LEARN & SERVE ACADEMY

PERA OPERATION & PROCEDURE

RULES 2025
1. Under which section of the Punjab Enforcement and
Regulation Act 2024 are these rules made?
a) Section 10
b) Section 78
c) Section 40
d) Section 58
Answer: b) Section 78
2. These rules are called the Punjab Enforcement and
Regulatory Authority (Operations and Procedures) Rules:
a) 2024
b) 2025
c) 2023
d) 2026
Answer: b) 2025
3. How often must the Board meet, as per Rule 3?
a) Once a month
b) At least once every three months
c) Once every six months
d) Once a year
Answer: b) At least once every three months
4. The notice for a regular Board meeting must be issued at
least how many days in advance?
a) 1 day
b) 5 days
c) 3 days
d) 7 days
Answer: c) 3 days
5. A complainant, other than a Department or Whistle-blower,
must submit a complaint of public nuisance along with:

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a) A legal fee
b) An affidavit and available evidence
c) A witness list
d) A medical certificate
Answer: b) An affidavit and available evidence
6. For a moveable encroachment, the Enforcement Officer can
serve a notice to show cause within how many days?
a) 7 days
b) 3 days
c) 15 days
d) 30 days
Answer: b) 3 days
7. For an immoveable encroachment, the Hearing Officer can
issue a Removal Order giving the illegal occupier how many
days to vacate?
a) 3 days
b) 15 days
c) 30 days
d) 60 days
Answer: b) 15 days
8. A representation must be filed by an aggrieved person within
how many days from the cause of action?
a) 15 days
b) 30 days
c) 60 days
d) 90 days
Answer: b) 30 days
9. The Hearing Officer must decide a representation within how
many days of its filing?
a) 30 days
b) 60 days
c) 90 days

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d) 120 days
Answer: b) 60 days
10. The Hearing Officer must take up a representation for
hearing within how many working days of receiving it?
a) 1 day
b) 2 days
c) 3 days
d) 5 days
Answer: c) 3 days
11. If a party fails to appear after notice, the Hearing Officer
can:
a) Dismiss the case permanently
b) Proceed ex-parte
c) Imprison the party
d) Fine the party immediately
Answer: b) Proceed ex-parte
12. Rule 12 states that the Hearing Officer shall NOT restore
______ as an interim relief.
a) The seized goods
b) Status quo ante
c) The original complaint
d) The Enforcement Officer's powers
Answer: b) Status quo ante
13. For granting interim relief, the Hearing Officer must be
satisfied that the matter is of:
a) National importance
b) Urgent nature
c) Low financial value
d) Criminal intent
Answer: b) Urgent nature
14. The maximum fine an Enforcement Officer (EO) can impose
for an offence by a private person under Section 44 is:
a) Rs. 50,000

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b) Rs. 100,000
c) Rs. 200,000
d) Rs. 300,000
Answer: a) Rs. 50,000
15. The maximum fine a Sub-Divisional Enforcement Officer
(SDEO) can impose for false whistle-blowing is:
a) Rs. 50,000
b) Rs. 75,000
c) Rs. 100,000
d) Rs. 200,000
Answer: a) Rs. 50,000
16. The maximum fine a Hearing Officer can impose for the
unauthorized disclosure of a whistle-blower's identity is:
a) Rs. 50,000
b) Rs. 75,000
c) Rs. 100,000
d) Rs. 200,000
Answer: b) Rs. 75,000
17. The highest authority that can impose a fine of Rs. 300,000
for an offence by a company is the:
a) Hearing Officer
b) SDEO
c) District Enforcement & Regulatory Board
d) Director General
Answer: c) District Enforcement & Regulatory Board
18. A Whistle-blower who receives a show-cause notice for a
false disclosure has how many days to submit a written reply?
a) 3 days
b) 7 days
c) 15 days
d) 30 days
Answer: b) 7 days

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19. A person accused of unauthorized disclosure of a whistle-
blower's identity has how many days to reply to a show-cause
notice?
a) 7 days
b) 15 days
c) 30 days
d) 60 days
Answer: b) 15 days
20. The maximum imprisonment recommended for
unauthorized disclosure of a whistle-blower's identity is:
a) 6 months
b) 1 year
c) 2 years
d) 5 years
Answer: b) 1 year
21. All digital records must be uploaded to a secure system
within how many hours of collection?
a) 12 hours
b) 24 hours
c) 48 hours
d) 72 hours
Answer: b) 24 hours
22. Digital evidence must be tagged with metadata that does
NOT include:
a) Date and time
b) Location
c) Offender's name
d) Officer details
Answer: c) Offender's name
23. The highest bidder in an auction must deposit the remaining
bid amount within how many working days?
a) 1 day
b) 2 days

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c) 3 working days
d) 5 working days
Answer: c) 3 working days
24. The sale value for auctioning confiscated goods is fixed at
less than what percentage of the market value?
a) 5%
b) 10%
c) 15%
d) 20%
Answer: b) 10%
25. The rent and cost of enforcement determined by the HO
must be paid by the offender within:
a) 7 days
b) 15 days
c) 30 days
d) 60 days
Answer: b) 15 days
26. The HO can extend the payment period for rent and cost by
a maximum of how many additional days?
a) 7 days
b) 15 days
c) 30 days
d) 60 days
Answer: b) 15 days
27. If auction proceeds are insufficient, unpaid rent and costs
are recovered as:
a) A personal debt
b) Arrears of land revenue
c) A criminal penalty
d) A bank loan
Answer: b) Arrears of land revenue
28. The inventory of confiscated goods must include all of the
following EXCEPT:

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a) Description of goods
b) Date, time, and place of seizure
c) The offender's personal financial details
d) Estimated market value
Answer: c) The offender's personal financial details
29. Storage services for seized goods are to be procured under
which rules?
a) Punjab Land Revenue Act, 1967
b) Punjab Procurement Rules 2014
c) Punjab Tenancy Act, 1887
d) Code of Criminal Procedure, 1898
Answer: b) Punjab Procurement Rules 2014
30. The 'buddy system' is mandatory for:
a) All office work
b) All field operations
c) Only high-risk raids
d) Training sessions only
Answer: b) All field operations
31. The monthly compliance report must be submitted by the
SDEO to the:
a) Director General only
b) Authority and the Board
c) Hearing Officer only
d) Chief Secretary
Answer: b) Authority and the Board
32. The power to issue specific instructions on the use of body
cameras lies with the:
a) Hearing Officer
b) Authority
c) Director General
d) Chief Secretary
Answer: c) Director General

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33. The standardized mechanism for storage space is to be
notified by the:
a) Hearing Officer
b) Board
c) Director General
d) SDEO
Answer: c) Director General
34. When presenting digital evidence, it must be accompanied
by a chain-of-custody document and a certificate from the:
a) Director General
b) Sub-Divisional Enforcement Officer (SDEO)
c) Enforcement Officer (EO)
d) Investigation Officer (IO)
Answer: b) Sub-Divisional Enforcement Officer (SDEO)
35. The Authority must arrange trainings for its employees on
all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Buddy system
b) Body camera operation
c) Legal drafting
d) Digital evidence handling
Answer: c) Legal drafting
36. The Forms for all proceedings are specified in:
a) Schedule-I
b) Schedule-II
c) The Act itself
d) The Punjab Procurement Rules
Answer: b) Schedule-II
37. The pecuniary limits for imposing fines are specified in:
a) Schedule-I
b) Schedule-II
c) Section 78
d) Section 40
Answer: a) Schedule-I

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38. For an offence of misuse of authority by an employee, a
Hearing Officer can impose a maximum fine of:
a) Rs. 50,000
b) Rs. 75,000
c) Rs. 100,000
d) Rs. 200,000
Answer: b) Rs. 75,000
39. The timeline for the Hearing Officer to forward a requisition
from an Enforcement Station to the Board is:
a) Immediately
b) Within 3 days of receipt
c) Within 7 days of receipt
d) Within 15 days of receipt
Answer: b) Within 3 days of receipt
40. The enforcement cost report is prepared by the EO and
verified by the:
a) Hearing Officer
b) Sub-Divisional Enforcement Officer (SDEO)
c) Director General
d) Board
Answer: b) Sub-Divisional Enforcement Officer (SDEO)
41. The enforcement cost report includes the cost of storing
seized items until they are:
a) Returned
b) Auctioned
c) Destroyed
d) Donated
Answer: b) Auctioned
42. The notice for a special meeting of the Board can have a
reduced notice period at the discretion of the:
a) Secretary
b) Members
c) Chairperson

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d) Director General
Answer: c) Chairperson
43. A person who makes an unauthorized disclosure of a
whistle-blower's identity can be recommended for
imprisonment, a fine, or:
a) Community service
b) Both
c) Dismissal from service
d) Exile
Answer: b) Both
44. The inventory of confiscated goods must be signed by the
Enforcement Officer and the offender. If the offender refuses, it
can be signed by:
a) Any police officer
b) A person present at the site
c) The SDEO
d) The Hearing Officer
Answer: b) A person present at the site
45. The release order for returning confiscated goods is issued
by the:
a) Enforcement Officer
b) Sub-Divisional Enforcement Officer
c) Hearing Officer
d) Director General
Answer: b) Sub-Divisional Enforcement Officer
46. The process for determining the market value of confiscated
goods for auction involves getting quotes from:
a) The offender
b) One or more dealers
c) The original manufacturer
d) A government valuer
Answer: b) One or more dealers

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47. The offender or liable person is:
a) Banned from the auction
b) Allowed to participate in the auction
c) Forced to bid on the items
d) Given a discount at the auction
Answer: b) Allowed to participate in the auction
48. The proceeds from an auction are deposited into:
a) The government treasury
b) The Fund
c) The Enforcement Station's account
d) The victim's account
Answer: b) The Fund
49. The mode and manner for recovering the cost of
investigation are to be notified by the:
a) Hearing Officer
b) Authority
c) Director General
d) Board
Answer: b) Authority
50. The Forms appended to the rules can be revised under the
powers granted in:
a) Section 78 of the Act
b) Section 10(2)(d) of the Act
c) Section 40 of the Act
d) The Punjab Procurement Rules 2014
Answer: b) Section 10(2)(d) of the Act

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