Self Assessment Examination (2025-26)
Class: X
Social Science (087)
Time Allowed: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. The question paper comprises six sections – A, B, C, D, E, and F. There are 37 questions
in the question paper. All questions are compulsory.
2. Section A – From questions 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.
3. Section B – From questions 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer type questions, carrying 2
marks each. Answers to each question should not exceed 40 words.
4. Section C – From questions 25 to 29 are Short Answer type questions, carrying 3 marks
each. Answers to each question should not exceed 60 words.
5. Section D – From questions 30 to 33 are Long Answer type questions, carrying 5 marks
each. Answers to each question should not exceed 120 words.
6. Section E – Questions 34 to 36 are case-based questions with three sub-questions and are
of 4 marks each.
7. Section F – Question 37 is a map-based question, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a
from History (2 marks) and 37b from Geography (3 marks).
8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been
provided in a few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions has to be
attempted.
9. Attach the map with the answer sheet.
* This question paper is a sample paper for practice purposes.
SECTION - A
(Multiple Choice Questions - 1 x 20 = 20 Marks)
1. Identify the correct features of the Civil Code of 1804 from the following:
I. Established equality before the law.
II. Abolished all privileges based on birth.
III. Secured the right to property.
IV. Simplified administrative divisions and abolished the feudal system.
(a) I and II
(b) I, II, III and IV
(c) II and III
(d) I, III and IV
2. The early novels written in 18th century Europe were significant because they:
(a) only focused on the lives of the royalty.
(b) highlighted the experiences of women and the problems they faced.
(c) were primarily religious texts.
(d) promoted the idea of absolute monarchy.
3. Which of the following is considered a key factor that has stimulated the globalisation
process?
(a) The establishment of monarchies
(b) Strict trade barriers
(c) The rise of localism
(d) The flow of technology
4. Who is credited with initiating the Protestant Reformation by posting his 'Ninety-Five Theses'
in 1517?
(a) Erasmus
(b) Johann Gutenberg
(c) Benjamin Franklin
(d) Martin Luther
5. Which of the following is a ferrous mineral?
(a) Bauxite
(b) Copper
(c) Limestone
(d) Nickel
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6. Match the following economic activities with their respective sectors and choose the correct
option:
Column I (Activity) Column II (Sector)
I. Cotton Cultivator 1. Tertiary Sector
II. Factory Worker 2. Primary Sector
III. Teacher 3. Secondary Sector
(a) I-1, II-2, III-3
(b) I-3, II-2, III-1
(c) I-2, II-3, III-1
7. Choose the correctly matched pair regarding soil types and their characteristics.
(a) Alluvial soil – Consists of sand, silt & clay.
(b) Black soil – Low moisture retention capacity.
(c) Laterite soil – Rich in humus and nitrogen.
(d) Arid soil – Found in the northern plains.
8. Which of the following neighbouring countries of India has a history of army rule and a long
struggle for the restoration of democracy?
(a) Nepal
(b) Myanmar
(c) Sri Lanka
(d) Bhutan
9. Which sector of the economy has shown the most significant growth in its share of India's
GDP over the last few decades?
(a) Primary
(b) Secondary
(c) Tertiary
(d) Quaternary
10. Why did the Indian government remove barriers to foreign trade and foreign investment
around 1991?
(a) To protect domestic producers from foreign competition.
(b) It was under pressure from the World Bank.
(c) The government felt it was time for Indian producers to compete with producers around the
globe.
(d) To decrease exports from the country.
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11. Consider the following statements about power-sharing in Belgium and choose the correct
option.
I. The number of Dutch and French-speaking ministers shall be equal in the central government.
II. Brussels has a separate government in which both communities have equal representation.
III. The state governments are subordinate to the Central Government.
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) I and III
(d) I, II and III
12. If a hypothetical State Assembly in India has a total of 117 seats, how many seats would be
reserved for women if the one-third reservation policy was applied?
(a) 39
(b) 33
(c) 40
(d) 58
13. What is a primary developmental goal for a landless rural labourer?
(a) More days of work and better wages.
(b) Opportunity to go abroad.
(c) To set up a large factory.
(d) To get urban employment.
14. Identify the activity that belongs to the Primary Sector.
(a) Flower cultivation
(b) Banking services
(c) Weaving cloth
(d) Transportation
15. Which of the following are key features of a federal system of government?
I. There are two or more levels of government.
II. Different tiers of government govern the same citizens.
III. The fundamental provisions of the constitution can be unilaterally changed by one level of
government.
IV. Courts have the power to interpret the constitution.
(a) I, II, and III
(b) I, II, and IV
(c) I and IV only
(d) II, III, and IV
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16. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason
(R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): Power sharing is suitable only for big countries that have social divisions.
Reason (R): Power sharing is a good way to ensure the stability of the political order because it
helps to reduce the possibility of conflict between social groups.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
17. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer.
List I (Party System) List II (Country)
I. One-Party System 1. India
II. Two-Party System 2. China
III. Multi-Party System 3. United States
(a) I-1, II-2, III-3
(b) I-3, II-1, III-2
(c) I-2, II-3, III-1
18. The system of Panchayati Raj in India, with its structure at the village, block, and district
levels, is a prime example of:
(a) A centralized system
(b) A unitary system
(c) A decentralized system
(d) A dictatorial system
19. The legend of 'El Dorado', the fabled city of gold, spurred many expeditions by European
conquerors to which continent?
(a) Asia
(b) Africa
(c) America
(d) Australia
20. Which form of government is overwhelmingly supported by people all over the world as the
most legitimate and popular?
(a) Democratic
(b) Monarchical
(c) Autocratic
(d) Military
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SECTION - B
(Very Short Answer Questions - 2 x 4 = 8 Marks)
21. How did 'smallpox' act as the most powerful weapon for the Spanish conquerors in their
colonization of America? Explain. (2)
22. "Agriculture and industry move hand in hand." Justify this statement with an example. (2)
23. "Different persons can have different developmental goals." Explain with an example. (2)
24. Describe any two ways in which women in India are still discriminated against and face
disadvantages. (2)
SECTION - C
(Short Answer Questions - 3 x 5 = 15 Marks)
25. What did Liberal Nationalism stand for in the economic and political spheres in early
19th-century Europe? Explain. (3)
26. Describe any three institutional and technological reforms initiated by the Indian government
to improve the condition of agriculture post-independence. (3)
27. Explain the role of Information Technology (IT) in stimulating the process of globalisation.
(3)
28. "Political parties are a necessary condition for a democracy." Analyse the statement with any
three arguments. (3)
29. Explain with three reasons why the Tertiary Sector is becoming increasingly important in the
Indian economy. (3)
SECTION - D
(Long Answer Questions - 5 x 4 = 20 Marks)
30. How did culture play an important role in creating the idea of the nation and a sense of
collective belonging in India? Explain with examples. (5)
31. Examine the significance of pipeline transport in India. Why is it considered a convenient
and efficient mode of transport for certain commodities? (5)
32. "Democracy is a better form of government than any other alternative." Justify the statement.
(5)
33. "Cheap and affordable credit is crucial for the country's development." Analyse the
statement. (5)
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SECTION - E
(Case-Based Questions - 4 x 3 = 12 Marks)
34. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
In the 19th century, a powerful wave of change swept through India, driven by the spread of
print. Vernacular newspapers, written in local languages, became a potent tool for public
discourse. Pioneers like Krishnaji Trimbak Ranade started newspapers with a view to affording
useful information on every topic of local interest. These publications became open platforms for
free discussions and debates. Native newspapers and political associations began to critically
examine the policies and decisions of the ruling British party, a role identical to that of the
Opposition in Parliament. This new print culture fostered a sense of national and international
awareness, transforming reading from a niche activity into a hobby for many and a powerful
instrument for social and political awakening.
(I) What was the primary objective of early vernacular newspapers? (1)
(II) In what way did native newspapers function like a modern political opposition? (1)
(III) How did the new print culture contribute to the growth of awareness among people in the
19th century? (2)
35. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
In recent decades, multi-purpose river valley projects and large dams have come under great
scrutiny. While they were once hailed as the 'temples of modern India,' they have also triggered
significant social movements. An alternative and historically proven method of water
conservation is rainwater harvesting. This method is a viable alternative because it is
community-managed and ecologically sound, avoiding the demerits of large dams like mass
displacement. In Rajasthan, rooftop rainwater harvesting was common practice, with
underground 'tankas' built to store drinking water collected from a pipeline connected to the
sloping roofs of the houses. Ancient India also boasted sophisticated hydraulic structures like the
lakes in Bhopal, tanks constructed by Iltutmish, and 'guls' or 'kuls' in the Himalayan region.
(I) Why is a water harvesting system considered a viable alternative to multi-purpose projects?
(1)
(II) Explain the process of 'Rooftop Rainwater Harvesting' as practiced in Rajasthan. (2)
(III) Mention any two examples of ancient hydraulic structures in India. (1)
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36. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
India's federal structure is a testament to its accommodation of immense diversity. One of the
most significant tests has been its language policy. The Indian Constitution did not give the status
of a national language to any one language. Hindi was identified as the official language, but its
imposition was carefully avoided. Besides Hindi, there are 21 other languages recognised as
'Scheduled Languages' by the Constitution (making a total of 22). This inclusion allows
candidates to take examinations for central government positions in any of these languages. The
creation of Linguistic States, where people speaking the same language were grouped together,
was another major step. This policy has not led to disintegration; rather, it has made
administration easier and resulted in greater integration and consolidation of the country.
(I) How does India's language policy reflect its commitment to cultural diversity? (1)
(II) What is the significance of including 22 languages in the 8th Schedule of the Constitution?
(1)
(III) Explain how the creation of linguistic states has actually strengthened the unity of India. (2)
SECTION - F
(Map Skill Based Question - 2 + 3 = 5 Marks)
37. Map Work:
(1) Two places A and B are marked on the given political outline map of India. Identify them and
write their correct names on the lines drawn near them. (2)
(A) The place where Mahatma Gandhi organised a Satyagraha for indigo planters.
(B) The Indian National Congress Session held in December 1920.
(2) On the same outline map of India, locate and label any THREE of the following with suitable
symbols. (3)
(I) Pune Software Technology Park
(II) Narora Nuclear Power Plant
(III) Tehri Dam
(IV) Kandla Seaport
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