FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

NEET mock test based on

2017 paper 5. Best age for introduction of face mask is

A. 7 years

B. 10 years
NEET mock test
C. 12 years

D. 14 years

Questions
6. Initial activation of pendulum appliance
1. Condition characterized by congenital generate a force of
unilateral ptosis, with rapid elevation of the
ptotic eyelid occurings on movement of the A. 100 gm force per side
mandible to contralateral side is
B. 150 gm force per side
A. Sympathetic ophthalmoplegia
C. 250 gm force per side
B. Carotid artery syndrome
D. 500 gm force per side
C. Marcus gunn jaw – winking syndrome

D. Eagles syndrome
7. The first macroscopic indication of
morphological development of primary incisors
occurs at
2. Apple jelly nodules are a common finding in
A. 11 weeks in utero
A. Cervical TB
B. 14 weeks in utero
B. Cutaneous TB
C. 16 weeks in utero
C. Primary Syphilis
D. 6 weeks in utero
D. Behcets syndrome

8. Universally used method of behavior

3. Lab findings of osteopetrosis includes all management in pediatric dentistry for both
except cooperative and non cooperative patient is
A. Myelopthisic anaemia A. Voice control
B. Secondary hyperparathyroidism B. Behaviour shaping
C. Hypercalcemia C. Imploson therapy
D. Hypocalcemia D. communication

4. Softest and most ductile ELGILOY wires 9. Predeciduos dentition is otherwise termed
used when extensive wire bending and as
soldering is desired is
A. Dentitis fable
A. Blue
B. Dentits precox
B. Yellow
C. Dentitis difficilis
C. Green
D. Dentitis tarda
D. Red
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

15. Lactogenesis is controlled by

10. Most recommended brushing technique in A. Oxytocin

patients with gingival recession is
B. Estrogen
A. Sulcular method
C. Prolactin
B. Charters method
D. Progesterone
C. Stillmans method

D. Roll method
16. Defective enzyme associated with
POMPES DISEASE is / are

11. The current standard treatment of A. Glucose 6 phosphatase

periodontitis by debridement and oral hygiene
measures still focus on B. ?- 1, 4-glucosidase

A. Specific plaque hypothesis C. Amylo-1, 6-glucosidae

B. Non specific plaque hypothesis D. Both a and b

C. Ecological plaque hypothesis

D. All of the above 17. Triads of symptoms ophthalmoplegia,

confusion and ataxia are associated with

A. Korsakoffs psychosis
12. Pulse oximetry levels in normal blood
oxygen saturation is B. Wernickes encephalopathy

A. 65 % to 75 % C. Ariboflavinosis

B. 75 % to 85 % D. Xerophthalmia

C. 85 % to 95 %

D. 95 % to 100 % 18. Minimum distance from inferior alveolar

canal while placing an implant adjacent to it

A. 2mm from superior aspect of bony canal

13. Buffer is a salt of
B. 2mm from inferior aspect of bony canal
A. Weak acid and strong base
C. 4mm from superior aspect of bony canal
B. Strong acid and weak base
D. 4mm from inferior aspect of bony canal
C. Weak acid and weeak base

D. Strong acid and strong base

19. Order III status of ridge resorption after
tooth extraction according to atwood is

14. Non- shivering mechanism is normally A. Post extraction

seen in
B. High well rounded
A. Adults
C. Knife edge
B. Anaemic patients
D. Low well rounded
C. Newborn babies

D. Adolscents
20. According to Berrys Biometric Index width
of maxillary central incisor
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

A. Bizygomatic width/ 8

B. Bizygomatic width/ 16

C. Length of face / 16

D. Length of face/ 8

21. Colour of KORRECTA Wax No. 4 is

A. White

B. Orange

C. Yellow-white

D. Green A. 30 degree

B. 45 degree

22. What is the possible diagnosis for the C. 90 degree

lesion shown in the OPG D. 120 degree

24. Appliance in the image is commonly used

for

A. DENTIGEROUS CYST

B. Amelobalstoma

C. Squamous cell carcinoma

D. Giant cell lesion A. Fracture Of edentulous mandible

B. Closed reduction of maxilla and mandible

23. The cutting edge of instrument shown in C. # of condylar neck

the figure is beveled at an angle of D. # anterior dentoalveolar region

25. Identify anomaly present in the diagram

FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

A. Phosphorous 32

B. Iodine 123

C. Sodium iodide 131

D. Technetium

28. Angle and body of mandible is best viewed

by

A. Lateral oblique 15 degree

B. Lateral oblique 30 degree

A. Fusion C. Lateral oblique 45 degree

B. Gemination D. Lateral oblique 60 degree

C. Dilaceration

D. Concresence 29. Standard film for adult IOPA and bitewing

in mixed dentition is

A. 22mm x 35mm
26. The figure shown below is
B. 24mm x 40mm

C. 31mm x 41mm

D. 27mm x 54mm

30. This instrument used for

A. Posselts Border Movement In Frontal

Plane

B. Posselts Border Movement In Saggital

Plane

C. Posselts Border Movement In Horizontall

Plane
A. Reduction of nasal bone fractures
D. Posselts Border Movement In
Mastication B. Reduction of nasal septum

C. Disimpaction of maxilla

27. The isotope used for the treatment of D. Extraction of primary root tip
polycythemia vera
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

31. The setting time of zinc phosphate may B. Rhomboid

retarded by
C. Oval
A. Increase in the ratio of powder to liquid
D. Rectangle
B. Diluting the liquid with water

C. Increase the addition of powder to liquid

37. Ulcer with rolled out everted margin:
D. Decrease the addition of powder to liquid
A. Tuberculous

B. Syphilitic
32. Trauma from occlusion leads to all except?
C. Traumatic
A. Tooth Mobility
D. Squamous cell carcinoma
B. Infrabony Pocket

C. Angular Bone Loss

38. Secretin is produced by:
D. Widening of Periodontal ligament
A. Pancreas

B. Stomach
33. Difference in alveolar crest level and
radiograph is : C. Small intestine

A. 0-2 D. Liver

B. 0-1.8

C. 0-1.6 39. Normal serum osmolarity

D. 1-1.5 A. 270-285 mOsm/L

B. 280-310 mOsm/L

34. Most common location of secondary C. 230-245 mOsm/L

metastasis to mandible : D. 350-370 mOsm/L
A. Angle and ramus

B. Symphysis and parasymphysis 40. 18/8 stainless steel contains :

C. Condyle A. 18% chromium, 8% nickel
D. Molar region B. 18% chromium, 8% cobalt

C. 18% nickel , 8% chromium

35. Positive nitrogen balance seen in: D. 18% chromium, 8% beryllium
A. Pregnancy

B. Kwashiorkar 41. Light bulb shaped skull is seen in :

C. Fever A. Crouzon syndrome
D. Marasmus B. Hemifacial microsomia

C. Treacher collins syndrome

36. Shape of indenter in knoop hardness test: D. Pierre Robin syndrome
A. Square
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

42. Radio therapy is not used in: 46. White lesion on lateral border of tongue in
HIV patient is most probably:
A. Paget disease
A. Cancrum oris
B. Spindle cell carcinoma
B. Lichen planus
C. Squamous cell carcinoma
C. Oral hairy luekoplakia
D. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
D. Candidiasis

43. Neonatal line is an accentuation of:

47. Mercaptan are a component of :
A. Striae of Retzius
A. Polyether
B. Hunter schreger bands
B. Poly sulphide
C. Perikymata
C. Addition silicon
D. Prominent DE junction
D. Condensation silicon

44. Identify the catheter

48. Active replication in Hepatitis B indicated
by:

A. HBeAg

B. HBsAg

C. HBcAg

D. Anti-HBsAg

49. Hypermobility of TMJ is not seen in:

A. Phenothiazines

B. Tardive dyskinesia

C. Anterior disk dislocation

A. Nasogastric tube
D. Marfan's syndrome
B. Foley catheter

C. LMA
50. Halita consists of;
D. Suction drain
A. 0.01% CPC, 0.01% chlorhexidine, 0.05%
Zinc lactate
45. Modification of Gracey curette with B. 0.05% CPC, 0.05% chlorhexidine, 0.14%
universal blade angle: Zinc lactate
A. Langer curette C. 0.2% Chlorhexidine, 0.5% CPC, 0.14%
Zinc lactate
B. Extended shank curette
D. 0.05% chlorhexidine, 0.14% Zinc lactate
C. Universal curette

D. Mini curette
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

51. Arteries supplying scalp in front of auricle D. The outline to have greater width than
are all except; length

A. Supratrochlear artery

B. supraorbital artery 56. The number of sites examined to assess

the stages of bone maturation in Fishman’s
C. superficial temporal artery skeletal maturation index are;
D. Auriculo-temporal artery A. 4

B. 5
52. A patient aged 7 years complaints of C. 6
severe toothache at night in relation to 75. The
mode of treatment probably will be; D. 7

A. Pulpotomy

B. Pulpectomy 57. Buttressing bone formation is a;

C. Direct pulp capping A. congenital abnormality

D. Indirect pulp capping B. occurs endosteally

C. occurs periosteally

53. Calcium hydroxide is used in deep cavities D. due to trauma from occlusion
in order to;

A. Form dentin bridge

58. What causes Parkinson's disease?
B. To kill microorganisms
A. A severe blood infection
C. To cause necrosis
B. Loss of the brain chemical dopamine
D. As a base under restoration
C. Stroke

D. Depression
54. When a patient protrudes his tongue it
deviated to the right. Which of the following
nerves is damaged; 59. A 50-year-old male patient presents with a
A. Left hypoglossal radiolucent lesion in his left posterior
mandible. An incisional biopsy confirms the
B. Glossopharyngeal diagnosis of an odontogenic keratocyst. Which
one of the following is most important factor
C. Right hypoglossal when planning treatment for this lesion?
D. Facial nerve A. High recurrence rate

B. Intra operative bleeding

55. For the preparation of rest seat: C. Malignant transformation
A. Marginal ridge should be reduced by 2.5 D. Risk of facial nerve damage
mm

B. Marginal ridge should be reduced by 1

mm 60. Chromosomes dysjunction occurs During?

C. The outline to have greater length than A. Prophase

width
B. Anaphase
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

C. Metaphase B. Granular layer of Tome’s

D. Telophase C. Lines of von Ebner

D. Secondary dentin

61. Third ear ossicle is derived from

A. 1st arch 66. The steepest cusp incline is present in

which of the following permanent teeth?
B. 2nd arch
A. Maxillary first molar
C. 3rd arch
B. Maxillary first premolar
D. 4th arch
C. Mandibular first molar

D. Mandibular first premolar

62. Seventh key of normal occlusion :

A. Molar relation
67. The morphology of crown of the tooth is
B. Palatal plane determined at which of the following stages of
C. Crown angulation tooth development?

D. Bolton ratio A. Bud stage

B. Cap stage

63. Non acidic non amelogenin enamel protein C. Early bell stage
responsible for hydroxyapetite formation is: D. Lamina stage
A. Flagellin

B. Tuftin 68. Drug of choice in chronic lymphatic

C. Sheathlin leukemia is

D. Sialolin A. Busulphan

B. Vincristine

64. Wavelength of ND-YaG laser in dentistry C. Chlorambuccal

is: D. Mercaptopurine
A. 1.06 um

B. 10.60 um 69. Features of familial multiple neurofibroma

C. 0.6 um with café-au-lait spots of the skin are typical
of:
D. 300 um
A. Von Recklinghausen’s disease of skin

B. Peget’s disease of skin

65. A child suffers from a febrile illness. During
the illness tooth development temporarily C. Hereditary ectodermal dysplasia
slows down. The development resumes D. Familial fibrous dysplasia
normally soon after. This change in
development of the tooth structure is most
likely to be apparent in which of the following
histological features of dentin? 70. Koplik’s spots are an early intraoral
manifestation of:
A. Dentinal tubules
A. Varicella
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

B. Variola B. Fixed partial denture

C. AIDS C. Removable partial denture

D. rubeola D. All of the above

71. The major driving force for formation of 76. The average root surface area (mm2) of
membrane lipid bilayer is: the maxillary second premolar is:

A. Hydrogen bonding A. 234

B. Hydrophobic interactions B. 220

C. Vander waal forces C. 273

D. Not known D. 204

72. Which of the following correlates highest 77. Life-saver shaped enlargements of the
correlation between variables ? marginal gingiva are called:

A. r= + 0.25 A. Gingival crater

B. r= + 0.5 B. McCall festoons

C. r= - 0.75 C. Stillman's cleft

D. r= + 2 D. Window peaks

73. A random sample suggests that : 78. Bulls eye type of appearance in IOPA is
seen in:
A. A person in a control group will not be a
member of the experimental group A. Lingually placed mandibular third molar

B. Any member of a group to be studied has B. Buccally placed mandibular third molar
an equal opportunity to be included in the
study C. Inverted mandibular third molar

C. Every nth name on a list is selected D. Disto angular impaction

D. Subjects are volunteers

79. Of the following most difficult impaction to
extract is
74. Hynes pharyngoplasty is used to improve
a child's: A. Mesioangular

A. Appearance B. Vertical

B. Teething C. Distoangular

C. Speech D. Horizontal

D. Feeding
80. Which of the following peripheral
manifestations causes painful nodules when it
75. Ante's law is followed in the construction occurs?
of:
A. Janeway’s lesions
A. Complete denture
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

B. Osler’s nodes B. Chisel

C. Petechiae C. Hoe

D. Splinter hemorrhage D. Curette

81. In Grave’s disease 86. Most common fracture occurring in

amalgam restoration is Seen at:
A. Exophthalmus is due to proliferation of
tissue behind the eye ball A. Cavosurface margin

B. Overactive thyroid is in nervous patients B. The contact area.

only
C. The isthmus area.
C. Adenoma of pitutary is there
D. Proximal box.
D. CHF can occur

87. Matrix band is difficult to place

82. Most common heart valve involved in IV on…………… teeth
drug use
A. MO 25
A. Mitral
B. DO 37
B. Aortic
C. DO 24
C. Tricuspid
D. MO 24
D. Pulmonary

88. Ferrier double dow seperator works on the

83. Which of the following represents the principle of
serologic evidence of recent Hepatitis B virus
infection during “window” period? A. Wedge principle

A. HBs Ag B. Traction principle

B. IgM 1anti – HBc C. Slow seperation

C. Anti HBs D. Delayed tooth movement

D. None of the above

89. bleaching is indicated in which of the
following clinical situations
84. The pins in an amalgam restorative serve
to A. dentin discoloration

A. Increase strength B. teeth with discoloured composites

B. Increase retention C. tooth discoloration due to caries

C. Increase resistance of fracture D. Teeth with superficial discolorations

D. All of the above

90. In hypovolemic shock the decreased in CO
is due to :
85. The enamel bevel of a gingival floor is
done with A. Inadequate blood/plasma volume

A. Hatchet B. Reduced venous return

FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

C. Failure of myocardial pump C. Less than 0.01 %

D. A&B D. None of the above

91. Commonest cause of AV fistulae is 96. What is common in amalgam and

ceramics?
A. Congenital
A. More compressive strength but less
B. Traumatic tensile strength
C. Surgical creation B. More compressive strength and tensile
D. Tumour erosion strength

C. Less compressive strength but more

tensile strength
92. Buergers disease is seen in
D. Less compressive strength and tensile
A. Only female strength
B. Age less than 40

C. Age more than 40 97. Which of the following statements is false?

D. Smoker A. A salivary duct obstruction can cause a
unilateral swelling in the floor of the mouth that
is largest before a meal and smallest after a
93. One of the following is not seen in severe meal
burns
B. A lesion termed as ranula is associated
A. Hypovolemia with the sublingual salivary gland

B. Sepsis C. The sublingual salivary gland is the most

common site of salivary gland neoplasia
C. Duodenal ulcer
D. A pleomorphic adenoma is the most
D. Hyperthermia common salivary gland neoplasm

94. Dynamic creep is the 98. What is the common cause of failure of
pulpotomy, that employs Ca(OH)2 in primary
A. Continuing alloying between Silver-Tin
molars?
alloy and mercury during the life of the
restoration A. Pulp fibrosis
B. Deformation of set amalgam during B. Pulp calcification
function
C. Ankylosis
C. Process whereby alloy is wetted by
mercury D. Internal resorption

D. Spread of amalgam during packing

99. All of the following statements are true
about Congenital Rubella except:
95. In non zinc containing dental amalgam
alloy, the percentage of zinc present is A. lt is diagnosed when the infant has IgM
antibodies at birth
A. Less than 0.02 %
B. It is diagnosed when IgG antibodies
B. Less than 0.1 % persist from more than 6 months
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

C. Most common congenital defects are C. Occipital artery

deafness, cardiac malformations and cataract
D. Posterior auricular artery
D. Infection after 16 weeks of gestation
results in major congenital defects
105. A midline cleft lip is due to the failure of
fusion between:
100. Facial nerve exits the skull via?
A. Maxillary processes
A. Foramen ovale
B. Medial nasal processes
B. Stylomastoid foramen
C. Medial and lateral nasal process
C. Foramen rotundum
D. Medial nasal and maxillary process.
D. Jugular foramen

106. Anemia with stippling of erythrocytes is

101. Identify the unmatched pair? seen commonly in which metal toxicity?

A. Superior orbital fissure – CN III, IV, V1, A. Lead

VI
B. Mercury
B. Foramen ovale – CN V2
C. Manganese
C. Jugular foramen – CN IX, X, XI
D. Arsenic
D. Lateral wall of cavernous sinus – CN III,
IV, V1, VI
107. Which of the following is a false
statement?
102. Which of the following muscle is supplied
by the anterior division of mandibular nerve? A. Acetaminophen does not have anti-
inflammatory action
A. Medial pterygoid
B. NSAIDs with least cardiovascular risk in
B. Lateral pterygoid Naproxen

C. Mylohyoid C. Gastric irritation is more severe with

NSAIDs compared to aspirin
D. Anterior belly of digastric
D. Non selective COX-2 inhibitors are
contraindicated in postoperative patients
103. Barr body is found in the following phase
of the cell cycle:
108. Identify the wrong statement regarding
A. lnterphase Bell’s palsy:
B. Metaphase A. It is the most common form of facial
C. G1 phase paralysis

D. Telophase B. Paralysis is usually preceded by pain

behind the ear

C. MRI reveals swelling and enhancement

104. All of the following are branches of the of gasserian ganglion
external carotid artery except:
D. Presence of incomplete paralysis in first
A. Superior thyroid artery week is the most favourable prognostic sign
B. Anterior Ethmoidal artery
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

109. Which of the following neurons do not

have acetylcholine as the neurotransmitter?
114. Ovulation is primarily caused by
A. Preganglionic sympathetic neurons preovulatory surge of :

B. Postganglionic sympathetic neurons A. Estradiol

C. Preganglionic parasympathetic neurons B. Luteinizing hormone

D. Neurons innervating sweat glands C. Progesterone

D. Follicle stimulating hormon

110. Which of the following is not a feature of

right heart failure?
115. Which of the following is a membrane
A. Jugular venous distension bound enzyme that catalyzes the formation of
cyclic AMP from ATP?
B. Hepatomegaly
A. Tyrosine Kinase
C. Basal crepitations
B. Polymerase
D. Ascites
C. ATP synthase

D. Adenylate cyclase
111. Decreased energy production in thiamine
deficiency is due to?

A. It is a cofactor for oxidative reduction 116. Data that can only be categorized under
different categories and frequencies which
B. It is required for transamination reactions cannot be expressed in number and not
C. It is a coenzyme for alpha ketoglutarate measurable is
dehydrogenase and pyruvate dehydrogenase A. Qualitative data
in citric acid cycle
B. Quantitative data
D. It is a coenzyme for transketolase in
hexose monophosphate shunt C. Continuous variable

D. None of the above

112. Deepest layer of scalp is:

A. Connective tissue 117. The SD is an appropriate measure of

spread when centre is measured with the
B. Aponeurosis (Epicranial Aponeurosis)
A. Mean
C. Loose areolar tissue (Danger area of
scalp) B. Median

D. None of these C. Mode

D. None of the above

113. Which of the following chemotherapeutic

agents is associated with secondary
leukemia? 118. Ulcers commonly seen in ventral surface
of tongue and lingual vestibule in children due
A. Vinblastine to mucosal irritation is known as

B. Etoposide A. Crohns disease

C. Cisplatin B. Rega feda

D. Bleomycin C. Darrier disease.

FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

D. Ranula

124. X ray films are insensitive to which light

119. Among these, which sampling is based A. Yellow and red

on equal probability?
B. Red
A. Simple random sampling
C. White
B. Stratified random sampling
D. Blue and green
C. Systematic sampling

D. PopuProbability samplinglation
125. The most recommended technique of
gingivectomy is by means of

120. Id is related to A. chemicals

A. Instinct B. lasers

B. Reality C. electrodes

C. Social consiousness. D. Scalpels

D. Self consciousness

126. Bleeding time is prolonged in

121. Ellis and deway classification of traumatic A. Factor VIII deficiency

fractures are how many
B. Christmas factor deficiency
A. 9
C. Von willebrand disease
B. 5
D. Vitamin K deficiency
C. 4

D. 3
127. During prolong starvation, which of the
following hormone is responsible for
increasing gluconeogenesis in the liver
122. In an epidemiological study, the 1st case
which comes to the attention of the A. Insulin
investigator is
B. Glucagon
A. Reference case
C. Thyroxine
B. Index case
D. TSH
C. Primary case

D. Secondary case
128. Triglyceride is a

A. Simple lipid
123. In cap stage, regulating factor for cusp
shape formation is present in______? B. Complex lipid

A. Dental papilla C. Derived lipid

B. Dental follicle D. None of the above

C. Inner enamel epithelium

D. Enamel Knot 129. Site of action of antidiuretic hormone is

FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

A. Loop of Henle A. Enamel rods at cervical region directed

occlusally
B. Proximal tubule
B. Results in constriction at cervical region
C. Distal tubule
C. Is characteristic of deciduous teeth
D. Cortical collecting duct
D. All of the above

130. If the pocket depth is 5mm and gingival

recession is 3mm then the total loss of 135. Intermediate cementum is______?
attachment is
A. Highly defined fibrillar zone near CDJ
A. 8mm
B. Highly defined cellular zone near
B. 3mm cemento – dentinal junction (CDJ)

C. 5mm C. Poorly defined zone near cemento-

dentinal junction
D. 2mm
D. Both a and B

131. Drug associated with gingival changes

are 136. Which of the following represents the
serologic evidence of recent Hepatitis B virus
A. Phenytoin, Cyclosporine and Nifedipine infection during “window” period?
B. Nifedipine, ibuprofen and lignocaine A. HBs Ag
C. Cyclosporine, chlorine and iodine B. IgM 1anti – HBc
D. Phentoin, hydrogen, hydrogen peroxide C. Anti HBs
and paracetamol
D. None of the above

132. Protein making up the bulk of

keratohyaline granules in stratum granulosum 137. The most common consequences of
of keratinized epithelium is bleaching nonvital teeth is

A. Involucrin A. Discoloration

B. Vinculin B. Cervical resorption

C. Filaggrin C. Apical periodontitis

D. Nectin D. Root resorption

133. After the eruption of crown, the reduced 138. An adult whose both lower limbs are
enamel is known as charred along with genitalia has ………….
burns
A. Primary attachment epithelium
A. 18%
B. Secondary attachment epithelium
B. 19%
C. Primary enamel cuticle
C. 36%
D. Reduced enamel epithelium
D. 37%

134. Cervical bulge. True is

FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

139. Total arch length reduced due to Mesial

migration of teeth

A. one centimetre

B. 3 centimetre

C. 0.5 centimetre

D. 0.15 centimetre

140. The number of line angles in a

permanent maxillary central incisor is

A. 2
A. Anode
B. 4
B. Cathode
C. 6
C. In between anode and cathode D. None
D. 8 of the above

D. None of the above

141. A 6 year old child, received tetracycline.
noticeable discoloration will be seen in
144. Ollendorf sign is seen in
A. Premolars, incisors and first molars
A. Congenital syphilis
B. Canine and 2nd molars
B. Primary syphilis
C. Canine, premolars and second molars
C. Secondary syphilis
D. Incisors and 1st molars
D. Tertiary syphilis

142. submentovertex is useful in viewing

145. the most common cause of inpatient
A. Body of mandible admission to hospital for those living with HIV
B. Fracture of zygomatic arch is ______.

C. Fracture of base of skull A. tuberculosis and other mycobacterial

infections
D. All of the above
B. cardiovascular disorders

C. bacterial infections
143. According to heel effect when cathode
rays strike anode target, xray released with D. none of these
high intensity are found towards

146. Sjogren’s syndrome affects

A. Exocrine glands

B. Paracrine glands

C. Endocrine glands

D. Autocrine glands
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

147. In the clinical evaluation, the most

significant, finding of the parotid mass may be
accompanying 152. Porcelain is best fired

A. Rapid progressive painless enlargement A. In open air

B. nodular consistency B. Under air compression

C. Supra mental and preauricular C. When several layers are fired

lymphadenopathy. simultaneously

D. Facial paralysis. D. Under minimum pressure

148. A young lady presents with white lacy 153. Binder in investment;
lesions in oral cavity and her proximal nail fold A. Quartz
has extended onto the nail bed. What is the
likely diagnosis? B. Silica

A. Candidiasis C. Crystobalite

B. Psoriasis D. None

C. Geographic tongue

D. Lichen planus 154. Which of the following is present in

maximum concentration by weight in alginate

A. Calcium sulfate
149. Widely accepted theory of dental caries
B. Zinc oxide
A. Proteolytic theory
C. Diatomaceous earth
B. Proteolytic chelation theory
D. Trisodium phosphate
C. Acidogenic theory

D. Autoimmune theory
155. Corrosion rate of nickel is reduced by

A. Coating nickel with paint

150. Recurrent ulcers occuring on gingival and
palate are more probably B. Coating nickel with zinc

A. Aphthous ulcers C. Coating nickel with aluminium

B. Herpes simplex D. Coacting nickel with chromium oxide

C. Koplick spots

D. Lesions of Behcets syndrome 156. Pulpal medication & thermal protection is

given by

A. Solution liners
151. Following are the characteristics of
vincents angina except B. Suspension liners

A. Ulcerative gingivostomatitis C. Traditional liner

B. Caused due to malnutrition D. Cement bases

C. A symbiotic infection

D. Caused by leptospira interrogans 157. Ludwigs angina is charecterised by

FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

A. Raised tongue C. Dull the sharp instrument

B. Elevation of ear lobe D. Ineffective sterilization

C. Trismus

D. Unilateral swelling 162. Sagittal split osteotomy was 1st

advocated by

A. Obwegesser
158. Cavernous sinus thrombosis following
infection of anterior maxillary teeth most often B. Dalpont
from spread of infection along
C. Wundrer
A. Facial artery
D. Moose
B. Angular artery

C. Ophthalmic vein
163. The proximal segment of mandibular
D. Pterygoid plexes angle fracture is usually displaced in which
direction;

A. Anterior and superior

159. When you examine a patient who has
suffered an unfavourable fracture of the body B. Posterior and interior
of the mandible, you would expect the
C. Interior only
A. anterior fragment to be displaced
downwards by the action of the digastric D. Posterior and superior
muscle

B. Posterior fragment to be displaced 164. The proximal segment of mandibular

anteriorly by the action of the lateral pterygoid angle fracture is usually displaced in which
muscle. direction;
C. anterior fragment to be displaced A. Anterior and superior
backwards by action of the temporalis muscle
B. Posterior and interior
D. Posterior fragment to be displaced
medially by action of the medial pterygoid C. Interior only
muscle.
D. Posterior and superior

160. Eugenol can be replaced in the zinc

165. Panda facies is commonly seen after
oxide eugenol cement by
A. Le fort I fractures
A. Acetic acid
B. Le fort II fracture
B. Alginic acid
C. Mandible Fracture
C. Phosphoric acid

D. Ortho-ethoxy acid
166. Which of the following is a prodrug?

A. Ampicillin
161. Main disadvantage of dry heat used for
sterilization is that B. Captopril
A. It is time consuming C. Levodopa
B. Rust the instruments D. Phenytoin
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

D. Gallamine

167. Type A (augmented) adverse drug

reactions are characterized by all except:
172. Nitric oxide acts via:
A. Qualitatively abnormal response to the
drug A. cAMP

B. Predictable from the drug's known B. cGMP

pharmacological or toxicological effects C. Ca
C. Generally dose dependent D. K
D. Usually common

173. Which of the following DMARDs require

168. Which phase of clinical trials is done after liver function testing?
the drug enters the market A. Methotrexate.
A. Phase I B. Infliximab
B. Phase II C. Abatacept
C. Phase III D. Cyclophosphamide
D. Phase IV

174. Allopurinol prevents conversion of:

169. As per Drug and cosmetic act A. Hypoxanthine to xanthine
prescription drugs are included in:
B. Xanthine to hypoxanthine
A. Schedule C
C. Hypoxanthine to IMP
B. Schedule H
D. Xanthine to uric acid
C. Schedule P

D. Schedule X
175. Digoxin toxicity is increased by all except:

A. Renal impairement
170. Two drugs having opposite action on
different receptors is which type of B. Hyperkalemia
antagonism?
C. Hypercalcemia
A. Physical antagonism
D. Hypomagnesemia
B. Competitive antagonism

C. Non competitive antagonism

176. All are toxicities seen with amiodarone
D. Physiological antagonism therapy except:

A. Pulmonary fibrosis

171. Drug of choice in treatment of B. Corneal microdeposits

myasthenia gravis is:
C. Cirrhosis of liver
A. d- Tubocurarine
D. Productive cough
B. Hexamethonium

C. Neostigmine
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

177. Finish line of choice for acrylic jacket 182. Both intranuclear and intracytoplasmic
crown: inclusions are present in which of the following
viruses_____________?
A. Radial shoulder
A. Pox virus
B. Chamfer
B. Measles virus
C. Shoulder with bevel
C. Hepatitis B virus
D. Exaggerated chamfer
D. HIV

178. Finish line of choice for acrylic jacket

crown: 183. Incubation pariod of herpes zoster
is________________?
A. Radial shoulder
A. 7-14 days
B. Chamfer
B. 1 months
C. Shoulder with bevel
C. 1-2 years
D. Exaggerated chamfer
D. 3-6 months

179. Normal level of serum phosphorous

is_____________? 184. Mycobacterium tuberculosis is best
demonstrated by_________________?
A. 2.5 – 4.5 mgm%
A. Gram’s stain
B. 7-9 mgm%
B. H & E stain
C. 40-50 mgm%
C. Ziehl-Neelsen stain
D. 1-2 mgm%
D. PAS stain

180. Iron is present in all, EXCEPT

185. Bacterial species which is protective or
A. Myoglobin beneficial to the host is_______________?
B. Cytochrome A. Streptococcus sanguis
C. Catalase B. Porphyromonas gingivalis
D. Pyruvate kinase C. Treponema denticola

D. Spirochetes
181. NADPH is generated by the action
of____________?
186. Essential granulation tissue constituents
A. Glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase include all except_____________?
B. Glucose 1 phosphate dehydrogenase A. Fibroblast
C. Glucose 1,6 diphosphate dehydrogenase B. Macrophages
D. All of the above C. Polymorphs

D. Budding blood vessels

FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

187. Hypoxic death leads C. 1

to__________________?
D. 4
A. Liquefactive necrosis

B. Coagulative nacrosis
193. Oral gratification theory was given by?
C. Caseous necrosis
A. sheldon

B. sigmond freud
188. Tissue borne RPE appliance is:
C. benjamin
A. Hyrax appliance.
D. sears and wise
B. Hass appliance.

C. Quadhelix
194. The articular angle is large if mandible is?
D. NiTi expander.
A. retrognathic

B. prognathic
189. Whip spring is used for correction of
C. prognathic
A. rotation
D. none
B. proclination
E. any of above
C. crossbite

D. open bite
195. Active component of fixed appliance is?

A. Bracket
190. Normal facial index is?
B. buccal tube
A. 65-75%
C. ligature
B. 75-80%
D. seperator
C. 80-90%

D. 100%
196. uprighting spring is used to?

A. derotate a tooth
191. Calcification of which bone is important
for pubertal growth spurt? B. move the root in mesiodistal direction

A. Hamate C. move the root in palatal direction

B. Pisiform D. closure of space

C. sessamoid

D. all of above 197. Reinforced anchorage example is?

A. bite plane anterior

192. Maxilla has how many ossification B. posterior bite plane

centre? C. inclined plane
A. 3 D. all of above
B. 2
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

198. Curve of wilson for mandibular teeth is? A. Mental ossicles, incus and malleous of
the middle ear.
A. concave
B. Lingula of the mandible and middle ear.
B. convex
C. stylo-mandibular ligament.
C. convex
D. All of the above.
D. none

E. both
203. lateral movement of mandible is known
as
199. In a routine demineralized histological A. Bent shift
section of an adult tooth, the area representing
Enamel is generally optically clear because: B. Benne shift

A. The mounting medium has the same C. Benet shift

refractive index as enamel.
D. Bennett shift
B. Enamel is very brittle and thus breaks off
during sectioning

C. Ordinary stains don't stain the organic 204. condylar guidance in arcon articulator is
matrix of Enamel . located in :

D. Enamel is highly calcified. A. Upper membrane on the articular

B. Lower membrane on the articular

200. Which of the following does not occur in C. Both of above

the active phase of tooth eruption: D. None of above
A. Organization of a periodontal ligament
from the dental follicle.
205. What is this?
B. Gradual separation of attachment
epithelium from the enamel surface

C. Root formation.

D. Occlusal wear.

201. During shedding which of the following is

wrong:

A. The pulp plays an active role.

B. The pulp plays a passive role.

C. The pulp appears histologically normal till

the end of the process

D. The neural elements remain in the pulp

until shedding is completed. A. Finger spreader

B. Mandrel

202. Which of the following are derived from C. Gates glidden

Meckel's cartilage:
D. peeso reamers
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

206. which of the following is temporary A. Maxilla

recording base material:
B. Mandible
A. Vinyl or polystyrene
C. Vascular tissue
B. Heat cured acrylic resin
D. Fat tissue
C. Gold

D. Base metal alloy

210. Identify the type of anchorage shown in
the image.

207. Perioral melanin pigmentation and

intestinal polyps are most likely to be seen in
which one of the following conditions?

A. ACTH therapy

B. Addison disease

C. Neurofibromatosis

D. Peutz Jegher’s syndrome

208. A 55 Y old male presents with

hemorrhagic crusting of his lips following a
course of antibiotic therapy. He does not have
any systemic manifestations. What would be
your most likely diagnosis? A. Simple
A. Anaphylaxis B. Stationary
B. Bechet’s syndrome C. Reinforced
C. Erythema multiforme D. Extraoral
D. Pemphigus vulgaris

211. A 52-year-old known case of psoriasis

comes to you for routine dental check up when
209. “A" in the Scammon's growth curve
you find this non scrapable condition on
represents growth of which of the following?
patient's tongue. What's your diagnosis?
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

A. Psoriasis vulgaris

B. Erythema migrans

C. Fissured tongue

D. Hairy tongue

212. The lesion shown in the image is

associated with which of the following?

A. Pemphigus vulgaris

B. Pemphigoid

C. Fever blister

D. Bed sores

214. Patient presented with swelling as seen

in color plate, 2 months after extraction of 36.
What is the diagnosis?

A. Iron deficiency anemia

B. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura

C. Thalassemia

D. Infectious mononucleosis

213. Patient presented with the lesions as

seen in the color image. Histopathology
revealed Suprabasilar split and presence of
Tzanck cells. What is the diagnosis based on
clinical and histopathological findings?
A. Mucocele

B. Papilloma

C. Fibrous epulis

D. Pyogenic grauloma

215. Identify the structure marked with “x” in

the image.
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

A. Interleaf paper wrapper A. Cleft tongue

B. Moisture- and light-proof packet B. Macroglossia

C. Lead foil C. Ankyloglossia

D. Film D. Natal teeth

216. What is the significance of component of 218. Pathology shown in the image is
radiograph machine marked with an arrow in associated with which of the following
the image? syndromes?

A. Stabilizes patients head during exposure A. Melkersson-Rosenthal syndrome

B. Provides reference for Frankfort B. Greenspan syndrome

horizontal plane
C. Van der woude syndrome
C. Provides reference for sagittal plane
D. Progeria
D. Provides stabilized anteroposterior
position
219. The dental formula shown here
represents which of following?
217. Identify the pathology.
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

A. Deciduous human dentition A. Fracture

B. Permanent human dentition B. Yield point

C. Deciduous canine dentition C. Yield strength

D. Permanent canine dentition

222. This appliance is used as habit breaking

appliance for.
220. Identify the condition shown in the image.
Patient history record gives information that
same condition is present in the
neighbourhood friends.

A. Thumb sucking

B. Mouth breathing

A. Tetracycline stains C. Tongue thrusting

B. Dentin dysplasia D. Nail biting

C. Amelogenesis imperfecta

D. Fluorosis 223. Lack of development of six or more teeth

is denoted by the term

A. Oligodontia
221. Which of the following is marked as X in
the stress strain curve shown in the image? B. Hypodontia

C. Anodontia
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

D. Partial anodontia C. Dentin only

D. Cementum only

224. Which amongst the following diseases is

capable of producing developmental
alterations in teeth? 229. Stafne cyst/Stafne defect is an aberrant
collection of _____ gland tissue within a deep
A. Tetanus depression in the mandible

B. Chickenpox A. Sweat glands

C. Diphtheria B. Sebaceous glands

D. Syphilis C. Mucous glands

D. Salivary glands

225. Loss of organization of radicular dentin

with subsequent shortening of root length is a
feature of 230. Amongst the following causes, the least
probable cause of hairy tongue is
A. Dentin dysplasia Type I
A. Smoking
B. Dentin dysplasia Type II
B. Poor oral hygiene
C. Dentinogenesis imperfecta Type II
C. Epstein-Barr virus
D. Dentinogenesis imperfecta Type III
D. Radiation therapy

226. If a patient shows signs of kinky hair,

osteosclerosis at base of skull, brittle nails 231. Fordyce’s granules is heterotopic
along with hypomaturation—hypoplastic collection of _______ in oral cavity
amelogenesis imperfecta, he/she is most A. Sweat glands
probably suffering from
B. Salivary glands
A. Rubinstein-Taybi syndrome
C. Hair follicles
B. Klinefelter syndrome
D. Sebaceous glands
C. Cranioectodermal syndrome

D. Tricho-dento-osseous syndrome
232. Facial hemiatrophy is not associated with
which of the following conditions?
227. In association with which syndrome does A. Bell’s palsy
talon cusp usually occur?
B. Trigeminal neuralgia
A. Rubinstein-Taybi
C. Jacksonian epilepsy
B. Down
D. Delayed eruption of teeth
C. Hereditary ectodermal dysplasia

D. Gardner
233. The concept of risk factors as deter-
minants of disease was addressed in which
228. Fusion of teeth involves a confluence of phase of public health?

A. Enamel only A. Disease control phase

B. Enamel and dentin B. Health promotional phase

FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

C. Social engineering phase C. Increases the force of contraction.

D. Health for all phase D. Enlargement of the cardiac muscle.

234. Small pox vaccination was discovered by: 239. Corticosteroids are the definitive
treatment for which emergency situation?
A. James Lind
A. Hypoglycemia
B. John Hunter
B. Acute bronchospasm.
C. Edwin Chadwick
C. Management of seizures.
D. Edward Jenner
D. Acute adrenal insufficiency

235. Galen proposed that disease is due to

three factors, namely: 240. Bacterial complex that does not initiate
periodontal disease
A. Predisposing, exciting and environmental
factors A. Red complex

B. Predisposing, risk and exciting factors B. Green complex

C. Predisposing, exploratory and causative C. Orange complex

factors
D. Purple complex
D. Predisposing, risk and exploratory
factors

236. According to this theory, disease is

considered to be the invasion of evil spirits:
Answers
A. Germ theory of disease

B. Supernatural theory of disease

1. C10815 - Marcus gunn jaw – winking
C. Multifactorial theory syndrome

D. Web of causation
2. B10822 - Cutaneous TB

237. Elevated plasma triglycerides in the Lupus vulgaris are painful cutaneous
absence of elevated cholesterol is tuberculosis skin lesions with nodular
appearance, most often on the face around
A. hyperlipemia the nose, eyelids, lips, cheeks, ears and neck.
It is the most common m. Tuberculosis skin
B. hyperlipoproteinemia.
infection
C. cerebrovascular disease.

D. peripheral vascular disease.

3. C10827 - Hypercalcemia

238. Digoxin produces which effect on the

4. A11149 - Blue
heart?
Red- hard and resilient Green -semiresilient
A. Atrial flutter.
Yellow- slightly formable but ductile Blue- soft
B. Increases heart rate. and formable
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

11. B11322 - Non specific plaque hypothesis

5. A11153 - 7 years Although the non-specifc plaque hypothesis

has been discarded in favour of the specific
Three age brackets were identified:4 to 7 plaque hypothesis and the ecologic plaque
years of age 7 to 10 years of age,10 to 14 hypothesis most of the therapeutic
years of age .The three groups have had interventions are still based on the basic
significant skeletal changes.The 4-7 years of principles of the non-specific plaque
age group shows more than twice as many hypothesis
maxillary advancement compared to the other
two older groups. Skeletal changes are
obtained more quickly and with less hours of
wearing the facemask per day than the older 12. D11372 - 95 % to 100 %
groups.The 7-10 years of age group shows
more changes than the 10-14 years of age
group.The 10-14 years of age group shows 13. A11373 - Weak acid and strong base
that it is possible to get skeletal changes at
A buffer solution (more precisely, pH buffer or
that age, but they are less important than the
hydrogen ionbuffer) is an aqueous solution
groups treated younger.
consisting of a mixture of a weak acid and its
conjugate base, or vice versa. Its pH changes
very little when a small amount of strong acid
6. C11159 - 250 gm force per side or base is added to it.
Typically, an initial activation of 60degree to
70degree (around the width of one molar) will
generate 250g of force per side. The 14. C11379 - Newborn babies
appliance is activated extra-orally and is
Adaptive transition of thermoregulatory
cemented in place as recommended by Dr.
thermogenesis from shivering to more efficient
Hilgers.The appliance is monitored at monthly
non-shivering thermogenesis in cold has been
intervals where it is removed for reactivation
well documented. Nonshivering thermogenic
and recementation
mechanism shave been explored in the major
nonshivering thermogenic organ, brown
adipose tissue (BAT) in babies
7. A11289 - 11 weeks in utero

15. C11383 - Prolactin

8. B11294 - Behaviour shaping
Prolactin (PRL), also known as luteotropic
Shaping is a conditioning paradigm used hormone or luteotropin, is a protein that is best
primarily in the experimental analysis of known for its role in enabling mammals,
behavior. The method used is differential usually females, to produce milk. It is
reinforcement of successive approximations. It influential in over 300 separate processes in
was introduced by B. F. Skinner various vertebrates, including humans.

9. B11298 - Dentits precox 16. B11414 - ?- 1, 4-glucosidase

Dentitis difficilis – teething problems dentitis Glycogen storage disease type II, also called
tarda- retarded eruption Pompe disease, is an autosomal recessive
metabolicdisorder which damages muscle and
nerve cells throughout the body. It is caused
10. C11319 - Stillmans method by an accumulation of glycogen in the
lysosome due to deficiency of the lysosomal
Most recommended method- Sulcular acid alpha-glucosidase enzyme.
brushing technique
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

17. B11418 - Wernickes encephalopathy used for a primary gingivectomy incision and
has an angulation of 45degree
Wernicke's encephalopathy (or Wernicke's
disease) is the presence of neurological
symptoms caused by biochemical lesions of
the central nervous system after exhaustion of 24. A11753 - Fracture Of edentulous mandible
B-vitamin reserves, in particular thiamine Gunning splints are used for intermaxillary
(vitamin B1). The condition is part of a larger fixation of edentulous patients having
group of diseases related to thiamine mandibular fracture. Upper and lower
insufficiency biteblocks are fabricated leaving the anterior
region open for feeding .hooks are
incorporated on the buccal side.
18. A11433 - 2mm from superior aspect of Circumferential wiring done to retain these bite
bony canal blocks.

19. B11438 - High well rounded 25. C11823 - Dilaceration

Order I - preextraction Order II – Post Dilaceration is a developmental disturbance in

extraction Order III – high well rounded Order shape of teeth. It refers to an angulation, or a
IV- knife edge Order V – low well rounded sharp bend or curve, in the root or crown of a
Order VI- depressed formed tooth. The condition is thought to be
due to trauma or possibly a delay in tooth
eruption relative to bone remodeling gradients
20. B11442 - Bizygomatic width/ 16 during the period in which tooth is forming.
The result is that the position of the calcified
Method employed for the selection of anterior portion of the tooth is changed and the
teeth is by using Berry's Biometric Index. It is remainder of the tooth is formed at an angle.
an acceptable method that has been seen to
ensure a tooth selection that is desirable and
harmonious with the overall aesthetics in the 26. A11825 - Posselts Border Movement In
absence of any pre-extraction records.The Frontal Plane
following formula is applied to calculate the
width of the maxillary incisor based on the
bizygomatic width: Berry's formula
27. A11949 - Phosphorous 32

Phosphorus-32 is a radioactive isotope of

21. B11446 - Orange phosphorus. The nucleus of phosphorus-32
contains 15 protons and 17 neutrons, one
Fluid wax is used to denote waxes that are more neutron than the most common isotope
firm at room temperature and have the ability of phosphorus, phosphorus-31. Phosphorus-
to flow at mouth temperature fore.g. IOWA 32 only exists in small quantities on Earth as it
Wax & Korrecta Wax No. 4.0 by Dr. O C has a short half-life of 14.29 days and so
APPLEGATE decays rapidly.

22. A11717 - DENTIGEROUS CYST 28. B11954 - Lateral oblique 30 degree

Dentigerous cyst associated with IMPACTED Rotate head toward IR to place the mandibular
tooth area of interest parallel to IR. The degree of
obliquity depends on which section of the
mandible is of interest. • Head in true lateral
23. B11750 - 45 degree position best demonstrates ramus. • 30°
rotation toward IR best demonstrates body. •
Kirkland knife. a surgical knife with a heart-
45° rotation best demonstrates mentum
shaped blade that is sharp on all edges. It is
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

However, the temperature of the slab should

be above the dew point, otherwise water
29. C11959 - 31mm x 41mm condenses, dilutes the liquid and reduces the
Intraoral film size• Size 0 - Used for bite wing compressive and tensile strength of the
and IOPA of small children• Size 1 -Used for cement. This is the most viable method of
anterior teeth in adults• Size 2 - Standard film, extending the working time of zinc phosphate
used for anterior occlusal, IOPA and bite wing cement.
in mixed and permanent dentition• Occlusal
films - 57 x 76mm used for maxillary or
mandibular occlusal radiographs 32. B37008 - Infrabony Pocket

Changes produced by primary trauma do not

alter the level of connective tissue attachment
30. B37000 - Reduction of nasal septum and do not initiate pocket formation. This is
probably because the supracrestal gingival
fibers are not affected and therefore prevent
apical migration of the junctional epithelium.

33. C37013 - 0-1.6

It has been reported that the difference in

alveolar crest level and radiographic crest
height can range from 0 mm to 1.6 mm

34. D37018 - Molar region

Molar-53% Premolar area -29% Condyle-3.5%

Coronoid-1.6% Amongst the soft tissues
gingiva is the most common site due to rich
This is asch forceps Blades are angled and
vascularity Then tongue is the 2nd common
there is a gap between prongs on
soft tissue site
approximation in asch forceps while blades
are straight and no gap in Walsham forceps

35. A37019 - Pregnancy

31. D37006 - Decrease the addition of powder Pregnancy is a state of anabolism and it
to liquid shows positive nitrogen balance. Nitrogen
balance is the condition in which the amount
Four techniques can extend the working time
of nitrogen incorporated into the body each
of ZP Cement:- 1. P/L ratio can be reduced to
day exactly equal amount excreted. Negative
produce a thinner mixture. This however,
Nitrogen Balance: When the body loses
reduces initial pH and adversely affect the
protein, it is in negative N balance. This occurs
properties. 2. Smaller portions of powder
with inadequate protein intake, burns, severe
should be mixed for the first few increments.
injury, infection, and fever. Positive Nitrogen
This reduces the acidity of the liquid and
balance occurs during periods of growth,
retards the rate of reaction. 3. Prolong the
including pregnancy, with protein repletion
spatulation of the last increment of the
therapy, and with weight lifting exercise that
powder. This destroys the matrix formed, thus
builds muscle. The person is losing body
extra time is needed to rebuild the bulk of the
protein. Negative nitrogen balance is an
matrix. This is however, not a preffered
undesirable state that occurs with weight loss,
method for prolonging the working time. 4. A
traumatic injury and some illnesses.
cooler mixing temperature retards the
chemical reaction between powder and the
liquid, thereby delay formation of matrix.
36. B37024 - Rhomboid
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

The Knoop hardness test uses a 39. A37301 - 270-285 mOsm/L

rhombohedral-shaped diamond indenter. The
long diagonal is seven times (7.114 actually)
as long as the short diagonal. With the
indenter shape, elastic recovery can be held to
a minimum. The Knoop hardness is calculated
from the following equation: HK = 14229L / d2
This can be used for both hard and soft
material and brittle materials

37. D37030 - Squamous cell carcinoma

The normal serum osmolality should range

from 270 to 285 mOsm/L.Water normally flows
from the compartment of low osmolality to the
compartment of high osmolality; this only
occurs if the membrane between the two
compartments is permeable to water.

40. A37305 - 18% chromium, 8% nickel

18/8 stainless steel is 304 grade stainless

Squamous cell carcinoma shows rolled out steel, which is the most widely used and
everted edges of the ulcer flexible austenitic form of stainless steel. The
numbers 18/8 represent the composition of
this steel as 18% chromium and 8% nickel,
making it very resistant to corrosion and
38. C37299 - Small intestine oxidation.

41. A37317 - Crouzon syndrome

FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

a Foley catheter is a flexible tube that a

clinician passes through the urethra and into
the bladder to drain urine. It is the most
common type of indwelling urinary catheter.
The tube has two separated channels, or
lumens, running down its length.

45. A37333 - Langer curette

curettes specifically made for deeper pockets

Extended shank instruments (After five
curettes) • They are modifications of the
standard Gracey curette design. NEW
FEATURES : 1. The terminal shank is 3 mm
Crouzon syndrome is a rare genetic disorder.
longer ( allowing extension into deeper
It is a form of craniosynostosis, a condition in
periodontal pockets of 5 mm or more). 2. A
which there is premature fusion of the fibrous
thinned blade . For smoother insertion , and
joints (sutures) between certain bones of the
reduced tissue stretching. 3. 1mm shorter
skull. The sutures allow an infant's head to
blade LANGER This set of three curettes
grow and expand. Eventually, these bones
combines the shank design of the standard
fuse together to form the skull. The clinical
gracey with a universal blade honed at 90
features of Crouzon syndrome may include: A
degrees rather than offset blade of the gracey
skull that appears “too tall” and overly flat from
curette. This combination allows the
the middle part of the face upward. Small
advantage of the area-specific shank to be
cheeks and a concave (curved inward) facial
combined with the versatility of the universal
profile. A prominent nasal bridge (a “beaked”
curette blade.
nose)

46. C37339 - Oral hairy luekoplakia

42. A37321 - Paget disease
The classic location of the lesion on the lateral
Radiotherapy in fibrous dyspepsia and Paget's
border of the tongue goes more in favour of
disease is contraindicated due to the risk of
OHL rather than candidiasis. This has been
developing osteosarcoma or often
confirmed by senior OMR specialist.
fibrosarcoma

47. B37342 - Poly sulphide

43. A37325 - Striae of Retzius
Polysulfide impression material
NEONATAL LINE •The enamel of the
COMPOSITION Base paste contains :
deciduous teeth develops partly before &
Multifunctional mercaptan (-SH) called
partly after birth. The boundary between the 2
POLYSULFIDE POLYMER as a major
portions of enamel in the deciduous teeth is
ingredient INERT FILLER – lithopone ,
marked by an accentuated Incremental line of
titanium dioxide , zinc sulfate , copper
Retzius, the Neonatal line/ring. •Results from
carbonate or silica. PLASTICIZER – dibutyl
abrupt change in the environment & nutrition
phthalate ACCELERATOR - Sulfur Catalyst
of newborn infant. •Prenatal enamel is usually
paste contains: Lead dioxide with or without
better developed than postnatal enamel as
manganese dioxide FILLER and
fetus develops in well protected environment
PLASTICIZER as in base paste. OLEIC and
with an adequate supply of all essential
STEARIC acid as retarder.
materials. •Perikymata are absent in prenatal
enamel.

48. A37345 - HBeAg

44. B37330 - Foley catheter
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

Hepatitis B e antigen (HBeAg) usually

indicates active HBV replication and risk of
transmission of infection. Recently, occult HBV
infection is recognized as the absence of 52. B37370 - Pulpectomy
circulating HBsAg in individuals positive for
serum or tissue HBV DNA, irrespective of Nocturnal pain indicated irreversible pulpitis.
other HBV serological markers. Hence the treatment options can be
pulpectomy or extraction. The nocturnal paim
associated with the tooth increases at night
49. C37359 - Anterior disk dislocation because of the patient’s posture which
increased the bloodflow to the head and neck.
causes of tmj hypermobility 1. Intrinsic trauma: This in turn increases the intrapulpal pressure
Yawning, vomiting. Wide biting, seizure which results in severe toothache.
disorder 2. Extrinsic trauma: I. Trauma:
Flexion, extension injury to the mandible.
Intubation with general anesthesic. 53. A37377 - Form dentin bridge
Endoscopy. Dental extractions. Forceful
hyperextensions. II. Connective tissue A deep Caries excavation close to the pulp
disorders : Hypermobility syndrome. Ehler’c which may result in either an undetected
Danlos syndrome. Marfan syndrome. III. pulpal exposure or a visible pulpal exposure
Miscellaneous causes: Internal derangement. should be covered with a calcium hydroxide
Contralateral intraarticular obstruction. Host liner that can stimulate formation of dentim
vertical dimensions. Occlusal discrepancies. bridge (reperative dentin) over the exposure
IV. Psychogenic :Tardive orofacial dyskinesia.
V. Drug induced :Phenothiezines
54. C37383 - Right hypoglossal

Neve supply of tongue Sensory Anterior two-

50. B37362 - 0.05% CPC, 0.05%
thirds: Lingual (sensation) and chorda tympani
chlorhexidine, 0.14% Zinc lactate
(taste) Posterior one-third: Glossopharyngeal
Halita mouthwash has the same effect on oral (IX) Motor Hypoglossal (XII), except
halitosis as routine 0.2% CHX mouthwash. palatoglossus muscle supplied by the
Halita mouthwash has fewer side effects pharyngeal plexus via vagus (X)
because of lower concentration of
chlorhexidine Halita mouthwash contains
0.05% chlorhexidine, 0.05% cetylpyridinium 55. B37386 - Marginal ridge should be
chloride (CPC) and zinc. reduced by 1 mm

Primary rest A rest that is part of a retentive

clasp assembly is referred to as a primary
51. D37368 - Auriculo-temporal artery
rest. Prevent vertical movement of a
prosthesis toward the tissues and also help
transmit applied forces to the supporting teeth.
Should be shallow and saucer shaped, and
should function as ball and-socket joint.

56. C37391 - 6

Fishman developed a system of skeletal

maturity indicators using four stages of bone
maturation found at six anatomical sites on
hand and wrist radiographs. The use of
cervical vertebrae to determine the skeletal
maturity was first suggested by Lamparski.
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

(meiosis I) and the second division thereof

(meiosis II) The 3rd stage of cell division is
57. D37396 - due to trauma from occlusion anaphase. During this point, chromosomes
When bone is resorbed by excessive occlusal move away from each other towards opposite
forces, the body attempts to reinforce the spindle poles.
thinned bone with new bone. This attempt to
compensate for lost bone is called buttressing
bone formation and is an important feature 61. B37410 - 2nd arch
associated with TFO. Buttressing bone
formation occurs within the jaw (central Arch Derivatives 1st Eustachian
buttressing) and on the bone surface tube and middle ear cavity 2nd Lining of
(peripheral buttressing). • In central the palatine tonsils 3rd Dorsal – Inferior
buttressing the endosteal cells deposit new parathyroid glands Ventral –
bone, which restores the bony trabeculae and Thymus 4th Dorsal – Superior
reduces the size of the marrow spaces. • parathyroid glands Ventral –
Peripheral buttressing occurs on the facial and Ultimobranchial body (C cells)
lingual surfaces of the alveolar plate. •
Depending on its severity, peripheral
buttressing may produce a shelflike thickening 62. D37416 - Bolton ratio
of the alveolar margin, referred to as “lipping”,
•Andrews' Six Keys (1972) to normal (or
or a pronounced bulge in the contour of the
optimal) are a widely quoted set of static
facial and lingual bone.
occlusal goals for tooth relationships in the
intercuspal position: 1. Correct interarch
relationships 2. Correct crown angulation (tip)
58. B37398 - Loss of the brain chemical 3. Correct crown inclination (torque) 4. No
dopamine rotations 5. Tight contact points 6. Flat curve
Parkinson's disease is the result of the loss of of Spee (0.0 - 2.5 mm) 7 th key of
the brain chemical dopamine. When nerve occlusion :bolton's ratio
cells, called neurons, in an area of the brain
that controls movement become impaired
and/or die, the amount of dopamine they 63. C37419 - Sheathlin
normally produce decreases. This loss of
acidic non amelogenin enamel protein
dopamine causes the movement problems
responsible for hydroxyapetite formation
seen in people with PD
is:tuftin Nonacidic non amelogenin enamel
protein responsible for hydroxyapetite
formation is:sheathlin
59. A37401 - High recurrence rate

Odontogenic keratocysts have a thin friable

lining and are notorious for a high recurrence 64. A37421 - 1.06 um
rate.
YAG lasers were the first types of true pulsed
lasers to be marketed exclusively for dental
use in 1990. They are a near infrared
60. B37406 - Anaphase wavelength of 1064 nm.
Meiosis is a mechanism in which a single cell
divides twice to produce four cells that contain
half of the original amount of genetic data. 65. C37427 - Lines of von Ebner
Those cells are our sex cells-male sperm,
The lines of von Ebner represent cyclic activity
female eggs. One cell divides up twice during
of the odontoblasts during dentin formation.
meiosis to create four daughter cells. These
These incremental lines illustrate the daily
four daughter cells are only half as numerous
pattern of dentin deposition that progresses at
as chromosomes? Of the parent cell-haploid.
about 6 µm per day in the crown and about
Meiosis is divisible into nine stages. These are
3.5 µm per day in the root.
divided between the first division of the cell
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

under the arms or in the groin area.

Neurofibromas are tumors around or on
66. B37430 - Maxillary first premolar peripheral nerves. Plexiform neurofibromas
are tumors affecting the nerve bundles. Other
signs and symptoms of VRD include the
67. C37435 - Early bell stage following Lisch nodules are growths affecting
the iris of the eyes. Pheochromocytoma is a
tumor of the adrenal gland. Ten percent of
68. C37439 - Chlorambuccal these tumors are cancerous. Liver
enlargement can occur. Glioma is a tumor of
Chlorambucil is the drug of choice in CLL the optic nerve. Bone involvement from VRD
whereas Busulfan, hydroxy carbamide are the includes short stature, deformities of bones,
drugs of choice in CML and scoliosis, or abnormal curvature, of the
spine.

69. A37441 - Von Recklinghausen’s disease

of skin 70. D37448 - rubeola
Von Recklinghausen’s disease (VRD) is a Koplik spots are the peculiar spots present on
genetic disorder characterized by the growth the buccal mucosa and are considered a
of tumors on the nerves. The disease can also diagnostic/pathognomic feature of
affect the skin and cause bone deformities. measles/rubeola in the pre-eruptive stage. The
There are three forms of VRD SUBSCRIBE term Koplik spot derives its name from Dr.
Healthline uses cookies to improve your Henry Koplik of New York, who first described
experience and to show you personalized ads. them in 1896
Privacy Policy. More information Von
Recklinghausen’s Disease (Neurofibromatosis
1) Medically reviewed by the Healthline
71. B37450 - Hydrophobic interactions
Medical Network — Written by Lydia Krause
— Updated on March 31, 2017 Symptoms Plasma membrane is made up of phospholipid
Causes Diagnosis Treatments Outlook What bilayer structure which consists hydrophilic
Is Von Recklinghausen’s Disease? Von head and hydrophobic tail with embedded
Recklinghausen’s disease (VRD) is a genetic proteins. When a suspension of phospholipids
disorder characterized by the growth of tumors is mechanically dispersed in aqueous solution,
on the nerves. The disease can also affect the the phospholipids aggregates. The
skin and cause bone deformities. There are hydrophobic effect causes the fatty acyl chains
three forms of VRD: neurofibromatosis type 1 to aggregate together to form tightly packed
(NF1) neurofibromatosis type 2 (NF2) stabilized structure and excludes water
schwannomatosis, which is a variant of NF2 molecules from the core. The stabilization of
The most common form of VRD is NF1. This membrane structure is occupied by the
disease causes tumors called neurofibromas hydrophobic effect and Van der Waals forces
in the tissues and organs of the body. between them.
According to the Dental Research Journal,
VRD is one of the most common genetic
disorders and affects about 1 in 3,000 people. 72. C37455 - r= - 0.75
VRD tumors can become cancerous, and
management of this disease focuses on Correlation coefficient (r) indicates the degree
monitoring the tumors for cancerous changes. of correlation between two variables. Its value
Symptoms of Von Recklinghausen’ ds VRD ranges from -1 to +1. The correlation
affects the skin and the peripheral nervous coefficient is zero when there is no covariation
system. The first symptoms usually appear in between two variables. Independent of the
childhood and affect the skin. Symptoms of sign, the farther the ‘r’ value from ‘0’, the
VRD affecting the skin include the following: stronger the relationship, i.e. -1 indicates
Café au lait macules are tan spots in different perfect negative correlation whereas +1
sizes and shapes. They can be found in indicates a perfect positive correlation. Since
multiple places on the skin. Freckles can occur
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

0.75 is farther from 0 than 0.25 and 0.5, option enlargement of the margin. ETIOLOGY:
C is the correct answer. Trauma from occlusion. They represent
peculiar inflammatory changes of the marginal
gingiva
73. B37458 - Any member of a group to be
studied has an equal opportunity to be
included in the study 78. A37477 - Lingually placed mandibular third
molar
Random sampling is a part of the sampling
technique in which each sample has an equal
probability of being chosen. A sample chosen
randomly is meant to be an unbiased 79. C37483 - Distoangular
representation of the total population. ... An Distoangular impactions (mandibular molars)
unbiased random sample is important for require more bone removal and may weaken
drawing conclusions. the ramus and more prone for fracture.

74. C37463 - Speech 80. B37486 - Osler’s nodes

pharyngoplasty (SFINK-ter far-INGO-plasty) is • Red spots on the soles of your feet or the
a surgery done to help correct velopharyngeal palms of your hands (Janeway lesions) • Red,
dysfunction (VEE-lo-fa-RIN-jee-uhl dis-FUNK- tender spots under the skin of your fingers or
shuhn), or VPD. VPD occurs when the soft toes (Osler’s nodes) • Tiny purple or red spots,
palate cannot properly separate the back of called petechiae (puh-TEE-kee-ee), on the
the mouth from the nose during speech. A skin, in the whites of your eyes or inside your
pharyngoplasty aims to reduce the space mouth
behind the palate so less air escapes during
speech. Other children with nasal speech, not
caused by a cleft palate, can also benefit from
81. A37489 - Exophthalmus is due to
the pharyngoplasty operation
proliferation of tissue behind the eye ball

Graves disease is distinguished clinically from

75. B37466 - Fixed partial denture other forms of hyperthyroidism by the
presence of diffuse thyroid enlargement,
Ante's law states that: "the total periodontal ophthalmopathy and pretibial myxoedema
membrane area of the abutment teeth must
equal or exceed that of the teeth to be
replaced."
82. C37495 - Tricuspid

Tricuspid is the most common heart valve

76. B37470 - 220 involved in IV drug abuse. After a septic
abortion, infective endocarditis mostly affects
In maxillary arch, the root surface area tricuspid valve.
increased from lateral incisor (175.10 mm2) to
first molar (375.45 mm2) through Central
Incisor (213.24 mm2), Second Premolar
83. B37498 - IgM 1anti – HBc
(213.04 mm2), First Premolar (286.53 mm2),
Canine (322 mm2) and Second Molar (351.06 Anti-HBC is the earliest antibody marker to be
mm2). seen in blood. As anti-HBC remains lifelong, it
serves as a useful indicator of prior infection
with HBV, even after all the other viral
77. B37474 - McCall festoons markers, becomes undetectable. Initially, anti-
HBC is predominantly IgM (indicates recent
STILLMAN’S CLEFTS : – Apostrophe -shaped infection), but after 6 months, it is mainly IgG
indentation of the gingival margin. McCALL (indicates remote infection).
FESTOON : – Life preserver- shaped
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

manifested clinically as a pulsating swelling

and on palpation a thrill is detected.
84. B37502 - Increase retention

Advantages of pin retained amalgam

restoration Conservative tooth preparation 92. D37536 - Smoker
Can be completed in one appointment
Improved resistance and retention form In Buergers disease is an occlusive disease of
expensive compared to indirect restorations small and medium sized arteries of both upper
Disadvantages Decreased strength of and lower limbs. The disease is characterised
amalgam Microleakage Dentinal micro by gangrene of toes and fingers with
fractures characteristic corrugation of femoral arteries
and distal arterial occlusion.

85. B37506 - Chisel

93. D37540 - Hyperthermia

The effects of burn injury are: Local: ? Cell

86. C37511 - The isthmus area. necrosis ? Collagen denaturation ? Infection ?
Inflammation Systemic: ? Hypovolemia ?
The axio-pulpal line angle should be beveled Gastric or duodenal ulcer ? Multiple organ
to reduce the concentration of stresses and failure ? Hypoxia
provide grater bulk of material in the isthmus
area, which is liable to fracture.

94. B37542 - Deformation of set amalgam

during function
87. D37516 - MO 24
The stresses that induce creep may arise from
Concave or fluted surfacr present on the the continued setting expansion of the
mesial side of maxillary first premolar makes amalgam, the formation of corrosion products,
the adaptation of matrix band difficult. Wedge mastication, or from the thermal expansion of
wedging technique is used to hold the matrix the amalgam during ingestion of hot foods.
band tightly. The latter two are low-frequency cyclic
stresses. The property describing the
deformation of a material under fatigue loading
88. B37518 - Traction principle is known as "dynamic creep the better the
marginal integrity of the restoration. Alloys with
high copper content usually have lower creep
89. A37521 - dentin discoloration values than the conventional silver-tin alloys

Bleaching agents like hydrogen peroxide can

penetrate dentin And release oxygen that
95. C37547 - Less than 0.01 %
breaks down the double bond of organic and
inorganic compounds inside the tubule.Option
b, c and d Are Contra indications of bleaching.
96. A37549 - More compressive strength but
less tensile strength
90. D37528 - A&B

97. C37555 - The sublingual salivary gland is

the most common site of salivary gland
91. B37530 - Traumatic
neoplasia
AV fistula is a communication between an
artery and a vein. It may be congenital or
acquired by trauma or created surgically in 98. D37560 - Internal resorption
patients undergoing renal dialysis. It is
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

Calcium hydroxide • Generally not used in Anterior division of mandibular nerve supplies
pulp therapy in primary teeth as it causes lateral pterygoid, masseter and temporalis.
internal resorption . • Calcium hydroxide + Medial pterygoid is supplied by the nerve to
iodoform (vitapex) • Easy to apply, resorb medial pterygoid which arises from the main
faster that the root trunk of the mandibular nerve. Mylohyoid and
the anterior belly of digastric are supplied by
the inferior alveolar nerve. Inferior alveolar
99. D37564 - Infection after 16 weeks of nerve is the larger terminal branch of the
gestation results in major congenital defects posterior division of the mandibular nerve.

Infection in the first trimester has the greatest

risk of congenital anomalies. Infection in 103. A37577 - lnterphase
second trimester can cause deafness. No
major congenital defects are seen in infection A condensed and inactivated X chromosome
after 16 weeks of gestation. which is present in female cells is called a Barr
body. Barr body meaning relates to the
inaccessibility of proteins causing gene
100. B37566 - Stylomastoid foramen transcription. It regulates the transcription of
X-linked gene product. Since females possess
Facial nerve exits the pons and enters the two X chromosomes and males have one X
internal acoustic meatus along with acoustic chromosome and a Y chromosomes, Barr
nerve. After traversing a short distance in the bodies are essential to regulate the amount of
facial canal, facial nerve exits the skull via X-linked gene product being transcribed
stylomastoid foramen and subdivides to
supply the facial muscles. Hence, injury to
facial nerve at stylomastoid foramen paralyses 104. B37582 - Anterior Ethmoidal artery
all muscles of facial expression.
Anterior ethmoidal artery arises from
ophthalmic branch of internal carotid artery.
101. B37570 - Foramen ovale – CN V2

Mandibular division (V3) of trigeminal nerve 105. B37586 - Medial nasal processes
passes via foramen ovale and maxillary
division (V2) passes through foramen
rotundum.
106. D37592 - Arsenic

Arsenic toxicity: Mee’s lines – not specific,

102. B37574 - Lateral pterygoid also seen in thallium poisoning. Anemia with
stippling of erythrocytes. Occasionally,
pancytopenia and aplastic anemia can
develop. Basophilic stippling is seen in Lead
toxicity.

107. C37595 - Gastric irritation is more severe

with NSAIDs compared to aspirin

Gastric irritation is most severe with aspirin. It

can cause gastric mucosal erosion and
ulceration leading to bleeding and perforation.

108. C37599 - MRI reveals swelling and

enhancement of gasserian ganglion
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

Bell’s palsy is the most common form of facial 115. D37628 - Adenylate cyclase
paralysis. It has abrupt onset. The paralysis is
usually preceded by pain behind the ear.
Maximum weakness occurs by 48 hours. MRI 116. A37629 - Qualitative data
may show swelling and uniform enhancement
of geniculate ganglion and facial nerve.

109. B37602 - Postganglionic sympathetic

neurons

Preganglionic neurons: Sympathetic –

acetylcholine Parasympathetic – acetylcholine
Postganglionic neurons: Sympathetic –
norepinephrine Parasympathetic –
acetylcholine Exception: In sympathetic
neurons innervating eccrine sweat glands,
acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter

110. C37607 - Basal crepitations

Basal crepitations are seen in left heart failure.

Other findings in right heart failure are right 117. A37633 - Mean
ventricular third heart sound (heard at left
When the centre is the mean, then standard
sternal edge, better in inspiration), wide
deviation should be used since it measure the
splitting of second heart sound (due to
distance between a data point and the mean.
prolonged right ventricular ejection and delay
in pulmonary component or P2) and peripheral
edema.
118. B37638 - Rega feda

Rega fede disease: Early eruption of teeth

111. C37611 - It is a coenzyme for alpha ( natal or neonatal) cause ulceration on the
ketoglutarate dehydrogenase and pyruvate ventral surface of the tongue by the sharp
dehydrogenase in citric acid cycle edges of the tooth. This may interfere with the
infants feeding and suckling which may inturn
affect nutrition.
112. D37616 - None of these

From superficial to deep, the layers of scalp

119. A37641 - Simple random sampling
are (mnemonic: SCALP) S – Skin C –
Connective tissue (fibrofatty) A – Aponeurosis Simple random sampling utilizes random
(Epicranial Aponeurosis) L – Loose areolar selection from population is ready available
tissue (Danger area of scalp) P – Periosteum and homogenous so that everyone will get an
equal chance

113. C37619 - Cisplatin

120. A37645 - Instinct

ID: It is the basic structure of personality which

114. B37622 - Luteinizing hormone
serves as a reservoir of instincts or their
Ovulation occurs within 24-48 hours after the mental representative. It is present at birth,
beginning of the LH surge. impulse ridden and stribes for immediate
pleasure and gratification(pleasure principle)
EGO: It develops out of id, when infants
begins to distinguish between itself and the
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

outside world. It is concerned with memory

and judgement. It is developed after birth,
expands with age and it delays, modifies and 124. A37661 - Yellow and red
controls id impulses on a realistic level ( reality X ray films are sensitive to green and blue
principle) SUPER EGO: It is the prohibition light. They are less sensitive to yellow and red
learned from the environment( parents and light. Accordingly, the red filter, which does not
authorities). It acts as a censor of acceptability affect open film but permits one to see well
of thoughts, feelings and behaviour. It is enough to work in the area is recommended
determined by regulations imposed upon the as a safelight
child by parents, society and culture.

125. D37668 - Scalpels

121. A37649 - 9
The gingivectomy technique may be
performed surgically by means of scalpels,
electrodes, laser beams, or chemicals
although the first one is the only one generally
recommended.

126. C37671 - Von willebrand disease

122. B37654 - Index case

Index Case Person that comes to the attention

of public health authorities Primary Case
Person who acquires the disease from an
exposure Attack rate Secondary Case Person
who acquires the disease from an exposure to
the primary case Secondary attack rate
127. B37674 - Glucagon

123. D37660 - Enamel Knot Gluconeogenesis occurs in the liver and

kidneys. Gluconeogenesis supplies the needs
Enamel Knot • The cell in the center of the for plasma glucose between meals.
enamel organ are densely packed and form Gluconeogenesis is stimulated by the
the enamel knot • This knot projects towards diabetogenic hormones (glucagon, growth
the underlying dental papilla • At the same hormone, epinephrine, and cortisol).
time a verticle extension of the enamel knot Gluconeogenic substrates include glycerol,
called the enamel cord occurs • They act as a lactate, propionate, and certain amino acids.
reservoir of the dividing cell from the growing PEP carboxykinase catalyzes the rate-limiting
enamel organ • Enamel knot acts as a reaction in gluconeogenesis. The dicarboxylic
signaling centers as any important growth acid shuttle moves hydrocarbons from
factors are expressed by the cells of the pyruvate to PEP in gluconeogenesis.
enamel knot and thus play an important role in
determining the shape of the tooth
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

128. C37679 - Derived lipid

These are esters of fatty acid with glycerol.

Triacyl glycerols are neutral fats and function
as fuel reserves of animals. Main storage form
of fats and found in adipose tissue. Whereas,
mono, di , glycerols are dervied lipids

129. D37684 - Cortical collecting duct

In the absence of ADH, collecting ducts(CD)of

the nephron are impermeable to water.ADH
increases the permeability of CD by its action
on V2 receptors. Stimulation of these
receptors elevates cAMP levels that increase
aquaporins on the apical membrane of CD(by
132. C37695 - Filaggrin
decreasing endocytosis and increasing
exocytosis). V2 receptor activation also The protein making the bulk of kertohyaline
increases the permeability of CD to urea by granules is filagrin.also sulfur rich protein
stimulating the urea locrin is present.filagrin & loricin are useful
transporter.Vasopressin(ADH)as the name markers of epithelial differentiation. Involucrin
suggests is a potent pressor of blood vessels. contributes to the cornified cell envelop in the
vasoconstrictor action is mediated by the cell membrane of keratohyalin cells.
activation of V1(also called V1a)receptors.
This action requires a much higher
concentration than V2 receptor activation.V2
133. A37697 - Primary attachment epithelium
receptor-mediated vasodilatory action( due to
the release of NO) has also been After the ameloblasts finish formation of the
demonstrated. ADH is also involved in the enamel matrix, the leave a thin membrane on
release of vWF and factor Vlll from the the surface of the enamel called primary
endothelium. This action is also mediated by enamel cuticle. After this the epithelium
V2 receptors.V3 receptors(previously known enamel organs is reduced to a few layers of
as V1b receptor)are involved in the release of cells called reduced enamel epithelium; which
ACTH. cover the entire enamel. Once the tip of the
crown has emerged, the reduced enamel
epithelium is termed as primary attachment
130. A37685 - 8mm epithelium.

In the above question there is gingival

recession that is, gingival margin is apical to
134. C37703 - Is characteristic of deciduous
CEJ then total loss of attachment= 5+3mm =
teeth
8mm

131. A37689 - Phenytoin, Cyclosporine and

Nifedipine
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

According to rule of nine: Both lower limbs =

18% + 18% Genitalia = 1% Total = 37% This
rule does not apply strictly to infants and
children. IV fluid replacement will be required
in adults more than 20% of body surface
involved and children with more than 10%
body surface involved.

139. C37723 - 0.5 centimetre

tooth movement does not end when active

eruption is completed and the tooth is in
functional occlusion. With time and wear, The
proximal contact areas of the teeth are
flattened And the tooth tends to move
135. C37707 - Poorly defined zone near mesially.This is referred to as physiologic
cemento-dentinal junction Mesial migration. by age 40 it results in a
reduction of about 0.5 centimetre in length off
Intermediate cementum • Hyaline layer of the dental arch from the midline to the third
Hopewell Smith • Poorly defined zone near the molar.
cemento-dentinal junction of certain teeth that
appears to contain cellular remnants of
Hertwig’s sheath embedded in calcified
140. C37727 - 6
ground substance.

136. B37710 - IgM 1anti – HBc

Anti-HBC is the earliest antibody marker to be

seen in blood. As anti-HBC remains lifelong, it
serves as a useful indicator of prior infection
with HBV, even after all the other viral
markers, becomes undetectable. Initially, anti-
HBC is predominantly IgM (indicates recent
infection), but after 6 months, it is mainly IgG
(indicates remote infection).

137. B37714 - Cervical resorption

Cervical resorption is a common

consequences of breaching of nonvital teeth
whereas apical periodontitis is a common 141. C37731 - Canine, premolars and second
sequel Off bleaching of vital teeth. the molars
possibility of cervical resorption can be
reduced by sealing the root canal orrifice with Tetracycline causes staining of teeth, which
Cavit to Prevent percolation of bleaching are in the process of calcification. at six years
agent or by keeping a paste of calcium of age, first molars and incisor are calcified
hydroxide and sterile water in the pulp completely so staining does not occur in them.
chamber. Canine, premolar and second molars are in
the process of calcification, so they are
affected bye tetracycline. Calcification of
permanent teeth is completed by eight years
138. D37720 - 37% with the exception off third molars
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

142. D37736 - All of the above copies of itself, it gradually breaks down a
person’s immune system.
SUBMENTOVERTEX (BASE OF THE SKULL)
• The image receptor is positioned parallel to
patient’stransverse plane and perpendicular to
the midsagittal and coronal planes. To achieve 146. A37749 - Exocrine glands
this, the patients neck is extended as far Sjögren’s syndrome (SS) is an autoimmune
backward as possible,with the canthomeatal inflammatory disorder of exocrine glands. It
line forming a 10 degree angle with the particularly affects the lacrimal and salivary
receptor. • The central beam is perpendicular glands. Dry mouth and dry eyes are frequently
to the image eceptor, directed from below the the presenting symptoms. Extraglandular
mandible toward the vertex of the skull , and manifestations, for example, arthritis and
centered about 2cms anterior to a line polyneuropathy can also be present
connecting the right and left condyles. •
assessing potential pathology from trauma or
disease progression to the basal skull
147. D37756 - Facial paralysis.
structures, including the foramen ovale,
foramen spinosum and sphenoid sinuses. Parotid tumour may Cause facial palsy, while
adenoid cystic carcinoma can cause multiple
nerve lesions especially of lingual , facial or
143. B37738 - Cathode hypoglossal nerves.

148. D37760 - Lichen planus

Presence of lacy lesions in the oral cavity and

nails with pterygium suggests a diagnosis of
Lichen Planus in this patient. It commonly
affects young adults. The characteristic skin
lesion is pruritic,plane topped, polygonal,
purplish papule covered with scanty scales.
Buccal mucosa, lips and genitalia are
commonly involved. Treatment includes
antihistaminics for pruritus and topical steroids
for localised lesions. Systemic steroids may be
given for widespread disease after ruling out
contraindications.

144. C37743 - Secondary syphilis 149. C37763 - Acidogenic theory

Ollendorf’s sign: The sign is observed in Acidogenic theory was proposed by miller.
secondary syphilis. In secondary syphilis the According to this, initial decalcification of
papule is exquisitely tender to the touch of a enamel and dentin followed by dissolution of
blunt probe, which is termed positive softened residue.
ollendorf’s sign.

150. B37766 - Herpes simplex

145. A37745 - tuberculosis and other Aphthous ulcers are recurrent and appears
mycobacterial infections mostly on lining mucosa, whereas herpes
HIV attacks the immune system, specially the lesions appears mostly on masticatory
CD4 cells, often called T-helper cells and mucosa. ie, gingival, palate etc...
makes copies inside these cells. As HIV
destroys more CD4 cells and makes more
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

151. D37772 - Caused by leptospira protect from corrosion. This is called

interrogans passivation.

152. D37776 - Under minimum pressure 156. C37791 - Traditional liner

Firing in vacuum or reduced pressure prevents Liners are relatively thin layers of material that
porosity. firing for a long time causes changes is used primarily to promote a barrier to
in the leucite content and produce stress is protect the dentin from residual reactants
sufficient cause crack in the porcelain size of diffusing out of a restoration. Liners Thin film
the powder particles influences porosity and liners (1-50 um) Varnish / solution liners (2-5
firing shrinkage um) Suspension liners (20-25um) Thick liners
Cement liner (0.2-1 mm) Used for pulpal
medications and treatment protection Bases
153. D37780 - None (!-2mm) Provide thermal protection &
mechanical support for the restoration by
Binder : 25% to 35% of ?-calcium sulfate distributing local stresses from the restoration
hemihydrate is used -To react with water and across the underlying dentin surfaces.
on hydration binds the silica together. -To
impart sufficient strength to the mould and -To
contribute to the mould expansion by its 157. A37793 - Raised tongue
setting expansion. Casting gold-containing
alloys with melting ranges below 1000 °C Ludwig’s Angina is a massive indurated
Material is heated at temperatures sufficiently brawny cellulites, occurs bilaterally in the
high – 200-400 °C: shrink considerably – 400 submandibular, sublingual & submental
°C – 700 °C : slight expansion takes place spaces. Infection is propagated by lymphatic
between – Above : decomposition and the spread or directly through submandibular
release of sulfur dioxide causing space. Cellulitis is then rapidly spread to
contamination of alloy involve bilaterally the parapharyngeal and
pterygoid spaces

154. C37783 - Diatomaceous earth

158. C37799 - Ophthalmic vein

Infections may spread via hematogenous

route to the cavernous sinus occurs from: 1-
Anteriorly: a) Superior labial venous plexus to
b) Anterior facial vein, then via c) Superior or
inferior ophthalmic vein into the cavernous
sinus 2- Posteriorly: from retromandibular
vein to the ptrygo- mandibular venous plexus,
the emissary vein passing through foramen
ovale, spinosum, to cavernous sinus 3-
Superior petrosal sinus (inside the ear)

159. A37801 - anterior fragment to be

displaced downwards by the action of the
digastric muscle

The elevator muscles of the mandible would

155. D37788 - Coacting nickel with chromium displace the posterior fragment upwards and
oxide the suprahyoid muscles would displace the
anterior fragment downwards thus separating
Chromium, aluminium and titanium form
the bones at the fracture line.
strong adherent oxide films on their surface to
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

160. D37808 - Ortho-ethoxy acid 166. C37830 - Levodopa

Mechanical properties of ZOE cement can be PRODRUGS All. - ACE Inhibitors(except

improved by adding by adding alumina to the captopril and lisinopril) Prefer -
powder and orthoethoxy benzoic acid to the Prednisone Proton pump inhibitors
liquid or by reinforcing with polymers. Proguanil Doing. - Dipivefrine M. -
Reinforced ZOE cements are used for Mercaptopurine Methyldopa
intermediate restorations. Minoxidil D. -levo Dopa In. -
Irinotecan Clinical -Cyclophosphamide
Clopidogrel Carbimazole Subjects-
161. A37809 - It is time consuming Sulfasalazine

162. A37813 - Obwegesser 167. A38005 - Qualitatively abnormal

response to the drug

Adverse drug reactions: Adverse drug

163. A37817 - Anterior and superior reactions are noxious or unintended effects
produced by drugs. They may be classified as:
Loss of the mandibular angle on palpation
Type A: Augmented pharmacologic effects-
may be because of an unfavorable angle
Dose dependent and predictable. Eg:
fracture in which the proximal segment rotates
Hypoglycemia caused by anti hyoerglycemic
superiorly. The anterior face may be displaced
drugs like sulfonylureas Type B: Bizarre
forward, causing elongation. Lacerations,
effects (or idiosyncratic)- Dose independent
hematoma, and ecchymosis may be
and unpredictable Eg: Allergic reactions
associated with mandibular fractures.
caused by pencillins Type C: Chronic effects
Eg: Peptic ulcer caused by chronic use of
NSAIDs Type D: Delayed effects Eg:
164. A37821 - Anterior and superior Teratogenicity caused by thalidomide Type E:
End of treatment effects Eg: Withdrawal
Loss of the mandibular angle on palpation
response to morphine Type F: Failure of
may be because of an unfavorable angle
therapy. Q. Type A (augmented) adverse
fracture in which the proximal segment rotates
drug reactions are characterized by all except:
superiorly. The anterior face may be displaced
a) Qualitatively abnormal response to the drug
forward, causing elongation. Lacerations,
b) Predictable from the drug's known
hematoma, and ecchymosis may be
pharmacological or toxicological effects c)
associated with mandibular fractures.
Generally dose dependent d) Usually common

165. B37826 - Le fort II fracture

168. D38012 - Phase IV
With a Le Fort type II fracture, there is
Phase IV- post marketing surviellance
significant deformity and swelling, widening of
Conducted on Large number of patients being
the intercanthal space (nasal septum fracture),
treated by practicing physicians Purpose : 1.
mobility of the maxilla and nose as a
To know rare and long term adverse effects 2.
combined segment, as well as bilateral
Special groups like children, pregnancy etc
periorbital edema and ecchymosis (raccoon
can be tested
eyes), epistaxis, anterior open bite
malocclusion, ecchymosis of the maxillary
buccal vestibule and palate, and possible CSF
rhinorrhea. Since the fracture involves the 169. B38018 - Schedule H
inferior orbital rim and floor, there may be
SCHEDULE OF DRUGS: Drugs and
sensory deficits in the infraorbital region
cosmetics act 1940 along with Drugs and
extending inferiorly to the upper lip.
cosmetic rules 1945 and its amendments
describe various schedule of drugs. C and C1
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

Biological and special products F and F1 DRUGS IN ANGINA 1. NITRATES ? GTN ?

Bacterial vaccines G Drugs to be labelled with Isosorbide dinitrate 2. CALCIUM CHANNEL
the word "caution" - It is dangerous to take this BLOCKERS ? Verapamil ? Diltiazem 3. BETA
preparation except under medical supervision BLOCKERS ? Propranolol ? Atenolol ?
H Drugs that must be sold by retail only when Metoprolol 4. K+ CHANNEL OPENERS ?
a prescription by RMP is produced M Good Nicorandil 5. pFOX INHIBITOR ?
manufacturing practices (GMP) P Expiry Trimetazidine ? Ranolazine 6. Na+ CHANNEL
period of drug formulations W Drugs that shall BLOCKERS ? Ranolazine ? Ivabradine
be marketed under generic names only X
Psychotropic drugs requiring special licence
for manufacture and sale Y Requirements and 173. A38033 - Methotrexate.
guidelines on clinical trials, import and
manufacture of new drugs TREATMENT OF RHEUMATOID ARTHRITIS
1. CORTICOSTEROIDS: ? Used as bridge
therapy to reduce disease activity till slower
170. D38024 - Physiological antagonism acting DMARDs take effect ? Can be used as
adjunctive therapy for active disease that
Physiological antagonist produces an action persists despite treatment with DMARDs 2.
opposite to a substance but by binding to the Synthetic DMARDs: ? Methotrexate ?
different receptors. Eg: adrenaline is a Sulfasalazine ? Leflunomide ?
physiological antagonist of histamine because Hydroxychloroquine ? Minocycline ?
adrenaline causes bronchodilation by binding Tofacitinib 3. Biological DMARDs: ? TNF
to beta 2 receptors, which is opposite to alpha inhibitors: Etanercept, Infliximab,
bronchoconstriction caused by histamine Adalimumab, Golimumab ? Co stimulation
through H1 receptors inhibitors: Abatacept, Belatacept ? IL-6
inhibitor: Tocilizumab, Sarilumab ? B cell
sarilumab depleter: Rituximab ? IL-IR
171. C38027 - Neostigmine antagonist: Anakinra

USE OF CHOLINERGIC DRUGS 1.

MUSCARINIC USES GLAUCOMA 174. A38037 - Hypoxanthine to xanthine
PILOCARPINE :
PHYSOSTIGMINE ,ECOTHIOPHATE TREATMENT FOR GOUT ? Acute gout: •
SJOGRENS SYNDROME: NSAIDs • Colchicine • Steroids ? Chronic
PILOCARPINE ,CEVIMELINE gout: a) Drugs decreasing synthesis of uric
ALZHEIMER'S : acid Purine - Allopurinol Non purine-
TACRINE ,DONEPEZIL ,RIVASTIGMINE ,GA Febuxostat b) Drugs increasing excretion of
LLANTAMINE PARALYTIC ILEUS (Post uric acid Probenecid Sulfinpyrazone
operative): BETHANECHOL NEOSTIGMINE Benzbromarone Lesinurad c) Drugs
URINARY RETENTION (Post operative): increasing metabolism of uric acid
BETHANECHOL NEOSTIGMINE Rasburicase Pegloticase
BELLADONA POISONING:
PHYSOSTIGMINE DIAGNOSIS OF
BRONCHIAL HYPERACTIVITY: 175. B38042 - Hyperkalemia
METHACHOLINE 2.NICOTINIC USES:
REVERSAL OF MUSCLE RELAXANTS: Treatment of digoxin toxicity: • Mild digitalis
NEOSTIGMINE PYRIDOSTIGMINE toxicity can be decreased with potassium. •
MYASTHENIA GRAVIS ( DIAGNOSIS): For ventricular arrhythmias, lignocaine is the
EDROPHONIUM MYASTHENIA GRAVIS drug of choice (phenytoin is an alternative) •
( TREATMENT): NEOSTIGMINE For atrial tachyarrhythmia,beta blockers like
PYRIDOSTIGMINE COBRA BITE : propanolol may he administered and for
NEOSTIGMINE ,PYRIDOSTIGMINE bradyarrhythmias and AV block atropine is the
agent of choice • For very severe toxicity,
digoxin antibody is preferred.
172. B38030 - cGMP
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

176. D38048 - Productive cough

178. A38053 - Radial shoulder

177. A38049 - Radial shoulder acket crown It is a type of crown that is formed
by a tooth colored material. It is mainly used
acket crown It is a type of crown that is formed as a single unit in the anterior quadrant of the
by a tooth colored material. It is mainly used mouth. It is the weakest type of crown
as a single unit in the anterior quadrant of the because the tooth colored materials are
mouth. It is the weakest type of crown weaker and more brittle than metal. It can be
because the tooth colored materials are divided into 2 types according to the material
weaker and more brittle than metal. It can be from which it is formed: 1. Porcelain jacket
divided into 2 types according to the material crown 2. Acrylic jacket crown It isn't a
from which it is formed: 1. Porcelain jacket conservative type of crown because a butt
crown 2. Acrylic jacket crown It isn't a shoulder finishing line is done all around
conservative type of crown because a butt and excessive tooth structure is removed
shoulder finishing line is done all around to provide enough space for the acrylic or
and excessive tooth structure is removed porcelain material in order to get a proper
to provide enough space for the acrylic or shape of the crown, to increase the rigidity
porcelain material in order to get a proper of material and to resist the fracture by
shape of the crown, to increase the rigidity increasing the thickness of the material. The
of material and to resist the fracture by acrylic jacket crown may be used as a
increasing the thickness of the material. The temporary crown or for crowning a tooth of
acrylic jacket crown may be used as a a patient under 18 years of age, until full
temporary crown or for crowning a tooth of eruption finishes to the tooth, and then a
a patient under 18 years of age, until full final crown (full veneer crown or porcelain
eruption finishes to the tooth, and then a jacket crown) All ceramic crowns are some
final crown (full veneer crown or porcelain of the most esthetically pleasing
jacket crown) All ceramic crowns are some prosthodontic restorations . Because there
of the most esthetically pleasing is no metal to block light transmission ,
prosthodontic restorations . Because there they can resemble better in terms of color
is no metal to block light transmission , , translucency than any other restorative
they can resemble better in terms of color option can natural tooth structure. There chief
, translucency than any other restorative disadvantage is their susceptibility to fracture ,
option can natural tooth structure. There chief although this is lessened by use of A resin
disadvantage is their susceptibility to fracture , bonded technique. Advantage : 1- Superior
although this is lessened by use of A resin esthetic 2- Excellent translucency (similar to
bonded technique. Advantage : 1- Superior that of natural tooth structure) 3- Good tissue
esthetic 2- Excellent translucency (similar to response 4- Lack of reinforcement by a metal
that of natural tooth structure) 3- Good tissue sub structure permit slightly more conservative
response 4- Lack of reinforcement by a metal reduction of facial surface Disadvantages : 1-
sub structure permit slightly more conservative Reduced strength of the restoration because
reduction of facial surface Disadvantages : 1- of the absence of reinforcing metal
Reduced strength of the restoration because substructure. 2- Significant tooth reduction is
of the absence of reinforcing metal necessary on the proximal and lingual aspects
substructure. 2- Significant tooth reduction is due to the need for a shoulder-type margin
necessary on the proximal and lingual aspects circum ferentially. (less conservation). 3-
due to the need for a shoulder-type margin Porcelain brittleness 4- Difficulties may be
circum ferentially. (less conservation). 3- associated with obtaining a well-fitting margin,
Porcelain brittleness 4- Difficulties may be which can result in fracture because of the
associated with obtaining a well-fitting margin, nature of Porcelain. 5- Proper preparation
which can result in fracture because of the design is critical to ensuring mechanical
nature of Porcelain. 5- Proper preparation success (90 degree Cavo surface angle) thus
design is critical to ensuring mechanical a severely damaged tooth should not be
success (90 degree Cavo surface angle) thus restored with ceramic crown.
a severely damaged tooth should not be
restored with ceramic crown.
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

179. A38057 - 2.5 – 4.5 mgm% Measles morbillivirus (MeV), also called
measles virus (MV), is a single-stranded,
The normal serum phosphorus concentration negative-sense, enveloped, non-segmented
is 3.4 to 4.5 mg/dl (1.12 to 1.45 mmol/L). This RNA virus of the genus Morbillivirus within the
fluctuates with age (it is higher in children than family Paramyxoviridae. It is the cause of
adults), dietary intake, and acid–base status. If measles. Humans are the natural hosts of the
your test shows you have high virus; no animal reservoirs are known to exist.
phosphate/phosphorus levels, it may mean
you have: Kidney disease.
Hypoparathyroidism, a condition in which your
parathyroid gland doesn't make enough 183. A38073 - 7-14 days
parathyroid hormone. Too much vitamin D in Shingles Also called: herpes zoster A
your body. reactivation of the chickenpox virus in the
body, causing a painful rash.

180. D38064 - Pyruvate kinase

Pyruvate kinase is the enzyme involved in the 184. C38079 - Ziehl-Neelsen stain
last step of glycolysis. It catalyzes the transfer Ziehl–Neelsen staining is a type of acid-fast
of a phosphate group from stain, first introduced by Paul Ehrlich. Ziehl–
phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP) to adenosine Neelsen staining is a bacteriological stain
diphosphate (ADP), yielding one molecule of used to identify acid-fast organisms, mainly
pyruvate and one molecule of ATP. Mycobacteria. It is named for two German
doctors who modified the stain: the
bacteriologist Franz Ziehl (1859–1926) and
181. A38065 - Glucose 6 phosphate the pathologist Friedrich Neelsen (1854–
dehydrogenase 1898). Mycobacterium tuberculosis is a
species of Mycobacterium that causes
pentose phosphate pathway In a scenario tuberculosis (TB). Mycobacterium tuberculosis
where the cell requires both ribose-5- is an airborne bacterium that typically infects
phosphate and NADPH, then glucose-6- the human lungs.
phosphate enters the oxidative phase in order
to produce these products. For cells with a
high demand for the two molecules, studies
have shown that only the oxidative phase 185. A38081 - Streptococcus sanguis
occurs. Here, then, the non-oxidative phase of Streptococcus sanguinis, formerly known as
the pathway may not take place. In this Streptococcus sanguis, is a Gram-positive
reaction, a single molecule of glucose-6- facultative anaerobic[1] coccus species of
phosphate (in the presence of a water bacteria and a member of the Viridans
molecule and NADP+) produces two (2) Streptococcus group. S. sanguinis is a normal
molecules of NADPH and a single molecule of inhabitant of the healthy human mouth where
ribulose 5-phosphate. Other products of these it is particularly found in dental plaque, where
reactions include hydrogen ions and carbon it modifies the environment to make it less
dioxide. Some of the enzymes involved in the hospitable for other strains of Streptococcus
oxidative phase include glucose 6-phosphate that cause cavities, such as Streptococcus
dehydrogenase (responsible for the production mutans.
of NADPH), lactonase (involved in the
production of 6-phosphogluconate), and 6-
phosphogluconate dehydrogenase which is
186. C38087 - Polymorphs
involved in the production of ribulose 5-
phosphate and an additional molecule of Granulation tissue is produced during the
NADPH. repair phase. This is a complex of fibroblasts,
vascular endothelial cells, and macrophages
within a matrix of collagen and fibrin.
182. B38070 - Measles virus Fibroblasts and capillaries appear in the
wound by day 3. Fibroblasts use the fibrin clot
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

as a matrix and replace it with new matrix. The

granulation tissue itself is made up of
extracellular matrix, proteoglycans, hyaluronic 190. C38102 - 80-90%
acid, collagen, and elastin. Cytokines and Martin and saller give facial index and cephalic
growth factors, interleukins, and angiogenesis index Cephalic index= maximum skull width/
factors are active during this time, which can maximum skull length Index values:
continue anywhere from days to weeks under Mesocephalic ( Average) 76-81
normal circumstances. Brachycephalic ( Broad skull ) 81-85.5
Dolichocephalic (<76%) Facial index =
Distance b/w nasion and gnathion/
187. B38090 - Coagulative nacrosis bizygomatic width Index value: Euryproscopic
( broad) 79-83 Mesocephalic ( average)84-88
Coagulative necrosis is a type of accidental Leptoproscopic ( long) 88-93
cell death typically caused by ischemia or
infarction. In coagulative necrosis, the
architectures of dead tissue are preserved for
at least a couple of days. Types of necrosis 191. C38106 - sessamoid
with examples. Coagulative necrosis – eg. Calcification of sessamoid bone is one of
Myocardial infarction, renal infarction. important feature of pubertal growth
Liquefactive necrosis – eg. Infarct brain , spurt,which is earlier in females than male.
Abscess. Caseous necrosis – eg. Hamate and pisiform - prepubertal growth
Tuberculosis. Fat necrosis – eg. Acute Adductor+ ulnar sessamoid = Pubertal growth
pancreatitis, traumatic fat necrosis of breast.
Fibrinoid necrosis
192. A38108 - 3

188. B38093 - Hass appliance. For mandible , the answer is b. The maxilla
has 3 ossification centre , one primary is for
Rapid maxillary expansion Orthopedic maxilla proper ( which arise at infraorbital
expansion is produced by applying a lateral foramen above canine fossa) and remaining
force against the posterior maxillary dentition, two ossification centre are for premaxilla
producing a seperation of the midpalatal
suture RME has become an accepted
procedure for the treatment of maxillary
193. A38112 - sheldon
constriction and associated arch length
discrepancies. 1.Results in major change Oral gratification theory state that if child is not
occurring in basal structures of mandible and satisfied with sucking feeding period it will
maxilla 2.Force application is more than 5 persist as symptom of emotional disturbance
ounces. 3.Rate of separation varies from 0.2 by digit sucking According to Sigmond freud
to 0.5 mm / day 4.Intermolar width – 10mm 5. in oral phase of physchologic development,
Time required is 1- 4 weeks 6.Skeletal the mouth is believed to be oro erotic zone.
changes – 50% Types of appliances used: The child has tendency to place fingers or any
Removable appliances Fixed appliances : other thing in mouth According to oral drive
»Tooth and tissue borne appliances include: 1. theory of sears and wise prolonged sucking
Derichsweiler type 2. Haas type »Tooth borne leads to thumb sucking Benzamin theory
appliances include: 1. Isaacson type 2. Hyrax state that thumb sucking arise from rooting
type reflex. Rooting reflex is movement of infant
head and tongue toward on object touching
cheek. The rooting reflex disappear in normal
189. A38096 - rotation individual by 7-8 months of age

Whip spring is a cantilever spring used for

roated maxillary anterior. Modified whip spring
194. A38116 - retrognathic
are used for: a)Disimpaction of mid to severe
mesially impacted lower terminal molars Articular angle is S-AR-GO. If angle is large
b)Flaring of lower teeth mandible is small and vice versa
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

and contribute to mandibular development,

and to formation of the malleus and incus (ear
195. D38124 - seperator bones) respectively. The middle region
Active component of fixed appliance include degenerates and gives rise to the
seperators, elastics, arch wire and spring sphenomandibular ligament.
Passive component of fixed appliance is
bracket , buccal tube,ligature wire and lock pin
203. D38157 - Bennett shift

196. B38126 - move the root in mesiodistal

direction

A option - elastic thread c option uprighting

spring d option elastic chain, elastic module

197. C38131 - inclined plane

In reinforced or multiple anchorage more than

one type of resistance unit is utilized.
Orthopedic appliance , anterior inclined plane
and transpalatal arch are example of
reinforced anchorage. Closure of midline
diastema, split expansion appliance and
correction of cross bite are example of
reciprocal anchorage The Bennett movement is defined as “The
bodily lateral movement or lateral shift of the
mandible resulting from the movements of the
condyles along the lateral inclines of the
198. A38133 - concave
mandibular fossae in lateral jaw movements. “'
Curve of wilson is curve that contacts buccal McCollum' considered the Ben- nett
and lingual cusp for mandibular teeth. It is a movement the most important determinant of
cross arch cross tooth curve indicating the occlusion.
height difference between supporting and non
supporting cusps in occlusion Lingual
inclination of mandibular molars is basis for 204. A38158 - Upper membrane on the
curve of wilson ie. curvature for mandibula ie. articular
concave and maxillary teeth is convex
Non-Arcon articulators place the mechanical
condyle on the upper part of the frame. In
other words, the Arcon articulator copies the
199. D38141 - Enamel is highly calcified.
natural bones of the skull, while the non-Arcon
articulator is in reverse, with the condyle
moving in the opposite direction
200. D38145 - Occlusal wear.

205. C38164 - Gates glidden

201. B38147 - The pulp plays a passive role.

202. A38150 - Mental ossicles, incus and

malleous of the middle ear.

Meckel's cartilage is comprised of three

distinct regions. The anterior and posterior
regions undergo endochondral ossification
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

209. A38182 - Maxilla

Scammon's curves for growth of the four

major tissue systems of the body. As the
graph indicates, growth of the neural tissues is
nearly complete by 6 or 7 years of age.
General body tissues, including muscle, bone,
and viscera, show an S-shaped curve, with a
definite slowing of the rate of growth during
childhood and an acceleration at puberty.
Lymphoid tissues proliferate far beyond the
adult amount in late childhood, and then
undergo involution at the same time that
growth of the genital tissues accelerates
rapidly.
The instrument has multiple uses, including
the opening of the root canal orifice, shaping
of the root canal in the coronal and middle
210. C38188 - Reinforced
thirds of the root, and initially even to the
apical extent of the canal. Anchorage is defined as the resistance to
unwanted tooth movement. Simple anchorage
pits one tooth against another, whereas
206. A38166 - Vinyl or polystyrene compound anchorage utilises more than one
tooth in the anchor block to produce
differential movement in favour of the less
supported section. Equal movement of either
207. D38173 - Peutz Jegher’s syndrome
units toward each other due to equal force
Peutz Jeghers syndrome is an autosomal distribution on equal sized teeth is referred to
dominant genetic condition caused by as reciprocal anchorage and is used in
mutations in the STK11/LKB1 gene. The most diasthema closure
common manifestation of Peutz-Jegher's
syndrome is the development of
hyperpigmented macules, or spots, on the oral 211. B38195 - Erythema migrans
mucosa, lips, nose, hands, feet, and
anogenital region. The spots range in color Benign migratory glossitis is a psoriasiform
from dark brown to bluish-black, and are mucositis of the dorsum of the tongue. Its
generally only a few millimeters in size. dominant characteristics is a constantly
changing pattern of serpiginous white lines
surrounding areas of smooth, depapillated
mucosa. The changing appearance has led
208. C38176 - Erythema multiforme
some to call this the wandering rash of the
Erythema multiforme (EM) is an interesting tongue, with the depapillated areas have
dermatologic disease which has oral reminded others of continental outlines on a
manifestations. EM is clinically characterized globe, hence the use of the popular term
by a “minor” form and a “major” form. It geographic tongue.As with psoriasis, the
presents a diagnostic dilemma because the etiology of benign migratory glossitis is
oral cavity has the ability to produce varied unknown, but it does seem to become more
manifestations. The oral manifestations of the prominent during conditions of psychological
spectrum of EM range from tender superficial stress and it is found with increased frequency
erythematous and hyperkeratotic plaques to (10%) in persons with psoriasis of the skin.
painful deep hemorrhagic bullae and erosions.
Other mucosal surfaces including ocular,
nasal, pharyngeal, laryngeal, upper 212. B38199 - Idiopathic thrombocytopenic
respiratory, and anogenital may be involved purpura
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

One of the prominent manifestations of 216. D38217 - Provides stabilized

thrombocytopenic purpura is the severe and anteroposterior position
often profuse gingival hemorrhage which
occurs in the majority of cases. This The arrow points toward the notched bite
hemorrhage may be spontaneous and often block on which patient is asked to bite on. The
arises in the absence of skin lesions. anteroposterior position radiograph of the
Petechiae also occur on the oral mucosa, patient is achieved typically by having patients
commonly on the palate, and appear as place the incisal edges of their maxillary and
numerous tiny, grouped clusters of reddish mandibular incisors into a notched positioning
spots only a millimeter or less in diameter. device (the bite block) . Patients should not
Actual ecchymoses do occur occasionally. shift the mandible to either side when making
this protrusive movement. The midsagittal
plane must be centered within the image layer
of the particular X-ray unit.
213. A38202 - Pemphigus vulgaris

Pemphigus as an entity is characterized

microscopically by the formation of a vesicle or 217. C38220 - Ankyloglossia
bulla entirely intraepithelial, just above the
basal layer producing the distinctive Congenital short lingual frenum of the tongue
suprabasilar ‘split’. Perivascular edema with microglossia. Ankyloglossia, or tongue-tie
appears to weaken this junction, and the as it is more commonly known, is said to exist
intercellular bridges between the epithelial when the inferior frenulum attaches to the
cells disappear. This results in loss of bottom of the tongue and subsequently
cohesiveness or acantholysis, and because of restricts free movement of the tongue.
this, clumps of epithelial cells are often found
lying free within the vesicular space. These
have been called ‘Tzanck cells’ and are 218. A38222 - Melkersson-Rosenthal
characterized particularly by degenerative syndrome
changes which include swelling of the nuclei
Melkersson-Rosenthal syndrome and Down
and hyperchromatic staining
syndrome and in frequent association with
benign migratory glossitis (geographic
tongue).
214. A38206 - Mucocele

The retention phenomenon involving

accessory salivary gland structures occurs 219. B38227 - Permanent human dentition
most frequently on the lower lip, but may also
The permanent dentition is comprised of 32
occur on the palate, cheek, tongue (involving
teeth. There are 16 teeth in the maxilla and 16
the glands of Blandin-Nuhn), and floor of the
in the mandible. In each arch there are two
mouth. Traumatic severance of a salivary
central incisors, two lateral incisors, two
duct, such as that produced by biting the lips
canines, four premolars, and six molars. The
or cheek or pinching the lip by extraction
permanent central incisors, lateral incisors,
forceps, precedes the development of the
first and second premolars replace the primary
retention phenomenon.
dentition.The primary molars are replaced with
the permanent premolars, and the permanent
molars erupt posterior to those.
215. D38213 - Film

X-ray film has two principal components:

Emulsion and base. The emulsion, which is 220. D38233 - Fluorosis
sensitive to X-rays and visible light, records
Fluorosis is a cosmetic condition that affects
the radiographic image. The base is a plastic
the teeth. It’s caused by overexposure to
supporting material onto which the emulsion is
fluoride during the first eight years of life. After
coated.
the teeth come in, the teeth of those affected
by fluorosis may appear mildly discolored.
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

226. D38256 - Tricho-dento-osseous

syndrome
221. A38234 - Fracture
It is an autosomal dominant disorder in which
The stress–strain curve is the most reliable hypomaturation as well as hypoplastic
and complete source for the evaluation of patterns of amelo genesis imperfecta are seen
mechanical properties of any fibre. The
stress–strain curve is produced by plotting the
applied stress on the fibre axis and the
elongation produced due it. Yield point is the 227. A38257 - Rubinstein-Taybi
point at which the material will have an A talon cusp (dens evaginatus of anterior
appreciable elongation or yielding without any tooth) is a welldelineated additional cusp that
increase in load. The maximum ordinate in the is located on the surface of an anterior tooth
stress-strain diagram is the ultimate strength and extends at least half the distance from the
or tensile strength. cementoenamel junction to the incisal edge.

222. A38237 - Thumb sucking 228. B38262 - Enamel and dentin

Some of unhealthy oral habits in children Fusion is defined as a single-enlarged tooth or
include thumb sucking, nail biting, lip biting, joined (i.e. double) tooth in which the tooth
tongue thrusting, mouth breathing etc. In order count reveals a missing tooth when the
to control such routines, separate appliances anomalous tooth is counted as one.
are designed and manufactured. These
appliances are known as habit breaking
appliances. If these habits are not controlled,
229. D38268 - Salivary glands
they may lead to periodontal diseases, change
in the shape of jaws & change in the teeth Stafne defect presents as an asymptomatic
position. radiolucency below the mandibular canal in
the posterior mandible, between the molar
teeth and the angle of the mandible.
223. A38241 - Oligodontia

It is an autosomal dominant disorder with

230. C38271 - Epstein-Barr virus
incomplete penetrance. Congenitally absent
teeth are one of the most common dental Epstein-Barr virus is responsible for causing
developmental anomalies with third molars hairy leukoplakia which occurs on the lateral
and maxillary lateral incisors being the most surfaces of tongue and is associated with HIV
commonly developmentally missing teeth or other immuno suppressive conditions.

224. D38248 - Syphilis 231. D38276 - Sebaceous glands

Congenital syphilis alters the formation of both Occurrence of sebaceous glands in oral cavity
the anterior teeth (Hutchinson’s incisors) and may result from inclusion in oral cavity, of
the posterior teeth (Mulberry molars). ectoderm having some of the potentialities of
skin.

225. A38249 - Dentin dysplasia Type I

232. A38277 - Bell’s palsy
This autosomal dominant disorder is also
called rootless teeth because of the loss of Progressive hemifacial atrophy is an
organization of the root dentin which often uncommon, degenerative condition
leads to a shortened root length characterized by atrophic changes affecting
one side of the face. Possible causes include
trophic malfunction of the cervical lymphatic
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

nervous system, trauma and viral or Borrelia choice for the management of seizures Acute
infection. bronchospasm is treated with bronchodilators
Hypoglycemia is treated with glucose

233. C38283 - Social engineering phase

240. D11336 - Purple complex

Purple complex bacteria are not associated

234. D38288 - Edward Jenner with iniation or progression of periodontal
disease.

235. A38289 - Predisposing, exciting and

environmental factors
NEET mock test based on
2019 paper
236. B38294 - Supernatural theory of disease

NEET mock test

237. A38297 - hyperlipemia

Hyperlipemia is the term that describes

elevated plasma triglycerides in the absence
of elevated cholesterol. Hyperlipoproteinemia
is an elevation in lipoprotein levels; elevated Questions
plasma triglycerides in the absence of
1. Bowen's disease is:
elevated cholesterol is called hyperlipemia.
Cerebrovascular disease may arise from an A. Benign neoplasm of the G.I.T.
elevation in lipoprotein levels, but specifically
exhibiting elevated plasma triglycerides in the B. Intra epithelial carcinoma
absence of elevated cholesterol is called C. Vesiculobullous lesion of skins
hyperlipemia. Peripheral vascular disease may
arise from an elevation in lipoprotein levels, D. Ulcerative lesion of G.I.T.
but specifically having elevated plasma
triglycerides in the absence of elevated
cholesterol is called hyperlipemia. 2. Hurler cells are pathologically modified

A. Monocytes
238. C38303 - Increases the force of B. Fibroblasts
contraction.
C. Plasma cells
Digoxin is used to manage atrial flutter, not
promote it. Increasing the force of contraction D. Histiocytes
is the primary effect that digoxin has on the
heart. Digoxin improves cardiac function,
thereby decreasing the heart rate. The 3. Most common form of candidiasis in oral
increased force of contraction facilitated by cavity is
digoxin improves cardiac function in the heart
failure patient. Digoxin is known to decrease A. Pseudomembraneous
the size of the heart
B. Erythematous

C. Chronic hyperplastic
239. D38308 - Acute adrenal insufficiency
D. Candidia associated denture stomatitis
Acute adrenal insufficiency is a life-threatening
situation and requires the administration of a
corticosteroid. Anticonvulsants are the drug of
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

4. Outermost circle in the modified envelope of A. Conical pontic

discrepancy denote
B. Ovate pontic
A. Implant with TAD
C. Modified sanitary pontic
B. Both orthodontic and orthognathic
surgery . D. Perel pontic

C. Orthognathic surgery alone

D. Orthodontic surgery 10. Viginia bridge was developed by

A. Rochette in 1973

5. Mac conkey medium is an example of B. Livadinitis and thompson in 1981

A. Enriched medium C. Moons and hudgins 1983

B. Enrichment medium D. Hedge and parker in 1988

C. Differential medium

D. Indicator medium 11. Highly sensitive organs to radiation

exposure are all except

A. Bone marrow
6. Number of subclasses detected in
IMMUNOGLOBULIN G are B. Salivary gland

A. 2 C. mucous membrane

B. 3 D. intestines

C. 4

D. 5 12. International standard language used for

the electronic communication of digital images
is

7. Bacteria present in healthy gingival sulcus A. Pixel

A. Actinomyces viscous B. Jpeg

B. S.mutans C. Jpg

C. S.sanguinis D. Dicom

D. Fusobacterium

13. The fuel value of fat is:

8. Bacterial complex that does not initiate A. 4

periodontal disease
B. 7
A. Red complex
C. 9
B. Green complex
D. 5
C. Orange complex

D. Purple complex
14. In cytochrome P450, P stands for:

A. Structural proteins
9. Pontic which appear as teeth literally
emerging from the gingiva is B. Substrate protein
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

C. Pigment D. Hexoses

D. Polymer

20. Which of the following amino acid is

involved in gluconeogenesis?
15. All are true of the genetic code except:
A. Glycine
A. Degenerate
B. Valine
B. Universal
C. Cysteine
C. Punctuation
D. All
D. Non overlapping

21. Bregma is the name given to the junction

16. Coenzyme responsible for single carbon of the
transfer is:
A. Coronal and sagittal sutures
A. Acetyl co enzyme A
B. Frontal bone with the nasal bone
B. Biotin
C. Lambdoid and sagittal sutures
C. THF4
D. Two parietal bones
D. Pyridoxine

22. Palate is formed from:

17. Two vitamins whose derivatives are
involved in transformation of serine to glycine A. Median palatine process
are:
B. Lateral palatine process
A. B6 and B12
C. Both (1) and (2)
B. B12 and nicotinamide
D. Either (1) or (2)
C. Folic acid and B6

D. Folic acid and B12

23. The infrahyoid muscles are innervated by
the:

18. Which of the following fatty acids are not A. Ansa cervicalis
synthesized in human body?
B. Hypoglossal nerve
A. Oleic, linoleic and linolenic acid
C. Tenth cranial nerve
B. Arachidonic, linolenic and linoleic acid
D. Ansa subclavia
C. Palmitic, Oleic and arachidonic

D. Linoleic, arachidonic and stearic acid

24. Which of the following muscles has dual
nerve supply:

19. The rate of absorption of sugars by the A. Digastric

small intestine is highest for:
B. Lateral pterygoid
A. Pentoses
C. Masseter
B. Disaccharides
D. Temporalis
C. Polysaccharides
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

25. Articular disc of TMJ: 30. The middle meningeal artery:

A. Fibro cartilaginous A. Enters the skull through the foramen

ovale
B. Bony
B. Supplies the superolateral surface of the
C. Hyaline ipsilateral cerebral hemisphere
D. Elastic C. Runs a subdural course within the cranial
cavity

26. Which of the following does not drain into D. Gives an interior branch which runs deep
the sub mental lymph nodes? to the pterion

A. Upper lip

B. Tip of tongue 31. The inferior dental artery is a branch of

the:
C. Floor of mouth
A. Mandibular artery
D. Central lower lip
B. Maxillary artery

C. Pterygomandibular plexus
27. Ptosis may occur due to damage to:
D. None of the above
A. Trochlear nerve

B. Occulomotor
32. The lymphatic drainage from the tip of
C. Trigeminal nerve tongue first passes to:
D. Superior oblique muscle A. Submental nodes

B. Supra clavicular nodes

28. All the following are true about upper C. Sub mandibular nodes
eyelid EXCEPT:
D. Superior deep cervical nodes
A. Muscles which close the eyelid are
supplied by the facial nerve

B. Muscles which open the eyelid are 33. Protrusion of tongue is brought out by
supplied by the branch of trigeminal nerve A. Genioglossus
C. Sensory supply is by the 5th cranial B. Intrinsic muscles of tongue
nerve
C. Styloglossus
D. supply is by the lacrimal and ophthalmic
arteries D. Palatoglossus

29. The artery, which runs along, the lower 34. Cricothyroid is supplied by:
border of posterior belly of digastric is:
A. Vagus
A. Lingual
B. Recurrent laryngeal nerve
B. Ascending pharyngeal
C. Hypoglossal nerve
C. Occipital
D. Superior Laryngeal nerve
D. Palatine
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

35. The nerve that is related to pyriform recess 40. Which of the following deciduous molars
in pharynx: bears the greatest resemblance to a premolar:

A. Recurrent laryngeal A. Maxillary second

B. External laryngeal B. Maxillary first

C. Internal laryngeal C. Mandibular first

D. Glosso pharyngeal D. Mandibular second

36. Secretomotor supply of parotid comes 41. Upper and lower lips are formed from
from: which embryonic processes:

A. Greater Petrosal nerve A. Maxillary and mandibular

B. Auriculotemporal nerve B. Maxillary and median nasal

C. Maxillary nerve C. Maxillary mandibular lateral nasal and

median nasal
D. Chorda Tympani
D. Mandibular and median nasal

37. Submandibular gland is situated in:

42. Cells of the spinous layer are generally:
A. Digastric triangle
A. Larger than the basal cells
B. Carotid triangle
B. Smaller than the basal cells
C. Muscular triangle
C. Same size as that of basal cells
D. Deep to hyoglossus muscle
D. None of the above

38. 'Pterion' is:

43. Reversal lines which may be seen on the
A. Is a point of articulation four skull bones cribriform plate (alveolar bone proper) of the
B. Is a point where 'bregma' and 'lambda' alveolar process indicate the cessation of:
meet A. Osteoblastic activity
C. It is the region of the antero-lateral B. Osteoclastic activity
fontanelle merge
C. Myeloid activity
D. Lies deep to the zygomatic arch
D. Healing activity

39. The shape of the occlusal surface of the

permanent maxillary first molar is: 44. Anchoring fibrils are composed of:

A. Oval A. Type V and VII collagen

B. Trapezoidal B. Type I and III collagen

C. Triangular C. Type IV collagen

D. Rhomboidal D. Type IV and III collagen

FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

45. Approximately how thick is the cementum B. Fibrocartilage

that is deposited at the root apex?
C. Bony processes
A. 100-150 µm.
D. Fibrous ligament and hyaline cartilage
B. 60-90 µm only

C. 36-60 µm.

D. 150-200 µm. 51. Maxillary facial and mandibular lingual

cusps require sufficient occlusal length and
horizontal overlap for:
46. Weil's zone of pulp is: A. Soft tissue protection
A. Cell degenerated zone B. Esthetics
B. Cell rich zone C. Centric stability
C. Cell regenerated zone D. Chewing efficiency
D. Cell free zone

52. Calcification of permanent first molar

47. Dentinal tubules are: usually begins in the:

A. Concave A. Third month of intrauterine life

B. Straight B. In the sixth month of intrauterine life

C. S-shaped C. At birth

D. None of the above D. In the third month of extra uterine life

48. Perikymata are the external surface 53. Which of the following is true about
manifestations of amoebic liver disease?

A. Enamel rods A. Portal system is the main filtration

system
B. Incremental lines of retzius
B. Non-suppurative form is the serious form
C. Nasmyth's membrane of extra intestinal amoebiasis
D. Pellicle C. Trophozoites can be visualized in the
pus

D. Left lobe of liver is commonly involved

49. All are true about calciotraumatic line,
except:

A. Because of odontoblastic migration from 54. Germ tubes are formed mainly by:
cell rich zone
A. Candida albicans
B. It remains after caries is removed
B. Candida stellatoidea
C. Due to caries
C. Candida tropicalis
D. Due to death of odontoblastic layer
D. Candida pseudotropicalis

50. Articular disc of TMJ is made up of:

55. Cytopathic effect is shown by:
A. Elastic cartilage
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

A. Virus D. C5a

B. Bacteria

C. Spirochete 61. Opaque porcelain:

D. Anaerobe A. is feldspathic glass

B. contains opacifier like zirconium and

titanium oxide
56. The commonest method of detection of
diphtheria carriers is: C. not used to mask the colour of the
cement used in placing of restoration
A. Schick test
D. used to produce the characteristic
B. Dick test translucence, which is an inherent aspect of
C. Casoni's test the incisal edge in natural teeth

D. Charle's test
62. Eugenol may be replaced in the zinc oxide
eugenol cement by:
57. Signs of typhoid fever is / are:
A. Acetic acid
A. Haemorrhage
B. Alginic acid
B. Perforation
C. Phosphoric acid
C. Osteomyelitis
D. Ortho-ethoxy acid
D. All of the above

63. Electralloy is an alloy of:

58. Following reactions are produced by
heterophil antigens except: A. Gold and Platinum

A. Forssman antigen antibody reaction B. Cobalt and Chromium

B. Widal reaction C. Gold and Calcium

C. Paul bunnel reaction D. Tin and Chromium

D. Weil-Felix reaction
64. Which of the following initiator accelerator
system uses light activation composite?
59. The chemotactic factor is:
A. Organic acid-metal oxide
A. C2a
B. Organic acid-peroxide
B. C3b
C. Diketone-amine
C. C4a
D. Peroxide-amine
D. C5a

65. If curing occurs at temperature more than

60. The chemotactic factor is: 100°C porosity results in which area of
denture:
A. C2a
A. Hard thick central area
B. C3b
B. Thin Palatal area
C. C4a
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

C. Thin area of flanges C. Phenomenon of conversion of gel into

sol
D. Porosity is uniformly distributed
D. All the above

66. All of the following statements about cast

cobalt alloys are true EXCEPT: 71. Space lattice refers to:

A. They have a modulus of elasticity twice A. Inter atomic imbalance

that of gold alloys
B. Arrangement of molecules
B. They are more rigid than gold alloys
C. Inter atomic movement
C. They have higher ductility than gold
alloys D. Arrangement of atoms

D. They have a lower proportional limit than

gold alloys 72. The point at which a stress of a material
exhibits a specific limited deviation P is called:

67. Plaster of paris: A. Proportional limit

A. Is a- hemihydrate B. Tensile strength

B. Has porous and irregular crystals C. Ultimate strength

C. Has a W / P of 0.2 D. Yield strength

D. Is wet calcined hemihydrate

73. During inspiration when the diaphragm
contracts, the intrapleural pressure becomes:
68. Gillmore needle is used for:
A. More negative
A. Testing the strength of plaster of paris
B. Less negative
B. Evaluating the setting time of plaster of
paris C. Positive

C. Testing the purity of noble metals D. Equal to the intra alveolar pressure

D. Testing the metal hardness

74. In jaundice, there is an unconjugated
hyperbilirubinemia which is most likely due to:
69. Palladium is added to polyvinyl siloxane to:
A. Hepatitis
A. Act as a scavenger
B. Cirrhosis
B. Helps as surfactant
C. Obstruction of bile canaliculi
C. Acts as plasticizer
D. Increased break down of red cells
D. Acts as a catalyst

75. Carbonic anhydrase in the kidney tubular

70. Hysteresis in a hydrocolloid gel is: cells is known to be associated with:

A. Moisture absorption A. Urea

B. Temperature lag between gelation and B. Chloride

liquefaction temperature
C. Bicarbonate ion
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

D. Carbohydrate 81. Sphygmomamometer reading can be

correct only when:

A. deflation is 5-10 mm Hg per heart beat

76. The absolute refractory period of an action
potential! is due to: B. cuff is slightly full on applying to patient's
arm
A. Voltage inactivation of the Na+ channel
C. the cuff width is 25% of the diameter of
B. Insufficient neurotransmitter the patient's arm
C. Depletion of intracellular Na+ D. length of the bladder encircle 80% of the
D. Inactivation of Na+ K+ ATPase patient's arm

77. The ventricular repolarization in ECG is 82. All of the following penetrate the CSF
best seen in: except:

A. P wave A. Dextrose

B. Q wave B. Dilantine

C. R wave C. Diazepam

D. T wave D. Dopamine

78. Normal myeloid/erythroid ratio is: 83. All the following are true except:

A. 1:1000 A. A special application of dantrolene is

used to treat malignant hyperthermia
B. 1:100
B. Interferons have a role in immunology of
C. 1:5000 cancer
D. 1:50 C. Thalidomide is used for the treatment of
leprosy

D. Allopurinol is a derivative of 6-
79. In conn's disease, there is an excess of:
mercaptopurine
A. Adrenaline

B. Aldosterone
84. Dissociative sedation and analgesia
C. Cortisol described by Robert and Rosebaum in 1971
is:
D. Noradrenaline
A. 5 to 20% N20

B. 20 to 30% N20
80. Preganglionic parasympathetic fibers are:
C. 30 to 50% N20
A. Somatic only
D. 50 to 70% N20
B. Parasympathetic

C. Sympathetic
85. Relative contraindications for the
D. Cholinergic administration of ketamine hydrochloride
include all of the following EXPECT:

A. Age < 5 years

FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

B. History of epilepsy B. Anti-inflammatory

C. Raised intracranial tension C. Antidepressant

D. Recent anterior myocardial infarction D. Antibiotic

86. Magnesium and aluminium are added in 91. Aspirin produces all of the following effects
antacid because except:

A. Mg causes constipation, Al causes A. Frank gastric bleeding

diarrhoea
B. Prolonged prothrombin time
B. Mg Causes diarrhoea, Al causes
constipation C. Platelet dysfunction

C. Mg act as buffering agent and Al D. Constipation

antagonize its action

D. Both increase gastric motility 92. Short-acting non-depolarising muscle

relaxant is:

87. Which of the following is not caused by A. Succinylcholine

Frusemide? B. Pancuronium
A. Hypokalemic C. Mivacurum
B. Hyperuricemia D. Decamethonium
C. Hypercalcemia

D. Hyponatremia 93. Beta 2 agonist causes:

A. Mydriasis
88. Plasma concentration of drug at time 0 is B. Contraction of urinary spinctors
96g/ml. If t 1/2 is 2 hours concentration is
plasma at 10 hours will be: C. Vasoconstriction

A. 48 D. Bronchial muscle relaxation

B. 24

C. 12 94. Antifungal drug not used in the treatement

of intestinal candidiasis:
D. 3
A. Clotrimazole

B. Amphotericin
89. Therapeutic index indicates:
C. Nystatin
A. Drug toxicity
D. Ketoconazole
B. Drug potency

C. Drug safety
95. The therapeutic advantage that penicillin V
D. Drug's lethal effect has over penicillin G is:

A. Greater resistance to pencillinase

90. Carbamazepine Importance: B. Slower renal excretion
A. Antiemetic C. Broader antibacterial spectrum
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

D. More reliable oral absorption D. A decrease in the urine output

96. Coagulative necrosis is 101. Malignant neoplasms shows all the

following features EXCEPT:
A. Characteristic of focal bacterial infections
A. Disorganized cell structure
B. Characteristic of hypoxic death
B. Encapsulation
C. Characterized by loss of tissue
architecture C. Invasion of blood vessels

D. None of the above D. Rapid, erratic growth

97. The host tissue response in acute 102. A patient with a bleeding disorder with
inflammation is all except: increased bleeding time and normal clotting
time is suffering from:
A. Exudative
A. Classic hemophilia
B. Necrotizing
B. Christmas disease
C. GranuLomatous
C. Vitamin K deficiency
D. Cytopathic
D. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura

98. Regeneration by sprouting of axons takes

place in which end of transaction of nerve 103. T-Helper cells (TH2) initiates which type
of immunity:
A. Proximal end
A. Induces cell mediated immunity
B. Distal end
B. Induces humoral immunity
C. Both A and B
C. Induces immunity by activation of cytoxic
D. None of the above T- cells

D. None of the above

99. The persistence of epithelial cells after
wound healing give rise to
104. The point at which a stress of a material
A. Implantation cyst exhibits a specific limited deviation P is called:
B. Keloid A. Proportional limit
C. Wound dehiscence B. Tensile strength
D. Cicatrisation C. Ultimate strength

D. Yield strength
100. All of the following are typically
associated with the loss of 40% of the
circulating blood volume except: 105. Space lattice refers to:

A. A decrease in the blood pressure A. Inter atomic imbalance

B. A decrease in the central venous B. Arrangement of molecules

pressure
C. Inter atomic movement
C. A decrease in the heart rate
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

D. Arrangement of atoms D. They have a lower proportional limit than

gold alloys

106. Hysteresis in a hydrocolloid gel is:

111. If curing occurs at temperature more than
A. Moisture absorption 100°C porosity results in which area of
B. Temperature lag between gelation and denture:
liquefaction temperature A. Hard thick central area
C. Phenomenon of conversion of gel into B. Thin Palatal area
sol
C. Thin area of flanges
D. All the above
D. Porosity is uniformly distributed

107. Palladium is added to polyvinyl siloxane

to: 112. Which of the following initiator accelerator
system uses light activation composite?
A. Act as a scavenger
A. Diketone-amine
B. Helps as surfactant
B. Organic acid-metal oxide
C. Acts as plasticizer
C. Organic acid-peroxide
D. Acts as a catalyst
D. Peroxide-amine

108. Gillmore needle is used for:

113. Eugenol may be replaced in the zinc
A. Testing the strength of plaster of paris oxide eugenol cement by:
B. Evaluating the setting time of plaster of A. Acetic acid
paris
B. Alginic acid
C. Testing the purity of noble metals
C. Phosphoric acid
D. Testing the metal hardness
D. Ortho-ethoxy acid

109. Plaster of paris:

114. Electralloy is an alloy of:
A. Is a- hemihydrate
A. Gold and Platinum
B. Has porous and irregular crystals
B. Cobalt and Chromium
C. Has a W / P of 0.2
C. Gold and Calcium
D. Is wet calcined hemihydrate
D. Tin and Chromium

110. All of the following statements about cast

cobalt alloys are true EXCEPT: 115. The chemotactic factor is:

A. They have a modulus of elasticity twice A. C2a

that of gold alloys
B. C3b
B. They are more rigid than gold alloys
C. C4a
C. They have higher ductility than gold
alloys D. C5a
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

A. Portal system is the main filtration

system
116. Following reactions are produced by
heterophil antigens except: B. Non-suppurative form is the serious form
of extra intestinal amoebiasis
A. Forssman antigen antibody reaction
C. Trophozoites can be visualized in the
B. Widal reaction pus
C. Paul bunnel reaction D. Left lobe of liver is commonly involved
D. Weil-Felix reaction

122. MikuLicz's disease is:

117. Signs of typhoid fever is / are: A. Viral infection
A. Haemorrhage B. Neoplastic disease
B. Perforation C. An autoimmune disease
C. Osteomyelitis D. An inflammatory disease
D. All of the above

123. Most commonly affected peripheral nerve

118. The commonest method of detection of in leprosy is:
diphtheria carriers is: A. Ulnar
A. Schick test B. Radial
B. Dick test C. Medial
C. Casoni's test D. Lateral Popliteal
D. Charle's test

124. Glasgow coma scale does not include:

119. Cytopathic effect is shown by: A. Eye opening
A. Virus B. Best verbal response
B. Bacteria C. Blood pressure
C. Spirochete D. Best motor response
D. Anaerobe

125. The repair of cleft palate is primarily done

120. Germ tubes are formed mainly by: for:

A. Candida albicans A. Correction of speech

B. Candida stellatoidea B. Correction of esthetics

C. Candida tropicalis C. Induce growth of maxilla

D. Candida pseudotropicalis D. Induce growth of mandible

121. Which of the following is true about 126. Dermoid cyst is a form of:
amoebic liver disease? A. Cystic hamartoma
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

B. Cystic teratoma 131. Cervical rib syndrome commonly

produces
C. Choriostoma
A. Dysphagia
D. Hamartoma
B. Neurological manifestation

C. Respiratory symptoms
127. In staging of Hodgkin's lymphoma,
bilateral involvement of lymph nodes on either D. Gastric symptoms
side of diaphragm is:

A. Stage-I
132. Dullness on percussion in the Traube's
B. State-II semilunar area denotes:

C. Stage-III A. Cardiomegaly

D. Stage-IV B. Splenomegaly

C. Hepatomegaly

128. Clotting capacity of blood after storage D. All of the above

A. Improves

B. Not altered if kept at 4°C 133. A 5-year old boy passed 18 loose stools
in last 24 hours and vomited twice in last 4
C. Not altered if used within 3 days hours. He is irritable but drinking fluids. The
D. Diminishes optional therapy for this child is:

A. Intravenous fluids

129. The most common cause of superficial B. Oral rehydration therapy

thrombophelbitis is: C. Intravenous fluid initially for 4 hours
A. Infection followed by oral fluids

B. Trauma D. Plain water ad libitum

C. Varicosities

D. Intravenous infusion 134. Patient complaining of retrosternal chest

pain for more than half an hour is most likely
to be:
130. A 5-year old patient is scheduled for A. Congenital heart problem
tonsillectomy. On the day of surgery he had
running nose, temperature 37.5°C and dry B. Angina
cough. Which of the following should be the C. CHF
most appropriate decision for surgery?
D. MI
A. Surgery should be cancelled

B. Can proceed for surgery if chest is clear

135. Fever, clubbing and Osler's nodes occur
C. Should get x-ray chest before proceeding in:
for surgery
A. Leptospirosis
D. Cancel surgery for 3 week and patient to
be on antibiotic B. Typhoid fever

C. Infective endocarditis

D. Rheumatic fever
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

136. Kussamaul's breathing is due to 141. Cogwheel type of rigidity is seen in one of
presence of: the following:

A. Bicarbonate A. Parkinsonism

B. H+ ions B. Multiple scelerosis

C. Chloride ions C. Motor neuron disease

D. K+ ions D. Tabesdorsalis

137. AB -ve girl should be given blood, which 142. A patient presents with a history of
blood group can be given in case of non- continuous headache for the past 8 yrs.
availability of her blood? Repeated examinations had failed to reveal
any lesion. The patient is not convinced and
A. A(-ve) believes that he has a tumor In his brain. He Is
B. B(-ve) referred to a psychiatrist, who, after
examination of his case comes to a
C. O(-ve) conclusion. The diagnosis is most probably:
D. AB(+ve) A. Somatization

B. Hypochondriasis
138. In thrombocytopenic purpura there is: C. Somatoform pain disorder
A. Increase in plaftelet count D. Obsessive compulsive disorder
B. Decrease in platelet count

C. Normal platelet count 143. A union of the roots of adjacent teeth

through the cementum is referred to as:
D. Defective platelet function
A. Concrescence

B. Fusion
139. All of the following conditions are likely to
be associated with melena except: C. Gemination
A. Carcinoma of the stomach D. None of the above
B. Carcinoma of the rectum

C. Chronic duodenal ulcer 144. Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia is

seen commonly on:
D. Portal hypertension
A. Lips

B. Buccal mucosa
140. Which of the following is the primary acid-
base disorder associated with haemorrhagic C. Tongue
shock, diabetic ketosis and chronic renal
failure? D. Palate

A. Metabolic acidosis

B. Metabolic alkalosis 145. Bifid ribs, multiple radiolucent lesions of

the jaws, multiple basal cell nevi and falx
C. Respiratory acidosis cerebri calcification are found in:
D. Respiratory alkalosis A. Basal cell nevus syndrome
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

B. Sturge weber syndrome 150. Which of the following are a triad of the
sign and symptoms of osteogenesis
C. Horner syndrome imperfect?
D. Hereditary internal polyposis A. blue sclera, sparse hair, anhydrosis

B. enlarged hand, feet, maxilla, mandible

146. Which of the following statements is C. blue sclera, brittle bones, opalescent
FALSE? dentin
A. A salivary duct obstruction can cause a D. blue sclera, arachnodactyly, brittle
unilateral swelling in the floor of the mouth that bones,
is largest before a meal and smallest after a
meal

B. The lesion termed a ranula is associated 151. Trotter's syndrome involves:

with the sublingual salivary gland.
A. Pharynx
C. The sublingual salivary gland is the most
common site of salivary gland neoplasia B. Oropharynx

D. A pleomorphic adenoma is the most C. Larynx

common salivary gland neoplasm D. Nasopharynx

147. Oral foci of miller's are seen in: 152. Which of the following is an oral
A. Dental caries manifestation of lichen planus?

B. Lichen planus A. Dentinogenesis imperfecta

C. Herpes simplex B. Fordyce spots

D. Syphilis C. White, chalky enamel surface

D. White radiating lines on the buccal

mucosa
148. Garre's chronic non suppurative
sclerosing osteomyelitis is characterized
clinically by: 153. Maxilla develops by:
A. Endosteal bone formation A. Endochondral bone formation
B. Periosteal bone formation B. Intra membranous bone formation
C. Resorption of medullary bone C. Cartilage replacement and intra
D. Resorption of cortical bone membranous bone formation

D. Mostly cartilage replacement and a little

by intra membranous
149. Loss of tooth surface because of chemo
mechanical action is known as:

A. Abrasion 154. Forensic Identification utilizes:

B. Erosion A. Lip prints

C. Abfraction B. Lip schutz bodies

D. Attrition C. Lip pits

D. Lip reading
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

A. Blastomycosis

155. The oral findings in erythroblastosis B. Foreign body reaction

fetalis include:
C. Syphilis
A. Dentinal dysplasia
D. Tuberculosis
B. Hypoplastic teeth

C. Pigmented teeth
160. The feature that distinguishes herpes
D. All of the above zoster from other vesiculo bullous eruptions is:

A. Unilateral occurrence

156. Yellowish discoloration of teeth is seen in B. Severe burning pain

children fed on:
C. Prominent crusting vesicles
A. High-protein diet
D. Sub epidermal bullous formation
B. Tetracyclines

C. Penicillins
161. Which of the following is not
D. Erythromycin characteristic of congenital syphilis?

A. Ghon complex

157. Leutic glossitis can occur in connection B. Interstitial keratitis

with:
C. Mulberry molars
A. Vitamin B deficiency
D. Notched incisors
B. Vitamin C deficiency

C. Iron deficiency
162. In a 10-year-old child the lower canines
D. Syphilis are trying to erupt in 2mm insufficient space.
The primary molars are large and firmly fixed.
The 1st premolars are also erupting. The
158. Osteomalacia is: treatment of choice is:

A. defective osteoid + normal mineralization A. Remove primary 2nd molars

B. normal osteoid + defective mineralization B. Place a removable bite-opener

C. abnormal osteoid + abnormal C. Remove 1st premolars

mineralization D. Mesial stripping of primary 2nd molars
D. normal osteoid an demineralization

163. The two blocks in the twin block

159. A thirty-two-years-old adult male presents functional appliance are angulated at (Or) The
with a chronic suppurative lesion on the angle angle of inclined plane in darkens twin block
of the jaw. Microscopic examination shows is:
small abscesses immediate beneath the A. 45°
epidermis with moderate growths of epithelial
cords. In the abscess there are oval, B. 70°
unicellular organisms measuring 20 um in
diameter and having a thick, double- refractive C. 65°
cell wall and cytoplasm containing refractive D. 80°
granules and vacuoles. Which of the following
is the most likely diagnosis?
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

164. Example of semifixed orthodontic D. Retruded maxillary incisor

appliance is

A. Kesslings wrap around retainer

169. Blanch test is used in diagnosis of
B. Hawley's retainer
A. Abnormal frenal attachments
C. Lip bumper
B. Pseudo class III
D. Pin and tube appliance
C. Tongue thrusting

D. Thumb sucking
165. In an-8-year-old child there is insufficient
space in the upper anterior segment for the
upper permanent lateral incisors to erupt. 170. Incompetent lips refer to:
Treatment is:
A. Inability of the lips to cover the incisors in
A. Disk the proximal surface of maxillary the mandibular relaxed position
incisors
B. Inability of the lips to cover the incisors in
B. Disk deciduous canines and first molars occlusion
C. Extract the deciduous 1st molars C. The lips come in between the upper and
D. No treatment required but observe lower incisors

D. Tongue thrusts against the lips during

swallowing
166. For a bodily movement of a small tooth
the force required is:

A. 25 - 30g 171. The cause of pseudoclass III

malocclusion is:
B. 40 - 75g
A. Developmental deficiency
C. 120 - 150q
B. Increased mandibular growth
D. More than 150g
C. Functional abnormality

D. Hormonal disturbance
167. 'Scissors bite' is a term used to describe:

A. Anterior posterior crowing with deep bite

172. The average "Leeway space" available in
B. Posterior cross bite each half of the maxilla is approximately:

C. The type of cross bite where maxillary A. 0.9 mm

segments contains full mandibular segments
B. 2.9 mm
D. A type of anterior cross bite
C. 4.0 mm

D. 6.9 mm
168. An ANB angle 2° on the cephalogram
usually indicates:

A. An unfavorable relationship of mandible 173. The 'heel effect' results

to maxilla A. In low intensity X-ray beam on anode
B. A favorable relationship of maxillary side of central ray
alveolar base to mandibular alveolar base B. In high intensity beam of X-rays towards
C. Poor cranial growth with poor prognosis cathode
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

C. Both of them are true D. Towne's projection

D. None of the above are true

179. A radiolucent lesion in the posterior part

of the mandible, anterior to the angle, has
174. The most radio resistant organ is: radiographic features of a cyst. After surgical
A. Cartilage intervention, the histology reports shows
submaxillary salivary gland tissue, one may
B. Gonads conclude the lesion is likely:
C. Lungs A. Residual cyst
D. Lymphoid B. Traumatic bone cyst

C. Stafne's bone cyst

175. Penny test is the quality assurance test to D. A lingual mandibular bone cavity
detect:

A. Fixer depletion
180. The health promotional phase in public
B. Unsafe illumination health is between the years:
C. Machine malfunction A. 1880-1920
D. Contaminated solution B. 1920-1960

C. 1960-1980
176. The ingredient of the fixing solution (fixer) D. 1981-2K
of the X-ray is:

A. Hydroquinone
181. The dye used in the "Reductase enzyme"
B. Eton (caries activity test) is
C. Sodium bisulphate A. Bromocresol green
D. Acetic acid B. Resazurin sodium (Diazoresorcinol
sodium)

C. 1% acid red in propylene glycol

177. The use of long cone is adjunct in parallel
technique: D. Methyl blue
A. To minimize the superimposition of
anatomical structures
182. Fluoride is added to drinking water in the
B. To prevent the shortening of image form of:
C. To prevent the distortion of image A. hydrofluorosilicic acid
D. To prevent the elongation of image B. fluoride ions

C. APF
178. Best radiograph for viewing # of maxillary D. None of the above
bone:

A. Submentovertex
183. The most age specific index is:
B. PA view
A. DMFT
C. Water's view
B. DMF
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

C. def

D. All of the above 189. Gingivectomy is contraindicated in:

A. Gingival hyperplasia

184. In the etiology of dental caries one of the B. Suprabony defects

following is not an environmental factor:
C. Infrabony pockets
A. Saliva
D. Phenytoin induced gingival hyperplasia
B. Micro organisms

C. Refined carbohydrates
190. Chlorhexidine on tooth causes:
D. Structure of the tooth
A. No stain

B. Brownish yellow stains

185. Father of health statistics is:
C. Greenish yellow stain
A. John Snow
D. Blue back stain
B. John Graunt

C. Frederick Mc Kay
191. Which of the following instruments has a
D. Pierre Fauchard two point contact with the tooth?

A. Hoe

186. Polyglycolic acid suture material ("Vicryl") B. Sickle

is a / an:
C. Currete
A. Absorbable natural suture
D. Cumin scaler
B. Absorbable synthetic suture

C. Non-absorbable natural suture

192. If the pocket depth is 5 mm and gingival
D. Non-absorbable synthetic suture recession is 3 mm then the total loss of
attachment is:

A. 8 mm
187. The graft with the maximum osteogenic
potential is: B. 3 mm

A. Allogaft C. 5 mm

B. xenograft D. 2 mm

C. Autocortical

D. autocancellous 193. A condition, which occurs in puberty and

in the absence of large amounts of
supragingival plaque and resulting in angular
188. The common goal of all periodontal flap bone defects in the first molar and incisor
procedures is to: region is called:

A. Correct mucogingival inadequacies A. Generalized juvenile periodontitis

B. Remove diseased granulation tissue B. Localized juvenile periodontitis

C. Provided access for instrumentation C. Desquamate gingivitis

D. Add bone support where it has been lost D. Chronic periodontitis

FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

B. Due to poor oral hygiene

194. What histologic criteria is used to C. Congenital abnormality

distinguish gingivitis from periodontitis?
D. Due to trauma from occlusion
A. Occlusal trauma

B. Howship's lacunae
199. Materia alba:
C. Bone Resorption
A. Lack microorganisms
D. Endosteal Proliferation
B. Has an irritating effect on gingiva

C. Has a regular internal pattern

195. Periodontitis may best be described as:
D. Is only salivary protein and food debris
A. A chronic inflammatory disease with
periods of remission and exacerbation

B. A chronic inflammatory disease that 200. The predominant immunoglobulin in

usually does not manifest itself clinically sulcular fluid is:
before the age of 40 A. Ig G
C. A degenerative disease of the B. Ig A
periodontium
C. Ig H
D. An acute inflammatory disease of long
duration D. Ig E

196. Punched-out, crater-like depressions at 201. Which of the following organisms is NOT
the crest of the gingiva, covered by gray implicated in the etiology of Periodontal
pseudo- membranous slough, which is disease?
demarcated from the remainder of the gingiva
A. Bacteroides
by linear erythema, are characteristic of:
B. Wolinella
A. Desquamative gingivitis
C. Neisseria
B. Erythema multiforme
D. Eikenella
C. Vincent's stomatitis

D. Lichen planus
202. The length of junctional epithelium is:

A. 0.25 - 1.35 mm
197. Which of the following drugs is
associated with gingival hyperplasia? B. 0.5 - 0.75 mm
A. Dihydropyridines C. 1.0 - 2.0 mm
B. Tetracyclines D. 1.0 - 1.5 mm
C. Cyclosporin

D. Metronidazole 203. Tell-show-do technique of child

management was introduced by:

A. Bandura
198. Mc Call's festoons are:
B. Addleslon
A. Also called Stillman's Clefts
C. Coope
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

D. Wright C. Debridement and pulpotomy

D. Observe, no treatment

204. Iron content in 3M Nickel based steel

crowns is:
209. The success of the calcium hydroxide
A. 20% pulpotomy is determined by the:

B. 40% A. Formation of calcific bridge

C. 60% B. Formation of hard base to support

restoration
D. 10%
C. Continuation of root formation and
Apexogenesis
205. Apexogenesis of incompletely formed D. All of the above
root is:

A. Induce the formation of apical 1/3 of root

210. Rooting reflex theory of thumb sucking
B. Closure of apical formation in a was given by:
developing tooth
A. Sigmund freud
C. induce the formation of apical 2/3 of root
B. Ergel
D. Deposition of cellular cementum at open
apex C. Benjamin

D. Sears and wise

206. Pulp therapy which sweet name

associated with:
211. In a child with a pre-existing cardio
A. Formocresol pulpotomy valvular disease, antibiotic prophylaxis should
be administered before a dental extraction so
B. Beech wood cresol pulpotomy as to prevent:
C. Non vital pulpotomy A. Bacterial endocarditis
D. Pulpectomy B. Congestive cardiac failure

C. Pneumonia
207. Equilibrium in infants begin for walking D. Rheumatic carditis
by:

A. 6 months
212. Cephalocaudal gradient of growth
B. 12 months extends from:
C. 2 months A. From head to feet
D. 4 months B. From head to chest

C. From knee to the feet

208. A boy 10-year-old fractured his central D. None of the above
incisor 1 1/2 year back. His pulp test is
negative. What is the treatment?

A. Debridement of pulp space and 213. Nyhan syndrome is associated with:

apexification
A. Masochistic behavior of child
B. RCT
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

B. Physical abuse of child D. Parotid gland

C. Low I.Q. of child patient

D. None of the above 219. Frequent dislocation of TMJ is due to:

A. Spasm of muscles of mastication

214. space infection is mainly due to spread B. The articular eminence being smaller
of:
C. Decreased free way space
A. Cervical tuberculosis
D. All of the above
B. Meningoencephalitis

C. Mumps
220. A 32 year old male patient complains of
D. Odontogenic infections swelling in left maxillary region with heaviness
in the maxillary sinus following tooth extraction
of maxillary first molar. Patient gives a history
215. Treatment of garre's osteomyelitis is: of tooth extraction one week before with
transalveolar type of extraction.Considering
A. Incision & drainage the heaviness the operated site of the
maxillary region the use of mucolytics helps in
B. Sequestrectomy
A. Brings about aeration in the maxillary
C. Saucerization
sinus
D. Surgical recontouring
B. Reducing the stasis of mucus

C. Reduces the growth of gram negative

216. The roof of pterygo-mandibular space is bacteria
formed by:
D. All of the above
A. Temporalis muscle

B. Medial pterygoid muscle

221. Which surgical procedure is carried out to
C. Cranial base treat TMJ ankylosis?

D. Lateral pterygoid A. Arthroplasty

B. Condylectomy

217. Cavernous sinus thrombosis following C. Discoplasty

infection of anterior maxillary teeth is most
D. Capsulorrhaphy
often from the spread of infection along:

A. Facial artery
222. The "hanging drop appearance" in the
B. Angular artery
maxillary sinus radiograph indicates:
C. Ophthalmic vein
A. A nasal polyp
D. Pterygoid plexus
B. A radiograph artifact

C. An antrolith
218. Salivary calculus is more common in:
D. An antrolith
A. Sublingual gland

B. Minor salivary gland

223. The ideal treatment for fracture of the
C. Submandibular gland angle of mandible is:
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

A. Transosseous wiring

B. Intermaxillary fixation 228. Which of the following rod is not used

with the surveyor?
C. Plating at the inferior border of the
mandible A. Incisal guide pin

D. Plating at the lateral border of the body B. Analyzing rod

of the mandible
C. Carbon marker

D. Wax trimmer
224. Of the following local anesthetics, which
has intrinsic vasoconstrictive action?

A. Cocaine 229. In anterior teeth, rests are ideally

prepared and located on:
B. Procaine
A. Incisal edges
C. Xylocaine
B. Lingual surfaces
D. Bupivacaine
C. Mesial surfaces

D. Distal surfaces
225. In the extraoral technique for mandibular
nerve block the needle after contacting the
pterygoid plate is directed 230. Finish lines of a complete coverage
A. Anteriorly crown should lie:

B. Posteriorly A. Supragingivally

C. Superiorly B. Subgingivally

D. Inferiorly C. Subgingival if required

D. Gingival margin

226. One day after complete mouth extraction,

blue black spots are seen on the neck of the 231. In the posterior maxilla, the pontic of
patients. These spots indicate: choice is:
A. Thrombocytopenic purpura A. Sanitary
B. Postoperative ecchymosis B. Point contact
C. Impaired blood circulation C. Bullet shaped
D. Cellulitis D. Modified ridge lap

227. The "red line" in winter's classification of 232. Relining is done to:
impacted teeth represents:
A. provide retention
A. The depth at which the impacted teeth is
located B. following denture failure due to porosity

B. The angulation of the 2nd molar C. correct occlusion

C. The summit of the alveolar bone D. correct base tissue relationship

covering the impacted tooth

D. Relation of the 3rd molar to the ramus

233. Face bow is used to transfer:
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

A. Axis-orbital plane A. pickling

B. Occlusal plane B. electro-polishing

C. Camper's plane C. sand blasting

D. Frankfort horizontal plane D. rouge

234. Angle of Tip of an endodontic instrument: 239. Macroabrasion is:

A. 75 ± 15° A. The removal of localized superficial white

spots and other surface stains or defects
B. 75 + 15°
B. Treating deep discolouration in type IV
C. 80° tetracycline discolouration
D. 75 - 15° C. Treating discoloured endodontically
treated teeth

235. Internal resorption in a tooth is seen as: D. Treating any discolouration in anterior
teeth
A. Ca(OH)2 pulpotomy

B. Replacement resorption
240. Pain due to acute "irreversible" pulpitis is:
C. Non-proliferating lesion
A. Spontaneous
D. Desensitizing tooth
B. Sharp

C. Lasting for short time

236. Considering the morphology of root and
pulp canals, a root canal instrument should be D. A & B
placed in what direction to gain access to the
Mesiofacial root of permanent maxillary first
molar:

A. From the distolingual

B. From the mesiolingual Answers

C. From the mesiobuccal

D. From the distobuccal 1. B40870 - Intra epithelial carcinoma

Bowen's disease is a form of intra-epithelial

carcinoma occurring in patient's who have had
237. Four numbered instrument formula other
arsenical therapy and is often associated with
than G.M.T. is:
internal or external cutaneous cancer.
A. Chisel

B. Hoe
2. B10834 - Fibroblasts
C. Angle former
Hurler syndrome, also known as
D. Hatchet mucopolysaccharidosis type I (MPS I),
Hurler'sdisease, also gargoylism, is a genetic
disorder that results in the buildup of
238. The final polish of a cast gold alloy to glycosaminoglycans (formerly known as
achieve a smooth polished surface is done by: mucopolysaccharides) due to a deficiency of
alpha-L iduronidase
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

an IgG subclass deficiency when they lack or

have very low levels of one or two IgG
3. A10841 - Pseudomembraneous subclasses, but have normal levels of other
Acute pseudomembranous candidiasis is a immunoglobulins.
classic form of oral candidiasis, commonly
referred to as thrush. Overall, this is the most
common type of oral candidiasis, accounting 7. C11331 - S.sanguinis
for about 35% of oral candidiasis cases.
S.sanguis and s.oralis are commonly found in
healthy gingival sulcus after thorough
debridement
4. A10869 - Implant with TAD

8. D11336 - Purple complex

Purple complex bacteria are not associated

with iniation or progression of periodontal
disease.

9. B11450 - Ovate pontic

The ovate pontic was initially described in

1933, but was only recently considered
clinically acceptable. Historically, there has
been resistance to ovate pontics, but this
resistance lacks scientific and biologic
evidence to justify rejection. it can be used
immediately after extraction
In modified epkers envelope of discrepancy
the outer most layer denote implants with
temporary anchorage devices. The envelope
of discrepancy could be produced by 10. C11455 - Moons and hudgins 1983
orthodontic tooth movement alone (the inner
Characteristics of Virginia bridge. • Roughned
envelope of each diagram); orthodontic tooth
surface of the retainer itself provides for
movement combined with growth modification
retention • Achieved by lost salt technique. •
(the middle envelope) and orthognathic
Air abrasion with aluminium oxide.
surgery (the outer envelope).

11. B11494 - Salivary gland

5. C11211 - Differential medium
Except salivary gland all other organs are
MacConkey agar is a selective and differential
highly sensitive radiation. Salivary gland cpnes
culture medium for bacteria designed to
under intermediate sensitive organ
selectively isolate Gram-negative and enteric
bacilli and differentiate them based on lactose
fermentation. The crystal violet and bile salts
inhibit the growth of gram-positive organisms 12. D11500 - Dicom
which allows for the selection and isolation of Digital Imaging and Communications in
bacterial culture Medicine (DICOM) is a standard for storing
and transmitting medical images enabling the
integration of medical imaging devices such as
6. C11215 - 4 scanners, servers, workstations, printers,
network hardware, and picture archiving and
IgG is divided into four subclasses: IgG1,
communication systems (PACS) from multiple
IgG2, IgG3, and IgG4. People are said to have
manufacturers.
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

considered as semi essential. All essential and

semi essential fatty acids are polyunsaturated.
13. C41436 - 9

[10/22, 2:52 PM] Dr. Abnanasrin: Shared by

dentalpockets mobile app. Food stuff Energy 19. D41461 - Hexoses
Value Calroic Value Carbohydrate 4 Fat
9 Protein 4 Alcohol Among the hexoses, galactose is most
7 efficiently absorbed followed by glucose and
fructose.

14. C41440 - Pigment

20. D41465 - All
Cytochrome P450, species are found in the
highest concentration in the microsomes of Ketogenic • Leucine • Lysine Glucogenic &
liver. So, most of the detoxification reactions Ketogenic • Tyrosine • Tryptophan •
are carried out mainly in liver. Phenylalanine • Isoleucine Glucogenic
Remaining amino acids

15. C41444 - Punctuation

21. A41486 - Coronal and sagittal sutures
The genetic code is considered as Universal,
Specific, Non-overlapping and Vertex Two parietal bones Bregma Meeting
Degenerate.The codon degeneracy is point between the coronal and sagittal sutures
explained by 'WOBBLE HYPOTHESIS', which Lambda Meeting point between the sagittal
was put forth by CRICK. 'Wobble hypothesis' and lambdoid sutures Obelion It is the point
is a phenomenon in which a single tRNA can on the sagittal suture between two parietal
recognize more than one codon. Wobbling is foramen Pterion It is the area in the temporal
attributed to the difference in the spatial fossa where 4 bones i.e., frontal, parietal,
arrangement of the 5'-end of the anticodon. temporal and greater wing of sphenoid join to
Wobbling hypothesis explains the degeneracy form a H-shaped suture. The anterior branch
of the genetic code i.e., existence of multiple of middle meningeal artery, middle meningeal
codons for a single amino acids. Although vein and lateral sulcus of cerebral hemisphere
there are 61 codons for amino acids, the lies deep to pterion Asterion It is the meeting
number of tRNAs are around 40, which is due point of parietomastoid, occipitomastoid, and
to wobbling. lambdoid sutures

16. C41448 - THF4 22. C41492 - Both (1) and (2)

Tetrahydrofolate (THF4), the coenzyme of folic Palate is formed by fusion of 3 components. •

acid is involved in one carbon metabolism. Two palatal processes, derived from maxillary
process. • The primitive palate, formed from
the fronto nasal process

17. C41452 - Folic acid and B6

Folic acid is considered as co-factor in glycine 23. A41494 - Ansa cervicalis

metabolism.
Ansa cervicalis or ansa hypoglossi is formed
by a superior and an inferior root.It supplies
the infrahyoid muscles. The superior root is
18. B41455 - Arachidonic, linolenic and linoleic the continuation of descending branch of
acid hypoglossal nerve. Its fibres are derived from
Linoleic and linolenic acids are essential since 1st cervical nerve. The inferior root is derived
the body cannot synthesize them. Arachidonic from spinal nerves C2 and C3. Option 'D'
acid becomes essential, if its precursor linoleic ansa subclavia is a loop that winds round the
add is not provided in the diet. So it is subclavian artery. The middle cervical
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

ganglion is connected with the inferior cervical Paralysis of 3rd nerve will result in: • Ptosis
ganglion directly and also through ansa (drooping of upper eyelid) • Lateral squint •
subclavia. Dilatation of pupil • Loss of accommodation •
Slight proptosis (forward projection of eye) •
Diplopia (double vision)
24. A41498 - Digastric

The digastric muscle is formed by anterior 28. B41515 - Muscles which open the eyelid
belly and posterior belly. Anterior belly of are supplied by the branch of trigeminal nerve
digastric is supplied by mylohyoid, which is a
branch of mandibular nerve. Posterior belly of Levator Palpebrae Superioris elevates the
digastric is supplied by facial nerve. Option 'B' upper eyelid and is supplied by III cranial or
lateral pterygoid is supplied by nerve to lateral occulomotor nerve.
pterygoid, a branch from anterior division of
the mandibular nerve. Medial pterygoid is
supplied by nerve to medial pterygoid, which is 29. C41520 - Occipital
branch of main trunk of mandibular nerve.
Option 'C' Masseter is supplied by masseteric The upper border of posterior belly of digastric
nerve, a branch of anterior division of is related to "posterior auricular artery" while
mandibular nerve. Option 'D' Temporalis is its lower border is related to "occipital artery"
supplied by temporal branches from anterior
division of mandible.
30. D41525 - Gives an interior branch which
runs deep to the pterion
25. A41502 - Fibro cartilaginous
Middle meningeal artery enters the middle
Elastic cartilage: - External ear - Epiglottis - cranial fossa through the foramen spinosum.
Corniculate - Cuneiform cartilages Fibro In middle cranial fossa, it has an extradural
cartilage : - TMJ - Intervertebral discs - Pubic course and divides into anterior frontal branch
symphysis Hyaline cartilages : - Nasal and posterio parietal branch. The frontal
septum - Thyroid - Cricoid - Arytenoids - branch is closely related to the motor area of
Trachea - Large bronchi - Fetal skeleton - cerebral cortex. It is the corimonest source of
Costal cartilage - Most of the synovial joints extradural hemorrhage, and results in
hemiplegia of opposite side. The parietal
branch is closely related to cerebrum and its
26. A41506 - Upper lip involvement result in contralateral deafness

The entire lymph from head and neck drains

ultimately into deep cervical nodes, which are 31. B41527 - Maxillary artery
grouped into jugulo digastric, and jugulo
omohyoid node. The jugulo digastric node is Maxillary artery is the large terminal branch of
the main node draining the tonsil while the external carotid artery. It is divided into three
jugulo omohyoid node is considered as the parts by the lateral pterygoid. The inferior
main lymph node of tongue. The peripheral alveolar or inferior dental artery is a branch of
nodes are classified into two circles superficial 1st or mandibular part of maxillary artery. Its
and deep. A. Superficial Circle - Submental - branches include :- • Lingual branch to tongue
Submandibular - Buccal and mandibular - • Mylohyoid branch to mylohyoid. • Branches
Preauricular (Parotid) - Post auricular to mandible, teeth • Mental branch to supply
(Mastoid) - Occipital - Anterior cervical - the chin.
Superficial cervical B. Deep circle includes -
Prelaryngeal and pretracheal - Paratracheal -
Retropharyngeal 32. A41530 - Submental nodes

»Tip of tongue Drains into submental nodes

»Remaining part of anterior 2/3rd of tongue
27. B41511 - Occulomotor
Drains into submandibular nodes »Posterior
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

1/3rd Drains into Jugulo-omohyoid nodes tongue All intrinsic and extrinsic muscles of
Ultimate drainage of tongue is to jugulo- tongue, except the palatoglossus, are supplied
omohyoid nodes. by the hypoglossal nerve. The palatoglossus
is supplied by cranial part of the accessory
nerve through pharyngeal plexus.
33. A41534 - Genioglossus

Extrinsic Muscles of Tongue: -Genioglossus 34. D41585 - Superior Laryngeal nerve

Fan shaped muscle, which form the bulk of
tongue. Upper fibres retract the lip, middle ALL the muscles of larynx except Cricothyroid
fibres depress the tongue and lower fibers are supplied by recurrent laryngeal nerve.
proturde the tongue Also known saftety Cricothyroid is supplied by external laryngeal
muscle of tongue -Hyoglossus Depress the nerve, which is a branch of superior laryngeal
tongue and makes the dorsum convex nerve.
Retracts the protruded tongue -Palatoglossus
Pulls up the toor of tongue. Approximates the
palato-glossal arches and thus closes the 35. C41588 - Internal laryngeal
oropharyngeal isthmus. -Styloglossus It pulls
the tongue upwards and backwards during Pyriform fossa is a depression on lateral wall
swallowing. Intrinsic Muscles of Tongue: - of laryngopharynx, present on each side of the
Superior longitudinal Shortens the tongue and inlet of larynx. Internal laryngeal nerve is
makes the dorsum concave -Inferior present beneath the mucosa of pyriform fossa
longitudinal Shortens tongue and makes or the nerve which is related to piriform fossa
dorsum convex -Verticalis Broadens and is internal laryngeal nerve (KAR-01).
flattens the tongue -Transverse Narrows and
elongates the tongue All intrinsic and
extrinsic muscles of tongue, except the 36. B41591 - Auriculotemporal nerve
palatoglossus, are supplied by the hypoglossal
nerve. The palatoglossus is supplied by The preganglionic fibres begin in the inferior
cranial part of the accessory nerve through salivatory nucleus, pass through the 9th nerve
pharyngeal plexus. a) Genioglossus b) and relay in the otic ganglion. The
Intrinsic muscles of tongue c) Styloglossus d) postganglionic fibres reach the gland through
Palatoglossus More such questions and the auriculotemporal nerve.
educational games available on our Andorid
and Web App. Visit us at
https://dentalpockets.com [10/24, 10:39 PM] 37. A41594 - Digastric triangle
Dr. Abnanasrin: Description: [BDC H & N 4th
ed 252/ 6th ed 252] Extrinsic Muscles of Gland: Parotid Location: Below external
Tongue: -Genioglossus Fan shaped muscle, acoustic meatus between the ramus of
which form the bulk of tongue. Upper fibres mandible and the sterocleidomastoid. It is the
retract the lip, middle fibres depress the largest of all the salivary glands. Duct
tongue and lower fibers proturde the tongue opening: Stensons duct - After piercing the
Also known saftety muscle of tongue - buccinator opens into the vestibule of mouth
Hyoglossus Depress the tongue and makes opposite the crown of maxillary 2nd molar.
the dorsum convex Retracts the protruded Secretion: Purely serous Gland: Sub-
tongue -Palatoglossus Pulls up the toor of mandibular Location: Roughly 'J' shaped
tongue. Approximates the palato-glossal salivary gland, situated in the anterior part of
arches and thus closes the oropharyngeal digastric triangle. The gland is divided into
isthmus. -Styloglossus It pulls the tongue large superficial and small deep parts by
upwards and backwards during swallowing. mylohyoid muscle. Duct opening: Wharton's
Intrinsic Muscles of Tongue: -Superior duct opens on the floor of mouth, on the
longitudinal Shortens the tongue and makes summit of the lingula papilla, at the side of
the dorsum concave -Inferior longitudinal frenulum of the tongue. Secretion: Mixed and
Shortens tongue and makes dorsum convex - predominantly serous Gland: Sublingual
Verticalis Broadens and flattens the tongue - gland Location: Smallest of the three salivary
Transverse Narrows and elongates the glands. It is situated above the mylohyoid
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

below the mucosa of the floor of the mouth. Keratinised epithelium contains stratum
Duct opening: Bartholins duct - 10-15 ducts basale, stratum spinosum, stratum
emerge from the gland. Most of them open granulosum and stratum corneum. The cells
directly into the floor of mouth on the summit become larger and flatter in size from basale
of sublingual fold. A few of them join the to corneum. Layers in non-keratinised
submandibular duct. Secretion: Mixed and epithelium are stratum basale, stratum
predominantly mucous. intermedium and stratum superficial. The
epithelial cells retain their nuclei in non-
keratinised epithelium, nuclei become pyknotic
38. A41598 - Is a point of articulation four skull in parakeratinised epithelium and the nuclei
bones are disappeared in keratinised epithelium.

Pterion is the area in the temporal fossa where

4 bones (frontal, parietal, temporal and 43. B41635 - Osteoclastic activity
sphenoid) adjoin each other forming an H-
shaped suture. Resting lines in bone correspond to the rest
periods of continuous bone apposition.
Reversal lines indicate the cessation of
39. D41605 - Rhomboidal resorption followed by apposition of new bone
on the old. The scalloped outline of the
Shapes of the occlusal surfaces of some teeth Howship's lacunae is visible as a darkly
Primary maxillary 1st molar :Rectangular stained cementing line called reversal line.
Primary maxillary 2nd molar :Rhomboidal
Permanent maxillary 3rd molar:Heart shape
Permanent maxillary 2nd molar:Rhomboidal 44. A41638 - Type V and VII collagen
with more obtuse angles Permanent maxillary
1st molar :Rhomboidal Permanent mandibular The anchoring fibrils are composed of type VII
2nd premolar:Square Permanent mandibular collagen. They extend from basal lamina of
1st premolar:Diamond Permanent maxillary epithelial cells and attach to the lamina
1st premolar:Hexagonal Permanent reticularis by wrapping around the reticular
mandibular 1st molar:Hexagonal/ Trapezoidal fiber bundles. Anchoring fibrils are essential to
the functional integrity of the dermoepidermal
junction.
40. B41607 - Maxillary first

Primary maxillary 1st molar resembles 45. D41645 - 150-200 µm.

permanent premolars. Primary maxillary 2nd
molar resembles permanent maxillary 1st Cementum is deposited directly on the surface
molar. Primary mandibular 2nd molar of the intermediate cementum at a thickness
resembles permanent mandibular 1st molar. of about 30-60 µm at the cervical region of the
Primary mandibular 1st molar does not crown. Cementum increases gradually to a
resemble any of the permanent tooth. thickness of 150-200µ at the root apex

41. C41616 - Maxillary mandibular lateral 46. D41649 - Cell free zone
nasal and median nasal
The central region of both the coronal and the
Maxillary and mandibular processes are radicular pulp contains large nerve trunks and
derived from mandibular arch. The mandibular blood vessels. Peripherally it is composed of
process of each side fuses to form lower lip odontoblasts, cell free zone (WEIL'S zone)
and lower jaw. Upper lip is formed by fusion and the cell rich zone The network of nerves
of maxillary, lateral nasal process and the located adjacent to the cell rich zone is called
median nasal process. the parietal layer (or) the plexus of Rashkow.

42. A41630 - Larger than the basal cells 47. C41652 - S-shaped
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

Dentinal tubules resembles 'S' in shape. They between secondary and reparative dentin is
start at right angles from the pulpal surface called the 'calciotraumatic line'.
and end perpendicular to the dentinoenamel
and dentinocemental junctions. The tubules
are almost straight near root tip and along the 50. B41663 - Fibrocartilage
incisal edges and cusps.
Articular disc (or) meniscus is composed of
dense fibrous connective tissue and is located
48. B41655 - Incremental lines of retzius between the condylar head and mandibular
fossa. The disc is biconcave in shape and
The number of perikymata gradually divides the joint cavity into upper and lower
decreases form cervical region to occlusal or joint spaces. The central area of the disc is
incisal region because of undisturbed relatively avascular, devoid of nerves and has
development of enamel prior to birth. limited reparative ability. T he disc is thick
Perikymata are usually absent in prenatally anterioposteriorly and thin centrally.
developed occlusal parts of deciduous teeth,
whereas they are present in postnatal cervical
parts. 51. A41666 - Soft tissue protection

The presence of horizontal overlap in the

49. D41661 - Due to death of odontoblastic molars prevents cheek biting. Excessive
layer vertical overlap of the anterior teeth may result
in tissue impingement and is known as
During advanced stages of caries, walls of the impinging overbite.
individual tubules undergo further
decalcification leading to their confluence.
Along with this, there is an increase in the 52. C41672 - At birth
diameter of the dentinal tubules. This occurs
due to packing of the tubules with First evidence of calcification of permanent
microorganisms. Small 'Liquefaction foci' are teeth has the range of time from birth (first
formed by the breakdown of a few dentinal molars) to 8 years (Third molars). By 8 years
tubules. This 'focus' is an area of ovoid calcification of permanent teeth is completed
destruction, parallel to the course of the except for third molars. Calcification of
tubules and filled with necrotic debris that deciduous teeth begins about the 4th month of
tends to increase by expansion. This produces prenatal life (central incisors) and by 6th
compression, distortion and disruption of the month all of the deciduous teeth will begin to
abjacent dentinal tubules. Teeth with deep develop.
penetrating carious lesions can be treated only
by partial removal of the deep carious lesion
and insertion of calcium hydroxide or mineral 53. C41680 - Trophozoites can be visualized
trioxide aggregate containing dressing in the pus
materials for aperiod of a few weeks or
months. During this period, the odontoblasts Two types of amoebic liver diseases can occur
form new reparative dentin aLong the pulpal i.e. acute non-suppurative hepatomegaly and
surface underlying the carious lesion. The suppurative amoebic hepatitis. Amoebic liver
cavity can be reopened and the remaining disease begins when E. histolytica
carious lesion removed without endangering trophozoites penetrate through the colonic
the pulp. This treatment is known as indirect mucosa, travel through the portal circulation,
pulp capping. On removal of the caries, the and reach the liver. Right lobe of liver is
mesenchymal cells of the cell rich zone commonly involved. Non- suppurative type
differentiate into odontoblasts to replace those usually do not demonstrate amoeba and is
that have necrosed. These newly formed assumed to be pre-suppurative stage of
odontoblasts can produce well-organized amoebic liver abscess. Suppurative (Amoebic
dentin or an amorphous, poorly calcified, abscess) is the most common and serious
permeable dentin. The demarcation zone form of extraintestinal amoebiasis.
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

59. D41705 - C5a

54. A41682 - Candida albicans Both C3a and C5a are anaphylatoxic and
chemotactic in nature.
Candida albicans can be identified from other
candida species by growth characteristics,
sugar assimilation and fermentation tests.It
produces germ tubes within two hours when 60. D41709 - C5a
incubated in human serum at 37°C. Both C3a and C5a are anaphylatoxic and
chemotactic in nature.

55. A41686 - Virus

Many viruses cause morphological changes in 61. B41711 - contains opacifier like zirconium
cultured cells and these changes are known and titanium oxide
as cytopathic effects. They are useful in Feldspar is colorless. Oxides of tin, zirconium
identification of viruses. Virus Cytopathic and titanium are added to produce opaque
effect »Entero virus : Crenation of cells porcelains to mask the colour of the metal.
Degeneration of cell sheet »Herpes virus :
Discrete focal degeneration »Adeno virus :
Granular clumps resembling grapes »Measles
62. D41717 - Ortho-ethoxy acid
virus: Syncitium formation
Mechanical properties of ZOE cement can be
improved by adding alumina to the powder
56. A41690 - Schick test and orthoethoxy benzoic acid to the liquid or
by reinforcing with polymers. Reinforced ZOE
Identification tests for different bacteria TEST cements are used for intermediate
BACTERIA »Naggler's reaction Clostridia restorations.
»Satellitism H. Influenza »Dick test,
Scheultz-Charlton reaction
Streptococci »Elek's test, Schick test Diptheria
63. C41720 - Gold and Calcium
»Milk ring test : Brucellosis »Koch's
phenomena Tuberculosis »String test Vibrio The electrolytic precipitate of gold is alloyed
cholera »Montoux test Tuberculosis Option with 0.1% calcium. Calcium increases the
'C' i.e., Casoni's test is diagnostic test for strength by dispersion strengthening
hydatid cyst. It is a skin test based on Type-I
hypersensitivity reaction.
64. C41724 - Diketone-amine

57. D41697 - All of the above In light activated composites,

camphoroquinone is the initiator and diketone
The most important complications of typhoid is the accelerator. In chemically activated
fever are intestinal perforation, hemorrhage composites benzoyl peroxide is the initiator
and circulatory collapse. Osteomyelitis is a and tertiary amine is the activator.
rare sequel.

65. A41726 - Hard thick central area

58. B41699 - Widal reaction
Boiling point of monomer is 100.8°C. If curing
Weil- Felix reaction is used in serodiagnosis of temperature crosses this point, evaporation of
typhus fevers. The antigen used in the Weil - monomer occurs. This causes surface and
Felix test is obtained from proteus bacilli. Paul sub surface (internal) porosity within the
Bunnel test is used in diagnosis of Infectious thicker portions of denture. Porosity decreases
mononucleosis. strength and compromises aesthetics and
hygiene.
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

66. C41732 - They have higher ductility than A space lattice can be defined as any
gold alloys arrangement of atoms in space in which every
atom is situated similarly to every other atom.
Base metal alloys (Ni-Cr, Co-Cr) have high Space Lattices may be the result of primary or
hardness, modulus of elasticity, sag secondary bonds. There are 14 possible
resistance, yield strength, high fusion lattice types but many of the metals used in
temperature and casting shrinkage (2.25%). dentistry belong to the cubic system.
They have lower proportional limit and ductility
than gold alloys. Pure gold is most ductile and
most malleable of all the metals.
72. D41757 - Yield strength

Yield strength is the stress required to produce

67. B41735 - Has porous and irregular crystals plastic deformation.

Plaster of Paris is a ?-hemihydrate obtained

by dry calcination of gypsum. The water
powder ratio of plaster of Paris ranges from 73. A41758 - More negative
0.4 to 0.5. The intrapleural pressure is always negative to
the atmospheric pressure. During inspiration it
is -6mHg and during expiration it is -2mmHg.
68. B41739 - Evaluating the setting time of Intrapleural pressure prevents collapse of
plaster of paris lungs. Intra alveolar pressure is -4mmHg
during inspiration and +4mmHg during
Evaluation of initial set of POP: • Loss of expiration. It helps in flow of air in and out of
gloss test: The mix loses its gloss • Initial alveoli and helps in exchange of gases.
gillmore needle test: - The time at which it no
longer leaves an impression. Evaluation of
final set of POP: • Vicat needle test: Time
elapsed until the needle no longer penetrates 74. D41765 - Increased break down of red
to the bottom of the mix. • Final gillmore cells
needle test: Time at which heavier gillmore Jaundice is the yellowish pigmentation of the
needle leaves only a barely (no) perceptible skin, mucus membrane and deeper tissues
mark on the surface due to excess bilirubin. The normal serum
bilirubin level is 0.5 to 1.5mg%. Jaundice
develops when the serum bilirubin exceeds 2
69. A41742 - Act as a scavenger mg%. In Hemolytic jaundice there is excessive
destruction of RBC, bilirubin is unconjugated
Impurities evolve hydrogen gas from addition and so, does not appear in urine. In
silicone, which produces pin point voids in the obstructive jaundice there is conjugated and
stone casts, if poured immediately after appears in urine. The liver function is normal
removing from mouth. This can be prevented in hemolytic jaundice while in obstructive
by adding platinum or palladium to act as jaundice the liver function is exaggerated with
scavenger or by waiting an hour before increased serum alkaline phosphatase activity.
pouring up the impression.

75. C41768 - Bicarbonate ion

70. B41747 - Temperature lag between
gelation and liquefaction temperature In the renal tubular cells, CO2 combines with
water to form carbonic acid under the
Hysteresis is exhibited by agar, which is a influence of carbonic anhydrase enzyme
reversible hydrocolloid impression material. present in the renal tubular cells. The carbonic
acid dissociates into bicarbonate and
hydrogen ion. Bicarbonate is absorbed into
71. D41753 - Arrangement of atoms extracellular fluid and the hydrogen ion is
secreted in exchange for sodium ion
absorption
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

81. D41793 - length of the bladder encircle

80% of the patient's arm
76. A41770 - Voltage inactivation of the Na+
channel Choosing appropriate size cuff is vital to
record accurate BP in children. Small sized
Refractory period: It is the period in which cuff gives elevated BP readings and bigger
muscle does not show any response to a sized cuffs give low BP reading. The inflatable
stimulus.It is because already one action bladder inside the cuff should have an ideal
potential is in progress in the muscle width of at least 40% of the mid arm
(depolarized) during this period and cannot be circumference and a cuff length that is 80 -
depolarized by another action potential unless 100% of the arm circumference.
it is repolarized. Absolute refractory period:
Whatever may be the strength of the stimulus
the muscles does not show any response.
Relative refractory period: The muscle shows 82. D41897 - Dopamine
some response if the strength of stimulus is Options 'A', 'B' and 'C' penetrate blood brain
increased to maximum. barrier and has CNS effects. Option 'D' i.e
dopamine do not penetrate blood brain barrier
- no CNS effects.
77. D41777 - T wave

P wave - Atrial depolarization (KCET- 07)

QRS complex - Ventricular depolarization T- 83. C41900 - Thalidomide is used for the
wave - Ventricular repolarization treatment of leprosy

Thalidomide can be used to treat lepra

reaction but not leprosy. Thaliodamide,
78. A41778 - 1:1000 prescribed for pregnant women for giving relief
from morning sickness, was found to produce
• Normal red blood cell count - 4 to 5.5 various types of developmental anomalies in
millions/mm3 • Normal white blood cell count the newborn. The commonest anomalies are
- 4 to 11 thousand/mm3 • Normal myeloid- amelia (total absence of limbs or seal limbs)
erythroid ratio, is approximately 1:1000 and phacomelia (absence of one ore more
whereas in bone marrow it is 3:2. limbs).

79. B41783 - Aldosterone 84. D41905 - 50 to 70% N20

In Conn's syndrome there is excess secretion Nitrous oxide is a good analgesic.It is
of aldosterone. This is called primary hyper generally used as a carrier and adjuvant to
aldosteronism. It results in increased ECF other anesthetic. A mixture of 70% N20 + 25-
volume, hypertension, depletion of potassium, 30% 02 + 0.2 - 2% another potent anesthetic
retention of sodium and muscular weakness. is employed for most surgical procedures.

80. D41789 - Cholinergic 85. D41909 - Recent anterior myocardial

Acetylcholine is the infarction
neurotransmitter ???????? »Preganglionic Ketamine induces disassociation anaesthesia,
parasympathetic »Postganglionic and is dangerous for hypertensives and
parasympathetic »Preganglionic sympathetic ischaemic heart patients.
Post ganglionic sympathetic ?????? •
Adrenergic fibres - Adrenaline is the neuro
transmitter • Cholinergic fibres - Acetyl choline
is the neuro transmitter 86. B41911 - Mg Causes diarrhoea, Al causes
constipation
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

Magnesium causes diarrhoea and aluminium Rocuronium Rapacuronium Cistracurium

causes constipation. Thus their adverse *Short acting Mivacurium
effects are counter balanced and hence
magnesium and aluminium hydroxide are
added together in antacid preparation. 93. D41941 - Bronchial muscle relaxation

?-blockers block the bronchodilation effects

87. C41916 - Hypercalcemia of ?-receptors; hence ?-blockers are
contraindicated in asthmatic patients.
Hypercalcemia occurs with thiazides, while Salbutamol and terbutaline are examples of ?2
hypocalcaemia occurs with high ceiling agonists.
diuretics (Furosemide).

94. A41946 - Clotrimazole

88. D41921 - 3
Amphotericin B Used topically as well as
0 - 10 hrs means 5 half-lives. systemically Nystatin It is used locally,
because of its higher systemic toxicity. Given
orally, it is not absorbed; so used for monilial
89. C41924 - Drug safety diarrhoea. Also used against Oral Thrush,
Monilial vaginitis, Corneal and conjunctival
Therapeutic index is an approximate candidiasis Ketoconazole Used systemically
assessment of the safety of the drug. It is the Clotrimazole Used for topical application only.
ratio of median lethal dose to the median So, it is not used in treatment of intestinal
effective dose. The larger the therapeutic candidiasis
index, the safer the drug.

95. D41957 - More reliable oral absorption

90. C41928 - Antidepressant
Penicillin 'V' or Phenoxy Methyl penicillin is
i) Most effective drug in complex partial semi synthetic and differs from penicillin G
seizures ii) Shares first choice of drug along (Benzyl penicillin), only in that, it is acid stable.
with phenytoin in patients with tonic clonic When given orally, it produces higher plasma
seizures and simple partial seizures. iii) Drug concentration than the same amount of
of choice in Trigeminal neuraligia and related penicillin G given orally.
neuralgia.

96. B41971 - Characteristic of hypoxic death

91. D41933 - Constipation
Coagulative necrosis is the most common type
Adverse effects of aspirin: Increased blood of necrosis. It occurs mostly from sudden
loss due to anti platelet activity Hyper cessation of blood flow and less often from
sensitivity and idiosyncrasy Salt and water bacterial and chemical agents.
retention Reyes' syndrome- a rare form of
hepatic encephalopathy seen in children
having viral infection (influenza virus) 97. C41976 - GranuLomatous

Granulomatous host tissue response occurs in

92. C41936 - Mivacurum chronic inflammation.

Options A & D are depolarizing muscle

relaxants. Non depolarizing (competitive 98. A41978 - Proximal end
blockers) *Long acting D-tubocurarine
Pancuronium Pipercuronium Doxacurium Wallerian degeneration occurs in the distal
*Intermediate acting Vecuronium Atracurium end up to next node of ranvier in transaction of
the axon. The process of regeneration occurs
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

by sprouting of axons and proliferation of

Schwann cells from the proximal end.
104. D42005 - Yield strength

Yield strength is the stress required to produce

99. A41982 - Implantation cyst plastic deformation.

»Implantation cyst :Due to persistence of

epithelial cells after wound healing »Wound
dehiscence (or) Incisional hernia : Bursting 105. D42009 - Arrangement of atoms
open a wound »Keloid : Excessive, ugly and A space lattice can be defined as any
painful scar »Contracture (or) cicatrisation : arrangement of atoms in space in which every
Excessive wound contraction atom is situated similarly to every other atom.
Space Lattices may be the result of primary or
secondary bonds. There are 14 possible
100. C41988 - A decrease in the heart rate lattice types but many of the metals used in
dentistry belong to the cubic system.
Clinically the patient in shock develops
unconsciousness, weakness, pale, cold
clammy limbs, weak pulse, low blood
pressure, oliguria (fluid conservation by 106. B42011 - Temperature lag between
kidney) and tachycardia. gelation and liquefaction temperature

Hysteresis is exhibited by agar, which is a

reversible hydrocolloid impression material.
101. B41991 - Encapsulation

BENIGN TUMORS Encapsulated Slow

growth rate Compress the surrounding tissues 107. A42014 - Act as a scavenger
without invading No Metastasis Secondary Impurities evolve hydrogen gas from addition
changes are less often MALIGNANT silicone, which produces pin point voids in the
TUMORS Poorly circumscribed and irregular stone casts, if poured immediately after
Rapid growth rate Usually infiltrates and removing from mouth. This can be prevented
invades adjacent tissues Metastasis is by adding platinum or palladium to act as
frequently present Secondary changes scavenger or by waiting an hour before
(ulceration, infection, hemorrhage) are pouring up the impression.
common

108. B42019 - Evaluating the setting time of

102. D41997 - Idiopathic thrombocytopenic plaster of paris
purpura
Evaluation of initial set of POP: • Loss of
Normal bleeding time is 3-8 min. Prolonged gloss test: The mix loses its gloss • Initial
bleeding time occurs in thrombocytopenia, gillmore needle test: - The time at which it no
Von Willebrand disease, vascular longer leaves an impression. Evaluation of
abnormalities and disorders of platelet final set of POP: • Vicat needle test: Time
function. Clotting time is prolonged in elapsed until the needle no longer penetrates
hemophilia, vitamin K efficiency, liver diseases to the bottom of the mix. • Final gillmore
and in anticoagulant administration. needle test: Time at which heavier gillmore
needle leaves only a barely (no) perceptible
mark on the surface
103. B41999 - Induces humoral immunity

T-helper cells are of 2 types. Type 1 (TH1)

cells assist cytotoxic T cells and mediate 109. B42023 - Has porous and irregular
delayed hypersensitivity. Type 2 (TH2) cells crystals
assist B cells and mediate humoral immunity. Plaster of Paris is a ?-hemihydrate obtained
by dry calcination of gypsum. The water
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

powder ratio of plaster of Paris ranges from Both C3a and C5a are anaphylatoxic and
0.4 to 0.5. chemotactic in nature.

110. C42028 - They have higher ductility than 116. B42051 - Widal reaction
gold alloys
Weil- Felix reaction is used in serodiagnosis of
Base metal alloys (Ni-Cr, Co-Cr) have high typhus fevers. The antigen used in the Weil -
hardness, modulus of elasticity, sag Felix test is obtained from proteus bacilli. Paul
resistance, yield strength, high fusion Bunnel test is used in diagnosis of Infectious
temperature and casting shrinkage (2.25%). mononucleosis.
They have lower proportional limit and ductility
than gold alloys. Pure gold is most ductile and
most malleable of all the metals. 117. D42057 - All of the above

The most important complications of typhoid

111. A42030 - Hard thick central area fever are intestinal perforation, hemorrhage
and circulatory collapse. Osteomyelitis is a
Boiling point of monomer is 100.8°C. If curing rare sequel.
temperature crosses this point, evaporation of
monomer occurs. This causes surface and
sub surface (internal) porosity within the 118. A42058 - Schick test
thicker portions of denture. Porosity decreases
strength and compromises aesthetics and Identification tests for different bacteria TEST
hygiene. BACTERIA »Naggler's reaction Clostridia
»Satellitism H. Influenza »Dick test, Scheultz-
Charlton reaction Streptococci »Elek's test,
112. A42034 - Diketone-amine Schick test Diptheria »Milk ring test :
Brucellosis »Koch's phenomena Tuberculosis
In light activated composites, »String test Vibrio cholera »Montoux test
camphoroquinone is the initiator and diketone Tuberculosis Option 'C' i.e., Casoni's test is
is the accelerator. In chemically activated diagnostic test for hydatid cyst. It is a skin test
composites benzoyl peroxide is the initiator based on Type-I hypersensitivity reaction.
and tertiary amine is the activator.

119. A42062 - Virus

113. D42041 - Ortho-ethoxy acid
Many viruses cause morphological changes in
Mechanical properties of ZOE cement can be cultured cells and these changes are known
improved by adding alumina to the powder as cytopathic effects. They are useful in
and orthoethoxy benzoic acid to the liquid or identification of viruses. Virus Cytopathic
by reinforcing with polymers. Reinforced ZOE effect »Entero virus : Crenation of cells
cements are used for intermediate Degeneration of cell sheet »Herpes virus :
restorations. Discrete focal degeneration »Adeno virus :
Granular clumps resembling grapes »Measles
virus: Syncitium formation
114. C42044 - Gold and Calcium

The electrolytic precipitate of gold is alloyed 120. A42066 - Candida albicans

with 0.1% calcium. Calcium increases the
strength by dispersion strengthening Candida albicans can be identified from other
candida species by growth characteristics,
sugar assimilation and fermentation tests.It
115. D42049 - C5a produces germ tubes within two hours when
incubated in human serum at 37°C.
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

The surgical principle is mobilization and

reconstruction of the aberrant soft palate
121. C42072 - Trophozoites can be visualized musculature together with closure of the
in the pus residual hard palate cleft by minimal dissection
Two types of amoebic liver diseases can occur and subsequent scar formation; since, excess
i.e. acute non-suppurative hepatomegaly and scar formation in the palate adversely affects
suppurative amoebic hepatitis. Amoebic liver growth and development of the maxilla.
disease begins when E. histolytica Objectives of the Cleft Palate Repair A large
trophozoites penetrate through the colonic number of techniques and their variations are
mucosa, travel through the portal circulation, in use in different centres by different
and reach the liver. Right lobe of liver is surgeons. However, the objectives and
commonly involved. Non- suppurative type principles of every technique remain the same.
usually do not demonstrate amoeba and is There are three major objectives of a cleft
assumed to be pre-suppurative stage of palate operation. All of these are inter-related:
amoebic liver abscess. Suppurative (Amoebic To produce anatomical closure of the defect.
abscess) is the most common and serious To create an apparatus for development and
form of extraintestinal amoebiasis. production of normal speech. To minimize the
maxillary growth disturbances and dento-
alveolar deformities Surgical Techniques:-
This is not a full list of Surgical Techniques
122. C42076 - An autoimmune disease
available. von Langenbeck's bipedicle flap
Mickulicz's disease is an autoimmune disease. technique Veau-Wardill-Kilner Pushback
Characterised by chronic, bilateral, symmetric technique Bardach's two-flap technique
enlargement of the salivary and lacrimal Furlow Double opposing Z-Plasty Two-stage
glands. Sjogren's syndrome is an palatal repair Hole in one repair Raw area free
autoimmune disease characterised by triad of palatoplasty Alveolar extension palatoplasty
xerostomia (dry mouth), Keratoconjunctivitis (AEP) Primary pharyngeal flap Intravelar
sicca (dry eyes) and a connective disorder veloplasty Vomer flap Buccal myomucosal flap
(most often rheumatoid arthritis)

126. B42091 - Cystic teratoma

123. A42078 - Ulnar
Four types of dermoids are: Teratomatous
One of the most characteristic features of dermoids: Found in ovary, testis and superior
leprosy is its effect on nerves. Superficial mediastinum etc. They arise from stem cells
nerves such as ulnar and posterior auricular containing all three embryonic layers.
may be swollen and tender. Anaesthesia Sequestration dermoids: Formed by the
results from nerve involvement and is also a inclusion of epithelial nests in Lines of
cause of secondary damage. Much of the loss embryonic fusion. Found in the midline,
and disfigurement of hands and feet external angular process, on the skull and
associated with leprosy is due to the damage behind the ear. Implantation dermoids; Due
and misuse which follow loss of pain to implantated epithelial cells in the puncture
sensation. wounds of fingers. Tubulo dermoids:
Thyroglossal cyst and ependymal cyst in the
brain are examples.
124. C42084 - Blood pressure

Patients consciousness level is determined by 127. C42096 - Stage-III

Glasgow coma scale which measures eye
opening, best verbal response and best motor Stage I Involvement of single lymph node
response. A scale of 15 indicates fully region (or) involvement of single extra
conscious patient. lymphatic organ Stage II Involvement of two
or more lymph node region on the same side
of diaphragm Stage III Involvement of lymph
node regions on both sides of the diaphragm
125. A42086 - Correction of speech
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

Stage IV Multiple or disseminated foci of Intravenous therapy is restricted in cases of

involvement severe dehydration and shock. But the child in
the question is irritable and can drink fluids.
He comes under moderate dehydration and he
128. D42101 - Diminishes is started on plan B treatment which consists
of: rehydration therapy maintenance therapy
Blood is stored in blood banks at 4°C ± normal daily fluid requirements
2°C.The shelf life of stored blood is 3 weeks.
The following changes takes place in stored
blood: WBC - are rapidly destroyed RBC - 134. D42125 - MI
suffer a temporary reduction in their ability to
release oxygen to the tissues upto 3 days Pain in MI is usually more severe and lasts
Platelets - Survive upto 24 hrs. Clotting factors longer. Pain is manifested as a tightness,
- Factor VIII and V levels fall quickly heaviness or constriction in the chest. The
pain occurs in the chest, throat, arms,
epigastrium or back. Intravenous opiates
129. D42105 - Intravenous infusion (morphine sulphate 10mg) is given to relieve
the severe distress along with antiemetics (IV
Other important causes of superficial vein cyclizine 50mg).
thrombophlebiitis: Varicose veins Pregnant or
postpartum women Thromboangitis obliterans
or Buerger's disease Great saphenous vein is 135. C42128 - Infective endocarditis
the most common vein affected.
Clinical features of infective endocarditis:
Osler's nodes which are painful tender
130. D42109 - Cancel surgery for 3 week and swellings at the fingertips. Splenomegaly
patient to be on antibiotic Cerebral emboli Positive blood culture (KCET-
08) Arrhythmias Murmurs Splinter
Presence of acute infection in upper haemorrhages and clubbing of nails Petechial
respiratory tract, even acute tonsillitis is a haemorrhages of skin and mucous
contraindication for tonsillectomy, as bleeding membranes Haematuria Cardiac Failure Roth
is more in the presence of acute infection. spots in fundi Aschoff nodules which occur
only in heart are pathognomonic of rheumatic
heart disease.
131. B42111 - Neurological manifestation

0A rib arising from the 7th cervical vertebra is

136. B42131 - H+ ions
called a cervical rib, The patients with cervical
rib usually present with neurological and Severe metabolic acidosis is clinically
vascular symptoms in the arm. The vascular manifested as hyperventilation or Kussamaul's
symptoms are due to narrowing of the breathing. *Kussmaul breathing Increase in
subclavian artery. rate and depth of respiration seen in diabetic
ketoacidosis and anemia. *Cheyne stokes
breathing Most common type of periodic
132. B42115 - Splenomegaly breathing characterized by initial rapid and
deep respiration followed by complete
The borders of Traube's space are the sixth cessation of respiration. »Eg.: Physiological
rib superiorly, the left costal margin interiorly. conditions: During sleep High altitude New
The patient is made supine with the left arm born babies After severe muscular exercise
slightly abducted. During normal breathing, »Eg.: Pathological conditions: Narcotic
this space is percussed from medial to lateral poisoning Uremic conditions Cardiac failure
margins, yielding a normal resonant sound. A *Biots breathing Another form of periodic
dull percussion note suggests spleenomegaly. breathing characterized by period of apnoea
and hyperpnea. Rhythm and depth of
respiration are irregular with occasional signs
133. B42119 - Oral rehydration therapy
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

and irregular pauses. Eg.: Lesion of brain, of rigidity in upper limbs Lead pipe type of
injuries to brain. rigidity in legs Bradykinesia: Slowness in
initiating or repeating movements. Tremor at
rest
137. C42140 - O(-ve)

O' group is universal donor. In this case the 142. B42163 - Hypochondriasis
Rh factor is negative, so 'O' negative person
can donate blood. Hypochondriacal disorder is an anxious
preoccupation with the possibility of having a
serious physical illness. Patients have a
138. B42143 - Decrease in platelet count persistent fear or belief that they have a
serious, often fatal disease despite
Normal platelet count 1.5 - 4 lakhs /mm3 appropriate medical reassurance. With
Abnormal increase in number of blood somatisation disorder, patients complaints of
platelets: Thrombocythemia or thrombocytosis pain, vomiting, dizziness, headache which
Abnormal reduction in number of blood have no organic basis in disease.
platelets: Thrombocytopenia purpura If the Somatoform pain disorder is used to describe
platelet count falls below 40,000/mm3 severe, persistent pain which cannot be
hemorrhagic manifestations occurs. So this explained by pathology.
value is known as 'CRITICAL COUNT'.

143. A42166 - Concrescence

139. B42147 - Carcinoma of the rectum
Gemination An attempt at division of a single
Upper gastrointestinal bleeding is tooth before calcification, resulting in
characterized by haematemesis and malaena. incomplete formation of two teeth.(AIIMS-
Haematemesis is red or black (coffee 2012) The resultant structures will have two
grounds) coloured vomiting of blood. Malaena completely or incompletely separated crowns
is the passage of black, tarry stools containing with a single root and root canal. It is difficult
altered blood. Causes of upper GI bleeding: to differentiate between gemination and a
Peptic ulcer (most common) Gastric erosion case in which there has been fusion between
(next common) Varices Oesophagitis Cancer a normal tooth and a supernumerary tooth.
of stomach or esophagus Twinning The division of a single tooth
resulting in one normal and and one
supernumerary tooth. The number of teeth will
140. A42150 - Metabolic acidosis be more than normal Concrescence A
form of fusion of cementum after completion of
Causes of Metabolic acidosis [?(HCO3-), ? root formation The teeth are united by
(H+), ?PaCO2] Diarrhoea Hypovolemic shock cementum only. Maxillary molars are
Starvation Alcoholism Diabetic ketoacidosis frequently involved. Fusion Union of two
Lactic acidosis Chronic renal failure Causes of normally separated tooth germs. If the union
Metabolic alkalosis [?(HCO3-), ?(H+), ? occurs before calcification, the two teeth are
PaCO2] Vomiting Diuretics Chronic completely united to form a single large tooth.
respiratory failure Aldesteronism Cushings If the union occurs after calcification, there is
syndrome Metabolic acidosis can be managed union of roots only. The tooth may have
by I.V. bicarbonate infusions and metabolic separate or fused root canals. Fusion of teeth
alkalosis can be managed by I.V. 0.9% is more common in deciduous teeth.
isotonic saline (NaCl) solution and Kcl
infusion.
144. A42170 - Lips

141. A42154 - Parkinsonism Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia or

Osler-Weber-Rendu syndrome is an
dies) and atrophic changes in substantia nigra. autosomal dominant disorder characterized by
Triad of Parkinsonism Rigidity: Cogwheel type triad of telangiectasia, recurrent epistaxis and
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

a positive family history for the disorder. The phenomenon is physiologic rather that
most commonly affected areas of the oral pathologic . Abrasion It is the pathologic
mucosa are lips, gingiva, buccal mucosa and wearing away of tooth substance through
palate as weel as floor of the mouth and the some abnormal mechanical process. The
tongue. most common cause of abrasion of root
surfaces is the use of an abrasive dentrifice. It
is usually manifested as V-shaped or wedge
145. A42174 - Basal cell nevus syndrome shaped ditch on the root side of the CEJ in
teeth with gingival recession . Dental erosion It
Basal cell nevus syndrome is also called as is irreversible loss of dental hard tissue by a
Gorlin Goltz syndrome. Option C, Horner's chemical process that does not involve
syndrome is characterized by miosis, ptosis bacteria. It is dissolution of mineralized tooth
and anhidrosis over face due to interruption of surface by acids that are introduced into oral
sudomotor and vasomotor control.. Option D, cavity through vomiting, acidic beverages and
hereditary intestinal polyposis is seen in citrus fruits, etc.
Peutz-Jeghers syndrome.

150. C42196 - blue sclera, brittle bones,

146. C42180 - The sublingual salivary gland is opalescent dentin
the most common site of salivary gland
neoplasia

About 60-70% of salivary gland tumors arise in 151. D42201 - Nasopharynx

parotid glands. Trotter's syndrome is caused by
"nasopharyngeal tumour" and the patient will
have symptoms like pain in lower jaw, tongue,
147. A42182 - Dental caries and side of head with an associated middle
ear deafness. The patients also exhibit
"Liquefaction foci" are seen in Dentin in
asymmetry and defective mobility of soft
advanced cases of carious destruction.
palate. As the tumor progresses, trismus of
Liquefaction foci are ovoid areas of destruction
internal pterygoid muscle may develop. The
parallel to dentinal tubules and are formed by
cause of pain is due to involvement of
focal coalescence and breakdown of a few
mandibular nerve in foramen ovale through
dentinal tubules.
which tumour invades the calvarium.

148. B42187 - Periosteal bone formation

152. D42205 - White radiating lines on the
Periosteal new bone formation is seen in: buccal mucosa
Caffey's disease or infantile cortical
Wickam Straie - White interlacing lines
hyperostosis Hypervitaminosis A. Syphilis,
characteristics of Lichen Planus.
leukemia, Ewing's sarcoma, etc Garre's
osteomyelitis

153. B42207 - Intra membranous bone

formation
149. B42191 - Erosion
In endochondral type, the bone formation is
Abfraction Loss of both enamel and dentin at
preceded by formation of cartilaginous model,
the cervical area of teeth caused by
which is replaced by bone. Eg: Ethmoid bone,
mechanical loading forces such as swallowing
Hyoid, Incus, Stapes. In intramembranous
and chewing, etc. The abfractive lesions were
type, the formation of bone is not preceded by
caused by flexure and ultimate fatigue of
formation of cartilaginous model Instead bone
susceptible teeth at locations away from point
is laid directly in a fibrous membrane. Eg:
of loading. Attrition It is the physiologic
Maxilla, nasal bones, parietals, zygoma,
wearing away of a tooth as a result of tooth-to-
vomer, lacrimal, zygomatic. Both
tooth contact as in mastication. This
intramembranous and endochondrial
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

ossification is seen in - occipital, temporal, Remodeling of bone occurs in absence of

sphenoid bones. calcium and this results in a softening and
distortion of the skeleton with an increased
tendency towards fracture. Radiologically
154. A42210 - Lip prints there is severe asymmetric deformities of all
stress bearing bones like long bones of legs,
The Lips contain wrinkles and grooves visible spine and pelvis. Osteomalacia is failure of
on lips as "Sulci labiorum ruborum". The mineralization of newly formed organic bone
imprint produced by these grooves is termed matrix (Osteoid reminerealization] at sites of
as "Lip print" Examination of lip print is known bone turnover; whereas Rickets is due to
as "Cheiloscopy". failure of mineraliztion of endochondrial new
bone formed at the growth plates of children.
Bone matrix is normal in both.
155. C42216 - Pigmented teeth

In erythroblastosis fetalis, there is deposition

159. A42230 - Blastomycosis
of bilirubin pigment in the enamel and dentin
of developing teeth giving them a green, North american blastomycosis is called
brown or blue hue. In some cases enamel Gilchrist's disease and South american
hypoplasia involving the incisal edges of blastomycosis is called Lutz's disease. Oral
anterior teeth and middle 3rd of deciduous manifestations of blastomycosis are similar to
cuspid and 1st molar may be seen resulting in actinomycosis. Histopathology reveals
a characteristic ring like defect known as "Rh microabscess and pseudoepitheiiomatous
hump". No, treatment for tooth pigmentation hyperplasia.
is necessary since it affects the deciduous
teeth and presents only a temporary cosmetic
problem. 160. A42234 - Unilateral occurrence

In herpes zoster the most sites involved are

156. B42219 - Tetracyclines the areas innervated by spinal cord segments
D3 to L2 and the trigeminal nerve, particularly
Tetracycline can cross the placental barrier its ophthalmic branch.
and causes discoloration of both permanent
and deciduous dentition. TOOTH CRITICAL
PERIOD Deciduous incisors 4 months in utero 161. A42238 - Ghon complex
to 3 months postpartum Deciduous canines 5
months in utero to 9 months postpartum The pathognomic of congenital syphilis is
Permanent incisors and canines 3-5 months Hutchinson's triad, which include - Mulberry
postpartum to 7 years of age molars and notched incisors Interstetial
keratitis 8th Nerve deafness Congenital or
prenatal syphilis is characterized by: frontal
157. D42225 - Syphilis bossing, short maxilla, high palatal vault,
saddle nose, higoumenaki's sign, rhagades
The atrophic or interstitial glossitis, and saber skin apart from hutchinson's traid.
characteristic of syphilis is known as Leutic
glossitis. The incidence of carcinomatous
transformation is more with leutic glossitis. 162. D42245 - Mesial stripping of primary 2nd
molars

158. B42227 - normal osteoid + defective Discrepancy Treatment 0 - 2.5 mm Proximal

mineralization stripping 2.5 - 5 mm Extraction of second
premolars ❭ 5 mm Extraction of first
Osteomalacia is due to deficiency of Vitamin-D premolars
in adults. The disease is mostly seen in Post-
menopausal females with a history of low
calcium intake and little exposure to U.V. light.
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

163. B42247 - 70° 168. B42267 - A favorable relationship of

maxillary alveolar base to mandibular alveolar
"Twin - Block appliance" is the most base
acceptable functional appliance and was
introduced by William Clark. The appliance SNA angle relates maxilla to the cranial base.
consists of a upper and lower appliances with The mean value is 82°. A larger value
posterior bite blocks. The upper and lower bite indicates prognathic maxilla while a smaller
blocks interlock at an 70° angle. value is suggestive of retrognathic maxilla.
SNB angle related mandible to cranial base. It
average value is 80°. Larger values indicate
164. C42252 - Lip bumper prognathic mandible while smaller value
indicates retrusive mandible. ANB angle
Lip bumper or Lip plumber is a combined denotes the relative position of maxilla and
removable-fixed appliance. It is a example for mandible to each other. Mean value is 2°. An
muscular anchorage. It is used in both the increase in this angle indicates Class-II
maxilla and mandible to shield the lips away skeletal tendency (AIIMS-14) while an angle
from the teeth and for distalization of first that is less than normal or a negative angle is
molars. suggestive of a skeletal Class-III relationship.

165. B42255 - Disk deciduous canines and 169. A42270 - Abnormal frenal attachments
first molars
In blanch test, the upper lip is stretched
Disking is usually done if the space required upwards and outwards for a period of time.
for the anterior crowding is not ❭4 mm. Disking The presence of blanching in the region of
is done on the mesial and distal surfaces of interdental papilla is diagnostic of abnormal
deciduous canine. If more space is required, frenum.
then mesial surfaces of deciduous 1st molars
can be disked.
170. A42274 - Inability of the lips to cover the
incisors in the mandibular relaxed position
166. B42259 - 40 - 75g
Competent lips The lips are in slight contact
when the musculature is relaxed Incompetent
lips Morphologically short lips which do not
form a lip seal in relaxed state Potentially
incompetent lips Normal lips that fail to form a
lip seal due to proclined upper incisors or
increased facial height Everted lips
Hypertrophied lips with weak mucular tonicity

171. C42280 - Functional abnormality

167. C42264 - The type of cross bite where

maxillary segments contains full mandibular
segments
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

conditions. Open a film packet, in the usual

area where it is done and leave a coin on the
film for roughly the time it takes to mount full
mouth set of radiographs (5 min). Process the
film as usual. If image of the coin is seen on
the resultant film, the room is not light safe or
the intensity of the safe light is higher than
recommended.

176. D42301 - Acetic acid

COMPONENT: Clearing agent CHEMICAL

AGENT: Aqueous solution of sodium or
ammonium thiosulfate (Hypo) FUNCTION:
Dissolves and removes the unexposed silver
172. A42282 - 0.9 mm halide by forming water soluble complexes
with silver ions COMPONENT: Acidifier
The combined mesiodistal width of the CHEMICAL AGENT: Acetic acid (pH of 4 to
permanent canines and premolars is usually 4.5) FUNCTION: Inactivates the carryover
less than that of deciduous canines and developing agents and also blocks the
molars and this difference is known as Leeway development of unexposed crystals. Promotes
Space of Nancy. This space is used by the diffusion of thiosulfate into the emulsion and of
permanent lower molars during late mesial silver thiosulfate complex out of the emulsion.
shift from end-on occlusion to Class-1 relation. COMPONENT: Preservative CHEMICAL
The amount of leeway space is about 1.8 mm AGENT: Na or NH4 sulfite FUNCTION:
(0.9 mm on each side of arch) in maxillary Prevents oxidation of thiosulfate clearing
arch and about 3.4 mm in mandibular arch agent. Removes the brown oxidized developer
(1.7 mm on each side of arch). from the solution. COMPONENT: Hardener
CHEMICAL AGENT: Aluminium salts
FUNCTION: Prevents damage to gelatin.
173. C42288 - Both of them are true Lessens the damage to emulsion and limits
water absorption, thus shortens drying time
According to "Heel effect" when cathode rays
strike anode target, X-rays with high intensity
are found towards cathode side of central ray
177. C42304 - To prevent the distortion of
and X-rays with low intensity are found
image
towards anode. This is due to self-absorption
of photons in the anode target. Image shape distortion is the result of unequal
magnification of different parts of the same
object. This situation arises when not all the
174. A42290 - Cartilage parts of an object are at the same focal spot-
to-object distance. In paralleling technique, the
Lymphoid organs, gonads, mucous film is placed parallel to long axis of tooth, so
membranes, bone marrow and intestines are that all parts of object are at same distance
highly radiosensitive, Salivary glands, lungs, from focal spot. This procedure minimizes
growing cartilage and bone, and fine image distortion and best incorporates the
vasculature are intermediate sensitive. imaging principles.
Muscles cells, neurons, RBC, optic lens have
low radio sensitivity.
178. C42308 - Water's view

175. B42295 - Unsafe illumination Waters or occipitomental view is a variation of

PA view. The chin is raised so that the
Penny test or coin test is done to evaluate for canthomeatal line is 37° above the horizontal..
fogging caused by inappropriate safe lighting It is useful for viewing fractures of the middle
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

third of the face and particularly useful for be done separately but the scores never
evaluating the maxillary sinuses.It also added.
demonstrates the portion of the coronoid
process of the mandible between the maxilla
and the zygomatic arch. 184. D42333 - Structure of the tooth

Caries is a multifactorial disease in which

179. C42312 - Stafne's bone cyst there is interaction between three principle
factors (keys caries triology). A susceptible
It is also called as stafne cyst, static bone tissue Microflora with a cariogenic potential A
cavity or latent bone cyst. The defect typically suitable host tissue Later newborn added a
lies below the inferior alveolar nerve canal fourth factor, time, to Keys triad and this
whereas traumatic bone cyst or solitary bone concept is known as caries tetrad. From the
cyst lies above the canal. question, even-though we can make out that
saliva, microorganisms and refined
carbohydrates are part of environmental
180. B42315 - 1920-1960 factors that play a role in dental caries, truly
speaking, none of the options are
Disease control phase: 1880 - 1920 Health environmental factors. All the four options are
promotional phase :1920 - 1960 Social host factors. The environmental factors of
engineering phase: 1960 - 1980 Health for all dental caries include: Geographic variations
phase :1981 - 2000 (latitude, distance from seacoast, sunshine,
temperature, relative humidity, rainfall,
fluoride, total water hardness, trace elements,
181. B42319 - Resazurin sodium soil) Urbanization Nutrition Social factors
(Diazoresorcinol sodium)

185. B42335 - John Graunt

182. A42322 - hydrofluorosilicic acid

Type of flouridation system& Component used

186. B42339 - Absorbable synthetic suture
Saturator system :4% NaF saturated solution
Dry feeder system :NaF or silicofluoride (most
popular) Solution feeder system:
Hydrofluosilicic acid 187. D42345 - autocancellous

183. C42328 - def

The def index measures the dental caries in

primary dentition i.e., in patients who are
below 6 years. This index was given by
Grubbel in 1944. Caries indices used for
permanent dentition i.e, deft index and deft
index are equivalent to DMFT and DMFS
indices used for permanent dentition. D -
decayed primary teeth. M - indicated for
extraction / extracted due to caries only F -
teeth with permanent restoration due to caries.
Modification of def index: Used for the
children before the age of exfoliation (5-6
years) After 9 years of age, def index is
Autogenous cancellous bone grafts have
applied only to primary molars. Only d and f
maximum osteogenic potential. Most of the
components are calculated after 9 years. In
bone grafts are osteo conductive only.
mixed dentition, caries indices for the
permanent teeth (DMFT and DMFS) have to
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

whereas in generalized JP there is

generalized involvement of teeth. Vertical
188. C42348 - Provided access for bone loss around incisors and molars in
instrumentation otherwise healthy teenagers is diagnostic of
Flap technique provides: Adequate visibility UP. Arc shaped bone loss extending from
and accessibility to the root deposits. distal surface of second premolar to mesial
Eliminates or reduces pocket depth. Expose surface of second molar creating a mirror
the area to perform regenerative procedures. image type of bone toss is characteristic of
juvenile periodontitis.

189. C42352 - Infrabony pockets

194. B42371 - Howship's lacunae
Contra indications of gingivectomy: The need
for bone surgery or for examination of bone In gingivitis inflammation reaches bone and
shape and morphology Bottom of pocket is replaces marrow with fluid exudate, blood
apical to mucogingival junction Aesthetic vessels and fibroblasts. Bone surfaces appear
regions Eg.: Anterior maxilla Disadvantages of lined with howships lacunae. In periodontitis
gingivectomy: Long time to heal Loss of tissue necrosis and pus are present in the soft
attached gingiva tissue walls of pockets, not along resorbing
margins if bone.

190. B42355 - Brownish yellow stains

195. A42374 - A chronic inflammatory disease
Chlorhexidine causes local reversible side with periods of remission and exacerbation
effects like brown staining of teeth, tongue,
silicate, resin restorations and transient
impairment of taste perception. 196. C42380 - Vincent's stomatitis

ANUG is also called as Vincents infection,

191. A42358 - Hoe Vincents stomatitis, trench mouth, fetid
stomatitis, putrid stomatitis.
Hoes are used for removing ledges or rings of
calculus. It makes two-point contact with the
tooth and this stabilizes the instrument and 197. C42384 - Cyclosporin
prevents nicking of the root. The blade is bent
at 99° and the cutting edge is beveled at 45 Cyclosporine is a potent immunosuppressive
degrees. Hoes, chisels and files are drug used to prevent organ transplant
subgingival scalers. rejection and treat several autoimmune
diseases. Gingival enlargement,
nephrotoxicity, hypertension etc are its side
192. A42362 - 8 mm effects. Another immunosuppressive
tacrolimus exhibits less severe gingival
If gingival margin is on anatomic crown then enlargement and is used as a substitute for
level of attachment = pocket depth - distance cyclosporine, (KCET-11).
from CEJ to gingival margin. If gingival margin
coincides with CEJ then level of attachment =
pocket depth. If gingival margin is apical to 198. D42389 - Due to trauma from occlusion
CEJ then, level of attachment = pocket depth
+ distance from CEJ to gingival margin. Stillman's clefts- apostrophe shaped
indentations from and into the gingival margin.
MC calls festoons - Life preserver shaped
193. B42367 - Localized juvenile periodontitis enlargements of the marginal gingiva occur
most frequently in canine and premolar areas,
LJP is characterized by distribution of lesions Both Stillman's clefts and Me call's festoons
in the 1st molars and incisors with least are considered to be the result of trauma from
destruction in the cuspid premolar area occlusion. But this association was never
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

substantiated, They represent peculiar Inducing development of root apex by

inflammatory changes of the marginal gingiva formation of osteocementum is Apexification
and Apexogenesis promote the continued
growth of root formation in vital teeth.
199. B42391 - Has an irritating effect on
gingiva
206. A42422 - Formocresol pulpotomy
The irritating effect of materia alba on the
gingiva is caused by bacteria and their Sweet technique :Multivisit formocresol
products. pulpotomy 5 minute technique :Single sitting
formocresol pulpotomy 2 stage
technique :Para formaldehyde pulpotomy
200. A42394 - Ig G Mortal or nonvital pulpotomy :Beechwood
cresol pulpotomy Cvek pulpotomy :Partial
Predominant immunoglobulin in GCF - IgG pulpotomy
Predominant immunoglobulin in Saliva - IgA

207. B42427 - 12 months

201. C42404 - Neisseria
The goal of gross motor development is to
The bacteria associated with periodontal gain independent movement. The higher
health (protective species) are S, Sanguis, cortical centers mediate the development of
S.Mitis, A. Viscosus, Capnocytophaga, equilibrium responses and permit the infant to
Neisseria, Veillonella, etc. The bacteria pull to stand by 9 months of age and begin
associated with periodontal disease are walking by 12 months. Additional equilibrium
P.gingivali's, P.intermedia, A.actinomycetam responses develop during second year after
comitans, Eikenella, Fusobacterium and birth to allow for more complex bipedal
Eubacterium species, etc. movements such as moving backward,
running, and jumping.

202. A42406 - 0.25 - 1.35 mm

208. A42430 - Debridement of pulp space and
Junctional epithelium is a collar like band of
apexification
non keratinizing epithelium. It is 3-4 Layers
thick in early life and increases to 10-20 layers That means, the boy had fractured his central
with age. Its length ranges from 0.25 - 1.35 incisor at 8½ years and so the tooth is still
mm. immature (open apex). Apexification is the
technique of choice for non-vital permanent
teeth with incompletely formed roots.
203. B42411 - Addleslon

209. C42436 - Continuation of root formation

204. D42417 - 10% and Apexogenesis

Composition of stainless steel crowns:

Stainless steel (18-8) austentic type of alloy is
used. Eg.: Rocky mountain and unitek. Iron -
87% Chromium - 17% Nickel - 12% Carbon -
0.08 - 1.15% Nickel base crowns. Eg.: Iconel
600 and 3M crowns Iron - 10% Chromium -
16% Nickel - 72% others - 2%

205. B42419 - Closure of apical formation in a

developing tooth
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

toward the feet. A comparison of the body

proportion between prenatal and postnatal life
reveals that postnatal growth of regions of the
body that are away from the hypophysis.

213. A42450 - Masochistic behavior of child

Masochistic behavior is nothing but deriving

pleasure or sexual gratification from being
abused or dominated. It is seen in children
suffering from Lesch-Nyhan syndrome or
HGPRT (hypoxanthine - guanine -
phosphoribosyl transferase) is the result of
mutation in a recessive structural gene. Mental
retardation, self mutilation and sudden
210. C42440 - Benjamin aggressive behavior which is indeed an
inherited defect of metabolism. There will be
Rooting reflex theory was given by Benjamin abnormally high production of uric acid, which
in 1962. Rooting reflex is movement of the present at a raised Level in saliva. Because of
infants head and tongue toward an object this, there will be irritation of buccal mucosa,
touching its cheeks. accounting to some extent for the biting of lips
and lining of mouth. Extraction of primary teeth
may be required sometimes.
211. A42442 - Bacterial endocarditis

People with the highest risk for poor outcomes

214. D42457 - Odontogenic infections
from IE may be prescribed antibiotics (IE
prophylaxis) prior to certain dental procedures Retropharyngeal space is involved due to
to reduce their risk of developing it. These extension of odontogenic infections from the
include procedures that involve manipulation lateral pharyngeal space.
of gingival (gum) tissue or the periapical
region (area around the roots) of teeth, or
perforation of the oral mucosa. Antibiotic
215. D42461 - Surgical recontouring
prophylaxis is reasonable before the above-
mentioned dental procedures for people with Surgical recontouring is done to recontour the
heart valve disease who have any of the cortical expansion of the jaw.
following: Prosthetic cardiac valves, including
transcatheter-implanted prostheses and
homografts. Prosthetic material used for heart
216. D42465 - Lateral pterygoid
valve repair, such as annuloplasty rings,
chords or clips. Unrepaired cyanotic Boundaries of pterygo mandibular space
congenital heart defect (birth defects with Laterally :Medial surface of ramus of mandible
oxygen levels lower than normal) or repaired Medially :Lateral surface of medial pterygoid
congenital heart defect, with residual shunts or muscle Posteriorly :Deep portion of parotid
valvular regurgitation at the site adjacent to gland Anteriorly : Pterygomandibular raphae
the site of a prosthetic patch or prosthetic Roof :Lateral pterygoid muscle
device. Cardiac transplant with valve
regurgitation due to a structurally abnormal
valve. 217. C42468 - Ophthalmic vein

Cavernous thrombosis (CST) is the infectious

212. A42446 - From head to feet thrombosis of the cavernous sinus, which is a
dural venous space present in the middle
Cephalocaudal gradient of growth means that cranial fossa on either side of the sella turcica.
there is an axis of increased growth extending It is a paired sinus, anterior and posterior.
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

Infections to cavernous sinus may spread by

two pathways. The anterior route composed of
ophthalmic veins and their anastomosis with
the facial vein; the angular vein; the infraorbital
vein; and the inferior palpebral vein; readily
allows the invasion of the cavernous sinus.
Spread of infection by this pathway presents
the classic picture of a fulminating cavernous
sinus thrombosis and CST through this route
is more common than posterior route. The
pterygoid venous plexus, which constitutes the
posterior route, provide a connection between
cavernous sinus and the retromandibular vein.

218. C42472 - Submandibular gland

About 90% sialoliths are formed in

submandibular gland. This is due to: High 222. B42487 - A radiograph artifact
viscous secretion of submandibular gland. The
Hanging drop sign is best seen in the waters
presence of gland in dependent position.
projection of the face.
Tortuous course of submandibular duct. Its
alkaline secretion with higher concentration of
calcium and phosphate ions.
223. C42492 - Plating at the inferior border of
the mandible
219. B42475 - The articular eminence being Compression plates are used at inferior border
smaller of mandible below the inferior dental canal. If
there is opening of the upper border, it is
Spasm of muscle is responsible for acute
necessary to apply a tension band in the form
dislocation. For recurrent/ frequent dislocation
of arch bar or mini plates at the upper border.
ligament and capsular flaccidity, flattening of
articular eminence and trauma are the
casative triad.
224. A42494 - Cocaine

All local anaesthetics except cocaine are

220. D42481 - All of the above synthetic compounds and they are
vasodilating in nature. Cocaine is a natural
Mucolytic agents are drugs that thin mucus
local anaesthetic agent and causes local
and secretions so they can drain out of the
vasoconstriction. (Cocaine increases the
sinuses more easily. Often, they are found in
vasoconstrictive action of adrenaline. If LA
combination preparations with decongestants
with adrenaline is given risk of death is more
and/ or antihistamines. These medications
in cocaine abusers. So they are known as
also increase the ability of cilia to clear and
walking time bombs.
drain mucus and thus brings about aeration in
the maxillary sinus. Thinner mucus can be
more easiLy penetrated by other medications
such as antibiotics. A common mucolytic 225. B42499 - Posteriorly
agent is Guaifenesin. Inhalation is given to In extra oral technique for mandibular nerve
maintain or to improve the drainage by the block (Gow gates and Akinosi techniques are
ciliary pathways of antral lining through the for intra oral mandibular anaesthesia), the
ostium. needle is inserted from below the zygomatic
arch and is directed posterior to the lateral
pterygoid plate below the foramen ovale. In
221. A42482 - Arthroplasty extra oral technique for maxillary nerve block,
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

the needle is directed anterior to lateral 229. B42515 - Lingual surfaces

pterygoid plate into the pterygopalatine fossa.
Lingual rest is always preferred over an incisal
rest on anterior tooth because it is present
closer to center of rotation of the abutment
226. B42503 - Postoperative ecchymosis and have less tendency to tip the tooth.
Ecchymosis are large extravasations of blood
into subcutaneous tissues with facial
discoloration caused by breakdown of 230. C42520 - Subgingival if required
hemoglobin. The common areas of post-
operative ecchymosis are circumorbital and Whenever possible the finish lines of crowns
submandibular regions, lower lip and floor of should terminate supragingivally, subgingival
mouth. Management consists of immediate margins are required in the following
application of cold followed by heat. In severe situations: Esthetics. Cervical erosion and
cases, antibiotics are given along with caries. Insufficient crown Length for retention.
proteolytic enzymes which causes breakdown Elimination of persistent root hyper sensitivity.
of coagulated blood.

231. D42525 - Modified ridge lap

227. A42506 - The depth at which the
impacted teeth is located
232. D42529 - correct base tissue relationship
Winters lines include 3 imaginary lines that are
drawn on the radiographs. White line Amber Refining is the process of adding some
line Red line White line: It is drawn touching material to the tissue side of a denture to fill
the occlusal surfaces of 1st and 2nd molars the space between the tissue and the denture
and is extended posteriorly over the 3rd molar base. Thus relining is the correction of denture
region. It indicates the difference in occlusal base and tissue relationship without changing
level of 2nd and 3rd molars. Amber line: It is the occlusal relation. Rebasing is a process of
drawn from the crest of interdental bone replacing all the base material of a denture.
between 1st and 2nd molars and extends The main disadvantage of relining and
posteriorly distal to 3rd molar or to the rebasing the complete denture is change in
ascending ramus. It indicates the amount of centric relation.
alveolar bone covering the impacted tooth and
the portion of tooth that is not covered by the
bone. Red line: It is drawn perpendicular from 233. A42530 - Axis-orbital plane
the amber line to an imaginary point of
application of elevator. It indicates the depth of
the tooth in the bone and the difficulty
234. A42534 - 75 ± 15°
encountered in removing of the tooth.

235. C42540 - Non-proliferating lesion

228. A42510 - Incisal guide pin
Internal resorption is also known as "Pink
The tools that may be attached to the
tooth of mummery" or "odontoclastoma".
surveying arm are: Analysing rod is used to
This question is contraversial. The answer
determine the parallelism of one surface to
another. Undercut gauzes are used to identify should be Ca(OH)2 pulpotomy ❭ Non-
the specific amount and location of retentive proliferating lesion, we went ahead with Non-
undercut. Wax knife is used to eliminate or proliferating lesion as the question uses the
block out undesirable undercut areas with wax word "seen as". Use your own judgement
on the cast Carbon marker is used to scribe while answering such questions or skip it if
the survey line and to delineate an undercut asked in exams.
area of the soft tissue or ridge.

236. A42542 - From the distolingual

FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

In case of MAXILLARY FIRST MOLAR: The In irreversible pulpitis, pain develops following
orifice of mesiobuccal canal is gained access sudden temperature charges, particularly cold.
from disto palatal direction The palatal root is The pain is spontaneous, sharp, piercing or
gained access from buccal direction The shooting type, The pain is increased when the
distobuccal root canal is gained access from patient bends over or lies down. This is due to
mesio lingual direction. MANDIBULAR FIRST change in intra pulpal pressure when the
MOLAR: The distal orifice is explored from patient changes his position.
mesial direction The mesiobuccal orifice is
present under mesiobuccal cusp and is
explored from mesiobucco apical direction The
distal orifice is explored from a mesial NEET mock test based on
direction. 2020 paper

237. C42548 - Angle former

NEET mock test
If the second number (cutting edge angle) is
90 - 100 it is distal gingival trimmer. If it is 75 -
85 it is a mesial gingival trimmer.

Questions
238. D42553 - rouge 1. Fluoride supplement for a 3-year old child
Pickling is the process of cleaning the gold living in an area with fluoride content of 0.25
casting by 50% warm HCL. Final polishing of ppm is:
cast gold restorations is by the use of Iron A. 0.25 mg
oxide (rouge). Option 'C' sandblasting with
aluminium oxide is recommended for B. 0.5 mg
removing the investment material from base
metal alloys. Final finishing of base metal C. 0.75 mg
restorations is obtained by electrolytic D. 1 mg
polishing.

2. In a case control study, the cases were

239. A42554 - The removal of localized found to be consuming zarda pan more
superficial white spots and other surface frequently than controls and the difference
stains or defects was statistically significant. It indicates
Macro-abrasion Technique for the removal of A. The incidence of the disease was more
localized, superficial white spots and other in those consuming zardapan
surface stains or defects. It uses a 12-fluted
composite finishing bur or a fine grit diamond B. An association exists between zardapan
in a high speed hand piece, After the removal and disease
of defect, a 30-fluted composite finishing bur is
C. The disease can be cured if zardapan is
used to remove any facets or striations
stopped
created by the previous instruments. Micro-
abrasion Surface dissolution of enamel by the D. Zardapan is the cause of the disease
acid and abrasives to remove stains or
defects. Firstly CROLL used 18% HCl +
Pumice. Later he modified using 11% HCl +
3. Sampling that involves randomly selecting
Silicon carbide.
some of the pre existing natural groups is
called:

240. D42561 - A & B A. Simple random

B. Cluster
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

C. Systematic B. Experimental study requires a strong

knowledge of statistics by the operator
D. Quota
C. Analytical study requires the use of
sophisticated instruments
4. The positive predictive value of a screening D. All variables are under the control and
test depends on can be modified by the operator
A. Value of the test

B. Specificity of the test 9. The maxilla articulates with all of the

C. Sensitivity of the test following bones, except one. Identify the
exception:
D. Efficiency of the test
A. Frontal

B. Zygomatic
5. In a sample size of 100 children the mean
weight is found to be 35 kg with the standard C. Palatine
deviation of 2, calculate the standard error of D. Temporal
mean

A. 1
10. Pernicious anaemia is:
B. 0.2
A. insufficient production of red cells
C. 0.01
B. improper maturation of red cells
D. 10
C. can be corrected by tablets of folic acid
alone
6. Regarding case control study all the D. can be corrected by iron supplement
following are correct, except

A. Risk factors can be identified

11. Oral foci of miller's are seen in:
B. Requires few subjects
A. Dental caries
C. It measures incidence
B. Lichen planus
D. Used in the study of rare diseases
C. Herpes simplex

D. Syphilis
7. The type of study used in the 10 year
Fluoride tablets study can be also be
described as a (an):
12. A cyst occurs under the tongue, caused by
A. Case control study obstruction of a salivary gland. Such a cyst is
called:
B. Cross section study
A. Mucocele
C. Count study
B. Ranula
D. Experimental study
C. Dermoid cyst

D. Dentigerous cyst
8. Difference between descriptive or analytical
study and experimental study is:

A. Descriptive study has a small sample 13. During oral examination of a 57-year-old-
man, a large keratotic patch that covers the
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

entire palate is noted. Some 'Red Spots' are D. Decreasing KVP

also seen in the patch. The patient most likely
is a:

A. Cigar smoker 18. The base of an X-ray film is composed of:

B. Snuff chewer A. Polyester

C. Tobacco chewer B. Gelatin

D. Pipe smoker C. Nylon

D. Bromide

14. Facial edema, cheilitis granulomatosa and

a fissured tongue characterize which of the 19. Bitewing radiographs are taken to look for:
following syndromes?
A. Narrowing of periodontal space
A. Frey
B. Proximal caries
B. Melkerson-Rosenthal
C. Resorption of root
C. Treacher Collins
D. Internal resorption
D. None of the above

20. The sialographic appearance of a normal

15. When the time of exposure is doubled? salivary gland is:
A. The number of Photons generated is A. Branching with bloom
doubled
B. Branching with leaves
B. The energy of Photons generated is
doubled C. Branchless with fruit laden

C. The velocity of photons is doubled D. Branchless with leaves

D. The mass of photons is doubled

21. All are characteristics of benign tumors
EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
16. A patient requires tooth extractions from
an area that has been subjected to radiation A. Spread by direct extension
therapy. Which of the following represents the
B. nsidious onset.
greatest danger to this patient:
C. Will metastasize
A. Alveolar osteitis
D. Slow growing.
B. Osteoradionecrosis

C. Prolonged healing
22. Sunburst appearance on the radiograph is
D. Fracture of the mandible
seen in:

A. Osteosarcoma
17. In intra oral radiograph patient radiation is
B. Osteofibroma
decreased by all except:
C. Osteomalacia
A. High speed film
D. Osteopetrosis
B. Intensifying screens

C. Lead apron
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

23. 60 year old diabetic female presented with D. Leukoedema

burning sensation to spicy food, Intraoral
examination revealed multiple periodontal
abscess and keratotic area in a lace pattern 28. Treatment of solitary langerhans
with occasional erosive areas inside the lace histiocytoma of mandible is by:
pattern. Provisional diagnosis for this lady will
be: A. Curettage

A. Oral hairy leukoplakia B. Chemotherapy

B. Oral lichen planus C. No treatment required

C. Oral squamous cell carcinoma D. Radiotherapy

D. Oral pemphigus
29. In a patient of 8 years having history of
trauma at the age of 5 years. The TMJ gets
24. Warthins tumor is: ankytosed, what should be treatment
A. An adenolymphoma of the parotid gland A. Gap arthroplasty
B. A pleomorphic adenoma of parotid gland B. Condyloplasty
C. Carcinoma of the parotid gland C. Condylectomy
D. None of the above D. Gap arthroplasty with temporalis muscle
meniscus pLaced in joint space

25. Squamous cell carcinoma with best

prognosis is: 30. Bucket handle type of fractures are seen
A. Palate in:

B. Lip A. Children

C. Tongue B. Soldiers

D. Floor of the mouth C. Edentulous persons

D. Young adults

26. Endocarditis prophylaxis is recommended

during following dental procedures except: 31. Surgery is carried out in which stage of
A. Dental extractions general anesthesia:

B. ntracanal endodontic treatment A. Plane IV

C. Periodontal procedures B. Plane III

D. Initial placement of orthodontic brackets C. Plane II

D. Plane I

27. Which one of the following benign lesions

resembles squamous cell carcinoma clinically 32. The antibiotic cover is mandatory before
and microscopically? extraction in the following condition of the
A. Squamous acanthoma heart:

B. Verruca vulgaris A. Ischemic heart disease (IHD)

C. Keratoacanthoma B. Hypertension
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

C. Congestive cardiac failure C. Electrical potential theory

D. Congenital heart disease D. None of the above

33. The most dangerous type of spread of 38. Which of the following procedures can be
infection from apical abscess is, to: used to treat an oro-antral fistula resulting
from posterior surgery: (Or) Oro-antral fistula
A. Infratemporal fossa in maxillary 3rd molar region is best/commonly
B. Pterygoid treated by:

C. Parapharyngeal space A. Bridge flap

D. Submandibular space B. Palatal mucoperiosteal flap

C. Buccal mucoperiosteal flap

34. Death in Ludwig's angina occurs due to: D. Palatal island flap

A. Sepsis

B. Respiratory obstruction 39. During extractions of maxillary second

molar a 0.5mm perforation is created in
C. Cavernous sinus thrombosis maxillary sinus. The appropriate treatment
would be to:
D. Carotid blow-out
A. Smoothen the bone and place suture
across socket
35. A patient has cheilosis, angular stomatitis,
B. No treatment necessary
glossitis, red, itching eyes. The periodontal
surgery that was performed one week ago has C. Perform caldwell-luc procedure
not healed properly. Deficiency of which of the
following vitamin is most likely: D. Pack the opening with iodoform gauge
and allow to heal by secondary intention
A. Thiamin

B. Tocopherol
40. Which of the following is not a feature of
C. Riboflavin Le Fort II fracture:
D. Calciferol A. Enophthalmos

B. Malocclusion
36. According to Melcher concept, the C. Paraesthesia
regeneration of new attachment is from:
D. CSF rhinorrhea
A. periodontal ligament

B. gingival connective tissue

41. hich of the following instruments has a two
C. alveolar bone point contact with the tooth?
D. junctional epithelium A. Hoe

B. Sickle
37. Which of the following is not a theory for C. Currete
local anesthetic action
D. Cumin scaler
A. Membrane expansion theory

B. Calcium displacement theory

FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

42. Guided tissue regeneration (GTR) is done 47. Mc Call's festoons are:
in:
A. Also called Stillman's Clefts
A. Vestibular deepening procedures
B. Due to poor oral hygiene
B. Frenectomy
C. Congenital abnormality
C. Flap surgeries
D. Due to trauma from occlusion
D. Gingivectomy

48. A 59-year-old female presents with

43. Classification of bony defects are most gingival condition punched out crater-like
helpful in determining the likelihood of repair depression covered with membrane which can
after periodontal treatment is based on: be pulled off painlessly?

A. Depth of bone defect A. Diphtheritic Lesion

B. Number of bone walls remaining B. Acute herpetic gingivostomatitis

C. Distance between the facial, lingual walls C. ANUG

D. Distance from the crest of defect to CEJ D. Syphilitic lesion

44. All of the following are contraindications for 49. A 15-year-old-boy suffers from vesiculating
root planing EXCEPT: painful ulcers, there is also oral temperature of
103 degree F since 3 days and
A. deficient or overhanging margins of lymphadenopathy. The most likely diagnosis
amalgam restorations is:
B. erosion and /or abrasion A. Herpes zoster
C. recession B. Acute herpetic gingivostomatitis
D. root caries C. Major apthae

D. ecurrent aphthae
45. Pyogenic granuloma:

A. Bleeds on touch 50. The "V" shaped space that encircles the
B. Painless tooth and present between tooth and gingiva
is known as:
C. Soft in consistency
A. Inter dental papilla
D. All of the above
B. Free gingiva

C. Gingival sulcus
46. The gingival enlargements in leukemia
mainly results from: D. Attached gingiva

A. as an inflammatory reaction to plaque

B. leukemic cellular infiltration of gingiva 51. The flap technique for pocket elimination
and to increase in width of attached gingiva is:
C. Hormonal disturbances
A. Coronally repositioned flap
D. Developmental in origin
B. Apically repositioned flap

C. Lateral pedicel flap

FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

D. Modified widman flap 57. Preventive pit and fissure sealant in

children should have:

A. High compressive strength

52. Periodontal flap surgery is most difficult in:
B. Low viscosity
A. Incisors (Facially)
C. Hybrid composite with filler
B. Incisors (Lingually)
D. More of the above
C. 2nd molars (Facially)

D. 2nd molars (Distally)

58. The most successful treatment for a vital
primary second molar with a large carious and
53. Nyhan syndrome is associated with: pulpal exposure is:

A. Masochistic behavior of child A. Indirect pulp treatment

B. Physical abuse of child B. Pulpotomy with formocresol

C. Low I.Q. of child patient C. Pulpotomy with calcium hydroxide

D. None of the above D. Pulp capping with calcium hydroxide

54. HOME is a type of: 59. A 4 year old child sustained a fracture in
central incisor one month ago. On examination
A. Punishment/aversive punishment a necrotic pulp was seen with no other
pathological findings. The treatment of choice
B. Negative reinforcement
is
C. None of them
A. Watchful observation
D. Time out
B. Extraction followed by space maintainer

C. Pulpectomy and root canal filling with

55. Vidya, a 3 years old comes for her pre gutta percha
dental visit. She is highly intelligent with family
D. Endodontic treatment and root canal
members of high I.Q. you would do most
filling with ZOE
probably what type of treatment:

A. Radiographs and topical flouride

60. All of the following are anatomical stages
B. Get the patient accustomed to the dental
of tooth eruption except:
clinic
A. Preparatory stage
C. Employ desensitization
B. First occlusal contact
D. mploy behaviour modification
C. Final occlusal contact

D. Root completion
56. Reinforcement technique is based on:

A. Social learning
61. The first ossification center of the mandible
B. Freudian psycho analytical theory
in a 6 weeks old human embryo is found in
C. Skinner's theory which one of the following locations?

D. Massler's theory A. Future coronoid process

B. Future condylar process

FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

C. Future mental foramen The 1st premolars are also erupting. The
treatment of choice is:
D. Future mandibular foramen
A. Remove primary 2nd molars

B. Place a removable bite-opener

62. Serial extraction should not be undertaken
if there is: C. Remove 1st premolars

A. Crowding D. Mesial stripping of primary 2nd molars

B. Presence of ectopic eruption

C. Deep bite or open bite 67. Open bite on cephalogram shows as:

D. None of these A. Increased MP angle

B. Decreased MP angle

63. In a child, a fibrous maxillary frenum C. Increased ANB angle

associated with a diastema between central
incisors should be: D. None of the above

A. Treated by frenectomy

B. Observed until permanent canines erupt 68. Which malocclusion will not lead to
straining of lips?
C. Surgically removed before initiating
orthodontic treatment A. Class II Div. 1

D. Left alone because the condition will self- B. Class II Div. 2

correct C. Bimaxillary protrusion

D. None
64. According to Tweeds philosophy, the
correct placement of which teeth is necessary
to minimize relapse: 69. The two blocks in the twin block functional
appliance are angulated at (Or) The angle of
A. Upper first molar inclined plane in darkens twin block is:
B. Lower first molar A. 45°
C. Upper incisors B. 65°
D. Lower incisors C. 70°

D. 80°
65. Force required for headgear to restrain
maxillary growth is:
70. Leeway space of Nance is utilized in:
A. 50-100 gm per side
A. Early mesial shift of first permanent
B. 150-200 gm per side molars
C. 250-500 gm per side B. Incisal liability
D. 750-1000gm per side C. Late mesial, shift of first permanent
molars

66. In a 10-year-old child the lower canines D. Secondary spacing of first permanent
are trying to erupt in 2mm insufficient space. molars
The primary molars are large and firmly fixed.
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

71. Jasper jumper is a

A. Flexible fixed functional appliance 75. The "in office" non vital bleaching
technique is:
B. Rigid fixed functional appliance
A. Walking bleach
C. Fixed functional appliance
B. Power bleach technique
D. None of the above
C. Thermo catalytic technique

D. Night guard technique

72. Identify the appliance?

76. A contusion usually result from:

A. Cut injury

B. Blunt trauma

C. Crush injury

D. Penetrating injury

77. In Elli's classification of injured teeth a

class IV represents:

A. Non-vital tooth

B. Avulsed tooth
A. Frankel III
C. Fracture involving only the enamel
B. frankel ll
D. Fracture involving enamel and dentin but
C. Bionator not pulp
D. Twin block

78. Barbed broach is used for:

73. In a class II mesio occlusal inlay gingival A. ALL of the below
bevel is at:
B. Obturation of canals
A. 30-40
C. Enlargement of canal
B. 45-60
D. Extirpation of pulp
C. 60-80

D. no fixed angulation
79. Best method of condensation:

A. Lateral condensation
74. The largest component of gutta percha
cones is: B. Thermoplasticized

A. Gutta percha C. Vertical condensation

B. Zinc oxide D. None of above

C. Resins and waxes

D. Colouring agents 80. A 12-years-old child suffers from an

avulsed tooth following trauma. The best
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

medium in which to carry the tooth to the 85. Toothache relieved with cold water
dental clinic is: indicates:

A. Buccal vestibule A. Acute pulpitis

B. Milk B. Arterial hyperemia

C. Water C. Irreversible pulpitis

D. Cotton D. Venous hyperemia

81. Gates-Glidden drill is: 86. True about immediate denture is

A. Flexible and used at high speed A. Occlusal correction should be done after
48 hrs
B. Inflexible and used at low speed
B. The patient experiences less pain since
C. Flexible and used at low speed the denture acts as splint
D. nflexible and used at high speed C. Avoid the psychological trauma of
edentulous periods

82. Instrument which forms a blade angle of D. All of the above

more than 125 is likely to be:

A. Biangle chisel 87. The function of compensating curve is:

B. Curette A. To provide balanced occlusion in
C. Chisel complete dentures when mandible is
protruded
D. Angle former
B. To aid in establishing an incisal guide

C. Same as function of curve of spee

83. The most generally accepted treatment of
root fracture in the apical third of a maxillary D. None of the above
central incisor involves:

A. Splinting with orthodontic bands and a 88. Gingival finish tines are placed:
sectional arch wire
A. Supra/subgingivally according to need
B. Frequent pulp testing and radiographic
examination B. For better cleansing

C. Extraction of the tooth C. Subgingivally only

D. Immediate pulp extirpation D. Supragingivally only

84. The ideal instrument that is used to widen 89. Porcelain bonded to metal is strongest
the canal is: when

A. Broach A. Air fired

B. Fissure bur B. Under compression

C. File C. Tempered after firing

D. Reamer D. Fired several times before completion

FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

90. The disadvantage of three fourth crown: of the rest seat. The marginal ridge is then
rounded in order to:
A. Compromised esthetics
A. Decrease food impaction
B. More tooth reduction
B. For better distribution of the vertical load
C. Inadequate retention
C. Better clasp retention
D. Biomechanical compatibility
D. Reduce the chances of fracture of the
metal rest
91. Ante's law concerns the:

A. Degree of tipping allowable in the 95. Contraindications for the metal-ceramic

abutment tooth crown, include
B. Amount of increase in retentive factor A. Caries
with a full crown versus a 3/4th crown
B. Untreated periodontal disease
C. Crown : Root ratio
C. Patients with large pulp chambers
D. Ratio of combined pericemental root
surface area of the abutment teeth and the D. All of the above
pericemental root surface areas of the teeth to
be replaced
96. The mandibular distal extension RPD
extends up to:
92. A 40-year-old male patient reported with
the chief complaint of missing back teeth in A. Full length of Retromolar pad
the upper jaw, and desired replacement of the B. Anterior one third Length of retromolar
same. On clinical examination revealed pad
missing 14, 15, 16, 17, 18, 24, 25, 26, 27 &
28. Major connector of choice for the above C. Anterior 2/3 rd of Retromolar pad
given clinical situation is:
D. None of above
A. Palatal bar

B. Palatal strap
97. 60 year old diabetic female presented with
C. Horse shoe connector burning sensation to spicy food, Intraoral
examination revealed multiple periodontal
D. Complete palate abscess and keratotic area in a lace pattern
with occasional erosive areas inside the lace
pattern. Syndrome associated with this
93. The lingual bar connector should be disease is:
located at least how many millimetres below
the gingival margin? A. Peutzjeghers syndrome

A. 2 B. Sjogren's syndrome

B. 4 C. Down's syndrome

C. 6 D. Grinspan syndrome

D. 8
98. The largest mesiodistal diameter in
primary dentition is:
94. For the preparation of the rest seat in the
marginal ridge of a molar tooth which is A. Mandibular 1st molar
reduced by 2mm to achieve the correct width B. Mandibular 2nd molar
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

C. Maxillary 2nd molar C. Cylindroma

D. None of the above D. Epidermoid carcinoma

99. Identify the stages of tooth formation 103. With which other odontogenic tumor can
a squamous odontogenic tumor be confused
with histopathologically?

A. Follicular ameloblastoma

B. Compound odontoma

C. Pindborg tumor

D. Acanthomatous ameloblastoma

104. Which one out of the following is the most

common bacterial agent responsible for
causing acute sialadenitis?

A. Streptococcus mutans

B. Lactobacillus acidophilus
A. Bell stage
C. Actinomyces israeli
B. Advanced bell stage
D. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Cap stage

D. Initiation stage
105. The most common complication of
mumps is:
100. Apical periodontal cyst usually occurs as
A. Myocarditis
a sequela of
B. Orchitis
A. Periodontal abscess
C. Uveitis
B. Acute pulpitis
D. Conjunctivitis
C. Periapical granuloma

D. Osteomyelitis
106. Kaposi’s sarcoma is now believed to be
caused by
101. Periapical cyst is usually preceded by:
A. Herpes simplex virus 2
A. Periapical granuloma
B. Human papilloma virus 2
B. Periodontal abscess
C. Cytomegalovirus
C. Periapical abscess
D. Human herpes virus 8
D. All of the above

107. Which of the following is not

102. Most common tumour of parotid gland is: characteristic of congenital syphilis?

A. Pleomorphic adenoma A. Ghon complex

B. Adenoid cystic carcinoma B. Interstitial keratitis

FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

C. Mulberry molars B. Causes porosity in gold

D. Notched incisors C. Removes surface oxides from gold

castings

D. Remove investment from gold casting

108. All of the following vesiculobullous
diseases commonly affect the mucosal
structures except
113. Increased amount of powder in zinc
A. Lichen planus phosphate cement mixture will cause:

B. Bullous pemphigoid A. Decreased strength

C. Pemphigus B. Decreased film thickness

D. Cicatricial pemphigoid C. Decreased solubility

D. Increased setting time

109. Which amongst the following histological

variants of ameloblastoma is considered to be
the most aggressive clinically? 114. Serous demilunes are seen in

A. Acanthomatous A. Salivary glands

B. Desmoplastic B. Pancreas

C. Basal cell C. Liver

D. Granular cell D. Gastric glands

110. The extra – cellular polysaccharide 115. Which statement is correct about
synthesized by cariogenic streptococci in the deciduous dentition?
presence of excess sucrose are best A. The crowns of primary dentition are more
described as: yellowish than permanent
A. Mucopolysaccharide B. The primary dentition is initiated at 10th
B. Dextran-like glucan month in uterus

C. Glycogen-like glucan C. Mandibular first molar erupts at one and

half years of age
D. Amylopectin
D. Calcification of maxillary primary first
premolar is completed at birth

111. Widely accepted theory of dental caries:

A. Proteolytic theory 116. On which of the following permanent

teeth is it most difficult to distinguish between
B. Proteolytic chelation theory mesial and distal aspects?
C. Acidogenic theory A. Maxillary central incisor
D. Autoimmune theory B. Mandibular second premolar

C. Maxillary Lateral incisor

112. Pickling: D. Mandibular Central incisor
A. Is accomplished by soaking the casting
in baking soda
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

117. Acute angled cusps in permanent A. Impression of single tooth

maxillary first molar are:
B. Impression of whole teeth
A. MB and DL
C. Replica of single tooth
B. MB and DB
D. Replica of whole teeth
C. ML and DL

D. DB and ML
123. The hygroscopic technique is associated
with:

118. Periodontal ligament has predominantly A. Investment

A. Type I collagen fibres B. Hydrocolloids

B. Elastic fibres C. Amalgam

C. Oxytalan fibres D. Silicate

D. Type II collagen fibres

124. In type II gold alloys ____Karat gold is

used:
119. Group of fibres, which resist the
masticatory forces: A. 24 K

A. Dentogingival B. 22 K

B. Transeptal C. 18 K

C. Oblique D. 10 K

D. Horizontal

125. Ductility of a material is a measure of it’s:

120. Which of the following premolars has a A. Work hardening

mesial marginal ridge more cervical than the
distal marginal ridge: B. Annealing

A. Maxillary 1st premolar C. Grain elongation

B. Maxillary 2nd premolar D. Cold working

C. Mandibular 1st premolar

D. Mandibular 2nd premolar 126. Coefficient of thermal expansion of which

of following is most similar to that of tooth?

A. Gold foil
121. Immediate pouring of impressions is most
critical in: B. Gold inlay

A. Condensation polysilicon C. Silicate cement

B. Addition polysilicon D. Acrylic resin

C. Polyether

D. A and B 127. Porosity present in a acrylic denture is

usually the result of:

A. A prolonged curing cycle

122. Die is:
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

B. Lack of sufficient pressure applied to A. 0.28 and 0.6

flask
B. 0.6 and 0. 28
C. Insufficient acrylic resin monomer
C. 0.6 and 3.2
D. Prolonged bench cooling after curing
D. 0.28 and 0.98

128. Setting time of Amalgam is best

controlled by: 133. A patient presents with a history of
continuous headache for the past 8 yrs.
A. Using spherical particles Repeated examinations had failed to reveal
any lesion. The patient is not convinced and
B. Lathe cut alloy believes that he has a tumor In his brain. He Is
C. Altering Hg-Alloy ratio referred to a psychiatrist, who, after
examination of his case comes to a
D. Trituration time conclusion. The diagnosis is most probably:

A. Hypochondriasis
129. The cavity varnish applied reduces post B. Somatization
operative sensitivity in amalgam restoration
by: C. Somatoform pain disorder

A. By altering the chemical composition of D. Obsessive compulsive disorder

restoration materials

B. Minimize marginal leakage around 134. The diagnostic laboratory finding in

restoration nephrotic syndrome:
C. Decreasing conduction of heat to pulp A. Elevated blood urea
D. By preventing penetration of corrosion B. Severe anaemia
products into the dentinal tubules
C. Massive albuminuria

D. Hyper glycaemia
130. Dicor restoration is:

A. Two coloured restorations

135. The diagnostic laboratory finding in
B. Heat pressed ceramics nephrotic syndrome:
C. Castable ceramic A. Elevated blood urea
D. None of the above B. Severe anaemia

C. Massive albuminuria
131. The modulus of elasticity is defined as: D. Hyper glycaemia
A. The stress at the proportional limit

B. The strain at the proportional limit 136. Renal osteodystrophy differs from
C. The stress/strain ratio within the nutritional and genetic form of osteomalacia in
proportional limit having:

D. None of the above A. Hypocalcemia

B. Hypercalcemia

132. Water powder ratio of dental stone and C. Hypophosphatemia

plaster is respectively:
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

D. Hyperphosphatemia D. Amyloid stroma

137. The organism most commonly implicated 142. Retrosternal goiter:

in the causation of subacute bacterial
endocarditis is: A. Causes stridor

A. S. Viridans B. Obtains its blood supply from thoracic

vessels
B. S. albus
C. Characteristically malignant
C. S. typhi
D. Must be removed by thoracotomy
D. S. Aureus

143. A patient of burns should be given:

138. Severe acidosis occurs during
cardiopulmonary resuscitation. The best A. 5% dextrose
method to counteract acidosis is to administer: B. Hypertonic saline 0.9%
A. Epinephrine intravenously C. Dextrose saline
B. Sodium bicarbonate intravenously D. Human albumin 4.5%
C. Epinephrine intramuscularly

D. Glucose intravenously 144. Reactionary haemorrhage occurs

A. Within 24 hours of surgery

139. Fever, clubbing and Osler’s nodes occur B. After 48 hours of surgery
in:
C. After 72 hours of surgery
A. Leptospirosis
D. After 7-14 days of surgery
B. Typhoid fever

C. Infective endocarditis
145. Shotty lymphnodes are seen in
D. Rheumatic fever
A. Syphilis

B. Epithelioma
140. High output cardiac failure is seen in:
C. TB
A. Thyrotoxicosis
D. Hodgkin’s lymphoma
B. Congestive cardiac failure

C. Corpulmonale
146. All the following are seen in
D. Aortic stenosis thyrotoxicosis except:

A. Tremor
141. The histopathologic feature of medullary B. Increased temperature
carcinoma of thyroid is:
C. Slow pulse rate
A. Anaplasia
D. Exophthalmos
B. Mitotic figures

C. Psammoma bodies
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

147. A full thickness wound having length A. loss of sensation

greater than the depth caused by a sharp
object is described as: B. loss of 2 point discrimination

A. Stab wound C. percussion produces tingling sensation

B. Slash wound D. not associated with carpel tunnel

syndrome
C. Lacerated wound

D. Incision wound
153. Which physical sign characterizes mitral
stenosis?

148. SAG-M blood is useful in A. Loud first heart sound

A. Anaemia B. Soft single second heart sound

B. Haemophilia A C. Third heart sound

C. Burns D. Pulsatile Liver

D. DIC

154. When prescribing for a patient of renal

failure the elimination of drug from the kidney
149. The anesthetic drug injected for in the case of renal impairment all the
paravertebral block is least likely to diffuse to: following are correct except?
A. Epidural space A. Creatinine clearance is taken as guide
B. Subarachnoid space B. The normal main dose is given if the drug
C. Intercostal space is being metabolised

D. Superior and inferior paravertebral space C. The time to reach a steady state plasma
concentration is the same as in patients with
normal renal function
150. Orphan Annie eyed nuclei is the D. Normal main dose may be given but the
characteristic histologic appearance is seen in: interval between doses is increased
A. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

B. Follicular carcinoma thyroid 155. Which of the following combinations (of a

cardiac condition and the murmur
C. Papillary carcinoma thyroid
characteristically associated with it is
D. Medullary carcinoma thyroid MISMATCH:

A. Aortic regurgitation: Ejection systolic

murmur conducted to the carotids
151. Lymph from the teeth drains into all of the
following nodes EXCEPT: B. Mitral stenosis: Rumbling, low-pitched
apicalmiddiastolic murmur
A. Sub mandibular nodes
C. mitral regurgitation: Apical pan systolic
B. Deep cervical nodes murmur conducted to the axilla
C. Sub mental nodes D. Ventricular septal defect: Pan systolic
murmur along the left sternal border
D. Retro pharyngeal nodes

156. For cystic lesions in brain, investigation of

152. Tinel’s Test (Tinels sign) is:
choice is:
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

A. Ultrasound 161. All are clinical features of cirrhosis

except:
B. Angiography
A. Ascites
C. C.T. Scan
B. Jaundice
D. MRI scan
C. Palmar erythema

D. Increased libido
157. Levels of uric arid are taken as diagnostic
value in following diseases:

A. Liver diseases 162. A total lung capacity of less than 80% of

predicted values indicate:
B. Heart diseases
A. Respiratory centre damage
C. TMJ diseases
B. Restrictive pulmonary disease
D. Renal diseases
C. Metabolism is depressed

D. Obstructed air passages

158. A patient of known valvular disease
requires dental extraction. Pretreatment
prophylaxis should be given with:
163. Which of the following is not a major
A. Tetracycline 1000mg. one hr. before criteria for diagnosis of multiple myeloma?
surgery
A. Lytic bone lesions
B. Amoxicillin 3g orally one hour before
B. Plasmacytoma on tissue biopsy
C. Amoxicillin 1g IM one hour before
C. Bone marrow plasmacytosis > 30%
D. Benzyl penicillin 12 lakh units 1 hour
before D. ‘M’ spike > 3g% for IgG > 2g% for IgA

159. Which of the following is not present in 164. Ptosis may be caused by a lesion of the:
lungs? A. Oculomotor nerve
A. Clara cells B. Superior oblique
B. Langerhans cells C. Trigeminal nerve
C. Brush cells D. Trochlear nerve
D. Klutischky cells

165. The process by which red blood cells

160. Saddle embolus causes sudden death by move out of vessels through widened inter
blocking: endothelial junction is referred to as:

A. Coronary arteries A. Pavementing

B. Cerebral arteries B. Diapedesis

C. Pulmonary arteries C. Rouleax formation

D. Renal arteries D. Chemotaxis migration

FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

166. In a 60 yr old hypertensive male with 171. Signs of typhoid fever is / are:
renal failure, renal biopsy shows onion skin
appearance. The most likely diagnosis is: A. Haemorrhage

A. Hyaline arteriosclerosis B. Perforation

B. Thrombophlebitis obliterans C. Osteomyelitis

C. Hyperplastic arteriosclerosis D. All of the above

D. Arteriosclerosis obliterans
172. Ag-Ab (antigen- antibody) reaction due to
the presence of antibody at the surface of cell
167. The following are recognized causes of is:
neutropenia EXCEPT:
A. Type I hyp
A. Corticosteroid therapy
B. Type II hyp
B. Typhoid fever
C. Type III hyp
C. Aplastic anemia
D. Type IV hyp
D. Viral infection

173. Hydatid cyst is:

168. Prothrombin time indicates the integrity of
A. Parasitic in nature
A. Intrinsic pathway
B. Fungal
B. Extrinsic pathway
C. Congenital
C. Capillary function
D. Viral
D. All of the above

174. Which worm is longest?

169. Which of the following is commonly
involved in Multiple Myeloma? A. T. Solium

A. Clavicle B. T. Saginata

B. Vertebrae C. Hook worm

C. Pelvis D. A. Lumbricoides

D. Lungs
175. Most antibodies are produced in the:

170. 40 year old female came with fullness in A. Thymus and the appendix
upper right quadrant of abdomen with diabetes B. Spleen and the lymph nodes
type II, hyperlipidemia, biopsy shows:
C. Brain and the meninges
A. Biliary cirrhosis
D. Heart and the liver
B. Luminal thrombosis

C. Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis
176. The commonest method of detection of
D. Autoimmune hepatitis diphtheria carriers is:

A. Schick test
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

B. Dick test B. Increase in total amount of circulatory

neutrophils
C. Casoni’s test
C. Anti-inflammatory effect is increased
D. Charle’s test
D. Inhibit phospholipase A2

177. What is the antibiotic of choice for

treating cervicofacial actinomycosis? 182. Neuromuscular blocking agent with
duration of onset of action less than 2 minutes
A. Erythromycin. is:
B. Amoxicillin. A. D-tubocuraine
C. Metronidazole B. Succinyl choline
D. Clindamycin C. Pancuronium

D. Gallamine
178. What is the antibiotic of choice for
treating cervicofacial actinomycosis?
183. Alpha blocker used as anti-hypertensive
A. Erythromycin. agent:
B. Amoxicillin. A. Alpha methyl DOPA
C. Metronidazole B. Prazosin
D. Clindamycin C. Clonidine

D. Propranolol
179. Why do ACE inhibitors cause cough?

A. ACE breaks down bradykinin. 184. Beta2 adrenergic receptor stimulating

B. ACE causes the accumulation of drugs are used in:
bradykinin. A. Bronchial asthma
C. Angiotensin I is a powerful B. Cardiac asthma
bronchoconstrictor.
C. Hypertension
D. Angiotensin II is a powerful
vasoconstrictor D. Angina pectrois

180. The ?-adrenoreceptor is an example of 185. Drug receptors are usually found in which
which type of receptor? part of a cell?

A. G-protein coupled receptor A. Nucleus

B. Tyrosine kinase receptor B. Cytoplasm

C. Voltage-gated ion channel C. Plasma membrane.

D. Ligand-gated ion channel D. Mitochondria.

181. Which of the following is NOT a systemic 186. A Hemophiliac patient has rheumatoid
effect of corticosteroid? arthritis. Which drug might be prescribed to
relieve the pain?
A. Increase in IL-1
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

A. Phenylbutazone A. Antacids

B. Acetylsalicylic acid B. Benzodiazepine

C. Naproxen C. Nsaid’s like Ibuprofen

D. Acetaminophen D. Codeine, dihydrocodeine, paracetmol

187. Correct about Ionotropic agent is: 192. Idiosyncracy is known as to have:

A. Adrenaline increases renal perfusion A. Genetic component

B. Dobutamine cause peripheral B. Psychological component

vasoconstriction
C. Physiological component
C. Dopamine causes increased blood flow
D. Nutritional component
D. Nor adrenaline causes hepatic
vasodilation
193. The drug which is contraindicated in
haemophilia is:
188. Which of the following receptors is
activated by acetylcholine and blocked by A. Aspirin
atropine? B. Penicillinin
A. Nicotinic C. Amino epsilon caproic acid
B. Muscarinic D. Diphenyl hydantoin
C. Alpha 1 and 2

D. Beta 1 and 2 194. Histamine is present on surface of:

A. Lymphocytes
189. Omeprazole is a: B. Mast cells
A. Antihistamine C. Neutrophils
B. Proton pump inhibitor D. Erythrocytes
C. Ulcer protective

D. Ulcer healing drug 195. The amino acid from which niacin is
synthesized is:

190. All of the following drugs are useful in A. Tryptophan

treatment of hypertension except: B. Tyrosine
A. Ephedrine C. Histidine
B. Reserpine D. Threonine
C. Methyldopa

D. Thiazole diuretics 196. Which of the following is not true about

ACE inhibitors?

191. The following drugs are avoided with A. Used in asthma

warfarin: B. Increase quality of life
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

C. Postural hypotension is seen. C. Thyroxine

D. Na level decrease D. Cortisol

197. The following drugs are useful in 202. How many cartilages make up the
hypertension except larynx?

A. Calcium channel blockers A. 11

B. Alpha methyl dopa B. 3

C. Beta blockers C. 9

D. Pentoxifyline D. 6

198. Amount of glucose absorbed in proximal 203. Identify type of epithelium

convoluted tubule:

A. 100%

B. 0%

C. 60%

D. 50%

199. Primary cause of bleeding disorder in

liver damage is due to:

A. Decreased level of prothrombin

B. Platelet deficiency

C. Lack of vitamin K
A. Simple sqamous
D. Lack of vitamin B
B. Cuboidal

C. Stratified squamous
200. Nutrients are mainly absorbed in:
D. Psedostratified
A. Small intestine

B. Large intestine
204. Spheno mandibular ligament is
C. Liver developed from:
D. Stomach A. First arch

B. Second arch
201. Which hormone, together with the C. Third arch
catecholamines, enhances the tone of
vascular smooth muscle and assists in D. Fourth arch
elevating blood pressure?

A. Parathyroid hormone
205. Facial artery arises at the level of:
B. Glucagon
A. Above hyoid bone
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

B. Above Styloid process 210. Fluoride supplement for a 3-year old child
living in an area with fluoride content of 0.25
C. Below hyoid bone ppm is:
D. Hyoid bone A. 0.25 mg

B. 0.5 mg
206. Which type of epithelium lines the nasal C. 0.75 mg
cavity?
D. 1 mg
A. Stratified cuboidal.

B. Simple columnar.
211. In a case control study, the cases were
C. Pseudostratified columnar. found to be consuming zarda pan more
D. Stratified squamous. frequently than controls and the difference
was statistically significant. It indicates:

A. The incidence of the disease was more

207. Gray matter of cerebellum are the in those consuming zardapan
following nuclei:
B. The disease can be cured if zardapan is
A. Nucleus dentatus stopped
B. Nucleus emboliformis C. An association exists between zardapan
and disease.
C. Nucleus globsus
D. Zardapan iscthe cause of the disease
D. All

212. Sampling that involves randomly

208. When the black band of a CPITN probe is
selecting some of the pre existing natural
completely visible while in gingival sulcus, it
groups is called:
means?
A. Simple random
A. The individual has advanced periodontal
disease. B. Cluster
B. The individual has pockets between 4 C. Systematic
and 5 mm.
D. Quota
C. The individual needs comprehensive
periodontal surgery.

D. The individual has calculus and needs 213. The positive predictive value of a
scaling and oral hygiene instructions. screening test depends on:

A. Value of the test

209. The “Choking off” mechanism takes place B. Specificity of the test
after topical application of: C. Efficiency of the test
A. NaF D. Sensitivity of the test
B. SNF2

C. APF 214. In a sample size of 100 children the

D. Sodium mono-fluorophosphate mean weight is found to be 35 kg with the
standard deviation of 2, calculate the standard
error of mean

A. 1
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

B. 0.2 A. Rickets

C. 0.01 B. Vitamin D deficiency

D. 10 C. Scurvy

D. Vitamin A deficiency

215. Regarding case control study all the

following are correct, except:
220. Which of the following is false?
A. Risk factors can be identified
A. Posterior palatal seal extends to
B. Requires few subjects tuberosity

C. It measures incidence B. Pterygomaxillary seal extends form

hamular notch to mucogingival junction
D. Used in the study of rare diseases
C. Pterygomaxillary seal extends using the
complete width of hamular notch.
216. Difference between descriptive or D. Maxillary denture should be extended to
analytical study and experimental study is: the hamular process
A. Descriptive study has a small sample

B. Experimental study requires a strong 221. The amount of water needed to dissolve
knowledge of statistics by the operator alpha & beta hemihydrate to react completely
C. Analytical study requires the use of with 100 g of calcium sulphate hemihydrates
sophisticated instruments to convert it to calcium sulphate dehydrate:

D. All variables are under the control and A. 18.6ml

can be modified by the operator B. 22.2ml

C. 30.4ml
217. The maxilla articulates with all of the D. 45.3ml
following bones, except one. Identify the
exception:

A. Frontal 222. Purple coloured reamer is numbered:

B. Zygomatic A. 08

C. Palatine B. 10

D. Temporal C. 15

D. 30

218. Which of the following cells are housed in

Howship's lacunae?
223. Glass ionomer cement is used as a
A. Osteoclasts barrier over gutta-percha filing before
bleaching an endodontically treated discolored
B. Both a and b tooth.
C. Odontoclasts A. To prevent bleaching agent from
D. None of them dissolving the gutta-percha

B. To prevent percolation of the bleaching

agent into the apical area
219. Rhodopsin deficiency is chiefly
assodated with:
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

C. To prevent contamination of bleaching C. American Indian

agent
D. Indian
D. To prevent discoloration of tooth from
obturating material.
229. Most severe form of malignant melanoma
is
224. Which of the following cannot be given as
temporary restoration? A. Superficially spreading

A. An acrylic crown cemented with ZOE B. Those arising in lower limb

B. Cellulose crowns C. Those in choroid

C. Zinc Oxide eugenol D. Nodular infiltrating type

D. Polycarboxylate
230. The specific test for Treponema pallidum
is:
225. The weakest part of pharynx is:
A. VDRL
A. Sinus of morgangini
B. Kahn's test
B. Between thyropharyngeus and crico-
pharyngeus C. TPHA

C. Pyriform fossa D. Widal test

D. Pharyngeal recess
231. The position of maximum intercuspation
of upper and lower teeth is referred to as
226. The philtrum of the upper lip is formed centric:
largely by the:
A. Relation
A. Lateral nasal process
B. Position
B. Maxillary process
C. Occlusion
C. Mandibular process
D. Bite
D. Frontonasal process

232. Myelinated nerve fibres have all of the

227. Thermoregulatory response activated by following properties except
cold is:
A. Depolarisation occurs only at nodes of
A. Cutaneous vasodilation ranvier

B. Anorexia B. Outer layer is of lipids

C. Increased voluntary activity C. Conduction is slower in myelinated than

in non-myelinated fibres
D. Increased respiration
D. Current discharges at nodes of Ranvier

228. Which of the following shows lowest

frequency of cleft lip and palate? 233. A fracture of the mandible in the canine
region in a 6 year old child should be
A. Negroes managed by:
B. Afghanese A. Cap splint fixation
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

B. Intermaxillary fixation C. Infra spinale

C. Risdon wiring D. Gnathion

D. Transosseous wiring

239. Difference in transudate & exudate is that

the former has a:
234. The content of saliva include all except:
A. Low protein
A. Amylase
B. Cloudy appearance
B. Urea
C. Increased specific gravity
C. Lysoenzyme
D. High protein
D. Lipase

240. In case of conscious sedation for children

235. Principal fibres of periodontal ligament aged 6 months to 3 years, clear liquids should
are attached to: be stopped. (OR) According to AAPD
A. Lamellar bone guidelines, for a child undergoing sedation
procedure, the human breast milk should be
B. Alveolar bone proper stopped at least hours before the procedure:
C. Cortical bone A. 4 hrs. before the procedure
D. Bundle bone B. 6 hrs. before the procedure

C. 8 hrs. before the procedure

236. Oral diagnostic features of scleroderma D. 10 hrs. before the procedure
include all of the following, except:

A. Pseudo ankylosis of the T.M. Joint

B. Widening of the oral aperture

C. A hard and a rigid tongue

Answers
D. Difficulty in swallowing

1. B43755 - 0.5 mg
237. For maintaining parallelism between
object the and film, film is placed at a distance The supplemental fluoride dosage depends on
to avoid distortion what should be done: fluoride concentration of drinking water and
age of the child. CONCENTRATION OF
A. Increase target to object distance FLUORIDE IN WATER (PPM) Age ❬
B. Decrease target to object distance 0❭ 0.7 Birth to 2 0.25 0
0 2 to 3 0.5 0.25 0 3 to
C. Both of the above 14+ 1.0 0.5 0
D. None of the above

2. B43759 - An association exists between

238. The deepest point between the anterior zardapan and disease
nasal spine and superior prosthion is: Case control or retrospective studies
A. Subspinale messures the prevalence of the disease and
also assesses the association of risk factor
B. Supranasale
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

and disease. Option incidence of a disease is 8. D43785 - All variables are under the control
measured by cohort studies. and can be modified by the operator

One of the important distinctions between

descriptive and experimental research is that
3. B43763 - Cluster in descriptive research, no manipulation of
In statistics, cluster sampling is a sampling naturally occurring phenomena occurs, while
plan used when mutually homogeneous yet in experimental research, manipulation and
internally heterogeneous groupings are control become more import measures. A
evident in a statistical population. It is often case report is most basic type of descriptive
used in marketing research. In this sampling study of individuals, consisting of a careful,
plan, the total population is divided into these detailed report of the profile of a single patient
groups (known as clusters) and a simple by one or more clinicians. A case series
random sample of the groups is selected. The describes the characteristics of a number of
elements in each cluster are then sampled. If patients with a given disease. Case series
all elements in each sampled cluster are report is an objective report of clinical
sampled, then this is referred to as a “one- characteristic or outcome from a group of
stage” cluster sampling plan. If a simple clinical subjects. Biased selection or
random subsample of elements is selected unrepresentativeness of study subjects and
within each of these groups, this is referred to lack of control group are basic problems in
as a “two-stage” cluster sampling plan. A generalizing the results obtained. An
common motivation for cluster sampling is to ecological study is a study in which data of
reduce the total number of interviews and average exposure and outcome for a
costs given the desired accuracy. For a fixed population are used to compare with similar
sample size, the expected random error is data for other populations in order to look for
smaller when most of the variation in the associations between exposure and the
population is present internally within the outcome. Classification of epidemiology A)
groups, and not between the groups DESCRIPTIVE B) ANALYTICAL – 4 TYPES
Ecological study – Population is unit of study
Cross sectional – Individual is unit of study
Case-control – Individual is unit of study
4. C43768 - Sensitivity of the test
Cohort study – Individual is unit of study C)
The positive predictive value of a screening EXPERIMENTAL Randomised controlled trials
test depends on sensitivity of the test. The (RCT) – patient is unit of study Field trials –
negative predictive value of a screening test, Healthy people are unit of study Community
depends on specificity of the test. trials – Healthy people are unit of study.

5. B43771 - 0.2 9. D43789 - Temporal

Standard error = SD/ ?n = SD/?100 = 2/10 = Maxilla articulates with nasal, lacrimal, frontal,
0.2 palatine and zygomatic bones.

6. C43776 - It measures incidence 10. B43792 - improper maturation of red cells

Case control study does not measures Pernicious anaemia is due to failure of
incidence. Incidence is measured by cohort secretion of "Intrinsic factor" which is
studies while prevalence is measured by responsible for intestinal absorption of
cross-sectional studies. "extrinsic factor" (Vitamin B12) or
"Erythrocyte- maturing factor". Tear drop or
pear-shaped erythrocytes are characteristic of
pernicious anaemia.
7. D43781 - Experimental study

11. A43795 - Dental caries

FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

"Liquefaction foci" are seen in Dentin in When bone is irradiated, the marrow becomes
advanced cases of carious destruction. hypoxic, hypocellular and hypovascular. If
Liquefaction foci are ovoid areas of destruction tooth extraction is done, the mucous
parallel to dentinal tubules and are formed by membrane breaks and infection gains entry
focal coalescence and breakdown of a few into the bone, leaving a non-healing wound
dentinal tubules. resulting in osteoradionecrosis. The risk of
osteoradionecrosis can be minimized by
removing all poorly supported teeth before
12. B43800 - Ranula beginning of radiation therapy, When teeth
must be removed, low concentration
Ranula is a form mucocele frequently epinephrine containing local anaesthetics that
associated with sublingual gland. Thus it do not contain lidocaine are used.
causes a swelling in the floor of mouth below
the tongue.
17. D43822 - Decreasing KVP

13. D43806 - Pipe smoker As the KVP is lowered, the mean energy of
beam decreases. This result in An image with
The condition is called as Leukokeratosis greater contrast. A beam with more low-
Nicotina Palati, (stomatitis nicotiana or pipe energy photons, that carry the potential for risk
smoker's palate) seen frequently in heavy but are not useful in making an image and
smokers. The palate develops multi-nodular Reduced beam intensity requiring increased
appearance with a small red spot in centre of exposure time, thus increasing the risk of
each nodule representing dilated or partially patient moving and blurring the image. Patient
occluded orifice of accessory palatal salivary radiation exposure can be decreased by
gland duct around which inflammatory cell using; F- speed films Intensifying screens
infiltration is present. Collimation Filtration Lead aprons Thyroid
collars Increasing focal spot to film distance
(FSFD) Increasing KVP and optimal exposure
14. B43808 - Melkerson-Rosenthal time

Fissured tongue is seen in Melkerson-

Rosenthal syndrome, Down syndrome and in
18. A43823 - Polyester
some cases of benign migratory glossitis.
Melkerson- Rosenthal syndrome is X-ray film is composed of Base and Emulsion
characterized by triad of bell's Palsy, BASE Polyester polyethelene terephthalate
persistent or recurring lip or facial swelling EMULSION Silver Bromide + Silver Iodide
(cheilitis granulomatosa), and fissured tongue crystals in a vehicle of gelatin The function of
or lingua plicata. Silver Iodide is to increase the sensitivity of
AgBr crystals to X-rays.

15. A43811 - The number of Photons

generated is doubled 19. B43828 - Proximal caries
The exposure time controls the duration of Bite wing or interproximal radiographs include
exposure, that is it controls the length of time the crowns of maxillary and mandibular teeth
the high voltage is applied to the tube and and the interdental alveolar crest. The uses of
thereby the number of x ray photons Bitewing radiographs are: Mainly for detecting
generated. When the exposure time is interproximal caries in early stages of
doubled, the number of photons generated at development before it becomes clinically
all energies in the x ray emission spectrum is apparent. For evaluating periodontal
doubted, but the range of photon energies is conditions, as they provide a good perspective
unchanged. of the alveolar bone crest, and changes in
bone height can be assessed accurately
through comparison with the adjacent teeth.
16. B43816 - Osteoradionecrosis
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

Useful for detecting calculus deposits in Papillary cystadenoma lymphomatosum or

interproximal areas. Warthins tumor is a benign salivary tumor
occurring almost exclusively in parotid gland.

20. A43831 - Branching with bloom

25. C43853 - Tongue
In normal sialography there is filling of ducts
and parenchyma producing image like "Tree Most lip carcinoma's are well-differentiated
limbs with bloom" or "leafless tree". The lesions and are classified as grade I
parotid and submandibular glands are more carcinomatous lesions. They metastasize late
readily studied with this techniques when in course of disease. So the prognosis is
compared with sublingual gland. (sometimes considered as good
in sialadenosis also, Leafless tree pattern may
be seen.) In Sjogren's syndrome,sialographs
demonstrate the formation of punctate, 26. D43858 - Initial placement of orthodontic
cavitory defects and these defects produce a brackets
"cherry blossom" or "branch less fruit-laden
tree" effect.
27. C43861 - Keratoacanthoma

21. C43837 - Will metastasize keratoacanthoma is a low-grade malignancy

originating from the sebaceous glands and is
Benign tumors grow slowly. Benign tumors considered to be variant of invasive squamous
typically have an insidious onset. Benign cell carcinoma
tumors do not metastasize. Benign tumors
spread by direct extension.
28. A43863 - Curettage

22. A43839 - Osteosarcoma The diagnosis of langerhans cells disease

may be confirmed using immunohistochemical
Osteosarcoma produces sunray or sunburst studies. Langerhans cells stain positive for S-
appearance with spicules of new bone 100 protein and CD1a antigen. In addition
radiating outward on the periphery in the these cells contain unique rod shaped
sclerosing form of osteosarcoma. Sunray cytoplasmic structures known as birbeck
appearance is also seen in Ewing's sarcoma. granules. which are seen on electron
microscopy. Accessible bone lesions (such as
maxilla and mandible) of chronic localized
23. B43844 - Oral lichen planus langerhans cell disease are usually treated
with aggressive local curettage or resection
Oral lichen planus is a common with 5-mm margins where possible. Less
mucocutaneous disease, characterised by accessible lesions may be treated with low
bilateral white striations, papules, plaques on dose radiation therapy. Intralesional steroids
the buccal mucosa, tongue and gingiva. have also been employed with some success,
Erosive form may present as erosions or and cases of spontaneous regression have
frankly ulcerated lesions, with characteristic also been reported. Individual Lesions of
radiating striae on the periphery of the chronic disseminated langerhans cell disease
individual lesions. Grinspan's syndrome is an may be treated as they are with the chronic
interesting association of lichen planus, localized form, but with widespread or visceral
diabetes mellitus and vascular hypertension, involvement, chemotherapy is often used.
Acute disseminated langerhans cell disease
follows a rapid progressive course and is
24. A43847 - An adenolymphoma of the treated with chemotherapy.
parotid gland
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

29. D43870 - Gap arthroplasty with temporalis

muscle meniscus pLaced in joint space

Interpositional Arthroplasty involves the

creation of a gap, but in addition a barrier
(autogenous or alloplastic) is inserted between
the cut bony surfaces to minimize the risk of
recurrence and to maintain the vertical height
of the ramus.

30. C43873 - Edentulous persons

In edentulous mandible, the molar areas are

weakened following alveolar resorption and
become the site for bilateral fracture of
edentulous mandible. There is downward and
backward movement of anterior part of
mandible under the influence of digastric and 36. A43895 - periodontal ligament
mylohyoid muscles.
The potential for regeneration lies in the
periodontal Ligament cells. If epithelium
proliferates along root surface heating by long
31. B43876 - Plane III
junctional epithelium occurs. If bone cells
Minor surgeries like extractions are carried out arrive first, root resorption and ankylosis
in Stage-I or stage of analgesia. Major occur. If cells of periodontal ligament arrive
surgeries are carried on in Stage-III and first, new attachment occurs.
Plane-III of general anaesthesia or stage of
surgical anaesthesia.
37. C43901 - Electrical potential theory

In hemophilics to avoid complications,

32. D43882 - Congenital heart disease
Intraligamentary (an intraosseous technique)
method of local infiltration technique is
preferred. In this technique, the solution is
33. C43885 - Parapharyngeal space deposited in depth of gingival sulcus. The
needle should be inserted apically into the
Parapharangeal space include lateral
bone until resistance is met.
pharangeal and retropharangeal spaces. The
infection of this space is dangerous because:
• The Lateral pharangeal space is intimately
related with carotid sheath (which consists of 38. D43906 - Palatal island flap
internal jugular vein, vagus nerve, internal and
The palatal island flap harbors the greater
common carotid artieries). • Infections from
palatine vessels that provide a rich blood
these spaces spreads directly into neck and
supply to the flap. This technique involves
mediastinum.
mobilization and rotation of large mucosal
flaps to cover the osseous defect with soft
tissues, the margins of which are sutured over.
34. B43888 - Respiratory obstruction Buccal flap is simple and widely used
technique and it can be combined with
In Ludwig's angina there is progressive
caldwell luc operation.
dyspnoea due to backward spread of infection.
If not treated, it results in edema of glottis and
causes complete respiratory obstruction.
39. B43908 - No treatment necessary

35. C43893 - Riboflavin

FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

If the opening is small, a good clot is formed Over hanging margins of restorations, caries
and normal healing will occur without any areas of decalcification and root roughness
complication. If the opening is large caused by previous instrumentation must be
immediate closure should be done to reduce recognized and differentiated from sub
the chance of contamination and formation of gingival calculus.
an oro-antral fistula.

45. D43938 - All of the above

40. A43911 - Enophthalmos
Pyogenic granuloma is a nonspecific
Enophthalmos are seen in zygomatic complex conditioned gingival enlargement (APPG-15).
fracture, orbital fracture and Le Fort III It is a discrete bright red or purple tumor like
fracture. It is caused either by escape of lesion and is friable with surface ulceration
orbital contents like fat or by an increase in the and purulent exudation. It is considered as an
volume of the bony orbit. exaggerated response to minor trauma
(irritants).

41. A43915 - Hoe

46. B43940 - leukemic cellular infiltration of
Hoes are used for removing ledges or rings of gingiva
calculus. It makes two-point contact with the
tooth and this stabilizes the instrument and Leukemic enlargement is generally bluish red
prevents nicking of the root. The blade is bent and has a shiny surface. The enlargement has
at 99° and the cutting edge is beveled at 45 both features of leukemic infiltrate and chronic
degrees. Hoes, chisels and files are inflammation but mainly results from leukemic
subgingival scalers. infiltration of gingiva.

42. C43921 - Flap surgeries 47. D43946 - Due to trauma from occlusion

Guided tissue regeneration is based on the Heavy metals cause gingival pigmentation in
assumption that only the periodontal ligament areas of inflammation only, where the
cells have the potential for regeneration of the increased permeability permits the seepage of
attachment apparatus (Mew attachment) of metal into the surrounding tissue. Lead line
the tooth, The technique consists of placing (Burtonian line) Bluish red or deep blue linear
barriers of different types to cover the bone pigmentation in marginal gingiva Silver
and periodontal ligament to prevent the (argyria) Violet marginal line Bismuth, arsenic
migration of epithelium. and mercury Black marginal line Mesentric line
Delicate, brown or black pigmented non
cariogenic plaque found on the enamel at
43. B43924 - Number of bone walls remaining cervical margin of the tooth

Angular defects are classified according to the

number of walls remaining. One wall defect is 48. C43949 - ANUG
also called as hemiseptum. Prognosis is poor
for one-wall defects, as they have to be Pseudomembrane formation is seen in ANUG,
recontoured surgically. Regenerative diphtheria, erythema multiformae, Leukemic
procedures cannot be carried out in one-wall ulcers, syphilis and candidiasis. Pseudo
defects. Three- wall osseous defect is also membrane can be easily removable in ANUG,
called intrabony defect. Prognosis is better for undetachable in syphilis and is difficult to
three wall defects as the regenerative remove in diphtheria. Smears from the lesions
procedures can be easily carried out. of ANUG demonstrate spirochetes(Borreiia
vincenti) and fusiform bacilli (fusobacterium).
This symbiotic infection is known as
44. C43933 - recession fusospirochetosis. Both ANUG and vincents
angina are fusospirochaetal infections.
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

Punched out, crater-like depressions at the

crest of interdental papillae, covered by
pseudomembrane and extending into the
marginal gingiva are characteristic of ANUG,
The pseudomembranous slough is
demarcated from the remaining gingival
mucosa by linear erythema. Attached gingiva
and alveolar mucosa are rarely involved. 3%
H2O2 with equal dilution of water every 2
hours for 3 days gives best results in patients
with ANUG. H2O2, creates an oxidative
environment and prevents the growth of
anaerobic organisms. 3% H2O2diluted to one
part peroxide and 2 parts water twice a day is
recommended in patients with desquamative
gingivitis. H2O2mouthwash is also
recommended in suppurative lesions such as 52. D43966 - 2nd molars (Distally)
periodontal abscess and in diabetic patients.
Apically displaced flap can be used for pocket
elimination or widening the zone of attached
gingiva. The pocket wall is transformed into
49. B43952 - Acute herpetic gingivostomatitis
attached gingiva. It increases the length of
Herpetic gingivostomatitis is the primary clinical crown and is not indicated for palatal
infection of oral cavity caused by HSV Type I pockets. The width of the attached gingiva is
virus, High-grade fever, lymphaderopathy, increased approximately half the pretreatment
soreness of mouth, vesicles, which rupture to pocket depth
form ulcers, are characteristic. The ulcers are
typically present in masticatory mucosa In
contrast with apthous ulcers, which occur, 53. A43967 - Masochistic behavior of child
predominantly in labile mucosa, Preschool
children are affected mostly by acute herpetic Masochistic behavior is nothing but deriving
gingivostomatitis. pleasure or sexual gratification from being
abused or dominated. It is seen in children
suffering from Lesch-Nyhan syndrome or
HGPRT (hypoxanthine - guanine -
50. C43957 - Gingival sulcus
phosphoribosyl transferase) is the result of
The gingival sulcus is the shallow crevice or mutation in a recessive structural gene. Mental
space around the tooth bounded by the retardation, self mutilation and sudden
surface of the tooth on one side and the aggressive behavior which is indeed an
epithelium lining the free margin of the gingiva inherited defect of metabolism. There will be
on the other side. It is 'V' shaped and barely abnormally high production of uric acid, which
permits the entrance of a periodontal probe. present at a raised Level in saliva. Because of
this, there will be irritation of buccal mucosa,
accounting to some extent for the biting of lips
and lining of mouth. Extraction of primary teeth
51. B43960 - Apically repositioned flap
may be required sometimes.

54. A43971 - Punishment/aversive

punishment

Hand over mouth technique was first

described in 1920 by Dr Evangeline Jordan.
Home is a type of aversive conditioning
indicated in a child who is able to understand
and cooperate but who exhibits defiant,
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

obstreperous or hysterical behavior to dental pulp capping Vital tooth with large pulpal
treatment. Contraindication • Immature child exposure Formocresol pulpotomy Vital tooth
• When it prevents child from breathing • with carious pulp exposure Formocresol
When the dentist is emotionally involved with pulpotomy Pulp less tooth with 2/3rd root
the child. length available Pulpectomy Pulp less tooth
with minimal periapical or bifurcation
radiolucency Pulpectomy Tooth with poor
55. B43976 - Get the patient accustomed to prognosis i.e., vertical root #, displacement,
the dental clinic luxation or any condition causing damage to
permanent tooth Extraction
The IQ formula used by Binet was the
following IQ = (Mental age / Chronologic age)
X 100 IQ Description Below 69 Mentally 59. D43994 - Endodontic treatment and root
retarded Below 90 Low average 90 - 110 canal filling with ZOE
Average. Most of the children below to this
age Above 110 High average or superior After
Binet test, more than 300 tests have been
devised to measure intellectual development 60. C43997 - Final occlusal contact
and best known and best standardized of Anatomic stages of tooth eruption by Schour
these test are WECHSLER INTELLIGENCE and Noyes: Stage 1: Preparatory stage
SCALES. (opening of the bony crpt) Stage 2: Migration
of the tooth toward the oral epithelium Stage
3: Emergence of the crown tip into the oral
56. C43981 - Skinner's theory cavity. (Begin-ning of clinical eruption) Stage
4: First occlusal contact Stage 5: Full
They are of two types: 1) positive occlusal contact Stage 6: Continuous
reinforcement - when the child gets rewarded eruption
by the dentist for sitting quietly during the
treatment 2) negative reinforcement - when
the dentist warns the child that he won't get to
go home if he doesn't sit quietly and thus gets 61. C44001 - Future mental foramen
his work done. A single ossification center for each half of
mandible arises in the area of future mental
foramen Lateral to meckel's cartilage where
57. B43984 - Low viscosity the inferior alveolar nerve bifurcates into
mental and incisive nerve branches. Maxilla
Requisites of an efficient sealant: Low is has for 3 ossification maxilla proper centers.
viscosity allowing penetration into deep and (which One arises primary at infraorbital
narrow fissures Adequate working time ossification foramen above the canine fossa)
Resistance to wear Good adhesion to enamel and the remaining two ossification centers are
Cariostatic action Minimum irritation to tissues for pre-maxilla.

58. B43988 - Pulpotomy with formocresol 62. C44005 - Deep bite or open bite
Option 'D' direct pulp capping and option 'C' Indications of serial extraction Space
calcium hydroxide pulpotomy are discrepancy should be at least 5 mm in all the
contraindicated in primary teeth as they cause four quadrants (extraction case of carey's or
internal resorption. Condition Appropriate arch perimeter analysis) Localized gingival
Pulp Therapy PERMANENT TEETH Vital recession in lower anterior region No skeletal
tooth with small pulpal exposure Direct pulp discrepancy should be present Skeletal class-I
capping Vital, immature tooth with large pulp Flaring of teeth due to Crowding (AIIMS-09)
exposure Calcium hydroxide pulpotomy Non Ectopic eruption of teeth Unilateral or bilateral
vital, immature tooth Apexification Non vital, premature loss of deciduous canines with
mature tooth Root canal treatment PRIMARY midline shift Contraindications of serial
TEETH Vital tooth with deep caries Indirect extractions Class-II & III malocclusion with
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

skeletal abnormalities (KCET-10) Spaced retracting the teeth tends to improve both lip
dentition Open bite and deep bite cases function and facial esthetics.
Midline diastema cases Class-I malocclusion
with minimal space deficiency
69. C44033 - 70°

63. B44008 - Observed until permanent "Twin - Block appliance" is the most
canines erupt acceptable functional appliance and was
introduced by William Clark. The appliance
If the diastema still persists after eruption of consists of a upper and lower appliances with
permanent canines it is treated by tipping or posterior bite blocks. The upper and lower bite
bodily movement of canines followed by blocks interlock at an 70° angle.
frenectomy.

70. C44037 - Late mesial, shift of first

64. D44014 - Lower incisors permanent molars

Tweed has suggested that post treatment If the deciduous dentition is spaced dentition,
stability was increased when mandibular the end-on relation is converted into Class-I
incisors are placed upright or slightly molar relation by utilizing the physiological
retroclined over the basal bone. primate spaces. Since this occurs early in the
mixed dentition period it is called as early
mesial shift. When no spaces exist after
65. C44017 - 250-500 gm per side exfoliation deciduous 2nd molars, the
permanent molars migrate mesially to use up
The current recommended force required for the leeway spaces and establish Class-1
headgear to restrain maxillary growth is 350- relation, This occurs in late mixed dentition
450 gm per side for a minimum of 12 - 14 period and is known as late mesial shift.
hours/day.

71. A44039 - Flexible fixed functional

66. D44022 - Mesial stripping of primary 2nd appliance
molars
Herbst appliance is a rigid fixed functional
Discrepancy Treatment 0 - 2.5 mm Proximal appliance.Jasper jumper is a flexible fixed
stripping 2.5 - 5 mm Extraction of second functional appliance.
premolars ❭ 5 mm Extraction of first premolars

72. A44043 - Frankel III

67. A44023 - Increased MP angle
Frankel appliance or Frankel Functional
Mandibular plane angle is the angle between Regulator is an orthodontic functional
mandibular plane and Frankfort horizontal appliance which was developed by Rolf
(FH) plane. A lower angle indicates hypo Fränkel in 1950s for treatment to patients of all
divergent or horizontal growing face while an ages. This appliance primarily focused on the
increased angle is suggestive of vertical modulation of neuromuscular activity in order
grower with hyper divergent facial pattern to produce changes in jaw and teeth The
Frankel III (FR-3) Appliance is composed of a
system of oral screens which lie in the
68. B44028 - Class II Div. 2 vestibule of the mouth -- free of direct contact
with the dentoalveolar systems. As described
Compared to Class II division 2 malocclusion, by Dr. Frankel, the action of the appliance is to
in patients with Class II Division 1 and "influence arch development by changing the
bimaxillary protrusion, the lips are separated pressure created by surrounding soft tissue." It
when relaxed. So the patients must strain to has proven effective as a primary treatment
bring the Lips together. For such patients, appliance in Class III patients with mild,
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

moderate, or severe dentoalveolar, skeletal

and/or neuromuscular imbalances -- affecting
the skeletal, the dentoalveolar, and the soft 76. B44060 - Blunt trauma
tissue components simultaneously. Patient Laceration Shallow or deep wound in the
compliance with the Frankel III is typically mucosa caused by a sharp object. Contusion
quite high. It improves the soft tissue profile of Bruise produced by impact from blunt object.
the patient with maxillary skeletal retrusion. Abrasion Superficial wound produced by
The purpose of the vestibular shields and rubbing or scrapping. Extrusion Partial
upper labial pads are to counteract the forces displacement of tooth out of socket.
of the surrounding musculature that tend to Exarticulation Complete displacement of tooth
restrict forward maxillary skeletal development out of socket.
and cause a retrusion of the maxillary
anteriors. The vestibular shields need to be
positioned away from the alveolar process of
77. A44063 - Non-vital tooth
the maxilla, but must fit closely to the tissue of
the mandible. This results in stimulation of ELLIS AND DEWAY CLASSIFICATION Class
maxillary alveolar development and restriction I Fracture involving enamel Class II Fracture
of mandibular alveolar development. Because involving enamel and dentin Class III Fracture
of the importance of growth to the success of involving dental pulp Class IV Non vital tooth
the Frankel technique, best results are Class V Avulsion Class VI Root fracture with
obtained before the permanent bicuspids and or without crown fractures Class VII
cuspids come into position. Young patients Displacement of tooth without fracture of
seem to tolerate the appliance very well, crown or root Class VIII Fracture of crown en
allowing treatment to be started at a very early masse Class IX Deciduous tooth fractures
age.

78. D44070 - Extirpation of pulp

73. A44047 - 30-40
Classification of Endodontic Instruments
Occlusal bevel in inlay - 30 - 45° Gingival Exploring instruments Smooth broaches and
bevel in inlay - 30° Gingival bevel in amalgam endodontic explores Extirpating or debriding
restoration - 15 - 20° Gingival bevel in inlay instruments To remove pulp, debris or other
helps in Lap / slide fit of the casting the 30° foreign material Enlarging instruments or
metal that is easily adaptable Removal of shaping instruments Reamers and files
weak enamel (gingivally declined enamel Obturating instruments Pluggers, spreader
rods) Gingival bevel of 15 - 20° (KERALA - 15) and lentulospirals
in amalgam restorations improves the
resistance form by removing weak enamel.
79. A44071 - Lateral condensation

74. B44052 - Zinc oxide i) Lateral Condensation: In this technique a

primary or master gutta-percha cone is placed
Composition % Function Guttapercha 20% in the canal and the remaining space is filled
Matrix Zinc Oxide 66% Filler Heavy metal by accessory or secondary cones with the
sulphates (Bismuth sulphates) 11% help of spreaders and pluggers. Most
Radiopacifier (AIPG-89) Waxes or resins 3% traditionally used. However, in contemporary
Plasticizer endodontics it is not the best technique to
achieve a three dimensional seal. ii) Vertical
condensation or warm guttapercha technique:
75. C44057 - Thermo catalytic technique Introduced by Schilder Used with step back
technique of root canal preparation After
Option 'B' is in office vital bleach technique. placing the guttapercha cone vertical force is
Option 'D' is home vital bleach technique. applied with heated pluggers so that the
Option 'A' walking bleach, the bleach material guttapercha cones fill the lumen of the canal in
is kept in pulp chamber for up to 1 week and is all the three dimensions up to the apical
known as at home nonvital bleach technique foramen. Risk of vertical root fracture is main
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

disadvantage of this technique iii) Sectional

method: This technique uses sections of
gutta-percha cones to fill a section of the root 83. B44092 - Frequent pulp testing and
canal. Void between the sections is the main radiographic examination
disadvantage. iv) Mcspadden compaction Fracture of the apical third of root has the best
methods; A rotating compacting instrument, prognosis because the pulp in the apical
which is similar to hedstroem file with the fragment usually remains vital and the tooth
flutes in reverse direction, attached to a slow may remain firm in its socket. Periodic vitality
speed contra angle hand piece with 8000 - testing and radiographic examination with no
10000 r.p.m, creates heat. The compactor other treatment is indicated. If the tooth is
forces the softened guttapercha apically and mobile it should be splinted with acid etched
laterally. v) Chemically plasticized guttapercha resin. If the pulp in the coronal segment dies,
Used in fine tortuous canals Guttapercha is then endodontic treatment is indicated. If the
softened by chemical solvents like chloroform, tooth fails to recover, the apical root fragment
euclapytol or xylol and is forced into fine, should be removed surgically. Fracture of
tortuous canal. vi) Thermoplastic technique: middle and coronal third has less favourable
Uses more heat to increase the plasticity of prognosis. RCT or extraction is indicated.
guttapercha and enable the operator to fill the Vertical root fractures have the worst
root canal by using less pressure. prognosis.

80. B44076 - Milk 84. C44097 - File

Best storage media for carrying avulsed tooth File contains more number of flutes and is a
are: Tooth socket Patient's saliva, where the four sided instrument because of which it is
tooth is held in the buccal vestibule or under highly resistant to torque. The file contains
the tongue. Milk Water Balanced Hancks more metal and is least likely to break in a root
solution is isotonic salt solution used for canal. The barbed broach is used for
preserving avulsed teeth. It is available under extirpation of pulp and most likely to break in a
the trade name Save-A-Tooth solution root canal WHEN TWISTED MORE than 90°

81. B44080 - Inflexible and used at low speed 85. C44105 - Irreversible pulpitis
Gates Glidden drill and Peeso reamer are the
two types of power driven instruments. Gates-
Glidden drill is used: to remove lingual 86. D44110 - All of the above
shoulder (PGI -96) during access cavity
After insertion, immediate dentures should be
preparation in anterior teeth. to enlarge root
left in the mouth for the first 24 hrs, If the
canal orifices for shaping cervical third of RC
dentures are removed early before 24 hrs, it is
in step-back preparation Peso reamer is used
very difficult to reinsert them because of
for post space preparation. Both Gates
severe pain. The occlusal adjustment should
Glidden drill and peso reamer are aggressive
be done after 48 hrs. after the swelling and
cutting instruments and inflexible and should
inflammation is subsided. The dentures should
be used at low speed with extreme caution.
be relined after calcification of extraction
socket i.e. after 6-8 month.

82. D44086 - Angle former

Angle former is a specific type of excavator 87. A44115 - To provide balanced occlusion in
used for sharpening line angles, creating complete dentures when mandible is
retentive features in dentin for gold protruded
restorations and also to bevel the enamel
Compensating curves are the artificial curves
margins. It has primary cutting edge angle
introduced into dentures in order to facilitate
other than 90°.
the production of balanced occlusion.
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

92. D44142 - Complete palate

88. A44123 - Supra/subgingivally according to

need
93. B44144 - 4
Finish Line and Advantages Supragingival
finish line Better periodontal health Facilitates The superior board of lingual bar should be
accurate impression making Allows accurate located 4mm inferior to gingival margins. The
assessment of the fit Subgingival finish line inferior boarder should be located at the
Used when additional retention is needed ascertained height of the alveolar lingual
Indicated in anterior zone where esthetics is a sulcus when the patients tongue is slightly
prime consideration In cervical erosion and elevated.
root hypersensitivity cases

94. D44150 - Reduce the chances of fracture

89. B44128 - Under compression of the metal rest

Vacuum firing or firing under compression

reduces porosity in the porcelain and 95. D44154 - All of the above
increases the strength of the porcelain metal
bond. Contraindications for the metal-ceramic crown
Active caries and periodontal disease Young
patients with large pulp chambers Whenever a
90. C44133 - Inadequate retention more conservative retainer is feasible

Advantages of three quarter crowns:

Conservative tooth reduction. Esthetics. 96. C44157 - Anterior 2/3 rd of Retromolar pad
Electric pulp testing can be done, Favorable
periodontal response since less margins Minor connector for maxillary distal extension
approximates the gingiva. Ensures complete denture bases should extend the entire length
seating as it is open faced and therefore of the residual ridge and should be of ladder
permits easy escapement of cement. and loop design whereas for mandibular distal
Complete veneer crown acts as a dosed extension denture bases it should extend 2/3
hydraulic chamber preventing easy escape of the length of the edentulous ridge.
cement. Disadvantages of three quarter
crowns: Poor retention and resistance when
compared to CVC. Skillful preparation is 97. D44162 - Grinspan syndrome
critical to avoid metal display, May cause
discoloration of anterior teeth particularly when Grinspan's syndrome is an interesting
the teeth are thin labio lingually. The PVC association of lichen planus, diabetes mellitus
preparation is limited to fairly intact teeth with and vascular hypertension.
normally shaped, average length clinical
crowns.
98. B44164 - Mandibular 2nd molar

• Largest mesiodistal diameter in primary

91. D44138 - Ratio of combined pericemental
dentition - Mandibular 2nd molar. • Largest
root surface area of the abutment teeth and
buccolingual diameter in primary dentition -
the pericemental root surface areas of the
Maxillary 2nd molar.
teeth to be replaced

Ante's law states that "the total pericemental

area of the abutment teeth should be equal to 99. B44168 - Advanced bell stage
or greater than the combined pericemental
area of the teeth to be replaced" A ratio of Hard tissues, including enamel and dentin,
1:1 or greater satisfies the Ante's law. develop during the next stage of tooth
development. This stage is called the crown,
or maturation stage, by some researchers.
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

Important cellular changes occur at this time. The cells of periapical granuloma
In prior stages, all of the IEE cells were (predominantly lymphocytes) increase in size
dividing to increase the overall size of the by division at the periphery and the cells in the
tooth bud, but rapid dividing, called mitosis, center are separated from their source of
stops during the crown stage at the location nutrition, becomes degenerated and liquefy.
where the cusps of the teeth form. The first This results in epithelium lined cavity filled with
mineralized hard tissues form at this location. fluid, the apical periodontal cyst.
At the same time, the IEE cells change in
shape from cuboidal to columnar and become
preameloblasts. The nuclei of these cells 102. A44179 - Pleomorphic adenoma
move closer to the stratum intermedium and
away from the dental papilla as they become Pleomorphic adenoma is most common
polarized. The adjacent layer of cells in the salivary gland tumor (60% cases) and most
dental papilla suddenly increases in size and common parotid gland tumor (85% cases).
differentiates into odontoblasts, which are the Pleomorphic adenoma is a common benign
cells that form dentin.[24] Researchers believe salivary gland neoplasm characterised by
that the odontoblasts would not form if it were neoplastic proliferation of parenchymatous
not for the changes occurring in the IEE. As glandular cells along with myoepithelial
the changes to the IEE and the formation of components, having a malignant potentiality. It
odontoblasts continue from the tips of the is the most common type of salivary gland
cusps, the odontoblasts secrete a substance, tumor and the most common tumor of the
an organic matrix, into their immediate parotid gland. It derives its name from the
surrounding. The organic matrix contains the architectural Pleomorphism (variable
material needed for dentin formation. As appearance) seen by light microscopy. It is
odontoblasts deposit organic matrix termed also known as "Mixed tumor, salivary gland
predentin, they migrate toward the center of type", which refers to its dual origin from
the dental papilla. Thus, unlike enamel, dentin epithelial and myoepithelial elements as
starts forming in the surface closest to the opposed to its pleomorphic appearance.
outside of the tooth and proceeds inward.
Cytoplasmic extensions are left behind as the
odontoblasts move inward. The unique, 103. D44186 - Acanthomatous ameloblastoma
tubular microscopic appearance of dentin is a
result of the formation of dentin around these Consist of varying shaped islands of bland
extensions. After dentin formation begins, the appearing squamous epithelium in a mature
cells of the IEE secrete an organic matrix fibrous connective tissue stroma. The
against the dentin. This matrix immediately peripheral cells of the epithelial islands do not
mineralizes and becomes the initial layer of show the characteristic polarization seen in
the tooth's enamel. Outside the dentin are the ameloblastomas, thus helping in distinguishing
newly formed ameloblasts in response to the this neoplasm from ameloblastoma.
formation of dentin, which are cells that
continue the process of enamel formation;
therefore, enamel formation moves outwards, 104. D44190 - Staphylococcus aureus
adding new material to the outer surface of the
developing tooth Acute sialadenitis most commonly occurs in
parotid glands as a result of retrograde
infection in debilitated patients suffering from
dehydration, xerostomia, vomiting, etc. after a
100. C44173 - Periapical granuloma
surgical procedure.
The usual mode of development of apical
periodontal cyst or radicular cyst is through
stimulation and prolife ration of cell rests of 105. B44192 - Orchitis
Malassez within the periapical granuloma
Mumps is characterized by triad of
pathological involvement epidemic parotitis,
orchitis-oophoritis and pancreatitis.
101. A44175 - Periapical granuloma
Meningoencephalitis, epididymitis and
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

encephalitis are other complications of Acidogenic theory or chemico-parasitic theory

mumps. When mumps involves adult male, was proposed by Miller. According to this
orchitis is a great danger. Involvement of theory, caries occurs in 2 stages: ? Initial
pancreas causes an increase in serum lipase decalcification of enamel and dentin ?
enzyme. Followed by dissolution of softened residue.

106. D44198 - Human herpes virus 8 112. C44221 - Removes surface oxides from
gold castings
Kaposi’s sarcoma occurs most commonly in
association with AIDS. It is now believed to be The surface of the casting appears dark with
caused by the human herpesvirus 8, also oxides and tarnish. Pickling is the process of
called Kaposi’s sarcoma associated removing such a surface film. 50% Hcl (NEET-
herpesvirus. 2013), H2SO4 are generally used as pickling
solutions. 50% HCl is the best pickling solution
for gypsum bonded investments.
107. A44199 - Ghon complex

The pathognomic of congenital syphilis is 113. C44225 - Decreased solubility

Hutchinson’s triad, which include – • Mulberry
molars and notched incisors • Interstetial Increased powder liquid ratio decreases the
keratitis • 8th Nerve deafness Congenital or setting time and solubility, and increases
prenatal syphilis is characterized by: frontal strength and film thickness. But when the
bossing, short maxilla, high palatal vault, mixing slab is cooled, the setting time
saddle nose, higoumenaki’s sign, rhagades increases and also permits the addition of
and saber skin apart from hutchinson’s traid. more amount of powder to liquid without
developing high viscosity.

108. B44204 - Bullous pemphigoid

114. A44227 - Salivary glands
Bullous pemphigoid is a chronic, autoimmune,
subepidermal blistering disease that rarely Demilune is a combination of serous and
involves the mucous membranes. mucous unit in which mucous cells are capped
by several serous cells.

109. D44210 - Granular cell

115. C44233 - Mandibular first molar erupts at
Although originally this variant was considered one and half years of age
to represent an aging or degenerative change
in long-standing lesions, this variant has been First primary tooth bud is initiated at 6th week
seen in young patients and in clinically of intrauterine life.
aggressive tumors.

116. D44238 - Mandibular Central incisor

110. B44212 - Dextran-like glucan
The mandibular centralincisor is bilaterally
Streptococcus mutans by its action on sucrose symmetrical when viewed labially and
synthesize glucan and glucosyltransferase. incisally. The mesial and distal incisal angles
Glucan or dextran causes plaque to adhere to are very sharp and the mesial and distal
tooth surface and also acts as barrier against outlines of the crown make a straight drop
diffusion of saliva. downward. The incisal ridge is straight and is
at right angles to the long axis of the tooth.
Because of all these features it is difficult to
111. C44217 - Acidogenic theory distinguish the mesial and distal aspects of
mandibular central incisor and so the right and
left central incisors are difficult to identify.
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

122. C44261 - Replica of single tooth

117. A44239 - MB and DL Cast is the replica of the entire arch. Die is the
replica of single tooth. Dies are best prepared
In the permanent maxillary 1st molar, with type IV gypsum materials.
mesiobuccal and distolingual cusps are acute
angled while mesiolingual and distobuccal
cusps are obtuse angled
123. A44263 - Investment

If the setting of the plaster or stone is allowed

118. A44243 - Type I collagen fibres to occur under water, the setting expansion
will be more than doubled. This is called
Periodontal ligament mainly contains type I hygroscopic setting expansion and this is due
and type III collagen with type I appearing to additional crystal growth permitted in
predominantly presence of water. The casting shrinkage can
be compensated by expansion of investments.
Thus gypsum-bonded investments contribute
119. C44249 - Oblique to mold expansion by hygroscopic expansion
and compensate the casting shrinkage.
• Alveolar crest group: Extend obliquely from
the cementum beneath the junctional
epithelium to the alveolar crest. They prevent
extrusion and resist lateral tooth movements. • 124. C44269 - 18 K
Horizontal group: Extend at right angles to the 24 karat gold contains 100% of pure gold.
long axis of the tooth from the cementum to te Type II gold alloys contain 75% of gold. So
alveolar bone. • Oblique group: Extend from Type II gold alloys contains 18k gold.
the cementum in a coronal direction to the
bone. These are numerous, constitute main
attachment and resist the vertical masticatory
forces. • Apical group: They are not found in 125. C44273 - Grain elongation
incompletely formed roots. Ductility is the ability of a metal to be drawn
into a wire under tensile load without rupture.
Ductility can be measured by percent
120. C44253 - Mandibular 1st premolar elongation and cold blend test. Gold is the
most ductile and malleable pure metal, and
Usually the distal marginal ridge is at a lower silver is second. Platinum ranks third in
level than mesial marginal ridge except for the ductility and copper ranks third in malleability.
mandibular first premolar where the distal
marginal ridge is at a higher level than mesial
marginal ridge
126. C44277 - Silicate cement

Linear co-efficient of thermal expansion of

121. A44255 - Condensation polysilicon some materials: Amalgam – 25 Denture
Resins – 81 Porcelain – 6.6 Silicate – 10
Ethyl alcohol is the bye product of Dentin – 8.3 Composite – 14-50 Enamel –
condensation setting reaction. Contraction 11.4 Type II GIC – 11
occurs if the bye product evaporates in a set
silicone rubber. So casts are poured
immediately after taking impression from
mouth. In contrast addition silicones should be 127. B44280 - Lack of sufficient pressure
poured an hour later to improve the cast applied to flask
surface. The polyether impression can be Common Causes of Porosity Curing
poured immediately or after several days and temperature more than 100°C: Subsurface or
the resulting casts will have same accuracy. internal porosity in thick areas of denture
Insufficient pressure or inadequate material:
Larger voids all over the denture Air inclusion
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

resulting in voids :Mostly with fluid resin

technique If the flask is placed too soon in
boiling water: Porosity in thickest part of
denture

128. D44286 - Trituration time

The setting time is best controlled by altering

the trituration speed or trituration time or both.
For a given type of alloy and mercury: alloy
ratio, increased trituration time or speed
shortens the working and setting times.
Spherical alloys require less amalgamation
time than the lathe-cut alloys.

133. A44303 - Hypochondriasis

129. B44288 - Minimize marginal leakage
Hypochondriacal disorder is an anxious
around restoration
preoccupation with the possibility of having a
Varnish reduces the infiltration of irritating serious physical illness. Patients have a
fluids through marginal areas persistent fear or belief that they have a
serious, often fatal disease despite
appropriate medical reassurance. With
somatisation disorder, patients complaints of
130. C44293 - Castable ceramic
pain, vomiting, dizziness, headache which
Dicor, the first commercially available castable have no organic basis in disease. Somatoform
glass-ceramic material for dental use was pain disorder is used to describe severe,
developed by The Corning Glass Works persistent pain which cannot be explained by
(Corning N.Y.) and marketed by Dentsply pathology
International (Yord, PA, U.S.A). The term
“DICOR” is a combination of the
manufacturer’s names: Dentsply International 134. C44309 - Massive albuminuria
& Corning glass. Dicor is a castable
polycrystalline fluorine containing tetrasilicic Nephrotic syndrome is characterized by
mica glass-ceramic material, initially cast as a protein loss in urine of more than 3.5g
glass by a lost-wax technique and Proteinuria/day, fluid retention or oedema,
subsequently heat – treated resulting in a hypercoagulability, hyper cholesteremia and
controlled crystallization to produce a glass – infections. Albumin is the dominant serum
ceramic material. 46.The modulus of elasticity protein. Presence of albumin in the urine is a
is defined as: sure sign of glomerular abnormality. The
diseases that cause nephritic syndrome
always affect the glomerulus.
131. C44297 - The stress/strain ratio within
the proportional limit
135. C44313 - Massive albuminuria
Stress / Strain ratio within the proportional limit
is called Elastic modulus or Young’s modulus. Nephrotic syndrome is characterized by
It measures the relative rigidity or stiffness of protein loss in urine of more than 3.5g
material. Proteinuria/day, fluid retention or oedema,
hypercoagulability, hyper cholesteremia and
infections. Albumin is the dominant serum
protein. Presence of albumin in the urine is a
132. A44299 - 0.28 and 0.6
sure sign of glomerular abnormality. The
diseases that cause nephritic syndrome
always affect the glomerulus.
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

differs, hence the answer is

hyperphosphatemia.
136. D44318 - Hyperphosphatemia

Renal osteodystrophy is currently defined as

an alteration of bone morphology in patients 137. A44319 - S. Viridans
with chronic kidney disease (CKD). It is one
measure of the skeletal component of the Sub acute bacterial endocarditis (SABE) is
systemic disorder of chronic kidney disease- caused by the viridans group of streptococci
mineral and bone disorder (CKD-MBD). The like strep.mitis, strep.sanguis and a-
term “renal osteodystrophy” was coined in haemolytic streptococci. They are
1943, 60 years after an association was commensals in the upper respiratory tract that
identified between bone disease and kidney may enter the blood stream on chewing, teeth-
failure. Renal osteodystrophy has been brushing or at the time of dental treatment.
classically described to be the result of The common cause of acute endocarditis is
hyperparathyroidism secondary to staph.aureus. It is a highly virulent and
hyperphosphatemia combined with invasive organism producing florid
hypocalcemia, both of which are due to vegetations, rapid valve destruction and
decreased excretion of phosphate by the abscess formation. Organisms which causes
damaged kidney. Low activated vitamin D3 Endocarditits • Acute Endocarditis: Staph.
levels are a result of the damaged kidneys’ Aureus, Strep. Pneumoniae • Post-operative
inability to convert vitamin D3 into its active Endocarditis: Staph. Epidermidis • Subacute
form, calcitriol, and result in further Endocarditis: Strep. Viridans group (?
hypocalcaemia. High levels of fibroblast hemolytic streptococci, Strep. Mitis, Strep.
growth factor 23 seem now to be the most Sanguis)
important cause of decreased calcitriol levels
in CKD patients. Osteomalacia is a disease
characterized by the softening of the bones 138. B44324 - Sodium bicarbonate
caused by impaired bone metabolism primarily intravenously
due to inadequate levels of available
Metabolic acidosis is characterized by a
phosphate, calcium, and vitamin D, or
reduction in plasma bicarbonate and a rise in
because of resorption of calcium. The
H+ ion concentration. Diarrhoea, renalfailure,
impairment of bone metabolism causes
methanol and salicylate poisoning,
inadequate bone mineralization. Osteomalacia
ketoacidosis (diabetic, alcoholism , starvation)
in children is known as rickets, and because of
and lactic acidosis are some of the causes of
this, use of the term “osteomalacia” is often
metabolic acidosis. IV sodium bicarbonate
restricted to the milder, adult form of the
infusionis administered to counteract the
disease. Signs and symptoms can include
acidosis.
diffuse body pains, muscle weakness, and
fragility of the bones. In addition to low
systemic levels of circulating mineral ions
necessary for bone and tooth mineralization, 139. C44329 - Infective endocarditis
accumulation of mineralization-inhibiting
Clinical features of infective endocarditis: •
proteins and peptides (such as osteopontin
Osler’s nodes which are painful tender
and ASARM peptides) occurs in the
swellings at the fingertips. • Splenomegaly •
extracellular matrix of bones and teeth, likely
Cerebral emboli • Positive blood culture •
contributing locally to cause matrix
Arrhythmias • Murmurs • Splinter
hypomineralization (osteomalacia).
haemorrhages and clubbing of nails •
Symptoms of Osteomalacia:Diffuse joint and
Petechial haemorrhages of skin and mucous
bone pain (especially of spine, pelvis, and
membranes • Haematuria • Cardiac Failure •
legs) • Muscle weakness • Difficulty walking,
Roth spots in fundi • Aschoff nodules which
often with waddling gait • Hypocalcemia
occur only in heart are pathognomonic of
(positive Chvostek sign) • Compressed
rheumatic heart disease
vertebrae and diminished stature • Pelvic
flattening • Weak, soft bones • Easy fracturing
• Bending of bones. The question has word
140. A44331 - Thyrotoxicosis
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

Heart failure develops when the heart cannot inspite of excessive appetite • Tachycardia •
maintain an adequate cardiac output. Exophthalmos • Lid lag Signs and symptoms
Occasionally high output heart failure can of hypothyroidism • Cold intolerance • Weight
develop with: • Severe anemia • gain • Menstrual disturbance • Bradycardia
Thyrotoxicosis • Beri-Beri • Large AV shunt (slow pulse rate) • Metal lethargy • Carpal
tunnel syndrome • Delayed relaxation phase
of ankle jerks.
141. D44338 - Amyloid stroma

Medullary carcinoma is parafollicular - cell 147. B44360 - Slash wound

derived neoplasm. Presence of amyloid
stroma and high levels of serum calcitonin are Knives or broken glass are usually
characteristic of medullary carcinoma. responsible. Slash wound is less dangerous to
Treatment is by total thyroidectomy and the victim than a stab wound, unless a victim
resection of involved lymph nodes. is slashed in the face or neck. ? Incised
wounds which are longer than they are deep
are termed as slash wounds.
142. A44339 - Causes stridor

Retro sternal goiter causes dyspnea, cough, 148. A44363 - Anaemia

stridor, deviation and compression of trachea.
In severe cases it causes engorgement of SAG-M blood is blood from which plasma has
neck veins and superficial veins on the chest been removed and fluids such as Mannitol is
wall and obstruction of the superior vena cava added as carrying medium for RBC and to
make it osmotically as active as blood. Since
this blood has no proteins and clotting factors
143. D44346 - Human albumin 4.5% which are required for C and B respectively,
therefore SAG-M is not useful in these
Though A, C can also be given but D is must conditions. For transfusions in anaemic
as protein loss is maximum in burn patients. patients, this will not constitute a problem.

144. A44347 - Within 24 hours of surgery 149. B44368 - Subarachnoid space

Reactionary haemorrhage takes place within Paravertebral space contains sympathetic
24 to 48 hours of injury. It occurs when the chain, rami communicates, and dorsal and
patient's blood pressure rises (sometimes ventral roots of the spinal nerve • Local
after fluid therapy) and dislodges the blood anesthetic injection provides sensory, motor
clot. Secondary haemorrhage can take place and sympathetic blockade • As the space is
up to 10 days after injury. continuous with the surrounding spaces,
injection of local anesthetic provides
anesthesia to several derma tomes through
145. A44351 - Syphilis the following means: Lateral diffusion into the
intercostal space Superior and inferior spread
Lymphnodes Disease • into adjacent paravertebral space Medial
Hard and Fixed diffusion into epidural space
Carcinoma • Matted
TB • Elastic and Rubbery
Hodgkin’s lymphoma • Firm, discrete and
150. C44373 - Papillary carcinoma thyroid
shotty Syphilis
Histologically the papillary carcinoma of
thyroid shows papillary projections and
146. C44357 - Slow pulse rate characteristic paLe empty nuclei (orphan
Annie-eyed Nuclei). They are never
Signs and symptoms of hyperthyroidism • encapsulated.
Heat intolerance • Palpitations • Weight loss
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

151. D44378 - Retro pharyngeal nodes

The group of lymph nodes which drain lymph

from the teeth are submandibular nodes.
Submental lymph nodes drain lymph from
tongue and floor of mouth which could also be
considered as appropriate option. • The entire
lymph from head and neck drains ultimately
into the deep cervical nodes. So deep cervical
nodes is also correct option. •
Retropharyngeal nodes, drain the pharynx,
auditory tube, nose and palate. So these
nodes does not drain teeth.

156. C44397 - C.T. Scan

152. D44382 - not associated with carpel
tunnel syndrome CT will show bone and calcium well and will
easily image collections of blood. It will also
Bronze diabetes is diabetes mellitus
detect abnormalities of the brain and
associated with hemochromatosis, with iron
ventricles, such as tumors, cysts, abscess and
deposits in the skin, liver, pancreas and other
vascular lesions. MRI is much more sensitive
viscera.
than CT in the investigation of multiple
sclerosis, epilepsy and posterior fossa disease

153. A44383 - Loud first heart sound

The sudden coarctation of stenosed mitral 157. D44402 - Renal diseases

leaflets will cause S1 to be loud. In mitral
regurgitation the leaking valves will result in
soft S1. But in cases of mitral valve lesions 158. B44404 - Amoxicillin 3g orally one hour
associated with atrial fibrillation will give before
variable intensity of first heart sound.

154. C44389 - The time to reach a steady

state plasma concentration is the same as in
patients with normal renal function

It is important to recognize that the time to

reach steady-state concentration will be
delayed for drugs with relatively prolonged
half-lives. The correct statement should be
Time to reach steady state plasma
concentration is delayed in patients with
abnormal renal function

155. A44391 - Aortic regurgitation: Ejection

systolic murmur conducted to the carotids
159. B44408 - Langerhans cells

Tissue macrophages are called kupffer cells in

liver, macrophages in connective tissue,
alveolar macrophages in lungs, microglial cells
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

in nervous system, histiocytes in connective ? Pavementing: Distribution of neutrophils

tissue, and langerhan’s cells in skin. close to vessel wall ? Emigration: Neutophils
cross the basement membrane and escape
out into the extra vascular space ? Diapedesis
160. C44413 - Pulmonary arteries : Escape of RBC simultaneous to emigration
of neutrophils. It gives hemorrhagic
Pulmonary embolism is the most common and appearance to the exudate ? Chemotaxis: The
fatal form of venous thromboembolism in Chemotactc-factor mediated trasmigration of
which there is occlusion of pulmonary arterial leucocytes to reach interstital tissues.
tree by thromboemboli. If the thrombus is
large, it is impacted at the bifurcation of the
main pulmonary artery (Saddle embolus). 166. C44437 - Hyperplastic arteriosclerosis
Rarely paradoxical embolism may occur by
passage of an embolus from right heart into Hyper plastic arteriosclerosis: • This lesion
the left heart through atrial or ventricular septal occurs in malignant hypertension • Vessels
defect, and may reach systemic circulation. exhibit onion skin lesions characterizeds by
concentric, laminated thickening of the walls
and luminal narrowing. • Fibrinoid deposits
161. D44418 - Increased libido and vessel wall necrosis may occur
particularly in kidney. • Hyaline arteriosclerosis
Clinical features of hepatic cirrhosis (chronic also occurs due to hypertension and is
liver failure) are: • Jaundice • Hepatomegaly characterized by nephrosclerosis, arteriolar
but gradually liver size decreases due to narrowing causing impairment of renal blood
hepatocyte destruction • Ascites • Spider supply thereby leading to loss of nephrons.
telangiectasia, palmar erythema • Loss of
libido, gynecomastia • Bruises, epistaxis •
Portal hypertension features (splenomegaly, 167. A44439 - Corticosteroid therapy
collateral vessel, variceal bleeding and fetor
hepaticus) • Clubbing, pigmentation Neutropenia is an abnormally low
concentration of neutrophils (a type of white
blood cell) in the blood.[4] Neutrophils make
162. B44420 - Restrictive pulmonary disease up the majority of circulating white blood cells
and serve as the primary defense against
infections by destroying bacteria, bacterial
fragments and immunoglobulin-bound viruses
163. A44423 - Lytic bone lesions
in the blood.[5] People with neutropenia are
more susceptible to bacterial infections and,
without prompt medical attention, the condition
164. A44427 - Oculomotor nerve may become life-threatening (neutropenic
sepsis).
The trochlear (4th) nerve innervates the
superior oblique muscle (S04) and the
abducens (6th) nerve innervate the lateal
rectus muscle (LR6). Occulomotor (3rd) nerve 168. B44444 - Extrinsic pathway
innervates the remainder of the extraocular
Prothrombin time measures the extrinsic factor
muscles along with the levator palpebrae
VII as well as factors in the common pathway.
superioris and the ciliary body
Normal prothrombin time is 10-14 seconds.
(pupilconstriction and accommodation).
Prothrombin time is prolonged in conditions
Complete occulomotor nerve lesions cause
like Vitamin K deficiency, warfarin therapy,
ptosis and a dilated pupil and the eye tends to
liver disease and disseminated intravascular
rest in a ‘down and out’ position due to
coagulation
unopposed action of the lateral rectus and
superior oblique muscles.

169. A44447 - Clavicle

165. B44432 - Diapedesis
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

Most commonly affected bones in multiple • Hymenolepsis nana Dwarf tapeworm •

myeloma are skull, spine, ribs and pelvis.It Diphyllobothrium latum Fish tapeworm •
produces multiple punched out, rounded Taenia solium Pork tapeworm • Taenia
radiolucent areas radiographically. (Note:- saginata Beef tapeworm • Echinococcus
Multiple punched out irregular radiolucent granulosus Dog tapeworm
lesions of bone, exophtholmas, and diabetic
insipidus are features of eosinophilic
granuloma) 175. B44472 - Spleen and the lymph nodes

Plasma cell is the antibody secreting cell and it

170. C44453 - Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis is formed from the B- Lymphocytes. While
plasma cell is main antibody producing cell,
• Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis is commonly lymphocytes also synthesizes antibodies to
associated with obesity and type 2 diabetes. some exten
This can progress to fibrosis and cirrhosis
Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease includes •
Simple hepatic steatosis • Steatosis 176. A44475 - Schick test
accompanied by non-specific inflammation •
Non-alcoholic steato-hepatitis Identification tests for different bacteria TEST
BACTERIA Naggler’s reaction: Clostridia
Satellitism : H. Influenza Dick test,
171. D44458 - All of the above Scheultz-Charlton reaction: Streptococci
Elek’s test, Schick test: Diptheria Milk ring test:
The most important complications of typhoid Brucellosis Koch’s phenomena:
fever are intestinal perforation, hemorrhage Tuberculosis String test : Vibrio
and circulatory collapse. Osteomyelitis is a cholera Montoux test: Tuberculosis
rare sequel Option ‘C’ i.e., Casoni’s test is diagnostic test
for hydatid cyst. It is a skin test based on
Type-I hypersensitivity reaction.
172. A44459 - Type I hyp

TYPE I (Atopic, Anaphylactic,) IgE antibodies 177. B44480 - Amoxicillin.

are fixed on surface of mast cells and
basophils in sensitized individuals. The Option A: Erythromycin can be used for
antigen combines with the cell-fixed antibody patients who are hypersensitive to penicillins.
and releases vasoactive mediators. TYPE II Option B: Metronidazole is not an antibiotic of
(Cytotoxic) Antibodies combines with cell choice for this condition. Option C: is Correct.
surface antigens TYPE III i) Arthus ii) Serum Amoxicillin is the antibiotic of choice. Option
sickness Local Ag-Ab complexes Circulating D: Clindamycin can be used for patients who
Ag-Ab complexes TYPE IV (Cell mediated) are hypersensitive to penicillins.
Delayed hypersensitivity mediated by CD4+ T-
lymphocytes
178. B44484 - Amoxicillin.

173. A44463 - Parasitic in nature Option A: Erythromycin can be used for

patients who are hypersensitive to penicillins.
Hydatid cyst contains hydatid fluid. This fluid is Option B: Metronidazole is not an antibiotic of
used as antigen for Casoni’s intradermal test, choice for this condition. Option C: is Correct.
which is a dignostic test for Echinococcus. Amoxicillin is the antibiotic of choice. Option
Casoni’s test is an example of type-I D: Clindamycin can be used for patients who
hypersensitivity reaction. are hypersensitive to penicillins.

174. B44468 - T. Saginata 179. A44487 - ACE breaks down bradykinin.

FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

This is an example of a predictable adverse Blockers • Atenolol • Acebutolol • Metaprolol

drug reaction. The inhibition of ACE Non-selective ?-Blockers • Propranolol •
(angiotensin converting enzyme) produces a Alprenolol • Oxyprenolol • Pindolol • Sotalol
therapeutic effect of decreasing blood Both ? and ?-Blockers • Labetolol •
pressure. ACE activates the production of Tinololvvvx
angiotensin II, a powerful vasoconstrictor.
Inhibiting the production of this vasoconstrictor
means decreased vascular resistance and 184. A44507 - Bronchial asthma
decreased blood pressure. ACE has an
alternative function, however, and this is to Classification of drugs for bronchial asthma 1)
degrade the endogenous bronchoconstrictor Bronchodilators a) Symphathomimetics •
bradykinin. Therefore patients taking ACE With ? and ?-effects Eg: Adrenaline,
inhibitors have increased levels and therefore Ephedrine • With ?-effects Eg: Isoprenaline
a common side effect of this medication is the (Isoproterenol) • With predominantly ?2-effects
characteristic dry cough. Eg: Salbutamol, Salmeterol, Terbutaline b)
Theophyllines c) Anticholinergics Eg:
Ipatropium bromide, Atropine methonitrate 2)
180. A44491 - G-protein coupled receptor Leukotriene antagonists: Zileuton, Montelucast
3) Antihistaminics: Eg: Ketotifen 4)
Noradrenaline is an endogenous molecule Corticosteroids: a) Systemic: Hydrocortisone,
which binds the ?-adrenoreceptor. This prednisolone b) Inhalational: Beclamethasone
triggers the activation of intracellular proteins
which modulate the synthesis and/or release
of secondary messengers which regulate a 185. C44513 - Plasma membrane.
number of physiological pathways

186. D44518 - Acetaminophen

181. A44495 - Increase in IL-1
Paracetamol is recommended as first choice
Corticosteroids impair and suppress all types analgesic for osteoarthritis and rheumatoid
of hypersensitizaion and allergic phenomena. arthritis
They decrease production of interleukins,
tumor necrosis factor due to their negative
regulation of genes for cytokines.
187. C44521 - Dopamine causes increased
Corticosteroids increase the number of RBCS,
blood flow
Platelets and neutrophils in circulation and
decrease lymphocytes, eosinophils and Ionotrope is an agent that alters the force or
basophils; not due to destruction of these cells energy of heart muscular contraction. They
but due to their sequestration in tissues. might be negative or positive ionotropes.
Corticosteroids increase number of Positive ionotropes are used to increase
neutrophils, while they decrease the myocardial contractility in cases such as: •
phagocytic activity of neutrophils. Heart failure • Cardiogenic shock • Septic
shock • Myocardial infarction •
Cardiomyopathy Some examples of positive
182. B44500 - Succinyl choline ionotropes: 1. Catecholamines Dopamine
Dobutamine Adrenaline Nor-adrenaline
Succinyl choline induces rapid, complete and Isoprenaline Angiotensin II 2. Cardiac
predictable paralysis with spontaneous sensitisers Levosimendan 3. Digoxin 4.
recovery within 5 min. The onset of action is 1- Digitalis 5. Eicosanides Prostaglandin 6.
1.5 minutes Phosphodiesterase inhibitors Amrinone
Theophylline Enoximone 7. Glucagon 8.
Insulin
183. B44504 - Prazosin

?-Blockers • Phentolamine • Prazosin •

Phenoxy benzamine Cardio selective ?- 188. B44524 - Muscarinic
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

Muscuranic receptors and nicotinic receptors 190. A44531 - Ephedrine

are the two types of choline receptors.
Muscuranic receptors are present in Option ‘A’ ephedrine is a adrenergic drug used
autonomic effector cells in heart, blood in mild chronic bronchial asthma, and for
vessels, eye, smooth vessels, glands of GIT, hypotension during spinal anesthesia.
respiratory and urinary tracts, sweat glands
and in CNS. They are also present in all
postganglionic parasymphathetic nerves and 191. C44537 - Nsaid’s like Ibuprofen
few post ganglionic sympathetic nerves (sweat
NSAID’s like aspirin displace warfarin from the
glands, blood vessels, etc.) Nicotinic
protein binding sites and thus increases their
receptors are present at all ganglia (both
toxicity. Its antiplatelet action increases the
sympathetic and parasympathetic) skeletal
risk of bleeding in patients on oral
muscles adrenal medulla and CNS. SITE: All
anticoagulants.
post ganglionic parasymphathetic and few
post ganglionic sympathetic TYPE OF
RECEPTORS: Muscarinic SELECTIVE
AGONIST: Muscarine SELECTIVE 192. B44540 - Psychological component
ANTAGONIST: Atropine SITE: CNS (Cortex,
Toxicity occurs at over dosage or prolonged
basal, ganglia, spinal cord & other sites)
dosage due to excessive pharmacological
TYPE OF RECEPTORS: Muscarinic, Nicotine
action of drug. Option ‘C’ side effects occurs at
SELECTIVE AGONIST: Muscarine, Carbchol
therapeutic level due to unwanted
SELECTIVE ANTAGONIST: Atropine, Curare
pharmacodynamic effect. Option ‘A’
SITE: Both Symphathetic and
idiosyncrasy is a genetically determined
Parasympathetic and ganglia and adrenal
abnormality to a drug. Secondary effects are
medulla TYPE OF RECEPTORS: Nicotinic
due to indirect consequence of primary action
SELECTIVE AGONIST: Dimethyl phenyl
of drug. Eg.: Superinfection due to broad
piperazinium (DMPP) SELECTIVE
spectrum antibiotics.
ANTAGONIST: Hexamethonium SITE:
Skeletal Muscles TYPE OF RECEPTORS:
Nicotinic SELECTIVE AGONIST: Phenyl
trimethyl ammonium SELECTIVE 193. A44543 - Aspirin
ANTAGONIST: Curare
Aspirin, even in small doses irreversibly
inhibits TxA2 synthesis by platelets. Thus it
interferres with platelet aggregation (MCET-
189. B44528 - Proton pump inhibitor 07) resulting in increased bleeding tendency.
So it is contraindicated in hemophilia patients.
Approaches for the treatment of peptic ulcer a)
Contraindications of aspirin: • In patients with
Redcution of gastric acid secretion?; H2
peptic ulcers and bleeding tendencies. • In
antihistamines • Cimetidine • Ranitidine •
children suffering from chicken pox or
Famotidine • Roxatidine Proton pump
influenza due to risk of Reye’s syndrome. • In
inhibitors • Omeprazole • Lansoprazole •
chronic live diseases due to risk of hepatic
Pantoprazole • Esomeprazole • Rabeprazole
necrosis. • In diabetics and in patients with low
Anticholinergics • Pirenzepine • Propantheline
cardiac reserve or frank CHF and in juvenile
• Oxyphenonium Prostaglandin analogue •
rheumatoid arthritis. • Aspirin should be
Misoprostol b) Neutralization of gastric acid
stopped 1 week before elective surgery. • In
(Antacids) Systemic • Sodium bicarbonate •
pregnancy. • In G-6-P-D deficient individuals.
Sodium citrate Non-systemic • Magnesium
hydroxide • Calcium carbonate • Magnesium
trisilicate • Aluminium hydroxide c) Ulcer
protective • Sucralfate • Colloidal bismuth 194. B44548 - Mast cells
subcitrate d) Anti – H pylori drugs •
Mast cell secretes histamine, serotonin and
Amoxicillin • Clarithromycin • Metronidazole •
hydrolytic enzymes. It plays an important role
Tetracycline
in producing the hypersensitivity reactions like
allergy and anaphylaxis.
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

195. A44551 - Tryptophan • The actions of some hormones are executed

only in the presence of glucocorticoids
60 mg of tryptophan is equivalent to 1 mg of (cortisol). • This is called permissive action. •
niacin for the synthesis of niacin coenzymes. Calorigenic effects of glucagon, lipolytic and
pressor effects of catecholamines are
examples of permissive action.
196. C44557 - Postural hypotension is seen.

Lack of postural hypotension is advantage of

using ACE inhibitors when treating 202. C44581 - 9
hypertension. The larynx is made up of 9, not 3, cartilages.
The larynx is made up of 9, not 6, cartilages.
The larynx is made up of 9 cartilages. The
197. D44562 - Pentoxifyline larynx is made up of 9, not 11, cartilages.
phenoxyphilline is an anti ischemic drug.

203. D44586 - Psedostratified

198. A44563 - 100% A pseudostratified epithelium is a type of
epithelium that, though comprising only a
Glucose is completely reabsorbed actively in
single layer of cells, has its cell nuclei
the proximal convoluted tubule if its
positioned in a manner suggestive of stratified
concentration is below 180 mg% in blood. This
epithelia. The function of pseudostratified
is called the renal threshold of glucose. Above
columnar epithelium includes the absorption
renal threshold, glucose appears in urine.
and secretion of mucus, protection from
foreign particles (dust, pathogens, and
allergens), and transport of materials such as
199. C44569 - Lack of vitamin K hormones and enzymes. Ciliated
pseudostratified epithelium lines the trachea
The major causes of bleeding in liver diseases
and parts of the upper respiratory tract
are: A. Morphologic lesions: 1. Gastritis 2.
Peptic ulcers 3. Portal hypertension like
splenomegaly, oesophageal varices B.
Hepatic Dysfunctions: 1. Impaired absorption 204. A44587 - First arch
and metabolism of Vitamin K 2. Imapaired
1st arch (Meckel’s cartilage) •
hepatic synthesis of coagulation factors 3.
Sphenomandibular ligament • Anterior
Impaired heptic synthesis of coagulation
ligament of malleus • Maxilla • Mandible •
inhibitors like protein C, protein S 4. Failure to
Zygomatic bone • Palatine bone • Part of
clear activated coagulation factors causing
temporal bone 2nd arch cartilage (Reichert’s
DIC and systemic fibrinolysis. C. Complication
cartilage) • Stapes • Stylohyoid ligament •
of therapy: 1. Following massive transfusion
Stylohyoid process • Lesser cornua and
leading to dilution of platelets and coagulation
superior part of body of hyoid 3rd arch
factors. 2. Following heparin therapy 3.
cartilage • Greater-cornua of hyoid • Inferior
Infusion of activated coagulation proteins.
part of body of hyoid 4th and 6th arch cartilage
• Cartilages of larynx

200. A44571 - Small intestine

Proteins, carbohydrates, fats and other 205. A44591 - Above hyoid bone
nutritive substances like vitamins, and
Facial artery arises from the external carotid
minerals are absorbed mostly in small
just above the tip of the greater cornua of the
intestine
hyoid bone.

201. D44578 - Cortisol

206. C44597 - Pseudostratified columnar.
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

The nasal cavity is lined with pseudostratified oral hygiene instruction. Code 3 Scaling and
columnar epithelium, not simple columnar root planning along with oral hygiene
epithelium. The nasal cavity is lined with instructions TN – 3 Code 4 Complex
pseudostratified columnar epithelium, not treatment like deep scaling, root planning and
stratified cuboidal epithelium. The nasal cavity more complex surgical procedures
is lined with pseudostratified columnar
epithelium, not stratified squamous epithelium.
The nasal cavity is lined with pseudostratified 209. B44608 - SNF2
columnar epithelium.
When NaF is applied to tooth surface, there is
initial rapid formation of CaF2 followed by
207. D44602 - All drastic reduction in its rate and this sudden
stop of entry of fluoride is termed as “Chocking
The vestibular nuclei in the brainstem are off effect”. Fluoride then leaches from calcium
analogous structures to the deep nuclei, since fluoride. This CaF2 acts as a reservoir for
they receive both mossy fiber and Purkinje cell fluoride release and reacts with the
inputs. From lateral to medial, the four deep hydroxyapatite crystals to fluorhydroxyapatite.
cerebellar nuclei are the dentate, emboliform,
globose, and fastigii.
210. B44612 - 0.5 mg

208. D44606 - The individual has calculus and The supplemental fluoride dosage depends on
needs scaling and oral hygiene instructions. fluoride concentration of drinking water and
age of the child. CONCENTRATION OF
CPITN probe was first described bv WHO FLUORIDE IN WATER (PPM) Age ❬
(TRS 621-1978). The weight of CPITN probe 0❭ 0.7 Birth to 2 0.25 0
is 5qms. This probe was designed for two 0 2 to 3 0.5 0.25 0 3 to
purposes namely measurement of pocket 14+ 1.0 0.5 0
depth, and detection of subgingival calculus. A
tooth is probed to determine pocket depth and
to detect subgingival calculus and bleeding
response. The probing force can be divided 211. C44617 - An association exists between
into a “Working Component” to determine zardapan and disease.
pocket depth and a “sensing component” to Case control or retrospective studies
detect subgingival calculus. CPITN probe messures the prevalence of the disease and
contains markings at 3.5mm, 5.5mm, 8.5mm, also assesses the association of risk factor
and 11.5mm with a ball tip of 0.5mm diameter. and disease. Option incidence of a disease is
The CPITN-C or clinical probe contains black measured by cohort studies.
markings between 3.5mm and 5.5mm and
between 8.5mm and 11.5mm. In young people
up to 19 years, the six index teeth selected
212. B44620 - Cluster
are: 16 11 26 49 31 36 In adults, the 10
specified index teeth examined are: 17 16 11 In statistics, cluster sampling is a sampling
26 27 47 46 31 36 37 Code – 0 Healthy tooth plan used when mutually homogeneous yet
Code – 1 Bleeding on probing Code – 2 internally heterogeneous groupings are
Plaque retentive factors are either felt or seen evident in a statistical population. It is often
Code – 3 Pathological pocket of 4-5 mm, black used in marketing research. In this sampling
band of the probe is partially visible Code – 4 plan, the total population is divided into these
Pathological pocket of 6mm or more in depth. groups (known as clusters) and a simple
Black band of the probe is not visible. Code – random sample of the groups is selected. The
X When only one tooth or no teeth are present elements in each cluster are then sampled. If
in a sextant. Classification of Rx needs: TN – all elements in each sampled cluster are
0 Code 0 No treatment is needed TN – 1 Code sampled, then this is referred to as a “one-
1 Improving personal oral hygiene TN – 2 stage” cluster sampling plan. If a simple
Code 2 Professional cleaning of teeth and random subsample of elements is selected
removal of plaque retentive factors along with within each of these groups, this is referred to
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

as a “two-stage” cluster sampling plan. A data for other populations in order to look for
common motivation for cluster sampling is to associations between exposure and the
reduce the total number of interviews and outcome. Classification of epidemiology A)
costs given the desired accuracy. For a fixed DESCRIPTIVE B) ANALYTICAL – 4 TYPES
sample size, the expected random error is Ecological study – Population is unit of study
smaller when most of the variation in the Cross sectional – Individual is unit of study
population is present internally within the Case-control – Individual is unit of study
groups, and not between the groups Cohort study – Individual is unit of study C)
EXPERIMENTAL Randomised controlled trials
(RCT) – patient is unit of study Field trials –
213. D44626 - Sensitivity of the test Healthy people are unit of study Community
trials – Healthy people are unit of study.
The positive predictive value of a screening
test depends on sensitivity of the test. The
negative predictive value of a screening test, 217. D44642 - Temporal
depends on specificity of the test.
Maxilla articulates with nasal, lacrimal, frontal,
palatine and zygomatic bones.
214. B44628 - 0.2

Standard error = SD/ ?n = SD/?100 = 2/10 = 218. A44643 - Osteoclasts

0.2
Osteoclast cells have striated border and are
housed in Howship's lacunae which attach to
215. C44633 - It measures incidence the resorbing front of hard tissue and release
acid phosphatase which disrupts collagen
Case control study does not measures network and releases crystals which are
incidence. Incidence is measured by cohort digested by the vacuoles of osteoclasts which
studies while prevalence is measured by is then disrupted by fibroclasts.
cross-sectional studies.

219. A44647 - Rickets

216. D44638 - All variables are under the
control and can be modified by the operator The retina of eye contains 2 types of cells-
rods and cones. Rhodopsin is a conjugated
One of the important distinctions between protein present in rods. It contains 11- cis
descriptive and experimental research is that retinal*, which is one of the vitamer of vitamin
in descriptive research, no manipulation of A. Rods are involved in dim vision whereas
naturally occurring phenomena occurs, while Cones are involved in Color vision and bright
in experimental research, manipulation and light vision. Dark adaptation time is increased
control become more import measures. A in vitamin A deficient individuals.
case report is most basic type of descriptive
study of individuals, consisting of a careful,
detailed report of the profile of a single patient 220. D44654 - Maxillary denture should be
by one or more clinicians. A case series extended to the hamular process
describes the characteristics of a number of
patients with a given disease. Case series Pterygomandibular raphae originates from the
report is an objective report of clinical pterygoid hamulus and inserts onto the distal
characteristic or outcome from a group of end of the mylohyoid ridge. When the mouth
clinical subjects. Biased selection or is opened wide, the raphae is pulled forward.
unrepresentativeness of study subjects and So maxillary denture should not be extended
lack of control group are basic problems in to the pterygoid hamulus, as it interferes with
generalizing the results obtained. An raphae.
ecological study is a study in which data of
average exposure and outcome for a
population are used to compare with similar 221. A44655 - 18.6ml
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

Water of reaction is same for all gypsum formed by the maxillary process. The
products i.e., 18.6 ml. of water completely mesodermal basis of median part of lip (called
reacts with 100g of hemihydrate. But gauging philtrum) is formed by frontonasal OR globular
water differs with the type of gypsum product. process • The ectoderm of maxillary process
It is 45 ml for type I 30 ml for type III and 20 ml overgrows this mesoderm to meet the
for type IV. opposite maxillary process in the midline. As a
result, the maxillary nerve innervates the skin
of entire upper lip.
222. B44660 - 10

Colour Size Pink 6 Gray 8 Purple 10 White 15 227. C44681 - Increased voluntary activity
Yellow 20 Red 25 Blue 30 Green 35
Black 40 The central thermostat is situated in
hypothalamus. The normal 'set-point' of core
temperature is 37 ± 0.5°C, so as to preserve
223. B44664 - To prevent percolation of the the normal function of many enzymes and
bleaching agent into the apical area other metabolic processes. Protective
mechanisms in cold environment are:
Quality of seal in the apical part as well Cutaneous vasoconstriction Shivering
coronal part of the root canal system is
important to prevent percolation of fluids. In
non-vital bleaching, Cavit or GIC or MTA is 228. A44683 - Negroes
placed as a barrier material over the root canal
filling material. The level of barrier should be The incidence of cleft lip and palate is found to
1mm incisal to CEJ. This prevents percolation be different among different races: The
of bleaching agent into the root canal filling negroid race has the least incidence (1 in
and nearby into the periapex. This also 2000 births); while the mongoloids have the
confines the bleaching agent to the crown highest incidence. Cleft lip is common among
thereby preventing cervical root resorption. males (PGI 07) Cleft palate is more common
in females Unilateral clefts accounts for 80%
of the incidence bilateral cleft accounts for
224. D44670 - Polycarboxylate 20% of the incidence Among unilateral clefts,
clefts involving the left side are seen in 70% of
Temporary restorations: Cellulose acetate cases (PGI 08)
crown Preformed metal crowns Acrylic crowns
Polycarbonate crowns Zinc oxide eugenol
Copper band and aluminium shell 229. D44690 - Nodular infiltrating type
temporization
Five types of melanoma are: Amelanotic
Modular : Most malignant lentigo maligna:
225. B44672 - Between thyropharyngeus and least malignant also called as Hutchinson's
crico-pharyngeus melanotic freckle Superficial spreading Acral -
lentigenous
The weak area is known as "Killian's
dehiscence". In this area, the thyropharyngeus
is a single sheet of muscle and is not 230. C44693 - TPHA
overlapped by internally by the upper and
middle constrictors. Non-specific serological tests for diagnosis of
syphilis using cardiolipin antigen are
Wasserman test (Complement fixation test)
226. D44678 - Frontonasal process VDRL test (slide flocculation) Kahn test (Tube
flocculation) Specific tests using pathogenic
Development of upper lip • Upper lip is treponemes are: TPI test (Complement
formed by fusion of maxillary process with fixation test) FTA-ABS test (Fluorescent
lateral nasal and median nasal processes. • treponemal antibody absorption test) TPHA
The mesodermal basis of lateral part of lip is (Treponema pallidun hemagglutination assay)
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

Option 'C' Widal test (Tube agglutination) is the principal fibers continue into the bone as
diagnostic test for typhoid fever. Sharpey’s fibers.

231. C44697 - Occlusion 236. B44716 - Widening of the oral aperture

Centric occlusion or intercuspal position is Important features of scleroderma: Stiff and

defined Buccal cusp tip of as maximum board like tongue The lips become rigid and
intercuspation of teeth. Centric relation is the fixed microstomia Dysphasia, inability to open
position of the mandible (or path of opening and close the mouth Extreme widening of
and dosing without translation of condyles) in periodontal ligament Scleroderma can be
which the condyles are in their uppermost circumscribed (Morphea) or linear. The linear
position in the mandibular fossae and related bands are often called as En cuop de sabre,
anteriorly to the distal slope of the articular since they resembles the mark produced by
eminence the blow of a saber.

232. C44701 - Conduction is slower in 237. A44719 - Increase target to object

myelinated than in non-myelinated fibres distance

Conduction is faster in the myelinated nerves Paralleling technique derives its name as the
than in unmyelinated fibres. The effect in film is placed parallel to the Long axis of the
myelinated nerves is at the "nodes of Ranvier" tooth. This procedure minimizes distortion and
as the LA do not penetrate the myelin sheath. best incorporates the imaging principles. In
paralleling angle technique the film is placed
parallel to the long axis of the tooth. To
233. A44703 - Cap splint fixation achieve this parallelism the film should be kept
at some distance from the object which
The use of acrylic cap splint with causes image magnification. This can be
circumferential wiring is the best method to avoided by increasing the target - object
treat mandibular fractures in children. distance. So it is called as long cone
technique.

234. D44710 - Lipase

238. A44723 - Subspinale
Constituent Function
Glycoprotein :Lubrication pellicle formation Prosthion (Supradentale) The lowest and most
Bicarbonate :Buffer (neutralization of acid anterior part of alveolar bone in the midline
maintains pH) Amylase :Digestive enzyme between upper central incisors. Infradentale
Gustin :Taste IgA Lactoferrin Lysozyme (Inferior prosthion) The highest and anterior
Peroxidase :Anti bacterial action. Water part on the alveolar process in the median
accounts for about 99% of saliva. plane between the mandibular central incisors.
Point A (Subspinale) It is the deepest point in
the midline between anterior nasal spine and
235. D44714 - Bundle bone superior prosthion. Point B (Supramentale) It
is the deepest point in the midline between the
Alveolar bone proper The alveolar bone mental process and infradentale.
proper consists partly of lamellated and partly
of bundle bone and is about 0.1–0.4 mm thick.
It surrounds the root of the tooth and gives
239. A44727 - Low protein
attachment to principal fibers of the
periodontal ligament. Bundle bone is that Transudate is fluid buildup caused by systemic
bone in which the principal fibers of the conditions that alter the pressure in blood
periodontal ligament are anchored. The term vessels, causing fluid to leave the vascular
‘bundle’ was chosen, because, the bundles of system. Exudate is fluid buildup caused by
tissue leakage due to inflammation or local
FOCUS THE FUTURE DENTISTRY

cellular damage. The fluid is exudate if one of

the following light’s criteria is present: 1.
Effusion protein/serum protein ratio greater
than 0.5 2. Effusion lactate dehydrogenase
(LDH)/serum LDH ratio greater than 0.6 3.
Effusion LDH level greater than two-thirds the
upper limit of the laboratory's reference range
of serum LDH

240. A44731 - 4 hrs. before the procedure

Dietary instructions should be as follows:

Clear liquid should be stopped up to 3 hours
before the procedure for children aged 6
months and older No milk or solids for 6 hours
for children aged 6 months to 3 years and for
6 to 8 hours for children 3 years and older.
The reasons for these recommendations are:
Vomiting during or immediately after a
sedative procedure is a potential complication
that can result in aspiration of stomach
contents leading to laryngospasm or severe
airway obstruction or aspiration pneumonia. It
also creates unfavorable disruption of the
office routine. Secondly, the drug uptake is
maximized when the stomach is empty as
most of the conscious sedation agents are
administered.