UPSC Test 05-Question Booklet
UPSC Test 05-Question Booklet
A
ijh{k.k iqfLrdk
lkekU; vè;;u
iz'u-i=kµI
le; % nks ?k.Vs iw.kk±d % 200
vuqns'k
1- ijh{kk çkjaHk gksus ds rqjar ckn] vki bl ijh{k.k iqfLrdk dh iM+rky vo'; dj ysa fd blesa dksbZ fcuk Nik] iQVk ;k NwVk gqvk i`"B
vFkok ç'uka'k vkfn u gksA ;fn ,slk gS] rks bls lgh ijh{k.k iqfLrdk ls cny ysaA
2- Ñi;k è;ku j[ksa fd OMR mÙkj&i=kd esa] mfpr LFkku ij] jksy uacj dks] è;ku ls ,oa fcuk fdlh pwd ;k folaxfr ds Hkjus vkSj
dwVc¼ djus dh f”kEesnkjh mEehnokj dh gSA fdlh Hkh çdkj dh pwd@folaxfr dh fLFkfr esa mÙkj&i=kd fujLr dj fn;k tk,xkA
3- bl ijh{k.k iqfLrdk ij lkFk esa fn;s x, dks"Bd esa vkidks viuk
vuqØekad fy[kuk gSA ijh{k.k iqfLrdk ij vkSj dqN u fy[ksaA
4- bl ijh{k.k iqfLrdk esa 100 ç'uka'k (ç'u) fn;s x, gSaA çR;sd ç'uka'k fgUnh vkSj vaxzs”kh nksuksa esa Nik gSA çR;sd ç'uka'k esa pkj
çR;qÙkj (mÙkj) fn;s x, gSaA buesa ls ,d çR;qÙkj dks pqu ysa] ftls vki mÙkj&i=kd ij vafdr djuk pkgrs gSaA ;fn vkidks ,slk yxs
fd ,d ls vfèkd çR;qÙkj lgh gSa] rks ml çR;qÙkj dks vafdr djsa tks vkidks lokZsÙke yxsA çR;sd ç'uka'k ds fy;s dsoy ,d gh
çR;qÙkj pquuk gSA
5- vkidks vius lHkh çR;qÙkj vyx ls fn;s x, mÙkj&i=kd ij gh vafdr djus gSaA mÙkj&i=kd esa fn;s x, funZs'k ns[ksaA
6- lHkh ç'uka'kksa ds vad leku gSaA
7- vki vius lHkh çR;qÙkjksa dks mÙkj&i=kd esa Hkjus ds ckn rFkk ijh{kk ds lekiu ij dsoy mÙkj&i=kd vèkh{kd dks lkSai nsaA vkidks
vius lkFk ijh{k.k iqfLrdk ys tkus dh vuqefr gSA
8- xyr mÙkjksa ds fy;s naM %
oLrqfu"B ç'u&i=kksa esa mEehnokj }kjk fn;s x, xyr mÙkjksa ds fy;s naM fn;k tk,xkA
(i) çR;sd ç'u ds fy;s pkj oSdfYid mÙkj gSaA mEehnokj }kjk çR;sd ç'u ds fy;s fn;s x, ,d xyr mÙkj ds fy;s ç'u gsrq fu;r
fd;s x, vadksa dk ,d&frgkbZ naM ds :i esa dkVk tk,xkA
(ii) ;fn dksbZ mEehnokj ,d ls vfèkd mÙkj nsrk gS] rks bls xyr mÙkj ekuk tk,xk] ;|fi fn;s x, mÙkjksa esa ls ,d mÙkj lgh gksrk
gS] fiQj Hkh ml ç'u ds fy;s mi;ZqDrkuqlkj gh] mlh rjg dk naM fn;k tk,xkA
(iii) ;fn mEehnokj }kjk dksbZ ç'u gy ughaa fd;k tkrk gS] vFkkZr~ mEehnokj }kjk mÙkj ughaa fn;k tkrk gS] rks ml ç'u ds fy;s dksbZ
naM ugha fn;k tk,xkA
2- ;g ukbl o xzsukbV pV~Vkuksa ls fufeZr gSA 7- vkSl] veu rFkk cksjks fuEufyf•r esa ls fdl iQly ls lacfa èkr gS\a
3- ;g baMks&vkWLVªsfy;u IysV dk fgLlk gSA (a) twV (b) xsgw¡
4- blds mÙkj&if'peh Hkkx esa dkyh e`nk ikbZ tkrh gSA (c) pkoy (d) nygu
mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&ls lgh gSa\ 8- fuEufyf•r esa ls dkSu&lh n'kk,¡ Hkkjr esa e#LFkyhdj.k gsrq
f”kEesnkj gSa\
(a) dsoy 1 vkSj 2 (b) dsoy 3 vkSj 4
1- 150 feeh- ls de okf"kZd o"kkZ
(c) dsoy 1] 2 vkSj 3 (d) 1] 2] 3 vkSj 4
2- ouLifrjfgr 'kq"d {ks=k
4- áwel Hkou ds lanHkZ esa] fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s % 3- HkkSfrd vi{k;
1- ;g vi?kVu çfØ;k dk ,d pj.k gSA 4- mPp ok"ihdj.k
2- ;g xgjs jax ds fØLVyh; rÙoksa ds fuekZ.k esa lgk;d gSA 5- yo.krk dk fuEu Lrj
mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\ uhps fn;s x, dwV dk ç;ksx dj lgh mÙkj pqfu;sA
(a) dsoy 1 (b) dsoy 2 (a) dsoy 1] 2] 3 vkSj 4 (b) dsoy 2] 3 vkSj 5
(c) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa (d) u rks 1] u gh 2 (c) dsoy 1] 4 vkSj 5 (d) 1] 2] 3] 4 vkSj 5
Select the correct answer using the code given below. 4. Its tributary Subansiri is an example of the Antecedent
River.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 4 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
24. With reference to the Indus river system, consider the
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
following statements:
1. It creates a gorge near Gilgit. (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
3. It falls into the Arabian Sea, east of Karachi. 27. Consider the following peninsular rivers which flow
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? eastwards:
(c) 1 and 3 only Arrange the above rivers from north to south in the correct
(d) 1, 2 and 3 order.
(a) 1-2-3-4 (b) 2-3-4-1
25. With reference to the Ganga river drainage system,
consider the following statements: (c) 1-2-4-3 (d) 2-3-4-1
1. It is known as Ganga after Devprayag. 28. Which of the following river/rivers pass through the
2. Bhagirathi meets Alaknanda at Rudraprayag. standard meridian line of India?
3. The Ganges enters the plains in Rishikesh. 1. Mahanadi 2. Son
4. Yamuna is its westernmost tributary. 3. Tungabhadra 4. Kaveri
Which of the statements given above are correct? Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 4 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) xqtjkr vkS|ksfxd çns'k 2- ;g is: rV ij Iyodksa dh ek=kk esa o`f¼ ds fy;s f”kEesnkj
gSA
(c) csaxyq#&psUubZ vkS|ksfxd çns'k
(d) dksYye&fr#ouariqje vkS|ksfxd çns'k 3- ;g Hkkjrh; Ñf"k ds fy;s ykHknk;d gSA
mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\
30- fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s %
(a) dsoy 1
1- cká okrkoj.k dks fLFkj j[kus ds fy;s thoksa }kjk b"Vre dk;Z
fd;k tkrk gSA (b) dsoy 2 vkSj 3
2- ifjorZu'khy cká i;kZoj.k esa dsoy dqN tho gh leLFkkiu (c) dsoy 1 vkSj 3
ds fy;s l{ke gksrs gSaA (d) 1] 2 vkSj 3
3- tho vius vkarfjd i;kZoj.k dk vkaf'kd :i ls fu;eu djus
esa l{ke gksrs gSaA 33- fuEufyf•r esa ls dkSu&ls 'khr ½rq esa mÙkj Hkkjr esa vfèkd BaM
iM+us ds çeq• dkj.k gSa\
mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\
1- leqæ ds ledkjh çHkko ls nwj vofLFkfrA
(a) dsoy 1
(b) Gujarat Industrial Region 2. It is responsible for the increase in the amount of
plankton on the Peruvian coast.
(c) Bangalore-Chennai Industrial Region
3. It is beneficial for the Indian agriculture.
(d) Kollam-Thiruvananthapuram Industrial Region
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
30. Consider the following statements:
(a) 1 only
1. Optimum function is performed by organisms to keep
the external environment stable. (b) 2 and 3 only
2. Only a few organisms are capable of homeostasis in (c) 1 and 3 only
a changing external environment. (d) 1, 2 and 3
3. Organisms are able to partially regulate their internal
environment. 33. Which of the following are the main reasons for extreme
cold in North India in winter?
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. Distant location from moderating influence of the sea.
(a) 1 only
2. Location near the equator.
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only 3. Snowfall in the Himalayan ranges.
2- var%m".kdfVcaèkh; vfHklj.k {ks=k dh fLFkfr esa cnykoA mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\
3- vkæZ iouksa dk rV ds lekukarj çokgA (a) dsoy 1 vkSj 2
4- ok;qeaMy ds fupys Lrjksa ij rkih; foykseuA (b) dsoy 2
5- caxky dh •kM+h esa pØokrh vonkc dk gksukA (c) dsoy 2 vkSj 3
mi;ZqDr esa ls dkSu&ls dkjd ekulwu foPNsn ds fy;s mÙkjnk;h gSa\ (d) 1] 2 vkSj 3
(a) dsoy 1] 2 vkSj 5 37- Hkkjr ds if'peh rV ij gksus okyh o"kkZ dh rhozrk ds lanHkZ esa]
(b) dsoy 2] 3 vkSj 4 fuEufyf•r esa ls dkSu&lk@ls dkjd f”kEesnkj gS@gSa\
(c) dsoy 2] 3] 4 vkSj 5 1- leqæ rV ls nwj gksus okyh ekSleh n'kk,¡A
(d) 1] 2] 3] 4 vkSj 5 2- vÚhdk ds iwohZ rV ds lkFk Hkweè;js•h; tsV&çokgA
35- fuEufyf•r esa ls dkSu&lh fo'ks"krk,¡ Hkkjrh; ekulwu ds fuorZu uhps fn;s x, dwV dk ç;ksx dj lgh mÙkj pqfu;sA
ls lacafèkr gSa\ (a) dsoy 1
1- fuEu ok;qnkc isVh dk mÙkj dh vksj foLFkkiuA
(b) dsoy 2
2- vkdk'k dk LoPN gksukA
(c) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa
3- rkieku esa o`f¼ gksukA
(d) u rks 1] u gh 2
4- nf{k.k&if'pe ekulwu dk de”kksj gksukA
38- fuEufyf•r ;qXeksa ij fopkj dhft;s %
5- çk;}hi ds iwohZ Hkkxksa esa o"kkZ dk gksukA
(tyekxZ)
(foLrkj)
uhps fn;s x, dwV dk ç;ksx dj lgh mÙkj pqfu;sA
(a) dsoy 1] 2 vkSj 5 1- jk"Vªh; tyekxZ&1 % ç;kxjkt & gfYn;k
2- 'khrks".k dfVcaèkh; pØokr tfur o"kkZ mÙkj Hkkjr esa jch dh (c) lHkh rhuksa ;qXe
iQlyksa ds fy;s ykHkdkjh gksrh gSA (d) dksbZ Hkh ;qXe ugha
(c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only 2. Equatorial jet-flow along the eastern coast of Africa.
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Select the correct answer using the code given below.
35. Which of the following characteristics are related to the (a) 1 only
Indian retreating monsoon?
(b) 2 only
1. Northward displacement of low pressure belt.
(c) Both 1 and 2
2. Clear sky.
3. Increase in temperature. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
36. With reference to the Indian monsoon, consider the (a) Only one pair
following statements:
(b) Only two pairs
1. Most of the rainfall occurs due to western disturbances.
(c) All three pairs
2. Rainfall generated by the temperate tropical cyclone
is beneficial for the Rabi crops in North India. (d) None of the pairs
42. With reference to the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, 2. They form park-like landscape.
consider the following statements: 3. Teak, Sal and Sandalwood are its main trees.
1. Its objective is to provide protection to endangered Which of the statements given above are correct?
species.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
2. Under this, Crocodile breeding project was started in
1973. (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
47. With the increasing altitude in the Himalayan region, 3. Death of plants and other aquatic organisms
arrange the following vegetation according to the Select the correct answer using the code given below.
sequence: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
1. Pine 2. Bluepine (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
3. Rhododendron 4. Moss
51. Consider the following statements:
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1. Dense vegetation is found in the western part in
(a) 1-2-3-4 (b) 2-3-4-1 comparison to the eastern part of the Himalayas.
(c) 1-2-4-3 (d) 4-3-2-1
2. Semi-evergreen forests are the mixture of moist
48. With reference to the Indian Forest Policy, consider the deciduous and thorny forests.
following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. The first forest policy was implemented in 1952. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
2. Forest cover is an area notified by the Revenue (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Department.
52. Fungi comes under which category in the forest
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
ecosystem?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(a) Primary producer (b) Secondary consumer
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Tertiary consumer (d) Decomposers
49. Consider the following pairs:
53. Which of the following are the major constituents of soil
(Biosphere Reserve) (Main fauna) formation?
1. Panna : Lion-tailed Macaque 1. Rock
2. Nanda Devi : Tahr 2. Relief
3. Sundarbans : Barking Deer 3. Temperature
4. Gulf of Mannar : Dugong 4. Natural Vegetation
How many pairs given above are correctly matched? Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) Only one pair (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) Only two pairs (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) Only three pairs (c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) All the four pairs (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
4- ;g O;kikfjd iQlyksa dh Ñf"k ds fy;s de mi;qDr gSA 58- fuEufyf•r ;qXeksa ij fopkj dhft;s %
uhps fn;s x, dwV dk ç;ksx dj lgh mÙkj pqfu;sA (e`nk ds çdkj) (fo'ks"krk)
(a) dsoy 1 vkSj 2 1- dkyh e`nk % iQkLiQksjl] ukbVªkt
s u o tSo inkFkks± dh çpqjrk
(b) dsoy 1] 3 vkSj 4 2- ySVsjkbV e`nk % ykSg vkWDlkbM rFkk iksVk'k dh çpqjrk
(c) dsoy 2] 3 vkSj 4 3- ihVe; e`nk % tSo inkFkks± dh deh
(d) 1] 2] 3 vkSj 4 4- 'kq"d e`nk % ued dh çpqjrk
55- jk"Vªh; m|ku ds lanHkZ esa] fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s % mi;ZqDr ;qXeksa esa ls fdrus lgh lqesfyr ugha gSa\
1- blesa pjkbZ vkSj xks&i'kqvksa ds vkokxeu dh vuqefr gksrh gSA (a) dsoy ,d ;qXe
2- blesa ekuoh; fØ;kdyki iw.kZr;k oftZr gksrs gSaA (b) dsoy nks ;qXe
mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\
(c) dsoy rhu ;qXe
(a) dsoy 1 (b) dsoy 2
(d) lHkh pkjksa ;qXe
(c) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa (d) u rks 1] u gh 2
59- fuEufyf•r esa ls dkSu&ls dkjd m".kdfVcaèkh; pØokr dh mRifÙk
56- fuEufyf•r esa ls dkSu&lk unh ikfjfLFkfrdh ra=k dks fufnZ"V djrk ds fy;s mÙkjnk;h gSa\
gS\
1- m".k ,oa vkæZ ok;q dh miyCèkrk
(a) yksfVd (b) ysafVd
2- dksfjvkWfyl cy dh mifLFkfr
(c) ”ksfjd (d) csafVd
3- {kksHkeaMy esa vfLFkjrk
57- fuEufyf•r esa ls dkSu&ls voukfydk vijnu dks jksdus esa lgk;d
gSa\ 4- çcy ÅèokZèkj ok;q dh mifLFkfr
1. Terrace farming Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(d) 1] 2] 3] 4 vkSj 5 65- fuEufyf•r esa dkSu&ls vid"kZ dkjd çokl ds fy;s f”kEesnkj gSa\
1- LFkkuh; la?k"kZ 2- jks”kxkj
61- lqukeh ds lanHkZ esa] fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s %
1- xgjkbZ esa ygjksa dh špkbZ de gksrh gSA 3- euksjatu ds lzksr 4- f'k{kk
3- bldk çHkko egklkxjksa ds vkarfjd Hkkx esa vR;fèkd gksrk gSA uhps fn;s x, dwV dk ç;ksx dj lgh mÙkj pqfu;sA
3. Its effect is extreme in the interior of the oceans. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
70- fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s % mi;ZDq r ioZr pksfV;ksa dks iwoZ ls if'pe dh vksj Øekuqlkj O;ofLFkr
1- okf"kZd o"kkZ 50&100 lseh- ds eè; gksrh gSA dhft;sA
2- o`{kksa dh tM+sa dkiQh yach gksrh gSaA (a) 1&2&3&4 (b) 2&1&3&4
3- o`{kksa ds eè; d¡Vhyh >kfM+;k¡ ,oa ?kkl ikbZ tkrh gSaA (c) 4&3&1&2 (d) 3&4&1&2
4- vke] egqvk] dhdj vkfn blds çeq• o`{k gSaA 74- fuEufyf•r ;qXeksa ij fopkj dhft;s %
mi;ZqDr fo'ks"krk,¡ fuEufyf•r esa ls fdl çdkj dh ouLifr ls (ioZr Js.kh) (fo'ks"krk)
lacafèkr gSa\ 1- fgeky; % Vf'kZ;jh ofyr ioZr
(a) lnkcgkj ou (b) v¼Z&lnkcgkj ou 2- vjkoyh % çh&dSfEcz;u vof'k"V ioZr
(c) ekulwuh ou (d) ioZrh; ou 3- nDdu VªSi % Tokykeq•h 'kadq mn~xkj
71- fuEufyf•r ;qXeksa ij fopkj dhft;s % 4- if'peh ?kkV % iSfy;ks”kksbd ofyr ioZr
(çeq• iQly) (jkT;) mi;ZqDr ;qXeksa esa ls fdrus lgh lqesfyr gSa\
1- pkoy % vksfM'kk (a) dsoy ,d ;qXe
2- twV % if'pe caxky (b) dsoy nks ;qXe
3- Tokj % dukZVd (c) dsoy rhu ;qXe
4- dgok % egkjk"Vª (d) lHkh pkjksa ;qXe
68. Panna, Para, Palli, Nagla and Dhani refer to which of the Climatic features given above are related to which of the
following? following crops?
(a) Tribal communities (b) Grasslands (a) Sugarcane (b) Rubber
(c) Farming methods (d) Human settlements (c) Tea (d) Jute
69. What type of pattern does the rural settlements of Kerala 73. Consider the following mountain peaks:
mainly display?
1. Dhaulagiri 2. Kangchenjunga
(a) Radial (b) Linear
3. Nanda Devi 4. Kamet
(c) Nucleated (d) Dispersed
Arrange the mountain peaks given above in the sequence
70. Consider the following statements:
from east to west.
1. The annual rainfall occurs between 50-100 cm.
(a) 1-2-3-4 (b) 2-1-3-4
2. The roots of trees are very long.
(c) 4-3-1-2 (d) 3-4-1-2
3. Thorny shrubs and grass are found among the trees.
4. Mango, Mahua, Kikar etc. are its main trees. 74. Consider the following pairs:
(Mountain range) (Characteristic)
Characteristics given above are related to which of the
following types of vegetation? 1. Himalayas : Tertiary folded mountain
(a) Evergreen forest (b) Semi-evergreen forest 2. Aravali : Pre-Cambrian residual mountain
(c) Monsoon forest (d) Mountain forest 3. Deccan Trap : Volcanic cone eruption
71. Consider the following pairs: 4. Western Ghats : Palaeozoic folded mountains
(Main crop) (State) How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
1. Rice : Odisha (a) Only one pair
2. Jute : West Bengal (b) Only two pairs
3. Sorghum : Karnataka (c) Only three pairs
4. Coffee : Maharashtra (d) All four pairs
(c) iBkjh dxkj (d) igkM+h 1- ikni mRikndrk esa deh vkrh gSA
2- i;kZoj.kh; leL;kvksa ds fo#¼ çfrjksèk esa deh vkrh gSA
76- iwohZ&?kkV dh vis{kk if'peh ?kkV esa mHk;pjksa dh vR;fèkd çpqjrk
fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl çdkj dh fofoèkrk n'kkZrh gS\ uhps fn;s x, dwV dk ç;ksx dj lgh mÙkj pqfu;sA
(c) ikfjfLFkfrd fofoèkrk 80- fuEufyf•r esa ls dkSu&lh xSlsa xzhugkml çHkko ds fy;s f”kEesnkj
gSa\
(d) mi;qZDr esa ls dksbZ ugha
1- dkcZu Mkb&vkWDlkbM
77- i`Foh ij tSo&fofoèkrk ds lanHkZ esa] fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj
2- ehFksu
dhft;s %
3- lYiQj Mkb&vkWDlkbM
1- tarq lewgksa dk çfr'kr lHkh vkdfyr çtkfr;ksa esa lokZfèkd gSA
4- ukbVªl vkWDlkbM
2- dhV lokZfèkd le`¼ çtkrh; lewg gSA
5- lYiQj gSDlkÝyksjkbM
3- 'kSokyksa dh la[;k eNyh] mHk;pj] ljhl`i vkSj Lruèkkfj;ksa
ls vfèkd gSA 6- ijÝyksjksdkcZu
mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh ugha gS@gSa\ uhps fn;s x, dwV dk ç;ksx dj lgh mÙkj pqfu;sA
(a) dsoy 1 vkSj 2 (a) dsoy 1] 3 vkSj 6
(b) dsoy 2 vkSj 3 (b) dsoy 1 vkSj 3
(c) dsoy 3 (c) dsoy 1] 2] 4] 5 vkSj 6
(d) 1] 2 vkSj 3 (d) dsoy 1] 2] 3] 4 vkSj 6
78- fuEufyf•r esa ls dkSu&lh fo'ks"krk,¡ fdlh leqnk; dks LFkk;h 81- ?kjsyw okfgr ey ds lanHkZ esa] fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s %
cukus esa lgk;d gSa\ 1- ;g ty çnw"k.k dk lzksr gSA
1- lky&nj&lky mRikndrk esa vfèkdre fHkUurk 2- blls tSo&jklk;fud vkWDlhtu dh ekax esa o`f¼ gksrh gSA
2- çkÑfrd ckèkkvksa vkSj cká tkfr;ksa ds fo#¼ çfrjksèk 3- ;g lqiks"k.k dk dkj.k gksrk gSA
uhps fn;s x, dwV dk ç;ksx dj lgh mÙkj pqfu;sA mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\
(a) dsoy 1 (a) dsoy 1
(b) dsoy 2 (b) dsoy 1 vkSj 2
(c) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa (c) dsoy 2 vkSj 3
(d) u rks 1] u gh 2 (d) 1] 2 vkSj 3
78. Which of the following characteristics are helpful in 81. With reference to the domestic sewage, consider the
making a community stable? following statements:
1. Maximum variation in the productivity from year to 1. It is the source of water pollution.
year 2. It increases the Biochemical Oxygen Demand.
2. Resistance against natural disturbances and alien
3. It causes eutrophication.
species
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
uhps fn;s x, dwV dk ç;ksx dj lgh mÙkj pqfu;sA 1- ;g ,d fØ;kRed Lrj dk çfrfufèkRo djrk gSA
2- çR;sd iks"k.k Lrj ij tho viuh ÅtkZ dh vko';drk ds
(a) dsoy 1 (b) dsoy 2 vkSj 3
fy;s mPp ÅtkZ Lrj ij fuHkZj jgrk gSA
(c) dsoy 1] 3 vkSj 4 (d) 1] 2] 3 vkSj 4
3- ,d çnÙk çtkfr] ,d le; ij ,d gh ikfjfLFkfrd ra=k esa
83- thu ikfjfLFkfrdh ds lanHkZ esa] fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj ,d ls vfèkd iks"k.k jhfr;ksa esa vfèkf"Br gks ldrh gSA
dhft;s % mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&ls lgh gSa\
1- bdSM thu ç:ihdj.k mRifjorZu ds ekè;e ls ifjofrZr (a) dsoy 1 vkSj 2 (b) dsoy 2 vkSj 3
çfrdwy vkoklksa esa vuqdwfyr gks tkrs gSaA (c) dsoy 1 vkSj 3 (d) 1] 2 vkSj 3
2- ikfjfLFkfrd çk:i] thu çk:i esa fdlh Hkh ifjorZu ds fcuk
87- y{k.k ç:ih vuqdwyu ds lanHkZ esa] fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj
vkokl çsfjr vkdkfjdh; fofoèkrk n'kkZrk gSA dhft;s %
3- ikfjfLFkfrd çk:i tkfr&mn~Hkou dh çfØ;k dks çkjaHk djrs gSAa 1- ;s vkuqoaf'kd ifjorZu dks n'kkZrs gSaA
mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\ 2- blesa tho dh vkdkfjdh] mifLFkfr] fodkl vkSj O;kogkfjd
(a) dsoy 1 vkSj 2 (b) dsoy 2 vkSj 3 y{k.k 'kkfey fd;s tkrs gSaA
(c) dsoy 3 (d) 1] 2 vkSj 3 3- eNfy;ksa dk ukSdkdkj 'kjhj vkSj if{k;ksa ds ia• bl vuqdwyu
dks n'kkZrs gSaA
84- fuEufyf•r esa ls dkSu&lh fo'ks"krk@fo'ks"krk,¡ m".kdfVcaèkh; o"kkZ
mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\
ouksa dh ugha gS@gSa\
(a) dsoy 1 (b) dsoy 1 vkSj 3
1- Lrj foU;kl
(c) dsoy 1] 2 vkSj 3 (d) dsoy 2 vkSj 3
2- dByrkvksa vkSj vfèkikniksa dh çèkkurk
88- ikfjfLFkfrd fudsr fuEufyf•r esa ls fdls lanfHkZr djrk gS\
3- tSo&fofoèkrk
(a) nks fHkUu leqnk;ksa ds eè; laØe.k {ks=k
4- mitkÅ e`nk
(b) leqnk; ds vanj ,d çtkfr dh HkkSfrd fLFkfr vkSj fØ;kRed
mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\ Hkwfedk
(a) dsoy 1 vkSj 4 (b) dsoy 2 vkSj 3 (c) ikfjfLFkfrd :i ls ,d vuqdwfyr {ks=k
(c) dsoy 1] 2 vkSj 3 (d) dsoy 4 (d) mRikndksa vkSj miHkksDrkvksa ds chp vknku&çnku dk {ks=k
3. Particulate matter less than 2.5 µm. 86. With reference to the nutritional level in an ecosystem,
4. Particulate matter above than5 µm. consider the following statements:
1. It represents a functional level.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
2. The organism depends on higher energy level for its
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
energy requirement at each trophic level.
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 3. A given species may occupy more than one nutritional
mode in the same ecosystem at a time.
83. With reference to the gene ecology, consider the following
statements: Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. Ecads are adapted to adverse habitats altered through (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
2. Ecotype shows habitat induced morphological 87. With reference to the phenotype adaptation, consider the
diversity without any change in genotype. following statements:
3. Ecotypes initiate the process of species evolution. 1. They show genetic variation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 2. Morphological, appearance, development and
behavioral traits of an organism are included in it.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
3. The navigable body of fish and feathers of birds show
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 this adaptation.
84. Which of the following is/are not characteristic/ Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
characteristics of tropical rain forests? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only
2. Primacy of liana and epiphyte plants 88. Ecological niche refers to which of the following?
3. Biodiversity (a) Transition zone between two distinct communities
2- thoksa vkSj i;kZoj.k ds eè; iQkWLiQksjl dk xSlh; fofue; (c) lHkh rhu ;qXe
ux.; gksrk gSA (d) dksbZ Hkh ;qXe ugha
(a) Only one pair 2. Its aim is to establish balance between natural
resources and society.
(b) Only two pairs
3. Neeru-Meeru program has been conducted in
(c) Only three pairs Rajasthan for this.
(d) All four pairs Which of the statements given above are correct?
91. With reference to the iron ore in India, consider the (a) 1 and 2 only
following statements: (b) 1 and 3 only
1. Magnetite is mainly useful for the power industry. (c) 2 and 3 only
2. The amount of iron content is highest in haematite. (d) 1, 2 and 3
3. Low quality iron ore is found in the Maharashtra-Goa
95. Consider the following pairs:
belt.
(Group of Plant) (Example)
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. Heliophyte : Funaria
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
2. Sciophyte : Sunflower
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
3. Viviparous : Rhizophora
92. With reference to the phosphorus cycle, consider the
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
following statements:
(a) Only one pair
1. The input of phosphorus into the atmosphere by rain
is less than carbon. (b) Only two pairs
2. The gaseous exchange of phosphorus between the (c) All three pairs
organisms and environment is negligible. (d) None of the pairs
How many pairs given above are not correctly matched? Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) Only one pair (b) Only two pairs (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) Only three pairs (d) All four pairs (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
97. With reference to the temperate evergreen forests,
consider the following statements : (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
1. These are found on the western banks of the 100. Consider the following:
continents.
1. Family
2. Hard and soft vegetations are found here.
2. Community
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
3. Religion
(a) 1 only
4. Land
(b) 2 only
5. Political situation
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 6. Forest
98. Zebra and Giraffe are endemic species of which of the Which of the given above are not components of human
following region? environment?
(a) Tropical evergreen forest (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) Tropical grassland (b) 3, 4 and 6 only
(c) Temperate grassland (c) 4 and 6 only
(d) Tropical deciduous forest (d) 3, 4 and 5 only
A
TEST BOOKLET
GENERAL STUDIES
PAPER - I
INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELYAFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST
BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVEANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT
REPLACED BYA COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. Please note that it is the candidate's responsibility to encode and fill in the Roll Number and without any omission
or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMRAnswer Sheet.Any omission/discrepancy will render theAnswer
Sheet liable for rejection.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box
provided alongside.
DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed both in Hindi and English, Each item comprises four
responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on theAnswer Sheet. In case you feel that there is
more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response
for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separateAnswer Sheet provided. See directions in theAnswer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. After you have completed filling in all your responses on theAnswer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should
hand over to the Invigilator only theAnswer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
8. Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONGANSWERS MARKED BYA CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE
QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given
by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens
to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.
è;ku nsa % vuqns'kksa dk fgUnh :ikUrj bl iqfLrdk ds eq[k i`"B ij Nik gSA