Project Management Professionals Mock Exam - Questions

Project Management Professional Mock Exam - Questions

1. A Project manager for a large international bank has a project team that just
implemented an electronic funds project involving four large vendors. The project
manager struggled through every phase of the procurement process since the bank
had a weak internal contracts department. What would be the MOST appropriate
thing to do to ensure the problems are resolved for future projects?
A. Conduct a procurement audit.
B. Include an agenda item in the project closedown to discuss these issues in a
non-threatening manner.
C. Address this through contract change control.
D. Document all of the issues in a memo and schedule a meeting with the head of
the contract office.

2. To assess the implications of crashing a project, a project manager should first

compute:
A. The time estimates for each critical path activity.
B. The cost of additional resources to be added to the project’s critical path.
C. The cost and time slope for each critical activity that can be expedited.
D. The time that will be saved in the overall schedule when tasks are expedited on
the critical path.

3. While taking over an agile project as a scrum master, you are being asked by the
sponsor on whether the new requirement is within scope. What should you do next?:
A. Review with project charter on scope coverage
B. Understand maturity of the company in implementing agile project
C. Refer to question to the Product Owner to decide
D. Refer to project team to decide

4. Which of the followings project development life cycle have fixed requirements?
A. Iterative
B. Predictive
C. Incremental
D. Agile

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5. While the team is busy on development work, they realised that there are 2
compliance standards and not sure on which to follow. What should they do?
A. Approach the scrum master
B. Approach the product owner as compliance standard is vital for product
development
C. Resolve themselves as this forms part of development issue
D. Approach compliance as this is a more direct and effective communication

6. A project’s culture can affect its success significantly during several life cycle
phases. As manager of an international project with a team of people representing
diverse cultures, you should create an environment that maximized team efforts as
the project progresses. Although most people view the values of other cultures in
terms of their own culture, a project’s cultural emphasis will change during different
life cycle phases. During the closing project phase, the emphasis basically is:
A. Focused on information transfer.
B. Competitive
C. Participative
D. Cooperative

7. If, when developing a project schedule, you want to define a distribution of probable
results for each activity and use it to calculate a distribution of probable results for
the total project, the most common technique to use is:
A. Concurrent engineering.
B. Critical path method
C. Resource leveling
D. Monte Carlo analysis

8. If there is new user requirements to be added into the project, which document
should be added into?
A. Product backlog and user backlog
B. Spring backlog
C. User story
D. Both product backlog and sprint backlog

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9. Please names the Tuckman stage which require direction from project manager only
for vital decision
A. Forming
B. Storming
C. Norming
D. Performing

10. You are a project manager for a major information systems project when someone
from the quality department comes to see you about beginning a quality audit of
your project. The team, already under pressure to complete the project as soon as
possible, objects to the audit. You should explain to the team that the purpose of a
quality audit is:
A. to identify lessons learned that can improve performance on project.
B. to check if customer is following its quality process.
C. to check if accuracy of costs submitted by the team.
D. part of an ISO 9000 investigation.

11. In order for the project manager to fully and effectively understand a stakeholder’s
personal concerns or grievances it may necessary to:
A. Schedule a project review session with the entire project team.
B. Attempt to empathize with the stakeholder.
C. Involve the project sponsor as an arbitrator.
D. Ask for a written description of the problem and submit to the project office.

12. The sponsor and others in your organization are repeatedly requesting changes.
When you try to implement some of the changes, you discover the current contract
does not include a budget for evaluating changes. What should you do?
A. Negotiate with the sponsor to decide how to remedy this problem.
B. Tell the sponsor there is no budget for changes in the project.
C. Take the matter directly to your contracting/ legal department.
D. Ask senior management for more money from the company’s reserve.

13. Which of the following best describes how cost variances will be managed?
A. Cost estimate
B. Cost baseline
C. Cost management plan
D. Chart of accounts

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14. All of the following are the responsibility of a project manager except which of the
following?
A. Ensure that a legal conflict of interest does not compromise the legitimate
interest of the customer.
B. Provide accurate and truthful representations in cost estimates.
C. Maintain the confidentiality of customer confidential information.
D. Determine the legality of company procedures.

15. All of the following statements regarding configuration management systems is true
except:
A. Contains specification of both deliverables and processes
B. Identifying , documenting and controlling changes to project and product
baselines
C. Provides the mechanism for the project management team to consistently
communicate all approved and rejected changes to the stakeholders.
D. Configuration management system record decision of specification approval.

16. A project team includes five people. When the project manager adds two more, how
many additional channels of communication are there?
A. 11
B. 10
C. 7
D. 21

17. While performing project, developers realize areas where they have insufficient
knowledge. Who is held responsible for identifying training need and budgeting for
related activities?
A. Project member?
B. Project Manager
C. Training department of the company
D. Sponsor

18. All the following are general characteristics of a project with the exception of
which of the following?
A. A project is made up of interrelated activities.
B. A project has a definite beginning and end.
C. A project repeats itself every month.
D. A project is temporary.
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19. Your organization is having a difficult time managing all of its projects. You have
been asked to help senior management get a better understanding of the problems.
What is the most important thing you should do?
A. Meet with senior managers to help them develop a new tracking system for
managing projects.
B. Send a formal memo to all project managers requesting their project plans.
C. Review the project charters and Gantt charts for all projects.
D. Meet with individual project managers to get a better sense of what is
happening.

20. Management wants to be sure that the project is following defined quality
standards. Which of the following would they look at?
A. Statement of work.
B. Risk management plan.
C. Work breakdown structure.
D. Quality audit.

21. Where are control limits located on a control chart?

A. Above the statistical independence point.
B. Within the specification limits.
C. Above the normal curve.
D. Near the assignable cause.

22. Your company has just received approval to purchase a company that offers
complementary services to your company. As the project manager on the
acquisition, you develop a deliverable- oriented grouping of project elements that
organizes and defines the total scope of the project. This output is called?
A. Scope definition.
B. Organizational breakdown structure.
C. Work breakdown structure.
D. Scope management plan.

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23. After analyzing the status of your project you determine that the project is two
weeks behind schedule. You want to recover the original schedule if possible, and
there is plenty of remaining budget in the current plan. Which of the following your
best option?
A. Compress the testing and quality management portion of the project.
B. Crash the schedule.
C. Reduce the scope of work with a change request.
D. Inform the team that overtime will be required for a short time to recover the
schedule.

24. Your management has decided that all orders will be treated as a project and that
project managers will be used to update orders daily, resolving issues and ensuring
that the customer formally accepts the project within 30 days of completion. The
revenue from the individual orders can vary from US$ 100 to US $ 150,000. The
project manager will not be required to perform planning or provide documentation
other that daily status. How would you define this situation?
A. Because each individual order is a temporary endeavor, each order is a project.
This is truly project management.
B. Orders incurring revenue over US $100,000 would be considered projects and
would involve project management.
C. This is program management since there are multiple projects involved.
D. This is recurring process.

25. Assuming a PERT weighted average computation, what is the probability of

completing the project within plus-or-minus 3 standard deviations of the
mean?
A. 68%
B. 99.74%
C. 95%
D. 75%

26. According to PMI, what type of power is coercive?

A. Referent
B. Expert
C. Penalty
D. Reward

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27. Which of the following leadership traits is most important for a project manager?
A. Technical expertise.
B. Team building.
C. Communications.
D. Project control.

28. A work breakdown structure numbering system allows project staff to:
A. provide project justification.
B. identify the level at which individual elements are found.
C. use it in project management software.
D. systematically estimate costs of work breakdown structure elements.

29. According to PMI , the method of calculating the EAC by adding budget required to
complete remaining work to the actual to date is used most often when the?
A. Original estimating assumptions are no longer reliable because conditions have
changed.
B. Current variances are viewed as atypical ones.
C. Current variances are viewed as typical of future variances.
D. Original estimating assumptions are considered to be fundamentally flawed.

30. Which of the following is a method for quantifying qualitative data in order to
minimize the effect of personal prejudice on source selection?
A. Screening system.
B. Delphi system.
C. Weighting system.
D. Selecting system.

31. You have just started administrating a contract when management decides to
terminate the contract. What should you do first?
A. Go to “Close project or phase”
B. Go back to solicitation.
C. Go back to solicitation planning.
D. Finish contract administration.

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32. Which of the following contract types does not encourage the seller to control costs
and, as a result, places the greatest risk on the buyer?
A. Cost-plus-fixed fee
B. Cost-plus-incentive fee
C. Cost-plus-a-percentage-of-cost
D. Cost-plus-award fee

33. The management theory that all people can direct their own efforts is
A. Theory X
B. Herzberg’s theory
C. Theory Y
D. Maslow’s hierarchy

34. You are halfway through a major network rollout. There are 300 locations in the
U.S. with another 20 in England. A software seller has just released a major
software upgrade for some of the equipment being installed. The upgrade would
provide the customer with functionality they requested that was not available at the
time the project began. What is the best course of action under these circumstances?
A. You should continue as planned. Your customer has not requested a change.
B. You should implement the change and adjust the schedule as necessary because
this supports the customer’s original request.
C. You should inform the customer of the upgrade and the impacts to the project’s
timeline and functionality.
D. You should implement the change to the remaining sites and continue with the
schedule.

35. Non- random data points that are grouped together on one side of the mean of a
control chart are called:
A. 6-sigma
B. in control
C. specification limits
D. rule of seven

36. While implementing the agile project, member found that the potential user
requirement list has not yet been up to date. Who should the member go to?
A. Scrum master, as he / she is the one who owns project scope
B. Business analysis as he // she is the one who owns user requirements
C. Project sponsor as he / she is responsible for project benefit
D. Product Owner, as he / she is responsible for backlog grooming

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37. The team has provided the project manager with activity duration estimates. If the
project manager is about to start schedule development, which of the following
does the project manager need to adequately develop a schedule?
A. Change requests
B. Risk management plan
C. Schedule change control system
D. Corrective action

38. When will “progressive elaboration” be exercised?

A. During project initiation where project deliverables are not defined in detail
B. During planning phase where most of the requirements are planned in detail
C. During closing when we need to know what to handover to user
D. Throughout the project as we need to fine tune along the way

39. Key users are providing new product feature within a function, for the project being
implemented with agile methodology. Where should it be slotted into?
A. Product roadmap as this new requirement affects the total solution
B. Spring backlog
C. Spike backlog
D. User Backlog

40. An example of a conflict of interest would be:

A. You and a functional manager disagree with a task cost estimate
B. As a public official you make a decision about a contract award that will
benefit you personally
C. Your personality conflicts with that of a key member of your project team
D. Your sponsor decides to cancel your project because it no longer supports the
company strategy

41. A project phase is best described as which of the following?

A. An endeavor of considerable scope encompassing a number of projects.
B. The state of the project at a given time.
C. A subproject.
D. Marked by the completion of one or more deliverables.

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42. Where should the new requirements be put into the user backlog?
A. Anywhere as appropriate
B. Top of the backlog as this must be an urgent one as new requirement
C. Bottom of the backlog as al with high value should have been identified
D. It should be submitted as change request for effective change monitoring

43. The project’s output is going to be obsolete. There is a better “off the shelf”
product. What do you do?
A. Finish your project as planned.
B. Ask for you team’ opinion.
C. Talk to the client.
D. Request a meeting with the sponsor.

44. It is important to rebaseline the project schedule carefully because:

A. Historical data will be lost for the project schedule.
B. Revisions require management approval.
C. Root-cause analysis must be performed.
D. Schedule recovery cannot be planned for activities delineated later in the
schedule.

45. You are the project manger for a manufacturer of children’s clothing company. Your
project team is in the process of designing a new Christmas outfits for next year’s
Christmas season. Your 12- member project team has been working together for the
past year and has become a complete self- directed team, with little, if any
management supervision required. All twelve members of the project team are in
constant communication with each other. How many lines of communication are
there within your project team?
A. 64
B. 68
C. 70
D. 78

46. Management tells a project manager to subcontract part of the project to a company
that management has worked with many times. Under these circumstances, the
project manager should be most concerned about?
A. The contract terms and conditions.
B. Meeting management expectations of time.
C. Making sure the company has the qualifications to complete the project.
D. The cost of the subcontracted work.

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47. What is “general specialist”?

A. A person who is a specialist in all areas
B. A person with special SME skills and also some knowledge on other general
areas
C. A person who is specializing in general day to day domains
D. A person without any special knowledge on any area

48. A customer is not happy with a project deliverable. What is your best course of
action?
A. Meet with the customer and offer a substitute project deliverable.
B. Tell the customer it meets the scope of work and get the customer’s agreement
to proceed.
C. Meet with the team to determine changes needed.
D. Determine why the customer is unhappy with the deliverable.

49. You are the controller on your project. Your project manager has requested that you
provide him with a forecast of project costs for the next 12 months. He needs this
information to determine if the budget should be increased or decreased on this
major construction project. In addition to the usual information sources, which of
the following should you also consider?
A. Existing change requests
B. Work breakdown structure
C. Cost estimates from similar projects
D. Project schedule

50. The review of key deliverables and project performance at the conclusion of a
project phase is called:
A. All of the below.
B. Stage gate.
C. Kill point.
D. Phase exit.

51. Is contingency reserve necessary in a project?

A. No, since we should plan carefully at the beginning of the project
B. Yes, this is necessary to plan for unknown unknown items
C. Yes, since things may not happen as planned, this could help us to better
estimate required resources for the project
D. No, since it will encourage more planned mistake

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52. Who determines the requirements of a new project?

A. Project manager
B. Customer
C. Senior management
D. Stakeholders

53. In some cases, contract termination refers to:

A. Contract closeout by delivery of goods or services.
B. Certification of receipt of final payment.
C. Contract closeout by successful performance.
D. Contract closeout by mutual agreement.

54. A project has three critical paths. How does this affect the project?
A. It makes it more expensive.
B. It makes it easier to manage.
C. It increases the project risk.
D. It requires more people.

55. At the end of a project, a project manager determines that the project has added four
areas of functionality and three areas of performance. The customer has expressed
satisfaction with the project. What does this mean in terms of the success of the
project?
A. The project was successful because the team had a chance to learn new areas of
functionality and the customer was satisfied.
B. The project is an unqualified success.
C. The project is unsuccessful because it was gold plated.
D. The project was unsuccessful because the customer being happy means they
would have paid more for the work.

56. A team member who is preparing for the PMP Exam asked you out of the following
list which one is a project and you inform his that according to the PMBOK that
_______________________is the only actual project listed below:
A. Billing customers
B. Constructing a building or facility
C. Managing an organization
D. Providing financial services

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57. During ‘define activities’ process, the team discovers that end users do not know
enough to define the activities for a work package. What would be the best action?
A. Make a decision based on the information available at the appropriate time.
B. Clarify with end-users.
C. Ask the sponsor.
D. Define the work package activities at a later date.

58. Project Managers can contribute to their organization’s knowledge base and to the
profession of project management most effectively by:
A. Ensuring that all project plans are developed before the project team is formed
B. Promote the use of ad hoc project management
C. Establishing strict guidelines for protecting intellectual property
D. Developing and implementing a project review and lessons learned process

59. A cause- and- effect diagram and an Ishikawa diagram are both:
A. flow charts
B. control charts
C. Pareto charts
D. fishbone diagrams

60. If a project is to employ two people each for 40 hours at a labour rate of $30 per
hour with overhead included and a third person for 30 hours during the same period
but at a loaded labor rate of $50 per hour, the PV for the week is :
A. $3,600
B. $3,900
C. $3,660
D. $2,400

61. You have been working on a nine- month project for six months. The project is
ahead of schedule when one of the functional managers tells you the resources
committed to the project are no longer available. After checking further, you
discover the company has another project that just stared and is using the resources
committed to your project. You believe the new project is not critical, but the
project manager is the son of a board member. What is the best course of action in
this situation?
A. Determine when resources will become available.
B. Ask upper management to formally prioritize the projects.
C. Negotiate a new schedule with the other project manager.
D. Use the reserve to hire contractors to complete the work.

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62. What is the project manager’s key role during negotiations?

A. Ensure that an effective communication plan is established.
B. Maintain the relationship between buyer and seller.
C. Negotiate a price under the seller’s estimate.
D. Ensure that all project risks are thoroughly delineated.

63. When a seller breaches a contract, the buyer cannot receive:

A. Consequential damages
B. Compensatory damages
C. Punitive damages
D. Liquidated damages

64. Your company has just presented its new five- year strategic plan. You have
received a new project request from a customer that is in line with the previous
five- year strategic plan, but it does not meet the objectives of the new plan. The
project description seems to have a valid business driver and to be a straightforward
development effort. As project manager, what is the best course of action?
A. Inform the customer of the change in corporate direction and ask him/ her to
take another look at the project.
B. Submit the project request to management for review and approval before
proceeding.
C. Conduct cost benefit analysis and submit for management approval.
D. Request a project charter from management and begin a WBS.

65. You are the project manager at the Booke Shoppe, a rapidly growing retail bookstore
selling hard- to- find books and periodicals. Currently, you company is planning on
opening additional stores throughout the United States. Your primary market includes
densely- populated, major metropolitan cities. Your company is deciding among New
York, Los Angeles, Seattle. Based on the following data, which project should be
recommended using the discounted cash flow technique? Project New York- Make $
100,000 in 2 years Project Los Angeles- Make $ 110,000 in 3 years Project Seattle-
Make $ 120,000 in 4 years Assume that the cost of capital is 8%
A. Project Seattle since it yields the highest total cash flow.
B. Project Seattle since it yields the highest present value.
C. Project Los Angeles since it yields the highest present value.
D. Project New York since it yields the highest present value.

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66. While testing the strength of concrete used in your project, you discover that over
35% of the concrete does not meet your company’s quality standards. You feel
certain the concrete will function as it is, and you don’t think the concrete needs to
meet the quality level specified. What should you do?
A. Ensure the remaining concrete meets the standard.
B. Change the quality standards to meet the level achieved.
C. Report the lesser quality level and try to find a solution.
D. List in your reports that the concrete simply meets our quality needs.

67. A project manager has just been assigned to a new project and has been given the
completed project scope. The first thing the project manager must do is:
A. form a team to create the procurement plan.
B. confirm that all the stakeholders have had input to the scope of work.
C. create a network diagram.
D. create a project plan using the work breakdown structure.

68. While project members are busy with development work in an agile project, they
feel that detail design should be conducted right after user requirement is clarified,
in order to complete without delay. When should this arrangement be discussed?
A. During sprint planning session as this is the earliest we can do
B. During daily standup meeting as this is where we discuss obstacle faced
C. During Retrospective as this is more appropriate
D. During sprint review as this is the best time for post development review

69. In a team meeting today two of the managers start a discussion that escalated into
an argument. To restore peace to the meeting you point out a solution and using a
friendly voice try to defuse the current situation. This is an example of what type of
conflict management?
A. Problem solving.
B. Withdrawal.
C. Smoothing.
D. Compromising.

70. During the procurement process, this is found that information for “request for
proposal” is required. Who is held responsible for consolidating such information?
A. Procurement manager, as it constitutes an important part of selection process
B. Sponsor, as he / she is the one deciding on what and who to buy
C. Related SME, as they are responsible for what they want
D. Project manager, as he owns requirement confirmation

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71. During implementation of an agile project, new product requirement is received.

How should it be handled?
A. Document per stated change management process for effective change control
B. Pass the new initiative to the project manager for impact assessment
C. Hand over to product owner for value assessment
D. Hand over to sponsor to review to ensure aligning with project objective

72. Which organization types results in the project managers having the least authority?
A. Projectized
B. Balanced Matrix
C. Strong Matrix
D. Functional

73. A no- cost settlement sometimes is used:

A. When buyer property has been furnished under the contract.
B. To close out a successful contract.
C. When such an arrangement is acceptable to one of the parties involved.
D. In lieu of formal termination procedures.

74. Team- building activities include management and individual actions taken
specifically and primarily to improve team performance. Many of these actions may
enhance team performance as a secondary effect. Which of the following is the best
example of some action that may enhance team performance as a secondary effect?
A. Collocating all teams’ members in a single physical location.
B. Involving nonmanagement-level team members in the planning process.
C. Establishing team performance goals and holding off-site retreats to review
ways of best achieving these goals.
D. Establishing a team-based reward and recognition system.

75. A narrative description of products or services to be supplied under contract is called:

A. an exception report.
B. a statement of work.
C. the project plan.
D. Pareto report.

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76. When should a schedule baseline be created?

A. At the end of the project and included in the archive.
B. At the beginning of the project and used during the project to gauge
performance.
C. At the beginning of the project and used to compare schedule performance on
status reports.
D. At the end of the project and then ignored because management does not care.

77. You are in the middle of a new project development project for your publicly traded
company when you discover that the previous project manager made a US $
3,000,000 payment that was not approved in accordance with your company
policies. Luckily, the project CPI is 1.2. What should you do?
A. Bury the cost in the largest cost center available.
B. Contact your manager.
C. Put the payment in an escrow account.
D. Ignore the payment.

78. From the project perspective, quality attributes:

A. Provide the basis for judging the project’s success or failure.
B. Are specific characteristics for which a product is designed and tested.
C. Are objective criteria that must be met.
D. Determine how effectively the performing organization supports the project.

79. Which of the following estimating techniques most accurately reflects the actual
cost of the project?
A. Conceptual estimates.
B. Preliminary estimates.
C. Bottom-up estimates.
D. Order of magnitude estimates.

80. According to the PMBOK, the project management process can be organized into
all of the following except?
A. Planning process
B. Resource leveling
C. Initiating process
D. Monitoring and controlling process

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81. Your team has just completed one of the project phases- developing a simple
prototype system. You would like to have the prototype reviewed prior to deciding
whether to move to the next phase of the project. According to the PMI, these types
of reviews are called:
A. Phase kick-off
B. Milestone reviews
C. Phase gates
D. Kill gates

82. In which of the following forms of organization do projects receive the least
attention?
A. Matrix
B. Coordinator
C. Expeditor
D. Functional

83. Which of the following would be the best project to select?

A. A project that will take eight years to complete and has an NPV of US $30,000.
B. A project that will take six years to complete and has an NPV of US $45,000.
C. A project that will take three years to complete and has an NPV of US $85,000.
D. A project that will take 10 years to complete and has an NPV of US 60,000.

84. A control chart indicated the last 12 weights produced were outside the upper
control limit. What should the project manger do?
A. Stop production
B. Look for the non-random causes for the variations
C. Work to better meet ISO 9000 standards
D. Plan to rework the 12 weights

85. Project Quality Management addresses all except:

A. Management of the project
B. The project output
C. Meeting customer’s expectations
D. Project charter updates

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86. You are managing a project team with several highly trained professionals. A couple
of your team members have requested to work from home one day a week. What
should you do?
A. Consult with human resources and found out about existing company policies.
B. In the team members are good workers, approve the request.
C. Issue a statement saying no one can work from home.
D. Be fair; issue a policy that all team members can work from home.

87. Which type of warranty is enacted if a service or product does not meet the level of
quality specified in the contract?
A. Express warranty.
B. Simplified warranty.
C. Implied warranty of specified quality.
D. Implied warranty of merchantability.

88. Select the stage which does not form part of “retrospective”:
A. Close retrospective
B. Update user requirement per new requirements
C. Set stage
D. Gather data

89. The best time to assign a project manger to a project is during:

A. Execution
B. Closure
C. Planning
D. Initiation

90. The scope of work is completed on a project. However, the customer is not happy
because they want additional work to be completed. In light of this, what should be
done?
A. Tell the customer it is too late to make a change.
B. Add to scope of work and proceed with additional work after obtaining
management’s agreement.
C. Begin closure on the contract and sign a new one for the additional work.
D. Change to a cost reimbursable contract.

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91. If the project manager is sharing knowledge, skills and experiences to help
members grow, what is he / she doing?
A. Training
B. Coaching
C. Project management
D. Mentoring

92. What does resources leveling mean in project management?

A. Making the most efficient use of the available resources.
B. Hiring contractors to fill in during peak times on the project schedule.
C. Shortening the time it takes to complete the project.
D. Reducing the project costs.

93. Is padding required in the project?

A. Yes, since this will provide necessary flexibility for unforeseen risk
B. No, since padding is only for known unknown items
C. Yes, since this is useful for covering additional requirements that was not
mentioned originally
D. No, since all unexpected items should be dealt with through risk management
or contingency management activities

94. Which of the following best describes progressive elaboration?

A. Process of identifying the characteristics of products.
B. Process of starting a new task prior to the completion of current project tasks.
C. Process of soliciting proposals from prospective vendors and sellers.
D. Process of adding on new features to the product.

95. In which type of organization is team building likely to be most difficult?

A. Projectized
B. Project expediter
C. Matrix
D. Functional

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96. Project financing is critical to large projects where neither the owner (buyer) nor
contractor (seller) has sufficient funds available to cover the costs incurred during
project implementation. In such cases, a third party must provide the necessary
capital. the third party evaluates the feasibility of financing the project based on:
A. The participants' business reasons for the project
B. The share of ownership to be retained
C. The level of risk the participants are to share
D. All of above

97. You are managing a project in a just-in-time environment. This will require more
attention, because the amount of inventory in such an environment is:
A. 12%
B. 0%
C. 45%
D. 10%

98. What are components within scope baseline?

A. All of the below
B. Work breakdown structure
C. WBS dictionary
D. Approved scope statement

99. When decision is made when “Decision reached with largest block in a group
deciding, even if majority is not achieved”. What type of voting is it?
A. Unanimity
B. Majority
C. Plurality
D. Dictatorship

100. In the earned value system for determining project progress, there are several
methods of recognizing credit for the completion of work. One method is to
recognize full credit after the work is complete. A second method is to recognize
credits as we go along. Which is the same as payment by milestone?
A. Method 1 since payment is per agreed stage of completion
B. Method 2 as this is the same as having many milestones along the way
C. Both are correct since both are payment by stage in nature
D. Both are incorrect since there are either not enough milestones or too many
milestones defined

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101. A control chart shows the last eight pipes produced were all less than average
weight. You need to tell management there is a problem because the situation
violates which of the following?
A. 50/50 rule.
B. Rule of seven.
C. Rule of eight.
D. 6-sigma rule.

102. While developing your project schedule you asked your team lead to define the
order in which some of the activities will be done. This is an example of:
A. Mismanagement.
B. Discretionary dependencies.
C. Poor planning
D. Democratic management style

103. A project manager is trying to manage a complex project at a 6- sigma level with
15 people. The project manager decides to use a trend report because it will help
him?
A. Examine project results over time.
B. Evaluate earned value.
C. Determine the level of quality.
D. Analyze the level of project complexity.

104. If EV=1,000K, PV is equal 2,000K, SPI= .5, SV=-1000K, then what is the CV?
A. 1000K
B. -1000K
C. 50
D. Not enough information

105. Identifying project performance criteria, defining project strategy, and determining
project description are all part of which project management phase?
A. Monitoring and Control
B. Planning
C. Initiation
D. Execution

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106. A project manager needs to determine the resources needed for the project. Select
the primary tool from the following choices.
A. Schedule updates
B. Expert advice from management
C. Work breakdown structure
D. Expert advice from functional managers

107. Management by objectives of a project works only if:

A. the rules are written down.
B. the project includes the objectives in the charter.
C. the project does not impact the objectives.
D. it is supported by management.

108. The degree of uncertainty in a project affects the ability of cost estimators to make
precise estimates to determine the total cost. One method to resolve the
uncertainty is influence diagramming, which is used to evaluate:
A. price, net worth, and net present value
B. alternative outcomes, risk factors, and give quantities
C. risk factors, price, and alternatives
D. price, quantities, and time of purchase

109. You have decided to award a contract to a seller that has provided its services to
your company frequently in the past. This seller has a good record in terms of
schedule and cost performance, and your working relationship with this seller is
excellent. You current project, although somewhat different from previous
projects, is similar to other work the seller has performed. In this situation, to
minimize your risk you should award what type of contract?
A. Fixed-price with economic price adjustment
B. Fixed-price incentive
C. Cost-plus-award fee
D. Firm-fixed-price

110. Which of following are not planning documents for approving agile projects?
A. Product roadmap
B. Project scope
C. Backlog
D. User backlog

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111. You are the project manager for a large project under contract with the
government. The contract for this two year, multi-million dollar project was signed
six months ago. You were not involved in contract negotiations or setting up
procedures for managing changes, but now you are swamped with changes from
the sponsor and from people inside your organization. Who is normally
responsible for formally reviewing major changes to the project/ contract?
A. The contracting/ legal department.
B. Senior management.
C. The project manager.
D. The change control board.

112. Which of the following statements is not true with regard to cost-reimbursement
contracts?
A. The buyer bears the greater financial risk.
B. Payment is based solely on the delivery of goods and services.
C. The seller’s interest in cost control diminishes.
D. The buyer’s concern about the seller’s performance increases.

113. Your manager asks you to take over one of four projects. If you had the following
information, which project would you select?
A. Project D with an IRR of 21%.
B. Project C with an IRR of 15%.
C. Project B with an IRR of 12%.
D. Project A with an IRR of 10%.

114. Project life cycles are very useful for which of the following?
A. Configuration management, weekly status updates
B. Standardization, control
C. Configuration management, termination
D. Objective setting, information gathering

115. What is another name for the waiting time between two tasks?
A. Float
B. Slack
C. Lag
D. Lead

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116. You are taking over a project during the planning phase and discover that six
individuals have signed the project charter. Which of the following should most
concern you?
A. Determining the reporting structure.
B. The charter was created during planning.
C. Spending more time on configuration management.
D. Getting a single project sponsor.

117. When entering into a contract, it is best to assume that there will be disputes about
the performance of the work as specified, and to:
A. track claims to ensure the best position during litigation.
B. include a procedure in the contract describing the means for dispute
resolution.
C. make sure disputes are never brought to public knowledge.
D. include a change order provision in the contract.

118. The budget for a project is the baseline from which future expenditures are
measured. Of the following, __________ do(es) not cause change to the budget
baseline during project implementation.
A. Change order to the contract.
B. Revised cost estimates per updated market information.
C. Change to subcontractor’s scope of work.
D. Correction to the Work Breakdown Structure to eliminate some tasks

119. In order for a company to have a successful project management system, it should:
A. Not insist on a specific reporting structure
B. Have a pure project structure
C. Have a matrix structure
D. Have project managers report to a Director of Project Management

120. Which term is not a common name for a procurement document that solicits an
offer from prospective sellers?
A. Request for information
B. Invitation for negotiation
C. Request for quotation
D. Seller initial response

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121. Who issues the project charter?

A. Project team
B. Stakeholders
C. Management
D. Project manager

122. From a buyer’s standpoint, which of the following is true?

A. Plan procurement should include consideration of potential subcontracts.
B. Subcontractors are first considered during the plan purchases and
acquisitions.
C. As the project leader, project manager is being held responsible for signing
agreement
D. None of the above.

123. A project is being advertised to solicit bidders. The buyer has asked for two types
of price: first, if payment is made in total upon completion of the project; second,
if payment is made 50 percent at the midpoint of completion and 50 percent upon
total completion. This is a two-year project that is being priced at $10,000,000
when the cost of money is not included. Assume money is borrowed at the end of
the year and when funding is required. If the interest rate, which is the only cost of
funding and assumed to be compound interest, remains stable over the two years
at eight percent, the total cost of project under each option is:
A. $11,844,000; $11,412,000
B. $10,400,000; $11,232,000
C. $10,000,000; $10,400,000
D. $10,000,000; $11,232,000

124. Continue from the previous question, what if assuming that full year interest is
charged once financial arrangement is made, what is the money owe to the bank?
A. $11,844,000; $11,412,000
B. $10,400,000; $10,800,000
C. $10,800,000; $11,232,000
D. $10,000,000; $11,664,000

125. Which of the following are examples of project-based organizations?

A. Most manufacturing companies and financial service firms.
B. Organizations that have adopted a management by projects approach.
C. Architectural firms, engineering firms, and consultants.
D. Both A and C.

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126. Your Product EV is equal to $150K, PV is equal to $450K, and AC is equal to

$300K. What is the CPI of this project?
A. .5
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1.5

127. Which of the following may be employed to shorten a schedule without changing
the scope of tasks?
A. Releasing resources earlier from tasks which were scheduled with a late start
B. Fast tracking
C. Alter the task priorities
D. Crashing

128. You are about to begin negotiations with people from another country. Which of
the following should provide guidance on what business practices are allowed and
not allowed?
A. The project charter.
B. The negotiation plan.
C. The company code of conduct.
D. The project scope management plan.

129. Possible socioeconomic influences on a project include which of the following?

A. Budgetary considerations
B. Life cycle management
C. Activity based costing
D. Internationalization

130. EV stands for:

A. Amount of work that is left over
B. Amount of work completed based on original plans
C. Actual Cost
D. None of the above

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131. During a team meeting, the team adds a specific area of extra work to the project
because they have determined it would benefit the customer. What is wrong in this
situation?
A. Nothing. The Project manager is in control of the situation.
B. These efforts shouldn’t be done in meetings.
C. Nothing. This is how to meet or exceed customer expectations.
D. The team is gold plating.

132. Individuals or organizations with active involvement or active interest in a project

are called:
A. Team members
B. Employees
C. Client organizations
D. Stakeholders

133. You are managing procurement for a project and have arranged a bid conference
with the potential proposers. All of the following are appropriate for a bid
conference except?
A. A request for bidders to offer their thoughts on problems with the scope of the
work.
B. A walk through of the project scope.
C. Working with the bidders to determine alternative solutions for the project.
D. Explanation of why particular terms and conditions are in the contract.

134. Continuous improvement in a company’s products is known as:

A. life-cycle costing.
B. Ishikawa.
C. Management by objectives.
D. Total quality management.

135. The most appropriate reason to focus on team development is to enhance the
ability of the ______________ to contribute.
A. Stakeholders
B. Team
C. Management
D. Project manager

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136. Your company is adopting the management-by-projects approach. It now has more
than 50 ongoing projects throughout the country instead of one or two major
projects at a time. You are a program manager. Four project managers work for
you. Each project manager is responsible for at least two projects. You must
schedule and allocate resources for the projects that comprise your program.
Which one of the following parameters should concern you primarily?
A. Activity lists and the WBS.
B. Resource use and resource leveling.
C. Schedule slippage and in-process inventory.
D. Duration compression and simulation.

137. During a meeting with some of the project stakeholders, the project manager is
asked to add work to the project scope of work. The project manager had access to
correspondence about the project before the charter was signed and remembers
that the project sponsors specifically denied the scope of work mentioned by these
stakeholders. The best option for the project manager to do would be to:
A. evaluate the impact of adding the scope of work.
B. add the work if there is time available in the project schedule.
C. let the sponsors know of the stakeholders’ request.
D. tell the stakeholders the scope cannot be added.

138. According to the PMBOK What actually formalizes the acceptance of the project
or phase and brings it to an orderly end?
A. Closing process
B. Stakeholder buyoff
C. Initiation process
D. Project completion checklist

139. Which of the followings are not considered as stakeholders to the project?
A. CEO of your company
B. Project Manager of the other project in your company
C. Vendor company
D. External consultant who is assigned to help you by the sponsor

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140. What should you do first if requirement change request is received from sponsor?
A. Reject, since this was not included in the project charter
B. Conduct impact analysis
C. Make recommendation to sponsor for acceptance and rejection
D. Accept, since project manager does not have any power to decide

141. You want to determine which risk has the biggest impact on your project. For that
purpose you will perform:
A. Three Points Analysis
B. Regression Analysis
C. Trend Analysis
D. Sensitivity Analysis

142. We cannot test the software until we develop the software. This expression
describes which of the following dependencies?
A. Mandatory or hard
B. Discretionary
C. Preferential
D. Rational

143. Barriers can influence communication when sending or receiving information.

Which of the following is not a barrier?
A. Prejudices
B. Attitudes and emotions
C. Feedback
D. Personalities and Interests

144. You have just found out that a major subcontractor for your project consistently
delivers items late. You decide that you have bigger problems to address, so you
do nothing. What conflict resolution mode are you using?
A. Smoothing
B. Compromise
C. Withdrawal
D. Ignoring

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145. For communication to occur there must be which of the following?

A. Many people involved.
B. The transmitting of information.
C. Telecommunications connection.
D. Agreement on the meaning of the message.

146. Which of following is the estimation made with mathematical formula?

A. Analogous estimation
B. Parametric estimation
C. Bottom up estimation
D. Top down estimation

147. You are closing out a minor contract on a major project when you discover that a
deliverable has not been received. Your manager wants the problem resolved as
soon as possible without much trouble. What should you do?
A. Deduct the cost of the deliverable from payments.
B. Deduct the deliverable from the scope of work.
C. Require that the deliverable be done.
D. Deduct the deliverable from the cost of the project.

148. Which of followings does not form part of cost baseline?

A. Cost for all components in WBS
B. Contingency reserve.
C. Management reserve
D. Cost of change request

149. You have created the project charter but could not get it approved. Your manager and
his boss asked that the project begin immediately. Which of the following is the best
thing to do?
A. Push to get the charter signed.
B. Perform an impact analysis.
C. Set up an integrated change control process.
D. Start work on only the critical path tasks.

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150. While working on an external project, your customer asks you to perform some
additional tasks that are not included in the formal contract. You should:
A. Convene a meeting of the project team and rewrite the scope statement
B. Acknowledge the request and advise the customer to submit a formal change
request
C. Refuse the request and report the customer to your sponsor
D. Honor the customer’s request as sign of cooperation to ensure future business

151. You are managing a project with an estimated BAC of $5 millions. About
two-thirds through the project, you estimate that the project will be concluded
early and just about 35% under budget. The contract is structured so that you will
actually make less profit if you finish early. What should you do?
A. Have a team meeting and gather input from the team on how to make the
project last longer
B. Inform the project stakeholder / sponsor about your budget projections
C. Direct your project team to increase the quality of their work so it takes the
planned amount of time
D. Do nothing and deliver the final project at the planned time and within the
allowed budget

152. A project manager may issue a waiver on items received from a vendor because
the items are less than the purchase order specified. If the project manager
knowingly accepts faulty material, the vendor is usually ______________ any
damages that the material may cause.
A. relieved of responsibility for
B. not paid in the amount of
C. willing to repair / correct
D. made to pay a percentage

153. A project manager trying to communicate accurately to the team should use which
of the following?
A. The language of the project manager.
B. Non-verbal methods.
C. The language of the team members.
D. Written memos.

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154. Operational Definitions are also known as:

A. Metrics
B. Check Lists
C. Flowcharts
D. Ishikawa Diagram

155. Non-random data points that are still within the upper and lower control limit of
control chart are:
A. In control.
B. Not enough information given.
C. Specification limits.
D. Out of control.

156. End of phase reviews are held to accomplish which tasks:

A. Define test criteria
B. Determine of the project should proceed to the next phase
C. Draft a schedule for the next phase
D. Audit costs incurred to date

157. A buyer has negotiated a Cost-Plus-Incentive contract with the seller. The contract
has a target cost of $200,000, a target profit of $30,000, and a target price of
$230,000. The buyer has also negotiated a ceiling price of $270,000 and a share
ratio of 70/30. If the seller completes the contract with actual costs of $ 170,000,
how much profit will the buyer pay the seller?
A. $35,000
B. $51,000
C. $21,000
D. $39,000

158. Your client proposes a quality standard for the project. You would like to
determine the positive and negative side of it, your next step will be to:
A. Issue a scope change request
B. Perform a benefit/cost analysis
C. Ask sponsor for approval
D. Reject the request, since it will increase the cost of the project

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159. During execution, you find that the customer has changed the scope of work even
though it was previously approved. There are no objections to the cost of the
change. What should you do first?
A. Meet with the team and plan alternatives.
B. Follow the change process.
C. Discuss it with the customer and negotiate new scope.
D. Evaluate and document the risks that might result from this change.

160. Your client requests a graphical display of results related to a particular deliverable
over a period of time. For that purpose you will develop:
A. Control Charts
B. Ishikawa Diagram
C. Pareto Diagrams
D. Gantt Charts

161. What is “Push Communication”?

A. Related information are being “Pushed together” so that one information is
received while related one is received
B. Information is provided regardless whether one needs
C. Information is being pushed away when required
D. Information is being offered only when required.

162. You are working on a contract for a Canadian province. The contract requires you
to be on site at the government affairs office on a daily basis. You were unable to
get to the office for 3 days last month because of severe blizzard conditions. Your
failure to appear at the office was excused because of a clause in the contract
entitled:
A. Force majeure
B. Alter idem
C. Non compos mentis
D. Holus-bolus

163. Which of followings is cost of non-conformance?

A. Training cost
B. Cost of buying a calculator for project member to perform daily work
C. Cost to develop control chart
D. Cost of recalling defective products

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164. You have been appointed as the manager of a new large and complex project.
Because this project is business-critical and very visible, the project’s executive
sponsor has told you to analyze the project’s risks and prepare mitigation
strategies for them as soon as possible. The organization has risk management
procedures that are seldom used or followed, and has had a history of handling
risks badly. The project’s first milestone is in two weeks. In preparing the plan to
manage risks, input from which of the following is generally least important?
A. Individuals responsible for risk management policies and templates
B. Executive sponsor
C. Project team members
D. Key stakeholders

165. Performance Reports provide feedback on project team performance against:

A. WBS
B. Project Management Plan
C. Staff Management Plan
D. Resources Allocation

166. Which term describes those costs in a contract that are associated with two or
more projects but are not traceable to either of them individually?
A. Indirect
B. Direct
C. Managerial
D. Variable

167. The organizational model likely to have the most robust support is:
A. Projectized
B. Cross-functional
C. Functional
D. Matrix

168. The nature and number of the project stakeholders will often:
A. Depends on project manager
B. Change from phase to phase
C. Initiate a number of change request
D. None of the above

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169. Work package is:

A. Where control is being exercised
B. Not the lowest in the WBS since it can be further broken down into activities
C. Can be responsible by more than 1 person as no one will have all knowledge
required to complete a package
D. The foundation of a WBS since this is the lowest level

170. You must start construction tomorrow to meet the deadlines. What type of contract
should you sign to start construction?
A. Fixed-price contract.
B. Cost plus primary fee contract
C. Time and material basis contract.
D. Cost plus contract.

171. The project team is arguing about the prospective sellers who have submitted
proposals. One team member argues for a certain seller while another team
member wants the project to be awarded to a different seller. The project manager
should remind the team to focus on what item in order to make a selection?
A. Evaluation criteria
B. Procurement audits
C. Procurement documents
D. Procurement management plan

172. Which of the following involves comparing actual or planned practices to those of
other projects in order to generate ideas for improvement and to provide a standard
by which to measure performance?
A. Process adjustments.
B. Benchmarking.
C. Benchline parameters.
D. Operational definitions.

173. You are remodeling your kitchen and decide to prepare a network diagram for this
project. Your appliances must be purchased and available for installation by the
time the cabinets are completed. In this example, these relationships are:
A. Start to finish
B. Start to start
C. Finish to finish
D. Finish to start

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174. Risk avoidance involves:

A. Developing s contingency plan.
B. Eliminating a specific threat, usually by eliminating the cause.
C. Accepting the consequences.
D. Reducing the effect of the risk event by reducing the probability of the
occurrence.

175. A new project manager is planning a complex hardware installation project. The
team consists of 13 people who are experts in their fields. The project manager
does not want to micromanage the project. How far should he decompose the
work?
A. As large as possible because he is dealing with experts
B. As small as possible because the work is complex
C. To about 80-hour tasks because it will make the work less complex
D. To 1000-hour tasks because he is dealing with experts

176. When it appears that a design error will interfere with meeting technical
performance objectives, the PREFERRED response is to:
A. Increase the specified value to set a new performance goal.
B. Reduce the overall technical complexity of the project.
C. Decrease the performance value to equal the assessed value.
D. Develop alternative solutions to the problem.

177. When is the project manager assigned to a project?

A. During contract planning.
B. After the contract signed.
C. During contract initiation.
D. Immediately preceding contract execution.

178. The project manager must be an effective communicator to ensure that project
stakeholders receive and understand project related information and status. Prior to
delivering information to the stakeholders the project manager should attempt to:
A. Identify only those stakeholders that have the same background experience as
the project manager.
B. Restrict information to specific technical details
C. Filter the information to remove any details
D. Research and understand the region of experience of the stakeholder before
transmitting information

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179. A resource histogram shows resources by:

A. Unit of time.
B. Area of expertise.
C. Task.
D. Phase.

180. Which type of organization is best for managing complex projects involving
cross-disciplinary efforts?
A. Line
B. Matrix
C. Projectized
D. Functional

181. Decreasing the probability of a risk is an example of risk:

A. Quantification.
B. Analysis.
C. Mitigation.
D. Transference.

182. In person-to-person communication, messages are sent on verbal levels and

nonverbal levels simultaneously. As a general rule, what percentage of the
message actually is sent through nonverbal cues?
A. 25% to 50%
B. 50% to 75%
C. Greater than 75%
D. 5% to 25%

183. The buyer has negotiated a cost-plus-incentive fee contract with the seller. The
contract has a target cost of $300,000, a target fee of $40,000, a share ratio of
80/20, a maximum fee of $60,000, and a minimum fee of $10,000. If the seller has
actual costs of $380,000, how much fee will the buyer pay?
A. $104,000
B. $30,000
C. $56,000
D. $24,000

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184. You are managing a six-month project and have held bi-weekly meetings with
your project sponsors. After five-and-a-half months of work, the project is on
schedule and budget, but the sponsors are not satisfied with the deliverables. This
situation will delay the project completion by one month. The process that could
have prevented this situation is:
A. Conduct more detail discussion during planning meetings
B. Define scope
C. Create WBS
D. Monitor and control risk.

185. What contract type to use if all requirements are cleared but need to start ASAP?
A. Firm fixed bid
B. Cost reimbursement
C. Cost plus incentive
D. Time and materials

186. Which of the following is a project execution tool that is used to give formal
approval to being the project work activities and encourages control of the work
processes?
A. Work authorization system
B. Project charter
C. Change control systems
D. Project plan

187. As the project manager, you have six stakeholders you need to communicate with.
As such you have twenty-one channels of communication. Four new stakeholders
have been added that you also need to communicate with. How many total
communication channels do you have now?
A. 40
B. 50
C. 55
D. 45

188. All of the following are characteristics of project phases except?

A. Milestones
B. Status meetings
C. Objectives
D. Activities

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189. In a matrix organizational form, which factor(s) make it difficult for a project
manager to provide a valid input into the employee’s performance review?
A. Employees spend only a short amount of time assigned to the project
B. Not being knowledgeable enough to evaluate employees on technical
judgment
C. Not working directly with the assigned functional employees
D. All of the above

190. The software development project in not going well. There are over 30
stakeholders, and no one can agree on the project objectives. One stakeholder
believes the project can achieve a 30% improvement while another believes a 50%
improvement is possible. The project manager thinks a 10% improvement is more
practical. What is the best course of action?
A. Move forward with the project and hope more information becomes available
later to settle the issue.
B. Perform a feasibility study.
C. Ask the sponsor to make the final decision.
D. Average the numbers and use that as the goal.

191. You are negotiating with a seller and time is plenty but you have a limited budget,
and the seller knows this. What is your best negotiating strategy under these
circumstances?
A. Negotiate identified risks
B. Arrange to reschedule the negotiation until you can acquire information that
the seller is not aware of.
C. Negotiate to get the work done even sooner than necessary in order to add a
reserve.
D. Focus the negotiation on seller’s profit margin in order to decrease the project
cost.

192. A market demand, a customer request, and a technological advance are examples
of:
A. Components of a work breakdown structure.
B. Changes to the project.
C. Claims to the project.
D. Reasons to initiate a project.

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 Project Management Professionals Mock Exam - Questions

193. Project roles and responsibilities should be closely linked to Work Breakdown
Structure through:
A. Project Statement of Work
B. Organization Breakdown Structure
C. Resources Breakdown Structure
D. Responsibility Assignment Matrix

194. You are currently the project manager at a bio-tech company, developing a drug
for the treatment of bone cancer. As part of the feasibility study, your team has
been evaluating the feasibility of such a drug using computer simulation. Your
team has just completed one of the project phases by designing a potential
chemical compound using a sophisticated computer model. You would like to have
the model reviewed prior to deciding whether to move to the next phase of the
project. According to the PMI, these types of reviews are called all of the
following except?
A. Stop gates
B. Phase gates
C. Kill points
D. Phase review

195. What is the difference between “daily standups” in Agile project management
approach Vs Daily status meeting in predictive project management approach?
A. Daily meeting only exist in Agile project management
B. Daily standup is facilitated by team members in Agile, whereas the status
meeting is facilitated by PM in predictive
C. This is a 15 mins meeting in Agile, whereas this is a 1 hour meeting in
predictive
D. Status update are conducted in both meetings.

196. For proper information distribution, you need all except:

A. Work Results
B. Communication Management Plan
C. Project Plan
D. OBS Dictionary

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 Project Management Professionals Mock Exam - Questions

197. Which of the following best describes what lead means?

A. Waiting time
B. Reduce project schedule required.
C. Added to the end of the activity before starting the next activity
D. An action that increase time required to complete a project

198. During the execution phase of the contract, the project manager should be
concerned about conflict with the contract administrator because:
A. The contract administrator is not interested in the contract.
B. In many cases, the contract administrator is only one who can change the
contract.
C. The contract is complex.
D. The company favors the contract administrator rather than the project
manager.

199. The most accurate estimates (and the most expensive to produce) are:
A. Bottom up estimate
B. Top down estimate
C. Analogous estimate
D. Parametric estimate

200. You are a project manager for a large electrical system implementation. One of
your key resources has started to miss deadlines and work quality is beginning to
suffer as well. You are confident that this person is well aware of the work
deadlines and required quality specifications. What action should you take?
A. Report the problem to HR for corrective action
B. Reassign some work to other team members until performance starts to
improve
C. Escalate the situation to the employee’s functional manager and ask for
assistance
D. Meet with the employee in private and try to determine the factors impacting
performance

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