Poison ivy hypersensitivity reaction is classified as

a) Type I
b) Type II
c) Type III
d) Type IV
Which condition is COMMONLY linked with the PRESENCE of HLA –
B8?
a) Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)
b) Hashimoto disease
c) Ankylosing spondylitis
d) Myasthenia graves

Which of the following qualitative methods is MOST sensitive to

establish a PRESUMPTIVE diagnosis of a rheumatoid arthritis?
a) Latex agglutination
b) Immunoelectrophoresis
c) RID
d) ELISA

Which is most likely a positive Western blot

result for infection with HIV?
a) Band at p24
b) Band at gp60
c) Bands at p24 and p31
d) Bands at p24 and gp120

The antibody formerly known as the reagenic antibody is:

a) IgG
b) IgA
c) IgM
d) IgE

SLE patients often demonstrate

a) high titer of anti - microsomal antibody
b) high titer of anti - DNA antibody
c) decreased serum immunoglobulin
d) high titer of anti - smooth muscle antibody

The term POSITIVE selection in T - cell differentiation occurs in

a) Bone marrow
b) Lymph nodes
c) Thymus
d) Spleen

What is the immune phenomenon associated with Arthus reaction?

a) Tissue destruction by cytotoxic T cells
b) Release of histamine from mast cell
c) Removal of antibody coated red blood
d) Deposition of immune complexes in blood vessels

Antigens that DO NOT share common epitopes would demonstrate a

______in a passive double diffusion
a) Serologic identity with crossed lines
b) Non - identity showing arc lines
c) A pattern of crossed lines
d) A fusion of two lines with a spur
Which of the following is NOT a PRIMARY role of a complement
pathway?
a) Induction of an antiviral state
b) Opsonization
c) Chemotaxis
d) Anaphylatoxin formation

Which specific component of the adaptive immune system is formed in

response to antigenic stimulation?
a) Lysozyme
b) Complement
c) Commensal organisms
d) Immunoglobulin

Which of the following substances can be found in an RPR?

a) Charcoal
b) Cardiolipin
c) Both A and B
d) Neither
What type of hypersensitivity reaction is exhibited by a hemolytic
disease of the newborn
a) Type I
b) Type II
c) Type III
d) Type IV

The Weil-Felix test used in the diagnosis of ricketssial infections

makes use of OX - 19 antigen obtained from
a) Sheep red blood cells
b) Proteus mirabilis
c) Proteus vulgaris
d) Staphylococcus aureus

Which of the following makes up the basis for an Antibody idiotype?

a) Constant region of heavy chain
b) Constant region of light chain
c) Constant regions of heavy and light chains - Allotype
d) Variable regions of heavy and light chains

Which of the following is also known as an epitope?

a) Antigenic determinant
b) Paratope
c) Allotype
d) Immunogen

Which of the following would represent A DOUBLE-

NEGATIVE thymocyte?
a) CD2–CD3+CD4–CD8+
b) CD2–CD3+CD4+CD8–
c) CD2+CD3–CD4–CD8–
d) CD2+CD3+CD4+CD8–

The J - chain in the structure of immunology can be found in

a) IgA
b) IgM
c) IgG
 d) Either A or B
Which of the following explains the difference between type II and
type III hypersensitivity reactions
a) Type II involves cellular antigens.
b) Type III involves IgE.
c) IgG is involved only in type III reactions.
d) Type II reactions involve no antibody.

Which cluster of differentiation (CD) marker appears during the first

stage of T-cell development and remains present as an identifying
marker for T cells?
a) CD1
b) CD2
c) CD45
d) CD4 or CD8

Prozone reaction in serologic testing can be corrected by

a) adding more of the serum
b) diluting the antigen
c) diluting the serum
d) inactivating the sample

Which of the following CD4:CD8 ratio is SUGGESTIVE of an AIDS

condition
a) 2:1
b) 3:1
c) 1:4
d) 1:2

Which antibodies are attributed to Mycoplasma spp. infection?

a) Cold agglutinins
b) Warm agglutinins
c) HDN and HTFR associated antibodies
d) IgG and Transplacental antibodies

In - vivo sensitization is BEST detected by

a) enzyme treatment
b) indirect Coomb's test
c) direct Coomb's test
d) determination of antibody titer in serum

The principle of indirect anti-human globulin test can be applied in (I)

Cross - matching (II) Antibody screening (III) RBC phenotyping (IV)
Antibody detection
a) I only
b) I and II only
c) I, II and III
d) I, II, III and IV

Which of the following enzymes is used to detect the PRESENCE of H.

pylori infections?
a) DNAse
b) Urease
c) Streptokinase
d) Hyaluronidase
The standard screening test used for HIV infection is
a) Western Blot
b) Northern Blot
c) ELISA
d) Immuno-fluorescence assay

Which type of lymphocyte makes up the MAJORITY of the circulating

lymphocytes population?
a) Natural Killer cell
b) T lymphocytes
c) B lymphocytes
d) Option 4

How is Radioimmunoassay measured?

a) Spectrophotometer
b) Luminometer
c) Fluorescence microscope
d) Scintillation counter

Which of the following is NOT a PRIMARY role of a T - lymphocyte?

a) Cytotoxic cells
b) Helper cells
c) Phagocytic cells
d) Regulatory cells

The principle of the classic ASO Tube test is based on

a) Hemagglutination of red cells when antibodies are present
b) Neutralization of the hemolytic activity of Streptolysin O
c) Flocculation reaction when S. pyogenes antigen is present
d) Hemolysis reaction of antibody when Streptococcus antigen is present

The three complement activation pathways converge at the point of

cleavage of complement component
a) C3
b) C5
c) C&
d) C8

The serum of an individual who received all doses of the hepatitis B

vaccine should contain
a) anti-HBs
b) anti-HBe
c) anti-HBc
d) All of the choices

A poly-specific antiglobulin reagent contains

a) Anti - IgG and Anti - C3d
b) Anti - IgG or Anti - C3d
c) Anti - IgG
d) Anti - C3d

Which of the following is detected in Flocculation tests for syphilis?

a) Reagin
b) Antigen
c) Hemolysin
d) Forssman antigen
Heterophile antibodies produced in infectious mononucleosis would
result to an agglutination reaction with
a) Sheep red blood cell
b) Human red blood cell
c) Beef red blood cell
d) Horse red blood cell

Which of the following conditions is linked with an

abnormal PRESENCE of an Anti-glomerular basement membrane?
a) Good Pasture Disease
b) SLE
c) Celiac disease
d) Myasthenia graves

Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is COMMONLY associated with

a) Colon cancer
b) Pancreatic cancer
c) Breast cancer
d) Prostate cancer

The antigen used in RPR circle card test consists of

a) Cardiolipin with charcoal particles
b) Cholesterol and Treponemal lectins
c) Charcoal particles
d) Treponemal pallidum antigen

Immunity conferred after recovering from past hepatitis B infection

should demonstrate;
a) HBsAg (+), anti-HBsAg (+), HBc (-), HBe(-)
b) HBsAg (+), anti-HBsAg (-), anti-HBc (-)
c) HBsAg (-), anti-HBsAg (+), anti-HBc (+)
d) HBsAg (-), anti-HBsAg (-), anti-HBc (-), HBc(-)

The part of an antibody also known as the antigen - binding site which
recognizes and binds to an antigen is COMMONLY referred to as the
a) Epitope
b) Paratope
c) Phenotope
d) Antitope

A substance, distinct from antigen, that enhances T cell activation by

promoting the accumulation of APCs at a site of antigen exposure and
by enhancing the expression of co-stimulators and cytokines by the
APCs BEST describes the
a) hapten
b) vaccine
c) adjuvant
d) carrier

The ENHANCEMENT of phagocytosis by coating of foreign particles

with serum proteins is called:
a) Opsonization
b) Agglutination
c) Solubilization
d) Chemotaxis
Which of the following conditions is MOST LIKELY linked with a
deficiency of a Decay Accelerating Factor?
a) Hereditary angioedema
b) PNH
c) PCH
d) Neisseria infection

How many fragments of the Immunoglobulins are formed following an

enzymatic digestion of Ig using PAPAIN?
a) 3 (1 Fc’ + 2 F(ab)^2)
b) 3 (2 Fab + 1 Fc)
c) 2 (1 Fc’ + 1 F(ab)^2)
d) 2 (1 Fab + 1 Fc)

In agglutination reaction the titer of antibody is detected at the

a) dilution where the strongest agglutination occurs
b) highest dilution where agglutination occurs
c) dilution where a negative agglutination occurs after the last positive tube
d) highest dilutions where a mixed field agglutination occurs

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Direct agglutination test detects coating of red cells by
a) IgG
b) Polyspecific antigens
c) Monospecific immunogens
d) All of the above

In chronic active hepatitis, high titers of which of the following

antibodies are seen?
a) Anti-smooth muscle
b) Antimitochondrial
c) Anti-DNA
d) Anti-parietal cell

Which of the following MHC Class is MORE INVOLVED in endogenous

organism?
a) MHC Class I
b) MHC Class II
c) MHC Class III
d) MHC Class IV

In vivo sensitization of RBC is BEST detected by

a) enzyme treatment
b) indirect Coomb’s
c) direct Coomb's
d) Antibody titer

Which substance is also contained in a Rapid Plasma Reagin (RPR)

antigen aside from cardiolipin?
a) Tanned sheep RBC
b) TRITC
c) Charcoal particles
d) Fluorescein isothiocyanate