Medical Technology Board Exam Reviewer 5: IMMUNOLOGY-SEROLOGY & BLOOD

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1. He was said to have been given the world’s first 7. This blood group is an anthropological marker
blood transfusion by his Jewish physician in Asian ancestry:
Giacomo di San Genesio, who had him drink a. Diego
the blood of three 10-year-old boys. b. Cartwright
a. Pope Innocent VII c. Colton
b. Pope Pius I d. Gerbich
c. Pope Gregory III
d. Pope Boniface IV 8. The activity of this antibody is enhanced in an
acidic environment.
2. The number of H antigen structures currently a. Anti-S
identified are: b. Anti-U
a. Two c. Anti-N
b. Four d. Anti-M
c. Six
d. Eight 9. Shelf-life of packed red blood cells obtained
through open system with ACD anticoagulant:
3. Greatest amount of H antigen: a. 21 days
a. A1 b. 35 days
b. O c. 42 days
c. AB d. None of the choices
d. B
10. Indication for transfusion of neocytes:
4. Identify the blood type based on the following a. Immune thrombocytopenic purpura
reactions: b. Hemolytic transfusion reaction
FORWARD REVERSE c. Thalassemia
GROUPING GROUPING d. Hydrops fetalis
Anti-A Anti-B A cells B cells
O 4+ 3+ O 11. Citrate in ACD functions as:
a. Anticoagulant
a. Type O b. ATP source
b. Type A c. RBC membrane stabilizer
c. Type B d. Caramelization inhibitor
d. Type AB
12. The most common cause of transfusion-related
5. Bombay phenotype antibodies include: sepsis is:
a. Anti-A a. Whole blood
b. Anti-B b. Packed red blood cells
c. Anti-H c. Leukocyte concentrates
d. All of the choices d. Platelets concentrates

6. What type of blood should be given in an 13. Major advantage of gel technology:
emergency transfusion when there is no time to a. Decreased sample volume
type the recipient’s sample? b. Improved productivity
a. O Rh-negative, whole blood c. Enhanced sensitivity
b. O Rh-positive, whole blood d. Standardization
c. O Rh-negative, pRBCs
d. O Rh-positive, pRBCs 14. Agglutination reaction: “Several large clumps
with clear background”
a. 4+
b. 3+
c. 2+
d. 1+
 Medical Technology Board Exam Reviewer 5: IMMUNOLOGY-SEROLOGY & BLOOD
BANKING

15. This type of autologous donation occurs when 21. Year of discovery of the T cell receptor gene:
blood is collected from the patient before the a. 1964
start of surgery. The patient’s blood volume is b. 1974
returned to normal with fluids, and autologous c. 1984
blood may be returned to the patient after the d. 1994
surgery is complete.
a. Preoperative 22. Percentage of B cells present in the circulation
b. Normovolemic hemodilution a. 2-5%
c. Intraoperative salvage b. 5-10%
d. Postoperative salvage c. 10-15%
d. 75-85%
16. The anticoagulant preferred in direct
antiglobulin testing is: 23. C3b
a. EDTA a. Anaphylatoxin
b. Heparin b. Opsonin
c. Citrate c. Chemotaxin
d. Oxalate d. Cytokine

17. A donor was deferred by the physician due to 24. What is the most common complement
the presence of bluish purple areas under the component deficiency?
skin of the donor. This is typical of: a. C1
a. Syphilis b. C2
b. Herpes simplex c. C3
c. Candidiasis d. C4
d. Kaposi’s sarcoma
25. Which of the following is the most common
18. A febrile transfusion reaction is defined as a rise congenital immonudeficiency?
in body temperature of ___ occurring in a. Severe combined immonudeficiency
association with the transfusion of blood or b. Selective IgA deficiency
components and without any other explanation. c. X-linked agammaglobulinemia
a. 1oC or more d. Common variable immunodeficiency
b. 1oF or more
c. 3oC or more 26. Which disease might be indicated by antibodies
d. 3oF or more to smooth muscle?
a. Chronic active hepatitis
19. The most severe form of HDN is associated b. Primary biliary cirrhosis
with: c. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
a. Anti-A d. Myasthenia gravis
b. Anti-B
c. Anti-K 27. The most common fungal infection for AIDS
d. Anti-D patients is caused by:
a. Candida albicans
20. This is a diagnostic prenatal test in which a b. Cryptococcus neoformans
sample of the baby’s blood is removed from the c. Blastomyces dermatitidis
umbilical cord for testing: d. Cryptosporidium parvum
a. Cordocentesis
b. PUBS
c. Both
d. None of the above
 Medical Technology Board Exam Reviewer 5: IMMUNOLOGY-SEROLOGY & BLOOD
BANKING

28. This dengue antigen has been detected in the 35. When reading for a slide agglutination for
serum of dengue virus infected patients as early Salmonella, macroscopic agglutination is graded
as 1-day post onset of symptoms (DPO), and up as 25%. Interpret.
to 18 DPO. a. Non-reactive
a. NS1 b. Negative
b. C c. Positive
c. E d. 1+
d. prM
36. Other name for “HCV RNA”:
29. These are expressed in the developing fetus and a. Viral clade
in rapidly dividing tissue, such as that b. Surface antigen
associated with tumors, but that are absent in c. Viral load
normal adult tissue: d. Core antigen
a. Oncogenes
b. Sarcoma 37. Not included as a Hepatitis B serologic marker:
c. Oncofetal antigens a. HBcAg
d. Tumor specific antigen b. HBeAg
c. Anti-HBeAg
30. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is a/an ___ d. Anti-HBcAg
assay.
a. Chemical 38. Autoimmune diseases are mostly associated
b. Molecular with which class of HLA?
c. Enzymatic a. Class I
d. Biologic b. Class II
c. Class III
31. Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism d. Class IV
(RFLP) is a/an ___ assay.
a. Chemical 39. Which of the following activates both T and B
b. Molecular cells?
c. Enzymatic a. Pokeweed mitogen
d. Biologic b. Lipopolysaccharide
c. Concanavalin A
32. Hives and itching are under what type of d. Phytohemagglutinin
hypersensitivity?
a. Type I 40. It is used as the receptor for the sheep red blood
b. Type II cells (sRBC) for e-rosette assay:
c. Type III a. CD2
d. Type IV b. CD4
c. CD8
33. Gamma counter uses these substances as labels: d. CD12
a. Isotopes
b. Fluorochromes
c. Enzymes
d. Immune complexes

34. Treponema pallidum immobilization (TPI) test: