of water
(3) Prevents diuresis
(4) All of the above
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 1 3 2 1 3 2 2 1 1 4 4 4 4 4 2 2 2 1 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 1 2 3 2 2 3 3 4 4 2 3 1 2 4 2 1 2 2 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 3 3 4 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 3 1 2 3 2 1 2 4 3 2 3 2 3 1 1 4 1 2 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 1 4 2 2 3 3 2 1 1 1 2 2 1 4 1 1 2 3 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 2 4 1 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 4 3 3 3 2 1 2 4 3 2 2 2 4 4 4 3 2 4 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 2 3 4 1 3 2 2 3 2 2 3 3 3 4 1 3 1 2 1
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 1 3 4 2 4 4 1 2 4 2 1 2 2 4 4 2 1 4 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 2 1 1 4 1 1 1 1 4 4 2 3 1 4 1 1 2 3 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 3 1 1 3 2 1 2 4 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

CHEMISTRY

BIOLOGY