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Question Booklet Series X
PAPER–II Question Booklet No.
Subject Code : 10 (Identical with OMR
Answer Sheet Number)
POLITICAL SCIENCE
Time : 2 Hours Maximum Marks: 200
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3. This paper consists of One hundred (100) multiple-choice type questions. All the questions are compulsory. Each
question carries two marks.
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15786 [ Please Turn Over ]
X–3 10–II
POLITICAL SCIENCE
PAPER II
1. The Institution of Lokayukta was created for the 6. The Constituent Assembly of India came into
first time by which state? existence as a result of the recommendation of
(A) Punjab (A) Simon Commission
(B) Bihar (B) Montague-Chelmsford Reforms
(C) Orissa (C) Cabinet Mission Plan
(D) Maharashtra (D) Morley-Minto Reforms
2. Constitutional safeguards to Civil Servants in
India are ensured by
7. What was the procedure followed for adoption of
(A) Article 310
the Constitution of India?
(B) Aricle 312
(A) It was submitted to the people of India for
(C) Article 311
ratification.
(D) Article 315
(B) It was submitted to the Governor General for
his assent.
3. Which President of India declined to accept the (C) It was adopted when the interim Government
advice of the Cabinet relating to the imposition of approved it.
emergency in U.P. in 1997? (D) It was adopted when it received the signature
(A) Shankar Dayal Sharma of the Chairman and Members of the
Constituent Assembly.
(B) K. R. Narayan
(C) Zail Singh
(D) A. P. J. Abdul Kalam 8. The Directive Principles have been taken from the
Constitution of which of these countries?
4. Consider the following movements and choose (A) Ireland
the correct option which puts them in chronological (B) Britain
order: (C) Canada
(i) Swadeshi Movement (D) America
(ii) Civil Disobedience Movement
(iii) Quit India Movement
(iv) Home Rule Movement
9. Which of the following is not specifically
(a) (b) (c) (d) mentioned in Article 19 of the Indian Constitution?
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (A) Freedom of Press
(B) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (B) Freedom of Movement
(C) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii) (C) Freedom of Speech and Expression
(D) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii) (D) Freedom of Peaceful Assembly
5. Which of the following is a feature of the
Government of India Act (1935)? 10. The ‘Basic Structure’ doctrine, as propounded by
(A) Introduction of dyarchy in the provinces Supreme Court Judges, limits the amending power of
(B) Introduction of dyarchy at the centre (A) President
(C) Introduction of Imperial Legislative Council (B) Prime Minister
(D) Abolition of separate electorates for Muslims (C) Parliament
and other minorities (D) Judiciary
10–II X–4
11. Which Amendment of the Indian Constitution puts 14. Match the leaders (List-I) with associated
restrictions on the number of Ministers in Government? movements (List-II) by identifying the correct code:
(A) 86th Amendment List-I List-II
(B) 74th Amendment (a) Aruna Roy (i) India against
(C) 44th Amendment Corruption
(D) 91st Amendment (b) Mahendra Singh (ii) Narmoda Bachao
Tikait Andolan
(c) Anna Hazare (iii) Right to Information
Movement
(d) Medha Patekar (iv) Bharatiya Kishan
12. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Union
Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R): Codes:
Assertion (A) : Judicial Review is a process to (a) (b) (c) (d)
restrain the executive or the (A) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
legislature from exercising power (B) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
which may not be sanctioned by (C) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
the Constitution. (D) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
Reason (R) : The source of the power of
judicial review in India is
Article 13(2) of the Constitution.
In the context of the above two statements which 15. ‘Towards Equality’ Report (1974-75) dealt with
one of the following is correct? the questions of
(A) Caste
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A). (B) Women
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a (C) Class
correct explanation of (A). (D) Ecology
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
16. Who characterized Indian Union as ‘federation
with a centralizing tendency’?
(A) B. R. Ambedkar
13. The 73rd amendment of the Indian Constitution (B) K.C. Wheare
provided for which of the following? Choose the correct
(C) Granville Austin
answer using the codes given below:
(D) Ivor Jennings
(i) Reservation for Women
(ii) Constitution of State Finance Commission
(iii) Audit of the Accounts of Panchayati Raj
Institutions
(iv) Committees for District Planning and
17. Under which section of the Representation of the
Metropolitan Planning
People’s Act does the Election Commission issue the
Codes: symbol’s order?
(A) (i), (ii) and (iv) (A) Section 100
(B) (i), (iii) and (iv) (B) Section 169
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii) (C) Section 172
(D) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (D) Section 180
X–5 10–II
18. Who among the following scholars have published 22. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct
works on the role of Civil Society in India’s Politics? answer using the codes given below:
(A) Sudipta Kaviraj List-I List-II
(B) Neera Chandhoke (Name of the Party) (Name of the Trade union)
(C) Rajni Kothari (a) Bharatiya Janata Party (i) INTUC
(D) All of them (b) Indian National (ii) BMS
Congress
(c) Communist Party of (iii) AITUC
India (Marxist)
(d) Communist Party of (iv) CITU
India
Codes:
19. The main argument made by Rajni Kothari in his
(a) (b) (c) (d)
book ‘Caste in Indian Politics’ is that —
(A) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(A) Caste organizations helped in advancing
democratic politics through interest (B) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
aggregation. (C) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(B) Caste organizations hindered the (D) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
advancement of democratic politics.
(C) Caste and politics did not have substantive
interactions except during elections.
(D) The traditional institution of caste has no
place in modern democratic politics. 23. The author of the book Democracy and Discontent:
India’s Growing Crisis of Governability is
(A) Ashutosh Varchney
(B) Atul Kohli
(C) Partha Chatterjee
(D) Rob Jenkins
20. Who among the following emphasized the
emergence of a ‘market polity’ in India?
(A) Stanley A. Kochanek
(B) Morris Jones
24. The concept of anomie was coined by
(C) Paul Brass
(A) Durkheim
(D) James Mauor
(B) Tocqueville
(C) Weber
(D) Mosca
21. Who among the following is considered to be
proponent of structural functional approach in 25. In which writing did Max Weber present ‘types of
authority’?
Comparative Politics?
(A) The Protestant Ethic and the Spirit of
(A) Gabriel Almond Capitalism
(B) Lucian Pye (B) Politics as a Vocation
(C) Sydney Verba (C) Science as a Vocation
(D) David Easton (D) Sociology of Religion
10–II X–6
26. The distinction between traditional and modern 31. Liberal pluralist view of Constitution does not
societies were derived from which sociologists? believe in the following:
(A) Talcott Parson (A) Authoritative allocation of policies and
(B) Adam Smith decisions
(C) John Locke (B) Capability of society to articulate their
(D) Karl Marx interests
(C) Uniformity of interests in society
(D) None of the above
27. Who among the following used the Machiavellian
analogy of Lion and Fox?
(A) Max Weber
(B) Durkheim 32. The term ‘new politics’ associated with New
(C) Pareto Social Movements means the following:
(D) Comte (A) New style of activism
(B) New political regimes
(C) New leadership
(D) New non-state actors
28. Who advanced the idea of ‘World Systems Theory’
signifying the arrival of international capitalist order in
the 1970’s?
(A) Andre Gunder Frank
(B) Samuel P. Huntington
33. Neo-Marxists view economic globalisation as
(C) Cardoso
(A) Equalitarian process
(D) Immanuel Wallerstein
(B) Development process
(C) Hierarchical process
(D) None of the above
29. Robert Putnam’s work on ‘Social Capital’
associated with political culture is with reference to
which country?
(A) Germany
34. The concept ‘institution’ was replaced with the
(B) Netherlands
following by Gabriel Almond:
(C) Italy
(A) System
(D) England
(B) Structure
(C) Functions
(D) State
30. At the end of Cold War, Francis Fukuyama
constructed the thesis ‘end of history’ which meant the
following:
(A) The world would no longer be unfolding
events. 35. Which one of the following books was authored by
(B) The tension and conflict would cease to David Easton?
exist at global level. (A) A System Analysis of Political Life
(C) Ideological struggle had come to an end. (B) The Politics of the Developing Areas
(D) Ideological struggles would be waged with (C) Modern Political Analysis
a new vigour. (D) The Nerves of Government
X–7 10–II
36. Who said that Revolution meant a drastic sudden 41. The term ‘filibuster’ means
substitution of one group in charge of the running of a (A) an action of brief speaking to facilitate the
territorial political entity by another? legislative process.
(A) Mao-Tse-Tung (B) an action of disturbance in the ‘well’ of the
(B) Hanna Arendt assembly.
(C) an action such as prolonged speaking for
(C) Crane Brinton
obstructing progress in a legislative assembly.
(D) Hubert Johnson
(D) None of the above
37. Hegel viewed civil society as an embodiment of
the following:
42. Which one of the following identified bases of
(A) Patriarchy
departmental organisation in terms of 4P Formula:
(B) Unity Purpose, Process, Persons and Place?
(C) Universality (A) Henry Fayol
(D) Community (B) Luther Gulick
(C) Robert Michels
(D) Max Weber
38. The study of Comparative Politics till the end of
Cold War was the following:
(A) analytical
(B) behavioural 43. Marx, in his thoughts on bureaucracy, refuted
(C) normative (A) Spinoza
(D) descriptive (B) Nietzsche
(C) Hegel
(D) Mosca
39. According to Samuel Huntington, ‘Political Decay’
takes place when
(A) mass mobilization plus participation is
greater than institutionalization. 44. Which one of the following was not emphasised
(B) mass mobilization and participation are lesser under New Public Management?
than institutionalization. (A) Management
(C) institutions become too complex. (B) Policy
(D) institutions survive for too long. (C) Performance appraisal
(D) Efficiency
40. Who among the following defined Political Culture
as composed of attitudes, beliefs, emotions and values of
society that relate to the political system and political 45. Herbert Simon identified which model(s) of
issues? decision making?
(A) Lucian Pye (A) Non-programmed decision making
(B) Allan R. Ball (B) Pure-rationality optimal decision making
(C) Robert Dahl (C) Satisfying decision making
(D) David Easton (D) All of the above
10–II X–8
46. Who among the following remarked that “The 51. On which date Swachh Bharat Abhiyan was
essence of public administration is policy making”? lunched?
(A) Paul Appleby (A) 2nd October, 2014
(B) David Easton (B) 15th August, 2016
(C) Herbert Simon (C) 26th January, 2015
(D) Marshall Dimock (D) 14th April, 2018
52. Match List-I (Theorists) with List-II (Ideas) and
select the correct answer using the codes given below the
lists:
47. Which one of the following is regarded as a bridge List-I List-II
between Scientific Management era and Social Man era? (a) John Stuart Mill (i) Alienation
(A) Henry Fayol (b) Karl Marx (ii) Positive and Negative
(B) F. W. Taylor Liberty
(C) Mary Parker Follett (c) I. Berlin (iii) Equality for Women
(D) Chester Irving Barnard (d) John Locke (iv) Toleration
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(B) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(C) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
48. The responsibility of conducting free and fair (D) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
elections to the Panchayati Raj institutions is vested with
(A) Election Commission of India
(B) State Election Commission 53. The idea of development administration as
(C) Chief Secretary of the State consisting of 4Ps : Plans, Policies, Programme and
(D) Ministry of Panchayati Raj Projects was proposed by
(A) George Gant
(B) Donald C. Stone
(C) Merle Fainsod
(D) U. L. Goswami
49. Atmiya Sabha was established in 1828 by
(A) Raja Radhakanta Deb 54. The author(s) of the book In Pursuit of Lakshmi :
(B) Raja Rammohun Roy Political Economy of Indian State is/are
(C) Akshay Kumar Dutta (A) Rudolph and Rudolph
(D) H. L. V. Derozio (B) Francine Frankel
(C) Pranab Bardhan
(D) Rob Jenkins
55. Which one of the following made a distinction
50. Sagar Mala project is related to between ‘Traditional’ and ‘Organic’ intellectuals?
(A) Modernisation of ports (A) Karl Mannheim
(B) Oil extraction (B) Theodore Adorns
(C) Sea-route development (C) Antonio Gramsci
(D) None of the above (D) Herbert Marcuse
X–9 10–II
56. Which one of the following does not make a 60. The term ‘soft power’ was coined by
distinction between public and private administration? (A) Hans J. Morgenthan
(A) Henry Fayol (B) Joseph S. Nye
(B) Paul H. Appleby (C) Kenneth Waltz
(C) Herbert Simon (D) Alexander Wendt
(D) Peter Drucker
57. Match the lists of Communitarian authors with 61. Hans Morgenthau’s Principles of Political
their books and select correct answer from the codes Realisms: A Feminist Reformulation is a work by
given below: (A) Saskia Sassen
Authors Books (B) Naomi Klein
(a) Charles Taylor (i) After Virtue (C) Cynthea Enloe
(b) Alasdair MacIntyre (ii) Spheres of Justice (D) J. Ann Tickner
(c) Michael Sandel (iii) Sources of the self
(d) Michael Waltzer (iv) Liberalism and the
Limits of Justice
Codes: 62. Resolution 1267 of the UNSC is related to
(a) (b) (c) (d) (A) international terrorism
(A) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) (B) cyber security
(B) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (C) maritime security
(C) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) (D) humanitarian intervention
(D) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
58. Which one of the following is closely associated 63. Globalization is antithetical to
with neo-functionalisms? (A) interdependence
(A) Anarchy (B) integration
(B) Hegemony (C) connectivity
(C) Spillover (D) geopolitics
(D) Intervention
59. Match the books with respective authors: 64. The Containment Thesis was propounded by
BOOKS AUTHORS (A) Henry Kissinger
(a) Poverty and Famine (i) Jeffrey Sachs (B) George Kenar
(b) Poor Economics (ii) Jagadish Bhagwati (C) Lloyd George
(c) The End of Poverty (iii) Amartya Sen (D) None of them
(d) In Defence of (iv) Abhijit V. Banerjee
Globalizations
Codes:
65. ‘Chennai Connect’ is related to informal summit
(a) (b) (c) (d) between India and
(A) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (A) Sri Lanka
(B) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) (B) Mauritius
(C) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (C) Maldives
(D) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (D) China
10–II X–10
66. Which of the following is not a part of India’s 71. What is Gujral Doctrine?
nuclear doctrine? (A) Giving one-sided concession to India’s small
(A) No first use neighbours
(B) Credible Minimum Deterrence (B) Confronting India’s neighbours with force
(C) Negative Security Assurance (C) Using coercive diplomacy against India’s
(D) Tactical Nuclear Weapons neighbours
(D) None of the above
67. Which of the following is not an element of
‘Pancha Sheela’?
72. The Rohingya refugees from Myanmar mainly
(A) Peaceful Coexistence hail from the
(B) Mutual Non-aggression (A) Kachin state
(C) Mutual Non-interference (B) Shan state
(D) Responsibility to protect (C) Sagain state
(D) Rakhine state
68. India became a member of the United Nations in
(A) 1945
(B) 1947 73. ‘Project Mausam’ aims at
(C) 1950 (A) developing reliable weather forecasts.
(D) 1951 (B) restoring ancient maritime routes and cultural
links.
(C) developing agriculture based on Monsoon
predictions.
(D) improving irrigations in arid lands.
69. Which of the following is not correct?
(A) ICJ is the UN’s principal judicial organ.
(B) All UN members are parties to ICJ statute.
(C) ICJ is the only principal organ of the UN not
based in New York City. 74. India’s maritime security policy is aimed at which
(D) ICJ deals with disputes between sovereign of the following objectives?
states and international disputes between (i) Protecting India’s sea-borne trade and
private parties. commerce.
(ii) Monitoring the activities of external powers
in the Indian Ocean region.
(iii) Protecting the Indian fishermen from foreign
security forces.
70. Quadrilateral Security Dialogue (QSD) is a (iv) Resolving transboundary river disputes with
strategic dialogue between India and Bangladesh and Pakistan.
(A) US (A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) Japan (B) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(C) Australia (C) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) All of the above (D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
X–11 10–II
75. Doklam Plateau is a disputed land between 80. Which of the following book(s) was/were written
(A) India and China by Frantz Fanon?
(B) China and Bhutan (A) Black Skin White Masks
(C) India and Bhutan (B) A Dying Colonialism
(D) Nepal and China (C) Toward the African Revolution
(D) All of the above
76. Which is the nodal agency to secure India’s critical
information infrastructure and enhance its cyber security? 81. By Satyagraha, Gandhi meant
(A) National Cyber Security Agency (A) truth by force.
(B) National Critical Information Infrastructure (B) truth as strategy.
Protection Centre (C) holding firmly to truth.
(C) Indian Institute for Critical Information and (D) giving sermons on truth.
Cyber Protection
(D) Internet Governance Forum
82. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India
submits his report relating to the accounts of the Union
77. What is the full form of Gandhi’s Hind Swaraj? Government to
(A) Hind Sawraj or Indian Home Rule (A) The Prime Minister
(B) Hind Sawraj or Indian Independence (B) The President
(C) Hind Sawraj or Indian Satyagraha (C) The Lok Sabha Speaker
(D) Hind Sawraj or Indian Sarvodaya (D) The Chief Justice of India
78. Who has introduced the idea of ‘dictatorship of 83. Tagore’s Nationalism is based on his lecture-tour
four classes’? in
(A) J. Stalin (A) Japan and UK
(B) A. Gramsci (B) Japan and USA
(C) Mao-Ze-Dong (C) USA and China
(D) None of them (D) China and Italy
79. Which one of the following books was not written 84. Aristotle’s Nichomachaen Ethics primarily
by Karl Marx? explores
(A) Dialectics of Nature (A) Human happiness
(B) German Ideology (B) Theoretical wisdom
(C) The Holy Family (C) Practical wisdom
(D) Civil War in France (D) Political constitutions
10–II X–12
85. Who among the following considered Hobbes a 90. Nehru wrote Whither India? in support of
spokesman of bourgeois morality? (A) Nationalism
(A) George Sabine (B) Capitalism
(B) C. B. Macpherson (C) Socialism
(C) W. Dunning (D) Democracy
(D) Bertrand Russel
86. St. Augustine’s chief political views find 91. Identify the odd pair from the below:
expression in his concept of (A) Marx and Engels
(A) Two Cities (B) Sandel and Taylor
(B) Faith (C) Sen and Nozick
(C) Role of Reason (D) Gandhi and Jayaprakash
(D) Commonwealth
92. Who among the following Sultans, tried to curb
87. Which of the following books was not written by the powers of Amirs and Ulemas?
M. N. Roy? (A) Qutubuddin Aibak
(A) India in Transition (B) Iltutmish
(B) The Future of Indian Politics (C) Md. Bin Tughlaq
(C) Reason, Romanticism and Revolution (D) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
(D) The Human Cycle
93. Which of the following books was written by
88. Theorists who believe that ‘state is an association Machiavelli?
of associations’ are best described as (A) Emile
(A) Socialists (B) History of Florence
(B) Federalists (C) Areopagitica
(C) Anarchists (D) Six Books on the Republic
(D) Pluralists
94. In which chapter of Mahabharata are the duties of
89. By the ‘Modern Prince’ Gramsci meant the king enunciated?
(A) The new king (A) Virat Parva
(B) The party (B) Shanti Parva
(C) The bourgeoisie (C) Sabha Parva
(D) None of the above (D) Udyog Parva
X–13 10–II
95. Who wrote City of God? 98. Who gave the concept of ‘graded inequality’?
(A) St. Aquinas (A) Gandhi
(B) St. Augustine (B) Nehru
(C) Marsillo of Padma (C) B. R. Ambedkar
(D) None of them (D) M. N. Roy
99. Rawls arranges the principles of justice in ‘lexical
priority’ in this order:
96. The monthly magazine Rashtra Dharma was
(A) Fair Equality of Opportunity, the Difference
started by
Principle and Liberty Principle
(A) K. B. Hedgewar (B) Liberty Principle, Fair Equality of
(B) Deendayal Upadhyaya Opportunity and the Difference Principle
(C) Syama Prasad Mukherjee (C) Difference Principle, Fair Equality of
Opportunity and Liberty Principle
(D) None of them
(D) None of the above
100. Who among the following mooted the idea that
97. “It is better to be . . . Socrates dissatisfied than a India was a ‘soft state’ and was ill-equipped to carry out
fool satisfied”. — Who said this? its promises?
(A) Bentham (A) Samir Amin
(B) James Mill (B) Gunnar Myrdal
(C) J. S. Mill (C) Andre Gurder Frank
(D) None of them (D) Edward Said
10–II X–14
ROUGH WORK
X–15 10–II
ROUGH WORK
10–II X–16
ROUGH WORK