1

IMMUNOLOGY& SEROLOGY (RECALLS/REINFORCEMENT)

1. Which of the following is the antigen 9. Anti-smooth muscle antibodies (ASMA) are
determinant? primarily seen in:
a. Epitope a. Chronic active hepatitis
b. Hapten b. Multiple sclerosis
c. Paratope c. Hashimotos thyroiditis
d. Fab 10. Prozone phenomenon:
2. CYFRA 21-1 is a maker for ___ cancer. a. False negative due to excess in antibody in
a. Colorectal the serum
b. Prostate b. Optimal amounts of antigen and antibody
c. Lung is present
d. Bladder c. True negative where no antibody is
3. Which hepatitis marker is present during detected
active infection and indicates that patient is d. False positive due to excessive reagent
highly infectious? antigen
a. Anti-HBcIgM 11. Major advantage of gel technology:
b. HBeAg a. Shorter TAT
c. Anti-HBe b. Shorter incubation
d. HBcAg c. Standardization
4. Which virus does NOT cause transfusion- d. MTs work lessened
transmitted hepatitis? 12. A patient is being transfused with a blood
a. HGV product. Eight minutes later, the patient
b. CMV started experiencing chills. What should be
c. NANBHV done?
d. HAV a. Stop the transfusion and remove the IV line
5. Which organism is NOT generally screened b. Call the attention of the physician in charge
before blood donation but is removed by c. Stop the transfusion but keep the IV line
component preparation? with saline
a. Plasmodium d. Continue with the transfusion
b. CMV 13. Which of the following constitutes the
c. Treponema membrane attack complex of the complement
d. HTLV system?
6. Anti-smooth muscle antibodies (ASMA) are a. C1qrs
primarily seen in: b. C4b2a
a. Chronic active hepatitis c. C5b678
b. Multiple sclerosis d. C3bBb3b
c. Hashimotos thyroiditis 14. Which of the following constitutes the
7. Which hepatitis marker is present during membrane attack complex of the complement
active infection and indicates that patient is system?
highly infectious? a. C1qrs
a. Anti-HBcIgM b. C4b2a
b. HBeAg c. C5b678
c. Anti-HBe d. C3bBb3b
d. HBcAg 15. Who received a Nobel prize because of
8. Which virus does NOT cause transfusion- discovering phagocytosis?
transmitted hepatitis? a. Kholer& Milstein
a. HGV b. SusumoTonegawa
b. CMV c. Edelman & Porter
c. NANBHV d. Ellie Metchnikoff
d. HAV
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16. What is the most common bacterial 26. A donor was deferred by the physician due to
contaminant in blood products? the presence of bluish purple areas under the
a. S. liquefaciens skin of the donor. This is typical of:
a. Syphilis
b. S. epidermidis
b. Herpes simplex
c. Y. enterocolitica c. Candidiasis
d. B. cereus d. Kaposis sarcoma
17. The first recorded blood transfusion in history 27. Year of discovery of the T cell receptor gene:
is between this head of state and three donor. a. 1964
a. Pope John Paul I b. 1974
b. Pope Peter XV c. 1984
c. Pope Pius VII d. 1994
d. Pope Innocent XVI 28. Percentage of B cells present in the circulation
18. This is known as the marker Hepatitis B a. 2-5%
b. 5-10%
infectivity.
c. 10-15%
a. HBsAg
d. 75-85%
b. HBeAg 29. C3b
c. HBcAg a. Anaphylatoxin
d. None of the above b. Opsonin
19. Antibody determinant c. Chemotaxin
a. Paratope d. Cytokine
b. Epitope 30. What is the most common complement
c. Hepatope component deficiency?
d. Kininogen a. C1
20. Which of the following is the most common b. C2
immunodeficiency? c. C3
a. Severe combined immunodeficiency d. C4
31. Which of the following is the most common
b. Selective IgA deficiency
congenital immonudeficiency?
c. X-linked agammaglobulinemia
a. Severe combined immonudeficiency
d. Common variable immunodeficiency b. Selective IgA deficiency
21. The presence of HLA B27 is highly associated c. X-linked agammaglobulinemia
with what disease? d. Common variable immunodeficiency
a. Diabetes mellitus 32. Which disease might be indicated by
b. Arthritic spondylitis antibodies to smooth muscle?
c. Graves disease a. Chronic active hepatitis
d. SLE b. Primary biliary cirrhosis
22. CD8 c. Hashimotos thyroiditis
a. Helper cell d. Myasthenia gravis
b. Cytotoxic cell 33. The most common fungal infection for AIDS
patients is caused by:
c. Null cell
a. Candida albicans
d. Natural killer cell
b. Cryptococcus neoformans
23. CD8
c. Blastomycesdermatitidis
a. Helper cell d. Cryptosporidium parvum
b. Cytotoxic cell 34. This dengue antigen has been detected in the
c. Null cell serum of dengue virus infected patients as
d. Natural killer cell early as 1-day post onset of symptoms (DPO),
24. Major advantage of gel technology: and up to 18 DPO.
a. Decreased sample volume a. NS1
b. Improved productivity b. C
c. Enhanced sensitivity c. E
d. Standardization d. prM
25. Agglutination reaction: Several large clumps 35. These are expressed in the developing fetus
with clear background and in rapidly dividing tissue, such as that
a. 4+ associated with tumors, but that are absent in
b. 3+ normal adult tissue:
c. 2+ a. Oncogenes c. Sarcoma
d. 1+ b. Oncofetal antigens d. Tumor specific Ag
 3

36. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is a/an ___ 46. It is used as the receptor for the sheep red
assay. blood cells (sRBC) for e-rosette assay:
a. Chemical a. CD2
b. Molecular b. CD4
c. Enzymatic c. CD8
d. Biologic d. CD12
37. Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism 47. Chemokines are produced from:
(RFLP) is a/an ___ assay. a. many types of cells
a. Chemical b. T cells
b. Molecular c. B cells
c. Enzymatic
d. None of the above
d. Biologic
38. Hives and itching are under what type of 48. Cytokines are released by:
hypersensitivity? a. T& B cells
a. Type I b. macrophages, T cells, B cells
b. Type II c. T cells & macrophages
c. Type III d. NK cells
d. Type IV 49. Large granular lymphocytes
39. Gamma counter uses these substances as a. NK cells
labels: c. T cells
a. Isotopes
b. B cells
b. Fluorochromes
c. Enzymes d. All of the above
d. Immune complexes 50. Confirmatory test for Qualitative VDRL
40. Treponemapallidum immobilization (TPI) test: A. FTA ABS
10% treponemes are immobilized. Interpret B.Quantitative VDRL
the result. C. Nucleic acid test (NAT)
a. Positive D. Treponemal Culture
b. Negative
51. RPR positive blood bag, what to do next?
c. Doubtful
d. Indeterminate A. Do confirmatory test
41. When reading for a slide agglutination for B.Discard blood bag
Salmonella, macroscopic agglutination is C. Repeat the test
graded as 25%. Interpret. D. Further refrigerate blood bag
a. Non-reactive 52. POC test except?
b. Negative
A. EIA
c. Positive
d. 1+ B.Immunochromatography
42. Other name for HCV RNA: C. Sandwich method
a. Viral clade D. NAT
b. Surface antigen 53. Phagocytosis was discovered by
c. Viral load A. Jules Bordet
d. Core antigen B.Rosalyn Yallow
43. Not included as a Hepatitis B serologic marker:
C. ElieMitchinokoff
a. HBcAg
b. HBeAg D. BarreSinoussi
c. Anti-HBeAg 54. Uses antibody as its carrier and agglutination is
d. Anti-HBcAg observed if antigen is present
44. Autoimmune diseases are mostly associated A. Direct agglutination
with which class of HLA? B.Coagglutination
a. Class I C. Passive
b. Class II
D. Reverse passive
c. Class III
d. Class IV 55. Infection with Mycoplasma pneumoniae gives a
45. Which of the following activates both T and B high titer of:
cells? A. Anti- I
a. Pokeweed mitogen B.Anti- i
b. Lipopolysaccharide C. Anti-P
c. Concanavalin A
D. Anti-PPIPk
d. Phytohemagglutinin
 4

B. Colorectal cancer
56. What is the screening test for HIV? C. Medullary thyroid cancer
A. RIA D. Urinary bladder cancer
B.EIA 66. Anti-microsomal antibodies are found in:
C. Either A. Rheumatoid arthritis
D. Neither B. SLE
57. HIV positive if: C. thyroiditis
A. 1 ELISA/ 2 Western Blot (positive) D. Pernicious anemia
B.2 ELISA/ 2 Western Blot (positive) 67. Serological identity, as shown by smooth curve
C. 2 ELISA/ 1 Western Blot (positive) line, is seen on what precipitation reaction?
D. 1 ELISA/ 2 Western Blot (positive) A. RID
58. What was the test developed by the Venereal B. Ouchterlony Double Diffusion
Disease Research Laboratory? C. Laurell technique
A. RPR D. Immunoelectrophoresis
B.VDRL 68. Which of the ff bands, when present in at least
C. FTA ABS two bands, confirm positive for HIV?
D. All of the above A. p24
59. Found in SLE: B.gp41
a. HLA-DR C. gp120/160
b. HLA-DR2 D. All of the above
c. HLA-DR3 69. HLA-B27 is seen on what condition?
d. HLA-DR4 A. SLE
60. How long is the normal transfusion takes place? B. RA
A. 6 hrs C. Ankylosing spondylitis
B. 4 hrs D. Sjogrens syndrome
C. 3 hrs 70. A titer of 80 in RF latex test means?
D. 5 hrs A. positive
61. Which of the ff Noble prize winners focused on B. weakly positive
the research concerning production of C. negative
monoclonal Abs? D. cannot be determined
A. Jules Bordet 71. Blood group Lutheran is derived from
B. SusumoTonegawa A. Lutheran minister
C. George Kohler and Cesar Milstein B. 1 family with lutheran antigen
D. Paul Ehrlich C. 1 donor named luteran
62. Nephelometry is used to measure? D. Martin Luther
A. Amino acids 72. Function of IL-8
B. Antigens A. Stimulate blood cells
C. Antibodies B. Prevents apoptosis
D. Ag-Ab complexes C. Inflammation
63. Name given to system using bacteria as the inert D. Anti-inflammation
particles to which Ab is attached 73. Temperature of BB refrigerator
A. flocculation A. 2-4F
B. Particle immunoassay B. 1-2F
C. IFA C. 1-6C
D. coagglutination D. 1-10C
64. MalaQuick Standby Malaria Test detects: 74. Replaces minor crossmatch
A. Parasitic LDH A. DAT
B. Histidine Rich protein 2 B. Immediate spin
C. Schuffner dot antigens C. Antibody screen
D. P. vivax and P. ovaleonly D. Serum typing
65. CEA is a tumor marker associated with: 75. Genetic differences in the antibody
A. Breast adenocarcinoma A. ElieMetchinikoff
 5

B. Susumu Tonegawa 85. Which of the following substances gain

C. Karl Landsteiner antigenicity only when coupled to a protein
D. Paul Ehrlich carrier?
a. Agglutinins
76. Helper T cells
b. Agglutinogens
A. CD4+ c. Haptens
B. CD8+ d. Opsonins
C. CD3+ 86. Which of the following is the visible result of an
D. CD2+ antigen-antibody reaction between a soluble
77. C2 deficiency antigen and its specific antibody?
A. Neisseria syndrome a. Sensitization
b. Precipitation
B. Autoimmune disorder
c. Agglutination
C. HANE d. Complement fixation
D. None of the above 87. Which of the following antibodies result from
78. What is an allogeneic blood? exposure to antigenic material from another
A. Blood from children species?
B. Blood from relative a. Heteroantibodies
C. Blood from an individual used for b. Alloantibodies
c. Isoantibodies
transfusion for another individual
d. More than one of the above
D. None 88. Which of the following is true about
79. What is the blood type of a patient w/ acquired B immunoglobulins?
phenomenon? a. Produced by T lymphocytes
A. Group A b. Produced by B lymphocytes thru plasma
B. Group B cells
c. Purified (cloned) from a multiple cell
C. Group C
d. Derived from the thymus and influenced
D. Group D by thymic hormones
80. Most common cause of severe immediate HTR 89. Which of the following is used to confirm a
A. Rh positive screening result in testing a patient for
B. ABO HIV antibody?
C. Kidd a. ELISA
D. Lewis b. Immunofluorescent assay
c. Western blot
81. Rh phenotype of Asian
d. Northern blot
A. DCe 90. Which of the following immunoglobulins can
B. DcE cross the placenta and therefore provides passive
C. DCE immunity to the infant for the first few months of
D. dce life?
82. What are neocytes? a. IgA
A. RBCs from a newborn b. IgD
c. IgG
B. RBCs from cord blood
d. IgM
C. RBCs that are released from BM to the 91. Which of the following immunoglobulins is found
circulation in the greatest amounts in the serum but is the
D. RBCs from fetus smallest in size?
83. Autoantibody in primary biliary cirrhosis a. IgA
A. anti-microsomal b. IgD
c. IgG
B. Anti-mitochondria
d. IgM
C. Anti-smooth muscle 92. When the antigen-antibody complex occurs,
D. Anti-parietal agglutination takes place only if the antigen:
84. Which immunoglobulin is typically found in a. Is a particle such as a bacterium or blood cell
external secretions such as saliva and tears? b. Is soluble
a. IgA c. Both of the above
b. IgE d. Neither of the above
c. IgG 93. The rheumatoid factor in rheumatoid arthritis
d. IgM cannot be associated with which
immunoglobulin?
 6

a. IgA b. transfusion reaction

b. IgE c. anaphylactic reaction
c. IgG d. bacterial septicemia
d. All of the above
103. The most rapid immediate hypersensitivity
94. The most specific assays for human chorionic
gonadotrophin (hCG) use antibody reagents reaction is associated with:
against which subunit of hCG? a. transfusion
a. Alpha b. anaphylaxis
b. Beta c. contact dermatitis
c. Gamma d. serum sickness
d. Chorionic 104. C3b and Fc receptors are present on:
95. The heterophil antibody produced in infectious
a. B lymphocytes
mononucleosis is of which immunoglobulin class?
a. IgA b. monocytes
b. IgD c. B lymphocytes and monocytes
c. IgG d. neither B lymphocytes and
d. IgM monocytes
96. Which of the following is not a characteristic of 105. Which of the following mediators is released
heterophil antibodies produced in infectious during T-cell activation?
mononucleosis?
a. immnunoglobulins
a. Absorbed by guinea pig kidney cells
b. Not absorbed by guinea pig kidney cells b. thymosin
c. Absorbed by beef red cells c. serotonin
d. React with horse, ox, and sheep red cells d. cytokines
97. Which of the following does not characterize T- 106. A patient with a B-cell deficiency will most
lymphocyte function? likely exhibit:
a. Produce and secrete immunoglobulins
a. decreased phagocytosis
b. Develop killer cells that produce cytokines
c. Suppress the immune response b. increased bacterial infections
d. Develop helper cells c. decreased complement levels
98. The primary requirement for a substance to be an d. increased complement levels
antigen in a particular individual is that it must: 107. Tumor markers found in the circulation are
a. Have a large molecular weight most frequently measured by:
b. Be composed of protein and a. immunoassays
polysaccharide
b. thin-layer chromatography
c. Be different from self
d. Have several different combining sites c. high-pressure liquid chromatography
99. Of the circulating lymphocytes in peripheral d. colorimetry
blood, which are in the greatest (80%)? 108. T lymphocytes are incapable of functioning
a. B lymphocytes a. cytotoxic cells
b. T lymphocytes b. helper cells
c. Either c. phagocytic cells
d. neither
d. regulatory cells
100. In certain disease states, what is the
process in which antibodies are made to self- 109. Nonspecific killing of tumor cells is thru:
antigens? a. cytotoxic T cells
a. Autoimmune disease b. helper T cells
b. Infection c. natural killer cells
c. Inflammatory response d. antibody and complements
d. Phagocytosis
110. Which test is used to evaluate the cellular
101. T lymphocytes that posses the CD8 surface
immune system in a patient?
marker mediate which of the ff. T-cell functions?
a. skin test for commonly encountered
a. delayed type hypersensitivity
antigens
b. regulatory
b. determination of
c. cytotoxic
isohemagglutinintiter
d. helper
c. immunoelectrophoresis of serum
102. Delayed hypersensitivity may be induced by:
d. measurement of anti-HBsAg after
a. contact sensitivity to inorganic
immunization
chemicals
 7

d. quantitative serum IgM

determination
118. After penicillin injection, a patient rapidly
111. Which of the following is used to detect develops respiratory distress, vomiting and hives.
allergen specific IgE? This reaction is primarily mediated by:
a. RIST a. IgG
b. IEP b. IgA
c. RAST c. IgM
d. CRP d. IgE
112. Hereditary deficiency of late complement 119. Which of the following activities is
components (C5, C6, C7 and C8) can be associated with C3b?
associated with which of the following a. opsonization
conditions? b. anaphylaxis
a. pneumococcal septicemia c. vasoconstriction
b. small bowel obstruction d. chemotaxis
c. systemic lupus erythematosus 120. Macrophage phagocytosis of bacteria is
d. a systemic gonococcal infection if enhanced by which of the following:
exposed a. opsonin
113. Potent chemotactic activity is associated b. antigen
with which of the following components of the c. hapten
complement system: d. secretory piece
a. C1q 121. Which class of immunoglobulin is thought to
b. C5a function as an antigenic receptor site on the
c. C3b surface of immature B lympocytes?
d. IgG a. IgD
114. Which of the following is the most common b. IgE
humoral immune deficiency disease? c. IgA
a. Brutonagammaglobulinemia d. IgG
b. IgG deficiency 122. Antibodies to which of the following
c. selective IgA deficiency immunoglobulins is known to have produced
d. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome anaphylactic reactions following blood
115. A monoclonal spike of IgG, Bence Jones transfusion?
prteinuria, and bone pain are usually associated a. IgA
with: b. IgD
a. Burkitt lymphoma c. IgE
b. Bruton disease d. IgG
c. severe combined immunodeficiency 123. Polyclonal B cell activation:
disease a. inhibits antibody production
d. multiple myeloma b. requires the participation of T helper
116. The serological test that can be modified to cells
selectively detect only specific IgM antibody in c. results from the activation of
untreated serum is: suppresor T cells
a. ouchterlony d. can induce autoantibody production
b. enzyme immunoassay 124. Treatment of IgG with papain results in how
c. hemagglutination inhibition many fragments from each immunoglobulin
d. passive hemagglutination molecule?
a. 2
117. A single, reliable screening test for detecting b. 3
neonatal infection in the absence of clinical signs c. 4
a. serum immunoelectrophoresis d. 5
b. differential leukocyte count
c. CD4 cell counts
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125. A bacterial protein used to bind human 132. A substrate is first exposed to a patients
immunoglobulins is: serum, then after washing, anti-human
a. HAV antibody, IgA type immunoglobulin labeled with a fluorochrome is
b. Escherichia coli protein C added. The procedure described is:
c. staphylococcal protein A a. fluorescent quenching
d. HAV antibody, IgG type b. direct fluorescence
126. The following procedure has been routinely c. indirect fluorescence
used for detection of hepatitis B surface antigen d. none of the above
(HBsAg) because of its high level of sensitivity: 133. In the indirect immunofluorescence method
a. hemagglutination of antibody detection in patient serum, the
b. counterimmunoelectrophoresis labeled antibody is:
c. radial immunodiffusion a. human anti-goat immunoglobulin
d. ELISA b. rheumatoid factor
127. The most important use of nontreponemal c. goat anti-human immunoglobulin
antibody (NTA) test alone is in: d. complement
a. establishing the diagnosis of acute 134. The specificity of an immunoassay is
active syphilis determined by the:
b. establishing the diagnosis of chronic a. label used on the antigen
syphilis b. method used to seperate the bound
c. evaluating the success of therapy from free antigen
d. determining the prevalence of c. antibody used in the assay
disease in the general population d. concentration of unlabeled antigen
128. Immunoassay are based on the principle of: 135. Is assessing the usefulness of a new
a. separation of bound and free analyte laboratory test, sensitivity is defined as the
b. antibody recognition of homologous percentage of:
antigen a. positive specimens correctly
c. protein binding to isotopes identified
d. production of antibodies against b. false-positive specimens
drugs c. negative specimens correctly
129. Which of the following is most useful in identified
establishing a diagnosis in the convalescence d. false-negative specimens
phase of a viral infection? 136. A 25-year old woman is seen by a physician
a. slide culture because of Raynaud phenomenon, myalgias,
b. serological techniques arthralgias and difficulty in swallowing. There is
c. shell vial no evidence of renal disease. An ANA titer is
d. culture on McCoy media 1:5120 with a speckled pattern with mitotic.
130. The enzyme control tube in an ASO Which of the following are also likely to be found
hemolytic assay exhibits no cell lysis. What is the in this patient?
most likely explanation for this? a. high-level nDNA antibody and a low
a. incorrect pH of buffer CH50 level
b. low ionic strength buffer b. high-level Sm antibody
c. oxidation of the enzyme c. high-titer rheumatoid factor
d. reduction of the enzyme d. high-level ribonucleoprotein (RNP)
131. Cholesterol is added to the antigen used in antibody
flocculation tests for syphilis to: 137. In primary biliary cirrhosis, which of the
a. destroy tissue impurities present in following antibodies is seen in high titers?
the alcoholic beef heart extract a. antimitochondrial
b. sensitize the sheep RBCs b. anti-smooth muscle
c. decrease specificty of the antigen c. anti-DNA
d. increase sensitivity of the antigen d. anti-perietal cell
 9

138. High titers of antimicrosomal antibodies are 146. What is the purpose of anti-sheep hemolysin in
a complement fixation test?
most often found in:
a. sensitizes sheep red blood cells
a. rheumatoid arthritis b. hemolyzes sheep red blood cells
b. systemic lupus erythematosus c. agglutinates sheep red blood cells
c. chronic hapatitis d. neutralizes patient antibody
d. thyroid disease 147. In the VDRL test, a zonal reaction usually
139. Rheumatoid factors are immunoglobulins appears as which of the following results?
with specificity for allotypic determinants located a. reactive
b. non-reactive
on the:
c. weakly reactive
a. Fc fragment of IgG d. any of the above
b. Fab fragment of IgG 148. How would the following DVRL quantitative test
c. J chain of IgM be reported?
d. secretory of component of IgA
140. Which of the following is the most sensitive 1:1 1:2 1:4 1:8 1:16 1:32 1:64 1:128
and appropriate method for the detection of
W W R R R R W N
rheumatoid factor?
a. nephelometry a. Reactive 4 dils
b. immunofixation electrophoresis b. Reactive 32 dils
c. immunoflourescence c. Reactive 64 dils
d. manual latex agglutination d. Cannot be reported
141. Autoantibodies in the absence of Sm are 149. The quantitative VDRL test is performed on all
sera in which the qualitative VDRL test is
found in patients with:
a. Nonreactive
a. mixed connective tissue disease b. Reactive
b. systemic lupus erythematosus c. Weakly reactive
c. Crohn disease d. Either reactive or weakly reactive
d. Multiple myeloma 150. The Treponemapallidum Immobilization (TPI)
142. Which of the following is decreased in serum test requires
a. reagin
during the active stages of systemic lupus
b. an extract of a pathogenic terponeme
erythematosus? c. Treponemapallidum fixed on a slide
a. anti-nuclear antibody d. living Treponemapallidum
b. immune complexes 151. Which of the following serves as the absorbent
c. complement (C3) in the Fluorescent Treponemal Antibody Test-
d. anti-DNA Absorbed (FTA-ABS) test?
143. In the anti-double-stranded DNA procedure, a. Reiters treponema
b. Treponemamicrodentium
the antigen most commonly utilized is:
c. Treponemapallidum, Nichols strains
a. rat stomach tissue d. Treponemapertenue
b. mouse kidney tissue 152. The fluorescein-antihuman gamma globulin
c. Crithidialucilae used in the FTA-ABS test
d. Toxoplasma gondii a. makes the antigen-antibody reaction
144. Interferon can be produced by which of the visible
following? b. is added to the serum before the antigen
a. macrophages is added
b. T lymphocytes c. is added to the antigen before the serum
c. virus-infected cells is added
d. all of the above d. makes the antibody visible
145. When a precipitation reaction is converted to
agglutination by increasing the size of the 153. The reaction on DNA-methyl green substrates
antigen particles, the test is then referred to as when testing for the presence of anti-DNase (anti-
a. direct agglutination streptodomase) are
b. optimal agglutination a. blue (+) yellow (-)
c. indirect (passive)agglutination b. red (+) orange (-)
d. prozone reaction c. green (+) colorless (-)
 10

d. purple (+) yellow (-)

154. Brucellaabortus will cross-react with antibodies 163. Which of the following refers to the reaginic
of antibody?
a. Salmonella typhi a) IgA
b. Proteus vulgaris b) IgG
c. Streptococcus pneumoniae c) IgM
d. Franciscellatularensis d) IgE
155. Which of the following methods has a high 164. Which of the following statements is false about
degree of specificity when typing the herpes an anamnestic response versus a primary
simplex virus (HSV)? response?
a. direct fluorescent antibody a) Has a shorter lag phase
b. cell culture b) Has a longer plateau
c. enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay c) Antibodies decline more gradually
(ELISA) d) IgG antibodies predominate
d. cell typing 165. Antigen is to antibody, epitope is to__
156. Cytomegalovirus (CMV)infection can be a) antigenic determinant
diagnosed by which of the following serological b) hapten
tests? c) Fab
a. IgM and IgG antibody testing d) TCR
b. cell culture 166. Diapedesis is described as
c. direct fluorescent antibody test a) migration of phagocytes along blood vessel
d. indirect human globulin test wall
157. Which of the following is a good screening test
b) attraction of phagocytes to site of injury
for determining immunity to the rubella virus?
a. Direct agglutination c) cell movement to a certain direction under
b. Complement fixation stimulation of chemical substance
c. IgG antibody test d) engulfment of foreign substance
d. IgM antibody test 167. Which class of antigens is necessary for
158. Blood donors should be routinely tested for antigen recognition by CD4 positive T cells?
acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) and a) Class I
a. Varicella zoster virus
b) Class II
b. Herpes simplex virus
c. Cytomegalovirus c) Class III
d. Rubella virus d) No MHC molecule is necessary for antigen
159. The best serological method used to test for a recognition
rubella virus infection is the 168. Which IgG subclass is MOST efficient at
a. complement fixation test crossing placenta?
b. direct fluorescent antibody test a) IgG1
c. indirect fluorescent antibody test
b) IgG2
d. enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay test
160. A positive anti-ribonucleoprotein (anti-RNP) in c) IgG3
the antinuclear antibody group is suggestive of d) IgG4
which autoimmune disease? 169. A graft between genetically unidentical
a. mixed connective tissue disease (MCTD) individual of the same species
b. rheumatoid arthritis (RA) a) autograft
c. scleroderma
b) isograft
d. systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
161. What is the most common complement c) allograft
deficiency? d) xenograft
a) C2 170. Considered to be non self
b) C3 a) antigen
c) C4 b) immunogen
d) C1INH c) antibody
162. C3 convertase in classical pathway
d) hapten
a) C4b2a
b) C3bBb 171. Genetic differences in the antibody
c) C4b2a3b a) ElieMetchinikoff
d) C3bBb3b b) Susumu Tonegawa
c) Karl Landsteiner
 11

d) Paul Ehrlich 180. Serologic profile of chronic active hepatitis

172. Which of the following complement due to HBV
components is a strong chemotactic factor as a) HBs Ag (+), total anti-HBc (+), HBe Ag (+)
well as strong anaphylatoxin? b) HBs Ag (+), total anti-HBc (+), anti-HBe (+)
a) C3a c) HBs Ag (-), anti-HBcIgM (+), antiHBs (-)
b) C3b d) HBs Ag (-), anti-HBc (+), anti-HBe (+)
c) C5a 181. Which of the following bands, when present
d) C4a in at least two bands, confirm positive for HIV?
173. Which of the following is considered to be a) p24
nd
2 line of defense against pathogens? b) gp 41
a) intact skin c) gp 120/160
b) cell mediated immunity d) all of the above
c) phagocytosis 182. Found in RA:
d) humoral immunity A. HLA-DR
174. Phagocytic cells EXCEPT: B. HLA-DR2
a) lymphocytes C. HLA-DR3
b) eosinophils D. HLA-DR4
c) monocytes 183. HLA-B8 is found in:
d) neutrophils A. Myasthenia gravis
175. Which method can be used to cross-match B. Hashimotos
recipients and organ donors for HLA-D C. Addisons
compatibility? D. Crohns
a) Flow cytometry 184. A titer of 20 in RF latex test means?
b) Primed lymphocyte test A. positive
c) Mixed lymphocyte culture B. weakly positive
d) Restriction fragment length polymorphism C. negative
176. Found to be seen in patients with systemic D. cannot be determined
lupus erythematosus (SLE): 185. What is the most common complement
a) decreased C1, C2 deficiency?
b) high titers of DNA antibody A. C2
c) marked decrease in serum CH50 B.C3
d) all of the above C. C4
177. Which of the following heterophile Abs is D. C1INH
adsorbed only by beef erythrocytes? 186. C3 convertase in classical pathway
a) Forssman A. C4b2a
b) Serum sickness B. C3bBb
c) Infectious mononucleosis C. C4b2a3b
d) Neurosyphilis D. C3bBb3b
178. MalaQuick test Standby test detects: 187. Alfred Nisonoff used the enzyme pepsin to
a) Parasitic LDH obtain evidences on structure of
b) Histidine rich protein 2 immunoglobulins. The enzyme can be used
c) Schuffner dot antigens cleaves antibodies into?
d) P. vivax and P. ovale only A. 2Fab, 1Fc
179. In heterophile differential test, absorption B.1 F(ab)2 and 1 Fc
will _________ agglutination. C. 1Fab and 1Fc
a) increase D. 1Fab and 1Fc
b) decrease
c) no effect
d) dissolve
 12

188. Antibodies 196. Which of the following complement

A. are synthesized and secreted by both B components is a strong chemotactic factor as
and T cells well as strong anaphylatoxin?
B. bind to several different epitopes A. C3a
simultaneously B. C3b
C. contain four different light chain C. C5a
polypeptides D. C4a
D. tag antigens for destruction and removal 197. Which one of the following properties of
189. Which of the following statements is false antibodies is NOT dependent on the structure of
about an anamnestic response versus a primary the heavy chain constant region?
response? A. ability to cross placenta
A. Has a shorter lag phase B. affinity for antigen
B. Has a longer plateau C. isotype class
C. Antibodies decline more gradually D. ability to fix complement
D. IgM antibodies predominate 198. Which of the following is considered to be
nd
190. Antigen is to antibody, epitope is to__ 2 line of defense against pathogens?
A. antigenic determinant A. intact skin
B. hapten B. cell mediated immunity
C. Fab C. phagocytosis
D. TCR D. humoral immunity
191. Diapedesis is described as 199. For an antibody-coated antigen to be
A. migration of phagocytes along blood phagocytized, what part of the antibody molecule
vessel wall fits into a receptor on the phagocytic cell?
B. attraction of phagocytes to site of injury A. Fab region
C. cell movement to a certain direction under B. Hinge region
stimulation of chemical substance C. Variable region
D. engulfment of foreign substance D. Fc region
192. Which class of antigens is necessary for 200. Which class of HLA antigens is found on
antigen recognition by CD4 positive T cells? antigen presenting cells?
A. Class I A. HLA-A
B. Class II B. HLA-B
C. Class III C. HLA-C
D. No MHC molecule is necessary for antigen D. HLA-D
recognition 201. It is important to note that when an infant is
193. Which IgG subclass is MOST efficient at born, level of specific antibody of the following
crossing placenta? class are used to indicate neonatal infection
A. IgG1 A. IgA
B. IgG2 B. IgM
C. IgG3 C. IgG
D. IgG4 D. IgD
194. A graft between genetically unidentical 202. Which method can be used to cross-match
individual of the same species recipients and organ donors for HLA-D
A. autograft compatibility?
B. isograft A. Flow cytometry
C. allograft B. Primed lymphocyte test
D. xenograft C. Mixed lymphocyte culture
195. Considered to be non self D. Restriction fragment length polymorphism
A. antigen 203. Found to be seen in patients with systemic
B. immunogen lupus erythematosus (SLE):
C. antibody A. decreased C1, C2
D. hapten B. high titers of DNA antibody
C. marked decrease in serum CH50
 13

D. all of the above 212. In HAI for Rubella antibodies, a titer of 8 is

204. First to spread typhoid fever: considered
A. WIDAL a. positive
b. reactivated
B. ROSALYN
c. negative
C. MARY d. recovery
D. JULES 213. Type IV HPS reaction includes
205. Autoantibody which binds to the Fc portion a. tuberculin skin test
of IgG molecule b. urticarial and contact dermatitis
A. anti-RNA c. contact dermatitis
B. anti-nuclear antibody d. tuberculin &contact dermatitis
214. Has a role in opsonization and ADCC
C. rheumatoid factor
a. IgM
D. anti-DNA antibody b. IgD
206. Which of the following heterophile Abs is c. IgG
adsorbed only by beef erythrocytes? d. IgA
A. Forssman 215.IgE binds to the Fc portion of
B. Serum sickness a. mast cells
C. Infectious mononucleosis b. precursor cells
c. macrophage
D. Neurosyphilis
d. PMN
207. In the anti-double stranded DNA procedure, 216. CD4 positive cells EXCEPT
the antigen most commonly utilized is: a. TDTH cells
A. Toxoplasma gondii b. TC
B. Crithidialucilae c. TS
C. mouse kidney tissue d. all of the above
217. Most specific assay for HCV
D. rat stomach tissue
a. EIA
208. Serologic test that employs Phase Contrast b. HCV RNA
Microscope: c. western Blot
A. FTA-ABS d. RIBA
B. Anti-dsDNA test 218. Endotheliaal leukocytes adhesion molecule
C. Mixed Lymphocyte Culture test (ELAM-1) plays a role in :
D. Microlymphocytotoxicity test a. diapedesis
b. complement binding
209. HIV Viral load test
c. chemotaxis
A. ELISA d. opsonization
B. C. Western Blot 219. In flow cytometry, fluorescence is detected and
C. IFAT collected by sensors placed at
D. . PCR a. 45C
210. Associated with 10% post transfusion b. 95C
hepatitis c. 90C
A. HAV d. 180C
B. C. HCV 220. Gundersen test is for
C. HBV a. treponemacidalAb
D. D. HDV b. leptospiralAb
211. HLA type associated with multiple sclerosis c. borreliacidalAb
A. HLA- B7 d. brucellocidal AB
C. HLA-DR2 221. Marker of low level HBV carrier
B. HLA- B8 a. Hbs Ag
D. HLA DR4 b. anti-HBcIgM
211. Transfusion transmitted diseases hence c. anti-HBs
homologous donor testing are required EXCEPT d. anti-HBe
a. CMV 222. Cytotoxic reactions are characterized by
b. YFV interaction of:
c. HTLV1 and HTLV 2 A. IgG to cell bound antigen
d. WNV B. IgM or IgG to cell bound antigen
C. IgM to soluble antigen
D. IgG to soluble antigen
 14

223. A highly specific indicator for rheumatoid b. breast cancer

arthritis c. hepatocellular
A. rheumatoid factor d. ovarian cancer
B. C reactive protein 233. Staining pattern of CREST syndrome in indirect
C. cyclic citrullinated peptide antibody fluorescent antibody test
D. hypocomplementia a. centromere
224. Anti-microsomal antibodies (+) b. nucleolar
A. SLE c. speckled
B. RA d. peripheral
C. Chronic hepatitis 234. What stage of T cells development releases
D. Hashimotos disease lymphokines?
225. Arrange the steps of phagocytosis in the proper a. activated T cells
order b. sensitized T cells
1. initiation and chemotaxis c. mature T cells
2. digestion and destruction d. plasma cells
3. engulfment 235. Inadequate washing causes
4. adherence a. false positive
5. phagosome formation b. either
6. fusion (phagolysosome) c. false negative
A. 1-3-4-5-6-2 d. neither
C. 1-4-3-5-6-2 236. LE like syndrome is seen in what compliment
B. 1-3-5-6-2-4 deficiencies?
D. 1-4-3-6-5-2 a. C1
226. Which type of cancer is associated with the b. C8
highest level of Nuclear matrix protein (NMP)? c. C5
A. Ovarian cancer d. C7
B. Urinary bladder cancer 237. Which of the following hepatitis virus belongs to
C. Testicular cancer flaviviridae family?
D. Breast cancer a. HAV
227. For the PCR reaction to take place, one must b. HCV
provide: c. HBV
A. Oligonucelotide primer d. HCV and HGV
B. Sample DNA 238. An employee who receives an accidental
C. DNA polymerase needle-stick should immediately
D. All of the above
228. The production of antibodies by B cells is turned a. Apply sodium hypochlorite to the area
off by? b. Notify a supervisor
A. suppressor cells c. Receive HIV prophylaxis
B. cytotoxic cells d. Receive a hepatitis B booster shot
C. B lymphocytes
D. helper T cells 239. How do heterogeneous assays differ from
229. PNH is associated with what complement homogeneous assays?
component? a. Heterogeneous assays require a
A. C2 separation step
B. DAF b. Heterogeneous assays are easier to
C. C3 perform than homogeneous assays
D. C1 INH
c. The concentration of patient analyte is
230. Who constructed the structure of antibodies?
A. ElieMitchnikoff directly proportional to bound label in
C. Karry Mullis homogeneous assays
B. Porter and Endelman d. Homogeneous assays are more sensitive
D. SusumoTonegawa than heterogeneous ones.
231. Staining pattern of anti-Sm in indirect 240. Which of the following best characterizes
fluorescent antibody test
a. peripheral chemiluminescent assays?
b. nucleolar a. Only the antigen can be labeled
c. speckled b. Tasts can be read manually
d. homogenous c. These are only homogeneous assays
232. CEA is marker for what cancer?
a. gastrointestinal d. A chemical oxidized to produce light
 15

241. The serum of an individual who received all 249. Function of IL-8
doses of the hepatitis B vaccine should contain a. Stimulate blood cells
a) Anti-HBs b. Prevents apoptosis
b) Anti-HBe c. Inflammation
c) Anti-HBc d. Anti-inflammation
d) All of the above 250. CD 34:
242. The most common cause of congenital a. HSC
infections is b. B cells
a) CMV c. T cells
d. Megakaryocyte
b) Rubella
251. Part of the light chains of MHC class I.
c) VZV a. acid-1-glycoprotein
d) HTLV-1 b. beta-2-microglobulin
243.A double positive result on a screening test c. serum amyloid A
d. alpha-2-macroglobulin
for HTLV-III antibody
252. Fluorescent label attached to an antibody
a) Is highly specific for HTLV-I infection against the antigen-antibody complex
b) Should be followed by PCR a. Indirect
c) Must be confirmed by Western blot b. Direct
c. Inhibition
d) Must be confirmed by viral culture
d. NOTA
244. HIV virions bind to host T cells through 253. Indicates active infection and infectious state:
which receptors? a. HBs Ag
a) CD4 and CD8 b. HBe Ag
c. anti-HBc
b) CD4 and the IL-2 receptor
d. anti-HBe
c) CD4 and CXCR4 254. Fluoroscent stained specimens are visualized
d) CD8 and CCR2 using what type of microscope?
245. Enhancement of phagocytosis by coating of a. brightfield
b. darkfield
foreign particles with serum proteins is called c. phase contrast
A. opsonization d. polarizing
B. agglutination 255. Part of antibody which binds foreign substance:
C. solubilization a. Epitope
b. Paratope
D. chemotaxis c. Hinge region
246.Which of the following peripheral blood d. Fc region
cells plays a key role in killing of parasites? 256. This is where the antibody binds to the antigen.
a. Neutrophils a. Carrier
b. Schlepper
b. Monocytes c. Deteminant
c. Lymphocytes d. Fab region
d. Eosinophils 257. Which among the following disease is associated
247. The immune mechanism of this with anti-dsDNA and anti-phospholipid antibodies?
a. SLE
hypersensitivity reaction is characterized by the T-
b. RA
cells release of cytokines.
c. MM
a) Type I
d. MS
b) Type II
= end of exam=
c) Type III
d) Type IV
248.Who among the following was the first to
transfuse blood from animals to humans?
a. Jean Baptiste Denis
b. Richard Lower
c. James Blundell
d. Edward Lindemann