Bloodbanking

Reviewer Notes
1. Trans fusion of 1 unit of blood must b e
completed wihtin how many hours of a) 1-6 degrees Celcius
transfusion? b) Room temperature with agitation
c) -18 degrees Celcius
a) 1 hour d) Room temperature without agitation
b) 2 hours
c) 3 hours 6. What is the purpose of adding citric acid
d) 4 hours to blood bag preservatives?

a) To prevent coagulation
2. Which of the following condition for b) To restore ATP levels
accepting a donor for plateletpheresis? c) To improve survival of red cells
d) To prevent caramelization
a) 72 hors since the last apheresis
b) Plasmapheresis of 800 ml 1 week ago 7. Fresh frozen plasma stored at -65 degree
c) Platelet count of 100x109/L Celcius would have a shelf-life of:
d) Aspirin ingestion 7 days ago
a) 1 year
3. Which of the following donors could be b) 5 years
accepted for blood donation? c) 7 years
d) 10 years
a) 18 year old woman with hematocrit of
38% 8. Cryoprecipitate that has been thawed
b) 45 year old man with a blood pressure of must be transfused within ___ hours
180/100
c) 60 year old man with a history of a) 6 hours
Babesiosis b) 8 hours
d) 30 year old man who had been c) 4 hours
vaccinated for rabies 6 mos. Ago d) 24 hours

4. Red blood cells stored in CPDA blood 9. Platelets prepared from whole blood
bag would have a shelf life of: donation require which of the following

a) 21 days a) A light spins

b) 35 days b) Two light spins
c) 2 days c) A hard spin followed by a light spin
d) 42 days d) Two heavy spin

5. What is the proper storage protocol for a 10. When a suspected hemolytic transfusion
granulocyte concentrates? reaction occurs, the first thing to do is:

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 Bloodbanking
Reviewer Notes d) Elution
a) Slow the transfusion rate and call the
physician 15. Blood donor and recipient samples used
b) Administer medication to stop the in crossmatching must be stored for a
reaction minimum of how many days following
c) First inform the laboratiory to begin transfusion?
investigation
d) Stop the transfusion but keep the a) 2 days
intravenous line open with saline b) 5 days
c) 7 days
11. HBV is transmitted most frequently: d) 10 days

a) By unknown method 16. RBCs must be washed in saline at least

b) Through blood transfusion three times before the addition of AHG
c) By needle sharing among IV drug reagent to:
abusers
d) By sexual activity
a) Wash away any hemolyzed cells
12. Which of the following blood-borne b) Neutralize any excess AHG reagent
pathogen is destroyed under prolonged cold c) Increase the antibody binding to
temperature storage? antigen
d) Remove traces of free serum
a) Babesiosis globulins
b) Trypanosoma cruzi
c) Treponema pallidum
d) Plasmodium falciparum 17.) What is the collor of LISS?

13. What samples are required to perform a) Yellow

compatibility testing? b) Green
c) Blue
a) Patient serum and donor serum d) Colorless
b) Patient serum and donor red cell
c) Donor serum and patient red cells 18.) Blood bank refrigerator
d) Donor cells and patient red cell should be set at:

14. Which of the following replaces minor a) 2-4 degrees F

crossmatching? b) 1-2 degrees F
c) 1-6 degrees C
a) DAT d) 1-10 degrees C
b) Immediate spin
c) Antibody screening 19. Hematoma occur upon bleeding, what to

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 Bloodbanking
do?
Reviewer Notes
24. How many hours must a FFP be
a) Remove touniquet and needle, and prepared after phlebotomy?
then apply pressure on site
b) Have the donor breathe on a paper a) 2 hours
bag b) 4 hours
c) Tell the donor to make a fist c) 8 hours
d) Do nothing d) Up to hours

20. Refers to an individual who donate 25. Which of the following blood
blood for his or her own use: components must be transfused to a patient
with aplastic anemia?
a) Allogenic donor
b) Autologous donor a) PRBC
c) Voluntary blood donor b) FWB
d) Relative donor c) Irradiated blood
d) FFP
21. Delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions
from amnestic responses usually occur 26. What is the required deferral period for a
within which time period: blood donor with chicken pox?

a) 5 hours a) 2 weeks
b) 24 hours b) 4 weeks
c) Several weeks after transfusion c) No deferral
d) 3-7 days after transfusion d) Permanently deferred
27. Acquired B phenomenon is seen in
22. This refers to 1 degree Celsius rise of patient with ABO group:
temperature following blood transfusion:
a) A
a) Febrile non-hemolytic b) B
b) Allergic transfusion reaction c) AB
c) Anaphylactic transfusion reaction d) O
d) TRALI
28. Shelf life of PRBC collected with a
23. What corrective action should be taken CPDA-1 through an open system
when rouleaux causes positive test results?
a) 24 hours
a) Run a panel b) 2 days
b) Perform an elution c) 35 days
c) Wash cells and dilute serum d) NOTA
d) Perform an autoabsorption

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 Bloodbanking
Reviewer Notes
29. Which of the following is not performed d) 8 weeks
during donor processing?
34. Immune hemolytic anemias may be
a) HBsAg classified in which of the following
b) ABO and Rh categories?
c) HIV Ag
d) HBsAb a) Alloimmune
b) Autoimmune
30. 1 year donor deferral includes the c) Drug induced
following except: d) All of the above

a) Hepatitis B immune globulin 35. When preparing cells for a cold

administration autoadsorption procedure, it is helpful to
b) Rabies vaccination pretreat the cells with which of the
c) Rape victim following?
d) Malaria infection
a) Dithiothreitol
31. True regarding hemoglobin b) Ficin
determination using the copper sulfate c) Phosphate-buffered saline at pH 9.0
method except: d) Bovine albumin

a) Uses 30 ml container 36. The blood group involved in the

b) Maximum of 25 test autoantibody specificity in PCH is:
c) Solution changed daily
d) Acceptance blood drop should sink a) P
in 15 seconds b) ABO
c) Rh
32. Specimen of choice for DAT: d) Lewis

a) EDTA blood 37. Which of the following blood groups

b) Serum reacts best with an anti-H or anti-IH?
c) Plasma
d) Heparinized blood a) O
b) B
33. The minimum interval allowed between c) A2
plateletpheresis component collection d) A1
procedure is:
38. With cold reactive autoantibodies, the
a) 24 hours protein coating the patient’s cells and
b) 48 hours detected in the DAT is:
c) 7 days

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 Bloodbanking
a) C3
Reviewer Notes
b) IgG a) Slide and modified tube anti-D
c) C4 b) Chloroquine-treated RBCs
d) IgM c) Rosette test
d) Monoclonal anti-D
39. Problems in routine testing caused by
cold reactive autoantibodies can usually be 44. In pretransfusion testing for a patient
resolvd by all of the following except: with WAIHA, the primary concern is:

a) Prewarming a) Treating the patient’s cells with

b) Washing with warm saline chloroquine for reliable antigen
c) Using anti-IgG antiglobulin serum typing
d) Testing clotted blood specimens b) Adsorbing out all antibodies in the
40. Pathological cold agglutinins differ from patient’s serum to be able to provide
common cold autoagglutinins in: compatible RBCs
c) Determining the exact specificity of
a) Immunoglobulins class the autoantibody so that compatible
b) Thermal amplitude RBCs can be found
c) Antibody specificity d) Discovering any existing
d) DAT results on EDTA specimen significant alloantibodies in the
patient’s circulation
41. Cold AIHA is sometimes associated with
infection by: 45. Penicillin given in massive does has
been associated with RBC hemolysis. Which
a) Staphylococcus aureus of the classic mechanisms is typically
b) Mycoplasma pneumoniae involved in the hemolytic process?
c) Escherichia coli
d) Group A. Streptococcus a) Immune complexes
b) Drug adsorption
42. May warm reactive autoantibodies have c) Membrane modification
broad specificity within which of the d) Autoantibody formation
following blood groups?
46. Which of the following drugs has been
a) Kell associated with complement
b) Duffy activation and rapid intravascular
c) Rh hemolysis?
d) Kidd
a) Penicillin
43. Valid Rh typing can usually be obtained b) Quinidine
on a patient with WAIHA using all of the c) Alpha-methyldopa
following reagents or techniques except: d) Cephalosporins

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 Bloodbanking
Reviewer Notes
47. A patient who is taking Aldomet has a a) 3 days
positive DAT. An eluate prepared form his b) 3 weeks
RBC’s would be expected to: c) 6 weeks
d) 3 months
a) React only with Aldomet-coated
cells
b) Be neutralized by a suspension of
Aldomet
c) React with all normal cells
d) React only with Rhnull cells

48.One method that can be used to separate

a patient’s RBCs form recently transfused
donor RBCs is:

a) Chloroquine diphosphate treatment

of the RBCs
b) Reticulocyte harvesting
c) EGA treatment
d) Donath-Landsteiner testing

49. Monoclonal antisera is valuable in

phenotyping RBCs with positive DATs
because:

a) Both polyspecific and monospecific

antihuman serum can be used in
antiglobulin testing
b) Anti-C3 serum can be used in
antiglobulin testing
c) It usually does not require
antiglobulin testing
d) It does not require enzyme treatment
of the cells prior to antiglobulin
testing

50. Autoadsorption procedures to remove

either warm or cold autoantobodies should
not be used with recently transfused patient.
Recently means:

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