Test ID : 249

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.NTA MODEL EXAM – I. S1

Std : Long Term, XII (Regular) & CC Max. Marks : 720
Test Date : 02.05.2025 Time : 3.00 Hrs.
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.

General Instructions :
1) The duration of the test is 180 minutes and the maximum mark is 720.
2) This test booklet contains 180 multiple choice questions (four options with a single correct answer)
from Physics, Chemistry, Botany and Zoology. 45 questions in each subject.
3) There is only one correct response for each question. Each correct answer will be given 4 marks
while 1 mark will be deducted for a wrong response. Zero mark will be given for unanswered
questions.
4) No student is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile
phone, any electronic device, etc, inside the examination room/hall.
5) Rough work can be done only the space provided in the test booklet. No extra sheets will be given
for rough work.
6) On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the invigilator on duty
in the Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
OMR Instructions :
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14) Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet (OMR).

Stay Calm … Think Twice … Analyse Well … Confirm the Answer … Success is Assured !

Name of the Candidate : ___________________________________

Section : ___________________________________
 1 Test ID : 249 [S1]
CHEMISTRY
1. For an elementary reaction, X(g) → Y(g) + Z(g) O
the half life period is 10 min. In how much ||
2) CH 3 − C − CH 3 
1)CH 3 MgBr
2) H 2 O
→
time the concentration of X is reduced to 10%
of its original concentration
1) 20.2 min 2) 33.3 min 3) HCHO +
3) 15 min 4) 20 min
4) CH3 – CHO + CH3MgBr 
H2O
→
2. For the reaction, 2N2O5(g) → 4NO2(g) + O2(g),
6. In the reaction sequence
the concentration of NO2 increases by
2.4 × 10−2M in 6s. What will be the rate of
appearance of NO2 and the rate of
disappearance of N2O5 respectively?
1) 2 × 10−3 Ms−1, 4 × 10−3 Ms−1 The product C is
2) 2 × 10−3 Ms−1, 1 × 10−3 Ms−1 1) Benzonitrile 2) Benzaldehyde
3) 2 × 10−3 Ms−1, 2× 10-3 Ms-1 3) Benzoic acid 4) Benzyl amine
4) 4 × 10−3 Ms−1, 2 × 10−3 Ms−1 7. Which of the following is least volatile
3. The correct increasing orders for boiling point compound?
of the compounds are 1)
A) n-pentane < 2,2-dimethyl propanol <
3-pentan-ol < 1-pentanol 2)
B) Phenol < Catechol < Resorcinol < Quinol
C) C2H5OC2H5 < CH3(CH2)3CH3 < CH3(CH2)3OH 3)
D) CH3OH < C2H5OH < C3H7OH
1) A, B, C, D 2) A, B only
3) C, D only 4) B, C only 4)
4. Incorrect reaction in the following is 8. The Λ om values for NaCl and KCl are 126.5
1) and 149.9 ohm-1 cm2 mol-1 respectively. The
ionic conductance of Na+ at infinite dilution is
50.1 ohm-1cm2 mol-1. The ionic conductance
2)
(ohm-1 cm2 mol-1) at infinite dilution for K+
ion is
3) CH3OCH2CH3 HI
2eq.
→ CH3I+ CH3CH2I + H2O 1) 73.5 2) 50.1
3) 23.4 4) 26.7
4) 9. A solution of copper sulphate is electrolyzed
for 10 minutes with a current of 1.5 amperes.
5. Which of the following reaction gives tertiary The mass of copper deposited at the cathode
alcohol as product? (Atomic mass of Cu = 63 u) is
1) CH 3 − CH − CHO 
1)CH3 MgBr
→ 1) 0.3892 g
2) H 2 O
| 2) 0.2938 g
CH 3 3) 0.1392 g
4) 0.3928 g
 2 Test ID : 249 [S1]
10. C2H2 →
Red hot
Iron tube
A 
CH 3Cl
AlCl3
→ B 
i)CrO 2 Cl2 /CS2
ii) H O +
→C 16. Which of the following complexes has
3
873K
minimum ∆0?
Product ‘C’ in the above reaction is 3−
1) Cr ( CN )6  2) [Cr(NH3)6]+3
COOH CHO
3+
3) [CrCl6]3− 4) Cr ( H 2 O )6 
1) 2)
17. Lanthanide elements with 4f 7 5d 0 6s 2 and
4f 14 5d 0 6s 2 electronic configuration are
respectively
3) 4)
1) Eu, Yb
11. Predict the product(s) in the given reaction 2) Sm, Lu

C6H5CHO + CH3CH2CHO  3) Eu, Lu

dil NaOH
∆
→
4) Gd, Yb
1) C6H5CH2OH + CH3CH2COONa
18. The enthalpy of solution of anhydrous
2) C6H5COONa + CH3CH2CH2OH
CuSO4(s) is –16 k.Cal and that of
3) C6H5CH = CHCH2CHO
CuSO4.5H2O(s) is 3 k.cal. Calculate the
4) C6H5CH = C(CH3)CHO enthalpy of hydration of CuSO4(s).
12. Arrange the following compounds in the 1) –13 k.cal
increasing order of their reactivity in SN1
2) +19 k.cal
reactions.
3) –19 k.cal
4) +13 k.cal
19. Match the column
1) p < r < q < s 2) p < q < r < s Column – I Column – II
3) q < p < r < s 4) s < r < q < p (Cation) (Group reagent)
13. Glycosidic linkages present between α-D- A) Pb+2 p) H2S in acidic medium
glucose units of amylopectin is/are B) Cu+2 q) NH4OH + NH4Cl + H2S(g)
1) C1 – C4 and C1 – C6 C) Mn+2 r) NH4OH and NH4Cl
2) only C1 – C4 D) Al+3 s) Dil. HCl
3) only C1 – C6 1) A-p, B-q, C-s, D-r
4) C1 – C2 and C1 – C6 2) A-q, B-p, C-r, D-s
14. The IUPAC name for K[SbCl5(C5H5N)] is 3) A-s, B-p, C-q, D-r
1) Potassium 4) A-p, B-q, C-r, D-q
pentachloridopyridineantimonate(III) 20. Lassaigne’s test for the detection of nitrogen
2) Potassium fails in
pentachloridopyridineantimonate(IV) O
3) Potassium phenylchloridoantimonate(V) ||
4) Potassium benzalantimony(III) chloride. 1) NH 2 − C − NH − NH 2
15. Which of the following is not optically active? 2) NH2 – NH2
1) [Co(en)3]3+ 2) [Cr(ox)3]3- 3) NH 2 − C − NH 2
||
3) cis-[CoCl2(en)2]+ 4) trans-[CoCl2(en)2]+ O
4) C6H5 – NH – NH2
 3 Test ID : 249 [S1]
21. The Henry’s law constant for the solubility of 26. Correct match among the following is
N2 gas in water at 298 K is 1 x 105 atm. The IUPAC Symbol Element belongs to
mole fraction of N2 in air is 0.8. The number A) Unb i) s-block
of moles of N2 from air dissolved in 10 moles B) Une ii) p-block
of water at 298K at 5 atm pressure is
C) Uus iii) d-block
1) 4 x 10-4 2) 4 x 10-5 D) Ubn iv) f-block
3) 5 x 10-4 4) 5 x 10-6 1) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv
22. The ratio of lowering of freezing point of 0.1m 2) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
aqueous solutions of KCl, MgSO4 and Na2SO4
3) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
(assuming 100% dissociation) are respectively
4) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i
1) 1 : 1 : 1.5 2) 3 : 2 : 1
27. Variation of radial probability density ψ2(r) as
3) 1 : 2 : 3 4) 1 : 2 : 4
a function of distance ‘r’ of the electron from
+
23. Ag (aq) + e − → Ag (s) , Eo = +0.80 V, the nucleus for 2s-orbital is

2+
Fe(aq) + 2e − → Fe(s) , Eo = -0.44 V,

(r)
(r)
+ 2+ 1) 2)

2
Fe(s) + 2Ag (aq) → Fe(aq) + 2Ag (s)

2
(0.1M) (0.1M)

What is the E cell ?

1) 1.24 V 2) 1.21 V
3) 2.04 V 4) -1.16 V 3) 4)
24. Correct match among the following is
Column I Column II
Law of 28. Match the following
2H2(g) + O2(g) →
A conservation of P A) Number of orbitals i) 2(2l+1)
2H2O(g)
mass th
in n shell
Law of definite B) Maximum number of ii) n
B Q CO & CO2
proportions electrons in a subshell
Law of multiple C) Number of subshells in iii) (2l + 1)
C R CO2 th
proportions n shell
Law of D) Number of orbitals in iv) n2
CaCO3(s) →
D combining S subshell
CaO(s) + CO2(g)
volumes 1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
A B C D 2) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i
1) S R P Q 3) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii
2) R S P Q 4) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv
3) S R Q P 29. Match the following.
4) R S Q P Column-I Column-II
25. If 0.6 moles of BaCl2 are mixed with 0.2 Sign of ∆H & ∆S
moles of Na3PO4. The maximum number of A) - & - P) Spontaneous only at low T
moles of NaCl formed can be B) - & + Q) Spontaneous only at high T
1) 0.6 2) 0.2 C) + & + R) Spontaneous at all T
3) 0.3 4) 0.1 D) + & - S) Non-spontaneous at all T
 4 Test ID : 249 [S1]
1) A-Q, B-R, C-S, D-P 1) A-S, B-P, C-Q, D-R
2) A-P, B-R, C-Q, D-S 2) A-P, B-Q, C-S, D-R
3) A-R, B-P, C-Q, D-S 3) A-S, B-Q, C-R, D-P
4) A-P, B-R, C-S, D-P 4) A-S, B-Q, C-P, D-R
30. The heat of combustion of ethanol at constant
volume and 27°C is found to be –q Jmol-1. The
heat of combustion of ethanol (in Jmol-1) at
35.
the same temperature and at constant pressure
will be
1) RT - q 2) – (q + RT)
3) q - RT 4) q + RT
31. Which of the following orders are correct? The correct decreasing order of basic strength is
a) Ionic character MCl < MCl2 < MCl3 1) I > II > III > IV
b) Polarisability F- < Cl- < Br- < I- 2) IV > III > II > I
c) Polarising power Na+ < Mg2+ < Al3+
3) III > I > II > IV
d) Covalent character LiF < LiCl < LiBr < LiI
1) a, b, c 2) b, c, d 4) III > IV > II > I
3) a, c, d 4) a, b, c, d 36. The correct stability order of carbocations
32. Match the following among the following is
Match – I Match – II
A) Incomplete octet P) PF5, SF6
B) Expanded octet Q) BCl3, BeH2
C) Odd electronic R) CO2, CCl4
species
D) Complete octet S) NO2, NO
1) A-P, B-Q, C-R, D-S
2) A-Q, B-P, C-S, D-R 1) I < II < III < IV
3) A-P, B-Q, C-S, D-R 2) IV < III < II < I
4) A-Q, B-P, C-R, D-S 3) III < I < II < IV
33. Which one of the following is correct set? 4) III < IV < II < I
+
1) NH ,4 dsp2, square planar 37. The correct order of stability of following
2) H2O, sp2,
angular resonating structures is
3) SO2, sp2, angular
4) SO3, sp2, Trigonal pyramidal
34. Match the following
Column – I Column – II
(Compound/Ion) (Oxidation states
of underlined atoms)
A) Br3O8 P) 2, 0, 2 1) I < II < III
B) C3O2 Q) 5, 0, 0, 5 2) I > III > II
C) S4O 62− R) 2, 3, 3 3) I > II > III

D) Fe3O4 S) 6, 4, 6 4) III > I > II

 5 Test ID : 249 [S1]
42. The pair of strong oxidising reagent among
halogens and strongest reducing reagent
38. among halide ions respectively is
1) F– and I2
2) F2 and I–
Incorrect statement among the following is 3) F2 and I2
1) A is isopropyl bromide, B is n-propyl 4) I2 and F2
bromide 43. In the equilibrium 3O2(g) ⇌ 2O3(g), if initial
2) A and B are positional isomers pressure is 50 mmHg and total pressure at
3) Formation of ‘A’ is electrophilic addition equilibrium is 40 mmHg then Kp is
4) Formation of ‘B’ is free radical substitution 1) 0.8 2) 0.05
+2 +
39. CH 3 – C ≡ CH 
Hg /H
→ X ↽⇀ Y 3) 1.2 4) 20
H2O (enol) (keto)
(Z) 44. Match the following correctly
Incorrect statement for the above reaction is [Salt]
A) NH4Cl p) pH = pKa + log
1) X and Y are tautomeric structures [Acid]
2) Y undergoes aldol reaction in presence of [Salt]
B) CH3COONa q) pOH = pKb + log
alkali [Base]
3) Z gives white precipitate with Tollen’s 1 1
C) Acidic buffer r) pH = 7 + pKa + logC
reagent 2 2
4) Y gives silver mirror with Tollen’s reagent 1 1
D) Basic buffer s) pOH = 7 + pKb + logC
40. Arrange the following set of compounds in 2 2
order of their decreasing relative reactivity 1) A-s, B-r, C-q, D-p
with an electrophile 2) A-r, B-s, C-p, D-q
A) Chloro benzene 3) A-s, B-r, C-p, D-q
B) Toluene 4) A-r, B-s, C-q, D-p
C) 2,4-dinitro chloro benzene 45. Calculate the molar solubility of A2X3 in pure
D) p-nitro chloro benzene water, assuming that neither kind of ion reacts
1) C > D > A > B 2) B > A > D > C with water. (Ksp of A2X3 is 1.08 x 10−23)
3) B > C > D > A 4) B > A > C > D 1) 10-3
41. False statements about graphite. 2) 10-4
1) Carbon undergoes sp2 hybridisation 3) 10-5
2) It has a localized π-bond 4) 10-6
3) It has layered structure of hexagonal rings
4) It is soft and used as lubricant at high
temperature
ZOOLOGY
46. Statement-I: All multicellular animals are 2) Statement I is correct, Statement II is
triploblastic. incorrect
Statement-II: Pseudocoelomates are 3) Statement I is incorrect, statement II is
triploblastic animals. correct
1) Both Statements I and II are correct 4) Both statements I and II are incorrect
 6 Test ID : 249 [S1]
47. How many of the following belong to the 1) A - III, B - I, C - IV, D - II
second largest phylum of kingdom Animalia? 2) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
Devil fish, Jelly fish, Cuttle fish, Star 3) A - II, B - I, C - III, D - IV
fish, Hag fish, Saw fish
4) A - III, B - I, C - II, D - IV
1) 4 2) 3
51. Assertion (A): Compound epithelium has a
3) 2 4) 5
limited role in secretion and absorption.
48. i. External ear openings are absent
Reason (R): Compound epithelium is
ii. Heart is three chambered
multilayered.
iii. Oviparous
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
iv. Limbs if present are two pairs.
explanation of A
How many of the above features are similar
between amphibians and reptiles? 2) Both A and R are true and R is not the
1) 3 2) 4 correct explanation of A
3) 1 4) 2 3) A is true but R is false
49. Match the following and choose the correct 4) A is false but R is true
option. 52. Read the following and choose an incorrect
Column - I Column - II one w.r.t cockroach.
i) Bilaterally 1) Proventriculus/ gizzard helps in grinding
A) Sponges
symmetrical the food particles.
B) Cnidarians ii) Acoelomates 2) Consists of a network of trachea, that open
C) Flatworms iii) Asymmetrical through 10 pairs of spiracles
iv) Radially 3) A pair of spermatheca is present in the 7th
D) Chordates
symmetrical abdominal segment which opens into the
v) Pseudocoelomates genital chamber
1) A - iv, B - v, C - iii, D - i 4) The next to last nymphal stage has wing
2) A - v, B - ii, C - iii, D - iv pads but only adults have wings
3) A - iii, B - iv, C - ii, D - i 53. Match the column I with column II w.r.t
4) A - iii, B - iv, C - ii, D - v cockroach.
50. Match the following. Column - I Column - II
Column - I Column - II A) Head i) Prothorax
I) Lining for body B) Neck ii) Triangular shape
A) Human body cavities, ducts and
tubes iii) Supra-
C) Antennae
oesophageal ganglion
II) Hormones, mucus,
B) Simple epithelium
saliva, milk D) Brain iv) Sense organs
III) Composed of 1) A - i, B - ii, C - iii, D - iv
C) Compound epithelium
billions of cells 2) A - ii, B - i, C - iv, D - iii
IV) Inner lining of 3) A - i, B - iii, C - ii, D - iv
ducts of salivary
D) Glandular epithelium 4) A - iv, B - ii, C - iii, D - i
glands and pancreatic
ducts
 7 Test ID : 249 [S1]
54. All of the following are not incorrect w.r.t 58. Vasa recta refers to
inspiration and expiration respectively except 1) a fine capillary network of afferent arteriole
1) intra-pulmonary pressure decrease and 2) juxtaglomerular complex of nephrons
increase 3) a minute vessel which runs parallel to the
2) intra-pulmonary volume decrease and Henle’s loop
increase 4) blood capillaries in fishes
3) air flows into lungs and out of lungs 59. Statement-I: The counter current mechanism
4) active process and passive process contributes to produce a concentrated urine.
55. Choose the incorrect statement from the Statement-II: Human kidneys can produce
following w.r.t human respiration. urine nearly four times concentrated than the
1) Emphysema is a chronic disorder in which initial filtrate formed.
alveolar walls are damaged 1) Both Statements I and II are correct
2) In the alveoli high pO2, low pCO2, lesser H+ 2) Statement I is correct, Statement II is
and high temperature are favourable for incorrect
formation of oxyhaemoglobin 3) Statement I is incorrect, statement II is
3) The total volume of air accommodated in correct
the lungs at the end of a forced inspiration 4) Both statements I and II are incorrect
is total lung capacity 60. Match the following columns and choose the
4) Each terminal bronchiole gives rise to correct option.
number of very thin irregular – walled and
Column - I Column - II
vascularized bag like structures called
alveoli A) Sarcoplasmic
i) Complex protein
56. Assertion (A): Erythroblastosis foetalis reticulum
condition can be avoided by administering ii) Neuromuscular
B) Troponin
anti-Rh antibodies to mother immediately after junction
delivery of the first Rh−ve child. C) Globular head of iii) Store house of calcium
Reason (R): During pregnancy Rh antibodies myosin ions
from (Rh−ve) sensitized mother can leak into D) Motor end plate iv) Active ATPase
blood of the (Rh+ve) foetus and destroy the
1) A - i, B - ii, C - iii, D - iv
foetal RBCs leading to anaemia.
2) A - iii, B - i, C - iv, D - ii
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
3) A - i, B - iii, C - ii, D - iv
explanation of A
4) A - ii, B - i, C - iv, D - iii
2) Both A and R are true and R is not the
correct explanation of A 61. Analyse the below mentioned features and
pick the correct option.
3) A is true but R is false
4) A is false but R is true • Larger regions of cerebral cortex
57. The end of the T-wave in an ECG marks the • Responsible for complex functions like
1) end of atrial systole intersensory associations, memory etc.,
2) end of ventricular systole • Neither clearly sensory nor motor
3) beginning of atrial diastole 1) Thalamus 2) Hypothalamus
4) end of ventricular diastole 3) Association areas 4) Corpus callosum
 8 Test ID : 249 [S1]
62. The hormone produced in the hypothalamic 1) A - v, B - i, C - ii, D - iv, E - iii
neurons reach neurohypophysis through 2) A - v, B - i, C - ii, D - iii, E - iv
1) a portal circulatory system 3) A - v, B - i, C - iii, D - iv, E - ii
2) axons 4) A - v, B - i, C - iv, D - iii, E - ii
3) arterial system 67. Observe the following diagrammatic section
4) systemic circulation view of ovary and identify the alphabet
63. The hormone of pituitary gland that is not depicting one of the events in menstrual cycle
secreted by pars distalis is which usually occurs at the 14th day (mid of
1) FSH 2) MSH menstrual cycle) due to LH surge.
3) GH 4) ACTH
64. Hypothyroidism during pregnancy causes
defective development and maturation of the
growing baby leading to stunted growth called
1) gigantism
2) cretinism
3) goitre
4) Down’s syndrome
65. Assertion (A): In kidney transplantation, a 1) A 2) B
functional kidney of a close relative of the 3) C 4) D
patient is preferred. 68. Read the following statements.
Reason (R): If the donor is a close relative of a) Doctors inject pitocin to induce delivery of
the patient, it minimizes the chances of baby.
rejection by the immune system of the host. b) The mammary glands of the female
1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the undergo differentiation during pregnancy.
correct explanation of (A) c) The milk produced during the initial few
2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not days of lactation is called colostrum.
the correct explanation of (A) d) Colostrum contains several antibodies
3) (A) is correct but (R) is false absolutely essential to develop immunity
4) (A) is false but (R) is correct for the foetus.
66. Match the following. In the above
Column - I Column - II 1) a, b correct and c, d incorrect
i) Completes first meiotic 2) b, d correct and a, c incorrect
A) Spermatozoa
division 3) a, c correct and b, d incorrect
B) Primary ii) Produce haploid 4) a, b, c correct and d incorrect
spermatocytes spermatids 69. Assertion (A): The most important step to
C) Secondary iii) Multiply by mitotic overcome population growth problem is to
spermatocytes division motivate smaller families by using
contraceptive methods.
iv) Sperm heads become
D) Spermatogonium Reason (R): Contraceptive methods help to
embedded
prevent unwanted pregnancies.
E) Sertoli cells v) Fertilization with ovum
 9 Test ID : 249 [S1]
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct 74. Study the following statements.
explanation of A A. Stellar distances are measured in light
2) Both A and R are true and R is not the years.
correct explanation of A
B. The origin of life is considered a unique
3) A is true but R is false event in the history of universe
4) A is false but R is true
C. Universe is almost only a speck relative to
70. Match the following.
earth
Column - I Column - II D. Galaxies contain stars and clouds of gas
i) Embryos of in-vivo / and dust
A) Amniocentesis
in-vitro fertilization How many of the above are correct?
B) CDRI ii) Genital warts 1) 1 2) 2
C) STI iii) Saheli 3) 3 4) 4
D) IUT iv) Sex determination 75. Whale, bat, cheetah and human share
1) A - iii, B - ii, C - iv, D - i similarities in the pattern of bones of
2) A - ii, B - iii, C - i, D - iv forelimbs. This is example for
3) A - iv, B - i, C - ii, D - iii 1) divergent evolution
4) A - iv, B - iii, C - ii, D - i 2) convergent evolution
71. Statement-I: MTP Act, 2017 was enacted by 3) analogy
the Govt of India. 4) both 2 and 3
Statement-II: MTPs are performed illegally
76. Read the following statements and pick the
by unqualified quacks which are not only
incorrect one.
unsafe but could be fatal too.
1) Both Statements I and II are correct 1) Similarities in proteins and genes
performing a given function among diverse
2) Statement I is correct, Statement II is
incorrect organisms give clues to common ancestry
3) Statement I is incorrect, statement II is 2) Lichens can’t be used as industrial pollution
correct indicators
4) Both statements I and II are incorrect 3) In a small population, change in allelic
72. In which of the following animals the males frequency by chance is called genetic drift
are heterogametic? 4) In the evolution of modern man w.r.t brain
1) Birds 2) Drosophila and language skills appear as parallel
3) Grasshopper 4) both 2 and 3 evolution
73. Which of the following statements are correct 77. Which of the following statements is correct?
w.r.t phenylketonuria? 1) By the time of 500 mya, invertebrates were
i) It is an inborn error of metabolism formed and active
ii) Autosomal recessive trait 2) The first organisms that invaded land were
iii) Caused by lack of enzyme, phenylalanine amphibians
hydroxylase
3) Jawed fish probably evolved around 350
iv) Sex linked recessive disorder
mya
1) i and ii 2) ii and iii
4) Mammals evolved from the thecodonts
3) iii and iv 4) i, ii and iii
 10 Test ID : 249 [S1]
78. The rupture of RBCs is associated with release 83. Match the following.
of a toxic substance w.r.t malaria is Column - I Column - II
1) haemozoin
A) Produce a small number
2) hemoerythrin i) Pelagic fishes
of large size offspring
3) hemocyanin B) Breed only once in their
4) hemoglobin ii) Birds
life time
79. Assertion (A): Filariasis is transmitted by C) Produce a large number
insect vector. iii) Mammals
of small sized offspring
Reason (R): Filariasis is a slowly developing
D) Breed many times during iv) Pacific
chronic inflammation of the infected organs.
their life time salmon fish
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
1) A - iv, B - iii, C - ii, D - i
explanation of A
2) A - iv, B - ii, C - i, D - iii
2) Both A and R are true and R is not the
3) A - iii, B - iv, C - i, D - ii
correct explanation of A
4) A - iii, B - iv, C - ii, D - i
3) A is true but R is false
84. When feeding efficiency of one species is
4) A is false but R is true
reduced in the presence of the other species
80. How many of the following are characteristics
even if the resources are abundant, it is called
of withdrawal syndrome?
1) competitive release
Anxiety, Shakiness, Nausea, Sweating, 2) resource partitioning
1) 4 3) intra-specific competition
2) 3 4) interference competition
3) 2 85. Read the following statements.
4) 1 i) In terrestrial ecosystem, major producers are
81. Which kind of people need repeated blood herbaceous and woody plants
transfusion? ii) Various species like phytoplankton, algae
1) Haemophilic and higher plants are producers in an
2) Sickle cell anemia aquatic ecosystem
3) Thalassemia iii) The food chain or web is formed because
4) all the above of feeding interdependency
82. Which of the following equation correctly iv) No energy that is trapped into an organism
remains in it forever
represents Verhulst Pearl Logistic Growth
Curve? In the above
1) i, ii and iii correct
dN K−N 
1) = r  2) i, ii, iii and iv incorrect
dt  K 
3) i, ii correct and iii, iv incorrect
2)
dN
=N
(K − N )
4) i, ii, iii and iv correct
dt K
86. Vertical distribution of different species
3)
dN
= rN
(K − N ) occupying different levels is called
dt K 1) humification 2) stratification
4)
dN
= rN
(N − K) 3) degradation 4) fragmentation
dt N
 11 Test ID : 249 [S1]
87. Statement-I: GPP of an ecosystem is the rate 89. A. Threatened animals and plants are
of production of organic matter (during protected.
photosynthesis) by autotrophs B. Organisms facing a very high risk of
extinction in the wild in near future are
Statement-II: Secondary productivity is
protected
defined as the rate of formation of new
C. Endangered animals and plants are
organic matter by consumers
protected.
1) Both Statements I and II are correct The above statements are related to
2) Statement I is correct, Statement II is 1) biodiversity hotspots and seed banks
incorrect 2) sacred groves and wildlife sanctuaries
3) Statement I is incorrect, statement II is 3) zoological parks and botanical gardens
correct 4) cryopreservation techniques and national
4) Both statements I and II are incorrect parks
90. Match the list I with list II and choose the
88. Assertion (A): Tropical regions promote
correct option.
niche specialization and that leads to a greater
List - I List - II
species biodiversity.
A) Khasi and Jaintia Hills I) Madhya Pradesh
Reason (R): Tropical environments are
relatively more constant and predictable. B) Chanda and Bastar II) Maharashtra and
areas Karnataka
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
C) Western Ghat regions III) Meghalaya
explanation of A
D) Aravalli Hills IV) Rajasthan
2) Both A and R are true and R is not the
correct explanation of A 1) A - III, B - I, C - II, D - IV
2) A - IV, B - I, C - II, D - III
3) A is true but R is false
3) A - III, B - II, C - I, D - IV
4) A is false but R is true
4) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
PHYSICS
91. An ideal solenoid having 1000 turns per 1) radiowaves, x-rays, infrared waves,
meter. If the current carried is 5A, then the microwaves, visible waves
magnetic field at the centre of the solenoid is 2) radiowaves, microwaves, infrared waves,
(in mT) visible waves, x-rays
3) infrared waves, microwaves, radiowaves, x-
1) π
rays, visible waves
2) 2π 4) x-rays, visible waves, infrared waves,
π microwaves, radiowaves
3)
2 93. Acceleration due to gravity at a height 2R
2π from surface of earth is ‘x’. Find the depth at
4)
3 which acceleration due to gravity is again ‘x’.
92. Out of the following, the correct arrangement 9R
1) 2) 2R
of electromagnetic spectrum in decreasing 8
order of wavelength is 8R 2R
3) 4)
9 3
 12 Test ID : 249 [S1]
94. For an AC circuit, match the physical quantity 97. A disc of mass M and radius R rotating about
on y-axis in List – I with List – II. its natural axis with angular velocity ‘ω’. Now
List – I List - II another disc of same mass M and radius R is
A) I) Impedance just kept over it exactly touching peripheries,
then the new angular velocity of system and
loss of energy are
ω 1 1
1) , MR 2 ω2 2) ω, MR 2ω2
B) II) Capacitive 2 8 8
reactance ω MR 2ω2 ω MR 2ω2
3) , 4) ,
4 4 2 4
98. Three points A, B and C are shown in uniform
C) III) Inductive electric field E as shown in figure. The
reactance magnitude of electric potential difference
between A and B will be

D) IV) Resistance

Ed
1) Ed 2)
Choose the correct answer from options given 3
below. Ed
3) 4) zero
1) A – I, B – II, C – III, D - IV 2
2) A – IV, B – III, C – II, D - I 99. A solid sphere of radius R is floating on a
3) A – I, B – II, C – IV, D - III
liquid having density σ and surface tension T.
4) A – III, B – IV, C – I, D - II
If sphere is half immersed in the liquid and
R
95. From a disc of radius R, a disc of diameter floating. If density of sphere is ρ then
2
is removed concentrically, the shift in centre expression for surface tension T of liquid is
of mass is Rg R 2g
1) (ρ − σ) 2) (2ρ − σ)
R 3 2
1) 2) R
6 R 2g 3
R 3) (2ρ − σ) 4) (2ρ − σ)
3) 4) zero 3 R 2g
12
100. In an AC circuit, the current leads the voltage
96. The emf of the battery shown in figure is
π
by , the circuit is
2
1) purely resistive
2) should have circuit element with resistance
equal to reactance
3) purely inductive
1) 4 V 2) 8 V 4) purely capacitive
3) 12 V 4) 16 V
 13 Test ID : 249 [S1]
101. When an electron jumps to ground state from 106. A body is projected at an angle (θ) with
an orbit in hydrogen atom, the total number of k
horizontal, has kinetic energy   at highest
possible spectral lines are 6, the excited state 4
from which electron is jumping into ground point in its path. Then θ is (where k is initial
state is kinetic energy)
1) 4 2) 3 1) 30o 2) 45o
3) 5 4) 2 3) 60o 4) all of the above
102. For
fixed values of radii of curvature of lens,
107. A force F = 3iˆ + Ajˆ + kˆ acting on a particle
power of the lens will be
causes a displacement s = − 2iˆ + ˆj + 3kˆ in its
1) P ∝ (µ -1) 2) P ∝ µ2
own directions. If the workdone is 6J. Then
1
3) P ∝ 4) P ∝ µ-2 the value of A is
µ
1) 3 2) 6
103. Lengths of two wires are measured as 3) 9 4) 12
(9 ± 0.2)m and (4 ± 0.1 m), difference in their 108. When same force acts on two different bodies
lengths is of masses 4 kg and 5 kg at rest, the velocities
1) (5 ± 0.2) m 2) (5 ± 0.3) m acquired by the bodies in same interval of time
3) (5 ± 0.4) m 4) (5 ± 0.1) m are in the ratio of
1) 1 : 5 2) 5 : 4
104. A body is thrown vertically upwards with
3) 16 : 25 4) 25 : 16
velocity 20 m/s from the ground. What is its
109. If
coefficient of friction between the surface in
average velocity during its time of ascent (g =
contact is 0.75. The tension in the string is
10 m/s2)
(g = 10 m/s2)
1) 20 m/s 2) 15 m/s
3) 10 m/s 4) 0 m/s
105. Match List – I with List – II
List – I List - II
i) Adiabatic a) ∆P = 0
1) 60 N 2) 80 N
process
3) 100 N 4) zero
ii) Isochoric b) ∆Q = 0 110. Inthe given circuit, the current through zener
process diode is
iii) Isobaric c) ∆U = 0
process
iv) Isothermal d) ∆W = 0
process
1) i – d, ii – c, iii – b, iv - a
2) i – b, ii – d, iii – a, iv - c
3) i – a, ii – b, iii – c, iv - d
1) 10 mA 2) 6.67 mA
4) i – c, ii – a, iii – b, iv - d
3) 5 mA 4) 3.33 mA
 14 Test ID : 249 [S1]
111. Assertion : In an elastic collision of two 116. Ifthe difference between the fundamental
bodies, the momentum and energy of each frequencies of an open organ pipe and closed
body is conserved. organ pipe each of length 1m is 90 Hz, find
Reason : If two bodies stick together, after the speed of sound in air.
colliding, the collision is said to be perfectly 1) 360 m/s
inelastic. 2) 180 m/s
1) Both assertion and reason are correct and 3) 330 m/s
reason is the correct explanation of the 4) 240 m/s
assertion 117. A galvanometer gives full scale deflection
2) Both assertion and reason are correct but with a series resistance R = 1 kΩ and gives
reason is not the correct explanation of the half deflection when a shunt resistance
assertion S = 200 Ω is connected in parallel to
3) If Assertion is correct but reason is galvanometer, then resistance of galvanometer
incorrect G is
4) If Assertion is incorrect but reason is
1) 25 Ω
correct
2) 125 Ω
112. The minimum number of NAND gates
3) 175 Ω
required to construct an OR gate operation is
4) 250 Ω
1) 2 2) 3
118. The pitch scale of a screwgauge has 20
3) 4 4) 5
divisions per centimeter and the least count of
113. The differential equation of a simple harmonic
the screwgauge is 0.01 mm. The number of
d2 x divisions on the circular scale are
motion is 4 + 100x = 0 . Find the ratio of
dt 2 1) 100 2) 50
magnitudes of maximum velocity to maximum 3) 200 4) 150
acceleration of the particle
119. The ratio of molar specific heat at constant
1) 1 : 10 2) 10 : 1 volume to the molar specific heat at constant
3) 1 : 5 4) 5 : 1 pressure of an ideal gas with 6 degrees of
114. Ina cold country, if it takes 36 hours for the freedom is
growth of an ice layer of thickness 3 cm on the
4 1
surface of a lake, then the time taken for the 1) 2)
3 2
growth of 6 cm of ice layer is
3
1) 72 hours 2) 18 hours 3) 4) 7
4
3) 144 hours 4) 9 hours
120. Threemagnetic materials are listed below.
1 A) Diamagnetic
115. Dimensional formula of (where µ0 is
µ0ε0 B) Ferro magnetic
permeability and ε0 is permittivity of free C) Paramagnetic
space) should be Choose the correct order of the materials in
1) LT-2 decreasing order of magnetic susceptibility.
2) ML-1T1 1) A, B, C 2) C, A, B
3) LT-1 3) B, C, A 4) A, C, B
4) ML2T-2
 15 Test ID : 249 [S1]
121. A wire is suspended at one end and to the 125. Statement I : Gauss law is true for any closed
other end a load is connected, the extension in surface no matter what its shape or size is
the wire is ‘x’. If this wire is cut into two Statement II : Gauss law is based on the
equal parts and again same load is connected inverse square dependence on distance
to end of one part of wire. The extension is contained in the coulomb’s law.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
x
1) x 2) following:
2
1) Statement I is correct but II is incorrect
x
3) 2x 4) 2) Statement I is incorrect but II is correct
3 3) Both statement I and II are correct
122. In a pair of adjacent coils, for a change of 4) Both statement I and II are incorrect
current in one of the coils from 0A to 10 A in 126. In photoelectric emission of an electron when
0.25 s, the magnetic flux in the adjacent coil a light incidents on the photo-metal.
changes by 15 weber. The mutual inductance Match the following:
of the coils is List – I List - II
1) 120 H 2) 12 H A) As intensity of P) Photocurrent
3) 1.5 H 4) 0.75 H incident light decreases
123. The graph correctly representing the variation increases with
of image distance ‘v’ for a convex lens of a frequency
focal length ‘f’ versus object distance ‘u’ is more than
threshold
v
frequency

1) 2) u B) As frequency Q) KEmax
of incident becomes
radiation equal to zero
increases with
same intensity
3) 4)
C) As frequency R) Photocurrent
of incident increases
124. Inthe figure given below, APB is a curved radiation is
surface of radius of curvature 10 cm equal to
separating air and transparent material threshold
 4 frequency
 µ =  . A point object O is placed in air on
 3 D) As distance of S) KEmax of
the principal axis of the surface 20 cm from P. source of light photoelectrons
The distance of image of O from P will be increased from increases
photometal,
keeping
frequency
same
1) A – R, B – S, C – Q, D - P
1) 16 cm left of P in air
2) A – R, B – P, C – Q, D - S
2) 16 cm right of P in water
3) A – S, B – R, C – Q, D - P
3) 20 cm right of P in water
4) A – P, B – Q, C – R, D - S
4) 20 cm left of P in air
 16 Test ID : 249 [S1]
127. Two balls carrying charge +2µC and -2µC 131. A steady current flows in a metallic conductor
attract each other with a force F. If +2µC is of non-uniform cross-section. The quantity (s)
added to both separately, the force between remaining constant along the length of the
them will be conductor is
1) zero 2) F 1) Current, electric field and drift speed
3) 4 F 4) 2 F 2) drift speed only
3) current and drift speed
128. A rigid body starts from rest, rotating about an
4) current only
axis passing through it with constant angular
132. Two soap bubbles of radii 3mm and 4mm are
acceleration. After 6 seconds it rotates with
in contact, the radius of curvature of interface
angular velocity 24 rad/sec. Find angular
between those two bubbles is
displacement of the body in this 6 seconds.
1) 1 mm 2) 7 mm
1) 36 rad 2) 72 rad
12
3) zero 4) 24 rad 3) 12 mm 4) mm
7
129. Electricpotential at point A due to a short
133. Two long straight conductors are held parallel
dipole having dipole moment P given below,
to each other 7 cm apart. The conductors carry
 1  currents of 9A and 16 A in opposite directions.
is  Here k = 
 4πε0  The distance of neutral point from the
conductor carrying 16 A current is
1) 9 cm 2) 16 cm
63
3) 25 cm 4) cm
25
134. Match the following :
List – I List - II
kp
1) 2 A) Stable nucleus P) 92U
235
2r
B) Readily Q) 56
28Fe
3 kp
2) fissionable
2 r2
nucleus
kp
3) 2 C) Nucleus R) Protium
r
1 kp without
4) neutron
2 r2
1) A – P, B – Q, C - R
130. The escape and orbital velocities of a body on
2) A – Q, B – R, C - P
surface of earth are ve and v0 respectively. If
3) A – R, B – P, C - Q
mass of the body is doubled, then the escape
4) A – Q, B – P, C - R
and orbital velocities are
135. The width of a slit in single slit diffraction is
1) 2ve and 2v0 0.03 cm and is illuminated by a parallel beam
v v of wavelength 6 x 10-5cm. the width of central
2) e and 0
2 2 fringe formed on a parallel screen at a distance
3) v e and v0 50 cm from the plane of slit is
4) ve and v0 1) 0.3 cm 2) 0.2 cm
3) 0.25 cm 4) 0.4 cm
 17 Test ID : 249 [S1]

BOTANY
136. Convolvulaceae and Solanaceae are included 140. Given below are two statements:
in the order Statement I: A few of the marine forms such
1) Rosales 2) Poales as kelps form massive plant bodies.
Statement II: Some of the algae occur in
3) Polymoniales 4) Sapindales
association with fungi and animals.
137. Which of the following is not true about
1) Both statement I and statement II are true
cyanobacteria
2) Both statement I and statement II are false
1) They are photoautotrophs 3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
2) They live in both aquatic and terrestrial 4) Statement I is false but statement II is true
habitats 141. Match List I with List II
3) They perform anoxygenic photosynthesis List – I List – II
4) They play a great role in fixing nitrogen A) Algin I) Chlorella
138. Match List I with List II
B) Carrageen II) Gracilaria
List – I List – II
C) Agar III) Ectocarpus
A) Chrysophytes I) Mixotrophs
D) Space food IV) Red algae
B) Dinoflagellates II) Chief producers 1) A – II, B – III, C – I, D – IV
in the ocean 2) A – III, B – IV, C – II, D – I
C) Euglenoids III) Red tides 3) A – I, B – II, C – IV, D – III
4) A – IV, B – II, C – III, D – I
D) Slime moulds IV) Fruiting bodies
142. In bryophytes, sporophyte is dependent on
1) A – II, B – III, C – I, D – IV gametophyte for the purpose of
2) A – III, B – II, C – IV, D – I 1) Deriving nourishment
3) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV 2) Developing roots
4) A – IV, B – I, C – II, D – III 3) Sexual reproduction
139. Given below are two statements: one is 4) Developing sex organs
labelled as Assertion A and the other is 143. Which of the following has a pair of leaves

labelled as Reason R: arise at each node and lie opposite to each

other?
Assertion (A): Ascomycetes members are
1) Alstonia 2) Calotropis
commonly known as sac-fungi
3) Mustard 4) China rose
Reason (R): During sexual reproduction, a sac
144. Match List I with List II
like ascus is formed to have ascospores.
List – I List – II
In the light of the above statements, choose the A) Actinomorphic I) Cassia
correct answer from the options given below: flowers
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct B) Zygomorphic II) Canna
explanation of A flowers
2) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the C) Asymmetric III) Datura
correct explanation of A flowers
3) A is true but R is false
D) Radial symmetry IV) Mustard
4) A is false but R is true
 18 Test ID : 249 [S1]
1) A – II, B – III, C – I, D – IV 148. How is the inner mitochondrial membrane
2) A – I, B – IV, C – III, D – II different from the thylakoid membrane in
3) A – III, B – I, C – II, D – IV chloroplast?
4) A – IV, B – II, C – III, D – I 1) Membrane permeability
145. Three types of aestivations are given as a, b 2) Presence of mobile carriers
and c. identify them correctly. 3) Transport of H+ by ATP synthase
4) Utilization of oxygen
149. In some chromosomes, a knob like structure is
formed as result of A and it is present
at B . What are A and B respectively?
1) Satellite and secondary constriction
1) a – Valvate, b – Vexillary, c – Twisted 2) Primary constriction and long arm
2) a – Twisted, b – Valvate, c – Imbricate 3) Secondary constriction and short arm
3) a – Valvate, b – Twisted, c – Imbricate 4) Cytokinesis and each pole of the cell
4) a – Imbricate, b – Vexillary, c – Twisted 150. Given below are two statements: one is

146. Read the following statements and choose the labelled as Assertion A and the other is
set of correct statements labelled as Reason R:
a. Stomatal apparatus is a part of ground tissue Assertion (A): Cytokinesis occurs in a
system centripetal manner in animal cells via
b. The trichomes in the shoot system are cytoskeletal components.
usually multicellular Reason (R): Cytoskeletal components involve
c. The xylem and phloem together constitute the formation of a cleavage furrow, which is a
vascular bundles grove that pinches the cell membrane inward.
d. The conjoint vascular bundles usually have In the light of the above statements, choose the
the phloem located only on the outer side of correct answer from the options given below:
the xylem 1) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the
e. Sclerenchymatous cells are usually present correct explanation of A
in cortex, pericycle, pith and medullary rays 2) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
in the primary stems and roots. explanation of A
1) a, b, c and d 3) A is true but R is false
2) b, c and d 4) A is false but R is true
3) b, c, d and e 151. Poleward movement of centrosomes is seen in

4) a, b, d and e 1) Prophase
147. Which of the following cells make the leaves 2) Metaphase
curl inward to minimize water loss in grasses? 3) Anaphase
1) Mesophyll cells 4) Telophase
2) Vessels 152. If the genetic material content of a meiocyte at

3) Lower modified epidermal cells S-phase is 40pg, how much would it be in its
4) Upper modified epidermal cells gamete?
1) 40pg 2) 10pg
3) 20pg 4) 80pg
 19 Test ID : 249 [S1]
153. Cellsin the G0 phase are 157. In the biosynthetic phase of photosynthesis,
1) Preparing to divide CO2 is utilized for the carboxylation of
2) Remain metabolically inactive 1) RuBisCO
3) Lose their divisible property permanently 2) PEPcase
4) Neither actively dividing nor preparing to 3) OAA
divide 4) RuBP
154. Read the following statements and choose the 158. The number of ethanols produced by the

set of incorrect statements partial oxidation of FOUR glucose molecules

a. Trichloroacetic acid is used to perform a is
chemical analysis 1) 4
b. Retentate formed during chemical analysis 2) 8
is technically called as acid-insoluble 3) 10
fraction 4) 2
c. In chemical analysis ash contains inorganic 159. Given below are two statements:

elements Statement I: The continued oxidation of acetyl

d. Sulphates and phosphates are seen only in CoA via the TCA cycle requires the continued
the acid-soluble fraction replenishment of OAA.
e. It has been found that nitrogen is more in Statement II: OAA is the first member of the
the earth’s crust than in the human body TCA cycle.
1) a, b, c and d 1) Both statement I and statement II are false
2) c, d and e 2) Both statement I and statement II are true
3) d and e 3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
4) a, c and e 4) Statement I is false but statement II is true
155. Identify the correct description about the 160. Read the following statements and choose the

given structure set of statements related to development in

plants
a. It is the sum of growth and differentiation
b. It is under the control of intrinsic factors
c. It is under the control of extrinsic factors
d. It is under the control of genetical factors
1) It is the structural component of RNA 1) a, b and c
2) It is the building block of cellulose 2) b, c and d
3) It is a nucleoside 3) a, c and d
4) It is the structural component of all nucleic 4) a, b, c and d
acids 161. The production of female flowers in
156. The maximum absorption of light by cucumbers has increased due to the
chlorophyll-a is found in application of
1) Green and yellow regions 1) ABA
2) Violet and yellow regions 2) Auxins
3) Orange and red regions 3) Ethylene
4) Blue and red regions 4) Cytokinins
 20 Test ID : 249 [S1]
162. When the pollen grain is mature, it contains 166. Consider the genotype of an individual is
1) Vegetative cell and generative cell heterologous for five loci. How many types of
2) Generative cell and two male gametes gametes can be formed by that individual?
3) Only vegetative cell 1) 8 2) 16
4) A central nucleus 3) 32 4) 64
163. Given below are two statements: one is 167. Choose the incorrect statement from the

labelled as Assertion A and the other is following

labelled as Reason R: 1) A nitrogenous base is linked to the OH of
Assertion (A): Double fertilization is an event 1'C pentose sugar through a N-glycosidic
unique for angiosperms. linkage
Reason (R): Both syngamy and triple fusion 2) A phosphate group is linked to OH of 5'C
take place only in angiosperms. of a nucleotide through phosphoester
linkage
In the light of the above statements, choose the
3) Two nucleotides are linked through 3'-5'
correct answer from the options given below:
phosphodiester linkage to form a
1) A is false but R is true
dinucleotide
2) A is true but R is false
4) In RNA, every nucleotide residue has an
3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
additional –OH group present at 2'-position
explanation of A
in the ribose
4) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the
168. If the length of E.coli DNA is 1.36mm, can
correct explanation of A
you calculate the number of base pairs in
164. Match List I with List II
E.coli?
List – I List – II
1) 4 x 106
A) Apomixis I) Seed less fruits 2) 5.5 x 105
B) Parthenocarpy II) Fertilization is 3) 2.2 x 106
absent 4) 6.5 x 109
C) Polyembryony III) Dedifferentiated 169. Which set of radioactive elements was used by

nucellar cells Hershey and Chase to prove DNA is a genetic

material?
D) Somatic IV) Mixing of two
1) 15N and 14N
hybridization genomes
2) 35S and 32P
3) 14C and 18O
1) A – I, B – III, C – II, D – IV 4) 14N and 2H
2) A – IV, B – I, C – III, D – II 170. How many adenylate residues are added to
3) A – III, B – II, C – I, D – IV
hnRNA during its maturation?
4) A – II, B – I, C – III, D – IV
1) 1000 to 2000
165. The law of purity of gametes is proposed on
2) 100 to 200
the basis of
3) 50 to 100
1) Monohybrid cross
4) 200 to 300
2) Dihybrid cross
3) Linkage and recombination
4) Deviations from monohybrid cross
 21 Test ID : 249 [S1]
171. The separated DNA fragments can be 175. Given below are two statements: one is
visualized only after staining the DNA with a labelled as Assertion A and the other is
compound known as labelled as Reason R:
1) Cesium chloride
Assertion (A): Synthesizing a gene and
2) Ethidium bromide
correcting defective gene are part of
3) Agarose
biotechnology.
4) Cyanogen bromide
172. Read the following statements and choose the Reason (R): Genetic engineering is one of the
set of correct statements related to VNTRs core techniques of biotechnology.
a. These are micro-satellites
In the light of the above statements, choose the
b. These are used in southern hybridization
correct answer from the options given below:
c. The sequence of VNTRs is arranged
tandemly in many copy numbers 1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
d. The copy number is same from explanation of A
chromosome to chromosome in an 2) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the
individual correct explanation of A
e. VNTR probes are not detectable when
3) A is false but R is true
autoradiography is not used
4) A is true but R is false
1) a, b and c
176. In biotechnology, reporter gene is used
2) b, c and d
3) c, d and e 1) To detect the expression of gene of interest
4) b, c and e 2) To prevent the growth of non-recombinants
173. Match List I with List II 3) To control the copy number of desired
List – I List – II genes
A) Vit B12 I) Monascus 4) To cut the vector DNA
purpureus 177. Bioreactors are
B) Production of II) Streptococcus 1) Sterilizing instruments
CO2 2) Anaerobic sludge digesters
C) Streptokinase III) Lactobacillus 3) Bacterial growth multipliers to produce the
D) Statins IV) Propionibacterium desired product
1) A – III, B – I, C – II, D – IV 4) Special devices used in gene therapy
2) A – IV, B – II, C – I, D – III 178. Choose the correct statement related to
3) A – II, B – I, C – III, D – IV recombinant vaccines
4) A – III, B – IV, C – II, D – I 1) They made by using only bacterial DNA
174. What advantage the fungus derives from
2) They made by using only RNA
mycorrhizal association?
3) They made by using either DNA (or) RNA
1) Absorbs phosphorous from the plant
4) They are not safe as they do not contain the
2) Absorbs water from the soil
3) Absorb food materials from the plant live pathogen
4) Resistance to root-borne pathogens
 22 Test ID : 249 [S1]
179. What is the advantage of periodic infusion of 180. RNA interference involves silencing of
genetically engineered lymphocytes to the specific mRNA due to
patient? 1) A complementary dsDNA
1) It is permanent curative method 2) A complementary dsRNA
2) It offers short term relief for ADA 3) The same sequence of another RNA
deficiency 4) Hydrolyzing activity of DNases
3) The immune system will be activated by
somatic hybrids
4) Introduction of functional ADA gene into
the patient’s cells at an early embryonic
stage is a permanent cure for ADA
deficiency
***All The Best***

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