Republic of the Philippines

Professional Regulation Commission (PRC)

Professional Regulatory Board of ARCHITECTURE (PRBoA)
Licensure Examination for Architects (LEA)

SUBJECT: BUILDING TECHNOLOGY, STRUCTURAL & BUILDING UTILITIES

(Non-Drafting Examination Format)
DATE/ TIME: 30 October 2020 (Friday), 1:00 p.m. to 6:00 p.m.
VENUE: City of Manila, Philippines (PH)

Instructions: Multiple Choice. Choose the correct answer by encircling the

letter corresponding your answer on a separate answer sheet provided together
with this questionnaire. Observe certainty of answers by avoiding erasures.
Note: This examination is administered in order to determine the extent of
knowledge acquired by the student-reviewee in the review course.

1. A continuous separation formed in concrete to form a plane of weakness

and thus regulate amount of crashing.
a. Control Joint b. Contraction Joint c. Expansion Joint d.
Isolation Joint
2. A type of concrete floor which has no beam is called.
a. Flat Slab b. One Way Slab c. Two Way Slab d. Ribbed Slab
3. An admixture which is used to speed up the initial set of concrete. Such
a material maybe added to the mix to increase the rate of early-strength
development for several reasons.
a. Damproofers b. Water Reducing Admixtures c. Accelerator d.
Retarder
4. Underwater watertight chamber to allow construction work to be done
a. Bent Chamber b. Submersible Air Chamber c. Caisson d. none of
these
5. The chief structural materials, used for tall buildings are
built-up beams, girders, foundations
a. reinforced concrete and high grade steel
b. cement, deformed wrought iron, gravel and sand
c. All of the above
6. A threaded steel bent inserted of masonry construction for securing wood
or metal plates to concrete construction.
a. U-bolt b. Anchor Bolt c. gusset plate d. Strut
7. A commercially pure iron of fibrous nature, valued for its corrosion
resistance and ductility is
a. Cast-Iron b. Black-iron c. Heavy-Iron d. Wrought-Iron
8. What is the method of introducing a jacking force in which tendons are
tensioned after concrete has hardened enough to sustain this jacking
force?
a. Compressioning b. Pre-Stressed c. Post-Tensioning d. Pre-Casting
9. A joint formed when a concrete surface hardens before the next batch of
concrete is placed against it.
A. Cold Joint b. Construction Joint c. Expansion Joint D. False Joint
10. A wall (bearing or non-bearing) designed to resist lateral forces
parallel to the wall.
a. Riprap b. Shear Wall C. Retaining Wall D. Fire Wall
11. It is a consolidation of newly placed concrete by moderately high-
frequency oscillations of vibrator.
a. Rodding b. Buggy c. Vibration d. Gunite
12. Voids on a formed concrete surface, caused by segregation during
placement or by insufficient consolidation.
a. Spalling b. Crazing c. Shrinkage d. Honeycomb
13. The chipping or scaling of a hardened concrete or masonry surface
caused by freeze thaw cycle or the application of deicing of salts.
a. Spalling b. Crazing c. Shrinkage d. Honeycomb
14. Numerous hairline cracks occurring in the surface of a newly
hardened concrete slab as a result of a drying shrinkage.
a. Spalling b. Crazing c. Shrinkage d. Honeycomb
15. It is used for primarily in pole constructions, docks, piling,
wharves and railroad and highway bridges or trestles.
A. Gridlock b. Cluster Grid c. Linear Grid d. Spike Grid
 16. Granular material, such as crushed stone, iron blast-furnace slag,
sand or gravel used with cementing medium to form a hydraulic cement
concrete or mortar.
a. Admixture b. Aggregate c. Sleeve Particle d. Filters

17. What type of concrete when air-dried weights 1900 kg per cubic
meter?
a. Reinforce concrete b. Air-entrained concrete c. Lightweight
concrete d. Concrete

18. Standard concrete mix for beams, girders, slabs, stairs and
columns
a. Class A b. Class C c. Class B d. Class AA

19. Xyladecor is a product of

a. Davies b. Welcoat c. Rain or Shine d. Boysen

20. What is the scientific name of wood?

a. Palochina b. Xylem c. Narra d. coconut lumber

21. Used for cutting curves on thin plywood

a. Jigsaw b. router c. lathe machine d. circular saw

22. The term used to describe the putting up of the skeleton of the
building.
a. Roughing-in c. Stakes and batter
boards
b. Shell work d. Formworks
23. A type of glass that is translucent in the morning but like a
mirror at night when viewed from the inside of a building.
a. Reflective glass b. Float Glass c. Clear Glass d. Tinted Glass

24. A manufactured assembly of a frame, sash, glazing and necessary

hardware, made to fit a window opening.
a. Window Unit b. Window Sash c. Window d. Window Frame

25. Resembling glass, as in transparency, hardness, brittleness,

luster or having low or no porosity.
a. Acrylic b. Homogenous c. Vitreous d. Cinder

26. Another type of circuit breaker other than bolt- on is

___________.
a. Self-melting
b. Riveted
c. Plug-on
d. None of these

27. Made from materials which must contain the proper proportions of
lime, silica, alumina and iron components.
a. Portland Cement b. Masonry Cement
c. Oil Well Cement d. Waterproofed Portland Cement
28. Designed to produce better mortar than that made with normal
Portland cement or with a lime-cement combination.
a. Portland Cement b. Masonry Cement
c. Air Entraining Portland Cement d. Waterproofed Portland
Cement
29. Small amounts of this is added to the clinker and ground with it
to produce air-entraining cements, effective use for resistance to
severe frost.
a. Portland Cement b. Masonry Cement
c. Air Entraining Portland Cement d. Waterproofed Portland
Cement
30. Normally produced by adding a small amount of stearate, usually
calcium or aluminum to the cement clinker during the final grinding.
a. Portland Cement b. Masonry Cement
 c. Air Entraining Portland Cement d. Waterproofed Portland
Cement
31. Standard concrete mix for concrete under water, retaining walls
a. Class A b. Class AA c. Class B d. Class C

32. Standard concrete mix for slab on fill, non-bearing walls

a. Class A b. Class AA c. Class B d. Class C

33. Standard concrete mix for concrete plant boxes, etc.

a. Class A b. Class AA c. Class B d. Class C

34. Time required for the removal of a form works of a concrete

footing

a. 12 hours b. 36 hours c. 72 hours d. 24 hours

35. The paint finishing material of long-span pre-painted roofing
sheet
a. Acrylic Paint b. Latex Paint c. Acrylic Latex Paint d. Enamel
Paint

36. The appropriate paint material for GI sheet roofing

a. Acrylic Paint b. Latex Paint c. Acrylic Latex Paint d. Enamel
Paint

37. A brand of liquid solution of pigment in suitable vehicle of oil,

organic solvent or water.
a. Rain or Shine b. Boysen c. Davies d. Welcoat

38. Thin sheets that are used for controlling heat in drywall
construction
a. Loose fill insulation b. Rigid Board Insulation
c. Thermal Insulation D. Adequate Insulation

39. Plaster or plywood ceiling on nailers or joists below a ventilated

roof space may show “pattern staining” on the ceiling. This can be
prevented by
a. Loose fill insulation b. Rigid Board Insulation
c.Thermal Insulation d. Adequate Insulation

40. These consist of loose fibers or granules and is made from

cellulose, fiberglass, rock wool, cotton or other materials. These
materials come in bags and are usually blown into cavities using special
equipment. What are these?
a. Loose fill insulation b. Rigid Board Insulation
c. Thermal Insulation d. Adequate Insulation

41. Combination of aluminum foil, installed beneath the ceiling under

G.I. Roofing
a. Blanket Insulation b. ACI Insulation
c. Thermal Insulation d. Adequate Insulation

42. In electrical systems, a factory assembly of one or more

conductors insulated with a high compressed refractory insulation
enclosed in a liquid-tight and gastight continuous copper or alloy steel
sheath.
a. Shielded Non-metallic Sheathed Cable (Type SNM)
b. Non-metallic Sheathed Cable (Type NM and NMC)
c. Mineral-insulated, Metal Sheathed Cable (Type MI)
d. Flat Conductor Cable (Type FCC)

43. A type of acoustical material characterized by a network of

cellular interlocking pores. Sound absorption is more efficient at high
than at low frequencies using this material. Examples of this type are
fiberboards, soft plasters, mineral woods and isolation blankets. What
is this type of material?
a. Porous material
 b. Panel (or Membrane) Absorber
c. Cavity (or Hemholtz) Resonator
d. Perforated Panel Resonator

44. In lighting calculation, it is the ratio of the luminous flux

(lumens) from a luminaire, calculated as received on the workplane to
the luminous flux emitted by the luminaire or lamp.
a. Lamp Lumen Depreciation (LLD)
b. Light Loss Factor (LLF)
c. Luminaire Dirt Depreciation (LDD)
d. Coefficient of Utilization (CU)

45. What term is used to describe the conversion of electric energy to

light using the passage of alternating current or direct current through
special conductors of solid matter producing visible light.
a. Phosphorescence
b. Electroluminescence
c. Fluorescence
d. Photoluminescence or Gaseous Discharge

Item 6.01 46. For proscenium theaters, lateral sight lines normally should be
within how many degrees from the perpendicular at the end of the
proscenium opening?
a. 20˚
b. 30˚
c. 45˚
d. 60˚

47. In acoustics, what is the term given to minimum sound pressure

level that is capable of evoking auditory sensation?
a. Threshold of Pain
b. Threshold of Speech
c. Threshold of Audibility
d. Threshold of Feeling
48. . A component part of an escalator that gives the unit its motive
power.
a. Sprocket assembly
b. Driving machine
c. Step assembly
d. Controller
49. As per code (NBC) provision, what is the minimum width balustrade
of an escalator?
a. 550 mm
b. 540 mm
c. 640 mm
d. 558 mm
Item 6.01
50. What is the recommended rated speed of a escalator, measured along
its angle of inclination?
a. 38 mpm
b. 28 mpm
c. 45 mpm
d. 33 mpm

51. Minimum water delivery in liters per minute for an outlet of a wet
standpipe at a residual pressure equivalent to 1.8 kilos per sq. mtrs.
a. 132 liters per minute
b. 112 liters per minute
c. 155 liters per minute
d. 126 liters per minute

52. A rule of thumb in sizing an individual vent pipe

a. Vent pipe size is at least 1/2 the fixture unit but not less
than the required minimum whichever is the larger
b. Vent pipe size is at least 1/2 the drain it serves but not less
than the required minimum whichever is larger
 c. Vent pipe size is at least equal the branch or trap diameter it
serves whichever is smaller but not less than the required minimum whichever
is larger
d. Vent pipe size is at least 1/2 the developed length of the
stack it vents but not less than the required minimum whichever is larger
53. In air conditioning system, that part in which refrigerant is
vaporized, thereby taking up external heat and producing cooling effect.
a. Compressor
b. Condenser
c. Evaporator
d. Chiller
54. A part of an elevator that are fastened to car frame and
counterweight at top and bottom; it is used on guide rails.
a. Guide shoes
b. Compensator
c. Safety switch
d. Car leveling device
55. A system of illumination designed to give uniform and generally,
though not necessarily diffuse lighting throughout the area under
consideration.
a. General Lighting
b. Local Lighting
c. Combined general and local lighting
d. Supplementary lighting
56. Which of the following is NOT a type of High Intensity Discharge
(HID) Lamp?
a. Mercury lamp
b. Metal halide (MH) lamp
c. High pressure sodium (HPS) lamp
d. Incandescent lamp
57. The term electrical raceway applies to ____________.
a. a channel system in carrying electric wires and cables
b. where electric cars pass
c. conductor of heavy load energy
d. a group of transformers
58. A term used in acoustics used to establish loudness level.
a. Phon
b. Decibels
c. Hertz
d. Sabins
59. Which of the following raceway wiring methods has wall thickness
lesser than that of a rigid metal conduit and generally used for both
exposed and concealed work?
a. Intermediate Metal Conduit (IMC)
b. Electrical Metal Tubing (EMT)
c. Flexible Metallic Tubing (FMT)
d. Rigid Non-metallic Conduit (RNMC)
60. How many drinking fountains may be provided for a place of
assembly with an occupant load of 450 persons?
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6
61. The abbreviation PABX, a private telephone system serving one or
group of buildings means _____________.
a. Public Address and Building Exchange
b. Phone Activated Branch Exchange
c. Private Automatic Branch Exchange
d. Public Address and Building Utility System
62. What is the type letter for an insulated conductor with a trade
name Heat Resistant Thermoplastic?
a. THHN
b. THW
c. THWN
d. TW
63. Which of the following plumbing traps is considered permissible?
 a. Bag Trap
b. P-Trap
c. Bell Trap
d. Metal Partition Trap
64. A type of venting system which function both as a fixture drain
and a vent.
a. Individual Vent
b. Dry Vent
c. Wet Vent
d. Looped Vent
65. What is the recommended color code for a pipeline containing oil
(discharge)?
a. Buff
b. White
c. Blue
d. Yellow
66. Which of the following does not qualify the definition for a
dumbwaiter?
a. 1.20 m
b. 277 kgs.
c. 3861 sq. mm
d. used exclusively for carrying materials
67. For cooling, it is the ratio of the rate of heat removed to the
rate of energy input. What is the term?
a. AFUE (Annual Fuel Utilization Efficiency)
b. COP (Coefficient of Performance)
c. EER (Energy Efficiency Ratio)
d. IPLV (Integrated Part Load Value)
68. Which of the following is a type of refrigerant used in chillers
for large installation; it contains a synthetic chemical known as
trichloromonofluoromethane.
a. R 11
b. R12
c. R 22
d. R 114
69. The average time spent by passengers in the lobby to leaving the
car at an upper floor is known as _____________.
a. ALWT (Average Lobby Waiting Time)
b. RTT (Round Trip Time)
c. ATT (Average Trip Time)
d. LDT (Lobby Dispatch Time)
70. A source of electricity that can be obtained by mechanical
pressure of certain crystals such as quartz and Rochelle salts.
a. Photoelectric effect
b. Chemical source
c. Piezoelectric effect
d. Thermoelectric effect
71. Which of the following fixtures is usually provided with pop-up
waste?
a. watercloset
b. bathtub
c. urinal
d. floor drain
72. Which of the following types of joint is used on copper pipes?
a. flared joint
b. screwed joint
c. soldered joint
d. both a and c
73. In lighting design and calculation, which of the following is/ are
essential factors used when using Zonal Cavity Method?
a. Room Cavity Ratio (RCR)
b. Footcandle value
c. Coefficient of Utilization (CU)
d. All of these
74. When controlling a lamp or group of lamps in four different
locations independently, the following switch combination shall be used.
What is it?
a. 2- S3w and 2- S4w
b. 4- S4w
c. 2- S3w and 3- S4w
d. 1- S3w and 3- S4w
75. The resistance of metallic conductors when used in power
transmission is affected by ___________.
a. length
b. cross sectional area
c. material composition
d. all of these
76. What class of insulation consists of mica, asbestos or fiberglass,
all with binders?
a. Class A
b. Class B
c. Class C
d. Class O
77. As a safety precaution, a window type AC shall be installed at not
less than _____ from the floor at ground floor level and along corridors
and hallways.
a. 2.0 m
b. 1.8 m
c. 2.13 m
d. 2.10 m
78. Which statement violates the mechanical rule provision in the
design, installation and maintenance of an escalator?
a. Installation angle of an escalator shall be more than 30º.
b. The rated speed shall be more than 38 mpm.
c. a only
d. both a and b
79. A type of intrusion detection system where the principle of beam
interruption is employed. Interruption of beam causes the contact to
open thereby setting off the alarm.
a. Photoelectric detector
b. Mechanical motion detector
c. Passive infrared detector
d. Acoustic detector
80. Fiber optics is used in installations with very heavy data
transmission loads. Which characteristic/ s is/ are provided by fiber
optics make it desirable and practical?
a. High security
b. Low noise
c. Broad bandwidth
d. All of these
81. In calculating sound absorption, an open window free from
obstructions and having a length of 3 feet and a height of 4 feet has a
sound absorption value of ________.
a. 3 sabins
b. 7 sabins
c. 12 sabins
d. 16 sabins
82. Is a component including its attachments having fundamental period
greater than 0.60 sec. (NSCP 208.20)
a. Braced frame c. bearing wall system
b. Rigid Component d. Flexible component
83. Concrete filled driven piles of uniform section shall have a
nominal outside diameter of not less than (NSCP 307.7.3)
a. 200 b. 250 c. 300
d. 350
84. A complete record of test of materials and of concrete shall be
available for inspection during the progress of work and _______ years
after completion of the project and shall be preserved by the inspecting
engineer or architect for that purpose, (NSCP 403.20)
a. 2 yrs. b. 5 yrs. c. 10 yrs. d. 15 yrs
85. The minimum bend diameter for 10mm Ø through 25mm Ø bars (NSCP
407.30)
a. 12 db b. 6 db c. 8 db
d. 10 db
86. The minimum clear spacing between parallel bars in a layer must be
db but not less than? (NSCP 407.7.3)
a. 50 mm b. 25 mm c. 75 mm d. 100 mm
87. In spirally reinforced or tied reinforced compression members,
clear distance between longitudinal bars shall not be less than?
(NSCP 407.7.3)
a. 2.0 db b. 2.15 db c. 1.50 mm d. 1.75 mm
88. In walls and slabs other than concrete joist construction, primary
flexural reinforcement shall not be spaced farther apart than 3 times
wall or slab thickness nor farther than? (NSCP 407.7.5)
a. 375 mm b. 450 mm c. 500 mm d. 300 mm
89. Groups of parallel reinforcing bars bundled in contact to act as
one unit shall be united to ___ pieces in one bundle. (NSCP 407.7.6.1)
a. 4 b. 3 c. 2 d. 5
90. Bars larger than ___mm shall not be bundled in beams:
(NSCP 407.7.6.3)
a. 25 mm b. 16 mm c. 28 mm d. 36 mm
91. Aviation control towers fall to what type of occupancy? (CDEP IV-
35)
a. Miscellaneous occupancy
b. Essential facilities
c. Hazardous facility
d. Standard occupancy
92. Private garages, carports, sheds, agricultural buildings fall to
what type of occupancy? (CDEP IV-35)
a. Miscellaneous occupancy
b. Essential facilities
c. Hazardous facility
d. Standard occupancy
93. Buildings used for college or adult education with a capacity of
500 or more students fall to what type of occupancy? (CDEP IV-35)
a. Miscellaneous occupancy
b. Essential Facilities
c. Special occupancy
d. Standard occupancy
94. Buildings or structures therein housing and supporting toxic or
explosive chemicals or substances fall to what type of category? (CDEP
IV-35)
a. Miscellaneous occupancy
b. Essential facilities
c. Special occupancy
d. Hazardous facility
95. The allowable deflection for any structural member loaded with
live load only. (NSCP 107.2.2)
a. L/300
b. L/360
c. L/200
d. L/240
96. The allowable deflection for any structural member loaded with
dead load and live load only. (NSCP 104.2.2)
a. L/300
b. L/360
c. L/200
d. L/240
97. Retaining walls shall be designed to resist sliding by at least
_______times the lateral force. (NSCP 206.6)
a. 3 b. 2 c. 1.50 d. 1
98. Retaining walls shall be designed to resist overturning by at
least ______times the overturning moment. (NSCP 206.6)
a. 1.0 b. 2.5 c. 2
d.1.50
99. As per NSCP 2001 sect. 206.9.3 vertical impact force for crane
load, if powered monorail cranes are considered, the max. wheel load of
the crane shall be increased by what percent to determine the induced
vertical impact? (NSCP 206.9.3)
a. 50% b. 25% c. 15% d. 20%
100. The lateral force on a crane runway beam with electrically powered
trolleys shall be calculated as ______% of the sum of the rated capacity
of the crane and the weight of the hoist and trolley.
(NSCP 206.9.4)
a. 20% b. 15% c. 30%
d. 50%
101. A structural system with essentially complete space frame support
for gravity loads. (CDEP IV-37)
a. Dual System c. Building Frame System
b. Moment Resisting Frame System d. Bearing Wall System
102. An open building is a structure having all walls at least _____%
open. (NSCP 207)
a. 50% b. 60% c. 80% d. 75%
103. Is a quality which measures the resistance of the mass to being
revolved about a line?
a. Moment of Inertia c. shear
b. resistance d. yield point
104. Large city centers with at least 50% of the buildings having a
height greater than 21M. Falls on what exposure category for wind
loading? (NSCP 207.5.3)
a. Exposure A c. Exposure C
b. Exposure B d. Exposure D
105. Open terrain with scattered obstructions having heights less than
9M. Falls on what exposure category for wind loading?
a. Exposure A c. Exposure C
b. Exposure B d. Exposure D
106. Flat unobstructed areas exposed to wind flowing over open water
for a distance of at least 2 km falls on what exposure category for wind
loading?
a. Exposure A c. Exposure C
b. Exposure B d. Exposure D
107. Urban and suburban areas, wooded areas or other terrain with
numerous closely spaced obstructions having the size of single family
dwelling or larger falls on what exposure category for wind loading?
a. Exposure A c. Exposure C
b. Exposure B d. Exposure D
108. The stress wherein the deformation increases without any increase
in the load. The material at some portion shows a decrease in its cross
section
a. elastic limit c. yield point
b. stress d. ultimate strength
109. What is the allowable deflection for members carrying flat roofs
not supporting or attached to non-structural elements likely to be
damaged by large deflections?
a. L/240 c. L/360
b. L/180 d. L/480
110. What is the allowable deflection for member’s roof or floor
construction supporting or attached to non structural elements likely to
be damaged by large deflections?
a. L/240 c. L/360
b. L/180 d. L/480
111. Zone 1 of the Philippine map has a wind load of ________Kph
a. 150 b. 250 c. 125
d. 200
112. Zone 2 of the Philippine map has a wind load of ________Kph
a. 150 b. 250 c. 125
d. 200
113. Zone 3 of the Philippine map has a wind load of ________Kph
a. 150 b. 250 c. 125
d. 200
 114. A tensile or compressive force acting along the longitudinal axis
of a structural member and at the centroid of the cross section,
producing axial stress without bending, torsion or shear.
a. axial force c. axial stress
b. compressive force d. eccentric stress
115. The ratio between the effective length and the unbraced length of
the member measured between the centers of gravity of the bracing
members. (NSCP Def. of Terms)
a. Effective length c. Eccentric Braced
Frame (EBF)
b. Effective length Factor d. Effective Stiffness
116. A fracture Phenomenon resulting from a fluctuating stress cycle.
(NSCP Def. of Terms)
a. stress c. deflection
b. strain d. fatigue
117. The stress that remains in an unloaded member after it has been
formed into a finished product. (NSCP Def. of Terms)
a. stress concentration c. shear factor
b. residual stress d. instability
118. The resulting moment of a fully yielded cross-section. (NSCP Def.
of Terms)
a. Plastic zone c. plastic moment
b. plastic modulus d. plastic strain
119. The magnitudes of the loads specified by the applicable codes.
(NSCP Def. of Terms)
a. Nominal loads c. Nominal Strength
b. Resistance d. Load Factor
120. A method proportioning structural components such that no
applicable limit state is exceeded when the structure is subjected to
all appropriate load combinations. (NSCP Def. of Terms)
a. Building Frame System c. Strength Design
c. Mechanism Method d. Load & Resistance Factor Design

121. Identify this type of brick bond

a. Flemish bond b. Common bond c. Garden Wall Bond d.english bond

122. Identify this type of brick bond

a. Flemish bond b. Common bond c. Garden Wall d. English Bond

123. Identify this 2type of brickbond

a. English and Flemish bond b. Garden wall and English bond c. Stretcher
and English bond
 124. Identify this type of brickbond
a. Flemish bond b. Common bond c. Stretcher or Running bond d.
English bond
TYPES OF WOOD JOINTS

125. Identify this type of wood joints.

A.butt joints b. Rabbet joints c. Dado joints
d. Tenon joints

126. Identify this type of wood joints

A.butt joints b. Rabbet joints c. Lap joints
d. Miter joints

127. Identify this type of wood joints.

A.butt joints b. Rabbet joints c. Lap joints
d. Miter joints

128. Identify this type of wood joints.

A.butt joints b. Rabbet joints c. Lap joints
d. Miter joints
129. Identify this type of wood joints.
A.butt joints b. Rabbet joints c. Lap joints
d. Dado joints

130. Identify this type of wood joints.

A.butt joints b. Mortise and tenon joints c. Lap
joints d. Dado joints

131. Identify this type of wood joints

A.butt joints b. Mortise and tenon joints c. Dowel
joints d. Dado joints

132. Identify this type of wood joints.

A.butt joints b. Mortise and tenon joints c. Dovetail
joints d. Dado joints
133. What will absorb more heat
a. Light brick b. Dark brick c. Clay Brick d. Yellow Brick
134. To avoid chalking of paint what should be done
a. Apply new paint b. Do not paint when humid c. Buy new roller d. Apply
sanding sealer
135. Area to avoid Flat Paint
a. Rough Surface b. Crowded and busy kitchen c. Wood d. Ceiling
136. Used for cutting curves on thin plywood
a. Jigsaw b. Router c. Lathe machine d. Circular saw
137. Used to cut wooden baluster to its own shaped
a. Jigsaw b. Router c. Circular Saw d. Hand Saw
138. Best finish for high quality narra door
a. Varnish b. Lacquer c. Polyurethane d. Shellac
139. Used as a filler in flush door and metal door
a. Sealant b. Epoxy c. Honeycomb d. Styropore
140. What happens when you break laminated glass
a. It will break into smaller harmless particles
b. It will break break but not splinter into room
c. It will not break
d. It will break and cause damage to the people
141. What will happen when you break tempered glass
a. It will break into smaller harmless particles
b. It will break break but not splinter into room
c. It will not break
d. It will break and cause damage to the people
142. Type of glass used for display windows
a. Clear Glass
b. Tempered Glass
c. Laminated Glass
d. Tintedt Glass

143. What is the advantage of polybutylene over pvc pipes

a. Color b. Flexible c. Small diameter d. Cheap
144. Which among the following is the most rigid for door frame
a. Rabetted b. Tenon and mortise c. Canto mesa d. Overlapping frame
145. For a structure near the sea what is the best type of roofing
a. Asphalt roofing b. Concrete c. Galvanized iron roofing c. Cement
board
146. When a surface is uneven and cannot be totally flattened what is
the best paint finish to use to hide the uneven surface
a. Flat paint b. Glossy Paint c. Semi glossy paint d. Egshell
147. Which flooring is best for heavy traffic area.
a. Vitrified tiles b. Porcelain tiles c. Vinyl tiles d. Plane concrete
148. Ceramic tiles of varying shapes for finishing an angles
a. Trimmer b. Edging c. Tile Trim d. Finishing angle
149. What is a common profile of a tile trim
a. Flat b.square c. Quarter round d. Half round
150. It is a web found in a structural member
a. Rafter b. Roof Truss c. Purlins d. Batten

151. It is the middle part of a wide flange

a. Wing b. Web c. Side flange d. Floor flange
152. It is also known as elastic limit
a. Deformation b. Elongation c. Buckling d. Cracking
153. What component of steel dictates its ductility
a. Phosphorous b. Carbon c. Sulfur d. All of the above
154. What is used in a hospital door
a. Gravity hinge b. Vertical spring hinge c. Double action hinge d.
Pivot hinge
155. A type of bolt which can be accessed at one side only
a. Deadbolt b. Flush bolt c. Barrel bolt d. Lockset
156. In a heavy panel door what is the appropriate to use so that the
door will automatically close without pushing or pulling
a. Gravity door b. Door closer c. Key operated lock d. Automated door
controller
157. Which is not a hardware that supports a door
a. Pivot hinge b. Jamb c. Floor flange d. Lockset
158. A type of lighting where 90-100% of light output is directed to
ceiling or upper walls
a. Specific lighting b. Indirect lighting c. Accent lighting d. Gen.
Lighting
159. Lighting that provides illumination to special object like
sculptor
a. Specific lighting b. Indirect lighting c. Accent lighting d. Gen.
Lighting
160. Lighting used primarily to draw attention to particular points of
interest
a. Specific lighting b. Indirect lighting c. Accent lighting d. Gen
lighting
161. Identify the type of screw below
a. Tap screw b. Telkscrew c. Wing screw d. Fly screw

162. Identify the types of bolt below

a. Expansion bolt b. Hexagonal bolt c. Regular bolt d. Twisted bolt

163. Has the ability to advance when turned, while creating its own
thread. This ability is created sometimes by having a gap in the
continuity of the thread on the screw. These edges can cut their own
threads as the screw is driven in to the material. They function by
having a cutting edge which drills away the material, making a tiny hole
for the screw to go into.
a. Tap screw b. Telkscrew c. Advance screw d. Self drilling screw
164. Identify each screw

165. Hinges function to carry a double-swing door through its full

range of motion and then act to close the door using internal springs
under tension. These hinges can be adjusted for various closing tensions
and are easy to install on a prehung or premortised door.
a. Butt hinge b.butterfly hinge c. Double action hinge d. Single
action hinge

166. A hinge that closes automatically as a result of the weight of a

door to which it is attached.
a. Butt hinge b. Butterfly hinge c. Gravity hinge d. Double action
hinge

167. Identify the types of bolt below

a. Barrel bolt b. Dead bolt c. Flush bolt d. Closed bolt
168. Identify the type hinge below.
a. Flash hinge b. Rotating hinge c. Pivot hinge d. Aluminum hinge

169. Identify the types of door below

a. Rotating door b. Circular door c. Revolving door d. Spin door

170. Automatic Swing Door Operator is intelligent equipment made from

data control technology, enjoys excellent capability and strong
function.
a. Automatic door closer b. Automated door controller c. Automatic door
closer d. Computer control door

171. Usually a round or square plate which surrounds a keyhole in your

door providing a neat finish. For locking doors with door handles on a
rose or door knobs.
a. Strikes b. Door plates c. Escutcheon d. Scutcheon

172. Identify this types of lockset

a. Cylindrical lockset b. Mortise lockset d.square lockset solid
lockset
173. A mechanical device that closes a door, in general after someone
opens it, or after it was automatically opened.
a. Automated door closer b. Door closer c. Door spring type d.
Automatic door closer

174. Identify this type of hardware used in door.

a. Strikes b. Escutcheon c. Flat plate d. Flush bolt

175. Comes in a range of sizes from 13mm to 150mm and is normally used
for cabinet doors. They are very strong but cannot be adjusted once they
are fitted.
a. Butterfly hinge b. Butt hinge c. Flap hinge d. Common hinge

176. This comes in two parts. The threaded part of the hinge is screwed
into a pre-drilled hole. They are easy to fit and the hinge can be
dismantled.
a. Butt hinge b. Bolt hinge c. Barrel hinge d. Flush hinge

177. A lightweight hinge which has the advantage over a butt hinge that
it fixed directly on to the surface without the need to cut recess.
a. Bolt hinge b.flush hinge c. Flash hinge d. Lightweight hinge
178. A problem of painted masonry construction, is identifiable by
crusty white salt deposits that bubble through the paint film from a
masonry structure. Salts in the brick or concrete become dissolved with
water and then leach to the surface as the water evaporates.
a. Peeling b. Chalking c. Efflorescence d.blistering

179. Is identifiable as a fine powder that forms on the surface of a

paint film. Although some is a normal way paints self clean when exposed
to the sun and rain, excessive can be a paint failure. In dry arid
climates where there is little rain, chalking can become excessive. Is
actually the paint pigment released by the paint binders which have been
broken down by exposure to the weather. Is especially typical of very
light colored flat paints, especially lesser quality oil based paints
containing high levels of pigment extenders. When gets severe it may run
off onto and stain surrounding construction as in the above photo
a. Chalking b. Efflorescence c. Peeling d. Blistering

180. Paint is a very common paint problem but can be caused either by
moisture or poor adhesion. Due to poor adhesion is characterized by the
paint and separating from an earlier paint layer or from the substrate
leaving some paint behind. Sometimes portions of earlier paint layers
are visible under the curling,paint layer.
a. Blistering b. Chalking c. Peeling d. Cracking
181. Paint is identified by small to medium sized bubbles blunder the
paint film and is most common on wood siding and trim.
a. Peeling b. Blistering c. Chalking d. Efflorescence

182. Is a fungus feeding and growing on the paint film or caulk and is
identifiable by its grey, brown, green or dark black "splotchy" spots.
a. Peeling b. Mildew c. Dustdew d. Fading

183. Is a failure in the paint film where it takes on a cracking

pattern of deep relief resembling a reptile's skin, such as that of an
alligator. "Checking" is a similar failure but is less severe and is
characterized by long, fairly evenly spaced cracks in the paint film
having shallow relief or depth. Occasionally checking may become severe
in some areas and a deeper crack or split in the paint will occur.
a. Cracking defect b. Alligatoring c. Fading effect d. Fish plate
effect

184. This paint failure is easily identified as a dripping or drooping

look to areas of the paint film.
a. Blistering b. Peeling c. Sagging or running d. Melting
 185. Is the most expensive binder used in latex paints because it is
particularly flexible and durable. This makes it especially suitable for
painting exterior surfaces such as wood, vinyl and metal. Most paints
are a blend of vinyl and acrylic. Because exteriors are subjected to
more expansion and contraction due to changes in temperature and
humidity, flexibility is an important criterion. Look for paint labeled

a. Flat paint b. Acrylic latex paint c. Enamel paint d. Lacquer

paint

186. This a paint that air dries to a hard, usually glossy, finish. In
reality, most commercially-available paints are significantly softer
than either vitreous or stoved synthetic resins.
Some of this paints have been made by adding varnish to oil-based paint.

a. Acrylic latex paint b. Enamel paint c. Flat paint d. Lacquer paint

187. Is a clear or coloured varnish that dries by solvent evaporation

and often a curing process as well that produces a hard, durable finish,
in any sheen level from ultra matte to high gloss and that can be
further polished as required.

a. Acrylic latex paint b. Flat paint c. Varnish d. Lacquer

188. Its pure form it's a natural resin secreted from a bug that feeds
on trees, mostly in India and Thailand. The secretions, in the form of
cocoons, are gathered and eventually refined into dry flakes, which are
then dissolved in denatured (ethyl) alcohol to make the solution that
winds up in cans at the store.

a. Shellac b. Varnish c. Polyurethane d. Lacquer

189. Is a preparatory coating put on materials before painting.

Ensures better adhesion of paint to the surface, increases paint
durability, and provides additional protection for the material being
painted.
a. Adhesion paint b. Primer c. Sealer d. Lacquer

190. Is paint which dries to a minimally reflective finish. It may

also be referred to as matte paint. There are both advantages and
disadvantages to using this paintis much harder to clean than glossier
paints, which is why people often recommend that it is used on locations
like ceilings, which do not usually attract stains.this paint definitely
needs to be avoided in high traffic areas like kitchens, where the paint
will sop up grease, dust, and dirt and look very unsightly.
a. Eggshell paint b. Flat paint c. Semiglossy paint d.glossy paint

191. Choose this paint for kitchens, bathrooms, hallways and children's
bedrooms. It is also useful for cabinets and woodwork. This paint dries
to a harder, slicker finish than eggshell or satin paint, making it very
stain-and wear-resistant. It is also very durable and washable. However,
keep in mind that this paint highlights surface imperfections, so make
sure your wall is well-prepped before you use it.

a. Semigloss paint b. Flat paint c. Eggshell paint d. Satin finish

paint

192. Choose this paint for cabinets, woodwork and furniture. This paint
is the most stain-resistant, durable and washable paint of all, but it
also magnifies surface imperfections and can be cold and uninviting.

a. Semigloss paint b. High-gloss paint c. Flat paint d. Satin finish

paint

193. Which is not use of a coco lumber

 a. Door jamb b. Scaffolding c. Formworks d. Furniture

194. What type of window where most air can pass

a. Awning b. Jalousie c. Casement d. Sliding

195. Used for bonding ceramic tiles on walls and floors.

A. Contact cement b. Tile adhesive c. Grout d. Lead

196. Identify the boardfoot of 2”x2”x10’(150)

A. 5000 b.6000 c. 500 d. 600

197. Estimate the number of CHB reqts for the fence with the length of
20m and height of 3m the size of CHB is 10x20x40
A. 700 pcs. B. 750 pcs. C. 800pcs. D. 850pcs.

198. A concrete pavement has a gen. Dimensions of 4”thk x 3m wide and

5m long consediring the slab to be resting on ground fill determine the
number of cement sand and gravel using class C mixture.
A. C=10 bags S=.65 cu.m G= 1cu.m b. C=9 S= 1 G= 2 c. C=9 S=.75
G= 1.50cu.m

199. Vernacular terms of purlis

A. Kilo b. Reostra c. Tahilan d. Sopo

80. Vernacular terms of rafter

A. Kilo b. Reostra c. Sopo d. Rodapis

200. Vernacular term of bottom chord

A. Estunyo b. Sopo c. Tahilan d. Rodapis

201. Vernacular term of top chord

A. Estunyo b. Tahilan c. Rodapis d. Sopo

202. Vernacular term of Eaves

A. Sopo b. Tahilan c. Estunyo d. Rodapis

203. Vernacular term of baseboard

A. Sopo b. Soleras c. Rodapis d. Soleras

204. Vernacular term of rough plastering

A. Asintada b. Rebokada c. Kusturada soleras

205. Common stainless steel finish

A. Hairline finish b. Flash finish c. Mirror finish d. Refelective

finish

206. Window that is easiest to clean

A. Awning b. Sliding c. Casement d. Louvered

207. Why is the frame of sliding window limited to 1.6m

A. Glass will break b. Frame will bend c. For aesthetic purposes d.

Not available frame
208. Common thickness of plywood used for formworks.

A. ½” b. 3/8” c. 5/8” d. ¾”

209. Class A conc. Mix

A. 1-2-4 b. 1-2-3 c. 1-2-1 d. 1-1-4

210. Class C mixture

A. 1-2-4 b. 1-3-6 c. 1-4-6 d. 1-4-5

211. Class AA mixture

A. 1-1-4 b. 1-1.5-3 c. 1-1.5-2 d.1-2-3