Test ID : 189

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.MOCK TEST – I. S1
Std : Long Term & XII (CBSE) Max. Marks : 720
Test Date : 15.04.2025 Time : 3.00 Hrs.
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.

General Instructions :
1) The duration of the test is 180 minutes and the maximum mark is 720.
2) This test booklet contains 180 multiple choice questions (four options with a single correct answer)
from Physics, Chemistry, Botany and Zoology. 45 questions in each subject.
3) There is only one correct response for each question. Each correct answer will be given 4 marks
while 1 mark will be deducted for a wrong response. Zero mark will be given for unanswered
questions.
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phone, any electronic device, etc, inside the examination room/hall.
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for rough work.
6) On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the invigilator on duty
in the Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
OMR Instructions :
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Stay Calm … Think Twice … Analyse Well … Confirm the Answer … Success is Assured !

Name of the Candidate : ___________________________________

Section : ___________________________________
 1 Test ID : 189 [S1]
CHEMISTRY
1. Assertion (A) : p-hydroxy benzoic acid has 1) Both statements I and II are correct
lower boiling point than o-hydroxybenzoic 2) Both statements I and II are incorrect
acid. 3) Statement I is correct, II is incorrect
Reason (R) : o-hydroxybenzoic acid has intra 4) Statement I is incorrect, II is correct
molecular hydrogen bonding. 6. Consider the following electromagnetic waves
1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
X- - micro
correct explanation of (A) EMR UV IR
rays rays wave
2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A) Property (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
3) (A) is true but (R) is false Find the incorrect order with respect to the
4) (A) is false but (R) is true property given in brackets
2. The Ksp for AgCl is 2.8 × 10–10 M2 at a given 1) C > A > B > E > D (Frequency)
temperature. The solubility of AgCl in 0.01 2) C < A < B < E < D (Wave length)
molar HCl solution at this temperature will be 3) C > A > B > E > D (Wave number)
1) 2.8 × 10–8 mol.L–1 4) C < A < B < E < D (Velocity)
–12 –1
2) 2.8 × 10 mol.L
3) 5.6 × 10–8 mol.L–1
4) 2.8 × 10–4 mol.L–1 7.

3. Choose the incorrect statement about the

given compounds. Find out the correct reagent (B) from the
A = KCl MgCl2.6H2O following.
B = FeSO4.(NH4)2SO4.6H2O 1) H2/Pt (ethanol) 2) Sn + HCl
C = KAl(SO4)2.12H2O 3) Fe + HCl 4) All of these
D = K4[Fe(CN)6] 8. Assertion (A) : Gallium has unusually low
1) Aqueous solution of ‘C’ is acidic in nature melting point and high boiling point.
2) Spin only magnetic moment of the Reason (R) : Gallium is used in measuring
compound ‘D’ is zero high temperatures.
3) A, B, C and D all are double salts 1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
4) Colour of compound ‘B’ is light green correct explanation of (A)
4. If oxidation potential of following half cell 2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
Pt, H2 (1atm) / HCl is 0.35V. Find pH of correct explanation of (A)
solution. 3) (A) is true but (R) is false
1) 4.8 2) 5.9 4) (A) is false but (R) is true
3) 2.8 4) 5.2 9. The reaction of 2-Bromopentane with
5. Statement – I : Peroxide effect is shown by CH3ONa to form pent-2-ene is
H – X on addition to an unsymmetrical alkene A) β-Elimination
(Where X is Cl, Br) B) Follows Zaitsev/Saytzeff’s rule
Statement – II : HCl bond ‘dissociation’ C) Dehydrohalogenation reaction
energy is low and that of H – I is high. D) Dehalogenation reaction
 2 Test ID : 189 [S1]
1) A, C, D only 14. Identify the mismatch among the given
2) B, C, D only chemical reactions.
3) A, B, D only 1) 2Mg + O2  MgO : Oxidation of oxygen
4) A, B, C only 2) Na2SO3 + H2O2  Na2SO4 + H2O :
10. List the underlined hydrogens in the order of Oxidation of Na2SO3
increasing acidity. 3) N2 + 3H2  2NH3 : Reduction of nitrogen
A) CH 2  CH 2  CHO 4) CuO + C  Cu + CO : Reduction of CuO
| 15. Which of the following statements is
H incorrect?
B) CH 2  CH 2  NO2 1) In equilibrium mixture of ice and water
| kept in a perfectly insulated flask, mass of
H ice and water does not change with time
C) CH 2  CH 2  CH  CH 2 2) The intensity of red colour increases when
| oxalic acid is added to an equilibrium
H mixture obtained by mixing of iron
1) B > A > C 2) A > B > C (III)nitrate and potassium thiocyanate
3) A > C > B 4) C > A > B 3) On addition of catalyst, the equilibrium
11. Both methane and ethane may be obtained in constant value is not affected
one step reaction from the following (by using 4) Equilibrium constant for a reaction (with
separate method) negative H value) decreases as
1) CH3COONa 2) CH3I temperature increases
3) Both (1) and (2) 4) C2H4 16. One mole of H2O and one mole of CO are
12. Statement – I : In the catalytic hydrogenation taken in 10L vessel and heated to 725K. At
of alkene in presence of Nickel, addition of equilibrium 40% of water (by mass) reacts
both the hydrogen atoms from the same side with CO according to the equation.
of the double bond takes place. H2O(g) + CO(g)  H2(g) + CO2(g), calculate the
Statement – II : The addition of hydrogen to equilibrium constant for the reaction.
an alkene in the presence of finely divided Pt
1) 0.22 2) 0.44
is an example of heterogeneous catalysis.
3) 0.66 4) 0.88
1) Both statements I and II are correct
17. Assertion (A) : The dipole moment of NH3 is
2) Both statements I and II are incorrect
greater than that of NF3.
3) Statement I is correct, II is incorrect
Reason (R) : In case of NH3, the orbital
4) Statement I is incorrect, II is correct dipole (lone pair) is in the opposite direction
as resultant dipole moment of the three N-H
bonds (bond pair)
13. The IUPAC name of 1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
1) 3, 4-dibromo pentyl benzene 2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
2) 3, 4-dibromo-5-phenyl pentane correct explanation of (A)
3) 2, 3-dibromopentylbenzene 3) (A) is true but (R) is false
4) 2, 3-dibromo-1-phenylpentane 4) (A) is false but (R) is true
 3 Test ID : 189 [S1]
18. Which has three equivalent resonance 23. Match column I with column II and choose the
structures in the following? correct answer.
1) O3 2) NO2– Column I Column II
3) CO3–2 4) CO (Complex) (Hybridization)
19. Vapour pressure decreases by 20 mm of Hg A [Ni(CO)4 I sp3d2
when mole fraction of non-volatile solute is B [Ni(CN)4]–2 II d2sp3
0.2. What is the mole fraction of solvent if
C [Fe(CN)6]–3 III dsp2
vapour pressure is decreases by 30 mm of Hg
by dissolving same non-volatile solute? D [CoF6]–3 IV sp3
1) 0.4 2) 0.3 A B C D
3) 0.6 4) 0.7 1) IV III II I
20. Match the following 2) IV II I III
Colum – I Column – II 3) III I II IV
A) Glucose p) Undergo hydrolysis 4) I II III IV
B) Fructose q) React with Fehling solution 24. Match column I with column II and choose the
correct answer.
C) Sucrose r) React with Tollens reagent
D) Maltose s) Has glycosidic linkage Column I Column II
(Reaction) (Product)
1) A-(q, s), B-(r, q), C-(p, r), D-(p, q, r, s)
2) A-(p, q), B-(r, s), C-(r, p), D-(p, q) C6H5COCl
I A CH3CHO
3) A-(p, q, r), B-(q, r, s), C-(p, r), D-(p, q, r, s)  H2
Pd  BaSO4


4) A-(q, r), B-(q, r), C-(p, s), D-(p, q, r, s) CH3–CN

II i)SnCl2  HCl B CH3COCH3
21. Correct orders of melting point and boiling 
ii) H O

3
point of hydrides of group 17 elements
respectively are CH3CH2COOC2H5
III i)DIBAL  H C C6H5CHO
A) Melting point : HCl < HBr < HI < HF 
ii)H 2O

B) Melting point : HCl < HBr < HF < HI CH3MgBr

IV D CH3CH2CHO
C) Boiling point : HCl < HBr < HI < HF 
i)CdCl2
ii)CH3COCl

D) Boiling point : HCl < HBr < HF < HI

I II III IV
1) B and D only
1) C A B D
2) C and D only 2) C A D B
3) B and C only 3) A C B D
4) A and C only 4) B A D C
22. The IUPAC name for [Pt(py)4][PtCl4] is 25. Which of the following series of compounds
1) tetra(pyridine)platinum(II) have same mass percentage of carbon?
tetrachloridoplatinate(II) 1) CH3COOH, HCHO
2) tetrapyridinetetrachloridodiplatinum(IV) 2) CH3CHO, HCHO
3) tetrachlorotetrapyridinediplatinum(II) 3) CH3CHO, CH3COOH
4) tetra(pyridine) platinum (IV) 4) H2C2O4, C6H12O6
tetrachloridoplatinate(IV)
 4 Test ID : 189 [S1]
26. Which of the following has maximum number 31. The order of the reaction
of molecules? 2A + B + C  Product, is found to be 1, 2 and 0
1) 36 mL water (H2O) with respect to A, B and C respectively. If the
2) 11.2 L of CO at STP concentration of each reactant is increased by
3) 48 g SO2 two times, what will be the ratio of final and
4) 0.5 mol N2 initial rates?
27. The element with atomic number 55 belongs 1) 4 2) 2
to which block of the periodic table? 3) 8 4) 16
1) s-block 2) p-block 32. Statement – I : Ti+2, V+2 and Cr+2 are strong
3) d-block 4) f-block oxidizing agents and will liberate H2 from
acids.
28. The following data is known about the melting
of a compound AB. Hfusion = 9.2 kJ mol–1, Statement – II : Metals of the first transition
series with the exception of copper are
Sfusion = 0.008 kJ K–1 mol–1 its melting point is
relatively more reactive and are oxidized by
1) 736 K 2) 1050 K
H+.
3) 1150 K 4) 1250 K
1) Both statements I and II are correct
29. Match column - I with column – II and choose
2) Both statements I and II are incorrect
the correct answer.
3) Statement I is correct, II is incorrect
Column – I Column – II
4) Statement I is incorrect, II is correct
(Metals) (Flame colouration)
33. For a strong electrolyte,
A) Ba+2 p) Green flame with
blue centre
B) Ca+2 q) Apple green
C) Cu+2 r) Brick red
D) Sr+2 s) Crimson red
1) A-s, B-r, C-p, D-q
2) A-q, B-p, C-r, D-s Correct unit for slope of this graph
3) A-q, B-r, C-p, D-s 1) S cm2 mol–1 L1/2
4) A-q, B-r, C-s, D-p 2) S cm2 mol–3/2 L1/2
30. Given below are two statements 3) S cm2 mol–3/2 L
Statement – I : Potassium dichromate is a 4) S cm2 mol–3/2 L–1/2
primary standard for standardization of 34. How many ‘N’ atoms are sp2 hybridized in the
Mohr’s salt in acidic medium. given cation?
Statement – II : In the above titration,
phenolphthalein can be used as indicator.
1) Both statements I and II are correct
2) Both statements I and II are incorrect
3) Statement I is correct, II is incorrect 1) 3 2) 5
4) Statement I is incorrect, II is correct 3) 4 4) 2
 5 Test ID : 189 [S1]
35. The equivalent weight of I2 in the following
reaction is 1) 2)
2S2O32– + I2  S4O6 + 2I
–2 –

1) 254 2) 127
3) 63.5 4) 158
3) 4)
36. Statement I : The magnitude of H-bond is
maximum in the gaseous state and minimum
40. Which of the following reactions cannot be
in solid state.
used for the preparation of alkyl chloride?
Statement II : Molecular mass of ethanoic
1) CH3CH2OH + HCl 
anhy.ZnCl2

acid is 120 in solvent of low dielectric
constant like benzene. 2) CH3CH2OH + HCl 
1) Both statements I and II are correct 3) (CH3)3C–OH + HCl 
2) Both statements I and II are incorrect 4) (CH3)2CHOH + HCl 
anhy.ZnCl2

3) Statement I is correct, II is incorrect 41. A system undergoes a process in which
4) Statement I is incorrect, II is correct change in internal energy is 300J while
37. Which of the following solution has lowest absorbing 400 J of heat energy and undergoing
freezing point and lowest boiling point an expansion against 0.5 bar. What is the
respectively? change in the volume (in L)?
A) 180g of glucose in 100 mL of water 1) 4 2) 5
B) 180g of urea in 50 mL of water 3) 2 4) 3
C) 60g of urea in 100 mL of water 42. Which of the following spectral line is
associated with a minimum wavelength?
D) 150g of glucose in 100 mL of water
1) n = 5 to n = 1
1) A and B 2) B and C
2) n = 4 to n = 1
3) B and D 4) D and A
3) n = 3 to n = 1
38. Match the following columns
4) n = 2 to n = 1
Column – I Column – II
(Reduction process) (Charge required)
A) 1mole of MnO 4 to Mn2+ P) 193000C
43. i)
B) 1mole of Cr2 O 72 to Cr3+ Q) 289500C
C) 1mole of Mg2+ to Mg R) 482500C
3+
D) 1mole of Al to Al S) 579000C
1) A-S, B-R, C-P, D-Q
2) A-R, B-S, C-Q, D-P ii)
3) A-P, B-Q, C-R, D-S
4) A-R, B-S, C-P, D-Q
A and B are respectively
39.

Major product B is
 6 Test ID : 189 [S1]
44. For a given reaction rate constant is k mol L1
sec1. If initial concentration of reactant is ‘a’,
1) then find the time required for completion of
the reaction.
0.693 2a
1) 2)
k k
a 3a
3) 4)
2) k 2k
45. Statement – I : Chromium has [Ar] 3d5 4s1
configuration instead of [Ar] 3d44s2.
Statement – II : The energy gap between the
3d and 4s orbitals is small enough to prevent
3) electron entering the 3d-orbitals.
1) Both statements I and II are correct
2) Both statements I and II are incorrect
4) 3) Statement I is correct, II is incorrect
4) Statement I is incorrect, II is correct
ZOOLOGY
46. Which of the following fundamental features 1) Metamerically segmented
have enabled us to broadly classify the 2) Does not have digestive system
kingdom Animalia? 3) Excretion takes place by flame cells
i. Level of body organization 4) It is an endoparasite
ii. Symmetry 48. Statement-I: In chordates tail is located
iii. Coelom posterior to anus.
iv. Segmentation Statement-II: Mammals have ventral heart.
v. Notochord 1) Both Statements I and II are correct
vi. Patterns of reproductive system 2) Statement I is correct, Statement II is
incorrect
1) i, ii and iii only
3) Statement I is incorrect, statement II is
2) i, ii, iii and v only
correct
3) except vi all
4) Both statements I and II are incorrect
4) i, ii, iii, iv, v and vi
49. Match the following column I and II.
47. Which of the following is not true w.r.t the
Column - I Column - II
given organism?
(Tissue) (Matrix)
i) Epithelium a) Semi-fluid
b) Little between
ii) Areolar tissue
compactly packed cells
iii) Cartilage c) Solid and non-pliable
iv) Bone d) Solid and pliable
v) Blood e) Fluid
 7 Test ID : 189 [S1]
1) i - a, ii - b, iii - d, iv - c, v - e 1) R – pleural fluid – reduces the friction on
2) i - b, ii - a, iii - d, iv - c, v - e the lung surface
3) i - b, ii - d, iii - a, iv - c, v - e 2) U – pharynx – common passage for food
4) i - b, ii - a, iii - c, iv - e, v - d and air
50. Match the following columns and choose the 3) S – lung – covered by single layered pleura
correct option w.r.t cockroach. 4) T – alveoli – thin walled non-vascularized
bag like structures
Column - I Column - II
53. Which of the following is not associated with
A) Mandible i) Upper lip
asthma?
B) Labrum ii) Grinding region 1) Breathing noisily
C) Labium iii) Sockets 2) Inflammation of bronchioles
D) Antennae iv) Lower lip 3) Difficulty in breathing
1) A - i, B - ii, C - iii, D - iv 4) Increased respiratory surface area
2) A - iv, B - iii, C - ii, D - i 54. Statement-I: Blood is the most commonly
3) A - i, B - iii, C - ii, D - iv used body fluid by most of the higher
organisms.
4) A - ii, B - i, C - iv, D - iii
Statement-II: Blood is a special connective
51. A – The opening of the spiracles is regulated
tissue consisting of plasma and formed
by the sphincters.
elements.
B – Exchange of gases takes place at the
1) Both Statements I and II are correct
tracheoles by diffusion.
2) Statement I is correct, Statement II is
C – Spiracles are small holes present on
incorrect
dorsal surface of the body.
3) Statement I is incorrect, statement II is
Read the statements A, B, C and identify the
correct
correct option w.r.t Periplaneta americana.
4) Both statements I and II are incorrect
1) A and C are correct
55. Study the given statements, identify true/ false
2) A and B are incorrect
and choose the suitable option.
3) B and C are correct
i) Repeated checks of blood pressure of an
4) C is incorrect
individual is 140/90 or higher, it shows
52. Identify the correct option related to labelled
hypertension
parts of given figure.
ii) High blood pressure leads to heart diseases
and also affects vital organs
iii) CAD is caused due to deposition of fat,
cholesterol, fibrous tissue in coronary veins
making their lumen narrow.
iv) Heart failure is same as cardiac arrest.
i ii iii iv
1) T T F T
2) T T F F
3) F F T T
4) F F T F
 8 Test ID : 189 [S1]
56. Match the following. 59. The given figure explains
Column – I Column – II
Conditional
A PCT i
reabsorption
Passage of small
amount of urea
B DCT ii i) formation of cross bridge
into medullary
ii) binding of myosin head to exposed active
interstitium
site on actin
70 to 80% of
Ascending limb iii) shortening of the muscle
C iii electrolytes
of Henle's Loop iv) pulling of ‘Z’ lines attached to actins
reabsorbed
1) i and iii
Reabsorption is
D CD iv 2) ii and iii
minimum
3) ii and iv
1) A - iv, B - iii, C - ii, D - i
4) i and ii
2) A - iii, B - i, C - iv, D - ii
60. Assertion (A): Neural system provides
3) A - i, B - iv, C - iii, D - ii unorganized network of point-to-point
4) A - ii, B - i, C - iv, D - iii connections for a quick co-ordination.
57. Statement-I: An adult human, on an average Reason (R): The endocrine system provides
25-30 mg of urea is excreted out per day. chemical integration through hormones.
Statement-II: Human urine is highly acidic. 1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
1) Both Statements I and II are correct explanation of A
2) Statement I is correct, Statement II is 2) Both A and R are true and R is not the
incorrect correct explanation of A
3) Statement I is incorrect, statement II is 3) A is true but R is false
correct 4) A is false but R is true
4) Both statements I and II are incorrect 61. Choose the correct sequence of depolarization
58. Match the following. and return to the polarized state regarding
Column - I Column - II neuron

i) Nonstriated i) Rise in permeability to K+ ions

A) Trachea ii) Restoration of resting membrane potential
muscles
iii) Stimulus is applied at a site on the
B) Passage of ova ii) Ciliary movement
polarized membrane
iii) Ciliated
C) Microfilaments iv) Reversal of polarity at that site
epithelium
v) Membrane becomes freely permeable to
iv) Amoeboid Na+
D) Smooth muscles
movement
1) ii → iii → i → iv → v
1) A - iv, B - i, C - ii, D - iii 2) ii → iii → i → v → iv
2) A - iii, B - i, C - iv, D - ii 3) iii → v → iv → i → ii
3) A - iii, B - i, C - ii, D - iv 4) iii → i → ii → iv → v
4) A - iii, B - ii, C - iv, D - i
 9 Test ID : 189 [S1]
62. Which of the following is under the direct 2) Both A and R are true and R is not the
neural regulation of the hypothalamus? correct explanation of A
1) Pars nervosa 3) A is true but R is false
2) Anterior pituitary 4) A is false but R is true
3) Pars distalis 66. Secretions of which of the following accessory
4) Pars intermedia ducts is essential for maturation and motility
63. Match the following. of sperms?
1) Epididymis 2) Seminal vesicle
List – I List – II
3) Prostate 4) Oviducts
A) Milk producing
i) Glucocorticoid 67. Which of the following is differentiated as
hormone
embryo?
B) Milk ejecting
ii) LH 1) Trophoblast cells
hormone
2) Inner cell mass
C) Gonadotrophin iii) PRL
3) Uterine cells
D) Steroid hormone iv) Oxytocin 4) Secondary oocyte
1) A - ii, B - iii, C - iv, D - i 68. Which programme was initiated by Govt of
2) A - iii, B - iv, C - ii, D - i India for the first time at national level to
3) A - iv, B - ii, C - i, D - iii attain total reproductive health as a social
4) A - i, B - iv, C - iii, D - ii goal?
64. Assertion (A): Aldosterone helps in the 1) RCH 2) ART
maintenance of electrolytes, body fluid 3) Family planning 4) Amniocentesis
volume, osmotic pressure and blood pressure. 69. I) The world population was around 2000
Reason (R): Aldosterone acts mainly at the million in 1900.
renal tubules and stimulates the reabsorption II) In India, population was approximately
of Na+ and water and excretion of K+ and 350 million in 1947
phosphate ions. III) Indian population reached close to the
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct billion mark by 2000.
explanation of A In the above
2) Both A and R are true and R is not the 1) I, II are incorrect
correct explanation of A 2) II, III are incorrect
3) A is true but R is false 3) I, III are incorrect
4) A is false but R is true 4) I, II, III are correct
65. Assertion (A): There is a remarkable 70. Choose the contraceptive method which works
difference in the gametogenesis of human on the principle of avoiding chances of ovum
male and female. and sperms meeting without altering female
Reason (R): The resultants of meiosis I and II reproductive tract?
in oogenesis are not equal in size unlike in 1) Periodic abstinence
spermatogenesis. 2) Implants
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct 3) Injectables
explanation of A
4) LNG – 20
 10 Test ID : 189 [S1]
71. Match the following and choose the correct 74. The given pedigree is the analysis of
option.
Column - I Column - II
i) For female who
A) In-vitro fertilization
cannot produce ova
ii) If husband is with
B) GIFT
low sperm count
iii) Woman nurses 1) myotonic dystrophy
C) IUI
others embryo 2) sickle cell anaemia
D) Surrogate mother iv) Test tube baby 3) phenylketonuria
1) A - iv, B - i, C - ii, D - iii 4) both 2 and 3
2) A - ii, B - iii, C - i, D - iv 75. Read the following statements.
3) A - i, B - iv, C - ii, D - iii A. The Big Bang theory attempts to explain to
4) A - iv, B - iii, C - ii, D - i us the orgin of universe.
72. Assertion (A): Pleiotropic gene can exhibit B. Some scientists believe that life came from
multiple phenotypic expression. out side.
Reason (R): The underlying mechanism of C. Life appeared 500 billion years after the
pleiotropy is the effect of a gene on metabolic formation of earth
pathways which contribute towards different D. The universe is very old – almost 20
phenotypes. million years old
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct Which of the above are correct?
explanation of A 1) A, B and C 2) C and D
2) Both A and R are true and R is not the 3) A and B 4) A, B, C and D
correct explanation of A 76. Which of the following indicates common
3) A is true but R is false ancestry?
4) A is false but R is true 1) Analogy
73. Match the following columns and choose the 2) Convergent evolution
correct option w.r.t sex determination. 3) Homology
Column - I Column – II 4) both 1 and 2
A) XO i) Male heterogamety 77. In Hardy- Weinberg principle, the frequency
of ‘AA’ individuals in a population is simply
B) XY ii) Female heterogamety
1) 2 pq 2) p
iii) Adult males and their
C) ZW 3) p2 4) q
gametes are haploid
78. Given below are some stages of human
D) Haplodiploid evolution. Arrange them in correct sequence
1) A - i, B - i, C - iii, D - ii (recent to past)
2) A - i, B - i, C - ii, D - iii A. Dryopithecus B. Homo habilis
3) A - ii, B - i, C - i, D - iii C. Homo sapiens D. Australopithecines
4) A - iii, B - iii, C - ii, D – i 1) A – D – B – C 2) A – D – C – B
3) C – B – D – A 4) C – B – A – D
 11 Test ID : 189 [S1]
79. Match the following. 84. Statement-I: When resources become
Column - I Column - II progressively limiting, the growth of the
population is usually exponential.
A) Sore throat I) Typhoid
Statement-II: Growth of the population is
B) Sustained high fever II) Pneumonia ultimately limited by carrying capacity of the
C) Alveoli get filled with environment.
III) Common cold
fluid 1) Both Statements I and II are correct
1) A - III, B - I, C – II 2) Statement I is correct, Statement II is
2) A - II, B - I, C – III incorrect
3) A - III, B - II, C – I 3) Statement I is incorrect, statement II is
4) A - I, B - II, C - III correct
80. Which kind of immunoglobulin is most 4) Both statements I and II are incorrect
abundant in colostrum? 85. In exponential growth, the increase or
1) Ig G 2) Ig M decrease in population size during a unit time
3) Ig A 4) Ig D period is
81. Assertion: AIDS is not a congenital disease. 1) (B + I) – (D + E) 2) r – N
Reason: An individual acquires AIDS during 3) (b – d) × N 4) (B + E) – (D + I)
his life time. 86. Which of the following productivity is the
1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the available biomass for the consumption by
correct explanation of (A) heterotrophs?
2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not 1) Net primary productivity
the correct explanation of (A) 2) Gross primary productivity
3) (A) is true but (R) is false 3) Secondary productivity
4) (A) is false but (R) is true 4) Both (2) and (3)
82. Identify the given figure. 87. Match the following columns and choose the
correct option.
Column - I Column - II
A) Leaching i) Detritus into small particles
B) Detritivore ii) Earthworm
iii) Soluble inorganic nutrients
go down into the soil horizon
C) Fragmentation
and get precipitated as
1) Structure of cannabinoid molecule
unavailable salts
2) Structure of cocaine molecule
iv) Dark coloured amorphous
3) Chemical structure of Morphine D) Humus
substances
4) both 1 and 2
1) A - i, B - ii, C - iii, D - iv
83. Mammals from colder climates generally have
shorter ears and limbs to minimize heat loss. 2) A - iii, B - ii, C - iv, D - i
This is explained by 3) A - iii, B - ii, C - i, D - iv
1) Van’t Hoff’s rule 2) Allen’s rule 4) A - iv, B - ii, C - i, D – iii
3) Lindeman’s rule 4) Bergmann’s rule
 12 Test ID : 189 [S1]
88. Choose the incorrect matching pair. 90. Read the following statements w.r.t loss of
1) 8.1 per cent – global species diversity in biodiversity.
India a. The last twenty years alone have witnessed
2) 22 per cent – recorded species of plants the disappearance of 27 species
3) 12 – mega diversity countries in the world b. The colonization of tropical Pacific Islands
4) 1.5 million – global species diversity by humans led to extinction of more than
estimated by Robert May 2,000 species of native birds.
89. Plots with more species showed less year-to-year c. The biological wealth of our planet has been
variation in total biomass, is experimentally declining due to anthropogenic activities
proven by d. 784 species, including 359 vertebrates, have
1) Paul Ehrlich become extinct in the last 500 years.
2) Alexander von Humboldt How many of the above statements are
incorrect?
3) David Tilman
1) 4 2) 3
4) Edward Wilson
3) 2 4) 1

PHYSICS
91. A block B is tied to one end of uniform rope R 93. In the R – C circuit shown in figure, the total
as shown. The mass of block is 2 kg and that energy of 3.6 x 10-3J is dissipated in the 10 
of rope is 1 kg. A force F = 15 N is applied at resistor when the switch S is closed. The
an angle 37o with vertical. The tension at the initial charge on the capacitor is
mid point of the rope is

1) 60 C 2) 120 C
60
3) 60 2 C 4) C
2
1) 1.5 N 2) 2 N 94. A lorry and a car moving with same
3) 3 N 4) 4.5 N momentum are brought to rest by applying the
92. The electric potential ‘V’ at a point same retarding force then

 1, 3 ,0  due to short dipole of dipole 1) lorry will come to rest in a shorter distance
2) car will come to rest in a shorter distance
moment P  ˆi  3 ˆj kept at origin, would be
3) both come to rest in the same distance
 1  4) none
 Take k  
 40  95. Statement I : In Vernier calipers, if zero of
k 3k vernier lies to the right of zero of main scale,
1) V  2) V 
4 4 without any object kept between jaws, Vernier
5k scale coincidence must be counted from left
3) V = k 4) V  on Vernier scale.
4
 13 Test ID : 189 [S1]
Statement II : If zero of Vernier scale lies to 100. Assertion : The focal length of lens change
the left of zero of main scale when jaws are in when red light is replaced by blue light.
contact, Vernier scale coincidence must be Reason : The focal length of lens does not
counted from right on Vernier scale. depends on colour of light used.
1) statements I and II are correct 1) Both assertion and reason are correct and
2) statements I and II are false reason is the correct explanation of the
3) statement I is correct and statement II is assertion
false 2) Both assertion and reason are correct but
4) statement I is false and statement II is reason is not the correct explanation of the
correct assertion
96. A fly wheel rotates at a constant angular 3) Assertion is correct, but reason is incorrect
acceleration of 2 rad/sec2. If the wheel starts 4) Assertion is incorrect but reason is correct
from rest, the number of revolutions made in 101. If
a wire of length 2 meter placed in uniform
first 5 seconds is (nearly) magnetic field 1.5 Tesla at angle 30o with
1) 4 2) 8 magnetic field. The current in the wire is 1
3) 16 4) 20 amp. Then force on the wire will be
97. In forward bias of PN junction diode the 1) 7.5 N 2) 1.5 N
current through the diode is in the order of 3) 0.5 N 4) 2.5 N
1) ampere 102. Thedisplacement (x) of a body of mass 1 kg
2) milliampere on smooth horizontal surface as a function of
3) microampere t3
time ‘t’ is given by x  (where ‘x’ in metres
4) mega ampere 3
98. Two particles having masses 4m and 2m and ‘t’ in seconds). The workdone by the
separated by distance 6 meters. They move external agent in the second sec is
towards each other due to mutual force of 1) 0.5 J 2) 8 J
attraction. The position at which they meet 3) 7.5 J 4) 4 J
from body of less mass(in meters) is 103. A monochromatic point source of light is
1) 4 2) 2 placed at a distance ‘d’ from a metal surface.
3) 6 4) 5 Photoelectrons are ejected at a rate ‘n’ per
second and with maximum kinetic energy E. If
99. The variation of magnetic susceptibility ()
with absolute temperature (T) for a d
the source is brought nearer to distance , the
ferromagnetic material is 2
rate and the maximum kinetic energy per
photoelectron become nearly
1) 2) 1) 2n and 2E 2) 4n and 4E
3) 4n and E 4) n and 4E
104. An object of mass ‘M’ is taken to a height 3R
above the surface of earth, of radius ‘R’ the
3) 4)
increase in potential energy is (g =
acceleration due to gravity on the surface of
the earth)
 14 Test ID : 189 [S1]
mgR 5 109. A uniformly charged sphere of radius 1 cm
1) 2) mgR
3 4 has potential of 8000 V at surface. The energy
2 3 density near the surface of sphere will be
3) mgR 4) mgR 1) 6.53 J/m3 2) 2.83 J/m3
3 4
105. For an alpha particle, accelerated through a 3) 2.83 x 10-2 J/m3 4) 6.53 x 10-2 J/m3
potential difference V, wavelength (in Ao) of 110. Cooking gas containers are kept in a lorry

the associated matter wave is moving with uniform speed. The temperature
of the gas molecules inside will
12.27 0.101
1) 2) 1) increase
V V
2) decrease
0.202 0.286
3) 4) 3) remain same
V V
4) decrease for some, while increase for some
106. Two wires having same length and same area others
of cross section are suspended from a ceiling
111. 4 charges are placed each at distance ‘a’ from
under the same load. If the ratio of their
origin. The dipole moment of configuration is
energy stored per unit volume is 3 : 4, then the
ratio of their Young’s moduli is
1) 3 : 4 2) 4 : 3
3) 9 : 16 4) 16 : 9
107. A parallel plate capacitor with free space
rd
1
between the plates has capacitance C0. If
3 1) 2qajˆ 2) 3qajˆ
of separation between the plates is filled with
3) 2qa (iˆ  ˆj) 4) none of these
an insulator of dielectric constant 5 and the
remaining with another insulator of dielectric 112. A particle is in linear simple harmonic motion
constant 3 of same area. The new capacitance between two points A and B, 4 cm apart. Take
is the direction from A to B as the negative
direction, the signs of velocity and
7 31
1) C0 2) C0 acceleration at 1 cm from B, going from B
5 8
towards A are
46 45 1) -, + 2) + , -
3) C0 4) C0
11 13
3) +, + 4) -, -
108. The specific gravity of a block is 6. The 113. Match List – I with List – II.
reading of a spring balance when this block is
List – I List- II
suspended from it in air is 100 N. The reading
of the spring balance when this block is P) Mobility () A) ne 2 
suspended from it and completely submerged m
in water will be Q) Drift velocity (vd) B) E
1) 600 N 2) 250 N
R) Conductivity () C) eE
250 m
3) N 4) 60 N
3
S) Current density (J) D) e
m
 15 Test ID : 189 [S1]
1) P – C, Q – A, R – B, S - D 118. A force F1 of 500 N is required to push a car
2) P – B, Q – A, R – D, S - C of mass 1000 kg slowly at constant speed on a
3) P – D, Q – B, R – C, S - A levelled road. If a force F2 of 1000 N is
4) P – D, Q – C, R – A, S - B applied, in the same direction of F1, then the
acceleration of the car will be
114. Longitudinal waves in a medium propagate
due to 1) zero 2) 1.5 ms-2
1) shear modulus 3) 1 ms-2 4) 0.5 ms-2
2) bulk modulus 119. The north pole of a magnet is falling on a
3) both shear and bulk modulus metallic ring as shown in the figure. The
direction of induced current, if viewed from
4) Young’s modulus
top, in the ring at the instant shown will be
115. Twofixed charges 4Q and –Q are located at A
and B, the distance AB being 3m.

1) The point P where the resultant field due to

both is zero is on AB, outside AB and 1) clockwise or anticlockwise depending on
closer to A metal of the ring
2) The point P where the resultant field due to 2) no induced current
both is zero is on AB, outside AB and
3) anti-clockwise
closer to B.
4) clockwise
3) The point P where the resultant field due to
120. If
an AC produces same heat as that produced
both is zero is inbetween AB
by a steady current of 4A, then peak value of
4) The point P where the resultant field due to
current is
both is zero is on a line perpendicular
bisector to AB. 1) 4 A 2) 1.56 A
3) 5.6 A 4) 1.41 A
116. If A  2iˆ  ˆj and B  ˆi  ˆj  3kˆ are
121. A mass ‘M’ hangs with the help of a string
perpendicular to each other then the value of
wrapped around a disc able to rotate about its
‘’ is
natural axis. The acceleration of the mass ‘M’.
1) - 2 2) -1 If the string does not slip on the pulley is
3) 1 4) 2 (mass of disc is ‘M’ radius of disc = R)
117. StatementI : Sustained interference pattern 2
due to coherent light sources is according to 1) g 2) g
3
law of conservation of energy.
g 3
Statement II : If the width of one of slits is 3) 4) g
3 2
made more than that of other in YDSE, then
122. A parallel plate capacitor has conducting
intensity of bright and dark fringes also
plates of radius 12 cm separated by distance of
increases.
5 mm. It is charged with a constant charging
1) Statement I and II are true
current of 0.16 A. The rate at which the
2) Statement I is true and statement II is false potential difference between the plates
3) Statement I is false and statement II is true changes is
4) Statement I and II are false
 16 Test ID : 189 [S1]
1) 1 x 109 V/s 2) 2 x 1010 V/s 4) Two lithium nuclei do not combine to form
3) 3 x 1012 V/s 4) 2 x 109 V/s carbon nucleus at room temperature
123. A 130 m long train moving along east with because coulomb repulsion do not allow
speed 72 kmph. Another train of 120 m long is them to come very close.
moving along west with speed of 108 kmph. 127. A ball of mass ‘m’ is fired vertically upwards
The time in which second train crosses the from the surface of the earth with the velocity
first train will be nve, where ve is escape velocity and n < 1.
1) 5 s 2) 10 s Neglecting air resistance, the maximum height
the ball will rise is
3) 12 s 4) 15 s
124. A particle of mass ‘m’ moves in a circular R R
1) 2)
orbit in a central potential field energy n2 1 n2
U(r) = U0r4. If Bohr’s quantization conditions Rn 2
3) 4) Rn2
are applied, radii of possible orbitals rn vary 1 n2
with n1/, where ‘’ is 128. The equivalent resistance of circuit across AB
1) 7 2) 3 is given by (diodes are ideal)
3 1
3) 4)
2 2
125. Ineach of the following expressions A,B and
C represent lengths
I. A + B II. AB
1) 4 if vA > vB
AB A
III. IV. 2) 13  if vA < vB
C (B  C)
3) 6  if vA > vB
Which of the following statements is
4) Both (1) and (2)
incorrect?
129. For a faulty thermometer lower and upper
1) One of them has dimensions of volume
fixed points are 10oC and 60oC. If it measures
2) One of them has dimensions of area
20oC then the true value of temperature in oC
3) Two of them have dimensions of length is
4) One of them is dimensionless 1) 30oC 2) 20oC
126. Which of the following statements are 3) 40oC 4) 50oC
INCORRECT for atomic nuclei? (A – mass
130. An ammeter is obtained by shunting a 30 
number, Z – atomic number, N – Neutron number)
galvanometer with a 30  resistance. The
1) As mass number increases, the density of
additional shunt required to double the range
the nucleus does not change
is
Z
2) Heavier nuclei tend to have largerratio 1) 15  2) 10 
N
as coulomb forces have longer range 3) 5  4) 30 
compared to nuclear forces 131. Ina certain process 5 Kcal of heat is supplied
3) For nuclei with A > 100, the binding to the system and the system does 6000 J of
energy per nucleon of the nucleus decreases work. If the initial internal energy of the
on an average as A increases system is 37 KJ then final value of its internal
energy is (1 cal  4.2 J)
 17 Test ID : 189 [S1]
134. Absolute temperatures of two stars are in ratio
1) 22 KJ 2) 52 KJ 3 : 2. If wavelength corresponds to maximum
3) – 22 KJ 4) - 52 KJ intensity of radiation from first body is 4000
Å. Then, the wavelength corresponds to
132. Power of plane mirror is
maximum intensity of radiation from second
1)  2) zero
body will be
3) 2D 4) 4D
1) 9000 Å 2) 6000 Å
133. Theequivalent inductance between P and Q in
3) 2000 Å 4) 8000 Å
figure is
135. A zener diode voltage operated in the range
120 – 180 V produces a constant supply of
110 V and 250 mA to load. If the maximum
current is to be equally shared between load
and the zener diode, then the values of series
resistance (RS) and load resistance (RL) are
8
1) 2H 2) H 1) RL = 70 , RS = 280 
3
2) RL = 440 , RS = 140 
4
3) 6 H 4) H 3) RL = 140 , RS = 440 
9
4) RL = 280 , RS = 70 

BOTANY
136. Assertion(A) : The calyx and corolla are 138. A genetically controlled mechanism that
accessory floral leaves. prevent self-pollen from fertilizing the ovule is
Reason (R) : They are not directly involved in 1) Dioecy 2) Dichogamy
sexual reproduction and protect the inner 3) Self incompatibility 4) Amphimixis
reproductive whorls. 139. Statement I : Dominance is not an
1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the autonomous feature of pleiotropic genes.
correct explanation of (A) Statement II : Both genes and chromosomes
2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the occurs in pairs
correct explanation of (A) 1) Both statements I and II are correct
3) (A) is true but (R) is false 2) Both statements I and II are incorrect
4) Both (A) and (R) are false 3) Statement I is correct, II is incorrect
137. Statement – I : Pollen grains of Zostera are 4) Statement I is incorrect, II is correct
long and ribbon shaped. 140. Identify the incorrect statement w.r.t
Statement – II : All aquatic plants show Drosophila
hydrophily. 1) Complete their life cycle in about 2 weeks
1) Both the statements are correct 2) Produce a large number of progeny flies in
2) Both the statements are incorrect a single mating
3) Statement I only correct 3) They have no clear cut sex differentiation
4) Statement II only correct 4) They show many types of hereditary
variations
 18 Test ID : 189 [S1]
141. Starch grain size in pea plant is an example of 146. Findthe odd one w.r.t. their genetic material
1) Complete dominance 1) TMV
2) Incomplete dominance 2) QB bacteriophage
3) Co-dominance 3) Retroviruses
4) Polygenic inheritance 4) Bacteriophage lambda
142. Identify the incorrect statement w.r.t RNA 147. The prongs in bacteriophage refers to

1) It was the first evolved genetic material 1) Collar

2) It can directly code for the synthesis of a 2) Tail pins
protein 3) Capsomeres
3) It can act as genetic material in some 4) Tail fibres
prokaryotes 148. Match column I with column II
4) It is better for the expression of genetic
Column-I Column-II
information
143. Match the following and choose the correct
1 Genetic A Technology that
option. engineering alters the chemistry
of DNA and RNA
Column – I Column – II
2 Bioprocess B Growth of only the
A) E.coli I) 3.3 x 109 bp
engineering desired organism
B)  x 174 II) 5386 nts
3 Recombinant C Hybrid DNA
bacteriophage
DNA
C) -bacteriophage III) 4.6 x 106 bp
4 Gene cloning D Making multiple
D) Haploid human IV) 48502 bp copies of a desired
DNA gene
1) A – II, B – I, C – III, D – IV
1) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
2) A – IV, B – III, C – II, D – I
2) 1-B, 2-C, 3-A, 4-D
3) A – III, B – II, C – IV, D – I
3) 1-C, 2-B, 3-A, 4-D
4) A – IV, B – II, C – III, D – I
4) 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C
144. How many hydrogen bonds present in a
149. The first recombinant DNA was constructed
dsDNA having 102A length and 20 adenines?
by linking a gene encoding antibiotic
1) 40 2) 30
resistance with a native plasmid of
3) 70 4) 25
1) Salmonella typhimurium
145. The correct sequences of steps involved in
2) Escherichia coli
regulation of gene expression in eukaryotes is
3) Agrobacterium tumifaciens
1) Translocation of mRNA  Processing of
RNA  Transcription  Translation 4) Streptococcus pneumoniae
150. Identify the palindrome sequence from the
2) Transcription  Processing of RNA 
following
Translocation of mRNA  Translation
5' G A AT T C  3'
3) Translation  Transcription  Processing 1)
5' G A AT T C  3'
of RNA  Translocation of mRNA
5' G A AT T C  3'
4) Transcription  Translation  Processing 2)
3' C T T A AG  5'
of RNA  Translocation of mRNA
 19 Test ID : 189 [S1]
5' G A AT T C  3' 156. Assertion (A) : Viruses can exhibit both
3)
3' G A AT T C  5' living and non-living characters.
5' AT G C AT G C  3' Reason (R) : They are acellular but multiply
4)
3' T AC GT AC G  5' rapidly in living host.
151. Which of the following enzymes is useful to 1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
amplify the desired gene by PCR? correct explanation of (A)
1) DNA polymerase 2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
2) DNA ligase correct explanation of (A)
3) RNA polymerase 3) (A) is true but (R) is false
4) DNA helicase 4) (A) is false but (R) is true
152. GM has been used to create tailor made plants 157. Match
column I with column II and choose the
to supply alternate resources to industries in correct answer.
the form of Column I Column II
A) Fuels A Ascocarp I Rhizopus
B) Starches B Basidiocarp II Neurospora
C) Pharmaceuticals
C Sporangiospores III Puccinia
1) A and B only
D Red tides IV Gonyaulax
2) B and C only
3) C and A only A B C D
4) A, B and C 1) IV III II I
153. The choice of cry gene depends on 2) II III I IV
1) Type of the crop 3) III I II IV
2) Targeted pest 4) I II III IV
158. The spores in bryophytes germinate to form
3) Enviromental factors
4) Both (1) and (2) 1) Haploid sporophyte
154. The vector employed in developing nematode 2) Haploid gametophyte
resistant tobacco plants was 3) Diploid sporophyte
1) Bacillus 4) Diploid gametophyte
2) Agrobacterium 159. What is correct w.r.t. pteridophytes?
3) Vibrio 1) Stems are not differentiated into nodes and
4) Salmonella internodes
155. Identifythe incorrect statement from the 2) Generally, prothallus is free living,
following photosynthetic and monoecious
1) Poaceae and anacardiaceae belong to 3) Gametophyte differentiated into true roots,
sapindales stems and leaves
2) Monkey and gorilla belong to primata 4) The sporangia produce spores by mitosis
from spore mother cells
3) Dicotyledonae and monocotyledonae belong
to angiospermae
4) Sapindales and polymoniales belong to
dicotyledonae
 20 Test ID : 189 [S1]
160. Identify the mismatched pair in the given 164. Which of the following is not a feature of
below. sclereids?
1) Leaf tendril – Pea 1) Variously shaped
2) Phylloclade – Australian acacia 2) They have thick lignified cell wall with
3) Thorns – Citrus narrow lumen
4) Stem tuber – Potato 3) Commonly found in the fruit walls of nuts,
161. The type of sub-aerial stem modification seed coats of legumes
present in Chrysanthemum is 4) They are components of epidermis
1) Stolon 165. Assertion(A): Eukaryotic cells have
2) Runner membrane bound organelles.
3) Sucker Reason (R) : Prokaryotic cells lack membrane
4) Offset bound organelles.
162. Which of the following is a correct pair? 1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
1) Hypogynous – Mustard and Rose correct explanation of (A)
2) Perigynous – Plum and Peach 2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
3) Epigynous – Guava and Cucumber correct explanation of (A)
4) Both (2) and (3) 3) (A) is true but (R) is false
163. Identify A, B and C from the below given 4) (A) is false but (R) is true
diagram. 166. Considerthe following statements and choose
the option showing all correct statements.
I) Cilium and flagellum contain an outer ring
of nine doublets and inner two singlet
microtubules
II) Cilia work like oars, causing the
movement of either the cell or the
surrounding fluid
1) A – Sieve tube element
III) Flagella are comparatively shorter than
B – Phloem fibre
fimbriae and responsible for cell
C – Companion cell
movement
2) A – Sieve cell
IV) Cilium and flagellum are covered with
B – Phloem parenchyma plasma membrane
C – Companion cell
1) I, II and IV
3) A – Sieve tube element
2) I, III and IV
B – Phloem parenchyma
3) II, III and IV
C – Companion cell
4) I, II and III
4) A – Companion cell
167. The
number of chloroplasts per cell may vary
B – Phloem parenchyma
from A per cell of Chlamydomonas to
C – Sieve tube element
B per cell in mesophyll.
 21 Test ID : 189 [S1]
1) A – 20 to 40, B – 1 to 5 174. Who inferred that the O2 evolved by the green
2) A – 1, B – 20 to 40 plants comes from H2O, not from carbon
3) A – 10 to 20, B – 20 to 40 dioxide?
4) A – 5, B – 10 to 20 1) Van Niel
168. Whichof the following transition occurs at the 2) T.W Engelmann
time of dedifferentiation? 3) Julius Von Sachs
1) A cell from DNA replicative stage to 4) Joseph Priestley
tubulin synthesising stage 175. Which among the following pigments is more
2) A cell from histone synthesising stage to stable chemically?
most of the cell organelles duplicating stage 1) Chlorophyll a
3) A cell from inactive proliferation stage to 2) Chlorophyll b
DNA polymerase synthesising stage 3) Carotenoids
4) A cell from pre-mitotic stage to post-mitotic 4) Anthocyanins
stage 176. In alcoholic fermentation, NAD+ is
169. Thenumber of types of proteinaceous amino regenerated during
acids in living organisms is 1) Oxidation of glucose to pyruvate
1) 21 2) 20 2) Reduction of acetaldehyde to ethanol
3) 16 4) 19 3) Hydrolysis of ATP to ADP
170. Enzymes that catalyse redox reactions 4) Oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA
between two substrates are called
177. Which of the following steps required an
1) Transferases inorganic compound as a source of phosphate
2) Isomerases for phosphorylation?
3) Lyases 1) Glucose  Glu-6-P
4) Dehydrogenases 2) 3-PGAL  1,3-BPGA
171. Theamount of DNA per cell remains same 3) F-6-P  F-1,6-BP
during
4) 3-PGA  1,3-BPGA
1) G1 – phase, Anaphase and Telophase
178. Identify
the correct option w.r.t significance
2) S – phase, G2 – phase and Metaphase
of fermentation
3) G1 – phase, G2 – phase and Prophase
A) Production of alcohol in brewing industry
4) G1 – phase, S – phase and Telophase
B) Making of vinegar by acetic acid bacteria
172. Recombinase is an enzyme which mediates
C) Making the dough puffy in the baking
1) The formation of bivalents industries
2) The terminalisation of chiasma 1) A and B only
3) The formation of synaptonemal complex 2) B and C only
4) The crossing over 3) A and C only
173. The number of spindle apparatii formed 4) A, B and C
during meiosis is
1) 1 2) 2
3) 3 4) 4
 22 Test ID : 189 [S1]
179. Match column – I with column – II
Column I Column II A B C D

A F.W. Went I Auxin 1) I II III IV

2) IV III II I
B E. Kurosawa II Gibberellic
acid 3) II IV I III
4) I III II IV
C Miller III Kinetin
180. Growth at cellular level represents
D H.H. Cousins IV Ethylene
1) Increase in the protoplasm
2) Loss of protoplasm
3) Loss of nucleus
4) Cell wall degradation
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