28-03-2025

1016CMD303031240077 MD

PHYSICS

1) The P-V diagram of 2g of helium gas for a certain process A → B is shown in figure. The heat given

to the gas during the process A → B is :-

(1) 4P0V0
(2) 6P0V0
(3) 4.5 P0V0
(4) 2P0V0

2) Which of the following statement is correct according to Maxwell law of velocity distribution ?

(1) The average kinetic energy of gas depends on pressure.

(2) All particles in a gas have the same velocity.
(3) The temperature of a gas affects the distribution of velocities of molecules.
(4) The distribution of velocity is same for all gases.

3) In a closed container 11g CO2 and 8g of oxygen are filled. The total pressure is 10 atm at the given
temperature. If all the oxygen is removed from the system without permitting any change in
temperature, then the pressure will become -

(1) 10 atm
(2) 7.5 atm
(3) 5 atm
(4) 2.5 atm

4) The coefficients of apparent expansion of a liquid, when determined using two different vessels A
and B are γ1 and γ2 respectively. If the coefficient of linear expansion of the vessel A is α. The
coefficient of linear expansion of vessel B is-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
5) The root mean square velocity of the gas molecules is 300 m/s. What will be the root mean square
speed of the molecules if the atomic weight is doubled and absolute temperature is halved?

(1) 300 m/s

(2) 150 m/s
(3) 600 m/s
(4) 75 m/s

6) A container of water equivalent 10 g contain 10 g ice at –30°C then find heat required to convert
ice in to water of 80°C is :-

(1) 3000 cal

(2) 2850 cal
(3) 1750 cal
(4) 1100 cal

7) 310 J of heat is required to raise the temperature of 2 moles of an ideal gas at constant pressure
from 25°C to 35°C. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of the gas through the
same range at constant volume is :-

(1) 384 J
(2) 144 J
(3) 276 J
(4) 452 J

8) The coefficients of thermal conductivity of copper, mercury and glass are respectively Kc, Km and
Kg such that Kc > Km > Kg. If the same quantity of heat is to flow per second per unit area of each and
corresponding temperature gradients are Xc, Xm and Xg, then :

(1) Xc = Xm = Xg
(2) Xc > Xm > Xg
(3) Xc < Xm < Xg
(4) Xm < Xc < Xg

9) The ratio of thermal conductivity of two rods of different material is 5 : 4. The two rods of same
area of cross-section and same thermal resistance will have the lengths in the ratio :

(1) 4 : 5
(2) 9 : 1
(3) 1 : 9
(4) 5 : 4

10) A black body emits 10 watt per cm2 at 427°C. The sun radiates 105 watt per cm2. Then what is
the temperature of the sun?

(1) 5000 K
(2) 6000 K
(3) 7000 K
(4) 8000 K

11) If temperature of an ideal black body is 5760 K, then find wavelength corresponding to
maximum emission of radiation. (b = 2.88 × 106 nmK)

(1) 500 nm
(2) 250 nm
(3) 1000 nm
(4) 750 nm

12) A particle executes SHM with an amplitude A and the time period T. If at t = 0, the particle is at
its mean position, then the time instant when it covers a distance equal to 2.5A will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) A body of mass m is attached to the lower end of a massless spring whose upper end is fixed.
When the mass m is slightly pulled down and released, it oscillates with a time period of 3 sec. When
the mass m is increased by 1 kg, the time period of oscillation becomes 5 sec. The value of 'm' (in kg)
is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) The scale of a spring balance reading from 0 to 10 kg is 0.25 m long. A body suspended from the

balance oscillates vertically with the time period of . The mass of body suspended is (Neglect
the mass of the spring) :-

(1) 10 kg
(2) 0.98 kg
(3) 5 kg
(4) 20 kg

15) The mass of a planet is 4 times and diameter is 2 times that of earth. The time period of a simple
pendulum on the surface of this planet will be (If it is a second's pendulum on the surface of earth) :-
(1)

(2)
(3) 2 sec

(4)

16) At what temperature the speed of sound in hydrogen will be same as that of speed of sound in
oxygen at 100°C?

(1) – 148°C
(2) – 212.5°C
(3) – 317.5°C
(4) – 249.7°C

17) A particle of mass 0.1 kg is connected to a spring of force constant 40 N/m. The particle is pulled
to a distance x = 10 cm from its equilibrium position at x = 0 on a frictionless horizontal surface
from rest at t = 0 and released. When it is at 5 cm away from the mean position, choose the correct
option by matching the column-I and column-II.

Column-I Column-II

(A) Kinetic energy (P) 0.2 J

(B) Potential energy (Q) 0.05 J

(C) Total energy (R) 0.15 J

(1) A → Q, B → P, C → R
(2) A → P, B → R, C → Q
(3) A → R, B → Q, C → P
(4) A → R, B → P, C → Q

18) Oscillators A and B shown in figure are oscillating with same amplitude and energy. Respective

spring constants are mentioned in the figure. Then :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) The equation of a stationary wave (all quantities are in SI unit) is

y = (0.06) sin (2πx) cos (5πt). Match the following columns.
 Column-I Column-II

Amplitude of constituent waves =

(A) (P) 0.06
......m

(B) Position of node at x = ....m (Q) 0.5

(C) Position of antinode at x = ....m (R) 0.25

(D) (S) 0.03

Amplitude at x = m is .......m
(1) A → R, B → P, C → Q, D → S
(2) A → Q, B → R, C → S, D → P
(3) A → S, B → Q, C → R, D → P
(4) A → S, B → P, C → R, D → Q

20) Assertion : If amplitude of SHM is increased, time period of SHM will increase.
Reason : If amplitude is increased body have to travel more distance in one complete oscillation.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false
(4) Assertion is false but reason is true

21) Assertion : Transverse waves can not travel in gaseous medium.

Reason : Gaseous medium does not have modulus of rigidity.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false
(4) Assertion is false but reason is true

22) A tuning fork T1 when sounded with another tuning fork T2 of frequency 256 Hz gives 4 beats per
second and when T1 is loaded with a certain amount of wax, it is found to give again 4 beats/s with
T2. The frequency of T1 is :-

(1) 260 Hz
(2) 252 Hz
(3) 254 Hz
(4) 258 Hz

23) A uniform horizontal rod of length 0.4 m and mass 1.2 kg is supported by two identical wires as
shown in the figure. A mass of 4.8 kg is placed on the rod, so that the same tuning fork may excite
the wire on the left into its fundamental vibrations and that on right into its first overtone. The
tension in wire 1 and 2 is respectively (take g = 10 m/s2) :-

(1) 24 N, 12 N
(2) 48 N, 12 N
(3) 36 N, 12 N
(4) 60 N, 12 N

24) Three identical charges (q) are placed along x-axis at x = – a, x = 0 and x = a. Calculate the
potential energy of the system.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) Net electric field in different regions marked I, II, III & IV are E1, E2, E3 and E4 respectively, then

match column-I & column-II :

Column-I Column-II

(A) E1 (P) 0

(B) E2 (Q)
(Left)

(C) E3 (R)
(Left)

(D) E4 (S)
(Right)
(1) A→Q, B→R, C→P, D→S
(2) A→S, B→Q, C→R, D→P
(3) A→P, B→Q, C→R, D→S
(4) A→Q, B→S, C→P, D→R

26) Match the column (E = Electric field, R = radius, H = height)

(A) (P) ϕINCOM = – E.πR2

(Q) (ϕOutgoing)=+E.πR
2
(B)

(C) (R) ϕOutgoing =+E.H 2 R

(1) A→P, B→Q, C→R

(2) A→Q, B→P,R, C→R
(3) A→R, B→Q, C→P
(4) A→P,Q ; B→R;C→P,Q

27) Given below are four arrangements of charges. Let F1, F2, F3 and F4 be the magnitudes of force
experienced by a charge q placed at x = 0 in respective cases. Arrange these magnitudes of forces in

ascending order.

(1) F3 < F1 < F2 < F4

(2) F3 < F1 = F2 < F4
(3) F4 < F2 < F1 < F3
(4) F1 = F2 < F3 < F4

28) Match the column-I and column-II :

Column-I Column-II

(A) (P) not in equilibrium (τ≠0)

 (B) (Q) stable equilibrium

(C) (R) Unstable equilibrium

(1) A→P, B→Q, C→R

(2) A→R, B→P, C→P
(3) A→R, B→P, C→Q
(4) A→Q, B→P, C→R

29) Find electric potential at point (2).

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) Following figure shows Gaussian surface S1,S2 and S3. Now, Match the following column (I) and

column (II).

Column (I) Column (II)

 (I) (P)

(II) (Q)

(III) (R)

(1) (I)-P; (II)-R; (III)-Q

(2) (I)-Q; (II)-R; (III)-P
(3) (I)-P; (II)-Q; (III)-R
(4) (I)-R; (II)-P; (III)-Q

31) In the given circuit, the potential difference across 3 μF capacitor will be :

(1) 16 V
(2) 10 V
(3) 6 V
(4) 4 V

32) A proton moving along positive x axis enters a uniform electric field at t = 0. It is
observed that at t = 12µ sec, the proton is at rest. Find initial speed of the proton.
(Take mass of proton = 1.6 × 10–27 kg)

(1) 6.2 × 105m/s

(2) 4.8 × 105m/s
(3) 3.5 × 105m/s
(4) 2.8 × 105m/s

33) Two spherical conductors A and B of radii a and b (b > a) are placed concentrically in air. B is

given charge +Q and A is earthed. The equivalent capacitance of the system is :-

(1)

(2) 4πε0(a + b)
(3) 4πε0b
(4)

34) Let n identical small drops each of radius(r), capacitance(c), charge (q) and potential (v) are
combined to form a larger drop. Radius of big drop is R, capacitance C, charge Q and Potential V.
Match the following columns :

Column-I Column-II

(I) (p) n1/3

(II) (q) n2/3

(III) (r) n5/3

(1) (I)-(p), (II)-(p), (III)-(q)

(2) (I)-(p), (II)-(q), (III)-(r)
(3) (I)-(r), (II)-(p), (III)-(q)
(4) (I)-(q), (II)-(r), (III)-(p)

35) Find the charge stored in µC in capacitor of capacity C (C = 6µF) :

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 8

36) A uniformly charged thin spherical shell of radius R carries uniform surface charge density of σ
per unit area. It is made of two hemispherical shells, held together by pressing them with force "F"

(see Fig.) . F is proportional to :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

37) In the given circuit, the potential difference across the capacitor is 12V. Each resistance is of 3Ω.

The cell is ideal. The emf of the cell is :-

(1) 15 V
(2) 9 V
(3) 12 V
(4) 24 V

38) A parallel plate capacitor is made as follows. Capacitance of the arrangement is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

39)

Match the column-I and column-II (A - Area of plate) (d = distance between the plate) :

Column-I Column-II

(I) (P)
 (II) (Q)

(III) (R)

(1) (I)-(Q), (II)-(R), (III)-(P)

(2) (I)-(P), (II)-(Q), (III)-(R)
(3) (I)-(R), (II)-(R), (III)-(P)
(4) (I)-(R), (II)-(Q), (III)-(P)

40) The current through 2Ω resistance in the circuit shown, is :

(1) 12A
(2) 12/3 A
(3) 8A
(4) 8/3 A

41) The ratio of drift velocities in the given two conductors of same materials A and B is :

(1) 2 : 1
(2) 2 : 3
(3) 9 : 4
(4) 1 : 4

42) In given network find potential of junction point :

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

43) What will be reading of ammeter (A) in the given circuit :

(1) 1A
(2) 2A
(3) 0.5A

(4)

44) Length of AB wire is 1m. Balance point is at distance 40 cm from end A. If R2 is shunted by a
resistance 10Ω then balance point is obtained at 50 cm from end A then :

(1) R1 = 10Ω
(2) R2 = 5Ω
(3) R1 = 5Ω
(4) R2 = 10Ω

45)

In the circuit shown, current through 25V cell will be :

(1) 7.2 A
(2) 10A
(3) 12A
(4) 14.2A

CHEMISTRY

1) In peroxide effect which of the following step possible :-

[CH3–CH=CH2 + HBr ]

(1)
→

(2)
→ Ph• + CO2
(3) Ph• + H–Br → Ph–H + Br·
(4) All steps are possible

2) Ph–CH=CH–Ph X

Z Product Z is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Ph–C≡C–Ph

3) Arrange the following compounds in decreasing order of reactivity towards EAR :-

(1) IV > I > II > III

(2) III > II > I > IV
(3) II > III > I > IV
(4) II > III > IV > I
4) 2-Butyne A B, B is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Both (2) and (3)

5) Assertion : Addition of bromine to trans-but-2-ene yield meso-2,3-dibromo butane.

Reason : Addition of Br2 is a free radical addition reaction.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

6) Consider following table–

Column-I
(A) Best and latest technique for isolation, purification and separation of organic compounds
(B) In lassaigne's test for ‘N’
(C) In Lassaigne's test for ‘S’
(D) Aniline is purified from water by
(E) Glycerol is purified from spent lye
Column-II
(i) Chromatography
(ii) Vacuum distillation
(iii) Violet coloured complex is formed
(iv) Prussian blue coloured complex is formed
(v) Steam disstillation
The correct match is–
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
(2) (iv) (v) (iii) (ii) (i)
(3) (i) (iv) (iii) (v) (ii)
(4) (v) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

7) 0.1 gm of organic compound was analysed by Kjeldahl's method. In analysis produced NH3
absorbed in 30 ml N/5 H2SO4. The remaining acid required 20 ml N/10 NaOH for neutralisation.
Calculate percentage of nitrogen in organic compound :-

(1) 28 %
(2) 56 %
(3) 35 %
(4) 70 %

8)

The correct match between items of List-I and List-II is :-

List-I List-II

(A) Coloured impurity (P) Steam distillation

Mixture of
(B) o–nitrophenol and (Q) Fractional distillation
p– nitrophenol

(C) Crude oil (R) Charcoal treatment

Mixture of glycerol Distillation under

(D) (S)
and sugars reduced pressure
(1) (A) - (R), (B) - (S), (C) - (P), (D) - (Q)
(2) (A) - (P), (B) - (S), (C) - (R), (D) - (Q)
(3) (A) - (R), (B) - (P), (C) - (Q), (D) - (S)
(4) (A) - (R), (B) - (P), (C) - (S), (D) - (Q)

9)

Which of the following does not represent resonating structures :-

CH3 – C ≡ N⊕ – O and
(1)
CH3 – C⊕ = N – O

(2)
and

(3) CH = N⊕ = N and
2

(4)
and

10) Which of the following pair's represent functional isomerism?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) In which pair of compounds all carbon atoms contain same hybridisation :

(1) (CH3)2CO, CH3CN

(2) CH3–Cl, CH3–CO–NH2
(3) CH3–CH2–Cl, CH2=C=CH2
(4) HC CH, CH C–CN

12)
Correct IUPAC name of following compound :

(1) 5-(2, 2-Dimethylbutyl)-3-ethyldecane

(2) 5-(2 - ethylbutyl)-3, 3-dimethyldecane
(3) 5-(3, 3-Dimethylbutyl)-3-ethyldecane
(4) None of these

13) Statement-I : Fractional distillation is use to separate different fractions of crude oil in
petroleum industry.
Statement-II : Glycerol can be separated from spent lye in soap industry by using steam
distillation.

(1) Both statement-I & II are correct

(2) Both statement-I & II are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is correct & statement-II is incorrect
(4) Statement-I is incorrect & statement-II is correct

14) 0.3780 gm of an organic chloro compound gave 0.5740 gm of silver chloride in carius estimation.
Calculate the percentage of chlorine present in the compound.

(1) 37.57%
(2) 47.48%
(3) 58.50%
(4) 28%

15)
Compound x is :

(1) CH2=C(OH)-COOH
(2) OHC-CH2-COOH
(3) CH3-CO-COOH
(4) None of these

16)
Select correct option regarding given reaction -

(1) 'Q' is next homologue of 'P'

(2) Product 'R' is cis alkene
(3) No. of carbon in P.C.C of 'R' is 6.
(4) 'Q' and 'R' is positional isomers.

17) will be :

(1) &

(2)
&

(3)
&
(4) None of these

18) Which step is not involved in free radical chlorination of methane :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
19)

The weight of KMnO4 required to make 500 ml 0.1 N KMnO4, for titration in acidic medium ..........gm

(1) 6.15
(2) 1.58
(3) 2.65
(4) 4.12

20) On reaction of I– with H2O2 ; H2O2 acts as -

(1) An oxidising agent

(2) A reducing agent
(3) Both oxidising as well as reducing agent
(4) Catalyst

21) Match the following

1 Strong acid – Strong base Titration P Not performed practically

2 Strong base – Weak acid titration Q NH4OH Vs HCl

3 Strong acid – Weak base titration R NaOH Vs HCl

4 Weak acid – Weak base titration S NaOH Vs CH3COOH

(1) 1-R, 2-P, 3-S, 4-Q
(2) 1-R, 2-S, 3-P, 4-Q
(3) 1-R, 2-S, 3-Q, 4-P
(4) 1-S, 2-Q, 3-R, 4-P

22) The heat of solution of anhydrous CuSO4 and CuSO4.5H2O are –15.89 and 2.80 kCal
mol–1 respectively what will be the heat of hydration of anhydrous CuSO4 :

(1) –18.69 kCal

(2) 18.69 kCal
(3) –28.96 kCal
(4) 28.96 kCal

23) Consider the following statements

(a) Order of reaction is an experimental quantity
(b) Order of reaction can be zero or fractional.
(c) Order is well defined for elementary reactions.
(d) For complex reaction, molecularity of the slowest step is same as the order of the overall
reaction. If slowest step does not contain any intermediate.
The correct Statements is/are

(1) a, b and c only

(2) b and c only
(3) a and b only
(4) a, b, c and d

24) For A(g) → B(g) + C(g); reaction the differential rate law expression is given as .
Initially the pressure is 100 mm of Hg & after 10 minutes, total pressure is 120 mm of Hg. Hence
rate constant (min–1) is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) Correct expression for the first order reaction is :

kt
(1) Ct = C0e
kt
(2) Cte = C0

(3)

(4)

26) For the given reaction,

A → Product

Initial conc. t1/2

0.1 M 2 hr

0.2 M 1 hr

Order of reaction is :
(1) 1
(2) –1
(3) 2
(4) 3

27) The minimum extra energy required by reactant molecules for effective collision is :

(1) Kinetic energy

(2) Potential energy
(3) Threshold energy
(4) Activation energy
28) For a reaction 2A + 3B → P the rate of disappearance of A is r1 and of B is r2. Then r1 and r2 are
related as

(1) 3r1 = 2r2

(2) r1 = r2
(3) 2r1 = 3r2
2 2
(4) r1 = 2r2

29) For the reaction A + B → C; starting with different initial concentration of A and B, initial rate of
reaction were determined graphically in four experiments.

[A]0/M (Initial [B]0/M (Initial

S.No. Rate (M sec–1)
conc.) conc.)

1 1.6 × 10–3 5 × 10–2 10–3

2 3.2 × 10–3 5 × 10–2 4 × 10–3

3 1.6 × 10–3 10–1 2 × 10–3

4 3.2 × 10–3 10–1 8 × 10–3

Rate law for reaction from above data is :-

(1) r = k[A]2 [B]2
(2) r = k[A]2 [B]
(3) r = k[A] [B]2
(4) r = k[A] [B]

30) In aqueous solution, the permanganate ion, , reacts with nitrous acid (HNO2) as follows:
+ 2+
+ 5HNO2 (aq) + H (aq) → 2Mn (aq) + (aq) + 3H2O(ℓ).
–1
Calculate the rate (in Ms ) at which the HNO2 concentration is decreasing if the is decreasing
at a rate of 0.024 M s–1.

(1) 4.8 × 10–3

(2) 6 × 10–2
(3) 3 × 10–2
(4) 2.4 × 10–3

31) Given :

Which of the following reactions are non spontaneous?

2+ –
(1) Fe(s) + I2 ⟶ Fe + 2I
–
(2) Br2 + 2I¯ ⟶ 2Br + I2
2+ –
(3) Fe(s) + Br2 ⟶ Fe + 2Br
–
(4) I2 + 2Br ⟶ 2I¯ + Br2
32) When 0.1 mol is oxidised the quantity of electricity required to completely
oxidise to is :

(1) 96500 C
(2) 2 × 96500 C
(3) 9650 C
(4) 96.50 C

33) Calculate of (at 298 K),

given that

(1) 1.1 V
(2) 1.8 V
(3) 2.7 V
(4) 3.5 V

34) Assertion (A) : The SRP of three metallic ions of A, B, C are –0.3, –0.5, 0.8 volt respectively, so
oxidizing power of ions is C > A > B.
Reason (R) : Higher the SRP, higher the oxidizing power.

(1) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A.
(3) A is correct but R is wrong.
(4) A is wrong but R is correct.

35) The standared electrode potential for the following reaction is +1.33 V. What is the potenital at
pH = 2.0 ?

(1) + 1.820 V
(2) + 1.990 V
(3) + 1.608 V
(4) + 1.0542 V

36) Resistance of a decimolar solution between two electrodes 0.02 meter apart and 0.0004 m2 in
area was found to be 50 ohm. Specific conductance (κ) is :

(1) 0.1 Sm–1

(2) 1 Sm–1
(3) 10 Sm–1
(4) 4 × 10–4 S m–1

37) By the electrolysis of aqueous solution of CuSO4, the products obtained at both the electrodes
are
(1) O2 at anode and H2 at cathode
(2) H2 at anode and Cu at cathode
(3) O2 at anode and Cu at cathode
(4) H2S2O8 at anode and O2 at cathode

38)

Raoult’s law is obeyed by each constituent of a binary liquid solution when :

the forces of attractions between like molecules are greater than those between unlike
(1)
molecules.
the forces of attractions between like molecules are smaller than those between unlike
(2)
molecules.
the forces of attractions between like molecules are identical with those between unlike
(3)
molecules.
(4) the volume occupied by unlike molecules are different.

39) The vapour pressure of a solvent A is 0.80 atm. When a non-volatile substance B is added to this
solvent its vapour pressure drops to 0.6 atm. What is mole fraction of B in solution?

(1) 0.90
(2) 0.50
(3) 0.75
(4) 0.25

40) The vapour pressure curves of the same non-volatile, non-electrolyte solute in the same solvent
are shown. The curves are parallel to each other and do not intersect. The concentrations of

solutions are in order of :

(1) I < II < III

(2) I = II = III
(3) I > II > III
(4) I > III > II

41) Calculate the pure vapour pressure of A and B. Given PS = 300 – 175 XB (XB = mole fraction of
solvent)

(1) 125, 300

(2) 300, 125
(3) 25, 175
(4) None
42) For an ideal solution, osmotic pressure (π) is helpful to determine that molecular mass of solute

using ; The curve having correct above relation is - (where C is concentration)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) Which mixture can form maximum boiling azeotrope ?

(1) C6H6 + C6H5CH3 solution

(2) HNO3 + H2O solution
(3) C2H5OH + H2O solution
(4) n-hexane and n-heptane

44) Which of the following graph is a correct representation of Henry's law ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

45) Assertion : Negatively charged As2S3 colloidal sol is obtained by double decomposition method
using As2O3 and H2S.
As2O3 + 3H2S (excess) → As2S3 + 3H2O
Reason : Adsorption of As3+ ions take place on As2S3 when As2O3 solution is saturated with H2S.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

BIOLOGY

1) Select the correct statement : (a) The electrons that were removed from photosystem - II must be
replaced.
(b) The splitting of water is associated with the PSI.
(c) One water molecule splits into 2H+, [O] and electrons.
(d) Splitting of water creates oxygen, one of the net product of photosynthesis.

(1) Only a and c

(2) Only b and c
(3) a, c and d
(4) b, c and d

2) When several factors affect any chemical process, ________________ Law of limiting factors comes
into effect.
(1) Kelvin's (1905)
(2) Hatch s slack's (1855)
(3) Blackman's (1905)
(4) Pristely's (1770)

3) Light saturation occurs at of the full sunlight.

identify A = ?

(1) 40%
(2) 30%
(3) 20%
(4) 10%

4) Given below are two statements one is labeled as Assertion (A) and the other is labeled as Reason
(R).
Assertion (A) :- C4 plants show higher rate of photosynthesis at high temperature.
Reason (R) :- C4 plants are adapted to dry tropical condition.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

5) During splitting of water, the protons and O2 formed likely to be released in/on :

(1) Outer side of the membrane

(2) Lumen
(3) Stroma
(4) Both Lumen and stroma

6) Fill in the blank in given statement.

Chromatographic separation of leaf pigments show that _____________ gives bright or blue green
color in chromatogram.
Choose correct answer from options given below.

(1) Chlorophyll-a
(2) Chlorophyll-b
(3) Xanthophyll
(4) Carotenoide

7) Fill in the blank.

The primary CO2 acceptor is a 3-carbon molecule __A__ and is present in the __B__ in C4 plants.
Choose correct answer.

(1) (A) Phosphoenol pyruvate (PEP); (B) Mesophyll cells

(2) (A) PEP; (B) Bundle Sheath cell
(3) (A) RUBP; (B) Mesophyll cell
(4) (A) Malic Acid; (B) Bundle sheath cell

8) Select the option which is correctly matched in case of non-cyclic and cyclic photophosphorylation
-

Characteristics Non-cyclic Cyclic

(1) First e– acceptor FRS Pheophytin

(2) Evolution of O2 Present Absent

(3) Reduction of NADP+ Absent Present

(4) Photosystem PS-I only PS-II only

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

9) How many of the following statement is/are correct ?

(a) Calculations of net gain of ATP is only a theoretical exercise.
(b) There is always sequential orderly pathways functioning in respiration.
(c) The NADH synthesised in glycolysis always transferred into mitochondria.
(d) None of the intermediates in the respiratory pathway are utilised to synthesise any other
compound.

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

10) Given below are two statements.

Statement - I : In TCA cycle there are three points where NAD+ is reduced to NADH+H+
Statement - II : The F1 headpiece is a peripheral membrane protein complex and contains site for
synthesis of ATP from ADP and Pi.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

+
11) Pyruvic acid + + NAD + Acetyl CoA + (c) + NADH + H
Identifying a, b & c in given reaction.

(1) (a) CoA (b) Pyruvate dehydrogenease (c) CO2

(2) (a) CO2 (b) Pyruvate dehydrogenase (c) CoA
(3) (a) H2O (b) Pyruvate dehydrogenase (c) CoA
(4) (a) CoA (b) Aconitase (c) CO2

12) Cytochrome C is a small protein attached to the outer surface of the inner membrane and acts as
a mobile carrier for transfer of electrons between complex ________ and _________.

(1) I & II
(2) II & III
(3) III & IV
(4) IV & V

13) In aerobic respiration, there is external final electron acceptor i.e., __________.

(1) Cytochrome C
(2) UQ
(3) O2
(4) NADH + H+

14)

Which one of the following is not the co enzyme participate in link reaction of aerobic respiration ?

(1) NAD+
(2) LA
(3) Mg
(4) Co-A

15) Given below are two statement :

Statement-I - The NADH synthesised in glycolysis is transferred into the mitochondria and
undergoels photophorphorylation.
Statement-II - Breaking down process within the living organism is anabolism.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) Both Statement I and II are correct.

(2) Statement I is correct but II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but II are correct.
(4) Both Statement I and II are incorrect.

16) Match List-I with List-II and select the correct option :

List I List II

Complete oxidation of organic

A. Fermentation (i)
substances

B. Glucose (ii) Involve both anabolism and catabolism

C. Aerobic respiration (iii) Incomplete oxidation of glucose

 D. Amphibolic pathway (iv) Favoured substrate for respiration
(1) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii
(2) A-i, B-iii, C-iv, D-ii
(3) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
(4) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii

17) Read following statements and select correct statement then choose correct option from given
below :
(a) The first step in the process of plant growth is seed germination.
(b) The factors which control the developmental processes of plants, may be both extrinsic and
intrinsic.
(c) All cells of plants are descendents of zygote.
(d) Development is sum of two processes : growth and differentiation

(1) a, b and d
(2) b, c and d
(3) a, b, c and d
(4) a, c and d

18) Growth is measured by a variety of parameters, among following which is not included in these ?

(1) Fresh weight

(2) Dry weight
(3) Surface area
(4) Cell type

19) Which of the following is a characteristic feature of meristematic cells ?

(1) Intercellular space are present

(2) Cells are large in size
(3) Presence of large conspicuous nucleus
(4) Cell walls are secondary in nature

20) Match the following :

Column-I Column-II

A GA3 i Stress Hormone

B Kinetin ii Apical dominance

C ABA iii Brewing industry

D IBA iv Coconut milk

(1) A - i, B - ii, C - iii, D - iv
(2) A - ii, B - iii, C - iv, D - i
(3) A - iii, B - iv, C - i, D - ii
(4) A - iii, B - iv, C - ii, D - i
21) Read following statements and select the correct statements and choose correct option from
given below :
(a) Gibberellin delay senescence
(b) GAs hastens the maturity period when sprayed on juvenile conifers, leads to early seed
production.
(c) GA1 was the first gibberellin to be discovered.
(d) Antagonist of GAs in most conditions is ABA.

(1) a, b and d
(2) a, b and c
(3) a and b
(4) b, c and d

22) Which among the following statements is incorrect?

(1) Auxins like IAA and indole butyric acid (IBA) have been isolated from plants.
(2) GA3 is used to speed up the malting process in brewing industry.
(3) Cytokinin promotes rapid internode/petiole elongation in deep water rice plants.
(4) Ethylene is one of the most widely used PGR in agriculture.

23) The sporogenous tissue occupies the centre of each ________ and surrounded by tapetum.

(1) Microsporangium
(2) Megasporangium
(3) Nucellus
(4) Embryo sac

24) Microsporangium is generally surrounded by four wall layers out of them which of the following
three wall layers perform the function of protection and help in the dehiscence of anther to release
the pollen?

(1) Epidermis, tapetum, endothecium

(2) Epidermis, Aril, endothecium
(3) Epidermis, endodermis, mesocarp
(4) Epidermis, middle layers, endothecium

25) Which of the following device is not used by plants to prevent autogamy?

(1) Self-incompatibility
(2) Production of unisexual flowers
(3) Production of chasmogamous flower
(4) Production of cleistogamous flowers

26) Formation of fruit from unfertilized ovary is known as __________.

(1) Parthenogenesis
(2) Parthenocarpy
(3) Apogamy
(4) Apospory

27) The main region of the ovule is composed of mass of parenchymatous cells which have abundant
reserve food material called _______.

(1) Endosperm
(2) Chalaza
(3) Nucellus
(4) Integuments

28) How many given plants prevent autogamy but not geitonogamy?
(a) Papaya (b) Maize (c) Castor (d) Date palm

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

29) Continued self pollination results is in :-

(1) Formation of unisexual flower

(2) Inbreeding depression
(3) Gametes loose vigour
(4) Self incompatibility

30) In most of the angiosperms, pollen grains are shed off at -

(1) 2-celled & 2-nucleate stage

(2) 2-celled & 3-nucleate stage
(3) 7-celled & 8-nucleate stage
(4) 3-celled & 3-nucleate stage

31) Pericarp remain fused along with seed coat is the characteristic feature of –

(1) Drupe
(2) Berry
(3) Caryopsis
(4) Pome

32) Read the following statements (A to D) :

(A) Fibrous roots are found in wheat.
(B) A few millimetres above the root cap is the region of elongation.
(C) Alternate phyllotaxy is found in Calotropis and guava.
(D) The stem bear buds, which may be terminal or axillary.
Which of the above statement are correct ?
(1) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) A and D
(4) B, C and D

33) Endosperm is present in mature seeds of –

(1) Bean, Gram, Maize

(2) Pea, Bean, Maize
(3) Gram, Castor, Maize
(4) Wheat, Castor, Maize

34) Which one of the following is correct for maize ?

(1) reticulate venation

(2) pinnately compound
(3) parallel venation
(4) palmately compound

35) Assertion (A) : In pea plant stamens are diadelphous.

Reason (R) : The stamens are united into two bundles.

(1) Both assertion & reason are correct but reason are not correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but reason is false
(3) Assertion is false but reason is true
(4) Both assertion & reason are correct & reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

36) Presence of persistent calyx and epipetalous stamens are the characters of plants belonging to
which plant -

(1) Wheat
(2) Maize
(3) Lily
(4) Brinjal

37) Match the column-I with column-II and select the correct answer.

Column-I Column-II

(A) Fibrous root (I) Storage of food

(B) Stem (II) Alstonia

(C) Pulvinus (III) Maize

(D) Whorled phylotaxy (IV) Swollen leaf base in some leguminous plants
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(3) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
(4) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

38) Which of the following is a correct statement ?

In pinnately compound leaves, the leaflets are attached at a common point, i.e. at the tip of
(1)
petiole.
(2) In Citrus stamens arranged in many bundles.
(3) Adventitious roots of carrot, turnip get swollen and stored food.
(4) Tap root system is seen in wheat plants.

39) In what respect, the pericycle of root differ from that of the stem:-

(1) Sclerenchmatous in root and collenchymatous in stem

(2) Collenchymatous in root and parenchymatous in stem
(3) Parenchymatous in root and sclerenchmatous in stem
(4) Parenchymatous in root and collenchymatous in stem

40) The water cavity is found in the vascular bundle of -

(1) Dicot root

(2) Dicot stem
(3) Monocot stem
(4) Monocot root

41) All the tissue innerside of the endodermis constitute the ______.

(1) Cork
(2) Stele
(3) Cortex of monocot root
(4) Hypodermis of dicot stem

42) Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(1) Casparian strip is composed of suberin.

(2) Monocot roots do not undergo any secondary growth.
(3) Hypodermis of dicot stem is composed of sclerenchyma.
(4) In monocot stem, phloem parenchyma is absent.

43) Which of the following statement regarding monocot plants is/are correct:
(A) Monocot roots do not undergo secondary growth.
(B) Monocot stem do not show phloem parenchyma.
(C) Abaxial epidermis of leaf of some monocot plants modifies to form bulliform cells.
(D) Mesophyll cells of leaf of monocot plants is differentiated in pallisade and spongy parenchyma.
Select set of correct statements.

(1) A, B and C
(2) A and B
(3) A, B and D
(4) All are correct

44) Select the incorrectly matched pair :-

(1) Collenchymatous hypodermis - Dicot stem

(2) Starch sheath - Monocot stem
(3) Inconspicuous pith - Dicot root
(4) Bulliform cells - Isobilateral leaves.

45) Conjoint and radial vascular bundles are found respectively in :-

(1) Monocot root and dicot root

(2) Dicot stem and dicot leaf
(3) Monocot stem and monocot leaf
(4) Dicot stem and dicot root

46) Which structure of brain forms the connection between the brain and spinal cord ?

(1) Cerebellum
(2) Pons
(3) Brain stem
(4) Mid brain

47) The association area are related with :-

(1) Intersensory association

(2) Memory
(3) Communication
(4) All of the above

48) Transmission of an impulse across electrical synapses is :-

(1) Similar to chemical synapse

(2) Very similar to impulses conduction along single axon
(3) Very slow
(4) Depend upon neurotransmitters

49) (A) Myelinated nerve fibres - spinal and cranial nerves.

(B) Unmyelinated nerve fibres - Autonomous and somatic neural system.
(C) Brain stem - Mid brain, pons and cerebellum.
(D) Corpora Quadrigemina - Mid brain
Select the option which includes only the correct ones :-

(1) A, B and D
(2) C and D
(3) A, B, C and D
(4) A, B and C

50) The axoplasm contains high concentration of ...(A)... and negatively charged proteins and low
concentration of ...(B)... ?

(A) (B)

(1) Cl– ion Na+ ions

(2) Na+ ions K+ ions

(3) K+ ions Na+ ions

(4) Na+ ions Cl– ion

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

51) Hypothalamus is related with-

(1) Urge for eating and drinking

(2) Sexual behaviour
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Maintain respiratory rhythm

52) What will be the ideal condition for re-polarisation?

(1) Opening of K+ V.G.C.

(2) Opening of Na+–K+ ions channels
(3) Opening of Na+ V.G.C.
(4) Closing of K+ V.G.C.

53) What is the property of nerve cell ?

(1) Sensitivity
(2) Conductivity
(3) Excitability
(4) All of the above

54) Read the following statement.

(A) Peripheral nervous system divides in somatic nervous system and autonomic nervous system
(B) Central nervous system includes brain and vertebral column
(C) Afferent nerve fibre transmits impulse from CNS and vice versa is also correct
How many of above statements are false
(1) C and A
(2) A and B
(3) B and C
(4) All of these

55) Select the incorrect statements-

(A) The posterior pituitary is under the direct neural regulation of hypothalamus.
(B) Vasopressin is also known as diuretic hormone.
(C) Pineal gland secretes a hormone called MSH.
(D) PTH decrease the Ca2+ levels in the blood

(1) A, B and C
(2) B, C and D
(3) A, B and D
(4) A, C and D

56) Match the column-I and column-II and select correct option -

Column-I Column-II

(A) Adrenal medulla (i) Estrogen

(B) Testis (ii) Progesterone

(C) Ovary (iii) Melatonin

(D) Pineal gland (iv) Testosterone

(v) Adrenaline

(vi) Epinephrine
(1) (A-v, vi), (B-iv), (C-i, ii), (D-iii)
(2) (A-i, ii), (B-iv), (C-iii), (D-v, vi)
(3) (A-v, vi), (B-iii), (C-i,ii), (D-iv)
(4) (A-v, vi), (B-iv), (C-iii), (D-i, ii)

57) Statement-I : Insulin stimulate conversion of glycogen to glucose (glycogenolysis)

Statement-II : Insulin play a major role in the regulation of glucose homeostasis.

(1) Statement-I is correct II is incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is incorrect II is correct.
(3) Both Statement-I and II are correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and II is incorrect.

58) How many of the following hormones bind with membrane bound receptors ?
(Insulin, Glucagon, Thyroxine, Epinephrine, Testosterone, Progesterone, Non ephinephrine)

(1) Seven
(2) Six
(3) Five
(4) Four

59) Which of the following hormone is synthesised by hypothalamus ?

(1) Oxytocin
(2) Vasopressin
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) ACTH

60) ANF (Atrial natriuretic factor) causes :-

(1) Vasoconstriction
(2) Vasodilation
(3) Increase GFR
(4) Inflammation

61) Which one of the following is a secondary messenger for hormone?

(1) Na+2
(2) NAD+
(3) Ca+2
(4) K+

62) Pineal gland is located on the (a)____side of forebrain.

(1) dorsal
(2) lateral
(3) Ventral
(4) ventro lateral

63) The hormone which plays an important role in the regulation of a 24-hour diurnal rhythm of our
body also helps in maintaining all, except

(1) Body temperature

(2) Pigmentation
(3) Defense capability
(4) Reabsorption of water from DCT of nephron.

64) Hormone from adenohypophysis which stimulates the synthesis and secretion of steroid
hormones from the adrenal cortex is

(1) Glucocorticoid
(2) ACTH
(3) Mineralocorticoid
(4) TSH
65) Assertion :- White fibres depend primarily on anaerobic processes for energy.
Reason :- White fibres contain high amount of sarcoplasmic reticulum.

(1) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.

(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(4) Assertion and Reason both False.

66) Statement-I : Contraction of a muscle fibre takes place by the sliding of thick filament over the
thin filament.
Statement-II : Increase in Ca++ level leads to the binding of calcium with a subunit of troponin on
myosin filament.

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is correct.

67) Choose the incorrect statement from the options given below :-

(1) Vertebrochondral ribs consists of 8th, 9th and 10th pairs

(2) Floating ribs consists of 11th and 12th pairs
(3) Scapula is a cylindrical bone of pectoral girdal
(4) Coxal bone is made up of ilium, ischium, pubis

68) Identify the figure and choose the correct matching :-

(1) A → muscle fibre, B → sarcolemma, C → fascicle

(2) A → muscle bundle , B → Sarcolemma, C → muscle cell
(3) A → Muscle fibre, B → Blood capillary, C → muscle bundle
(4) A → fascicle, B → sarcolemma, C → muscle fibre

69) Which of the following is age related disorder characterized by decreased bone mass :-

(1) Osteoarthritis
(2) Gout
(3) Osteoporosis
(4) Rheumatoid arithritis
70) What happened during muscle contraction :-

(1) 'I' bands retain its length

(2) 'A' bands get reduced
(3) 'H' zone may be disappeared
(4) Concentration of Ca++ decrease in sacroplasma

71) Clavicle is articulated with the :-

(1) Xiphoid process of sternum

(2) Acromion of the scapula
(3) Glenoid cavity of the scapula
(4) Head of the Humerus

72) The junction between a motor neuron and the sarcolemma of the muscle fibre is :-

(1) Neuromuscular junction

(2) Motor end plate
(3) Cross bridge
(4) Both (1) and (2)

73) Which muscles contain plenty of mitochondria and utilise the large amount of oxygen stored in
them for ATP production?

(1) Red muscles

(2) White muscles
(3) Smooth muscles
(4) Both 2 and 3

74) Which protein is not found in light band of a myofibril ?

(1) Myosin
(2) Troponin
(3) Actin
(4) Tropomyosin

75) Which of the following events takes place after entry of sperm ?

(1) Completion of meiotic division of secondary oocyte

(2) Formation of second polar body
(3) Formation of a haploid ovum
(4) All of these

76) Assertion : The reproductive cycle in the female primates eg. monkey, apes, and human beings
is called menstrual cycle.
Reason : In human females menstruation is repeated at an average interval of about fourty to fourty
five days.
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are True & the Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are False.

77) Spermatogonia are formed by which cell division ?

(1) Mitosis
(2) Meiosis-I
(3) Meiosis-II
(4) Cleavage

78) Identify A, B, C and D in given diagram.

A B C D

Graafian
(1) Spermatid Ovum Spermatogonium
follicle

(2) Sertoli cell Ovum Corpus luteum Spermatogonium

(3) Sertoli cells Ovum Corpus luteum Spermatozoa

Primary Tertiary
(4) Ovum Sertoli cell
spermatocyte follicle
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

79) Which of the following reproductive event may be initiated before puberty ?

(1) Spermiogenesis
(2) Oogenesis
(3) Implantation
(4) Mensturation

80) Which hormone maintain the corpus luteum during pregnancy secreted by placenta ?

(1) FSH
(2) LH
(3) HCG
(4) Progesterone
81) Choose the incorrect statement from following :-

(1) Each primary oocyte get surrounded by a layer of granulosa cells and is called primary follicle.
(2) At puberty only 60,000-80,000 primary follicles are left in each ovary.
(3) Antrum is a fluid filled cavity and characteristic feature of secondary follicle.
(4) Meiosis-I of primary oocyte completes inside tertiary follicle.

82) Match the column-I with column-II

Column-I Column-II

(i) Prolactin (a) Spermatogenesis

(ii) Oxytocin (b) Ovulation

Milk-ejection
(iii) Testosterone (c)
reflex

(iv) LH (d) Milk production

(1) (i)-d ; (ii)-a ; (iii)-c ; (iv)-b
(2) (i)-d ; (ii)-c ; (iii)-a ; (iv)-b
(3) (i)-b ; (ii)-c ; (iii)-a ; (iv)-d
(4) (i)-b ; (ii)-a ; (iii)-c ; (iv)-d

83) Arrange the proper sequence of Milk ejection

(A) Lactiferous duct
(B) Mammary tubule
(C) Mammary duct
(D) Ampulla

(1) A–B–C–D
(2) D–C–B–A
(3) B–C–D–A
(4) B–C–A–D

84) By the end of _________the body is covered with fine hair, eye lids separate and eye lashes are
formed

(1) First trimester

(2) Second trimester
(3) One month
(4) Two months

85) Which of the following hormone is not secreted by placenta ?

(1) Estrogen
(2) Progesterone
(3) HCG
(4) Oxytocin
86) A contraceptive pill contains :-

(1) Progesterone and estrogen

(2) Spermicidal agents
(3) Chemicals that cause sloughing of myomatrium
(4) Chemical that prevent fertilization of ovum

87) Find out the correct match :-

(1) MTP amendment act - 1971

(2) MTP amendment act - 2017
(3) ZIFT - Embryo with more then 8 blastomeres is transferred in fallopion tube
(4) GIFT - Ovum is transferred in uterus

88) The fertilization technique can be used in IVF [In vitro Fertilisation] :-

(1) AI
(2) GIFT
(3) ICSI
(4) IUI

89) In amniocentesis which fluid is collected from the developing foetus.

(1) Lymph
(2) Blood
(3) Amniotic fluid
(4) Bile

90) Assertion :- Hormone releasing IUD prevent the pregnancy

Reason :- Hormone releasing IUD work as a barrier in the fusion of sperm and ovum

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are True & the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are True but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are False.
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 3 3 4 2 2 2 3 4 3 1 3 4 2 3 4 3 1 3 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 1 2 2 1 4 2 4 2 1 2 2 4 1 4 1 1 2 1 4
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 1 3 2 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 2 2 4 2 3 2 3 4 3 4 1 3 1 2 1 1 4 2 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 1 4 3 2 3 4 1 2 2 4 3 1 1 4 2 3 3 4 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 1 2 3 3

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 3 4 4 2 1 1 2 4 1 1 3 3 3 4 4 3 4 3 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 3 1 4 4 2 3 2 2 1 3 3 4 3 4 4 2 2 3 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 3 2 2 4 3 4 2 1 3 3 1 4 3 2 1 2 4 3 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 1 4 2 3 2 3 1 3 3 2 4 1 1 4 3 1 2 2 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 2 3 2 4 1 2 3 3 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

Q = ΔU + W

0 0 0
= (PBVB–PAVA) + (2P + P ) V

0 0 0 0 0
= (4P V0 – P V ) + PV

0 0 0
= P V0 + PV
Q = 6 P0V0

2)

Average KE of gas =
It depends only on temperature of gas.
Gas particles can have any velocity between 0 to ∞.

VMP =
So temperature affects Maxwell velocity distribution curve.
Different molecules possess different velocities so distribution of velocity is not same for all
gases.

3) here O2 ⇒ No. of moles = =

for CO2 ⇒ No. of moles = =

⇒ equal no. of moles, temperature constant so equal partial pressure so

4) For vessel A :

......(1)
For vessel B :
γ2 = – γB
γ2 = – 3αB ......(2)
On solving :
γ1 – γ2 = 3 (αB – α)

∴ αB =
5)

V = 150 m/s

6)
Q = 2850 cal

7) At constant pressure :-
Q = nCPΔT
310 = 2CP(10)
CP = 15.5 J/g°C
at constant volume
Q = nCVΔT
= 2(CP–R)ΔT [∵ CP – CV = R]
= 2[15.5 – 8.3)10
Q = 144 J

8)

9) Given A1 = A2 and

10) P ∝ T4

so ⇒ TS = 7000 K

11)

12) NCERT Pg. # 263

Distance = 2.5 A = 2A +
time =

13) NCERT Pg. # 268

⇒ ⇒

25 m = 9m + 9 ⇒ m = kg

14) mg = kx ⇒ = 98 × 4

∴ × (98 × 4) = 0.98 kg

15)
MP = 4 ME RP = 2RE

=
∴ TP = TE = 2 sec

16) , T ∝ MW , =

∴ = , = 23.3 K
= – 249.7°C

17) NCERT Pg. # 269

ω= = = 20 rad/s
Velocity of particle at x = 5 cm

V=ω = = 1.73 m/s

K.E. = mV2 = × 0.1 × 1.73 × 1.73 = 0.15 J

P.E. = kx2 = × 40 × 0.05 × 0.05 = 0.05 J

T.E. = K.E. + P.E. = 0.15 + 0.05 = 0.2 J
18)

19) NCERT Pg. # 290 y = 2a sin kx cos ωt

2a = 0.06 ⇒ a = 0.03

K = 2π ⇒ = 2π ⇒ λ = 1

ω = 5π ⇒

Position of node = =

Position of antinode =

At

y = (0.06) sin cos (5πt)

y = –0.06 cos (5πt)
so, amplitude = 0.06

20) Time period doesn't depend on amplitude of oscillation.

21) Electromagnetic waves are transverse waves, but they can travel in all three mediums.

22)

23) n1 = n2 ⇒ ⇒ T1 = 4T2
T1 + T2 = (4.8 + 1.2) 10 = 60 N
4T2 + T2 = 60 N ⇒ T2 = 12 N
T1 = 12 × 4 = 48 N

24)

25) (Left)

(Left)

(Right)

26)

For (A) projection area A = πR2

ϕin = –E(πR2)
ϕout = E(πR2)
For (B) projection are A = H(2R)
ϕin = –E(H(2R))
ϕout = +E(H(2R))
For (C) projection area A = πR2
ϕin = – E(πR2)
ϕout = +E(πR2)
So, A → P,Q; B → R; C → P,Q

27) For (A) ⇒ for (B) ⇒

For (C) ⇒ F3 = 0

For (D) ⇒
F4 > F2 = F1 > F3 or F3 < F1 = F2 < F4

28) (A) θ = 0° , U = –PE = minimum

(B) θ = 90°, U = 0 ⇒ not in equilibrium
(C) θ = 180°, U = + PE = max

29) = ⇒
V2 = + =

30) ,

31)
8x = 16
x = 2V
(V.drop)3μF = 5x
=5×2
= 10 volt

32) Retardation to the motion of proton is

= 4×1010 m/s2
Now, 0 = u – 4 × 1010 × 12 × 10–6
u = 48 × 104 = 4.8 × 105 m/s

33)

For inner sphere

⇒ ⇒
for outer sphere

34) ⇒ R = n1/3r
C = n1/3c
V = n2/3v
35) Charge stored in both capacitors will be same, as there are in series.

q = C.V = 4µF 2 = 8µC

36) ⇒

37) given VAB = 12V

Req = 5Ω (∵ R = 3Ω)

Apply KVL
VA – RI1 – RI = VB
VA – VB = R (I + I1)

E = 15 volt

38)

39)

Plates of parallel plate capacitor are alternatively connected by X and Y.

40)
Req = 10Ω

41) In series current is same

So,

42)

7x = –20 ⇒ x =

43)

44)

......(1)
After shunt,

.....(2)

R2 = 5Ω

45)
 I = 3 + 3 + 1 + 5 = 12A

CHEMISTRY

47) Ph–CH=CH–Ph

48) Reactivity towards EAR ∝ Nucleophilicity of

π–bond (ed ⇒ electron density)

51)

Fact.

52) 0.1g → NH3 → 30ml

Remaining acid = 2ml NH2SO4

54)

In resonating structure movement of atom do not take place.

65)
 66) 1-R, 2-S, 3-Q, 4-P

68) (a) Order of reaction is an experimental quantity

(b) Order of reaction can be zero of fraction.
(c) Order is applicable to elementary as well as complex reaction.
(d) For complex reaction, molecularity of the slowest step is same as the order of the overall
reaction. If slowest step does not contain any intermediate.

71)

73)

77)
For 1 mole 96500 C
For 0.1 mole 9650 C

83) Raoult's law is followed by ideal solution.

87)

π = CRT
P ∝ T [C = const.]
P ∝ C [T = const.]

88) After mixing HNO3 and H2O, intermolecular force of attraction increase.

BIOLOGY

91) NCERT-XI Pg. 141

92) NCERT XI Pg. 149

93) NCERT, Pg. # 149

94) NCERT XI Pg. No :- 145

95) NCERT-XI Pg. 141

96) NCERT XI - Page. No :- 137

97) XI NCERT Page No. # 145

98) NCERT Pg. No. # 139, 140

99) NCERT (XI) Page No. # 161

100) NCERT XI Pg. # 159, 160

101) XI NCERT Pg No. : 158

102) NCERT XI Pg. 160

103) NCERT XI Pg. 160

104)

NCERT XI Pg. No. # 158

105) NCERT XI - Page No. 160, 162

106) NCERT XI Page No. 162, 158, 154, 157

107) NCERT Pg. No. # 167,172

108) NCERT Pg. No. # 168

109) NCERT Pg. No. # 168

110) NCERT Pg. No. # 175, 176, 177, 178

111) XI NCERT Pg # 176

112) NCERT XI Pg. # 175, 176, 177, 178

113) NCERT XII Pg. # 6

114) NCERT XII Pg. # 5

115) NCERT XII Pg. # 12, 15

116) NCERT XII Pg. # 21

117) NCERT XII Pg. No. # 9

119) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 15

120) NCERT XII Pg. # 7

121) MODULE Pg. # 29

122) NCERT (XI) Pg # 67-71

123) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 76

124) NCERT XI, Pg. # 81

125) NCERT XI, Pg. # 75, 79

126) XI-NCERT Page No. # 80

127) XI-NCERT Page No. # 67, 68, 70

128) XI-NCERT Page No. # 66,67,68,70

129)

NCERT-XI, Pg.#91,93

130) NCERT Page No. 76

131) NCERT Page No. 74

132) NCERT Page No. 74,76

133) NCERT Page No. 74-77

134) NCERT Pg. # 74,75,76.

135) NCERT, Pg. # 74,76

136) NCERT XI, Pg. # 321 (21.43)

137) NCERT XI, Pg. # 321 (21.4.1)

138) NCERT XI, Pg. # 319

139) NCERT, Pg # 232, 236

140)

NCERT XI Pg. # 232

141) NCERT, Pg. # 236

142) NCERT Pg # 318

143) NCERT Pg.# 315

144)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 316

145) NCERT Pg # 240, 242-243

146) NCERT Pg # 334, 336, 338

147) NCERT Pg. # 245

148) NCERT Pg. # 248

149) NCERT Pg. # 241

150) NCERT Pg. # 247

151) NCERT Pg. # 247

152) NCERT Pg. 242

153) NCERT Pg. # 242

154) NCERT Pg. # 241

155) NCERT Pg. # 223

156) NCERT Pg. # 222

157) NCERT Pg. 225,226

158) NCERT- XI, Pg.# 218

159) NCERT Pg. # 227

160) NCERT Pg. # 307

161) NCERT Pg. # 226

162) NCERT, Pg. # 222

163) NCERT Pg. No. # 222

164) NCERT Pg. No. # 221

165) NCERT-XII Pg#52, I para

166) NCERT-XII, PG-49

167) NCERT Pg # 47

168) NCERT Pg. # 31, 33

169) NCERT Pg. # 26 & 32

170) NCERT Pg. # 37

171) NCERT, Pg. # 32

172)

NCERT Page- 46 ,54; module Page - 56

173) NCERT Pg. # 30

174) Page No. 54

175) NCERT Page No. 37

176) Module 8 Pg # 104

177) NCERT Pg # 62-64

178) NCERT Pg # 64

179)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 58

180) Module-8, Pg.# 103