Test Booklet Code No. 75391 3 4 xx Jad Matra DI is rest Botit contains 20 pages To eee Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so. Important Instructions : 1, The Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars on Side-1 and Side-2 carefully with blue/black ballpoint pen only. 2. The test is of 3 hours duration and Test Booklet contains 180 questions. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total score. The maximum marks are 720. 3. Use Blue/Black Ballpoint Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses. 4. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only. 5. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator before leaving the Room/Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away Test Booklet only with them 6. The CODE for this Test Booklet is XX. Make sure that the CODE printed on Side-2 of the Answer Sheet is the same as that on this Test Booklet. In case of discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter to the Invigilator for replacement of both the Test Booklet and the Answer Sheet. 7. The candidate should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet. 8. Use of white fluid for correction is not permissible on the Answer Sheet. 9. Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admit Card to the Invigilator. 10. No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator, would leave his/her seat. 11. The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty and sign the Attendance Sheet twice. Cases where a candidate has not signed the Attendance Sheet second time will be deemed not to have handed over the Answer Sheet and dealt with as an unfair means case. 12. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited. 13. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the Board with regard to their conduct in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of the Board. 14. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances. 15. The candidates will write the correct Test Booklet Code as given in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet in the Attendance Sheet. Name of the Candidate (in Capitals) : UT) Rot Number gn Mgures); (RI B19 on'2 Sy (in Words) Centre of Examination (in Capitals) : KW No 2, | Candidate's Signature : sifg [ptins Sema Facsimile Signature Stamp of Centre Superintendent Fe E2a = & 1. A given nitrogen-containing aromatic compound A reacts with Sn/HCI, followed by HNO, to give an unstable compound B. B, on treatment with phenol, forms a beautiful coloured compound C with the molecular formula C,H oN20. The structure of compound A is oOo MO” 9 2, Consider the reaction o CgCHCh,Br + NACN -» CHjCH,CH,CN + Nae ‘This reaction will be the fastest in SN i “ (1) water: Polen. > Leobic a SH N,N’-dimethylformamide (DMF) X’ 3. The correct structure of the product A formed in the reaction ‘ i (8 Ha (gas, 1 atmosphere) Pd/carbon, ethanol Lirdlans otolysl” 1H @ co (2) 1 i on O te) JMD/E2 2 4. Which among the exhibig tautomerism? ae (1) Both Il and mI given molecules ca ce O Ch A (2) IM only ym Both I and IT (4) Both I and Il 5. The correct order of strengths of th carboxylic acids I uw m is () moist (QQ 1>n>m oem (4) I> 1 >1 6. The compound that will react most read with gaseous bromine has the formula (1) CoH, =O (2) CoH SCH (4) Cathode -C—C- ecec~ Y soe 7. Which one of the following compounds shows the presence of intramolecular hydrogen bond? x gb oie Ba (2) Concentrated acetic acid ou 2h H202 é ane & (3) HON x W-C* Wre (4) Cellulose me 8. The molar conductivity of a 0-5moi !Sm? solution of AgNO, with electrolytic conductivity of 5-76x10Scm™ at 298 K is () 28.8 Sem? /mor (400XK 2 SY wv {) te decomposiion of phosphine (i) o tungsten at low pressure is a first-order reaction. It is because the (1) rate of decomposition is very slow (2) rate is proportional coverage (3) rate is inversely proportional to the surface coverage (4) rate is independent of the surface coverage (2) 2:88 Sem? /mol P1152 Sem? /mol (4) 0-086 Scm? /mol to the surface 10. The coagulation values in millimoles per litre of the electrolytes used for the coagulation of | AsgSq are given below ; rACI = 52, jaCly) = 0:69, IL. (MgSO,) = 0-22 Vat The correct order of their coagulating power is, Q) MW>t> @) W>1>m (2) 1> > mr orn > >, 11. During the electrolysis of molten sodium chloride, the time required to produce 0:10 mol of chlorine gas using a current of Samperes is o t Ne Gaanahaur (1) 330 minutes 2U4e> a, (977110 minutes e ur 220 minutes asl 2 a fel JMD/E2 Ores ange = Bek (2) 55 minutes We Vea ag 12. How many electrons can fit in the orbita) for which n=3 and [= 1? ae a) 14 G2 ar 3) 6 (4) 10 13. For a sample of perfect gas when its pressure is changed isothermally from p; to py, the entropy change is given by may ase xrin( 2) Ne & Py Me te 2) as=nnin( 22) AS= Swe! : r A as-nten( 2.) = =e ta Mx, (4) asqnrrin( 20) x Kria wy t 7 As 14, The van't Hoff factor (é) for a dilute aqueous “) Y) solution of the strong electrolyte barium hydroxide is ou 2, wis (2) 0 ba ) 1 (4) 2 15. The percentage of pyridine (CsHsN) that forms pyridinium ion (CsHsN*H) in a 0-10 M aqueous pyridine solution (Ky for CsHgN = 1-7 x10) is 8? (y 16% C= Ke. KTxI07 (2},,9-0060% © ob ef 0-013% =IRTXID (4) 0:77% feo KZ 16. In calcium fluoride, having the fluorite structure, the coordination numbers for calcium ion (Ca?*) and fluoride ion (F~) are 4 and 8 (2) 4and 2 (3) 6 and 6 (4) 8 and 4 17. If the E~,y for a given reaction has a negative value, which of the following gives the correct relationships for the values of AG” and Keq? (1) aG<0, Kg 0; Keg >1 ' (4) SG°< 0; Keg > 1 Ov mel. 02 F pro. lev rneleo9Gyg-18. Which one of the following is incorrect for ideal solution? ‘AGmnix = O° AG <0 (2) BH yg = OF AS Ze (2) Umax = 9 (4) aP=FP, Peaiculated by Raoult’s law ~ o 19. The solubility of AgCl(s) with solubility product 1:6 107! in 0-1 Mf NaCl solution would be oO pyre Mens Rea Near Sxo:l Bre Tebxio_*e = JTeny “Or XO oe 20. Suppose the elements X ang-¥-combine to gg form two ‘compounds XY anf X3Y2- When EY 0-1 mole of XY, weighs 10 g and 0-05 mole es Xg¥p weighs 9g, the atomic weights of & X and ¥ are KELT = 100 “Sp (a) 30, 20 Wo, 30 wart 2 18% ae a 2) 60, 40 (4) 20, 305% 2-80 \eermt _y = 60 29 21. The*humber dfelectrons cathode during electrolysis by a current of (1) zero \d og WRF 26x10 AK. a ANE.) 1.6x10° M (4) 16x10! Mw Tampere in 60 seconds is, on electron = 1-60x10"'? C) CS ld (2) 6x 1075 xi GW Bi75« 10" 22. Boric acid is an acid because its molecule (1) 7-48 x 107° (@) 6x 107° from water 7 (2) contains replaceable H” ion -Q—wM US gives up a protonw (4) accepts OH” from water releasing proton (1) combines molecule with proton 23. Alf, is soluble in HF only in presence of KF It is due to the formation of (1) KIAIF3H] (2) Ka[AIFsHs) GF Kain) ) ANH JMD/E2 4 24, Zinc can be coated on iron to produce galvanized iron but the reverse is not possible. It is because (1) zine has higher negative electrode potential than iron (2) zine is lighter than iron” {) zinc has lower melting point than idk eal zinc has lower electrode potential than iron 25. The suspension of slaked lime in water is known as negative (1) aqueous solution of slaked lime A timewater Kalender? (3) quicklime Cat4+ho (4) milk of time 26. The hybridizations of atomic orbitals of nitrogen in NO}, NO3 and NH3 respectively are Hh Xt (1) sp?, sp and sp? x\ ys (2) sp, sp® and spPX_ x Pt sp, sp and spy ¢ sp, sp? and sp? 5 27. Which of the following fluoro-compounds is most likely to behave as a Lewis base? (2) BF3 (4) CFa 28. Which of the following pairs of ions is isoelectronic and isostructural? Tat Ie24 kt a log, S03” (2) COZ, NOS (a) ©103, CO3- (4) S03", NOS 3 CO3 37» NOS In context with beryllium, which one of the following statements is ineorreet? (1) Its hydride is electron-deficient and polymeric. (2) It is rendered passive by nitric acid. (3) It forms Be2C. (4) Its salts rarely hydrolyze. v Belly30. Hot concentrated sulphuric acid is a moderately strong oxidizing agent. Which of the following reactions does not show oxigizing behaviour? _, =, et ‘Gar, +H,80, > CaSO, +2HF (2) €u +2450, + CuSO, +80, +2H,0 (3) 38+2H,S0, +380, +24,0 ~ (4) C+2H,80, +00, +280, +2H,0/ have electron density along the axes? ) day day, % ) deer Aye sles ads 24a" XeF, are at square planar, sp°d? 31. Which of the following pairs of d-orbitals will 2) dod }. The correct geometry and hybridization for (2) octahedral, sp3d? (3) trigonal bipyramidal, sp°d (4) planar triangle, sp?a? 33. Among the following, which one is a wrong statement? (1) 13 has bent geometry. wv ans (2) PH and BiCl, do not exist. ‘ (3) predx bonds are present in SO,” SeF, and CH, have same shape. “oe ‘The edlrect increasing order of trans-effect of the following species is er (1) CN > Bro > CgHig > NHy (2) NH, > CN- > Bro (8) CN” > CgHg > Br> (4) Bro > CgHy > NH, > CN” > NHg > CgHg Which one of the following statements related to lanthanons is incorrect? (Q) Ce(+4) solutions are widely used as oxidizing agent in volumetric analysis. Europium shows +2 oxidation state. The basicity decreases as the radius decreases from Pr to Lu. Q) @) ionic (4) All the lanthanons are much more reactive than aluminium, JMD/E2 5 €)saim-teter effect is not observed in high spin complexes of ) a? (2) a? (3) a (4) a* 37. Which of the following can be used as the halide component for Friedel-Crafts reaction? AT Toopropsi chloride (2) ChlorobenzeneX c /U (3) Bromobenzeny C (4) Chloroethene 68) In which of the following molecules, all atoms are coplanar? OOAD 0 OX CH y€N yee, cHy @) 39. Which one of the following structures represents nylon 6,6 polymer?12 H the clectron density is maximum on (1) 2 and 5 (2) 2 and 3 (3) 3 and 4 nee 41. Which of the following compounds shall not produce propene by reaction with HBr followed by elimination or direct only elimination reaction? Ye (1) Hyc—CHcHaBrC He Fila ete eB Hyc—C2CH,OHY OH 42, Which one of the following nitro-compounds does not react with nitrous acid? C=O - eyo St feo bes Wr ro ods a () Wwe Koo, a md Hgc. HjcP-NOa 43, The central dogma of molecular genetics Mates. that the genetic information flows from (1) DNA + RNA ~ Carbohydrates (2) Amino acids > Proteins > DNA (9) DNA > Carbohydrates -> Proteins pf DNA.» RNA > Proteins ‘The correct corresponding order of names of four aldoses with configuration given below HO cHO cHo | CHO n—t-on HoH Ho oH [on ~=—-H—{-OH HO H 1,011 HOH CH,OH CHO! respectively, is (1) D-erythrose, D-threose, L-erythrose, L+threose (2) Lerythrose, L-+threose, _L-erythrose, D-threose {@) D-threose, D-erythrese, _I-threose L-erythrose (4) Leerythrose, L+threose, D-erythrose D-threose @) In the given reaction + Hes Pp orc the product P is F a) oO 0 (2) @) ” HC JMD/E2 646. A foreign DNA and plasmid cut by the same restriction endonuclease can be joined to form a recombinant plasmid using JAS ligase 2) Eeo RI (3) Taq polymerase (4) polymerase II 47. Which of the following is not a component of downstream processing? wae Expression (2) Separation (3) Purification (4) Preservation Which of the following restriction enzymes produces blunt ends? (1) Hind 1 2) Salt (3) Eco RV (4) Xho 49. Which kind of therapy was given in 1990 to a four-year-old girl with adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency? (1) Radiation therapy JAF Gene therapy (3) Chemotherapy (4) Immunotherapy 50. How many hot spots of biodiversity in the world have been identified till date by Norman Myers? ee (2) 17 (3) 25 (4) 34 JMD/E2 The primary producers of the deep-sea hydrothermal vent ecosystem are (1) coral reefs K* 42) green algae g (3) chemosynthetic bacteria (4) blue-green algacy Which of the following is rselected species? correct for (1) Small number of progeny with large size (2) Large number of progeny with smalll size (3) Large number of progeny with large size (4) Small number of progeny with small size 53. If +’ sign is assigned to beneficial interaction, \ sign to detrimental and ‘0’ sign to neutral interaction, then the population interaction represented by 4 ~' refers to A parasitism 4- Rasasit- (2) mutualism (3) amensalism (4) commensalism 54, Which of the following is correctly inatched? (1) Stratification—Population (2) Aerenchyma—OQpuntia (3) Age pyramid—Biome (4) Parthenium hysterophorus—Threat to biodiversity 55. Red List contains data or information on (1) marine vertebrates only (2) all economically important plant4 (3) plants whose products are in international trade 4 (47‘threatened species [ P.T.0. Here: > 4gCWA > G 56. Which one of the following is wrong for fungi? (1) They are both unicellular and multicellular. 2) They are eukaryotic. {a7 All fungi possess @ purely cellulosic cell wall. (4) They are heterotrophic. 57. Methanogens belong to (1) Slime moulds (2) Eubacteria ‘Archaebacteria. (4) Dinoflagellates 58. Sclect the wrong statement. (1) Diatoms are microscopic and float passively in water. ‘The walls of diatoms are easily destructible. {@) ‘Diatomaceous earth’ is formed by the cell walls of diatoms. (4) Diatoms are chief producers in the oceans. 59. The label of a herbarium sheet does not carry information on height of the plant (2) date of collectiony (3) name of collector~ (4) local names ~ 60. Conifers are adapte: environmental conditions .d to tolerate extreme because of (1) presence of vessels (2) broad hardy leaves (3) superficial stomata ‘hick cuticle 61, Which one of the following statements is wrong ? (1) Laminaria and Sarg (2) Algae increase the level of dissolved ‘oxygen in the immediate environment. ‘Algin is obtained from red algae, and carrageenan from brown algae. (4) Agar-agar is obtained from Gelidium and Gracilaria. assum are used as JMD/E2 (Oen Salvia, Aliddn, Al u 62. The term ‘polyadelphous’ is related to a) (2) BI 4) calyx gynoecium androecium corolla How many plants among , Indigofera, Pl fe Indigofera, ae groundnut, radish, grati and ere eee with “different eee their (1) Sixd Moncada Praus (2) Three . (@) Four (4) Five 64. Radial symmetry is found in the flowers of (1) Cassia K ‘Reh A Brassica (8). Trifolium of; (4) Pisum Coke ntation is found in ion found between 65. Free-central place! (1), Citrus Dianthus (3) Argemone (4) Brassica 66, Cortex is the regi (1) endodermis and vascular bundle UA epidermis and stele (@) pericyele and endodermis (4) endodermis and pith 67, The balloon-shaped structures called tyloses (1) are linked to the ascent of sap through xylem vessels (2) originate in the lumen of vessels (3) characterize the sapwood a are extensions of xylem parenchyma cells into vessels 8TL A JMD/E2 68. A non-proteinaccous enzyme is (1) deoxyribonuclease (2) lysozyme IM sibozyme (4) ligase 69. Select the mismatch. (1) Methanogens—Prokaryotes” (2) Gas vacuoles—Green bacteria AS Large central vacuoles—Animal cells “ 4) Protists—Eukaryotes” 70. Select the wrong statement. (1) Mycoplasma is = a_—swall-less microorganism. (2) Bacterial cell wall is made up of| peptidoglycan. A Pili and are mainly involved in apatility of bacterial cells. (4) Cyanobacteria lack flagellated cells, cell organelle enzymes is containing hydrolytic (1) mesosome lysosome (3) microsome (4) ribosome 72. During cell growth, DNA synthesis takes place in (0) M phase UM'S phase (3) G, phase (4) Gp phase 73. Which of the following biomolecules is common to respiration-mediated breakdown of fats, carbohydrates and proteins? ‘Acetyl CoA (2) Glucose-6-phosphate%® (3) Fructose 1,6-bisphosphate K (4) Pyruvic acid 7A, A few drops of sap were collected by cutting across a plant stem by a suitable method. ‘The sap was tested chemically. Which one of the following test results indicates that it is VPP Acidic phloem sap? (1), Absence of sugar K wo (3) Alkaline (4) Low refractive index K 75. You are given a tissue with its potential for differentiation in an artificial culture. Which of the following pairs of hormones would you add to the medium to secure shoots as well as roots? (1) Gibberellin and abscisic acid (2) TAA and gibberellin f Auxin and cytokinin (4) Auxin and abscisic acid 76. Phytochrome is a (1) chromoprotein (2) flavoprotein PF glycoprotein (4) lipoprotein Which is essential for the growth of root tip? (1) Move (2) Zn. (@) Fe (4) Ca ‘The process which makes major difference between C3 and C, plants is 6 respiration (2) glycolysise se (3) Calvin cycle, * (4) photorespirationd 79. Which one of the following statements is not correct? (1) Water hyacinth, growing in the standing water, drains oxygen from water that leads to the death of fishes. (2) Offspring produced by the asexual reproduction are called clone, (3) Microscopic, motile asexual reproductive structures are called zoospores. In potato, banana and ginger, the plantlets arise from the internodes present in the modified stem. 3 [ P.T.0. Ieasle “> uq-80. Which one of the following generates new genetic combinations leading to variation? (1) Nucellar polyembryony (2) Vegetative reproduction (3) Parthenogenesis ‘Sexual reproduction 81. Match Column—I with Column—II and select the correct option using the codes given below : Column—I Gametogenesis Column—I Pistils fused together Formation of gametes Hyphae of higher Ascomycetes Unisexual female flower w i) Pistillate (ii) Syncarpous (iv) Dikaryotie Codes : a At Cay - 2) Gv) @ a © (i ao (i 82. In majority of angiosperms (1) a small central cell is present in the embryo sac (2) egg has a filiform apparatus (3) there are numerous antipodal cells K reduction division occurs in the megaspore mother cells b i) (iii) a Gi) (ii) © liv): w) (iv) (iv) 83. Pollination in water hyacinth and water lily is brought about by the agency of (1), bats water (3) insects or wind (4) birds 84. The ovule of an angiosperm is technically equivalent to (1) megaspore \22F megasporangium (3) megasporophyll (4) megaspore mother cell JMD/E2 10 85, Taylor conducted the experiments to prove semiconservative mode of chromosome replication on (1) B col (2) Vinea rosea VF Vicia faba (4) Drosophila melanogaster 86, The mechanism that causes a gene to move from one linkage group to another is called (1) crossing-over x (2) inversion (3) duplication® translocation 87. The equivalent of a structural gene is (1) recon (2) muton« 88, A true breeding plant is (1) always homozygous recessive genetic constituti in its (2) (3) one that is able to breeti on its own produced due to cross-pollination among unrelated plants’ near homozygous and produces offspring of its own kind 89, Which of the following rRNAs acts as structural RNA as well as ribozyme in bacteria? (1) 58S rRNA y (2) 5S rRNA au (3) 18S rRNA 23 S tRNA 90. Stirred-tank bioreactors have been designed for (1) ensuring anaerobic conditions in the culture vessel (2) purification of product (3) addition of preservatives to the product AF availability of oxygen throughout the proce91. A molecule that can act as a genetic material must fulfill the traits given below, except (1) it should provide the scope for slow changes that are required for evolution (2) it should be able to express itself in the form of ‘Mendelian characters’~ (3) jt should be able to generate its replica” it should be unstable structurally and chemically 92. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyzes transcription on one strand of the DNA which is called the (2) antistrand J9 template strand (3) coding strand (4) alpha strand 93. Interspecific hybridization is the mating of ant JMD/E2 (1) more closely related individuals within same breed for 4-6 generations (2) animals within same breed having common ancestors two different related species hout (4) superior males and females of different breeds Which of the following is correct regarding AIDS causative agent HIV? (1) HIV does not escape but attacks the (2) HIV is enveloped virus containing one molecule of single-stranded RNA and one molecule of reverse transcriptase. (3) HIV is enveloped virus that contains two identical molecules of single-stranded RNA and two molecules of reverse transcriptase. (4) HIV is unenveloped retrovirus \ Among the following edible fishes, which one is a marine fish having rich source of, omega-3 fatty acids? (1) Mackerel (2) Mystus (3) Mangur (4) Mrigala ql 96. Match Column—I with Column—II and select the correct option using the codes given below : Column—1 a. Citric acid b. Cyclosporin A Column—I () Trichoderma (i) Clostriaium c. Statins (ii) Aspergillus d. Butyric acid (iv) Monascus Codes : Be @) Gi) Ge) AIK 2G) =O Hw @. © ww 4) G&G Gi (62) Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) may not ‘be a good index for pollution for water bodies receiving effluents from Hiv (1) sugar industry» Mane” 9° ey (2) domestic sewageK (3) dairy industry — (4) petroleum industry PA 98. The principle of competitive exclusion was stated by (1) Verhulst and Pearl (2) C. Darwin Ue G. F. Gause (4) MacArthur ‘ Which of the’ following National Parks is home to the famous musk deer or hangul? (1) Dachigam National Park, Jammu & Kashmir (2) Keibul Lamjao National Park, Manipur Sequired immune response.»T Ugmpbotzles (3) pandhavgarh National Park, Madhya Pradesh (4) Eaglenest Wildlife Sanctuary, Arunachal Pradesh 100. A lake which is rich in organic waste may regult in mortality of fish due to lack of oxygen“ (2) increased population of aquatic organisms due to minerals x (3) drying of the lake due to algal bloom< (4) increased population of fish due to lots of nutrients 101. The highest DDT concentration in aquatic food chain shall occur in (1) eet aye (2) phytoplankton seagull (4) crab [ P.T.0. Ieee 9 4g102. Which. of the following sets of diseases is caused by bacteria? (1), Herpes and influenza® Cholera and tetanus! (3) Typhoid and smallpox y (4) Tetanus and mumps x 103, Match Column—I with Column—II for housefly classification and select the correct option using the codes given below : Column—I Column—t a. Family (Diptera b. Order i)’ Arthropoda c. Class Lo i) Muscidae d. Phylum (iv) Insecta aia Aes | BAY, QQ) Gv) Gi) (i) iii) (i) iv) i) “) a) a) wy) @) Gy) Gi) i) (i) 104. Choose the correct statement. (0) All Pisces have gills covered by an operculum. (2) All mammals are viviparous. < ‘All cyclostomes do not possess jaws and paired fins. (4) All reptiles have’'a_three-chambered heart. 04 105. Study the four statements (A-D) given below and select the two correct ones out of them : A. Definition of biological species was given by Ernst Mayr. B. Photoperiod dges noDaffect reproduction in plants. C. Binomial nomenclature system was given by R. H. Whittakepg D. In unicellular organisms, reproduction is synonymous with growth. The two correct statements are (1) Aand B (2) B and C (3) C and D GA and D In male cockroaches, sperms are stored in which part of the reproductive system? (1) Vas deferens ~ (Q) Seminal vesicles + @) Mushroom glands (4) Testes v 107. Smooth muscles are (1)_yolw , spindle-shaped, uninucleate By tevoluntary, fusiform, non-etrated (3) voluntary, multinucleate, cylindrical (4) involuntary, cylindrical, striated yx JMD/E2 Y o |p ermatin of ATP by energy released fron electrons removed during substrat oxidation (2) formation of ATP by transfer o phosphate group from a substrat to ADP (3) oxidation of phosphate erdup in ATP (4) addition of phosphate group to ATP 109, Which of the following is the least likely to be involved in stabilizing the three-dimensiona folding of most proteins? (1) Ester bonds\~ (2) Hydrogen bondsv (3) Blectrostatic interaction” Hydrophobic interaction 110."Which of the following describes the giver graph correctly? Potential Energy —> Reaction —> (1) Exothermic reaction with energy A in absence of enzyme and B in presence of enzyme ve) Endothermic reaction with energy A in presence of enzyme and B in absence of enzyme Exothermic reaction with energy A in presence of enzyme and B in absence of enzyme 9) Endothermic reaction with energy A in absence of enzyme and B in presence of enzyme 111, When cell has stalled DNA replication fork, which checkpoint should be predominantly activated? ) i (i) Both G/M and M a DNA Koplicatin (3) Go/M (4) M112. Match the stages of meiosis in Column—I to their characteristic features in Column—II and select the correct option using the codes given below : (Column—1 Column—It a. Pachytene (i) Pairing of homologous chromosomes b. Metaphase I (ii) Terminalization of chiasmata ¢. Diakinesis (iii) Crossing-over takes place a. Zygotene (iv) Chromosomes align at equatorial plate Codes a- “bre 4 Mo Gi GK (i) i) ii) @) 8 @ tw Gi) Gi @ @ ty) Gi) 113. Which hormones do stimulate the production of pancreatic juice and bicarbonate? (1) Insulin and glucagon 2) Angiotensin and epinephrine (3) Gastrin and insulin yr ‘Cholecystokinin and secretin 114. The partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli of the lungs is (1) less than that of carbon dioxideX (2) equal to that in the blood (3) more than that in the blood less than that in the blood 3 Choose the correct statement. (1) Receptors do not produce graded potentials. (2) Nociceptors respond to changes in pressure. (3) Meissner’s corpuscles are thermo- receptors. (4) Photoreceptors in the human eye are depolarized during darkness and become hyperpolarized in response to the light stimulus. 116. Grayes’ disease is caused due to hypersecretion of adrenal gland X (2) hyposecretion of thyroid gland (3) hypersecretion of thyroid glandX (4) hyposecretion of adrenal gland JMD/E2 13 117. Name the ion responsible for unmasking of active sites for myosin for cross-bridge activity during muscle contraction. (1) Potassium — (2), Calcium Magnesium — (4) Sodium 118. Name the blood cells, whose reduction in number can cause clotting disorder, leading to excessive loss of blood from the body. AT Thrombocytes- (2) Erythrocytes (3) Leucocytes (4) Neutrophils 119. Name a peptide hormone which acts mainly on hepatocytes, adipocytes and enhances cellular glucose uptake and utilization (1) Gastrin (2) Insulin ¥ er Glucagon _—_(4)_Secretin 120. Osteoporosis, an age-related disease of skeletal system, may occur due to (1) accumulation of uric acid leading to inflammation of joints (2) immune disorder affecting _neuro- muscular junction leading to fatigue (3), high concentration of Ca** and Na* fF decreased level of estrogen 121: Serum differs from blood in (1) lacking antibodies (2) lacking globulins (3) Jacking albumins (97 tacking clotting factors 12: . Lungs do not collapse between breaths and some air always remains in the lungs which can never be expelled because (1) pressure in the lungs is higher than the atmospheric pressureqr (2) there is a negative pressure in the lungs (3/ there is a negative intrapleural pressure pulling at the lung walls (4) there is a positive intrapleural pressure pL 123. The posterior pituitary gland is not a ‘true’ endocrine gland because (1) it secretes enzymes 2) it is provided with a duct it only stores and releases hormones (4) it is under the regulation of hypo- thalamus [ P.7.0. I mole“ ug -‘The part of nephron involved in active reabsorption of sodium is (1) descending limb of Henle’s loop (2) distal convoluted tubule CT (3) proximal convoluted tubule (4) Bowman's capsule 125. Which of the releasing IUD? (cuz LNG-20, (3) Multiload 375 (4) Lippes loop 126. Which of the following is incorrect regarding vasectomy? x Revie bil Pr following is hormone- (1) Irreversible sterilityy/ (2)_No sperm occurs in seminal fluidv ‘No sperm occurs in epididymis 6 (4) Vasa deferentia is cut and tied * 127. Embryo with more than 16 blastomeres formed due to in vitro fertilization is transferred into (1), cervix oF uterus (8) fallopian tube (4) fimbriae 128. Which of the following depicts the correct pathway of transport of sperms? (0) Efferent ductules > Rete testis + Vas deferens -> Epididymis Rete testis > Efferent ductules > Epididymis — Vas deferens (3) Rete testis -» Epididymis — Efferent ductules > Vas deferens (4) Rete testis > Vas deferens + Efferent ductules — Epididymis 129. Match Column—I with Column—II and select the correct option using the codes given below : Column—1 Column—It a. Mons pubis — () Embryo formation b. Antram — (i) Sperm c. Trophectoderm< (iii) Female external genitalia d. Nebenkern fv) Graafian follicle Codes eb eed QO oO &@ Gi (i (2) Gi) Gy tii) wo) EF (ii) iv) @ Gi) @) i fi) JMD/E2 130. Several hormones like hCG, hPL, estroge: progesterone are produced by (1) pituitary (2) ovary PF placenta (4) fallopian tube 131. If a colour-blind man marries a woman wr is homozygous for normal colour vision, tk probability of their son being colour-blind is aa 0 ee » (3) 05, (4) 0-75 ze O 132. Genetic drift operates in (1) slow reproductive population 2x small isolated population (3) large isolated population (4) non-reproductive population 133. In Hardy-Weinberg equation, the frequenc of heterozygous individual is represented by 2) Poy (4) pa ‘The chronological order of human evolutic from early to the recent is D8) Australopithecus —> Homo habilis Ramapithecus => Homo erectus, 2) Australopithecus > Ramapithecus Homo habilis - Homo erectus Ramapithecus -» Australopithecus Homo habilis + Homo erectus Ramapithecus —> Homo habilis Australopithecus > Homo erectus (3) @) 135, Which of the following is the corre: sequence of events in the origin of life? 1. Formation of protobionts Il. Synthesis of organic monomers” Il, Synthesis of organic polymers / IV. Formation of DNA-based genetic system (1) 0, m, 1,1 (2) 1, 0, 1, IV (3) Lm, 0, v iv 1, 1, 1V 14dyad Boek Ff 5 2 = so Spe a A person on sce clearly objects only when [i oo they lie between 50 cm and 400 cm from his eyes. In order to increase the maximum distance of distinct vision to infinity, the type and power of the correcting lens, the person Bl aw 140. Ls Lee =o £4 F sae If an electron in a ees atom jumps from the 3rd orbit to the 2nd orbit, it emits a photon of wavelength A. When it jumps from the 4th orbit to the 3rd orbit, the corresponding wavelength of the photon has to use, will be} Bel) will be sxe i et (1) convex, +0:15 dioptt? Ae ty 22, x8 Wess ae ®t 4) (2) convex, +2:25 diopter #2 $ Cube 2 A 57 ace \- 9 pts. 1 =. 7 1g Ts en Bso~ > 141. The half-life of a radioactive substance is 30 minutes. The time (in minutes) taken between 40% decay and 85% decay of the sa radioactive substance is Sate mas A a. mcd (3) 30 (4) 45 Cy Ga- dD see For CE transistor amplifier, the audio signs? voltage across the collector resistance of 2 kQ. Ver concave, -025 diopter” ‘3 ) 2a (8) concave, -02 diopter!._ J _ ¢ © 16 is Vale A linear aperture whose width 'is 0°02 cm is placed immediately in front of a lens of focal length 60 cm. The aperture is illuminated normally by a parallel beam of wavelength 5x10°° cm. The distance of the first dark band of the diffraction pattern from the Ne of the screen » 0-15 cm | ows (20-10 cm 4 one is 4V. If the current amplification factor of joo 5 (3) 025em GN : the transistor is 100 and the base resistance °°, fa tesi0' cae CDs bee is 1k, then the input signal voltage is gute Brox Ss Q) 15 mv (2) 10 mv Coat 198. Blectrons of mass “m th de-Brogle 920 mv (4) 30 mv wavelength 2 fall on the target in an X-ray tube. The cutoff wavelength et of the! 143. The given circuit has two ideal diodes emitted X-ray is fe. S connected as shown in the figure below. The () 29 =2% current flowing through, the resistance R, 2m Ein mdr A, will be t Va Wh aoet SV oe} o= 29 On| Va 2h e= Dincd4 R (@) A= ie h xe Dy D acid Ves 205" 2m @) do= ae ESE ( pee $., Wate nko og Sy Whe. = go 139. Photons with energy SeV are incident . fs on a cathode C in a photoelectric cell. The a) 3130) Of 258 maximum energy of emitted photoelectrons 8) 1804 nase is 2eV. When photons of energy 6 eV are incident on C, no photoelectrons will reach | 144, What is the output ¥ in the following circuit the anode A, if the stopping potential of A On ek fir Bees noals 2 Oe eek ewe 0 and then 1? f-3v i fo st TQ) 43V 3 Gg B @wv 2 mur PF gon fe1Y: aX (3) 0,0 wf 1,0 JMD/E2 15eNT A460 145. Planck’s constant (h), speed of light in vacuum (c) and Newton's gravitational constant (G) are three fundamental constants. Which of the following combinations of these has the dimension of| length? ay FE of FC Mi A Sr, il wit eh coal [hG fre ™, (3) = (4) j= | ad o 48 @ \% 146. Two cars P and Q start from a point at the same time in a straight line and their positions are represented by xp(t) = at + bt? and xo(t)= ft-t?. At what time do the cars \e ; Fe yAeires \o Jt =v24sens : 49) A bullet of mass 10 (-mbving horizonti with a velocity of 400 ms“ strikes a wooc block of mass 2 kg which is suspended b light inextensible string of length 5 m. A Fesult, the centre of gravity of the block found to rise a vertical distance of 10 ¢ ‘The speed of the bullet after it emerges « horizontally from the block will be (1) 160 ms 2) 100 ms es (3) 80 ms? Iree=Ve Ax ioKio have the same velocity? Vp= at2ttso, ‘Two identical balls A and B having velociti ath tee (2) SL Vg=¢-2t]" of 05 m/s and -0:3 m/s respectively coll 2(1+b) 146 elastically in one dimension. The velocities. a+ at -2k= O26 Band A after the collision respectively will (a) att (@ ate os 26-1) 20146) § a=W) (1) 03 m/s and 05 m/s es In the given figure, a= 15 m/s? rept the total acceleration of a particle moving in the clockwise direction in a circle of radius instant of time. The 25 2 v SN 2B b PE 2 Sig N oy ¢ hig D SHS 198 2%, Xo % When m/s (2) 45 m/s Ss os (3) 5:0 m/s ‘57 m/s V7 4% 148. A rigid ball of mass m strikes a rigid wall at 6 \VE;, 60" and gets reflected without loss of speed = 6 88 shown in the figure below. The value of "? impulse imparted by the wall on the ball (2) -0'5 m/s and 03 m/s (3) 05 m/s and -0:3 m/s wT '3 m/s and 05 m/s 181. A particle moves from a,point (- 2i +57) (4j+3k) when a force of (41+3])N applied. How much work has been done | the force? =o A 2s 9rd kp Qy toxte Ones Bre Bx (3) 110 Kos. 4 A Si ANS oo-y> 24 152. Two rotating bodies A and B of masses and 2m with moments of inertia I, an TaUgeiylitaves taal KRESS cig rotation. If La and Lp be their angul momenta respectively, then (Q) L4>Lp LyE. le7ta a (@) Ly =2Lp ff Lp>L, Xu DAB B “ “yuge 112 2153. A solid sphere of mass m and radius R is rotating about its diameter. A solid cylinder of the same mass and same radius is also rotating about its geometrical axis with an angular speed twice that of the sphere. The gat of. thai (Hnatic cenanpee of tation (Espnere / Ecytinder } Will be one (1) 3: Ae a (2) 2: Be oF er: (4) 1:4 154, A light rod of length [has two masses m, and my attached to its two ends. The moment of inertia of ‘the system about an axis aoe Gerpendichiges wos the vod. etd pakg y- through the centre of mass is * oma gr one 7 Ne 1) am, Na i +Ma 72 cy Se we cs 155. Starting from the centre of the earth having radius R, the variation of g (acceleration due to gravity) is shown by ’ 4 a stale. @ % oR Sr aS " * a” a 7 oe ee 7 Sr 156. A satellite of mass m is orbiting the earth (of radius R) at a height h from its surface. The total energy of the satellite in terms of go» the value of acceleration due to gravity at the earth’s surface, is _2maoR? pay GR (0) “Rk Got —g > mgok? a( Ray o (Rx¥) ) oiR+h) ty EGP ts otecty Ae S wv 187. A rectangular film of liquid is extended from (40m x2cm) to (5cmx4cm). If the work done is 3x10" J, the value of the surface tension of the liquid is (1) 80 Nm? 970250 rete (4) 02 wm? (3) 0125 Nm ‘Three liquids of densities py, and * (with P\>P2>P3), having the same value of surface tension T, rise to the same height i ieee cel eapilnrGk ane of contact, By and 8 obey (1) ©> 8, >6,>63 > ee ot ee 159. Two identical bodies are made of a material for which the heat capacity increases with temperature. One of these is at 100 °C, while the other one is at 0 °C. If the two bodies are Drought into contact, then, assuming no heat loss, the final common temperature ieyg) (1) orc ot 109) = MY (2) 50°c aM pee ok JA ‘more than 50°C % (4) less than 50°C but greater than 0 °C 160. A body cools from a temperature 37 to 2T in 10 minutes. The room temperature is T. Assume that Newton's law of cooling is applicable. The temperature of the body at the end of next 10 minutes will be @ ir a -kKCst) Ye. 158. (2) $781 > 02> 20 oe iy 9504 <02 <0 <3 VU 3 fre BT 4K 161. One mole of an ideal monkiomit’ gas undergoes a process described by the equation PV® = constant. The heat capacity of the gas during this process is 3 eR @ 5R 5 (3) 5R (4) 2R Imele >Y ig:162. The temperature inside a refrigerator is t2"C and the room temperature is °C. The amount of heat delivered to the room for each joule of electrical energy consumed ideally will be Oe, Bay Bt 2) —4 i res 4 +273 q-gby— & pas +273 ty $273 8 ZO, ) 4 2 2 tO, By t-te tt Oy Gy Oe a volume V at a pressure P and absolute temperature T. The mass of each molecule of the gas is m. Which of the following gives the density of the gas? (1) mer (2) P/(KT) Pin /(KT) (4) P/(kTV) 164A body of mass m is attached4d the lower end of a spring whose upper end is fixed. The spring has negligible mass. When the mass m is slightly pulled down and released, it oscillates with a time period of 3s, When the mass m is increased by 1kg, the time period of oscillations becomes 5 s. The value of m in kg is 9 a phen Vis owed Mg og R 3s ey ae ~ mnt rae Ng Blirg 2 gets 165. The second overtone of an open organ pipe has the same frequency as the first overtone of a closed pipe L metre long. The Jength of the open pipe will be ) 3 Mig (1) 4l wee OR) ae L ML au te AS “al yes 166. Three sound waves amplitudes have frequencies (n=1 (nl). They superimpose to give Betis tne dumber of beats produced per second will be GQ) 2 (2) 1 @) 4 a3 ‘An electric dipole is placed at an angle of 30° with an electric field intensity 2x 10° N/C. It experiences a torque equal to 4Nm. The charge on the dipole, if the dipole length is 167. A parallel-plate capacitor of area A, plat separation d and capacitance Cis filled wit four dielectric materials having dielectr: constants ky, k2, k; and k, as shown in th figure below. If'a single dielectric material to be used to have the same capacitance Ci this capacitor, then its dielectric constant is given by Ala | 7 a a (2) k=ky +hy tka +3ky + ky 2 wr 48 \ (3) k ==(ky +ky +k3)+2k, at +> (8) R= Zky hp +R) + 2k i a 3 1 Het bt Rm Rat he he eK aK 169. The potential difference (V4 - Vg) betwee the points A and B in the given figure is Va 22 3V . 19 Vv; hae A pean B Vpn 4-3-2 A ov @-3v (3) +3. Vv g 4) +6V Wee 170. A filament bulb (500 W, 100 V) is to be use in a 230 V main supply. When a resistance is connected in series, it works perfectly an the bulb consumes 500 W. The value of Ris (1) 132 AF @ 2300 20a F 6 46 Og yf 26.0 oe A long wire carrying a steady current {s Be into a circular loop of one turn. The magnet field at the centre of the loop is B. It is the bent into a circular coil of n turns. TI 171. 2em, is magnetic field at the centre of this coil () 7 nc n turns will be 270= nx Q)8me zi (1) 2n?B OB oe 2 mc ; = ut . (4) 5 mc 4 pers A ite (4) 2nB ARE = > 2 JMD/E2 = 18 pe . x‘ Se Maye ae, we, oO e! os WK Yet Sut, MOS yor at, mS ny we Y % u aot vw a 2 Alyse ar 172. A bar magnet is hung by a thin cdtton thread | 176. The potential diffbvences across th in a uniform horizontal magnetic field and is in equilibrium state. The energy required to rotate it by 60° is W. Now the torque required to keep the magnet in this new Position is 2w w OB as fav 9 i 173. An electron is moving in a circular path under the influence of a transverse magnetic field of 3:57 x 10-7. If the value of e/m is 1-76 x 10! C/kg, the frequency of, revolution of the electyon is! o. ; (1) 6-28 MHz gh GHz * oF (3) 100 MHz (4) 628 MHz gi sf Which of the following combinations should be selected for better tuning of an L-C-R : circuit used for communication? Vy, 5 () R=25Q,L=15 H, C=45 pF g® QR ‘5-H, C=35 uF xy GR SH, C= 45 uF (@) R=159 L=35 H, C=30 uF | 178. a 178. resistance, capacitance and inductance are 80V, 40V and 100V respectively in an LGR circuit. The power factor of thjs cireuit is 4 yor (1) 10 2 (3) 05 way auf 2) 0-4 aha foe as A 100 OYEsistance and a capacitoN'St 100 2 x Teactance are connected in series across a 220 V source. When the capacitor is 50% charged, the peak value of the displacement current is ea () 12 A (2) 220 87 4 3) 1A (4) 444 “ % @) ) hp. e \ ‘Two identical glass (jtg= 3/2) equiconves\ Jenses of focal length f each are kept in contact. The space between the two lenses is «, filled with water (Hy = 4/3). The focal length of the combination is oy ‘3f/4 @ 5/3 vy e) ak F 48 9 By BR | 179. An air bubble in a glass slab with refractive srry A uniform magnetic field is restricted within @ region of radius r, The magnetic field changes with time at a rate &. Loop 1 of radius R > r encloses the region r and loop 2 of radius R is outside the region of magnetic field as shown in the figure below. Then the e.m.f. generated is v & | 180. The interference pattern is obtained With two © coherent light sources of intensity ratio n. In the interference pattern, the ratio Mat Ti Bren ye Tmax *Tmin = E\ yw, Fe will be ae a : nu zg Qn. ayy M Vit - Bar? in toop 1 and sero in toop 2 0) Tape nas Lear a 2) zero in loop 1 and zero in loop 24. inte Poe Ot x) =| iB . (2) 8) 27 in loop 1 and nei Ware wy fet! ; - G60) Z - Bar? in toop 2 i Qa+i)] % any (9) ~ Bar? in loop 1 and zero in loop 2. « 2 ni as o-t\ a ve At Gaydh-)| ara \ Fax | {aH OS JMD/E2 eek Soke y Fen {fos Mm-D* [pro FRE Ja * : a-2 Ts tone 2G = ( | 2 orl dae 2-2 - eee . iF a m In-\ wn GFR. 5 3 ¥, D index 15 (near normal incidence)’ is 5cem “\, deep when viewed from one surface and e 3m deep when viewed from the opposite face. The thickness (in cm) of the slab is cc a & (1) 16 (2) 8 ao 5X Wy} (3) 10 2 1% 2 pert IMere >4ug