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NARAYAN CHANGDER
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Contents

1 MCQS IN PATHOLOGY . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2
1.1 Genetics and Disease . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2
1.2 Cell Damage . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 108
1.3 Inflammation . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 189
1.4 Healing and Repair . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 206
1.5 Immune response . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 231
1.6 Immunopathology . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 308
1.7 Infection . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 310
1.8 Disturbances of Blood Flow . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 326
1.9 Tissue Degenerations . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 330
1.10 Tumours: General Features . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 332
1.11 Blood Vessels . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 334
1.12 Heart . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 385
1.13 Respiratory System . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 452
1.14 Haemopoietic System . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 495
1.15 Lympho-Reticular System . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 505
1.16 Alimentary Tract . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 514
1.17 Liver . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 518
1.18 Pancreas . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 523
1.19 Biliary . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 538
1.20 Nervous System . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 547
1.21 Urinary System . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 633
1.22 Locomotor System . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 715
1.23 Female Reproductive System . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 717
1.24 Male Reproductive System . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 738
 1

1.25 Endocrine System . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 754

1.26 Skin . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 832

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1.27 Parasitic Diseases . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 866
 1. MCQS IN PATHOLOGY

NARAYAN CHANGDER
1.1 Genetics and Disease
1. An organism’s describes its genetic 4. Which of the following best defines the
composition. An organism’s describes term, “gene”?
its appearance or observable characteris- A. a heritable factor that consists of a
tics. length of DNA and influences many char-
A. genotype; phenotype acteristics
B. heredity; species B. a heritable factor that consists of a
C. species; heredity length of mRNA and influences many char-
acteristics
D. phenotype; genotype
C. a heritable factor that consists of a
2. The transfer of a gene from the DNA of length of DNA and influences a specific
one organism into another organism in or- characteristic
der to produce an organism with desired
D. a heritable factor that consists of a
traits.
length of mRNA and influences a specific
A. genetic engineering characteristic
B. inbreeding
5. A 5-year-old boy has a bleeding disorder
C. pedigree called Hemophilia. Who did this child get
D. genome the abnormal gene from?

3. Hemoglobin is a protein containing iron, A. father

which is involved with oxygen transport B. mother
in the blood. In which organelle would this C. paternal grandmother
protein be sorted?
D. paternal grandfather
A. Golgi apparatus
6. The fact that a strain of yeast with a cer-
B. mitochondrion
tain defective gene can use the human ver-
C. lysososme sion of the gene to repair itself is evidence
D. nucleus that yeast and humans

1. A 2. A 3. A 4. C 5. B 6. B
1.1 Genetics and Disease 3

A. depend on the same food supply 11. What did Gregor Mendel use to discover
B. share a genetic code the principles that rule heredity?

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C. both have eukaryotic cells A. Pea Plant
D. have identical genomes B. Pigeons

7. When both alleles of a pair are alike, the C. Pear trees

organism is said to be D. Photosynthesis
A. Homozygous
12. DNA is inside your cells. What part of the
B. Heterozygous cell is the DNA inside of?
C. Homologous A. cell membrane
D. Heterologous
B. cytoplasm
8. This disease affects the central nervous C. nucleus
system. It is most often seen in Jewish
populations from Eastern Europe. D. none of above

A. PKU 13. When an electrical current is used to sepa-

B. Tay-Sachs rate a mixture of DNA
C. Hemophilia A A. electricity
D. Cystic Fibrosis B. restriction maps
9. During meiosis, the process of crossing C. gel electrophoresis
over results in new combinations of alle- D. electron map
les because
A. genetic material is removed during 14. A new variety of rice called golden rice
this process. has been genetically modified to have vita-
min A. People in starving countries can eat
B. genetic material is added by a third this rice and receive the vitamin A. With-
chromosome during this process. out this rice people go blind from vitamin
C. genetic material is exchanged be- A deficiency. What word(s) below best de-
tween chromosomes during this process. scribes this rice?
D. genetic material always mutates ran- A. electrophoresis
domly during this process.
B. DNA fingerprinting
10. Which is an example of the environment C. transgenetic
influencing the expression of a genetic
trait? D. clone
A. hemophilia in Queen Victoria’s family 15. T12-Identify the gene mutation:NormalAGC-
B. widow’s peak in each generation of a TTA-CGT-AAAMutantACT-TAC-GTA-AA
family A. insertion frameshift
C. great variation in height seen in mem-
B. deletion frameshift
bers of a family
C. insertion
D. formation of freckles after sun expo-
sure in members of a family D. nonsense

7. A 8. B 9. C 10. D 11. A 12. C 13. C 14. C 15. B

1.1 Genetics and Disease 4

16. Some types of crops have been genetically- A. Whales have evolved this structure be-
engineered to resist certain types of dis- cause it might be useful in the future.
eases and pests. How might these B. Whales are able to interbreed with
genetically-engineered crops impact the other animals that have hips.
environment?
C. Whales have a diet that includes other
A. They will harm the environment by pro- animals that have this structure.
moting slash and burn agriculture.
D. Whales share a common ancestor with
B. They will help the environment by caus-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
animals that walk on land.
ing pest species to become extinct.
C. They will help the environment by al- 20. In the 1970s, many biotechnologists
lowing farmers to use fewer pesticides. worked to develop a biodiesel that was
an alternative to petroleum diesel. The re-
D. They will harm the environment by sults of their research was a biodiesel fuel
introducing synthetic genes into other that can be burned by most regular diesel
plants. engines and releases up to 50% less car-
bon emissions than petroleum diesel.If the
17. Tall is dominant to short. A homozygous majority of diesel-burning vehicles in the
tall plant is crossed with a short plant. United States begin using biodiesel, what
What will be the phenotypes of the off- would be the most likely environmental im-
spring? pact?
A. 100% tall A. There will be no environmental impact.
B. 50% tall, 50% short B. The amount of acid rain falling on the
C. 75% tall, 25% short country will increase.
D. 25% tall, 75% short C. The amount of polluted runoff flowing
into the ocean will decrease.
18. In humans, certain conditions like color
D. Air quality across the country will im-
blindness and hemophilia affect males
prove.
more than they affect females. Why are
more males affected than females in some 21. Mendel discovered principles of inheri-
disorders? tance because he:
A. The disorders are dominant A. observed simultaneously all of the
B. The disorders are the result of codom- characteristics in which the parents dif-
inance fered

C. The disorders are the result of incom- B. ignored all characteristics except a
plete dominance few markedly contrasting ones which he
studied carefully
D. The disorders are sex-linked
C. studied only the offspring obtained
19. Whales, which live in the water, have hips. from a single mating
These structures are important for carry- D. was smarter than any other scientist
ing the weight of animals that walk on of his time
land. Finding this body part in animals
that don’t walk on land is best explained 22. The entire collection of genes within hu-
how? man cells is referred to as the

16. C 17. A 18. D 19. D 20. D 21. B 22. A

1.1 Genetics and Disease 5

A. human genome D. skin color is controlled by a recessive

B. karyotype allele

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C. pedigree 27. T12-Adding or deleting DNA bases and
D. gene map causing the reading frame to shift is called
a(n)
23. B-black, b-brown. Two black mice mate
and have some black and some brown mice. A. Inversion
What is the genotype of the parents? B. Translocation
A. BB x Bb C. Substitution
B. BB x bb D. Frameshift
C. Bb x Bb
28. Engineering food to make crops that can
D. Bb x bb
grow in poor soil conditions, resist disease,
24. Why would scientists want to know the tolerate drought, repel insects, etc.
sequence of a DNA molecule? A. Cloning
A. They can mutate people.
B. Genetically Modified Food
B. They are able to find individual genes.
C. Selective Breeding
C. They don’t need to.
D. Transgenic Organisms
D. So they can transcribe it to make new
DNA. 29. How does a virus cause a person to de-
velop the common cold?
25. A trait for snapdragon flower color is con-
trolled by incomplete dominance. A snap- A. invades the host cell to reproduce
dragon plant with red flowers is crossed
B. removes energy from the host cell
with a snapdragon plant with white flow-
ers. What percent of the offspring will C. produces toxins in the host cell
have pink flowers? Show your work on
D. protects the host cell from bacteria
you paper. (3B3)
A. 0% 30. Which genetic disorder is sex-linked?
B. 25% A. Huntington’s
C. 50% B. cystic fibrosis
D. 100%
C. red-green colorblindness
26. Why do humans have such a wide vari- D. sickle cell anemia
ety of phenotypes when it comes to skin
color? 31. All of an organism’s genetic material.
A. it is controlled by many genes A. Autosomes
B. the gene for skin color has only two al- B. Karyotype
leles
C. Pedigree
C. skin color is controlled by sex-linked
genes D. Genome

23. C 24. B 25. D 26. A 27. D 28. B 29. A 30. C 31. D 32. D
1.1 Genetics and Disease 6

32. is an application of the human genome 37. The inherited disease in which hemoglobin
project that involves the insertion of nor- molecules clump into long fibers, changing
mal genes into cells with defective genes the shape of blood cells.
in order to correct genetic disorders. A. Cystic fibrosis
A. gene gun B. Sickle Cell Disease
B. gene mapping C. Huntington’s Disease
C. gene linkage D. Klinefelter’s Disease

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. gene therapy 38. Four children in a family have four differ-
ent blood types. If the father has type
33. The genetic combination of alleles is called
A blood, which blood genotype best rep-
the
resents the mother?
A. genotype
A. BB
B. phenotype
B. BO
C. heterozygous C. AB
D. homozygous D. AO
34. If a couple has five boys, the probability 39. Snap dragon color is a incomplete domi-
that the next child will be a boy is nant trait. A red flower (RR) is crossed
A. 0% with white flower (rr)? What color are
flowers that are Rr?
B. 25%
A. Red
C. 50%
B. Red and White
D. 75%
C. White
35. A man, who has red-green colorblindness, D. Pink
and his wife, who is a carrier for color-
blindness, have a colorblind son. What is 40. The nurse is developing a community pro-
the probability that their next son will also gram to address the increase in sickle cell
be colorblind? disease. What measures to decrease the
incidence of the disease should the nurse
A. 0% be sure to include in the program?
B. 25% A. Proper nutrition
C. 50% B. Carrier screening
D. 100% C. Passive immunization
36. The insertion of working copies of a gene D. Bone marrow transplantation
into the cells of a person with a genetic dis- 41. This helps determine the chance that some-
order in attempt to correct the disorder. thing will occur.
A. Gene Therapy A. Probability
B. Genetic Engineering B. Allele
C. Hybridization C. Genotype
D. Clone D. Phenotype

33. A 34. C 35. C 36. A 37. B 38. B 39. D 40. B 41. A

1.1 Genetics and Disease 7

42. Following the detection of PKU in an in- 47. A mutation is an event when a part of the
fant, the treatment used in order to pre- genetic code is changed. These mutations
vent brain damage is can be

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A. injection of missing enzymes A. beneficial
B. physical therapy B. harmful
C. blood transfusions C. neutral
D. dietary adjustments D. all of the above
43. Genetic engineering, gene splicing, and re-
48. Which of the following is an example of a
combinant DNA technology are all tech-
homozygous dominant genotype?
niques used in biotechnology. Before us-
ing these technologies, however, what is A. RR
required? B. Rr
A. Specific scientific knowledge about the C. rr
natural system being modified
D. none of above
B. A doctorate degree in biotechnology or
molecular biology 49. Males are more likely to suffer from a sex-
C. A patent for the technology in question linked disease or disorder because
D. Approval of their usage by popular A. males are the weaker sex
vote B. males have less DNA
44. Sex-linked genes are genes on C. males have 1 X chromosome, so the
A. the X chromosome only disorder is more likely to be expressed
B. the Y chromosome only D. none of above
C. the X and Y chromosomes 50. What specific part of a nucleic acid changes
D. all 23 pairs of chromosomes in a mutation?

45. What is a trait? A. Phosphate

A. passing of traits from parent to off- B. nitrogenous Base
spring C. Deoxyribose Sugar
B. study of heredity D. Ribose Sugar
C. two forms of a gene
51. Which statement describes how cloning is
D. any characteristic that can be passed different from selective breeding?
from parent to offspring
A. Cloning eliminates recessive alleles
46. The sex of a child is determined by from a genome.
A. whether the father’s sperm contains B. Cloning transforms harmful traits into
an x or y chromosome beneficial traits.
B. whether the mother’s egg contains an C. Cloning corrects or replaces mutated
x or y chromosome gene sequences.
C. the age of the parents D. Cloning results in offspring that are ge-
D. none of above netically identical to the parents.

42. D 43. A 44. C 45. D 46. A 47. D 48. A 49. C 50. B 51. D
1.1 Genetics and Disease 8

52. Krista and Blaire are identical twins that B. Down Syndrome
were separated at birth. Both of the C. Colorblindness
girls are scared of thunder when they are
young. Krista’s adoptive parents teach D. Sickle-cell Disease
her to deal with her fear by pretending 57. To make a clone, scientists remove the
that the thunder is a big drum in an or- from a/an cell and inject the DNA from
chestra. Blaire’s adoptive parents, on the another cell into it.
other hand, teach her to deal with her fear
of thunder by thinking about sunny days A. Nucleus, egg

NARAYAN CHANGDER
ahead.Both girls have inherited a fear of B. DNA, Gap 0
thunder. The difference in their way of C. DNA, Udder
dealing with this fear, however, can best
be explained by differences in their D. plasmid, bacteria
A. environment 58. What genetic disorder results in 45 chro-
B. age mosomes in each of the body cells?
(3.2.2)
C. biological parents
A. Turner’s syndrome
D. genes
B. Down syndrome
53. The type of inheritance in which alleles are C. Klinefelter’s
found on the X chromosome
D. Jacobs syndrome
A. Incomplete dominance
B. Codominance 59. It is the transfer of genes into the somatic
cells of the patient
C. Sex-linked inheritance
A. Somatication
D. Polygenic inheritance
B. Somatic cell gene therapy
54. What is an advantage of transgenic C. cell gene therapy
plants?
D. somatic cell therapy
A. Producing clones
B. Increased food supply 60. Which option most closely relates to how
CRISPR works?
C. Using more pesticide
A. “shake and bake”
D. Studying the human genome
B. “cut and paste”
55. Incomplete dominance means that the C. “hide and seek”
traits are
D. “live and love”
A. expressed equally
B. dominant 61. What is an advantage of using transgenic
bacteria to produce human proteins?
C. recessive
A. The bacterial proteins work better
D. blended
B. The proteins can also be used to make
56. Which disease or disorder is the result of plastics
having an extra chromosome? C. The bacteria can produce human pro-
A. Cystic Fibrosis teins in large amounts

52. A 53. C 54. B 55. D 56. B 57. A 58. A 59. B 60. B 61. C
1.1 Genetics and Disease 9

D. The proteins are more durable when 67. All organisms need instructions to specify
made by bacteria their traits. The instructions, or code, that
is responsible for all the inherited traits of

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62. Which term applies to an organism that an organism
contains more than one source of DNA?
A. is formed after an organism is fully
A. mutation grown.
B. translocation B. is held in genetic material called DNA.
C. transgenic organism C. is stored within the mitochondria of
cells.
D. polymorphic organism
D. is passed from the offspring to the par-
63. Which disease or disorder causes people to ent.
have abnormal blood cells? 68. One of the parents of a child has phenylke-
A. Cystic Fibrosis tonuria (PKU), which is caused by reces-
sive alleles. The other parent does not
B. Albinism
have the PKU alleles. What is the chance
C. Sickle-cell Disease that the couple will have a child with
phenylketonuria?
D. Down Syndrome
A. 0%
64. Bringing together genetic material from B. 50%
multiple organisms, creating a new se-
quence that would not be found in any of C. 75%
the original organisms. D. 100%
A. Gene Therapy 69. Which of the following situations is most
B. Selective Breeding usual for a dominant allele that results in
severe effects in the offspring?
C. Cloning
A. both parents have the trait
D. Gene Splicing
B. the trait occurs by mutation
65. Testing the amniotic fluid for birth defects. C. only a single offspring has the trait
A. Chorionic Villi Sampling D. none of these

B. Ultrasound 70. Photograph of chromosomes grouped in or-

dered pairs
C. Amniocentesis
A. pedigree
D. Embryo Test
B. Punnett Square
66. Which term is essentially the opposite of C. Venn Diagram
pleiotropy?
D. Karyotype
A. multiple alleles
71. At a given gene locus, there are more than
B. polygenic inheritance two possible alleles for that trait.
C. incomplete dominance A. Multiple Alleles
D. codominance B. Non-disjunction

62. C 63. C 64. D 65. C 66. B 67. B 68. A 69. B 70. D 71. A 72. A
1.1 Genetics and Disease 10

C. Genome B. It has made the incidence of diabetes

D. Polygenic Traits decrease.
C. It has made it easier for diabetics to
72. What determines gender in humans? inject themselves with insulin.
A. the X and Y chromosome D. It has made insulin cheaper and more
B. chromosome 21 readily available.

C. codominance 77. What is the name of the process that uses

NARAYAN CHANGDER
electrical charges to separate pieces of
D. epistasis
DNA based on size and charge?
73. A boy who is colorblind inherited the dis- A. cloning
order from his B. fragmentation
A. Mother C. gel electrophoresis
B. Father D. human genome project
C. Either Parent
78. This is a genetics tool that uses letters to
D. None of the above represent dominant and recessive alleles.

74. Which term refers to a farmer choosing A. Punnett Square

the best corn from this year to plant next B. Pedigree
year? C. Phenotype
A. natural selection D. Periodic Table
B. selective breeding 79. The process of transfering DNA from one
C. genetic engineering organism into a different organism to alter
D. genetic transformation its DNA is considered
A. genetic engineering
75. What does Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy
B. sexual reproduction
cause?
C. a mutation
A. Muscle Weakness
D. pleiotropy
B. Heart Problems
80. Which disease or disorder is caused by the
C. Respiratory Issues
inheritance of two mutated alleles?
D. All of the Above
A. Down Syndrome
76. The first commercial application of genetic B. Colorblindness
engineering was the use of bacteria to C. Cystic Fibrosis
make insulin, a medicine needed by di-
D. Hemophilia
abetics. Before the use of genetically-
engineered bacteria, insulin had to be har- 81. This is a factor that seems to disappear.
vested from the pancreases of slaughtered
A. Recessive
animals.How has genetic engineering most
likely improved the lives of diabetics? B. Dominant
A. It has made the demand for insulin de- C. Codominant
crease. D. Heterozygote

73. A 74. B 75. D 76. D 77. C 78. A 79. A 80. C 81. A 82. B
1.1 Genetics and Disease 11

82. Mutated DNA sequences that can be 87. If a pea plant were homozygous recessive
passed from parent to offspring for height, how would its alleles be repre-
sented?

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A. occur in somatic cells (body cells)
B. occur in gametic cells (sex cells) A. TT
C. are rejected by meiosis B. Tt
D. only occur if the parent is exposed to C. tt
harmful substances D. tT
83. Which of the below biotechnological ad- 88. A particular flower is purple, which is
vances is MOST beneficial to Florida FARM- the dominant trait. If this flower demon-
ERS? strates neither codominance nor incom-
A. Development of disease resistant plete dominance, what would be the geno-
plants for higher yields type of a second flower that could be
B. Development of more effective human crossed with the purple flower to deter-
vaccines mine the purple flower’s genotype?

C. The ability to create more antibiotics A. PP

from bacteria B. Pp
D. Producing enzymes to eliminate pollu- C. pp
tants D. PP or Pp
84. Why do you use a new pipette tip on the
89. Mutations can be a result of
micropipette every time you get a new
sample? A. Environmental Exposure
A. To avoid contaminating the other sam- B. Lack of sleep
ples C. Not enough exercise
B. To use as many tools as you can. D. none of above
C. The pipette tips disappear after being
90. If a colorblind male marries a woman who
used.
is a carrier, what percentage of their FE-
D. None of these reasons MALE children will be colorblind? Do the
85. A clone is Punnett square.

A. recombinant DNA A. 0%
B. a transgenic organism B. 25%
C. plasmid C. 50%
D. genetically identical D. 100%

86. This is the passing on of traits from par- 91. What is the purpose of PCR?
ents to offspring. A. To produce millions of copies of DNA.
A. Heredity B. To produce millions of copies of a spe-
B. Phenotype cific region of DNA
C. Polygenic C. To add nucleotides to a DNA sequence
D. Complex Character D. To watch polymerase work.

83. A 84. A 85. D 86. A 87. C 88. C 89. A 90. C 91. B

1.1 Genetics and Disease 12

92. What is the ultimate source of genetic vari- A. 0%

ation?
B. 25%
A. inbreeding
C. 50%
B. hybridization
D. 100%
C. mutations
D. radiation 97. Individuals with Huntington’s disease

NARAYAN CHANGDER
93. Bone growth disorder that causes a type A. undergo progressive deterioration of
of “short limb” dwarfism. the nervous system
A. Achondroplasia B. find breathing difficult and suffer lung
B. Color-blindness infections
C. Cystic fibrosis C. must have frewuent blood transfu-
sions
D. Huntington’s disease
E. Phenylketonuria D. suffer from aneuploidy

94. What specifically about Pea Plants did 98. Choose the term that does not belong. (Be
Mendel Study? able to explain why on the quiz)
A. Color of Pea Flower A. genotype
B. Colors of individual Peas B. phenotype
C. Texture of Peas
C. homozygous
D. All of these
D. heterozygous
95. In snapdragon plants, red flowers are
dominant to white flowers. When red- 99. What do you call the non-Mendelian inher-
flowered plants are crossed with white- itance pattern where neither trait is dom-
flowered plants, pink flowers are pro- inant and the traits appear to blend to-
duced. If a researcher wants to produce gether in heterozygous individuals?
plants with only white flowers, what color
A. Codominance
should the parent plants be?
A. both red B. Incomplete dominance

B. both white C. Polygenic traits

C. one red and one white D. none of above
D. one white and one pink
100. What is an inherited disease or disorder
96. A longhair cat (LL) is crossed with a short- that is caused by a mutation in a gene or
hair cat (L’L’) resulting in medium length by a chromosomal defect?
hair (LL’) in ALL offspring. If a cat with
A. genetic engineering
medium length hair (LL’) is crossed with a
longhair (LL) cat, what percentage of the B. genetic research
offspring can be predicted to have short
C. genetic disorder
hair (L’L’)? Show your Punnett square on
paper. (3B3) D. genetic mutation

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 13

101. are produced when DNA from another 106. Which genetic disorder is caused by a
species is inserted into the genome of an dominant allele?
organism, which then begins to produce

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A. Huntington’s
the protein encoded on the recombinant
DNA. B. Hemophilia
A. vectors C. Cystic fibrosis
B. plasmids D. PKU
C. transgenic organisms
107. Where, in the eukaryotic cell, is DNA lo-
D. gene guns cated?
102. An example of a trait that is determined A. ribosomes
by multiple alleles.
B. nucleus
A. Cystic Fibrosis
C. E.R.
B. Colorblindness
D. cytoplasm
C. ABO Blood Type
D. Down Syndrome 108. A nurse is completing research studies
about how genetic and environmental fac-
103. A wren with gray feathers is mated with tors affect patients with hypertension.
a wren of the same phenotype. Among What environmental factors should the
their offspring, 16 babies are gray, 8 are nurse consider that might contribute to
black, and 8 are white.What is the sim- this study group? Select all that apply.
plest explanation for the inheritance of
A. Diet
these colors in wrens?
A. Grey is dominant. B. Smoking

B. Black is dominant. C. Exercise

C. White is dominant. D. Medications
D. No Color is dominant E. Sexual Activity

104. The physical characteristic that shows up 109. is the appearance of an organism, or
in an organism (what you see) how it looks
A. Phenotype A. phenotype
B. Genotype B. ratio
C. Genes C. recessive trait
D. Homozygous
D. heredity
105. These are found in the nucleus of a cell
Human body cells have 46. 110. Homozygous Dominant

A. DNA A. Gg
B. chromosome B. ff
C. carrot C. DD
D. none of above D. Hh

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 14

111. A red flowered plant (RR) breeds with 116. What could result in unethical use of ge-
a white flowered plant (WW). The gene netics
for petal color in these plants expresses A. Clones of humans created for slavery
incomplete dominance. What percentage
of the offspring will have pink (RW) flow- B. Cure of a deadly disease
ers? Use a Punnett square to answer. C. Increased life span
A. 0% D. Hybrid plants
B. 25% 117. p. 6 To make more insulin they inject the

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. 50% human gene for insulin into
D. 100% A. a virus

112. An individual has three number 21 chro- B. bacteria

mosomes. Which is most likely the cause? C. a tomato
A. disjunction D. a dinosaur
B. crossing over 118. Which of these human traits is altered by
C. gene mutation variations in environment?
D. DNA replication A. hairline
B. height
113. An individual’s sex is determined by
C. smile dimples
A. 1 of 23 chromosomes
D. blood type
B. 2 of 46 chromosomes
C. 4 of 92 chromosomes 119. A is used to track the occurrence of a
trait in a family.
D. none of above
A. karyote
114. An allele whose trait always shows up in
B. pedigree
the organism when the allele is present.
C. genome
A. recessive allele
D. none of above
B. dominant allele
C. hidden allele 120. The full set of genetic information in an
organism’s DNA.
D. present allele
A. Karyotype
115. What role does DNA play in living organ- B. Pedigree
isms?
C. Genome
A. DNA converts light energy into chemi-
cal energy. D. Autosome
B. DNA contains nutrients that cells are 121. Hemophilia is a recessive sex-linked trait.
able to ingest. If H = normal & h = has hemophilia,
C. DNA provides instructions for cellular which genotype represents a male with
activities. hemophilia.

D. DNA stores water molecules that hy- A. XHY

drate an organism’s cells. B. XHXh

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 15

C. XhXh D. By determining the number of chromo-

D. XhY somes in an organism

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125. Why are advantageous traits more likely
122. an example of polygenic inheritance is
to be passed onto offspring?
A. Because they are more likely to sur-
A. height vive and reproduce.
B. hitch hikers thumb B. Because they come from dominant al-
C. blood types leles.
D. none of above C. Because they come from recessive al-
leles.
123. In the 1920’s, a woman by the name of D. Because the trait is an acquired pheno-
Anna Anderson claimed to be the Grand type.
Duchess Anastasia, the youngest daughter
of Tsar Nicholas II. However, DNA test- 126. Which of the following is a phenotype?
ing confirmed that she was not who she A. BB
claimed to be. Which of the following uses
B. Bb
of biotechnology does this example best
demonstrate? C. bb
A. Biotechnology allows for the im- D. Blue eyes
proved varieties of plants, animals, and 127. What are some examples of Autosomal
medicines. recessive disorders? Select all that Apply
B. Biotechnology allows for determining A. Breast Cancer
the degree of relatedness among individ-
B. Sickle Cell disease
uals.
C. Cystic fibrosis
C. Biotechnology allows for the screen-
ing and possible treatment of genetic dis- D. Huntington’s Disease
orders. 128. Which disorder or disease has alleles that
D. Biotechnology allows for criminals to are co-dominant with each other?
be captured through forensic testing. A. Cystic Fibrosis
124. CRISPR-Cas9 is a genetic modification B. Sickle-cell Disease
technique that edits parts of the genome C. Down Syndrome
of an organism. Using this technique scien- D. Hemophilia
tists can add, remove, or modify sections
of the DNA sequence. How can scientists 129. A scientist cloned a goat. Which of
use this technique to control gene expres- these is a true statement about the cloned
sion? goat?
A. By activating or deactivating specific A. It has new genes and traits
genes B. It lacks the genes for reproduction
B. By calculating the number of genes dif- C. It has the genes that are identical to
ferent organisms produce the original goat
C. By identifying how closely related one D. It looks the same but has different
individual is to another genes.

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 16

130. What did Mendel discover about reces- C. a low rate of genetic diseases
sive traits? D. delayed aging
A. Recessive traits reappear in the sec-
ond generation. 135. In mice, black fur is dominant over white
fur. A mouse with black fur mates with a
B. Recessive traits disappear altogether. white mouse. They produce 11 offspring,
C. Recessive traits never appear in the 10 of which have black fur. Which is the
second generation most likely genotype of the black mouse?

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Recessive traits become dominant. A. BB
B. Bb
131. Humans with genetic diseases can have a
gene inserted into their body using a virus. C. bb
This is called: D. BB or Bb
A. Gene therapy 136. G = green, g = yellowThe genotype for a
B. Cloning yellow plant is
C. DNA fingerprinting A. GG
D. none of above B. Gg
C. gg
132. Co-Dominance and Incomplete Dominance
both have D. all of the choices result in yellow
A. 2 dominant traits 137. In gel electrophoresis, DNA fragments mi-
B. 2 recessive traits grate toward one end of a gel because
they are
C. 1 dominant trait
A. pulled toward that end by gravity
D. 1 recessive trait
B. attracted to complementary DNA frag-
133. Which of the following is a theoretical ments at that end of the gel
benefit of cloning? C. attracted to the positively charged end
A. The variation in a species could be in- of the gel
creased. D. repelled by hydrophobic molecules at
B. Organisms with new traits could be the other end of the gel
produced.
138. What causes mutations?
C. Genetic diseases in humans could be
A. Mistakes in replication or environmen-
cured.
tal substances
D. Populations of endangered species
B. The amino acids
could be increased.
C. Passed down by genetics
134. Researchers have been working on D. It’s how your born
cloning animals such as sheep. Which re-
sult is most likely to be a negative result 139. A person with Type A blood most likely
such as cloning? has which genotype?
A. development of extra organs A. IAIA only
B. premature death B. IAi only

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 17

C. IAIB only 144. Tay-Sachs disease is a recessive genetic

D. ]IAIA or IAi disorder. If only one gene is present, an
individual is a carrier. What is the prob-

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140. In what disorder does a person have an ability of two healthy Tay-Sachs carriers
extra copy on its 21 chromosome? having a child that has the disease
A. Down Syndrome A. 0%
B. Sickle-Cell B. 25%
C. Hemophilia C. 50%

D. Cystic Fibrosis D. 75%

141. Which of the following is a genetic disor- 145. Which technique would most likely be
der that results from having an extra chro- used by forensic scientists?
mosomes? A. Cloning
A. colorblindness B. Gene Therapy
B. Down syndrome C. DNA Fingerprinting
C. cystic fibrosis D. Karyotyping
D. none of above 146. If a woman has type A blood and her child
has type O blood, the father must have
142. Hemophilia, a bleeding disorder, is a which of the following blood types?
human sex-linked trait. A man with
hemophilia (XhY) marries a woman who A. A, B, or O
carries one gene for the disorder (XHXh). B. A or O
What are the chances that their first born C. AB or B
son will have hemophilia? You need to
work a Punnett square on paper. (3B3) D. O only

A. 0% 147. Which of the following alleles is homozy-

B. 50% gous (purebred) recessive?

C. 75% A. Tt
B. tt
D. 100%
C. TT
143. Colorblindness is more common in males
D. t
than in females because the allele for col-
orblindness is 148. A pair of identical twins were separated
A. dominant and located on the X chromo- at birth and raised by different parents.
some. Both were found to have the gene for type
II diabetes, but only one developed the dis-
B. recessive and located on the Y chromo- ease. What could explain this? (3.2.3)
some.
A. mutation and genetic recombination
C. recessive and located on the X chromo-
some. B. independent assortment

D. recessive and located on the Y chromo- C. environmental influence

some. D. segregation of alleles

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 18

149. Which of the following does not cause C. TTyy x TTYy

mutations? D. TtYy x TtYy
A. X-rays
154. Testing that identifies changes in chromo-
B. Chemicals like tobacco or pollutants somes, genes, or proteins to rule out ge-
C. Drinking water netic disease and determine likelihood of
developing a genetic disorder.
D. UV rays
A. Selective Breeding
150. Colorblindness is a recessive x-linked dis-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Genetic Screening
order. Which genotype represents a male
with normal vision? C. Gene Therapy
A. XNXN D. Cloning
B. XnXn 155. Which of these is a diagram in which sev-
C. XNY eral generations of a family and the occur-
rence of certain genetic characteristics are
D. XnY shown?
151. (3.1) In a sample of double-stranded A. Pedigree
DNA, 30% of the nitrogenous bases are B. Karyotype
thymine. What percentage of the nitroge-
C. Codon
nous bases in the sample are adenine?
D. Punnett Square
A. 20%
B. 60% 156. A person with a genetic disease that
codes for a specific protein could be a can-
C. 70% didate for which of the following?
D. 30% A. Cloning
152. In gel electrophoresis, DNA fragments B. Gene therapy
move from C. DNA fingerprinting
A. Positive to Negative D. Gel electrophoresis
B. Negative to Positive 157. One of the main reasons genes assort in-
C. Positive to Positive dependent of one another is that
D. Negative to Negative A. they produce unrelated traits
153. In peas, the trait for tall plants is dom- B. they produce related traits
inant (T) and the trait for short plants is C. they are on the same chromosome
recessive (t). The trait for yellow seeds D. they are on different chromosomes.
is dominant (Y) and the trait for green
seeds is recessive (y).A cross between 158. Which of the following is false?
two plants results in 292 tall, yellow A. Results from chorionic villus sampling
plants and 103 short, green plants. What come faster than from amniocentesis
are the most likely genotypes of the par- B. Chorionic villus sampling is typically
ents? performed later in the pregnancy than am-
A. TtYY x Ttyy niocentesis
B. TTYy x TTYy C. Ultrasound imaging has no known risk

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 19

D. The complication rate for chorionic vil- C. Both of his parents have recessive
lus sampling is about 2% and for amnio- blue eye characteristics.
centesis is 1%.

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D. Neither of his parents have the reces-
159. Other disorders are caused by changes in sive blue eye characteristic.
the overall structure or number of what? 164. lack of pigment in skin causing patient to
A. Alleles look white
B. Genes A. Cystic fibrosis
C. Chromosomes B. Albinism
D. none of above C. Turner syndrome
D. Fragile X
160. This trait is represented by a lower case
letter and hidden whenever the dominant 165. This is a factor that covers up another fac-
allele is present tor.
A. dominant allele A. Dominant
B. codominance B. Recessive
C. recessive allele C. Homozygous
D. Punnett Square D. Mutation
161. Organism whose genome contains a gene 166. Both parents of a child have type A blood.
for a certain trait or disease that is not ex- What might their child’s blood type be?
pressed in the organism’s phenotype.
A. Type A only
A. Homozygous
B. Type A or type B
B. Carrier
C. Type A or type O
C. Genome
D. Type A or type AB
D. Multiple Alleles
167. A family record that indicates the occur-
162. Which generation shows evidence for rence of a trait is a
crossing-over?
A. pedigree.
A. F2
B. chromosome map.
B. F1
C. genetic therapy.
C. G
D. cardiogram.
D. P
168. What is hybridization?
163. Alex has blue eyes, and both of his par- A. type of selective breeding where two
ents have brown eyes. What can most individuals with similar sets of alleles are
likely be concluded about Alex’s parents? crossed
A. His father has the recessive blue eye B. type of selective breeding that involves
characteristic. the crossing of two genetically differ-
B. His mother has the recessive blue eye ent individuals to bring together the best
characteristic. traits from both parents

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 20

C. the transfer of a gene from one organ- D. The red flower allele is incompletely
ism into another organism in order to pro- dominant to the white allele.
duce desired traits
173. Two heterozygous tall plants (Tt) are
D. the process of changing a gene to treat crossed. What are the expected geno-
a medical disease or disorder, absent or types and percentages of this cross?
faulty gene replaced with a working copy
A. TT 50%; Tt 50%
169. Which of these is an outcome of genetic
B. TT 25%; tt 75%
research

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Tt 25%; TT 50%; tt 25%
A. GMO crops
D. TT 25%; Tt 50%; tt 25%
B. Cloned sheep Dolly
C. Featherless chicken 174. Chromosomal disorder where a male has
D. All of these an extra X chromosome(3.2.2)
A. Down syndrome
170. Hybrids are
B. Turners
A. organisms with two different types of
alleles. C. Jacobs
B. homozygous recessive. D. Klinefelter’s
C. homozygous dominant. 175. What does a Punnett Square help you
D. codons. do?
A. Determine the ratio of phenotypes
171. When a man has an allele combination
Ww for a trait, what percentage of his ga- B. Determine the ratio of genotypes
metes will have a dominant allele for that C. Predict possible traits the offspring
trait? will have
A. 25% D. All of the above
B. 50%
176. Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder in
C. 75% which the body produces abnormally thick
D. 100% in the lungs and intestines?
172. A small, flowering plant has white flow- A. Skin
ers with bright red spots on them. When B. Muscle
this flowering plant is self-pollinated, it
C. Blood
produces new plants with either red flow-
ers, white flowers, or white flowers with D. Mucus
red spots. What is the most likely expla-
177. Use of stem cells to treat or prevent a
nation for this phenomenon?
disease or condition by transplanting bone
A. The red flower allele is recessive to the marrow or umbilical cord blood.
white allele.
A. Gene Therapy
B. The red and white flower alleles are
codominant. B. Inbreeding

C. The red flower allele is dominant to the C. Genetic Screening

white allele. D. Stem Cell Therapy

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 21

178. Breeders use the technique called to 181. Gametes produced by an organism con-
cross genetically different individuals. tain a combination of genes from that or-
ganism. In every gamete, this combination

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A. selective breeding
is-
B. hybridization
A. the same because it is created from
C. cloning
the same DNA
D. none of above
B. the same because chromosomes are
179. This is a procedure that allows scientists copied prior to meiosis
to make more copies of DNA in a short C. different due to DNA replication prior
amount of time. to mitosis
A. DNA replication D. different due to independent assort-
B. DNA synthesis ment during meiosis
C. Gel electrophoresis
182. What is the name of the protein that is
D. PCR not normal in people with sickle-cell dis-
180. Malaria is a disease caused by para- ease?
sites that reproduce within red blood cells. A. mucus
Malaria can cause fever, chills, nausea, B. clotting protein
flu-like symptoms, and in some cases,
coma and death. This disease is prevalent C. karyotype
in warm climates, especially South Amer- D. hemoglobin
ica, Africa, and the southern portions of
Asia.Sickle-cell anemia is a genetic disor- 183. What is the percentage risk of a child in-
der that causes red blood cells to change heriting Huntington’s disease of only one
shape when they are deoxygenated. The parent has the disease?
resultant sickle-shaped blood cells can get A. 0%
stuck in blood vessels and cause damage
B. 25%
and pain. This disease is also prevalent
in South America, Africa, and Asia.Lately, C. 50%
it was discovered that people who carry D. 100%
the sickle-cell trait heterozygously are re-
sistant to malaria. How could biotechnol- 184. The father determines
ogy best use this infomation to help people A. the sex of the offspring.
living in these areas?
B. how attractive the offspring is.
A. Biotechnology could be used to make
the climate cooler so that mosquitoes are C. the height of the offspring.
unable to breed. D. the attitude of the offspring during
B. Biotechnology could be used to elimi- teenage years.
nate all sickle-cell genes.
185. In a particular type of cat, coat color fol-
C. Biotechnology could be used to alter lows the dominant/recessive pattern of
the mosquito DNA. inheritance. The allele for a brown coat
D. Biotechnology could be used to insert (B) is dominant to the allele for a white
malaria resistant genes into humans with- coat (b).One of Susan’s cats is homozy-
out causing sickle cell anemia. gous dominant (BB) and the other cat is

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 22

heterozygous (Bb). Which of the follow- C. family dentist

ing is true about Susan’s cats?
D. brother or sister
A. They have the same genotype but dif-
ferent phenotypes. 189. The sequence of nitrogenous bases in
DNA varies widely. All organisms have
B. They have different genotypes but the
the same nitrogenous bases. The sequence
same phenotype.
of bases in DNA is most important for
C. They have different genotypes and dif- which of the following?

NARAYAN CHANGDER
ferent phenotypes.
A. Providing the instructions for the traits
D. They have the same genotype and the of an organism.
same phenotype.
B. Preventing mutations for occurring
186. Tay Sachs disease is a fatal genetic disor- during DNA replication
der. Children born with this disorder gen- C. Allowing the DNA to have the shape
erally die before they are five years old. A necessary for replication.
couple has had three children who died of
Tay Sachs. About this couple it can safely D. Helping from the sugar-phosphate
be assumed that: backbone of DNA molecules

A. any children they have in the future will 190. What is the human genome?
also die from this disease
A. a piece of DNA
B. they are both heterozygous for the Tay
Sachs trait B. a chromosome

C. they are both homozygous for the Tay C. all of your cells
Sachs trait D. all of your DNA
D. one is heterozygous and the other is
191. (3.1) During the process of replication, a
homozygous for the Tay Sachs trait
molecule of DNA unzips, forming two sin-
187. Which of these choices has a 50% prob- gle strands. What makes up each individ-
ability of happening ual strand of DNA?
A. The offspring of parents with the alle- A. paired adenine and uracil bases
les AA and aa will have the alleles Aa B. paired thymine and guanine bases
B. The offspring of parents with the alle- C. sugar groups attached to individual
les AA and aa will have the alleles aa amino acids
C. The offspring of parents with the alle- D. nitrogenous bases attached to a sugar-
les Aa and Aa will have the alleles Aa phosphate backbone
D. The offspring of parents with the alle-
les Aa and Aa will have the alleles AA 192. A doctor may use a to examine the
chromosomes in a cell.
188. A couple that have a family history of a
A. x-ray
genetic disorder might wish to receive ad-
vice from a B. blood test
A. mutated allele C. karyotype
B. genetic counsellor D. hemoglobin

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 23

193. If a trait is X-linked, males pass the X- gives them a higher pest-resistance than
linked allele to of their daughters. normal. This technology allows farmers to
have higher crop yields and increases the

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A. None
supply of valuable food sources.This tech-
B. 1/4 nology is an example of
C. 1/2 A. binary fission.
D. All B. gene splicing.
194. Characteristics such as a widow’s peak or C. DNA transcription.
attached earlobes are determined by the
D. crossing over.
genetic code. Which components of DNA
are referred to as the genetic code? 199. In a heterozygous genotype, the al-
A. Phosphate groups lele takes over in the phenotype.
B. Nitrogenous bases A. recessive
C. Deoxyribose sugars B. dominant
D. Hydrogen bonds C. lower case letter
195. The purpose of gene therapy is to D. both
A. remove mutations from genes 200. All of the DNA in one cell of an organism
B. cure genetic disorders is called a
C. determine the sequences of genes A. genome
D. none of above B. karyote
196. is the study of how traits are passed C. pedigree
on, or inherited. D. none of above
A. dominant traits
201. To trace the occurrence of a trait through
B. ratio several generations of a family, you could
C. phenotype create
D. genetics A. a pedigree chart
197. Scientists have figured out a way to engi- B. t chart
neer crops that are larger and require less C. punnett square
water to grow.
D. none of above
A. Harmful
B. Beneficial 202. Most genetic disorders of humans are
caused by
C. Neither
A. multiple alleles
D. none of above
B. a mutation that occurs in the egg or
198. Every year millions of crops are lost due sperm
to pests. In recent times, however, scien-
C. recessive alleles
tists have learned that they can insert a
gene into the DNA of specific crops that D. dominant alleles

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 24

203. White fruit is dominant to yellow fruit. A C. homozygous for the trait and able
squash plant that is homozygous for white
D. homozygous for the trait and unable
fruit is crossed with a plant homozygous
for yellow fruit. What is the probability
208. When a virus invades a living cell, its
of producing a yellow phenotype?
takes over the cell’s functions.
A. 0%
A. outer coat
B. 50%
B. genetic material

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. 75%
C. core
D. 100%
D. cytoplasm
204. Making a genetically identical copy of
DNA or of an organism. 209. A normal human female has which of the
A. DNA following sex chromosomes? (3B3)
B. cell A. XXXY
C. cloning B. XY
D. protein C. XX
205. What type of chromosomal abnormality D. XXY
do people with Down Syndrome have?
A. trisomy 21 210. Which of the following transplanted
genes would be least useful for a host
B. monosomy 21 cell?
C. recessive inheritance
A. a gene that increases the cell’s resis-
D. dominant inheritance tance to diseases
206. Which of following developments is an B. a gene that increased the range of tem-
advance in medicine that the application of peratures in which the cell could survive
genetic science has allowed?
C. a gene that reduced the amount of vari-
A. development of genetic counseling as ation in the offspring of the host organism
a career
D. a gene that reduced the cell’s energy
B. development of a method of DNA fin- requirements
gerprinting
C. production of proteins, such as insulin, 211. Which of the following best describes re-
for use as drugs combinant DNA?
D. cloning of animals and engineeringof A. DNA that has genes from a different or-
agricultural crops ganism

207. A carrier of a genetic disorder who does B. DNA that is ONLY found in bacteria
not show symptoms is most likely to be C. DNA that is used for the Human
to transmit it to offspring. Genome Project
A. heterozygous for the trait and able D. DNA that is created by scientists for a
B. heterozygous for the trait and unable variety of projects

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 25

212. Genetic engineering is the process of C. None of these

manipulating genes for practical pur- D. Use of reproductive sperm donation to
poses.How could genetic engineering most

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increase fertility
likely benefit people with genetic diseases
in the future? 216. An organism’s body is constructed using
A. Genes causing diseases could be re- the information contained in
placed with various types of plant genes. A. memory
B. Genes causing diseases could be re- B. inherited traits.
paired through the use of recombinant
C. genes.
DNA.
D. proteins.
C. Genes causing diseases could be erad-
icated from the human genome through 217. In fruit flies eye color is carried on the X
the use of restriction enzymes. chromosome. RED is dominant to WHITE.
D. Genes causing diseases could be What is the sex and color of the follow-
cloned and placed into other human cells. ing:XRXR
A. female red
213. Which of the following can cause new al-
leles to form and may lead to genetic dis- B. female white
eases? C. male red
A. Mitosis D. male white
B. Meiosis
218. Most people afflicted with recessive dis-
C. Radiation orders are born to parents who were
D. Variation A. slightly affected by the disease, show-
214. Sex-linked genetic diseases are found ing some but not all of the symptoms
A. in equal proportions in males and fe- B. not affected at all by the disease
males. C. subjected to some environmental toxin
B. more in males than females. that caused the disease in their children
C. more in females than females. D. both affected by the disease
D. more in children than adults. 219. Two brown eyed parents (Bb) have a
baby. What is the chance the baby is blue
215. Until recently, looking through detailed
eyed?
records on family history of disease was
the only way to try to avoid certain ge- A. 0 %
netic conditions in some purebred dogs, B. 25%
such as a bleeding disorder called von
Willebrand’s Disease. What technological C. 50%
advances may have reduced the need for D. 75%
this process?
220. In fruit flies, eye color is a sex linked trait.
A. Determination of the sequence of the Red is dominant to white . What would
human genome be the percentages of offspring of a cross
B. Development of canine testing for ge- between a white-eyed female with a red-
netic disease carriers eyed male?

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 26

A. 1 female white eyes, 1 female red- B. Transcription turns DNA into RNA and
eyes, 1 male white eyes, 1 male red-eyes Translation turns RNA into proteins.
B. 2 female red eyes, 2 males white eyes C. Translation takes DNA and copies it
C. 2 female white eyes, 2 males red eyes while Transcription turns DNA into Pro-
teins.
D. 2 female red eyes, 1 male red eyes, 1
male white eyes D. Transcription take DNA and copies it
while Translation turns DNA into Proteins.
221. Genetic engineering has produced goats

NARAYAN CHANGDER
whose milk contains proteins that can be 224. In Somatic Cell Gene Therapy, the genes
used as medicines. This effect was pro- transferred are usually normal alleles that
duced by could “ “ the mutant or disease alleles
A. mixing genes into the milk of the recipient
B. injecting genes into the goats udders A. treat
C. inserting foreign genes into fertilized B. correct
goat eggs C. incorrect
D. genetically modifying the nutritional
D. heal
needs of the goats offspring
222. Many genetic disorders have mild, mod- 225. Purple is dominant to white. A heterozy-
erate, and severe disease forms that are gous purple flower is crossed with a white
identified by speed of symptom progres- flower. What are the genotypes and phe-
sion. As disease features may worsen notypes of the offspring?
over several years, the severity of the A. 100% Pp (purple)
disease cannot always be determined in
B. 50% Pp (purple); 50% pp (white)
childhood.Which of the following techno-
logical advances would help doctors deter- C. 75% Pp (purple); 25% pp (white)
mine whether an individual has the most D. 25% PP, 50% Pp, 25% pp75% purple,
severe form of a disease in childhood? 25% white
A. The discovery of a similar genetic dis-
ease that occurs in a mild disease form 226. This project was established to identify
all 300, 000+ genes found in our DNA.
B. The discovery of a specific gene muta-
tion associated with the severe disease A. Human genome project
form B. Animal DNA study
C. The discovery of a new biochemical C. Human genetics road map project
test that identifies presence of the dis-
ease D. The DNA solution
D. The discovery of a specific gene muta- 227. When is a recessive allele expressed in
tion associated with the mild disease form offspring?
223. What is the difference between transla- A. when two copies are present
tion and transcription?
B. when parents have no dominant alleles
A. Translation take DNA and turns it into
RNA and transcription turns RNA into Pro- C. when the offspring is heterozygous
teins. D. when one copy is present

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 27

228. Autosomal genetic diseases are found C. Autosomes

A. in equal proportions in males and fe- D. Sex Chromosomes

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males.
234. Exposure to the building material as-
B. more in males than females. bestos has been linked to certain types of
C. more in females than females. cancers. Asbestos causes mutations in the
D. more in children than adults. p53 gene, which controls tumor suppres-
sion. Which statement best explains why
229. An organism in which foreign genes have people with cancer due to asbestos expo-
been incorporated is called a(n) sure do not pass the mutation on to their
A. recombinant organism offspring?

B. transgene recombinant A. The mutation occurred in somatic

cells.
C. polymorphism
B. The mutation occurred in gametic
D. transgenic organism cells.
230. Which organisms are used to manufac- C. The mutation is recessive.
ture human insulin? D. The mutation is sex-linked.
A. Protozoans
235. Cows are selectively bred to produce
B. Algae milk. Which of the following will cause the
C. Bacteria next generation to receive the trait to pro-
D. Amoebas duce large quantities of milk?
A. nutrients in their food
231. A condition in which a person’s skin, hair,
and eyes lack normal coloring is called B. mineral in their water

A. albinism C. electrical impulses to their brains

B. Down syndrome D. information in their chromosomes

C. colorblindness 236. Which of these is an example of the ben-

D. none of above efits of genetic engineering?
A. cross-breeding to create disease-
232. If the diploid number of chromosomes resistance crops
of a dog is 78, how many chromosomes
would be in each gamete at the end of B. creating human insulin to treat people
meiosis? with diabetes

A. 39 chromosomes C. analyzing karyotypes and pedigree

charts
B. 46 chromosomes
D. growing a new plant from a cutting
C. 78 chromosomes
D. 156 chromosomes 237. A nursing student has been asked to ex-
plain the term “genome” in a genetics
233. Humans have 23 pairs of chromosomes, class. Which statement is correct?
22 of the pairs are called A. Genome is the study of genes.
A. Polyploids B. Genome is the entire genetic constitu-
B. Nondisjuction tion of an individual.

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 28

C. Genome refers to the physical charac- D. make transgenic bacteria that can be
teristics that one inherits. used to clean up oil spills more quickly
D. Genome refers to the set of chromo- than do the natural bacteria
somes excluding the sex chromosomes. 242. A new organism is made that has the
exact same genes as the organism from
238. A nurse is caring for a patient with Down which it was produced, creating an exact
syndrome. What chromosomal abnormal- copy of the organism from which it came.
ity does the nurse determine this patient
A. Cloning

NARAYAN CHANGDER
has?
B. Gene Splicing
A. Trisomy 22
C. Stem Cell Therapy
B. Trisomy 23
D. Transgenic Organisms
C. Trisomy 21
243. Which of the following pairs of geno-
D. Trisomy 9
types result in the same phenotype?
239. How does CRISPR differ from previous A. IAIA and IAIB
techniques of gene editing? B. IBIB and IBi
A. slower, more expensive, but more ac- C. IBIB and IAIB
curate
D. IBi and ii
B. faster, cheaper, and more accurate
244. A cross between homozygous purple-
C. faster, more expensive, more accu- flowered and homozygous white-
rate flowered pea plants results in offspring
D. slower, cheaper, less accurate with purple flowers. This is an example
of
240. Which term(s) best describes the inheri- A. dominance
tance of human blood types?
B. true-breeding
A. incomplete dominance and multiple al-
C. a dihybrid cross
leles
D. incomplete dominance
B. codominance and epistasis
245. Recombinant DNA
C. codominance and multiple alleles
A. codes for amino acids
D. incomplete dominance and codomi-
nance B. joins DNA from 2 or more sources
C. keeps organisms from dying
241. An application of using DNA technology
D. makes gel electrophoresis
to help environmental scientists would be
246. What is the chance of two parents with
A. use PCR to analyze DNA at a crime blood types AB and O producing an off-
scene spring with blood type O?
A. 0%
B. create a tobacco plant that glows in
the dark B. 25%
C. clone the gene for human growth hor- C. 50%
mone to treat pituitary dwarfism D. 100%

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 29

247. When a red horse (RR) is crossed with A. Phenotype

a white horse (WW), the offspring are B. Chromosome
all roan (RW). Which of the following ex-

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plains this type of inheritance? (3B3) C. Nucleictype
A. Multiple alleles D. Genotype
B. Codominance 252. What is another name for “true breed-
C. incomplete dominance ing? ”
D. Sex-linked inheritance A. Heterozygous

248. A scientist crosses a rabbit with short fur B. Purebred

and a rabbit with long fur. Which of these C. Hybrid
outcomes would show that the trait for fur D. Cross Pollinating
length is an example of incomplete domi-
nance? 253. Which concerns might a vegetarian
A. All the offspring have no fur raise about eating a genetically modified
tomato?
B. All the offspring have long fur
A. It is organic.
C. All the offspring have short fur
B. It has cucumber genes.
D. All the offspring have medium-length
fur C. It contains animal genes.

249. Stem cell research has been a controver- D. It has been genetically altered to re-
sial subject in past years. What is the rea- sist tomato blight.
son for this? 254. What are the two ways that genetic dis-
A. Cells for study are often taken from hu- orders can be inherited?
man embryos.
A. Through blood transfusions and meio-
B. Stem cell techniques will not accom- sis.
plish the intended purpose.
B. Mutations in DNA and changes in struc-
C. The cells cannot be isolated. ture or number of chromosomes.
D. Replacement tissue will never be C. Missing chromosomes or premature
grown from a person’s own stem cells. egg splitting.
250. A wolf attacks a porcupine and gets D. Unhealthy environments and heredity.
stung with quills. The wolf no longer at-
tacks porcupines. What type of behavior 255. A mother carries one allele of a reces-
does the wolf exhibit? sive gene for a disease on an autosome,
and the father carries no recessive alleles.
A. inherited behavior What is the likelihood of their child having
B. social behavior the disease?
C. imitation A. 0%
D. learned behavior B. 50%

251. The physical appearance of the organism C. 75%

is known as the D. 100%

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 30

256. Gel electrophoresis is used to create B. incomplete dominance

a unique DNA fingerprint composed of C. that the parents were both heterozy-
different-sized DNA fragments. What are gous
the molecules responsible for cutting DNA
into fragments of different sizes prior to D. that each offspring has the same alle-
running gel electrophoresis? les
A. transferase enzymes 261. A carrier is a person who has
B. restriction enzymes A. one recessive and one dominant allele

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. hydrolase enzymes for a trait
D. ligase enzymes B. two recessive alleles for a trait

257. Blood type is determined by multiple al- C. two dominant alleles for a trait
leles. A woman with type O blood mar- D. more than two alleles for a trait
ries a man who is heterozygous for type
B blood.What is the probability that their 262. is a diagram that can be used to pre-
first child will have type AB blood? dict the possible outcomes of a genetic
crossing.
A. 0%
A. Mendel Square
B. 25%
B. Punnett Square
C. 50%
D. 100% C. Genetic Square
D. Allele Square
258. The process of selecting a few organisms
with desired traits to serve as parents of 263. What is a Stem cell?
the next generation.
A. Undifferentiated cell of an embryo
A. Genetic Engineering
B. A cell that has the potential to become
B. Transgenic Organisms many different types of cells
C. Selective Breeding C. Neither of these answers are correct
D. Cloning D. Both of these answers are correct
259. Which of the following combinations of 264. the passing of genetic traits from parent
alleles represents the same phenotype but to offspring.
different genotypes?
A. heredity
A. Aa and AA
B. trait
B. Aa and aa
C. gene
C. AA and aa
D. allele
D. Aa and Aa
265. Which best describes polygenic traits?
260. Two plants are crossed, resulting in off-
spring with a 3:1 phenotypic ratio for a A. traits that are always dominant to
particular trait. This suggests other traits
A. that the parents were true-breeding B. traits that are always masked by any
for contrasting traits other traits

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 31

C. traits that skip generations and appear 269. X-linked conditions are more common in
in the offspring of later generations men than in women because

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D. traits that are determined by a com- A. The genes associated with the X linked
bined effect of more than one pair of conditions are linked to the X chromo-
genes some, which determines maleness.
266. Fragile X syndrome is a sex-linked disor- B. Men need to inherit only one copy of
der that can cause mental impairment. A the recessive allele for the condition to be
woman who is a fragile X carrier marries fully expressed
a normal man. Study the Punnett square. C. Women simply do not develop the dis-
Which of the following is true about the ease regardless of their genetic composi-
offspring of this mother and father? (3B3) tion
A. Daughters may or may not carry the D. The sex chromosomes are more active
disorder, and sons may or may not have in men than in women
the disorder
270. in how man get obtain this disease?
B. Daughters and sons may both be car-
riers of the disorder and sons may also A. 100
have the disorder B. 1000
C. Daughters will always be carriers of C. 500
the disorder and sons will always have the D. 10 000
disorder
271. Treatable disease that eventually will be
D. Daughters may or may not have the
fatal. A person with this disease produces
disorder and sons may or may not carry
large amounts of mucous in the respiratory
the disorder
and digestive tracts. The person would
267. Scientists genetically engineer corn to be have a hard time obtaining necessary nu-
immune to corn diseases. This is BENEFI- trients and must undergo daily treatments
CIAL because to get rid of mucous in the airways.
A. This causes corn to be less likely to re- A. PKU
produce B. Tay-Sachs
B. This causes corn to be less likely to sur- C. Huntington’s
vive
D. Cystic Fibrosis
C. This causes corn to be smaller
272. What kind of genetically modified crops
D. This allows increased production of
would be most successful in wet-tropical
corn
countries that are overcrowded?
268. What is Genetic Engineering? A. crops that are drought-and pest-
A. the manipulation of an organism’s resistant
genes B. high-yield crops that do not need a lot
B. a change in an organism’s genes of sunshine
C. a random and abrupt disruption to C. high-yield crops that are pest-
DNA resistant
D. the manipulation of an organism’s ap- D. crops that are drought-resistant and
pearance need a lot of sunshine

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 32

273. A human disorder caused by a dominant C. 50% of daughters and 50% of sons
gene is have hemophilia
A. Tay-Sachs D. 100% of sons have hemophilia and
B. CF 100% of daughters are carriers

C. PKU 277. Heterozygous phenotype that is a blend

D. Huntington’s of the two homozygous phenotypes.
A. Co-Dominance
274. In garden peas, a single gene controls

NARAYAN CHANGDER
stem length. The recessive allele (t) pro- B. Incomplete dominance
duces short stems when homozygous. The C. Multiple alleles
dominant allele (T) produces long stems. A D. Polygenic Traits
short-stemmed plant is crossed with a het-
erozygous long-stemmed plant. Which of 278. A graphic representation of an individ-
the following represents the expected phe- ual’s family tree is a
notypes of the offspring and the ratio in A. Punnet square
which they will occur?
B. cladogram
A. 3 long-stemmed plants:1 short-
stemmed plant C. pedigree

B. 1 long-stemmed plant:1 short- D. karyotype

stemmed plant 279. Dad-cancer (CY)Mom-cancer (Cc)C-
C. 1 long-stemmed plant:3 short- Cancerc-no cancerCancer is X-linked.2.
stemmed plants What are the odds that ALL CHILDREN
D. Long-stemmed plants only will have cancer?
A. 0%
275. Recently, scientists have genetically en-
gineered fruit crops to contain vaccines. B. 25%
How might these fruit crops most likely C. 50%
benefit society? D. 75%
A. They could make fruit crops more pro- E. 100%
ductive than they were before.
B. They could make it cheaper and easier 280. One function of gel electrophoresis is to
to administer vaccines. A. separate DNA fragments
C. They could encourage people to eat B. cut DNA
healthier food. C. recombine DNA
D. They could help eradicate all infectious D. extract DNA
diseases in the world.
281. What is the probability that a human
276. If a woman is a carrier for a sex linked sperm cell will carry a X chromosome?
recessive trait of hemophilia and her hus-
band has hemophilia, which of the follow- A. 50%
ing is true? Do the Punnett square. B. 100%
A. All sons will have hemophilia C. 25%
B. all daughters will have hemophilia D. 0%

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 33

282. Being able to roll your tongue (R) is domi- 287. If a gene is found only on the X chromo-
nant over not having the ability to roll your some and not the Y chromosome, it is said
tongue (r). Cross two people who are both to be what?

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hybrids. What are the genotypic ratios? A. sex-linked trait
A. 1 RR:1 Rr B. polygenic trait
B. 1 RR:2 Rr:1 rr C. codominant trait
C. 1 Rr:1 rr D. incomplete dominance trait
D. 3 Tongue rollers:1 Non-tongue roller 288. A DNA fingerprint is made using what
E. 1 Tongue roller:1 Non-tongue roller technique?
A. PCR
283. The cloned animal looks like the
B. Karyotyping
A. egg donor
C. Electrophoresis
B. nucleus donor
D. Cloning
C. surrogate (or foster) mother
D. all of the above 289. The failure of chromosomes to separate
properly during meiosis is called
284. Which of the following is true about DNA A. Nondisjuction
mutations?
B. X-chromosomes inactiviation
A. Mutations can only occur in the body
C. Turner’s syndrome
cells of an organism.
D. Down syndrome
B. Mutations can only occur in the sex
cells of an organism. 290. Most sex-linked disorders are carried on
C. Mutations can spontaneously occur the X chromosome, but a few are carried
during DNA replication. on the Y chromosome. Which of the follow-
ing would always be true about offspring
D. Mutations can only be caused by envi- born to a man having a Y-linked disorder?
ronmental factors such as radiation. (3B3)
285. A gene from one organism is inserted into A. All sons will also have the disorder
the DNA of another organism in the pro- B. All daughters will be carriers of the dis-
cess known as order
A. cloning C. Half the sons and half the daughters
B. selective breeding will be carriers of the disorder
C. genetic engineering D. None of the sons will have the disorder,
but half of the daughters will be carriers
D. none of above
291. John and Sarah had a child born with the
286. Genetically identical to parents genetic disease cystic fibrosis. Both John
A. clones and Sarah were normal, showing no signs
of this disorder. How is it possible for
B. cystic fibrosis
them to have a child with this disease?
C. apple A. Cystic fibrosis must be a dominant trait
D. none of above disorder hidden in both parents’ genotype,

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 34

but not showing in the phenotype, that B. Translation occurs in eukaryotes but
could be passed on to offspring. not prokaryotes.
B. Cystic fibrosis must be a recessive C. Translation transfers information from
trait disorder hidden in both parents’ DNA to RNA.
genotype, but not showing in the pheno- D. Translation produces a polypeptide us-
type, that could be passed on to offspring. ing information in mRNA.
C. Cystic fibrosis must be a dominant
trait disorder hidden in one parents’ geno- 295. Hemophilia is a sex-linked recessive trait.

NARAYAN CHANGDER
type, but not showing in the phenotype, If a man with hemophilia marries a woman
that could be passed on to offspring. who is a carrier for the trait, what are the
predicted phenotypes for their children?
D. Cystic fibrosis must be a recessive
A. 1 carrier male:1 affected male:1 car-
trait disorder hidden in one parents’ geno-
rier female:1 affected female
type, but not showing in the phenotype,
that could be passed on to offspring B. 1 carrier male:1 affected male:1 car-
rier female:1 normal female
292. Students are modeling how genes pro-
C. 1 normal male:1 affected male:1 car-
duce proteins by using wooden tiles with
rier female:1 affected female
letters to represent the genes. In this
model, the words that the combination of D. 1 normal male:1 affected male:1 car-
letters produce represents the proteins. In rier female:1 normal female
this model, which of the following best
represents a mutation? 296. A vector is
A. a type of insect
A. Changing one or more of the letters so
that they spell a different word or no word B. DNA that carries and inserts a new
at all. gene
B. Combining many different words to C. the new gene that is to be inserted
create a complete message. D. protein that carries the new gene
C. Making different words, with a cer-
297. Which genetic disorder or disease is a
tain number of letters, that have the same
sex-linked trait and carried on the X chro-
meaning.
mosome?
D. none of above
A. Cystic Fibrosis
293. This is the study of heredity. B. Sickle-cell Disease
A. Genetics C. Hemophilia
B. Mutation D. Down Syndrome
C. Biology 298. Which would be most effective at pre-
D. Geology venting heart disease?
A. using sunscreen
294. Which statement correctly describes
translation? B. exercising regularly

A. Translation controls gene expression C. eating a diet low in sugars

in cells. D. eating a diet low in phenylalnine

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 35

299. The nurse is reviewing the genetic test re- C. the largest ears need to be used for
sults from a patient who had an amniocen- next years crop.
tesis last week. When determining that

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D. none of above
there are three copies of chromosomes in-
stead of two, what genetic disorder is sus- 303. In the 1860s Gregor Mendel performed
pected? numerous dihybrid crosses between pea
A. Cystic fibrosis plants. Dihybrid crosses involve the study
of the inheritance patterns related to two
B. Down syndrome
different traits. In guinea pigs the allele
C. Sickle cell disease for black fur (B) is dominant over the al-
D. Polycystic kidney disease lele for brown fur (b), and the allele for
short fur (F) is dominant over the allele
300. Tay-Sachs disease is a lethal, autosomal for long fur (f). What percentage of the
recessive genetic disorder. If both parents offspring from a BbFf x bbff cross would
are heterozygous carriers of the disease, be expected to be heterozygous for both
what are the chances of them having a traits?
child who is also a heterozygous carrier for
A. 0%
Tay-Sachs?
B. 25%
A. 0%
B. 25% C. 50%

C. 50% D. 100%

D. 75% 304. What is a punnett square for?

301. There are two types of pea plants:those A. used to figure out which genetic dis-
that produce round seeds and those that ease you have
produce wrinkled seeds. A single gene con- B. used to find out your ancestors
trols which type of seed a pea plant will
C. used to help solve genetic problems
produce.An experiment shows that pea
plants containing an allele for wrinkled D. used to figure out who your parents
seeds may still produce round seeds.Based are
on this information, we can conclude that
the allele for wrinkled seeds in pea plants 305. Snapdragon flowers come in red, pink
is and white. What type of inheritance is
this?
A. recessive
A. Complete Dominance
B. heterozygous
B. Incomplete Dominance
C. dominant
C. Codominance
D. homozygous
D. Polygenic Inheritance
302. In order to create corn with larger ears
through artificial selection, 306. What part of a virus is the protein
capsule that houses the genetic material
A. the smallest ears need to be used for
(DNA/RNA)?
next years crop,
B. the medium sized ears need to be used A. tail
for next years crop. B. nucleus

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 36

C. capsid 312. Which of the following statements best

D. glycoprotein explains why more human males are af-
fected with color blindness than human fe-
307. CF and Tay-Sachs are typical of recessive males? (3B3)
disorders concentrated in A. It is an inherited gene
A. ethnic groups B. It is a dominant gene
B. families with single child C. It is a recessive gene

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. countries with hot climates D. It is a sex-linked gene
D. the U.S.
313. Most babies are tested for this disease
308. having two of the same genes for the at birth. The disease involves the inability
trait (sometimes called purebred). to break down a certain amino acid in pro-
A. homozygous teins. Failure to follow a closely monitored
diet will result in mental retardation.
B. hetrozygous
A. Hemophilia A
C. protein
B. Sickle Cell Anemia
D. chromosome
C. PKU
309. To cut DNA molecules into pieces at spe- D. Tay-Sachs
cific sequences of nucleotides, genetic en-
gineers use 314. A young boy has blood type A. His par-
A. cloning ents have blood types A and B. Which
best represents the genotype of the young
B. insulin
boy?
C. bacteria
A. AA
D. restriction enzymes
B. AB
310. Which of Mendel’s laws states that alle- C. AO
les are distributed to gametes independent
D. BA
of one another?
A. Law of Dominance 315. Gregor Mendel is known as the father of
B. Law of Segregation
C. Law of Independent Assortment A. Modern Medicine

D. Law of Meiosis B. Father of the Green Revolution

C. Father of Genetics
311. The gene that only shows if the offspring
contains the two alleles for this character- D. The Pea Plant Man
istics.
316. R = Dominant red flowersr = Recessive
A. recessive white flowersAs part of the class’s unit on
B. variation genetics, Mr. Franks’ 8th period science
class decided to cross two plants. Each of
C. plum the parent plants had red flowers and the
D. none of above genotype Rr. If the plants produce 100

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 37

offspring, about how many of the plants B. It helps to determine the cost of treat-
will have red flowers? ing genetic diseases.

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A. 100 C. It helps to determine how nutrition
B. 75 cures genetic diseases.
D. It helps to determine environmental ef-
C. 25
fects on genetic diseases.
D. 50
322. All organisms begin as a single cell. Af-
317. The small ring of DNA found in a bacterial ter dividing many times, differentiation oc-
cell used as a biological vector curs. During the process of differentiation,
A. Helix (1.1.3)
B. Plasmid A. some genes are turned on, others are
turned off
C. Clone
B. genes are removed from some cells
D. Nucleotide
C. DNA is modified to contain different
318. The purpose of meiosis is to form genes
cells. D. none of above
A. body
323. A mutation is
B. sex
A. a change in a gene due to damage or
C. somatic incorrect copying.
D. brain B. the evolution of species due to small
changes.
319. Example of mutagens
C. The correction of DNA.
A. all
D. The copying of DNA.
B. x-rays
C. ultraviolet radiation 324. How does a geneticist use a pedigree?

D. tobacco A. to create genetic crosses

B. to replicate identical strings of DNA
320. What is CRISPR?
C. to prove that sex-linked traits are
A. Segment of DNA that has short repeti- caused by codominant alleles
tions of base sequences
D. to trace the inheritance of traits in hu-
B. Enzymes mans
C. DNA Ligase
325. Which best describes the technique of ge-
D. RNA that has been through multiple netic engineering?
mutations
A. Adding foreign DNA to organisms to
321. Which is a sound ethical reason for us- modify the organism’s DNA
ing the Human Genome Project to study B. Manufacturing synthetic DNA in the
genetic diseases? laboratory from chemicals
A. It helps to explain the possible causes C. Cutting segments of DNA of an organ-
of genetic diseases. ism under a microscope

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 38

D. Exposing DNA of an organism to ra- C. CF is a chromosomal mutation and not

dioactivity for mutations related to parental genotypes.
D. CF is caused by a mutation in pair 21.
326. Crossing individuals with similar charac-
teristics so that those desired characteris- 330. In gel electrophoresis, which DNA Frag-
tics will appear in the offspring is called ments move farthest from the starting
A. hybridization point?
B. genetic engineering A. Large Fragments

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. selective breeding B. Small Fragments
D. asexual reproduction C. Medium Fragments
D. Smooth Fragments
327. If 2n = 48 for a particular cell, then
the chromosome number in each cell after 331. Most genetic disorders are caused by
meiosis would be A. dominant alleles
A. 96 B. codominant alleles
B. 48 C. sex-linked alleles
C. 24 D. recessive alleles
D. 12
332. If an organism is homozygous for a par-
328. Normal fruit flies have brownish-yellow ticular trait, the organism
bodies, and this body color is dominant. A. has the same allele on both chromo-
A mutation in the gene for body color somes in a chromosome pair.
produces flies with an ebony body color. B. has extra alleles on both chromo-
A homozygous normal fruit fly (e+e+) is somes in a chromosome pair.
crossed with a homozygous ebony fruit fly
(ee). What is the predicted outcome of this C. is missing alleles on the chromosomes
genetic cross? in a chromosome pair.

A. All the offspring will have brownish- D. has different alleles on the chromo-
yellow bodies. somes in a chromosome pair.

B. Of the offspring, 75% will have 333. Would a mutation in the DNA of a skin cell
brownish-yellow bodies, and 25% will be passed on to an organism’s offspring?
have ebony bodies. A. Yes, because any change to the DNA is
C. All the offspring will have ebony bod- passed on to the offspring
ies. B. Maybe. Sex cells only use half of the
D. Of the offspring, 75% will have ebony body’s genetic code. It might get the copy
bodies, and 25% will have brownish- of a gene that wasn’t mutated.
yellow bodies. C. No. Only mutations that occur in the
gametes (sex cells) are passed on to the
329. Two healthy parents have a child with CF.
offspring
What is the best explanation?
D. Without knowing the animal, it would
A. Not the result of a genetic disorder. be hard to tell whether or not the muta-
B. Both parents carry the recessive gene. tion would be passed on.

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 39

334. What type of disorder is sickle cell ane- C. The National Institute of Health
mia
D. The Geneva Conference

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A. Autosomal dominant
B. Autosomal recessive 339. What type of inheritance would be classi-
fied if you saw Red flowers, Whites flow-
C. X-linked dominant ers and pink flowers come from the same
D. X-linked recessive parents?

335. Colorblindness is a recessive x-linked dis- A. Complete

order. Which genotype represents a fe- B. Incomplete
male who is colorblind?
C. Co-Dominance
A. XNXn
D. Dihybrid
B. XnXn
C. XNXN 340. Cystic Fibrosis (CF) is a genetic disorder
that is controlled by a recessive allele. If
D. XnY
a person suffering from CF were to marry
336. People that do not have the ability to dis- an individual who is heterozygous for the
tinguish hues are considered to have trait, what % of their children could be ex-
pected to unaffected carriers of the trait?
A. progeria
Ignore issues of sterility in persons with
B. cystic fibrous CF.
C. tay-sachs A. 0%
D. colorblindness B. 25%
337. T13-Nondisjunction is related to a num- C. 75%
ber of serious human disorders. How does
D. 50%
nondisjunction cause these disorders?
A. alters the number of zygotes 341. Transcription creates an mRNA molecule
B. alters the chromosome structure using DNA as a template. Where does this
process occur in cells of eukaryotes?
C. alters the number of gametes
A. in the nucleus
D. alters the number of chromosomes
B. in the cytoplasm
338. Genetic disorders are caused by the inser-
tion, deletion, or alteration of segments C. in the ribosomes
of DNA. However, in order for scientists D. in the Golgi apparatus
to be able to determine which genes are
faulty, they must first know the normal 342. The combination of alleles (letters) that
sequences of DNA. In 1990, an interna- is used to describe dominant and recessive
tional effort began to analyze the human alleles. (ABC’s)
DNA sequence.What is the name given to A. Phenotype
this global research that was completed in
2003? B. Genotype
A. The Human Genome Project C. Alleles
B. The DNA Revolution D. Punnet Square

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 40

343. What is the name of the process in which C. Centromere

the egg and sperm merge to produce a com- D. Diploid
plete set of chromosomes?
A. Mitosis 349. Dad-cancer (CY)Mom-cancer (Cc)C-
Cancerc-no cancerCancer is X-linked.2.
B. Fertilization What are the odds that DAUGHTERS will
C. Meiosis have cancer?
D. Halitosis A. 0%

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. 25%
344. Which condition is inherited as a domi-
nant allele? C. 50%
A. cystic fibrosis D. 75%

B. albinism E. 100%

C. Huntington’s disease 350. At birth, Himalayan rabbits are usually

white over their entire bodies. But when
D. Tay-Sacs disease
parts of their bodies reach temperatures
345. If a man does not have hemophilia below 35◦ C, a pigment that causes these
(X linked trait), what percentage of his parts to turn black is produced. Which of
daughters will have hemophilia? the following is most likely the cause of
this phenomenon?
A. 100%
A. Poor blood circulation
B. 75%
B. Infection caused by cold temperatures
C. 50%
C. Gene expression that is regulated by
D. 0% temperature
346. (3.1) Which molecule typically has a dou- D. A trait that is both sex-linked and
ble helix shape? hormone-dependent
A. Cellulose 351. Complex molecule that carries genetic
B. DNA information that defines an organism’s
traits. It is stored in the nucleus.
C. Glucose
A. DNA
D. tRNA
B. protein
347. Image of all of the chromosomes in a cell. C. RNA
A. Autosomes D. glucose nucleic acid (GNA)
B. Pedigree
352. Red-green color blindness is a sex-linked
C. Karyotype trait. Which of the following is not usu-
D. Genetic Sceening ally possible for red-green color blindness?
(3B3)
348. Which term describes the position of a A. A carrier mother to pass the gene on
gene on a chromosome? to her daughter
A. Locus B. A color blind father to pass the gene
B. Allele on to his daughter

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 41

C. A color blind father to pass the gene A. karyotype

on to the son
B. hemoglobin

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D. A carrier mother to pass the gene on
C. pedigree
to her son
D. chromosomal map
353. According to the Law of Segregation, al-
leles are separated during the process of 358. Which of the following is an example of
a GENOTYPE?
A. Mitosis A. 25%
B. Meiosis
B. Blue
C. Osmosis
C. 1:2:1
D. Translation
D. Bb
354. A person’s surroundings or can
change the effects of a person’s genes. 359. Which of the following is the best ex-
ample of a bioengineering technique called
A. pedigree
gene splicing?
B. environment
A. replacing a gene in a human chromo-
C. genomes some to treat a genetic disease
D. none of above
B. producing a piece of DNA that is iden-
355. Which form of selective breeding crosses tical to an existing piece of DNA
parents with the same or similar character- C. inserting bacterial DNA into the DNA
istics? of a crop plant to give the plant a desired
A. fertilization trait
B. inbreeding D. changing the gene pool of a population
C. hybridization by crossing organisms that have a desired
trait
D. cloning
360. Genes are located
356. In guinea pigs, the gene for rough coat
(R) is dominant to smooth coat (r). A male A. only in chromosomes.
with a rough coat and a female with a B. in inherited traits.
smooth coat produce offspring that only
have rough coats. Which is most likely the C. in cytoplasm.
parent genotypes? D. only in sex cells.
A. male is rr; female is rr
361. In a dihybrid cross
B. male is RR; female is rr
C. male is Rr; female is rr A. one trait is crossed.

D. male is Rr; female is Rr B. two traits are crossed.

C. four boxes are needed for the punnett
357. In order to trace occurrence of a trait
square.
through several generations of a family,
you could create a D. mom’s alleles are dominant.

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 42

362. A human egg cell might contain (3.2.1) 367. How can gene therapy positively impact
A. 22 autosomes and an X chromosome society?

B. 22 autosomes and a Y chromosome A. by producing insulin using bacteria

B. by creating fingerprints of criminals
C. 45 autosomes and an X chromosome
C. by mapping all genes in the human pop-
D. 45 autosomes and a Y chromosome
ulation
363. It has been found that the tenderness D. by treating genetic disorders with the

NARAYAN CHANGDER
of beef can be predicted by analyzing a insertion of normal genes
cow’s genes. So, commercial tests are
now available for farmers to be able to 368. Which is true of a normal human male?
determine which of their cows possess the (3B3)
“tough” gene and which possess the “ten- A. He has only one sex chromosome
der” gene. If a farmer routinely tests his
cattle and only allows cows with the “ten- B. He has two X chromosomes
der” gene to mate, what is he doing? C. He has two Y chromosomes
A. Forensic testing D. He has one X chromosome and one Y
chromosome
B. Selective breeding
C. Genetic bias 369. What must occur for a girl to be color-
blind?
D. Recombinant DNA technology
A. each parent must be colorblind
364. What is an example of an autosomal dom-
B. each parent must have the dominant
inant disorder?
allele for colorblindness
A. Sickle Cell Disease
C. each parent must have the recessive
B. Cystic fibrosis allele for colorblindness
C. Breast cancer D. each parent must have two codomi-
D. Hemophilia nant alleles for colorblindness

365. Which disease or disorder causes people 370. When does the cause of XYY happen?
to have abnormal hemoglobin? A. During mitosis
A. Cystic Fibrosis B. During anaphase 1
B. Albinism C. During anaphase 2
C. Sickle-cell Disease D. During metaphase 1
D. Down Syndrome 371. In October of 1990, the US Department
of Energy’s Office of Science and the US
366. A characteristic of an organism that is de-
National Institute of Health began the pro-
termined by many genes.
cess of mapping the human genome. This
A. Gene therapy process was referred to as The Human
B. Sex-linked trait Genome Project and was intended to iden-
tify the 20, 000-25, 000 genes of the
C. Polygenic human genome. A working draft of the
D. Pedigree genome was announced in 2000 and a

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 43

complete one in 2003. Which of the fol- A. locate the first source of a particular
lowing describes the main benefit of com- disease
pleting The Human Genome Project?

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B. improve protection against a particu-
A. Cloning humans lar disease
B. Designing new human genes C. enhance the movement of a particular
C. Patenting specific human genes disease
D. Identifying genetically-based diseases D. change the genetic make-up of a par-
ticular disease
372. Butterflies of the genus Colias live in the
Rocky Mountains, where they experience 375. Cystic Fibrosis is a
a wide range of temperatures. Different A. recessive genetic disorder.
variants of a particular glycolytic enzyme
B. dominant genetic disorder.
in the flight muscles are optimally active at
different temperatures. Within the same C. sex-linked disorder.
population, some individual butterflies fly D. multiple allele disorder.
most effectively at 29◦ C, while others fly
most effectively at 40◦ C. Still others can 376. How many alleles control blood types?
be equally active at both temperatures. A. 3
Which of the following claims is most con-
B. 2
sistent with the observed butterfly behav-
ior? C. 4
A. Butterflies that express two variants D. 1
of the enzyme are active over a greater
range of temperature 377. One trait that is ALWAYS present and
causes the other traits to disappear is a
B. Butterflies that are active over a wide
range of temperatures produce greater
amounts of the enzyme. A. recessive trait
C. Temperature has little effect on the ac- B. aggressive trait
tivity of butterflies. C. absent trait
D. Butterflies that are active at warmer D. dominant trait
temperatures produce more offspring
378. (3.3) Which of the following describes a
373. Homologous chromosomes will have sim- mutation in a parent that could change the
ilar genes on them. However, they could phenotype of its future offspring?
have different versions of these genes.
A. a mutation in the RNA of a skin cell
These different versions are called
B. a mutation in the DNA of a liver cell
A. Mutants
C. a mutation in the RNA of a brain cell
B. Recombinants
D. a mutation in the DNA of a sperm cell
C. Alleles
D. Mendel’s code 379. Which of the following is an example of
a heterozygous genotype?
374. Genetic engineering has helped produce
many different types of vaccines. Vaccines A. RR
are used to- B. Rr

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 44

C. rr 384. In 1917 the biologist Thomas Hunt Mor-

gan conducted studies in which he kept
D. none of above
some caterpillars in the dark and placed
380. Dr. Smith’s parents have normal hearing. some others under red, green, or blue
However, Dr. Smith has inherited a form lights. Exposure to red light produced but-
of deafness. Deafness is a recessive trait terflies with brightly colored wings. Expo-
that is associated with the abnormal al- sure to green light resulted in dark-colored
lele (d). The allele associated with normal wings. Exposure to blue light or no light
resulted in pale-colored wings. What was

NARAYAN CHANGDER
hearing is (D). Dr. Smith’s parents could
have which of the following genotypes? the most likely conclusion of Morgan’s re-
search?
A. DD and dd
A. The pigment in butterfly wings absorbs
B. dd and dd light from the environment.
C. Dd and Dd B. The phenotypic expression of wing
shape depends on color pigmentation in
D. DD and DD butterflies.
381. Black fur in mice (B) is dominant to brown C. The genes regulating wing color in but-
fur (b). Short tails (S) are dominant to long terflies are influenced by environmental
tails (s). What percentage of the offspring factors.
of the cross BbTt x BBtt will have black fur D. Caterpillars exposed to red and green
and long tails? light are healthier than caterpillars ex-
posed to no light or blue light.
A. 0%
B. 25% 385. A woman with type AB blood marries
a man with type O blood. Their children
C. 50% could have which of the following blood
D. 100% types? Select all that apply. Show your
Punnett square on paper. (3B3)
382. A mutation is defined as: A. Type A
A. A change in the cell’s structure B. Type B
B. Anything that changes in an embryo C. Type AB
D. Type O
C. Any change in the physical features of
a human 386. If one of your parents has Huntington’s,
D. A change in the DNA sequence what is your chance of inheriting it?
A. 0%
383. Biologists need additional copies of a B. 25%
DNA fragment. What tool should they
use? C. 50%
D. 75%
A. Gel Electrophoresis
E. 100%
B. PCR
387. In what way did gene therapy, the re-
C. Restriction enzymes
placement of a faulty gene with a normal
D. This isn’t possible one, stimulate medical research?

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 45

A. New medications had to be developed D. offspring inherit a wider variety of ge-

and tested. netic information

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B. The effects of viral DNA had to be stud-
392. What are the enzymes used in the pro-
ied.
cess of gene transfer using plasmids in bac-
C. The way in which DNA replicates had teria?
to be determined.
A. DNA ligase and DNA polymerase
D. The genes on each chromosome had to
B. DNA polymerase and Helicase
be mapped and described.
C. Restriction endonuclease and DNA lig-
388. A red flowering plant is crossed with ase
a white-flowering plant, and only pink-
D. Helicase and Restriction endonucle-
flowering plants are produced. Which of
ase
the following explains this pattern of in-
heritance? (3B3) 393. Roan color in cattle is controlled by
A. Multiple alleles codominant genes for both red (R) and
B. Linked genes white (W) hair. If a roan cow is crossed
with a white bull, what percent of off-
C. incomplete dominance spring would be white? Show your Pun-
D. Codominance nett square on paper. (3B3)
A. 0%
389. A mutation can be passed to offspring
only if it takes place in a(n) cell. B. 25%
A. sex C. 50%
B. rare D. 100%
C. diploid
394. A white rabbit whose parents are both
D. none of above white produces only gray offspring when
mated with a gray rabbit. What is the
390. DNA technology is being used to develop most likely genotype of the white rabbit
crop plants that are regarding coat color? (3B3)
A. less toxic to the pests that normally A. Homozygous dominant
feed on them
B. Homozygous recessive
B. more susceptible to herbicides
C. Heterozygous
C. unable to fix nitrogen in the atmo-
sphere D. Codominant
D. resistant to some diseases 395. What is the international project which
mapped the entire genetic material of the
391. What is one advantage of sexual repro-
human genome?
duction?
A. Human clone project
A. offspring are identical to parents
B. Human genome project
B. offspring are resistant to viruses
C. offspring are born live, rather thna C. Human disease project
from eggs D. Human chromosome project

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 46

396. A sex-linked trait in which an individual 401. If a father is AA and a mother is AB,
cannot perceive certain colors. what is the probability for a child with AB
blood?
A. tay-sachs disease
A. 0%
B. color blindness
B. 25%
C. X chromosomal disorder
C. 50%
D. Huntington’s disease
D. 75%

NARAYAN CHANGDER
397. Which of the following is always true of
linked genes? (3B3) 402. One of the goals of the Human Genome
Project is to
A. They assort independently
A. increase the number of genes in the
B. They are never separated human genome
C. They are always recessive B. map the location of only the most im-
D. They are on the same chromosomes portant genes on each chromosome
C. clone the entire human genome in bac-
398. Method of separating various lengths of teria
DNA strands by applying an electrical cur-
rent to a gel D. determine the nucleotide sequence of
the entire human genome
A. Gel Electrophoresis
403. This is the physical appearance of an or-
B. DNA Fingerprinting
ganism.
C. Paternity Testing
A. Phenotype
D. Genetic Screening B. Genotype
399. Which of these traits is most influenced C. Karyotype
by environment? D. Pedigree
A. weight
404. An organism that is genetically identical
B. hair color to the organism from which it was pro-
C. blood type duced.

D. handedness A. Hybridization
B. Clone
400. How can genetic counselors predict ge-
C. Inbreeding
netic disorders/
D. Genome
A. by studying karyotypes and pedigree
charts 405. Advances in biotechnology, especially re-
B. by taking pictures of a baby before it is garding genetic testing and gene therapy,
born now allow for the screening and possible
treatment of many genetic disorders. Dur-
C. by exploring new methods of genetic
ing gene therapy, for example, specific
engineering
gene sequences are inserted into an indi-
D. by eliminating codominant alleles in vidual’s cells and tissues to replace a defec-
the parents tive or mutant allele.What have scientists

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 47

found to be the most efficient and effec- 409. What is unique about Huntington’s dis-
tive way to insert new sequences into an ease?
individual?

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A. it is caused by an X-linked trait
A. Scientists inject DNA strands into cells
using a syringe. B. it is codominant with PKU
B. Scientists have created genetically al- C. it is caused by a dominant allele
tered foods that release DNA during di-
gestion. D. it becomes apparent when the child is
about 2-3 years old
C. Scientists use viruses to insert specific
gene sequences.
410. Red-green color blindness is an X-linked
D. Scientists irradiate genes so that they recessive trait. A red-green color-blind
can be absorbed through the skin. woman and a red-green color-blind man
406. Which of the following would be an ex- have a son. What is the probability that
ample of gene therapy technology? the son is also red-green color-blind?
A. development of a nasal spray that con- A. 0%
tains copies of the normal gene that is de-
B. 25%
fective in person with cystic fibrosis
B. cutting DNA into fragments with re- C. 50%
striction enzymes
D. 100%
C. modifying E. coli to produce indigo dye
for coloring denim blue jeans 411. If a point mutation happens before the
D. separation DNA fragments using gel START codon for protein synthesis, what
electrophoresis will be the effect of this mutation?
407. If you inherit the ability to roll your A. Cancer
tongue from your dad and non-tongue
B. nothing
rolling ability from your mom, you will still
be able to roll your tongue. The tongue- C. protein will be non functional
rolling trait blocks the expression of the
non-tongue rolling trait. D. Heart Failure
A. Rule of Unit Factors
412. A nurse is caring for a patient with tha-
B. Law of Segregation lassemia and explains the meaning of mu-
C. Rule of Dominance tation. What would be appropriate for the
D. Law of Independent Assortments nurse to include in the explanation?
E. Law of Probability A. It is a disease affecting only females.
408. This is the genetic makeup of an organ- B. It is a change in the normal sequence
ism. of DNA.
A. Genotype C. It is a disease that is caused by a
B. Phenotype sedentary lifestyle
C. Pedigree D. It is a disorder affecting the hearing
D. Karyotype and speech of an individual.

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 48

413. When you roll dice, there is a 1 in 6 418. Koko was a female lowland gorilla born
chance that you will roll a number “3”. in 1971. Gorillas are known to be very in-
A. Rule of Unit Factors telligent animals. Researchers were able
to use this intelligence to teach Koko sign
B. Law of Segregation language. Koko could use sign language
C. Rule of Dominance to communicate and was able to under-
D. Law of Independent Assortment stand spoken English.Which of the follow-
ing describes how Koko’s behavior was in-
E. Law of Probability
fluenced by both her heredity and her en-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
414. Which autosomal recessive genetic dis- vironment?
ease can be treated with a strict diet? A. Koko inherited her knowledge of the
A. red-green colorblindness human language, but she learned sign lan-
B. PKU guage from her environment.
C. Huntington’s disease B. Koko inherited her knowledge of sign
language, but she was highly intelligent
D. Trisomy 21 because of her environment.
415. Homozygous is when C. Koko inherited her high intelligence,
A. the alleles are the same but she was a lowland gorilla because of
her environment.
B. the alleles are different
C. the alleles are absent D. Koko inherited her high intelligence,
but she learned sign language from her
D. the alleles are present environment.
416. How are sexual reproduction and asexual 419. Type of traits that are inherited by Boys
reproduction different? more often than girls.
A. sexual produces offspring identical to
A. Autosome Recessive
the parents; asexual produces offspring
with traits from both B. Autosome Dominant
B. asexual produces offspring identical to C. Sex Linked Dominant
the parents; sexual produces offspring D. Sex Linked Recessive
with traits from both
C. sexual only occurs in multicellular or- 420. This is the type of inheritance when a
ganisms; asexual only occurs in unicellu- group of gene pairs act together.
lar organisms A. Polygenic
D. asexual only occurs in multicellular or- B. Complete
ganisms; sexual only occurs in unicellular C. Dominant
organisms
D. Autosomal
417. Humans produce sex cells through a pro-
cess called 421. Scientists produce oil-eating bacteria by
A. mitosis A. making bacteria polyploid
B. cytokinesis B. inbreeding bacteria
C. meiosis C. inducing mutations in bacteria
D. binary fission D. hybridizing bacteria

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 49

422. What is determined by genes? B. genetic abnormalities

A. acquired characteristics C. less-invasive species

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B. the learned traits of an organism D. extinction of the original plant
C. the inherited traits of an organism
428. Of the choices listed below, where is ge-
D. the lifestyle of an organism netic engineering most often applied?
423. Why don’t females get hemophilia very A. Dentistry and computers
often? B. Dish detergents and shampoo
A. Because men with hemophilia don’t of- C. Medicine and agriculture
ten live to reproductive age.
D. Solar panels and electricity
B. Because hemophilia is a Y-linked trait.
C. Because women with hemophilia live a 429. Consider the following statements:I. Mu-
long time. tations always have a negative effect on
an individual.II. Mutations can have a pos-
D. Women must have lots of testosterone itive effect on an individual.III. Mutations
to have hemophilia. can have no effect on an individual.IV. Mu-
424. What plant did Gregor Mendel study in- tations can have a negative effect on an in-
heritance with? dividual.Which of these statements above
is/are true?
A. daisy
A. I only
B. pea plant
B. I and III only
C. rose
C. II, III, and IV only
D. apple tree
D. I, II, III, and IV
425. The different forms of a gene are called
430. A nurse is discussing basic genetics with
a patient. The nurse informs that the unit
A. Homozygous of heredity information is located on what
B. Heterozygous specific part of a chromosome?
C. Allele A. Gene
D. Chromosome B. Trait
426. Process of changing an organism’s DNA C. Locus
to give the organism new traits. D. Allele
A. Genetic Engineering
431. Scott was looking at the results of a cross
B. Genetic Screening between red and white flowers. Which
C. Cloning is the most likely result of a cross that
demonstrates incomplete dominance?
D. Gene Therapy
A. 0%
427. What is the most likely outcome of cre-
ating crops that are more resistant to ex- B. 50%
treme temperatures? C. 75%
A. higher crop yields D. 100%

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 50

432. The chromosomes that determine all 437. Heterozygous is when

traits, except gender are called: A. the alleles are the same
A. Karyotypes B. the alleles are different
B. Autosomes C. the alleles are absent
C. Sex Chromosomes D. the alleles are present
D. none of above 438. An interaction where one gene masks an-
other gene is called:

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433. What are synonyms for clone? (2)
A. Polygenic Traits
A. sheep
B. Epistasis
B. copy
C. X-Chromosome Inactivation
C. duplicate
D. X-linked traits (same as sex-linked)
D. DNA
439. Genetic engineering is the process of ma-
434. Huntington’s Disease is a genetic disor- nipulating genes for practical purposes.
der in humans which is controlled by a dom- Today, scientists have genetically engi-
inant gene. If one parent is heterozygous neered many types of organisms including
for the trait and the other has normal al- crop plants.Which of the following is a cur-
leles, what are their chances of having an rent benefit gained from genetically engi-
offspring with the disease? neered crops?
A. 0% A. Some animals develop allergies to the
genetically engineered crops.
B. 25%
B. Some food staples, such as rice, con-
C. 50%
tain more nutrients.
D. 100% C. Some disease resistant fruits and veg-
etables are less flavorful.
435. What is recombinant DNA?
D. Some genes can be transferred to wild
A. Adding DNA from one organism into
plants in the area.
the DNA of another
B. DNA which has been changed over gen- 440. When organisms reproduce, they pass on
erations by natural selection A. the hereditary traits that are found in
the genes in their cells.
C. DNA that causes genetic disorders
B. characteristics that they acquired dur-
D. DNA that has been sequenced
ing their lifetimes, such as scars.
436. Polyploidy instantly results in a new C. behaviors that they learned during
plant species because it their lifetimes, such as how to play the pi-
ano.
A. changes a species’ number of chromo-
somes D. all of these
B. produces a hardier species 441. GMO stands for
C. causes mutation A. Genetically modified organism
D. all of the above B. Genetically made organism

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 51

C. Generically made organ 446. Heredity is the passing of traits from

D. Genetically modified organisms to

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A. predators to prey
442. The embryos of two different organisms
B. water to rain
are observed to have similar features.
What is the most reasonable conclusion C. parents to offspring
that can be drawn from this observation? D. fungi to protists
A. The organisms will share these same 447. When a potato that tastes good is
features as adults. crossed with a potato that resists disease,
B. These organisms will have the same the technique is called?
role in the same habitat. A. inbreeding
C. These organisms will take the same B. selective breeding
amount of time to develop.
C. crossbreeding
D. These organisms are related by a D. none of above
shared common ancestor.
448. What has been an advantage of produc-
443. Which statement about sex-linked traits ing transgenic plants
is true?
A. increasing the food supply
A. The Y chromosome carries many
B. using more pesticides
genes.
C. producing clones
B. The X chromosome has very few genes
for traits other than sex. D. studying human genes

C. Sex-linked traits are caused by genes 449. The twisted shape that DNA takes.
located on the Y chromosome. A. double bubble
D. Recessive sex-linked traits appear B. gametes
more often in males than in females.
C. double helix
444. The three alleles on the single gene that D. none of above
controls blood type are said to be alle-
les. 450. Which of these statements is true of sex-
ual reproduction
A. multiple
A. It requires two parents and results in
B. phenotype offspring that have characteristics of each
C. codominant parent
D. none of above B. It requires one parent and results in
offspring that genetically identical to the
445. Which organelle is DNA usually found parent
in? C. It requires two parents and results in
A. cell membrane offspring that are genetically identical to
one parent
B. vacuole
D. It requires one parent and results in
C. chloroplast offspring that have half of the genes of the
D. nucleus parent

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 52

451. There are autosomes in humans. 456. Gel electrophoresis separates DNA ac-
A. 2 cording to size. Which is true regarding
movement of the DNA?
B. 23
A. The longest pieces of DNA will move
C. 46 the least distance.
D. 44
B. The longest pieces of DNA will move
452. Deoxyribonucleic acid, found inside the the greatest distance.

NARAYAN CHANGDER
nucleolus, carries the genetic information. C. The shortest pieces of DNA line up
A. dominate gene along the middle.
B. Donut D. The shortest pieces of DNA line up an
C. DNA equal distance from the middle

D. none of above 457. All living organisms share some similari-

ties in the chemical and structural proper-
453. Which of the following cuts DNA into
ties of their DNA. These similarities allow
small pieces?
scientists to transfer portions of DNA from
A. dissolving blue dye one organism to another. The diagram be-
B. restriction enzymes low shows one process through which sci-
entists transfer DNA.What is this process
C. surgically cutting DNA under micro-
called?
scope
A. Recombinant DNA technology
D. none of above
B. Forensic toxicology
454. What do viruses need to reproduce?
C. Selective breeding
A. they need genetic material
D. Spontaneous generation
B. They need a host cell
C. They need bacteria 458. What does the guide RNA do?
D. They need insulin A. destroy invaders like bacteriophages
immediately
455. Which of the following is true about the
behavior of an organism? B. cut invading pieces of RNA
A. The behavior of an organism is influ- C. recognize invaders
enced only by the environment in which it D. recognize sequences of DNA to be
lives. edited.
B. The behavior of an organism is influ-
enced only by the traits it inherits from its 459. When we cloned Dolly the sheep, what
parents. type of cell was used for the complete
DNA?
C. The behavior of an organism is not in-
fluenced by either its heredity or its envi- A. Gamete
ronment.
B. Egg
D. The behavior of an organism is influ-
C. Somatic
enced by both its heredity and its environ-
ment. D. Skin

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 53

460. It is very common for yellow labs to have 464. The table lists the traits for hair type in
bad hips. This is because owners want humans for incomplete dominance. Geno-
purebred yellow labs who are good hunt- type PhenotypeCC Curly hairSS Straight

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ing dogs. They breed individuals who have hairCS Wavy hairA person who is het-
similiar DNA, which is an example of erozygous for hair type will have a phe-
notype of wavy hair. If one parent has
A. Natural Selection
wavy hair and the other parent has curly
B. Inbreeding hair, what percentage of their children will
have wavy hair? Work a Punnett square
C. Hybridization
on paper. (3B3)
D. Fossil Record A. 25%
461. (3.1) Which of the following describes B. 50%
how DNA determines genetic inheritance? C. 75%
A. A single nucleotide codes for a genetic D. 100%
trait.
465. Blood types are controlled by
B. A pair of complementary nucleotides A. multiple alleles.
codes for a genetic trait.
B. incomplete dominance.
C. A set of three nucleotides in a specific
C. polygenic inheritance.
order codes for a genetic trait.
D. sex-linked traits.
D. A long sequence of nucleotides in a
specific order codes for a genetic trait. 466. The process of testing DNA to determine
the chance a person has, or might pass on,
462. Which describes a way scientists use a genetic disorder.
biotechnology in the field of agriculture? A. Genetic Engineering
A. DNA evidence is used to convict crimi- B. Gene Therapy
nals C. Karyotype
B. Fruits and vegetables are altered to be D. Genetic Screening
more nutritious
467. Which of these represents an organism
C. Vaccines are developed to help us live that has two different alleles for a trait?
longer
A. heterozygous
D. Bacteria are created to clean up oil
B. homozygous
spills
C. incomplete dominance
463. The colors of human hair and eyes are D. polygenic
controlled by two or more genes. Which
term describes this type of inheritance? 468. What mutation has occurred here? T-G-
A-C-C-AT-G-A-G-C-A
A. codominance
A. Substitution
B. multiple alleles B. Deletion
C. polygenic traits C. Insertion
D. incomplete dominance D. Frameshift

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 54

469. Genes code for specific traits in living or- 474. Gene therapy is an artificial means of al-
ganisms. Alleles are different versions of tering genetic material. Why might gene
a particular gene, and they are responsible therapy be performed?
for A. To try to produce a negative effect
A. variations in inherited characteristics. B. To try to cure a genetic disorder
B. changes in weather and climate. C. To try to break a bad habit
C. acquired characteristics, such as D. To try to become more emotionally sta-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
scars. ble
D. environmentally induced mutations.
475. Which of the following genetic abbrevia-
470. In a certain species of animal, black fur tions denotes a male human?
(B) is dominant over tan fur (b). Which A. 23, XX
type of dominance does this cross show?
B. 23, XY
A. Complete Dominance
C. 46, XX
B. Incomplete Dominance
D. 46, XY
C. Codominance
D. Polygenic Inheritance 476. A doctor is examining the karyotype of a
person to detect genetic disorders. What
471. Making changes in the DNA of an organ- can be used as a sign of positive detection
ism is for a genetic disorder?
A. selective breeding A. presence of 2 sex chromosomes
B. artificial selection B. 23 pairs of chromosomes
C. genetic engineering C. difference in the size of 2 homologous
D. genetic transformation chromosomes
D. different chromosome sets with differ-
472. Which is not a cause of human genetic dis- ent centromere locations
orders?
A. changes in the number of chromo- 477. What are the possible gametes for a di-
somes hybrid cross with a parent AaBb?

B. getting the flu A. Ab, AB

C. changes in the structure of chromo- B. AB, Ab, aB, ab

somes C. aB, Ab, Ab, aB
D. mutations in the DNA of genes D. AB, Ab, AB, Ab

473. Green is dominant to yellow. Two het- 478. A is a segment of DNA that codes for
erozygous green plants are crossed. What a particular protein, which leads to a par-
are the genotypes of the offspring? ticular trait.
A. 100% Gg A. Gene
B. 50% GG, 50% Gg B. Allele
C. 25% GG, 50% Gg, 25% gg C. Codon
D. 75% Gg, 25% gg D. Nucleotide

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 55

479. How does DNA in cells determine an or- 483. What happened to the green trait in
ganism’s complex traits? Mendel’s pea plants?

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A. DNA contains codes for proteins, A. It disappeared, further proving Dar-
which are necessary for the growth and win’s theory of evolution
functioning of an organism. B. The pea plants produced 50% less
B. DNA separates into long single green seeds
strands that make up each part of an or- C. It was hidden by the dominant yellow
ganism. gene
C. DNA produces the energy an organism D. Nothing happened to the green gene
needs in order to grow.
484. Hemophilia (Xh) is a sex-linked trait
D. DNA folds into the nucleus of each of in humans. If a son born to a couple
the cells of an organism. has hemophilia but neither parent has
hemophilia, what are the probable geno-
480. A patient tells the nurse, “My doctor
types of the parents?
mentioned that I am homozygous for a cer-
tain gene, but I really don’t understand? ” A. XHXh and XHY
What is the best response by the nurse? B. XhXh and XHY
A. “It is affected by the genetic disor- C. XhXh and XhY
der.”
D. XHXH and XhY
B. “You are not a carrier for a genetic dis-
order.” 485. A person that has sickle-cell anemia trait
and more resistant to
C. “You have two identical alleles for the
gene.” A. measles

D. “You have two different alleles for the B. polio

gene.” C. typhoid
D. malaria
481. Which of the following is NOT an exam-
ple of a polygenic trait? 486. This type of disease caused by a ge-
A. skin color in humans netic mutation is caused by nondisjunction,
which causes the person to have an extra
B. human height chromosome.
C. sickle cell anemia A. Down Syndrome
D. eye color in humans B. Huntington’s Disease

482. A form of human dwarfism caused by C. Cystic Fibrosis

a single dominant allele; the homozygous D. Schizophrenia
condition is lethal
487. A roan horse is the offspring of a horse
A. Cystic fibrosis that is homozygous for a white coat and
B. Sickle cell anemia a horse that is homozygous for a red coat.
The coat of a roan horse is a mixture of
C. Achondroplasia
white hairs and red hairs. What is this
D. Down’s syndrome phenomenon an example of?

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 56

A. codominance D. family tack system 2.0

B. multiple alleles
491. What is a type of Mutation?
C. polygenic traits
A. Deletions
D. sex-linked traits
B. Insertions
488. This genetic disorder causes red blood
cells to exhibit an irregular shape. Symp- C. Base Substitutions
toms of this disorder can include joint pain, D. All of the Above

NARAYAN CHANGDER
poor circulation, and a shorter lifespan. It
is highly prevalent in African and African 492. (3.3) Which of the following is an exam-
American populations. ple of a mutation?
A. Anemia A. A red blood cell loses its nucleus.
B. Albinism B. A zygote receives two X chromosomes.
C. Turner syndrome C. A nucleotide is missing in a replicated
D. Sickle-cell Anemia DNA strand.

489. In fruit flies, a specific gene mutation D. A strand of mRNA is produced from
causes the wings to become malformed. DNA.
These wings are called vestigial because
they do not function properly. The mu- 493. Any change in the sequence of DNA is
tated allele for vestigial wings (v) is reces- A. transgenic shift
sive to the allele for functioning wings (V).
Two fruit flies that are heterozygous for B. Single Genotype
wing shape are crossed, resulting in many C. Monohybrid Trait
offspring.Which of the following would
D. Mutation
most likely describe the population of off-
spring?
494. What is hemophilia?
A. All of the offspring population have
A. a severe form of the common cold
functioning wings.
B. The majority of the offspring popula- B. another name for Darwin’s idea of Nat-
tion has functioning wings. ural Selection
C. About half of the offspring population C. an inherited disease that is caused by
has functioning wings, and the other half the absence of a blood clotting factor
of the population has vestigial wings. D. someone with both male and female
D. The majority of the offspring popula- sex organs
tion has vestigial wings.
495. Which viral life cycle kills its host cell by
490. To trace the occurrence of a trait or disor- lysing?
der through several generations of a fam-
ily, you could create A. lytic

A. a pedigree B. mitosis
B. family portrait C. lysogenic
C. family tree D. S phase

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 57

496. Carrie is studying the genes of two fruit 500. What is the thing that shows you all the
flies in her lab. She knows what alleles possible ways that alleles can combine?
they have. She wants to know the poten-

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A. Punnett Square
tial combinations of alleles their offspring
could inherit. Which of these choices B. Pedigree
would help Carrie identify the potential C. Codon
combinations?
D. Genetic Counseling
A. An allele
B. A carrier 501. Human body cells each have 46 chromo-
somes in their nuclei. Meiosis is necessary
C. A pedigree in order to ensure that each gamete pro-
D. A Punnett square duced in the human body has-
A. 12 chromosomes
497. Scientists have genetically-engineered
some strains of bacteria to consume tox- B. 23 chromosomes
ins, such as oil, and to excrete the toxins
C. 46 chromosomes
as harmless substances.How might these
bacteria most likely impact society? D. 92 chromosomes
A. They will cause people to become 502. What would be the blood type of a per-
more careless about polluting the environ- son who inherited an B allele from one par-
ment. ent and an O allele from the other?
B. They will cause more bacterial infec- A. type B
tions in people.
B. type O
C. They will enable people to easily clean
up spilled pollutants in the environment. C. type A
D. They will grow out of control and con- D. type AB
sume the world’s oil supply.
503. Suppose that in sheep, a dominant allele
498. Using a patient’s stem cells to create a (B) produce black hair and a recessive al-
lab grown organ for transplant. lele (b) produce white hair. If you saw a
black sheep, you would be able to identify
A. Genetically Engineered Organs
A. its phenotype for hair color
B. Genetically Modified Food
B. its genotype for hair color
C. Splicing
C. the genotype of only one of its parents
D. Gene Splicing
D. the phenotype of both of its parents
499. Error in meiosis in which homologous
chromosomes fail to separate 504. Crossing over helps promote
A. nondisjunction A. male genotype
B. sex-linked recessive B. genetic variation
C. autosomal dominant C. DNA replication
D. autosomal recessive D. mitosis

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 58

505. Why is color blindness more common in C. Gene Therapy

males than in females? (3B3) D. Hybridization
A. The allele for color blindness is reces-
sive and located on the X chromosome 510. A member of group of genetically identi-
cal cells produced from a single cell is called
B. Color blind males have two copies of
the allele for color blindness A. Vector
C. The allele for color blindness is located B. Clone

NARAYAN CHANGDER
on the Y chromosome C. Hybrid
D. Fathers pass the allele for color blind- D. Genome
ness to their sons only
511. Genetic disorders are caused by
506. What does a punnet square show us?
A. pedigrees
A. The age of the offspring
B. DNA mutations or changes in chromo-
B. The chance of a genotype (trait) show- somes
ing up in offspring
C. dominant alleles only
C. Numbers
D. recessive alleles only
D. Blue eyes
512. Some genetic disorders are caused by
507. Crossing a red sweet apple with a large what?
disease resistant apple is an example of
A. alleles
They are breeding two organisms with
different traits. B. Mutations in the DNA of genes
A. inbreeding C. Phenotype
B. cloning D. Genotype
C. natural selection 513. are cells that join to make offspring
D. hybridization A. speed cells
508. In which of the following genotypes and B. sex cells
phenotypes may be the correct result of C. pea cells
aneuploidy in sex chromosome
D. pedigree cells
A. 22+Y-females
B. 22+XX-female 514. Considering some of the ethical issues
surrounding the use of DNA technology,
C. 22+XXY-male which best identifies the purpose of the
D. 22+XXXY females Human Genome Project?

509. The crossing of two genetically different A. to cure genetic diseases

organisms resulting in an organism that is B. to understand genetic diseases
said to have the best traits from both par- C. to identify all genes in all 46 chromo-
ents. somes
A. Selective Breeding D. to identify all genes in all 23 chromo-
B. Genetically Engineered Organs somes

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 59

515. Gregor Mendel’s pioneering genetic ex- 519. Hybrids receive

periments with pea plants occurred before A. different alleles from each parent.
the discovery of the structure and func-

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tion of chromosomes. Which of the follow- B. the same allele from each parent.
ing observations about inheritance in pea C. both alleles from one parent.
plants could be explained only after the D. all choices are correct.
discovery that genes may be linked on a
chromosome? 520. Dad-Alzheimer’s disease (AY)Mom-no
Alzheimer’s (aa)A-Alzheimer’s diseasea-
A. Pea color and pea shape display inde-
no Alzheimer’s diseaseAlzheimer’s disease
pendent inheritance patterns.
is X-linked.2. What are the odds that
B. Offspring of a given cross show all pos- SONS will have Alzheimer’s disease?
sible combinations of traits in equal pro-
A. 0%
portions.
B. 25%
C. Most offspring of a given cross have
a combination of traits that is identical to C. 50%
that of either one parent or the other. D. 75%
D. Recessive phenotypes can skip a gen- E. 100%
eration, showing up only in the parental
and F2 generations. 521. If a colorblind male marries a woman
who is a carrier, what percentage of their
516. Through biomedical research, scientists FEMALE children will be colorblind?
have engineered a way to create mechan- A. 0%
ical prosthetic to allow amputees move-
ment. B. 25%
A. Harmful C. 50%
B. Beneficial D. 100%
C. Neither 522. Which statement about DNA and RNA is
D. none of above correct?
A. DNA contains uracil, while RNA does
517. Which is a negative result of the use of not.
biotechnology in agriculture?
B. RNA is arranged in a double helix,
A. Increased crop yields while DNA is not.
B. Reduction in pesticide use C. RNA contains the sugar ribose, while
C. Unknown side effects DNA does not.
D. Higher nutritional values D. DNA contains phosphates and nitroge-
nous bases, while RNA does not.
518. What is the genotype of a female that
shows the phenotype of an X linked reces- 523. An allele whose trait only shows up when
sive trait? no dominant allele is present.
A. XX A. hidden allele
B. XRXr B. dominant allele
C. XRXR C. recessive allele
D. XrXr D. present allele

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 60

524. The man who studied genetics and came 528. Which possible application of the Human
up with genetics is Genome Project is considered by most peo-
A. Watson ple to be unethical?

B. Crick A. to create a human clone

C. Mendel B. to identify genetic disorders
D. Darwin C. to produce better medications
D. to improve medical care for humans

NARAYAN CHANGDER
525. This thing uses a family pedigree, assists
parents in deciding whether or not to have
529. Reasons that viruses are considered to be
children, and helps identify parents at risk
nonliving is because
for having children with genetic defects.
A. Genetic Counseling A. They are not cellular

B. Genetic Therapy B. They cannot reproduce on their own

C. Heredity C. They cannot make proteins
D. Prenatal Testing D. all of the above

526. The central part of the cell, which con- 530. How many of Mendel’s laws are there?
tains chromosomes and genes.
A. 3
A. chromosomes
B. 2
B. nectar
C. 1
C. nucleolus
D. 4
D. none of above

527. Which of the following is the best expla- 531. A genome-wide association study in-
nation for the observation that females volves searching the genomes of many
rarely get the disease hemophilia (an X people in order to find genetic varia-
linked trait)? tions associated with common diseases
such as cancer, asthma, and diabetes.
A. Large quantities of male hormones are These studies are possible because of com-
necessary in order for the allele carrying puter databases that allow researchers to
the disease to be expressed. compare the genomes of people who do
B. Female fetuses that carry the allele for not have a particular condition with the
the disease die before birth. genomes of people who have the condi-
C. A female could get the disease only by tion. In order to do this type of testing,
having a mother who is a carrier and a researchers need blood samples or cheek
father who has the disease. Since most swabs from people. Obtaining these sam-
males with the disease do not survive to ples is necessary because blood and cheek
reproductive age, this is an extremely un- cells contain-
likely event. A. plasma and platelets
D. A female could get the disease only by B. A complete set of DNA
having parents who are both carriers of
C. essential proteins and amino acids
the disease. Because females cannot be
carriers, this is an impossible event. D. a large number of neutrophils

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 61

532. Which form of genetic engineering was B. Y

used by humans for many years before the
C. yy
discovery of DNA?

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D. YY
A. Gene splicing
B. Gene insertion 538. If you are a boy, what percent of your
C. Animal cloning genes did you get from your dad?

D. Selective breeding A. 25%

B. 50%
533. A person with Turner syndrome has only
one X chromosome. This means one of C. 75%
their gametes was missing a chromosome. D. 100%
Which of the following is why gametes
sometimes lack a complete chromosome? 539. Which of the following is a genetic disor-
A. Incomplete dominance der that results when two mutated alleles
are inherited?
B. Nondisjunction
C. Inversion mutation A. hemophilia

D. Substitution mutation B. colorblindness

C. Down syndrome
534. If a person is heterozygous for a given
gene, it means that the person D. cystic fibrosis
A. is a carrier for a genetic disorder. 540. In DNA, Adenine bonds with
B. is affected by the genetic disorder.
A. Guanine
C. has two identical alleles for the gene.
B. Thymine
D. has two different alleles for the gene.
C. Cytosine
535. Problems with selective breeding include D. Adenine
A. Better animals
541. Which sentence is FALSE?
B. More Meat
C. Animals can have bad health problems A. All organisms have 23 pairs of DNA.

D. more diversity B. Chromosomes are made of genes.

C. DNA is made out of 4 chemi-
536. What part of a person’s body breaks
cals:adenine, cytosine, thymine, guanine
down due to HD?
D. DNA is the recipe for life.
A. Nerve cells in the brain
B. Bone marrow 542. What genetic disorder is when a person’s
C. White blood cells blood clots very slowly or not at all?

D. Arteries A. Down Syndrome

B. Hemophilia
537. Which of the following is homozygous
dominant? C. Cystic Fibrosis
A. Yy D. Sickle-Cell

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 62

543. Which statement is NOT true about Kary- 548. The way that crimes are solved today
otypes was affected by which of the following
technologies?
A. Chromosomes (pairs 1-22) are ar-
ranged by size A. gene therapy
B. Sex chromosomes are found at the end B. DNA fingerprinting

C. A normal karyotype has 46 chromo- C. genetic testing

somes or 23 pairs D. Genetic modification

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Having missing or extra chromosomes 549. Traits that are produced by two or more
does not indicate a disorder genes.
544. vectors A. Polygenic Traits

A. plasmid or virus that contains or car- B. Multiple Alleles

ries modified genetic material C. Co-dominance
B. They can be used to represent any D. Incomplete dominance
quantity that has magnitude, has direction
550. In the 1960s the molecular biologist
C. displacement George Streisinger developed the strand-
D. velocity slippage hypothesis. Streisinger noticed
that mutations occurred in areas of DNA
545. Having two different alleles is called that contained many repeated sequences.
When a strand-slippage error occurs, an in-
A. dominant sertion mutation can result. How does the
B. recessive insertion mutation affect the DNA?
C. heterozygous A. Nitrogenous bases are added.

D. homozygous B. Nitrogenous bases are exchanged.

C. Nitrogenous bases are damaged.
546. Offspring receives two sets of (one D. Nitrogenous bases are deleted.
from each parent)
A. blue jeans 551. What percent of people with XYY can get
learning disabilities?
B. genes
A. 50%
C. machines B. 80%
D. pedigree C. 20%
547. A pattern of inheritance in which a trait D. 55%
is carried on one of the sex-determining
552. Which answer best describes codominant
chromosomes.
alleles?
A. Mendelian Inheritance A. Both are equally dominant
B. Co-dominance B. Both are equally recessive
C. Incomplete dominance C. Neither are dominant or recessive
D. Sex-linked inheritance D. none of above

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 63

553. Dad-not hairy (hY)Mom-hairy (Hh)H- 558. Different versions of the same gene
Hairyh-not hairyHairiness is X-linked.2. A. alleles
What are the odds that ALL CHILDREN will

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be hairy? B. enzymes

A. 0% C. banana

B. 25% D. none of above

C. 50% 559. Name the human mutation in cell recep-

tor protein that affects transport of salt
D. 75%
across the cell membrane (3.2.1)
E. 100%
A. cystic fibrosis
554. A surrogate for a clone is best described B. hemophilia
as C. diabetes
A. the organism that carries the offspring D. PKU
B. the sex cell that donates the egg cell
560. What is a genome?
C. the organism that donates the com-
plete set of chromosomes A. all the cells produced in meiosis

D. none of above B. all the plasmids produced from insert-

ing DNA into a cell
555. Down Syndrome is an example of C. all the DNA in one cell of an organism
A. Sex-linked disorderr D. all the karyotypes of a cell
B. Autosomal disorder 561. A genetic disorder involving an abnormal-
C. nondisjunction ity in the X chromosome, which becomes
D. none of above constricted and often breaks.
A. X chromosome disease
556. Who was the first adult mammal success-
B. Tay-sachs disease
fully cloned?
C. Huntington’s Disease
A. Dolly the Sheep
D. Color blindness
B. Goats that make silk
E. Fragile X
C. Glowing cats
D. Jellyfish that glow 562. Human blood types are determined by
the types of proteins, A or B, found in the
557. A man with type O blood has children blood. People with type O blood have nei-
with a woman who is heterozygous to ther A nor B proteins present. The table be-
type A blood. What is the probability that low provides a description of the possible
their children will have type A blood? blood type combinations.What is the prob-
ability that a mother with type AB blood
A. 0%
and a father with type O blood will have
B. 25% a child with type O blood?
C. 50% A. 25 %
D. 100% B. 0%

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 64

C. 100% 568. The technique known as chromosome

D. 50% painting is the result of scientific re-
search. Scientistsuse chromosome paint-
563. What was the first mammal to be ing to mark the locations of genes on
cloned? human chromosomes withfluorescent tags.
It is also possible to apply this technique
A. sheep
to the chromosomes of many different
B. goat species. Chromosome painting allows for
which of the following?

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. cow
D. frog A. A comparison of the genomes of differ-
ent species
564. Dad-not hairy (hY)Mom-hairy (Hh)H-
B. The sequencing of proteins from many
Hairyh-not hairyHairiness is X-linked.2.
species
What are the odds that their DAUGHTERS
will be hairy? C. An increase in mutations in many
species
A. 0%
D. The extraction of amino acids from dif-
B. 25%
ferent species
C. 50%
D. 75% 569. Silent mutations

E. 100% A. have no effect.

B. change the amino acid.
565. A carrier is a who have the disor-
der, but carries a recessive allele. C. create a stop codon.
A. Male, does D. are harmful.
B. Female, does not 570. A father who has an X-linked recessive
C. Male, does not disorder and a wife with a normal geno-
type will
D. Female, does
A. pass the carrier state to his male chil-
566. Choose which term does not belong. ( Be dren.
able to explain why on the test.)
B. pass the carrier state to all of his chil-
A. Huntington’s disease dren.
B. CF C. pass the carrier state to his female
C. PKU children.
D. Tay-Sachs D. not pass on the genetic mutation to any
of his children.
567. What is another name for heterozy-
gous? 571. What do mutations change?
A. Hybrid A. DNA
B. Purebred B. Chromosomes
C. Codominant C. Genes
D. Mixed Breed D. none of above

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 65

572. How do scientists cut DNA into smaller 577. This is the different forms a gene has for
strands? a trait.

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A. restriction enzymes A. Alleles
B. scissors B. Pedigree
C. ligase C. Mutation
D. agarose D. Heredity
573. Which of the following is used to cut DNA
578. A test that uses sound waves to create a
so it can be studied?
sonogram.
A. Gel Electrophoresis
A. Amniocentesis
B. Restriction Enzymes
B. Ultrasound
C. Karyotypes
C. Germinal Sampling
D. Haplotypes
D. Chorionic Villi Sampling
574. Many crops such as tomatoes and corn
are now routinely genetically manipulated 579. A common form of muscular dystrophy is
to become more resistant to disease and an X-linked disorder that causes progres-
herbicides. What is one disadvantage of sive weakening of skeletal muscles. It is
this genetic resistance? usually passed from a mother to a son. A
A. The genes may be transferred to mother who is a carrier for this disorder
weeds during pollination. (XX’) marries a man who is normal (XY).
Which of the following is a true statement
B. The crops always become less flavor-
about the couple’s sons? You will need
ful and less nutritious.
to work a Punnett square to figure it out.
C. The genes are transferred to their own (3B3)
progeny when they reproduce.
A. There is a 25% chance that each son
D. The crops are no longer able to repro- will have the disorder
duce.
B. There is a 50% chance that each son
575. What percentage of human egg cells car- will have the disorder
ries an X chromosome? C. There is a 75% chance that each son
A. 0% will have the disorder
B. 25% D. All sons will be born with the disorder
C. 50%
580. What are the blood types of the possible
D. 100% children that a woman (type O) and man
576. Which of the following is not a Mutagenic (type AB) can have? Use a Punnett square
factor(causes mutations). if you need to.

A. X-rays A. O and AB
B. Chemicals we smoke or eat B. O and A
C. Drinking water C. O and B
D. Tanning D. A and B

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 66

581. Hemophilia is a x-linked disorder. A B. Selective Breeding

woman is a carrier for the disorder. Which
C. Cloning
is the correct genotype?
A. Hh D. Inbreeding
B. XHXh
586. A vaccine is a substance that contains
C. hh all or part of a noninfectious version of a
D. XhXh disease-causing organism. When the vac-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
cine is administered to a person, the per-
582. What part of a person’s body breaks son’s immune system attacks the noninfec-
down due to Huntington’s? tious version of the organism and learns
A. Nerve cells in the brain to recognize its surface proteins. The next
time the immune system comes in contact
B. Bone marrow
with the same surface proteins, it has a de-
C. White blood cells fense already prepared in order to respond
D. Arteries quickly to the invading organism. In this
way, a vaccine gives people immunity to
583. Darby has a very high-energy dog named the disease-causing organism.Vaccines can
Lily. Lily’s parents were both very ener- be life-saving, but there have been a few
getic dogs. Darby trains Lily to chase a cases of people catching a disease from
tennis ball when she throws it and to bring the administered vaccine.How might ge-
it back. Lily can play fetch for hours and netically engineered organisms solve this
is always ready for a game.How has Lily’s problem?
behavior been influenced by her heredity?
A. Disease-causing organisms could be
A. Lily inherited her high energy level genetically engineered to only be harmful
from her parents. to plants.
B. Lily inherited her relationship with
B. Harmless organisms could be geneti-
Darby from her parents.
cally engineered to recognize and destroy
C. Lily inherited her knowledge of fetch random cells in the body.
from her parents.
C. Harmless organisms could be geneti-
D. Lily inherited her identification of the cally engineered to have surface proteins
tennis ball from her parents. from disease-causing organisms.
584. When there is incomplete dominance, D. Disease-causing organisms could be
A. One allele has more influence than the genetically engineered to produce insulin
others instead of toxins.
B. Each allele has its own degree of influ-
587. Which of these has been improved by ge-
ence.
netic engineering?
C. The alleles have no influence
A. Visibility of insects to predators
D. There are no alleles present
B. Growth of insects in cornfields
585. To alter the DNA of an organism in order
to get the traits that are desired. C. Reduced number of pollinating insects
A. Genetic Engineering D. Resistance of corn plants to insects

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 67

588. A genetic disorder caused by the presence 593. What does PCR stand for?
of all or part of a third copy of chromosome A. Polymerase Chronic Reagent
21.

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B. Principle Chorionic Reliability
A. Fragile X
C. Polymerase Chain Reaction
B. Huntington’s disease
D. Probably Cannot React
C. Down’s syndrome
594. Who is considered the “father” of genet-
D. Peaks Syndrome
ics?
589. An organism that contains two different A. Gregor Mendel
alleles for a trait is said to be for that B. James Watson
trait.
C. Dr. Robbins
A. dominant
D. Francis Crick
B. homozygous
595. What is the same in all parts of homolo-
C. heterozygous
gous chromosomes?
D. recessive
A. base pair sequence
590. What exactly is XYY syndrome? B. alleles
A. A rare chromosomal disease C. sequence of genes
B. A disease that only affects males D. deletions
C. When a female has a extra Y chromo- 596. Genetically identical copy of a single gene
some or an entire organism.
D. When a male has a extra Y chromo- A. Clone
some
B. Genome
591. Recombinant DNA are currently used to C. Genetic Engineering
produce D. DNA Fingerprint
A. clothing dye, cheese, and laundry prod-
ucts 597. If several pea plants with the genotype
TTYy are crossed with pea plants with
B. human antibiotics and vaccines the genotype Ttyy, what percentage of
C. crops that taste better and stay fresh the offspring will be expected to have the
longer TTYy allele combination?
D. all of these A. 25%
B. 40%
592. How many alleles do you get from each
parent? C. 50%
D. 75%
A. 1
B. 2 598. A heterozygous parent and a homozy-
gous dominant parent have offspring.
C. 23
What is the probability that any one off-
D. 46 spring will be homozygous?

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 68

A. 25 percent 604. Heterozygous genotype that equally ex-

B. 50 percent presses the traits from both alleles
C. 75 percent A. Complete Dominance
D. 100 percent B. Co-Dominance

599. . If the methods of genetic engineering C. Incomplete Dominance

are used to insert human genes into the cy- D. Principle of Dominance
toplasm of bacteria, the bacteria will then-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
605. Assuming that the probability of having
A. no longer be bacteria A
a female child is 50% and the probability
B. destroy the foreign DNA of having a male child is 50%, what is the
C. become a new species of bacteria probability that a couple’s first-born child
D. produce human proteins like insulin will be male and the second born will be
female?
600. A person with Down syndrome has A. 0%
copies of chromosome 21.
B. 25%
A. 1
C. 50%
B. 2
C. 3 D. 100%

D. 4 606. Which of these are a sex-linked trait?

601. This trait is represented by a capital let- A. male-pattern baldness
ter and always shows up in an organism B. color blindness
when the allele is present
C. hemophilia
A. dominant allele
D. all choices are correct
B. codominance
C. probability 607. When two organisms that have very sim-
D. recessive allele ilar or the same characteristics are mated
resulting in the prevalence of genetic dis-
602. Cells in this story are orders.
A. tiny building blocks of living things A. Hybridization
B. a place for prisoners B. Cloning
C. a type of phone C. Inbreeding
D. a kind of protein
D. Gene Splicing
603. This type of mutation causes a gamete to
receive too many or too few copies of a 608. Many genetic disorders of humans are
chromosome. caused by

A. Nondisjunction A. multiple alleles

B. Silent B. recessive alleles
C. Frameshift C. smoking during pregnancy
D. Translocation D. a mutation in the zygote

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 69

609. What is the charge of DNA? 614. Two parents have children with the fol-
lowing genotypes:AA, AB, AO, BO. What
A. positive
is the most likely phenotype of the two

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B. negative parents?
C. neutral A. type A and B
D. none of above B. type A and O
C. type A and AB
610. Which of these traits is controlled by a
gene with multiple alleles? D. type O and AB

A. straight hairline 615. What is the term for when offspring al-
ways looks like one of the parental vari-
B. smile dimples
eties
C. widow’s peak A. incomplete dominance
D. blood type B. pleiotropy

611. Why is DNA fingerprinting used? C. dominant

D. complete dominance
A. To determine who is the child’s father
B. Link suspects to a crime scene 616. Procedure to treat a disease in which a
defective or missing gene is replaced or
C. determine if a family relationship exist a new gene is inserted into a patient’s
between two people genome.
D. all of the above A. Genetic Engineering

612. (3.2) Which of the following processes B. Genetic Sceening

relies directly on the complementary base C. Gene Therapy
pairing of nucleotides? D. Gel Electrophoresis
A. synthesis of ATP
617. Who sings “Shallow (A Star is Born)”?
B. replication of DNA
A. Adele
C. formation of peptide bonds B. Lady Gaga
D. pairing of chromosomes in meiosis C. Beyonce
613. Which of the following would be the most D. Nicki Minaj
immediate result of a gene mutation in an
618. What is pedigree?
organism?
A. a chart that tracks which members of
A. A change in a protein produced by the a family have a particular trait
organism
B. a geneticist who studies the inheri-
B. Increased reproductive success of the tance of traits in humans
organism
C. a picture of all the chromosomes of a
C. Shortened life span of the organism cell
D. Decreased need for resources by the D. an allele passed from parent to child
organism on a sex chromosome

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 70

619. This genetic disorder is inherited by a re- 624. Chromosome that is not a sex chromo-
cessive allele found on the X chromosome. some
A. PKU A. Chromosome
B. Cystic fibrosis B. Autosome
C. Down’s syndrome C. Sex Chromosome
D. Hemophilia D. Homologous pair

625. In sex-linked inheritance, carriers can be

NARAYAN CHANGDER
620. A mother and father both have AB blood
types. What is the probability that their
children will have a blood type of A? Work A. Only males
a Punnett square on paper? ( 3B3) B. Males and females
A. 75% C. Only females
B. 0% D. none of above
C. 25%
626. A human genetic disease caused by a
D. 50% dominant allele; characterized by uncon-
trollable body movements and degenera-
621. A human genetic disease caused by a re-
tion of the nervous system; usually fatal
cessive allele that leads to the accumula-
10 to 20 years after the onset of symp-
tion of certain lipids in the brain. Seizures,
toms.
blindness, and degeneration of motor and
mental performance usually become mani- A. Huntington’s Disease
fest a few months after birth. B. Chromosomal X disorder
A. Fragile X C. Down’s Syndrome
B. Cystic fibrosis D. Turner syndrome
C. color blindness 627. Which disorder is characterized by the in-
D. Tay-Sachs disease ability to break down a specific amino acid
and can be treated by a special diet?
622. Chart that shows the relationships within
A. Huntington’s
a family
B. Tay Sachs
A. Pedigree
C. Cystic fibrosis
B. Karyotype
D. PKU
C. T chart
D. Key 628. Which of the following observations
would support the claim that a particular
623. What does a horizontal line between a mutation is neutral?
square and a circle mean? A. The frequency of the mutation in a pop-
A. They are siblings ulation, once it first appears, tends to in-
crease over time.
B. They are cousins
B. In a given population, individuals that
C. They are married (”together”) possess this mutation have a greater rate
D. They are the children of reproduction.

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 71

C. The mutation is higher in populations 632. A virus can be classified by its type of
of organisms that produce fewer offspring A. mitochondria
and have shorter life spans.

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B. chromosomes
D. The frequency of the mutation goes up
and down with no observable effect on the C. nucleic acid
health of a population. D. carbohydrates
629. To obtain bacteria that produce insulin, 633. The process of making changes in the
genetic engineers DNA code of a living organism is called
A. remove repressor proteins that inhibit A. selective breeding
the expression of the bacterial insulin
gene B. genetic engineering
B. insert a vector containing the human C. inbreeding
gene of insulin into bacteria D. hybridization
C. search for bacteria that grow in a
634. Chart of the phenotypes and genotypes in
medium that lacks insulin
a family that is used to determine whether
D. grow normal bacteria in a nutrient an individual is a carrier of a recessive al-
medium that contains a large amount lele.
630. What chromosome is affected by Down’s A. Karyotype
Syndrome? B. Genetic Screening
A. 23 C. Pedigree
B. 18
D. DNA Fingerprint
C. 13
635. What is the definition of the word gene-
D. 21
sis?
631. Huntigton’s disease is a genetic disorder A. a part of a cell that controls or influ-
caused by a dominant lethal allele. The ences the appearance, growth, etc.
condition is a progressive breakdown of
nerve cells that causes uncontrolled move- B. the beginning of something
ment. The disorder can be found on the C. a produced, living, or existing naturally
dominant H allele (which is rare be- in a particular region or enviroment
cause usually disorders are recessive!). If D. actual, real or true; not false or fake;
the father is homozygous dominant for the sincere and honest
trait and the mother does not have the
trait, what is the phenotypic probability 636. To determine the genotype of an un-
for their children? known dominant phenotype (ex. Tall
A. 1 HH:1 Hh plant) you must perform a and cross
it with a organism
B. 1 Hh:1 hh
A. Test Cross ; Dominant
C. 1 HH:2 Hh:1 hh
B. Dominant ; Recessive ; Recessive
D. 1 Have Huntington’s:1 Does not have
Huntington’s C. Test Cross:Recessive
E. 1 Have Huntington’s D. none of above

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 72

637. having two different genes for a trait B. yeast and humans have the same num-
(sometimes called hybrid). ber of chromosomes
A. protein C. The genetic code is universal
B. homozygous D. Yeast and humans are both eukaryotes
C. heterozygous 641. Dolly the sheep is an example of
D. genotype A. cloning
B. selective breeding

NARAYAN CHANGDER
638. In fruit flies, the allele for white eyes (W)
is dominant to the allele for red eyes (w). C. stem cells
Two heterozygous fruit flies are crossed, D. transgenic organisms
resulting in many offspring. Which of the
following would best describe the popula- 642. What is another name for XYY syn-
tion of offspring? drome?
A. All of the offspring population is white- A. Super-human disease
eyed. B. 48, XYY syndrome
B. The majority of the offspring popula- C. Super-male disease
tion is red-eyed D. All of the above
C. The majority of the offspring popula-
tion is white-eyed. 643. Scientists in Zoos have selectively bred
white tigers to keep them the same color.
D. About half of the offspring population This has resulted in excessive inbreeding.
is red-eyed, and the other half of the pop- White Tigers in Zoos are now more likely
ulation is white-eyed. to be born with birth defects.
639. Why are sex-linked traits more common A. Harmful
in males than in females? B. Beneficial
A. all alleles on the X chromosome are C. Neither
dominant
D. none of above
B. all alleles on the Y chromosomes are
recessive 644. Crossing-over between nonsister chro-
matids during meiosis is significant in
C. a recessive allele on the X chromo- heredity. This process most likely leads
somes will always produced that trait in to an increase in which of the following?
a male
A. The expression of dominant traits
D. any allele on the Y chromosome will
B. Number of gametes
be codominant with the matching allele on
the X chromosome C. The occurrence of polyploidy
D. Genetic variation
640. Some yeast genes can be replaced by hu-
man genes that then continue to produce 645. In an attempt to produce a potato that
the same human proteins in the yeast cells. taste good and also resists disease, plant
Which statement helps explain this evi- breeders crossed a potato variety that
dence? tastes good with a variety that resists dis-
A. The DNA of yeast cells and human is ease. This technique is an example of
identical A. genetic engirneering

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 73

B. inbreeding 650. Directly manipulating the genome of an

organism is referred to as
C. hybridization

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A. playing god.
D. cloning
B. genetic engineering.
646. Which of the following would be true
C. natural selection.
of all daughters born to a man with
hemophilia, regardless of who the mother D. artificial selection.
is? (3B3)
651. a description of the genes of an organism.
A. None of the daughters would have
hemophilia nor would they carry the gene A. genotype
for hemophilia B. genetic engineering
B. All daughters would have hemophilia C. germs
C. All daughters would carry at least one D. none of above
gene for hemophilia but would not neces-
sarily have the disorder 652. Incomplete Dominance is when
D. About 50% of the daughters would A. The offspring is a mix/blend of two
carry one gene for the disorder, and about dominant traits that are inherited from the
50% would have the disorder parents
647. Which of the following is the protein that B. The offspring shows both dominant
is NOT normal in people with sickle-cell dis- traits that it inherited from its parents
ease? C. The offspring shows recessive traits
A. blood cells D. none of above
B. mucus
653. Treatable disease involving the inability
C. clotting protein to form clots in the blood. A person with
D. karyotype this disorder is missing a clotting factor in
the blood and has an increased risk of ex-
648. X linked recessive traits affect mostly cessive bleeding.
A. males A. Hemophilia A
B. females B. Sickle Cell Anemia
C. both equally C. PKU
D. none of the above D. Tay-Sachs

649. Which disease is transmitted autosomal 654. What do the letters inside the grid of a
recessively? Punnett square represent?
A. Neurofibromatosis A. phenotypes of parents
B. Thalassemia B. genotypes of offspring
C. Osteogenesis imperfecta C. testcrosses of offspring
D. Marfan membership D. chromosomes of parents

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 74

655. The Human Genome Project can help ge- A. People would need to be genetically
netic engineers produce human proteins be- tested before having children together.
cause B. Most Americans would no longer suf-
A. identical twins have identical DNA fer from heart disease.
B. the Human Genome Project has deter- C. The number of infections from
mined the structure of transfer RNA genetically-engineered viruses would in-
crease.
C. the Human Genome Project has deter-
D. Many genetic diseases would be cur-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
mined the structure of human proteins
able.
D. to produce a protein, geneticists must
know the sequence of DNA bases that 659. Which of the following is true of a man
codes for the protein who is color blind?
A. he will pass on this allele to all of his
656. Inherited traits are traits that children children
get from their parents through
B. he inherited one allele for color blind-
A. genes ness from his mother
B. imitating their parents. C. he inherited two alleles for color blind-
C. infection ness from his father

D. sharing their parents’ environment. D. he has one allele for color blindness
and another allele for normal vision
657. Human males are much more likely to
660. Chromosomes that contain genes for char-
have hemophilia than human females. This
acteristics not directly related to the sex of
is the case because:(3.2.2)
an organism.
A. the gene for hemophilia is carried on A. Karyotype
the Y chromosome
B. Autosomes
B. hemophilia is carried on autosomes
C. Genome
C. the gene for hemophilia is sex-linked
D. Sex chromosomes
D. hemophilia is a contagious disease to
which males are more susceptible 661. What type of inheritance do two alleles
have if their traits blend together?
658. In 1990, scientists at the National Insti- A. Incomplete Dominance
tutes of Health used gene therapy to try to
B. Co-Dominance
treat a 4-year-old girl suffering from se-
vere combined immunodeficiency disease C. Mendelian Inheritance (Complete
(SCID). This genetic disease made her ex- Dominance)
tremely susceptible to infections. The sci- D. Homozygous Inheritance
entists used a virus to inject normal genes
into the girl’s immune system cells. The ex- 662. Blood type is controlled by
periment was moderately successful, and A. multiple alleles.
the girl’s health improved but only for B. a specific allele.
short periods of time.If this form of gene
therapy could be fine-tuned, how would it C. dozens of alleles.
impact society? D. 2 codons.

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 75

663. CRISPR can change DNA in humans and C. Rule of Dominance

animals. What did scientists look at to D. Law of Independent Assortment
help them create CRISPR?

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E. Law of Probability
A. Sheep cloning
B. Palindromic repeats 668. What chromosome is affected by
hemophilia?
C. Common Cold
A. x
D. Bacteria fighting off viruses
B. y
664. In most vertebrates, the sperm cell nor- C. 21
mally contributes which of the following
to the new organism? D. 13

A. Many mitochondria 669. In its heterozygous form this disease is

B. Significant amounts of RNA less harmful. Although it protects individu-
als from malaria, a homozygous individual
C. A haploid complement of chromo- will die from the disease. The results of
somes the disease are misshapen red blood cells.
D. Most of the cytoplasm of the zygote This disease shows a codominant inheri-
tance pattern.
665. A chart that shows the relationships
within a family and the inheritance of a ge- A. Hemophilia
netic trait is called a B. Sickle Cell Anemia
A. Pedigree C. Huntington’s
B. Karyotype D. Cystic Fibrosis
C. Punnett square 670. Down syndrome most often occurs when
D. Graph A. a person inherits a recessive allele
666. Amniocentesis and chorionic villus sam- B. chromosomes fail to separate properly
pling allow for and of the fetus during meiosis
so that it can be tested for abnormalities. C. sickle-shaped cells become stuck in
A. imaging biochemical blood vessels
B. imaging karyotyping D. blood fails to clot properly
C. karyotyping biochemical testing 671. If an organism is produced by asexual re-
D. none of above production, which of these statements is
true of its chromosomes?
667. A pea plant has one trait for purple flow-
ers and one trait for white flowers. When A. It receives all of its chromosomes from
the plant makes pollen, the purple and its female parent
white color traits will separate into the B. It receives half of its chromosomes
various pollen gametes. The pollen will ei- from each of its parents
ther have a purple color or a white color C. It receives most of its chromosomes
trait, but not both. from its female parent
A. Rule of Unit Factors D. It receives all of its chromosomes
B. Law of Segregation from either its male or its female parent

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 76

672. Where are most sex-linked genes lo- 677. What is bacterial transformation?
cated?
A. When bacterial DNA has new genes
A. On the X chromosome added to it
B. On the Y chromosome B. When bacterial DNA turns into RNA
C. On the dominant chromosome C. When bacterial DNA is dissolved by sci-
D. On the autosomes entists
673. What are chromosomes that carry the D. When bacterial DNA combines with a

NARAYAN CHANGDER
same sets of genes? virus’ DNA
A. Twin chromosomes
678. What is a karyotype?
B. Homologous chromosomes
A. a sex-linked genetic disorder
C. Ordinary chromosomes
B. a picture of a baby before it is born
D. Asexual chromosomes
C. a picture of the chromosomes in a cell
674. A DNA molecule produced by combining
DNA from different sources is referred to D. fluid that surrounds a baby before it is
as born
A. Mutant 679. What do you call the non-Mendelian in-
B. Polyploid heritance pattern where both traits are
C. Diploid dominant and both appear in the organism
with heterozygous genotype?
D. Recombinant
A. Codominance
675. A person with type O blood marries a per-
B. Incomplete dominance
son with type AB blood. Possible blood
genotypes of their children are C. Polygenic traits
A. I(A)i and I(B)I(B) D. none of above
B. I(B)I(B) and I(A)I(A)
680. What is the difference between prokary-
C. I(A)i and I(B)i ote and eukaryote chromosomes?
D. I(A)I(B) and ii
A. Prokaryotes have a number of circular
676. Biotechnology is used in a variety of ar- DNA molecules while eukaryotes have a
eas from agriculture to pharmaceuticals to single linear DNA molecule
fuels. How is the use of biotechnology in B. The prokaryote chromosome is a sin-
agriculture beneficial to the environment? gle circular DNA molecule while eu-
A. Genetically altered crops are more de- karyotes have a number of linear DNA
licious. molecules
B. Genetically altered crops require less C. The prokaryote chromosome is made
pesticide. from plasmid molecules while eukaryotes
C. Genetically altered crops are unable to have a number of linear DNA molecules
reproduce. D. Prokaryotes have a number of circular
D. Genetically altered crops produce less DNA molecules and eukaryotes have a sin-
carbon dioxide. gle linear DNA molecule

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 77

681. What does GMO stand for? 686. The gene responsible for huntington’s dis-
A. Genetics Modification Organics ease normally

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A. directs vesicle activity
B. Genetically Modified Oranges
B. directs muscle formation
C. Genetically Made Oranges
C. directs bone formation
D. Genetically Modified Organisms
D. directs lens formation
682. parent 1:GgBBparent 2:ggBbFind the ga-
metes for parent 1. 687. What was one of the foals of the Human
Genome Project?
A. GB, GB, gB, gB
A. to determine how DNA was copied in
B. gB, gb, gB, gb humans
C. Gg, BB, GB, GB B. to determine the nucleotide sequence
D. gg, Bb, gB, gb and gene location of the entire human
genome
683. Biologists have found that a form of deaf-
C. to determine how proteins were made
ness is a recessive trait in dogs. If a fe-
in humans
male dog that is heterozygous for the trait
mates with a male dog that is deaf, what D. to determine particular mutations in
percent of their offspring will be deaf? the human genes
A. 0% 688. What is the process that produces cells
B. 50% with half the usual number of chromo-
somes
C. 75%
A. mitosis
D. 100%
B. meiosis
684. Which of the following genetic conditions C. trait
is screened for in all newborns because
it can be completely controlled by diet? D. reproduction
(3.2.3) 689. What is a mutation?
A. skin cancer A. A type of RNA
B. diabetes B. A mistake in the genetic sequence of
C. heart disease an organism
D. PKU C. The process that creates new DNA
D. A terminal illness
685. What explains the presence in living hu-
mans of DNA sections which are identical 690. If a cell has an abnormal number of chro-
to DNA found in Neandrathals who lived mosomes, usually from meiosis, what is
40, 000 years ago? this considered? Choose the best answer.
A. genetic mutation A. Chromosome mutation
B. inheritance B. Nondisjunction
C. adaptation C. Sex-linked mutation
D. speciation D. Inversion

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 78

691. If a person has a genotype of RR, what B. A Co-Dominant Individual

do you know about their gametes (sex C. A Homozygous Recessive Individual
cells)?
D. A Homozygous Dominant Individual
A. They will all carry the R allele.
B. They will all carry RR. 696. Hemophilia is a recessive x-linked disor-
der. Which genotype represents a male
C. Some will carry R, some will carry r. with hemophilia?
D. They will all carry the r allele. A. XHXh

NARAYAN CHANGDER
692. What is the main biological use of com- B. XhXh
parisons of the number of genes between C. XHY
species?
D. XhY
A. It provides information about the size
of the nucleus 697. A gene gun and a virus may both be clas-
B. It provides information about how sified as because they are mechanisms
closely related different species are by which foreign DNA may be transferred
into a host cell.
C. It gives information about the amount
of DNA a species has A. bacteria
D. It gives information about the number B. plasmids
of genetic diseases in different species C. vectors
693. What is the name of the human chromoso- D. splicers
mal disorder that results in an extra chro-
698. Organisms that contain genes from differ-
mosome #21? (3.2.1)
ent species are called organisms.
A. Down syndrome
A. Blended
B. Turners
B. Hybrid
C. Jacobs
C. Transgenic
D. Klinefelter’s
D. Freaky
694. The purpose of the Human Genome
699. A person who does not show symptoms
Project is to
of the disease but carries the recessive
A. to identify the DNA sequence of every gene for that disease, which they pass on
gene in the human genome to their offspring.
B. to clone every gene on a single chro- A. chromosome
mosome in human DNA
B. cucumber
C. to cure genetic diseases
C. carrier
D. to inbreed the best genes on every
chromosome in human DNA D. none of above

695. When trying to determine the genotype 700. A condition in which a person’s skin, hair,
of an unknown parent, we cross the un- and eyes lack normal coloring is called
known parent with A. pigment disease
A. A Heterozygous Individual B. albinism

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 79

C. pink eye syndrome 705. A phenotype is the

D. cystic fibrosis A. letter combination

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B. dominant gene
701. Fred’s father has red hair and blue eyes
and his mother has brown hair and brown C. recessive gene
eyes, but Fred has red hair and brown D. physical appearance
eyes. In short, he has inherited his fa-
706. When a red bull (RR) is bred with a white
ther’s hair color, but his mother’s eye color.
cow (WW), a roan calf (RW) is sometimes
The inheritance of hair color is not corre-
produced. If a roan bull is bred with a roan
lated to the inheritance of eye colors.
cow, what is the most likely outcome of
A. Rule of Unit Factors their offspring?
B. Law of Segregation A. 1 red, 1 white, 2 roan
C. Rule of Dominance B. 0 red, 1 white, 3 roan
D. Law of Independent Assortment C. 2 red, 2 white, 0 roan

E. Law of Probability D. 0 red, 0 white, 4 roan

707. A homozygous dominant dog with brown
702. This is when there are two alleles that fur is crossed with a heterozygous dog
are exactly the same. with brown fur. What are the percentages
A. Homozygous of the possible genotypes?
B. Heterozygous A. 100% BB

C. Genotype B. 75% BB and 25%Bb

C. 50 % BB and 50% Bb
D. Phenotype
D. 50% Bb and 50% bb
703. What diseases can possibly be cured by
genetics technologies in future? 708. Janet is studying a population of
genetically-identical individuals. Janet can
A. Cancer conclude that these organisms.
B. Malaria A. Do not reproduce
C. COVID 19 B. Reproduce asexually
D. Typhoid C. Reproduce sexually
D. Are multi-cellular
704. What would be the best way to predict
the probability of a baby having cystic fi- 709. In certain species of plants, purple flow-
brosis? ers (P) are dominant to white flowers (p).
If two heterozygous plants are crossed,
A. by studying the parents’ karyotypes what will be the phenotype of the off-
B. by studying the family’s pedigree chart spring?
C. by exploring new methods of genetic A. 100% purple flowers
engineering B. 100% white flowers
D. by determining whether the parents C. 75% white flowers, 25% purple flow-
have codominant alleles ers

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 80

D. 25% white flowers, 75% purple flow- C. Each new molecule contains one
ers strand from the original molecule and one
newly synthesized strand.
710. If CRISPR had the possibility to edit out
D. Each new molecule retains the A, C,
genetic diseases in individuals who were
and G bases in the DNA sequence but re-
not yet born, then we could begin to
places the T base with U.
have a human race free of genetic disease.
What does society and the scientific com- 714. A selective breeding method in which two
munity need to determine before a tool

NARAYAN CHANGDER
individuals with identical or similar sets of
like this begins future use? alleles are crossed.
A. Ethics A. Hybridization
B. Regulations B. Inbreeding
C. Limitations C. Clone
D. Cost D. Genome
E. None of the Above
715. In humans, red-green color blindness (Xb)
711. Freckles (F) are a dominant trait.If a ho- is recessive and normal color vision (XB)
mozygous non-freckled parent and a ho- is dominant. A female with red-green
mozygous freckled parent is shown below. color blindness would have which geno-
What is the probability that their children type? (3B3)
will have freckles? A. XBXb
A. 100% B. XbXb
B. 0% C. XbYb
C. 50% D. XBYb
D. 75%
716. Early-onset Alzheimer’s disease affects
712. ATTTGAGCC-OriginalATTGAGCC-MutatedThe people under the age of 65. Less than
example above is an example of a 5% of people who are diagnosed with
Alzheimer’s disease have this type. Many
A. Insertion-Frameshift cases of early-onset Alzheimer’s disease
B. Deletion-Substitution are inherited, a type known as familial
Alzheimer’s disease (FAD). Which state-
C. Deletion-Frameshift
ment is best supported by this informa-
D. All of the above tion?

713. (3.2) Which of the following statements A. FAD is the result of a genetic change in
describes each new molecule of DNA pro- one or more chromosomes.
duced when DNA replicates? B. Natural selection will continue to re-
A. Each new molecule is half the length of duce the incidence of FAD.
the original molecule. C. FAD affects only the genes of middle-
B. Each new molecule has only the coding aged people.
portions of the original molecule in its se- D. Deletion of one amino acid causes
quence. FAD.

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 81

717. Which of the following statements is NOT 722. Which of the following factors may affect
true? the expression of a gene in an individual?

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A. One gene can influence many traits. A. age
B. Several genes can influence a single B. sex(gender)
trait.
C. external environment(light, temp, etc.)
C. The environment can have an influence
on traits. D. ALL OF THESE
D. Genes are the only influence on traits.
723. Cloning results in two organisms that are
718. Magda is a tall, 11 year old drummer.
She has a scar on her right cheek. She is A. both adult mammals
good at swimming. Which of her traits did B. produced from cuttings
Magda most likely inherit?
C. genetically similar
A. height
D. genetically identical
B. the scar
C. ability to swim 724. Gregor Mendel’s “P” Generation con-
D. ability to play drums sisted of plants which were with op-
posite traits.
719. Which of these is a way to assess the
risk of passing on a genetic disorder to off- A. Purebred
spring? B. Hybrid
A. Prenatal Testing
C. Heterozygous
B. Genetic Counseling
D. Incompletely Dominant
C. Analysis of a Pedigree
D. Karyotype 725. Unique sequence of DNA base pairs that
E. Blood Typing can be used to identify a person at the
molecular level.
720. Choose the one that doesn’t belong. ( Be
able to explain why on the test) A. Karyotype

A. heterozygous B. Genetic Screening

B. hybrid C. DNA Fingerprinting
C. carrier D. Pedigree
D. homozygous
726. The Human Genome Project has made di-
721. This is a mutation caused by a piece of agnosing genetic disorders easier.Once a
DNA breaking away from its chromosome genetic disorder is diagnosed, can be
and becoming attached to a nonhomolo- used as a possible treatment.
gous chromosome.
A. cell cultures
A. Translocation
B. Deletion B. gene therapy

C. Inverson C. DNA fingerprinting

D. Nondisjunction D. PCR

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 82

727. Sexual reproduction in animals depends 732. Which sex chromosomes would indicate a
on the production of gametes. Which of typical human male?
these processes produces gametes? A. XX
A. Mitosis B. X
B. Fertilization C. XY
C. Meiosis D. XXY
D. Binary fission
733. Genetic crosses involving a particular

NARAYAN CHANGDER
728. Adults with Down syndrome can often type of flower exhibit complete dominance
find work because they have recieved with respect to petal color. Red (R) is
dominant to white (r). Using the Pun-
A. folic acid
nett square, what is the expected percent-
B. physical therapy age of offspring that will have white flow-
C. education and training ers from a cross of parent flowers with a
genotype of Rr.
D. genetic counseling
A. 0%
729. What is the definition of genetic engineer- B. 25%
ing?
C. 50%
A. Studying the DNA of plants and ani-
mals D. 100%
B. Making changes in the DNA code of liv- 734. Which combination of sex chromosomes
ing organisms results in a male human being?
C. The discovery of DNA Using DNA to re- A. XX
produce organisms B. YY
D. Using DNA to reproduce organisms C. XY
730. What is a carrier? D. either XX or YY
A. An individual is heterozygous for a 735. p. 5Did gene therapy cure Ashanthi?
dominant recessive genetic disorder.
A. no, but it helped control the disease so
B. An individual is homozygous for a re- she could live a mostly normal life
cessive genetic disorder.
B. yes, she lived a normal life
C. An individual is heterozygous for a re-
C. No, she felt worse after therapy
cessive genetic disorder.
D. Yes, she felt good
D. An individual is homozygous for a dom-
inant genetic disorder. 736. Organisms can be classified based on ho-
mology, which is shared characteristics in-
731. The only way to cure a genetic disease is herited from a common ancestor. In the
to. past, homologies were based on studies
A. transplant affected tissue of anatomical structures and patterns of
B. change the affected DNA sequence embryonic development. In more recent
years, the use of molecular biology tech-
C. induce mutations in affected gene niques has allowed homologies to be com-
D. remove the affected gene pared at the levels of nucleotide sequences.

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 83

Nucleotide sequence comparisons are pos- A. Controlling the production of specific

sible because all organisms share which of proteins.
the following?

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B. Increasing the reproductive success
A. DNA bases of the organism.
B. Cellular organelles C. Decrease the need for resources for
C. Division of the nuclear chromosomes the organism.

D. Types of proteins needed for cellular D. Relays a message to other parts of the
functions cell.

737. Adding or deleting segments of genes to 742. A parent with Type A blood and a par-
correct or get rid of genetic disorders. ent with Type O blood have a child. Which
of the following is a possible genotype of
A. Gene Splicing their offspring?
B. Genetic Screening A. IAIA
C. Gene Therapy B. IAIB
D. Stem Cell Therapy C. IBi
738. Mendel’s law of independent assortment D. ii
is least likely to be observed for (3B3)
743. In certain camels, one hump (H) is domi-
A. Genes on different chromosomes nant over two humps (h) while long necks
B. Genes that are located close together (N) are dominant over short necks (n).
on the same chromosome Cross a camel that is heterozygous for
both traits with a camel that is homozy-
C. Genes that are located far apart
gous recessive for both traits. What is the
D. Genes that are located on sex chromo- genotypic ratio?
somes
A. 1 HhNn:1 Hhnn:1 hhNn:1 hhnn
739. Karyotypes are useful for detecting B. 1 Hhnn:2 HhNn:1 hhNn
A. Missing or extra chromosomes C. 1 HHNN:2 HhNn:1 hhnn
B. All genetic disorders D. 1:HhNn:1 hhnn
C. Cystic Fibrosis
744. The “central dogma” states that genetic
D. Huntington’s Disease information flows from
740. Mutations are only passed on to off- A. Protein→mRNA→DNA
spring when they happen in B. Protein→DNA→mRNA
A. somatic cells C. mRNA→DNA→Protein
B. gamete cells D. DNA→mRNA→Protein
C. prokaryotic cells 745. What are 4 components of gel elec-
D. the mitochondria trophoresis?

741. Which of the following provides the A. Scissors, Electricity, a Buffer and a Mi-
best description of the function of chromo- crowave
somes? B. Gel, Electricity, Meiosis and a Buffer

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 84

C. Scissors, Meiosis, a Microwave and 750. What can cause birth defects?
Agarose A. Environmental factors
D. Gel, Electricity, a Buffer and DNA B. Genetic factors
746. Hemophilia is an example of what type C. Food choices
of disorder? D. Standing near smokers
A. Disorder caused by a dominant gene
751. A child is diagnosed with cystic fibrosis.
B. Disorder inherited only from the Neither parent has the disease. How did

NARAYAN CHANGDER
mother the child most likely inherit this disease?
C. X-linked recessive disorder A. sex-linked trait and inherited from fa-
D. Disorder with genes located on the Y ther
chromosome B. dominant trait and inherited from
mother
747. What is a pedigree?
C. recessive trait and inherited from fa-
A. a chart that tracks which members of
ther
a family have a particular trait
D. recessive trait and inherited from both
B. a geneticist who studies the inheri-
parents
tance of traits in humans
C. a picture of all the chromosomes in a 752. The 23rd pair of chromosomes that differ
cell in males and females are called
D. an allele passed from parent to child A. autosomes
on a sex chromosome B. sex chromosomes
748. Hemophilia is a condition in which minor C. multiple alleles
cuts and bruises can result in prolonged D. Polygenes
bleeding. Hemophilia is caused by a re-
cessive allele for a sex-linked gene .If a 753. If a recessive genetic disorder mean that
man who does not have hemophilia has you need 2 abnormal alleles to express the
a son with a woman who is a carrier disorder. What dose a dominant genetic
for hemophilia, what are the chances that disorder mean?
their son will have hemophilia? A. An individual only needs 1 abnormal al-
A. 0% lele to express the disorder.
B. 25% B. An individual needs 2 abnormal alleles
to express the disorder.
C. 50%
C. An individual will never express the
D. 100%
disorder.
749. What do we use pedigrees for? D. An individual needs 3 abnormal alleles
A. To look at families to express the disorder.
B. To make determinations about the off- 754. In which of the following is hereditary in-
spring formation contained?
C. To track traits in families A. oxygen
D. Nothing B. genes

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 85

C. cells D. it increases the number of chromo-

D. minerals somes an organism will receive

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755. What does CRISPR-the new tech in ge- 760. Different organisms have different traits,
netics allow us to do or characteristics. Some of an organ-
ism’s traits are inherited from the organ-
A. Modify someones’s genes completely ism’s parents, while other traits are more
B. Edit a part of DNA sequence strongly influenced by the organism’s en-
C. Detect DNA sequence vironment.Among most animals, which of
the following traits are usually directly de-
D. Fight against bacteria termined by genes inherited from the or-
756. Which information was most important ganism’s parents?
to the development of genetic engineering A. sex
techniques? B. body weight
A. the observation of nondominant alle- C. knowledge
les
D. blood type
B. the discovery of lethal genes
C. the formulation of Punnett squares 761. A woman heterozygous for A blood mar-
ries a man heterozygous for B blood.
D. the structure of the DNA molecule What is the probability that they will pro-
757. In a flowering plant species, red flower duce offspring with AB blood?
color (R) is dominant over white flower A. 0%
color (r). What is the genotype of any B. 25%
red-flowering plant resulting from this
species? C. 50%

A. rr D. 75%

B. R 762. People suffering from diabetes need to

C. RR be injected with insulin in order to keep
their blood glucose levels stable. In the
D. RR or Rr early 1900s, insulin for diabetes patients
758. The human genome project is an attempt was extracted from slaughtered cows and
to pigs. However, in the 1970s, genetic en-
gineering technology allowed scientists to
A. Sequence everyones DNA engineer a bacterium to produce human in-
B. Copy DNA sulin.
C. Sequence the human genome A. There are no benefits to this form of
D. Cure genetic disease biotechnology.
B. Genetically engineered bacteria can-
759. How does meiosis most benefit a not become pathogenic to humans.
species?
C. Patients with diabetes now have a
A. it increases mutations steady, inexpensive supply of insulin avail-
B. it increases genetic variation able.
C. it decreases the number of chromo- D. There is no longer a large market for
somes an organism will receive cow and pig organs.

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 86

763. Which piece of DNA would move faster C. Cells with no cell wall or cell mem-
in gel electrophoresis? brane.
A. 100 Base Pairs Long D. Cells like eggs or sperm cells that are
B. 1000 Base Pairs Long undergoing reproduction.
C. 5000 Base Pairs Long 768. Comparing the embryos of different ani-
D. 100, 000 Base Pairs Long mals can show relationships that can’t be
seen when comparing the fully formed an-
764. What is the purpose of cloning?

NARAYAN CHANGDER
imals. Why is this the case?
A. to treat genetic disorders
A. Each embryo is unique; even embryos
B. to diagnose diseases of animals of the same species can be dif-
C. to place new genes in an organism ferent.
D. to make genetically-identical organims B. When observing embryos, micro-
scopes can be used to reveal more detail.
765. Which of the following best explains why
dominant alleles that cause lethal disor- C. Embryos can have parts that are not
ders are less common than recessive alle- present in the fully formed animals.
les that cause lethal disorder. D. Fully formed animals are sometimes
A. Lethal disorders caused by dominant missing limbs or other body parts.
alleles are usually more severe than lethal
disorders caused by recessive alleles. 769. While genetic engineering has positive
benefits, there are also concerns associ-
B. Unlike lethal disorders caused by re-
ated with widespread use of genetic en-
cessive alleles, lethal disorders caused by
gineering in agriculture. If many farmers
dominant alleles usually cause death of
begin to plant more genetically modified
the embryo.
crops that have an increased tolerance to
C. Most individuals carrying a lethal dom- insects, which of the following may re-
inant allele have the disorder and die be- sult?
fore they reproduce.
A. an increase in the use of pesticides
D. The presence of a dominant lethal al-
lele causes sterility. B. a decrease in genetic diversity of the
crops
766. Polygenic means that control a char-
C. an increase in the contamination of the
acteristic
water supply
A. many genes
D. a decrease in crop productivity
B. single genes
C. 3 genes 770. A phenotype that results from a domi-
nant allele must have at least domi-
D. no genes
nant allele(s) present in the parent(s).
767. In order for offspring to get a genetic mu- A. one
tation, the mutation must occur in what
type of cell? B. two
A. Cells with no nucleus. C. three
B. Any body cell after birth. D. four

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 87

771. Which woud require the use of recombi- D. 1 Round shape, thick cell wall
nant DNA?
775. Hemophilia is recessive diseases carried

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A. Engineering bacteria to produce in- on the X chromosome. Can a male be a
sulin carrier of the disease?
B. Crossing 2 varieties of apple A. Yes
C. Breeding a donkey and horse to make
B. No
a mule
C. Maybe
D. Creating a polyploid banana tree
D. none of above
772. Which step of bacterial transformation
occurs after a gene of interest has been 776. How many chromosomes are in a sex
isolated? cell?
A. inserting the plasmid into a bacterium A. 46
B. removing the plasmid from the bac- B. 23
terium C. 26
C. cutting the plasmid with restriction en- D. 43
zymes
D. inserting the gene of the parent gener- 777. Spruce trees can have different colored
ation into the plasmid reproductive cones. Trees with green
cones can be crossed with trees with red
773. If two pink snapdragon plants displaying cones. If these trees followed a codomi-
incomplete dominance are crossed, what nant pattern of inheritance, what pheno-
percent of offspring would you predict as type would you expect? (3B3)
also having pink flowers? Show your A. Offspring with red cones
work on your paper. (3B3)
B. Offspring with green cones
A. 0%
C. Offspring with orange cones
B. 25%
D. Offspring with red and green cones
C. 50%
D. 100% 778. Some people are concerned that geneti-
cally engineered crop plants could
774. In certain bacteria, a round shape (R) is
A. transmit their new genes to the wild
dominant over being oval (r) and thick cell
plant species producing “superweeds”
walls (T) are dominant over thin (t). Cross
a bacteria that is homozygous dominant B. transmit their new gene to the animals
for both traits with a bacteria that is het- that eat the plants producing “super ani-
erozygous for both traits. What is the phe- mals”
notypic ratio? C. exchange genes with animals that eat
A. 1 Oval shape, thick cell wall:1 Oval the plants producing animal plant hybrid
shape, thin cell wall D. be wiped out by native plant species
B. 1 Oval shape, thick cell wall:1 Round
shape, thick cell wall 779. Albinism affects

C. 1 Round shape, thick cell wall:1 Round A. pigment proteins

shape, thin cell wall B. vesicle formation

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 88

C. facial features 784. Type of Trait that is carried on the X or Y

D. brain formation Chromosomes.
A. Sex Linked Trait
780. Which of the following is true of your sex
chromosomes? B. Co-Dominance
A. I have two Y chromosomes. C. Complete Dominance
B. I have at least one X chromosomes. D. Incomplete Dominance

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. They aren’t developed until I turn 13.
785. Scientists have inserted genes into rice
D. They are afraid of one another. plants that
781. In the early to mid-1980’s, police began A. code for enzymes that cause rice to
using DNA evidence to convict criminals ripen quickly
of violent crimes. Currently, techniques B. increase the iron and beta carotene
such as DNA fingerprinting are frequently levels
used in criminal investigations, and some
countries, such as England, even keep C. code for substances that cause aller-
DNA databases so that persons who com- gies in people
mit crimes may be more quickly appre- D. increase the thickness of the seed coat
hended.To what branch of science do these
techniques belong? 786. The roundworm (Caenorhabditis elegans)
A. Biotechnology has a diploid chromosome number of 12.
How many chromosomes would be in a
B. Quantum physics haploid roundworm cell?
C. Inorganic chemistry
A. 24
D. Comparative anatomy
B. 12
782. Two rabbits with brown eyes have one C. 6
out of four offspring with pink eyes.
Which of the following is most likely con- D. None of the above
cerning pink eye color? (3B3)
787. A certain genetic mutation is found with
A. It is recessive a high frequency in populations of humans
B. It is dominant living in places that experienced a deadly
disease in the past. This same mutation is
C. it is codominant
rare in places that have no history of the
D. It is sex-linked disease. Based on how genes work, this
data best supports which of the following
783. In the movie Gattaca, Vincent is at a dis-
explanations?
advantage in the world because he
A. is in a wheelchair A. The genetic mutation was present in
all populations but did not get passed on
B. did not pass the GATTACA IQ test in places where humans did not contract
C. was born before “designer baby’ was the disease.
an option B. This genetic mutation codes for the
D. genetically superior but in a production of a protein that provides re-
wheelchair sistance to the disease.

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 89

C. The disease causes the genetic mate- 792. The purpose of selective breeding is to
rial of humans to mutate just before it A. Get bigger animals
causes their disease.

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B. get smaller animals
D. Humans with this mutation develop
this disease and then spread it to other C. create animals with desirable traits
humans without the mutation. D. create animals with bad traits

788. Black hair color is dominant to white hair 793. What is selective breeding?
color in mice. Determine the phenotypic ra- A. A process in which mates pick which
tio for the offpring of a heterozygous black partner to have offspring with
mouse and a white mouse.
B. It is a process humans use to breed
A. 4 Black:0 White or reinforce desired traits into a particu-
B. 3 Black:1 White lar organism.
C. 2 Black:2 White C. A process to get rid of beneficial traits

D. 0 Black:4 White D. A process to add harmful traits

794. Cystic fibrosis affects the lungs, the pan-

789. Fatal disease that shows symptoms
creas, the digestive system, and other or-
starting in middle aged adults. Portions
gans, resulting in symptoms ranging from
of the person’s brain are destroyed, even-
breathing difficulties to recurrent infec-
tually leading to death. Because it is dom-
tions. Which of the following terms best
inant, the person’s children have a 50%
describes this?
chance of developing the disease them-
selves. A. incomplete dominance
A. PKU B. epistasis
B. Tach-Sachs C. multiple alleles
C. Huntington’s D. pleiotropy

D. Cystic Fibrosis 795. Dominant alleles are represented by a:

A. Male gene
790. How many pairs of chromosomes are in
your cells? B. lowercase letter
A. 23 C. recessive trait
B. 19 D. capital letter
C. 12 796. Mendel observed the trait for short
D. 10 plants re-emerge in the F2 generation. He
determined that there are two influences
791. Many characteristics are affected by in- on traits.
teractions between genes and A. Rule of Unit Factors
A. chromosomes B. Law of Segregation
B. the environment C. Rule of Dominance
C. alleles D. Law of Independent Assortment
D. carriers E. Law of Probability

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 90

797. What is the study of variations of re- 803. What controls variations in skin color
sponses to drugs related to variations in among humans?
single genes? A. diet
A. Genotype B. many genes
B. Phenotype C. multiple alleles
C. Pharmacogenetics D. none of above
D. Pharmacogenomics

NARAYAN CHANGDER
804. Crossing Shorthorn Beef Cattle with Brah-
798. Marfan’s syndrome can affect man Cattle results in Santa Gertrudis Cat-
A. heart function tle. This process is called

B. pigment protein A. Cloning

C. vesicle formation B. Inbreeding

D. hair loss C. Hybridization

D. Genetic Engineering
799. All of the DNA in one cell of an organism.
A. Genome 805. An egg contains

B. Inbreeding A. 22 autosomes and an X chromosome

C. Hybridization B. 22 autosomes and an Y chromosome

D. Clone C. 44 autosomes and 2 X chromosomes

D. 44 autosomes and an X and a Y chro-
800. If you are missing or have an extra base mosome
at the end of your mutated DNA then what
type of mutation occurred? 806. How can patients reduce the symptoms
A. Substitution associated with PKU (phenylketonuria)?

B. Frameshift A. by exercising weekly

C. Duplication B. by keeping a strict diet

D. Insertion C. by getting vitamin treatments

D. by receiving antibiotic treatments
801. These are the sex cells, sperm, and egg.
A. gametes 807. What type of gene can hide the effects of
a recessive gene?
B. cup cakes
A. inherited trait
C. genotype
B. learned trait
D. none of above
C. dominant gene
802. How does Cystic Fibrosis occur? D. recessive gene
A. autosomal recessive
808. (3.3) A mutation caused a phenotypic
B. sex-linked recessive change in an organism’s offspring. The mu-
C. autsomal mutation tation most likely occurred in which type of
D. nondisjunction (extra 21st chromo- cell from the parent?
some) A. blood cell

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 91

B. gamete B. DNA Figerprinting

C. neuron C. Gene Therapy

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D. skin cell D. DNA Extraction

809. This is the type of inheritance when more 814. We select two organisms with desired
than two alleles control a trait traits to serve as parents of the next gen-
A. Multiple Alleles eration.

B. Genotypic A. Gene Therapy

C. Dominant B. Selective Breeding

D. Recessive C. Genetically Engineered Organs

D. Stem Cell Therapy
810. Which of the following would result in a
frameshift mutation? 815. Which form of selective breeding crosses
parents with the same or similar sets of
A. Insertions only
alleles?
B. Substitution only
A. fertilization
C. Deletion only
B. inbreeding
D. Insertions and Deletions
C. hybridization
811. Tomato plants usually have hairy stems. D. cloning
Hairless stems are present in tomato
plants that are homozygous recessive for 816. A characteristic that an organism can
this trait. If the stem characteristics are pass on to its offspring through its genes
determined by a single gene, what is the A. protein
expected outcome of crossing two tomato
B. trait
plants that are heterozygous for hairy
stems? C. DNA
A. 75% hairy stems:25% hairless stems D. gene
B. 100% hairy stems 817. Why did Mendel choose to study pea
C. 100% hairless stems plants in order to learn how traits are
passed from parent to offspring?
D. 50% hairy stems:50% hairless stems
A. Pea plants grow quickly
812. Genetic engineers often use plasmids in B. Pea plants are ultraviolet
their work. What is a plasmid?
C. Pea plants are rare and expensive
A. a map of a gene
D. Pea plants are take years to grow
B. a cell that is not yet specialized
C. a small, circular piece of DNA 818. (3.2) For a new liver cell to form, DNA
replication is necessary because it ensures
D. an enzyme that can cut DNA into pieces that the newly formed cell has which of
813. What process can prospective parents the following?
use to determine if they are carrying re- A. two copies of the original cell’s DNA
cessive alleles for a disease? B. an identical copy of the original cell’s
A. Genetic Testing DNA

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 92

C. a rearranged copy of the original cell’s C. Tay-sachs

DNA D. Achondroplasia
D. only the best parts of the original cell’s
DNA 823. Phenylketonuria (PKU) is inherited as a
recessive condition. A man with PKU mar-
819. In a certain species of rabbit, black coat ries a woman without any alleles for PKU.
is dominant over brown coat. What is the What is the probability that their child will
probability of producing a rabbit with a inherit PKU?
brown coat from two parents that are het-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. 0%
erozygous?
B. 25%
A. 100%
C. 50%
B. 50%
D. 75%
C. 25%
824. In the process of recombinant DNA tech-
D. 10%
nology., segments of DNA cut so that they
820. These things depict the linear sequence of can be placed into plasmids to grow in bac-
genes on a chromosome, are constructed teria. The enzymes that cut DNA in specific
using crossing-over data from mating ex- locations are known as
periments, and are practical with species A. DNA polymerase.
having only a few chromosomes.
B. ligase.
A. Chromosome Maps
C. restriction enzymes.
B. Pedigrees
D. viruses.
C. Karyotypes
825. How are the X and Y chromosomes dif-
D. Genetic Screening
ferent?
821. In a particular type of cat, coat color A. Only one is an autosome
follows the dominant/recessive pattern
B. The X is smaller than the Y
of inheritance. The allele for a brown
coat (B) is dominant to the allele for a C. The Y carries fewer genes than the X
white coat (b).A cross between two white- D. Only females have Y
coated cats would result in
826. Alisha and Rob would like to have chil-
A. white-coated kittens only. dren. A genetic counselor tells them that
B. white-coated kittens with brown they are both carriers of a certain genetic
spots. disease. What does this mean?
C. white-coated kittens or brown-coated A. They both have an allele for the dis-
kittens. ease and could pass it on to their children,
D. brown-coated kittens only. even though neither of them has the dis-
ease
822. Genetic disorder in which red blood cells B. there is a very high probability that one
have abnormal hemoglobin molecules and or both of them will develop the disease at
take on an abnormal shape. some point in time
A. color blindess C. Their children are guarenteed to have
B. Sickle cell anemia the disease

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 93

D. none of above 831. Which of these is an example of selective

breeding?
827. The common fruit fly, D. melanogaster,

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may have red eyes or white eyes, regu- A. Cutting a stem from a plant so that a
lar wings or small wings. White eyes and new plant grows from the stem
small wings seem to be inherited together B. Taking a skin cell from a sheep and
in both males and females. What is the making an exact clone of the sheep
most likely explanation for this inheritance C. Replacing DNA of a plant with DNA that
pattern? (3B3) allows the plant to grow in little water
A. The genes for white eyes and small D. Selecting two horses and having them
wings are recessive mate in order to produce stronger off-
B. The genes for eye color and wing size spring
show incomplete dominance
832. Which of these statements is true of sex-
C. The genes for eye color and wing size ual and asexual reproduction?
are close together on the same chromo-
A. Both types of reproduction require two
some
parents
D. The genes for white eyes and small
B. Both types of reproduction result in off-
wings are codominant
spring that are identical to one parent
828. Sperm and eggs are known as C. Both types of reproduction enable ge-
A. sex cells netic information to be passed from par-
ent to offspring
B. sex chromosomes
D. All organisms can reproduce sexually
C. sex genes
or asexually depending on environmental
D. true-breeding factors conditions
829. Which technology below would probably 833. (3.1) In the 1940s and 1950s, scientists
be the most important to a person who did experiments to determine the molecule
had diabetes and had to take insulin every responsible for heredity. Their exper-
day? iments demonstrated that the molecule
A. testing parents for genetic disorders that encodes and transmits information in
before they have children organisms is
B. engineering fruits and vegetables that A. glucosamine.
resist insects and other pests B. insulin.
C. developing ways to identify criminals C. DNA
through DNA fingerprinting
D. vitamin D.
D. using recombinant DNA to produce hu-
man hormones from bacteria 834. What process uses restriction enzymes to
cut and move pieces of DNA from one bac-
830. What does the cas9 protein do? terium to another?
A. cut viruses A. asexual reproduction
B. Cut RNA B. genetic engineering
C. cut DNA C. gel electrophoresis
D. ingest bacteria D. protein synthesis

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 94

835. Kara has several plants that produce ei- D. The process selecting a gene of inter-
ther purple or whits flowers. She crosses est to cut with restriction enzymes.
a plant that has two recessive alleles for
white flowers with a plant that has two 838. (3.1) What is the genetic material in the
dominant alleles for purple flowers. Which chromosomes of an animal’s cells?
result would be true of the offspring? A. DNA
(hint make a punnett square) B. glucosamine
A. All of the offspring would have two re- C. RNA

NARAYAN CHANGDER
cessive alleles and white flowers
D. transcriptase
B. All of the offspring would have two
dominant alleles and purple flowers 839. In plants, tall (T) is dominant to short
(t). Perform the following cross:Tt x Tt.
C. All of the offspring would have one re-
What is the probability of producing a
cessive allele, one dominant allele, and
short plant?
white flowers
A. 0%
D. All of the offspring would have one re-
cessive allele, one dominant allele, and B. 25%
purple flowers C. 50%

836. Cystic fibrosis is a recessive genetic dis- D. 75%

order caused by a mutation of the CTRF 840. A genetic disorder that is present at birth
gene. The disease is characterized by ex- and affects both the respiratory and diges-
cessive mucus production along the respi- tive systems.
ratory and digestive tracts in addition to
A. Huntington’s disease
other symptoms. Cystic fibrosis is a pro-
gressive disorder that is most associated B. Cystic fibrosis
with chronic respiratory disease.Sara and C. Turner syndrome
Anthony found out that they are both car-
D. Down’s Syndrome
riers of the disorder, but neither have the
disease. What are the chances their child 841. What principle states that, during ga-
will be born with cystic fibrosis? mete formation, genes for different traits
A. 1:4 separate without influencing each other’s
inheritance?
B. 1:2
A. Principle of Dominance
C. 0:4
B. Principle of Probabilities
D. 4:4
C. Principle of Independent Assortment
837. What is transformation? D. Principle of Segregation
A. The process of cutting DNA with re-
842. The different forms of a gene are known
striction enzymes.
as
B. The process of the gene of interest be- A. Codons
ing put in the vector.
B. Proteins
C. The process of the gene of interest be-
ing taken into the host cell’s DNA & being C. Alleles
expressed on the outside of the cell. D. Nucleotides

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 95

843. A red flower (RR) and a white flower 848. When crossing an organism that is ho-
(WW) are crossed and produce pink flower mozygous recessive for a single trait with
offspring (RW). What is the expected out- a heterozygote, what is the chance of pro-

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come for the offspring that result from the ducing an offspring with the heterozygous
cross between two pink flower plants? phenotype?
A. 0% red, 100% pink, 0% white A. 0%
B. 25% red, 50% pink, 25% white B. 25%
C. 25% red, 25% pink, 50% white C. 50%
D. 50% red, 25% pink, 25% white D. 100%
844. What word describes a trait that helps
849. In a certain species of rabbits, black coat
an organism survive in its environment?
color is dominant over brown coat color.
A. natural selection What is the probability of producing a rab-
B. mutation bit with brown coat color from two rabbits
C. camouflage that are both heterozygous for black coat
color?
D. adaptation
A. 100%
845. What is a risk of GMOs?
B. 50%
A. Radioactive
C. 25%
B. Food that taste too good
D. 10%
C. the long term effects are unknown
D. produce too much food 850. A selective breeding method in which
two genetically different individuals are
846. Achondroplasia is a dominant human dis- crossed.
order that results in dwarfism. If two peo-
ple that are heterozygous for achondropla- A. Genome
sia have a child, what is the probability it B. Clone
will be tall? (3.2.1)
C. Hybridization
A. 0%
D. Genetic Engineering
B. 25%
C. 50% 851. Rabbits can have several coat colors. A
dark gray rabbit and a Himilayan rabbit
D. 75%
(having a white body but black ears, nose,
E. 100% and feet) have eight offspring. Four of
847. What are multiple alleles? the offspring are dark gray, two are Him-
ilayan, and two are solid white. What ex-
A. more than 2 genes that control a trait plains the different phenotypes of the off-
B. three or more forms of a gene that spring? (3B3)
code for a single trait
A. Codominance
C. three or more chromosomes that de-
B. Incomplete dominance
termine a trait
D. more than 2 codominant genes in a C. complete dominance
chromosome D. Multiple alleles

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 96

852. Chromosomes that directly control the de- 857. If two parents both have AB blood type,
velopment of sexual characteristics. what is the chance they will have a child
with only B blood type?
A. Autosomes
A. 0%
B. Sex Chromosomes
B. 25%
C. Homologous Chromosomes
C. 50%
D. Alleles
D. 75%

NARAYAN CHANGDER
853. A child is diagnosed with a rare disease. 858. What is inbreeding?
Neither parent has the disease. How did
the child inherit the disorder? A. type of selective breeding where two
individuals with similar sets of alleles are
A. The disorder is dominant and carried crossed
by a parent.
B. type of selective breeding that involves
B. The disorder is recessive and carried the crossing of two genetically differ-
by both parents. ent individuals to bring together the best
C. The disorder is sex-linked and inher- traits from both parents
ited only from the father. C. the transfer of a gene from one organ-
D. A mutation in the child occurred. ism into another organism in order to pro-
duce desired traits
854. Which of the following is an example of D. the process of changing a gene to treat
ANEUPLOIDY? (3.2.2) a medical disease or disorder, absent or
faulty gene replaced with a working copy
A. Down syndrome
B. sickle cell syndrome 859. Which DNA strands move the fastest
through the gel when the electricity is
C. cystic fibrosis turned on?
D. cancer A. The long strands
855. What genetic disorder results in abnor- B. The short strands
mally shaped blood cells? C. The medium strands
A. hemophilia D. They all move the same
B. Down syndrome 860. Creating an organism that will exhibit a
C. cystic fibrosis new trait that can be passed to its off-
spring.
D. sickle-cell disease
A. Hybridization
856. What factors can affect a person’s B. Gene Splicing
height?
C. Transgenic Organisms
A. genes only D. Gene Therapy
B. both genes and environmental factors
861. Improvements in can alter the effects
C. a person’s blood type of genes on height.
D. a person’s karyotype A. environment

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 97

B. diet B. Turmela syndrome

C. genomes C. Downs syndrome

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D. none of above D. pars syndrome
862. What is difference between a monohy-
866. What is the shape of a DNA molecule?
brid cross and a dihybrid cross?
A. a monohybrid cross is performed for A. spiral
one generation, wheres a dihybrid cross B. double-helix
is performed for two generations
C. semi-symmetrical
B. a dihybrid cross involves organisms
that are heterozygous for two characters D. ellipse
and a monohybrid only one
867. Genes are located in which part of the
C. a monohybrid cross results in a 9:3:3:1 cell?
ratio whereas a dihybrid cross gives a 3:1
ratio A. Vacuole
D. a monohybrid cross involves a sin- B. Chromosome
gle parents, whereas a dihybrid cross in- C. Ribosome
volves two parents
D. Cytoplasm
863. In which ways can genetic engineering
can improve crops 868. The process of producing millions of
A. Make them pest or drought resistant copies of a specific DNA.

B. Make them more nutritious A. PCR

C. Make them larger B. PPA
D. All answers are correct C. RNA
864. Why can differences be observed in the D. PTB
personalities and appearances of identical
twins? 869. The passing of inherited traits from par-
ents to offspring
A. because of the expression of recessive
genes A. acquired traits
B. because of the impact of a chromoso- B. inherited traits
mal mutation
C. heredity
C. because of the impact of environment
D. genetics
factors on gene expression
D. because of the expression of genes 870. Photograph of chromosomes grouped in
caused by incomplete dominance ordered pairs is called a
865. A chromosomal disorder in females in A. pedigree
which either an X chromosome is missing,
B. Punnett Square
making the person XO instead of XX, or
part of one X chromosome is deleted. C. Venn Diagram
A. Turner’s syndrome D. Karyotype

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 98

871. Which of the following is NOT an argu- C. 75% with dimples and free earlobes
ment in favor of GMOs? and 25% with dimples and attached ear-
A. Reduced biodiversity lobes

B. Disease resistant crops D. 75% with dimples and free earlobes

and 25% with no dimples and attached
C. Food with extra nutrients earlobes
D. Controlled production of insulin
876. A mutation that occurs in the gametes
872. The failure of one or more pairs of homol- of an organism will most likely be trans-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
ogous chromosomes or sister chromatids ferred to which of the following?
to separate properly during cell division. A. The siblings of the organism
A. Incomplete Dominance B. The offspring of the organism
B. DNA Fingerprinting C. The other organisms living nearby
C. Genetic Engineering D. The mating partner of the organism
D. Non-disjunction
877. Which term describes the replacement of
873. What percentage of genes are same in all one base with another base in a DNA se-
human beings? quence?
A. 90% A. point mutation
B. 99% B. frameshift mutation
C. 99.9% C. chromosomal mutation
D. 99.99% D. nondisjunction

874. Which genetic disorder causes the body 878. If a trait is inherited from a chromosome
to produce unusually thick mucus in the that is not a sex cell, then it is considered
lungs and intestines?
A. hemophilia A. autosomal.
B. Down syndrome B. recessive.
C. cystic fibrosis C. sex-linked.
D. sickle-cell disease D. complex character.

875. Facial dimples and free earlobes are both 879. Which two processes are used in DNA
considered dominant human traits. What profiling
are the expected phenotypes of the off- A. PCR and gel electrophoresis
spring of a female with dimples and free
earlobes (DDFf) and a male with no dim- B. Gene transfer and gel electrophoresis
ples and attached earlobes (ddff)? C. PCR and a Karyogram
A. 50% with dimples and free earlobes D. Gene transfer and PCR
and 50% with dimples and attached ear-
lobes 880. Which of the following is an example of
a homozygous recessive genotype?
B. 50% with dimples and free earlobes
and 50% with no dimples and attached A. RR
earlobes B. Rr

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 99

C. rr Alzheimer’s disease into fruit flies and ob-

D. none of above serve how these genes affect the fruit
flies. Where must the human gene be in-

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881. If a trait shows up more commonly in men serted for a fruit fly to produce offspring
than women it is probably with this gene?
A. not inherited A. in the sex cells of the fly
B. on the x chromosome and dominant B. on several proteins in a fly cell
C. on the x chromosome and recessive
C. in the nervous system of the fly
D. on a normal body chromosome
D. on several chromosomes in a fly cell
882. Disorder when blood cells are misshapen,
resulting in a decrease of oxygen and 886. DNA stands for
caused by a defective allele for a polypep-
tide in hemoglobin A. does not answer

A. Duschenne’s muscular dystrophy B. deoxyribonucleic acid

B. Turner’s Syndrome C. donuts not apples
C. sickle cell anemia D. deosyrainbownucleic acid
D. Down Syndrome
887. Which is TRUE about sex-linked traits?
883. A is a chart or family tree that tracks
which members of a family have a particu- A. In humans, they are more likely to be
lar trait. found in females because the X chromo-
some is shorter than the Y chromosome.
A. Punnett square
B. They are found in equal numbers
B. Pedigree
among male and females because the dif-
C. Karyotype ferent sizes of sex chromosomes have no
D. History Check effect on the expression of the traits.

884. In hydrangeas, purple (P) is dominant to C. A girl must inherit 2 recessive traits on
white (p). Cross two purebred hydrangeas her X chromosome to show the phenotype,
that are purple. What is the genotypic while a boy must only inherit 1 recessive
probability? trait on his X chromosome to show the
phenotype.
A. 1 Pp:1 pp
D. One cannot determine whether a fe-
B. 1 PP
male has a sex-linked trait or not.
C. 1 PP:1 Pp
D. 1 Puprple 888. A clone can be BEST thought of as a(n)
created in the lab.
E. 1 Purple:1 White
A. identical twin
885. (3.3) Scientists studying human diseases
often use animal models. For exam- B. GMO
ple, fruit flies have been used to study
C. science fiction experiment
Alzheimer’s disease. Scientists insert cer-
tain human genes found in patients with D. none of above

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 100

889. Which viral life cycle allows viral genetic A. sex-linked inheritance
material to lay dormant while the host cell B. dominant
reproduces?
C. recessive
A. lytic
D. incomplete dominance
B. mitosis
C. lysogenic 894. In a family of five, one son has
hemophilia, one son is normal, and one
D. S phase
daughter is normal. Which best represents

NARAYAN CHANGDER
890. A gene that is found on the X or Y chro- the genotype of the parents?
mosome is called a A. XHXH and XHY
A. dominant gene B. XHXH and XhY
B. sex chromosome C. XHXh and XHY
C. autosomal gene D. XHXh and XhY
D. sex-linked gene
895. Researchers have genetically engineered
891. According to the law of independent as- bacteria to produce bovine growth hor-
sortment, the inheritance of alleles for one mone. This hormone can be given to
trait is not affected by the inheritance of cows in order to increase their milk pro-
alleles for a different trait. In what case duction.How will increasing a cow’s milk
can there be an exception to this rule? production most likely impact society?
(3B3) A. People will begin to drink more milk
A. The genes are on transgenic chromo- than they did before.
somes B. The milk produced by the cows will
B. The genes are on homozygous chromo- have fewer nutrients and will cause peo-
somes ple to suffer from nutritional diseases.
C. The genes are on the same chromo- C. Milk can be supplied to more people us-
some ing fewer animals.
D. The genes are on different chromo- D. The cows will age more quickly, and
somes soon there will be a shortage of cows.

892. Genes that are located on a sex chromo- 896. Gregor Mendel is known as
some. A. The Father of Pea Plants
A. Autosomes B. The Father of Inheritance
B. Polygenic Traits C. The Father of Austria
C. Genome D. The Father of Modern Genetics
D. Sex Linked Genes
897. A woman with heterozygous type A
893. Two genes for flower color in snapdrag- blood (IAi) marries a man with type AB
ons are red and white. When a red flower blood (IAIB). Their children could have
is mated with a white flower, all of the which of the following blood types? Select
offspring have pink flowers. What kind of all that apply. Show your punnett square
inheritance must this be? on you paper. (3B3)

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 101

A. Type A a cell to produce toxins that kill the in-

B. Type B sects. As the potato plants grow, ev-
ery cell of the plant contains the toxin-

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C. Type AB producing genes. This makes the potato
D. Type O resistant to attack by crop pests.Which of
the following is a limitation of this new
898. What was the first cloned animal? technology?
A. Dolly the Sheep A. The genetically altered potato plants
B. Robby the Rat will kill off so many insects that companies
C. Milton the Mouse that manufacture pesticides will soon go
out of business.
D. Beth the Goat
B. Over time, insects are likely to develop
899. Hemophilia is caused by a(an) resistance to the bacterial toxin.
A. recessive allele on the X chromosome C. The introduced gene will cause more
B. extra chromosome diversity in the potato’s genome, thus
causing the potato plant to become ex-
C. dominant allele tinct.
D. codominant allele D. There are no foreseen limitations with
900. A mother is heterozygous for blood type inserting bacterial genes into crop plants.
A and a father has blood type AB. What is 903. What does chromatin do?
the probability that their offspring would
have type A blood? A. It acts like a stomach for the cell.

A. 0% B. It removes waste and stores ingested

food.
B. 25%
C. It contains information that controls
C. 50% metabolism and heredity.
D. 75% D. It transports chemicals between and
901. Angora rabbits have long fur. Rex rab- within cells.
bits have short fur. When an Angora rab- 904. A human genetic defect that results in the
bit is bred with a Rex rabbit, the offspring failure to metabolize the amino acid pheny-
have fur length a little bit longer than that lalanine is
of a Rex rabbit. Which of the follow-
ing types of inheritance patterns best de- A. Turner syndrome
scribes the offsprings’ fur length? (3B3) B. Down syndrome
A. Codominance C. phenylketonuria
B. Incomplete dominance D. cystic fibrosis
C. complete dominance 905. Why do identical twins become less alike
D. Multiple alleles as they grow older?

902. Scientists have taken genes from a A. Because the environment plays a role
species of bacteria that is pathogenic to in influencingindividuals
several insects and inserted the genes into B. Because the genetic makeup of the in-
potato plants. The bacterial genes cause dividuals changes

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 102

C. Because the individuals’ cells undergo C. two in four

mitosis D. three in four
D. Because the number of recessive alle-
les exceeds the number ofdominant alle- 910. Which of Mendel’s laws states that alle-
les les are separated during meiosis?

906. Mating between closely related individu- A. Law of Dominance

als is called B. Law of Segregation

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Cloning C. Law of Independent Assortment
B. Pure Breeding D. Law of Meiosis
C. Inbreeding
911. p. 5 Ashanthi DeSilva was treated with
D. Plasmid therapy.
907. Amanda is not sick, but she is the carrier A. jean
of a disease allele. What is another way
B. gene
to describe her condition? ?
C. dna
A. Homozygous dominant for the disease
gene. D. mutation
B. Heterozygous for the disease gene.
912. What is the genotype of a heterozygous
C. Homozygous recessive for the disease organism?
gene.
A. Hh
D. Recessive for the disease gene.
B. HH
908. The reason a fetus afflicted with PKU is C. hh
not affected until after birth is that
D. none of above
A. the child is not bruised or cut during
development 913. Tay-Sachs is a lethal, autosomal reces-
B. prior to birth the enzyme level of the sive disorder. If both parents are het-
mother prevents accumulation of the dan- erozygous carriers, what are the chances
gerous chemical of them having a child who is also a het-
erozygous carrier?
C. the missing chromosome is compen-
sated for by the mother A. 25%
D. because the fetus does not breathe, B. 50%
the accumulation of mucus in the lungs is
C. 75%
not dangerous
D. 100%
909. Sickle cell anemia is a genetic disease
caused by an autosomal recessive gene. If 914. What is the first cloned mammal?
each parent carries one sickle cell allele,
A. goat
what are the chances their child will have
the disease? B. cat
A. no chance C. sheep
B. one in four D. cow

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 103

915. What role does pharmacogenomics have C. 2 BB:0 Bb:2 bb

in health care? D. 2 BB:1 Bb:0 bb

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A. It can assess individual variability to
many drugs. 920. Which disorder is characterized by degra-
dation of the nervous system and usually
B. It can be used to determine the effec-
results in death during infancy?
tiveness of a drug.
A. Tay-Sachs
C. It provides important assessment
data for gene therapy. B. Cystic fibrosis
D. It can assess the variability of drug re- C. Huntington’s
sponses due to single genes. D. PKU
916. What would the phenotype be of a 921. Does the environment impact this disease
cross between a homozygous dominant in any way?
tall plant and a homozygous recessive
short plant? A. Yes
A. 100% tall B. No
B. 100% short C. A little bit
C. 25% short; 75% tall D. It is the main way you get it
D. 50% short; 50% tall 922. Two healthy parents have a child with
917. What is one of the future possibilities of Cystic Fibrosis (CF). What is the best ex-
advanced technologies in genetics? planation?

A. Aliens on Earth A. Not the result of a genetic disorder.

B. Smarter Computers B. Both parents carry the recessive gene.
C. Robots dominating the world C. CF is a chromosomal mutation and not
related to parental genotypes.
D. Immortal human beings
D. CF is caused by a mutation in pair 21.
918. What term is used to express creating an
identical copy of a organism? 923. This is when there is a third, intermediate
form for a trait.
A. hybridization
B. inbreeding A. Incomplete dominance

C. cloning B. Complete Dominance

D. gene splicing C. Polygenic Inheritance

D. Pedigree
919. In cocker spaniels the allele for a black
coat color (B) is dominant over the allele 924. How many PAIRS of sex chromosomes do
for a brown coat color (b). If a brown humans have?
cocker spaniel is crossed with a heterozy-
A. 23
gous black cocker spaniel, which of the fol-
lowing genotypic ratios can be expected? B. 46
A. 0 BB:2 Bb:2bb C. 1
B. 1 BB:2 Bb:1 bb D. 2

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 104

925. Which of these choices is the definition of D. The trait must be the result of an im-
allele? mediate change in the environment.
A. The form of a gene that is expressed 930. A woman with ovarian cancer would like
B. One of many different forms of a gene to know which kind of genetic testing
C. The combination of genes for a specific could help prevent her daughters from get-
trait ting ovarian cancer. What should the
nurse inform this patient?
D. The complete genetic makeup of a liv-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
ing thing A. Forensic testing
B. Carrier screening
926. A is a small ring of DNA found in a
bacterial cell. C. Predictive testing

A. virus D. Prenatal diagnostic testing

B. plasmid 931. Which of these is an example of asexual

C. gene bullet reproduction?

D. PCR A. Mrs. Floyd prevents one type of sweet

corn in her garden from pollinating an-
927. Who is considered the “Father of Genet- other type of sweet corn in her garden.
ics? ” B. Mrs. Floyd gives her neighbor some
A. James Watson seeds that grew in her garden so the
B. Francis Crick neighbor can plant a garden next year

C. Gregor Mendel C. Mrs. Floyd takes pollen from one plant

and uses it to fertilize another plant.
D. Albert Einstein
D. Mrs. Floyd gives her neighbor from
928. A genetically engineered organism that one of her African violets so the neighbor
contains a gene from another organism is can start a new plant with it.
called
932. Why are males more likely to express
A. Bacterial sex-linked traits than females?
B. Genetic A. they inherit the sex-linked trait from
C. Transgenic both parents
D. Multigenic B. females only need one recessive gene
to express the trait
929. Which of the following is required for a
trait to become more common over time in C. females do not carry sex-linked traits
a population? D. males contain one X allele which they
A. There must be many varieties of the inherit from their mother
trait in the population. 933. In humans, hemophilia is an X-linked re-
B. The trait must allow members of the cessive trait. If a man and a woman have
population to eat only some kinds of food. a son who is affected with hemophilia,
C. The trait must give individuals an ad- which of the following is definitely true?
vantage in producing offspring that sur- A. The mother carries an allele for
vive. hemophilia

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 105

B. The father carries an allele for 938. Which of the following is an example of
hemophilia gene splicing (recombinant DNA)?

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C. The father is afflicted with hemophilia A. Two human chromosomes pair up dur-
ing meiosis and exchange parts of their
D. both parents carry an allele for
DNA
hemophilia
B. A mutation that occurs during meiosis
934. What is the purpose of the Human results in a chromosomal abnormality
Genome Project?
C. A genetically identical copy of an entire
A. to identify the DNA sequence of every organism is produced through cloning
gene in the human genome D. A segment of human DNA is inserted
B. to clone every gene on a single chro- into the DNA sequence of a bacterium
mosome in human DNA
939. A type of substitution in which no amino
C. to cure genetic diseases acids change is called
D. to inbreed the best genes on every A. Missense
chromosome in human DNA
B. Nonsense
935. Which of the following alleles is homozy- C. Silent
gous recessive?
D. Deletion
A. Tt
940. Which phenotype(s) do the red blood cells
B. tt from a person with the codominant AB
C. TT blood type exhibit?
D. T A. Either the ‘A’ or ‘B’ phenotype in sepa-
rate red blood cells
936. The Brown family has five boys. If Mrs.
B. The ‘B’ phenotype
Brown is pregnant with her sixth child,
what is the probability that this child will C. Both the ‘A’ and ‘B’ phenotype in each
be a girl? red blood cell
A. 25% D. The ‘A’ phenotype
B. 100% 941. Which procedure is the final step in the
C. 0% production of a transgenic organism?

D. 50% A. Recombinant DNA is transferred to a

bacterial cell
937. What best describes the primary objec- B. A specific gene in a DNA sequence is
tive of The Human Genome Project? identified.
A. Treat people with genetic diseases C. The DNA segment is combined into a
B. To map or find the location of all human plasmid.
genes in the human genome D. The DNA segment to be inserted is iso-
C. To map of find the location of all chro- lated.
mosomes in the human body. 942. Most genetic disorders are caused by the
D. Identify people with genetic diseases expression of

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 106

A. recessive alleles C. Bad genes

B. 2 dominant alleles D. none of above
C. one dominant allele 948. A homozygous tall pea plant (TT) is
D. sex-linked heredity crossed with a heterozygous tall pea plant
(Tt). Which statement is true about the
943. What percentage of the human genome offspring of this cross?
codes for proteins
A. All of the offspring will have the same

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. 98% phenotype (short), but two different geno-
B. 10% types (Tt, tt).
C. 25% B. All of the offspring will have the same
phenotype (short) and the same genotype
D. 2%
(tt).
944. Height in humans is determined by the in- C. All of the offspring will have the same
teraction of many alleles. This is an exam- phenotype (tall), but two different geno-
ple of types (TT, Tt).
A. Mendelian inheritance D. All of the offspring will have the same
B. codominance phenotype (tall) and the same genotype
(Tt).
C. polygenic inheritance
D. incomplete dominance 949. Which DNA sequence produces an mRNA
strand with the sequence AGUACA?
945. Which of the following can be accom- A. TCATGT
plished with CRISPR?
B. CAGTAC
A. figure out the role of a protein
C. GUACAG
B. understand genetic diseases
D. UCAUGU
C. disable genes
950. Which of the following is caused by a
D. all three options
dominant allele?
946. In order for an inherited trait to increase A. Huntington’s Disease
in a population, what must happen?
B. Colorblindness
A. offspring must not reproduce faster
C. Cystic fibrosis
than offspring without that trait
D. Sickle Cell Disease
B. offspring with that trait must repro-
duce and survive more than offspring with- 951. The system of sex determination in
out the trait chimps is the same as in other mammals. A
C. mutation of the DNA in the gametes chimp has 48 chromosomes in the nuclei of
must occur its body cells. What can you deduce from
this information?
D. asexual reproduction must be used
A. the sex of the chimp
947. Mutations are B. whether non-disjunction has occurred
A. Changes in the sequence of DNA C. The number of autosomes in a diploid
B. Broken chromosomes cell

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1.1 Genetics and Disease 107

D. the number of genes in each chromo- chains. Which of the following describes
some how DNA differs from lipids and carbohy-
drates?

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952. What are 3 kinds of gene mutations?
Check all that apply. A. Only DNA has carbon atoms.
A. substitution (point mutation) B. Only DNA is found in the cytoplasm.
B. deletion (frameshift) C. Only DNA is needed to create new
cells.
C. insertion (frameshift)
D. inversion D. Only DNA contains genetic informa-
tion.
E. translocation
956. (3.1) The stored information in DNA
953. You approach the edge of a pond filled
codes for which of the following?
with ducks. The ducks are swimming, but
when they see you, they approach the A. simple sugars
shore and congregate around you.What B. proteins
might best explain this behavior?
C. mitochondria when energy is needed
A. The ducks are diurnally migrating to
humans. D. large vacuoles when nutrients are
abundant
B. The ducks have imprinted on the hu-
mans. 957. Which of these would be useful for de-
C. The ducks are competing for territo- termining the relationship of two organ-
ries on the shore. isms?
D. The ducks have associated people with A. gene slicing
food handouts and so they come close.
B. gene therapy
954. Today, genetically-engineered crops are C. DNA fingerprinting
becoming more common. Which of the
following is a likely possible negative im- D. recombinant DNA
pact of the use of genetically-engineered
crops? 958. Who was responsible for the laws gov-
erning Inheritance of Traits?
A. Genetically-engineered genes can be
transferred to wild plants in the area. A. Albert Einstein
B. Crops that have been genetically engi- B. Gregor Mendel
neered to resist disease would increase C. Charles Darwin
the use of pesticides.
D. Isaac Newton
C. Animals that consume genetically-
engineered crops will no longer be able 959. Genetics is the study of
to reproduce.
A. genes
D. Human DNA might experience recom-
binant mutations with the plant DNA. B. jeans
C. cells and how they work
955. (3.1) Lipids, carbohydrates, and DNA all
exist in human cells as long molecular D. jeans and how they fit

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 1.2 Cell Damage 108

960. Hemophilia is a recessive x-linked disor- 963. The parents of an offspring both carry the
der. Which genotype represents a female recessive allele for cystic fibrosis, what is
who is a carrier for hemophilia? the chance that their child will develop the
A. XHXh disease?
A. 1 in 4
B. XhXh
B. 1 in 2
C. XHXH
C. 1 in 3
D. XhY

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. 3 in 5
961. This is a tool for tracing a trait through a
family. 964. Which of these symptoms is a symptom
of XYY?
A. Pedigree
A. Anxiety
B. Genetic Therapy
B. Headaches are common
C. Karyotype
C. Low intelligence
D. Allele D. Speech delay
962. How do the chromosomes in a sex cell 965. Analyzing DNA by gel electrophoresis al-
differ from those in a body cell? lows researchers to
A. A sex cell has half the number of chro- A. identify similarities and differences in
mosomes as a body cell the genomes of different kinds of organ-
B. A sex cell has twice the number of chro- isms
mosomes as a body cell B. determine whether a particular allele
C. A sex cell has chromosomes that are of a gene is dominant or recessive
half as long as those in a body cell C. compare the phenotypes of different
D. A sex cell has chromosomes that twice organisms
as long as those in a body cell D. cut DNA with restriction enzymes

1.2 Cell Damage

1. Each on a chromosome contains the in- C. Lipomatosis
formation to code for one specific protein.
D. All of the above
A. order
E. None of the above
B. uracil
C. spindle fiber 3. Which organelles do intestinal cells need
lots of?
D. gene
A. mitochondria
2. Which of the following denotes abnormal
accumulation of fat inside cells? B. cell membrane

A. Steatosis (fatty change) C. lysosomes

B. Obesity D. all of the above

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1.2 Cell Damage 109

4. What two processes make up the M 10. identical copies of a chromosome; full sets
stage? are created during the S phase of inter-
phase

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A. fermentation & mitosis
B. mitosis & cytokinesis A. Chromosome
C. glycolysis & cytokinesis B. ccentromere
D. G1 & G2
C. interphase
5. A cell spends most of its life:
D. sister chromatid
A. Growing and performing its function(s)
B. Replicating its DNA
11. Substances known to produce or promote
C. In mitosis cancer are called
D. In cytokinesis
A. Kinases
6. is the uncontrolled growth of cells, of-
B. Carcinogens
ten resulting in a tumor or mass of abnor-
mal cells C. Cyclins
A. Cancer
D. Malignancies
B. Apoptosis
C. Radiation 12. Cells typically respond to DNA damage in
D. none of above three ways:by ceasing to grow and divide
until the damage is repaired, by perma-
7. A repeating sequence of growth and divi- nently ceasing to grow and divide, or by
sion dying. DNA damage can turn off genes in-
A. Mitosis volved in cell-signaling pathways. Turning
B. Interphase off these gens can cause less-mature cells
to divide too rapidly, often leading to the
C. Cell Cycle development of-
D. Somatic
A. tumors
8. When during the cell cycle are chromo-
somes visible? B. allergies
A. only during interphase C. hemophilia
B. only when they are being replicated
D. cardiovascular disease
C. only during cell division
D. only during the G1 phase 13. A parent cell has 12 chromosomes. How
9. The cell semipermeable membrane governs many does each daughter cell have?
what comes in and out of the cell through A. 6
A. Diffusion
B. 12
B. Osmosis
C. Facilitated Diffusion C. 24

D. Protein Pumps D. none of these

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1.2 Cell Damage 110

14. Which of the following shows the correct muscles. Which of the following processes
order for mitosis is most likely going on in the muscles of the
A. Prophase, telophase, anaphase, weightlifter as he competes in his event?
metaphase A. The cells will never run out of oxygen
if the weightlifter is breathing.
B. telophase, metaphase, anaphase,
prophase B. As the cells run out of oxygen, they die
off gradually and the weightlifter’s mus-
C. prophase, metaphase, anaphase,
cles have fewer contracting muscle cells.

NARAYAN CHANGDER
telophase
C. As the cells run out of oxygen they
D. prophase, metaphase, telophase,
switch to anaerobic respiration, which al-
anaphase
lows the cell to make small amounts of
15. If a cell is cubic shaped with each side hav- ATP in the absence of oxygen.
ing a length of 3 cm, what is the surface D. As the cells run out of oxygen, they will
area to volume ratio of the cell? continue to make the same amount of ATP,
A. 6:1 since oxygen is not required to make ATP.

B. 3:1 19. What type of cells are formed when cells

grow uncontrollably?
C. 2:1
A. Cancer
D. 1:1
B. Prokaryotic
16. Cold sores are caused by the herpes sim- C. Eukaryotic
plex virus type 1. A company that wants
to develop antiviral drugs would ask a re- D. Somatic
search immunologist to study- 20. is made during transcription and is
A. the mechanism used by the virus to in- made during translation.
fect cells A. mRNA / a protein
B. how closely related the virus is to cold B. a protein / mRNA
viruses C. Ribosome / Nucleus
C. the metabolism of the virus D. mRNA / tRNA
D. meiosis in the virus
21. What is the last thing that happens during
17. A cause of cell damage due to environmen- mitosis?
tal factors is called: A. The cytoplasm divides
A. endogenous B. The nucleus separates
B. exogenous C. The DNA condenses
C. bad luck D. The sister chromatids separate
D. antibodies 22. How is cell division important to cell re-
pair?
18. A weightlifter is using heavy weights in
short bursts for a competition. Because A. When cells are damaged, cell division
his muscle cells are not able to take in helps clear out the damaged cells
enough oxygen to make very much ATP B. If a cell is damaged, cell division cre-
the weightlifter begins to get fatigue in his ates new organelles inside it

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1.2 Cell Damage 111

C. If a cell is broken, it can be “put back 27. What is the division of the nucleus called?
together” A. chromosome

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D. If a cell is damaged, cell division can B. mitotic phase
make a new cell to replace it
C. cytokinesis
23. Two different species of bacteria are ex- D. the cell cycle
amined. Scientists find that species X al-
ways produces CO2 and H2O during cellu- 28. Which combination below is most likely to
lar respiration. Species Y always produces lead to the death of a potentially cancer-
ethyl alcohol and CO2. Which conclusion ous cell if there is a mutation in the cell’s
can be made from these observations? proto-oncogene?
A. Only species Y is anaerobic. A. functioning telomerase gene, non-
functioning stability gene, functioning tu-
B. Both species X and Y are aerobic. mor suppressor gene
C. Both species X and Y are anaerobic. B. non-functioning telomerase gene, non-
D. Only species Y is aerobic. functioning stability gene, non-functioning
tumor suppressor gene
24. How many parent(s)are needed for asex- C. functioning telomerase gene, non-
ual? functioning stability gene, non-functioning
A. 4 tumor suppressor gene

B. 1 D. functioning telomerase gene, function-

ing stability gene, functioning tumor sup-
C. 9 pressor gene
D. 100
29. Which is a function of cyclins?
25. If the eyepiece lens (ocular) has a magnifi- A. Cyclins are carbohydrates that regu-
cation of 10 times, and the objective lens late DNA replication during the mitosis
has a magnification of 4 times, the total phase of the cell cycle.
magnification is B. Cyclins are glycoproteins that repair
A. 14 times DNA in the beginning of cell cycle.
B. 40 times C. Cyclins are proteins that regulate
when and how often a cell divides.
C. 410 times
D. none of above
D. 2.5 times
30. The suffix “saccharide” means
26. Which of the following are reversible cell
A. Sugar
injuries?
B. Protein
A. Disturbed water metabolism
C. Lipid
B. Disturbed fat metabolism
D. Phospholipid
C. Disturbed mycopolysaccharides
31. Water, oxygen and carbon dioxide move
D. Hyaline changes
across the permeable cell membrane by
E. All of the above

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1.2 Cell Damage 112

A. diffusion 37. The sequence of nitrogenous bases in DNA

B. facilitated diffusion varies widely. The sequence of the bases
in DNA is most important for which of the
C. endocytosis following?
D. exocytosis
A. Providing the instructions for the traits
32. Cells undergo cell division, which involves of an organism
both mitosis and cytokinesis. B. Preventing mutations from occurring
A. G1 during DNA replication

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. S C. Allowing the DNA to have the shape
C. G2 necessary for replication
D. M phase D. Helping form the sugar-phosphate
backbone of DNA molecules
33. Which of these is the direct result of an
error in the transcription of a DNA nu- 38. Which molecules act as gatekeepers for
cleotide? each checkpoint of the cell cycle?
A. The nuclear membrane is ruptured. A. p53 gene
B. Amino acids do not bond to tRNA. B. cyclins and cycline-dependent kinases
C. A codon sequence is incorrect. C. thyroid hormones
D. Transportation of mRNA does not oc- D. none of above
cur.
39. What is a characteristic of sexual repro-
34. Male gamete cells known as sperm are duction?
specialized to be highly mobile. Which A. diverse offspring
of the following organelles increases the
motility of these specialized cells? B. identical offspring
A. flagella C. faster than asexual reproduction
B. Golgi bodies D. requires no energy
C. chloroplasts 40. Which of the following organs are affected
D. vesicles by disturbed water metabolism

35. What is the end product of mitosis A. Kidney

A. 2 genetically identical daughter cells B. Liver

B. 2 genetically unique daughter cells C. Heart‘

C. 4 genetically identical daughter cells D. Parenchymatous organs
D. 4 genetically unique daughter cells E. All of the above

36. The process by which the nuclear material 41. Cells that are able to develop into any type
is divided equally between two new cells of cell found in the body
A. mitosis A. Totipotent
B. cancer B. Plant Cell
C. spindle C. Pluripotent
D. centromere D. Embryonic cell

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1.2 Cell Damage 113

42. A parent cell has 46 chromosomes, How B. stem

many does each daughter cell have after C. root
mitosis?

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D. flower
A. 12
B. 23 48. What is the correct sequence of Mitosis?

C. 46 A. Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase, and

Prophase
D. 92
B. Telophase, Anaphase, Prophase and
43. During which stage of the cell cycle does Cytokinesis
the nucleus divide? C. Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, and
A. interphase Telophase
B. mitosis D. Cytokinesis, Interphase, Prophase,
and Telophase
C. endocytosis
D. cytokinesis 49. What is the correct order of stages in mi-
tosis?
44. Which stage of the cell cycle is MOST crit-
A. prophase, metaphase, anaphase,
ical for ensuring that daughter cells are
telophase
identical?
B. anaphase, metaphase, prophase,
A. G1
telophase
B. S
C. telophase, anaphase, metaphase,
C. Prophase prophase
D. G2 D. telophase, metaphase, anaphase,
prophase
45. During what phase of the cell cycle does
the cell grow the most? 50. A hydra reproduces when an outgrowth,
A. G1 phase or bud, forms and continues to develop un-
til if falls off of the parent. This is an ex-
B. S phase
ample of:
C. M phase
A. Binary Fission
D. Cytokinesis
B. Sporulation
46. Powerhouse of the cell, organelle that is C. Budding
the site of ATP ( energy production ) and D. Vegetative Propagation
cellular respiration in plants and animals.
A. Nucleus 51. The centromere is a region in which
B. Ribosomes A. metaphase chromosomes become
aligned at the metaphase plate.
C. Mitochondria
B. chromosomes are grouped during
D. Vacuoles telophase.
47. Which part of a plant has the thickest cell C. chromatids remain attached to one an-
wall? other until anaphase.
A. leaf D. the nucleus is located prior to mitosis.

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1.2 Cell Damage 114

52. M phase produces 57. How many times do cells become special-
A. Identical daughter cells ized during their life cycle?

B. Different daughter cells A. 1

C. Identical parent cells B. 4

D. Different parent cells C. 8

D. 10
53. This checkpoint ensures that chromosomes

NARAYAN CHANGDER
are correctly attached to spindle fibers 58. Encloses the cell, it acts like a gatekeeper,
A. G1 allowing some materials to pass through
it but not others.
B. G2
A. Chloroplasts
C. M
B. Cell Wall
D. S
C. Cell Membrane
54. The prefix “mono” means
D. Cytoplasm
A. Two
B. One 59. What is the longest stage of the cell cy-
cle?
C. Many
A. Interphase
D. Few
B. Mitosis
55. Which part of a DNA molecule is responsi- C. Cytokinesis
ble for the direct coding of specific traits in
an organism? D. none of above
A. The number of hydrogen bonds that 60. The activities in the cell cycle occur during
hold the strands of DNA together. specific phases. In which phase of the cell
B. The number of carbons in the DNA cycle is DNA replicated?
molecule. A. Mitosis
C. The sequence of nucleotide bases in B. G1 phase
the DNA molecule.
C. G2 phase
D. The sequences of phosphates along
each DNA strand. D. S phase

56. Neutrophils are a type of white blood cell 61. People who have leukemia, a cancer that
that engulf invading bacteria and break affects white blood cells, are often given
them apart with digestive enzymes. Neu- Cytarabine. This drug inhibits the synthe-
trophils are likely to contain large numbers sis of DNA. Which phase of the cell cycle is
of- most affected by Cytarabine?
A. chloroplasts A. G1 phase
B. lysosomes B. S phase
C. flagella C. G2 phase
D. Golgi bodies D. M phase

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1.2 Cell Damage 115

62. The Fluid Mosaic Model 66. The is like JELL-O, and is a gel-like
A. describes the process of making pro- fluid that fills plant and animal cells, and
is where the organelles are found.

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teins through the fluid movement of ribo-
somes to the golgi apparatus A. Cytoplasm
B. describes the movement of RNA
B. Cell Membrane
through the nuclear pore into the cyto-
plasm C. Cell Wall
C. describes the cell’s boundary com- D. JELL-O
posed of the cell wall and the cytoskeleton
D. describes the cell membrane as made 67. What protein can halt cell division if it de-
of many different parts that are not fixed tects damaged DNA and can lead a cell to
in one place. undergo apoptosis?
63. What is the difference between A. RAS
metaphase and anaphase?
B. MPF
A. Metaphase is after anaphase
B. Anaphase has chromosomes lining up C. PDGF
and metaphase has them split apart D. p53
C. Metaphase has chromosomes lining
up and anaphase has them split apart 68. What happens during S phase of the cell
D. Anaphase is after metaphase cycle?

64. Which two kinds of cells don’t divide in hu- A. DNA Replication
man life B. Growing
A. Blood and Skin
C. Cell Waits to Divide
B. Pluripotent and Mulitpotent
D. Mitosis
C. Heart and Brain
D. Neuron and Muscle 69. What is another name for a sex cell?
65. Which of the following would lead to a can- A. Gamete
cerous cell?
B. Somatic
A. DNA damage to a proto-oncogene, in-
active p53 gene, active BRCA1 gene, ac- C. Diploid
tive telomerase
D. Mitosis
B. DNA damage to a proto-oncogene, ac-
tive p53 gene, inactive BRCA1 gene, active 70. Where does DNA synthesis happen in eu-
telomerase karyotic cells?
C. No DNA damage to a proto-oncogene,
inactive p53 gene, inactive BRCA1 gene, A. cytoplasm
active telomerase B. mitochondria
D. DNA damage to a proto-oncogene, in-
C. nucleus
active p53 gene, inactive BRCA1 gene, ac-
tive telomerase D. Golgi apparatus

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1.2 Cell Damage 116

71. Which of the following are examples ex- B. Diploid Cells

tracellular deposition of a homogeneous, C. Skin Cells
structureless, eosinophilic material?
D. Liver Cells
A. Nasal mucosa
76. programmed cell death =
B. Tumors
A. apoptosis
C. Blood vessels
B. cancer
D. Old scars

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. spindle
E. Old thrombi
D. cytokinesis
72. What is the role of the spindle during mi-
77. A cell that undergoes repeated mitosis
tosis?
without diving would have
A. it changes the chromatin to chromo- A. many daughter cells
some
B. fewer chromosomes
B. duplicate the DNA
C. many nuclei
C. breaks down the membrane
D. cancerous properties
D. separates the chromatids.
78. Which organelle produces ribosomes?
73. Which of the phases of the cell cycle is com- A. Nucleolus
monly known as growth phase?
B. Cell Membrane
A. G0
C. Nucleus
B. G1
D. Mitochondria
C. G2
79. Which structure produces spindle fibers?
D. S
A. nucleus
74. A certain mutation in the gene for B. centriole
hemoglobin results in the red blood cells
becoming sticky, rigid, and irregularly C. centromere
shaped. These irregularly shaped red D. chromosome
blood cells block the flow of blood through-
80. What is the function of the cuticle on a
out the body. A single base mutation is
leaf?
responsible for these irregularly shaped
blood cells. Which of these mutations most A. to keep water from entering the leaf
likely results in the mutated hemoglobin B. to keep water from leaving the leaf
gene?
C. to keep bacteria out of the leaf
A. Insertion D. to keep oxygen in the leaf
B. Deletion
81. The activity of helicase exposes
C. Duplication
A. Template parent strands
D. Substitution
B. Complementary daughter strands
75. What kind of cells are made in meiosis? C. Primers
A. Haploid cells D. RNA polymerase

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1.2 Cell Damage 117

82. A physical signal that controls cell growth C. rapidness

and division is D. retention

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A. external growth factor hormone
88. Interphase contains three stages, including
B. internal enzymes the G1 and G2 stages. Which of the fol-
C. cell contact with other cells lowing occurs during these gap stages?
D. checkpoints A. separation of chromosomes
B. cellular growth
83. Another name for a vascular plant is
C. DNA replication
A. Bryophytes
D. viral transformation
B. Tracheophytes
C. Mushroom 89. In eukaryotic cells, there are three major
checkpoints that control the cell cycle pro-
D. Algae
cess. Choose the 3 major checkpoints
84. This is the cell cycle checkpoint that makes A. G1 checkpoint at the G1/S transition
sure environmental conditions are ideal for B. G2 checkpoint at the G2/M transition
cell division.
C. Spindle checkpoint, transition from
A. G1 Checkpoint metaphase and anaphase
B. G2 Checkpoint D. G0 checkpoint, transition from
C. M Checkpoint metaphase and anaphase
D. I Checkpoint 90. Which of these is in the correct order?
85. During which stage of mitosis do the chro- A. S; G1; G2; M
mosomes line up down the middle of the B. G1; S; G2; M
cell?
C. M; G2; S; G1
A. Prophase
D. G2; S; M; G2
B. Anaphase
91. Nitrogenous bases are located on both
C. Metaphase
strands of the DNA double helix. What is
D. Telophase the significance of the nitrogenous bases?
86. A cell organelle that is responsible for A. The number of adenines and cytosines
waste removal in the cell. determines the type of RNA that will be
produced
A. Golgi Body
B. The order of nitrogenous bases deter-
B. Endoplasmic reticulum mines the order of amino acids in the pro-
C. Large central vacuole teins synthesized
D. Lysosomes C. The type of hydrogen bonding between
the nitrogenous bases determines which
87. The word “cycle” in cell cycle refers to the amino acid will be added to the peptide
of growth, DNA duplication, and cell chain
division that occurs in eukaryotic cells.
D. The amount of thymine and guanine in
A. repetition the DNA molecules determines the length
B. randomness of the genes

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1.2 Cell Damage 118

92. Embryonic stem cells are able to replicate period, the virus affects the body by doing
continuously.What happens to the telom- which of the following?
eres during repeated mitotic cell cycles of A. The virus produces toxins that weaken
embryonic stem cells? immune cells and prevent them from re-
A. Their lengths increase. producing
B. Their lengths decrease. B. The virus damages immune cells while
C. They are completely lost. using their machinery to produce copies
of itself

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. They stay the same length.
C. The virus uses nutrients meant for im-
93. Why do cells go through cell division? mune cells to fuel its own cellular respira-
tion
A. Growth
D. The virus changes the identity of the
B. Reproduction
nucleotides of immune cells to prevent
C. Repair the immune system from functioning nor-
D. All of the other answers mally.

94. When homologous chromosomes match up, 98. Mild changes associated with disturbed
they form a structure call a water metabolism is characterized by
A. tetrad (pair of chromosomes, one from A. cloudy swelling
mom and one from dad) B. vacuolar degeneration
B. triad C. hydropic degeneration
C. diploid D. all of the above
D. quad (group of 4 replicated chromo- E. none of the above
somes, 2 from mom and 2 from dad)
99. stage of early development in mammals
95. The process of cell specialization is called that consists of a hollow ball of cells
cell
A. Blastocyst
A. assignment
B. Stem Cells
B. regulation
C. Pluripotent
C. choice
D. Multipotent
D. differentiation
100. Which of the following is apoptosis mal-
96. Necrosis is function not involved in?
A. transformation of a cell into a malig- A. Tumors
nant one B. HIV
B. genetically programmed cell death C. Cystic Fibrosis
C. irreversible cell damage D. Arthritis
D. reversible cell damage
101. Ultraviolet light may cause DNA damage,
97. A person infected with the human immun- which is known as a mutation. How might
odeficiency virus (HIV) may not have any such damage affect events taking place
symptoms for a period of time. During this during the SYNTHESIS phase?

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1.2 Cell Damage 119

A. The DNA damage may be copied 106. When cancer spreads to other tissues of
B. The DNA damage may shrink the body, it is called

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C. The DNA damage may be unclear A. Metastasis
B. Invasiveness
D. The DNA is the same
C. Angiogenesis
102. Correct order of the 4 checkpoints of the
D. Chemotherapy
cell cycle
A. Anaphase checkpoint, mito- 107. When a cell is injured, increases in
sis/metaphase checkpoint, and telophase which of the following contribute to cell
checkpoint, interphase checkpoint swelling?
B. Interphase checkpoint, S phase check- A. Intracellular calcium and sodium
point, and M phase checkpoint, mito- B. Extracellular calcium and sodium
sis/metaphase checkpoint C. Enlargement of mitochondria
C. G1 checkpoint, G2 checkpoint, mito- D. Proliferation of mitochondria
sis/metaphase checkpoint, and S phase
checkpoint 108. Which is not true about Prokaryotic
cells?
D. G1 checkpoint, S checkpoint, G2 check-
point, and mitosis/metaphase checkpoint A. They do not have a nucleus.
B. They have DNA.
103. Telophase is a stage of a cellular process
that begins after the chromosomes have C. They are larger than Eukaryotic cells.
moved to opposite poles of the cell. Dur- D. Examples include cyanobacteria and E.
ing which cellular process does telophase coli.
occur?
109. The holds the DNA, and controls the
A. Translation functions of plant and animal cells.
B. Interphase A. Nucleus
C. Transcription B. Nuclear Membrane
D. Mitosis C. Nucleolus
104. In humans, mitosis is used for which of D. New Moon
the following:
110. What causes steatosis?
A. Growth A. Bacterial toxins (diphtheria)
B. Repair B. Chemical toxins
C. Renewal C. Malnutrition and chronic alcoholism
D. All of the above D. All of the above
105. Translation is the process where 111. The spreading of cancerous cells is called
A. mRNA is created in the Nucleus A. metastasis
B. mRNA is decoded to form a protein B. carcinogenesis
C. glucose molecules are made C. angiogenesis
D. is where lipids are synthesised D. homeostasis

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1.2 Cell Damage 120

112. Mitosis involves which type of cells? 118. Why can gargling with salt water help
A. Sex Cells cure a bacterial infection?
B. Bacteria A. The salt creates a hypertonic environ-
ment, causing bacteria to undergo plas-
C. Prokaryotes
molysis and die
D. Body or Somatic Cells
B. The salt creates a hypotonic environ-
113. When is DNA duplicated (or copied)? ment, causing bacteria to undergo plas-
molysis and die

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Before cell division, in Interphase
B. During Cytokinesis C. The salt creates a hypertonic environ-
ment, causing bacteria to swell with water
C. During Mitosis and burst
D. none of above
D. The salt creates an isotonic environ-
114. At which smallest level of organization in ment, where bacteria can no longer con-
an organism can the characteristics of life trol the flow of water into or out of the cell
be carried out?
119. What is the main function of leaves?
A. Organ system
A. Leaves absorb water and minerals and
B. Organ transport nutrients to the stem.
C. Tissue
B. Leaves create a barrier that prevents
D. Cell water in the plant’s tissues from evaporat-
ing.
115. This bio-molecule is used LAST by the
body C. Leaves provide support for growth and
a place to store food.
A. Nucleic Acids
B. Carbohydrates D. Leaves provide a place for photosyn-
thesis to occur.
C. Lipids
D. Proteins 120. The cell cycle includes mitosis. Which are
features of nuclear division? 1. forms
116. Which is not a phase of the cell cycle? cells of equal size to the parent cells2.
A. Interphase forms genetically identical cells3. semi-
conservative replication of DNA
B. Mitosis
C. Cytokinesis A. 1, 2 and 3

D. Duplication B. 1 and 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only
117. A set of instructions in DNA directed m-
RNA to be translated into protein to ex- D. 2 only
press the character in a living cell is called
121. What is Apoptosis?
A. Genetic code A. Cell programmed Death
B. initiation codon B. Inflammation of cell
C. DNA C. Phagocytosis
D. Genetic information D. Plasmolysis

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1.2 Cell Damage 121

122. Intracellular free calcium is much than 128. Checkpoints in the cell cycle are important
extracellular free calcium. because they

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A. Higher A. check for correctly replicated DNA
B. Lower B. ensure cells are the correct size and
C. Better are ready to divide

D. Worse C. prevent cells from dividing that could

become cancerous
123. A type of CdK-cyclin complex that pro- D. all of the above
motes mitosis and peaks in concentration
at the end of mitosis. 129. What causes genetic variation in meio-
A. p53 sis?

B. RAS gene A. chromosomes lining up

B. crossing over of chromosomes
C. Platelet Derived Growth Factor (PDGF)
C. separation of chromosomes
D. Maturation (Mitosis) Promoting Factor
(MPF) D. chromosomes pulling apart

124. Which is correct? (2) 130. During what phase of the cell cycle is DNA
replicated?
A. Necrosis is uncontrolled cell death
A. G1 phase
B. Necrosis is programmed cell death
B. S phase
C. Apoptosis is uncontrolled cell death
C. G2 phase
D. Apoptosis is programmed cell death
D. M phase
125. Another term for a fertilized egg is
131. cell with limited potential to develop into
A. embryo
many types of differentiated cells
B. fetus
A. pluripotent
C. stem cell
B. blastocyst
D. zygote
C. multipotent
126. What type of gene can code a positive cell D. totipotent
cycle regulator?
132. What occurs in M phase? (select 2)
A. Apoptosis
A. Mitosis
B. Oncogene
B. Cytokinesis
C. Proto-oncogene
C. Transcription
D. Tumor suppressor gene
D. Translation
127. Adult Stem Cells can be used to
133. Most unicellular organisms use cell divi-
A. Divide cells sion (specifically mitosis) to:
B. renew and replace cells A. Create new and unusual unicellular or-
C. break down and damage cells ganisms
D. feed cells B. Make identical copies of themselves

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1.2 Cell Damage 122

C. Become a multicellular organism 138. The checkpoints that regulate the cell cy-
cle can fail when becomes damaged.
D. Increase variation in their species
A. DNA
134. What is the relationship between the cell B. Cell Membrane
size and the cell nutrient absorption rate?
C. Mitochondria
A. The smaller the cell size the less nutri-
ents are absorbed D. Ribosomes

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. The larger the cell size the more nutri- 139. The cell replicates its DNA. At the end of
ents are absorbed this phase, the cell has two complete sets
of DNA.
C. The smaller the cell size the more nu-
trients are absorbed A. G1
D. The relationship between cell size and B. S
nutrient absorption rate cannot be deter- C. G2
mined
D. M
135. Proteins are to amino acids as carbohy- 140. Caspases need to be cleaved to initiate
drates are to apoptosis
A. monosaccharides A. True
B. disaccharides B. False
C. enzymes C. Sometimes
D. nucleic acids D. none of above

136. Which of the following lists the phases of 141. By the end of prophase, each of the fol-
the cell cycle in order? lowing has occured except
A. Interphase, Prophase, Metaphase, A. tighter coiling of the chromosomes
Anaphase, Telophase, Cytokinesis B. breaking down of the nuclear envelope
B. Cytokinesis, Telophase, Anaphase, C. disappearing of the nucleus
Metaphase, Prophase, Interphase
D. lining up of the chromosomes at the
C. Interphase, Metaphase, Prophase, equator
Telophase, Anaphase, Cytokinesis
142. What is the role of primase in DNA repli-
D. Cytokinesis, Prophase, Metaphase, cation?
Anaphase, Telophase, Interphase
A. Separating the two strands of the dou-
137. Which of the following is NOT a major ble helices
symptom of inflammation? B. Preventing double helices from over-
A. Redness winding and breaking by relieving tension
C. Adding primers to template parent
B. Loss of Function
strands
C. Heat
D. Synthesizing complementary daughter
D. Cold strands from template parent strands

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1.2 Cell Damage 123

143. The 1918 influenza epidemic killed be- than its surface area. At a certain point,
tween 50 million and 100 million people the cell’s volume would be compared
worldwide. This epidemic happened near to the area available for materials to move

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the end of World War I. More people died in and out.
from the influenza epidemic than were
A. faster / too small
killed in the war. Which of the follow-
ing explains why this virus was so deadly B. faster / too large
worldwide? C. slower / too small
A. Infected soldiers returning from the D. slower / too large
war spread the virus when they coughed.
B. Food was scarce because of the war, 148. I am stiff, I protect and give shape to
so people were undernourished, and their plant cells.
immune systems were weakened. A. Cell
C. Medical personnel often became ill as B. Ribosomes
a result of exposure to airborne virus par-
ticles. C. Cell Membrane

D. All of the above D. Golgi Bodies

144. What is another word that can be used 149. While in the womb, the webbed fingers
to describe “homeostasis”? of the embryo undergo programmed cell
death, also known as
A. STABLE
A. apoptosis
B. EQUAL
B. cytokinesis
C. COMPLETE
D. CORRECT C. carcinogen
D. stem cells
145. Atrophy is
A. when cells die 150. An ordered sequence of events in the life
of a cell. Creates two identical daughter
B. when cells increase in size
cells.
C. when cells decrease in size
A. interphase
D. none of the above
B. mitosis
146. What type of gene prevents the cells C. chromatin
with damage from continuing through the
cell cycle? D. cell cycle

A. tumor supressor 151. Muscle cells require large amounts of en-

B. proto-oncongene ergy. This explains why muscle cells con-
tain a greater than average number of-
C. stem cell suppressor
A. nuclei
D. stem cell initiator
B. mitochondria
147. To stay alive, a cell needs materials to
C. vacuoles
move in and out across its membrane. As a
cell grows bigger, its volume increases D. lysosomes

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1.2 Cell Damage 124

152. Uncontrollable cell growth is known as 157. What is not the prerequisite for clearance
at the G2 checkpoint?
A. obesity A. G1 checkpoint
B. cancer B. G2 checkpoint
C. diabetes C. S checkpoint

D. hepatitis D. M checkpoint
158. Original:ATC CATMutation:ATC GCATWhat

NARAYAN CHANGDER
153. Which phase of mitosis involves two nu-
mutation occurred?
clei reforming around each complete set of
genetic material? A. deletion
A. Prophase B. insertion
C. silent
B. Metaphase
D. transverse
C. Anaphase
D. Telophase 159. The maintenance of an organism’s inter-
nal environment is called:
154. Embryonic stem cell research is controver- A. compensating
sial because it involves
B. homeostasis
A. social issues
C. balancing
B. ethical issues D. routine
C. educational issues
160. DNA is replicated at this time of the cell
D. economical issues cycle:

155. What is the normal function of a tumor A. S

suppressor gene? B. G1
A. to produce growth signals C. M
B. to code for proteins that inhibit, or D. G2
slow, cell division
161. Which of the following cells is a gamete?
C. to code for proteins that cause the cell A. egg
to move faster through the cell cycle
B. bone
D. to code for proteins that attack cancer
C. heart
cells in the body
D. muscle
156. This is the cell cycle checkpoint that
makes sure environmental conditions are 162. When is apoptosis initiated? Choose 2
ideal for cell survival. correct answers

A. G1 Checkpoint A. When DNA damage is repaired.

B. When cells are removed from the cell
B. G2 Checkpoint
cycle.
C. M Checkpoint
C. When DNA damage cannot be re-
D. I Checkpoint paired.

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1.2 Cell Damage 125

D. When “sculpting” during early devel- D. The cytoplasm divides

opment
167. What are stable cells?

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163. Which of the following is not a way that A. usually quiescent but can be stimu-
genes for cell cycle regulatory proteins can lated to divide e.g hepatocytes
be damaged?
B. Constantly renewed e.g stratified ep-
A. cell crowding ithelium of skin
B. carcinogens C. Incapable of regeneration in post na-
C. inherited mutations tal life e.g neurons, cardiac muscle
D. exposure to certain viruses D. none of above

164. The survival of a species depends on its 168. If a cell has a nucleus, then it MUST be
ability to adapt to changes in the envi- what type of cell?
ronment. A species must be capable of A. animal
surviving and reproducing despite changes
B. prokaryotic
to food sources, climate, or threats from
predators. Which statement correctly de- C. eukaryotic
scribes a way that mutations increase the D. plant
likelihood that a species will survive in a
changing environment? 169. What phase of cell cycle does DNA repli-
cation occurs?
A. Mutations are a source of variation in
the species A. Interphase
B. Mutations are the cause of disease in B. Growth phase
the species C. Mitotic phase
C. Mutations are not harmful when they D. Synthesis Phase
occur in somatic cells of the species
170. How may a gene be defined?
D. Mutations are always passed on to
subsequent generations of the species A. a part of the cell membrane
B. a segment of a protein
165. Cytokinesis is the creation of two identi-
cal cells called C. a segment of DNA
A. children cells D. a complete protein
B. new cells 171. Oncogenes
C. daughter cells A. are mutated forms of tumor suppres-
D. son cells sor genes
B. are mutated forms of genes that code
166. What is the first thing that happens dur- for proteins that normally assist in apop-
ing mitosis? tosis
A. The chromosomes line up along the C. are mutated genes that inhibit the cell
middle of the cell cycle
B. The sister chromatids separate D. are mutated genes that code for pro-
C. The DNA condenses and the nuclear teins which activate cell division too often
membranes break down or at the improper time

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1.2 Cell Damage 126

172. The word cytokinesis has the prefix 177. Where is DNA located in a eukaryotic
cyto-that refers to a cell and the suffix- cell?
kinesis that refers to division or move-
A. in the cytoplasm
ment. Therefore, cytokinesis is the pro-
cess where a cell’s cytoplasm B. in the nucleus
A. divides C. in the cell membrane
B. multiplies D. in the lysosome

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. increases 178. This organelle can be found inside the nu-
D. evaporates cleus, and produces ribosomes.
A. Nucleus
173. The phloem
B. Nucleolus
A. transports food.
C. New Moon
B. performs photosynthesis.
D. New Balance Shoe
C. is used for gas exchange.
D. transports water. 179. During what stage does the G1, S and G2
phases happen?
E. is a protective waxy layer on the plant.
A. Interphase
174. Cells go through additional growth. B. M phase
A. G1 C. Mitosis
B. S D. Cytokinesis
C. G2
180. Oncogenes result in which of the follow-
D. M phase ing outcomes?

175. one of a group of external regulatory pro- A. cell cycle arrest, apoptosis and sur-
teins that stimulate the growth and divi- vival
sion of cells B. DNA repair, cell cycle acceleration and
A. growth factors survival

B. blastocyst C. accelerated cell growth, cell cycle ar-

rest and survival
C. apoptosis
D. accelerated cell growth, increased cell
D. cyclin division and survival

176. What phase of mitosis do you get 2 new 181. What usually happens when cells come
nuclei? into contact with other cells?
A. Prophase A. they divide more quickly
B. Metaphase B. they stop growing
C. Anaphase C. they produce cyclins
D. Telophase D. they produce p53

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1.2 Cell Damage 127

182. How many daughter cells does Meiosis B. All cell functions occur in the cell mem-
create? brane.

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A. 2 C. All energy transfers occur at the cell
B. 4 membrane.
C. 8 D. All materials needed for cell functions
must pass through the cell membrane.
D. 1

183. Which item listed below is not associated 187. If you designed an experiment in which
with the cell cycle? you are trying to determine the effect of
different concentrations of salt water on
A. CDK worms and used distilled water which con-
B. Cyclins tains no salt, the worms exposed to dis-
C. Phosphorylation tilled water is considered your:

D. BRCA-1 A. hypothesis
B. theory
184. In the 1880’s, Louis Pasteur developed a
method of weakening viruses. The weak- C. scientific method
ened viruses could be injected into healthy
D. control group
individuals. How is this method effective
in fighting viral diseases? 188. Which phase in the cell cycle does ultravi-
A. The immune system develops antibod- olet light affect?
ies in response to the weakened viruses
A. G1
B. The weakened viruses attach to unaf-
B. G2
fected viruses in the host and interrupt
the viral reproductive cycle. C. S
C. The rate of genetic mutation in the D. M
host is decreased due to the introduction
of weakened viruses. 189. DNA is replicated during of the cell
D. Weakened viruses are unable to enter cycle.
the host organism. A. G1
185. What is a chromatid? B. S
A. a chromosome in G1 of cell cycle C. G2
B. uncoiled DNA D. G0
C. coiled DNA
190. Which of these is a risk factor for devel-
D. another name for the chromosomes oping cancer?
found in genetics
A. growing older
186. Why does the study of cell membranes
B. genetic inheritance
lead to a better understanding of cell func-
tion? C. exposure to carcinogens (toxins that
can damage DNA)
A. All cell functions occur in the cell mem-
brane. D. all of the above

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1.2 Cell Damage 128

191. A young man experiences multiple blunt 196. Which of the following is a disadvantage
trauma to the legs and laceration of the for sexual reproduction?
right femoral artery. He loses a lot of A. a lot of time and energy is required for
blood during the time it takes to get to the making gametes and finding mates
emergency department. On admission, his
haemocrit is 10%. Which of the following B. offspring can be produced more
tissues is most likely to withstand damage quickly than by asexual means
from this event? C. the genetic diversity makes organ-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
isms respond differently to environmental
A. Hippocampus
changes
B. Myocardium
D. the offspring are genetically different
C. Skeletal muscle
197. This organelle is like a train station in
D. Small intestinal epithelium a city. It can be found in both plant and
animal cells. This organelle has passage-
192. Which of the following is the most com-
ways within the cell that carry proteins
mon cause of cell injury
and other materials from one part of the
A. Chemical injury cell to another.
B. Hypoxia A. Endoplasmic Reticulum
C. Infections B. ET
D. Immunologic and Autoimmune dis- C. Golgi Bodies
eases D. Nucleolus

193. the division of the cytoplasm is called 198. What is Chapter 10 Section 4 about
A. mitosis A. Cell Growth, Division, and Reproduc-
tion
B. interphase
B. The Process of Cell Division
C. cytokinesis
C. Regulating the Cell Cycle
D. somatic
D. Cell Differrentiation
194. Characteristic changes in a cell caused by
199. The thin outer layer of a cell is called?
a disease
A. Tissue
A. Necrosis
B. Nucleus
B. Lesion
C. Membrane
C. Prognosis
D. Mitochondria
D. none of above
200. If the cell membrane of an animal cell is
195. I break down food to release energy. damaged due to a bacterial infection, what
function is most immediately affected by
A. Cell
the damage?
B. Mitochondrion
A. Transport of the materials into and out
C. Lysosomes of the cell.
D. Vacuole B. Protein synthesis

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1.2 Cell Damage 129

C. ATP synthesis A. tumors

D. Storage of genetic material B. allergies

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201. Artherosclerosis is a disease that ob- C. hemophilia
structs blood flow and, therefore, oxygen D. cardiovascular disease
supply to target organs. A major compo-
nent of atherosclerosis is the excessive re- 205. The individual strands on duplicated chro-
production of smooth muscle cells of the mosomes are called
blood vessels. Certain drugs may have the A. Centromeres
potential to reverse or prevent the unreg- B. daughters
ulated reproduction of the diseased blood
vessel cells. Which of the processes is the C. Chromatids
most likely target of these drugs. D. Karyotypes
A. Cell division 206. One difference between a cancer cell and
B. Erthroblast differentiation a normal cell is that
C. DNA transcription A. Cancer cells divide uncontrollably
D. Cellular respiration B. Normal cells divide uncontrollably

202. Osmosis is C. Cancer cells cannot make copies of

DNA
A. a special kind of diffusion
D. Normal cells cannot make copies of
B. the movement of water across a per- DNA
meable cell membrane
C. a passive transport mechanism 207. What is a term for programmed cell
death?
D. an active transport mechanism
A. apoptosis
203. If you look at a cell under a microscope, B. necrosis
which phase is it MOST likely to be in?
C. cell death
A. Cytokinesis
D. doom
B. M phase
C. Interphase 208. What is karyorrhexis?
D. G1 Phase A. Nuclear Condensation
B. Nuclear Fragmentation
204. Cells typically respond to DNA damage
in three ways:by ceasing to grow and di- C. Nuclear Dissolution
vide until the damage is repaired, by per- D. none of above
manently ceasing to grow and divide, or
by dying. In 2010 a group of scientists 209. The cell cycle checkpoint that ensures all
reported that a certain kind of immune re- chromosomes are duplicated and that repli-
action can cause DNA damage that leads to cated DNA is not damaged is the
a fourth response. DNA damage can turn A. G1 checkpoint
off genes involved in cell-signaling path- B. G2 checkpoint
ways. Turning off these genes can cause
less-mature cells to divide too rapidly, of- C. M checkpoint
ten leading to the development of- D. P checkpoint

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1.2 Cell Damage 130

210. are critical points in the cell cycle C. Nucleus

where stop and go signals regulate cell
D. Chloroplast
growth and division
A. Hormones 216. An organelle involved in breaking down
B. Checkpoints lipids, proteins, carbohydrates, damage
organelles, and bacteria are
C. Phases
A. Golgi Appaparatus
D. Stop lights

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Vesicles
211. In asexual reproduction, all of the off-
spring are: C. Vacule

A. Physically Identical D. Lysosomes

B. Genetically Identical 217. A(n) is a stage in the eukaryotic cell
C. Physically and Genetically Identical cycle at which the cell examines internal
D. Not Identical and external cues and “decides” whether
or not to move forward with division.
212. Which phase of mitosis occurs third?
A. checkpoint
A. Prophase
B. chromosome
B. Prometaphase
C. interphase
C. Metaphase
D. tumor
D. Anaphase
E. Telophase 218. Scientists believe that the genetic code
provides evidence that all organisms share
213. What do cilia and flagella have in com- a common ancestor. This is primarily
mon? because-
A. They give the cell it’s shape. A. the code of each species shows slight
B. They regulate the transport of material changes in some codons
into the cell.
B. the genome of every living cell is iden-
C. They help cells move. tical to that of a distant relative
D. They store genetic material. C. all organisms use the same code for
translating proteins
214. What is the purpose of mitosis?
A. Create 2 identical daughter cells D. only closely related species use the
same nitrogen bases
B. Create 4 different gametes
C. Create a new organism 219. During what phase of the cell cycle does
cell division occur?
D. Create 2 different daughter cells
A. Interphase
215. This organelle is a rigid outer layer that
protects plant cells. B. M phase
A. Cell Membrane C. S phase
B. Cell Wall D. G2 phase

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1.2 Cell Damage 131

220. Which events occur in prometaphase? 225. What are the reversible changes via cel-
(select 3) lular adaptations?

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A. Microtubules build up from centro- A. Changes in the number, size, pheno-
somes type, metabolic activity, or functions of
cells in response to change in their envi-
B. The nucleus breaks down
ronment
C. Centrosomes move to opposite poles
B. Changes in the size, phenotype,
D. Microtubules attach to chromosomes metabolic activity, or functions of cells in
E. Chromosomes line up in the center of response to change in their environment
the cell C. Changes in the number, size, or func-
tions of cells in response to change in their
221. Fat necrosis is usually seen in environment
A. Pancreatitis D. Changes in the number, size,
B. Brain metabolic activity, or functions of cells in
response to change in their environment
C. Heart
D. Liver 226. Which statement is correct about the
number of telomeres present in prophase
222. An unspecialized cell with the ability to of a human bodycell?
become any type of cells is a/n
A. 46 as there is one telomere at the end
A. adult cell stem of 46 chromosomes
B. embryonic stem cell B. 92 as there is one telomere at each
C. any stem cell end of 46 chromosomes

D. any cell C. 92 as there is one telomere at the end

of 92 chromatids
223. What is cancer? D. 184 as there is one telomere at each
A. A group of diseases characterized by end of 92 chromatids
no cell growth
227. Which of the following is the longest pe-
B. A group of diseases caused by the fail- riod of the cell cycle?
ure of chromosomes to separate
A. Interphase
C. A group of diseases characterized by
B. Mitosis
uncontrolled cell division
C. M phase
D. A group of diseases caused by exces-
sive replication of chromosomes D. Cytokinesis

224. This bio-molecule is used by the body 228. Put the following stages of mitosis in or-
first der:anaphase, prophase, metaphase, and
telophase.
A. Lipids
A. prophase, metaphase, telophase,
B. Carbohydrates
anaphase
C. Nucleic Acids B. prophase, anaphase, metaphase,
D. Proteins telophase

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1.2 Cell Damage 132

C. prophase, metaphase, anaphase, A. All living things are made of cells.

telophase
B. Cells are the basic structural and func-
D. prophase, telophase, metaphase, tional units of life.
anaphase
C. Cells form through spontaneous gen-
229. The first stage of the cell cycle during eration.
which the cell matures, grows and pre- D. All cells come from other preexisting
pares to divide and copies its DNA; The cells.
stage the cell stays in the most

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. interphase 234. Research has shown that uncontrolled
cell growth and development can lead to
B. metaphase
which of these diseases?
C. prophase
A. AIDS
D. anaphase
B. dyslexia
230. A parent cell has 98 chromosome. Fol-
C. cancer
lowing the cell cycle how many does each
daughter cell have? D. Down Syndrome
A. 24
235. Cells must pass through a critical check-
B. 49 point during which stages of the cell cy-
C. 98 cle?
D. 196 A. G1
231. If you were me, How would you want B. G2
me? Soft or Rough? C. M phase
A. Golgi Bodies D. All of these are correct.
B. Endoplasmic Reticulum
236. When the cell is not needed, pathway of
C. Ribosomes
cell death activated is called as
D. Vacuole
A. Gangrene
232. Which of the following is not a risk factor
B. Apoptosis
for cancer?
C. Necrosis
A. some viruses
B. UV light D. none of above
C. bacteria 237. What is NOT a potential use for stem
D. smoking cells?

233. Cell theory was first proposed in 1838. A. To replace or repair damaged cells
Evidence obtained through additional sci- B. To regenerate organs (e.g. liver, heart,
entific investigations resulted in the cur- etc)
rent cell theory. Which statement de-
C. To make human clones
scribes a component of the original cell the-
ory that was removed because of the new D. To treat specific diseases (e.g. dia-
scientific knowledge? betes)

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1.2 Cell Damage 133

238. Which structure in the leaf controls the C. Pluripotent

opening and closing of the stoma? D. Highly Specialized

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A. cuticle
244. In order for a cell to divide normally,
B. spongy mesophyll what would need to occur?
C. epidermis A. Must grow
D. guard cell
B. Must divide
239. A fluid like vesicle that stores water and C. Must grow, replicate DNA, divide DNA,
provides support for the cell. and divide cell
A. Golgi Body D. Replicate and divide cell
B. Endoplasmic reticulum
245. Sister chromatids are separated at the
C. Large central vacuole during anaphase
D. Lysosomes A. Centromere
240. Why is the S phase important for cell di- B. Telomere
vision? C. Centrosome
A. To ensure there is enough DNA for the D. Chromatin
daughter cells
246. The normal function of a tumor suppres-
B. To make sure sister chromatids sepa-
sor gene is
rate properly
A. to produce growth signals
C. To ensure cytokinesis takes place
B. to code for proteins that inhibit, or
D. To ensure there are no mutations
slow, cell division
241. What is the division of cytoplasm called? C. to cause the cell to move faster
A. Metaphase through the cell cycle
B. Anaphase D. to attack cancer cells in the body
C. Telophase 247. If the xylem in a young tree is damaged,
D. Cytokinesis which process is first affected?
A. performing photosynthesis
242. The division of the nucleus is known as:
B. absorbing water from the soil
A. Synthesis
C. transporting sugar to the roots
B. Mitosis
D. transporting water to the leaves
C. G1
D. G2 248. Checks for DNA damage and DNA replica-
tion completeness.
243. Adult stem cells that produce replace-
ments for cells that have short life spans A. G1 checkpoint
are B. G2 checkpoint
A. Totipotent C. Spindle checkpoint
B. Mutipotent D. DNA polymerase

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1.2 Cell Damage 134

249. Which is NOT an example of cell differen- 254. This is the cell cycle checkpoint that
tiation? makes sure the correct number of chromo-
somes are present and attached to spindle
A. Bone marrow cells are used to repair
microtubules.
damage to heart tissues
A. G1 Checkpoint
B. A fertilized egg to cell developed into
an embryo B. G2 Checkpoint
C. A leaf cell divides as a plant leaf grows C. M Checkpoint

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Stemm cells from bone marrow de- D. I Checkpoint
velop into blood cells 255. uncontrolled cell growth =
250. Which of these major inducers of apopto- A. apoptosis
sis are intrinsic pathways? B. cancer
A. Withdrawal of growth factors/hormones C. spindle
D. cytokinesis
B. Injury
256. How do cancerous cells that break off
C. Receptor/ligand interactions from tumors travel trough the body?
D. Both A and B A. Respiratory & circulatory systems

251. DNA replication ensures cells have of B. Respiratory & lymphatic systems
the genome after division C. Circulatory & lymphatic systems
A. A complete copy D. Skin & circulatory system
B. 1/2 a copy 257. What is mitosis?
C. 2 copies A. A form of cell division that produces
D. Many copies two identical cells
B. A form of cell division that only occurs
252. When are embryonic stem cells present in in unicellular organisms
a multicellular organism?
C. A form of cell division that only occurs
A. throughout the life span in multicellular organisms
B. 3-5 days after conception D. A form of cell division that produces
two different cells
C. only after birth
D. 1-4 months after conception 258. The first step of Binary Fission is:
A. DNA coils into chromosomes
253. What are the openings on the underside
of leaves that let carbon dioxide into the B. DNA splits into 2 chromatids
leaf and let oxygen out? C. DNA replicates
A. Chloroplasts D. The cell splits
B. Stomata 259. Stem cells can be obtained from
C. Stomach A. embryos
D. Cuticle B. some adult tissues

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1.2 Cell Damage 135

C. umbilical cord blood 265. Put the following actions in order:DNA

replicates, cell grows, cell divides, cell pre-
D. all of the above
pares for mitosis.

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260. What type of cells may never undergo mi- A. DNA replicates, cell grows, cell pre-
tosis and make new cells? pares for mitosis, cell divides
A. blood cells B. cell grows, cell prepares for mitosis,
DNA replicates, cell divides
B. skin cells
C. cell grows, DNA replicates, cell pre-
C. nerve cells
pares for mitosis, cell divides
D. stomach cells D. DNA replicates, cell prepares for mito-
sis, cell grows, cell divides
261. A daughter cell that results from a mitotic
division has 5 chromosomes. How many 266. Which of the following is NOT a phase of
chromosomes did the parent cell have? interphase?
A. 5 A. M Phase
B. 10 B. G1
C. 2.5 C. S
D. 15 D. G2

262. What are internal and external regula- 267. If an intestinal cell in a butterfly contains
tors? 24 chromosomes, a butterfly egg would
contain chromosomes.
A. lipids
A. 3
B. carbohydrates
B. 6
C. proteins
C. 12
D. none of above D. 24
263. cells that are capable of developing into 268. Before DNA can be replicated by
most, but not all, of the body’s cell types DNA polymerase enzymes, it must first
A. totipotent separate-
B. multipotent A. behind the deoxyribose sugars

C. blastocyst B. between the nitrogen bases

C. underneath the phosphate groups
D. pluripotent
D. between the carbon atoms
264. Changes associated with disturbed mu-
copolysaccharide metabolism include 269. Leukemia is cancer of the body’s blood-
forming tissues. A leukemia patient’s
A. Mucoid degeneration bone marrow produces abnormal white
B. Myxomatous degeneration blood cells which do not function properly.
A pharmacology company is trying to de-
C. All of the above
velop drugs to regulate the production of
D. None of the above abnormal white blood cells.Which of the

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1.2 Cell Damage 136

following processes is most likely affected 274. Coagulative necrosis is found in which in-
by this new drug? fection
A. Cellular respiration A. Tuberculosis
B. Transport of molecules B. Sarcoidosis
C. cellular differentiation
C. Actinomycosis
D. cell division
D. Candisiasis

NARAYAN CHANGDER
270. Cells that have space between them and
the cells around them normally 275. Which of the following does NOT occur as
a cell gets larger?
A. divide more quickly
B. start dividing A. difficlulty obtaining nutrients

C. do nothing B. difficulty eliminating wastes

D. do not divide C. SA/V ratio increases

271. Which of the following is NOT a reason D. diffusion across the cell is impared
for why cells divide?
276. During which stage of the cell cycle does
A. Cells divide in order to reproduce. mitosis and cytokinesis occur?
B. Cells divide to repair damaged or dead
A. Interphase
cells.
C. Cells divide to make an organism big- B. S phase
ger. C. Cell Division
D. Cells divide in order to make an organ- D. G1 phase
ism smaller.
277. In multicellular organisms, adult/somatic
272. How many daughter cells are produced at
(body) cells have different structures and
the end of mitosis?
functions because
A. 1
A. all cells have different DNA
B. 2
B. different cell types are inherited from
C. 3
parents
D. 4
C. different genes have been activated
273. What are two factors that allow a cell to (turned on)
continue through the cell cycle?
D. none of the above
A. Cell crowding & decreased growth fac-
tor hormone 278. What type of organisms do binary fis-
B. Cell crowding & increased growth fac- sion?
tor hormone A. Prokaryotes
C. Space between cells & no growth fac- B. Eukaryotes
tor hormone
C. Animal Cells
D. Space between cells & increased
growth factor hormone D. Plant Cells

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1.2 Cell Damage 137

279. What type of check point dictates C. Cells reproduce independently, and
whether the cell will continuously divide viruses require a host to reproduce
or stop, and also checks the cell size, pres-

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D. Viruses have membranes made of pro-
ence of growth factors and DNA damage? teins, and cells have membranes made of
A. G1 checkpoint nucleic acid.
B. S checkpoint 284. What is not a cellular adhesion molecule
C. G2 checkpoint A. Selectins
D. M checkpoint B. Integrins
280. What are the causes of damage to partic- C. Malignins
ular types of cells D. none of above
A. Heart Attacks
285. Cancer that has the ability to spread
B. Strokes in the Brain
A. somatic
C. All of the above
B. benign
D. Spinal Cord injuries
C. malignant
281. When cells divide they make two
D. diploid
cells.
A. daughter 286. Why is apoptosis required?
B. son A. Glycolysis
C. Mom B. Cell division:Meiosis and mitosis
D. Dad C. Growth and elimination of threats such
as viruses and DNA damage
282. Which statement describes the compo-
D. none of above
nents that make up the genetic code of all
organisms? 287. Prokaryotes have an approximate size of
A. The components are unique in every A. 1 nanometer (nm)
kind of organisms
B. 1 micrometer (um)
B. the components are the same for all
organisms C. 1 millimeter (mm)

C. The components are the same only for D. 1 centimeter (cm)

unicellular organisms 288. What is LD 50?
D. the components are unique in all kinds A. When 50 people die from a dose of a
of organisms that reproduce sexually given substance
283. Which of these describes a difference be- B. When 50% of people die from a dose
tween viruses and cells? of a given substance
A. Cells contain protein, and viruses con- C. When 50% of test subjects die from a
tain only carbohydrates. dose of a given substance.
B. Viruses have flagella, and cells only D. When 50% of patho students suffer
have cilia from a learning disability

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1.2 Cell Damage 138

289. What is the main prerequisite for clear- B. 40

ance at the G2 phase? C. 80
A. G1 checkpoint
D. 160
B. G2 checkpoint
295. If the environment gets cold, we will of-
C. S checkpoint
ten shiver in order to:
D. M checkpoint
A. keep body temperature the same as

NARAYAN CHANGDER
290. When it occurs at the proper time, pro- the external temperature
grammed cell death (apoptosis) B. decrease body temperature
A. will disrupt homeostasis C. increase body temperature
B. may cause defective genetic info to be
D. regulate blood pressure
passed to the next generation of cells
C. is an important regulatory process 296. In which phase of mitosis do the sister
that maintains the health of a multicellu- chromatids line up on the equator of the
lar organism cell?
D. can contribute to the development of A. Prophase
cancer B. Metaphase
291. A double rod of DNA is called a C. Anaphase
A. chromosome D. Telophase
B. chromium
297. When a cell is not actively dividing, it is
C. chromatid in what phase?
D. none of above A. interphase
292. Rocks are not living because B. mitosis
A. they never move C. cytokinesis
B. they are not made of cells D. none of above
C. they do not grow
298. How many times in meiosis does the cell
D. they break down and turn into dust divide?
293. Which of the following is the main char- A. 2
acteristic of cancer cells? B. 4
A. always found in the skin C. 3
B. made of stem cells D. 1
C. divide uncontrollably
299. A tumor is a
D. die very easily
A. mass of DNA
294. A male shark has 40 chromosomes in
B. mass of normal cells
each of its sex cells. How many would be
present in its body cells? C. mass of damaged cells
A. 20 D. mass of blue cells

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1.2 Cell Damage 139

300. Which part of the cell cycle does NOT in- 305. What is the first step of DNA replica-
clude a checkpoint tion?

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A. Synthesis A. DNA transfers its information to RNA
through an amino acid
B. G1
B. DNA molecule unzips along weak hy-
C. G2
drogen bonds
D. Mitosis C. Free nucleotides bond together in the
301. Crossing over creates correct sequence
D. A single stranded RNA molecule forms
A. male genotype
B. genetic variation (differences) 306. The can be found in plant and ani-
mal cells, and receive proteins and mate-
C. DNA replication
rials from the ER, packages them, and dis-
D. mitosis tributes them.

302. Accumulation of mucin in epithelial cells A. ER

e.g. within nasal mucosa is an example of B. Golgi Bodies
which of the following? C. Cell Membrane
A. Mucoid degeneration D. none of above
B. Myxomatous degeneration 307. The phase of mitosis in which the sis-
C. All of the above ter chromatids (DNA) separate from each
D. None of the above other by being pulled towards opposite
ends of the cells
303. Which term below means “cancer cells A. prophase
can travel/spread to other parts of the
B. metaphase
body? ”
C. anaphase
A. angiostasis
D. telophase
B. angiostatin
308. Which phase of mitosis involves the chro-
C. metastasize
mosomes being pulled apart into two sets
D. tumor of chromotids?
304. A hypertonic solution is one where A. Prophase
A. the concentration of a solution outside B. Metaphase
the cell is higher than the concentration C. Anaphase
than inside the cell D. Telophase
B. the concentration of a solution outside
309. This checkpoint ensures that DNA has
the cell is lower than the concentration
been replicated correctly
than inside the cell
A. G1
C. the concentration of a solution outside
the cell is equal to the concentration than B. G2
inside the cell C. S
D. none of above D. M

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1.2 Cell Damage 140

310. The form of DNA that is unorganized and A. increases the genetic variation
unraveled. B. reduces the diploid number to the hap-
A. Centromere loid number
B. Chromatid C. increases the haploid number to the
diploid number
C. Karyotype
D. reduces the probability of mutations
D. Chromatin
316. What characteristic do most plants have

NARAYAN CHANGDER
311. What is the correct order of the phases
in common?
of mitosis?
A. They are unicellular.
A. Metaphase, Anaphase, Prophase,
Telophase, B. They make seeds.
B. Pelophase, Motophase, Anaphase, C. They are prokaryotes.
Trophase D. They are autotrophs.
C. Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, 317. The offspring has identical genetic mate-
Telophase rial as their parent they
D. Telophase, Anaphase, Prophase, A. make its own food
Metaphase
B. go away
312. p53 activates which of the following? C. live in a marine habitat
A. Tumor suppressor genes D. reproduces asexually
B. cell cycle
318. Human bone, muscle, and nerve cells all
C. DNA repair proteins contain the same number of chromosomes
D. uncontrolled cell division with the same complement of genes. What
enables these cells to perform specialized
313. Which forms of asexual reproduction in- activities?
volve cell division? (select 2) A. The ability of some cells to remove un-
A. Meiosis necessary DNA sequences
B. Binary fission B. The regulation of gene expression
C. Budding within each cell type

D. Fragmentation C. The mutation of genes within each cell

type
314. Anton von was given credit for in- D. The use of different methods of cell di-
venting the first simple microscope. vision
A. Hooke
319. Plant cells that are specialized for cell di-
B. Johan vision are most likely found in what part
C. Leewenhoek of the plant?
D. Janssen A. root tips
B. leaf epidermis
315. During meiosis, homologous chromo-
somes exchange genetic material. This ex- C. vascular tissue
change of genetic material- D. stem epidermis

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1.2 Cell Damage 141

320. Which is true about adult/somatic stem 325. Chromatin (loose DNA strands) condense
cells? into

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A. Cells can no longer divide A. Vacuoles
B. Cells are limited to the type of cell they B. Cell membrane
can become C. Chromosomes
C. They can become any cell type in the D. Centromeres
body
326. Spinal cord injuries are difficult to treat
D. They are found in embryos
because damaged nerce cells do not regen-
321. Which of the following is NOT an exter- erate. Which of the following most accu-
nal factor that will promote cell growth rately explains why damaged nerve cells
no longer regenerate?
A. An increase in growth hormone
A. Mature nerve cells are in a resting
B. A decrease in growth hormone state (G0); they no longer divide during mi-
C. Death of nearby cells tosis
D. Decrease in surface area to volume ra- B. Nerve damage disrupts the cell cycle
tio at the G1 phase
C. Nerve damage disrupts the cell cycle
322. Where does DNA replication occur in eu- at the S phase
karyotic cells?
D. Nerve damage prevents centrioles
A. The nucleus from being synthesized
B. The cytoplasm
327. In humans, the 4 daughter cells of meio-
C. Ribosomes sis contain
D. Mitochondria A. 46 chromosomes

323. What is the main consequence if body B. 23 chromosomes

cells accumulate DNA mutations that dam- C. 92 chromosomes
age the signals that regulate the cell cy-
D. No chromosomes
cle?
A. AIDS 328. Chromosomes condense from long stands
into paired rod like structures and the nu-
B. cancer clear membrane disintegrates.
C. miscarriage A. Prophase
D. Down’s syndrome B. Interphase
324. I hold all the parts of the cell together as C. metaphase
they float on me. D. telophase
A. Cytoplasm
329. Which of the following is the longest
B. Organ phase of the cell cycle?
C. Organism A. Interphase
D. Lysosomes B. Prophase

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1.2 Cell Damage 142

C. Telophase 335. Who type of protein prevents the cells

D. Cytokinesis with damage form continuing through the
cell cycle?
330. Cells spend 90% of their time in this A. tumor supressor
stage of the cell cycle. This is the reason
B. tumor initiator
you would see most cells in this stage if
viewed under a microscope. C. stem cell suppressor

A. Prophase D. stem cell initiator

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Metaphase 336. What biomolecule regulates the cell cy-
cle?
C. Anaphase
A. carbohydrates
D. Interphase
B. lipids
331. A is a substance that is known to C. nucleic acid
cause DNA mutations and to promote can-
D. proteins
cer.
A. carcinogen 337. What is the male part of the flower?
B. malignancy A. Petals

C. pathogen B. Stamen
C. Pistil
D. protein
D. Sepals
332. During what phase of the cell cycle does
the cell prepare for mitosis? 338. Which of the following represents chro-
mosome # during fertilization?
A. G1 phase
A. n+n=2n
B. S phase
B. n=n
C. G2 phase C. 2n=n+n
D. M phase D. 2n=2n
333. Cancer occurs when 339. Severe acute respiratory syndrome
A. cells enter G0 phase (SARS) is an illness caused by a coron-
avirus. Symptoms including a high fever,
B. cytokinesis does not occur headaches, and body aches typically occur
C. the cell cycle becomes unregulated two to seven days after infection by the
virus. SARS is more serious in elderly pa-
D. the G1 phase is extended
tients. This information suggests that the
334. Cell division in eukaryotes is called reproductive cycle of the SARS virus is-
while in prokaryotes it is A. lysogenic, because the virus is a coro-
navirus
A. mitosis; cytokinesis
B. lytic, because the virus causes respira-
B. mitosis; interphase
tory illness
C. mitosis; binary fission C. lysogenic, because the virus primarily
D. mitosis; cell cycle affects older people

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1.2 Cell Damage 143

D. lytic, because of the quick onset of C. A type of cell division that creates ga-
symptoms after infection metes (sperm and egg cells).

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340. Which one is not a checkpoint? D. A type of cell division that results in
two daughter cells each having the same
A. G0 checkpoint
number of chromosomes as the parent
B. G1 checkpoint cell.
C. G2 checkpoint
345. Is the structure located in a plant and an-
D. Spindle checkpoint
imal cell that is home to DNA, where new
341. In the G2 stage the cells are made and directs cell activity
A. nucleus divides. A. Nucleus
B. DNA is copied. B. Ribosomes
C. cytoplasm divides. C. Mitochondria
D. cell prepares for cell division. D. Vacuoles
342. The formation of a cell plate is beginning
346. Which is NOT a normal reason for apop-
across the middle of a cell and nuclei are re-
tosis?
forming at opposite ends of the cell. What
kind of cell is this? A. Destroy old or worn out cells
A. a plant cell in metaphase B. Destroy damaged or dangerous cells
B. an animal cell undergoing cytokinesis C. Encourage division of cancer cells
C. a plant cell undergoing cytokinesis D. Break down unwanted tissue in em-
D. an animal cell in metaphase bryos
343. The chromosome content of each daugh- 347. What are the two patterns of reversible
ter cell must be identical to that of the cell injury visible under the light micro-
mother cell for successful cell replacement scope?
when repairing tissues.Which stages of mi-
tosis make sure that each daughter cell re- A. What are the two patterns of re-
ceives one chromatid from each chromatid versible cell injury visible under the light
pair? microscope?

A. prophase and metaphase B. Cellular swelling and fatty change

B. metaphase and anaphase C. Swelling and disruption of lysosomes
and fatty change
C. anaphase and telophase
D. telophase and interphase D. Pyknosis and membrane blebbing

344. What is “crossing over”? 348. Which of the following is not a part of
A. The exchange of genes between chro- interphase?
mosomes during meiosis that results in A. G2
genetic diversity.
B. M
B. Programmed cell death (cell sui-
C. G1
cide) to prevent the spread of mu-
tated/cancerous cells. D. S

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1.2 Cell Damage 144

349. I pack things up for delivery. 355. Cells that are in contact with other cells
A. Golgi Bodies normally
B. Cell Wall A. start dividing
C. Cell Membrane B. divide more quickly
D. Chloroplast C. do not divide

350. Which two kinds of cells have a limited D. make friends

life span and must be constantly replaced

NARAYAN CHANGDER
356. the process of programmed cell death
A. Blood and Skin
A. Growth Factor
B. Pluripotent and Mulitpotent
B. Cyclin
C. Heart and Brain
C. Blastocyst
D. Sperm and Egg
D. Apoptosis
351. Which leukocyte is the first to arrive at
the site of injury? 357. What controls cell differentiation within
A. Monocytes organisms?
B. Neutrophils A. The portions of DNA that are read and
the proteins that are produced from these
C. Lymphocytes
portions.
D. none of above
B. The shape of chromosomes in the body
352. Select the most correct response:Mitochondria cells of an organism.
are involved in: C. The length of time it takes a cell to
A. Intrinsic apoptosis replicate its DNA.
B. Extrinsic apoptosis D. The size of the nucleus within different
C. Cellular Apoptosis cells and the types of nitrogenous bases
present.
D. Signal transduction of apoptosis
353. Mitosis allows cells to 358. The material of chromosomes which is
made up of proteins and DNA is called
A. Divide their nucleus
A. Centromere
B. Replicate their nucleus
B. Chromatid
C. Divide their cytoplasm
D. Replicate their cytoplasm C. Karyotype
D. Chromatin
354. DNA helps a cell to become differentiated
by- 359. Cells in G0 phase are
A. directing the cell to create certain pro- A. Preparing to divide
teins.
B. Replicating DNA
B. allowing water to permeate the cell.
C. Growing in size
C. preventing the nucleus from engaging
in any functions. D. Dividing
D. deleting potentially harmful genes. E. In dormancy

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1.2 Cell Damage 145

360. Cyclin is a family of proteins that regu- C. Cytokinesis

lates what?
D. Anaphase

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A. Mitosis
B. Meiosis 366. What gives important instructions for cell
growth and function?
C. Cell Cycle
A. cytoplasm
D. Interphase
B. cell wall
361. Cell differentiation is critical during em-
C. DNA
bryonic development. The process of cell
differentiation results in the production of D. vacuoles
many types of cells, including germ, so-
matic, and stem cells. Cell differentiation 367. What does NOT happen during Inter-
is most directly regulated by phase?
A. ATP A. The cell takes it easy and goes to
sleep.
B. DNA
B. The cell is busy getting bigger.
C. lipids
D. sugars C. DNA is duplicated (copied).
D. The cell does normal life activities.
362. What is the purpose of G2?
A. For the cell to rest 368. developing stage of a multi-cellular or-
ganism
B. For the cell to do its normal functions
A. pluripotent
C. For the cell to prepare for mitosis
D. For the cell to divide B. cancer
C. embryo
363. A cell structure that serves as an internal
delivery system for the cell. D. tumor
A. Golgi Body 369. Cell division is important to:
B. Endoplasmic reticulum A. Sexual reproduction
C. Large central vacuole
B. Asexual reproduction
D. Lysosomes
C. Both a and b
364. Apoptosis is important because it D. Neither a or b
A. helps the cell grow
370. Why might it be beneficial to an organ-
B. creates specialized cells
ism for damaged cells to enter Go instead
C. produces two identical cells of dividing once they exist?
D. destroys damaged or unneeded cells A. mutation will decrease
365. or more of the cell cycle is spent here. B. mutations will double
A. Interphase C. mutations will spread
B. Mitosis D. Prevents mutation from spreading

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1.2 Cell Damage 146

371. The job of the mitochondria in cells is to 377. Non-cancerous tumors are called Can-
cerous tumors are called
A. Repair cell damage A. metastatic ; malignant
B. Store cell waste B. malignant ; benign
C. Control the cell’s activities
C. benign ; malignant
D. Create energy
D. benign ; metastatic
372. Eukaryotic cells

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Are the smallest cells in the world. 378. Which event occurs in prophase?
B. Have DNA in a membrane-bound nu- A. Microtubules build up from centro-
cleus. somes
C. Are only found in single-celled organ- B. The nucleus breaks down
isms.
C. Centrosomes move to opposite poles
D. Only come in one color:navy blue.
D. Microtubules attach to chromosomes
373. DNA replication is described as a pro-
E. Chromosomes line up in the center of
cess
the cell
A. Conservative
B. Semi-conservative 379. What are labile cells?
C. Hemi-conservative A. Constantly renewed e.g stratified
D. Anti-conservative squamous epithelium of skin
B. Usually quiescent but can be stimu-
374. Why do cells divide?
lated to divide e.g hepatocytes
A. for single-cell organisms to reproduce.
C. Incapable of regeneration in post na-
B. for organisms to repair themselves by
tal life e.g neurons, cardiac muscle
replacing damaged cells with new cells.
C. for multicellular organisms to grow D. none of above

D. all of the above 380. What are two purposes of the cell cycle?
375. The name for a nonvascular plant is A. Cell Death and Cell Division
A. Tracheophytes B. Cell Growth and Repair
B. Algae
C. Cell Growth and Cell Death
C. Protists
D. Cell Division and Apoptosis
D. Bryophytes
E. Mushroom 381. Which of the following is not seen in re-
versible cell injury
376. What is karyolysis?
A. Hydropic change
A. Nuclear Condensation
B. Nuclear Fragmentation B. Hyaline change
C. Nuclear Dissolution C. Necrotic change
D. none of above D. Fatty change

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1.2 Cell Damage 147

382. Which of these organisms relies on mito- A. Cytokinesis

sis for reproduction?
B. Mitosis phase

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A. grumpy cat
C. S phase
B. angry bird
D. G2 phase
C. unicellular paramecium
D. squishy jellyfish 387. the period of the cell cycle when the cells
is not dividing, accounts for about 90% of
383. In the early 1980s scientists were able
time, divided into G1, S and G2
to produce two biomolecules by splicing
a human gene into the bacterium E. coli A. interphase
to make recombinant human insulin and
B. mitosis
growth hormone. Which statement best
explains why this experiment was suc- C. chromatin
cessful?
D. anaphase
A. Human cells are eukaryotic, and E. coli
cells are prokaryotic 388. The destructive capacity of a substance
B. All living organisms share the same on a cell is called
genome. A. cytopoptosis
C. The genes for all organisms are com-
B. cytolysis
posed of the same building blocks
D. The human body contains many types C. cytonecrosis
of bacteria, including E. coli. D. cytotoxicity
384. What are permanent cells?
389. Moderate changes associated with dis-
A. Incapable of regeneration in post natal turbed water metabolism is characterized
life e.g neurons, cardiac muscle by
B. Constantly renewed .g stratified squa- A. cloudy swelling
mous epithelium of skin
B. vacuolar degeneration
C. Incapable of regeneration in post na-
tal life e.g neurons, cardiac muscle C. hydropic degeneration
D. none of above D. all of the above
385. Organelles where photosynthesis occurs, E. none of the above
are green due to chlorophyll pigment found
in them. 390. An injury to a ligament that results in no
A. Chloroplasts pain when the ligament is stressed would
be classified as which of the following?
B. Cell Wall
A. Grade 1 Sprain
C. Cell Membrane
D. Cytoplasm B. Grade 2 Sprain
C. Grade 3 Sprain
386. During what phase of the cell cycle does
the cell divide into two cells? D. Grade 4 Sprain

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1.2 Cell Damage 148

391. If a cell’s lysosomes were damaged, B. Lysosomes

which of the following would most likely
C. Cell Wall
occur?
D. Endoplasmic Reticulum (ER)
A. The cell would produce more proteins
than it needs. 396. Which of the following is a type of pro-
B. The cell would have chloroplasts that tein that regulates the cell cycle?
appear yellow rather than green.
A. actin

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. The cell would be less able to break
B. myosin
down molecules in its cytoplasm.
D. The cell would be less able to regulate C. cyclin
the amount of fluid in its cytoplasm. D. pepsin
392. Which event occurs in metaphase? 397. Irreversible cell injury is characterised by
A. Microtubules build up from centro- which morphological changes?
somes A. Disruption of cellular membranes
B. The nucleus breaks down
B. Large amorphous densities in swollen
C. Centrosomes move to opposite poles mitochondria
D. Microtubules attach to chromosomes C. Profound nuclear changes (pyknosis,
E. Chromosomes line up in the center of karyorrhexis, karyolysis)
the cell D. All of the above
393. Which of the following check points of the
398. Tumors arise from damaged cell with
cycle dictates whether the cell will continu-
harmful DNA that divides and replicates.
ously divide or stop, and it also checks the
cell size, presence of growth factors and A. 1
damage of the DNA. B. 10
A. G1 checkpoint
C. 100
B. G2 checkpoint
D. 1000
C. S checkpoint
D. M checkpoint 399. Where does Go occur in the cycle?
A. G1
394. If a drug targets cell growth and can keep
cells from reproducing, what process does B. G2
the drug most likely target? C. S
A. Cancer
D. M
B. Cell Respiration
C. Cell Division 400. Where can Totipotent cells be found?

D. DNA Replication A. Heart Tissue

B. Bone Marrow
395. Which organelle transports protein
throughout the cell? C. Inner Cell Mass
A. Cytoplasm D. Fertilized Egg

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1.2 Cell Damage 149

401. Choose 2 criteria that G2 checkpoint 405. What organelle in the leaves of plants
checks capture light energy from the sun to com-
plete photosynthesis?

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A. DNA integrity (Is any part of the DNA
damaged? ) A. Chloroplasts
B. DNA replication (Is the DNA replica- B. Mitochondria
tion completed in the S phase? ) C. Nucleus
C. Cell’s size (Does the cell large increase D. Ribosomes
its size or large enough for cell division? )
406. The haploid number of chromosomes for
D. Nutrients (Does the cell have enough humans is
reserve energy and nutrients for cell divi-
sion? ) A. 46
B. 43
402. Cells are most efficient, in other words,
C. 23
they can most effectively bring in nutrients
and get rid of waste when they are D. 26
A. Large 407. In sexual reproduction the male produces
B. small cells.
A. Malex
C. active
B. Quack
D. Specialized
C. Egg
403. The fertilized egg is termed a/an D. Sperm
A. gamete
408. A plant species lives in an area with lim-
B. allele ited sunlight. Which physiological adapta-
C. homolog tion would be most useful to the plant?
A. deep roots
D. zygote
B. thin cuticle
404. The list below describes some of the C. large leaves
events associated with normal cell divi-
sion. 1. Nuclear membrane formation D. colorful flowers
around each set of newly formed chromo- 409. This is the cell cycle checkpoint that
somes 2. Centrioles move to poles and makes sure DNA has been replicated cor-
nuclear envelope disappears 3. Replica- rectly during S phase.
tion of each chromosome 4. Movement of
single stranded chromosomes to opposite A. G1 Checkpoint
ends of the spindle. What is the normal B. G2 Checkpoint
sequence in which these events occur? C. M Checkpoint
A. 3-4-2-1 D. I Checkpoint
B. 1-2-3-4
410. If the M checkpoint is not cleared, what
C. 3-2-4-1 specific stage of mitosis will be blocked?
D. 4-3-1-2 A. Anaphase

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1.2 Cell Damage 150

B. Metaphase 416. Give the correct sequence of apoptosis:1.

C. Prophase Nucleus begins to break2. Nucleus conden-
sation and formation of bleb3. Phagocyto-
D. Telophase sis of apoptotic bodies.
411. The word “Pathology” is derived from A. 1, 2, 3
A. Greek B. 2, 3, 1
B. Latin C. 3, 2, 1

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Hebrew D. 2, 1, 3
D. none of above 417. The cell cycle can be described as
412. In the S stage of interphase A. chaotic and composed of various
phases that are virtually indistinguishable
A. the cell grows when viewed through a microscope.
B. the nucleus divides B. identical in every kind of cell.
C. the cell membrane divides C. a sequence of events that continues
D. the DNA is replicated constantly in all cells.
D. a pattern of distinct phases in a cell
413. The process of crossing over occurs in
regulated by proteins.
what phase of meiosis?
A. anaphase 1 418. In which way are photosynthesis and cel-
lular respiration different?
B. prophase 1
A. Cellular respiration stores ATP, while
C. prophase 2
photosynthesis releases ATP.
D. telophase 1
B. Photosynthesis releases energy, while
414. Why is it important for cells of multicel- cellular respiration stores energy.
lular organisms to undergo mitosis? C. Cellular respiration produces oxygen,
A. Mitosis allows for reproduction with while photosynthesis uses oxygen.
male and female gametes. D. Photosynthesis used carbon dioxide,
B. Mitosis increases variation within an while cellular respiration produces carbon
organism. dioxide.

C. Mitosis produces cells that are differ- 419. DNA replication occurs during which of
ent from the original dividing cell. the following phases of the cell cycle?
D. Mitosis produces cells that are identi- A. G1
cal to the original dividing cell.
B. S
415. Cells replicate DNA. C. G2
A. G1 D. Mitosis
B. S 420. Which of the following must occur before
C. G2 DNA replication can take place?
D. M phase A. Translation of DNA into amino acids

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1.2 Cell Damage 151

B. Separation of the DNA molecule into C. endocytosis

codons
D. osmosis

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C. Transformation of DNA into RNA
D. Seperation of the DNA double helix 425. Which checkpoint ensures that sister
chromatids are positioned to split cor-
421. In which part of Interphase are the chro- rectly?
mosomes replicated? A. G1 checkpoint
A. G0 B. G2 checkpoint
B. G1
C. S checkpoint
C. S
D. M checkpoint
D. G2
426. Which characteristic do most plants have
422. A human zygote should have chromo- in common?
somes inside.
A. they are unicellular
A. 46
B. they are prokaryotic
B. 23
C. 92 C. they produce seeds

D. 64 D. they are autotrophic

423. Information in DNA is carried in se- 427. In this phase, the cell is preparing for the
quences of genetic code. How are these cell division of the mitotic phase.
genetic codes translated into specific pro- A. Go
teins that carry out functions within the
organism? B. G1
A. Triplets, a group of three nucleotides, C. G2
create a code for a specific amino acid. D. S
These amino acids are combined into
chains to form proteins. 428. Which of the following does not occur dur-
B. Nitrogen bases in the DNA strand re- ing mitosis?
combine into amino acids chains. A. condensationof the chromosomes
C. Mutations within a set of nucleotides B. replication of the DNA
create variations in genetic coding. These
variations are vital to consistent protein C. separationof sister chromatids
synthesis. D. spindleformation
D. All of the above
429. What is the part of the cell cycle when the
424. A can of air freshener is sprayed in the op- nucleus divides into two identical nuclei?
posite side of the room. Ten minutes later A. Interphase
you start to smell the scent. This is an ex-
ample of B. Mitosis
A. diffusion C. Cytokinesis
B. active transport D. none of above

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1.2 Cell Damage 152

430. Muscle cells are responsible for obtain- B. Prophase 2 of meiosis

ing energy so the body can performvol- C. Prophase of mitosis
untary and involuntary movement. Using
you knowledge aboutorganelles and mus- D. All prophase stages in Mitosis and
cles, how would a muscle cell differ from Meiosis
other types of animal cells? 434. What process does a multi-cellular or-
A. The muscle cell would have larger cen- ganism use to replace its damaged body
trioles than the other types of animal cells?

NARAYAN CHANGDER
cells. A. mitosis
B. The muscle cell would have more mi- B. meiosis
tochondria than the other types of animal
cells. C. replication

C. The muscle cell would have a larger D. transcription

golgi apparatus than other types of animal 435. The cell membrane pinches in, cutting the
cells. cytoplasm into 2 cells
D. none of these A. Metaphase
431. Which molecules act as gatekeepers for B. Anaphase
each checkpoint of the cell cycle because C. Telephase
different types accumulate during the cell
D. Cytokinesis
cycle phases?
A. p53 gene 436. What structure in animal cells is formed
during cytokinesis that allows the cell to
B. cyclins
separate into two new daughter cells?
C. thyroid hormones
A. Cell Plate
D. mutagens
B. Cleavage Furrow
432. While all of the cells in an individual are C. Cell Wall
derived from a single cell, they can differ-
D. Cleavage plate
entiate to take on many different types of
structure and function. Cells can become 437. The phase of mitosis in which the sister
specialized because- chromatids separate from each other
A. mutations can alter the molecular A. prophase
structure of cell membranes
B. metaphase
B. each cell expresses a different combi-
C. anaphase
nation of genes
D. telophase
C. scientists have discovered how to alter
the DNA sequences of humans 438. What does a Human, Bacteria, Fungi, and
D. different cells utilize various forms of Plants have in common
RNA nucleotides A. Same DNA Sequence
433. Homologous chromosome pairs (tetrads) B. They are all Prokaryotic
exist during which phase? C. Use the same Genetic code
A. Prophase 1 of meiosis D. All have a Nucleus

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1.2 Cell Damage 153

439. Cells that rarely divide will spend most C. Malfunctioning cell
of their time in what particular phase of D. All of the above
the cell cycle?

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A. Go 445. What triggers the cell’s passage past the
G2 checkpoint into mitosis?
B. G1
A. MPF
C. G2
B. PDGF
D. S
C. cyclin
440. A chloroplast
D. Cdk
A. is where photosynthesis takes place
B. contains chlorophyll 446. What is the waxy layer on leaves?

C. is a membrane bound organelle A. Chloroplasts

D. all of the above B. Plastic

E. only a and b C. Wax
D. Cuticle
441. What is a series of events a cell goes
through as they grow and divide? 447. How many cell cycle checkpoints are
A. Cell Division there?
B. Cell Cycle A. 1
C. Cytokinesis B. 2
D. Mitosis C. 3

442. Which of the following is NOT a major en- D. 4

zyme of DNA replication? 448. The role of environmental factors in cellu-
A. RNA polymerase lar differentiation is to-
B. DNA polymerase A. prevent a cell from dividing and trans-
C. Helicase mitting its DNA to new cells.
D. Topoisomerase B. destroy genes so they are repressed.
E. Primase C. induce or repress gene expression.
D. assist a cell in dividing and transmit-
443. When a cell divides, you get
ting its DNA to new cells.
A. two cells with different DNA
449. Which best describes the role of p53 pro-
B. two identical cells with the same DNA
tein in the cell cycle
C. five cells with no DNA
A. it makes sure organelles are properly
D. none of above replicated
444. What could be the cause for a cell to un- B. it makes sure that the cytoplasm is
dergo apoptosis? equally divided
A. DNA Damage C. it make sure DNA is free of errors
B. Old / worn out cell D. It makes sure the DNA is copied

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1.2 Cell Damage 154

450. What is cell differentiation? 455. Humans have pairs of chromosomes.

A. The process where unspecialized cells A. 21
become different in structure and func- B. 23
tion.
C. 46
B. When DNA controls the cell cycle.
D. None of the above
C. The ability of cells to make more cells.
456. Which type of Gangrene is present at the
D. The ability of cells to maintain home-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
junction between healthy & gangrenous
ostasis. part
451. Cancer affects A. Gas Gangrene
B. Wet Gangrene
A. Unicellular organisms
C. Dry Gangrene
B. Multicellular organisms
D. none of above
C. Most unicellular organisms
D. Humans only 457. This check point of the cycle dictates
whether the cell will continuously divide or
452. Which of the following happens in stop, and it also checks the cell size, pres-
telophase? ence of growth factors and damage of the
DNA.
A. chromosomes condense
A. G1 checkpoint
B. chromosomes line up
B. G2 checkpoint
C. chromosomes move to opposite poles C. S checkpoint
D. chromosomes relax D. M checkpoint
453. What are cell adaptations? 458. What kind of cells are made in MEIOSIS?
A. How the organs change to maintain A. Haploid cells
homeostasis B. Diploid Cells
B. Response to increased load C. Skin Cells
C. How the cells work harder to cease or- D. Liver Cells
gan failure
459. DNAP adds free nucleotides to
D. When the brain increases hormone se- the ends of primers
cretion in endocrine glands to increase
the body’s stimuli A. DNA, 3’
B. DNA, 5’
454. The typical growth period of a cell occurs
C. RNA, 3’
during which stage of the cell cycle?
D. RNA, 5’
A. gap 1
460. The stores food, water, wastes, and
B. synthesis
other materials in both plant and animal
C. interphase cells.
D. mitosis A. Vacuole

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1.2 Cell Damage 155

B. Mitochondria 466. Which checkpoint ensures sister chro-

matids are positioned to be split cor-
C. Ribosomes
rectly?

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D. Chromatin
A. G1 checkpoint
461. The cell spends most of it’s life in B. G2 checkpoint
A. mitosis C. S checkpoint
B. cytokinesis D. M checkpoint
C. Interphase 467. The cell membrane can be described as
D. None of the above A. permanently closed.

462. During which stage of mitosis does the B. porous.

nuclear envelope begin to disappear? C. semi-porous.
A. Metaphase D. semi-permeable.
B. Telophase 468. Which of the following shows the correct
C. Interphase sequence of the cell cycle?

D. Prophase A. Mitosis→ G1→S→G2→cytokinesis

E. Anaphase B. S→G1→ G2→ mitosis→ cytokinesis

C. cytokinesis→mitosis→G1→S→G2
463. Hyperplasia generally means:
D. G1→S→G2→mitosis→cytokinesis
A. An organ will increase in size due to ex-
cessive formation of extracellular fluids 469. A human cell has 46 chromosomes before
mitotic division. How many chromosomes
B. Increased cell production in a normal will the daughter cells after mitosis.
tissue
A. 12
C. Shrinkage in cell size
B. 23
D. Blebbing at the periphery
C. 46
464. Necrosis is D. 92
A. Reversible 470. In the eukaryotic cell, it is the longest
B. Lack of oxygen to the tissue stage of the cell cycle and generally its
function is to prepare the cell to division
C. Not reversible
process.
D. Blebbing at the periphery
A. Interphase
465. Nucleic acids are to DNA or RNA as pro- B. Mitotic phase
teins are to C. Synthesis Phase
A. Enyzmes D. All of the above
B. Polypeptides
471. As a cell increases in size, the surface
C. Polysaccharides area to volume ratio
D. Amino Acids A. increases

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1.2 Cell Damage 156

B. decreases B. They are limited to the type of cell they

C. stays the same can become

D. none of above C. They can become any cell type in the

body
472. DNA holds the code for
D. They are found in adults
A. lipids
B. carbohydrates 478. Cells typically respond to DNA damage
in three ways:by ceasing to grow and di-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. protein vide until the damage is repaired, by per-
D. sugar manently ceasing to grow and divide, or
by dying. In 2010 a group of scientists
473. What is the first checkpoint of the cell cy- reported that a certain kind of immune re-
cle? action can cause DNA damage that leads to
A. Mitosis checkpoint a fourth response. DNA damage can turn
B. G1 checkpoint off genes involved in cell-signaling path-
ways. Turing off these genes can cause
C. G2 checkpoint less-mature cells to divide too rapidly, of-
D. S checkpoint ten leading to the development of

474. In this phase, the cell is preparing for the A. tumors

cell division in the mitotic stage. B. allergies
A. Go C. hemophilia
B. G1 D. cardiovascular disease
C. G2
479. Why is it called the synthesis stage?
D. S
A. protien synthesis is happening
475. Which DNA strand is complementary to
B. DNA synthesis is happening
the one shown here? AGTCTAGC
C. several smaller stages are combined
A. TCAGATCG
B. AGTCTAGC D. the chromosomes line up

C. TCACTAGC 480. When cancer spreads to other areas of

D. CGTACTAC the body, it is said to have
A. metastisized
476. The cells produced in M phase enter
B. benigned
A. G1
B. S C. tumored

C. G2 D. localized
D. G0 481. What is the role of mRNA in expressing
specialized structures?
477. Which is true about Embryonic Stem
Cells. A. Making energy available for cellular
A. They no longer do mitosis, their cell activities
type is set and can not change B. Creating bonds to form biomolecules

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1.2 Cell Damage 157

C. Producing sugars that assist with repli- 487. Reversible injury:

cation A. Light microscopic changes:cell

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D. Providing information to form proteins swelling, fat accumulation
B. Ultra structural changes:cell mem-
482. Which gas is removed from the atmo-
brane alterations, mitochondrial swelling,
sphere during photosynthesis?
RER swelling and ribosomal detachment.
A. hydrogen C. Light microscopic changes:Loss of
B. nitrogen RNA, cytoplasmic vacuolisation, chro-
matin clumping.
C. oxygen
D. Ultra structural changes:Membrane
D. carbon dioxide
disruption, mitochondrial amorphous
483. Cells only come densities, nuclear changes (pyknosis-
shrinkage, karyorrhexis-fragmentation,
A. from prokaryotes karyolysis-fading).
B. from other cells dividing
488. DNA:
C. from fungi
A. Contains genetic information that
D. from eukaryotes codes for living organisms
B. Double helix:nucleotides joined by co-
484. MPF is a dimer consisting of
valent bonds
A. a growth factor and mitotic factor
C. 23 pairs of chromosomes in humans
B. ATP synthase and a protease D. Site of protein synthesis
C. cyclin and a tubulin
489. During which phase in the cell cycle does
D. cyclin and a cyclin-dependent kinase mitosis happen?
485. Which of these lists presents the stages A. G1 Phase
of the cell cycle in the correct order? B. G2 Phase
A. interphase, mitosis, cytokinesis C. M Phase
B. cytokinesis, mitosis, interphase D. S Phase
C. mitosis, interphase, cytokinesis 490. Cells that have the ability to become any
D. interphase, cytokinesis, mitosis type of specialized cell in the body are
called:
486. Oncogenes are mutated forms of genes. A. cell membranes
Oncogenes can transform a cell into a tu-
mor cell. How does the presence of an B. stem cells
oncogene lead to the formation of a tu- C. nerve cells
mor? D. cardiac cells
A. Cell division is unregulated
491. the stage in the cell cycle where cells
B. Antibody activity is unregulated spend only 10% of their time
C. Somatic cell growth is inhibited A. interphase
D. ATP production is inhibited B. mitoisis

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1.2 Cell Damage 158

C. meiosis 497. Cholesterol

D. prophase A. Is bad
B. provides stiffness and structure to the
492. What happens during the S phase of In- cell’s semipermeable membrane
terphase?
C. Is good
A. Cells divide D. helps with facilitated diffusion
B. Cells grow and make protein
498. If the Diploid number of Carrots is 18, the

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Cells copy their DNA haploid number is
D. Cells Die A. 18
B. 9
493. Which of the following is not a checkpoint
in the cell cycle? C. 27
D. 36
A. G1 checkpoint
499. What do we call the whole process of eu-
B. G2 checkpoint
karyotic cell reproduction?
C. M checkpoint A. Binary Fission
D. S checkpoint B. Mitosis
494. Which cell cycle checkpoint makes sure C. Cytokinesis
that the sister chromatids are correctly at- D. Cell Cycle
tached to the spindle fibers?
500. Cancer cells form masses of cells called
A. G1 checkpoint A. tumors
B. S checkpoint B. cyclins
C. G2 checkpoint C. growth factors
D. M checkpoint D. p53
501. What is it called when molecules move
495. Gas Gangrene is caused by which bacte-
across the cell membrane from an area of
ria
high concentration to an area of low con-
A. Gram positive anaerobic bacteria centration through a carrier protein?
B. Gram negative anaerobic bacteria A. Diffusion
C. Gram positive aerobic bacteria B. Osmosis
D. Gram negative aerobic bacteria C. Active Transport
D. Facilitated Diffusion
496. Uncontrolled cell division which usually
leads to tumors and disease is called: 502. Stem cells are
A. cells that grow uncontrollably
A. Metaphase
B. found only in embryos
B. Cytokinesis
C. cells that never go through cell division
C. Cancer
D. undifferentiated cells that are capable
D. Diabetes of renewal and/or differentiation

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1.2 Cell Damage 159

503. A cancerous tumor is called 509. Name the 3 checkpoints of the cell cycle
A. benign A. Anaphase checkpoint, mito-

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B. malignant sis/metaphase checkpoint, and telophase
checkpoint
C. apoptosis
B. Interphase checkpoint, S phase check-
D. cyclin point, and M phase checkpoint
504. Apoptosis is C. G1 checkpoint, G2 checkpoint, and S
phase checkpoint
A. transformation of a cell into a malig-
nant one D. G1 checkpoint, G2 checkpoint, and mi-
tosis/metaphase checkpoint
B. genetically programmed cell death
C. formation of embryonic antigent 510. The combined observations of Mattias
Schleiden, Theodor Schwann and Rudolph
D. irreversible cell damage Virchow resulted in the formation of the
cell theory. Which of the following is not
505. Cytokinesis is animal cells pinches in to
part of the cell theory?
form what structure?
A. All cells contain a nucleus.
A. telophase
B. All cells come from other living cells
B. cleavage furrow
C. All living organisms are made of one or
C. cell plate more cells.
D. mitosis D. Cells are the basic unit of structure
506. In which stage of mitosis do the sister and function of all living things.
chromatids separate? 511. Which is an example of a tumor suppres-
A. prophase sor gene?
B. metaphase A. apoptosis
C. anaphase B. proto-oncogenes
D. telophase C. p53
D. oncogenes
507. The prefix “poly” means
A. One 512. Programmed cell death is called

B. Two A. apoptosis

C. Many B. cytokinesis
C. interphase
D. Want a cracker
D. cancer
508. A gene that protects a cell from becoming
cancerous. 513. What is the role of helicase in DNA repli-
cation?
A. oncogene
A. Separating the two strands of the dou-
B. proto-oncogene ble helices
C. tumor suppressor gene B. Preventing double helices from over-
D. apoptosis winding and breaking by relieving tension

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1.2 Cell Damage 160

C. Adding primers to template parent 518. Programmed cell death is known as

strands A. Cytolysis
D. Synthesizing complementary daughter B. Apoptosis
strands from template parent strands
C. Necrosis
514. How many chromosomes are present in a D. Proptosis
zygote that is made from sperm and egg?
519. Right after a bone breaks, cells at the
A. 12

NARAYAN CHANGDER
edge of the injury
B. 23
A. Stop dividing
C. 46
B. Begin to divide rapidly
D. 52 C. Form a thin layer over the edge of the
515. Diploid cells are represented by injury
D. Develop a defect in a gene called p53
A. 2n
B. n 520. Which is NOT an external carcinogen?
C. 4n A. Chemical Exposure
D. 1/2 n B. Alchohol
C. Viruses
516. What is a nucleus?
D. Mutations to genes
A. a tough and rigid layer that surrounds
the cell. 521. A mutation is least likely to affect a cell
B. the smallest structural and functional when the mutation-
unit of an organism. A. reverses the order of bases in a DNA
strand
C. a distinctive oblong or oval shaped
organelle bound by a double membrane. B. allows the total number of bases in a
They are considered the “power house” of DNA sequence to remain the same
the cell. They generate fuel for the cell’s C. replaces a base with its complemen-
activities through cellular respiration. tary base
D. a spherical shaped organelle. It is D. produces a triplet that codes for the
the brain or the command centre of the same amino acid as the original triplet
cell. It regulates the integrity of genes
and gene expression and is also responsi- 522. Everything I touch, I destroy. I clean un-
ble for the protein synthesis, cell division, useful cell debris.
growth and differentiation. A. Lysosomes
517. Which RNA bases would pair with TAC- B. Ribosomes
GAA in transcription? C. Cytoplasm
A. AUGCUU D. Cell Membrane
B. ATGCTT
523. A disorder in which some of the body’s
C. GCATCC cells lose the ability to control growth.
D. GCAUCC A. growth factor

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1.2 Cell Damage 161

B. human growth hormone B. meiosis

C. cancer C. budding

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D. tumor D. mitosis

524. Which of these must occur during the S 529. Matt uses a microscope to look at slides
phase of the cell cycle so that 2 daughter of plant cells. He sees a cell with two
cells can be produced during the M phase? nuclei that have visible chromosomes. In
which stage of cell division is this cell?
A. The DNA must be replicated
A. anaphase
B. The chromosomes must be joined
B. prophase
C. The cytoplasm must be separated
C. telophase
D. The cell membrane must be expanded
D. interphase
525. What could happen, after several cell cy- 530. TB is what type of necrosis?
cles, to an organism whose damaged cells
did not go through apoptosis? A. Coagulative
B. Caseation
A. Cells may die
C. Liquifactive
B. Cancer
D. Fibrinoid
C. Cells may be helpful
D. Cells may prevent disease 531. Which of the following is a correct state-
ment about the events of the cell cycle?
526. Which cell structure is correctly paired A. DNA replicates during cytokinesis
with its primary function?
B. Little happens during the G1 and G2
A. ribosome-movement phases
B. mitocondrion-energy production C. Interphase consists of the G1, S, and
C. vacuole-cell division G2 phases
D. nucleus-storage of nutrients D. The M phase is usually the longest
phase
527. Which phase of mitosis occurs fifth?
532. Which type of tumor causes more dam-
A. Prophase age?
B. Prometaphase A. malignant
C. Metaphase B. benign
D. Anaphase C. premalignant
E. Telophase D. none of above

528. Scientists can bioengineer skin in a lab- 533. The genetic code is often referred to as
oratory to treat severe burns and other blueprint of life. Which is correct about
types of skin injuries. This bioengineered genetic code?
tissue is grown from living cells. The cellu- A. Less complex organisms require addi-
lar process that enables the cells to grow tional sets of the genetic code.
and develop into tissue is- B. The nucleotide sequence of the genetic
A. conjugation code is exact same for every organism.

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1.2 Cell Damage 162

C. The genetic code for every living or- 538. Which of the following does not happen
ganism is made from the same compo- during telophase?
nent. A. chromosomes begin to relax
D. Some simple organiosms do not have
B. new nuclear membranes form around
genetic code.
each set of chromosomes
534. Which type of cell has the most potential C. spindle fibers attach to chromosomes
in biomedical applications?
D. a cleavage furrow forms where the

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. adult stem cells cell will separate
B. normal cells
539. Which types of cells have genetic mate-
C. specialized cells rial contained in a nucleus?
D. embryonic stem cells A. bacteria

535. Absorption of radiant energy 2. Reduc- B. plants and animals only

tion oxidation reactions 3. Donation or C. all eukaryotes (plants, animals and
acceptance of free electrons by transition fungi)
metals 4. Enzymatic metabolism 5. Con-
D. all eukaryotes (plants, animals, fungi
version of Nitric Oxide (NO) are 5 ways
and protists)
to induce what?
A. Free radicals 540. During which stage of meiosis do the sis-
ter chromatids begin to move toward the
B. Acidosis
poles?
C. Alkalosis
A. Prophase I
D. none of above
B. Metaphase 1
536. Which processes occur by mitosis? 1 C. Anaphase 1
cloning of plasma cells2 gamete produc-
tion3 replacing damaged cells D. Telophase 1

A. 1, 2 and 3 E. Anaphase II

B. 1 and 3 only 541. Cancer is

C. 2 only A. Uncontrolled cell growth
D. 3 only B. Normal cell growth

537. Which of the following is true of malig- C. A protein

nant tumors? D. A cell cycle regulator
A. They do not require treatment.
542. Chromosome movement in mitosis and
B. They are easily removed through meiosis is regulated by
surgery.
A. microtubules
C. They can cause tumors in other parts
B. microfilaments
of the body.
D. They contain cells that stay clustered C. intermediate filaments
together. D. All of thiese

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1.2 Cell Damage 163

543. When a cell undergoes apoptosis: 548. Cell growth during G1 and G2 ensures
A. cytokines produced by phagocytes pro- cells are after division

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tect surrounding cells by reducing inflam- A. Half the size
mation.
B. The correct size
B. it swells until it bursts.
C. Double the size
C. it is as a result of being seriously dam-
aged by chemical or mechanical trauma. D. none of above
D. its mitochondria are destroyed along 549. Meiosis results in this many MORE
with all other organelles. daughter cells than mitosis
544. A cell that undergoes repeated mitosis A. 1
without cytokinesis would have
B. 2
A. many daughter cells
C. 4
B. fewer chromosomes
D. 8
C. many nuclei
D. cancerous properties 550. Cancer promoting substances are called:

545. Cytokinesis is the final stage of the cell A. Tumors

cycle and it is characterized by the creation B. Carcinogens
of two-
C. Cyclins
A. identical daughter cells
D. Malignant
B. DNA mutations
C. nuclei 551. From a single fertilized ovum undergoing
D. sets of chromosomes a series of rapid cell divisions, a human
infant develops. The embryonic cells be-
546. In which stage of mitosis do the chromo- come specialized for a variety of function.
somes line up at the equator of the cell? Which of these statements best describes
how different cell types develop?
A. prophase
B. metaphase A. Each cell type contains only the active
parts of the DNA needed for that cell type
C. anaphase
B. Each cell type has only one chromo-
D. telophase some containing the DNA neede for that
cell type.
547. In which phase of mitosis does the nu-
cleus disappear, centrioles move to the C. Each cell has an identical copy of DNA
poles, and chromosomes condense into sis- with enzymes controlling the expression
ter chromatids? of specific genes, leading to a variety of
A. Prophase cells

B. Metaphase D. Each cell has multiple copies of DNA

that are affected in different ways by the
C. Anaphase environment to change the function of the
D. Telophase cell at regular intervals.

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1.2 Cell Damage 164

552. What is one reason why we need meio- C. the cyclin component of MPF is de-
sis? graded
A. To double the number of chromosomes D. the Cdk component of MPF is degraded
going into sex cells
558. Which of the following in present in
B. To halve the number of chromosomes necrosis but not apoptosis?
going into sex cells
A. Breakdown of the plasma membrane
C. To triple the number of chromosomes
B. Removal of cellular debris

NARAYAN CHANGDER
going into sex cells
C. Inflammation
D. To not change the number of chromo-
somes going into sex cells D. Cell death

553. The cell cyle is regulated by 559. A disease is breaking down the function
of the rough endoplasmic reticulum. As a
A. cyclins
result, which of the following biomolecules
B. CDK’s would be in limited supply in the cell?
C. hormones A. proteins
D. CDK’s and cyclins B. ATP
554. Which 3 kinds of cells go into G0? C. nucleic acids
A. brain D. lipids
B. spinal 560. The cell cycle state where the cell grows
C. heart to its full size, copies the DNA and or-
ganelles and prepares to divide is called
D. skin the
555. What would happen if the G2 phase A. cytokinesis
didn’t function properly? B. interphase
A. No cellular proteins could be made. C. mitosis
B. The DNA would not be replicated. D. fission
C. The spindle apparatus would not form.
561. Inactivation of this gene can lead to the
development of cancer cells.
D. none of above
A. Cancer cell
556. Which leukocyte is not a phagocytic cell? B. Oncogene
A. Neutrophils C. Proto-oncogene
B. Monocytes D. Tumor suppressor gene
C. Lymphocytes
562. I am the workbench where proteins get
D. none of above manufactured.
557. Once a cell completes mitosis, what hap- A. Cell Wall
pens to MPF? B. Ribosomes
A. It is completely degraded C. Vacuole
B. it is exported from the cell D. Cytoplasm

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1.2 Cell Damage 165

563. Why do cells need to reproduce? 567. This can be found in the nucleus, and are
A. Body Growth:the body needs to repro- tiny strands that contain the instructions
for directing the cell’s functions.

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duce new cells
B. Cell Death:old cells are replaced by A. DNA/Chromatin
new cells B. Chloroplasts
C. Cell Damage:cells are needed to be re- C. Golgi Bodies
placed
D. ER
D. All answers are correct
564. Compare & Contrast Sexual VS Asexual 568. What type of cells are formed by repeat-
ing the cell cycle continuously?
A. both only require one parent
A. Cancer
B. sexual creates diverse offspring, and
asexual makes uniform B. Prokaryotic
C. sexual reproduction have larger popu- C. Eukaryotic
lations
D. Somatic
D. both require no special cells
569. Which phase of mitosis involves the chro-
565. How does mitosis in plant cells differ mosomes condensing and nucleus dissolv-
from mitosis in animal cells? ing?
A. animal cells form a cell plate
A. Prophase
B. plant cells form a cell plate
B. Metaphase
C. plant cells go through the process in
reverse C. Anaphase
D. plant cells go through two rounds of D. Telophase
mitosis while animal cells just do one
570. Which of the following is identical in a
566. Early-onset Alzheimer’s disease affects skin cell and a muscle cell from the same
people under the age of 65. Less than individual?
five percent of people who are diagnosed
A. cellular shape
with Alzheimer’s disease have this type.
Many cases of early-onset Alzheimer’s dis- B. amount of ATP
ease are inherited, a type known as famil- C. genetic material
ial Alzheimer’s disease (FAD). Which state-
ment is best supported by this informa- D. cell function
tion?
571. Identify which is NOT an advantage of
A. FAD is the result of a genetic change in asexual reproduction?
one or more chromosomes.
A. the ability to produce a great number
B. Natural selection will continue to re- of offspring
duce the incidence of FAD.
B. only 1 parent needed for reproduction
C. FAD affects only the genes of middle-
aged people. C. less energy needed to reproduce
D. Deletion of one amino acid causes D. creates genetic variety in the popula-
FAD. tion

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1.2 Cell Damage 166

572. DNA replication occurs during A. Fatty degeneration of myocardium

A. interphase B. Hyperplasia of adipocytes
B. anaphase C. Hypertrophy of adipocytes
C. metaphase D. Metaplasia of muscle cells to
D. telophase adipocytes

573. The cell cycle has main stages. 578. During S phase a cell

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. 2 A. Grows in size
B. 5 B. Prepares for DNA replication
C. 4 C. Replicates its DNA
D. 3 D. Prepares for cell division
E. Divides in two
574. Throughout the years, research per-
formed using HeLa cells made advances 579. Calculate the surface area for a cube-
against shaped cell with sides equal to .8mm.
A. polio. A. 3.84 mm2
B. cancer. B. .5 mm3
C. tuberculosis. C. .5 mm2
D. all of these. D. 3.84 mm3
575. Proteins that direct cells to speed up or 580. The nuclear membrane dissolves during
slow down the cell cycle.
A. Prophase
A. growth factor
B. Metaphase
B. human growth hormone
C. Anaphase
C. cancer
D. Telophase
D. tumor
581. Which of the following cell types is
576. Environmental factors can cause DNA formed by meiosis?
within a cell to suffer damage. Envi-
ronmental factors that are harmful cause A. muscle cells
cell differentiation primarily by preventing B. skin cells
DNA within cell from-
C. sperm cells
A. dissolving into the cell’s cytoplasm.
D. blood cells
B. migrating to the cell’s membrane.
582. one of a family of proteins that regulates
C. expressing certain genes.
the cell cycle in eukaryotic cells
D. transforming into RNA.
A. Cancer
577. A mature age student exercises little and B. Apoptosis
eats mainly pizza and several serves of
french fries daily. Which tissue change is C. Growth Factor
most likely to occur? D. Cyclin

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1.2 Cell Damage 167

583. What are cyclins and cyclin dependent ki- C. cells will never differentiate
nases? D. cells are not specialized and are capa-

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A. regulatory proteins ble of renewal
B. carcinogens 589. The sodium-potassium ion pump found in
C. mitotic proteins some cell membranes is made of which
of the following basic structural compo-
D. mutagens
nents?
584. Which cells are more efficient at obtain- A. nucleotides
ing nutrients? B. amino acids
A. Small Cells C. fatty acids
B. Medium Size Cells D. monosaccharides
C. Large Cells
590. A contractile ring forms a cleavage fur-
D. X-Large Cells row and the cell splits in two during
cytokinesis
585. In the G2 stage of cell division, are
made. A. Animal cell
A. organelles B. Plant cell

B. structures for cell division C. Fungal cell

D. Bacterial cell
C. proteins
D. all of the above 591. In plasma membrane, phosphate
group head is oriented toward the exter-
586. Which of the following would result in nal while fatty acid tails are oriented
cells that are triangular, fusiform, elon- toward each other.
gated or star shaped?
A. hydrophobic; hydrophilic
A. Mucoid degeneration B. hydrophilic; hydrophobic
B. Myxomatous degeneration C. hydrophilic; hydrophilic
C. All of the above D. neutral; hydrophobic
D. None of the above
592. Cells of organism must replicate for?
587. Cells that are in a nondividing state are A. growth
in which phase?
B. repair of damaged cells
A. G1 C. replacement of dying cells.
B. G2 D. All of the above
C. S
593. Deposition of calcium salts in tissues
D. G0 other than osteoid or enamel is called
588. Stem cells have many uses in medicine be- A. Pathologic Calcification
cause B. Autolysis
A. all stem cells are easy to go in culture C. Apoptosis
B. never go through mitosis D. Necrosis

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1.2 Cell Damage 168

594. Living things that are made from only one 599. I control what gets out as well as what
cell are called comes out.
A. Multicellular A. Cell Membrane
B. Monocellular B. Cell Wall
C. Unicellular C. Ribosomes
D. Unocellular D. Golgi Bodies
595. The holds the replicated sister chro-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
600. Cytokinesis allows cells to
matids together.
A. Divide their nucleus
A. centriole
B. chromosomes B. Replicate their nucleus

C. centromere C. Divide their cytoplasm

D. cycles D. Replicate their cytoplasm

596. The cell cycle is made up of 2 main 601. What does chemotherapy help with in the
stages:Interphase and Mitosis. What are cell cycle?
the phases of Interphase? A. Stops cells undergoing mitosis pre-
A. Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, venting tumor growth
Telophase B. Stops growth in the G1 cycle
B. S1, G, S2 C. Stops DNA replication
C. G1, S, G2
D. Starts cells undergoing mitosis
D. G1, GO, G2
602. DNA replication occurs in what phase of
597. Which of the following are changes cell cycle?
associated with disturbances of fat
metabolism? A. Interphase
A. Steatosis (fatty change) B. Growth phase
B. Obesity C. Mitotic phase
C. Lipomatosis D. Synthesis Phase
D. All of the above 603. What is a chronic illness?
E. None of the above
A. develops quickly
598. Oncogenes are mutated forms of genes. B. long lasting duration
Oncogenes can transform a cell into a tu-
mor cell. Some tumor cells are benign, C. short duration
while others are malignant. How does the D. none of above
presence of an oncogene lead to the forma-
tion of a tumor? 604. Henrietta Lacks died from
A. ATP production is inhibited A. lung cancer.
B. Cell division is unregulated B. tuberculosis.
C. Somatic cell growth is inhibited C. cervical cancer.
D. Antibody activity id unregulated D. research performed by a hospital.

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1.2 Cell Damage 169

605. What is a pro (benefit) of using a per- A. interphase

son’s own adult stem cells to treat an in- B. mitosis
jury or disease?

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C. chromatin
A. They are easy to obtain and culture
D. cell cycle
B. They are less likely to be rejected by
the body 611. When is apoptosis initiated?
C. They can become any type of cell A. When DNA damage is repaired.

D. They easily grow and divide in the lab B. When cells are removed from the cell
cycle.
606. Put the following in order:G2, G1, S, mi- C. When DNA damage cannot be re-
tosis, cytokinesis. paired.
A. G1, G2, S, Mitosis, cytokinesis D. none of above
B. G1, S, G2, Mitosis, cytokinesis 612. unspecialized cell that can give rise to one
C. G1, G2, S, cytokinesis, mitosis or more types of specialized cells
D. G1, S, G2, cytokinesis, mitosis A. Pluripotent
B. Blastocyst
607. If the cell contains 20 chromatids, how
manycentromeres are present inside the C. Stem Cells
cell? D. Multipotent
A. 10 613. Which term below means the division of
B. 20 the nucleus?
C. 30 A. cytokinesis
D. 40 B. mitosis
C. interphase
608. Which of these phases of mitosis take
place first? D. anaphase
A. anaphase 614. In which phase of mitosis does the chro-
B. telophase matin condense into chromosomes which
you can see under the microscope?
C. prophase
A. Prophase
D. metaphase
B. Metaphase
609. What part of the male part of the flower C. Anaphase
makes pollen? D. Telophase
A. Ovary
615. Organelles that package cellular materi-
B. Anther als and transports them within the cell or
C. Filament out of the cell.
D. Stigma A. Golgi Body
B. Endoplasmic reticulum
610. the process of nuclear division in eu-
karyotic cells, divided into prophase, C. Large central vacuole
metaphase, anaphase, and telophase D. Lysosomes

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1.2 Cell Damage 170

616. Cells pass through a G2 checkpoint before B. grow larger

entering mitosis. Ideally, if DNA damage C. increase in number
is detected, the cells do not enter mitosis
until the damage is repaired. Why is DNA D. all of these
damage repaired before cells enter mito-
621. A substance that is known to cause can-
sis?
cer is called a
A. So that another round of DNA synthe-
A. carcinogen
sis does not have to take place

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. retrovirus
B. So that the chromosomes can align at
the metaphase plate during mitosis C. pathogen
C. So that the cytoplasm can be divided D. paramecium
equally between the two daughter cells
622. Which of these must occur during S phase
D. So that healthy daughter cells are pro- of the cell cycle so that two daughter cells
duced, allowing the organism to continue can be produced during M phase?
to grow.
A. The DNA must be replicated
617. What is the part of the cell cycle when the B. The chromosomes must be joined
cell membrane pinches between the two
C. The cytoplasm must be separated
nuclei and two new cells are formed?
D. The cell membrane must be expanded
A. Interphase
B. Mitosis 623. The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
often infects and destroys CD4 T cells.
C. Cytokinesis
These CD4 T cells are one of many kinds
D. none of above of white blood cells that are an important
part of the immune system. The most com-
618. Which phase of mitosis occurs first? mon danger related to the destruction of
A. Prophase CD4 T cells is-
B. Prometaphase A. an increase in the risk of high blood
pressure
C. Metaphase
B. an increase in the threat of diseases
D. Anaphase
caused by microorganisms and viruses
E. Telophase
C. a decrease in the flow of blood to vital
619. Cell division allows for maintenance and organs
repair by replacing cells that are (se- D. a decrease in the amount of oxygen be-
lect 2) ing transports to tissues
A. Lost
624. Which of the following cell cycle descrip-
B. Damaged tions is CORRECT?
C. Healthy A. Chromosomes are replicated during
D. Gained the G1 phase.
B. Interphase is when the cell spends
620. When organisms grow their cells most of its time performing its cell func-
A. divide tions.

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1.2 Cell Damage 171

C. The S phase consists of prophase, 630. Grossly Formation of calcium soaps is

metaphase, anaphase, and telophase. seen in

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D. none of above A. Coagulative Necrosis

625. Programmed cell death is known as B. Caseous Necrosis

A. Apoptosis C. Liquefactive Necrosis

B. Oncogene D. Fat Necrosis

C. Proto-oncogene 631. Which of the following is most closely as-

D. Tumor suppressor gene sociated with cancer?
A. reduced cell size
626. When examining actively dividing cells
under a microscope, in which stage will B. recessive genes
most of the cells be in? C. rapid cell division
A. Prophase D. bacterial infection
B. Anaphase
632. Which statement is true about normal mi-
C. Telophase totic cell division?
D. Interphase A. Each daughter cell produced has only
one-fourth the number of chromosomes
627. What is cancer caused by? of the parent cell.
A. cell membrane damage B. Each daughter cell produced has only
B. mitochondria malfunction one-half the number of chromosomes as
C. mutations in DNA the parent cell.

D. immune-system damage C. Each daughter cell produced has twice

the number of chromosomes as the par-
628. According to Cell Theory all living things ent cell.
are made of cells. Based on this theory D. Each daughter cell produced has the
all living things must contain , , and same number of chromosomes as the par-
ent cell.
A. nucleus
633. During normal mitotic cell division, a par-
B. mitochondria ent cell having four chromosomes will pro-
C. cell membranes duce two daughter cells, each containing
D. ribosomes A. 4 chromosomes
E. genetic material B. 2 chromosomes

629. process in which cells become specialized C. 16 chromosomes

in structure and function D. 8 chromosomes
A. Cancer 634. During what phase of the cell cycle does
B. Multipotent the cell grow?
C. Pluripotent A. G1 phase
D. Differentiation B. S phase

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1.2 Cell Damage 172

C. M phase 640. Where would you find the most chloro-

D. Cytokinesis plasts in a plant?
A. Leaves
635. What part of the flower turns into the
fruit? B. Roots
C. Stems
A. Seeds
D. Flowers
B. Ovary
641. Checks for chromosome attachment to

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Stamen
the spindle at the metaphase plate.
D. Sepals
A. G1 checkpoint
636. The chromosomes that pair up during B. G2 checkpoint
meiosis, are called chromosomes.
C. Spindle checkpoint
A. homozygous
D. DNA polymerase
B. asexual
C. homologous 642. What are chromosomes?

D. genes A. Types of genes

B. Structures that store DNA molecules
637. Which of the following does NOT expend
C. The same thing as DNA molecules
energy
D. none of above
A. Diffusion
B. Endocytosis 643. a cellular structure carrying genetic mate-
rial, found in the nucleus. Consists of one
C. Active transport
long strand of DNA.
D. A sodium-potassium pump
A. Chromosome
638. Which description is true about cell cycle B. ccentromere
regulation? C. interphase
A. Changing concentrations of cdk result D. sister chromatid
in binding to cyclin
B. Changing concentrations of cyclin af- 644. The cell increases in size and prepares to
fect the level of MPF replicate its DNA.
A. G1
C. MPF complex formation decreases
with increased cdk levels B. S
D. MPF complex formation decreases C. G2
with increased cyclin levels D. M
639. create proteins for plant and animal 645. is a critical point where stop and go
cells. signals can regulate the cycle
A. Ribosomes A. Metastasis
B. Endoplasmic Reticulum B. Checkpoint
C. Golgi Bodies C. Malignant
D. Lysosomes D. Benign

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1.2 Cell Damage 173

646. Plant stem cells are mostly found in 651. Atherosclerosis is a disease that ob-
A. all tissues structs blood flow and, therefore, oxygen
supply to target organs. A major com-

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B. full grown leaves ponent of atherosclerosis is the excessive
C. the stem production of smooth muscle cells of the
D. growing roots & shoots blood vessels. Certain drugs may have the
potential to reverse or prevent the unreg-
647. Which of the following is a primary func- ulated reproduction of the diseased blood-
tion of a cell wall? vessel cells. Which of these processes is
A. Filling space between cell organelles the most likely target of these drugs?
B. Protecting organelles A. Cell division
C. DNA replication B. Erythroblast differentiation
D. Protein synthesis
C. DNA transcription
648. Which of the following is correct? D. Cellular respiration
A. S phase, cell division
B. M phase, cell growth 652. When you start with 1 cell, at the end of
mitosis, how many identical cells will you
C. G1 phase, DNA replication
have?
D. G2 phase, preparation for division
A. 1
649. Organisms can be classified based on ho-
mology, which are shared characteristics B. 2
inherited from a common ancestor. In C. 3
more recent years, the use of molecular bi-
ology techniques has allowed homologies D. 4
to be compared at the level of nucleotide
sequences. Nucleotide sequence compar- 653. Which increases at a faster rate as cell
isons are possible because all organisms size gets larger?
share of the following? A. surface area
A. DNA bases used in the genetic code
B. volume
B. Cellular organelles for photosynthesis
C. The surface area and volume increase
C. Nucleus protected with nuclear mem-
at the same rate
brane
D. Asexual reproductive abilities D. none of above

650. When can embryonic stem cells that have 654. How do embryonic stem cells become spe-
become differentiated change to a new cific specialized cells?
type of cell?
A. The brain sends instructions to cells
A. When a new cell type is needed
B. Specific parts of the cell’s DNA are
B. When the cell is bored
turned on or off
C. Never
C. Random selection
D. When the brain signals the cell to
change D. Cells decide what to be

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1.2 Cell Damage 174

655. The causes of cancer may include which 660. Which phase of mitosis involves spindle
of the following? fibers attaching to chromosomes and lining
A. poor diet & activity levels them up?

B. UV radiation A. Prophase
C. inheritance B. Metaphase
D. all of these C. Anaphase
D. Telophase

NARAYAN CHANGDER
656. Which statement below desribes the
events during G2 of Interphase?
661. The process by which a cell divides into
A. The cell grows, develops, and makes two daughter cells is called
new proteins
A. cell division
B. The DNA replicates to form a new set
of identical chromosomes B. metaphase

C. The cell grows, makes new organelles, C. interphase

and prepares for mitosis D. mitosis
D. the nucleolus disappears and the nu-
clear envelope disintegrates 662. I am a series of tubes. I transport pro-
teins as well as other things.
657. Severe changes associated with dis-
A. Endoplasmic Reticulum
turbed water metabolism is characterized
by B. Ribosomes
A. cloudy swelling C. Chloroplast
B. vacuolar degeneration D. Cytoplasm
C. hydropic degeneration
663. Eukaryotic cells store their genetic infor-
D. all of the above mation(DNA) in
E. none of the above A. Chromosomes
658. Stability genes ensure that B. Centromeres
A. a cell with damaged DNA is killed off C. karyotypes
B. damaged DNA is removed D. Proteins
C. damaged DNA is preserved
664. During meiosis, homologous chromo-
D. damaged DNA is repaired somes exchange genetic information. This
659. What kind of cells do majority of the neg- exchange of genetic material-
ative regulator proteins of the cell cycle A. Increase the genetic variation
can be found?
B. Reduces the diploid number to the hap-
A. Cancer cells loid number
B. Gametes C. Increases the haploid number to the
C. Stem cells diploid number
D. Al of the above D. Reduces the probability of mutations

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1.2 Cell Damage 175

665. What is the cell membrane? 670. What are some of the facts about asex-
ual reproduction?
A. Billipid layer embedded with proteins

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A. Takes only one mate to reproduce and
B. Lipid synthesis and metabolism
takes a longer time to reproduce
C. Sire of synthesis
B. Takes a shorter amount of time to re-
D. DNA produce and it takes two mates to repro-
duce
666. What kind of a gene is p53?
C. Reproduces diverse offspring and
A. Proto-Oncogene takes a longer time to reproduce
B. Oncogene D. Takes only one mate to reproduce and
C. Tumor Suppressor Gene takes a shorter time to reproduce
D. Proto-Tumor Suppressor Gene 671. Which family of proteins regulates the
timing of the cell cycle in eukaryotes?
667. If an organism’s cells have damage to its
ribosomes, what symptoms would you ex- A. Chromatids
pect to see? B. DNA and RNA
A. Limited growth because of cell’s inabil- C. Cyclins
ity to catch sunlight and make sugars
D. Chromosomes
B. limited growth because molecules,
viruses and worn out organelles are not 672. The smallest unit of life is
broken down
A. a protist
C. limited growth because proteins are
B. an atom
not being produced
C. bacteria
D. limited growth because cell materials
are not able to be transported out of the D. a cell
cell
673. Necrosis which occurred secondary to
668. Which of the following does p53 acti- vascular occlusion and affected lower ex-
vates? tremities would most likely be called
A. Tumor suppressor genes A. Gangrenous necrosis
B. cell cycle B. Coagulative necrosis
C. DNA repair proteins C. Fibrinoid necrosis
D. uncontrolled cell division D. Caseous necrosis

669. In which stage of mitosis do the chromo- 674. Cancer cells can reproduce rapidly be-
somes first condense (become visible)? cause they
A. prophase A. are smaller than normal cells
B. metaphase B. skip interphase
C. anaphase C. undergo mitosis more slowly
D. telophase D. spend less time in interphase

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1.2 Cell Damage 176

675. Terrestrial plants have stomata on the 679. Which of the following can lead to uncon-
surface of their leaves. A single stomata is trolled cell growth (cancer)?
surrounded by two guard cells that change A. Proto-oncogene
shape in response to environmental fac-
tors and open or close the stoma. Which of B. Oncogene
the following best explains how the struc- C. Tumor suppressor gene
ture of the leaf is used in processes that D. DNA repair system
occur in plants?
680. An honours student is working on a tis-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Energy for cellular reproduction is ab-
sue morphology project in live animals.
sorbed through the surface of the leaf.
Which of the following disease processes
B. Water enters the plant through the sur- could account for the microscopic presence
face of the leaf for transpiration of karyorrhexis and cell fragmentation
C. Gases for photosynthesis are ex- with preserved overall tissue architecture
changed through the surface of the leaf. in this study?
D. Carbon dioxide enters the plant A. Brown atrophy of the heart
through the surface of the leaf for cellular B. Renal transplant rejection
reproduction.
C. Suppurative appendicitis
676. Adult (somatic) stem cells are mostly D. Viral hepatitis
found in the
A. brain 681. In a plant, cells which contain the largest
number of chloroplasts are most likely spe-
B. heart cialized to perform which of the following
C. bone marrow functions?
D. stomach A. distribute water
677. Which of the following happens when a B. capture prey
cell divides? C. absorb light
A. Each daughter cell receives its own D. release heat
copy of the parent cell’s DNA.
682. When a plant cell goes through cell divi-
B. The cell has DNA overload. sion,
C. It becomes more difficult for the cell A. the 2 new nuclei are separated by the
to get enough oxygen and nutrients. cell membrane pinching off.
D. The cell’s volume increases. B. 4 new cells are formed
678. You look at a microscope slide that con- C. a cell plate forms, dividing the 2 new
tains a plant or an animal cell. When you nuclei
look at the slide you see that there is a D. None of the above
cell wall and membrane-bound organelles.
You conclude that the cell is what? 683. An example of coagulative necrosis is
A. animal A. a myocardial infarction (heart attack)
B. plant B. tuberculosis
C. either plant or animal C. gangrene
D. neither plant or animal D. when the brain liquifies

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1.2 Cell Damage 177

684. Which of the following correctly de- jar is equal to the concentration of fresh-
scribes angiogenesis? water in the amoeba’s body

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A. Growth of blood vessels that provides D. none of above
the tumor with nutrients and oxygen.
688. This type of cell injury is caused by lack
B. Growth of blood vessels that allows tu- of oxygen.
mor cells to pass certain checkpoints in
the cell cycle A. Ischemia
C. Growth of blood vessels to bring in B. Hypoxia
more immune cells to the tumor C. Free radicals
D. Movement of cancer cells through the D. Antioxidants
body inducing the production of more red
blood cells. 689. Viruses can be transmitted through air,
water, food, insect bites and direct skin
685. Before cells can divide, what must be contact. Once a virus gains entry to the
copied? body, it invades a host cell in order to-
A. mitochondria A. deactivate the host cell’s defenses
B. cytoplasm B. synthesize antibodies for defense
C. DNA C. metabolize host proteins and grow
D. Cell Wall D. access cellular processes for replica-
tion
686. How does the surface area to volume
ratio change as the size of the cell in- 690. Halts cell division if it detects damaged
creases? DNA; can either fix, force G0, or apopto-
A. It increases sis.
B. it decreases A. RAS
C. it remains the same B. MPF
D. it is not affected by cell size C. PDGF

687. Timmy places a freshwater amoeba on a D. p53

wet mount slide with freshwater. Timmy 691. What function does ATP carry out in liv-
examines the amoeba using a compound ing things?
microscope using high power. What hap-
pens to the amoeba body? A. used to capture and transfer energy

A. Hypertonic setting:the amoeba shriv- B. aids in protein folding and coiling

els up as water in the amoeba moves C. helps maintain the fluidity of cell mem-
across it’s semi-permeable membrane branes
into the jar of water. D. identifies DNA start sequences for
B. Hypotonic setting:the amoeba swells transcription
up as water in the jar moves across
the amoeba’s semi-permeable membrane 692. Chromosome (DNA) movement occurs
into the amoeba’s body. during which part of the cell cycle?

C. Isotonic setting:nothing happens as A. mitosis

the concentration of the freshwater in the B. G1

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1.2 Cell Damage 178

C. interphase 698. Which of the following are phases of in-

terphase? (select 3)
D. G2
A. G1
693. The dissolution of a dying or damaged cell
is called: B. G2

A. swelling C. S

B. inflammation D. Mitosis

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. fever E. Cytokinesis

D. lysis 699. Which phase of Mitosis do the sister chro-

matids line up in the middle of the cell?
694. Examples of a nonvascular plants are
A. Prophase
A. mushrooms
B. Metaphase
B. algae
C. Anaphase
C. trees
D. Telophase
D. mosses and ferns
700. The is the basic structural and func-
695. A cell with a defective p53 gene is likely
tional unit of all organisms.
to
A. Atom
A. Divide normally
B. Cell
B. Stop dividing
C. Combat tumors C. Organelle

D. Accumulate chromosomal damage D. All of the above

696. Which of the following is NOT a reason 701. A gel like fluid that takes up most of the
why cells need to remain small? space inside the cell. The organelles are
found scattered throughout it.
A. to efficiently obtain nutrients
A. Chloroplasts
B. to efficiently obtain waste products
B. Cell Wall
C. to efficiently remove waste produces
C. Cell Membrane
D. to efficiently send signals to the center
of the cell D. Cytoplasm

697. Which of the following clinical signs 702. What is the correct order of the stages
would be associated with the Chronic of mitosis? 1-Metaphase 2-Telophase 3-
Stage of tissue healing? Anaphase 4-Prophase
A. Pain at rest A. 4, 1, 2, 3
B. Absence of inflammation B. 2, 3, 1, 4
C. Pain with tissue resistance C. 1, 2, 3, 4
D. Loss of function D. 4, 1, 3, 2

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1.2 Cell Damage 179

703. Which one of these is characteristic of 708. The cell membrane of the red blood cell
cancer cells? will allow water, oxygen, and carbon diox-
ide to pass through. Because other sub-

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A. They undergo apoptosis.
stances are blocked from entering, this
B. They do not respond to growth in- membrane is called
hibitors
A. non conductive
C. They respond to growth inhibitors.
B. perforated
D. none of above
C. permeable
704. Which of the following is an external D. semi-permeable
chemical regulator of cell division?
709. A cancer tumor is
A. Cell size
A. a group of cells in the bloodstream
B. Growth factor hormones
B. a mass of normal cells
C. Checkpoints
C. a mass of abnormal cells
D. All of the above
D. none of the above
705. Which cell cycle checkpoint verifies cell 710. What is a primary function of the cell
size and checks the original DNA for dam- membrane?
age?
A. breaking down proteins for energy
A. G1 checkpoint
B. defending against foreign particles
B. S checkpoint
C. generating energy from mineral nutri-
C. G2 checkpoint ents
D. M checkpoint D. determining genetic traits

706. Apoptosis functions to 711. Checks for cell size, nutrients, growth fac-
A. allow proper form of developing em- tors, and DNA damage.
bryos A. G1 checkpoint
B. remove cells that are damaged or dis- B. G2 checkpoint
eased C. Spindle checkpoint
C. reduce cell number D. DNA polymerase
D. all of these
712. What does DNA replication mean?
707. When an animal cell goes through cytoki- A. DNA is made.
nesis,
B. DNA makes new cells.
A. a cell plate forms dividing the 2 new
C. DNA copies itself.
nuclei.
D. DNA starts the cell cycle.
B. the cell membrane pinches off the 2
new cells. 713. Which phase of mitosis occurs second?
C. 4 new cells are formed. A. Prophase
D. None of the above B. Prometaphase

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1.2 Cell Damage 180

C. Metaphase C. They can be transplanted into mon-

D. Anaphase keys.
D. They can learn more about abnormal
E. Telophase
cells
714. A cancer causing agent is best known as
719. What is metastasis?
a(n)
A. The development of a cancerous tu-
A. carcinogen mor.

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. mutation B. The spread of cancer from its ori-
C. inheritance gin/original location.
D. metastasis C. The spread of cancer to all parts of the
body.
715. Identify the 3 checkpoints of the cell cy-
D. The removal of a cancerous tumor.
cle.
A. Anaphase checkpoint, mito- 720. Which is NOT an internal carcinogen?
sis/metaphase checkpoint, and telophase A. Chemical Exposure
checkpoint B. Hereditary factors
B. Interphase checkpoint, S phase check- C. Cell Checkpoints
point, and M phase checkpoint
D. Abnormal hormone levels
C. G1 checkpoint, G2 checkpoint, and S
phase checkpoint 721. The cells within a multicellular organism
contain the same set of DNA, but two cells
D. G1 checkpoint, G2 checkpoint, and mi-
might produce a very different set of pro-
tosis/metaphase checkpoint
teins. How is this possible?
716. If the message inhibiting cell division is A. Cells can have different sets of mRNA
blocked, what will most likely result? molecules because different genes are ex-
A. uncontrolled cell division pressed

B. decreased cell division B. Different cells produce different pro-

teins based on the amino acids they can
C. apoptosis absorb
D. nothing C. Ribosomes translate mRNA strands
differently depending on the type of cell
717. area where chromatids are attached
they are in
A. Chromosome D. Viral infections can alter the way eu-
B. ccentromere karyotic cells translate their genes into
C. interphase proteins.

D. sister chromatid 722. Which of the following is a protein main-

tained at constant levels throughout the
718. Why are scientists interested in studying cell cycle that requires cyclin to become cat-
embryonic stem cells? alytically active?
A. They never die. A. Cdk
B. They come from the brain stem. B. cyclin

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1.2 Cell Damage 181

C. protein kinase C. DNA replication

D. MPF D. absorption of water

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723. Newly dividing cells would be found in 729. What organelle is responsible for direct-
the ing the movement of chromosomes during
A. xylem mitosis in animal cells?

B. phloem A. Nucleus

C. stomata B. Mitochondrion

D. meristematic tissue C. Centriole

D. Ribosome
724. The cell spends most of its time in (in be-
tween) which phase? 730. The result of meiosis is
A. anaphase A. two diploid cells
B. interphase B. two haploid cells
C. prophase C. four diploid cells
D. metaphase D. four haploid cells

725. Everyone do what I say. I am in control. 731. In which stage of the cell cycle does the
cell split into two?
A. Cell
A. Mitosis
B. Chloroplast
B. G1
C. Nucleus
C. Cytokinesis
D. Vacuole
D. S
726. Why do muscle cells and liver cells have
different functions? 732. A key difference between daughter cells
resulting from mitosis and meiosis is that:
A. They have different structures
A. After meiosis, cells are diploid. After
B. They have different locations
mitosis, cells are haploid.
C. They have had different genes acti-
B. After meiosis, cells are haploid. After
vated (turned on) in the cell’s DNA
mitosis, cells are diploid.
D. There is no difference.
C. After meiosis, there are 4 daughter
727. I used light energy to make food. cells. After mitosis, is 1 daughter cell.
A. Golgi Bodies D. After meiosis, there are 2 daugher
cells. After mitosis, there are 4 daughter
B. Cell Membrane cells.
C. Vacuole
733. The correct order of the phases of the cell
D. Chloroplast cycle are?
728. What is the role of melanin in the skin? A. G1>M>G2>S
A. protect from the sun B. S>G1>G2>M
B. pigmentation / color C. M>S>G1>G2

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1.2 Cell Damage 182

D. G1>S>G2>M 739. The rate at which a particular type of cell

divides is linked to the body’s need for
E. Totally random order
that cell type. Skin cells are typically ex-
posed to more damaging conditions than
734. During interphase, the DNA is in the form
are liver cells. Skin cells must be replaced
of
more often than liver cells. Therefore,
A. chromatin which of these statements is true?
B. chromosomes A. Skin cells and liver cells divide at the

NARAYAN CHANGDER
same rate.
C. chromatids
B. Liver cells divide more often than skin
D. centromeres
cells.
735. In root tip cells the formation of the cell C. Skin cells divide more often than liver
plate that begins the separation of daugh- cells.
ter cells occurs. In which stage of the cell D. Neither skin cells nor liver cells divide.
cycle do daughter cells separate from each
other 740. If the chloroplast of the plant cell are
damage, which will it be unable to do?
A. anaphase
A. Protect the cell
B. cytokinesis
B. Excrete waste materials
C. interphase
C. Make food for the cell
D. prophase
D. Give instruction for the cell
736. Rest or divide? 741. In the eukaryotic cell, what is the longest
A. G1 checkpoint stage of the cell cycle and responsible in
the preparation of the cell division to pro-
B. S checkpoint
cess?
C. G2 checkpoint A. Interphase
D. M checkpoint B. Mitotic phase

737. A cell spends % of its cycle in C. Synthesis Phase

D. All of the above
A. 100, interphase
B. 10, cytokinesis 742. Which is the correct order for mitosis?

C. 40, mitosis A. MPAT

D. 90, interphase B. PAMT

C. PMAT
738. Proto-oncogenes can mutate into D. none of above
A. oncogenes
743. Bone cells are different than brain cells
B. tumor suppressor genes because bone cells-
C. DNA repair proteins A. do not undergo cell division
D. none of above B. cannot maintain homeostasis

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1.2 Cell Damage 183

C. contain charged ions C. G2

D. express different genes D. G3

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744. Both mitochondria and chloroplasts 749. This organelle controls what goes in and
out of plant and animal cells.
A. contain their own unique ribosomes
that are different than the cells A. Cell Wall
B. contain their own unique DNA that are B. Cell Membrane
different than the cells C. Cytoplasm
C. are specialized organelles that cap- D.
ture and release energy
750. Cell injury-mechanisms:
D. are found in both in plants and animals
A. Loss of energy (ATP/02 depletion)
745. In diffusion B. Oxygen and O2-derived free radicals
A. water moves from a high concentra- C. Loss of calcium homeostasis
tion to a low concentration
D. Defects in plasma membrane
B. water moves from a low concentration
E. Leakage of pro-apoptotic proteins
to a high concentration
C. molecules move from a high concen- 751. What is the last phase of mitosis, when
tration to a low concentration the nuclear membrane forms around two
identical sets of chromosomes?
D. molecules move from a low concentra-
tion to a high concentration A. Prophase
B. Metaphase
746. As a fertilized egg divides, the cells dif-
ferentiate because they- C. Anaphase
D. Telophase
A. contain a lipid bilayer
B. can clump together 752. What if all the phases did not occur cor-
rectly, what would happen?
C. metabolize sugars rapidly
A. Cell would be perfect
D. have specific genes activated
B. Cell would be equal
747. Diabetic foot is C. Cell would have abnormalities
A. Dry Gangrene D. Cell would not change at all
B. Wet Gangrene
753. The cambium is a section of cells in a plant
C. Gas Gangrene that can become either part of the xylem
D. coagulative necrosis or phloem, depending on the growth and
needs of the plant. If the cambium of a par-
748. Which of the following cell cycle phases ticular plant was damaged, what would be
would a nerve cell, which never divides the most likely effect on the plant?
again once the body reaches maturity, be
A. The plant would not be able to trans-
classified in?
port nutrients and water.
A. G0 B. The plant would lose its ability to carry
B. G1 out photosynthesis.

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1.2 Cell Damage 184

C. The plant would have uncontrolled potential to reverse or prevent the unreg-
growth. ulated reproduction of the diseased blood-
D. The plant would not experience any vessel cells. Which of these processes is
change in physiology. the most likely target of these drugs?
A. Cell division
754. Stem cells can replace specialized cells
within damaged tissue. Once they are B. Erythroblast differentiation
in place, stem cells receive chemical sig- C. DNA transcription

NARAYAN CHANGDER
nals which activate the appropriate set of
D. Cellular respiration
genes. This demonstrates that which of
the following plays a role in cell differenti- 758. Apoptosis is triggered by
ation?
A. Death-promoting signals e.g TNF
A. radiation
B. Withdrawal of stimulatory signals e.g
B. environment EGF
C. antibodies C. DNA damage
D. blood type D. Extrinsic factors e.g infection and
trauma
755. During which process does only mitosis
occur? 759. The G in G1 and G2 stands for
A. the production of antibodies B- A. gap
lymphocyte memory cells
B. growth
B. the production of cancerous tissue in
alveoli C. gap/growth

C. the production of gametes D. none of these

D. the production of root hairs 760. G1, S, and G2 phases are combined into
one long phase called
756. What is the correct order of organization
A. interphase
A. tissues-cells-organs-organ systems-
organism B. mitosis

B. cell-tissue-organs-organ systems- C. cytokinesis

organism D. cell cycle
C. organism-cells-tissues-organ systems-
761. Cell division by mitosis produces:
organism
A. Two cells with twice the amount of DNA
D. tissues-cells-organs-organ sytems-
as the parent cell
organism
B. Two cells with half the amount of DNA
757. Atherosclerosis is a disease that ob- as the parent cell
structs blood flow and, therefore, oxygen
C. Two cells identical to each other and to
supply to target organs. A major compo-
the parent cell
nent of atherosclerosis is the excessive re-
production of smooth muscle cells of the D. Two cells identical to each other but
blood vessels. Certain drugs may have the not to the parent cell

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1.2 Cell Damage 185

762. Accumulation of mucopolysaccharides in C. to highlight the checkpoints

connective tissue is an example of which D. to show that it repeats over and over
of the following?

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767. Which is true about embryonic stem
A. Mucoid degeneration
cells?
B. Myxomatous degeneration
A. They no longer divide, their cell type is
C. All of the above set and cannot change.
D. None of the above B. They can develop into only one type of
cell.
763. Liquefactive necrosis is seen in
C. They can become any cell type in the
A. Heart body.
B. Brain D. They are found in adults.
C. Lung 768. Your patient injured themselves 10 days
D. Spleen ago. Which stage of tissue healing are
they in?
764. Which of the following is a true state-
A. Acute Stage
ment?
B. Subacute Stage
A. Benign tumors have cells that have bro-
ken away from the main tumor. C. Chronic Stage
B. Malignant tumors have cells that have D. Fully Healed Stage
broken away from the main tumor. 769. Which phase of mitosis occurs fourth?
C. Malignant tumors consist of cells that A. Prophase
have stayed together.
B. Prometaphase
D. Benign tumors spread through the
C. Metaphase
blood and lymph to other organs
D. Anaphase
765. Which of the following lists the stages of E. Telophase
mitosis in correct order?
770. Type of tumor that remains at original
A. Anaphase, Metaphase, Prophase,
site
Telophase
A. Benign
B. Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase,
Telophase B. Malignant
C. Prophase, Anaphase, Metaphase, C. Metastaasis
Telophase D. checkpoint
D. Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase, 771. A lion contains 80 chromosomes. The
Prophase number of chromosomes a lion egg cell,
produced by meiosis, will be?
766. Why is the Cell Cycle often represented
as a circle? A. 40
A. Because it is easy to draw B. 80
B. Because cell cycles has a distinct be- C. 20
ginning and end point D. 60

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1.2 Cell Damage 186

772. Which of the following parts allow differ- 777. During G1 phase a cell (select 2)
ent activities of the cell happen?
A. Grows in size
A. Vacuoles
B. Prepares for DNA replication
B. Lysosomes
C. Replicates all of its DNA molecules
C. Cytoplasm
D. Vesicle D. Prepares for cell division
E. Divides in two
773. Some cells are specialized to store large

NARAYAN CHANGDER
amounts of water and nutrients for the or-
778. I am quite full of water. I am responsi-
ganism’s later use. Which of the follow-
ble for the crisp appearance of the fresh
ing organelles would be prevalent in these
vegetables.
cells?
A. vacuoles A. Vacuole

B. Golgi bodies B. Golgi Bodies

C. mitochondria C. Cell Membrane
D. centrioles D. Cell Wall
774. What is the division of cytoplasm during 779. Some scientists name the stage where
the M phase of the cell cycle called? cells carry out their normal functions but
A. Metaphase are unlikely to divide. The name they give
B. Anaphase this stage is
C. Telophase A. G0
D. Cytokinesis B. G1
775. Which of the following is most likely to C. G2
occur during the cell cycle for this muscle
D. G3
cell?
A. The muscle cell will be stopped at the 780. Cells that have a specific structure and
G1 checkpoint and sent to G0 phase. function
B. The G2 checkpoint will stop the cell A. can become another type of cell
from continuing in the cell cycle.
B. are differentiated and specialized
C. The cell will get stuck at the spindle
checkpoint. C. will never differentiate & specialize
D. The cell will continue on to cytokinesis. D. are stem cells
776. If a cat has 38 chromosomes in each of its 781. Medical Researches are interested in
body cells, how many chromosomes will stem cells because they
be in each daughter cell after mitosis?
A. Are highly specialized
A. 11
B. 19 B. Are found only in embryos
C. 38 C. Can produce different cell types
D. 76 D. Are found in all types of tissues

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1.2 Cell Damage 187

782. Mass of rapidly dividing cells that can 788. Apoptosis is

damage surrounding tissue.
A. the process of programmed cell death

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A. growth factor
B. the process of programmed cell
B. human growth hormone growth
C. cancer
C. the process of programmed cell birth
D. tumor
D. the process of programmed cell regu-
783. What is the purpose of the cell cycle? lation
A. Growth
789. Interphase collectively refers to
B. Repair
A. mitosis and cytokinesis.
C. make food for the cell
B. G0 and the restriction point.
D. growth AND repair
C. G1, S-phase, and G2.
784. This phase is when the cytoplasm fully
separates, creating 2 separate cells. What D. DNA synthesis and G0.
is this phase?
790. Why do nerve cells and blood cells have
A. Endocytosis the same DNA?
B. Telophase
A. Nerve cells make blood cells
C. Cytokinesis
B. Nerve cells turn into blood cells
D. Metaphase
C. Nerve cells & blood cells are the same
785. Which invention from the 17th century al- cells
lowed for the development of modern cell
theory? D. Nerve & blood cells both came from
the same first stem cell
A. x-rays
B. computers 791. cells that are able to develop into any
type of cell found in the body (including
C. the scanning electron microscope
the cells that make up the extraembryonic
D. the light microscope membranes and placenta)
786. Select all stages of interphase? A. Multipotent
A. G1 B. Blastocyst
B. S C. Pluripotent
C. G2
D. Totipotent
D. Mitosis
792. Which of the following take part during
787. Which cell cycle checkpoint verifies cell
Interphase?
size and checks the DNA for damage?
A. G1, S-phase, G2
A. G1 checkpoint
B. S checkpoint B. G1, Mitosis, Cytokinesis
C. G2 checkpoint C. Mitosis, Cytokinesis, S-phase
D. M checkpoint D. G2, Prophase, Metaphase

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1.2 Cell Damage 188

793. The organelles that clean plant and ani- C. ribosome

mal cells by using chemicals to break down D. none of above
food and worn out cell parts are
A. Lysosomes 799. Reversible cell damage characterized by
accumulation of water inside cells is
B. Mitochondria
A. Disturbed water metabolism
C. Nucleolus
B. Disturbed fat metabolism
D. Cell Wall

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Disturbed mycopolysaccharides
794. Which two molecules work together to D. Hyaline changes
act as gatekeepers for each checkpoint of
the cell cycle? E. All of the above
A. p53 and cyclin 800. The cells produced via meiosis are called:
B. cyclins and cycline-dependent kinases A. sex cells
C. MPF and hormones B. somatic cells
D. cyclin and a phosphate group C. body cells
795. Which cell cycle checkpoint makes sure D. skin cells
that chromosomes are duplicated and
801. How might DNA damage go on to affect
checks for damage of the replicated DNA?
the rest of the cell cycle if apoptosis did
A. G1 checkpoint not occur?
B. S checkpoint A. Mutations split
C. G2 checkpoint B. Mutations passed to future genera-
D. M checkpoint tions
C. Mutations return normal
796. Which substances must reach their peak
before a cell can complete mitosis? D. Mutations are not passed to future
generations
A. cyclins and MPF
B. cyclins only 802. Checkpoints occur between the stages of
the cell cycle. If a cell does not meet cer-
C. MPF only
tain criteria at the end of a stage, it will
D. Cdk’s and MPF not move to the next stage. Which of
these occurs just before the cell enters G2
797. In the G1 stage of the cell cycle, the cell stage of the cell cycle?
A. Grows A. The nuclear membrane disintegrates
B. Copies its organelles B. DNA replicates
C. Carries on normal activities C. Centrioles form
D. All of the above D. The nucleolus divides
798. Where does transcription take place? 803. Cells need to produce new cells in order
A. nucleus to
B. cytoplasm A. create new chromosomes

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 1.3 Inflammation 189

B. replace cells that have died 808. During cytokinesis, the cell
C. obtain energy from sunlight A. copies the DNA

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D. release energy from food B. splits the nucleus
804. What happens during cell division? C. forms chromosomes
A. A cell makes a copy of itself D. divides into two cells
B. A cell gets bigger 809. The phase in mitosis where chromosomes
C. A cell creates a virus move away and are pulled apart by spin-
dles to opposite sides of the cell.
D. A cell expels organelles from inside it-
self A. prophase
B. anaphase
805. Which bio-molecule is NEVER broken
down by the body for energy? C. metaphase
A. Proteins D. telephase
B. Carbohydrates 810. An organelle that captures energy from
C. Nucleic Acids the sunlight in order to use it to produce
food in plant cells is
D. Lipids
A. Chromatin
806. The division of the nucleus is called
B. Chloroplast
A. mitosis
C. Cytoplasm
B. interphase
D. Cell Membrane
C. cytokinesis
D. somatic 811. The purpose of mitosis is to produce:
A. four daughter cells, each with one set
807. Cells grow, carry out normal functions, of chromosomes
and copy their organelles.
B. two daughter cells, each with one set
A. G1 of chromosomes
B. S C. two daughter cells, each with two sets
C. G2 of chromosomes
D. M phase D. none of above

1.3 Inflammation
1. are really pieces of cells involved in 2. What is the clinical changes of acute-phase
clotting response
A. erythrocytes A. Fever
B. thrombocytes B. Acute-phase
C. fibrin C. Leukocytosis
D. leukocytes D. none of above

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1.3 Inflammation 190

3. Which of the following is NOT a sign of 8. A large group of cells that join together for
inflammation? a specific activity is called a(an)
A. redness A. organ
B. heat B. tissue
C. swelling C. organism
D. fever D. organ system
9. Which substances directly act to neurons

NARAYAN CHANGDER
4. A 13 year-old female patient comes into
of thermoregulatory center causing fever
the ED w/reported pain in her RLQ. What
is the nurses priority action? development?
A. Kinins
A. Request an order for a STAT CT scan
B. Prostaglandins
B. Assess for the possibility of pregnancy
C. Interferon
C. Start an IV immediately
D. Free radicals
D. Draw labs for STAT type and cross
E. Leukotriens
5. What is the Latin word for Loss of Function
10. The nurse assesses a patient with perni-
A. Dolor cious anemia. Which finding would the
B. Calor nurse expect?
C. Rubor A. Yellow-tinged sclerae

D. Tumor B. Shiny, smooth tongue

C. Tender, bleeding gums
E. Functio Laesa
D. Numbness of extremities
6. The inflammatory response can cause
11. Approximately 30-60 minutes after being
A. permanent immunity. bitten by a “bug”, a 26-year-old man no-
B. pain, swelling and fever. ticed a localized swelling and erythema
in the affected area. The edema is most
C. antibodies to bind to antigens.
likely the result of:
D. killer T cells to attack infected cells.
A. Altered plasma osmotic pressure
7. There are 3 stages of wound healing. Dur- B. Increased vascular permeability
ing inflammation, haemostasis occurs and C. Vasoconstriction
macrophages remove dead tissue and ex-
udate. During proliferation, the space is D. Lymphatic obstruction
filled with granulation tissue, which 12. During which of the following phases of
A. Bleeds easily inflammation do the tissues allow infiltra-
tion of white blood cells to the site of the
B. Pink/red, granulated colour
injury?
C. Is a mixture of blood vessels and fi-
A. Congestion
broblasts
B. Leakage
D. Forms when the fibroblasts and en-
dothelial cells migrate though the fibrin C. Phagocytosis
gell D. none of above

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1.3 Inflammation 191

13. Prevalence of proliferative processes was A. Caliente, rubarbo, tamar, dola, func-
revealed in a patient with chronic inflam- tioner
mation of skin and subcutaneous adipose

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B. Caliente, rubor, tumor, dola, func-
tissue. Which hormone deficiency can lead tioner
to this situation?
C. Calor, rubor, tumor, dolor, functio
A. Cortisol laesa
B. Aldosterone D. Calor, rubarbo, tamar, dolor, functio
C. Insulin laesa
D. Growth hormone 18. a decubitus ulcer can be described as
E. Thyroxin A. a sublingual attrition
14. What does “redness” corresponds to, in B. a mucosal erosion
terms of cardinal signs of acute inflamma- C. a gastric lesion
tion?
D. a bed sore
A. Rubor
19. Morphological features of chronic inflam-
B. Calor mation
C. Dolor A. Abundant neutrophils with fibrin depo-
D. Tumor sition
B. Exudation of cell-poor fluid into the
15. Female patient, aged 32, was stung by
pleura
wasp. On the skin of left cheek (place of
sting) there is a zone of hyperemia and C. Infiltration by lymphocytes and plasma
edema. What is the primary mechanism cells
of edema in this case? D. Connective tissue replacement of dam-
A. Decrease of oncotic pressure aged tissue by angiogenesis and fibrosis
B. Lymph drainage decease 20. A clot in the blood stream (commonly
C. Increase of oncotic pressure found in legs) that breaks free and starts
to travel can lodge in brain or lungs. This
D. Increase in capillary permeability is called
E. Increase of hydrostatic pressure in A. a thrombus
capillaries
B. an embolus
16. What is the Latin word for Swelling? C. heparin
A. Tumor D. hematoma
B. Dolor
21. The process where leukocytes engulf and
C. Calor digest bacteria known as
D. Rubor A. leukocytosis
E. Functio Laesa B. pathogenesis

17. What are the 5 cardinal signs of Inflamma- C. hydrostatic pressure

tion? D. phagocytosis

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1.3 Inflammation 192

22. Role of macrophages in chronic inflamma- 28. Disease-causing microorganisms are

tion known as
A. Degranulates and release histamine A. pathogens
B. Produce growth factor ( GF ) for tissue B. microbes
repair C. bacteria
C. Secrete cytokines and eicosanoids D. monocytes
D. Display antigens to T lymphocytes and 29. Enlargement and deformation of joints

NARAYAN CHANGDER
respond to signals from T cells were revealed in a patient with rheuma-
23. A person who develops antibodies against tism. What type of inflammation underlies
the flu vaccine is generating these changes?
A. cell-mediated immunity. A. Alterative
B. active immunity B. Proliferative
C. passive immunity C. Exudative
D. none of above D. Fibrinous
E. Deformative
24. Classical macrophage activation is induced
by 30. Feature of chronic inflammation EXCEPT
A. IFN gamma A. Infiltration by mononuclear cells
B. TGF beta B. Abundant of neutrophils
C. Growth Factor C. Tissue destruction
D. none of above D. Attempt of tissue healing

25. What has phage display been used for? 31. Hereditary, sex linked trait that causes
blood to not clot
A. drug discovery and development
A. thrombocytopenia
B. Create alternative medicines
B. hemophilia
C. Have a better quality of research
C. leukopenia
D. None is correct
D. septicemia
26. acute inflammation can be defined as 32. Autoimmune diseases occur when the im-
A. a purulent exudate mune system
B. a condition of long duration A. is weakened by asthma.
C. a condition of sudden onset B. overreacts to certain antigens.
D. an asthmatic incident C. fails to distinguish self from nonself.

27. which of the following sensitises pain re- D. all of the above.
ceptors? 33. The prefix Dacryo-means:
A. Bradykinin A. Eyelid
B. Serotonin B. Sea
C. Histamine C. Tear
D. Tumour necrotic factor D. Crybaby

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1.3 Inflammation 193

34. Which of the following is an example of a 39. The function of alternative macrophage ac-
purulent exudate? tivation:

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A. blister fluid A. Phagocytosis
B. pus B. Microbial kiling
C. excess fluid in the lungs
C. Tissue repair
D. none of above
D. Anti-inflammatory effects
35. Which of the below is true regarding gran-
ulomatous tissue? 40. The secondary alteration is caused by:
A. Is often seen with persistent stimuli A. Kinins
B. Is exudate filled with activated
B. Lympokynes
macrophages fused together
C. Is a nodular area with a central area C. Lysosomal enzymes
of neutrophils D. Prostaglandins
D. Is a distinct mass formed from
E. Complement components C3a and C5a
macrophage infiltration
36. Which of the following is true 41. Which of the following is considered to be
a permanent cell?
A. Lymphocytes use cytokines to interact
with macrophages and migrate to inflam- A. Cardiac muscle cell
matory site using adhesion molecules and
B. Hematopoietic stem cell
chemokines
B. Eosinophils contain a protein toxic to C. Epithelial cell
bacteria and use eotaxin and adhesion D. Endothelial cell
molecules for extrastation
C. Mast cells live in the CT of areas with 42. which of the following cells would you ex-
contact with the external environment pect to be active in the site of injury after
D. Mast cells produce cytokines contribut- 48 hours
ing to fibrosis in chronic inflammation A. Neutrophils
37. Arthritis B. Macrophages
A. inflammation of the joints C. Neutrophils & Macrophages
B. inflammation of the arteries
D. Neutrophils, Macrophages & Fibrob-
C. inflammation of the arms lasts
D. none of the above
43. What is not an advantage of peptide
38. What is the GPR1 for? drugs?
A. to generate nuclear chemical break- A. easy to produce
throughs
B. to generate control over drugs B. poor immunogenicity

C. to generate pharmaceutical advances C. membrane impermeability

D. to control pray the chemicals D. High affinity to specific targets

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1.3 Inflammation 194

44. What is the inflammation of the optic 49. After a mini-exam, you and a couple of
nerve called? friends spend the weekend on the beach
A. Optic Neuritis in St. Martin. At the end of the day,
one of your friends complains of sunburn.
B. Optic Nervitis His back is very red, warm and painful to
C. Nervitis Optica touch. What is the most likely cause of
D. Optical Nervitis this erythema?
A. ischemia

NARAYAN CHANGDER
45. When tissue damage is neutralised and
minimal this results in B. Edema of the dermis

A. A resolution C. Vasodilation of blood vessel in dermis

B. Healing by repair D. Bradykinin
C. Abscess formation 50. Which of the below is seen with granulo-
D. Chronic inflammation matous inflammation
A. Langhan’s giant cells
46. what is the first step of inflammation?
B. Lymphocytes
A. platelets and fibrin start clotting
C. Areas of necrosis
B. damaged cells release histamine
D. Fibrous tissue
C. phagocytes (neutrophils) engulf bac-
teri 51. What is the main factor of edema forma-
D. capillaries get “leaky” and leukocytes tion in pulpitis?
and platelets come out to tissue A. Capillaries permeability increasing
47. Which information will the nurse include B. Hypoproteinemia
when teaching a patient with peptic ulcer C. Tissue hyperosmia
disease about the effect of ranitidine?
D. Blood hyperosmia
A. “Ranitidine absorbs the excess gastric
acid.” E. Capillaries hydrostatic pressure in-
creasing
B. “Ranitidine decreases gastric acid se-
cretion.” 52. A patient admitted with a peptic ulcer has
C. “Ranitidine constricts the blood ves- a nasogastric (NG) tube in place. The pa-
sels near the ulcer.” tient develops sudden, severe upper ab-
dominal pain, diaphoresis, and a firm ab-
D. “Ranitidine covers the ulcer with a pro-
domen. Which action should the nurse
tective material.”
take?
48. Which surface molecules play a major A. Irrigate the NG tube
role during the phenomenon of leukocyte
B. Check the VS
rolling?
C. Check the amylase level
A. Selectin
D. Elevate the foot of the bed
B. Intergrin
C. CD31 53. Chronic inflammation can not occur due to
D. Chemokines A. Repeated acute inflammation

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1.3 Inflammation 195

B. A failure to remove irritating stimuli D. Grow new blood vessels and lay down
C. The virulence factors of microbes type III collagen

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D. Attempt of repair 59. This term means stopping blood from flow-
ing (or clotting the blood)
54. which of the following is always present
as a cardinal sign of inflammation? A. embolus
A. loss of function B. hemostasis
B. heat C. hematoma
C. vasoconstriction D. hemophilia
D. vasodilation
60. two types of boils are
55. What cascade do IL-17 generate? A. carbuncles
A. IL-6, IL-8, IL-9, CCL-21
B. furuncles
B. TNF-R
C. abcess
C. IL-6, IL-8, CCL-20
D. monocyte
D. None of the above
61. what is the function of histamine?
56. Which cell types associated with the in-
flammatory response participate in phago- A. sensitise pain receptors
cytosis? Select the best option. B. amplify the inflammatory response
A. Neutrophils and eosinophils C. stimulate vasodilation
B. Macrophages and neutrophils D. cause blood vessel growth
C. Macrophages and eosinophils
62. Which cell plays a major role in chronic in-
D. Eosinophils and basophils.
flammation by performing a wide range of
57. During cutaneous wound healing, which of functions?
the following process occurs first within A. Lymphocyte
minutes?
B. Macrophage
A. Inflammation
C. Plasma cells
B. Proliferation
D. Mast cells
C. Hemostasis
D. Remodelling 63. What is the limiting factor of inflamma-
tion?
58. What is the function of the cellular phase
of inflammation? A. Inflammation cannot occur in tissue
that does not have a blood supply
A. prevent bacteria spread and dilute
their toxins B. Inflammation cannot occur in tissue
that does have a blood supply
B. Remove debris & bacteria and prepare
for repair C. There is not limiting factor of inflamma-
tion
C. Prevent further damage and stimulate
cells to replicate D. none of above

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1.3 Inflammation 196

64. Your immune system’s specific defense is B. Can cause large amounts of granula-
able to tion tissue to form which reduces tensile
A. respond to the general threat of infec- strength
tion. C. Is simple and uncomplicated
B. cause fever and inflammation at the in- D. Can cause wound hypoxia
fection site.
69. Which laboratory test result will the nurse
C. respond to a particular pathogen. monitor to evaluate the effects of therapy

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. all of the above. for a patient who has acute pancreatitis?
A. lipase
65. Function of Eosinophils in chronic inflamma-
tion B. calcium
A. Controlling helminth infections C. bilirubin
B. contribute to tissue damage in immune D. potassium
reactions 70. Which cell types associated with the in-
C. mediated by IgE flammatory response participate in phago-
cytosis?
D. All of the above
A. Neutrophils and eosinophils
66. All of the following vascular changes are
B. Macrophages and neutrophils
observed in acute inflammation, except:
C. Macrophages and eosinophils
A. Vasodilation
D. Eosinophils and basophils.
B. Stasis of blood
C. Increased vascular permeability 71. Which of the following increases blood
flow to an injured area
D. Decreased hydrostatic pressure
A. heparin
67. Painfulness of tooth and edema of lower B. platelets
part of face at the side of ill tooth are
C. complement proteins
present in a patient with acute pulpitis.
What is leading mechanism of edema de- D. histamine
velopment in this case? 72. Which one of the following is not the sign
A. Increase in production of aldosterone of inflammation.
B. Disturbances of trophic function of ner- A. Bleeding
vous system B. Pain
C. Disorder of neural regulation of water- C. Redness
salt metabolism
D. Swelling
D. Disorders of microcirculation at the fo-
cus of injury 73. Which patient statement to the nurse in-
dicates that the patient understands self-
E. Hypoproteinemia
care for pernicious anemia?
68. What is important to remember regarding A. “I need to start eating more red meat
second intention wounds and liver.”
A. Fibrous CT fills the defect but this can B. “I will be able to wean off B-12 suppli-
delay epithelial cell migration ments.”

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1.3 Inflammation 197

C. “I could choose nasal spray rather 79. A cook burnt his arm with steam. What
than injections of vitamin B12.” substance increased and led to develop-
ment of redness, edema and painfulness

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D. “I will need to take a proton pump in-
of affected area of skin?
hibitor such as omeprazole (Prilosec).”
A. Glutamine
74. Granulomatous inflammation is seen in all
B. Galactosamine
EXCEPT
C. Histidine
A. Tuberculosis
D. Thiamine
B. Sarcoidosis
E. Histamine
C. Crohn Disease
D. Acute appendicitis 80. Characteristic of granulomatous inflamma-
tion.
75. What is the inflammation of the conjunc- A. Presence of T lymphocytes
tiva called?
B. Collection of activated macrophage
A. conjunctivitis
C. Central necrosis
B. aternal uveitis
D. All of the above
C. otitis
81. Which immune cell is responsible for the
D. uveitis quickest release of histamine that causes
the red itchy welts associated with aller-
76. pus in the lung is called
gies?
A. emphysema
A. lymphocytes
B. pulmonary edema
B. mast cells
C. pyogenic
C. Eosinophils
D. endothelium D. Basophils
77. What is the Latin word for Redness? 82. Which of the following is not a character-
A. Rubor istic sign of acute inflammation?
B. Tumor A. lasts for a long period of time
C. Calor B. swelling
D. Dolor C. loss of movement

E. Functio Laesa D. redness

78. What is the Latin word for Pain? 83. All of the following are examples of sec-
ond line of body defense against pathogen,
A. Dolor Except:
B. Calor A. Increasing body temperature
C. Tumor B. Inflammation response
D. Rubor C. Antibody production
E. Functio Laesa D. Engulfment of pathogen by phagocytes

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1.3 Inflammation 198

84. Endogenous Endophthalmitis is D. Increase of heat loss

A. the inflammation of the eye, with occa- E. Heat production is equal to heat loss
sional nasal infections
89. If a type of blood has only B antigens, then
B. the equivalent of Dacryoadenitis it is type of blood
C. an internal mass bleeding in the eye A. A+
D. an infection of the eye coming from a B. AB-
different body part C. O+

NARAYAN CHANGDER
85. Immune granulomas can be caused by D. B-
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis 90. Review:Blood is a type of connective tis-
B. Mycobacterium leprae sue. What part of blood is the matrix?

C. Treponema pollidum A. erythrocytes

B. plasma
D. Gram-negative bacillus
C. leukocytes
E. Staphylococcus
D. thrombocytes (platelets)
86. Necrotic focus has appeared on burn, swal-
lowing and red skin. What is the main 91. What is the name of the process neu-
mechanism of necrobyosis improvement in trophils & macrophages use to engulf and
inflammatory area? digest pathogens
A. Endocytosis
A. Emigration of leucocytes
B. Exocytosis
B. Fibroblasts proliferation
C. Pinocytosis
C. Secondary alteration
D. Phagocytosis
D. Dyapedesis of erythrocytes
92. Most infectious diseases are characterized
E. Primary alteration
by development of fever. It can be ex-
87. What is the inflammation of the eyelids plained:
called? A. Formation of IL-1 during phagocytosis
A. blimitis of microorganisms
B. Eyelid Inflammation Disease (EID) B. Intoxication of the organism
C. Degranulation of mast cells
C. blepharitis
D. Activation of T-and B-lymphocytes
D. boltic uveitis
E. Processes of exudation
88. Body temperature of a patient is 39 0C
for several hours (stadium fastigii). Indi- 93. Which of these substances belong to acute
cate which changes of physiological func- phase proteins?
tions are the most typical for this stage of A. CRP
fever. B. IL-2
A. Bradycardia C. Ceruloplasmin
B. Ingibition of phagocytosis D. SAA
C. Increase of heat production E. Albumin

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1.3 Inflammation 199

94. What is the first response of arterioles to 99. Granuloma may have all the following
injury? components EXCEPT

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A. Vasodilation A. Epithelioid cells
B. Vasoconstriction B. Collar of lymphocytes
C. Edema C. Giant cells
D. Redness D. Platelets

95. Which of the following molecules is associ- 100. Which of the following vascular change
ated with pain? that corresponds with redness?

A. Plasmin A. Increased vascular permeability

B. Bradykinin B. Vasodilation

C. Kallikrein C. Chemotaxis
D. Infiltration of white blood cells
D. Factor XII
101. In examination of abscess punctate under
96. Choose the characteristics of wound heal-
a microscope different blood cells were re-
ing by primary intention
vealed. Which of them appears the first in
A. Small tissue defect inflammatory focus?
B. Prominent inflammatory reaction A. Monocytes
C. Wound contraction is slower B. Lymphocytes
D. More copious granulation tissue C. Neutrophils
E. Opposable wound slides D. Eosinophils
E. Mast cells
97. Which of the below is true
A. Pyo-granulomatous inflammation is 102. The following few questions are about
similar to its former but also contains neu- the chemical mediators of inflamma-
trophils, fibrin and plasma proteins tion:What is the main effect of histamine?
B. The stimulus in pyo-granulomatous in- A. pain
flammation is absent B. fever
C. Pyo-granulomas is a mass formed C. smooth muscle contraction
from an infiltration of macrophages D. dilation of arterioles
D. Pyo-granulomatous is a mass formed
from an infiltration of macrophages 103. Place these events in the correct order:1.
Phagocytes engulf and destroy bacteria
98. A function of the CD-40 is that damage cells. 2. Pathogens enter
the body causing mast cells to release his-
A. apoptotic mediator
tamines and increase blood flow. 3. Blood
B. anti-inflammatory mediator vessels expand. Fluid leaves capillaries
C. Pro-inflammatory marker in entero- and causes swelling.
cytes A. 2, 3, 1
D. Immunoglobulin mediator B. 3, 2, 1

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1.3 Inflammation 200

C. 1, 2, 3 C. sweating
D. 2, 1, 3 D. shivering

104. Which of the following prevents clotting 109. Which cell is the diagnostic feature of
during an inflammatory response? acute inflammation?
A. heparin A. Monocyte
B. neutrophils B. Basophil

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. complement protein C. Neutrophil
D. histamine D. Eosinophil

105. A patient sustained trauma of knee joint 110. Which of the following attracts phago-
and posttraumatic hemorrhagic bursitis ap- cytes during an inflammatory response?
peared. After 3 months passive move- A. heparin
ments limitation in extend was observed.
B. complement proteins
Limitation was a result of scar formation.
What inflammatory component was a ba- C. histamine
sis of this complication? D. platelets
A. Secondary alteration
111. Causes of chronic inflammation
B. Exudation
A. Persistent infection
C. Tissue hyperplasia
B. Hypersensitivity diseases
D. Proliferation
C. Prolonged exposure to potentially
E. Primary alteration toxic agent
106. What is the primary cell involved in D. Tissue necrosis
wound healing?
112. Autoimmune disease denotes
A. Fibroblast
A. Overreacts with antigen
B. Lymphoblast
B. Failure of self from non-self tissues
C. Trophoblast
C. Inappropriate immune response
D. Myoblast
D. none of above
107. Yikes forgot to ask earlier what is
113. What is the inflammation inside the eye
the first test for anemia?
called?
A. hemoglobin
A. Endophthalpetriosis
B. hematocrit
B. Endophthalmitritis
C. spinal tap C. Endophthalmitis
D. MRI D. Enterimologiphitis
108. These mechanisms cause body tempera- 114. A clot that has occured in an unbroken (in-
ture to increase during a fever tact) blood vessel is a bad thing and called
A. vasoconstriction a
B. vasodilation A. hematoma

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1.3 Inflammation 201

B. thrombus 120. At the beginning of a fever, does a per-

C. scab son typically “feel” cold or warm?

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A. cold
D. platelet plug
B. warm
115. Pus (dead tissue, pathogens and neu-
C. neither
trophils) that is surrounded by fibrosis
D. none of above
A. Thrombocytopenia
B. Abcess 121. What component of blood is involved in
clotting?
C. Septicemia
A. erythrocytes
D. hematoma
B. leukocytes
116. Lymphohistocytic inflammation C. thrombocytes (platelets)
A. Has a low number of lymphocytes and D. phagocytes
macrophages
122. what is haemostasis?
B. Has a low number of plasma cells
A. loss of blood
C. Is seen in the early stages of chronic
B. growth of blood vessels
inflammation especially in response to
viruses C. steady state during cellular inflamma-
tion
D. Makes up langhan’s giant cells
D. The control of blood loss
117. An immune response is triggered by a(an)
123. Which of the condition below healing pro-
A. antibiotic. cess is regeneration
B. antibody. A. Heart muscle after a myocardial in-
C. antigen. farct
D. histamine. B. Liver with an abcess
C. Liver after hepatectomy
118. Granulation tissue consist of
D. All of the above
A. aggregates of epithelioid histiocytes
124. What is the body’s first line of defense
B. proliferation of new blood vessels and
against infection by foreign organisms?
fibroblast
A. antibodies
C. cellular debris and fibrin
B. lymph nodes
D. oedema and lymphoplasmacytic cells
C. white blood cells
119. Review:hemoglobin must have to D. the skin
carry oxygen
125. What should the nurse teach a patient
A. calcium
with chronic pancreatitis is the time to
B. sodium take the prescribed pancrelipase?
C. iron A. bedtime
D. potassium B. mealtime

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1.3 Inflammation 202

C. for increasing pain C. pain

D. only if nauseated D. bleeding

126. What risk factor will the nurse specifi- 132. Which of the following substances are in-
cally ask about when a patient is being ad- volved in tissue repair
mitted with acute pancreatitis? A. PDGF
A. diabetes mellitus B. TGF-β
B. alcohol use

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. MGF
C. high protein diet D. EDTF
D. cigarette smoking E. FGF
127. Which of the following describes an over
133. What is the difference between
exaggerated immune response?
Dacryoadenitis and Dacryocystitis?
A. allergies
A. First is the inflammation of the eyelid
B. autoimmune while the latter is the inflammation of the
C. inflammation sclera

D. none of above B. They both are the same.

C. First is the inflammation of the
128. Factor that delays wound healing lacrimal gland while the latter is the in-
A. Corticosteroid therapy flammation of the lacrimal sac.
B. poor nutritional status D. The first is chronic while the other is
C. Diabetes mellitus acute.

D. hyperthyroid 134. What is the inflammation of the cornea

called?
129. What is the least common leukocyte?
A. corneitis
A. neutrophils
B. corneatis
B. lymphocytes
C. keratitis
C. monocytes
D. kelpatitis
D. basophils
135. What is the inflammation of the iris
130. Foreign body granuloma can be caused by called? (Choose all that apply)
A. talc A. Endophthalmitis
B. sutures B. Iritis
C. keratin flake C. Optic Scleritis
D. All of the above D. Anternal Uveitis
131. which of the following is NOT one of the 136. Which of the following receptors does not
signs of inflammation? activate a primary pro-inflammatory path-
A. redness (erythema) way?
B. heat A. TLR

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1.3 Inflammation 203

B. IL-1R C. Morphology
C. IL-6R D. clinical consequences

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D. All of the above activate the primary 142. The process where leukocytes engulf and
pro-inflammatory pathway digest bacteria
137. Name the process a cell such as a neu- A. leukocytosis
trophil or a macrophage uses to ingest B. pathogenesis
(eat) its prey.
C. hydrostatic pressure
A. Phagocytes
D. phagocytosis
B. Phagosome
C. Phagolysosome 143. Review:where is hemoglobin found?
D. Phagocytosis A. erythrocytes
B. leukocytes
138. Which BAS are formed from arachidonic
acid? C. thrombocytes
A. Kinins D. plasma
B. Prostaglandins 144. Body temperature of patient is pyretic;
C. Leukotriens his skin is hot and red. What was the
correlation between processes of heat pro-
D. Histamine
duction and heat loss in described stage of
E. Thromboxane fever?
139. When tissue has been damaged and neu- A. Heat loss is equal heat production
tralised during tissue destruction this re- B. Heat loss is more then heat production
sults in
C. Heat loss is less then heat production
A. Resolution
D. Heat production is less then heat loss
B. The organisation by phagocytosis and
granulation tissue formation 145. Condition of biological active substances
(BAS) prevalence over there inhibitors usu-
C. Chronic inflammation
ally occurs in inflammation. Indicate cor-
D. Healing by repair rect correspondence of BAS to their in-
hibitor
140. Pus (dead tissue, pathogens and neu-
trophils) that is trapped in a collagen sac A. Histamine-carboxypeptidase
A. Thrombocytopenia B. Catecholamines-cholinesterase
B. Abcess C. Kinins-monoaminooxidase
C. Septicemia D. Leukotriens-arylsulfatase
D. hematoma E. Serotonin-protease inhibitor

141. Which aspect of Pathology deals with the 146. What factor promotes proliferation in fo-
underlying causes of disease? cus of chronic inflammation?
A. Pathogenesis A. Hyperoxia
B. Aetiology B. Hyperosmia

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1.3 Inflammation 204

C. Hypoxia 152. Fever can result in death, especially if

D. Protein catabolism body temperature exceeds

E. Prostacyclin synthesis A. 44C

B. 37C
147. Which of the following comes after de-
C. 41C
position of extracellular matrix, during
wound healing? D. 45C
A. Angiogenesis 153. Which of aspects of Pathology that deals

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Tissue remodelling with the gross or microscopic appearance
of cells?
C. Wound contraction
A. Morphology
D. Formation of granulation tissue
B. Aetiology
148. The body’s nonspecific defenses against
C. Clinical consequences
invading pathogens include
D. Pathogenesis
A. antibiotics.
B. mucus, sweat and tears. 154. What is the term used to describe white
blood cells migrating toward bacteria?
C. antibodies.
A. zeiosis
D. Killer T cells.
B. phagocytosis
149. Which homeostatic mechanism is heavily C. chemotaxis
involved in fever?
D. phototaxis
A. Themoregulation
B. Osmoregulation 155. A patient has peptic ulcer disease that
has been associated with Helicobacter py-
C. Chemoregulation lori. About which medications will the
D. Glucose regulation nurse plan to teach the patient?
A. 1 PPI, 1 H2 blocker, & 1 antacid
150. In which conditions is the inflammatory
response present? Select all that apply. B. 1 antibiotic, 1 PPI, bismuth
A. Sprain injuries to joints C. 2 anti-acid meds, 1 antibiotic
B. Appendicitis D. 2 antibiotics, 1 PPI
C. Hypothyroidism 156. which of the following is a lesion
D. Myocardial infarction A. boil
E. Allergic rhinitis B. burn
151. A localized spherical lesion filled with pus C. cut
and pyogenic bacteria describes D. all
A. cellulitis 157. What is the name of macrophages resid-
B. a pressure sore ing in the bone?
C. gangrene A. Osteoclasts
D. an abscess B. Kupffer cells

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1.3 Inflammation 205

C. Histiocytes 162. Which of the following best describes

D. Microglia margination?

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A. Phagocytes drop to the outer edge of
158. Which information about dietary manage-
a blood vessels
ment should the nurse include when teach-
ing a patient with a duodenal ulcer? B. Phagocytes roll along the outer edge
of the blood vessel
A. “You will need to remain on a bland
diet.” C. Phagocytes attach to the outer edge of
B. “Avoid foods that cause pain after you the blood vessel
eat them.” D. Phagocytes move through the outer
C. “High-protein foods are least likely to edge of the blood vessel
cause pain.”
163. What is the inflammation of retina
D. “You should avoid eating any raw fruits called?
and vegetables.”
A. retinitis
159. Patient has a caries complicated with pul- B. retinatis
pitis. This condition is accompanied by un-
bearable pain. What is the main factor of C. retal uveitis
pain appearing? D. glomeruloretinitis
A. High pressure of the fluid in inflamma-
tory area 164. Disease characterised by granulomatous
inflammation
B. Bradykinin
A. bronchopneumonia
C. Histamine
B. acute appendicitis
D. Serotonin
C. myocardial infarction
E. Prostaglandins
D. Chronic duodenal ulcer
160. When you receive a vaccine you produce
antigens against the disease. E. Sarcoidosis
A. true 165. What is the inflammation of the sclera
B. false, antibodies called?
C. false, immunity A. scleritis
D. false, interferons B. scleratis
161. A painful blisters full of opaque fluid C. scloriotitis
has formed in patient after thermal D. Ma ‘ye ‘urts like ‘ell! Someone call the
burn. What type of inflammation has ap- ambulance
peared?
A. Granulomatous 166. Disease causing microorganisms
B. Blisterous A. pathogens
C. Serous B. bacteria
D. Proliferative C. microbes
E. Diphtheritic D. monocytes

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 1.4 Healing and Repair 206

1.4 Healing and Repair

1. Carry blood clotting materials C. Rejuvenation
A. Platelets D. Regeneration
B. fibroblasts
7. As tissue continues to heal, scar tissue is
C. leukocytes put down. How long does it take for the
D. none of above tissue to return to “normal” after an in-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
jury?
2. How long does the final phase of the heal-
A. 6 weeks
ing process take?
B. 8 weeks
A. Can last up 3 weeks
C. 9 months
B. Can last up to 4-6 weeks
C. Can last up to 1 to 2 years D. 1-2 years

D. None of the Above 8. What are the roles of histamines?

3. how many phases involved in wound heal- A. Regulates leukocyte traffic

ing? B. Causes vasodilation
A. 2 C. Increased cell permeability
B. 3 D. Helps attract phagocytes to area of in-
C. 4 flammation.
D. 5 9. Phase lasts from 48 to 72 hours
4. Which is not a goal of the acute inflamma- A. acute phase
tory phase? B. subacute phase
A. protect
C. remodeling phase
B. localize
D. none of above
C. repair
10. increasing functional mobility is a goal that
D. prepare for healing
can already be applied to the phase
5. What is the suffix that tells you a condi- A. acute
tion is chronic?
B. subacute
A. -itis
C. chronic
B. -ologist
D. proliferation
C. -ology
D. -erous 11. Scar tissue is mostly composed of:
A. Collagen fibers
6. All of the following are phases that occur
in phase II of the healing process EXCEPT: B. Epithelial tissue
A. Resolution C. fibroblasts
B. Repair D. neutrophils

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1.4 Healing and Repair 207

12. What causes most broken bones? C. Cartilage

A. Too little blood flow to the bone. D. Muscle

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B. Too much stress placed on a bone.
18. Capillary buds start to connect to existing
C. A muscle or tendon detaching from a vessels
bone.
A. acute phase
D. A lack of marrow inside a bone.
B. subacute phase
13. How long does the acute inflammatory C. remodeling phase
phase last?
D. none of above
A. 2 days
B. 12 hours 19. What is the first step in the cranioplasty?
C. 3 weeks A. Analyze the fracture (take pic-
tures);Add glitter
D. 6 weeks
B. Place nylon mesh around fracture and
14. The first step in bone healing is the forma- cut out shapes
tion of a blood-filled swelling called a(n)
C. Apply spackling over the aluminum
A. Hematoma mesh and the nylon mesh
B. Bony Callus D. Secure nylon mesh with screws
C. Fibrocartilage Callus
20. this muscle will experience the slowest re-
D. Epiphyseal Line covery due to the large amount of blood
flow
15. When would you begin mobility exer-
cises? A. slow twitch
A. day 3 B. fast twitch tipe A
B. day 8 C. fast twitch tipe B
C. day 10 D. muscles with Type 1 fibers
D. none of above
21. Controlled motion is used
16. A wearing down of hyaline cartilage in the A. acute phase
joint that most often affects weight bear-
ing joints is what? B. subacute phase

A. Tendonitis C. remodeling phase

B. Subluxation D. none of above

C. Abrasion 22. What cells are responsible for fighting off
D. Osteoarthritis infection in phase I?
A. Leukocytes
17. Which of the following tissues has the
poorest healing response? B. Platelets
A. Bone C. Osteoblasts
B. Tendon/Ligament D. Phagocytes

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1.4 Healing and Repair 208

23. Which of the following types of fractures B. Function

has the greatest chance of not healing C. Color
properly?
D. Shape
A. A greenstick fracture
B. A stress fracture 29. For healing by first intention the wound
should be:
C. A compound fracture with an infection
at the site of the break A. Clean

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. A closed fracture B. Covered by inflammatory cells
C. Large
24. repair and regeneration phase is also
called: D. Unapproximated
A. acute phase 30. Which of the following is NOT a factor to
B. sub acute phase affect bone growth?
C. remodeling phase A. Stress
D. none of above B. Vitamin D
C. Growth Hormone
25. The only tissue in the body that does not
heal with “scar tissue” is: D. Insulin
A. Bone 31. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS DEFINI-
B. muscle TION OF HEALING
C. skin A. Regrowth of tissue that is identical to
the lost
D. ligament
B. Restoration of the damage tissue by
26. Among these tissues that will experience original tissue
the wound healing process the longest due
C. The restoration of integrity to injured
to the blood flow factor
tissue
A. muscle
D. a process of cure
B. bone
C. cartilage 32. A sprain/strain that results in impairment
of function and presents with noticeable
D. tendon swelling/bruising is classified as what
level of injury?
27. The Three Phases of Healing include the fol-
lowing EXCEPT: A. Grade 1
A. Remodeling phase B. Grade 2
B. Injury phase C. Grade 3
C. Inflammatory phase D. Grade 4
D. Repair phase 33. In the acute inflammatory phase, the goal
28. Tissue repair and healing is the restoration of a physiotherapist is as follows
of normal & after an injury A. mobility
A. Structure B. protect

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1.4 Healing and Repair 209

C. decrease healing agent 39. Stress incurred by the body that may lead
D. prepare for movement to a wound, injury or condition

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A. trauma
34. (Past years questions) Content of granula-
tion tissues B. injury
A. Fibroblast C. ecchymosis
B. granuloma D. edema
C. smooth muscle walls 40. What are the three chemical mediators?
D. Thinned walls capillaries A. Leukocytes
E. Epithelial B. Leukotrienes
35. What takes place during the proliferative C. Cytokines
phase? D. Histamines
A. Collagen formation E. Phagocytes
B. Cleansing of the wound 41. (Past year question) Large open wound
C. Revascularization and rebuilding of tis- that is characterized by tissues loss and re-
sue paired by formation of granulation tissue
D. none of above in the floor of the wound is characteristic
of
36. How do you know you are moving into
A. secondary healing
phase 2 of the healing process?
B. primary healing
A. Swelling Decreases
C. resolution
B. Pain Decreases
D. regeneration
C. Range Motion Increases
D. All of the Above 42. healing doesn’t start until the area of in-
jury is that’s why we have
37. What happens immediately after a bone
A. inflammation
breaks?
B. Covered
A. The end of each piece of bone becomes
brittle and dies C. Cleaned
B. The bone begins producing new tissue D. Bandages
to bind the break
43. Which one is the correct steps in repair by
C. Marrow from inside the bone begins scar formation
leaking into the break
A. clot, inflammation, proliferation of ep-
D. Nothing happens, so the bone has to ithelial cells, formation of granulation,
be glued together by the doctor proliferating fibroblast, remodeling
38. scar tissue is formed: B. inflammation, clot, proliferating fibrob-
A. acute phase last, proliferation of epithelial cells, for-
mation of granulation, remodeling
B. subacute phase
C. Clot, formation of granulation, inflam-
C. remodeling phase mation, proliferation of epithelial cells,
D. none of above proliferating fibroblast, remodeling

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1.4 Healing and Repair 210

D. none of above 49. A force that, with enough energy crushes

tissue is called
44. A tension force applied to the muscle can
result in what injury? A. Compression

A. Sprain B. Shear

B. Contusion C. Tension

C. Strain D. Bending

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Torque 50. How long does the proliferation/repair
phase last?
45. The fibrous scar is but it provides
A. 2 days
A. Normal
B. 6 weeks to 3 months
B. Not normal
C. 8 weeks
C. Structural stability
D. 12 monhts
D. Functional ability
51. Why do doctors use casts to repair broken
46. Which of the following is the most common
bones?
site(s) for osteoarthritis?
A. Medicine inside the cast helps the
A. Knee
bones heal
B. Hip
B. The cast immobilizes the bone so they
C. Lumbar Spine mend properly
D. All the Above C. The cast gives patients a greater
range of mobility
47. A female patient is brought to the emer-
gency room with an injury to her lower leg D. The cast prevents other bones from
from an ATV accident. You notice a white breaking
tip of a bone protruding through the skin
as you cut her pant leg off. Her injury is 52. What are the 3 phases of inflammation?
described as what kind of fracture. A. Inflammatory Response, Repair, Re-
A. Comminuted model

B. Pathologic B. Repair, Remodel, Regenerate

C. Compound C. Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation

D. Stress D. Red, Heat, Swelling

48. What is the primary focus in Phase 2 of 53. Factors that may impede the healing pro-
the Healing Process? cess include the following EXCEPT:
A. Sport Specific drills A. Health, Age, Nutrition
B. Repairing the tissue B. Edema
C. Remodeling the tissue C. Hypertrophy
D. Return to play D. Extent of injury

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1.4 Healing and Repair 211

54. The Remodeling Phase follows which prin- 60. what is the predominant cell types in late
ciple? inflammation?

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A. The Overload Principle A. platelet
B. Wolff’s Law B. neutrophil
C. Newton’s First Law C. macrophage
D. Murphy’s Law D. antibody

55. The immediate response of vascular reac- 61. Which chemical mediator regulates the
tion is what? white blood cells once they arrive at the
injury site
A. Vasodilation
A. histamine
B. Vasoconstriction
B. luekotrienes
C. Releasing thromboplastin
C. cytokines
D. Converting prothrombin to thrombin.
D. none of above
56. collagen is:
62. Blood vessels at edge of wound develop
A. Different from the original tissue but small buds and sprout into wound area
does the job and join together to form capillary loops
B. nothing like the orginal tissue in what phase?
C. Just as strong as the original tissue A. Inflammatory
D. Superior to the original tissue B. Proliferative

57. Which chemical mediator causes the blood C. Maturation

vessels to get bigger? D. none of above
A. cytokines 63. A 2nd degree injury would have the fol-
B. leukotrines lowing signs and symptoms:
C. histamine A. Partially torn tissue with moderate
pain and swelling
D. none of above
B. Complete rupture of the ligament and
58. Tendons connect what structures? loss of integrity
A. Bone-to-bone C. Minor loss of function and minor
B. Bone-to-ligament swelling
C. Bone-to-muscle D. Micro tears in the ligament and some
pain
D. Muscle-to-muscle
64. Which of the following laws states the
59. Will affect tissue repairs
bone adapts to the stress and load that
A. increased local pressure is placed on it and becomes stronger?
B. Macrophage-lymphocyte interactions A. Julius’s Law
C. dying-off macrophages B. Wolff’s Law
D. arteriosclerosis C. Spurgeon’s Law
E. inflammation in tissue space D. Julian’s Law

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1.4 Healing and Repair 212

65. Adhesions are: 70. The things that affect the wound healing
A. Overgrowth of scar tissue which tend process are as follows, except
to limit motion A. Nutrition
B. Links in the collagen chains that in- B. Blood supply
crease strength of healing tissue C. Type of tissue injured
C. Blackages that form in damaged blood D. Non organic disorder
vessels that decrease blood loss

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Links formed by fibroblasts that an- 71. Which of the following lay down collagen
chor them to the tissue they are repairing at the site of injury?
A. Capillaries
66. Stretching beyond the YIELD POINT causes
a structure to tear or break is called B. Fibroblasts

A. Shear C. Phagocytes

B. Tension D. Kinins

C. Compression 72. The first step of scars formation is

D. Bending A. clot formation

67. The five signs of inflammation are: B. Inflammation

A. Heat, redness, swelling, pain, loss of C. Angiogenesis

function D. Connective tissue remodeling
B. Heat, redness, swelling, effusion, pain 73. Identify one symptom that indicates that
C. Heat, redness, loss of function, pain, the athletes is in phase one of tissue heal-
discoloration ing.
D. Heat, Swelling, discoloration, effusion, A. Discoloration
pain B. Pain
68. The repair/proliferation phase lasts for C. Swelling
about D. Loss of Motion
A. 1-3 weeks
74. Type I collagen is mostly present in:
B. 6-8 weeks
A. Blood vessels
C. 18-24 weeks
B. Cartilage
D. none of above
C. Skeletal muscle
69. In reference to bone healing, which of the D. Skin
following is responsible for the absorption
of bone? 75. The fibroblastic repair phase begins when
A. Osteoblasts A. Signs and Symptoms are at their peak
B. Osteoclasts B. Signs and Symptoms just begin
C. Osteochondrial C. Signs and Symptoms Subside
D. Osteoplasts D. Immediately after the injury occurs

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1.4 Healing and Repair 213

76. The second step in bone healing is the for- B. clot formation
mation of a(n) C. Myofibroblast

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A. Hematoma D. Platelets
B. Bony Callus
82. Scar tissue forms:
C. Fibrocartilage Callus
A. As a normal part of healing
D. Epiphyseal Line
B. Only when an injury is not taken care
77. A joint twists that results in stretching or of properly
total tearing of ligaments is what?
C. In joints as a result of significant injury
A. Dislocation
D. when a significant injury is not cared
B. Strain for properly
C. Sprain
83. A painful involuntary contraction of a
D. Fracture skeletal muscle or muscle group as a result
from injury.
78. What are the three primary mechanical
forces that can cause an injury to occur? A. Spasm
A. Compression B. Strain
B. Tension C. Tendinitis
C. Shear D. Cramp
D. Bending 84. When does remodeling begin?
79. What are stages of broken bones? A. immediately
A. bone healing; rest; relaxation B. 3 weeks after the injury
B. inflammation, bone production and C. 8 weeks after the injury
bone remodeling D. 12 months after the injury
C. sleep;surgury;heal
85. What is the role of leukotrienes?
D. bone modeling; bruise;fracture
A. Regulates leukocyte traffic
80. Active bleeding into the skin area will
B. Responsible for maturation
increase metabolism which will result in
an increase in local temperature which is C. Increased cell permeability
called D. Helps attract phagocytes to area of in-
A. blush flammation.
B. pain 86. When healing from an external wound,
C. heat what phase of healing presents with a
scab formation?
D. tumor
A. Phase I
81. An action called occurs by cells that
have intermediate characteristic between B. Phase II
smooth muscles and fibroblast C. Phase III
A. Wound contraction D. Phase IV

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1.4 Healing and Repair 214

87. Inflammatory phase takes place in which 92. Which of the following complications is a
time frame? result of repeated blows from an external
A. Day 1-10 object to an area?
B. Day 3-9 A. Myositis Ossificans
C. Day 15-20 B. Neuristis
D. none of above C. DOMS
D. Crepitus
88. form scar tissue.

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. macrophages 93. Lack of an adequate amount of oxygen
supply to tissue
B. phagocytes
A. hypoxia
C. leukocytes
B. effusion
D. fibroblasts
C. hemorrhage
89. What is the process of bone remodeling?
D. inflammation
A. the bone resumes to form and be-
comes more dense, returning to its au- 94. Which of the following could slow down
thentic shape. In addition, blood circula- the healing process?
tion in the area enhances. A. Poor Blood Supply
B. it returns to the original shape as it B. Age of the Athlete
grows.
C. Severity of the Injury
C. a semi-solid tissue which may be
found within the spongy or cancellous por- D. All the Above
tions of bones. 95. Which of the following is the KEY to ten-
D. protect the various organs of the body, donitis treatment?
produce red and white blood cells, store A. Taking anti-inflammatory medicines
minerals, provide structure and support
for the body, and enable mobility. B. Rest by eliminating the irritation
C. Injections with a steroid
90. When does inflammation start?
D. Stretching
A. starts immediately after the bone is
fractured and lasts for several days. 96. The inflammatory phase that usually lasts
B. starts two days after the bone is frac- the longest is the:
tured and lasts about a week A. Remodeling phase
C. starts a day and ends the next B. acute phase
D. It doesn’t. You just die. C. subacute phase
91. in melcher’s postulate how many cells are D. repair and regeneration phase
involved in the race for the root surface?
97. Which of following are responsible for
A. 2 cleaning up “debris” in the phases of heal-
B. 3 ing?
C. 4 A. Leukocytes
D. 5 B. Phagocytes

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1.4 Healing and Repair 215

C. Platelets 103. Phase 3 usually begins around week

D. Fibroblasts A. 1

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98. Ligaments: B. 3
A. connect muscle to bone C. 6
B. pad the space between 2 bones D. 9
C. are pockets of fluid between muscle 104. (Past year question) The first event in pri-
and bone mary wound healing
D. connect 2 bones together A. Epithelial changes
99. One more step is acquired in the second B. Organization
healing intention process and it’s called C. formation of blood clot
A. Wound concentration D. deposition of connective tissue
B. Wound contraction
105. Cartilage:
C. Wound Vasodilation
A. connect muscle to bone
D. Wound inflammation
B. pad the space between 2 bones
100. How can older adults avoid osteoporo-
C. are pockets of fluid between muscle
sis?
and bone
A. By making sure they don’t put too
D. connect 2 bones together
much stress on their bones
B. By consuming plenty of calcium and vi- 106. maturation phase
tamin D A. acute phase
C. By avoiding all physical activity B. subacute phase
D. By consuming plenty of red meat C. remodeling phase
101. What causes the increase in heat at an D. none of above
injured site?
107. This cell proliferate and migrate into the
A. blood rushing to area and the chemical site of injury and lay down collagen fibers
mediators that come to the area. that form the scar
B. blood rushing to the area only A. Fibroblast
C. chemical mediators that come to the
B. Endothelial cells
area only
C. Epithelial cells
D. none of above
D. Vascular cells
102. Post-operative complications of wound
healing include the following, EXCEPT: 108. Bone breaks into many fragments.
A. Keloid formation A. Shattered Fracture
B. Development of Cancer B. Traction Fracture
C. Cicatrisation and Deformity C. Comminuted Fracture
D. Wound Rupture D. The Magic School Bus

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1.4 Healing and Repair 216

109. Which phase of healing last the longest? C. 2-4 months

A. acute inflammatory D. 2-4 years
B. proliferation
115. “Itis” means which of the following?
C. remodeling
A. Pain
D. none of above
B. Swelling
110. Which tissue takes the place of the scab
and is reddish/pink C. Inflammation

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. extra cellular matrix D. Loss of Motion
B. collagen
116. when is early inflammation phase sub-
C. granulation sided
D. fibrin A. few hours
111. A tension force applied to the ligaments B. 3 days
may result in what type of injury?
C. 7 days
A. Contusion
D. 10 days
B. Torque
C. Strain 117. In the extracellular matrix, the fibrob-
D. Sprain lasts lay tissue to capillaries
A. random fashion
112. (Past year questions)complication of in-
adequate granulation tissue formation in B. parallel
wound healing include:
C. baseketweave
A. keloid
D. none of above
B. wound ulceration
C. wound dehiscence 118. What is the process whereby the cells
D. wound contraction that are no longer needed as part of the
wound healing process are removed?
113. In proliferation, what is happening in re- A. Apoptosis
generation? Select all that apply.
B. Lymphoid removal
A. damaged tissue is replaced by cells of
the same type C. Necrosis
B. collagen is made D. Lymphosis
C. original tissue is replace with scar tis-
sue 119. Which Law states that tissue will adapt
to the load put on it?
D. damaged tissue is removed
A. Dog’s Law
114. How long does the Inflammatory Re-
sponse phase of healing last? B. Wolff’s Law
A. 2-4 days C. Newton’s Law
B. 2-4 weeks D. Johnson’s Law

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1.4 Healing and Repair 217

120. Temporary scare formation occurs in the 126. General factors predisposing to wound in-
stage. fection include all EXCEPT:

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A. 1 A. Eosinophilia
B. 2 B. Uncontrolled diabetes
C. 3 C. Granulocytopenia
D. 4 D. Poor perfusion

121. All of the following are signs/symptoms 127. Goal is to stabilize and contain area of
of phase I EXCEPT: injury
A. Swelling A. inflammatory phase
B. Increased Range of Motion B. proliferation/repair phase
C. Bruising/ Discoloration C. maturation/remodeling phase
D. Pain D. none of above

122. How long does phase 1 approximately 128. What is the purpose of capillaries grow-
last? ing into the wound

A. 1 day A. exchange oxygen and waste products

B. 2-4 days B. lay down the extra cellular matrix

C. build collagen
C. 3-6 days
D. stop blood flow to the area
D. 7 days
129. Factors that delay wound healing EXCEPT
123. Which one happen first
A. hyperthyroid
A. Maturation phase
B. corticosteroid therapy
B. Scar formation
C. poor nutritional status
C. Angiogenesis
D. diabetes mellitus
D. Covering the wound by epithelial cells
130. Which fracture is caused by a twist-
124. Vasodilation causes ing/torsion force?
A. Increase in blood flow A. Spiral Fracture
B. Decrease in Blood Flow B. Oblique Fracture
C. Constant Blood Flow C. Transverse Fracture
D. No Blood Flow at all D. Comminuted Fracture
125. What is the purpose of edema? Select all 131. What is the first thing your body does
that apply. when you break a bone?
A. dilute potential pathogens A. Bone formation
B. bring healing materials into the area B. Inflammation
C. cause pain C. Bone remodeling
D. protect the injury D. Begging of repair

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1.4 Healing and Repair 218

132. Ligaments and tendons typically take 137. What cell adheres to the wall of the in-
months to heal. jury to create a sticky plug
A. 3 A. platelets
B. 6
B. fibroblasts
C. 8
C. collagenocytes
D. 12
D. keratin
133. The goal of proliferation phase is to

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. bring healing proteins into the dam- 138. granulation tissue means that the skin is
aged tissue. and
B. removed damaged tissue. A. Soft
C. help new tissue start to align.
B. Pink
D. build strength to prevent reinjury.
C. Rigid
134. Which stage is responsible for removing
foreign debris and microorganisms D. colored

A. vascular reaction 139. How long does the Repair Phase typically
B. extra cellular matrix last?
C. fibrin clot A. 24 hrs-2 weeks
D. phagocytosis
B. 48 hrs-3 weeks
135. (Past years questions) A 45 years-old C. 3-6 weeks
man suffered from acute myocardial infarc-
tion involved 2x3 cm area of anterior ven- D. 6-8 weeks
tricular wall of his heart. He was treated
and later discharged from hospital. After 140. Replacement of damaged/dead cells due
a period of 1 month. What is the patho- to injury with the same type of cells is
logical finding that you most expect to see called
in his left ventricular?
A. repair
A. granulation tissue
B. Repair
B. coagulative necrosis
C. fibrous scar C. Regeneration
D. abscess D. Proliferation
E. complete resolution
141. What causes redness in the acute inflam-
136. when does the late inflmmation phase matory stage?
subsided?
A. ecchymosis
A. 3 days
B. edema
B. 7 days
C. 10 days C. increased blood flow
D. 1 month D. vasoconstriction

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1.4 Healing and Repair 219

142. During the repair/proliferation stage or C. They are useful in healing simple frac-
phase resolution occurs. What does this tures, but not of compound fractures
mean?

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D. They are rarely used when patients
A. dead cells and debris is used to form have broken bones
scar tissue
148. Inflammation of a fluid filled sac that can
B. dead cells and debris is removed be caused by overuse of muscles or ten-
C. dead cells and debris is isolated to one dons or external compression is what?
area A. Tendonitis
D. none of these describe resolution
B. Osteoarthritis
143. adhesions are formed: C. Chondromyolistis
A. acute phase D. Bursitis
B. subacute phase
149. Formation caused by pooling of blood and
C. remodeling phase fluid within a tissue space
D. none of above A. hypoxia
144. Inflammation phase B. hematoma
A. acute phase C. effusion
B. subacute phase D. inflammation
C. remodeling phase 150. A sprain or strain that involves total tear-
D. none of above ing of tissue is classified as a:
A. 1st degree
145. What is most important about phase 1?
B. 2nd degree
A. Protect and localize
C. 3rd degree
B. Begin scar formation
D. 4th degree
C. Synthesis of collagen
D. Scar tissue is replaced 151. A shearing force applied to the body may
cause what type(s) of injury?
146. During which stage of wound healing
A. Blister
does a blood clot form?
B. Stinger
A. Hemostasis
C. Laceration
B. Inflammatory
D. Abrasion
C. Proliferative
D. Remodeling 152. Which phase is responsible for fibrob-
lasts regenerating new tissue?
147. What can you infer about x-rays from the
information presented in the movie? A. Phase I

A. They help doctors identify the location B. Phase II

and severity of fractures C. Phase III
B. They help bones heal D. Phase IV

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1.4 Healing and Repair 220

153. The main goal of the remodeling phase is: B. Depth of wound
A. reduce swelling C. Metabolic status
B. use modalities D. skin site affected
C. strengthening of the repaired or re- E. Vascular supply
placed tissues to withstand stresses
159. signs of inflammation are present:
D. none of above
A. acute phase

NARAYAN CHANGDER
154. wound contraction occurs at about B. subacute phase
A. 3 days C. remodeling phase
B. 5 days D. none of above
C. 7 days
160. Why is a secondary wound preferred
D. 2 weeks over a primary wound?
155. Dispose of dead tissue, mobilize fibrob- A. The patient will have a cleaner scar.
lasts, and restore circulation B. It is not preferred.
A. inflammatory phase C. It is not easily infected.
B. Proliferation/repair Phase D. It has very few complications.
C. remodeling/maturation phase 161. In the movie, Tim says that kids’ bones
D. none of above are more pliable than adults’. What is the
best synonym for “pliable?
156. Compression and tension forces applied
together upon a structure is called A. hard

A. Shear B. small
C. brittle
B. MOI
D. flexible
C. Bending
D. Pseudo-force 162. Deliberate delayed wound closure
A. is intentional
157. How many types of healing do you
know? B. can be d/t dirt in wound, infection, ex-
cessive drainage
A. 1
C. allows wound to granulate and re-
B. 2
epithelialize on its own
C. 3
D. all of the above
D. 4
163. Respond to locally produce growth fac-
158. (Past year questions)A 29 year-old man tors and migrate over the wound to cover
receives a traumatic wound to his left arm. it
Which of the following is the most impor- A. Epithelial cells
tant factor that determines whether this
wound will heal by primary or secondary B. Endothelial cells
intention? C. Fibroblast
A. Apposition of edges D. Vascular Cells

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1.4 Healing and Repair 221

164. At what age bone density stabilizes? D. Tissue grows and heals according to
A. 14 the stresses placed upon it

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B. 15 169. Cuboidal epithelia is an example of
C. 16 A. Labile cells
D. 17 B. Stable cells
C. Permanent cells
165. Stabilize and re-establish the area
D. none of above
A. Remodeling/maturation Phase
B. inflammatory phase 170. Healing by first intention occurs if
C. repair/proliferation phase A. Clean cut
D. none of above B. Cut margins of the wound needs to be
closely apposed
166. Hypoxia is:
C. Cut margins of the wound are far away
A. The decrease in oxygen to a tissue or from each other
cell that may result in cell death
D. irregular cut
B. Cell death that occurs due to initial
trauma of an injury and lack of oxygen 171. Acute means:
C. A process that occurs in the subacute A. sudden onset
phase which increases blood flow to the B. nice looking
involved area
C. long duration
D. A process that occurs in the matura-
D. painful
tion phase that results in strengthening of
the newly formed tissue 172. What is bone healing?
167. List down the cardinal signs of inflamma- A. a proliferative physiological process in
tion. which the body facilities the repair of a
bone fracture
A. Red, Swelling, Pain, High function
B. restoration of health from an unbal-
B. Purple, loss of sensation, no pain
anced, diseased, damaged or unvitalized
C. loss of function, redness, pain, organism. The result of healing can be
swelling to cure to a health challenge, but one can
D. increased strength and motion grow without being cured or heal without
“a cure”.
168. Wolff’s Law states that: C. the repair of a skull vault defected by
A. Inflammation occurs in increments insertion of an object, is a well-known pro-
consistent to the stress that caused the cedure in modern neurosurgery
damage D. dive repeatedly and can become more
B. Each stage of inflammation will than one type of cell
progress independent of the previous
stage 173. The purpose of the remodeling phase is:

C. The inflammatory process is the A. decrease swelling

body’s normal response to injury B. reduce the AROM

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1.4 Healing and Repair 222

C. increase strength of repaired or re- 179. Factors that impede healing:

placed tissue A. Medication
D. none of above B. Acquired immune deficiency syndrome
174. What are the names of the stages C. Radiation therapy and chemotherapy
or phases of healing that tissues go D. All of the above
through?
A. acute inflammatory 180. how fast does the early inflammation
phase start following a cut on a skin?

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. repair/proliferation
A. immediately
C. remodeling
B. few seconds
D. maturation
C. few minutes
175. Hypoxia happens in this phase D. few hours
A. acute phase
181. The main goal for the repair/proliferation
B. sub acute phase phase is:
C. remodeling phase A. aligning of tissues
D. none of above B. reduce swelling
176. During which phase of the healing pro- C. introduce heat
cess does the body get ready for tissue D. none of above
repair with redness, heat, swelling, pain,
and loss of function? 182. An inflammation or irritation of the struc-
ture caused over a longer period of time
A. Inflammatory response
by the wearing away of a structure or re-
B. Proliferative-Repair response peated acute injuries.
C. Maturation-Remodeling A. Spasm
D. Fibroblastic Repair B. Strain
177. Cleaning up cell debris mainly occurs in C. Tendinitis
the: D. Cramp
A. Repair and regeneration phase
183. Localized protective process that occurs
B. Inflammation phase when tissues are subjected to chemical or
C. Maturation phase physical trauma; pain, heat, redness, and
swelling occur
D. Macrophagic phase
A. inflammation
178. Which of these hormones promotes de- B. hypoxia
position of new bone minerals by os-
teoblasts? C. contusion
A. Calcitriol D. apoxia
B. Calcitonin 184. A primary wound is also known as
C. Parathyroid Hormone A. an abrasion.
D. Vitamin D B. a laceration.

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1.4 Healing and Repair 223

C. a surgical insicion. 190. The purpose of connective tissue remod-

D. a burn. eling is
A. To make the scar stronger

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185. Injury resulting from a direct blow or B. To make the scar smaller
force that does not interrupt the skin; typ-
ically bruising is seen C. To make the scar functional
D. none of above
A. contusion
B. sprain 191. An injury that develops over an extended
period of time is a(n):
C. strain
A. chronic injury
D. laceration
B. acute injury
186. Which is not a phase of the healing pro- C. definition of inflammaiton
cess D. An injury that cannot be healed
A. Maturation/Remodeling through the normal steps of inflammation
B. Acute Inflammatory Response 192. These ulcers failed to heal because of
poor delivery of oxygen to the site of the
C. Fibroblastic Repair
ulcer
D. Chronic Inflammatory A. Diabetic ulcer
187. Skeletal muscle and bone both require B. Venous leg ulcer
weeks to heal. C. arterial ulcer
A. 2 to 3 D. none of above
B. 3 to 4 193. Which of these are signs of an acute in-
C. 6 to 8 flammatory response?
D. none of above A. Redness
B. Loss of function
188. Maturation Phase takes place from C. Decreased temperature
A. Day 60-120 D. Numbness
B. Day 60 onward and may take years
194. Scar tissue is formed during which phase
C. Day 9-60 of wound healing?
D. Day 9 onward and may continue for A. Inflammatory
years B. Proliferative
189. A painful involuntary contraction of a C. Remodeling
skeletal muscle or muscle group caused by D. Haemostasis
dehydration or nervous response.
195. What is phase 1 of the healing process?
A. Spasm A. Repair
B. Strain B. inflammatory
C. Tendinitis C. Remodeling
D. Cramp D. Maturation

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1.4 Healing and Repair 224

196. Forms tissues that support and bind 202. These cells regenerate but with limits,
A. fibroblast like liver

B. platelets A. Labile cells

C. leukocytes B. Stable cells

D. none of above C. Permanent cells

D. none of above
197. Pain is caused by:

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. nerve fibers ripping in half 203. The wound healing process consists of
several phases, the phase in which there
B. Pain receptors are triggered by initial
is hemodynamic change is
trauma
A. Bleeding
C. Both nerve fibers ripping in half and
pain receptors are triggered by trauma B. inflammation
D. Chemicals are released in the area due C. proliferation
to trauma
D. remodeling
198. Ligaments connect what structures?
204. Inflammation is:
A. Bone-to-bone
A. The body’s normal response to injury
B. Bone-to-ligament that encourages proper healing
C. Bone-to-muscle B. A process that occurs when injury hap-
D. Muscle-to-muscle pens that interferes with the body’s ability
to heal properly
199. The Inflammatory Phase is characterized
C. Synonymous with swelling
by which of the following physical signs?
A. Pain D. both swelling and what occurs when in-
jury interferes with the body’s ability to
B. Swelling heal properly.
C. Increase of function
205. Which phase removes debris?
D. Heat
A. acute inflammatory
200. may last up to a year B. proliferation/repair
A. acute phase
C. remodel
B. subacute phase
D. none of above
C. remodeling phase
206. During which stage of wound healing
D. none of above
does the tissue begin to gain strength and
201. Tissues that start to be regenerated flexibly?
A. acute phase A. Remodelling/maturation
B. subacute phase B. Hemostasis
C. remodeling phase C. Inflammatory
D. none of above D. Proliferative

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1.4 Healing and Repair 225

207. Initial Phase of tissue healing 212. (Past year)Regarding granulation tissue
A. Inflammatory A. Occurs within 24 hours of wound heal-

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B. Proliferative ing

C. Maturation B. Excessive amount causes contrac-

tures
D. Remodeling
C. Has increased vascular permeability
208. The acute phase of inflammation usually D. Consists of proliferating smooth mus-
lasts about: cle cells
A. 2 days E. Hallmark of wound healing
B. 2 weeks
213. Which of the following “cells’ are respon-
C. 2 hours sible for clotting the blood following an in-
D. 2 years jury?
A. Leukocytes
209. The new collagen which is quickly pro-
duced by young fibroblasts to form gran- B. Platelets
ulation tissue is which type? C. Fibroblasts
A. Type 1 D. Phagocytes
B. Type 11
214. Redness, pain, warmth, effusion/edema,
C. Type 111 lack of function/immobility
D. All of the above A. symptoms of inflammation
210. what is the desired type of healing in pe- B. symptoms of repair phase
riodontal wound? C. symptoms of remodeling phase
A. Junctional epithelium D. none of above
B. periodontal ligament
215. Joint has minor loss of function and minor
C. alveolar bone
swelling. What degree of injury is it?
D. cementum
A. 1st
E. new attachment
B. 2nd
211. (Past years questions) granulation tis- C. 3rd
sues
D. 4th
A. contain capillaries
216. Restrengthening of the wound with con-
B. contain fibroblasts
nective tissue occurs in
C. usually contain caseous necrosis at
A. Inflammatory phase
center
B. Proliferative Phase
D. form after two weeks of injury
C. Maturation Phase
E. formation is common in all types of in-
jury D. none of above

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1.4 Healing and Repair 226

217. (Past years question) Regarding tissue 222. For the cell to undergo regeneration it has
repair to have two main conditions
A. Myocardial injury heals by scarring A. Injury is mild
B. Fibrosis occurs in chronic inflamma- B. Injury is severe
tion C. Underlying basement membrane is in-
C. Tissue remodelling involves angiogen- jured
esis D. Underlying basement membrane is in-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Granulation tissues hallmark of heal- tact
ing 223. Healing by second intention occurs in
E. Regeneration requires intact tissues A. un-infected wounds
scaffold
B. Limited tissue loss
218. Platelets are responsible for C. Infection
A. carrying blood clotting materials D. Massive tissue loss
B. carrying white blood cells 224. If you are to aggressive with rehab dur-
C. carrying phagocytes ing the first 48 hours the process will
not be able to complete its process.
D. carrying macrophages
A. inflammatory
219. These cells proliferate to form a new
B. repair
blood vessels, and this process called
C. remodeling
A. Endothelial cells, vascular cells
D. maturation
B. Fibroblast
225. What is the main objective of the repair
C. Angiogenesis
phase?
D. erythropoiesis
A. reduce edema and inflammation
220. A force that moves parallel with the tis- B. begin building new fibers
sue is called C. calm the nerves down so pain is less
A. Bending D. strengthens tissue to prevent reinjury
B. Compression
226. Vasoconstriction occurs during the first
C. Tension stage at
D. Shear A. 5-10 minutes

221. A complete separation between two B. 10-20 minutes

bones and a deformity is almost always C. 2-30 minutes
visible is what? D. 1 hour
A. Subluxation
227. A Pinched Nerve
B. Dislocation
A. Will never be fixed
C. Laceration B. Is usually a result of swelling of an-
D. Sprain other structure

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1.4 Healing and Repair 227

C. Means loss of function and sensation C. remodeling phase

above the nerve
D. none of above

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D. Requires surgery always
234. Swelling within the joint cavity
228. What is an other term for swelling?
A. edema
A. Ecchymosis
B. Erythema B. effusion
C. Edema C. contusion
D. Contusion D. hypoxia

229. Which protein forms the scab at the end 235. What might cause a stress fracture?
of the acute inflammatory response Choose the best answer.
A. collagen A. A sudden fall from a tree
B. keratin
B. A heavy object landing on your feet
C. fibrin
C. Too much physical activity over a long
D. granulation tissue period of time
230. How long does the Inflammatory Phase D. Being involved in the car accident
last?
A. 1-2 days 236. Initial Damage and primary cell death
B. 2-4 days A. acute phase
C. 3-6 days B. subacute phase
D. 4-8 days C. remodeling phase
231. Injury immediately begins which phase of D. none of above
healing
A. maturation 237. During which stage of wound healing
does the immune system clear out bacte-
B. fibroblastic repair ria and debris via phagocytosis?
C. acute inflammatory response A. Hemostasis
D. none of above
B. Proliferative
232. phase lasts 3-4 weeks C. Inflammatory
A. acute phase
D. Remodelling/maturation
B. subacute phase
C. remodeling phase 238. How many stages are involved in tissue
healing?
D. none of above
A. 1
233. Fibroblasts begin the process of regener-
ation B. 2
A. acute phase C. 3
B. sub acute phase D. 4

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1.4 Healing and Repair 228

239. what is the predominant cell types in D. While running track, an athlete trips on
early inflammation? a hurdle, lands on the out stretched hand
A. platelet and brakes the ulna and radius

B. neutrophils 244. What does macrophages do

C. macrophages A. produce cytokines
D. plasma B. Produce new cells
C. Endocytosis

NARAYAN CHANGDER
240. What physiological changes cause the in-
flammatory signs to occur? D. Produce growth factors
A. Chemical signal from damaged tissue 245. Another important healing factor for lig-
B. Vasodilation aments and tendons is that they require a
C. Increase in protein presence large amount of to be laid down.

D. Offending agents allowed to spread A. scar tissue

B. collagen
241. Blood vessels vasodilate causing
swelling C. blood clots

A. acute phase D. fibroblasts

B. subacute phase 246. Bursa:

C. remodeling phase A. connect muscle to bone
D. none of above B. pad the space between 2 bones

242. The first phase of healing is known as the C. are pockets of fluid between muscle
and bone
A. proliferation phase.
D. connect 2 bones together
B. remodeling phase.
C. hemostatic phase. 247. The 5 cardinal signs of inflammation are

D. acute inflammatory phase.

A. Redness, deformity, swelling, heat,
243. an example of a chronic injury is: acute
A. A novice tennis player is practicing his B. Redness, swelling, heat, pain, loss of
backhand for a whole practice and wakes function
up the next morning with pain and stiff- C. Bruising, bleeding. loss of function,
ness in the elbow heat, redness
B. While playing basketball, a player D. none of above
jumps up for a rebound, comes down on
someones foot, and encounters pain and 248. Capillaries in connective tissue remodel-
swelling on the lateral side of the ankle ing
C. While playing football, a player cleats A. Undergo atrophy
get caught in the grass as he is rotating. B. undergo hypertrophy
He has some pain but continues to play but
notices some catching and popping in the C. it disappears
knee D. Stays as blood supply

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1.4 Healing and Repair 229

249. The medical term for scar formation is: 255. which of the following tissue is consid-
A. collogenesis ered as new attachment tissue?

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B. parallel genesis A. Junctional epithelium

C. fibroplasia B. periodontal ligament

D. neuroplasia C. alveolar bone
D. cementum
250. What are the roles of cytokines?
A. Regulates leukocyte traffic 256. What happens when the bone is frac-
B. Causes vasodilation tured?
C. Responsible for maturation A. a lot of bleeding surrounding the area.
D. Helps attract phagocytes to area of in- B. internal bleeding
flammation. C. the brain is damaged
251. cellular debris are cleaned up: D. damages nerve cells and soon shuts
A. acute phase down brain and then your heart stop and
then your family tries to save you but they
B. subacute phase were too late and you die.
C. remodling phase
257. Tendons:
D. none of above
A. connect muscle to bone
252. What is the primary purpose of Phase 3
in the Healing process? B. pad the space between 2 bones

A. Regaining range of motion (ROM) C. are pockets of fluid between muscle

and bone
B. Increasing blood flow
D. connect 2 bones together
C. Strengthen of new tissue
D. Controlling swelling 258. how fast would it takes for a complete
reepithelization of JE following a root sur-
253. At what point after an injury would you face debridement?
expect to see edema?
A. 1 week
A. immediately
B. 2 weeks
B. within 5 minutes
C. 1 month
C. within the first 10 minutes
D. 2 months
D. 30 minutes of longer after the injury

254. Remodeling is underway as long as scar 259. A complete rupture occurs as a result of
is “what” than normal? a:

A. Darker A. 3rd degree injury

B. Rosier B. 2nd degree injury
C. Prettier C. 1st degree injury
D. none of above D. 4th degree injury

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1.4 Healing and Repair 230

260. (Past year questions) Tissue regenera- 265. What are the stages of bone healing? Se-
tion requires lect all correct answer choices
A. presence of stem cells A. the inflammatory phase/fracture
B. ability cells to divide hematoma formation
C. proliferation of fibroblasts B. repairing phase/ reparative phase
D. removal of infectious foci
C. bone remodeling
E. degradation of extracellular matrix

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. internal fixation
261. what is the tissue/process responsible
for the most reduction in probing pocket 266. Discoloration/bruising caused by hemor-
depth after root debridement? rhageI
A. new attachment
A. contusion
B. periodontal ligament
B. Ecchymosis
C. gingival shrinkage
D. long JE C. edema

262. What is the major difference between a D. effusion

closed fracture and an open fracture?
267. Tissue swelling caused by increased lev-
A. In a closed fracture, the bone doesn’t
els of intracellular fluid
break the skin; in an open fracture, it
does. A. edema
B. In a closed fracture, the bone breaks B. effusion
all the way through; in an open fracture, it
doesn’t C. hematoma
C. In a closed fracture, the bone breaks D. hemorrhage
the skin; in an open fracture, it doesn’t
D. In a closed fracture, the bone doesn’t 268. The subacute phase usually lasts about:
breaks all the way through; in an open
A. 4 weeks
fracture, it does
B. 6 weeks
263. What is the first stage of wound healing
called? C. 8 weeks
A. Proliferative D. 1 year
B. Remodelling/maturation
C. Hemostasis 269. At the begininng of the second phase the
area has been filled with needed to re-
D. Inflammatory
build the injury.
264. wolffs law is incorporated in:
A. blood
A. acute phase
B. chemicals
B. subacute phase
C. remodeling phase C. blood, cells, and chemicals
D. none of above D. none of above

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 1.5 Immune response 231

270. When does bone production occur? 271. The remodeling phase take approxi-
A. occurs when coagulated blood formed mately:
by inflammation is replaced by fibrous tis-

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A. 2 weeks
sues and soft callus. As the healing contin-
ues, the soft callus is replaced with hard B. 6 weeks
callus. C. 1 year or longer
B. is removed to access the brain under-
D. none of above
neath.
C. neurosurgical procedure in which part 272. are the central players in the repair
of the skull is removed to allow a swelling process
brain room to expand without being
squeezed. A. Macrophages
D. bony structure that forms the head in B. Mast cells
vertebrates. It supports the structures of
C. fibroblast
the face and provides a protective cavity
for the brain. D. Epithelial cells

1.5 Immune response

1. B cell’s job. D. Large phagocytic cells which mature
A. identify and distinguish pathogens from monocytes

B. produce chemicals to destroy 4. What is a preparation of dead or weak-

pathogens ened pathogens that is introduced into the
C. bake a new recipe for the family body to cause an immune response?

D. take a nap A. fungi

B. vaccine
2. If you take antibiotics only the resistant
bacteria survive and the non-resistant bac- C. antigens
teria die. This is an example of D. none of above
A. Resistance 5. When Kristen was five, she became sick
B. Survival of the fittest with chickenpox & then recovered. Why
C. How antibiotics work is Kristen unlikely to get chickenpox a sec-
ond time?
D. none of above
A. Kristen has not developed antibodies
3. What is not a characteristic of to chickenpox.
Macrophages? B. Kristen has developed a vaccination
A. Major phagocytic cells; as numerous against chickenpox.
as neutrophils C. Kristen’s body no longer contains cells
B. Possess many broad-specificity recep- that can be damaged by chicken pox.
tors enabling it to capture a wide range of D. Kristen’s body has memory cells that
pathogens will produce antibodies to fight chicken-
C. Can serve as Antigen-Presenting Cells pox.

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1.5 Immune response 232

6. The process that involves steps to stop 11. What is an allergy?

bleeding from an injured blood vessel is A. Capable of recognizing antigens on a
called ? foreign cell to mark it for destruction
A. hemostasis B. a toxin or other foreign substance
B. hemophilia which induces an immune response in the
body, especially the production of antibod-
C. hemoglobin
ies.
D. hematocrit

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. a state of hypersensitivity induced by
7. When someone’s immune system overre- exposure to an allergen
acts to something harmless it’s called D. the immunity which results from the
A. overreactus maximus production of antibodies by the immune
system in response to the presence of an
B. a sneeze antigen.
C. an allergy
12. What is a disease fighting protein created
D. the measles by the immune system in response to spe-
cific antigens?
8. A secondary immune response will be
faster when A. Antibody
A. The individual has encountered the B. Phagocyte
pathogen already C. T cells
B. The individual’s macrophages are on D. Lymphocyte
high alert
13. Which of the following is not apart of your
C. The individual has encountered the
body’s first line of defense?
pathogen and has memory B cells circulat-
ing A. Skin
D. All of the above B. Mucus
C. Stomach Acid
9. The purpose for giving a person a vaccine
is to D. Antibodies

A. introduce chemicals that destroy 14. What is phagocytosis?

viruses A. WBCs
B. stimulate an immune response B. When a cells eat other cells
C. prevent inflammation C. When a cell collapses
D. cure a disease D. When a cell releases nutrients
10. There are cells in the body that create an- 15. a protein produced by a b cell of the im-
tibodies. These cells are called mune system that destroys a pathogen
A. A cells A. B Cell
B. T cells B. T Cell
C. E cells C. Vaccination
D. B cells D. Antibody

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1.5 Immune response 233

16. In order to decrease the chances of tissue C. death

rejection in the recipient of an organ trans- D. none of above
plant, the recipient’s protein markers must

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be 22. Active immunity usually provides im-
A. recognized by the donated tissue munity than passive immunity.

B. weakened through the use of drugs A. short-term

C. matched closely to those of the donor B. long-term

D. inactivated by the immune system C. fast-acting

D. none of the above
17. T-lymphocytes that have CD8 are know
as? 23. Select the immune response, chosen from
the list below, that is most closely as-
A. Natural Killer
sociated with that phrase.Immune Re-
B. Helper sponse(1) Active immunity(2) Passive im-
C. Cytotoxic munity(3) Allergies(4) Tissue rejectionA
vaccine containing a weakened disease-
D. Macrophage
causing organism is injected into the body.
18. Chemotaxis is facilitated by what comple- A. 1
ment component?
B. 2
A. C5a C. 3
B. C3b D. 4
C. C5
24. Leukocytes can be found in an organ in
D. C5b your belly that filters blood and helps fight
19. Macrophage activation leads to: infections known as the:

A. T cell activation A. Heart

B. Spleen
B. B cell activation
C. Kidneys
C. Antibody production
D. Brain
D. All of the above
25. What are the two parts of the Adaptive
20. What are Lymphocytes?
Immune System?
A. A type of red blood cell
A. Humoral and Cell Mediated
B. A nucleus
B. Humoral and Innate
C. A type of white blood cell
C. Inflammatory and Cell Mediated
D. Bone Marrow
D. Cell Mediated and Macrophages
21. What is the body’s response to injury 26. Salmonella bacterial poisoning can be initi-
or disease, resulting in a condition of ated when
swelling, pain, heat, and redness?
A. the microbe survives the acidic envi-
A. inflammation ronment of the stomach and resists lyso-
B. infection somal degradation in macrophages.

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1.5 Immune response 234

B. the chemotactic messengers released bread is not bread, it is actually and

by the microbe do not attract sufficient decide to try it.
neutrophils to entirely destroy the infec- A. goat spleen
tion.
B. calf thymus
C. there is a delay in selection of the pop-
ulation of eosinophils that recognize and C. stomach lining
fight these microbes. D. goose liver
D. the microbes release chemical mes-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
sengers that make them resistant to 32. Which antibody is part of B cell receptor?
phagocytosis. A. IgA

27. During the lytic infection by a virus, the B. IgD

host cell is- C. IgE
A. destroyed D. IgM
B. copied
33. Antibodies are made:
C. passed on to the lysogenic cycle
A. To respond to any antigen
D. not affected
B. To respond to a specific antigen
28. Example of the First Line of Defense C. To respond to antibiotics
A. Antibodies D. To respond to inflammation
B. White Blood Cells
34. What are the smallest and simplest
C. Skin pathogens?
D. Red Blood Cells A. virus
29. These cells are responsible for making an- B. fungi
tibodies. C. bacteria
A. Helper T Cells D. none of above
B. Killer T Cells
35. What do B cells produce?
C. B Cells
A. antigens
D. Macrophages
B. macrophages
30. The system keeps the body healthy.
C. T cells
A. musculoskeletal
D. antibodies
B. hypothesis
36. The human immune system fights infection
C. immune
by releasing
D. none of above
A. ATPs
31. You are at a fancy restaurant with your B. antibiotics
prom date and see “sweet bread” on the
menu. Your prom date is impressed with C. antibodies
you when you tell him/her that sweet D. antigens

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1.5 Immune response 235

37. How does the thymus change in size as we C. Schwann cells protect surrounding tis-
age? sue
D. Action potentials occur beneath the

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A. increases exponentially
B. decreases exponentially Schwann cells

C. It is not effected 43. Which of the following describes immu-

nity?
D. initially increases until adolescent and
then decreases through old age A. the capacity to resist certain types
oforganisms and toxins (poisons) that will
38. What can happen when germs invade the damage tissues and organs
body? B. consists of 4 lines of defense
A. biodiversity C. only consists of natural immunity
B. infection D. none of above
C. eukaryote
44. All foreign materials that cause a response
D. none of above from the immune system are called
39. Which of these is caused by a virus? A. Antigens
A. Strep throat B. Active Immunity
B. Mad cow disease C. Antibodies
C. Common cold D. Antibiotics

D. Tuberculosis (TB) 45. A weakened or dead virus can act as a-

A. vaccine
40. Whats another name for White Blood
Cells? B. leukocyte
A. Lymphocytes C. allergen
B. Leukocytes D. macrophage

C. Plasma Cells 46. What can happen to a pathogen that has

antibodies attached to its surface?
D. Memory Cells
A. it is identified by macrophage
41. Proteins that recognize and bind to a par-
B. the kidney filters it out
ticular antigen with very high specificity.
C. B cells consume it
A. antigen
D. T cells blow it up
B. antibody
47. The innate immune system is
C. B cells
A. Always working and doesn’t require
D. Lymphocytes
any special preparation
42. Which of the following is not a true state- B. Needs to be “primed” before it can
ment regarding Schwann cells? work to its full effectiveness
A. Schwann cells speed up the nerve im- C. Very specific and only defends against
pulse a specific pathogen
B. Action potentials only occur along the D. Not very effective at preventing intrud-
nodes of Ranvier ers

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1.5 Immune response 236

48. Antibiotics work by blocking the growth 53. The immune system works with all of the
and reproduction of following system EXCEPT
A. viruses only A. the integumentary
B. bacteria only B. the lymphatic
C. fungi only C. the muscular
D. viruses and bacteria D. the cardiovascular

NARAYAN CHANGDER
49. If one of your parents is blood type A and 54. What do killer T-cells do?
the other is type B, which of the following
blood types would you likely be? A. Kill all of the helper T-cells.

A. O B. Create antibodies to be produced into

the blood stream.
B. AB
C. Destroy cells that have been infected.
C. A or B
D. none of above
D. Any
55. The purpose of introducing weakened mi-
50. The difference between the primary and
crobes into the body of an organism is to
secondary immune response is:
stimulate the
A. The primary immune response is much
A. production of living microbes that will
faster
protect the organism from future attacks
B. The numbers of antibodies produced in
B. production of antigens that will pre-
the primary response is greater
vent infections from occurring
C. In the secondary response the antigen
C. immune system to react and prepare
is disabled in a shorter amount of time
the organism to fight future invasions by
D. There is no difference between the these microbes
two immune responses
D. replication of genes that direct the syn-
51. The Pfizer and Moderna Coronavirus vac- thesis of hormones that regulate the num-
cines are in this category ber of microbes
A. live attenuated 56. help fight germs.
B. subunit A. Infection
C. weakened attenuated B. Antibodies
D. immunoglobulin C. Punnett square
52. Blood rushes to an area bringing phago- D. none of above
cytes and other white blood cells to area.
It helps retain infection in one area. What 57. What is the first line of defense of the im-
non-specific defense is this? mune system?
A. nose hair A. Mucos
B. Mucus B. White Blood Cells
C. inflammatory system C. Skin
D. immune system D. Red Blood Cells

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1.5 Immune response 237

58. This sticky fluid traps any pathogens that 63. What is the ability to resist the pathogens
try and get in our body that cause a particular disease?

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A. Mucous Lining A. defense
B. Blood B. immunity
C. Stomach Acid C. immune system
D. Skin D. none of above
64. Name the cytokine:Inflammation; Acti-
59. In the production of monoclonal antibodies,
vates macrophages, granulocytes, cyto-
B-cells are fused to tumour cells to make
toxic cells; Kills tumor cells; Enhances
hybridoma cells. What can hybridoma cells
phagocytosis
do?
A. TNF
A. divide endlessly
B. MIF
B. ingest antigens
C. MAF
C. become memory cells
D. GM-CSF
D. bind to antibodies
65. What is the main organ in the immune sys-
60. Which type of cell does not for “memory tem
cells”?
A. lymphoid
A. CTL B. Bone Marrow
B. T-Cell C. HEART
C. B-Cell D. WHAT?
D. NK
66. There is no vaccine against the common
61. Which of the following occurs after a virus cold because:
attaches to a host cell in the viral repro- A. Colds are caused by bacteria so we
duction process? can use antibiotics to treat them.
A. The host cell dies B. The cold virus mutates too quickly for
a vaccine to be effective
B. The virus dies
C. Colds are not usually serious enough
C. The virus inserts its genetic informa-
for it to be worthwhile to develop a vac-
tion into the host cell
cine.
D. copies of the virus are immediately re-
D. Colds are not infectious so it doesn’t
leased from the host
matter.
62. What are two parts of the innate immune 67. occurs when a person’s own immune
system? system procures antibodies in response to
A. barriers and phagocytes the pathogen.
B. phagocytes and inflammatory re- A. Passive immuneity
sponse B. Sneezing and coughing
C. antibodies and phagocytes C. Active immunity
D. T cells and B cells D. none of above

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1.5 Immune response 238

68. Any substance that causes an allergy is C. An autoimmune disease

a(n): D. Inflammatory response
A. Allergen
74. Cause of common cold and flu.
B. Irritant
A. Viruses
C. Virus
B. Bacteria
D. Carcinogen
C. Reaction by the body to substances
69. As a defense against infection, a fever is

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. none of above
created by the body in order to
A. increase the flow of blood 75. What happens in the body’s primary re-
sponse to a pathogen?
B. raise body temperature to combat
pathogens A. a scab forms
C. increase the production of Helper T- B. lymphocytes produce many antibodies
cells quickly
D. all of the answer choices are correct C. particular lymphocytes are activated
and make copies of themselves
70. Which type of immunity is developed af-
D. all lymphocytes are activated and
ter having the disease or after being vac-
make copies of themselves
cinated against the disease?
A. natural immunity 76. Act as the directors or managers of the
immune system and are essential to acti-
B. acquired passive immunity
vating both humoral and cell mediated im-
C. acquired active immunity mune responses:
D. none of the above A. B cells
71. Which cells would be first responders dur- B. Cytotoxic T Cells
ing an immune response? C. Helper T cells
A. macrophages D. Immunocompetent macrophages
B. T-cells
77. Pre-committed cells and tissues that re-
C. B-cells spond against the ‘foreign’ substance is
D. Memory cells associated with what?
A. Adaptive Immunity
72. present in the pus of wounds
B. Innate Host Response
A. esonophils
B. neutrophils C. Natural Immunity

C. basophiles D. Native Immunity

D. monocytes 78. What is the role of a helper T cell?

73. What is the term for a strong response to A. Kills pathogens

a harmless antigen in the environment? B. Helps activate killer T and B cells
A. An allergy C. Produces antibodies
B. Cell-mediated immunity D. Binds to antigens

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1.5 Immune response 239

79. Engulfing-phagocytic cells of innate immu- C. Ig A

nity include all of the following except D. Ig D

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A. neutrophils.
85. To increase chances for a successful organ
B. macrophages. transplant, the person receiving the organ
C. dendritic cells should be given special medications. The
D. natural killer cells. purpose of these medications is to
A. increase the immune response in the
80. What part of blood is 55% of whole person receiving the transplant
blood?
B. decrease the immune response in the
A. Red Blood Cells person receiving the transplant
B. White Blood Cells C. decrease mutations in the person re-
C. Platelets ceiving the transplant
D. Plasma D. increase mutations in the person re-
ceiving the transplant
81. What are specific proteins that attach to
antigens, keeping them from harming the 86. Which part of human blood carries hor-
body? mones and nutrients?
A. virus A. plasma
B. antibodies B. platelets
C. lymphocytes C. red blood cells
D. none of above D. white blood cells

82. Which of the following are found in the in- 87. Foreign protein found on pathogens that
terstitial fluid and consume any bacteria the body reacts to
and virus-infected cells they encounter? A. antibody
A. erythrocytes B. antigen
B. leukocytes C. antigen-antibody complex
C. macrophages D. pathogens
D. interferons
88. What is a vaccine?
83. What sort of pathogen causes influenza A. A weakened pathogen injected in the
(flu)? body to produce immunity
A. A bacterium B. Temporary immunity that develops as
B. A virus natural exposure
C. A fungus C. An overreaction of the immune system
D. A protist D. Medicine that helps after you’re in-
fected
84. Which Immunoglobin has the highest con-
centration in serum? 89. How can active immunity be acquired?
A. Ig G A. by having the disease
B. Ig M B. injection of antibiodies

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1.5 Immune response 240

C. through colostrum (breastmilk) 95. What is the process by which individual

T & B lymphocytes are engaged by anti-
D. via plancenta
gen and cloned to create a population of
90. Lymph nodes are found in the: antigen-reactive cells with identical anti-
gen specificity?
A. Neck
A. Clonal Selection
B. Armpits
B. Antigen-Specific Surface Receptors
C. Groin

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Immune Tolerance
D. All of the above
D. Precommision
91. I feel confident about the terst next week 96. Cells that provide a physical barrier to re-
A. YES sist pathogen invasion, as well as secrete
protective substances to discourage the ac-
B. NO
cumulation of pathogens.
C. I feel OK, but need to review more A. Macrophages
D. none of above B. White blood cells
92. What does the Immune System do? C. Epithelial cells
A. It helps with digesting food. D. Helper T Cells

B. It helps pump blood to the heart 97. What are 2 ways to prevent a virus?
C. the immune system protecting and A. minimize person to person contact
preventing infections, to keep your body B. minimize contact with resevior ani-
healthy mals
D. Helps germs invade your body C. Don’t exercise
93. adenoids D. Drink water
A. acquired immunity 98. Which of the following is NOT part of the
B. mass of lymphatic tissue in the na- secondary immune response
sopharynx A. Inflammation
C. mass of lymphatic tissue in the B. skin
oropharynx
C. Fever
D. protein produced by b cells D. Phagocytosis
94. What is a condition that happens when 99. What type of cells are responsible for the
pathogens enter the body, multiply, and secondary immune response?
cause harm?
A. macrophages
A. infection
B. Helper T cells
B. inflammation
C. Memory B, Memory T, Memory Helper
C. pain T cells
D. none of above D. Phagocytes

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1.5 Immune response 241

100. A dangerous immune response to a safe first line of defense against staphylococcal
substance. bacteria?

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A. viruses A. B cells
B. allergies B. Skin cells
C. infection C. Killer T cells
D. none of above D. Helper T cells

101. T cells mature in the 106. A person with AIDS may develop a rare
skin cancer called
A. thymus
A. multiple sclerosis
B. intestine
B. lupus
C. bone marrow
C. melanoma
D. heart
D. Kaposi’s sarcoma
102. Proteins produced by B cells which are
produced as a response to a specific anti- 107. Specialized cells located in various tis-
gen. sues that help initiate the immune re-
sponse by recognizing, “processing”, and
A. Antigens presenting Ag to other cells of the immune
B. Active Immunity system are known as?
C. Antibodies A. Dendritic Cells
D. Antibiotics B. Phagocytes

103. Examples of 2nd line of defense. C. Antibodies

D. Antigens
A. skin and stomach
B. T cells and B cells 108. Produce histamine; not phagocytic;0.5-
1%
C. increased blood flow, redness,
swelling and higher temp. A. B cell
D. fever and diarrhea B. Basophils
C. T cell
104. What is and Antibody?
D. none of above
A. Germs or Chemicals that can make you
sick 109. Which immune response is called “adap-
B. A protein that binds with a molecule or tive ‘’?
antigen found only invading a germ A. External
C. The ability that an organism resists a B. Non-specific
particular infection by killing it with anti- C. Specific
bodies
D. none of above
D. All of the Above
110. Define Immune System
105. Some staphylococcal infections re-
sult from direct contact with infected A. Looks for broken bones
wounds.Which of the following cells is a B. Foreign invader

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1.5 Immune response 242

C. Fights germs 116. Bacteria reproduce asexually by

D. Help you breath A. spores
B. conjugation
111. What is the primary phagocytic cell?
C. fixation
A. Neutrophil
D. binary fission
B. Lymphocyte
C. Basophil 117. Which Immunoglobin is produced in mu-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
cosal tissue?
D. Monocyte
A. Ig M
112. The process of engulfing a bacterium or B. Ig A
virus particle by a macrophage is known
as C. Ig G

A. Phagocytosis D. Ig D

B. Pinocytosis 118. Which 2 of the following are part of the

C. T cell adaptive immune response?
A. inflammatory response
D. Dendritic cell
B. humoral response
113. How do human diseases caused by bacte-
C. fever
ria and diseases caused by viruses react to
antibiotics? D. cell mediate response
A. Neither responds to antibiotics. 119. What is the job of the immune system?
B. Both respond to antibiotics. A. To protect your body from drugs and
C. Viral diseases respond to antibiotics; medicine
bacterial diseases do not. B. To protect your body from air and wa-
D. Bacterial diseases respond to antibi- ter
otics; viral diseases do not. C. To protect your body from pathogens

114. In complete immunoglobulin molecules D. To protect your body from itself

chains are held together by
120. What is directly responsible for allergic
A. Disulfide bonds symptoms, including a runny nose or itchy
B. Polypeptide bonds eyes?

C. Dihydrogen bonds A. pathogens

B. antigens
D. Monosulfide bonds
C. histamine
115. What is the interstitial fluid?
D. T-lymphocytes
A. fluid that surrounds lymph nodes
121. Why might you become ill after visiting a
B. fluid that surrounds body cells
friend who is sick with the flu?
C. fluid that surrounds lymphocytes A. The room your friend was in was too
D. fluid that surrounds monocytes warm.

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1.5 Immune response 243

B. You ate the same kind of food your C. helper T cells

friend ate. D. antibodies

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C. You did not dress properly.
127. Which of the following is NOT part of the
D. The virus that causes the flu entered
first line of defense?
your body.
A. skin
122. What are macrophages?
B. B cells
A. large cells that engulf bacteria
C. sweat
B. phagocytic cells that attack worms
D. lysozyme
C. proteins released by infected cells to
destroy viruses and cancer cells 128. What prevents antibiotics from being ef-
fective againstviruses?
D. mast cells that release histamines
A. viruses have a high rate of mutation
123. What is the main activity of the cell me-
B. viruses have no RNA
diated immune response?
A. cytotoxic T cells call helper T cells to C. viruses have no metabolism
destroy antigens D. viruses have a protein shell that pro-
B. cytotoxic T cells directly destroy anti- tects them
gens 129. Which molecule cannot pass through the
C. antibodies are released by cytotoxic T hydrophobic phospholipids of the cell mem-
cells to bind to antigens brane?
D. cytotoxic T cells engulf antigens A. O2
through phagocytosis
B. CO2
124. T cells are made in the C. Na+
A. bone marrow D. steroid
B. spleen
130. Which of the following is not associated
C. thymus with humoral immunity?
D. tonsiles A. antibodies
125. What is the body’s first line (non-specific) B. breast milk
of defense against infection by foreign or- C. B cells
ganisms?
D. cytotoxic T cells
A. antibodies
B. lymph nodes 131. What function do T cells have in humoral
immunity?
C. white blood cells
A. they produce antibodies
D. the skin
B. they activate B cells
126. Cells that ingest (eat) pathogens are C. they engulf pathogens clumps
A. plasma cells D. they display antigens on their mem-
B. phagocytic cells brane

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1.5 Immune response 244

132. Which of the following is not a germ? 138. What is the general response the body
A. bacteria has to an infection?

B. viruses A. Non-specific response

C. antibodies B. Humoral response

D. none of above C. Homeostasis

D. Vaccines
133. Phagocyte adherence is facilitated by

NARAYAN CHANGDER
which complement component? 139. Cytotoxic T cells and Helper T cells are
A. C5a able to identify antigens because they are
presented on the protein outside cells.
B. C3b
A. major histocompatibility complex
C. C5 (MHC)
D. C5b B. voltage gated ion channels
134. The thymus is the only lymphoid organ C. sodium potassium pump
than does not: D. phospholipids
A. have lymphocytes
140. Cave art by early humans recognized the
B. produces hormones existence of the major signs of inflamma-
C. have a cortex and a medulla tion. The most inclusive set of symptoms
D. directly fight antigens of inflammation that might appear in such
early human art is
135. Disease-causing microorganism, such as A. heat, pain, and redness.
a bacterium or virus.
B. pain and whitening of the surrounding
A. pathogen tissue.
B. allergen C. swelling and pain.
C. prion D. swelling, heat, redness, and pain
D. antigen
141. Which term refers to the “hopping” of
136. A person with B-blood could receive the nerve impulse across the Schwann
cells?
A. B+ blood
A. synapsis
B. AB-blood
B. saltatory conduction
C. O-blood
C. hyperpolarization
D. A+ blood
D. sensory detection
137. Getting the chicken pox as a kid is an ex-
ample of: 142. Influenza and Zika both cause:
A. Passive natural immunity A. Bacterial Infection
B. Passive artificial immunity B. Allergic reaction
C. Active natural immunity C. result from mosquito bites
D. Active artificial immunity D. Viral infection

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1.5 Immune response 245

143. The four main types of germs are: 148. What is the Immune system made from?
A. Viruses, bacteria, parasites, fungi A. peanut butter, jelly

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B. Viruses, parasites, fungi, phagocytes B. saliva, snot
C. Parasites, bacteria, lymphocytes,
C. tissue, cells, organs
fungi
D. Small, medium, large, extra large D. none of above

144. The measure of Red Blood Cells in a sam- 149. Why are action potentials usually con-
ple ducted in only one direction?
A. hemoglobin A. the nodes of Ranvier can conduct po-
B. erythropoesis tentials only one way
C. anemia B. the refractory period is required to re-
D. hematocrit store ion balance

145. Disorder of organs or how the organ C. the resting potential is more negative
works that affects part or all of an organ- down the axon
ism. D. voltage-gated Na+ and K+ channels
A. White Blood Cell only open in one direction
B. Antibody
150. White blood cells are like of our body
C. Disease
A. President
D. Pathogen
B. Soldier
146. What are B cells?
C. Germs
A. Cells manufactured in the bone mar-
row that create antibodies for isolat- D. Heart
ing and destroying invading bacteria and
viruses. 151. If a pathogen on food got past saliva,
B. A type of lymphocyte that kills infected which additional defenses in the first line
body cells and cancer cells of defense would the pathogen contact?

C. A type of white blood cell that can kill A. stomach and lymphocytes
tumor cells and virus-infected cells; an im- B. lymphocytes and phagocytes
portant component of innate immunity.
C. phagocytes and mucus
D. A type of white blood cell that engulfs
invading microbes and contributes to the D. mucus and stomach acid
nonspecific defenses of the body against
disease. 152. Which cells have the ability to target cells
that are infected by a virus?
147. Killer T Cells-
A. Cytotoxic T cells
A. Kill the pathogen
B. Kill your infected body cells B. B cells

C. Kill only viruses C. Macrophages

D. Kill only bacteria D. mast cells

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1.5 Immune response 246

153. Which statement regarding viruses is C. Antibiotics should only be prescribed

true? to people with bacterial infections.
A. a virus can only reproduce inside of a D. Anti-viral medications should now be
living cell used instead of antibiotics.
B. viruses do not contain DNA 157. Which cells engulf the pathogens?
C. viruses are unicellular A. Macrophages
D. viruses are generally larger than cells B. B Cells

NARAYAN CHANGDER
154. What is an antigen? C. White Blood Cells
A. The traces that pathogens leave be- D. Plasma Cells
hind 158. What is clonal selection?
B. Another name for a pathogen A. Production of memory B cells
C. A protein that attacks pathogens B. Production of a group of identical or-
D. none of above ganisms
C. Passive immunity as a result of inocu-
155. To replace burned skin, doctors can
lation withantibodies
successfully transplant replacement skin
taken from another part of the body of D. Mitotic division of B cells activated in
the burn victim. Which statement best ex- response toan infection
plains why the transplanted skin is not re-
159. What is the oxygen carrying pigment in
jected?
blood?
A. The transplanted skin is damaged,
A. hematocrit
making the immune system nonfunctional.
B. hemopoesis
B. The antigens of the replacement skin
are the same as those of the damaged C. hemoglobin
skin. D. hemostasis
C. Burn victims lose so much blood that
160. Macrophages have specific antigen-
white blood cells cannot cause an immune
presenting “hands” called
response.
A. MHC-1
D. here is no blood supply to the skin, so
mixing of antigens does not occur. B. MHC-2
C. IL-1
156. Many species of bacteria have become
resistant to antibiotics because antibiotics D. IL-2
have been so widely used. Now, bacte- 161. What is produced by B-cells in order to
ria that used to be killed by antibiotics are form a faster and stronger response to in-
more difficult to treat. What is the best fection the second time?
way to proceed in dealing with this public
health problem? A. Memory B-cell
A. Antibiotics should no longer be used. B. Antigens

B. Antibiotics should be made available to C. T-cells

anyone without a prescription. D. Pathogens

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1.5 Immune response 247

162. These cells engulf a pathogen, break it C. natural killer cells

down and then self destruct. D. macrophages

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A. macrophage
168. What initiates an immune response?
B. neutrophil
A. antibody
C. natural killer cell
B. antigen
D. none of above
C. histamine
163. What is the rapid and highly specific
response by the host’s immune system D. antibiotic
against a specific foreign substance which 169. When the specific defenses raise the
had been previously encountered? alarm with antibodies and helper T cells in
A. Secondary Response response to the bodies’ own cells, this is:
B. Primary Response A. An allergy
C. Tertiary Response B. An immunodeficiency
D. Complement Response C. An autoimmune disorder
164. A disease that is not caused by a D. A healthy occurrence
pathogen
170. What is the oxygen carrying protein in
A. Vaccine blood?
B. Passive Immunity A. hematocrit
C. Vaccination B. hemopoesis
D. Noninfectious disease
C. hemoglobin
165. The outer covering of the body. D. hemostasis
A. fever
171. What is probably the easiest way that
B. allergies doctors can test for a specific viral infec-
C. skin tion?
D. none of above A. test for antibodies that bind to anti-
gens on that virus
166. Which immune response is called “adap-
tive or acquired ‘’? B. extract macrophages and test MHC
proteins
A. External
C. look for histamine in blood
B. Non-specific
D. check stool sample for virus
C. Specific
D. none of above 172. Platelets are a part of blood that help in
the:
167. Which of the following cell types is
A. formation of hemoglobin
responsible for the humoral immune re-
sponse? B. formation of a clot
A. B cells C. release of anitbodies
B. neutrophils D. absorption of amino acids

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1.5 Immune response 248

173. Select the best definition for a 178. A disorder in which the immune system
“pathogen”. is overly sensitive to a foreign substance
A. an animal that can infect your body A. Allergy
B. a microorganism that causes disease B. Allergen
C. a microorganism that fights against C. Passive Immunity
disease D. Active Immunity
D. none of the above
179. Viruses multiply:

NARAYAN CHANGDER
174. Engulfing and digesting organic matter in A. By conjungation
their environment.
B. By taking over a cell’s functions
A. Antigen C. By binary fission
B. Pathogen D. Both sexually and asexually
C. Phagocytosis
180. Proteins called can attach to the anti-
D. none of above gen and make it useless.
175. What type of cell acts as an intermediary A. antigen
between humoral and cell-mediated immu- B. antibodies
nity?
C. B cells
A. plasma cell
D. T cells
B. cytotoxic T cell
181. Diseases are passed from human to hu-
C. B cell
man by these four types of germs:
D. helper T cell
A. Viruses, influenza, HIV, and vaccines
176. What is a receptor? B. Viruses, bacteria, fungi, and parasites
A. A type of protein that detects signals C. Viruses, cancers, mutagens, and DNA
from outside a cell D. Viruses, blood, pollutants, and symp-
B. A type of carbohydrate that sends sig- toms
nals to other cells
182. MULTIANSWER; Throwback Ques-
C. A type of lipid that provides energy to tion:Select the type of organism cells that
cells HAVE a CELL WALL.
D. A type of gene that is only turned on in A. Bacterial Cells
red blood cells
B. Animal Cells
177. What is the function of innate immune re- C. Plant Cells
sponse?
D. Fungal Cells
A. Act very rapid as a first line of defense
to eliminate the infection 183. Produced by B cells and designed to mark
antigens to be destroyed.
B. Trap microbes so they cannot spread
in our body freely A. Antigens
C. Coordinate and support adaptive im- B. Active Immunity
munity C. Antibodies
D. All of the above D. Antibiotics

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1.5 Immune response 249

184. An organism that causes disease 189. How do T cells differ from B cells?
A. Pathogen A. T cells fight pathogens by killing

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pathogens directly, while B cells fight
B. Infectious Disease
pathogens by making antibodies.
C. Phagocyte
B. T cells only make memory cells, and B
D. Antigen cells only make antigens
185. What is the main reason we should be C. T cells fight pathogens by making an-
careful not to over-use antibiotics? tibodies, while B cells fight pathogens by
killing pathogens directly.
A. They are very expensive and the
money could be used for other things. D. T cells can only fight off pathogens the
body has encountered once, and B cells
B. We will kill all of the “friendly” bacte- can fight off any pathogen the body comes
ria in our guts so we will have to consume across.
lots of yougurt.
190. Newborn infants nursing from their
C. Dangerous strains of bacteria may de-
mother receive milk containing antibodies
velop by natural selection.
against diseases to which the mother is im-
D. none of above mune. The infants, however, remain im-
mune to those diseases for only a short
186. B lymphocytes develop immunocompe-
time. This situation is an example of
tence in
A. active immunity
A. bone marrow
B. passive immunity
B. spleen
C. an oral vaccine
C. thymus
D. a phagocytic activity
D. lymph nodes
191. Immunoglobulins account for what per-
187. The innate immune system uses physical cent of total plasma proteins?
barriers to prevent pathogens from enter-
A. 20
ing the body and physiological barriers to
respond to attack. B. 15
A. True C. 25
B. False D. 30

C. None of the above 192. Saliva contains all of the following ex-
D. none of above cept:
A. lysozyme
188. Which antibody is produced during the
B. defensins
primary immune response? Also good ac-
tivators of complement system. C. amylase
A. IgA D. interferons
B. IgG 193. Which is an autoimmune disease?
C. IgM A. Leukemia
D. IgE B. Asthma

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1.5 Immune response 250

C. Dermatitis 199. What are two examples of chemical bar-

D. HIV riers?

194. A patient who can produce antibodies A. Lysozyme enzyme in our tears
against some bacterial pathogens, but not B. Skin
against viral infections, probably has a dis-
order in his C. White Blood Cells
A. B cells D. Stomach Acid

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. plasma cells.
200. Which Immunoglobins does not active the
C. t cells
complement response?
D. macrophages
A. Ig M, Ig G
195. The inflammatory response is part of our
immune response. B. Ig A, Ig E
A. Innate C. Ig G, Ig E
B. Adaptive D. Ig M, Ig A
C. Cell Mediated
D. Humoral 201. Which of the following is an immediate
effect of histamine release?
196. ) An epitope is
A. dilation of local blood vessels
A. part of the interferons that penetrate
foreign cells. B. blocking of a response to ragweed
pollen
B. a protein protruding from the surface
of B cells. C. conversion of histamine to histidine
C. two structurally similar antibodies dis- D. increase in blood pressure
solved in the blood plasma
D. that part of an antigen that actually 202. Which cells produce antibodies?
binds to an antigen receptor.
A. macrophages
197. Which type of white blood cell releases
perforin in order to kill infected cells? B. monocytes

A. Helper T cells (TH) C. T cells

B. Cytotoxic T cells (TC) D. B cells
C. B cells
D. none of above 203. What is produced to initiate a faster re-
sponse against secondary exposure to an
198. In which case could the fetus be in danger antigen?
due to a specific immune response?
A. effector cells
A. Rh-mother; Rh-fetus
B. memory cells
B. Rh-mother; Rh+ fetus
C. Rh+ mother; Rh+ fetus C. T cells
D. none of above D. antibodies

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1.5 Immune response 251

204. what does HIV do to our immune sys- immunity are soon spread in highly popu-
tem? lated areas.

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A. It makes our immune system more
208. What is another name for B cells that pro-
stronger
duce antibodies?
B. It attacks red blood cells
A. plasma cells
C. It attacks our brain to stop working
B. memory cells
D. It attacks our white blood cells and
C. natural killer cells
weakens our immune system to the point
where our body cannot fight pathogens D. macrophages

205. A researcher who detects a higher-than- 209. Which are NOT included in the immune
normal amount of interferon in a labora- system? (pick 2)
tory rat would correctly conclude that
A. blood vessels
A. the rat has, or recently had, a viral in-
B. proteins
fection.
C. tissues
B. cancerous cells are present in the rat.
C. the rat’s diet is deficient in calcium. D. the brain

D. monocytes are differentiating into 210. T-lymphocytes concentrate where?

macrophages in the rat’s bloodstream.
A. Lymph nodes
206. What is the body’s third line of defense? B. Thymus
A. Barriers C. Bone marrow
B. Inflammatory Response D. Blood vessels
C. Immune Response
211. Erick wants to avoid exposure to infec-
D. There is no 3rd line of defense. You’re tious disease as much as possible. Which
done. strategy can best help him do this?
207. Influenza strains that sweep around the A. eat a balanced diet
world often carry names such as Shanghai
B. wash his hands regularly
H1N1 or Mexico City H2N2. The viruses
vary in H and N surface proteins because C. wear sunscreen outside
A. the viruses reproduce and attack peo- D. exercise several days a week
ple in cities more often.
212. Many times people visit the doctor re-
B. these viruses emerged as stray DNA questing antibiotics to treat colds and viral
from the genomes of people in these infections. How is the doctor justified in
cities. offering the patient treatment options that
C. this is where the antibodies of immune do not include antibiotics for these cases?
people began to break down and the old A. Colds and viruses should be first
virus was again virulent. treated with viral therapies and then
D. when infected people develop immu- when the body begins to recover, antibi-
nity to the present virus, strains that mu- otics can be used. Otherwise, the use of
tate sufficiently to be outside the range of antibiotics is not effective at all.

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1.5 Immune response 252

B. Side effects from antibiotics are se- 216. After the helper T cell activates the B
vere when used for colds and viruses. Any cells, the B cells begin to
use of antibiotics for colds and viruses will A. Kill the pathogens
only make the patient more ill and ulti-
mately make the patient’s recovery time B. Kill the antigens
longer. C. Produce specific antibodies
C. Antibiotics can weaken the immune D. Produce antigens
system when used for colds and viruses,
217. Which blood type is the universal recipi-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
whereas other medications are not so
ent?
hard on the immune system during these
types of illnesses. A. AB+

D. If a doctor provides an antibiotic to B. AB-

treat colds and viruses, any bacteria in C. O+
the patient’s body will be killed, but a few D. O-
will survive. Those few survivors may be-
come resistant to antibiotics needed for 218. dendritic cell
real bacterial illnesses. A. fighter cell
B. helper cell
213. What are the roles of mucus? Select two
options. C. shows T and B cells what to attack
A. to trap pathogens D. lymph node in the groin

B. to start fevers 219. Innate immunity

C. to prevent pathogens from moving into A. is activated immediately upon infec-
deep tissues tion.

D. to stimulate B-cells to make antibodies B. depends on a newly infected animal’s

previous exposure to the same pathogen.
E. to identify antigens
C. is based on recognition of antigens
that are specific to different pathogens
214. Where are antibodies produced?
D. is found only in vertebrate animals.
A. lymph nodes
220. What is a immune system function
B. capillaries
A. Doing stuff
C. lacteals
B. breaks down waste
D. thoracic duct
C. Eliminate pathogens from body
215. Largest lymphoid organ that removes D. It protects us
damaged and old RBCs and houses lym-
phoid tissues. 221. What are the two types of immune sys-
tems?
A. Thymus
A. Acquired & Adaptive
B. Bone marrow B. Innate & Acquired
C. Tonsil C. Innate & Autoimmune
D. spleen D. Red & White Blood Cells

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1.5 Immune response 253

222. What is a noninfectious disease? D. Immunity develops when an antigen

A. A disease that can spread destroys an antibody.

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B. A pathogen 228. There are cells in the body that basically
C. A disease that can’t spread eat bacteria and other small cells that are
not wanted or not needed using its plasma
D. Rabies membrane. These cells are called
223. Antigens are important because they help A. Red blood cells
the immune system
B. Immune cells
A. engulf infected body cells
C. T cells
B. cause pathogens to clump
D. Phagocytes
C. recognize foreign cells
D. produce T cells 229. Histamines trigger dilation of nearby
blood vessels as well as an increase in
224. Which is Not a First Line of Defense for their permeability, producing
the body against pathogens?
A. redness and heat only.
A. Skin
B. swelling only.
B. Stomach Acid digesting
C. pain.
C. Saliva
D. redness, heat, and swelling.
D. Antibodies
230. an enzyme that aids in bacterial virulence
225. What is the role of a Killer T cell? by degrading hyaluronic acid
A. Kills specific pathogens A. oxidase
B. Helps activate other immune cells
B. kinasase
C. Produces antibodies
C. bioronidase
D. Binds to antigens
D. hyaluronidase
226. Responsible for the transportation of O2
and CO2 231. lymph organs

A. erythrocytes A. nodes, spleen, thymus gland

B. leukocytes B. tiny lymphatic vessel
C. Platelet C. aid in regulate the immune system
D. thrombocytes D. none of above

227. Which best describes the relationship be- 232. What organs are in Immune System
tween antibodies and antigens?
A. Tonsils
A. Antibodies are specific to one antigen
B. Heart
B. Antigens are produced in response to
C. Lungs
antibodies
C. One antibody can affect several differ- D. Bone Marrow
ent antigens E. Spleen

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1.5 Immune response 254

233. When a macrophage engulfs a pathogen C. Inflammation

and displays the antigens, what happens
D. Antibodies
next?
A. Helper T cells pick up information 239. filter out debris from cellular war-
about the specific pathogen fare.
B. B cells produce antibodies A. Kidneys
C. Killer T cells destroy more pathogens B. Lymph nodes

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Nothing C. Small intestines
234. A molecule that induces an immune re- D. Antigens
sponse?
A. antibody 240. Which is a failure of immune tolerance?

B. receptor A. autoimmune disorders

C. antigen B. allergies
D. sebum C. immunodeficiencies

235. Nonspecific immunity includes all of the D. none of above

following except
241. What is a protective protein produced by
A. Macrophages (WBC) the immune system?
B. skin
A. Antibody
C. mucous membranes
B. Antibiotic
D. antibodies
C. Antigen
236. What organ is all over your body that is
D. Antimicrobial
in the immune system?
A. Brain 242. An individual who has had chicken pox
B. Lymph natics/Lymph nodes rarely gets this disease again. This situ-
ation is an example of
C. Spleen
A. biological control
D. Skin
B. negative feedback
237. A white blood cell that makes antibodies
C. active immunity
A. T cell
D. passive immunity
B. bacteria
C. B cell 243. What is the role of antibodies in fighting
a virus?
D. mast cell
A. they call in the macrophages
238. Which of the following is NOT part of the
non-specific immune system? B. they recognize and neutralize the virus
A. Macrophages C. they make white blood cells
B. Fever D. they kill the phagocytes

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1.5 Immune response 255

244. What is an example of active immunity? C. Mammary System

A. Antibodies passed from the mother to D. Respiratory System

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fetus across theplacenta
248. How long does Immunoglobulin G circu-
B. Antibodies produced by another organ- late in serum providing protection?
ism and injectedto protect against a dis-
ease A. Months to Years
C. Antibodies passed from the mother in B. Weeks to Months
colostrum duringbreastfeeding C. Less than 72 hours
D. Antibodies produced after the defence D. 5-10 Days
mechanisms havebeen stimulated by anti-
gens 249. Not sleeping enough does what?
A. Kills blood cells
245. Vertebrate immune responses involve
communication over short and long dis- B. Makes you crampy
tances. Which of thefollowing statements C. Slows production of white blood cells
best helps explain how cell surface pro-
teins, such as MHC proteins and T cellre- D. Decreases effectiveness of the Im-
ceptors, mediate cell communication over mune System
short distances? 250. Inflammatory responses typically include
A. The proteins receive electrical signals A. clotting proteins migrating away from
from nerve cells. the site of infection.
B. The proteins leave the cell and travel B. increased activity of phagocytes in an
in the bloodstream to other cells. inflamed area.
C. The proteins interact directly with pro- C. reduced permeability of blood vessels
teins on the surfaces of other cells. to conserve plasma.
D. The proteins bind to molecules se- D. release of substances to decrease the
creted by cells located in other parts of the blood supply to an inflamed area.
body.
251. An example of Passive Immunity is:
246. Virus replication may be slowed down by
the natural production or administration of A. get antibodies from your mother’s milk
this signaling protein: B. Skin
A. interferon C. get a vaccine
B. histamine D. skin your knee, it gets infected
C. plasma cell 252. lipids and proteins that cause lysis of red
D. antibodies blood cells by destroying their cell mem-
brane
247. What body system protects animals
against invaders such as bacteria and A. oxytocin
viruses? B. hemolysins
A. Immune System C. hemoglobin
B. Integumentary System D. ammunoglobulin

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1.5 Immune response 256

253. Phagocytes and lymphocytes are both A. Activated B-cells divide to form mem-
types of ory cells.
A. white blood cells B. The receiver of the vaccine develops
B. red blood cells passive immunity.

C. pathogens C. Helper T-cells produce specific anti-

bodies.
D. lysozymes
D. Macrophages are cloned and destroy

NARAYAN CHANGDER
254. A CD4+ helper T cell is involved in which the antigen.
of the following immune responses?
A. cell mediated immunity 259. Which cells kill cancer cells and infected
cells?
B. humoral immunity
A. cytotoxic T cells
C. both
B. B cells
D. neither
C. mast cells
255. What is one of the ways that antibiotics
D. eosinophils
work?
A. They can stop bacteria from reproduc- 260. Which antigens are present on the red
ing blood cells of a person who has type O
B. They can stop viruses from reproduc- blood
ing A. A only
C. They stop toxins from poisoning the tis- B. A and B
sues of hosts
C. B only
D. They engulf the pathogens
D. neither A or B
256. Which of the following will NOT help your
immune system? 261. What are the 2 basic types of leuko-
A. Playing video games cytes?

B. Exercising A. phagocytes and lymphocytes

C. Eating healthy food B. white blood cells and red blood cells
D. Regularly washing your hads C. neutrophil and bacteria
D. None of the above
257. What type of cells are involved in the hu-
moral immune response?
262. What is one of the functions of white
A. B-cells blood cells?
B. T-cells A. To carry oxygen in the blood stream
C. Helper-T cells B. To produce antigens that destroy
D. Macrophages pathogens
C. To ingest and destroy pathogens
258. What occurs in the body after the injec-
tion of a vaccine containing antigens? D. none of above

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1.5 Immune response 257

263. defenses that are present at birth 269. Which line of defense includes the skin,
A. Strong immunity sweat, mucous membranes, and normal
microbiota?

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B. Innate immunity
A. First
C. acquired immunity
D. artificial immunity B. Second

264. B or T cells that show the potential to C. Third

mount a strong immune response against D. none of above
self antigens undergo apoptosis. This is
called 270. What is different about a red blood cell
A. clonal deletion and a white blood cell?
B. clonal selection A. The amount of DNA in their nucleus
C. secondary immune response B. The number of genes in their nucleus
D. immunological memory
C. The types of proteins in their cells
265. ways pathogen are spread.
D. none of above
A. person to person and animal bites
B. studying, talking, learning, thinking 271. Treatment for diseases caused by viruses
include the following
C. saliva, mucus, gastric juice, WBC
D. environment, animal bites, contami- A. Rest
nated items, person to person B. Drink lots of fluid
266. These cells remain in the blood stream af- C. Antivirals
ter an immune response.
D. All are treatments
A. Memory B and T Cells
B. Killer T Cells and B Cells 272. A deficiency in hemoglobin or red blood
C. Helper T and B Cells cells.
D. Suppressor Cells and Macrophages A. anemia
267. What is a non-living organism that con- B. polycythemia
tains genetic material and hijacks cells?
C. leukemia
A. Bacteria
D. leukocytosis
B. Acne
C. Virus 273. How is the secondary immune response
D. Allergen different than the primary immune re-
sponse?
268. Cells that directly destroy pathogens are
A. faster and more antibodies produced
A. Lymphocytes and B Cells
B. faster and higher fever
B. Erythrocytes and Basophils
C. Neutrophils and platelets C. more antibodies and more phloem
D. T Cells and Macrophages D. more blood filtered through liver

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1.5 Immune response 258

274. MULTIANSWER:Throwback Ques- 279. Which of the following is a non-specific

tion:What is the relationship between immune response?
blood pressure and blood volume? A. Helper T cells
A. As Volume increases, Pressure in-
B. Killer Lymphocytes
creases as well.
B. As Volume increases, Pressure de- C. Skin
creases. D. Histamine release
C. As Volume decreases, Pressure in-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
E. B cells
creases.
280. Macrophages:
D. As Volume decreases, Pressure de-
creases as well. A. Respond to any antigen
275. B cells make plasma cells, which make B. Respond to a specific antigen
C. Respond to “self”
A. B Cells D. Respond to “non-self”
B. antigens
281. Example of the Second Line of Defense.
C. antibodies
A. Nose hairs
D. T Cells
B. Antibodies
276. Cells of the immune system are able to
respond to the presence of invading organ- C. White Blood Cell
isms because they recognize the D. Red Blood Cells
A. antigens present on the invaders
282. What will happen to antibody production
B. antibodies present in invading during the second exposure to the same
pathogens antigen
C. DNA pattern in the nuclei of viruses A. antibody production is slower and less
D. antibiotics released from microbes are made
277. A disease that is not transmitted from B. antibody production is quicker and
one host to another. more are made
A. non-communicable disease C. antibody production is quicker and
B. communicable disease less are made
C. serious disease D. antibody production is slower and
more are made
D. pathogenic disease
278. Phagocytic as mature macrophages;Fixed 283. Which is NOT a function of
macrophages;Wandering macrophages macrophages?
roam tissues;3-8% A. distinguishing self from nonself
A. Basophil B. engulfing and digesting foreign
B. Eosinophils pathogens
C. Neutrophil C. making antibodies
D. Monocytes D. signaling and stimulating helper T cells

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1.5 Immune response 259

284. What is a class of bacterial toxins and vi- 289. What part of blood is responsible for car-
ral proteins that can non-specifically bind rying wastes, nutrients, and minerals?
the MHC-II molecule of an APC with the

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A. Red Blood Cells
TCR of a T-cell in a tight adhesion of the
two cells, thus leading to massive T-cell ac- B. White Blood Cells
tivation and the release of large amounts C. Platelets
of cytokines? D. Plasma
A. Superantigen
290. Vaccines are designed by scientists to ini-
B. Supertoxin ciate a weak primary response by our im-
C. Superantibody mune systems. They are able to produce
D. Superbug a protein that resembles the shape of an
on the surface of the pathogen.
285. ) Virus-infected cells produce , pro- A. antigen
teins that help neighboring cells fight fur-
ther viral infections. B. antibody
A. lysozymes C. ion channel
B. interferons D. phospholipid
C. histamines 291. Which antibody is associated with allergy
D. interleukin-2 and worm infections?
A. IgG
286. Which of the following is a first line of
defense against infection? B. IgA
A. antibodies C. IgM
B. skin D. IgE
C. antibiotics 292. This cell engulfs a pathogen, breaks it
D. red blood cells down and then presents the antigen of the
pathogen on the outside.
287. which one is not part of cell mediated im- A. macrophage
munity
B. neutrophil
A. Helper T cells
C. natural killer cell
B. Cytotoxic T cells
D. none of above
C. Suppressor T cells
D. Macrophages 293. A substance or part of a substance (liv-
ing or nonliving) that the immune system
288. Chemical that causes the blood vessels recognizes as foreign and activates the im-
around the infection to dilate (expand) so mune system and reacts with immune cells
that more blood can flow to the infection or their products, such as antibodies.
A. Stomach acid A. pathogen
B. Mucus B. allergen
C. Epithelial cells C. antigen
D. Histamines D. antibody

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1.5 Immune response 260

294. Which two cells will form an immunolog- C. blood transfusions

ical synapse? D. none of above
A. CTL and Target cell
300. Which tissue produces lymphocytes and
B. Macrophage and T-Cell filters out impurities and harmful sub-
C. B-Cell and T-Cell stances?
D. Any APC to T-Cell A. spleen
B. tonsils

NARAYAN CHANGDER
295. Proteins produced by B cells and designed
to mark antigens to be destroyed, specific C. thymus
to the antigen. D. lymph nodes
A. Antigens
301. What type of cells cause inflammation?
B. Active Immunity
A. White blood cells
C. Antibodies B. Mast Cells
D. Antibiotics C. T Cells
296. A cancer of the bone marrow that causes D. Vectors
an over production of white blood cells
302. A leukocyte is a type of blood cell.
A. leukopenia
A. red
B. polycythemia
B. white
C. anemia
C. blue
D. leukemia
D. none of above
297. ICAM-1 always binds with?
303. Genes are sections of that code for
A. LFA-1 proteins.
B. CD28 A. carbohydrates
C. CD 80/86 B. lipids
D. IL-1 C. DNA
D. antigens
298. These cells are involved in the humoral
and cell-mediated responses. 304. Endocrine gland that contributes to im-
A. Cytotoxic T cells mune responsiveness.
B. Memory B cells A. T cell
C. Helper T cells B. thymus gland
D. Macrophages C. lymph node
D. histamine
299. This allows us to develop an artificial im-
munity to a disease without ever getting 305. These immune system cells stimulate ac-
sick from the disease. tions of other cells. What are they?
A. antibiotics A. Cytotoxic T cells
B. vaccines B. Memory B cells

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1.5 Immune response 261

C. Helper T cells 311. Some human white blood cells help de-
stroy pathogenic bacteria by
D. B plasma cells

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A. causing mutations in the bacteria
306. Name the cytokine:Activates NK, CD4
B. engulfing and digesting the bacteria
TH1 cells
C. producing toxins that compete with
A. IL-12 bacterial toxins
B. IL-10 D. inserting part of their DNA into the bac-
C. IL-8 terial cells
D. MIF 312. An example of an infectious disease is:

307. Vaccines stimulate the body to produce A. Diabetes

B. Cancer
A. antibodies C. Cardiovascular Disease
B. fever D. Measles
C. helper T Cells 313. What is the scientific name of the causes
D. leukocytes of infectious diseases?
A. Germ
308. Passive immunity can be acquired
through which of the following methods? B. Pathogen

A. vaccination C. Intruder

B. infection D. Disease

C. mother’s milk 314. Which type of cell will remember what

the antigen looks like and produce a rapid
D. topical cream
secondary response?
309. All foreign materials (virus & bacteria pri- A. Plasma B cells
marily) display that stimulate an im- B. Memory B cells
mune response.
C. Plasma T cells
A. Antigens
D. Memory T cells
B. Active Immunity
315. A direct indication that the white blood
C. Antibodies
cells of the body are functioning would be
D. Antibiotics
A. an increase in the number of oxygen
310. Monokines are cytokines produced by molecules in the lungs
what? B. a decrease in the number of pathogens
in the body
A. Macrophages
C. a decreased secretion of hormones by
B. Lymphocytes
certain glands
C. CD4 cells
D. an increase of carbon dioxide in the
D. APCs cells of the body

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1.5 Immune response 262

316. Largest lymphoid organ. C. increase in the activity of white blood

A. prion cells

B. fever D. increase in the number of red blood

cells
C. allergen
D. spleen 322. The response in which antibodies defend
against infection in body fluids is called?
317. Which pathogen can be cured by antibi- A. Humoral response
otics?

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Surface proteins
A. Virus
C. Killer T-cell
B. Bacteria
D. Cell mediated response
C. Protist
D. Fungi 323. Which of the following helps activate our
nonspecific (innate) defense system?
318. Some diseases caused by bacteria are: A. active immunity
A. smallpox, chicken pox, influenza B. inflammation
B. Strep throat, lyme disease, food poi- C. passive immunity
soning
D. mobilization of erythrocytes
C. Ringworm, athlete’s foot, thrush
D. Strep throat, colds, and flu 324. What is the role of a B cell?
A. Kills pathogens
319. MULTIANSWER:Non-specific immunity
and defense systems would be classified B. Helps activate other immune cells
as what? C. Produces antibodies
A. Frontline Defense against infection D. Binds to antigens
B. First Line of Defense 325. A student received a flu shot in the fall.
C. Specialized, Second Line of Defense During the flu season, the student caught
D. Adaptive Immunity a cold. The most likely reason the vaccine
he received did not prevent the cold was
320. What would prompt the body to produce that
immunity to a disease? A. his illness was not caused by a
A. antibiotics pathogen
B. vaccines B. he did not get the vaccine at the right
C. vitamin C time of year

D. toxins C. his body produced antibiotics in re-

sponse to the vaccine
321. An infection in the body might result in a D. the vaccine he received contained only
sudden flu virus antigens
A. decrease in the activity of antigens
produced by the mitochondria 326. What are vaccines made of?

B. decrease in the amount of DNA A. White blood cells

present in the nuclei of cells B. good bacteria

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1.5 Immune response 263

C. fake pathogens C. Peripheral lymphoid tissues

D. protein D. Blood vessels

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327. All of the following are non-specific bar- 333. How do germs enter the body?
rier defenses EXCEPT:
A. From touching a mucous membrane
A. skin
B. From not washing your hands
B. T cells
C. a. From touching your face
C. lysozyme in saliva
D. All of the above
D. mucous secretions

328. d line of defense. 334. What first happens to a B lymphocyte

when it becomesactivated?
A. Barriers
A. It divides by mitosis producing a clone
B. Inflammatory response
of cells.
C. Immune response
B. It begins transcription and produces
D. T cells and B cells antigens.
329. which of the following is not part of hu- C. It differentiates into memory cells.
moral immunity D. It produces antibodies using its exten-
A. B cells sive rough endoplasmic reticulum (rER).
B. plasma cells
335. What are simple one-celled organisms?
C. Helper T cells
A. bacteria
D. none of the above
B. virus
330. The process of turning certain genes on C. fungi
or off.
D. none of above
A. Gene expression
B. Cell expression 336. What major organ is not part of the Im-
mune System?
C. Gene switching
D. Cell switching A. cilia
B. heart
331. Getting these when you’re young helps
your immune system fight off diseases C. white blood cells
A. stickers D. mucus
B. shots (immunizations) 337. Which dendritic cell is located in the
C. bandages liver?
D. cough drops A. Kupffer cells
332. B-lymphocytes mature where? B. Interdigitating Dendritic cells
A. Lymph node C. Langerhans cells
B. Bone marrow D. Microglial cells

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1.5 Immune response 264

338. A type of medicine used to treat (cure) 344. What is Severe combined immune defi-
bacterial infections. ciency?
A. ibuprofen A. Body produces antibodies that attack a
B. vaccines variety of tissues and organs
C. antibiotics B. Genetically inherited disease in which
D. antibodies the immune system is severely impair

339. Many pathogens injure the host by pro- C. Body produces antibodies that attack

NARAYAN CHANGDER
ducing the membranes lining and the joints

A. antibodies D. Body produces antibodies that attack

nerve cells
B. pus
C. toxins 345. Another name for white blood cells is:
D. lysozyme A. Blood
340. is used to prevent viral diseases B. Photosyntesis
while are used to kill bacteria .
C. Leukocytes
A. vaccine; antibiotics
B. antibiotics; vaccine D. Body
C. antibiotics; antibiotics 346. Which of these are included in the immune
D. none of above system? Select 3 correct answers.
341. An increase in body temperature when A. T-cells
sick.
B. lymphocytes
A. infection
C. B-cells
B. fever
D. stem cells
C. skin
D. none of above E. oil

342. Which of the following is part of innate 347. Resistance to disease and pathogens.
immunity?
A. immunity
A. Neutrophils
B. immunization
B. Cell-Mediated Response
C. Inflammation C. histamine

D. Humoral Response D. vaccine

343. The distal portion of the small intestine 348. Antibodies are
contains clumps of lymph follicles called
A. carbohydrates.
A. islets of Langerhaus
B. rugae B. amino acids.

C. Peyer’s Patches C. lipids.

D. villi D. proteins.

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1.5 Immune response 265

349. A fully functioning immune system as- 354. How can we prevent viruses from mutat-
saults microbial agents so effectively that ing into new variants or strains?
rare episodes of minor illness are the only

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A. take antibiotics when sick with a viral
evidence of what is actually a nonstop bat-
infection
tle.
A. False B. prevent the virus from replicating and
mutating
B. True
C. allow viruses to form envelopes
C. Don’t know
D. allow viruses to infect more peo-
D. none of above
ple/animals
350. Which one is not associated with Natural
Killer cells? 355. Which cells are responsible for producing
large quantities of antibodies?
A. Does not acquire immune memory af-
ter initial exposure to antigen A. T cells
B. Amplify inflammatory response after B. natural killer cells
bacterial infection
C. plasma cells
C. Possess CD16, CD56 and CD3 surface
proteins D. macrophages
D. Major early role in recognizing and 356. T cell’s job.
killing virus-infected host cells and tumor
cells A. identify and distinguish type of
pathogen
351. The inflammation response is triggered
by B. produce chemical to destroy
pathogens
A. Histamines
C. engulf pathogens
B. Anti-histamines
C. Cytokines D. cause one to sneeze

D. Interferon 357. Lymphocytes are which type of cell?

352. can make you sick. A. White blood cells
A. Germs B. T-cells and B-cells
B. Nutrients C. Nerve cells
C. Biodiversity
D. Red blood cells
D. none of above
358. Which is NOT considered FIRST line of de-
353. Viruses are composed of two major com-
fense?
ponents
A. Helper T-Cells
A. DNA
B. Proteins B. Skin
C. Ribosomes C. Hair
D. Antibodies D. Mucous Membranes

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1.5 Immune response 266

359. Why do lymph nodes swell during illness 364. When non-specific defense fails to keep
A. capillaries break and release large substances out, specific defense comes
amounts of blood into the nodes into play. This defense is also known as
the..
B. leukocytes are fighting bacteria and
viruses in lymph nodes A. Digestive system
C. the pituitary gland hypersecretes TSH B. Immune system
which targets lymph nodes C. Respiratory system

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. serotonin is released from motor neu- D. Gastric
rons
365. Interferon is group of hormone like pep-
360. Originates in bone marrow from stem tides produced by cells in response to the
cell;Give rise to plasma cells;Form memory presence of
cells;Progeny (daughter cells) produces an-
A. chemical irritants
tibodies;Bears a cell surface receptor capa-
ble of recognizing a specific antigen;Forms B. viruses
clones of identical cells when activated. C. bacterial cells
A. Characteristics of Helper T cells D. malarial parasites
B. Characteristics of Erythrocytes
366. axillary nodes
C. Characteristics of T cells
A. nodes in the chest
D. Characteristics of B cells
B. nodes in the groin
361. Class Switching the gene rearrangement
C. nodes in the stomach
leading to the expression of a new heavy
chain class applies to which cell? D. nodes in the armpit
A. Plasma Cell 367. Why does each type of antibody only de-
B. Memory B-Cell tect one kind of antigen?
C. Common B-Cell A. Because antibodies are destroyed af-
D. Activated Helper T-Cell ter use
B. Because antibodies have a specific
362. What category of immune response shape that matches only one antigen
would sneezing and mucus production fall
under? C. Because antibodies are only produced
in the blood
A. Innate Immunity
D. none of above
B. Acquired Immunity
C. Humoral Immunity 368. You have AIDS after what has hap-
pened?
D. Cell Mediated Immunity
A. you have opportunistic diseases and t-
363. A protein that attacks antigens is called: helper cells go below 300
A. Antibody B. you test positive for HIV
B. Immune response C. you have pneumonia
C. Inflammatory Response D. you have opportunistic diseases and t-
D. Vector helper cells are below 200

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1.5 Immune response 267

369. Antigen is: 374. Which of the following statements is true

regarding when the immune system is com-
A. Any substance that is microscopic
promised?

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B. Any substance that is an allergen
A. A person gets constant infections
C. Any substance that causes the immune B. phagocytes are unable to destroy anti-
system to respond bodies
D. Any substance that is living C. leukocytes produce antigens

370. How does the body tell the difference be- D. a person is in great health
tween its own cells and foreign cells? 375. This line of defense forms a barrier that
A. memory cells recognize different kins stops all “things” from getting into the
of cells body or blood
B. foreign cells have different DNA A. 1st line defense

C. it recognizes antigens on the cell sur- B. 2nd line defense

face C. 3rd line defense
D. it cannot differentiate, so it destroys D. none of above
all cells in the bloodstream
376. A tissue cell that has high-affinity recep-
371. Treatment for diseases caused by bacte- tors for Ig E and generates inflammatory
ria, like food poisoning can be treated by: chemical mediators in allergy is know as?

A. Antivirals A. Mast Cell

B. T-Cell
B. Antiparasitics
C. Plasma Cell
C. Antifungals
D. B-Cell
D. Antibiotics
377. The skin, mucous membranes, natural se-
372. Examples of a specific defense mecha- cretions, and natural flora are all part of
nism. the
A. T cells and B cells reacting to A. First line of defense
pathogens B. Second line of defense
B. Phagocytes engulfing pathogens C. Third line of defense
C. Hydrochloric acid killing pathogens D. none of above
D. Mucus and cilia catching pathogens 378. What process describes the stimulation
of one B cell to produce many memory
373. A phagosome is:
B cells and memory effector (Active) B
A. An activated B cell cells?
B. A vesicle of lysosyme fused with anti- A. secondary immune response
gen B. clonal selection
C. A macrophage presentation C. fever
D. A T cell activation D. the complement

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1.5 Immune response 268

379. Which cell is precommitted during matu- 385. What is a pathogen?

ration to respond to specific antigens
A. A small group of viruses
A. Neutrophil
B. The name given to colds and flu’s
B. Lymphocyte
C. Monocyte C. A microorganism that causes disease

D. Macrophage D. A microbes that cause infectious dis-

eases
380. Which of the following is NOT considered

NARAYAN CHANGDER
a non-specific defense? 386. What chemical is released by the immune
A. mucus system in response to an allergen?
B. sweat A. Dopamine
C. tears B. Histamine
D. antibodies
C. Insulin
381. Produces antibodies to fight the antigen
D. No clue
and marks the antigen
A. Macraphage 387. This type of cell inspects cells for antigens
B. T Cells and kills any cells that display the foreign
antigens.
C. B Cells
D. none of above A. Macrophage

382. What type of immune response to T cells B. T Cells

generate? C. B Cells
A. cell-mediated
D. none of above
B. humoral
C. systemic 388. Certain white blood cells use phagocyto-
sis to
D. local
A. destroy old memory cells
383. immunity occurs when an individual
receives antibodies. B. engulf and digest bacteria
A. active C. produce circulating antibodies
B. passive D. secrete toxins to destroy pathogens
C. false
D. cell mediated 389. The protein that sits on pathogenic sur-
faces and elicits an immune response is
384. Cellular immunity and humoral immunity known as
are similar because they both
A. antigen
A. depend on interferons
B. histamine
B. produce acquired immunity
C. cause pathogens to clump C. antibody
D. require activated B cells D. anticytosis

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1.5 Immune response 269

390. What specific part of the antigen receptor C. 2 days

is responsible for the variation?
D. 21 days

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A. The variable regions of light chain and
heavy chain 396. Which antibody is found in saliva, tears
B. The constant region and breast milk?

C. The variable region on the light chain A. IgA

only B. IgG
D. The macrophages C. IgM
391. Which of the following is NOT a granulo- D. IgE
cyte?
397. Which of the following is a non-specific
A. neutrophil
response?
B. basophil
A. Fever
C. eosinophil
B. Red, itchy eyes that may be crusted
D. macrophage shut
392. What category of immune response C. Signs that is related to one antigen
would sneezing fall under? D. none of above
A. Innate Immunity
398. Example of 3rd line of defense.
B. Acquired Immunity
A. T cells and B cells reacting to
C. Humoral Immunity
pathogens
D. Cell Mediated Immunity
B. Phagocytes engulfing pathogens
393. A body system that works to keep the C. Hydrochloric acid killing pathogens
organism healthy.
D. Mucus and cilia catching pathogens
A. infection
B. bacteria 399. The two types of white blood cells are
C. immune system (select all that apply):

D. none of above A. Red Blood Cell

B. Leukocyte
394. Which type of immunity produces no
memory cells? C. Lymphocyte
A. Passive D. Phagocyte
B. Active
400. What systems work with the immune
C. Natural system
D. Artificial A. circulatory system
395. A primary immune response takes: B. UM I DON’T KNOW DIGESTIVE
A. 30 days C. Lymphatic system
B. 7-10 days D. Excretory System

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1.5 Immune response 270

401. What is the purpose of antibodies? 406. Which of the following is part of the spe-
A. To pump lymph through the vessels cific immune response?

B. To create lymph A. Macrophages

C. To fight infection B. Fever

D. To remove old red blood cells C. Inflammation

D. Antibodies
402. Certain microbes, foreign tissues, and

NARAYAN CHANGDER
some cancerous cells can cause immune re- 407. Getting these when you’re young helps
sponses in the human body because all your immune system fight off diseases:
three contain
A. Stickers
A. antigens
B. Lollipops
B. enzymes
C. Immunizations/shots
C. fats
D. Cough Drops
D. cytoplasm
408. Multi-answer:Which cell type represents
403. Leukocytes are found in lots of places, in-
an organism that is able to perform photo-
cluding an organ in your belly that filters
synthesis?
blood and helps fight infections known as
the: A. Bacterial Cell
A. heart B. Plant Cell
B. spleen C. Fungal Cell
C. kidneys D. Animal Cell
D. brain 409. What is the main difference between cel-
404. Natural killer cells lular immunity and humoral immunity?

A. “eat” microorganisms that have been A. antibodies are produced in cellular im-
tagged with antibodies. munity

B. tag pathogenic microorganisms with B. T cells do not play a role in humoral im-
antibodies munity

C. attack virus-infected cells by releasing C. phagocytes do not play a role in hu-

chemicals that lead to cell death. moral immunity
D. are phagocytes that attack and kill D. antibodies are produced in humoral im-
pathogenic microorganisms. munity

405. Any microorganism that can cause dis- 410. First recognizes foreign body and eats it
ease and displays it to the other cells
A. pathogen A. Macraphage
B. antigen B. T Cells
C. antibody C. B Cells
D. virus D. none of above

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1.5 Immune response 271

411. Which formed elements are cell frag- 417. How do antibodies fight antigens?
ments?
A. Specific binding sites on antibodies

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A. platelets join with specific markers on antigens
B. red blood cells B. Antibodies ignore ‘good’ cells and at-
C. plasma tack ‘bad’ ones
D. white blood cells C. Antibodies destroy all the cells they
come in contact with
412. Which of the following are proteins that
fight off diseases? D. Both 1 and 2
A. Antibodies
418. The body can detect foreign substances
B. B Cells inside the body using
C. Antigens A. Antigens
D. T Cells
B. Antibodies
413. Antibodies are also known as: C. Pathogens
A. immunoglobulins
D. B cells
B. carbohydrates
C. lipids 419. What is the antigen presenting receptor
on the surface of T cells called?
D. antigens
A. MHC
414. A preparation made from a weakened or
killed pathogen is called B. TLR

A. a vaccine C. GPCR
B. an allergen D. None of the above
C. an antigen
420. In some individuals, the immune system
D. a macrophage attacks substances such as grass pollen
that are usually harmless, resulting in
415. B cell
A. lymphocyte that matures into a plasma A. an allergic reaction
cell to secrete antibodies B. a form of cancer
B. fighter cell C. an insulin imbalance
C. lymph nodes
D. a mutation
D. tiniest lymphatic vessels
421. All of the following prevent pathogens
416. What common diseases can affect the Im-
from entering the body except
mune system
A. red blood cells
A. Asthma
B. Stomach Bug B. tears
C. SMOKE C. mucus
D. Lung Cancer D. skin

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1.5 Immune response 272

422. What system collects fluid that is lost 427. An allergy is

by the circulatory system and works with A. an overreaction to nonharmful anti-
the immune system to scan that fluid for gens
pathogens?
B. an appropriate response to a harmful
A. circulatory substance
B. digestive C. an immunodeficiency
C. nervous D. an autoimmune disease

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. lymphatic
428. Which of the following is part of the
423. What are cytotoxic protease molecules adaptive immunity?
which cleave various proteins in the target A. Inflammation
cell’s cytoplasm thus leading to apoptotic
death of the target cell? B. Skin

A. Granzymes C. Macrophages

B. Perforin D. T cells

C. Serglycin 429. Y shaped proteins that may mark

D. Cytokines pathogens for destruction are
A. antigens
424. During transmission across a typical
chemical synapse, B. T cells

A. neurotransmitters cause the release C. antibodies

of vesicles. D. neutrophils
B. action potentials make the vesicles 430. A unique form of a white blood cell
fuse to each other.
A. lymphocyte
C. vesicles diffuse to and fuse to the post-
synaptic membrane. B. leukocyte

D. neurotransmitters bind to receptors C. bacteria

on the postsynaptic cell. D. virus

425. Which blood cells increases in cases of 431. An occurs when a virus or microor-
parasitism and allergy? ganism enters the body.
A. basophil A. infection
B. eosinophil B. ATP
C. lymphocyte C. allergies
D. monocyte D. none of above

426. HIV can be spread by: 432. Are Vaccines Good or Bad for you?
A. Blood to blood contact A. Good
B. sexual contact B. Bad
C. breastmilk C. Both good and bad
D. all of these D. none of above

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1.5 Immune response 273

433. which process is used to exchange ge- 438. When a pathogen is ingested by a phago-
netic material information between two cyte, which event occurs first?
bacterial cells?

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A. T-cell antivation
A. binary fission B. memory cell proliferation
B. immunization C. antigen presentation by the phagocyte
C. conjugation D. B-cell activation
D. lytic cycle 439. Why is the body’s temperature rises up
when a pathogen enters the body?
434. Adaptive immunity depends on A. Because pathogens desire the high
A. traits common to groups of pathogens. temperature for survival. When the tem-
perature increases, it makes it easier for
B. pathogen-specific recognition
them to survive in the body.
C. maternal provision of antibodies to off- B. Because pathogens desire the body’s
spring normal temperature for survival. When
D. plants being exposed to new the temperature increases, it makes it
pathogens. challenging for them to survive in the
body.
435. Which is NOT a part of your body’s 1st C. Because pathogens desire the body’s
line of defense? normal temperature for survival. When
A. Antibodies the temperature is at a normal level, it
makes it challenging for them to survive
B. Mucus in the body.
C. Saliva D. Because pathogens desire the high
D. Skin temperature for survival. When the tem-
perature increases, pathogens can multi-
436. Viruses, unlike bacteria, ply in large number in a short time.
A. cause diseases only in animals 440. The mucus in your nose and the acid in
B. can be destroyed by antibiotics your stomach are both front-line defenses
against pathogens. Which of the following
C. are eukaryotic, with a nucleus is also a front-line defense?
D. can reproduce only in living cells A. Your antibodies
B. your booger
437. All of the following are aspects of inflam-
mation except: C. Your skin
D. Your hair
A. constriction of blood vessels
B. phagocytes and neutrophils produce 441. The treatment of parasitic diseases like
cytokines that signal the brain to produce lice, fleas, and bed bugs is:
a fever A. Chlorox Wipes
C. increase in permeability of blood ves- B. Antifungals
sels C. Antiparasitic drugs
D. pain D. Antivirals

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1.5 Immune response 274

442. What are antibodies? 447. Genes are sections of DNA that code for
A. Organisms or viruses that cause dis-
ease A. carbohydrates
B. Drugs used to treat bacterial diseases B. lipids
C. Substances the body recognizes as for- C. proteins
eign D. antigens
D. Proteins that bind to foreign sub-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
448. Which of the following secretes his-
stances
tamine?
443. A nonspecific defensive response of the A. B cells
body to tissue injury characterized by dila-
B. macrophages
tion of blood vessels and swelling.
C. neutrophils
A. immunity
D. mast cells
B. interferon
C. immunization 449. What is the term for a nonspecific im-
mune response characterized by redness
D. inflammation and swelling?
444. Billy is experiencing a red bump and some A. fever
swelling on his ankle as a result of a bee B. tissue rejection
sting. This is an example of
C. antigen
A. Antibody production
D. inflammation
B. A specific immune response
450. How does your body determine which cell
C. The bees beginning their final master
to kill?
plan to take over the universe.
A. looks at the DNA fingerprint by each
D. Non-specific immune response
cell
445. These cells bind to antigen presenting B. uses the marker proteins
cells signaling them to produce cytokines C. talks to the helper T cell about what to
that stimulate B and T cells to divide destroy
A. helper T cell D. the brain tells it which cells belong
B. mast cell
451. What are the special white blood cells in
C. cytotoxic T cell the blood and lymphatic system?
D. plasma cells A. antigens
446. What is your bodies first line of de- B. lymphocytes
fense? C. t-cells
A. The skin D. none of above
B. Muscles
452. Which cells allow the body to to remem-
C. Cell-mediated response ber and recognize previous invaders?
D. Humoral response A. White Blood Cells

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1.5 Immune response 275

B. Antigens 458. How do antibodies function to fight infec-

C. Phagocytes tion?

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D. Lymphocytes A. They mark the cell for duplication

453. A substance that causes the body to pro- B. They mark the cell for reproduction
duce specific antibodies or sensitized T C. They mark the cell for death
cells.
D. none of above
A. catalyst
B. enzyme 459. Active immunity is different than passive
C. Antibody Ab immunity because of
D. Antigen Ag A. killer T Cells
454. Immune responses upon a second expo- B. presence of macrophages
sure to a pathogen are due to the activa- C. platelets
tion of
D. antibody production
A. memory cells.
B. macrophages. 460. Attacks & kills antigen, if it is recognized
C. stem cells.
A. Macrophage
D. B cells.
B. T Cells
455. What are the 2 names that the bad sub-
C. B Cells
stances go by that sets off the immune re-
sponse? D. none of above
A. Pathogen
461. Which of these IS NOT an immune re-
B. T cell sponse to foreign pathogens by the body?
C. Antigen
A. an increase in core body temperature
D. B cell to try to destroy the pathogen (fever)
456. Provided by antibodies: B. swelling/inflammation at the sight of
A. humoral immunity infection due to increased white blood
cells
B. cell-mediated immunity
C. inflammatory response C. the body burns fat more slowly to save
energy
D. innate immune response
D. none of above
457. The cells and molecules responsible for
immunity, and their collective and coordi- 462. What is the series of steps in the immune
nated response to the introduction of for- system called?
eign substances is known as?
A. Response immune
A. Immune System
B. Immune Response B. Immune response

C. Immunity C. Immune steps

D. Innate Host Response D. Steps immune

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1.5 Immune response 276

463. Which cells produce antibodies to B. Macrophages present the antigen di-
pathogens? rectly to a memory B cell that produces an-
A. Red blood cells tibodies programmed to destroy that spe-
cific antigen.
B. Bacteria
C. Macrophages present the antigen to
C. lymphocytes helper T cells, which activate B cells to
D. phagocytes produce plasma cells, and the plasma
cells release antibodies that identify and

NARAYAN CHANGDER
464. What are memory T Cells? help destroy that specific antigen
A. The kills infected body cells D. Macrophages present fragments of
B. They help the immune system respond the antigen to other macrophages, which
quicker if the same pathogen enters the are able to seek out and destroy the anti-
body again gen by releasing helper T cells that engulf
that specific antigen
C. They signal B Cells
D. They cause Inflammation 468. Anything that triggers an immune re-
sponse is a/n
465. Which is not an infectious disease? A. lymph cell
A. Malaria
B. antigen
B. diabetes
C. antibody
C. food poisoning
D. neutrop
D. measles
469. What is the immune system’s purpose?
466. Which system is related to the Immune
A. to circulate blood
System?
B. to digest food
A. The Nervous System
B. The Skeletal System C. to protect the body from disease

C. The Integumentary System D. none of above

D. The Reproductive System 470. The immune system is made up of

467. Macrophages are large white blood cells A. tissues

that can engulf foreign substances contain- B. cells
ing antigens. Both macrophages and lym-
C. organs
phocytes, such as T cells, appear together
at the site of infection. Which statement D. all of the above
best explains how macrophages initiate an
immune response when a new antigen is 471. A person with which blood type can ac-
first encountered? cept any other blood type?
A. Macrophages incorporate the antigen A. O+
into their genetic material and produce B. O-
a large number of identical macrophages
that are programmed to destroy that spe- C. AB-
cific antigen D. AB+

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1.5 Immune response 277

472. Select the immune response, chosen from B. Activated CD4-cells; Stimulates differ-
the list below, that is most closely as- entiation of B-cells & Eosinophils; Pro-
sociated with that phrase.Immune Re- motes IgA & IgE

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sponse(1) Active immunity(2) Passive im- C. Activated B-Cell; Inhibits cytokine syn-
munity(3) Allergies(4) Tissue rejection- thesis; down-regulates cellular response;
Chemicals known as histamines are re- enhances immunoglobulin secretion
leased as a result of antibody production.
D. Macrophages; Chemoattracts neu-
A. 1 trophils; promotes neutrophil adherence
B. 2 to vascular endothelial cells
C. 3 477. How are vaccinations able to help us de-
D. 4 velop immunity?
A. Exposure to disease creates antibod-
473. cytokines ies which make us immune
A. protein used to aid antigen destruction B. Exposure to antibodies which makes
B. memory cells us the disease immune to us
C. kills antigens C. Exposure to immunity’s which make us
antibodies to the disease
D. an antibody
D. none of above
474. Why are viruses classified as non-living
things? (choose 3) 478. Which of the following is a first line of
defense?
A. viruses can’t grow and develop on
A. Antibodies
their own
B. mucus in you nose
B. viruses can’t obtain or use energy
C. Red blood cells
C. viruses must infect a host cell in order
to replicate D. your white blood cells
D. viruses are able to change over time / 479. Which of the following is an APC (antigen
evolve presenting cell)?

475. Which lymphatic structure drains lymph A. regulator T cell

from the right upper limb and the right side B. macrophage
of the head and thorax? C. helper T cell
A. right lymphatic duct D. cytotoxin T cell
B. lumbar trunk
480. The four main types of germs are
C. cisterna chyli
A. viruses, bacteria, parasites, and fungi
D. thoracic duct
B. viruses, parasites, fungi, and phago-
476. Interleukin 6 is produced by and does cytes
what? C. parasites, bacteria, lymphocytes, and
A. Activated B-Cell; B-cell growth & dif- fungi
ferentiation D. small, medium, large, and extra large

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1.5 Immune response 278

481. What is innate immunity? C. antibiotic

A. Specific immunity produced by B cells D. hormone
that produce antibodies that circulate in
body fluids 486. B Cells are created where?
B. Immunity that is present before expo- A. Thyroid
sure and effective from birth. Responds B. Spleen
to a broad range of pathogens.
C. Bone

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. type of immunity produced by T cells
D. Lymph Nodes
that attack infected or abnormal body
cells 487. What enhances the ability of antibodies
D. none of above and phagocytic cells to clear microbes and
damaged cells from an organism, promote
482. What steps occur in blood clotting? inflammation and attacks the pathogen’s
A. Fibrin is converted to fibrinogen which plasma membrane?
then altersprothrombin into thrombin. A. Interferon
B. Thrombin is converted to prothrombin B. Integration
which then altersfibrinogen into fibrin.
C. Enhancement System
C. Fibrinogen is converted to fibrin which
D. Complement System
then altersprothrombin into thrombin.
D. Prothrombin is converted to thrombin 488. Which cell is matured into most by stem-
which then altersfibrinogen into fibrin. cells?
A. Erythrocyte
483. Which of the following is NOT a classic
sign of local inflammation? B. Neutrophil
A. swelling C. Leukocyte
B. atrophy D. Lymphocyte
C. heat 489. All are examples of external defenses ex-
D. redness cept:

484. Which leukocyte is matured into the most A. sweat

by stem-cells? B. inflammation
A. Erythrocyte C. mucus
B. Neutrophil D. skin
C. Lymphocyte 490. White blood cells are the main cells of
D. Basophil the immune system. Where are they pro-
duced?
485. Proteins located on the surface of a for-
eign invading microbe and causes an im- A. Bone marrow
mune response are known as B. Veins & arteries
A. antibody C. Stomach
B. antigen D. None of the above

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1.5 Immune response 279

491. What are germs that cause diseases? 497. What is one way that someone can get
A. fungi active acquired immunity?

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B. bacteria A. genetic disposition
C. pathogens B. gamma globulin
D. none of above C. antitoxins
492. An immune response is primarily due to D. having a disease
the body’s white blood cells recognizing
A. a hormone imbalance 498. What are three ways your body builds
immunity?
B. abiotic organisms
A. vaccinations, being around dirt, taking
C. foreign antigens
medicine
D. known antibiotics
B. going to the doctor, vaccinations, rest
493. Platelets are activated by:
C. passes from mother to fetus, sickness,
A. Substances in the blood plasma vaccinations
B. Substances secreted by damaged
D. antibiotics, being around sick people,
blood vessels
vaccinations
C. Substances in tissue fluid
D. Substances in circulation 499. Which leukocyte produces antibodies?

494. An example of a noninfectious disease is: A. lymphocytes

A. Influenza B. monocytes
B. Small Pox C. eosinophils
C. Diabetes D. basophils
D. Typhoid
500. Enzyme in saliva and tears that kills cer-
495. This sticky fluid traps any pathogens that tain kinds of bacteria.
try and get in our body that is part of the
innate immune system. A. histamine
A. Mucous Lining B. lysozyme
B. Blood C. cytokines
C. Stomach Acid D. basophil
D. Skin
501. Where are B and T lymphocytes pro-
496. These cells are responsible for identifying duced?
the “enemy” in an immune response.
A. thymus
A. Killer-T Cells
B. Antibodies B. pancreas

C. Helper-T Cells C. bone marrow

D. B Cells D. thryoid

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1.5 Immune response 280

502. A(n) is a substance that causes an im- 507. The purpose of the immune system is to:
mune response. It can be on the surface of
a pathogen. A. Help germs invade your body

A. antigen B. Make your nose run

B. antibodies C. Fight off sickness
C. B cells
D. Give you a headache
D. T cells

NARAYAN CHANGDER
503. Why must donated tissue be analyzed be- 508. Which of the following is an example of
fore it is transplanted into another per- active immunity?
son? A. You get a vaccination
A. to prevent the recipient’s body from at-
tacking and rejecting the tissue as foreign B. You create antibodies

B. to eliminate the introduction of C. You get infected

pathogens into the recipient
D. All of these are correct
C. to prevent the recipient’s red blood
cells from clotting 509. Collective term for the defense activities
D. to prevent the formation of antigens in of the immune system.
the donated tissue
A. immune system
504. What shape describes an antibody?
B. immunization
A. Z shaped
B. Y shaped C. immune response

C. W shaped D. immunity
D. T shaped
510. The hormone responsible for making red
505. How is lymph moved through lymphatic blood cells
vessels?
A. Erythropoiesis
A. Contractions of the small intestine
B. Blood cells carry lymph through the B. Erythropoietin
vessels C. hemoglobin
C. Contractions of the heart
D. immunoglobin
D. Contractions of skeletal muscle
around the vessels
511. A proteoglycan which serves to assemble
506. Which of the following is released into a complex containing granzymes and per-
the synaptic cleft and acts as a signaling forin is known as?
molecule?
A. Serglycin
A. sodium ions
B. Cytokine
B. calcium ions
C. neurotransmitter C. Cytotoxic T-Cell
D. receptor proteins D. Cytotoxic B-Cell

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1.5 Immune response 281

512. The eyes and the respiratory tract are C. active, artificial immunity
both protected against infections by D. passive, artificial immunity

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A. the mucous membranes that cover
their surface. 518. A strategy for causing the body to de-
velop immunity to a specific pathogen.
B. the secretion of complement proteins.
A. Antibiotics
C. the release of slightly alkaline secre-
tions B. immunization
D. the secretion of lysozyme onto their C. inflammation
surfaces. D. immunity
513. B cells and T cells 519. Which of these is part of the innate im-
A. 1st line defense mune system (non specific)?
B. 2nd line defense A. antibodies
C. 3rd line defense B. B lymphocytes
D. 4th line defense C. memory B cells
514. a protein produced by a b cell of the im- D. macrophages
mune system that tags a pathogen
520. Which T-Cell surface marker receives ac-
A. B Cell tivation co-signal from CD80/86 molecule
B. T Cell on APC?
C. Vaccination A. CD28
D. Antibody B. LFA-1
515. There are cells in the body that destroys C. CD20
the pathogens. The cells are called D. CD26
A. A cells
521. The human body has both internal and ex-
B. T cells ternal defense against disease. Which of
C. E cells these includes only internal defenses?
D. B cells A. hair and inflammation

516. The process of “eating” or engulfing cells B. white blood cells and sweat

A. Phagocytosis C. inflammation/swelling and white

blood cells
B. Macrophage
D. skin and mucus
C. Septicemia
D. Pathogen 522. What happens if your immune system
does not recognize a germ?
517. Babies receiving antibodies from their
A. The body will fight against it
mother during embryonic development
and/or breastfeeding is a form of B. The germ will multiply
A. active, natural immunity C. antibodies will attack each other
B. passive, natural immunity D. none of above

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1.5 Immune response 282

523. Which of the following is an example of B. swelling

an autoimmune disease? C. antibodies
A. Lupus D. mucus
B. Rheumatoid Arthritis E. redness
C. MS 529. After you have had a vaccine or illness,
D. All of the above the next exposure to the pathogen will re-
sult in:

NARAYAN CHANGDER
524. One of the most important functions of
the skin is to A. primary immune response with slow
production of B cells
A. carry food to body cells.
B. primary immune response with quick
B. protect the body. production of antibodies
C. help the body move. C. secondary immune response with
D. let food into the body. quick production of antibodies
D. secondary immune response with slow
525. Which of the following are part of your
production of B cells
bodies first line of defense?
A. skin 530. The system returns interstitial fluid
to the blood stream.
B. gastric juices
A. ureters
C. saliva
B. spleen
D. all of the above
C. thymus
526. Cause of allergies (such as pet, food, or D. lymphatic
seasonal).
531. Which is not a characteristic of T1 Helper
A. Viruses cells Antigen-specific local inflamma-
B. Bacteria tory response?
C. Over reaction by the body to sub- A. Amplifies Cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)
stances response
D. Fungus B. Promotes phagocytosis by macrophage
and neutrophils
527. How do breathing passages help keep
C. Down-regulates the further develop-
pathogens out of the body?
ment of TH2 cells
A. Chemicals kill some pathogens. D. Enhances role of mast cells, basophils,
B. Mucus and cilia trap pathogens. and eosinophils
C. Phagocytes in the breathing passages 532. The part of foreign materials that cause
destroy pathogens. a response from the immune system are
D. They produce antibodies that kill called
pathogens. A. Antigens
528. Which are included in the inflammatory B. Active Immunity
response? Select three options. C. Antibodies
A. pain D. Antibiotics

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1.5 Immune response 283

533. What are organisms that are so small 537. Which system has the primary function of
that they can only be seen through a mi- fighting disease?
croscope?

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A. circulatory
A. germs B. integumentary
B. pathogens C. immune
C. antibodies D. respiratory
D. none of above 538. Are cuts and sores the only way to get
past the skin?
534. Which of the following statements is in-
correct? A. No
B. Yes
A. Active immunity is the stimulation of
the immune system to produce antigen- C. Mabye
specific antibodies. D. none of above
B. Vaccines produce immunological mem-
539. White Blood Cells can travel anywhere in
ory similar to that acquired by having the
our body EXCEPT for
natural disease.
A. Brain
C. The most common way to acquire pas-
sive immunity is to have the natural dis- B. Spinal Cord
ease. C. Feet
D. Killed forms of a microorganism can D. Stomach
act as an antigen.
540. Which one of these options makes lym-
535. What is not associated with Innate Host phocytes?
Response? A. Blood Cells
A. Physical and chemical barriers B. Bone Marrow
B. Route of transmission or portal of en- C. Bacteria
try and type of microbe determines the na- D. The Heart
ture of the innate response
541. Vaccines have reduced the prevalence of
C. Not directly part of the immune system many deadly diseases. They work primar-
D. Specific immune response to “foreign” ily because our B cells, Cytotoxic T cells,
substance (e.g. microbe) and Helper T cells have the ability to pro-
duce cells from the vaccine.
536. fight allergic reactions, parasitic infec- A. memory
tions and inflammation in the body.
B. plasma
A. Basophil
C. macrophages
B. Monocyte D. bacteria
C. Lymphocyte
542. Which of the following plays the biggest
D. Eosinophil role in humoral immunity?
E. Neutrophil A. mast cells

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1.5 Immune response 284

B. cytotoxic T cells 548. What do scientists call bacteria and

C. B cells viruses that can make people sick?

D. platelets A. diseases
B. vaccines
543. What is one thing a spleen does?
C. antibodies
A. storage of lipids
D. pathogens
B. activation of thymus gland

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. destroys red blood cells by 549. Individuals who are unable to be vacci-
macrophages nated can be protected from a pathogen if
enough of the general population is immu-
D. destroys red blood cells by neutrophils nized. This phenomenon is known as
544. The body’s innate defenses against infec- A. passive immunity
tion include
B. active immunity
A. The body’s innate defenses against in-
C. group immunity
fection include
D. herd immunity
B. increased production of certain hor-
mones and changes in microcirculation. 550. What effect does HIV have on the im-
C. memory cells. mune system?
D. several specific antibodies. A. It prevents leucocytes from fighting
bacteria byphagocytosis.
545. Antihistamine treatment reduces
B. It causes excessive production of leu-
A. blood vessel dilation. cocytes in bonemarrow.
B. phagocytosis of antigens. C. It destroys antibodies produced by leu-
C. MHC presentation by macrophages cocytes.
D. the secondary immune response. D. It lowers the number of leucocytes, re-
ducing antibodyproduction.
546. These special proteins, secreted by
plasma cells, act as antibodies that protect 551. The following are examples of APCs ex-
the immune system by targeting antigens cept:
(substances that are harmful or perceived A. Dendritic Cells
as harmful to the body).
B. Macrophages
A. vaccination
C. B-lymphocytes
B. immunity
D. T-lymphocytes (helper)
C. immunoglobulins
D. none of the above 552. What function does mucus play in the im-
mune system?
547. Where is blood made? A. traps foreign particles from entering
A. Compact Bone the body
B. Spongy Bone B. moistens food
C. Bone Marrow C. produces WBCs
D. Liver D. acts as a lubricant

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1.5 Immune response 285

553. An endospore is a structure that C. oils

A. tough, dormant, for survival D. sweat

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B. weak, for reproduction 559. The first time your body defends against
C. die quickly and easily an invader is called a
D. last a month and used for conjugation A. Secondary Immune Response

554. Cells that ingest pathogens are B. Passive Immunity

A. plasma cells C. Primary Immune Response

B. phagocytic cells D. Immunoattack

C. helper T cells 560. Newborns who nurse from their mother

D. antibodies receive milk containing antibodies. This is
an example of
555. inflammation due to a bacterial infection A. active immunity
that spreads throughout the body
B. passive immunity
A. autoimmune disease
C. oral vaccine
B. sepsis
D. phagocyte activity
C. allergic reaction
D. secondary immune response 561. Archaebacteria that live in oxygen-free
environments include
556. This is a general term that refers to an im- A. methanogens
mune cell that kills a pathogen by initially
engulfing it. B. retrovirus

A. phagocyte C. bacteriophages

B. macrophage D. protists

C. neutrophil 562. What is an Allergy?

D. natural killer cell A. a reaction to immune system to a nor-
mally harmless Substance.
557. What is the difference between cell-
mediated and humoral immunity? B. A flower found in Spain
A. how long protection lasts C. A Herb
B. whether a subsequent secondary im- D. A Insect Bite
mune response can occur
563. Although vaccines cannot be used to treat
C. how they respond to and dispose of in- a person who is sick, they can help to pre-
vaders vent infections. Vaccinations tell the body
D. the type of tissue involved to create “memory cells”, which will func-
tion later to create antibodies against cer-
558. Which substances are contained in saliva tain pathogens. When a person is vacci-
and tears to break down pathogens? nated, what are they injected with?
A. enzymes A. antibodies to a disease bacterium
B. acids B. live, inactive viruses

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1.5 Immune response 286

C. weakened viruses or antigens from B. synaptic vesicles fuse with the mem-
the virus brane
D. blood from a person who has had the C. the postsynaptic cell produces an ac-
disease tion potential
D. voltage-gated channels release neuro-
564. A pathogen is a microorganism that can
transmitters
cause disease.What are some examples of
pathogens? 569. The cells and signaling molecules that ini-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. virus tiate inflammatory responses are
B. bacteria A. the phagocytes and the lysozymes.
C. worms B. the phagocytes and the chemokines.

D. cats C. the dendritic cells and the interferons.

D. the mast cells and the histamines.
565. The first line of defense involves which
structure(s)? 570. After an initial infection, B-cells recognize
the measles virus. How is this helpful in
A. T-cells
human immune response?
B. skin
A. The B-cells use this recognition to de-
C. blood fend the body against other pathogens,
D. B-cells such as bacteria.
B. The B-cells more quickly recognize and
566. Make antibodies in the humoral immune respond to any other virus that invades
response: the body.
A. Phagocytes C. The B-cells produce antibodies more
B. Monocytes quickly if the measles virus is encountered
again.
C. Neutrophils
D. The B-cells transfer this recognition to
D. B cells
T-cells, which will then devour the viruses.
567. A secondary immune response is more 571. The most common type of leukocyte,
aggressive and faster than a primary re- which functions to phagocytize bacteria
sponse because: and other substances and forms pus?
A. More time has gone by A. lymphocyte
B. Memory cells are present B. macrophage
C. Antibodies already exist for the anti- C. neutrophil
gen
D. thrombocyte
D. Less strength is required
572. B cells mature in the
568. When the action potential reaches the A. thymus
synaptic terminals, which event will occur
next? B. intestine

A. voltage-gated calcium channels in the C. bone marrow

membrane open D. heart

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1.5 Immune response 287

573. Which ARE included in the immune sys- 578. These cells are responsible for identifying
tem? (pick 3) the “enemy” or pathogen in an immune re-
sponse.

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A. blood vessels
B. proteins A. erythrocytes

C. tissues B. Antibodies

D. specialized cells C. T Cells

D. B Cells
574. Some examples of external defenses are
579. Which of the following is considered the
A. Skin best treatment for HIV/AIDS?

B. Mucus A. Combination drug therapy

C. Inflammation B. antibiotics
D. Saliva C. chemotherapy
E. Sweat D. Natural killer cell therapy

575. Which of the following is NOT acquired 580. This protein increases the blood ves-
sels permeability to WBCs and other sub-
A. production of antibodies
stances involved in the immune response.
B. helper T cell making memory cells
A. histamine
C. cytotoxic T cell killing infected body
B. complement
cell
C. lysozyme
D. creation of histamine during a splinter
infection D. defensin

576. What is Systemic lupus erytheosus? 581. Prokaryotes are unlike all other organ-
isms in that their cells
A. Body produces antibodies that attack
the membranes lining and the joints A. lack nucleus
B. Genetically inherited disease in which B. have organelles
the immune system is severely impair C. have cell walls
C. Body produces antibodies that attack D. lack ncleic acids
a variety of tissues and organs
D. Body produces antibodies that attack 582. What “happens” in the lymph nodes?
nerve cells A. Excess glucose in the lymph is stored
in the liver
577. Which of the following is not a typical
way for a person to catch a disease? B. Carbon dioxide is removed from the
lymph and passed to the lungs for exha-
A. From pathogens in the air. lation
B. From pathogens in boiled water. C. Lymph is oxgenated and pumped
C. From pathogens in poorly cooked food. through the body
D. From physical contact with an infected D. Lymph is cleaned of foreign antigens
person. and debris

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1.5 Immune response 288

583. What is the body’s last and most compli- B. Glands

cated line of defense against a pathogen? C. Leukocytes
A. CirculatorySystem
D. Nodes
B. ImmuneSystem
C. Physicalbarrier 589. The main function of the inflammatory re-
sponse is to
D. Chemicalbarrier
A. initiate the production of antibodies.

NARAYAN CHANGDER
584. In antibody mediated immunity which B. remove contaminating microorgan-
statement is NOT true? isms and initiate repair of damaged tis-
A. B lymphocytes are sensitized by an sues.
antigen
C. initiate T cell-mediated immune re-
B. Memory cells are produced sponses.
C. Plasma cells are produced D. initiate the production of killer cells.
D. B lympocytes respond to infected cells
590. Where is the thymus located?
585. antigen A. Legs
A. substance that the body recognizes as
B. Nose
foreign
C. Stomach
B. mass of lymphatic tissue
D. Chest
C. protein produced by b cells
D. vaccine 591. Which is not a lymphocyte?
586. a protein produced by a b cell of the im- A. T-Cell
mune system that destroys a pathogen B. B-Cell
and attack antigen
C. NK-Cell
A. B Cell
D. Dendritic Cells
B. T Cell
C. Vaccination 592. Which statement best describes what
will most likely happen when an individual
D. Antibody
receives a vaccination containing a weak-
587. Eosinophils account for what percentage ened pathogen?
of Leukocytes produced? A. The ability to fight disease will in-
A. 1-5 crease due to antibodies received from
the pathogen.
B. .5-1
B. The ability to fight disease caused by
C. 2-8
the pathogen will increase due to antibody
D. 5-10 production.
588. As part of the immune system, white C. The ability to produce antibodies will
blood cells fight germs. Another name for decrease after the vaccination.
white blood cells is D. The ability to resist most types of dis-
A. Rhinovirus eases will increase.

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1.5 Immune response 289

593. After an initial infection, B-cells recognize 597. Which of the following does not describe
the chicken pox virus. How is this helpful bacteria?
in human immune response?

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A. prokaryote
A. The B-cells use this recognition to de- B. unicellular
fend the body against other pathogens,
C. binary fission
such as bacteria.
D. eukaryotic
B. The B-cells more quickly recognize and
respond to any other virus that invades 598. Which of these will last the longest in the
the body. blood after a primary response?
C. The B-cells produce antibodies more A. antibodies
quickly if the chicken pox virus is encoun- B. antigens
tered again.
C. memory lymphocytes
D. The B-cells transfer this recognition to
D. antibiotics
T-cells, which will then devour the viruses.
599. Non-specific defenses against foreign in-
594. Which blood type is the UNIVERSAL vaders include all of the following EXCEPT
DONOR?
A. stomach acid
A. O+
B. mucus
B. O-
C. lysosymes
C. AB+ D. plasma B cells
D. AB-
600. What is the Immune system?
595. What causes immunity? A. The body’s defense system
A. production of antigens by helper t cells B. A system that gives support and struc-
ture
B. macrophages engulfing pathogens
C. A system that helps you breathe
C. production of antibodies and memory
B cells that are left behind D. None of the above

D. antigens on the surface of pathogens 601. The activation of helper T cells is likely
A. when an antigen is displayed by a den-
596. What is nonspecific immunity?
dritic cell.
A. response that is the same for all B. when a cytotoxic T cell releases cy-
pathogens; the immune system that tokines.
you’re born with
C. when natural killer (NK) cells come in
B. response protects the body against contact with a tumor cell.
specific pathogens
D. ) in the bone marrow during the self-
C. a substance used to stimulate the pro- tolerance test.
duction of antibodies and provide immu-
nity against one or several diseases 602. T cells mature here:

D. a bacterium, virus, or other microor- A. bone marrow

ganism that can cause disease. B. lymph nodes

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1.5 Immune response 290

C. thymus 609. What is the body’s first line of defense

D. liver against disease?
A. skin
603. Which Immunoglobin can be passed
through the placenta? B. blood
A. Ig G C. antibodies
B. Ig E D. enzymes
C. Ig M 610. An organ, such as a kidney, used for

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Ig A transplant needs to be tested for compat-
ibility with the person who is to receive
604. Proteins that help get rid of infections. the organ. If this is not done, the
A. antibodies A. donated organ might attack the body
B. skin B. donated organ might attack the im-
C. allergies mune system
D. none of above C. immune system might attack its own
body cells
605. cervical nodes
D. immune system might attack the do-
A. nodes in the armpit nated organ
B. nodes in the groin
611. White blood cell whose granules stain
C. nodes in the neck well with a basic dye; also will release his-
D. nodes in the abdomen tamine and other substances during inflam-
mation.
606. To be “immune” means what?
A. basophil
A. that you are infected
B. B cell
B. that you are more likely to get sick
C. neutrophil
C. that you are bald
D. eosinophil
D. that you are protected
612. How does immune system fight viruses?
607. Which of the following are all classes of
A. Immune system guards our body and
immunoglobulins?
when red blood cells which are the part of
A. Ig A, Ig D, Ig E, Ig G, Ig M our immune system detect viruses in our
B. Ig A, Ig C, Ig E, Ig G, Ig N body they kill the antigen or viruses by an-
tibodies.
C. Ig A, Ig D, Ig E, Ig H, Ig G
B. Immune system guards our body and
D. Ig A, Ig B, Ig E, Ig G, Ig M
when white blood cells which are the part
608. A signal molecule that binds to a plasma- of our immune system detect viruses in
membrane protein is a our body they kill the antigen or viruses
A. ligand by antibodies.

B. second messenger C. Immune system guards our body and

when antibiotics which are the part of our
C. protein kinase immune system detect viruses in our body
D. receptor protein they kill the antigen.

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1.5 Immune response 291

D. None of above 619. Rate how you feel about the subject mat-
ter this week (5 I really understand it, 1
613. What are the two parts of the immune star I did not understand any of it).

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system
A. 5
A. Innate and Adaptive
B. Passive and Aggressive B. 4

C. Innate and Non-Specific C. 3

D. Adaptive and Acquired D. 2

614. Where does hemopoesis occur? E. 1

A. Yellow marrow 620. The receptors on T cells and B cells bind
B. red marrow to
C. inside muscles A. antibodies.
D. inside blood vessels B. antigens
615. What do memory cells do? C. natural killer cells.
A. Kills the virus D. immunoglobulins.
B. Eats the virus
C. Patrol the area and make the immune 621. What are fused in the production of mon-
system work faster next time. oclonal antibodies?

D. Makes antibodies A. tumor cells and T-cells

B. tumor cells and B-cells
616. The study of where and when diseases
occur C. B-cells and T-cells
A. Biology D. antibodies and antigens
B. Virology
622. HIV attacks and kills which of the follow-
C. Diseaseology
ing?
D. epidemiology
A. Plasma B cells
617. Activated B cells are cloned into:
B. Memory B cells
A. Plasma cells
C. Helper T cells
B. T cells
D. Cytotoxic T cells
C. Memory cells
D. Antibodies 623. Which of the following is not part of the
body’s nonspecific defense?
618. B cells are made in the
A. production of antibodies
A. thymus
B. intestine B. inflammation

C. bone marrow C. fever

D. spleen D. release of histamines

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1.5 Immune response 292

624. In some people, substances such as B. Antigens

peanuts, eggs, and milk cause an immune C. Red Blood Cells
response. This response to usually harm-
less substances is most similar to the D. White Blood Cells

A. action of the heart as the intensity of 629. It’s the protein produced by a B cell of the
exercise increases immune system that destroys a pathogen.
B. mechanism that regulates the activity A. T Cell
of guard cells B. B Cell

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. action of white blood cells when cer- C. Antibody
tain bacteria enter the body
D. Vaccination
D. mechanism that maintains the proper
level of antibiotics in the blood 630. Where would a disease transmitted by
person-to-person contact be most likely to
625. What part of blood is responsible for spread quickly?
fighting infections?
A. In a remote region, where contact be-
A. Red Blood Cells tween people is rare.
B. White Blood Cells B. In a rural farming community, where
C. Platelets neighbors live miles apart.
D. Plasma C. In a crowded city.
D. In a medical lab
626. These molecules are responsible for induc-
ing a fever during the innate immune re- 631. which of the following is being produced
sponse. by Thymus?
A. interferons A. Thymosins
B. cytokines B. lymphosin
C. complement C. lymphocytes
D. antibodies D. none of the above

627. What is the immune system’s main pur- 632. immunity is when the bodies makes
pose? its own antibodies.
A. The immune system trap germs in an A. passive
organ so they do not spread. B. active
B. The immune system produces illness C. cell mediated
and bacteria.
D. false
C. Helps your body fight off illness and
disease. 633. Why is selective permeability of the
membrane important for conduction of an
D. Let’s germs into the body. action potential?
628. Foreign cells in the body carry foreign A. it allows for the generation of a mem-
proteins that the body recognises as ‘non- brane potential
self’. These are called: B. Na+ channels allow Na+, K+, and
A. Antibodies Ca2+ to pass

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1.5 Immune response 293

C. K+ is never allowed across the mem- 638. As part of the immune system, white
brane or through channels blood cells fight germs. Another name for
white blood cells is:

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D. it allows for electricity to pass down
the Schwann cells A. Rhinovirus
B. Leukocytes
634. ) Infection by a bacterium that has ele-
ments on its surface that enhance its resis- C. Glands
tance to lysozyme will likely result in D. Nodes
A. destruction of the bacterium by NK 639. In heavy chains, domains (regions) con-
cells. sists of how many amino acids?
B. successful reproduction of the bac- A. 110
terium and continued progression of the
B. 250
disease.
C. 70
C. removal of the bacterium by dendritic
cells and its concentration in lymph nodes D. 250
D. the infected individual’s humoral im- 640. What type of immune response are B
munity becoming the only route of infec- cells responsible for?
tion response. A. humoral
635. Vaccinations will B. systemic
A. give you a deadly disease C. cell mediated
B. give you autism D. general
C. give you memory cells 641. Which is an example of passive immu-
D. give you autoimmune diseases nity?
A. You have been infected
636. Which of the following is NOT a first line
B. You have been vaccinated
of defense of the non-specific (innate) im-
mune system? These mechanisms prevent C. You made antibodies
pathogens from entering the body. D. You got your mother’s antibodies
A. skin 642. Examples of 1st line of defense.
B. mucous membranes A. Phagocytes and Lymphocytes
C. fever B. skin, breathing passages, mouth and
D. stomach acid stomach
C. redness, swelling, higher temp.
637. After the helper T cell activates the Cyto-
toxic (killer) T cells, what happens? D. T cells and B cells working

A. Killer T cells begin seeking and de- 643. What is produced in the body during HIV
stroying pathogens infection?
B. Killer T begins making antibodies A. Anti-HIV antibiotics
C. Killer T activates the B cells B. Anti-HIV antibodies
D. Killer T feels misunderstood and C. Anti-HIV anticodons
learns to crochet D. Anti-HIV antigens

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1.5 Immune response 294

644. What are the substances that send the 649. HIV binds to specific proteins on cells.
immune system into action? A. B cells
A. antigens B. T cells
B. antibodies C. Helper T cells
C. vaccines D. Macrophages
D. none of above 650. Lymphocytes are blood cells that are
most closely associated with

NARAYAN CHANGDER
645. The rH factor determines what part of
the blood type? A. antibody production
A. + or- B. oxygen transport
B. the number of antigens C. clot formation
C. the number of antibodies D. carbon dioxide transport
D. aggulation 651. Pain and swelling in an injured area is
called the
646. Immunoglobulins assist in removing or in-
A. B Cell resistance
activating antigens by usually enhancing
what? B. septic shock
A. T1 Helper C. antihistamine response
B. T2 Helper cells D. Inflammatory response
C. B-Cells 652. The two types of Lymphocytes are (select
D. Phagocytosis all that apply):
A. Macrophage
647. White blood cells are an important part
B. Leukocyte
of the human immune response. Two
types of white blood cells, neutrophils and C. B Cell
macrophages, act as phagocytes. Phago- D. T Cell
cytes perform which of the following func-
tions in the human body? 653. Liz notices that shortly after cutting her
arm accidentally the area around the cut is
A. They produce antibodies. turning red and feeling hot. Which immune
B. They bind to antigens and develop into system defense is Liz experiencing?
plasma cells A. inflammation
C. They form a barrier against B. white blood cell clotting
pathogens.
C. skin
D. They engulf and destroy bacteria D. fever
648. A noncellular infectious agent that can 654. Disease-causing microorganism, such as
replicate only within a host cell. a bacterium or fungus.
A. fever A. antigen
B. B cell B. prion
C. prion C. pathogen
D. virus D. allergen

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1.5 Immune response 295

655. Lymphocytes recognize proteins on the C. exercising

surface of a pathogen. What are these pro- D. regularly washing your hands
teins called?

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661. A key part of the humoral immune re-
A. phagocytes
sponse is
B. pathogen A. the attack of cytotoxic T cells on in-
C. antigens fected host cells.
D. antibodies B. the production of antibodies by plasma
cells.
656. A protein molecule released by a B cell
C. perforation of infected host cells by
that binds to specific antigens.
perforin.
A. antigen D. the attack of phagocytes on living
B. antibody pathogens.
C. allergy 662. What are two types of lymphocytes?
D. prion A. B cells, Cytotoxic T cells, Helper T cells
657. What do memory lymphocytes do? B. Macrophages and Neutrophils

A. Kills the virus C. erythrocytes and leukocytes

D. erythrocytes and B cells
B. Eats the virus
C. Patrol the area and make the immune 663. The immune response that defends
system work faster next time. against antigens dissolved in body fluids
is called:
D. Makes antibodies
A. inflammatory response
658. An inflammation-causing signal released B. interferons
by mast cells at the site of an infection is
C. humoral response
A. an interferon. D. cell mediated response
B. lymphatic fluid
664. What can you do to protect yourself from
C. histamine germs?
D. mucis A. Wash your hands
659. antibody B. Avoid touching your eyes nose and
mouth
A. substance that body recognizes as for-
eign C. Cook foods thoroughly
D. All of the above
B. mass of lymphatic tissue
C. protein produced by B cells 665. Secondary immune responses upon a sec-
ond exposure to a pathogen are due to the
D. dendritic cell activation of
660. Which of the following will not help your A. memory cells.
immune system? B. macrophages.
A. playing sports video games C. stem cells.
B. eating healthy food D. B cells.

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1.5 Immune response 296

666. What do white blood cells create to fight B. Bacteria

infections? C. Macrophages
A. Antibiotics D. Plasma cells
B. Antigens
672. Jorge has a cold but feels well enough to
C. Antibodies study with his friends Lisa and Jin. Lisa
D. Leukocytes and Jin become sick. Which term describes
Jorge’s condition when he was studying

NARAYAN CHANGDER
667. Name the cytokine:Co-stimulates TH cell with his friends?
activation, Promotes T-cell proliferation
A. noninfectious
(stimulates IL-2 receptors); inflammation
B. contagious
A. IL-1
C. immune
B. IL-3
D. deadly
C. IL-4
D. IL-6 673. Unlike active immunity, passive immu-
nity causes
668. First to go to an area of infection or injury A. long term resistance to disease
to destroy microorganisms
B. short and long term resistance to dis-
A. Basophil ease
B. Monocyte C. no resistance to disease
C. Lymphocyte D. short term resistance to disease
D. Eosinophil
674. Antibiotics are prescribed to patients
E. Neutrophil who have what type of infection.
669. The immune system is made up of: A. Fungal Infection
A. Tissues B. Bacterial Infection

B. Organs C. Viral Infection

C. Cells D. Archaeal Infection

D. All of the above 675. A pathogen is a-

A. disease
670. immunity in which antibodies are given to
a person rather than produced within the B. disease causer
person’s own body C. body cell
A. Vaccination D. Plant
B. Passive Immunity
676. What do antibodies attach to on the
C. Noninfectious disease pathogen?
D. original A. Anti inflammatory
671. Which cells activate helper T-cells by anti- B. Antigens
gen presentation? C. Antiseptic
A. B-cells D. Antibodies

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1.5 Immune response 297

677. What is the specific part of the immuno- 682. Erythrocytes

gen that specifies or determines the exact
A. are the least numerous formed ele-
antibody to be produced?

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ment in the body
A. Epitope
B. are cylindrically shaped cells
B. T-helper cell
C. are produced in yellow bone marrow
C. Antigen-presenting cell
D. do not have a nucleus
D. MHC-I
678. Body temperature that has risen above 683. Cells that sound the alarm are
the normal set point ( 37 C or 98.6 F); can A. memory T cells
indicate an illness. Causes more WBC to
be made. B. memory B cells
A. B cell C. plasma cells
B. fever D. helper T cells
C. virus
684. The lymphatic capillaries are
D. T cell
A. more permeable than blood capillaries
679. MULTIANSWER:Specific Immunity could
be best described as: B. less permeable than blood capillaries

A. Designed to be the front line defense C. same as blood capillaries

for the body. D. completely impermeable
B. Designed to be for specific diseases
685. Which statement best describes the dif-
C. Designed to neutralize general dis-
ference in response of B cells and cytotoxic
eases
T cells?
D. Designed to deal with serious threats
to the body A. B cells confer active immunity; Tc cells
confer passive
680. Inspect antigen, attacks & kills antigen,
B. B cells kill pathogens directly; Tc cells
if it is recognized
kill host cells
A. Macraphage
C. B cells create antibodies; Tc cells kill
B. T Cells infected host cells
C. B Cells
D. B cells cell-mediated response; Tc
D. none of above cells humoral response
681. Larry is taking a walk in the park. The
686. Which cell of the immune system actu-
pollen in the air makes him sneeze con-
ally confers immunity to a specific disease?
stantly. What line of defense is his im-
(Think back to the immune system game)
mune system exhibiting?
A. Memory B-Cells
A. first line of defense
B. second line of defense B. Macrophages
C. third line of defense C. Neutrophils
D. fourth line of defense D. Eosinophils

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1.5 Immune response 298

687. What type of cell does HIV destroy? C. Na+ channels close
A. b-helper cell D. an action potential is generated
B. WBC 692. Which cells Destroy target cells by releas-
C. T-helper cells ing granules containing toxic substances?
D. RBc A. CTL
688. A vaccine contains B. NK

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. cow pox C. CTL and NK
B. an inactive strain of the pathogen D. CTL and NK and Macrophages
C. a small amount of the pathogen 693. What is any condition that interferes
D. small pox with the normal or proper functioning of
the body or mind?
689. A 6-year-old child ate a peanut butter
A. disease
sandwich at snack time in school. Five
minutes later, her throat became swollen B. antibiotics
and she collapsed. This allergic reaction oc- C. immunity
curred because her body
D. none of above
A. recognized an antigen in peanut butter
and produced antibiotics against it 694. A non-specific defense is the first to act
on pathogens and antigens. Simple things
B. digested the white blood cells that can
can stop these things from entering the
recognize an antigen in peanut butter
body before going into specific defense.
C. did not recognize an antigen in peanut What are some non-specific defenses.
butter and could not produce antibodies
A. Nose hairs
against it
B. mucus
D. recognized an antigen in peanut butter
and produced an immune response C. skin
D. inflammatory response
690. Which best describes the basic structure
of a virus? 695. When antibodies surround a virus so that
A. nucleic acid strand surrounded by a it can’t enter a cell, it is called
protein coat A. neutralization
B. a tail surrounded by a protein coat B. activation
C. a tail surrounded by a carbohydrate C. opsonization
coat
D. digestion
D. nucleic acid strand surrounded by a
carbohydrate coat 696. All of these are part of the innate immune
response except:
691. Once the threshold potential is reached in
a neuron, which of the following occurs? A. B cells

A. the interior of the cell becomes nega- B. mast cells

tive C. natural killer cells
B. K+ channels open D. macrophages

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1.5 Immune response 299

697. The response that uses killer t-cells and C. inhibiting the action of immune cells
not antibodies is called? D. stimulating the production of antibod-

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A. immune system ies
B. cell mediated response 702. Viruses are made up of-
C. surface proteins A. A nucleic acid and protein coat
D. lymphocyte B. A nucleus and a protein coat
698. The immune system of humans may re- C. A nucleic acid and a nucleus
spond to chemicals on the surface of an in- D. A cell and a injection device
vading organism by
A. releasing hormones that break down 703. Skin, mucus, hairs and sebaceous secre-
these chemicals tions all contribute to the effectiveness of
which type of nonspecific defense?
B. synthesizing antibodies that mark
these organisms to be destroyed A. Interferons

C. secreting antibiotics that attach to B. Complement system

these organisms C. Physical barriers
D. altering a DNA sequence in these or- D. Phagocytes
ganisms
704. Which of the following is the body’s own
699. If a red blood cell has no antigens on its ability to fight off disease?
surface, what is its blood type? A. natural (innate)
A. A B. acquired
B. B C. passive acquired
C. AB D. active acquired
D. O
705. What is a disease that can be spread to
700. The body’s ability to destroy pathogens a person from another person, an animal,
before they can cause disease is called: or an object?
A. Tolerance A. cancer
B. Immunity B. chronic disease
C. Vaccine C. communicable disease
D. Inflammatory response D. none of above

701. A new vaccine was developed and then 706. they are activated when presented
tested on a large sample of individuals. with peptide antigens by MHC class II
This new vaccine will be considered effec- molecules, which are expressed on the
tive if it helps prepare the body to fight surface of antigen-presenting cells (APCs).
future invasion by Once activated, they divide rapidly and se-
A. inhibiting the response of red blood crete cytokines which regulate or assist in
cells the active immune response.

B. stimulating the reproduction of mi- A. Helper T cells

crobes B. Killer T cells

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1.5 Immune response 300

C. Natural killer cells 712. A 3 month old baby contracts a virus

called whooping cough (pertussis) after
D. B-cells
receiving the first of a sequence of 3
707. What is the largest outer defense of the necessary DPT vaccines designed to pre-
body? vent 3 diseases (diphtheria, pertussis, and
tetanus). The vaccines are given at 2, 4,
A. Stomach Acid and 6 months of age to allow the body
B. Mucous Membranes to develop specific immunity against these
diseases. After the infant recovered from

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Cilia the disease, the doctor informed the par-
D. Skin ents that from now on the infant would
only need the DT (diphtheria, tetanus) part
708. A genetic disease in which there is an in- of the vaccine. Why does the infant only
ability of the blood to clot properly. need the DT vaccine?
A. erythroblastosis A. The infant had the first of a series of
vaccines which caused the disease
B. leukemia
B. The infant had the pertussis disease
C. plateletemia and has already produced antibodies
D. hemophilia against the disease.
C. The infant had the first of a series of
709. Helper T cells release which signal to vaccines which protected him from get-
trigger the humoral and cell-mediated re- ting the disease.
sponse?
D. The infant had the pertussis disease
A. IL-1 and will get diphtheria in the future.
B. IL-2 713. All of the following are considered Non-
C. MHC-1 thymic Lymphoid Tissue except:
D. MHC-2 A. Tonsils
B. Mucosal-Associated Lymphoid Tissue
710. which one is not part of cell mediated im- C. GALT
munity, specific response?
D. Spleen
A. Helper T cells
714. What is the correct order of your body’s
B. Cytotoxic T cells lines of defense against a disease?
C. Suppressor T cells A. physical(skin) and chemical barriers,
D. Macrophages inflammatory response (swelling), im-
mune system
711. What is the immune system’s first line of B. immunesystem, physical (skin) and
defense against infection? chemical barriers, inflammatory response
A. T cells C. immunesystem, inflammatory re-
B. intact skin sponse, physical (skin) and chemical bar-
riers
C. respiratory system
D. physical(skin) and chemical barriers,
D. digestive system immune system, inflammatory response

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1.5 Immune response 301

715. Which of the following items would be directly fight (act to kill) the antigen (mi-
considered a specific defense? crobe) or regulate immune response?

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A. Antibiotics A. Cell-Mediated Response
B. fever B. Humoral Response
C. inflammation C. Cytokine Products of Cells
D. skin and mucous membranes D. Chemical Mediators

716. are very small things that often cause 721. What are B Cells? They are white blood
infections. cells that have the ability to make

A. Vitamins A. antibodies
B. antigen
B. Viruses
C. cells
C. Fever
D. bacteria
D. none of above
722. What type of immunity is vaccination?
717. Common microscopic organisms.
A. natural passive
A. immune system
B. natural active
B. viruses
C. artificial passive
C. bacteria
D. artificial active
D. none of above
723. Overzealous immune response to an oth-
718. How does a person get immunity through erwise harmless substance.
PASSIVE immunity? A. allergen
A. you have been infected B. spleen
B. you have been vaccinated C. fever
C. you made antibodies D. allergy
D. you got your mother’s antibodies at
724. Where do T cells mature?
birth
A. lymph node
719. Which of the following plays the biggest B. bone marrow
role in cell mediated immunity?
C. thymus
A. mast cells
D. liver
B. cytotoxic T cells
725. What is an antibody
C. B cells
A. A protein hormone secreted by pancre-
D. platelets
atic endocrine cells that raises blood glu-
720. What is defensive activities based on cose levels; an antagonistic hormone to
the action of pre-committed T-lymphocytes insulin.
that move into action to kill the invader or B. Chemical released by the immune sys-
activate other parts of the immune system tem that must communicate with the
through the production of chemicals which brain.

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1.5 Immune response 302

C. A protein produced by the body that de- 730. What is the main function of antibodies?
stroys or inactivates an antigen that has A. create new white body cells
entered the body
B. binding themselves to invading anto-
D. A protein hormone secreted by gens
the pancreas that is essential for the
C. surviving
metabolism of carbohydrates and the reg-
ulation of glucose levels in the blood. D. making up the immune system

NARAYAN CHANGDER
726. Pneumocystis pneumonia is an oppor- 731. Which of these can you get from germs?
tunistic fungal infection that frequently be- A. cold
gins occuring in patients with less than B. a broken arm
helpter T cells.
C. nosebleed
A. 100
D. none of above
B. 200
732. What is the function of the immune sys-
C. 500 tem?
D. 1200 A. To break down food

727. What affects the way an Immune System B. To distribute energy throughout the
works? body
C. To be an instrument of communication
A. Stress
between different parts of the body
B. Not getting enough sleep D. To fight off diseases
C. Not eating healthy food
733. Leukocytes are found in lots of places, in-
D. All of the above cluding an organ in your belly that filters
blood and help fight infections known as
728. what cell helps activate the B cell; helps the
B cell decide whether it is a foreign antigen
A. heart
or an antigen that belongs in the body
B. kidneys
A. Plasma cells
C. spleen
B. memory cells
D. brain
C. T Cells
734. Vaccines take advantage of this type of
D. Helper T Cells immunity
729. A mother passing on antibodies to her A. Humoral
child during breastfeeding is an example B. Innate
of:
C. Passive
A. active natural immunity D. Acquired
B. active artificial immunity
735. Cytolysis is facilitated by what in the
C. passive natural immunity complement?
D. passive artificial immunity A. MAC

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1.5 Immune response 303

B. Ig G A. The experiment should be repeated

C. C3b with more mice.

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D. C4a B. There is a causal relationship between
the use ofpenicillin and antibiotic resis-
736. What is the name of the set of genes that tance in bacteria.
produce proteins that present antigens? C. Penicillin can be used to treat bacterial
A. major histocompatibility complex infectionsin humans.
(MHC) D. Penicillin may have played a role in the
B. variable regions of antibodies recovery ofthe four mice.
C. operons 741. B Cells can create long term cells that will
D. regulatory sequences remember antigens on foreign substances
A. Memory Cells
737. What is the secondary circulatory system
that helps the body fight pathogens and B. Plasma Cells
maintain its fluid balance? C. T cells
A. lymphatic system D. Helper T cells
B. circulatory system 742. causes holes to form in pathogen re-
C. blood vessels sulting in the pathogen’s destruction.
D. none of above A. histamine
B. interferon
738. The purpose of the immune system is to
C. complement
A. help germs invade your body D. stomach acid
B. make your nose run 743. What does a vaccine contain that stimu-
C. fight of sickness lates the immune system to develop anti-
bodies for that disease?
D. give your diarrhea
A. Live viruses or bacteria
739. immunity that occurs when a person’s
B. Protein fragments from the virus or
own immune system produces antibodies
bacteria
in response to the presence of a pathogen
C. A dead or weakened form of the virus
A. Inflammatory Response or bacterium
B. Immunity D. Bacteriophages with DNA or RNA from
C. Active Immunity the virus or bacteria
D. Immune Response 744. What kind of cells are the “soldiers” of
the cellular immunity response?
740. In Florey and Chain’s experiment, eight
mice were infected with lethal doses of A. mast cells
Streptococcus bacteria. The four micegiven B. lymphocytes
penicillin survived, but the untreated mice
died. What can be concluded from these C. B cells
results? D. T cells

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1.5 Immune response 304

745. The first cells the respond to an immune 750. What happens first in the inflammatory
attack are- response?
A. Helper T Cells A. macrophages arrive and consume
pathogens
B. Suppressor Cells
B. histamine is released by injured mast
C. Macrophage
cells
D. Killer B Cells
C. arteries to injury dialate

NARAYAN CHANGDER
746. Like all other body systems, the immune D. veins from the injury constrict
system helps the body maintain homeosta-
sis. Which statement best describes how 751. Which of the following describes when
the immune system does this? the body’s immune system attacks its own
tissues?
A. it protects other organs and tissues
from infection and disease A. allergies
B. it breaks down food to provide cells B. anaphylactic shock
with nutrients C. autoimmune
C. it gathers information through the D. none of above
senses and controls all other body sys-
tems 752. What is a combination of body defenses
D. it transports oxygen and carbon diox- made up of cells, tissues, and organs that
ide fight pathogens in the body?
A. immunity
747. Lymph nodes are found in the
B. immune system
A. neck
C. lymphocytes
B. groin
D. none of above
C. armpits
D. all of the above 753. A dangerous immune response to a safe
substance happens in people with
748. Which cell primes B AND T cells? A. allergies
A. Macrophages B. resources
B. Helper T cells C. skin
C. Cytotoxic T cells D. none of above
D. Humoral cells
754. Which of the following describes a way
749. The “mesh” that holds a blood clot to- that a person’s health can be affected by
gether is due to: heredity?
A. Prothrombin A. A person with a family history of obe-
sity is more likely to catch a common cold.
B. Thrombin
B. A person with a family history of high
C. Fibrinogen
blood pressure is more likely to have
D. Fibrin heart disease.

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1.5 Immune response 305

C. A person with a family history of obe- 760. Which cells have the ability to stimulate
sity is less likely to enroll in a weight loss the humoral and cell mediated immune re-
plan. sponses?

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D. A person with a family history of can- A. B cells
cer is less likely to be screened for can- B. Cytotoxic T cells
cer.
C. Helper T cells
755. Which of the following systems protects D. phagocytes
the body from disease?
761. Antigens prepared in such a way that
A. Digestive System
when injected or taken orally they induce
B. Nervous System active immunity without causing disease.
C. Immune System A. antigen
D. Skeletal System B. spleen
756. Which of these is NOT an outer defense? C. B cell
A. Stomach acid D. vaccine
B. Mucus membrane 762. Which cells release free antibodies into
C. White blood cells the blood and lymph?
D. Tears A. T cells
B. B cells
757. The response to an infection. Causes the
area to redden, swell, and feel warm. C. Helper T cells
D. Macrophages
A. Fever
B. Mucus 763. Which of the following is NOT part of the
second line of defense?
C. Dilation
A. interferons
D. Inflammation
B. low pH of the skin
758. Acidity in human urine is an example of
C. complement fixation
A. cell-mediated immune responses. D. pyrogens
B. antibody activation
764. What are Pathogens?
C. adaptive immunity
A. Germs
D. innate immunity
B. Chemicals
759. Cells of the immune system are able to C. Both
respond to the presence of invading organ-
D. none of above
isms because your immune cells recognize
the 765. The primary purpose of vaccines is to
A. antigens present on the invaders A. induce inflammation
B. antibodies present in invading B. activate the immune system to pro-
pathogens duce memory cells
C. DNA pattern in the nuclei of viruses C. stimulate natural killer cells
D. antibiotics released from microbes D. initiate the innate immune response

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1.5 Immune response 306

766. Which can be used to prevent initial entry B. Ig M

of bacteria into the body? C. Ig A
A. inflammation D. Ig E
B. oil
772. A person with which blood type can do-
C. fever nate to anyone?
D. lymphocytes A. O+
B. O-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
767. When someone’s immune system overre-
acts to something harmless it’s called: C. AB-
A. Overreactus Maximus D. AB+
B. A sneeze 773. Erythrocytes and Leukocytes are pro-
C. An allergy duced in the
D. The measles A. bone marrow
B. kidney
768. A foreign substance, such as a microor-
ganism, foreign blood cell, cells of trans- C. liver
planted organs, or toxins; which triggers D. stomach
an immune response is know as?
774. Which cells would be the last cells to be
A. Antigen on the scene during an immune response?
B. Antibody A. macrophages
C. Immunoglobin B. T-cells
D. Phagocyte C. B-cells
769. What are proteins on the surface of tis- D. Memory cells
sue and blood cells which identify cells be-
775. Which of the following is an example of
longing to a specific individual?
a non-specific immune response?
A. MHC A. B lymphocytes respond to an antigen
B. Epitope B. Memory T cells are produced
C. Dendritic C. Phagocytosis by macrophages
D. GALT D. Cell mediated immunity
770. Cancer of the white blood cells is known 776. When something enters into the body
as that doesn’t belong the immune response
A. erythroblastosis is activated. It is aware that something is
not where its supposed to be. What are
B. anemia
the 3 things that triggers the immune re-
C. leukemia sponse?
D. hematopoiesis A. Bacteria
771. Which Immunoglobin isn’t synthesized by B. Blood
plasma cells? C. viruses
A. Ig D D. Foreign substances

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1.5 Immune response 307

777. Pathogens are genome; In this condition the bacterium

A. Foreign substances that attack the continues to live and reproduce normally

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body. A. Viral conjugation
B. White blood cells that attack foreign B. Lytic cycle
substances that enter the body. C. Lysogeny
C. A type of internal defense mechanism D. none of above
in the immune system.
782. A secondary immune response occurs
D. Proteins that cause disease. when an antigen isencountered on a sec-
ond occasion, due to exposure to a
778. Like all other body systems, the immune
pathogen that previously caused infec-
system helps the body maintain homeosta-
tion. Which property of some viruses ex-
sis (overall balance). Which statement
plains the lack of a secondary immune re-
best describes how the immune system
sponse?
does this?
A. Viruses fail to induce a primary re-
A. it protects other organs and tissues sponse.
from infection and disease
B. Viruses can have a high mutation rate.
B. it breaks down food to provide cells
C. B cells do not interact with viruses.
with nutrients
D. Antibodies cannot interact with
C. it gathers information through the
viruses.
senses and controls all other body sys-
tems 783. David has an infection that is restricted
D. it transports oxygen and carbon diox- to his right arm. What type of infection is
ide this?
A. local
779. Which Immunoglobulin is most associated
B. systemic
with secondary response?
C. general
A. Ig G
D. edemic
B. Ig M
784. A condition in which the immune system
C. Ig A
attacks the body’s own tissues.
D. Ig D
A. immunity
780. What is the first immune cell to respond B. immunization
to a foreign invader? C. immune system
A. B Cells D. autoimmune disorder
B. Lymphocytes 785. Which of the following is a 1st line of de-
C. Phagocytes/Macrophages fence?
D. T Cells A. Antibodies
B. mucus in you nose
781. Method of viral reproduction character-
ized by integration of the bacteriophage C. Red blood cells
nucleic acid into the host bacterium’s D. your white blood cells

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 1.6 Immunopathology 308

786. What are the APCs involved in the Cell B. histamine

Mediated Immune System? C. antibodies
A. Macrophages and Dendritic Cells D. interstitial fluid
B. Dendritic Cells and B-lymphocytes
791. What is the Immune system made of?
C. B-lymphocytes and Macrophages
A. Tissues
D. Macrophages only
B. Organs

NARAYAN CHANGDER
787. refers to antigen-specific immune re- C. Cells
sponse. The adaptive immune response is
more complex than the innate. The antigen D. All of the above
first must be processed and recognized. 792. What are the two types of white blood
A. common immunity cells?
B. Adaptive immunity A. Phagocytes and pathogens
C. pathogenic immunity B. Phagocytes and lymphocytes
D. anaphlactic immunity C. Lymphocytes and pathogens
D. none of above
788. Which of the following remember anti-
gens that have already attacked the 793. Antibiotic
body?
A. An organism that lives and feeds off
A. Antibodies another organism
B. B Cells B. disease that does not typically spread
C. Antigens from person to person
D. Memory Cells C. a substance produced by the body that
attaches to a pathogenand aids in its de-
789. A large cell that engulfs and destroys struction
pathogens is called a
D. a drug that can kill or stop the growth
A. T Cell of harmful bacteria
B. B Cell 794. is produced by a virus infected cell to
C. A Cell help other cells.
D. Phagocyte A. interferon

790. Mast cells produce which causes the B. complement

inflammatory response. C. antibody
A. interleukin D. thymus

1.6 Immunopathology
1. What does a vaccine do? C. Cures you
A. Gives you immunity D. Kills you

B. Gets you sick 2. What are the two parts of a virus?

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1.6 Immunopathology 309

A. DNA and a protein coat (capsid) 8. An outbreak of a disease that can go

B. Nucleic Acid and a Nucleus worldwide.

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A. Pandemic
C. Cell membrane and mitochondria
B. Epidemic
D. Chloroplast and a cell wall
C. Pathogen
3. A syndrome caused by HIV. It is when a D. Virus
person’s immune system is too weak to
fight off many infections 9. Louis Pasteur also showed that micro-
organisms (’germs’) did not generate.
A. AIDS
A. swimmingly
B. SARS
B. sadly
C. Ebola
C. spontaneously
D. Zika
D. specifically
4. He developed the first vaccine using cow
10. The region inside the cell membrane of a
pox to inoculate against small pox-1790s
bacterium
A. John Gaunt
A. bacteria
B. Robert Koch B. endospore
C. Louis Pasteur C. cytoplasm
D. Edward Jenner D. decomposers
5. Which disease is not caused by bacteria? 11. What is the cause of an infectious dis-
A. Strep throat ease?
B. Pneumonia A. inherited

C. Food poisoning B. environmental factors

C. pathogens
D. Influenza (the Flu)
D. none of above
6. What pathogen causes West Nile, In-
fluenza, and the common cold? 12. Viruses are

A. bacteria A. producers
B. consumers
B. fungi
C. parasites
C. viruses
D. decomposers
D. prions
13. Bacteria are prokaryotes which means
7. Infectious disease spread in a small region they
is called a
A. have a nucleus in their capsule
A. Infectious disease
B. do not contain a nucleus
B. Mutation
C. can live in environments with and with-
C. Epidemic out oxygen
D. Pandemic D. none of above

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 1.7 Infection 310

14. How do viruses reproduce? 17. Which sentence best summarizes the au-
A. They copy their own genetic material thor’s point of view about doctors and sci-
inside a protein coat. entists in the mid-1800s?
B. They kill a cell and reproduce inside it A. They were very similar to modern doc-
tors and scientists.
C. They invade a living cell and use the
cell’s functions to replicate their genetic B. They introduced many exciting and
material new ideas.

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. They do not reproduce because they C. They could not help their patients
are not technically living things
D. They knew very little about bacteria.
15. If a disease is caused by a bacteria then
18. What provides direct energy for the
virus?
A. the disease cannot be treated
A. food
B. the person will always die
C. the disease can be treated with vita- B. its host
mins C. the sun
D. the disease can be treated with antibi- D. a parasite
otics
19. Which disease is caused by a virus and
16. What is the single most effective way to
causes muscle aches and a high fever?
break the chain of infection?
A. handwashing A. Influenza

B. sterilization B. Cold
C. cleaning surfaces C. Strep Throat
D. nutrition D. Athletes foot

1.7 Infection
1. Vaccination saves money spent on health C. Filtration
care. What is the most likely reason for D. Radiation
the difference in cost?
A. Vaccines cure diseases. 3. What could we use to kill bacteria?

B. Vaccines do not cost much to buy. A. antibiodies

C. People who have been vaccinated B. antibiotics

never become ill C. antigens
D. People who have been vaccinated D. pathogens
need less treatment in hospital.
4. Where should sharps including needles be
2. A sealed chamber in which objects are ex- placed when done?
posed to heat and steam under pressure A. puncture-resistant container (sharps
A. Autoclave box)
B. Ultrasound B. in the trash

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1.7 Infection 311

C. red bio-hazardous bag 10. What is communicable?

D. down the drain A. spread of disease or infection from

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person to person with (in)direct contact
5. What is the easiest and most important
way to prevent the spread of infection B. spread of disease or infection by
viruses communicating with each other
A. Hand washing
B. Covering your nose when you cough or C. communicating to your physician the
sneeze need for a physical
C. Wearing gloves D. spread of infectious people by bacteria
communicating with other bacteria
D. Wearing a gown and mask

6. When someone is given the MMR vaccine, 11. What type of isolation requires associates
to wear a N95 respirator mask?
A. the white blood cells ingest the A. Contact
pathogens B. Standard
B. the white blood cells neutralise the tox-
C. Droplet
ins in the vaccine
D. Airborne
C. the white blood cells produce antibod-
ies against the pathogens.
12. Pathogens spread via aerosol droplets or
D. the white blood cells reproduce dust
rapidly.
A. Direct Contact
7. B3.1.6 Which of these helps protect the
B. Indirect Contact
body from infection?
C. Airborne Transmission
A. Stomach
B. Skin D. Foodborne Tranmission
C. Nose E. Vector-Borne Transmission
D. All of the above
13. How many links are in the Chain of Infec-
8. One of the most harmful aspects of viral tion?
reproduction is the- A. 10
A. destruction of host cells B. 5
B. reaction of cells to viral proteins
C. 12
C. use of the cell’s ribosomes
D. 6
D. misuse of the cell’s receptor proteins
14. Whats an example of pathogens?
9. C shaped swelling is seen in
A. Buccal space infection A. Bacteria

B. Temporal space infection B. Viruses

C. Canine space infection C. Fungi
D. Masseteric space infection D. All of the them

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1.7 Infection 312

15. People who have been infected with HIV C. Portal of Entry
are much more likely to die of- D. Infectious Agent
A. malnutrition
21. Primary spaces of the mandible are
B. dehydration
C. secondary infections A. Submandibular, buccal, submental,
pterygomandibular
D. blood clotting
B. Submandibular, submental, masse-
16. What type of infections do antibiotics help

NARAYAN CHANGDER
teric, pterygomandibular
to treat?
C. Submandibular, sublingual, submental
A. Bacterial Infections
D. Submandibular, buccal, sublingual,
B. Viral Infections submental
C. Protist Infections
22. What syndrome does HIV lead to?
D. None of them
A. accompanied infection dehydration
17. What body system do all types of T cells syndrome
(white blood cells) belong to?
B. acute integumentary dignified syn-
A. Integumentary system drome
B. Immune system C. agility immune deterrent syndrome
C. Endocrine system D. acquired immune deficiency syndrome
D. Circulatory system
23. This can prevent being infected with
18. You protect the heels and elbows of an el- Malaria ?
derly patient to prevent the breakdown of
A. Antibiotics
skin.
A. Infectious Agent B. Nets

B. Portal of Exit C. Condom

C. Mode of Transmission D. Vaccination
D. Portal of Entry 24. Can antibiotics kill bacteria?
19. Which of the following is the causative A. Yes
agent of tuberculosis? B. No
A. Streptococcus pneumonia
C. Maybe
B. Streptococcus pyogenes
D. none of above
C. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis 25. Which of the following diseases is caused
by a virus?
20. Washing your hands after leaving a pa-
A. Sphyillis
tients room breaks the chain of infection
B. common cold
A. Method of Transmission C. HIV
B. Portal of Exit D. ringworm

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1.7 Infection 313

26. Which of the following statements does 31. Which of the following is not a communi-
not apply to antibodies? cable disease?

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A. They are proteins produced by white A. Measles
blood cells B. Flu
B. They are prescribed by doctors if you C. Heart Disease
have a bacterial infection
D. Salmonella
C. They are specific to particular
pathogens 32. Saucerization is done in the treatment of
D. They attach to antigens on the surface A. osteoradionecrosis
of pathogens B. osteomyelitis
27. PPE stands for C. periosteitis
A. Personal perspective Equipment D. osteoid osteoma
B. b. Private protective equipment 33. What type of mask does the patient wear
C. c. Private Pain equipment during transport if on Airborne Isolation?
D. d. Personal Protective Equipment A. N95 Mask

28. For cold & flu it’s the nose, mouth, or eyes. B. None-staff wears mask
This is related to the chain of infection at C. Surgical Mask
what link? D. Oxygen Face Mask
A. Portal of Exit
34. Why don’t antibiotics kill viruses?
B. Portal of Entry
A. Because viruses don’t have antigens
C. Mode of Transmission
B. Because viruses can’t be killed by any-
D. Suseptible host thing
29. Select the clinical features of a person in- C. Because viruses are inside cells
fected with pertussis. D. Because viruses are too small
A. Diarrhea
35. B3.1.9 in double blind trials, who knows
B. Rapid coughs followed by a high- which patients have the placebo and which
pitched “whoop” sound have the actual drug?
C. Acute inflammatory reaction A. Patients only
D. none of above B. Patients and doctors
30. B3.1.2 What is the name of a virus which C. doctors only
affects plants and causes a distinctive pat- D. Neither patients nor doctors
tern on the leaves due to disrupted photo-
synthesis? 36. When should PPE be removed?
A. Rubella virus A. Before entering patient room
B. Human papillomavirus B. Before leaving patient at destination
C. Human immunodeficiency virus C. While in patient room
D. Tobacco mosaic virus D. Before leaving patient room

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1.7 Infection 314

37. way for causative agent to escape the 42. infection acquired while body defenses are
reservoir weak
A. portal of entry A. nosocomial
B. portal of exit B. opportunistic
C. reservoir C. direct

D. causative agent D. indirect

43. What is used to turn off the faucets

NARAYAN CHANGDER
38. Scientists are testing the effectiveness of
3 different viral medicines (or vaccines) in A. The paper towel I used to wash my
protecting against the common cold. They hands
sign up 1, 200 human volunteers and split B. A clean dry paper towel
them into three groups. So each group of C. My scrub top
400 people is given one of the vaccines.
D. Elbow
The groups are studied for five years and
the scientists record how many colds they 44. Which pathogen causes Black Rose Spot
get each year. What is the dependent vari- and how is it treated?
able in this investigation? A. A Fungus, pesticide
A. different viral medications B. B Bacteria, herbicide
B. the type of common cold virus C. C Fungus, herbicide
C. the number of years D. D Virus, pesticide
D. the number of colds each year 45. What’s an example of a bacterial infec-
tion?
39. B3.1.8 Which of these is an antibiotic?
A. Salmonella
A. Tamiflu
B. Measles
B. Penicillin
C. Black Death
C. Paracetamol
D. AIDS
D. Ibuprofen
46. What is used to cure someone with a bac-
40. way for the causative agent to enter a terial infection such as strep throat
new reservoir A. aspirin
A. portal of entry B. radiation
B. portal of exit C. antibiotics
C. direct D. ibuprophen
D. indirect 47. When must gloves be worn by health care
workers?
41. What is standard PPE
A. while writing reports
A. gloves, hairnet, earmuffs
B. during a bathroom break
B. booties, shield, helmet
C. while having lunch
C. gloves, face mask, gown D. when in contact with blood or body flu-
D. face mask, ear plugs, booties ids

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1.7 Infection 315

48. “fungus like bacteria” This statement de- C. mode of transmission

scribe which of the following bacteria. D. none of above

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A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
54. B3.1 Which of these is NOT a way in which
B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae antibodies help to clear pathogens?
C. Staphylococcus aureus A. Agglutination of pathogens
D. Escherichia coli
B. Engulfing pathogens
49. What type of toxin does Bordetella pertus- C. Neutralisation of toxins
sis produce?
D. Labelling the pathogen for phagocytes
A. Diphtheriae toxin
55. The purpose of infection control is to:
B. Adenylate cyclase toxin
A. remind all staff to wear gloves.
C. Necrotizing toxin
B. encourage good handwashing.
D. Exotoxins
C. disrupt the chain of infection.
50. Tobacco mosaic virus affects ?
D. isolate patients with diseases.
A. Humans
56. HIV demonstrates that viral infections are
B. Animals
harmful to host organisms because-
C. Plants
A. viruses digest nutrients for energy
D. Microbes that would have been used by host cells
51. B3.1.4 How are plants treated for fungal B. the proteins in viral capsids interfere
infections? with the enzymes that produce antibodies
A. Fungicides C. host cells are damaged during the pro-
duction of new virus particles
B. Burn all infected parts of the plant
D. viruses produce harmful toxins that in-
C. Washing the plant with stearic acid
terfere with the cells energy conversions
D. Fungicides and burning infected parts
of the plant 57. Microorganisms that cause disease or in-
fection are called
52. Way that causative agent transmits to an-
A. microbes
other host
B. flora
A. portal of entry
C. pathogens
B. portal of exit
D. bacilli
C. reservoir
D. mode of transmission 58. Completely destroying all microbial life in-
cluding bacterial spores is called:
53. Identify the part(s) of the chain of infec-
tion that has been eliminated by the fol- A. cleaning
lowing actions:food handling B. laundering
A. infectious agent C. sterlizing
B. source or reservoir D. sanitizing

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1.7 Infection 316

59. All are ways to break the chain of infection C. 21

except? D. 11
A. handwashing
65. When a new disease is introduced to a pop-
B. sterilization ulation, it is common for an epidemic to
C. disinfection occur as the disease spreads quickly from
D. reusing gloves person to person. This is primarily because
individuals-
60. Simple plant-like organism, lives typically

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. do not have responsive immune sys-
on dead matter, includes molds. tems
A. Bacteria B. always have poor personal hygiene
B. Fungi habits
C. Virus C. do not understand how germs are
D. Protozoa spread
D. lack immunities to the new disease
61. Ludwigs angina is
A. involvement of Bilateral submandibu- 66. When should gloves be changed
lar, sublingual and submental spaces A. Between Patients
B. involvement of Bilateral submandibu- B. if they rip
lar and submental spaces
C. if the are soiled
C. involvement of Bilateral sublingual and
D. all of these
submental spaces
D. involvement of Unilateral submandibu- 67. What are universal precautions?
lar and submental spaces A. safety standards of universal studios
62. Who discovered penicillin? B. standard requirements of PPE
A. Edward Jenner C. universe protection from aliens
B. Alexander Fleming D. washing blood and other bodily fluids
off your hands or face
C. Ignaz Semmelweis
D. Louis Pasteur 68. A mosquito is a ?
A. Pathogen
63. person who gets a disease because of
weak defenses B. Malaria
A. causative agent C. Vector
B. susceptible host D. Protist
C. reservoir 69. Your patient is put on an antibiotic to treat
D. portal of entry their Strep Throat

64. The number of the BP blade used to drain A. Reservoir

an abscess is B. Infectious Agent
A. 12 C. Mode of Transmission
B. 15 D. Susceptible Host

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1.7 Infection 317

70. Following a vaccination, the white blood 76. Most infectious diseases can be prevented
cells produce by vaccination.What does a vaccine con-
tain?

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A. antibiotics
B. antibodies A. white blood cells
C. statins. B. antibiotics
D. toxins.
C. a mixture of toxins and antitoxins
71. Infections acquired in healthcare settings D. dead or weak pathogens
are called?
A. a lawsuit 77. Pathogen that causes disease
B. unhygienic A. portal of exit
C. nosocomial
B. susceptible host
D. nasopharyngeal
C. infectious agent
72. B3.1.2 How is HIV spread?
D. portal of entry
A. By sharing of bodily fluids
B. In the air 78. Diseases caused by mites, fleas, and ticks
C. By touching are?
D. none of above A. bacteria
73. Absence of disease producing microorgan- B. fungi
isms
C. staphlococcus
A. Asepsis
B. Surgical Asepsis D. ricksettsiae
C. Medical Asepsis
79. Anything that leads to the infection of an
D. none of above individual, like a bacterium or a virus, can
be referred to as a/an-
74. What am I? I am a sticky substance found
in your airways. I trap pathogens so they A. pathogen
cannot enter the lungs.
B. eukaryote
A. Mucus
B. Skin C. stomach bug

C. Hydrochloric acid D. vaccine

D. Cilia
80. Which type of infection originates inside
75. What isolation do patients with MRSA fall the body?
under?
A. nosocomial
A. Standard
B. exogenous
B. Contact
C. Droplet C. oppourtunistic
D. none of above D. endogenous

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1.7 Infection 318

81. You promote a project to get rid of unnec- 87. B3.1.1 Which of these is a way of spread-
essary standing water to reduce mosquito ing infection?
population. A. Air
A. Reservoir B. Water
B. Infectious Agent C. Direct contact
C. Portal of Exit
D. Any of the above
D. Mode of Transmission

NARAYAN CHANGDER
88. This can prevent measles ?
82. Symptoms of pneumonia.
A. Antibiotics
A. Edema
B. Antifungals
B. Mental confusion
C. Vaccination
C. Cough may produce sputum
D. Injection
D. Renal or Liver dysfunction
89. Muscle involved in the spread of infection
83. B3.1.1 Which of these reproduces inside in the submandibular space
the cells of a host?
A. Medial pterygoid
A. bacteria
B. Masseter
B. virus
C. Mylohyoid
C. protist
D. Ant. belly of digastric
D. fungus
90. Method to drain abscess is called
84. An infection that begins in a healthcare fa-
cility is a A. Clarkes method
A. endogenous B. Kelly’s method
B. nosocomial C. Hiltons method
C. exogenous D. John’s method
D. opportunistic 91. The periapical infection can vary according
to the
85. You put on gloves before bandaging a
wound of a patient. A. Number and virulence of the organism
A. Reservoir B. Host resistance
B. Portal of Exit C. Anatomy of the area
C. Portal of Entry D. All of the above
D. Infectious Agent E. None of the above

86. Athlete’s foot is an example of this. 92. Hyperbaric oxygen is given in

A. Bacteria A. osteoradionecrosis
B. Virus B. Acute osteomyelitis
C. Fungus C. Garres osteomyelitis
D. Protist D. osteoporosis

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1.7 Infection 319

93. What is an anaerboic organism? 99. What is reverse isolation

A. live and reproduce in the absence of A. protecting you

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oxygen B. protecting the patient
B. require oxygen to live C. facing the patient backwards
C. cause disease and infection D. none of these
D. all of the above
100. Athletes foot are examples of this type
94. You place a mask over a patient’s nose and of pathogen
mouth in the ER because they have tuber- A. bacteria
culosis.
B. rickettsiae
A. Infectious Agent C. protozoa
B. Portal of Exit D. fungi
C. Susceptible Host
101. When your hands are visibly soiled, you
D. Mode of Transmission should:
95. What causes infectious disease? A. Put on gloves immediately
A. Invaders B. Clean hands with hospital provided
hand sanitizer
B. Cells
C. Wash your hands with soap and water
C. Pathogens
D. Report the exposure to your supervi-
D. Nonpathogens sor
96. What is an aerobic organisms? 102. The process that eliminates most but not
A. do not require oxygen to live necessarily all microorganisms on nonliv-
ing surfaces is called:
B. require oxygen to live
A. fumigation
C. multiply on their own
B. disinfection
D. none above
C. extermination
97. what is the purpose of OSHA D. sterlization
A. Make safety standards
103. B3.1 What are antibodies made of?
B. Inspect facilities
A. Carbohydrate
C. enforce safety standards
B. Protein
D. all of these
C. Lipids
98. A micro-organism that causes disease is D. Disaccharides

104. One-celled animal like organism that typ-

A. an interferon
ically lives in dead matter and contami-
B. an erythrocyte nated water:
C. a troublemaker A. Bacteria
D. a pathogen B. Virus

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1.7 Infection 320

C. Fungi C. mode of transmission

D. Protozoa D. reservoir

105. What is a nonpathogen? 111. all are part of PPE except

A. a disease causing microorganism A. gowns

B. a beneficial microorganism used to B. paper towels

maintain certain body processes C. mask

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. the smallest microorganism D. gloves
D. none of the above 112. A pathogen is

106. B3.1.1 Which of these could be consid- A. A protein on the surface of bacteria
ered pathogens? B. A drug taken to cure an illness
A. Bacteria C. A protein produced by the body to stop
infection
B. Viruses
D. Any micro-organism that causes infec-
C. Protists and fungi tious disease
D. All of the above
113. Ringworm is caused by
107. Which microorganism is only visible using A. Virus
an electron microscope?
B. Fungi
A. bacteria C. protozoa
B. rickettsiae D. helminth
C. fungi
114. Simple one-celled organism that multi-
D. viruses plies rapidly:
108. Primary spaces of the maxilla are A. Virus
A. canine B. Rickettsiae

B. submental C. Bacteria
D. Fungi
C. deep temporal
D. pterygomandibular 115. pathogen transmitted through air, soil,
food or feces
109. Submandibular space infection can spread A. direct contact
to
B. indirect contact
A. submandibular space on the other side
C. opportunistic infection
B. buccal space
D. nosocomial infection
C. masseteric space
116. What is a type of isolation
D. All of the above
A. contact
110. person to person contact B. airborne
A. direct C. reverse
B. indirect D. all of these

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1.7 Infection 321

117. You eat a healthy diet, exercise and get A. Infectious Agent
plenty of sleep to be as healthy as possi- B. Mode of Transmission
ble.

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C. Portal of Entry
A. Susceptible Host
D. Reservoir
B. Infectious Agent
C. Reservoir 122. What am I? I am found in the lungs. I
sweep mucus back up towards the throat
D. Mode of Transmission
so it can be coughed out or swallowed.
118. The next two questions are about the A. Mucus
MMR vaccine.Some people believe that
B. Lysozyme enzymes
there is a link between the MMR vaccine
and diseases such as autism.What is the C. Hydrochloric acid
MMR vaccine? D. Cilia
A. a vaccine for measles, meningitis and
rubella 123. B3.1.5 What is the vector for malaria?

B. a vaccine for measles, mumps and A. Rats

rubella B. Cockroaches
C. a vaccine for meningitis, mumps and C. Beetles
rubella
D. Mosquitoes
D. a vaccine for mumps, measles and ra-
bies 124. What are these following struc-
tures examples of:-Respiratory Tract-
119. Routes of spread are all the following, Gastrointestinal Tract-Mucous Membrane-
except Skin Lesions/ cuts/ abrasions
A. by blood strem A. Sources of entry/ exit
B. by lyphatics B. Vectors
C. by direct continuity through the tis- C. Infectious Agents
sues
D. Modes of Transmission
D. by contact
125. aerobic bacteria require what to live?
120. Products used to kill microbes on contam-
inated tools and other nonliving surfaces A. acid
are: B. sun light
A. disinfectants C. oxygen
B. antiseptics D. plants
C. stypics
126. Initial stage of pertussis.
D. virucides
A. Malaise
121. Community outreach nurses promote a B. Coughing
project to get rid of unnecessary standing
water to reduce the mosquito population. C. Multiple paroxysm
This breaks the chain at what link? D. Rapid-fire staccato cough

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1.7 Infection 322

127. Influenza, aka Flu, is a virus. This repre- A. Portal of Entry

sents the Chain of Infection at what link? B. Portal of Exit
A. Infectious Agent C. Mode of Transmission
B. Reservoir D. Susceptible Host
C. Susceptible Host
133. Humans are the host of the common cold
D. Mode of Transmission & flu. In relation to the Chain of Infection
this represents the link at:

NARAYAN CHANGDER
128. Identify the part(s) of the chain of infec-
tion that has been eliminated by the fol- A. Infectious Agent
lowing actions:early recognition of signs B. Reservoir
of infection
C. Portal of Exit
A. infectious agent
D. Mode of Trasmission
B. portal of entry
C. source of reservoir 134. B3.1.1 Which of these is false?
D. none of above A. Bacteria and viruses reproduce rapidly
inside the body
129. Can antibiotics work on viruses? B. Bacteria produce toxins that damage
A. Yes tissues and make us feel ill
B. No C. Bacteria invade the body’s cells and re-
C. Maybe produce inside them

D. none of above D. Plants can be infected by bacteria or

viruses
130. How is Hepatitis C and B transmitted?
135. The reservoir is a place where the
A. Airborne pathogen can?
B. contact with blood and body secre- A. survive
tions
B. reproduce
C. none of the above
C. be killed
D. all of the above
D. both A & B
131. what is a synonym for impervious?
136. Which answer best describes how in-
A. impenetrable fectious diseases get transmitted (passed
B. inpaliable on)?
C. antiseptic A. people can sneeze or cough and pass
D. parenteral disease on through the air
B. drinking water can be contaminated
132. For colds & the flu, we contract the illness with diseases
through droplets from coughing, sneezing
or laughing, either directly from one per- C. objects such as doorknobs and towels
son to another or indirectly from touching can be contaminated by disease
contaminated surfaces. In relation to the D. all of the above answers are ways that
chain of infection what link is this? diseases are transmitted

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1.7 Infection 323

137. Identify the part(s) of the chain of infec- 142. B3.1 Which cells are activated in the sec-
tion that has been eliminated by the fol- ondary immune response?
lowing actions:recognition of high-risk pa-

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A. B cells
tients
B. Y cells
A. source or reservoir
C. Memory cells
B. susceptible host
D. T cells
C. mode of tranmission
143. B3.1.3 How is gonorrhoea controlled?
D. none of above
A. Antibiotics
138. What’s an example of a protist infec- B. Condoms
tion? C. Both
A. Salmonella D. Neither
B. Rose Black Spot
144. A type of disease where the body attacks
C. Malaria itself is called?
D. AIDS A. automatic
B. antibiotic
139. Which of the following is Gram-positive
diplococci? C. autoimmune

A. Streptococcus pyogenes D. hereditary

B. Streptococcus pneumonia 145. What are the 4 types of infection?

C. Staphylococcus aureus A. endogenous, exogenous, noscomial,
pus-producing
D. Staphylococcus alburs
B. endogenous, nosocomial, aerobic
140. Identify the part(s) of the chain of infec- C. endogenous, exogenous, nosocomial,
tion that has been eliminated by the fol- opportunistic
lowing actions:pathogen leaving the body
D. none of the above
through sexual secretions
A. portal of exit 146. Cause of death in ludwigs angina is
A. Severe infection
B. portal of entry
B. Cardiac arrest
C. mode of transmission
C. Asphyxiation
D. none of above
D. Pneumonia
141. A patient with a staph infection is ban-
147. Vaccines are the best way to prevent
daged.
viral infections because they cause your
A. Portal of Entry body to build its own antibodies as a re-
sponse. What do vaccines contain that
B. Portal of Exit
causes this response?
C. Mode of Transmission
A. part of a pathogen or a pathogen that
D. Susceptible Host has been incapacitated (no longer works)

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1.7 Infection 324

B. water and sodium chloride 153. anaerobic

C. a fully working virus A. with oxygen
D. adjuvants that cause autism B. antibodies

148. What is NOT an example of a pathogen? C. disease

A. Bacteria D. without oxygen

B. Virus 154. A medical researcher has developed a

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Fungi drug that attaches to the surface markers
of a specific virus preventing them from
D. H20 functioning correctly. This drug would
most likely disrupt the virus’s ability to-
149. What is the best environment for microor-
ganisms to grow A. mutate into a new viral strain
A. sunny, cold and dry B. attach to its target host cell
B. hot and dry C. maintain the integrity of its capsid
C. warm dark and moist D. have its genetic material transcribed
D. cold and wet
155. When a pathogen is transmitted from per-
150. Identify the part(s) of the chain of infec- son to person through physical touch (kiss-
tion that has been eliminated by the fol- ing, hugging, shaking hands, etc).
lowing actions:identification of organisms A. Transmission
A. portal of exit B. Translation
B. infectious agent C. Direct Contact
C. portal of entry D. Indirect Contact
D. none of above
156. Identify the part(s) of the chain of infec-
151. how many links are in the chain of infec- tion that has been eliminated by the fol-
tion? lowing actions:Catheter care
A. 10 A. mode of transmission
B. 5 B. portal of exit
C. 12 C. portal of entry
D. 6 D. none of above

152. What are the main classes of microorgan- 157. Nurses avoid contracting Hepatitis C by
isms? ensuring their skin is not punctured with
the needle. This breaks the chain
A. bacteria, protozoa, fungi, rickettsiae,
viruses A. Portal of Entry
B. bacteria, bacilli, thrush B. Portal of Exit
C. protozoa, spirilla, pathogens C. Susceptible Host
D. pathogens, nonpathogens D. Mode of Transmission

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1.7 Infection 325

158. Microorganisms get into the body 164. B3.1.5 Malaria is caused by
through A. A virus

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A. portals of entry. B. A protist
B. portals of exit. C. A bacterium
C. fomites.
D. A fungus
D. common vehicles.
165. Area where the causative agent can live
159. Which disease currently has a vaccine?
A. mode of transmission
A. AIDS
B. portal of exit
B. Hepatitis C
C. reservoir
C. Hepatitis B
D. portal of entry
D. All of the above
166. Solutions that destroy microorganisms or
160. Loss of nasolabial fold is seen in which inhibit their growth on living tissue
infection
A. Disinfecting
A. buccal space infection
B. Sterilizing
B. Temporal space infection
C. Antiseptics
C. canine space infection
D. Cleaning
D. Infra temporal fossa space infection
167. What type of cell does HIV attack?
161. Compromised host defenses are seen in
all situations except A. neurons (brain cells)
A. Uncontrolled diabetes B. liver cells
B. Malnutrition C. stomach cells
C. Immunosuppresive drugs D. Helper T cells (white blood cells)
D. Uncontrolled hypertension 168. Why is it important for people to under-
162. When should health care workers wash stand whether a virus is spread through
their hands? the air or through direct contact with bod-
ily fluids?
A. Only when they are visibly dirty
A. To prevent it from being spread to new
B. At the beginning of the work day
hosts
C. Before providing care and between pa-
B. So that people can identify the virus
tients
C. So that the food supply is not disturbed
D. Every 20 minutes
D. To create immunities in the population
163. These live and reproduce inside your cells
? 169. B3.1.7 Vaccination involves
A. Bacteria A. A live pathogen
B. Virus B. A dead or weakened pathogen
C. Fungus C. A cloned pathogen
D. Protist D. A mutated pathogen

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 1.8 Disturbances of Blood Flow 326

1.8 Disturbances of Blood Flow

1. This happens when blood from the heart is A. coronary angiography
cut off to part of the brain. B. coronary bypass
A. arteriosclerosis C. heart transplant
B. heart attack D. angioplasty
C. myocardial infarction

NARAYAN CHANGDER
6. Where in the human body is the blood is
D. stroke oxygenated?
2. An irregular heart beat/ irregular pattern A. liver
A. arrythmia B. pancreas
B. tachycardia C. lungs
C. hypertension D. brain
D. osteoarthritis 7. “yellow, fatty deposits in an artery”
3. Kate had been feeling poorly for a while A. stent
so she went to her doctor. She listed the B. arterioma
following as her symptoms:dizzy flutter-
ing feeling in her chestWhen doing regu- C. plaque
lar activities she is experiencing a short- D. ischemia
ness of breathfaintingsweating more than
usual Her doctor told her that her heart is 8. A group of disorders causing blood vessels
beating too fast when it is at rest. He di- to thicken, harden, and lose elasticity
agnosed her with having: A. arteriosclerosis
A. a heart attack B. atherosclerosis
B. an arrhythmia C. vasoconstriction
C. a blood clot D. vasocilation
D. diabetes 9. Inflammation of the pericardium.
4. Why is atherosclerosis especially danger- A. Angina pectoris
ous when found in the coronary arteries? B. Valvular stenosis
A. It can restrict blood flow to the heart C. Incompetent valve
muscle.
D. Pericarditis
B. It can lead to coronary artery disease.
C. It can cause a heart attack. 10. Term used to discuss any change or devia-
tion from the normal rate or rhythm of the
D. All of the above options are correct. heart
5. Which of the following procedures in- A. Arrhythmia
volves a segment of a leg vein being used B. Aneurysm
to provide an alternate pathway for blood
flow past a point of obstruction between C. Hematoma
the aorta and a coronary artery? D. Sickle cell anemia

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1.8 Disturbances of Blood Flow 327

11. Bleeding from blood vessels within the 16. A surgical procedure in which an instru-
brain ment with a tiny balloon is inserted into
a blocked artery to clear a blockage.

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A. Myocardial Infarction
A. heart attack
B. Cerebral Hemorrhage
B. hypertension
C. Arrhythmia
C. stroke
D. Aneurysm
D. angioplasty
12. Three Main parts of the circulatory sys-
17. Which two systems work together to ex-
tem:
change oxygen and carbon dioxide in the
A. stomach body
B. heart A. Respiratory System
C. liver B. Digestive System
D. veins C. Endocrine System

E. arteries D. Circulatory System

18. Which of the following is the “silent killer”

13. Enlarged, twisted, superficial veins, most
because it usually has no symptoms?
commonly seen in the lower extremities.
A. Stroke
A. thrombophlebitis
B. high blood pressure
B. athreosclerosis
C. high cholesterol
C. arteriosclerosis
D. hemophilia
D. varicose veins
19. Which of the following is associated with
14. The widening of blood vessels, resulting atherosclerosis?
in increased volume of blood flow (causes A. High-fiber diets
‘blushing’ if in arterioles/capillaries of
B. low-salt diet
face)
C. increased exercise
A. vasoconstriction
D. high cholesterol diet
B. bruising
C. vasodilation 20. Which of the following describes the for-
mation of a blood clot that obstructs blood
D. hemostat flow?

15. What is the main cause of a heart attack A. embolism

A. blood that is oxygenated and carrying B. ischemia

nutrients C. thrombosis
B. blood flow that has too much oxygen D. plaque
C. blood flow that is unobstructed 21. Transplantation between members of a dif-
D. blood flow that is blocked by a blood ferent species
clot A. Autograft

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1.8 Disturbances of Blood Flow 328

B. Xenotransplant B. veins
C. Allograft C. stomach
D. isograft D. lungs

22. Heart valves are typically from what ani- 27. Main function of the circulatory system:
mal? A. to carry carbon dioxide and nutrients
A. cow to the cells of the body

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. pig B. To care waste products to the cells of
the body
C. sheep
C. to carry oxygen and nutrients to the
D. chimpanzee
cells of the body.
23. Deficiency of rbc, characterized by low en- D. none of above
ergy levels-can be caused by a lack of
iron in the diet or hemorrhaging (excessive 28. Grafting vein from another part of the
bleeding) body into position in the heart
A. aneursym A. aneurysm
B. arteriosclerosis B. coronary bypass
C. anemia C. varicose vein
D. atherosclerosis D. cloning

24. The symptoms of heart failure include 29. This is the pacemaker of the heart

A. shortness of breath A. atrioventricular node

B. fatigue B. sinoatrial node

C. purkinje fibers
C. weakness
D. bundle of his
D. all of the above
30. Electric instruments that doctors place in-
25. What are some Heart Attack Preventa-
side a person’s chest to control the heart-
tive measure? regular physical activity, a
beat.
healthy diet, non-smoker
A. heart attack
A. regular physical activity
B. Pacemaker
B. smoking
C. stroke
C. a healthy diet
D. angioplasty
D. poor diet
E. non-smoker 31. David was learning about the heart. He
had to label the parts and was told that
26. David is learning about the cardiovascular this part of the circulatory system is rep-
system. He is told to use blue to represent resent by the color red. It carries oxygen
this part of the system. He reads that it and nutrients away from the heart to the
carries carbon dioxide and waste towards body. Help David identify this part of the
the heart. Help David identify this system. cardiovascular system.
A. arties A. arties

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1.8 Disturbances of Blood Flow 329

B. veins 37. Angina is characterized by pain in the chest

area due to a lack of oxygen. However,
C. lungs
which type of angina is spontaneous and

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D. stomach occurs at rest?

32. This is insufficient iron in the blood affect- A. Stable angina

ing production of hemoglobin. B. Unstable angina
A. iron-deficiency anemia C. Variant angina
B. pernicious anemia D. Angina Pectoris

C. posthemorrhagic anemia 38. Compared to a drop of blood taken from

the vein in the arm, a drop of blood taken
D. aplastic anemia
from an artery in the arm would normally
contain:
33. “pounding, racing heartbeat”
A. less oxygen and more carbon dioxide
A. murmur
B. less carbon dioxide and more oxygen
B. plaque
C. less oxygen and more hydrogen
C. palpitations
D. More oxygen and less carbon dioxide
D. angiospasm
39. Disease resulting from reduced blood flow
34. Chest pains due to too little O2 to the from the heart; characterized by weak-
heart ness, breathlessness, abdominal discom-
fort, and edema in the lower extremities.
A. angina
A. congestive heart failure (CHF)
B. fainting
B. cardiac tamponade
C. aneursym
C. premature ventricular contraction
D. tacchycardia (PVCs)
D. varicose veins
35. A floating clot that has broken off a clot
somewhere else in the body. 40. The fluid-filled bulge due to weakened ar-
A. thrombus terial wall

B. hemangioma A. aneurysm
B. varicose vein
C. embolus
C. vasoconstriction
D. thrombophlebitis
D. angioplasty
36. Which of the following describes the ob-
41. Disease that occurs when deposits of fatty
struction of a blood flow due to a blood
substances form along the walls of the ar-
clot, fat globule or foreign material?
teries.
A. embolism A. Atherosclerosis
B. ischemia B. Heart Failure
C. thrombosis C. Myocardial Infarction
D. plaque D. Claudication

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 1.9 Tissue Degenerations 330

42. “Heart attack” due to heart cells receiving D. cigarette smoking

no oxygen.
46. This type of stroke can be treated with
A. Fibrillation TPA, a clot buster, ONLY if patient seeks
B. Ischemia treatment with in three hours of the onset
C. Heart block of symptoms.

D. Myocardial infarction A. Hemmorrhagic

B. Ischemic

NARAYAN CHANGDER
43. A ruptured aneurysm may cause bleeding
to the surrounding tissue that is often re- C. Explosive
ferred to as D. Sudden
A. saculation 47. Condition in which the valve between the
B. Fusiform left atrium and the left ventricle doesn’t
C. Hemorrhage close properly; may cause blood leakage
back into the left atrium.
D. ischemia
A. tricuspid atrestia
44. The ballooning out of an artery, accompa- B. mitral valve prolapse
nied by the thinning arterial wall, caused
by weakening of the blood vessel C. pulmonary stenosis

A. Aneurysm D. endocarditis

B. Hematoma 48. Fat deposits in blood vessels (Ca2+ and

C. Sickle cell anemia other minerals mix with fat to form
‘plaque’) causing degeneration of blood
D. Coronary Artery Disease vessels (less elastic)-= ‘hardening of the
45. Which of the following is NOT a risk factor arteries’
for cardiovascular disease? A. varicose vein
A. stress B. aneursym
B. elevated blood cholesterol C. arteriole schlerosis
C. consumption of aspirin D. atherosclerosis

1.9 Tissue Degenerations

1. Atherosclerosis is deposition of lipids in A. Impaired energy production
artery’s wall, caused by ..? B. Metabolic derangement
A. Hypercholesterolemia C. Failure of vital metabolic reaction
B. Vasculitis D. Absence of vital proteins
C. Fibrosis
3. Hyaline droplet in the cells is a part of de-
D. Stroke generative changes due to ?

2. Choose the conditions that can cause non- A. Bacterial toxins

lethal injuries. B. Protein accumulation

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1.9 Tissue Degenerations 331

C. Lipid accumulation 9. Fibrinoid is ..?

D. Genetic mutation A. Accumulation of material that resem-

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bles fibrin in BV walls
4. Fatty changes in cells is a degenerative B. Composed of fibrin and immunoglobu-
change due to lipid accumulation, caused lin
by ..?
C. Occurs due to acute damage of muscle
A. Anoxia cells
B. Mitochodrial damage D. Looks similar to hyaline but redder
C. Starvation
10. Amyloidosis is ..?
D. Hypoxia A. Deposition of abnormal protein
5. Zenker’s degeneration is mostly seen in B. Usually found in BV walls
..? C. Due to lipid accumulation
A. Muscle cells D. Changes occurs inside the cells
B. Kidney cells 11. We can evaluate a degeneration process
C. Liver cells by morphological changes ?
D. Epithelial cells A. Inside the cells
B. Outside the cells
6. Cell injury is classified according to sever-
C. Around the cells
ity and nature of the injury. An example
of severity is D. Vital organ function
A. Physical 12. A disease due to degeneration process in-
B. Nonlethal type side the cells includes

C. Autoimmune disease A. Gout

B. Amyloidosis
D. Over nutrition
C. Calcification
7. Degenerative changes outside the cells due D. Kidney nephritis
to accumulation of protein are ..?
13. Choose the degenerative changes caused
A. Amyloidosis
by water accumulation.
B. Gout
A. Hydropic
C. Artherosclerosis B. Hyalinization
D. Calcification C. Zenker’s degeneration
8. The reversible and non lethal injury can D. Fibrinoid
cause 14. Nonlethal injury ..?
A. Necrosis A. Reversible
B. Apoptosis B. May progress to necrosis
C. Degeneration C. Is a part of apoptosis process
D. Regeneration D. Cause cell death

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 1.10 Tumours: General Features 332

15. The following diseases occur with high D. Biochemical changes

blood pressure, thrombi formation and is-
chemia EXCEPT 19. What is the main difference of metastatic
and dystrophic calcification?
A. Myocardial infarction
A. Metastatic:Occurs at normal soft tis-
B. Stroke sueDystrophic:Occurs at necrotic soft tis-
C. Gangrene sue
D. Fatty liver B. Metastatic:Occurs at necrotic soft tis-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
sue Dystrophic:Occurs at normal soft tis-
16. Choose the related answers of cloudy sue
swelling due to water accumulation in the
degenerative cells. C. Metastatic:Occurs at normal boneDys-
trophic:Occurs at necrotic bone
A. Reversible injury
D. Metastatic:Occurs at necrotic
B. Due to damage of the Na-K membrane boneDystrophic:Occurs at normal bone
pump
C. An early change in acute cell injury 20. Lethal injury ?

D. An advanced stage of cell swelling A. Can cause necrosis

B. Can cause apoptosis
17. Gout is ..?
C. Irreversible
A. Accumulation of urate crystals in joints
D. Reversible
B. Painful
C. Due to high uric acid levels in blood 21. If an injury is removed, the degeneration
process is ..?
D. Changes occur inside the affected cell
A. Reversible
18. Cell injuries can be classified based on ..? B. Irreversible
A. Severity C. Progress into malignancy
B. Nature D. Influence degenerative process of the
C. Morphology whole organ

1.10 Tumours: General Features

1. In hereditary renal cell carcinoma (RCC), B. small & big
the following syndrome is implicated in C. benign & malignant
carcinogenesis:
D. none of above
A. Polycystic kidney disease
B. Alports syndrome 3. Papillary variant of renal cell carcinoma is
associated with
C. VHL syndrome
A. VHL gene mutation
D. Fabrys disease
B. Monosomy 1
2. Cancers are graded as C. Trisomy 7 & 17
A. stage 1 & 2 D. Hypodiploidy

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1.10 Tumours: General Features 333

4. RCC with excellent prognosis normal. A bone scan reveals another le-
sion in the contralateral right proximal fe-
A. Clear cell type
mur. Biopsy of the right proximal femur le-

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B. Chromophobe type sion also reveals osteosarcoma. According
C. Papillary type to AJCC, what is the stage of this tumor?
A. II-A
D. Sarcomatoid
B. II-B
5. Most common histologic type of RCC C. III
A. Papillary D. IVA
B. Clear cell E. IVB
C. Chromophobe 10. Which of the following are not components
D. Sarcomatoid of the mucin filling up ganglion cysts?
A. Albumin
6. For most brain cancers the average sur- B. Glucosamine
vival rate is months, from the time of
diagnosis C. Hyaluronic acid
D. Collagen
A. 6-9
E. Globulin
B. 1-2
11. How many Brain tumour signs were taken
C. 12-15
up for the study
D. 18-24 A. 5
7. Euler number E is the number of connected B. 6
components C the number of holes H C. 7
A. minus D. 8
B. plus 12. Which segmentation method gave the best
C. divided by result for sign based segmentation
A. THRESHOLDING
D. moduli
B. ACTIVE CONTOUR
8. Most common site of metastasis in RCC C. FUZZY C MEANS
A. Liver D. REGION GROWING
B. Lungs 13. What is the second most common site of
C. Bones origin of ganglion cysts and its estimated
prevalence?
D. Brain
A. SL articulation, 30%
9. A 12-year-old boy is diagnosed with os- B. Flexor retinaculum, 20%
teosarcoma of the left distal femur. The le- C. Radiocarpal or STT joint, 50%
sion measures 7 cm and is associated with
a soft-tissue mass that extends into the D. Flexor retinaculum, 50%
vastus lateralis. A CT scan of the chest is E. Radiocarpal or STT joint, 20%

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 1.11 Blood Vessels 334

14. Name of the an intelligent noninvasive B. IIA

biosignal recording system for infants
C. IB
A. NodeMCU
D. IIB
B. Thinkspeak
E. III
C. MQTT
D. xVLEPSIS 16. Mention the false statement regarding re-
nal cell carcinoma
15. A 13-year-old girl presents with an iso-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
lated distal femur osteosarcoma that ex- A. Most of them are sporadic
tends into the soft tissue. Work-up is neg- B. Female predominance
ative for metastasis, but biopsy reveals a
high grade lesion. What is the stage of C. Clear cell carcinoma associated with
this tumor by the Musculoskeletal Tumor VHL gene mutation
Society system? D. Papillary RCC associated with MET pro-
A. IA tooncogene

1.11 Blood Vessels

1. Which of the following is/are true of an 4. In arteries, the thickest layer of the wall
arteriole? One, some or all answers could is the
be correct? A. tunica interna
A. It is a small artery B. tunica externa
B. It connects arteries to capillaries C. tunica media
C. It contains smooth muscle that can D. vasa vasorum
contract and relax
D. It controls blood flow to different or- 5. Which blood vessels carry blood away
gans by changing its diameter from heart; mostly oxygen-rich.
A. Arteries
2. The largest artery in the body is the
B. Veins
A. brachiocephalic artery
C. Capillaries
B. pulmonary trunk
D. none of above
C. common carotid artery
D. aorta 6. how wide are capillaries?
A. 1 cell
3. Aortic valve is closed, indicated by the
lower number of the blood pressure read- B. 2 cells
ing C. 5 cells
A. Systole D. 10 cells
B. Diastole 7. The greatest surface area blood vessel is
C. impulse the
D. depolarization A. artery

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1.11 Blood Vessels 335

B. arteriole 13. The blood vessel that has the largest diam-
eter (size of lumen) is
C. capillary

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A. vein
D. vein
B. artery
8. Which vessels transport blood AWAY from C. capillary
the heart
D. none of above
A. arteries
14. Elastic stretch and recoil (Windkessel ef-
B. capillaries
fect) of this blood vessel type keeps blood
C. veins at a relatively high MAP compared to the
D. none of above rest of the blood vessels.
A. artery
9. What part of blood is responsible for carry-
B. arteriole
ing oxygen and carbon dioxide to or from
body cells? C. capillary
A. Red Blood Cells D. vein

B. White Blood Cells 15. Smallest, most numerous blood vessel.

C. Platelets A. Capillaries
D. Plasma B. Arteries
C. Veins
10. If red blood cells are like mail men, white
blood cells are like D. Venules

A. police officers 16. The 3 Human blood vessels are

B. teachers A. arteries, capillaries, and atria
C. politicians B. ventricles, atria and pulmonary veins

D. unemployed workers C. capillaries, arteries, and veins

D. veins, arteries, and aorta
11. A double-walled sac that encloses the
heart 17. These blood vessels have muscular walls:
A. Endocardium A. capillaries

B. Myocardium B. veins

C. Epicardium C. venules
D. arteries
D. Pericardium
18. carries poor oxygenated blood from the
12. This is where you can detect your pulse. right ventricle to the left lung
A. arteries A. Pulmonary semilunar valve
B. veins B. Left Atrium
C. capillaries C. Left pulmonary veins
D. plasma D. Left pulmonary artery

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1.11 Blood Vessels 336

19. Which of the following does not contain 25. Oxygen and carbon dioxide are trans-
oxygenated blood? ported between the blood and alveoli by
A. aorta way of

B. pulmonary veins A. exocytosis and endocytosis by en-

dothelial cells
C. pulmonary arteries
B. diffusion from areas of higher concen-
D. left atrium tration to lower concentration
20. Which of the following are the smallest

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. swapping molecules
blood vessels? D. active transport (using ATP) by protein
A. artery carriers of endothelial cells
B. vein 26. When would the capillary beds surround-
C. venule ing the gastrointestinal organs be open?
D. capillary A. when digesting a meal

21. Supply the heart. B. while sleeping

A. Phrenic arteries C. while exercising

B. Thoracic aorta D. in between meals

C. Aortic arch 27. Arteries have low compliance.

D. Coronary arteries A. TRUE

22. What are 3 of your blood vessels B. FALSE

A. Arteries C. MAYBE

B. Faritopy D. none of above

C. dompin 28. Short-term blood pressure control in-

D. Capillaries volves

E. Veins A. ADH
B. ADH and Aldosterone
23. This chamber of the heart, called the , is
in the lower part of the heart, and pumps C. Baroreceptors in the vena cava
blood to the lungs or around the body. D. CVCC of the Medulla
A. ventricle 29. The blood vessel with the slowest velocity
B. atrium of blood flow.
C. septum A. artery
D. heart B. arteriole

24. Carry blood away from the heart. C. capillary

A. Veins D. vein

B. Venules 30. the tissue that lines the chambers

C. Arteries A. Epicardium
D. Capillaries B. Myocardium

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1.11 Blood Vessels 337

C. Endocardium 36. These are one cell layer thick

D. Pericardium A. arteries

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B. capillaries
31. Where does the diffusion of oxygen take
place? C. veins
A. capillaries D. none of above

B. arteries 37. Provide a large surface area for exchange

C. veins of materials.
A. Arteries
D. none of above
B. Venules
32. How many chambers does the heart C. Capillaries
have?
D. Veins
A. 6
B. 4 38. Which blood vessels have the largest
blood pressure?
C. 2
A. veins
D. none of above
B. capillaries
33. Which part of a blood vessel does blood C. arteries
flow in? D. none of above
A. Artery
39. Which vessels carry blood to the heart?
B. Lumen
A. Veins
C. Gap
B. Arteries
D. Capillary wall
C. Capillaries
34. are tiny, thin-walled vessels where D. Vena cavae
materials and wastes are exchanged be-
tween the blood and the body’s cells. 40. Which does not make up the circulatory
system?
A. Capillaries
A. heart
B. Veins
B. blood
C. Vessels
C. lungs
D. Arteries D. blood vessels
35. A device used to measure the pressure 41. State the 3 types of blood vessels in hu-
against the arteries of the body. mans.
A. Monitor A. artries, capillaries, and atria
B. Gauge B. ventricles, atria and pulmonary veins
C. sphygmomanometer C. capillaries, artries, and veins
D. millimeter D. veins, artries, and aorta

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1.11 Blood Vessels 338

42. Which of the following squirt blood when C. vein

cut?
D. cell
A. capillaries
B. veins 48. All arteries directly or indirectly emerge
from which large artery?
C. arteries
A. pulmonary
D. none of above
B. aorta

NARAYAN CHANGDER
43. What is the layer of blood vessels that are
closest to the skin called? C. vena cava

A. Epidermal Layer D. subclavian

B. Hypodermal Layer 49. Blood travels from the veins into the
C. Dermis
A. heart
D. Subcutaneous Layer
B. organ tissues
44. What name is given to the structure that C. lungs
prevents back flow in the blood vessels?
D. capillaries
A. Valve
B. Pacemaker 50. I have a large lumen, I have thin muscular
C. Septum walls, I pump blood towards the heart

D. Muscles A. Artery
B. Vein
45. How many different types of blood ves-
sels are in our bodies? C. Capillary
A. 1 D. Arteriole
B. 5
51. arteries, veins, and capillaries are three
C. 3 types of
D. 2 A. heart valves
46. Oxygen poor blood blood enters the right B. blood vessels
atrium from the body through the
C. cells
A. aorta
D. veins
B. vena cava
C. pulmonary artery 52. Which of the following vessels has the
thinnest wall that contains no muslces or
D. pulmonary vein
elastic tissue?
47. The heart pumps blood with a lot of pres- A. Artery
sure. For this reason the walls are
thick, resistant, and flexible. B. Vein
A. artery C. Capillary
B. capillary D. Valve

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1.11 Blood Vessels 339

53. Carbon dioxide and waste products are C. Capillary

picked up at the cells by which blood ves-
D. Arteriole
sel?

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A. arteries 59. Which vessel am I? I have muscular walls,
B. veins and a small lumen.

C. capillaries A. Artery
D. none of above B. Vein

54. How are capillaries adapted for their func- C. Capillary

tion? (2 answers) D. Arteriole
A. Have permeable walls
60. Carries blood away from heart; oxygen
B. One-cell thick walls rich blood
C. Presence of valves
A. Arteries
D. Large lumen
B. Veins
55. Why does an artery have a thick, muscular C. Capillaries
and elastic wall?
D. none of above
A. To prevent backflow of blood
B. To withstand the high pressure of 61. The subclavian artery carries blood from
blood from the heart to the
C. To carry deoxygenated blood A. arms to the superior Vena Cava
D. To protect the lumen B. Aorta to the arms
56. The duration of the pause in the work of C. arms to the aorta
the heart is:
D. Vena cava to the arms
A. 0, 5
B. 0, 7 62. State the blood vessel that has the largest
diameter.
C. 0, 2
A. vein
D. 0, 4
B. artery
57. Vessels that receive blood from arterioles
C. capillary
A. arteries
D. none of above
B. capillaries
C. veins 63. These vessels carry away from capillary
networks
D. none of above
A. capillaries
58. I have a muscular wall, a small lumen and
I lead to a capillary network B. veins
A. Artery C. venules
B. Vein D. arteries

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1.11 Blood Vessels 340

64. When a blood vessel in the brain becomes under the influence of impulses generated
clogged or ruptures? in the heart.
A. High Blood Pressure B. the ability to beat rhythmically under
the influence of impulses from the heart
B. Atherosclerosis
itself
C. Hypertension
C. it is the ability of the heart muscle to be
D. Stroke excited by various stimuli of a physical or
chemical nature, accompanied by changes

NARAYAN CHANGDER
65. Which vessels that are a single cell layer in the physicochemical properties of the
thick to promote diffusion? tissue.
A. Veins D. is carried out in the heart electrically
B. Arteries due to the formation of an action potential
in the pacemaker cells. Nexuses serve as
C. Capillaries
the place of transition of excitation from
D. Venules one cell to another.

66. What is the function of the ophthalmic 70. As blood travels from arteries to veins,
artery? A. pressure builds.
A. Supply blood to the brain B. viscosity increases.
B. Supply blood to the eyes C. diameter of the blood vessels gets pro-
C. Supply blood to the nose gressively larger.
D. pressure drops
D. Supply blood to the cheeks
71. The blood vessel that has valves
67. Constrict and this will increase venous
return. A. capillary
B. artery
A. arteries
C. vein
B. arterioles
D. none of the above
C. capillaries
72. Blood that leaves the lungs and is heading
D. veins
back to the heart is traveling through the
68. Cornary heart disease (CHD) is when ar-
teries on the heart become blocked with A. pulmonary veins
fatty deposits. What isn’t a signifcant fac- B. pulmonary arteries
tor that increases the chance CHD.
C. aorta
A. Blood Chloesterol Levels
D. vena cava
B. Genetics
73. What is the large vein that brings oxygen
C. Diet and Exercise poor blood back to the heart?
D. Testerone Levels A. Vena Cava
69. What is the automatism of the heart? B. Pulmonary Vein
A. Automatism of the heart lies in the abil- C. Aorta
ity of myocytes to contract rhythmically D. Pulmonary Vein

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1.11 Blood Vessels 341

74. Considering the bulk flow that occurs at 79. The Valves in the heart and veins prevent
capillary beds, the lymphatic system is
needed to

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A. Forward Flow
A. reabsorb excess fluid from the intersti- B. Cardiac Flow
tial fluid.
C. Lateral Flow
B. filter additional lymphatic fluid into the
D. Back Flow
interstitial fluid.
C. connect arterioles to venules and pro- 80. Blood flows from the lungs to the via
vide a shunt from the true capillaries. the
D. regulate colloid osmotic pressure so A. left atrium; pulmonary veins
that filtration levels do not decline. B. right atrium; pulmonary arteries

75. Walls 1 cell thick, describes which vessel? C. left atrium; pulmonary arteries
D. right atrium; pulmonary veins
A. Artery
B. Vein 81. a vessel that carries blood towards the
heart
C. Capillary
A. Arterioles
D. none of above
B. Venules
76. Attached to the left venctricle C. Veins
A. Pulmonary Artery D. Arteries
B. Pulmonary Veins
82. As an arterial pathway moves farther
C. Aorta from the heart, the arteries
D. Inferior Vena Cava A. get smaller
E. Superior Vena Cava B. get larger

77. Which is NOT a function of the circulatory C. do not change in size

system? D. have a party
A. deliver O2 and nutrients to cells 83. All exchange of materials between inter-
B. remove CO2 and wastes from cells stitial fluid and blood occurs at the size
of blood vessels.
C. break down carbohydrates into glu-
cose A. arteriole
D. transport other materials through B. capillary
body C. venule

78. As blood moves away from the heart, D. elastic artery

blood pressure 84. Low blood pressure
A. remains constant A. diastolic pressure
B. increases B. systolic pressure
C. decreases C. hypotension
D. is measured with a stethoscope D. hypertension

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1.11 Blood Vessels 342

85. The function of the aorta is to: 91. How many ml of blodd are pumped during
A. Pump blood to the lungs each heart beat?
B. Send blood from the upper body to the A. 100ml
right atrium B. 70ml
C. Send blood from the left ventricle to
C. 200ml
the body
D. Receive blood from the lower body D. 500ml

NARAYAN CHANGDER
86. Vessels that carry high pressure blood 92. Blood carries from your lungs to your
A. arteries body cells/tissues.
B. capillaries A. carbon dioxide
C. veins B. oxygen
D. none of above C. water
87. What makes the contents of blood, exclud- D. urea
ing plasma?
A. red blood cells 93. Arteries have a thick layer of muscle and
elastic tissue.Why is this important? One,
B. white blood cells
some or all answers could be correct?
C. bone marrow
A. Prevents arteries from bursting due to
D. spontaneous creation high blood pressure
88. An important artery that supplies blood to B. Smooths out blood flow so it is in
the brain is the artery. pulses
A. maxillary C. Helps to force blood back to the heart
B. mental
D. Helps the artery to pick up oxygen
C. internal carotid
D. external carotid 94. brings oxygen-rich blood from the right
lung to the left atrium
89. At rest, the heart of a healthy adult beats
in one minute: A. Right pulmonary veins
A. 22-30 B. Right pulmonary artery
B. 50-55 C. Right ventricle
C. 60-70 D. Right atrium
D. 40-80
95. Which of the following is not a type of
90. Which of the blood vessels have the great- blood vessel found in the face?
est blood pressure?
A. Capillary
A. veins
B. capillaries B. Vein

C. atria C. Artery
D. arteries D. Portal Vein

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1.11 Blood Vessels 343

96. are deep. 102. Capillaries are really thin so substances

A. Capillaries like oxygen, carbon dioxide and glucose
can move in and out of the vessel. How

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B. Veins thick are they?
C. Arteries A. Roughly the same thickness of a hair
D. none of above B. One cell thick
97. The hepatic portal system collects blood C. 1 Micrometres
from the and then routes it to the D. 5 Micrometres
A. kidneys; liver
103. Which artery is responsible for supplying
B. liver; GI tract blood to the forehead and upper eyelids?
C. liver; kidneys A. Superficial Temporal Artery
D. GI tract; liver B. Internal Carotid Artery
98. What are present in veins but absent in C. External Carotid Artery
arteries? D. Maxillary Artery
A. smooth elastic tissues
104. What is the function (job) of the red blood
B. muscular tissues cells?
C. valves A. To transport oxygen around the body
D. none of above and to the muscles.

99. what does the septum do? B. To release antibodies to fight infec-
tions.
A. prevents oxygenated and deoxy-
genated blood from mixing C. To carry dissolved nutrients and sug-
ars.
B. prevents nutrients from mixing
D. To clot and form scabs if there is a
C. prevents the backflow of blood wound on the body.
D. none of above
105. Cardiac Muscle tissue
100. Fatima has blood pressure 183/81, A. Enodcardium
what is Fatima’s systolic pressure?
B. Myocardium
A. 81
C. Epicardium
B. 183
D. Pericardium
C. 183/81
D. 81/183 106. Needed materials move from the blood
through the capillary walls into , and
101. Myocardial infarction could cause waste products of cells travel in the oppo-
shock. site direction.
A. neurogenic A. body
B. vasogenic B. heart
C. hypovolemic C. vein
D. cardiogenic D. body cells

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1.11 Blood Vessels 344

107. Thick walls, small lumen and high pres- 112. Which of the following carries blood at
sure describes which vessel? the highest pressure?
A. Artery A. Arteries
B. Vein B. Veins
C. Capillary C. Capillaries
D. none of above D. Arterioles

NARAYAN CHANGDER
108. At a capillary bed, a vasoconstrictor 113. part of the heart that beats first?
A. constrictslocal arterioles, thereby in- A. two atria
creasing pressure and increasing local B. two ventricls
bloodflow
C. left side
B. stimulates precapillarysphincters and
decreases local blood flow D. right side

C. dilateslocal arterioles, thereby in- 114. Gases, glucose, and waste exchange oc-
creasing pressure and increasing local- cur between the and the tissues of the
blood flow body.
D. constrictsprecapillary sphincters and A. veins
thereby increases local blood flow. B. arteries
109. These vessels carry oxygenated blood C. capillaries
back to the heart D. legs
A. pulmonary arteries
115. What is the pulse point at the side of the
B. pulmonary veins neck?
C. pulmonary capillaries A. Brachial Artery
D. aorta artery B. Common Carotid Artery
110. Which statement regarding Arteries is in- C. Temporal Artery
correct D. Radial Artery
A. Arteries carry blood at high speeds
and pressures 116. What prevents blood from going back-
wards/pooling in the heart?
B. Arteries have thick, muscular walls
A. valves
C. Arteries carry blood away from the
heart B. atria

D. All arteries carry oxygenated blood C. ventricles

D. veins
111. How are capillaries adapted for their
function? 117. Carry Blood to the heart.
A. Have partially permeable walls A. Arterioles
B. One-cell thick endothelium B. Arteries
C. Presence of valves C. Capillaries
D. Large lumen D. Veins

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1.11 Blood Vessels 345

118. Select the statement below which best 123. What type of vessel is the aorta?
describes the protein haemoglobin A. artery

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A. Found in red blood cells B. vein
B. Component of blood cells which allows C. capillary
oxygen to be transported around the body
D. none of above
C. Component of red blood cells which al-
lows oxygen to be transported around the 124. Attached to the right ventricle
body A. Pulmonary Artery
D. Component of red blood cells which al- B. Pulmonary Veins
lows oxygen to be transported around the C. Aorta
body for energy production and the re- D. Inferior Vena Cava
moval of carbon dioxide
E. Superior Vena Cava
119. Name the thickest and strongest blood
125. The right side of the heart contains
vessel.
blood
A. vein
A. oxygen poor blood
B. artery B. oxygen rich blood
C. capillary C. RBCs
D. both veins and capillaries D. poor
120. Which TWO blood components do not 126. What is the name of the pericardium
have a nucleus? heart
A. both red and white blood cells A. endocardium
B. white blood cells and platelets B. pericardium
C. all blood cells have a nucleus C. epicardium
D. red blood cells and platelets D. myocardium

121. What is the function of valves in veins? 127. molecule that combines with oxygen to
transport it
A. To stretch and recoil to pump the blood
through A. albumin
B. globulin
B. To increase surface area for exchange
of materials C. haemoglobin
C. To withstand high pressure D. seratonin
D. To prevent backflow of blood 128. Type of circulation that brings blood from
the aorta to the myocardium and back to
122. Braden has atherosclerosis. He is at risk the right atrium through the coronary si-
for developing nus
A. myocardial infarction A. Cardiopulmonary Circulation
B. stroke B. Coronary Circulation
C. diabetes C. Fetal Circulation
D. both myocardial infarction and stroke D. Portal Circulation

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1.11 Blood Vessels 346

129. Which is not a function of the blood? C. increasing blood vessel length
A. Carries nutrients around the body D. decreasing blood pressure
B. Defend the body against infections 135. Which pulse has the least amplitude?
C. Regulates body temperature A. Temporal Artery
D. Gives red blood cell its colour B. Brachial Artery
130. The formation of new blood vessels is a C. Radial Artery

NARAYAN CHANGDER
process known as D. Common Carotid Artery
A. vesselogenesis 136. How many blood vessel types do humans
B. angiogenesis have?
C. gluconeogenesis A. 4
D. glycogenolysis B. 5
C. 3
131. These capillaries have very large inter-
cellular clefts that allow proteins to pass D. 2
from a tissue into the bloodstream. 137. Which of the following is NOT a type of
A. Continuous Capillaries blood vessel?
B. Fenestrated Capillaries A. Artery
C. Sinusoid Capillaries B. Capillary
D. none of above C. Vein
D. Ventricle
132. What function does the heart do?
A. Protects organs and produces red 138. Define pulse.
blood cells. A. number of heart beats over a period of
time
B. Generates heat.
B. exchanging surges of pressure in an
C. Breaks down food into nutrients.
artery that occur within each contraction
D. The heart is a pump, which moves the and relaxation of the left ventricle.
blood. The arteries and veins are the
C. alternating surges of pressure in an
pipes where the blood flows.
artery that occur within each contraction
133. The majority of the blood vessels that are and relaxation of the right ventricle.
inside our bodies are? D. alternating surges of pressure in an
A. arteries artery that occur within each contraction
and relaxation of the left ventricle.
B. veins
139. If a blood vessel has valves, it is proba-
C. capillaries
bly a(n)
D. none of above
A. vein.
134. Blood flow would be increased by B. artery.
A. increasing cardiac output C. capillary
B. decreasing vessel diameter D. none of above

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1.11 Blood Vessels 347

140. The walls of these vessels are one en- 145. a small vein
dothelial cell thick A. Arterioles

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A. arteries B. Venules
B. capillaries C. Capillaries/Capillary beds
C. veins D. Veins
D. venules 146. What is the function of plasma?
141. Where material exchange takes place be- A. Blood clotting
tween the cells and blood vessels: B. Transport dissolved materials
A. arteries C. Produce antibodies
B. veins D. Engulf and ingest agglutinated foreign
particles
C. venules
D. capillaries 147. Carries blood away the heart from the
body
142. Blood vessels that convey blood from tis- A. Pulmonary Artery
sues back to the heart.
B. Pulmonary Veins
A. Arteries
C. Aorta
B. Veins
D. Inferior Vena Cava
C. Arterioles
E. Superior Vena Cava
D. none of above
148. Which blood vessels carry blood away
143. What are the levels of living organisms from the heart?
from smallest to largest? A. Arteries
A. Tissue-Organ Systems-Cells-Organs- B. Veins
Organism
C. Capillaries
B. Cells-Tissue-Organs-Organ Systems- D. none of above
Organisms
149. Vessels that collect blood from venules
C. Organs-Organ Systems-Organisms-
Cells-Tissue A. arteries
D. Cells-Tissue-Organisms-Organ B. capillaries
Systems-Organs C. veins

144. The vessel that receives blood from the D. none of above
head, neck, chest, shoulders, and arms is 150. How many parts is the blood made up
the from?
A. coronary sinus A. 3
B. inferior vena cava B. 1
C. superior vena cava C. 5
D. internal jugular vein D. 4

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1.11 Blood Vessels 348

151. Vascular shunting allows blood to go to 156. Which is not a cnstituent of the blood?
the working muscles during A. Water
A. Rest B. Red blood cells
B. eating C. Plasma
C. sleeping D. Platelets

D. exercise 157. Why is high blood pressure or hyperten-

sion a ‘silent’ killer?

NARAYAN CHANGDER
152. Which component of blood is responsible A. It has no sound
for carrying oxygen?
B. It has no symptoms
A. red blood cell C. It kills people
B. white blood cell D. It is a leading cause of death in the
C. platelets world

D. plasma 158. The membrane that controls the flow of

blood into and out of the heart’s chambers
153. Fills with blue blood that enters through is called a
the superior vena cava and inferior vena A. lung
cava
B. septum
A. Right pulmonary veins C. aorta
B. Right pulmonary artery D. valve
C. Right ventricle 159. These blood vessels move the blood
D. Right atrium AWAY from the heart to other parts of the
body:
154. What is the function (job) of the plasma? A. veins
A. To release antibodies to fight infec- B. arteries
tions. C. capillaries
B. To transport oxygen around the body. D. white blood cells
C. To carry dissolved nutrients and sug- 160. The volume of blood ejected from the
ars. heart per beat is?
D. To transport oxygen around the body. A. Stroke Volume
B. Cardiac Output
155. Which statement regarding Veins is cor-
rect? C. Heart Rate
A. Carry blood from the heart towards D. none of above
the body tissues 161. What carries oxygen around the body?
B. Always carry deoxygenated blood A. Plasma
C. Contain valves which prevent black B. Red Blood Cells
flow C. Platelets
D. Have thick, muscular walls D. White Blood Cells

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1.11 Blood Vessels 349

162. All exchange of gases, waste, and nu- C. multiple heart attacks
trients occurs at what level of blood ves-
D. a severe bacterial infection
sels?

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A. arteries 168. carry blood at high pressure and
B. arterioles and venules carry blood at low pressure.
C. capillaries A. Arteries; veins
D. veins B. Capillaries; veins

163. All of the following do not contain a pulse C. Veins; arteries

except for what? D. Veins; capillaries
A. capillaries
169. The advantage of the capillaries having
B. veins
thin walls is
C. venules
A. they don’t take up much space
D. arteries
B. they easily connect arteries and veins
164. Which blood vessel has the thickest
walls? C. they allow for the easy passage (diffu-
sion) of gases such as oxygen and carbon
A. vein dioxide (between the blood and body cells)
B. artery
C. capillary D. none of above
D. both veins and capillaries
170. Valves in veins
165. small veins
A. support them
A. capillaries
B. protect them
B. arterioles
C. prevent the backward movement of
C. venules blood
D. vena cava
D. provide them elesticity
166. What is the function of coronary artery?
171. Why are human cardiac systems referred
A. Transports oxygenated blood from
to as ‘Double Circulatory Systems’?
aorta to heart muscles
B. Transports oxygenated blood from A. The heartrate can be doubled to pump
aorta to liver more blood around the body when exercis-
ing.
C. Transports oxygenated blood from
aorta to kidneys B. There are two ‘dubs’ (dub-dub) in one
heart beat.
D. none of above
C. The blood moves through the heart
167. Cardiogenic shock is most likely to result twice to be pressurized twice.
from
D. Becasue there are two different kinds
A. large-scale blood loss of blood vessels that are attached to the
B. a systemic allergic reaction heart (arteries and veins).

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1.11 Blood Vessels 350

172. I have muscular walls, and a small lumen. 178. Which of the following is/are true of
I take blood away from the heart how shunt vessels respond when the body
A. Artery is an extremely cold environment? One,
some or all answers could be correct?
B. Vein
A. they constrict (narrow)
C. Capillary
B. blood flow is increased to the skin (ex-
D. Arteriole tremities)

NARAYAN CHANGDER
173. What is blood made up of? C. they dilate (widen)
A. White blood cells D. blow flow is diverted away from the
skin (extremities)
B. Red blood cells
C. Plasma 179. In the walls of the heart, there are two
thin layers that form a sandwich around a
D. Platelets thick layer of muscle called the
174. What connects capillaries to veins? A. epithelial tissue.
A. Arteries B. pericardium.
B. Valves C. connective tissue.
C. Venules D. myocardium.
D. Osmotic 180. Vein the brings blood to the right atrium
is called
175. When a patient gets a blood test and has
a low platelet count, this indicates that the A. vena cava
patient likely has B. pulmonary vein
A. cancer C. aorta
B. a clotting disorder D. none of above
C. infection 181. The function of the cardiovascular system
D. nothing is to

176. Red blood cells are A. take in oxygen and remove carbon
dioxide
A. thrombocytes
B. remove waste products
B. neutrophils
C. transport O2 + nutrients and remove
C. monocytes CO2 + wastes
D. erthryocytes D. none of above
177. Which type of blood vessel carries oxy- 182. Who am I? I am the largest (in size) blood
genated blood away from the heart? component and have a nucleus.
A. Artery A. white blood cell
B. Vein B. red blood cell
C. Capillary C. platelet
D. Venule D. hemoglobin

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1.11 Blood Vessels 351

183. Arteries 189. Where does oxygen and glucose pass

A. carry oxygenated blood except the pul- through to get to cells?

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monary artery A. arteries
B. permit the exchange of materials B. veins
C. carry deoxygenated blood except the C. capillaries
pulmonary veins
D. none of above
D. none of above
190. Which component of blood is responsible
184. liquid portion of the blood for helping to stop bleeding?
A. leukocytes A. platelets
B. erthryocytes
B. red blood cells
C. plasma
C. white blood cells
D. thrombin
D. plasma
185. Which of the following has walls that are
one cell thick and is a site for diffusion? 191. The blood enters the heart on both sides
via the:
A. Vein
A. Ventricle
B. Artery
B. Aorta
C. Capillary
C. Atrium
D. Aorta
D. Alveoli
186. The blood vessel that carries blood to the
heart 192. What is the function of arteries?
A. arteries A. Transport deoxygenated blood
B. veins B. Transport oxygenated blood
C. capillaries C. Site for exchange of materials
D. none of above D. none of above
187. Name the blood vessels that are only one 193. What are the only arteries that carry de-
cell thick. oxygenated blood
A. arteries
A. coronary arteries
B. capillaries
B. vena cava
C. veins
C. aortic arteries
D. none of above
D. pulmonary arteries
188. Which artery is used to take blood pres-
sure? 194. What percentage of the blood is water?
A. aorta A. 90%
B. coronary B. 70%
C. brachial C. 80%
D. none of above D. 60%

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1.11 Blood Vessels 352

195. Why does the Common Carotid Artery 201. Blood pressure is used to determine
have the greatest amplitude? A. electrical current though the heart
A. Because it is located on the neck B. function of coronary artery
B. Father away from the heart C. if adequate blood is getting to tissues.
C. Closer to the heart D. Speed of blood through veins
D. The blood has the travel farther from
202. Net filtration pressure (NFP) is equal to
the heart

NARAYAN CHANGDER
the
196. These vessels are one cell thick A. blood hydrostatic pressureminus the
A. arteries tissue hydrostatic pressure
B. colloid osmotic pressure inthe blood di-
B. capillaries
vided by resistance in the tissue.
C. veins
C. blood pressure times thetotal periph-
D. none of above eral resistance

197. white blood cells D. net hydrostatic pressureminus the net

colloid osmotic pressure.
A. thrombocytes
203. Which type of blood vessel creates a
B. erthryocytes
“smoothing effect” on blood so it doesn’t
C. monocytes spurt (as much)?
D. leukocytes A. arterioles

198. The heart itself receives blood from the B. muscular arteries
C. elastic arteries
A. carotid artery
D. capillaries
B. femoral artery
E. large veins
C. coronary artery
D. pulmonary artery 204. Which blood vessels carry blood towards
the heart?
199. Arteries, veins and capillaries are A. Arteries
A. three organs of circulatory system B. Veins
B. three types of blood vessels C. Capillaries
C. three types of blood components D. none of above
D. none of above 205. What is the difference between an artery
and a vein?
200. Carry blood away from heart; mostly
oxygen-rich A. Arteries carry blood towards the heart,
veins away from the heart.
A. Arteries
B. Arteries carry deoxygenated blood,
B. Veins
veins oxygenated blood.
C. Capillaries C. Arteries carry oxygenated blood, veins
D. none of above deoxygenated blood.

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1.11 Blood Vessels 353

D. Arteries carry blood away from the 211. Which vessel carry oxygenated blood
heart, veins towards the heart. back to the heart, only type of these to
do this:

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206. How many types of blood vessels are
A. pulmonary arteries
there?
B. pulmonary veins
A. 10
C. pulmonary capillaries
B. 9
D. aorta artery
C. 5
212. Which of the following carries blood
D. 1 away from heart?

207. The fusion of the brachiocephalic veins A. Vein

forms the B. Artery
A. superior vena cava C. Capillary

B. innominate vein D. Valve

C. subclavian vein 213. A extremely small blood vessel connected

to arterioles and venules
D. inferior vena cava
A. Vein
208. what is the correct order of blood flow B. Arteries
through vessels C. Arterioles
A. heart, arteries, capillaries, veins, D. Capillaries/Capillary beds
heart
214. The blood vessel that has valves at inter-
B. heart, capillaries, veins, arteries, vals
heart
A. capillary
C. heart veins, capillaries, arteries, heart
B. artery
D. heart, arteries, veins, capillaries, C. vein
heart
D. none of the above
209. Found in the pericardium 215. The vessels that carry blood to the heart
A. Epicardium are called:arteries
B. Myocardium A. capillaries
C. Endocardium B. arteries
C. arteries and veins alternately
D. Pericardium
D. veins
210. Which of the following is the longest vein
216. The greatest resistance blood vessel is
in the body?
the
A. inferior vena cava
A. artery
B. superior vena cava B. arteriole
C. great saphenous C. capillary
D. none of above D. vein

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1.11 Blood Vessels 354

217. What tissues are found in artery and vein 223. What type(s) of blood can a person with
walls? Tick all that apply type B blood safely RECEIVE?
A. smooth muscle A. A and AB
B. collagen B. B and AB
C. elastin C. A and O
D. endothelium D. B and O
E. haemoglobin 224. Structure(s) that keep the blood flowing

NARAYAN CHANGDER
218. These vessels have valves that prevent in one direction.
backflow of blood A. Valve(s)
A. arteries B. Septum(s)
B. veins C. Neuron(s)
C. arterioles D. Bronchiole(s)
D. capillaries 225. What does blood consist of?
219. The blood carries (mark all that are true): A. plasma, red blood cells, white blood
A. nutrients cells, platelets

B. waste B. hormones, oxygen, nutrients, water

C. oxygen C. red blood cells

D. water D. carbon dioxide and minerals

220. Blood flows from 226. On average the heart beats times per
minute
A. arteries to capillaries then to veins
A. 72
B. veins to capillaries then to arteries
B. 49
C. capillaries to arteries to veins
C. 87
D. none of above
D. 100
221. what type of muscle is your heart made
of? 227. Which of the following is not a type of
blood vessel?
A. myocardium
A. arteries
B. smooth
B. veins
C. skeletal
C. capillaries
D. tachycardia
D. valves
222. Where does oxygen poor blood enter the
heart? 228. A weakness in an artery wall that bal-
loons and fills with blood and which
A. Right atrium can be treated by a medical professional
B. Right ventricle is called a(n)
C. Left atrium A. varicose vein
D. Left ventricle B. stroke

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1.11 Blood Vessels 355

C. aneurism 234. This blood vessel’s lumen is only one red

blood cell wide.
D. hemorrhage

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A. Artery
229. what seperates the right and left sides of B. Capillary
the heart?
C. Vein
A. septum
D. none of above
B. atria
235. After passing the first rib, the subclavian
C. vertical seperateor artery becomes the artery.
D. valves A. digital
B. radial
230. The inner layer of a blood vessel is called
C. brachial
A. tunica interna
D. axillary
B. tunica media
236. The vessel that allows material exchange
C. tunica externa
to take place between body cells and it-
D. none of above self.
A. arteries
231. Vessels with thick muscular and elastic
walls B. veins

A. arteries C. venules
D. capillaries
B. capillaries
C. veins 237. Walls consist of three layers.
A. Arteries
D. none of above
B. Veins
232. Blood leaving the left ventricle passes C. Arterioles
through what structure next?
D. Capillaries
A. right ventricle
238. what is considered a normal blood pres-
B. pulmonary vein sure?
C. semilunar valve A. 110/80
D. aorta B. 140/90
C. 150/100
233. The arteries carry the blood to a different
blood vessel called Here substances D. 180/80
(like oxygen) are released into organ tis-
239. The vessel layer that has a direct role in
sues.
vasoconstriction is the
A. capillaries A. tunica intima
B. veins B. tunica media
C. artery ends C. tunica externa
D. heart D. capillaries

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1.11 Blood Vessels 356

240. occurs when a vessel in the heart be- A. they are the upper chambers of the
comes clogged. heart
A. Heart attacks B. they receive blood from the body or
B. Hypertension lungs

C. Endocarditis C. they contain oxygenated blood

D. Heart failure D. they have thinner walls that that of ven-

tricles

NARAYAN CHANGDER
241. For 120/80, what does “120” indi-
cate? 246. Which of the following shows a correct
route for the exchange of substances in
A. Systolic when the ventricles con-
blood?
tract
A. arteriole → artery → capillary → vein
B. Diastolic when the ventricles are
→ venule
relaxed
B. artery → vein → capillary → venule
C. systolic when the ventricles are re-
→ arteriole
laxed
C. venule → vein → capillary → artery
D. Diastolic When the ventricles con-
→ arteriole
tract
D. artery → arteriole → capillary →
242. Which blood vessels have valves at inter- venule → vein
vals?
A. capillaries 247. located between the left ventricle and the
aorta
B. arteries
A. Mitral/Bicuspid valve
C. veins
B. Aortic semilunar valve
D. none of the above
C. Tricuspid valve
243. Arteries have
D. Pulmonary semilunar valve
A. thick wall and narrow lumen
248. arteries and veins are linked together by
B. thick wall and wide lumen
C. thin wall and wide lumen A. valves

D. thin wall and narrow lumen B. arterioles

C. capillaries
244. If the BP = 125/85, then PP = mm
Hg D. venules
A. 40 249. The blood vessel that carries blood away
B. 60 from the heart
C. 100 A. arteries
D. 95 B. veins
C. capillaries
245. Which of the following statements about
the atria of the heart is not true? D. none of above

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1.11 Blood Vessels 357

250. What is not a function of blood? B. Veins

A. Transports gases (oxygen and carbon C. Capillaries

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dioxide), fuels and minerals around the D. none of above
body
B. Protects against dehydration through 256. What does the heart do to the blood.
supplying cells with water A. Oxygenates the blood
C. Maintains homeostasis B. Put pressure on the blood to push it
D. Produced in the bone marrow around the body.
C. Increases the whiteblood count in the
251. This layer is in direct contact with the
blood.
blood as it flow through the lumen.
D. Decreases blood pressure to prevent
A. Tunica media
cardiac disease.
B. Tunica externa
257. Which blood vessels take blood AWAY
C. Tunica intima
from the heart?
D. none of above
A. Veins
252. which of the blood vessels do you think B. Arteries
have greatest blood pressure
C. Capillaries
A. veins
D. none of above
B. capillaries
C. atria 258. Oxygen and carbon dioxide are trans-
ported between the blood and interstitial
D. arteries fluid by way of
253. What is the correct term for High Blood A. exocytosis and endocytosis by en-
Pressure dothelial cells
A. Heart Attack B. diffusion from areas of higher concen-
B. Atherosclerosis tration to lower concentration
C. Hypertension C. pinocytosis using fluid-filled vesicles
D. Heart Failure D. active transport (using ATP) by protein
carriers of endothelial cells
254. A condition where a blood vessel to the
brain can become blocked and disrupt the 259. Which of the following substances are
flow of blood to the brain transported by the blood?
A. heart failure A. All of the above
B. stroke B. O2
C. atherosclerosis C. Glucose
D. cholesterol D. Urea

255. Type of blood vessel that has thick muscle 260. Which blood vessel has valves to prevent
walls? the back-flow of blood?
A. Arteries A. Veins

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1.11 Blood Vessels 358

B. Arteries 266. Which blood vessel that has the largest

diameter?
C. Capillaries
A. vein
D. Ventricle
B. artery
261. Blood passes from C. capillary
A. ventricle to atria D. none of above
B. aorta to pulmonary trunk 267. Which of the following vessels has thin

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. atria to ventricle muscle wall and a large lumen?

D. atria to atria A. Vein

B. Artery
262. Which blood vessel contains the most
C. Capillary
elastic tissue?
D. Aorta
A. vein
268. Which blood vessels carry blood toward
B. artery
heart; mostly oxygen-poor.
C. capillary A. Arteries
D. both veins and capillaries B. Veins

263. Blood flows directly from into capil- C. Capillaries

lary beds. D. none of above
A. heart 269. Which artery brings oxygen poor blood
B. aorta to the lungs?

C. venules A. Vena Cava

B. Pulmonary Artery
D. arterioles
C. Pulmonary Vein
264. Which vessel am I? I have a large lumen, D. Aorta
I have thin muscular walls.
270. Why do arteries have very thick and elas-
A. Artery
tic walls.
B. Vein A. The protect the blood inside.
C. Capillary B. To prevent coronary heart disease,
D. Arteriole C. So substance like oxygen can’t move
through the walls.
265. Along with valves, venous return of
D. To withstand the large amount of pres-
blood to the heart is assisted by
sure in the blood they carry.
A. skeletal muscle contractions
271. Carry oxygenated blood back to the
B. smooth muscle contractions heart, only type of these to do this:
C. cardiac muscle contractions A. pulmonary arteries
D. varicose veins B. pulmonary veins

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1.11 Blood Vessels 359

C. pulmonary capillaries 277. Converge to form veins.

D. aorta artery A. Venules

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B. Capillaries
272. I have a large opening, I have thin muscu-
lar walls, I pump blood towards the heart. C. Arteries

A. Artery D. Arterioles

B. Vein 278. Human blood vessels are

C. Capillary A. artries, capillaries, and atria
D. Arteriole B. ventricles, atria and pulmonary veins
C. capillaries, artries, and veins
273. Attached to the right atrium
D. veins, artries, and aorta
A. Pulmonary Artery
279. Which of the following arteries of the
B. Pulmonary Veins
forearm is found on the thumb side?
C. Aorta A. brachial
D. Inferior Vena Cava B. radial
E. Superior Vena Cava C. ulnar

274. I have muscular walls, and a small lumen. D. none of above

Pump blood away from the heart 280. Which chamber of the heart receives
A. Artery blood from the body?
B. Vein A. right atrium
C. Capillary B. left atrium

D. Arteriole C. right ventricle

D. left ventricle
275. The vena cava is the biggest of which
type of blood vessel? 281. Which of the following shows the correct
sequence of blood flow from the heart?
A. Vein
A. Heart → Vein → Capillary → Artery
B. Artery
B. Heart → Capillary → Vein → Artery
C. Capillary
C. Heart → Artery→ Capillary → Vein
D. none of above
D. Heart → Artery→ Vein → Capillary
276. Which blood vessels are the thickest and 282. The vessels that exhibit the lowest level
strongest? of permeability are the
A. veins A. continuous capillaries
B. arteries B. fenestrated capillaries
C. capillaries C. sinusoidal capillaries
D. both veins and capillaries D. none of above

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1.11 Blood Vessels 360

283. Which blood vessel contains valves? 289. Thin-walled vessels that allow for the ex-
change of O2, CO2, nutrients and wastes
A. Capillaries
between blood cells or air sacs in the lungs
B. Nodes
A. Arteries
C. Artery
B. Veins
D. Veins
C. Capillaries
284. These prevent the backflow of blood D. none of above

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. atria 290. Sends blue blood to the lungs through the
B. valves pulmonary arteries
C. septum A. Right pulmonary veins
D. canals B. Right pulmonary artery
C. Right ventricle
285. % of CO significantly increases to the
during moderate exercise. D. Right atrium

A. heart 291. Blood colloid osmotic pressure is largely

due to
B. smooth muscle
A. the proteins in the blood, and it pro-
C. small intestine
motes reabsorption
D. kidney
B. the high amount of water in the blood,
and it promotes diffusion out of the capil-
286. What is the smallest vein called?
laries
A. Mini vein
C. the proteins in the blood, and it pro-
B. Potato motes filtration
C. I don’t know D. the high amount of water in the blood,
D. Venule and it promotes filtration from arterioles

292. located on the posterior portion of heart.

287. I have a large lumen, thin muscular walls,
Empties into the right atrium
and valves
A. Coronary sinus
A. Artery
B. Semilunar valves
B. Vein
C. Atrioventricular valves
C. Capillary
D. Coronary arteries
D. Arteriole
293. Blood from the brain is returned to the
288. Have valves. heart via the
A. Capillaries A. inferior vena cava
B. Veins B. abdominal aorta
C. Arteries C. thoracic aorta
D. Venules D. superior vena cava

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1.11 Blood Vessels 361

294. These vessels have muscular walls: B. many

A. capillaries C. all

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B. veins D. some
C. venules
300. Site of diffusion.
D. arteries
A. Capillaries
295. Which blood vessels take blood TO the B. Arteries
heart?
C. Venules
A. Veins
D. Arterioles
B. Arteries
301. Small vessels that supply blood to the tis-
C. Capillaries
sues of the vessel.
D. none of above
A. Veins
296. Which of the following is a definition of B. Vasa vasorum
tissue fluid?
C. Venules
A. It is plasma that leaks out of the arte-
rioles. D. none of above

B. It is plasma, without its proteins, that 302. What organ does the blood flow to in or-
leaks out of the blood capillaries and der to pick up Oxygen?
bathe the body tissues. A. liver
C. It is a fluid that is secreted by blood B. stomach
vessels to bathe the body tissues.
C. brain
D. It is the water found in our bodies.
D. lung
297. Outer covering of a blood vessel that con-
sists of elastic and collagen fibers. 303. Blood leaves the right ventricle through
the
A. Tunica media
A. pulmonary trunk
B. Tunica intima
B. aorta
C. Tunica externa
C. superior vena cava
D. none of above
D. right atrium
298. The liquid strawed colour part of the
blood is called 304. are the smallest blood vessels.
A. Water A. Arteries
B. Plasma B. Veins
C. Tissue fluid C. Capillaries
D. Serum D. none of above

299. Blood vessels run through tissues of 305. Which chambers are on the top of the
the human body. heart?
A. few A. atria

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1.11 Blood Vessels 362

B. ventricles 311. What is the function of valves?

C. auricles A. To prevent mixing of oxygenated and
deoxygenated blood
D. vessels
B. To transport blood in one direction
306. Vessels with wide lumens C. To prevent backflow of blood
A. arteries D. none of above
B. capillaries 312. Hemorrhage of the stomach could cause

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. veins shock.
D. none of above A. neurogenic
B. vasogenic
307. what chambers are on the bottom of the
C. hypovolemic
heart?
D. cardiogenic
A. ventricles
B. atria 313. are thick-walled, muscular vessels
that carry blood away from the heart to
C. auricles the body’s cells.
D. vessels A. Veins
B. Capillaries
308. Which type of blood vessel is both strong
and elastic? C. Arteries
A. capillary D. Vessels

B. artery 314. When the right ventricle contracts blood

is pumped to what structure?
C. vein
A. Left Atrium
D. none of above
B. Pulmonary Artery
309. Salt retention leads to C. the body
A. water retention D. none of above
B. increase in plasma volume 315. Mitchell has been exercising and his face
C. increase in BP is Red. What is Vasodilation?
D. decrease in BP A. This occurs when the artery walls in-
crease in diameter
E. decrease in plasma volume
B. This occurs when the artery walls de-
310. What are the two different names of crease in diameter
heart chambers? C. When the ARTERY IS FEELING IT
A. Anodes D. none of above
B. Atriums 316. Vessels that allow gas exchange
C. Lumens A. arteries
D. Ventricles B. capillaries

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1.11 Blood Vessels 363

C. veins 322. These vessels have the thinnest wall.

D. none of above A. arteries

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B. veins
317. Red Blood Cells are formed in our
C. capillaries
A. Bone marrow
D. plasma
B. Liver
323. A myocardial infarction is a complete
C. Muscles
blockage in an artery of the
D. Heart
A. brain
318. Veins have valves that prevent blood B. kidney
from falling backwards.Why would this C. liver
happen if there were no valves? One,
some or all answers could be correct? D. heart

A. Blood is much heavier in veins 324. Where does blood go after the right
atrium?
B. Blood in veins is at a lower pressure
A. left atrium
C. Gravity is in the opposite direction to
the flow of blood B. left ventricle
D. Blood is much thicker in veins C. right ventricle
D. aorta
319. Capillaries allow the exchange between
the blood and cells due to 325. Gas, nutrient, and waste exchange occur
between the and the tissues of the
A. their valves
body.
B. the blood velocity in them
A. veins
C. their thin wall (one cell thick) B. arteries
D. their elasticity C. capillaries
320. Red blood cells contain a red protein D. legs
called
326. Which is the correct flow of blood?
A. iron
A. R. atrium → R. Ventricle → pulmonary
B. hemoglobin artery
C. platelets B. R. atrium → L. atrium → aorta
D. plasma C. L. ventricle → pulmonary artery →
aorta
321. What are the components of blood? D. L. ventricle → L. atrium → aorta
A. Plasma
327. If BP is 180/80, then MAP = Dias +
B. Platelets 1
3 (Pulse pressure)
C. Red blood cells A. 93
D. White blood cells B. 100

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1.11 Blood Vessels 364

C. 103 333. Carry blood toward heart; mostly

oxygen-poor
D. 113
A. Arteries
E. 130
B. Veins
328. Carries blood to the heart from the body C. Capillaries
A. Pulmonary Artery D. none of above
B. Pulmonary Veins

NARAYAN CHANGDER
334. Which of the following is true when com-
C. Aorta paring arteries and veins?

D. Inferior Vena Cava A. Arteries have valves; veins do not.

B. Arteries are less muscular than veins.
E. Superior Vena Cava
C. Arteries carry blood away from the
329. Where is the site of nutrient/waste ex- heart; veins carry blood to the heart.
change in the tissues? D. At any given time, there is more blood
A. Capillaries present in arteries than in veins.
B. Arterioles 335. The widening of a blood vessels lumen is
C. Venules called
A. Vasoconstriction
D. Arteries
B. Vasodilation
330. These keep blood moving in one direction C. blood shunting
A. valves D. none of above
B. doors 336. Vomiting and diarrhea without elec-
C. shutters trolyte and fluid replacement could cause
shock.
D. flaps
A. neurogenic
331. The blood vessel that has the largest di- B. vasogenic
ameter is
C. hypovolemic
A. vein
D. cardiogenic
B. artery
337. How many miles of blood vessels are in
C. capillary the body?
D. venule A. 55, 000
B. 100, 000
332. Which vein carries oxygenated blood?
C. 60, 000
A. Vena Cava
D. 70, 000
B. Pulmonary Vein
338. Which blood vessel transports deoxy-
C. Vena Superior
genated blood from the rest of the body
D. Hepatic Artery back to the heart?

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1.11 Blood Vessels 365

A. Pulmonary vein 344. When a patient gets a blood test and has
B. Hepatic vein a high WBC count, this indicates that the
patient likely has

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C. Renal vein
A. cancer
D. Vena cava
B. dehydration
339. During systole the heart is
C. infection
A. stopped
D. nothing
B. resting
C. pumping 345. The circulatory distribution of blood
throughout the body is called:
D. defibrillating
A. coronary
340. Which of the following is/are true of a
B. pulmonary
shunt vessels? One, some or all answers
could be correct? C. systemic
A. It connects an artery to a vein directly D. renal
B. It bypasses using capillaries 346. The main blood vessels in humans are
C. It can control blood flow to different A. artries, capillaries, and atria
body areas
B. ventricles, atria and pulmonary veins
D. It can constrict (narrow) or dilate
(widen) C. capillaries, artries, and veins
D. veins, artries, and aorta
341. Which chambers of the heart PUMP
blood? 347. I have muscular walls, and a small open-
A. Atria ing. Pump blood away from the heart
B. Ventricles A. Artery
C. Veins B. Vein
D. Arteries C. Capillary
342. In the pulmonary circulation, the blood is D. Arteriole
saturated:
348. Regulation of CO to different tissues
A. nitrogen
A. artery
B. carbon dioxide
B. arteriole
C. oxygen
C. capillary
D. ozone
D. vein
343. Which is the largest artery in the human
body: 349. Valves are present in the
A. Pulmonary artery A. veins
B. femoral artery B. arteries
C. aorta C. capillaries
D. carotid artery D. legs

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1.11 Blood Vessels 366

350. What are the human blood vessels? 356. The is composed of circularly ar-
ranged layers of smooth muscle cells
A. arteries, capillaries, and atria
A. tunica interna
B. ventricles, atria and pulmonary veins
B. tunica media
C. capillaries, arteries, and veins
C. tunica externa
D. veins, arteries, and aorta
D. none of the above
351. What is plasma?

NARAYAN CHANGDER
357. Blood pressure measured when the ven-
A. only white blood cells tricles are relaxed
B. only red blood cells A. Diastolic
C. fluid part of blood B. Pulse
D. hemoglobin C. Venous return
D. Systolic
352. small arteries
A. venules 358. Name the largest vein in the body is the
B. arterioles A. jugular
C. capillaries B. vena cava

D. pulmonaries C. aorta
D. none of above
353. What is the purpose of the circulatory
system? 359. The blood vessel that has valves is
A. To change food into nutrients A. capillary
B. To transport blood carrying nutrients B. artery
throughout the body C. vein
C. To eliminate waste in the body D. none of the above
D. To help the body move
360. The radial and ulnar veins fuse to form
354. The largest blood vessel is called the vein.
A. basilic
A. Vein
B. hemiazygous
B. Capillaries
C. brachial
C. Artery
D. axillary
D. Xylem
361. I have a large lumen, I have thin muscular
355. What is the function of veins? walls.
A. Transport deoxygenated blood A. Artery
B. Transport oxygenated blood B. Vein
C. Site for exchange of materials C. Capillary
D. none of above D. Arteriole

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1.11 Blood Vessels 367

362. lowest pressure against the blood ves- C. upper

sels of the body. Measures between con- D. lower
tractions

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A. diastolic pressure 368. Which statement correctly describes de-
oxygenated blood.
B. systolic pressure
A. Blood containing no oxygen, only car-
C. hypotension bon dioxide
D. hypertension B. Blood containing more carbon dioxide
than oxygen.
363. Who Carries blood away from the
heart? C. Blood containing no carbon dioxide,
only oxygen.
A. Arteries
D. Blood containing more oxygen than
B. viens
carbon dioxide.
C. capillaries
369. Valves in veins
D. venules
A. support them
364. What is the cardiac cycle?
B. protect them
A. Blood flow through the heart C. prevent backward movement in-
B. Blood flow between the heart and side them
lungs D. make them more elastic
C. Blood flow between the heart and the
body 370. What are valves in veins for?

D. none of above A. support them

B. protect them
365. I have muscular walls, and a small lumen.
Pump blood away from the heart. What C. prevent the backward movement of
blood vessel am I? blood inside them

A. Artery D. provide them elasticity

B. Vein 371. What is the function (job) of the

platelets?
C. Capillary
A. To form clots (i.e. scabs) when you
D. Arteriole
have cuts and grazes.
366. Largest artery in the human body: B. To transport oxygen to the muscles
A. pulmonary artery C. To carry dissolved sugars.
B. femoral artery D. To produce antibodies
C. aorta
372. which valve seperates the right antrium
D. none of above and right ventricle
367. Side of the heart with oxygen rich A. tricuspid valve
blood? B. bicuspid valve
A. right C. mitral valve
B. left D. semi-lunar valve

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1.11 Blood Vessels 368

373. Carries blood to the heart from the lungs 378. A vessel that carries blood away from
the heart
A. Pulmonary Artery
A. Veins
B. Pulmonary Veins
B. Arteries
C. Aorta
C. Arterioles
D. Inferior Vena Cava
D. Venules
E. Superior Vena Cava

NARAYAN CHANGDER
379. I have a large lumen, I have thin muscular
374. Veins are large vessels with walls walls, I take blood towards the heart
than artery walls that carry bllod from the
A. Artery
body cells back to the heart.
B. Vein
A. thin
C. Capillary
B. thinner
D. Arteriole
C. longer
380. As a venous pathway moves closer to the
D. huge
heart, the veins
375. valve between the right atrium and the A. get smaller
right ventricle
B. get larger
A. Mitral/Bicuspid valve C. do not change in size
B. Aortic semilunar valve D. watch netflix
C. Tricuspid Valve
381. What is the function of capillaries?
D. Pulmonary semilunar valve
A. Transports deoxygenated blood
376. Which of the following is/are correct B. Transport oxygenated blood
difference(s) between arteries, veins and C. Site for exchange of materials
capillaries? One, some or all answers
could be correct? D. none of above

A. Only veins have valves 382. Precapillary sphincters will

B. Arteries have the thickest layer of mus- A. control blood flow into the true capil-
cle and elastic tissue laries
C. Blood pressure is lowest in the veins B. cause blood to flow from the precapil-
lary arteriole → metarteriole → postcap-
D. Capillaries have the smallest lumen
illary venule
377. Which vessels transport blood toward C. open when the tissue needs nutrients
the heart? D. close when the tissue has low O2
A. arteries E. close when tissues have low CO2
B. veins
383. As you improve Cardiovascular En-
C. capillaries durance you grow more
D. none of above A. Veins

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1.11 Blood Vessels 369

B. Arteries 389. The two common iliac veins form the

C. Capillaries A. inferior vena cava

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D. none of above B. femoral vein

384. Hypertension is defined physiologically C. hepatic portal vein

as a condition of sustained arterial pres- D. innominate vein
sure of or higher.
390. These blood vessels generally carry blood
A. 120/80 at the highest pressure
B. 140/90 A. Arteries
C. 130/90 B. Veins
D. 130/80 C. Capillaries
385. What is Haemoglobin? D. arterioles
A. Iron rich protein that transports oxy- 391. Which vessels carry blood away from the
gen in the blood cells. heart?
B. Blood Cells A. Veins
C. Blood Vessels B. Arteries
D. A type of Capillary C. Capillaries
386. The thickest and strongest blood vessel D. Coronaries
is the 392. Which blood vessels carry blood to the
A. vein heart?
B. artery A. arteries
C. capillary B. veins
D. both veins and capillaries C. capillaries
D. none of above
387. A vein that is the largest vein in the hu-
man body and returns blood to the right 393. The liquid part of blood, contains 90%
atrium of the heart from bodily parts be- water and is very important for nutrient
low the diaphragm. transport
A. Inferior vena cava A. red blood cells
B. Right pulmonary veins B. white blood cells
C. Superior vena cava C. platelets
D. Left pulmonary veins D. plasma
388. What is the main artery that supplies 394. When a cholesterol builds up inside of a
blood to the face? blood vessel.
A. Carotid Artery A. Fainting
B. Aorta B. Atherosclerosis
C. Brachial Artery C. Hypertension
D. Femoral Artery D. Stroke

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1.11 Blood Vessels 370

395. What is the space between the structure 400. Which type of blood vessel uses valves
of a blood vessel? to prevent a blood “backflow effect” that
A. Artery would create harmful stress on the heart?

B. Lumen A. Arteries

C. Gap B. Veins

D. Loomen C. Capillaries
D. Valves

NARAYAN CHANGDER
396. These blood vessels are the smallest and
most numerous and are composed of a sin- 401. Oxygen rich blood blood enters the left
gle layer of endothelium. atrium from the lungs through the
A. capillaries A. aorta
B. venules B. vena cava
C. arteries C. pulmonary artery
D. veins D. pulmonary veins
397. A normal blood pressure is one that is un- 402. what are the three main types of blood
der vessels
A. 120/100 A. arterioles
B. 140/60 B. venules
C. 120/60 C. veins
D. 120/80 D. capillaries
398. which of the blood vessels would have E. arteries
the highest blood pressure? (hint:and
therefore, the thickest walls) 403. What is the correct order of blood vessels
that blood will flow through after being
A. veins pumped out of the heart?
B. capillaries
A. Veins, Venules, Capillaries, Arteriole,
C. atria Artery
D. arteries B. Artery, Capillaries, Veins

399. Fluids would be likely to leave or filter C. Veins, Capillaries, Arteries

out of the capillary if D. Artery, Arteriole, Capillaries, Venules,
A. net hydrostatic pressure (HP) is Veins
greater than net osmotic pressure (OP)
404. The yellowish, liquid part of blood that
B. net hydrostatic pressure (HP) is less transports blood cells
than net osmotic pressure (OP)
A. Plamsa
C. net filtration pressure (NFP) is nega-
B. Platelets
tive
D. osmotic pressure (OP) in the capillary C. Red blood cells
is high D. White blood cells

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1.11 Blood Vessels 371

405. Which of the following carry unoxy- 410. When you eat a large meal blood is redi-
genated blood back to the heart? rected to the

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A. arterioles A. Muscles
B. veins B. Digestive system
C. arteries C. Brain
D. capillaries D. Lungs

411. I have muscular walls, and a small lumen.

406. Venous Pooling is a term used to describe
the accumulation of blood in the veins. A. Artery
What physiological and structural features B. Vein
are present in veins that prevent venous
pooling. C. Capillary
D. Arteriole
A. Valves
B. Valves and muscles contracting 412. what is heart rate
around veins (skeletal muscle pump) A. number of heart beats per unit of time
C. Muscles contracting around veins B. maximum number of heartbeats in a
(skeletal muscle pump) given amount of time
D. Thick muscular walls to push blood up C. minimum number of heart beats in a
certain period of time
407. Which blood vessel is one cell thick?
D. number of times your heart beats in a
A. Vein minute at rest
B. Capillaries 413. The brachiocephalic trunk
C. Arteries A. carries blood to the larger intestine
D. Phloem B. distributes blood from the left ventri-
cle to the rest of the body
408. Which vessels allows nutrients and
waste to be exchanged between the cells C. supplies blood to the tissues of the
and the blood: brain and head

A. arteries D. supplies blood to the upper limbs and

chest of the body
B. veins
414. Deoxygenated blood is carried to the
C. venules
heart by
D. capillaries
A. arteries
409. Which pulse site is found on the neck and B. veins
used during adult CPR C. capillaries
A. carotid D. valves
B. apical
415. Which of the following proteins would be
C. femoral found in the tunica externa?
D. temporal A. Collagen

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1.11 Blood Vessels 372

B. Elastin 421. Efferent blood vessels.

C. Hemoglobin A. Arteries
D. Mysoin B. Venules
C. Veins
416. Tick 2 answers-How are capillaries
adapted for their function? D. Arterioles

A. Have partially permeable walls 422. Tick 2-Why do Veins have Valves

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. One-cell thick endothelium A. To Increase blood pressure
C. Presence of valves B. To stop Blood flowing the wrong way

D. Large lumen C. To stop blood flowing upwards

D. Because blood pressure is low
417. What helps prevent High Blood Pres-
sure? 423. How are capillaries adapted for their
function? Tick all that apply.
A. Physical Excersise
A. Have partially permeable walls
B. Stress Management
B. One-cell thick
C. All of the Above
C. Presence of valves
D. Low Sodium Diets
D. Large lumen
418. The two upper chambers of the heart are 424. These are one cell thick
called
A. arteries
A. atria
B. capillaries
B. ventricles
C. veins
C. capillaries
D. none of above
D. aortas
425. Vasoconstriction the amount of blood
419. Which type of blood vessel has valves within the venous system, which the
so that blood won’t move away from the volume in the arterial and capillary sys-
heart? tems.
A. arteries A. increases; reduces

B. veins B. increases; reduces

C. capillaries C. decreases; doubles

D. reduces; increases
D. none of above
426. The function of valves in the human circu-
420. Which of these are not found in blood latory system is to
A. Red Blood Cell A. stimulate the heart beat.
B. White Blood Cell B. accelerate the flow of blood.
C. Bile C. prevent the backward flow of blood.
D. Platetes D. serve as a cushion to prevent friction

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1.11 Blood Vessels 373

427. Pressure exerted on the walls of the C. Aorta

blood vessels is termed
D. Inferior Vena Cava

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A. Hypertension
E. Superior Vena Cava
B. Vesicular pressure
C. Blood Pressure 433. Which type of blood vessel contains
valves?
D. Heart pressure
A. capillary
428. Veins carry blood
B. artery
A. back to heart
C. vein
B. away of heart
D. none of the above
C. inside the heart
D. none of above 434. Which of the following has the greatest
diameter?
429. this is where oxygenated and deoxy-
genated blood mix A. Veins

A. capillaries B. Arteries
B. veins C. Venules
C. arteries D. Capillaries
D. none of above
435. The blood vessel that carries oxygenated
430. The purpose / function of valves in veins blood back to the heart
is to A. vena cava
A. support them B. pulmonary vein
B. protect them
C. pulmonary artery
C. prevent blood from flowing backwards
D. hepatic portal vein
D. provide them elasticity
436. Blood exerts a force called against
431. Which of the following is/are true of a the walls of blood vessels.
capillary? One, some or all answers could
be correct? A. blood movement
A. It connects an artery and a vein B. blood pressure
B. It exchanges substances between the C. blood vessels
blood and organs
D. none of above
C. It contains valves
D. It has very thin walls for fast diffusion 437. Vessels with narrow lumens
of substances across it A. arteries
432. Attached to the left atrium B. capillaries
A. Pulmonary Artery C. veins
B. Pulmonary Veins D. none of above

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1.11 Blood Vessels 374

438. Which of the following is true of an B. to prevent the blood vessel from burst-
artery? One, some or all answers could ing.
be correct?
C. to maintain blood pressure.
A. it carries blood back to the heart
D. the blood vessel in elastic recoil in or-
B. it has a thick layer of elastic tissue der to push the blood along during dias-
C. it has a thin layer of muscle tissue tole.
D. it has a narrow lumen 444. These carry blood to the heart:

NARAYAN CHANGDER
439. Place where blood travels to after the A. arteries
left ventricle pumps? B. veins
A. lungs
C. capillaries
B. right atrium
D. arterioles
C. aorta
D. right ventricle 445. this layer of the blood vessel has smooth
muscle
440. I have a large lumen, I have thin muscu- A. tunica interna
lar walls, I pump blood towards the heart.
What blood vessel am I? B. tunica media
A. Artery C. tunica externa
B. Vein D. none of above
C. Capillary 446. These carry blood away from the heart
D. Arteriole
A. arteries
441. Which words best describe a vein? B. veins
A. Thick C. venules
B. Thin D. capillaries
C. Valve
447. How many chambers does the heart con-
D. large lumen sist of?
E. small lumen
A. 2
442. What percentage of plasma is made up of B. 3
water?
C. 4
A. 100%
D. 5
B. 90%
C. 45% 448. The arteries that feed the heart muscle
D. 55% A. Capillaries
B. Coronaries
443. Smooth muscles in arteries help
C. Chordae teindineae
A. to push blood along through peristal-
sis. D. Vena cavae

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1.11 Blood Vessels 375

449. what chamber of the heart receives blood 454. Iron-rich protein molecules that releases
from the lungs? the oxygen when red blood cells enter the
capillaries and come into close contact with

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A. right atrium
body cells
B. left atrium
A. Platelets
C. right ventricle
B. Hemoglobin
D. left ventricle
C. White blood cells
450. Someone who has Type O blood has what
for antibodies (clumping proteins)? D. Plasma
A. No antibodies 455. Which is the largest vein in the body?
B. A antibodies A. Aorta
C. B antibodies
B. Arteriole
D. A and B antibodies
C. Superior Vena Cava
451. Which of the following wrongly describes D. none of above
material exchange between capillaries and
tissues? 456. Contract and expand with the heart beat:
A. Plasma is forced out of the capillaries A. arteries
at the arteriole end but blood cells remain
in the lumen. B. veins
B. Plasma enters the capillaries from the C. plasma
surrounding tissue at the venule end due D. capillaries
to its lower blood pressure.
C. 100% of the fluid lost at the arteriole 457. Define the term ‘Diastole’
end will return at the venule end.
A. The phase of the heartbeat when the
D. Glucose and oxygen diffuse from the heart relaxes
capillary into surrounding tissue down a
B. The passive phase of the heartbeat
concentration gradient.
when the heart relaxes and fills with blood
452. The purpose of valves is to C. The phase of the heartbeat when the
A. Support the blood vessel heart muscle contracts
B. Protect the blood vessel D. The active phase oft he heartbeat
C. Prevent the back flow of blood when the heart muscle contracts and
pumps blood out of the heart
D. Provide the blood vessel with elasticity
458. What is the strongest (thickest) part of
453. Which blood vessel transports oxy-
the heart?
genated blood to the rest of the body?
A. Pulmonary artery A. right atrium

B. Aorta B. right ventricle

C. Hepatic artery C. left ventricle
D. Renal artery D. left atrium

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1.11 Blood Vessels 376

459. These have valves that prevent backflow 465. What antigens are present in a person
of blood with AB-blood?
A. arteries A. A, B, and Rh
B. veins B. Rh, only
C. arterioles C. A and B
D. capillaries D. No antigens
460. Which blood vessel drains blood from the

NARAYAN CHANGDER
466. The cardiovascular system consists of
face to the internal jugular vein?
A. the heart, blood vessels, and the lungs
A. Facial Vein
B. the heart, blood vessels, and blood
B. Brachiocephalic Vein
C. only the heart and the lungs
C. Cephalic Vein
D. Axillary Vein D. only the heart

461. white blood cells are also known as 467. The coronary arteries arise from the
A. thrombocytes A. inferior vena cava
B. erthryocytes B. superior vena cava
C. monocytes C. pulmonary trunk
D. leukocytes D. aorta

462. The subclavian vein carries blood from 468. Where does the blood go after it leaves
to the the pulmonary arteries?
A. arms to the superior Vena Cava A. lungs
B. Aorta to the arms B. left atrium
C. arms to the aorta C. right atrium
D. Vena cava to the arms D. body
463. Which type of blood vessel has the thick- 469. What causes the blood to be the distinct
est layer of smooth muscle in its walls? red colour?
A. Arteries
A. Heamaglobin
B. Veins
B. Glucose
C. Capillaries
C. Hormones
D. Ventricles
D. Oxygen
464. Veins draining the head and arms empty
into the , which carries blood to the 470. These blood vessels have valves that pre-
right atrium of the heart vent backflow of blood
A. inferior vena cava A. arteries
B. common iliac vein B. veins
C. great saphenous vein C. arterioles
D. superior vena cava D. capillaries

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1.11 Blood Vessels 377

471. What is the function of platelets? 477. What are the three main components of
A. blood clotting the circulatory system?

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B. transport dissolved materials A. brain, lungs, heart
C. produce antibodies B. blood, brain, lungs
D. engulf and ingest agglutinated foreign C. blood vessels, stomach, heart
particles D. heart, blood, blood vessels
472. What is the biggest artery? 478. Supplies the liver.
A. Aorta A. Common hepatic artery
B. Venule B. Left subclavian artery
C. Vein C. Left common carotid artery
D. Vena cava D. Esophageal arteries
473. The two lower chambers of the heart are 479. Which blood vessel is responsible for
called draining blood from the scalp and fore-
A. atria head?
B. septums A. Occipital Vein
C. arteries B. External Jugular Vein
D. ventricles C. Anterior Facial Vein
D. Posterior Auricular Vein
474. This blood vessel has a large lumen and
thin less muscular walls, it carries blood 480. which fingers do you use to find your
towards the heart. pulse
A. Artery A. thumb and index
B. Vein B. index and middle
C. Capillary C. ring and pinky
D. Arteriole D. middle and ring
475. The force with which contract causes 481. Blood entering the heart from the brain
blood pressure would come in which major blood vessel?
A. venticul A. aorta
B. ventouse B. pulmonary veins
C. ventricules C. superior vena cava
D. ventricles D. inferior vena cava
476. The vessels that carry oxygen to the my- 482. The aorta is the biggest of which type of
ocardium are called blood vessel?
A. aortic arteries A. Vein
B. pulmonary veins B. Artery
C. coronary arteries C. Capillary
D. coronary veins D. none of above

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1.11 Blood Vessels 378

483. Which is the smallest of the 3 blood ves- 489. carry blood to the heart.
sels? A. Arteries
A. Veins B. Veins
B. Arteries C. Capillaries
C. Capillaries D. Vena Cava
D. venule 490. The inferior vena cava brings blood from
the lower regions of the body and empties

NARAYAN CHANGDER
484. Which Blood vessel has the Highest Blood
into the
Pressure?
A. left atrium
A. Vein
B. right atrium
B. Artery
C. left ventricle
C. Capillary
D. right ventricle
D. none of above
491. This blood vessel is called “resistance
485. Vessels that contain valves vessels”.
A. arteries A. Capillaries
B. capillaries B. Veins
C. veins C. Venules

D. none of above D. Arterioles

492. The first branches off the aorta, the
486. Blood is considered to be a carry blood to the heart itself.
A. Cell A. coronary arteries
B. Organ B. arteries
C. System C. veins
D. Tissue D. capillaries

487. What is “normal” blood pressure 493. have valves.

A. 120/110 mmHg A. Arteries
B. 120/80 mmHg B. Veins

C. 100/80 mmHg C. capillaries

D. none of above
D. 140/80 mmHg
494. A type of circulatory system in which the
488. In what blood vessel are substances (like transport fluid is always enclosed within
oxygen) transported directly into organ blood vessels and only flows in one direc-
tissues? tion
A. arteries A. Systemic Circulation
B. capillaries B. Open transport system
C. red blood cells C. Closed transport system
D. veins D. Pulmonary Circulation

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1.11 Blood Vessels 379

495. brings oxygen-rich blood from the left 501. What is the function (job) of the white
lung to the left atrium blood cells?

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A. Pulmonary semilunar valve A. To transport oxygen around the body.
B. Left pulmonary veins B. To carry dissolved sugars.
C. Left Atrium C. To clot and cover wounds like cuts and
D. Left pulmonary artery grazes.

496. Which of the following is true of a vein? D. To release antibodies to help destroy
One, some or all answers could be cor- infections.
rect?
502. What pulse point had the greatest ampli-
A. it carries blood back to the heart tude?
B. it has a thick layer of elastic tissue A. Brachial Artery
C. it has a thin layer of muscle tissue B. Radial Artery
D. it has a wide lumen C. Temporal Artery
497. What shape is a red blood cell? D. Common Carotid Artery
A. Tri Bonfave
503. How many chambers does a human heart
B. Bi Facade have?
C. Bi Concave A. 1
D. Biscuit shaped B. 2
498. Which arteries supply blood to the heart C. 3
muscles?
D. 4
A. coronary arteries
B. vena cave 504. What do capillaries, the smallest blood
vessels, do?
C. aorta
A. Whatever they want.
D. femoral arterie
B. exchange phone numbers with other
499. What is the smallest blood vessel in the cells so they can snap chat
body?
C. exchange nutrients and oxygen for
A. Capillary waste
B. Artery D. break down foods
C. Vein
505. Which of the following cell types is found
D. Venule in the tunica intima (inner layer of the
500. carries blood away from the heart. artery)?
A. Blood cells A. Endothelial cells
B. Veins B. Smooth muscle cells
C. Capillaries C. Red blood cells
D. Arteries D. Elastin cells

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1.11 Blood Vessels 380

506. takes blood from the right ventricle to the 511. A small artery
right lung A. Arterioles
A. Right pulmonary veins B. Capillaries/Capillary beds
B. Right pulmonary artery C. Venules
C. Right ventricle D. Veins
D. Right atrium
512. Vessels with walls that are one cell thick

NARAYAN CHANGDER
507. Hot temperatures in the fitness center A. arteries
cause some people to B. capillaries
A. decrease HR C. veins
B. decrease skin perfusion D. none of above
C. syncope
513. Fills with red blood that enters the heart
D. decrease CO through pulmonary veins

508. A vein that is the second largest vein in A. Pulmonary semilunar valve
the human body and returns blood to the B. Left pulmonary veins
right atrium of the heart from the upper C. Left Atrium
half of the body.
D. Left pulmonary artery
A. Inferior vena cava
514. The blood vessel that carries blood under
B. Right pulmonary veins
high volume and pressure is called
C. Superior vena cava
A. Xylem
D. Left pulmonary veins
B. Capillaries
509. Tick 3 answers-Why is Blood shunted to C. Artery
the muscles during exercise? D. Vein
A. To warm the muscles up.
515. What are the three types of blood ves-
B. To deliver Glucose to the muscles. sels?
C. To deliver oxygen to the muscles. A. arteries; capillaries; veins
D. To provide white blood cells to the mus- B. externa; media; intima
cles.
C. elastic; muscular; arterioles
E. To remove Carbon Dioxide from the D. continuous; fenestrated; sinusoidal
muscles.
516. This blood vessel has muscular walls, and
510. All of the following assist venous blood a small lumen. Carries blood away from
flow except the heart
A. Skeletal muscle contraction A. Artery
B. Valves in veins B. Vein
C. Fidgeting while sitting C. Capillary
D. Sleeping in a recliner D. venule

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1.11 Blood Vessels 381

517. Which type of the blood vessels are un- D. left ventricle, left atria, lungs, right
der the highest pressure? ventricle, right atria, body

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A. veins 523. Which blood vessels are one cell thick?
B. capillaries A. arteries
C. atria B. capillaries
D. arteries
C. veins
518. Which blood vessels have the largest di- D. none of above
ameter?
524. Two large carry blood from the heart
A. veins
toward body.
B. arteries
A. veins
C. capillaries
B. nerves
D. none of above
C. capillaries
519. What is the function of the facial artery? D. arteries
A. Supply blood to the facial muscles
525. Which instrument is used to measure
B. Supply blood to the brain blood pressure?
C. Supply blood to the eyes A. stethoscope
D. Supply blood to the face B. thermometer
520. Where pressure is the highest C. MRI
A. arteries closest to the heart D. sphygmomanometer
B. veins 526. How many layers of cells make up the
C. veins closest to the heart wall of a capillary?
D. capillaries A. 1
521. These carry blood away from the heart; B. 2
mostly oxygen-rich C. 3
A. Arteries D. 4
B. Veins
527. State the main functions of the valves in-
C. Capillaries side veins.
D. none of above A. support them
522. What is the correct order of blood flow B. protect them
through the heart? C. prevent the backward movement in-
A. right atria, right ventricle, lungs, left side them
atria, left ventricle, body D. provide them elesticity
B. left atria, left ventricle, lungs, right
atria, right ventricle, body 528. Emotional stress could cause shock.

C. right ventricle right atria, lungs, left A. neurogenic

ventricle, left atria, body B. vasogenic

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1.11 Blood Vessels 382

C. hypovolemic 534. Carries blood from the heart to the lungs

D. cardiogenic A. Pulmonary Artery
B. Pulmonary Veins
529. Which hormone responds to high BP?
C. Aorta
A. aldosterone D. Inferior Vena Cava
B. ADH E. Superior Vena Cava
C. Angiotensin II

NARAYAN CHANGDER
535. What is the space called in a vessel which
D. ANP carries the blood?
A. Artery
530. Blood infection (sepsis) could cause
B. Lumen
shock.
C. Gap
A. neurogenic
D. Loomen
B. vasogenic
536. These carry blood toward the heart;
C. hypovolemic mostly oxygen-poor
D. cardiogenic A. Arteries
B. Veins
531. Carry blood toward heart; oxygen poor
blood C. Capillaries

A. Arteries D. none of above

B. Veins 537. Blood vessels that carry blood away

from the heart are called
C. Capillaries
A. veins.
D. none of above B. arteries.
532. What is the space inside of a blood vessel C. capillaries.
called? (this space is normally filled with D. none of above
blood)
538. What type of blood vessel carries oxy-
A. Artery genated blood to the body?
B. Lumen A. Veins
C. Gap B. Arteries
D. Loomen C. Capillaries
D. Lungs
533. The external iliac artery branches to form
the arteries. 539. Arteries have muscular walls because
they carry blood under pressure
A. femoral and tibial
A. thick, low
B. femoral and deep femoral B. thin, high
C. tibial and popliteal C. thin, low
D. femoral and popliteal D. thick, high

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1.11 Blood Vessels 383

540. Blood vessels, heart and blood form the 545. BV most likely to have an aneurysm.
A. artery

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A. Respiratory system B. arteriole
B. Muscular system C. capillary
C. Circulatory System D. vein
D. none of above 546. Which of the following arterial layers is
541. Which statement is accurate? full of elastin protein?

A. Filtration dominates at the arterial end A. Tunica media

of a capillary bed, and is driven by osmotic B. Tunica intima
pressure. C. Tunica externa
B. Filtration dominates at the arterial end D. Epithelial layer
of a capillary bed, and is driven by hydro-
static pressure. 547. These blood vessels cary oxygenated
blood
C. Filtration dominates at the venous end
of a capillary bed, and is driven by osmotic A. arteries
pressure. B. veins
D. Filtration dominates at the venous end C. capillaries
of a capillary bed, and is driven by hydro- D. none of above
static pressure.
548. % of CO minimally increases or stays the
542. Which of the following is the smallest same for the during moderate exer-
blood vessel? cise.
A. Venules A. brain
B. Arterioles B. skeleltal muscle
C. Veins C. small intestine
D. Capillaries D. kidney

543. What does blood transport? 549. These vessels carry blood away from the
heart
A. Nutrients
A. arteries
B. Oxygen
B. veins
C. Carbon Dioxide
C. venules
D. All of the above
D. capillaries
544. How many blood vessels do you have
550. Which vessels contract and expand with
A. 5 the heart beat?
B. 9 A. arteries
C. 2 B. veins
D. 4 C. capillaries
E. 3 D. none of above

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1.11 Blood Vessels 384

551. The left side of the heart pumps blood to B. Left pulmonary veins
A. The brain C. Left Atrium
B. The lungs D. Left pulmonary artery
C. The whole body
557. These have thick muscular walls:
D. The right side of the heart
A. capillaries
552. Which of the following has the thickest B. veins

NARAYAN CHANGDER
tunica media (middle layer) of muscle tis-
C. venules
sue?
D. arteries
A. Pulmonary artery
B. Pulmonary vein 558. Blood can flow freely through arteries be-
cause
C. Superior vena cava
A. Arteries have only one layer of cells.
D. Inferior vena cava
B. Connective tissue pushes blood
553. Blood goes to the lungs from the through arteries.
A. left ventricle C. Arteries are lined with smooth muscle.
B. left atrium D. Arteries are lined with a layer of
C. right ventricle smooth epithelial cells.
D. right atrium 559. Peanut allergies could cause shock.
554. Which of the following statements about A. neurogenic
the ventricles is not true? B. vasogenic
A. they are the lower chambers of the C. hypovolemic
heart
D. cardiogenic
B. they have thicker walls than that of the
atria 560. Which blood vessels have walls that are
C. the right ventricle contains oxy- only 1 cell thick?
genated blood A. arteries
D. they are responsible for pumping B. capillaries
blood away from the heart
C. veins
555. What makes up around 55% of the D. none of above
blood?
A. Plasma 561. The highly branched nature of capillaries
results in
B. Red Blood Cells
A. the blood vessel being very delicate.
C. White Blood Cells
B. a high surface area for material ex-
D. Platelets change.
556. located between the right ventricle and C. a slow blood flow to allow more time
the pulmonary artery for material exchange.
A. Pulmonary semilunar valve D. all of the above.

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 1.12 Heart 385

562. The right side of the heart delivers blood 565. Low blood pressure in veins is due to
to the while the left side delivers blood A. their large lumen relative to the diam-
to the

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

eter.
A. Lungs;Body B. lower blood volume.
B. Body;Lungs C. a lot of pressure had been lost at the
C. Lungs;Brain capillary bed.
D. Brain;Lungs D. All of the above.

563. Largest artery in the body and sends 566. Which vessels maintain the highest blood
blood to smaller arteries pressure?
A. Right pulmonary artery A. Veins
B. Aorta B. Capillaries
C. Left pulmonary artery C. Arteries
D. none of above D. venules

564. In diffusion, molecules move an area 567. Tunica externa is composed of dense ir-
of higher regular connective tissue.
A. away from A. MAYBE
B. toward B. FALSE
C. near by C. TRUE
D. away form D. none of above

1.12 Heart
1. Which of the following statements accu- D. Improved cardiac output
rately represents the central idea of the
Edgar Allan Poe article? 3. Example of Exoskeleton
A. Poe experienced a troubled childhood A. crab, lobster, shrimp
and joined the army B. human, fish, bird
B. Poe was criticized by other authors C. cow, horse, crab
C. Despite Poe’s literary innovation, he D. none of above
lived a troubled and mysterious life
D. Poe’s death remains a mystery 4. The Spine is made up of how many bones?
A. 50
2. Which is not a long term effect of training
on the lung function? B. 20

A. Increased gaseous exchange C. 33

B. Smaller oxygen debt D. none of above

C. Respiratory muscles get fitter and 5. Into which chamber of the heart do the pul-
stronger monary veins deliver blood?

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1.12 Heart 386

A. left ventricle 11. A recording of electrical changes that occur

B. right atrium during the cardiac cycle
C. left atrium A. blood pressure reading
D. right ventricle B. EKG
6. From what POV is “The Tale-Tell Heart” C. QRS wave
written?
D. t Wave
A. first person

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. second person 12. What do veins look like through our skin?
C. third person limited A. A:They are slightly pink.
D. third person unreliable
B. B:They are big and bulgy.
7. Why are the walls of the left ventricle
C. C:They are blue.
thicker than that of the right ventricle?
A. The left ventricle must force blood into D. D:They are gray.
all the capillaries of the lungs
13. The fluid that circulates in the principal
B. the left ventricle doesn’t skip leg day
vascular system of human beings and
C. This is false, the walls of the right ven- other vertebrates, in humans consisting of
tricle are thicker plasma in which the red blood cells, white
D. Blood from the left ventricle is pumped blood cells, and platelets are suspended.
throught the entire body
A. vein
8. Which point-of-view is the story told in?
B. blood
A. first person
C. valve
B. second person
C. third person D. none of above

D. first and third person 14. Choose the two lines from the story that
9. Which system permits blood and oxy- best support the following idea:The mur-
gen to circulate and transports nutrients der does not have a traditional motive.
around the body? A. I paced the floor to and fro with heavy
A. Nervous strides, as if excited to fury by the ob-
B. Respiratory servation of men-but the noise steadily in-
creased.
C. Cardiovascular
D. Digestive B. Passion there was none. I loved the
old man. He had never wronged me.
10. Which tubes carry blood from the body to
pump to the right side of the heart? C. I found the eye always closed; and
so it was impossible to do the work
A. veins
B. arteries D. I talked more freely to get rid of
the feeling:but it continued and gained
C. heart definitiveness-until at length, I found that
D. lungs the noise was not within my ears.

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1.12 Heart 387

15. Which portion of the heart is the most mus- A. He is arrogant.

cular? B. He likes cats.

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A. Right Ventricle C. He is perfectly sane.
B. Right Atrium D. He regrets his decision to kill the Old
C. Left Ventricle Man.
D. Left Atrium 19. Why does the narrator confess to the mur-
der?
16. Which of the following quotes best illus-
trates the following conflict:The narrator A. he thought the police already knew
is terrified of the old man’s blue eye and and were ridiculing him
overwhelmed by the sound of his heart- B. he felt guilty about lying to the police
beat, so the narrator kills the old man.
C. he thought the neighbors would hear
A. “The disease had sharpened my the old man screaming
senses-not destroyed-not dulled them.
D. he thought he was smarter than other
Above all was the sense of hearing acute.
madmen
I heard all things in the heaven and in
the earth. I heard many things in hell.” 20. How many valves are in the heart?
(Paragraph 1) A. 3
B. “I knew that he had been lying awake B. 4
ever since the first slight noise, when he
C. 5
had turned in the bed. His fears had been
ever since growing upon him.” (Para- D. 6
graph 7)
21. On what character traits does the narrator
C. “But the beating grew louder, louder! pride himself?
I thought the heart must burst. And now
A. ability to lie and steal
a new anxiety seized me-the sound would
be heard by a neighbor! The old man’s B. sneakiness and fear
hour had come!” (Paragraph 11) C. friendliness and caring
D. “‘Villains!’ I shrieked, ‘dissemble no D. intelligence and patience
more! I admit the deed!-tear up the
planks!-here, here!-it is the beating of his 22. How many chambers does the mammalian
hideous heart!”’ (Paragraph 18) heart have?
A. 2
17. How much can a blue whale’s tongue
B. 1
weigh?
C. 4
A. as much as an apple
D. 3
B. as much as a watermelon
C. as much as a first grader 23. Which valve is found between the left ven-
tricle and the aorta?
D. as much as an elephant
A. Tricuspid Valve
18. The narrator invites the police into the B. Bicuspid Valve
very room which the Old Man’s body is
buried. What does that tell you about C. Aortic Valve
him? D. Pulmonary Valve

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1.12 Heart 388

24. Assertion:SA node is called the pacemaker C. Skull

of the heart.Reason:AVN is responsible D. Pelvis
for initiating and maintaining the rhythmic
contractile activity of heart. 29. Which part of the ECG corresponds to the
repolarization of the ventricle?
A. Both Assertion and Reason are correct
and Reason is the correct explanation for A. P wave
Assertion B. QRS complex
B. Both Assertion and Reason are correct C. T wave

NARAYAN CHANGDER
but Reason is not the correct explanation D. none of the above
for Assertion
C. Assertion is correct but Reason is in- 30. The young man left Yenna in order to-
correct A. buy a farm
D. Assertion is incorrect but Reason is B. test her love
correct C. find a new house
25. Choose the correct definition for:wary D. repay debts
A. careful 31. The heart has chambers.
B. reckless A. 1
C. cautious B. 2
D. guarded C. 3
D. 4
26. For seven nights, the narrator sneaks into
the Old Man’s room to observe him. Why 32. When the heart valves open and close the
can he not commit the murder? heart
A. The Old Man is staring at him with the A. becomes tired
creepy eye. B. relaxes & contracts
B. The Old Man is waiting with a gun. C. beats rapidly
C. The Old Man’s eyes are closed. D. all of the above
D. The old man is not in the room
33. The name of the arteries that feed the
27. What area of the heart is responsible heart muscle
for the delay of conduction between the A. capillaries
atrium and ventricles? B. coronary
A. Right bundle branch C. chordae tendineae
B. AV node D. coronary sinus
C. Bundle of his
34. Blood leaving the heart to the lungs for
D. SA node oxygenation leaves from?
28. What is the main bone structure that pro- A. left atrium
tects the lungs B. right ventricle
A. Vertebrae C. left ventricle
B. Rib cage D. right atrium

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1.12 Heart 389

35. When the young man first entered the tai- D. I talked more freely to get rid of
lor shop, the feeling:but it continued and gained
definitiveness-until at length, I found that

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. he told Yenna his name.
the noise was not within my ears.
B. he seemed angry and unfriendly.
40. Another name for the mitral valve
C. he was looking for a job.
A. Tricuspid
D. he was carrying clothes to be repaired.
B. Pulmonary
36. Which organ passes oxygen to the blood? C. Bicuspid
A. lungs D. Aortic
B. pharynx 41. Why is the diaphragm important to the res-
C. bronchus piratory system?
D. diaphragm A. It contracts or expands air from the
lungs.
37. What are some heart problems? B. It helps the system to digest.
A. Heart Attack, stroke, Heart murmur, C. It helps the system to do its main func-
congestive heart failure tions.
B. heart murmur, memory loss, dementia, D. It helps decrease the carbon dioxide in
the system.
C. Heart attack, Cononary heart disease, 42. What is the main function of the heart?
Heart murmur, congestive heart failure A. The heart circulates blood and oxygen
D. none of above throughout the body.
B. The heart is the control center of ev-
38. The valve between the right atrium and
erything in the body.
right ventricle is known as the valve.
C. The heart gets rid of the wastes and
A. Atrioventricular extra water in your body.
B. Aortic D. none of above
C. Semilunar
43. What do you do first?
D. Tricuspid A. Cut open heart
39. Choose the two lines from the story that B. Identify outside parts of heart without
best support the following idea:The narra- any cutting
tor cannot escape his guilty conscience. C. Look out the window
A. I paced the floor to and fro with heavy D. I do not know
strides, as if excited to fury by the ob-
servation of men-but the noise steadily in- 44. You can keep your heart strong by:
creased. A. eating heart-shaped candy
B. Passion there was none. I loved the B. doing activities, like playing outside,
old man. He had never wronged me. riding your bike, and swimming
C. I found the eye always closed; and C. smoking
so it was impossible to do the work D. sleeping 18 hours a day

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1.12 Heart 390

45. What do the lungs provide the blood 51. How do you feel when you are in the Tar-
with? get Heart Rate Zone?
A. oxygen A. Very easy; I am sitting; I can talk with
B. blood no effort.
C. hydrogen B. Moderate to Moderately hard; I am
slightly uncomfortable; I can still talk but
D. carbon dioxide it requires effort and I really don’t want
46. What change should be made in the sen- to;I am sweating.

NARAYAN CHANGDER
tence below? In our yard we have trees, C. Very difficult; no-talk zone; I can only
a pond, a shed and a garden. keep up this pace for a short period.
A. put a comma after SHED D. Easy; I am walking; I can talk with lit-
B. take out the comma after TREES tle effort
C. take out the comma after POND 52. The Venae Cavae are the veins that
D. none of above A. Carry oxygen rich blood to the body.

47. The is the thick muscular wall that sep- B. Extract nutrients from food.
arates the two sides of the heart. C. Bring oxygen depleted blood to the
right ventricle.
A. atria
D. Regulate Breathing.
B. ventricles
C. valve 53. Which verb is in the past tense?
D. septum A. ate
B. eat
48. do you check your heart rate daily
C. laugh
A. yes
D. run
B. no
C. no 54. What keeps blood flowing in the right di-
rection?
D. no
A. Atria
49. This type of blood vessel is the thinnest B. Chambers
and allows for the transfer of nutrients
and oxygen to the cells of the body. C. Valves
A. veins D. Veins

B. capillaries 55. What does the right side of the right heart
C. arteries do?

D. none of above A. The right side of the heart receives de-

oxygenated blood from the body through
50. This triggers contraction in the atria the vena cava and pumps it into the right
A. SA node ventricle which then sends it to the lungs
to be oxygenated.
B. AV node
B. The right side of the heart is respon-
C. QT node sible for words, logic, numbers, analysis,
D. AV Bundles lists, linearity and sequence

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1.12 Heart 391

C. The right side of the heart pumps blood B. to search the room more carefully
through the lungs where it gets oxygen.
C. to wait for their superior officer

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D. The right side of the heart is meaty or-
D. to talk further with the narrator
gan that sits on the right side of the belly.

56. Which of the following are mentioned in 61. What parts act like doors that control
the poem? blood flow in the heart?
A. A tree can help solve global hunger A. valves
B. A tree can aid a nations growth from B. heart dams
sea to sea C. kidneys
C. A tree can provide world peace
D. chambers
D. A tree can cause rain
E. A tree provides friendship to the sun 62. The heart pumps blood to get to our
and sky cells.
A. carbon dioxide
57. Which of these can be considered as a
theme to the poem? B. warlocks
A. The harmful effects of deforestation C. oxygen
B. The hardships faced by farmers D. none of above
C. Appreciation for Natural Beauty
63. What era/time period was the poem i
D. The tragedies faced during the pan- carry your heart with me” written in?
demic
A. Modern
58. On opening the door to the old man’s room B. Romantic
on the eighth night, the narrator of “The
Tell-Tale Heart” feels C. Elizabethan/Shakespearean
A. unexpectedly frightened. D. Realism and Naturalism
B. unexpectedly powerful. 64. During our capture the flag game, what
C. no different than usual. component of fitness did we improve the
D. a slight chill most?
A. Cardiovascular Endurance
59. The pressure exerted on the arterial walls
when the heart relaxes is called the B. Body Composition
A. diastolic pressure C. Muscular Strength
B. systolic pressure D. Flexibility
C. hydrostatic pressure
65. When does your heart beat?
D. osmotic pressure
A. Only when you are exercising
60. In “The Tell-Tale Heart, “ why do the offi-
B. Only when you are sleeping
cers stay after they search the house and
find nothing suspicious? C. All the time
A. to have breakfast with the narrator D. none of above

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1.12 Heart 392

66. Which can be compared to the human A. opening of the heart valves
heart? B. firing of the nodes of the intrinsic con-
A. window insulation duction system
B. water pump C. blood rushing through the chambers
C. car tire D. closure of heart valves
D. none of above
71. These are tubes that carry blood back to
the heart.

NARAYAN CHANGDER
67. What animal has the largest heart of all
living animals? A. arteries
A. elephant B. veins
B. hippo C. pipes
C. shark D. tubas
D. blue whale
72. Which of the following is one of the My-
68. What is the mood of a story? Plate food groups?
A. It is the atmosphere or feeling of the A. Fruit
story. B. Cake
B. It is the emotional state of the author. C. Chips
C. It is the way in which an author says D. Apple
something.
D. It is the emotional state of the main 73. The fluid-filled sac that covers the heart
character. A. Pericardium
69. Part A In the passage from The Heart is B. Epicardium
a Lonely Hunter, which statement best C. Myocardium
describes the effect of the difference be-
D. Endocardium
tween the reader’s and Mick’s points of
view? 74. Blood may exit the heart through either
A. The reader must question Mick’s deci- or structures called the great ves-
sion to keep her music a secret. sels.
B. The reader must guess whether Mick A. superior vena cava, inferior vena cava
can accurately remember the music she B. pulmonary trunk, aorta
has heard.
C. right ventricle, left ventricle
C. The reader can observe the difference
between Mick’s current situation and her D. pulmonary arteries, pulmonary veins
dreams.
75. What color is the blood of an octopus?
D. The reader can infer that Mick would
A. red
benefit from working with other musicians
instead of working alone. B. blue

70. The heart sounds “lub” and “dup” result C. green

from D. orange

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1.12 Heart 393

76. The P wave of an ECG represents 82. Why does the narrator begin to panic at
A. atrial repolarization the end of the story?

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B. atrial depolarization A. The police question him closely about
the old man’s whereabouts.
C. ventricular repolarization
D. ventricular depolarization B. He thinks that the police can hear the
old man’s heartbeat
77. The use of a first-person narrator in the
C. He thinks that the police can see blood
story-
on the floor of the old man’s room.
A. allows readers to understand each
character’s point of view D. The police become suspicious when
the narrator begins to speak quickly.
B. helps to explain how the characters
are related to each other
83. Edgar’s mother’s name was
C. gives readers insight into the narra-
tor’s mental instability A. Ellen Allan

D. illustrates how the old man treats the B. Virginia Mae

narrator every day C. Elizabeth Arnold
78. What body part is the heart roughly D. Taylor Swift
shaped like?
A. a closed fist 84. What are the parts of the heart? (select
all that apply)
B. a closed mouth
C. bridge of nose A. Aorta

D. earlobe B. Heart attack

79. What is the aorta? C. Septum

A. a muscular tube D. Air
B. regulate blood flow
85. What is the largest artery in the human
C. a small vein body called?
D. the main artery of the body A. Superior Vena Cava
80. A broken heart can: B. Aorta
A. be really hurt C. Inferior Vena Cava
B. be seen on an X-ray
D. Pulmonary Artery
C. be last forever
D. none of above 86. SA node is known by this name as it con-
trol the rate of the heartbeat
81. Which blood vessels has a thicker wall?
A. AV node
A. Arteries
B. Veins B. Purkinje fibers

C. Neither both have the same thickness C. SV node

D. I’m not sure D. pacemaker

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1.12 Heart 394

87. Edgar Allan Poe died in which city? 93. After returning to the heart, the blood
A. Harrisburg picks up more oxygen from the

B. Baltimore A. heart

C. Boston B. lungs

D. Richmond C. brain
D. cells
88. Which chamber pumps out oxygenated

NARAYAN CHANGDER
blood 94. What is the tiny tubes that carries blood
A. Right Atrium from the body to the heart called?
B. Left Atrium A. lungs
C. Left Ventricle B. tube
D. Right Ventricle C. veins
D. arteries
89. Separates the chambers of the heart.
A. mitral valve 95. The distal end of the heart
B. septum A. pericardium
C. aortic valve B. epicardium
D. ventricular divide C. apex

90. Which chamber receives deoxygenated D. myocardium

blood
96. Throughout “The Tell-Tale Heart, “ the nar-
A. Left Ventricle rator gradually is taken over by
B. Right Atrium A. headaches.
C. Right Ventricle B. fears for his life.
D. Left Atrium C. greed for the old man’s money.
91. A doctor for the heart is called a D. his madness
A. pediatrician 97. MVPA stands for
B. neurologist A. moderate to vigorous physical activity
C. cardiologist B. most vastly personal answer
D. none of above
C. making veins pulse actively
92. Where is Aortic and Pulmonic Valve lo- D. most valuable people award
cated?
98. Bicuspid valve is also called
A. All of the Above
A. tricuspid
B. Middle of the stomach
B. mitral
C. Between the chest in the left side
D. Between the ventricles and the major C. pulmonary
blood vessels leaving the heart D. aortic

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1.12 Heart 395

99. Blood enters the right atrium through C. tachycardia

which vessels
D. fibrillation

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A. Superior and Inferior Vena Cava
B. Pulmonary Artery 105. When do our heart pump blood?

C. Pulmonary Vein A. only while exercising

D. Tricuspid Valve B. only when sleeping

100. Maximum heart rate is typically calcu- C. all the time

lated by D. none of above
A. 200 minus your age
106. Which ventricle has the thickest walls?
B. 220 minus your age
A. Left Atrium
C. 60 plus your age
B. Right Atrium
D. none of above
C. Left Ventricle
101. The valve lies between the right
atrium and right ventricle. D. Right Ventricle
A. bicuspid 107. This treatment option uses a healthy vein
B. aortic semilunar from another area of the body, to detour
C. pulmonary a blocked artery on the heart.

D. tricuspid A. Pacemaker
B. MRI
102. On what character traits does the nar-
rator of “The Tell-Tale Heart” pride him- C. Coronary bypass
self?
D. Angioplasty
A. his abilities to lie and steal
B. his sneakiness and his fear 108. The narrator waits a week before killing
the old man because the narrator
C. his wit and his confidence
A. says that he must see the old man’s
D. his intelligence and his patience eye first
103. Which of the following are examples of B. likes frightening the old man many
Alliteration? times
A. He plants a home to heaven anigh C. wiats for the darkest night of the week
B. A nations growth from sea to sea D. feels guilty about taking a human life
C. Stirs in his heart who plants a tree
109. Where isn’t the heart situated?
D. For song and mother-croon of bird
A. in the chest
104. The term that means heart contraction is
B. in the right part of the thorax
A. diastole C. in the left part of the thorax
B. systole D. none of above

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1.12 Heart 396

110. What are the Atria? 116. The narrator says that one of his senses
A. the right side of the heart became very acute. Which sense was it?
B. the left side of the heart A. seeing

C. the upper two chambers of he heart B. hearing

C. taste
D. none of above
D. smell
111. What does the narrator resolve to do to
the old man? 117. From “The Heart of Darkness”, by

NARAYAN CHANGDER
Joseph Conrad.Between us there was, as
A. quit working for him
I have already said somewhere, the bond
B. murder him of the sea. Besidesholding our hearts
C. leave his house together through long periods of separa-
tion, it had the effect of making ustoler-
D. gouge his eye out
ant of each other’s yarns-and even convic-
112. Which verb phrase contains a past par- tions. The Lawyer-the best of old fellows-
ticiple (a verb with a past tense helping had, because of his many years and many
verb)? virtues, the only cushion on deck, and
A. had spoken was lying on the onlyrug. The Accountant
had brought out already a box of domi-
B. will have to speak noes, and was toying architecturallywith
C. will speak the bones. Marlow sat cross-legged right
D. is speaking aft, leaning against the mizzen-mast. He
hadsunken cheeks, a yellow complexion, a
113. The Chordae Tendineae are attached to straight back, an ascetic aspect, and, with
the valves and are used to his armsdropped, the palms of hands out-
A. Open and close valves. wards, resembled an idol. The Director,
satisfied the anchor hadgood hold, made
B. Strengthen valves. his way aft and sat down amongst us. We
C. Work valves out. exchanged a few words lazily.Afterwards
D. Open valves only. there was silence on board the yacht.
For some reason or other we did not be-
114. What area of the heart’s electrical con- ginthat game of dominoes. We felt medi-
duction is known as the “pacemaker” of tative, and fit for nothing but placid star-
the heart? ing. The day wasending in a serenity of
A. Purknife fibers still and exquisite brilliance. The water
shone pacifically; the sky, withouta speck,
B. SA node
was a benign immensity of unstained light;
C. Bundle of his the very mist on the Essex marshes was
D. Interventricular Septum likea gauzy and radiant fabric, hung from
the wooded rises inland, and draping the
115. What is the size of an adult’s heart? low shores indiaphanous folds. Only the
A. two fists together gloom to the west, brooding over the up-
B. the size of a fist per reaches, became moresomber every
minute, as if angered by the approach of
C. the size of a ball the sun. And at last, in its curved andim-
D. the size of an apple perceptible fall, the sun sank low, and

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1.12 Heart 397

from glowing white changed to a dull red 122. When do we celebrate world heart day?
without raysand without heat, as if about A. April 21
to go out suddenly, stricken to death by

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

the touch of that gloombrooding over a B. August 29
crowd of men.2) The mood of men in this C. September 29
passage is best described as D. December 1
A. surly
123. always carry blood TOWARDS the
B. resigned heart.
C. contemplative A. Arteries
D. restless B. Veins
C. valves
118. The PUMPS blood to the lungs.
D. chambers
A. Right Atrium
124. What change should be made in the sen-
B. Right Ventricle
tence below? Cody helps Mom wash, dry,
C. Left Atrium and stack, the dishes.
D. Left Ventricle A. take out the comma after DRY
B. take out the comma after WASH
119. How to prevent heart diseases?
C. take out the comma after STACK
A. Smoking
D. none of above
B. Exercise regularly
125. Choose the best definition for:vexed
C. Consume more carbohydrate
A. calm
D. Drink less water
B. content
120. how to find your pulse C. reserved
A. how many beats per minute (BPM) D. bothered
B. elbow, ankle, and ear 126. What are the three (3) main parts of the
C. heart beat brain?
D. count your heart beats for ten seconds A. Cerebrum, cerebellum, brain stem
and multiply by 4 B. spinal cord, brain stem, cerebrum
C. cerebellum, brain stem, spinal cord
121. The valve between the left atrium and
left ventricle of the heart, consisting of D. none of above
two triangular flaps of tissue, that pre- 127. What change should be made in the sen-
vents the blood from flowing back into the tence below? The eagles rise, dip and glide
atrium. across the sky.
A. tricuspid A. put a comma after DIP
B. pulmonary B. put a comma after GLIDE
C. mitral valve C. take out the comma after RISE
D. none of above D. none of above

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1.12 Heart 398

128. What color is Oxygen-rich blood? C. swore

A. Brown D. hypocritical
B. Red
134. The name of the structure where the
C. Purple point of maximum impulse is located is
D. Blue A. Mediastinum
129. What happens to “ruin” the Giants base- B. base
ball game for Seth?

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Apex
A. The Giants lost the game. D. none of above
B. Seth and Jimmy get in an argument.
135. the sound of the old man’s heart most
C. Jimmy’s dad gets drunk and in a fight closely symbolizes
with someone at the game.
A. the revenge of the old man
D. Jimmy spills his soda on Seth.
B. the guilt of the narrator
130. The heart pumps to every part of
C. the knowledge of the police
your body.
D. the sadness of the narrator
A. water
B. juice 136. The beating sound your heart makes
comes from
C. milk
A. blood going in the wrong direction
D. blood
B. valves closing
131. Which detail should be included in a sum-
mary of the story? C. the heart skipping beats

A. The officers chatted about familiar D. your ears playing tricks on you
things. 137. Which of the following statements about
B. The Old Man was snoring when the the narrator is true?
narrator crept in to his room.
A. the narrator’s insanity makes him a re-
C. The narrator murders the old man. liable narrator
D. The narrator is male. B. the narrator’s insanity makes him an
unreliable narrator
132. What does the narrator do each night?
C. the narrator’s impersonal style makes
A. He sneaks out of the house.
him an objective narrator
B. He watches the old man while he
D. the narrator’s use of the word ‘you’
sleeps.
makes him a second-person narrator
C. He hides in the attic.
D. He stares out the window. 138. What is happening in the P-wave of an
EKG?
133. Which word from paragraph 18 is closest A. Atria relaxes because the AV node
to meaning contempt? fired a signal
A. agony B. Atria contracts because the AV node
B. derision fired a signal

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1.12 Heart 399

C. Atria contracts because the SA node 144. The heart is protected by the
fired a signal
A. ribs

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

D. Atria relaxes because the SA node
fired a signal B. head bones
C. arm muscles
139. What does the left atrium do?
A. Left atrium receives oxygen-poor D. none of above
blood from the body and pumps it to the
left ventricle 145. Which statement from the text proves
that the narrator feels guilty?
B. Pumps blood out of the heart
C. Left atrium receives oxygen rich blood A. “there was no pulsation. He was stone
from the lungs and pumps it to the left ven- dead. His eye would trouble me no more.”
tricle B. “A shriek had been heard by a neigh-
D. none of above bor during the night; suspicion of foul play
had been aroused; information had been
140. What is the purpose of the valves. lodged at the police office, and they (the
A. carry blood back to the heart officers) had been deputed to search the
premises”
B. carry blood away from the heart
C. keeps blood pumping in one direction C. “The officers were satisfied. My man-
ner had convinced them. I was singularly
D. none of above at ease.”
141. A heart is comprised of muscle, this mus- D. “Dissemble no more! I admit the deed!
cle is called tear up the planks! here, here!
A. Smooth Muscle. it is the beating of this hideous heart!”
B. Cardiac Muscle.
146. What could be another good name for
C. Skeletal Muscle. moderate-to-vigorous activity?
D. Red Muscle. A. Slow and Steady
142. function in the life-saving process of B. Heart Racer
clotting blood.
C. Huff and Puff
A. Phagocytes
D. Think of your own new name for
B. Leucocytes
moderate-to-vigorous activity. We will
C. Erythrocytes share ideas at the end of class today.
D. Platelets
147. Which of the following is NOT true about
143. To whom is the narrator telling his the narrator?
story?
A. He is compassionate.
A. The readers
B. The police B. He is insane.

C. The old man C. He is nervous.

D. The narrator isn’t telling the story. D. He has a mental disorder.

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1.12 Heart 400

148. Blood from all over our body will go to C. Right Ventricle and Pulmonary Artery
D. Aorta and Superior Vena Cava
A. the left side of the heart
153. What else do you need to locate after
B. the lungs opening the heart?
C. the right side of the heart A. The valves
D. none of above B. The capillaries
149. Hiding one’s true purpose or feelings

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. The lungs
A. Sagacity D. The lumen
B. Dissimulation 154. Which of the following is the correct def-
C. Hearty inition of Ischemia?
D. Scarce A. lack of adequate blood supply to the
heart muscle
150. Which of the following is the correct def-
inition of Bradycardia? B. a rapid uncoordinated quivering of the
ventricles
A. lack of adequate blood supply to the
heart muscle C. rapid heart rate over 100 beats per
minute (bpm)
B. a rapid uncoordinated quivering of the
ventricles D. heart rate that is substantially slower
than normal, less than 60 beats per
C. rapid heart rate over 100 beats per minute (bpm)
minute (bpm)
D. heart rate that is substantially slower 155. Which valve separates the left atrium
than normal, less than 60 beats per from the left ventricle?
minute (bpm) A. tricuspid

151. Part A In the passage from The Heart Is B. mitral

a Lonely Hunter, how do Mick’s thoughts C. pulmonary
about her father help to develop her char- D. aortic
acter?
A. by showing that music has always had 156. The sinoatrial node is located in the
a powerful effect on her A. aorta
B. by showing that her family has always B. right atrium
supported her goals C. left atrium
C. by showing that she has always gotten D. right ventricle
what she wants
D. by showing that she has always been 157. Why does the narrator seat himself and
easily frustrated the officers in the room where the body is
buried?
152. The pulmonary valve lies between the A. He thinks it is the only way to keep the
cops from finding the body.
A. Left Ventricle and the Septum B. He is boastful of how well he hid the
B. Aortic Valve and the Right Atrium body.

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1.12 Heart 401

C. He is worried he will give away the 161. What do the four valves do for the
body’s location otherwise. Heart?

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D. He is going mad and wants to torture A. The valves keep blood moving through
himself with guilt. the heart in the right direction.

158. Valves use to regulate blood flow. B. The Valves help circulate the blood to
your fingers.
A. Flappy Bois
C. They do not play any function in the
B. Cusps heart.
C. Pressure D. None of the Above
D. Lids
162. Which structure of the heart produces the
159. Which of the following quotes pro- ‘lub-dub’ sound?
vides the best support for the following
A. valve
theme/main idea:Fear can shape how we
see things and how we act. B. septum
A. “Whenever it fell upon me, my C. left ventricle
blood ran cold; and so by degrees-very
D. right ventricle
gradually-I made up my mind to take the
life of the old man, and thus rid myself of 163. the look like a wasp’s nest and is
the eye for ever.” (Paragraph 2) where the exchange of oxygen and carbon
B. “Yes, he has been trying to comfort dioxide takes places.
himself with these suppositions; but he
A. alveoli
had found all in vain. All in vain; because
Death, in approaching him, had stalked B. bronchial tubes
with his black shadow before him, and en- C. lung
veloped the victim.” (Paragraph 7)
D. diaphragm
C. “As the bell sounded the hour, there
came a knocking at the street door. I went 164. How does the narrator act towards the
down to open it with a light heart, -for old man during the day?
what had I now to fear? ” (Paragraph 14)
A. He is rude to him.
D. “I gasped for breath-and yet the offi-
cers heard it not. I talked more quickly- B. He is abusive to him.
more vehemently; but the noise steadily C. He ignores him.
increased.” (Paragraph 17)
D. He is friendly and kind.
160. How our activity affect the pulse rate?
165. The human heart has how many cham-
A. If we do more activites, our pulse rate bers?
is slower
A. 3
B. It does not affect the pulse rate
B. 4
C. If we do more activities, our pulse rate
is faster C. 5
D. none of above D. 1

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1.12 Heart 402

166. What makes the eighth night different 171. What is the setting of this novel?
from the previous seven nights? A. San Francisco
A. the narrator is clumsy and makes a B. New York
noise
C. Redwood City
B. the old man is awake
D. Los Angeles
C. the old man hears the narrator chuckle
D. all of the above 172. What are the functions of the tricuspid

NARAYAN CHANGDER
and bicuspid valves?
167. What is the final destination of the elec-
A. prevent blood from leaking back into
trical impulse in the heart?
he ventricles
A. Purkinje Fibers
B. prevent blood from leaking back into
B. SA & AV Nodes the atria
C. Bundle Branches C. allow blood to flow into the atria
D. Superior Vena Cava D. allow blood to leave the ventricles
168. How do you feel when you are in the 173. The natural pacemaker of the heart is the
Resting Heart Rate Zone?
A. AV node (Atrioventricular node)
A. Very easy; I am sitting; I can talk with
no effort. B. SA node (Sinoatrial node)

B. Moderate to Moderately hard; I am C. Brainstem

slightly uncomfortable; I can still talk but D. Purkinje fibers
it requires effort and I really don’t want
to;I am sweating. 174. What is the size of the Heart?
C. Very difficult; no-talk zone; I can only A. Muscular Organ
keep up this pace for a short period. B. Triangular Organ
D. Easy; I am walking; I can talk with lit- C. Sphere Shape
tle effort
D. Roughly like two closed fists.
169. Which chambers of the heart are the
175. Which side of heart is filled with no oxy-
thickest and strongest?
gen blood
A. Atria
A. left
B. Ventricles
B. right
C. Valves
C. both
D. Aorta
D. none of above
170. The outer layer of the heart that is basi-
cally a fluid filled sac 176. What is the heart?

A. Pericardium A. It’s a small metal spike with a broad-

ened flat head.
B. Myocardium
B. It is an organ that is a beating muscle
C. Endocardium that allows blood and nutrients to move
D. none of above throughout your body.

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1.12 Heart 403

C. It is a soft organ that allows you to B. cricket’s chirping

think, jump, walk, and balance yourself. C. mouse’s footsteps

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D. none of above D. lantern’s creaking
177. What does your heart do?
182. Why does the narrator of “The Tell-Tale
A. Pump carbon dioxide through your Heart” cast a beam of light on the old
body man’s face?
B. Give your body energy A. to look at the old man’s eye
C. Pump oxygen through your body B. to shock the old man
D. Nothing C. to make his way over to the bed
178. What happens after the blood delivers D. to reassure the old man
the oxygen to the cells in the body?
183. The symbolism of the lamp burning
A. The blood returns to the heart steadily in the tower is most like
B. New blood is circulated through A. the storm went on forever.
C. The heart pumps more blood B. Yenna being unsure of her decision to
D. none of above wait
C. the night seeming to never end.
179. What side of the heart carries deoxy-
genated blood? D. Yenna’s undying love.
A. Left 184. Roughly how big is your heart?
B. Right A. Size of your closed fist
C. Both sides of the heart carry deoxy- B. Size of your foot
genated blood
C. Size of a brain
D. Neither; blood is always oxygenated
when it travels through the heart. D. Size of both your fists together

180. Dehydration 185. The resting heart of an average healthy

person is typically?
A. fluid blood is mostly water and needs
fluid to maintain proper levels. Leads to A. 50 BPM
thickening of the blood and more difficulty B. 100 BPM
with flow throughout the body
C. 60 BPM
B. Lack of oxygen in blood
D. none of above
C. a dried and compacted blood glob
which prevents fluid blood from passing 186. The narrator chuckles at the old man’s
through the circulatory system fear. What does this tell you about the
narrator.
D. none of above
A. He is funny.
181. The author creates suspense by describ-
ing the sound of the old man’s heartbeat B. He is impatient.
as the sound of a C. He is cruel.
A. watch’s ticking D. He is tired.

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1.12 Heart 404

187. What takes blood back to the heart? 193. signs of cardiac arrest
A. arteries A. unresponsive /sudden loss of con-
sciouness
B. veins
B. no breathing
C. capillaries
C. no pulse
D. none of above
D. all above
188. what is the bpm for ventral cells?

NARAYAN CHANGDER
194. As the right ventricle contracts, the blood
A. 40 flows into the
B. 60 A. Heart
C. 50 B. Pulmonary arteries
D. none of above C. Atrium
D. Ventricle
189. What is the heart’s primary job?
A. Oxygenating blood 195. Two of the layers of the heart are the
and the
B. Eliminating waste
A. Epicardium
C. Pumping blood
B. Myocardium
D. Processing food
C. Typocardium
190. Select the activity that does NOT make D. Endocardium
your heart beat faster.
196. This chamber of the heart RECEIVES blood
A. Jump Rope
returning from the body
B. Run
A. Right Atrium
C. Swim B. Right Ventricle
D. Stretch C. Left Atrium
191. The movement of blood through the heart D. Left Ventricle
and body is called
197. What is a normal blood pressure?
A. circulation
A. 120/80
B. locomotion
B. 100/50
C. ventriculation C. 190/70
D. heart pump D. 150/70
192. The mammalian heart has chambers. 198. In 1829, Mrs. Allan died of
A. 1 A. brain cancer
B. 2 B. tuberculosis
C. 3 C. scarlet fever
D. 4 D. pneumonia

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1.12 Heart 405

199. The name given to the study of the heart 204. Heart is made up of
structure and function A. muscles

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A. cardiology B. bones
B. epidemiology C. cartilage
C. endocrinology D. none of above
D. biology
205. What is the main organ of the circulatory
system?
200. How does the narrator describe the
groan the old man makes? A. Bladder
A. One of mortal terror B. Heart
B. One of grief C. Veins

C. One of pain D. Arteries

D. One of joy 206. This triggers contraction in the ventricle

A. SA node
201. From the details of the story, what
canyou conclude about traditional Chinese- B. AV node
customs? C. QT node
A. F. Most women did not marry until D. AV Bundles
theywere past thirty.
207. An angiogram is:
B. G. Young women usually married for
love. A. A measure of the electrical activity of
the heart
C. H. Young men rarely left home to find
work. B. An image taken with an X ray machine
using injected dye that observes the coro-
D. J. Most men thought it shameful to be- nary arteries
supported by their wives’ families.
C. An image taken with sound waves
202. The RECEIVES blood returning from (sonar) that observes interior structures
the lungs. of the heart and blood flow

A. Right Atrium D. Something you send your Valentine

B. Right Ventricle 208. The brain is % water

C. Left Atrium A. 0%
D. Left Ventricle B. 72%
C. 85%
203. What does the narrator think he hears?
D. 75%
A. The police
209. After blood gets oxygenated in the lungs
B. The neighbors
it goes
C. His own heartbeat
A. from the pulmonary artery to the right
D. The old man’s heartbeat atrium

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1.12 Heart 406

B. from the pulmonary artery to the left 215. Blood flows from left atrium to left ven-
atrium tricle through which valve?
C. from the pulmonary vein to the right A. Mitral
atrium
B. Tricuspid
D. from the pulmonary vein to the left
atrium C. Aortic
D. Pulmonary
210. Which of these is not one of the four main

NARAYAN CHANGDER
blood vessels connected to the heart. 216. what is function of heart?
A. Aorta A. to pump blood
B. Vena Cava
B. to give us energy
C. Pulmonary artery
C. to cool down our body
D. Venus Vein
D. none of above
211. The Brain is found
217. what is used to listen to heart beat?
A. in the head
B. in the chest A. A Clock

C. in the hand B. A skeleton

D. none of above C. A Stethoscope
D. none of above
212. In regards to heart rate, BPM stands for
A. Beats per minute 218. The study of the human heart is known
B. Back pressure minutes as
C. Blue pulsing muscles A. Philosophy
D. Bio paradigm mission B. Engineering

213. .... is the chamber of the heart that re- C. Cardiology

ceives deoxygenated and carbon dioxide- D. none of above
rich blood from the body.
A. The right atrium 219. Which part of the heart receives blood?
B. Aorta A. Atria
C. The left ventricle B. Aorta
D. Valve C. Ventricles

214. What is the “resolution” of the story? D. Pulmonary Artery

A. The narrator invites the police inside. 220. How many sides does the heart have?
B. The narrator begins to hear the beat- A. 1
ing of the Old Man’s heart.
B. 2
C. The narrator confesses to being crazy.
C. 3
D. The narrator digs up the heart from the
planks. D. 4

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1.12 Heart 407

221. In a human lifetime, how many times the very mist on the Essex marshes was
would an average heart beat? likea gauzy and radiant fabric, hung from
the wooded rises inland, and draping the

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A. 500 million
low shores indiaphanous folds. Only the
B. 1 billion gloom to the west, brooding over the up-
C. 2.5 billion per reaches, became moresomber every
minute, as if angered by the approach of
D. 5 billion
the sun. And at last, in its curved andim-
222. Where will the deoxygenated blood go perceptible fall, the sun sank low, and
from the heart? from glowing white changed to a dull red
without raysand without heat, as if about
A. lungs to go out suddenly, stricken to death by
B. kidney the touch of that gloombrooding over a
crowd of men.1) The narrator of this pas-
C. liver
sage is telling his story from
D. none of above
A. a ship
223. From “The Heart of Darkness”, by B. a cave
Joseph Conrad. Between us there was,
C. a mountain
as I have already said somewhere, the
bond of the sea. Besidesholding our hearts D. a forest
together through long periods of separa-
tion, it had the effect of making ustoler- 224. Deoxygenated blood enters the heart
ant of each other’s yarns-and even convic- through the
tions. The Lawyer-the best of old fellows- A. Superior and Inferior Vena Cava
had, because of his many years and many
B. Pulmonary Artery
virtues, the only cushion on deck, and
was lying on the onlyrug. The Accountant C. Pulmonary Vein
had brought out already a box of domi- D. Aorta
noes, and was toying architecturallywith
the bones. Marlow sat cross-legged right 225. How many times per minute does a
aft, leaning against the mizzen-mast. He baby’s heart beat?
hadsunken cheeks, a yellow complexion, a
A. 72
straight back, an ascetic aspect, and, with
his armsdropped, the palms of hands out- B. 100
wards, resembled an idol. The Director C. 140
satisfied the anchor hadgood hold, made
his way aft and sat down amongst us. D. none of above
We exchanged a few words lazily. Af-
226. In paragraphs 14-15, the narrator de-
terward there was silence on board the
scribes his cleanup and first encounter with
yacht. For some reason or other we did
the police with a tone of-
not beginthat game of dominoes. We felt
meditative, and fit for nothing but placid A. anxiety
staring. The day wasending in a serenity B. melancholy
of still and exquisite brilliance. The water
shone pacifically; the sky, withouta speck, C. confidence
was a benign immensity of unstained light; D. indifference

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1.12 Heart 408

227. Which sentence contains a present par- 232. What is the bone that protects the heart
ticiple (present tense verb that ends with- called?
ing)?
A. rib cage
A. Tim practices football every weekend.
B. back bone
B. His friends have played for years.
C. femur
C. My sister is practicing her flute.
D. none of above
D. Shane was a famous cowboy.

NARAYAN CHANGDER
233. What change should be made in the sen-
228. What are the functions of the semilunar tence below? Annie put tomatoes, carrots
valves? and greens in her salad.
A. prevent blood from leaking back into A. put a comma after ANNIE
the ventricles
B. put a comma after GREENS
B. prevent blood from leaking back into
the atria C. put a comma after CARROTS

C. allow blood to flow into the atria D. none of above

D. allow blood to leave the ventricles 234. The young man owed money because he
229. The heart is a A. borrowed money to travel to America.
A. muscle B. borrowed money to pay for his cloth-
ing.
B. ligament
C. borrowed money to build a house.
C. tendon
D. had lost all his own money in a card
D. none of the above
game.
230. What happens at the climax of the
story? 235. What are 3 things heartworms can
cause?
A. The narrator asks how the old man
slept during the day. A. Slowing of brain development

B. The narrator welcomes the police into B. Heart failure

the house. C. Lung disease
C. The narrator confesses his crime. D. damage to other organs
D. The narrator watches the old man
while he sleeps. 236. What do we learn about the narrator
when he asks the police officers to sit and
231. How many valves are there in the rest in the same room where he’s hidden
Heart? the body?
A. 3 A. He’s careless
B. 2 B. He’s confident
C. 4 C. He’s rude
D. 5 D. He’s insane

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1.12 Heart 409

237. How many theories of Edgar’s death did C. threatened

you research? D. serious

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A. 1
243. Who is the author of the story?
B. 3
A. Edgar Allan Poe
C. 5 B. Edgar Poe
D. 8 C. Edward Albert Poe
238. What is the title of the story? D. Edgar Allan
A. “The Tell-Tale Heart” 244. How much blood if there in an adult hu-
B. “The Tattle-Telling Heart” man body?

C. “The Old-Tale Heart” A. 3 liters

B. 5 liters
D. “The Old Man’s Heart”
C. 10 liters
239. What does an unknown person do to D. 20 liters
honor Poe at his grave each year?
245. How many ventricles are there?
A. toast him with a drink
A. 1
B. read a poem
B. 2
C. sing a song
C. 10
D. leave a painted picture
D. 0
240. Which of the following is an example of
246. into how much does the heart divide
a visual image?
A. four section
A. “a pale blue eye, with a film over it”
B. six section
B. “the beating grew louder, louder!”
C. two section
C. “I fairly chuckled at the idea”
D. four and half the section
D. “my blood ran cold”
247. the structure that divides the heart into
241. on which side is our heart located? left and right sections, creating a double
A. Left pump

B. Right A. apex
B. atria
C. Slightly left
C. septum
D. Slightly right
D. ventricles
242. In the line “There came to my ears a low,
248. what is not of the symptoms of the heart
dull, quick sound, such as a watch makes
attack
hen enveloped in cotton, “ what does “en-
veloped in cotton” try to make the reader A. headache
feel? B. coughing
A. alive C. wheezing
B. trapped D. nausea

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1.12 Heart 410

249. What happens on the eighth night? B. because the old man could not fall
A. The old man hears the narrator and asleep again
sits up in bed. C. because the old man sensed deadly
B. The old man sleeps peacefully as the company in the room
narrator smothers him. D. because the old man could see death
C. The narrator simply watches the mans approaching him
sleep again.
255. Which of the following is an example of

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. The old man hides beneath the covers. a sound image?
250. Your heart beats faster when you A. “the beating grew louder, louder!”
A. rest B. “a pale blue eye, with a film over it”
B. exercise C. “a single thin ray fell upon the vulture
C. sleep eye”
D. none of above D. “my blood ran cold”

251. These are the oxygen carrying cells of the 256. The lower chambers of the heart are
blood. called the
A. red blood cells A. artery
B. plasma B. ventricles
C. white blood cells C. atrium
D. none of above D. vesticle
252. What type of text is the story? 257. Heart sounds are associated with
A. a short story
A. closing of heart valves
B. a book
B. delivery of blood to lungs
C. a poem
C. delivery of blood to lungs
D. an expository essay
D. contraction of coronary arteries
253. The heart is made of which of the follow-
ing types of muscles? 258. What is your maximum heart rate?
A. Cardiac muscle A. 220 minus your age; the maximum
number of times your heart can beat
B. Striated muscle
safely in one minute.
C. Smooth muscle
B. 175; The zone that you want your heart
D. None of the above rate to be in while you’re being active.
254. Based on the narration in paragraph 8, C. When you haven’t been active for a
why does the narrator believe that the old long time and your heart isn’t working
man groaned? very hard.
A. because the old man could hear the D. The highest number on the electronic
narrator at the door heart rate monitor.

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1.12 Heart 411

259. What does the ginger in this story most- 265. Every human has lungs.
likely represent?
A. one

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A. Enduring love
B. two
B. The aging process
C. three
C. Obedience
D. four
D. Wisdom gained through experience
266. Part A What does paragraph 5 of the pas-
260. Large blood vessels that carry blood sage from The Heart Is a Lonely Hunter
away from the heart are called: most reveal about Mick?
A. arteries
A. She is committed to learning how to
B. capillaries write music.
C. veins B. She is confident that she will become
D. venae cavae a famous musician.
C. She is frustrated by how writing music
261. This is the largest artery in our bodies.
affects her emotions.
A. vena cava
D. She is held back by her limited knowl-
B. aorta edge of how to write poetry
C. pulmonary artery
267. Where do Heartworms live?
D. none of above
A. Heart
262. How many bones does Adults have? B. Lungs
A. 300
C. Veins
B. 206
D. Associated blood vessels
C. 200
E. Brain
D. none of above
268. inner layer of the pericardium
263. The bicuspid valve is on what side of the
heart? A. parietal pericardium
A. Left B. visceral pericardium
B. Right C. myocardium
C. Neither D. endocardium
D. Center
269. In the Poem “i carry your heart with me”
264. The most muscular chamber of the heart who is The Speaker expressing his love
is the to?
A. left ventricle A. His Significant Other
B. left atrium B. Mother
C. right atrium C. Father
D. right ventricle D. None Of the Above

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1.12 Heart 412

270. Describe what is meant by a training C. 1884

zone? D. 1891
A. A zone which defines upper and lower
276. What is Jimmy’s dad like? (You may
limits of training intensities depending
choose more than one.)
on what you aiming to achieving through
training. A. He is hard on Jimmy.
B. An area to work in whilst training B. He is very nice to Seth.
C. He drinks a lot.

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. A zone which dictates how long we
should train for in each intensity. D. He know a lot about baseball.
D. none of above 277. Which is the part of circulatory system?
271. Second part of Cardiac Conduction Sys- A. Stomach
tem:This structure receives a signal and B. Skin
passes it on to the Bundle of His
C. Veins
A. Purkinje fibers
D. Muscles
B. Atrioventricular (AV) node
278. Name the artery that carries blood from
C. Sinoatrial (SA) Node the left ventricle to the body
D. none of above A. vena cava
272. Choose the best definition for:derision B. aorta
A. tribute C. pulmonary Vein
B. acclaim D. pulmonary artery
C. mockery 279. What is the special function of the brain
D. homage stem?
A. collects messages from the spinal cord
273. outer layer of the pericardium and controls breathing and heartbeat
A. visceral pericardium B. control movements
B. parietal pericardium C. controls balancing
C. epicardium D. none of above
D. myocardium
280. How many valves does the heart have?
274. What are the heart diseases (select all A. 7
that apply) B. 4
A. Coronary artery disease C. 3
B. Cancer D. 2
C. Diabetes
281. what is MHR
D. Heart attack
A. maximum heart rate
275. When year was E.E Cummings born in? B. minimum heart rate
A. 1896 C. medium heart rate
B. 1894 D. all of the above

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1.12 Heart 413

282. Place the following in the correct or- C. 4.5 pounds

der:1.atria contract 2. AV node 3. Bun- D. the size of a baseball
dle of His 4.Purkinje fibers 5. SA node 6.

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ventricles contract 288. The fibrous chords that attach to the
A. 5, 1, 2, 3, 4, 6 cusps of the valves
B. 2, 1, 5, 3, 4, 6 A. Purkinje fibers
C. 5, 6, 2, 3, 4, 1 B. chordae tendineae
D. 2, 6, 5, 3, 4, 1 C. papillary muscles

283. The right side of the heart is pumping D. cusps

blood to the 289. What are the two heart tissues called?
A. Kidney
A. periwinkle & myocardial
B. Stomach
B. peri the platypus and myocardium
C. Lungs
C. pericardium and myocardium
D. Rest of the body
D. pericardium and myocarditis
284. How big is the heart?
290. What happened to Seth’s father?
A. Size of a golfball
A. Nothing. He is still alive.
B. Size of your fist
B. He was in a car accident.
C. Size of your eyeball
C. He got a divorce.
D. Size of your head
D. He died in a hotel room from a stroke.
285. This separates the Right and Left
ventricle-Prevents oxygenated blood from 291. The lining of the chambers of the heart is
mixing with deoxygenated blood called the
A. Interatrial Septum A. myocardium
B. Tricuspid Valve B. epicardium
C. Interventricular Septum C. endocardium
D. Mitral Valve D. pericardium
286. Which structure of the heart prevents 292. At the end of the story, why does the
the mixing of oxygen-riched blood and narrator tell the officers to “tear up the
oxygen-poor blood? planks” and therefore unveil the corpse?
A. Aorta A. because he wants them to stop smiling
B. Atrium at him and punish him
C. Valve B. because he believes they hear the
heartbeat and are mocking him
D. Septum
C. because he wanted to be caught for
287. About how large is the human heart? the crime all along
A. the size of an onion D. because he knew that they would find
B. the size of a fist the evidence eventually

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1.12 Heart 414

293. What statement about the narrator is not 296. After Edgar started to have financial
reasonable, based on the following pas- problems in college, he turned to
sage from “The Tell-Tale Heart”? True!- A. gambling
nervous-very, very dreadfully nervous I
had been and am; but why will you say B. acting
that I am mad? The disease had sharp- C. teaching
ened my senses-not destroyed-not dulled D. writing
them

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. The narrator is probably tired. 297. what is the longest and strongest bone
in the body?
B. The narrator is probably insane
A. hand bone
C. The narrator is nervous B. rib bone
D. The narrator has a disease C. Femur
294. Situational irony is when a character D. none of above
or the reader expects one thing, but
298. In an arranged marriage, Yenna would
something very different happens or is
have
true. Dramatic irony is when the reader
knows something that a character does A. been able to tell her husband what to
not know.Which two are examples of do.
irony in the story? B. been equal to her husband.
A. The narrator’s attempts to hide the C. been free to do as she pleased.
murder actually result in him giving him- D. become the property of her husband.
self up to the police.
B. The narrator chooses to commit the 299. The blood supplies to the organs.
murder in the middle of the night, when A. food and oxygen
the old man is asleep. B. nitrogen and oxygen
C. The more the narrator insists that he C. food and nitrogen
is not mad, the more readers can detect
D. none of above
evidence of his madness.
D. The narrator admits that he liked, even 300. Choose the answer that will fill in the
loved, the old man, and that he only ob- missing words in the correct order:vena
jected to his pale, filmy eye. cava, , tricuspid valve, right ventri-
cle, pulmonary valve, , lungs, , left
E. The neighbor hears the old man shriek atrium, , left ventricle, aorta
and summons the police out of concern for
his safety. A. right atrium, pulmonary artery, pul-
monary veins, bicuspid valve
295. Why did the narrator kill the old man? B. atrial valve, right atrium, right ventri-
A. Because the old man wronged him cle, body
C. left ventricle, pulmonary artery, pul-
B. Because someone hired him to
monary veins, tricuspid valve
C. Because of his pale blue eye
D. right atrium, pulmonary veins, pul-
D. Because of gold monary artery, bicuspid valve

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1.12 Heart 415

301. Blood with oxygen will be pumped to all 306. What question does the narrator ask the
over our body from reader?

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A. the left side of the heart A. “Why will you say that I am mad? ”
B. the lungs B. “Why are the police here? ”
C. the right side of the heart C. “I loved the old man.”
D. none of above D. “Why will you say that I am crazy? ”

302. Whose heartbeat does the narrator really 307. If you are breathing hard enough that you
hear? can’t hold a conversation, what would you
rate yourself on the RPE scale?
A. the old man’s
A. 9
B. his own
B. 5
C. the cops’
C. 3
D. the neighbors’
D. 1
303. In what sense does a tree planter do civic
308. Arteries carry blood from the heart
good?
and usually contain blood
A. He plants a tree which generates oxy-
A. away, deoxygenated
gen
B. away, oxygenated
B. He performs a symbolic act of good-
ness by planting a tree C. towards, deoxygenated
C. He plants a tree which provides food D. towards, oxygenated
D. He’s having fun 309. What is the first thing you will draw?
304. What tone is represented in the line “You A. Sketch of the features of the outside of
should have seen how wisely I proceeded the heart
with what caution-with what fore- B. Sketch of the features of the inside of
sight with what dissimulation I went the heart
to work”?
C. The animal the heart came from
A. focused
D. Heart and lung diagram
B. furious
310. Third part of Cardiac Conduction Sys-
C. grieving
tem:This structures branches down from
D. apathetic septum and out towards each ventricle.
They *relay* the signal to the Purkinje
305. Where in your chest is your heart? fibers.
A. left A. Atrioventricular (AV) node
B. right B. Sinoatrial (SA) Node
C. middle C. Bundle of His
D. none of above D. Purkinje fibers

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1.12 Heart 416

311. In which sentence is ceased used inappro- B. 100

priately?
C. 140
A. After the rain ceased, the sun came
D. none of above
out.
B. When the teacher told us to be quiet, 316. Which of the following are chambers of
we ceased talking. the heart?
C. When we were full, we ceased eating. A. Valves

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. When it got cold, we ceased wearing B. Atrium and ventricle
our jackets.
C. Arteries and veins
312. What are the main organs of the circula- D. Sinoatrial nerve
tory system?
A. The heart and the the lungs. 317. Yenna’s father
B. The heart and the blood vessels (arter- A. worked in a friend’s tailoring shop.
ies, trachea and capillaries). B. owned his own tailoring shop.
C. The heart and the blood vessels (arter-
C. did all his own tailoring work in the
ies, veins and capillaries).
shop.
D. The heart and the blood vessels (arter-
D. owned a Chinese restaurant.
ies, veins and bronchi).

313. What is ECG? 318. The lower chambers of the heart are
known as
A. electrocardiogram
A. valves
B. a tool that collects electrical changes
in the heart muscle B. ventricles
C. will detect any abnormal rhythm of the C. atria
heart D. septum
D. all of the above
319. How does the narrator feel at the open-
314. The second heart sound (the dup of the ing of the story?
lub-dup) is caused by the
A. hungry
A. opening of the pulmonary and aortic
valves B. tired

B. closure of the tricuspid and bicuspid C. nervous

valves D. constipated
C. closure of the pulmonary and aortic
valves 320. Which word is closest in meaning to
acute?
D. opening of the tricuspid and bicuspid
valves A. dull
B. close
315. An adult’s heart beats times per
minute. C. previous
A. 72 D. sharp

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1.12 Heart 417

321. Reread these lines from the beginning of 326. Our body parts work to keep our
“The Tell-Tale Heart”:You fancy me mad. body alive.
Madmen know nothing. But you should

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A. together
have seen me. You should have seen how
wisely I proceeded-with what caution B. alone
Which of the following questions might a
C. separatly
reader of that passage have?
D. none of above
A. Is the narrator lonely?
B. Is the narrator insane? 327. What is the function of the skull
C. Will the narrator’s story be long or A. gives the brain food
short?
B. protects the brain
D. Will the narrator find true love?
C. gives the brain blood
322. Which side of the heart is thicker?
D. none of above
A. Right Side
B. Left Side 328. According to the narrator, which of the
following best explains why he decides to
C. Neither, both sides are the same thick-
kill the old man?
ness
D. I’m not sure A. The old man had wronged him too
many times
323. The right side of the heart is separated
B. He is insane and has no awareness of
from the left side of the heart by the:
his actions.
A. Chordae Tendinae
C. He wants to steal the old man’s for-
B. Interventricular Septum tune.
C. Papillary Muscles D. He is haunted by the appearance of
D. Auricles one of the man’s eyes.

324. Pulmonary Artery 329. What are you observing?

A. carries oxygenated blood to atrium A. Structure of mammalian heart
B. carries deoxygenated blood to lungs B. Structure of amphibian heart
C. carries oxygenated blood to lungs
C. Structure of human heart
D. none of the above
D. Structure of heart and lungs
325. What are some symptoms of heart-
worms? 330. Vessels that send blood away from the
heart are called
A. Mild cough
B. Sweating A. arteries

C. Swollen belly B. veins

D. Fatigue C. capillaries
E. Decreased appetite and weight loss D. muscles

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1.12 Heart 418

331. What part of the Intrinsic Conduction Sys- 335. The blood in the vena cava is
tem is located inside the interventricular A. oxygenated, returning to the heart
septum?
B. deoxygenated, returning to the heart
A. Purkinje Fibers
C. oxygenated, leaving the heart
B. SA & AV Nodes
D. deoxygenated, leaving the heart
C. Bundle Branches
336. what is the soft tissues inside the bones
D. Superior Vena Cava called?

NARAYAN CHANGDER
332. What tool is used to measure blood pres- A. marrow
sure? B. blood
A. ECG C. tissues
B. stethoscope D. none of above
C. sphygmomanometer 337. Why do you need to use newspaper
D. thermometer A. To cover dissection board and make
clean up easy
333. In the story, what causes the conflict be- B. To read when waiting
tween the narrator and the old man?
C. To make a model of the heart in 3D
A. The narrator and the old man resent
having to live together because of the nar- D. To find instructions for prac activity
rator’s disease, and so the narrator de- 338. When the young man clenched and un-
cides to murder the old man. clenched his hands, it was
B. The narrator is driven mad by the A. because he was sad.
sound of a heart beating beneath the floor-
B. because he was angry.
boards, and this causes him to kill the old
man. C. because he was surprised.
C. The narrator watches the old man D. because he felt sick.
sleep, and when the terrified old man dis- 339. The sound that drives the narrator of
covers this, the narrator kills him to keep “The Tell-Tale Heart” to confess is
his madness hidden.
A. created by the police to trap the narra-
D. The narrator is terrified of the old tor.
man’s blue eye and overwhelmed by the
sound of his heartbeat, so the narrator B. coming from the neighbors house, next
kills the old man. door.
C. possibly the narrator’s heart pound-
334. What carries the oxygenated blood from ing.
the lungs to the left atrium of the heart?
D. a shutter beating rhythmically in the
A. vena cava wind.
B. aorta 340. Muscles are % water
C. pulmonary vein A. 75%
D. pulmonary artery B. 12%

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1.12 Heart 419

C. 42% 346. Doctors use a to check our heartbeat.

D. 99% A. drum

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B. stethoscope
341. What specific portion of the heart wall
C. injection
contains the cardiac muscle tissue?
D. none of above
A. Endocardium
347. when blood is pumped from heart, how
B. Epicardium
much time it takes to come back?
C. Myocardium A. one hour
D. Pericardium B. one minute

342. How many minutes of physical activity C. one day

does the American Heart Association rec- D. none of above
ommend for good heart health?
348. How does the narrator kill the old man?
A. 60 A. he suffocates the old man with a mat-
B. 90 tress
C. 30 B. he throws the old man off the roof
C. he stabs the old man in the heart
D. 40
D. he poisons the old man’s soup
343. Which component of the heart conduction
349. Which valve(s) prevents backflow from
system would have the slowest rate of fir-
of blood into the ventricles?
ing?
A. Semilunar Valves
A. AV node
B. Cardiac Valve
B. Purkinje fibers
C. Mitral Valve
C. bundle of His D. Tricuspid Valve
D. bundle branches
350. Body parts are called
344. The heart is the main organ for which sys- A. pieces
tem? B. organs
A. circulatory system C. machines
B. respiratory system D. none of above
C. nervous system 351. What is circulation?
D. digestive system A. It is the process by which blood is
moved around the body.
345. Where can we find our pulse? B. It is the process by which carbon diox-
A. on the elbow or knee ide is moved around the body.

B. on the wrist or side of neck C. It is the process by which waste is

moved around the body.
C. on the stomach or waist
D. It is the process by which oxygen is
D. none of above moved around the body.

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1.12 Heart 420

352. What is the doctor called that takes care D. ability to see in the dark of the old
of the heart? man’s room
A. Dentist
358. how many chamberz does the haert have
B. Pediatrician
A. 2
C. Cardiologist
B. 1
D. none of above
C. 6

NARAYAN CHANGDER
353. A serious condition that occurs when the D. 4
blood supply to the heart slows or stops
and the heart muscle is damaged. 359. After graduating, Cummings became an
A. heart attack ambulance driver in France just before
America entered World War I. He was then
B. hypertension imprisoned for three months on suspicion
C. stroke of holding critical views of the French war
effort, and this experience provided the
D. angioplasty
material for his first book called
354. size of heart A. The Enormous Room
A. fist B. i carry your heart with me
B. hand C. anyone lived in a pretty how town
C. leg D. None of the above
D. none of above
360. How many pulmonary veins are in our
355. It’s possible to make your heart stronger hearts?
A. true A. 1
B. false B. 2
C. only on Tuesdays C. 3
D. no D. 4
356. You can find me between two lungs. You 361. The heart has
can take rest but I can’t. Who am I?
A. two chambers
A. Brain
B. four chambers
B. Intestine
C. three chambers
C. Stomach,
D. none of above
D. Heart
362. How many blood-filled areas does the
357. The narrator has a high opinion of himself
heart have?
when he describes his
A. 2
A. fear of the old man’s Evil Eye
B. 3
B. triumph over his feelings of insanity
C. understanding of the old man’s groan C. 4
of terror D. 5

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1.12 Heart 421

363. Blood clot 368. Which chamber does oxygenated blood

A. fluid blood is mostly water and needs enter the heart first?

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

fluid to maintain proper levels. Leads to A. right ventricle
thickening of the blood and more difficulty B. left atrium
with flow throughout the body
C. right atrium
B. a dried and compacted blood glob
which prevents fluid blood from passing D. none of above
through the circulatory system 369. always carry blood AWAY from the
C. the movement of blood through the heart.
vessels from arteries to the capillaries A. Arteries
and then into the veins.
B. Veins
D. none of above
C. valves
364. This goes up and around the heart; deliv- D. chambers
ers blood to the body-the largest artery in
the body 370. This is the straw colored liquid portion of
the blood that carries dissolved nutrients.
A. Aorta
A. red blood cells
B. Pulmonary
B. plasma
C. Atrium
C. white blood cells
D. Ventricle
D. none of above
365. The heart is a strong
371. A red drum which sounds without be-
A. muscle ing touched, and grows silent, when it is
B. bone touched. What am I?
C. fat A. Heart
D. blood B. Kidney
C. Liver
366. Choose the correct definition for the fol-
lowing:Acute D. Intestine

A. Perceptive; insight; shrewd. 372. how to cure a fib

B. Adequate; enough. A. self
C. Great; intense B. medication
D. Arrogant; disregard C. shock
D. blood infusion
367. What is pulmonary circulation?
A. Blood travelling to and from the lungs 373. The number of valves in the heart is
B. Blood travelling to and from the body A. 1
C. A blood clot in the lungs B. 2

D. The vessel that brings blood to the C. 3

lungs D. 4

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1.12 Heart 422

374. Which detail about the narrator’s person- C. Toes

ality ironically makes him appear the most D. Fingernails
psychotic?
A. He hears imaginary heartbeats. 380. I am a hollow tube. I carry blood towards
heart. Who am I?
B. He is so careful to hide everything he
does. A. Vein
C. He kills the old man. B. Capillary

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. He tries to convince the reader of his C. Artery
sanity. D. Aorta
375. Wall of the heart made up mostly of car- 381. What is a resting heart rate?
diac muscle
A. When your heart takes a break from
A. Pericardium
working.
B. Epicardium
B. When your heart rate is 175.
C. Myocardium
C. When your heart is at it’s lowest beats
D. Endocardium per minute (bpm).
376. The atria are the “upstairs” chambers of D. 220 minus your age.
the heart and these parts are the “down-
stairs” chambers 382. Why did the young man throw the ginger
root into the fire?
A. Valves
A. He wanted to cook the ginger root.
B. Ventricles
B. He was following a custom of the old
C. Blood country.
D. Candy hearts
C. He was upset that Yenna would not
377. Blood is % water. move to his farm.
A. 4% D. He wanted to see if the ginger root
would stay moist.
B. 92%
C. 88% 383. Who is the Author of the poem “i carry
your heart with me”?
D. 91%
A. E.E Cummings
378. How many hearts does an octopus
have? B. Josiah Royce

A. 1 C. William James
B. 2 D. none of above
C. 3 384. What is the shape of a heart?
D. 4 A. rectangular
379. Where does your heart get oxygen? B. triangular
A. Lungs C. oval
B. Mouth D. diamond

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1.12 Heart 423

385. All of the following observations can be B. veins

seen in a person doing exercise except:
C. arteries

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A. Increase in heart rate
D. lungs
B. Increase in cardiac output
C. increase in duration of cardiac cycle 391. Who arrives at the front door?
D. increase in blood flow to skeletal mus- A. The neighbors
cles
B. The police
386. Fish hearts consist of C. The old man’s wife
A. 2 atria & 2 ventricles
D. A raven
B. 2 atria & 1 ventricle
C. 1 atrium & 1 ventricle 392. The Brain is
D. none of above A. Soft

387. This layer encloses the heart B. Hard

A. myocardium C. Rough
B. pericardium D. none of above
C. endocardium
393. Read the statements and find the incor-
D. epicardium rect one:
388. Edgar Allan Poe got kicked out of which A. The ECGs obtained from different indi-
school? viduals have roughly the same shape for
A. The University of Virginia a given lead configuration, any deviation
from this shape indicates a possible ab-
B. U.S. Military Academy at West Point normality or disease.
C. University of Richmond
B. The deoxygenated blood pumped into
D. University of Baltimore the pulmonary artery is passed on to the
lungs from where the oxygenated blood
389. Why did Seth’s mother wait to sue the
is carried by the pulmonary veins into the
hotel for his father’s death?
left atrium.
A. It didn’t seem right to act like money
could replace Seth’s father. C. Systemic heart refers to the right
atrium and left ventricle.
B. The lawyers told her mom to wait for
several years. D. Pulmonary heart refers to the Right
atrium and Right ventricle.
C. She wanted Seth to grow up before
they went to trial.
394. Where is the heart located?
D. Seth’s grandmother did not want her
A. Right side of the chest
to sue the hotel.
B. Left side of the chest
390. Which one of these carries blood TO-
WARDS the heart? C. Under the ribcage, between the lungs
A. blood D. Next to your stomach

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1.12 Heart 424

395. An open circulatory system is one that 400. Match the columns and choose the cor-
has: rect option.(i)Stroke volume (a)70-75 ac-
tion potential per minute(ii)Cardiac output
A. no valves present
(b)Ventricular repolarisation(iii)SAN (c)70
B. no heart to pump the fluid ml of blood per cardiac cycle(iv)P-wave
C. no vessels at all (d)5000 ml of blood per cardiac cycle(v)T-
wave (e)Atrial depolarisation
D. no distinction between blood and tis-
sue fluid A. i-d, ii-c, iii-a, iv-b, v-e

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. i-a, ii-e, iii-c, iv-d, v-b
396. How did Seth meet his best friend?
C. i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-e, v-b
A. They met at school.
D. i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-e, v-b
B. They met at a play ground when Jimmy
was playing baseball. 401. What way can you get to the Target
Heart Rate Zone?
C. They met at a school dance with sev-
A. Laying and sitting down
eral other friends.
B. jogging for 30 minutes
D. They met at the outdoor swimming
pool. C. Sprinting for 100 yards
D. Walking for 10 minutes
397. Yenna did not marry the men who came
to see her because- 402. Why doesn’t the narrator fear being
caught?
A. they did not bring her fine gifts
A. He is actually a police officer himself.
B. her father had arranged a marriage
B. He flees the scene of the crime.
C. she wanted to take her father back to
China C. He didn’t actually do it.

D. she was waiting for the young man to D. He is sure he hid the body well.
return 403. Which of the following define diastole
and systole
398. What is the function of valves in the
heart? A. systole is the contraction of the heart
and diastole is the relaxation of the heart
A. To keep the heart pumping
B. diastole is the contraction of the heart
B. To create pressure and systole is the relaxation of the heart
C. To prevent back flow of blood C. diastole and systole are both contrac-
D. To keep the blood warm tions of the heart
D. diastole and systole are both relax-
399. Why couldn’t the narrator kill the old ation phases of the heart
man during one of the 7 nights?
404. When your resting heart reduces to un-
A. the old man was awake
der 60 B.P.M the Sport Science term used
B. the eye wasn’t open to describe this is called
C. there were robbers outside A. Bradycardic
D. the police showed up B. Tachycardic

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1.12 Heart 425

C. Norcardic 410. What does the narrator’s action as de-

D. none of above scribed in the following sentence from
“The Tell-Tale Heart” tell you about him?

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

405. The valve, consisting of three triangu- It took me an hour to place my whole head
lar flaps of tissue between the right au- within the opening so far that I could see
ricle and ventricle of the heart, that keeps him as he lay upon his bed
blood from flowing back into the auricle. A. He is very frightened.
A. mitral
B. He is very intelligent.
B. tricuspid
C. He is very tired.
C. pulmonary
D. He is very cautious.
D. none of above

406. In “The Tell-Tale Heart, “ what is differ- 411. Which of the following is a difference
ent about the old man’s reaction to the nar- between cardiac muscle and skeletal mus-
rator’s intrusion on the eighth night? cle?
A. He is armed. A. unlike skeletal muscle cells, cardiac
muscle cells do not rely on an influx of cal-
B. He seems unconcerned.
cium ions for depolarization
C. He wakes up and asks who is there.
B. unlike skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle
D. He invites the man to sit down and talk. is not striated
407. What are arteries? C. unlike skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle
A. blood vessels that carries blood to the does not use a sliding filament mechanism
heart for contraction
B. blood vessels that carries blood away D. unlike skeletal muscle cells, cardiac
from the heart muscle cells can be autorhythmic
C. both answers are correct
412. About how much do human hearts
D. none of above weigh?
408. Where does the blood go after it goes A. about 2 grapes
into the pulmonary arteries?
B. about 2 apples
A. Kidneys
C. about 2 watermelons
B. Liver
D. about 2 cars
C. Lungs
D. Bones 413. Why did the narrator say he killed the old
man?
409. Choose the best definition for:gesticulations
A. Because the old man wronged him
A. arm movements
B. repose B. For his gold

C. rest C. Because of his pale blue eye

D. balance D. Because someone hired him to

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1.12 Heart 426

414. Part B Which evidence best supports the 419. Edgar’s birth mother, Eliza,
answer to Part A? A. was an actress
A. “All the family sat by the fire with the B. died when Edgar was almost 3 years
boarders, so she had the middle bedroom old.
to herself.” (paragraph 1)
C. died of Tuberculosis
B. “She would bring out her private box
D. all of the above
from under the bed and sit on the floor to
work.” (paragraph 1)

NARAYAN CHANGDER
420. At what age dud E.E Cummings create his
C. “Later on-when she was twenty-she first poem?
would be a great world-famous com- A. 11
poser.” (paragraph 7)
B. 12
D. “The symphony stayed inside her al-
C. 10
ways and grew little by little.” (paragraph
8) D. 13

415. The word cardiovascular are referring to 421. Vessels that send blood back to the heart
what parts of your body. are called
A. veins
A. Heart, lungs, veins, arteries
B. arteries
B. brain, nerves
C. capillaries
C. glands, pores
D. none of above
D. bones
422. How many hearts does a starfish have?
416. What is the special job for the cerebrum?
A. 0
A. hearing, speaking, movement
B. 1
B. balance, seeing, hearing C. 2
C. breathing, hearing, walking D. 3
D. none of above
423. The space between the layers of the peri-
417. Where is your heart located? cardium that contains fluid to reduce fric-
tion
A. On the middle-right side of your chest
A. pericardial cavity
B. On the middle-left side of your chest
B. epicardium
C. Below your ribcage
C. endocardium
D. Just below your throat
D. myocardium
418. Where was E.E Cummings born? 424. the act of being successful
A. Cambridge, England A. Triumph
B. Cambridge, Massachusetts B. Derision
C. Paris, France C. Fatique
D. None of the above D. Gesticulation

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1.12 Heart 427

425. What is the main purpose of the heart? C. He dismembers the corpse and hides
A. A:It keeps the body warm. it under the floorboards.
D. He moves it under the bed.

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

B. B:It helps the body produce plasma.
C. C:It sends nutrients through the blood 431. What instrument is used to listen to a
to all parts of the body. heartbeat?
D. D:All of the above A. Stereoscopic
B. Stereophonic
426. What do you call the upper chambers of
the heart? C. Stethoscope

A. aorta D. none of above

B. ventricles 432. What does the left side of the heart do?
C. atria A. The left side of the heart pumps blood
through the lungs where it gets oxygen.
D. none of above
B. The left side of the heart receives the
427. The heart is mostly made up of blood containing oxygen and pumps blood
A. Fat to the rest of the body.
B. Thoraxic Muscle Tissue C. The left side of the heart controls the
muscles on the left side of the body,
C. Blood
D. The left side of the heart supplys our
D. Cardiac Muscle Tissue arms with bloo
428. are protected by the ribs. 433. The term that means the heart is contract-
A. Lungs and brain ing
B. Heart and lungs A. diastole
C. Heart and brain B. systole
D. none of above C. tachycardia
D. fibrillation
429. How do you get into your target heart
rate zone? 434. Which side of the heart contains oxy-
genated blood?
A. 5 minutes of jogging slowly around the
basketball court. A. the right
B. 20-30 minutes of being physically ac- B. the left
tive without much rest. C. the superior region
C. Taking a 20 minute nap after a long D. the inferior region
workout.
435. The beating sound your heart makes
D. Walking a mile with your parents or comes from
friends.
A. your blood going the wrong way, in the
430. How does the narrator hide the body? wrong direction.
A. He dismembers the body and buries it B. the valves in your heart closing.
in the backyard. C. your ears playing tricks on you.
B. He hides it in the bathtub. D. none of above

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1.12 Heart 428

436. Because the SA node initiates 1 cardiac C. Great; intense

cycle, it fires at a rate of D. farsighted; discerning
A. 40-60 bpm
442. What is inside the left side of the heart?
B. 80-90 bpm
A. blood with toxic
C. 60-80 bpm
B. blood with oxygen
D. 60-100 bpm
C. blood with no oxygen
437. What organ does your blood visit in order

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. none of above
to get oxygen?
A. Liver 443. In paragraph 4, the narrator describes
visiting the old man every night at mid-
B. Stomach
night. Why is he unable to commit the mur-
C. Brain der for the first seven nights?
D. Lungs A. The old man is a restless sleeper, so
the narrator cannot sneak in.
438. If I drove in a car for 5 hours to see my
family, what zone would my heart rate be B. The narrator does not have enough
in? light from the lantern to commit the mur-
der.
A. Resting
C. He is trying to be kind by giving the old
B. Target
man a few more days to live.
C. Maximum
D. He cannot see the old man’s eye, which
D. none of above is what he feels he needs to kill.
439. What chamber does blood first enter into 444. How are Heartworms transmitted?
the heart?
A. Mosquitoes
A. Right Atrium
B. Infections
B. Left Atrium
C. Diseases
C. Right Ventricle
D. none of above
D. Left Ventricle
445. “to wither” means
440. what is target heart rate
A. to remain healthy and firm.
A. an easy way to count your heart beats
B. to taste bitter.
B. number of times your heart beats in a
minute while at rest C. to dry up and lose it’s original shape.

C. number of heart beats per unit of time D. to coat with oil.

D. the optimal heart rate at which an ath- 446. Why does the narrator want to kill the
lete should perform old man?

441. Choose the correct definition for the fol- A. the old man’s eye vexed him
lowing:vehemently B. he wants the old man’s gold
A. Perceptive; insight; shrewd. C. the old man hurt him
B. Powerful; forceful energy D. the narrator is crazy

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1.12 Heart 429

447. Example of Endoskeleton? 452. what does your heart rate help you fig-
ure out
A. Bird, human, fish

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A. how fast your heart beats while your
B. crab, fish, cow active
C. human, lobster. shirmp B. when you have eaten too much
D. none of above C. if you are exercising at the right inten-
sity
448. Which of the following are layers of the
D. how much fun you are having
heart wall?
453. When he is speaking to the police, what
A. Parietal Layer
does the young man think he hears?
B. Endocardium
A. a heart beating
C. Visceral Layer B. the roar of the ocean
D. Epicardium C. the sounds of the neighbors
E. Myocardium D. the old man yelling

449. Which statement about blood flow is cor- 454. One complete heartbeat
rect? A. ECG
A. The left side of the heart pumps deoxy- B. systole
genated blood to the rest of the body C. diastole
B. The right side of the heart pumps de- D. cardiac cycle
oxygenated blood to the rest of the body
455. Which is an internal organ?
C. The left side of the heart pumps deoxy-
A. Brain
genated blood to the rest of the body
B. Eyes
D. none of above
C. Toes
450. What is the smallest type of cell in the D. none of above
blood called?
456. What is the name of the protective sac
A. leucocytes around the heart?
B. erythrocytes A. Epicardium
C. lymphocytes B. Pericardium

D. monocytes C. Vena Cava

D. Pulmonary Vein
451. What is the big tubes that pump blood to
all parts of the that called? 457. What is the function of the heart
A. Supply oxygen to the working muscles
A. Veins
B. Remove carbon dioxide and other
B. Arteries wastes
C. lungs C. Pump blood throughout the body
D. oxygen D. All of the above

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1.12 Heart 430

458. How many heart do a human have? 464. Veins that empty blood from the lungs
A. 1 into the upper left heart chamber

B. 2 A. Inferior Vena Cava

C. 3 B. Superior Vena Cava

D. 4 C. Pulmonary Veins
D. Veins
459. This occurs when a reduced or blocked

NARAYAN CHANGDER
blood supply damages the heart muscle. 465. It is difficult to believe the narrator when
A. Arrythmia he says that he
B. Heart attack A. opened the creaky lantern carefully
C. Congestive heart failure B. heard the old man groan in the dark
D. Arteriosclerosis C. treated the old man well before killing
him
460. What news does Jimmy share with Seth
about his mom and dad? D. moved slowly to keep from waking the
man
A. His dad has cancer, and is going to die.
B. They are moving to New York because 466. What are the two large veins that drain
of Jimmy’s dad’s new job. blood from the upper body and from the
lower body and empty it into the right
C. His parents are getting a divorce. atrium of the heart?
D. Jimmy’s mom is leaving the family. A. vena cava
461. Where do you find your heart? B. aorta
A. In Chest cavity C. pulmonary artery
B. in head D. pulmonary vein
C. in abdomen
467. Which line foreshadows the Old Man’s
D. in legs fate?
462. What part of the heart’s electrical system A. The narrator says that he can hear the
is known as the “gatekeeper” because it Old Man’s heart.
delays the electrical impulse? B. The narrator says that the Old Man
A. AV node comforting himself was, “All in vain.”
B. Gap junction C. The narrator says the eye is pale blue
with a film over it.
C. Purkinje Fibers
D. The narrator claims not to have
D. SA node
touched the Old Man’s gold.
463. from which is the heart made of
468. If I take my pulse for 10 seconds, what
A. heart and blood vessel do I multiply it by to estimate my heart
B. lungs rate for one minute?
C. brest A. 6
D. nerve system B. 10

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1.12 Heart 431

C. 2 474. When Yenna said that “the fire in

my heart can never be extinguished” she
D. 4
meant that

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469. Which of the following years did E.E Cum- A. she would not wait forever.
mings first book “The Enormous Room” re- B. her love would never die.
lease in?
C. she would wait for the young man for-
A. 1916 ever.
B. 1917 D. the fire would go out after eventually.
C. 1922
475. What do you need to sketch after you cut
D. 1921 open the heart?
A. The inside structure showing the thick-
470. What four things does the heart move?
ness of the walls
A. Blood
B. Nothing really
B. Carbon Dioxide
C. The animal
C. Oxygen D. none of above
D. Gases
476. A echocardiogram is a tool that is used
E. Nutrients to:

471. This chamber of the heart PUMPS blood A. Measure the electrical events in a
to the body. heart beat

A. Right Atrium B. Measure the movement of blood

through the heart using sound waves
B. Right Ventricle
C. Measure the movement of blood
C. Left Atrium through the heart using X-rays and spe-
D. Left Ventricle cific dyes
D. Measure the oxygenation of your blood
472. The heart is about the size and shape of
your 477. Arteries are normally depicted as red
while veins are colored blue. The excep-
A. head
tions to this rule are the arteries and
B. fist veins.
C. hand A. systemic
D. foot B. hepatic
C. coronary
473. What is the largest part of the brain?
D. pulmonary
A. cerebrum
478. Which excerpt from the story illustrates
B. cerebellum
the mood of paranoia?
C. brain stem
A. It is impossible to say how first the
D. none of above idea entered my brain.

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1.12 Heart 432

B. I loved the old man. He had never C. Endocardium

wronged me. He had never given me in-
D. Pericardium
sult.
C. Was it possible they heard not? 484. Which of the following words is the best
Almighty God!-no, no! They heard! They synonym for sagacity?
suspected! They knew!
A. stupidity
D. I smiled, for what had I to fear? I
bade the gentlemen welcome. B. righteousness

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. determination
479. Which one(s) are muscles? Click all that
apply. D. wisdom
A. Lungs
485. Where is the heart located in your body?
B. Heart ?
C. Hamstrings A. Inside your chest
D. Brain
B. Inside your skull
480. As the officers were chatting and smiling, C. In the abdomen
what does the narrator hear that the police
officers don’t hear? D. none of above
A. the old man’s beating heart
486. The tricuspid valve is on which side of the
B. the old man’s screams heart?
C. the “Evil Eye” calling out to him A. Left
D. the deathwatches B. Right
481. What organ removes waste from blood C. Neither
A. heart D. Center
B. lungs
487. Yenna was known for her-
C. eyes
D. kidneys A. beauty and skill
B. patience and wit
482. Blood circulation from the heart to the
rest of the body is called C. wealth and power
A. Full body D. strength and humor
B. Systemic
488. What all does a tree provide?
C. pulmonary
A. Beauty
D. heart to lung
B. Music
483. Which portion of the heart wall contains
the epithelial and connective tissue? C. Fruits
A. Epicardium D. Money
B. Myocardium E. Shelter

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1.12 Heart 433

489. A high fat diet can cause problems for the 494. What is the function of heart?
heart because A. To give oxygen to the blood

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A. The blood contains too much fat and B. To clean the blood from waste materi-
becomes thick als
B. The veins can become blocked C. To pump the blood to the lungs and all
C. The arteries become blocked over our body
D. none of above
D. There is less oxygen present in the
blood 495. Which one of these carries blood AWAY
from the heart?
490. Which of the following would lead to a
decrease in heart rate? A. blood
B. veins
A. sharply decreased blood volume
C. arteries
B. parasympathetic stimulation
D. lungs
C. norepinephrine
D. exercise 496. What’s the doctor for the brain called?
A. Neurologist
491. The is a wall of muscle that divides B. Radiologist
the right and left halves of the heart.
C. Cardiologist
A. Atrioventrucular Valve
D. none of above
B. Semilunar Valve
497. Who was the first person to inspire E.E
C. Septum Cummings to become a poet?
D. Diaphragm A. Josiah Royce
492. What can happen sometimes when you B. William James
stand up to quickly? C. Mother
A. You become light-headed. D. Father
B. Your blood stays down at your legs and 498. the movement of blood from the heart to
feet. all parts and systems of the body
C. Your blood does not get to your head A. pulmonary circulation
fast enough.
B. capillaries
D. All of the above. C. systemic circulation
493. For how many evenings does the narra- D. aorta
tor sneak into the old man’s room?
499. Size of your heart is about the size of
A. three A. An apple
B. four B. Human fist
C. eighteen C. A chickpea
D. eight D. A football

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1.12 Heart 434

500. In the last sentence of the passage from 506. The strongest muscle in your body is the
The Heart Is a Lonely Hunter, which idea
A. heart
does the simile most suggest?
B. bicep
A. Artistic endeavors require patience.
B. Art encourages people to change. C. tricep

C. Artistic talent must be nurtured. D. chest

D. Art is often inspired by nature. 507. how do you find your MHR

NARAYAN CHANGDER
501. The purpose of the Aorta is to A. age+ 200
A. carry blood away from the hear B. 220-age
B. keeps blood pumping in one direction C. 300+age
C. carry blood back to the heart D. your pulse
D. none of above
508. Select the activity that makes your heart
502. Who is the Poet? beat faster.
A. William Wordsworth A. Walk
B. Shakespeare B. Skip
C. Henry Cuyler Bunner C. Sit
D. Sarojini Nadiu D. Stretch
503. Why is the narrator upset with the police
at the end of the story? 509. The lungs supply the body with

A. His heart starts to beat very fast A. blood

B. The police find the old man’s body B. water

C. The police accuse him of the murder C. oxygen
D. He thinks they are making fun of him D. none of above

504. What vessels carry the blood back to the 510. What are two Heart Valves?
heart?
A. Tricuspid Valve
A. arteries
B. Chlorae Valve
B. veins
C. Pulmonary Valve
C. an aorta
D. Triangular Organ Valve
D. capillaries

505. Which internal organ controls feeling, 511. A flap of tissue that prevents blood from
emotions, and movements? flowing backwards is called?

A. Brain A. Aorta
B. Lungs B. Atrium
C. Heart C. Septum
D. none of above D. Valve

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1.12 Heart 435

512. What are the four chambers of the heart C. DRAMATIC IRONY
A. Left & Right Atrium, Left & Right Ven- D. NO IRONY

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tricle
518. What keeps blood from flowing back-
B. Left & Right Aorta, Left & Right Ventri- wards in the heart?
cle
A. atrium
C. Left Chamber, Right Chamber, Top
Chamber, Bottom Chamber B. valves

D. Left & Right Atrium, Left & Right Pul- C. artery

monary D. none of above

513. What part doesn’t belong to the heart? 519. “ because Death, in approaching him,
had stalked with his black shadow before
A. chamber
him and enveloped the victim.” Death
B. atrium most likely refers to
C. cecum A. The narrator
D. none of above B. The old man
514. The Aortic Valve is in the C. a spirit
A. Superior Left Ventricle D. none of the above
B. Superior Right Ventricle 520. Freshly oxygenated blood is delivered to
C. Aorta the and then it passes into the to
be pumped to the entire body.
D. Left Pulmonary Artery
A. right ventricle; right atrium
515. Where does the narrator of “The Tell-Tale B. left ventricle; left atrium
Heart” hide the old man’s body?
C. left atrium; left ventricle
A. in a grave in the backyard
D. right atrium; right ventricle
B. in a closet
C. under a pile of blankets 521. Where does the narrator hide the Old
Man’s corpse?
D. under the floorboard
A. In the wall..
516. The valves between the atria and ventri- B. In the closet..
cles are known as the valves.
C. Under the floorboards
A. atrioventricular
D. In a mass grave in the backyard..
B. aortic
522. Statement 1:AV node delays the impulses
C. semilunar
to heart apex approx for about 0.1 sec
D. pulmonary as it allowed the atria to empty com-
pletely.Statement 2:Portal system is one
517. What type of irony is heavily used in this in which a vein starts from an organ and
story? ends up in another organ by dividing into
A. SITUATIONAL IRONY capillaries.
B. VERBAL IRONY A. Both statement 1 and 2 are correct

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1.12 Heart 436

B. Both statement 1 and 2 are incorrect C. a former lover who has rejected the
C. Only statement one is correct speaker

D. Only statement two is correct D. a person to whom the speaker is con-

fessing their love
523. The role of the atrioventricular node (AV
528. In paragraph 2, the word conceived
node) is to
means to-
A. initiate a sinus rhythm
A. become pregnant with a child

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. conduct impulses to the sinoatrial
B. have an opinion on an issue
node (SA node)
C. form a plan in the mind
C. initiate ventricular depolarization
D. imagine something abstract
D. slow down impulses so that the atria
can contract to fill the adjacent ventricles 529. When the police knock on the door, the
with blood narrator opens the door with a light heart.
Why?
524. The heart has to pump
A. He is having a great hair day
A. for an hour
B. He just won the lottery
B. once in a while
C. He just woke up from a great nap
C. a couple of times
D. He thinks he has cleaned up all of the
D. always evidence of the murder
525. When the ventricles contract, the bicus- 530. Statement 1:Pumping pressure is 80
pid (mitral) valve prevents blood from mmHg.Statement 2:Resting pressure is
flowing from the 120 mmHg.
A. right ventricle to right atrium A. Both statement 1 and 2 are correct
B. left ventricle to left atrium B. Both statement 1 and 2 are incorrect
C. left atrium to the right atrium C. Only statement 1 is correct
D. right atrium to the left atrium D. Only statement 2 is correct

526. Reptiles & Amphibians hearts consist of 531. What change should be made in the sen-
tence below? New Zealand has no snakes
bears, or lions on its islands.
A. 2 atria & 1 ventricle
A. put a comma after LIONS
B. 2 atria & 2 ventricles
B. put a comma after SNAKES
C. 1 atrium & 1 ventricle
C. put commas after SNAKES AND LIONS
D. none of above
D. none of above
527. Part A:Who is the most likely intended
532. What do your veins do?
audience for this poem?
A. carry blood away from the heart
A. a close friend who already loves the
speaker B. keeps blood pumping in one direction
B. a distant relative who has lost touch C. carry blood back to the heart
with the speaker D. none of above

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1.12 Heart 437

533. These cells play a vital role in defending 538. How do you feel when you are in the
the body against infection Maximum Heart Rate Zone?

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A. Leucocytes A. Very easy; I am sitting; I can talk with
no effort.
B. Erythrocytes
B. Moderate to Moderately hard; I am
C. Blastocytes slightly uncomfortable; I can still talk but
D. Plasmacytes it requires effort and I really don’t want
to;I am sweating.
534. art A Which sentence best states a theme C. Very difficult; no-talk zone; I can only
of the passage from The Heart Is a Lonely keep up this pace for a short period.
Hunter?
D. Easy; I am walking; I can talk with lit-
A. Sacrifices can result in great success tle effort
B. Creative efforts are a source of pride. 539. How are arteries and veins different?
C. Finding a direction to take in life is dif- A. One is bigger than the other.
ficult.
B. The arteries carry more blood than the
D. Developing talent requires help from veins.
others. C. The arteries carry blood away from the
heart while veins carry blood to the heart.
535. Blood Pressure is measured in
D. The veins carry blood away from the
A. BP heart while arteries carry blood to the
B. mmHg heart.

C. mm 540. What is biggest artery in a human body?

D. ms A. arteries

E. mLHG B. veins
C. capillaries
536. What is it about the old man that bothers D. an aorta
the narrator?
541. A membranous fold or other structure
A. His personality
that controls the flow of a fluid, as one
B. His face that permits blood to flow in one direction
C. His home only.
A. artery
D. His eye
B. vein
537. Which chamber of the heart has the thick- C. valve
est wall?
D. none of above
A. Right atrium
542. What is another name for the bicuspid
B. Left atrium valve?
C. Right ventricle A. mitro valve
D. Left ventricle B. two cuspid

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1.12 Heart 438

C. double cuspid C. .3 X your age

D. mitral valve D. maximum heart rate/205
543. What change should be made in the sen- 548. Blood that leaves the heart and is head-
tence below? On a cold day, remember to ing to the lungs is traveling through the
wear a hat, gloves and a scarf.
A. put a comma after WEAR A. pulmonary arteries
B. put a comma after GLOVES B. pulmonary veins

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. take out the comma after HAT C. superior vena cava
D. none of above D. inferior vena cava
544. How does the phrase “I can’t wear it 549. What is it about the old man that scares
on my sleeve” in lines 24-25, impact the and angers the narrator of “The Tell-Tale
meaning of the poem? Heart”?
A. It emphasizes that people should not
A. his clouded blue eye
have a literal view of their heart.
B. his old house
B. It supports the speaker’s belief in
keeping one’s feelings hidden from oth- C. his children
ers. D. his pet snake
C. It rejects the idea that everyone needs
love in their lives to feel fulfilled. 550. What change should be made in the sen-
tence below? Sam put a book a pen, and
D. It reveals the speaker’s envy of people a sandwich in his backpack.
who are more willing to falling in love.
A. put a comma after BOOK
545. What blood vessel carries blood to the B. put a comma after SANDWICH
heart
C. put commas after BOOK and SAND-
A. Vein
WICH
B. Artery
D. none of above
C. Capillary
551. How many heart tissues are there?
D. All of the above
A. 1
546. Approximately how many gallons of
blood does your heart pump every day? B. 3

A. 2 thousand C. 4
B. 5 thousand D. 2
C. 10 thousand 552. After blood leaves the Right atrium it
D. 1 thousand passes through the
A. right ventricle
547. How do your calculate 70% of you max-
imum heart rate? B. aortic valve
A. .7 X maximum heart rate C. av valve
B. 70 X maximum heart rate D. tricuspid valve

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1.12 Heart 439

553. The narrator is overconfident after killing D. allows the readers to understand the
the old man when he narrator’s motives

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. thinks that no one has heard the old
558. What change should be made in the sen-
man scream
tence below? Some robots can walk talk
B. thinks that he has hidden the old man’s and even dance.
murder
A. put a comma after TALK
C. guesses that no one will miss the old
man B. put a comma after EVEN
D. believes that only he can hear the C. put commas after WALK and TALK
heartbeat D. none of above
554. I can come to you if you remained in ten-
sion. I can attack you if you eat more oily 559. How does the author create suspense in
food. Search and get me. this excerpt? “To think that there I was,
opening the door, little by little, and he
A. Fever not even to dream of my secret deeds or
B. Diarrhea thoughts. I fairly chuckled at the idea; and
C. Typhoid perhaps he heard me; for he moved on the
bed suddenly, as if startled.”
D. Heart attack
A. The narrator’s laughing causes you to
555. The pressure exerted on the arterial fear for the old man’s safety.
walls when the heart contract is called
B. The old man’s movement indicates his
A. diastolic pressure knowledge of the narrator’s thoughts
B. systolic pressure C. The narrator shows great anxiety and
C. hydrostatic pressure fear of being discovered.
D. osmotic pressure D. The repeated description of the narra-
tor’s movements is vivid and dramatic.
556. Which chambers of the heart are the
thickest and strongest and are on the bot-
560. the movement of blood from the heart to
tom of the heart?
the lungs and back again
A. Atria
A. pulmonary circulation
B. Ventricles
B. capillaries
C. Valves
C. systemic circulation
D. Aorta
D. aorta
557. Poe’s extensive use of dashes in the last
two paragraphs is effective because it- 561. Oxygen-poor blood flows into what
A. highlights the narrator’s increased atrium?
sense of nervousness A. Left
B. slows down the story so that it is eas-
B. Bottom
ier to understand
C. Right
C. suggests that the police know more
than they are letting on D. Top

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1.12 Heart 440

562. Read the statements and choose incorrect B. Jimmy told the coach that Seth was a
one: bad player.
A. The valves in the heart allows the flow C. Seth’s mom would not let him play on
of blood only in one direction, i.e., from the Jimmy’s team.
atria to the ventricles and from the ventri- D. Seth struck out at bat every time.
cles to the pulmonary artery or aorta.
566. Which part of the heart pumps the
B. The atrium and the ventricle of the
oxygen-riched blood to all parts of the
same side are also separated by a thick

NARAYAN CHANGDER
body?
fibrous tissue called the atrio-ventricular
septum. A. right ventricle
C. AV bundle continues from the B. left ventricle
AVN which passes through the atrio- C. right atrium
ventricular septa to emerge on the left D. left atrium
of the inter-ventricular septum and imme-
diately divides into a right and left bundle. 567. Which are functions of the skeleton?
D. This sequential event in the heart A. Support
which is cyclically repeated is called the B. Insulation
cardiac cycle a
C. prevents valves from stretching
563. In “The Tell-Tale Heart, “ how do the D. Makes the heart rigid.
narrator’s feelings contrast with the old
man’s? 568. What do we learn about the narrator
from the following line? “I knew what
A. The narrator is afraid of the old man, the old man felt, and pitied him, although
and the old man is confident. I chuckled at heart.”
B. The narrator feels fury toward the old A. he is cruel
man, and the old man feels fear.
B. he is compassionate
C. The narrator is overwhelmed, and the
C. he is honest
old man is calm.
D. he is calm
D. The narrator is joyful, and the old man
is angry. 569. What are the four heart valves?
A. tricuspid, cuspid, aortic, & pulmonary
564. what is resting heart rate
B. tricuspid, bicuspid, aortic, & pul-
A. karvonen formula
monary
B. 220-age C. tricuspid, bicuspid, aorta, & pulmonary
C. minimum number of heart rates in a D. tricuspid, cuspid, aorta, or pulmonary
given amount of time
570. You can evaluate the narrator’s state of
D. number of times your heart beats per
mind as unreliable when he
minute at rest
A. explains that he did not kill the old man
565. Why doesn’t Seth get chosen for the for his money
team that Jimmy is on? B. describes how slowly he moved on the
A. Seth was hit in the eye by a ball. night of the murder

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1.12 Heart 441

C. confesses in the beginning of the story 576. These blood vessels are the first branches
that he is nervous of the aorta and feed the heart with
freshly oxygenated blood:

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

D. says how sane he is but then describes
what he does to the body A. Pulmonary Arteries
B. Plumonary Veins
571. The continuous movement of blood
through the heart and blood vessels C. Vena Cava
D. Coronary Arteries
A. circulation
B. hearbeat 577. What’s larger-the atria or the ventri-
cles?
C. hollow
A. Atria
D. none of above
B. Ventricles
572. What does the heart do? C. Both are equal
A. Makes food for our body D. none of above

B. Pumps deoxygenated blood around 578. How many nights in total did the narrator
spy on the old man?
C. Digests food
A. 7 nights
D. Pumps oxygenated blood around the
body B. 8 nights
C. 1 night
573. Deoxygenated blood is what colour? D. 6 nights
A. Blue
579. what is the normal heart beat?
B. Red
A. 120-40/80
C. Green B. 100/80
D. Orange C. 80/120

574. It is the largest artery in the body. D. none of above

A. atria 580. The upper chambers of the heart are

known as
B. ventricle
A. valves
C. aorta
B. ventricles
D. none of above
C. atria
575. What way can you get to the Maximum D. septum
Heart Rate Zone?
581. Mammals and birds Heart consist of
A. Laying and sitting down A. 2 Atria & 2 ventricles
B. Jogging for 30 minutes B. 2 atria & 1 ventricle
C. Sprinting for 100 yards C. 1 atrium & 1 ventricle
D. Walking for 10 minutes D. none of above

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1.12 Heart 442

582. When the coronary are blocked, 587. Which statement best describes a major
blood does not flow as well and coronary theme of the story?
artery disease begins to develop. A. Honesty can relieve you of your guilt
A. arteries and help you feel better.
B. arteriosclerosis B. Fear can shape how we see things and
how we act.
C. symptoms
C. Our sanity is determined by how we re-
D. blood pressure

NARAYAN CHANGDER
act to different situations.
583. Calculate the cardiac output of person, if D. The truth is a matter of personal per-
his heart rate is 70 beats per min, blood ception and beliefs.
volume in the ventricles at the end of the
diastole is 150ml, and at the end of the 588. What change should be made in the sen-
systole blood in ventricles is 60ml. tence below? Aunt Bess will mark cut and
saw the wood for the birdhouse.
A. 63000L
A. put a comma after CUT
B. 5000 L
B. put a commas after MARK
C. 6300 L
C. put commas after MARK and CUT
D. 5500 L
D. none of above
584. In “The Tell-Tale Heart, “ why does a 589. Which of the following is incorrect about
neighbor call the police to the house? the ECG:
A. He heard a shriek. A. The machine (electro-cardiogram) is
B. He heard a loud, repetitive thumping. used to obtain an electrocardiograph
(ECG).
C. He saw the murder through a window.
B. To obtain a standard ECG a patient is
D. He saw the murder in a dream. connected to the machine with three elec-
trical leads that continuously monitor the
585. What three structures are the heart made heart activity.
up of
C. By counting the number of QRS com-
A. Arteries, veins & blood vessels plexes that occur in a given time period,
B. Muscle, blood & valves one can determine the heart beat rate of
an individual.
C. Chambers, valves & Blood vessels
D. The T-wave represents the return of
D. none of above the ventricles from excited to normal
state.
586. I am the pumping organ present in Human
body. Who am I? 590. What is the function of lungs?
A. Kidney A. to pump bloods
B. Stomach B. to give carbon dioxide to the blood
C. Heart C. to give oxygen to the blood
D. Brain D. none of above

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1.12 Heart 443

591. This type of blood cell is responsible for B. they open

fighting disease.
C. they open and close

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A. red blood cell
D. none of the above
B. plasma
C. white blood cell 597. What change should be made in the sen-
D. none of above tence below? The children are learning to
read count, paint and sing.
592. What wall separates the left side and
right side of the heart? A. put a comma after PAINT
A. ventricle B. put commas after READ AND PAINT
B. atrium C. put commas after LEARNING AND
C. septum READ
D. the great wall D. none of above
593. Wall of the heart that lines all of the
598. Either of the two lower chambers on each
heart chambers and covers valves
side of the heart that receive blood from
A. Pericardium the atria and in turn force it into the arter-
B. Epicardium ies.
C. Myocardium A. ventricle
D. Endocardium B. vessel
594. What sound is being described in the C. valve
following passage from “The Tell-Tale
Heart”? a low, dull, quick sound, such D. none of above
a sound as a watch makes when enveloped
in cotton. 599. Yenna’s father valued her happiness so
much that he did not
A. the distant roar of the ocean
B. the beating of a heart A. let men come to visit her.
C. the narrator’s watch ticking B. force her into an arranged marriage.
D. the pounding of the police at the door C. want her to wait for the young man.
595. what is the section that will be in the D. need her to sew for his tailor shop.
right of the heart
A. right atrium 600. What is the mood of the story? (Mood
is the way the story is intended to make
B. left atrium
you feel.)
C. left ventricle
A. Upbeat and happy
D. north ventricle
B. Dark and foreboding
596. How do the heart valves let blood flow
through the heart? C. Inspirational
A. they close D. Silly

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1.12 Heart 444

601. Part B:Which evidence from paragraph 5 606. Which animal’s heart is most like a hu-
best supports the answer to Part A? man’s?
A. “In January she began a certain very A. Dog
wonderful piece “ B. Pig
B. “Also it was hard to get a word for the C. Ape
third line to rhyme with what.”
D. none of above
C. “This new song made her feel sad and

NARAYAN CHANGDER
excited and happy all at once.” 607. How does the phrase “just a thick clutch
D. “Something she could hum in two min- of muscle, lopsided, mute” contribute to
utes meant a whole week’s work before it the tone of the passage?
was down in the notebook A. It shows how sensitive the heart is,
creating a depressing tone.
602. What is a skeleton?
B. It emphasizes that the heart is a body
A. A body frame made of bones part without feelings, creating a doubtful
B. Blood vessels that runs inn the body tone.
C. Tiny particles that made up the body C. It demonstrates that the heart is a
D. none of above muscle that can change over time, creat-
ing a hopeful tone.
603. One of the minute blood vessels between D. It depicts the heart as useless and bur-
the terminations of the arteries and the be- densome, creating an overwhelmed tone.
ginnings of the veins.
A. capillary 608. What does the narrator WANT people to
think about him?
B. blood
A. He is creative.
C. artery
B. He is crazy.
D. none of above
C. He is a murderer.
604. What are the ventricles? D. He is completely normal
A. carry blood back to the heart
609. Pulmonary circulation involves blood
B. keeps blood pumping in one direction flow to and from the heart and the
C. muscular chamber that pumps blood A. body
out of the heart and into the circulatory
system B. digestive organs

D. carry blood away from the heart C. brain

D. lungs
605. The first chamber that blood enters in the
Heart is 610. The inner layer in the wall of the heart
A. The Atrium A. endocardium
B. The Ventricle B. myocardium
C. The Septum C. epicardium
D. The Aorta D. septum

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1.12 Heart 445

611. Why does a neighbor call the police to the B. tricuspid

house? C. aortic semilunar

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A. The neighbor saw a man in his window. D. bicuspid
B. The neighbor heard a loud noise.
616. We can infer that the narrator confessed
C. The neighbor suspects that the narra-
because
tor killed the Old Man.
A. he believes the police already knew.
D. There was a break-in in the neighbor-
hood. B. he saw blood on the floor.
C. he felt guilty.
612. Blood from all over our body that comes
to the heart has D. the body smelled.
A. oxygen 617. Which choice best expresses the main
B. no oxygen idea of paragraph 8?
C. energy A. The old man stirs and cries out when
he hears the narrator at the door and
D. none of above
scares the narrator away.
613. Pulmonary vein B. The narrator can relate to the old
A. carries oxygenated blood to left atrium man’s fear, but that only makes the nar-
rator feel more powerful.
B. carries deoxygenated blood to left ven-
tricle C. The narrator chooses to wake the old
man so that he can face him directly for
C. carries oxygenated blood to left ventri-
the murder.
cle
D. carries deoxygenated blood to left D. The narrator slips into the room when
atrium the old man wakes, hoping that the old
man will not see him.
614. Assertion:Angina pectoris means “pain in
the chest”.Reason:It results due to carry- 618. What is also called the Bundle of HIs?
ing of extra blood to the heart muscle. A. Sinoatrial Bundle
A. Both Assertion and Reason are correct B. Atrioventricular Bundle
and Reason is the correct explanation for C. Purkinje Fibers
Assertion.
D. SA & AV Nodes
B. Both Assertion and Reason are correct
but Reason is not the correct explanation 619. How many bones make up a baby skele-
for Assertion. ton?
C. Assertion is correct but Reason is in- A. 300
correct.
B. 206
D. Both Assertion and Reason are incor-
C. 200
rect.
D. none of above
615. The mitral valve is also called the
valve. 620. What are some tissues of the heart?
A. pulmonary semilunar A. Pericardium

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1.12 Heart 446

B. Epicardium 625. How many atria are there?

C. Endocardium A. 1
D. Expocardium B. 7

621. Part B Which evidence from paragraph 6 C. 2

supports the answer to Part A? D. 4
A. “She had to concentrate hard and sing
626. what is the size of heart?
it many times.”

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. a football
B. “Her Dad said this was because she
had bawled so much when she was a B. a fist
baby. C. a watermelon
C. “Her Dad would have to get up and
D. none of above
walk with her every night when she was
Ralph’s age.” 627. What is the normal heart rate?
D. “The only thing would hush her, he al- A. 100 beats per minutes
ways said, was for him to beat the coal
scuttle with a poke and sing ‘Dixie.”’ B. 20 beats per minutes
C. 70 beats per minutes
622. Edgar Allan Poe wrote what was thought
to be the first D. none of above

A. Drama 628. The heart is a

B. Fictional Horror Story A. skate board
C. Epic DPoem B. tube
D. Detective Story C. pump
623. I am a thick liquid but I am not mud. I am D. control center
in your body . I am red in colour. Find out
me. 629. Can the heart stop pumping?

A. Lymph A. Yes, it stops while we are sleeping.

B. Blood B. No, because it has batteries.
C. Water C. No, because our body is in constant
need of oxygen.
D. Gel
D. No, because our body is in constant
624. Which of the following lists the valves in need of glucose.
the order through which the blood flows
from the vena cava through the heart? 630. With circulation, the heart provides your
body with:
A. tricuspid, pulmonary, bicuspid, aortic
A. Oxygen
B. mitral, pulmonary, bicuspid, aortic
B. Nutrients
C. bicuspid, aortic, tricuspid, pulmonary
D. aortic semilunar, pulmonary, tricuspid, C. Removal of Waste
bicuspid D. All of the above

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1.12 Heart 447

631. A fish’s heart has chambers. 637. About how much odes an elephant’s heart
A. 1 weigh?

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

B. 2 A. as much as an apple
C. 3 B. as much as a basketball
D. 4 C. as much as a first grader

632. Bones are % water. D. as much as a car

A. 8% 638. how to calculate target heart rate
B. 82% A. max heart rate multiplied by 60% /80%
C. 22% B. ask a doctor
D. 7%
C. talk to your turtle
633. Which of the following are used in the D. ask your heart
poem “i carry your heart with me”?
A. Metaphor 639. What is the bpm for atrial cells?
B. Tone A. 50
C. Alliteration B. 40
D. All of the above C. 60
634. The main artery in the heart is the D. none of above
A. aorta 640. The movement of blood through the body
B. vena cava is called
C. pulmonary artery A. Respiration
D. pulmonary flow B. Circulation
635. The two chambers of the heart with thin C. Photosynthesis
walls that collect blood from the major D. Locomotion
veins and empty it into the larger, more
muscular chambers. 641. help us breathe.
A. aorta A. The heart
B. atria B. The brain
C. ventricles C. The lungs
D. lungs
D. none of above
636. Which structure of the heart receives
blood from the body that is low in oxygen 642. works like a computer, it also makes
and high in carbon dioxide? you think and remember things.

A. Right atrium A. The lungs

B. Left atrium B. The brain
C. Right ventricle C. The ribs
D. Left ventricle D. The heart

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1.12 Heart 448

643. Which statement BEST describes the pur- C. Hands

pose of the circulatory system? D. Lungs
A. To move blood through your body and
supply oxygen and nutrients to the body 649. What vessels carry the blood away from
the heart?
B. To remove the digestive waste
A. arteries
C. To control all the movement in the
body B. veins

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. To remove urine C. an aorta

644. About what time did the narrator spy on D. capillaries

the old man?
650. Which is a measure of the electrical
A. midnight events that occur in a single heart beat?
B. 10:00 at night A. Electrocardiogram
C. morning B. Echocardiogram
D. afternoon C. Angiogram
645. “The Tell-Tale Heart” is told mainly in the D. Magnetic Resonance Imagery (MRI)
tense, from a point of view.
651. The circulatory system works with the
A. Past; first system to obtain energy from nutri-
B. past; third-person ents that we eat. This happens in the in-
C. present; first-person testines.

D. present; third-person A. respiratory

B. digestive
646. About how long is a blue whale?
C. skeletal
A. as big as a horse
D. nervous
B. as big as a car
C. as big as 2 school busses lined up 652. What poem is Edgar Allan Poe’s most fa-
mous work?
D. as big as Middleton
A. The Beetle
647. In terms of duration, Heart rate is typi-
cally measured for how long? B. The Vulture

A. One minute C. The Raven

B. 30 Seconds D. The Black Cat

C. 10 Seconds 653. What does the narrator say that mad-
D. none of above ness has done to him?
A. made him nervous
648. Which body parts grow stronger during
moderate-to-vigorous physical activity? B. sharpened his senses
A. Ears C. made him hear things
B. Heart D. turned him into a murderer

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1.12 Heart 449

654. Approximately how many times does 659. what will the right side receives
your heart beat every day? A. receive the oxygen poor blood

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A. 10 thousand beats B. oxygen rich blood
B. 50 thousand beats C. half rich and the other half poor
C. 100 thousand beats D. neither rich nor poor
D. 200 thousand beats
660. Which of the following best describes the
655. What does the doctor check with the help significance of the beating heart through-
of his stethoscope? out the story?

A. Heart beat A. It represents the narrator’s own

death, like the old man’s, drawing near
B. Fever as he faces punishment for his crime.
C. Headache B. It shows there is something supernat-
D. Blood quantity in our body ural happening to the narrator, for the
ghost of the old man is haunting him.
656. Why does the sound of the old man’s C. It represents the narrator’s guilt and
groan in the middle of the night sound worsening sanity, for the beating heart
familiar to the narrator of “The Tell-Tale serves as a reminder of his crime.
Heart”?
D. It signifies the narrator’s anxiety
A. The narrator himself has groaned in about not burying the old man respectfully
terror in the night. after killing him.
B. The old man often groans.
661. Part B:Which of the following best sup-
C. The old man’s groan sounds like the ports the answer to Part A?
wind blowing, a sound the narrator often
A. “yearning” (Line 8)
hears.
B. “I want, I want” (Line 21)
D. The old man often has disturbing
dreams C. “But I can’t open it” (Line 22)
D. “the bottom of it” (Line 27)
657. What living land animal has the biggest
heart? 662. The narrator says that he took him a
A. giraffe whole hour to place his head inside the
doorway to the old man’s room. What
B. rhino does this tell you about the narrator?
C. hippo A. He is kindly.
D. elephant B. He is intelligent.
658. The author of “The Tell Tale Heart” is C. He is tired.
A. Edgar A. Poe D. He is very cautious.
B. Not Poe 663. The valves are made of structures called
C. R.L. Stine A. Cusps
D. Jack London B. Semilunars

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1.12 Heart 450

C. Bicuspids 668. Why does Seth get out of Jimmy’s dad’s

D. none of above car a block away? (You may choose more
than one.)
664. Foreshadowing occurs when a writer pro-
A. He does not want his mom to know that
vides hints that suggest future events in a
Jimmy’s dad had been drinking.
story, and it can help create suspense.How
does the narrator’s mention of his acute B. Seth feels he need the exercise.
hearing in paragraph 1 foreshadow the old C. Jimmy’s dad has been drinking and
man’s death?

NARAYAN CHANGDER
was driving too fast, so he feels unsafe.
A. It foreshadows the point when the old D. Jimmy’s dad’s car breaks down, and
man’s heartbeat drives the narrator to kill they all need to walk.
him.
B. It foreshadows his ability to hear the 669. Which heart valve is between the right
police coming when they respond to the atrium and right ventricle?
old man’s murder. A. Tricuspid
C. It foreshadows his decision to murder B. Bicuspid
the old man because he was tired of lis- C. Mitral
tening to him.
D. None of these
D. It foreshadows the moment when the
old man hears the narrator at the door 670. What does the narrator do immediately
and wakes up. after killing the old man?
665. Which of the narrator’s senses does he A. he dismembers the body
say is most acute? B. he calls the police
A. hearing C. he pulls out the old man’s heart
B. sight (seeing) D. he calls the neighbors
C. touch (feeling)
671. Calculate your maximum heart rate, 220-
D. taste
A. your age
666. When you read the story, what is one
B. your birth year
question you might ask about the narra-
tor? C. your weight
A. Is he sane? D. your height in centimeters
B. Is he in love? 672. Which one of the following represents
C. Does he have a job? the correct path for the transmission of an
D. Does he enjoy baseball? impulse in the intrinsic conduction system
of the heart?
667. What are the thinnest blood vessels
A. AV node, Bundle of His, SA node, Purk-
called?
inje fibers, bundle branches
A. arteries
B. SA node, AV node, Bundle of His, bun-
B. veins dle branches, Purkinje fibers
C. capillaries C. SA node, Bundle of His, AV node, Purk-
D. an aorta inje fibers, bundle branches

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1.12 Heart 451

D. SA node, Bundle of His, bundle A. S1 & S3 are correct

branches, Purkinje fibers, AV node B. only S3 is correct

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673. The body gets oxygen from the and C. S2 & S3 are correct
that oxygen is delivered using
D. only S1 is correct
A. arteries, lungs
678. Label the following part of the heart dia-
B. lungs, veins
gram #2
C. lungs, blood
A. Superior vena cava
D. heart, arteries
B. Right Atrium
674. What is the name of the blood vessel C. Aorta
which carries blood away from the heart?
D. Biscuspid Valve
A. A:Artery
B. B:Vein 679. How many liters of blood is in the body?
C. C:Valve A. 4
D. D:Atrium B. 5

675. A hollow, pumplike organ of blood circu- C. 6

lation, located in the chest between the D. 2
lungs and slightly to the left and consist-
ing of four chambers 680. What color is oxygen-poor blood?
A. heart A. Brown
B. chamber B. Blue
C. ventricle C. Yellow
D. none of above D. Red

676. Which of the following is true about your 681. What characteristic of the narrator of
heart? “The Tell-Tale Heart” is evident in the fol-
A. Your heart may stop beating from time lowing sentence? I knew what the old
to time. man felt, and pitied him, although I chuck-
led at heart.
B. You have to think in order to keep your
heart beating. A. cruelty
C. Your heart pushes blood through your B. insanity
body. C. sense of humor
D. All of the above D. excitability
677. Read the statements and choose the cor- 682. The circulatory system works with the
rect option:S1:Cardiac output would in- system to obtain energy from nutri-
crease through either an increase in heart ents that we eat.
rate or a rise in stroke volume.S2:Reptiles
A. respiratory
have three chambered heart, mammals
have two chambered and fishes have only B. digestive
two chambered heart.S3:The walls of au- C. skeletal
ricles are comparatively thicker than ven-
D. nervous
tricles.
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 1.13 Respiratory System 452

1.13 Respiratory System

1. They vibrate and enable us to speak 6. Gills are made up of
A. auditory nerve A. Glottis
B. cochlea B. Nostril

C. vocal cords C. Filaments

D. Lamellae

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. mouth
7. Which part(s) of the respiratory system re-
2. How much air do you breathe each move(s) waste particles from air?
minute?
A. Trachea
A. 5 gallons B. Cilia & Mucus
B. 1 Liter C. Cilia
C. 6 Liters D. None of these
D. 15 quarts 8. oxygen moves from the alveoli to the cap-
illaries via
3. The volume of air remaining in the lungs
after max. expiration (breathing out as A. Diffusion
hard as you can)-What is this? B. Magic
A. Tidal Volume C. A complex chemical equation
B. Expiratory Reserve volume D. Sheer willpower

C. Vital Capacity 9. What does your nasal cavity do to the air

as it goes to the lungs?
D. Residual volume
A. warms
4. What is the site of gas exchange? B. moistens
A. alveoli C. filters
B. nose D. expands
C. lung 10. What is another word for your windpipe?
D. bronchi A. esophagus
B. sinuses
5. What is vasodilation?
C. trachea
A. Increasing in breathing rate to in-
D. alveoli
crease the oxygen in the bloodstream
B. Increase in process of gaseous ex- 11. This structure is also known as the voice
change box?
A. Trachea
C. Reducing of the diameter of small ar-
teries to reduce blood flow to tissues B. Larynx
D. Increasing the diameter of small arter- C. Pharynx
ies to increase blood flow to tissues D. none of above

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1.13 Respiratory System 453

12. Which of these descriptions best describes B. tendon

ARTERIES? C. tissue

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. Thick Outer Wall, Thick Inner Wall, D. ligament
Narrow Lumen HIGH pressure
E. joint
B. Thin Outer Wall, Thin Inner Wall, Wide
LumenLOW Pressure 18. Under the layer of skin is a dense net-
works of blood capillaries
C. Thin Outer Wall, 1 Cell Thick
A. To increase the mass of skin
D. Thin Outer Wall, Thick Inner Wall Mod-
erate LumenLOW Pressure B. To increase the gap between skin and
blood capillary
13. Which respiratory organ is the main for
C. To increase the rate of diffusion of gas
frog respiration?
D. To increase the moist of skins
A. Skin
B. Lungs 19. an inflammation in the bronchial tubes that
causes a person to have a nagging cough
C. Gills
A. bronchitis
D. none of above
B. emphysema
14. The small air sacs that are surrounded by C. pneumonia
blood vessels are the
D. cystic fibrous
A. alveoli
20. Where is air warmed and moistened in the
B. bronchi
respiratory system?
C. bronchioles
A. Trachea
D. trachea
B. Pharynx
15. The voice box is anatomically known as C. Nasal Cavity
the D. Epiglottis
A. Pharynx
21. What is the main function of the respira-
B. Larynx tory system?
C. Trachea A. to break food down
D. Epiglottis B. supply the blood with oxygen
16. What organ pumps blood throughout your C. circulate the blood
body? D. controlling the body
A. veins
22. when your rib muscles and diaphragm con-
B. arteries tract or relax to allow air in or out
C. heart A. alveoli
D. blood vessels B. breathing
17. a structure that is composed of different C. cartilage
kinds of tissue to perform a specific job D. cell
A. organ E. homeostasis

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1.13 Respiratory System 454

23. Which is not a job of the respiratory sys- 28. Which is not a job of the nose?
tem?
A. warm air
A. taking in oxygen
B. moisten air
B. taking in carbon dioxide
C. moisten air C. traps particles like dust and bacteria
D. transport glucose D. bring in carbon dioxide
24. An air tube that is held open by C-shaped

NARAYAN CHANGDER
rings of cartilage. Also known as the wind- 29. Asthma is caused by inflammation in the
pipe.
A. pharynx A. Trachea
B. trachea B. Bronchi
C. nose
C. Nasal Cavity
D. alveoli
D. Alveoli
25. Which of the following is a part of the res-
piratory system?
30. Which of these is NOT an adaptation of the
A. lungs alveoli for efficient gas exchange?
B. stomach A. Large surface area
C. large intestines
B. thick walls
D. heart
C. moist membranes
26. Which of the following is the correct order
when you breathe air out? D. a constant flow of blood through capil-
A. nasal cavity, trachea, pharynx laries

B. nasal cavity, pharynx, trachea

31. The large muscle that contracts and re-
C. bronchi tubes, trachea, alveoli laxes and moves air in and out of the
D. lung, trachea, pharynx lungs.

27. Which of the following pairs are mis- A. trachea

matched?
B. alveoli
A. tidal volume-the amount of air ex-
changed by lungs at rest C. diaphragm
B. residual volume-the amount of air D. nose
someone can consciously exchange with
the environment 32. The correct name for the voice box is the?
C. inspiratory reserve volume-additional
A. pharnx
amount of air that can be consciously in-
haled B. alveolus
D. expiratory reserve volume-additional C. trachea
amount of air that can be consciously ex-
haled D. larynx

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1.13 Respiratory System 455

33. What is the respiratory system? 38. What is the molecule called that mitochon-
dria produce when they respire glucose?
A. The respiratory system is the system

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

that helps circulate our blood . A. ATP
B. The respiratory system is the system B. ADP
that takes in oxygen and takes the un- C. DNA
needed particles and creates carbon diox- D. 80p
ide.
39. The windpipe is also known as which or-
C. The respiratory system is a system
gan?
that is similar to the circulatory system.
A. Lung
D. The respiratory system is a system
that holds the heart as an internal organ. B. Trachea
C. Alveoli
34. Which of these is a PASSIVE process
D. Nose
A. Quiet inspiration
40. a dome shaped sheet of muscle, the ,
B. Quiet expiration separates the chest from the abdomen
C. Forced inspiration A. diaphragm
D. Forced expiration B. epiglottis
C. alveoli
35. What is carried by the blood stream from
the tissue to the lungs? D. bronchial tubes

A. Carbon dioxide 41. The alveoli is where , that was inhaled,

is exchanged for , which is exhaled.
B. Oxygen
A. food, waste
C. Carbon monoxide
B. oxygen, carbon dioxide
D. none of above C. oxygen, food
36. Gaseous exchange happens D. carbon dioxide, oxygen

A. in the bronchi 42. How many main functions of the respira-

tory system do you need to know?
B. in the lungs
A. 1
C. in the alveoli
B. 2
D. in the heart
C. 3
37. Tiny air sacs in the lungs that are the site D. 4
of gas exchange between the lungs and
43. What reactants are there in cellular respi-
blood.
ration?
A. alveoli
A. Water and Glucose
B. relax B. Oxygen and Glucose
C. diaphragm C. Carbon Dioxide and Water
D. nose D. Twenty One Pilots

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1.13 Respiratory System 456

44. How many molecules of oxygen can each A. pneumonia

hemoglobin theoretically carry? B. tuberculosis
A. 4 C. asthma
B. 12
D. emphysema
C. 1
50. During inspiration the diaphragm and
D. 2
the intercostals

NARAYAN CHANGDER
45. After the nose, air passes into the A. contracts, contract
A. larynx B. moves up, contract
B. pharynx C. moves down, relax
C. bronchi D. relaxes, move up
D. bronchioles
51. Two tubes that take air into the lungs from
46. How does the muscular system help the the trachea are called
respiratory system? A. Bronchioles
A. It monitors and controls the breathing B. Bronchial Tubes
rate
C. Trachea
B. It helps absorb carbon dioxide sup-
plied by the blood. D. Ureters
C. It moistens and warms the air taken in 52. Through photosynthesis, plants take in
from the nose.
A. air
D. It helps in the movement of organs in-
volved in breathing. B. oxygen
C. carbon dioxide
47. Which of the following is true for the fate
of Glucose produced by photosynthesis D. none of above

A. Used in respiration to make energy 53. or

B. Evaporated from the leaf A. one who takes action or does some-
C. Leaves through the stomata thing
D. none of above B. voice
C. breathing
48. The two narrower tubes branching from
the trachea that leads into the lungs D. none of above
A. nose 54. The passageway that is shared by both
B. bronchi the digestive and respiratory system is the
C. lungs
A. larynx
D. alveoli
B. pharynx
49. An inflammation or infection of the lungs
characterized by exudate (fluid/pus) in C. trachea
the alveoli. D. nose

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1.13 Respiratory System 457

55. the airways that lead from the trachea 60. It is also called as air sac.
into the lungs A. Alveoli

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. Trachea B. Bronchi
B. Bronchi C. Larynx
C. Larynx D. Pharynx
D. Pharynx
61. Which part of the body is not used for the
56. Amphibians breathe through respiratory system to work?
A. Trachea A. mouth
B. Lung B. nose
C. Moist outer skins C. small intestine
D. Stoma D. diaphragm

57. Which respiratory system structure stops 62. When you inhale, the respiratory system
unwanted items (e.g. food) from entering is working to deliver which gas to the
the lungs? lungs?
A. Pharynx A. Oxygen
B. Larynx B. Carbon Dioxide
C. Nasal Cavity C. Both
D. Epiglottis D. Neither

58. How do salamanders breathe? 63. What causes asthma?

A. Through gills A. Inhalation of pollen
B. Through gills and lungs B. Exposure to dust
C. Through lungs and skin C. Presence paint thinner
D. Through gills, lungs and skin D. All of the above

59. How are the respiratory and circulatory 64. Which of the following delivers oxygen to
systems connected? cells?
A. The respiratory system takes in food A. Red Blood cells
and the circulatory system takes the food B. White blood cells
to your muscles.
C. Platelets
B. The respiratory system takes in blood
and the circulatory system takes the blood D. Plasma
to your muscles. 65. In which part does the exchange of gases
C. The respiratory system takes the oxy- occur?
gen to your muscles and the circulatory A. blood
system takes in oxygen.
B. heart
D. The respiratory system takes in oxy-
gen and the circulatory system takes the C. lungs
oxygen to your muscles. D. none of above

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1.13 Respiratory System 458

66. Another main function of the respiratory 71. Which of the following is not a direct
system is to remove gas from the body. “team member” of the respiratory sys-
This can be toxic to the cells if it is not re- tem?
moved. A. Urinary
A. nitrogen B. Nervous
B. oxygen C. Muscular
C. carbon dioxide D. Cardiovascular (circulatory)

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. helium 72. Which lung is bigger?
67. Layman’s term of rhinorrhea A. Left

A. Something to do with nose B. Right

C. Same Size
B. Nose bleed
D. none of above
C. Runny nose
D. rhinitis 73. What is the common name for the tra-
chea?
68. What is the composition of inhaled air? A. Throat
A. 20% oxygen and 4% carbon dioxide B. Trachea
B. 16% oxygen and 4% carbon dioxide C. Windpipe
C. 79% nitrogen and 20% oxygen D. Nose
D. 20% oxygen and four hundredths of 1% 74. The primary muscles involved in moving
carbon dioxide the lungs are
A. Diaphragm and intercostal muscles
69. Which of the following shows the correct
digestive process? B. Diaphragm and trachea
A. stomach, esophagus, small intestine, C. Intercostal muscles and lobes
large intestine, mouth, colon D. Diaphragm and bronchioles
B. mouth, esophagus, stomach, large in- 75. What happen to the muscle of the di-
testine, small intestine, colon aphragm when you breath out?
C. mouth, stomach, esophagus, small in- A. relaxes
testine, large intestine, colon B. contracts
D. mouth, esophagus, stomach, small in- C. expand
testine, large intestine, colon
D. nothing happen
70. Arrange the correct passage of oxygen in 76. Which of the following does NOT happen
the respiratory system.I. Nose II. Bronchi- during expiration?
olesIII. TracheaIV. BronchiV. Alveoli
A. The diaphragm rises
A. I, II, III, V, IV
B. Inspiratory muscles contract
B. I, III, IV, II, V
C. Volume in the thoracic cavity de-
C. II, III, IV, I, V creases
D. I, II, III, IV, V D. Air moves out of our lungs

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1.13 Respiratory System 459

77. Two short tubes that carry air into the 82. Select each statement that refers to anaer-
lungs obic exercise.

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. Trachea A. Uses oxygen
B. Bronchioles B. High intensity

C. Lungs C. Short duration

D. Builds up lactic acid
D. Bronchi
E. Long duration
78. The voice box is also called the
83. the small air sacs at the ends of the bronchi
A. pharynx where actual gas exchange occurs
B. larynx A. alveoli
C. epiglottis B. breathing
D. conchae C. cartilage
D. cell
79. Why does breathing rate increase during
exercise? Tick the statements that are rel- E. homeostasis
evant. 84. Where does cellular respiration take place
A. To meet the demand for oxygen at the in the cell?
working muscles A. Cell Membrane
B. To make us lighter B. Nucleus
C. To decrease body temperature C. Mitochondria
D. To remove carbon dioxide from the D. Vacuole
body
85. The about of air forced out of the lungs af-
80. Select ALL the organs that ARE parts of the ter maximal inspiration-What is this?
respiratory system A. Tidal Volume
A. Heart B. Exp. Reserve Volume
B. Bronchi C. Insp. Reserve Volume

C. Trachea D. Vital Capacity

D. Capillaries 86. Which of the following is not part of the

Respiratory System?
E. Small intestine
A. Trachea
81. The left lung is smaller because B. Larynx
A. God said so C. Lungs
B. Most people are right handed, and D. Stomach
need more oxygen on the right side
87. We use our respiratory system when we
C. It needs to leave space for the heart
D. Right is Right A. eat

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1.13 Respiratory System 460

B. digest 93. Our lungs

C. breathe A. breathe in oxygen and breathe out car-
bon dioxide.
D. none of above
B. breathe in carbo.
88. a system that moves oxygen from the out- C. breathe in helium and breathe out oxy-
side environment into the body gen.
A. involuntary D. breathe in oxygen and breathe out he-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. respiratory lium.
C. skeletal 94. The air tubes in your lungs branch off into
D. skin smaller, narrower tubes called
E. voluntary A. bronchioles
B. trachea
89. The role of the mucus and and cilia in the
respiratory system is to C. larynx
D. cilia
A. warm the air.
B. clean the air. 95. The flap of tissue at the bottom of the
pharynx which keeps food and liquids out
C. humidify the air.
of the rest of your respiratory system.
D. All of the choices are true. A. pharynx
90. What is another word for breathing in B. larynx
A. Inspiration C. trachea
B. Expiration D. epiglottis
C. Breathing INWARDS 96. The function of the respiratory system to
D. Breathing OUTWARD rid the body of
A. carbon dioxide
91. Hemoglobin must have for oxygen to
B. oxygen
bind properly
C. nitrogen
A. Calcium
D. carbon trioxide
B. Iron
C. Carbon Dioxide 97. which of the following is an circulatory
sytem?
D. A GED
A. Pharnyx
92. Which 2 substances are exchanged in the B. larnyx
Respiratory System?
C. Arteries
A. oxygen and nitrogen
D. Lungs
B. carbon dioxide and oxygen
98. Olfactory receptors are located in the mu-
C. oxygen and glucose
cosa of the nose. What are these recep-
D. glucose and carbon dioxide tors used for?

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1.13 Respiratory System 461

A. sight B. epiglottis
B. smell C. lungs

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

C. touch D. trachea
D. taste 104. When you exhale, the respiratory sys-
99. How are you doing today? tem is working to remove which waste
gas?
A. Great!
A. Oxygen
B. Okay
B. Carbon Dioxide
C. Meh
C. Both
D. I’ve been better
D. Neither
E. I’m not doing my best today
105. What are the parts of a human respira-
100. What are the functions of the circulatory
tory system?
system? Select ALL that apply.
A. nose, windpipe, heart
A. carries oxygen and nutrients to cells
B. nose, windpipe, lungs
B. carries waste away from cells
C. lungs only
C. works with respiratory system to pro-
vide oxygen and get rid of wastes D. lungs and heart
D. removes CO2 and H2O when you ex- 106. Which one accurately describes the differ-
hale ence between respiration and cell respira-
tion?
101. What does the respiratory system re-
lease? A. respiration produces glucose while
cell respiration does not
A. oxygen
B. cell respiration is a process in cells
B. glucose
where energy is made, while respiration
C. carbon dioxide is breathing
D. ATP C. respiration occurs in cells while cell
respiration produces glucose
102. Identify the pathway of air .
D. none of the above
A. nasal cavity, throat, bronchioles,
bronchi, alveoli 107. What is the main organ in the respiratory
B. mouth, nasal cavity, bronchi, bronchi- system?
oles, alveoli A. Kidney
C. nasal cavity/mouth, trachea, bronchi, B. Heart
bronchus, alveoli
C. Lungs
D. nasal cavity/mouth, trachea, bronchi,
bronchioles, alveoli D. Diaphragm

103. healthy are usually pink in color. You 108. What respiratory symptoms include?
have two of these. A. Fever
A. alveoli B. Sore throat

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1.13 Respiratory System 462

C. Cough B. They are one braches of the trachea

D. Vomiting and carry air to the lungs
C. They are three braches of the trachea
109. In which part of the cell does photosyn- and carry air to the lungs
thesis take place?
D. They are two braches of the trachea
A. vacuole and carry air to the lungs
B. mitochondria 115. Which of the following are features of

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. cell wall the alveoli that adapt them to gas ex-
D. chloroplast change? I. High surface areaII. Thin wall-
sIII. Dry surfaces
110. A small flap of tissue that covers the tra- A. I and II only
chea is called the
B. I only
A. bronchi C. II and III
B. larynx D. I, II and III
C. pharynx
116. We breath in
D. epiglottis
A. Carbon Dioxide
111. Your is a muscle connected to the bot- B. Oxygen
tom of your lungs that helps your lungs C. Air
expand and contract when you breathe.
D. Water
A. esophagus
117. D ivides the nose into two hollow spaces
B. alveoli
called nasal cavities.
C. trachea
A. nasal cavities
D. diaphragm B. sinuses
112. how many system in our body? C. bronchioles
A. 10 D. nasal septum
B. 11 118. What is exchange of gases between the
C. 12 blood and the atmospheric air?

D. 13 A. External respiration
B. Outdoor respiration
113. “BREATH” is a noun or a verb?
C. Internal respiration
A. Noun
D. none of above
B. Verb
119. What’s the purpose of the hair on our
C. Both nose, to
D. None of the above A. Make us look nice
114. What is the function of the “Bronchi” B. Breath better
A. They are infinte braches of the trachea C. To filter the air we breath
and carry air to the lungs D. Eliminate odor

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1.13 Respiratory System 463

120. A shortening of the muscle when made 126. What are the main organs of the respira-
tense. tory system that allow us to breathe and
for gas exchange to happen?

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. respiration
B. contract A. diapragm
C. alveoli B. lungs
D. lungs C. trachea

121. What is the adaptation of the skin struc- D. none of above

ture of amphibians to increase the effi- 127. Which part of the Respiratory System al-
ciency of the respiratory system? lows you to speak?
A. Thick skin
A. nose
B. Not permeable to gas
B. pharynx
C. Low density of blood capillaries net-
work C. larynx

D. Moist surface D. trachea

122. Our nose helps us to breathe in 128. Why is the left lung slightly smaller than
the right lung?
A. air
A. to give space for the heart
B. oxygen
C. carbon dioxide B. to breathe easily

D. none of above C. to give space for the stomach

D. to swallow easily
123. This leads to the trachea and esophagus
A. Lung 129. What type of cells carry oxygen?
B. Bronchi A. red blood cells
C. Nasal Cavity B. white blood cells
D. Pharynx C. neurons
124. Where is carbon dioxide and oxygen ex- D. none of above
changed at capillaries?
130. What is gaseous exchange?
A. trachea
A. The movement of Oxygen and Car-
B. larynx bon Dioxide between the bronchi and pul-
C. alveoli monary artery
D. bronchi B. The movement of Oxygen and Carbon
Dioxide between the alveoli and blood-
125. Which of the following is not done to the
stream
air as it moves through the body?
C. The movement of Oxygen and Carbon
A. clean
Dioxide between the heart and lungs
B. warm
D. The movement of Oxygen and Car-
C. humidify bon Dioxide between the nasal cavity and
D. cool heart

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1.13 Respiratory System 464

131. Our pumps blood around the body. C. carries oxygen and nutrients
A. lungs D. provides shape and support for mus-
B. diaphragm cles

C. heart 137. Most of the carbon dioxide is transported

D. none of above by
A. hemoglobin
132. The system of the body that brings oxy-
B. bicarbonate ion

NARAYAN CHANGDER
gen into the body and releases carbon
dioxide. C. carbonic acid
A. respiratory system D. red blood cells
B. skeletal system
138. Which properly describes inhalation?
C. muscular system
A. ribs go down and out
D. circulatory system
B. pressure is low causing air to rush in
133. Which of the following is NOT a function C. pressure is high causing air to rush in
of the nasal cavity?
D. volume is low
A. warms inhaled air
139. During gas exchange
B. humidifies inhales air
A. CO2 moves out of the blood, O2 out of
C. removes dirt and dust from inhaled air
the alveoli
D. removes oxygen from inhaled air
B. CO2 moves into the blood, O2 moves
134. Mucus and these tiny hairs filter the air out of the alveoli
we breathe and capture bacteria and pollu- C. CO2 moves into the alveoli, O2 moves
tion we breathe in out the blood
A. Cilia D. CO2 out of the alveoli, O2 moves into
B. Trachea the blood
C. Flagela 140. and platelets fight diseases in your
D. none of above body.
A. white blood cells
135. In the nasal cavity air is
B. red blood cells
A. filtered
C. plasma
B. warmed
D. valves
C. moisturized
D. all of the above 141. Which part of the respiratory system
cleans, moistens, and warms the air?
136. What are the functions of the respiratory
system? Select ALL that apply. A. trachea

A. provides oxygen for your cells B. larynx

B. removes CO2 and H2O when you ex- C. Nose / nasal cavity
hale D. windpipe

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1.13 Respiratory System 465

142. How do the digestive and respiratory 146. What is an expectorant?

systems work together for the general
A. These agents are used for the tempo-
health of the body?

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

rary relief of nasal congestion associated
A. The digestive system provides oxygen, with the common cold, hay fever, other up-
and the respiratory system provides glu- per respiratory allergies, and sinusitis.
cose for the cells. B. Used to improve pulmonary airflow by
B. The digestive system provides glucose, dilating air passages.
and the respiratory system provides oxy- C. Depress the cough center located in
gen for the cells. the medulla, thereby raising its threshold
C. The digestive system provides carbon for incoming cough impulse.
dioxide, and the respiratory system pro- D. Promote and facilitate the removal of
vides glucose for the cells. mucus from the lower respiratory tract
D. The digestive system provides glucose,
and the respiratory system provides car- 147. The shows a tumor in the upper part
bon dioxide for the cells. of the pharynx.
A. Tracheostomy
143. Which portion of the larynx is responsi-
ble for keeping the airway open? B. Rhinitis

A. vocal cords C. Pharyngoscopy

B. cartilage D. Bronchiecstatsis

C. epiglottis 148. The patient developed bilateral and

D. none of above his lungs had to be treated with strong an-
tibiotics.
144. Which of the following is NOT part of A. pneumonnia
the conducting zone of the respiratory sys-
B. tracheostomy
tem?
C. bronchiecstasis
A. Trachea
D. rhinitis
B. Bronchi
C. Pharynx 149. Choose accessory organs of respiration.
D. Alveoli A. Ribs
B. Intercostal muscles
145. The is the place where your body has
its last chance to absorb nutrients and wa- C. Diaphragm
ter from the food you have eaten and it D. Sternum
is also the place where the leftovers are
turned into waste. 150. The biggest respiratory organ
A. mouth A. Trachea
B. esophagus B. Diaphragm
C. small intestine C. Lungs
D. large intestine D. Alveoli

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1.13 Respiratory System 466

151. What does the Larynx hold? 156. Respiration is the act of
A. The larynx holds the whole respitory A. breathing
system. B. death
B. The larynx holds the trachea. C. love
C. The larynx holds the vocal chords. D. making sugar
D. The larynx hold the wind pipe. 157. What is the word for “breathe in”?

NARAYAN CHANGDER
152. The respiratory system includes all of the A. inhale
following structures except for the B. exhale
A. Pharynx C. regurgitate
B. Larynx D. expel
C. Trachea 158. It is the center of our face?
D. Esophagus A. nose
153. Tidal volume is defined as B. eyes
A. amount of air inspired and expired C. ears
with each normal breath during rest or ex- D. none of above
ercise.
159. The patient couldn’t handle breathe due
B. is the greatest amount of air that can to a blockage.
be made to pass into and out of the lungs
by the most forceful inspiration and expi- A. nasal
ration. B. bronchial
C. the delivery of oxygen from the lungs C. laryngeal
to the bloodstream. D. costal
D. the movement of air from outside the
160. Three features to ensure an efficient
body into the cells within tissues.
gaseous exchange with the surrounding
154. the basic unit of structure and function in A. Dry surface of respiratory structures
an organism B. Moist surface of respiratory struc-
A. alveoli tures
B. breathing C. Thin respiratory structures
C. cartilage D. Thick respiratory structures
D. cell E. Large surface of respiratory struc-
tures
E. homeostasis
161. Which of the following respiratory or-
155. What type of cells carries oxygen? gans are found inside the lungs?
A. red blood cells A. Alveoli
B. white blood cells B. Trachea
C. neurons C. Pharynx
D. none of above D. All of these

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1.13 Respiratory System 467

162. What is the largest cartilage structure in 167. If your epiglottis were to suddenly stop
the larynx? working, what activity could be life threat-
ening?

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A. Cricoid Cartilage
B. Corniculate Cartilage A. Breathin
C. Thyroid cartilage B. Walking
D. Cartilage ring C. Coughing
163. Which of the following is affected by the D. Eating
respiratory system?
A. yawn 168. The normal oxygen content of inhaled air
B. hiccup is approximately

C. sneeze A. 0.04%
D. all of the above B. 21%

164. How does the air sac inside the grasshop- C. 79%
per assist them to breathe?
D. 100%
A. Decrease the rate of exchange of res-
piratory gases between tissues and the 169. In the , the oxygen from the air goes
surroundings into our blood.
B. Increase the rate of exchange of respi-
A. stomach
ratory gases between the cells
C. The air sacs are filled with air B. lungs

D. The air sacs are filled with water C. liver

165. The reactants of cellular respiration are D. none of above

170. Capillaries pass is passed to muscles

A. Glucose & Oxygen
and tissues and your waste is passed back.
B. Carbon Dioxide & Water
A. carbon dioxide
C. ATP & Oxygen
D. Glucose & ATP B. oxygen
C. white blood cells
166. Which is the correct order of structures
that air passes through? D. plasma
A. Trachea → bronchi → bronchioles →
alveoli 171. Why does your body need oxygen?
B. Bronchi → trachea→ bronchioles → A. it is an ingredient used in cellular res-
alveoli piration and make energy
C. Bronchioles → bronchi → trachea → B. To breathe
alveoli
C. To use for removing carbon dioxide
D. Trachea → bronchioles ? bronchi
→ alveoli D. none of above

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1.13 Respiratory System 468

172. The trachea is defined as 177. Your lungs are divided into lobes. How
many lobes do you have?
A. the primary muscle used in the pro-
cess of inspiration. A dome shaped mus- A. Two
cle. B. Three
B. the tube that takes air into the chest, C. Four
also known as the windpipe. D. Five
C. tiny sacs at the end of the bronchioles,
178. Which organs transport air? (More than

NARAYAN CHANGDER
where gaseous exchange takes place.
one answer)
D. a type of protein found in every red
A. Trachea
blood cell.
B. Nasal Passages
173. Passage way that moistens the air and C. Pharynx
has hairs to trap dust and particles
D. Bronchioles
A. Nasal cavity
E. Bronchi
B. Bronchi
179. The largest organ(s) in the respiratory
C. Mouth cavity system are
D. Larynx A. Nasal Cavity
B. Lungs
174. Layman’s term of hemoptysis
C. Bronchi
A. Cough up pus
D. Larynx
B. Cough up blood
180. Which is NOT a function of the Respira-
C. Bleeding
tory System?
D. I don’t know
A. it warms the air
175. How do the muscles affect regulation of B. it exchanges O2 and CO2
body temperature? C. It pumps blood to the organs
A. Errector pili muscles make hair stand D. it creates sound through the larynx
up
181. Location of gas exchange
B. Shivering increases heat
A. alveoli
C. Muscles do not help regulate body tem-
B. myocardium
perature
C. raveoli
D. Shivering decreases heat
D. pulmonary vent
176. The term for maintaining internal temper-
182. The average adult lung capacity is about
ature is:
A. Thermoregulation A. 2 liters (1/2 gallon)
B. Thermometer B. 4.5 liters (1.2 gallons)
C. Homeothermal C. 3.5 liters (.9 gallons)
D. Homeostasis D. 1 liter (1/4 gallon)

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1.13 Respiratory System 469

183. The molecule that carries oxygen and car- C. Up & Out
bon dioxide in the blood is called D. Just up

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A. Capillaries
189. The main organ of the Respiratory Sys-
B. Hemogalase tem where the gas exchange takes place.
C. Hemoglobin A. Heart
D. Calcium B. Small Intestine
184. Which of the following happens during in- C. Lungs
spiration? D. Anus
A. Diaphragm contracts 190. About how many miles of airways do
B. Abdominal muscles contract your lungs contain?
C. External intercostal muscles relax A. 150 miles
D. Internal intercostal muscles contract B. 1500 miles
C. 100 miles
185. how many organs of the body?
D. 500 miles
A. 75
191. Which of the following lung capacities is
B. 76
the volume of air that can be maximally
C. 77 exhaled after a maximum inhalation?
D. 78 A. inspiratory capacity
186. What organ performs the function of B. functional residual capacity
speech and sound for our respiratory sys- C. vital capacity
tem? D. total lung capacity
A. Pharynx
192. the gas known as is needed to stay
B. Larynx alive and properly.
C. Mouth A. oxygen
D. Lungs B. carbon dioxide
187. What is breathed out from our mouth and C. nitrogen
nose? D. helium
A. carbon dioxide 193. Identify the correct difference between
B. oxygen inhaled and exhaled air
C. nitrogen A. oxygen levels have decreased and car-
bon dioxide levels have increased.
D. helium
B. oxygen levels have increased and car-
188. During INSPIRATION, the intercostal bon dioxide levels have increased.
muscles CONTRACT and the ribs move in
C. oxygen levels have decreased and car-
what direction?
bon dioxide levels have decreased.
A. Down and In D. oxygen levels have increased and car-
B. Up & In bon dioxide levels have decreased.

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1.13 Respiratory System 470

194. What are the tiny passageways that lead 200. What structures does gaseous exchange
to the air sacs in the lungs called? take place between? (select 2 answers)
A. Alveoli A. Alveoli and the veins
B. Bronchioles B. Alveoli and the capillaries
C. Trachea C. Capillaries and the arteries
D. Bronchi D. Capillaries and muscle tissue

201. The “windpipe” is known as the

NARAYAN CHANGDER
195. Oxygen + haemoglobin =?
A. oxygenated haemoglobin A. alveoli
B. oxyhaemoglobin B. esophagus
C. haemoglobin C. trachea
D. oxygenglobin D. bronchi

196. Inside each of your lungs there are tubes 202. what is the different?
called bronchi. These branch into even A. nose
smaller tubes much like the branches of
B. heart
a tree. What are at the ends of these
tubes? C. larnyx
A. alveoli D. pharnyx
B. diaphragms E. brochi
C. cells 203. Which of these organs is not a part of the
D. lobus respiratory system?
A. Trachea
197. What is imperfect?
B. Lungs
A. atel/o
C. Heart
B. nas/o
D. Pharynx
C. cyst/o
D. olfact/o 204. Tiny hairlike structures that line your
nose and most other airways of the res-
198. What is the range of pH of the Blood? piratory system.
A. 7.05-7.25 A. cilia
B. 7.25-7.35 B. larnyx
C. 7.35-7.45 C. alveoli
D. 7.45-7.55 D. diaphragm
199. What does the digestive system do? 205. Blood consists of blood cells and
A. brings in oxygen A. veins
B. gets rid of carbon dioxide B. plasma
C. absorbs glucose from food C. pressure
D. none of the above D. arteries

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1.13 Respiratory System 471

206. What happens to the respiratory rate C. aorta

when a person engages in physical activ- D. plasma
ity?

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212. What is respiration?
A. It stays the same
A. The movement of oxygen from the out-
B. It decreases
side environment to the cells within tis-
C. It increases sues
D. It becomes irregular B. The removal of carbon dioxide and
other waste products from the tissues
207. Respiratory system focuses on the:
C. The way that energy is released from
A. all of the above glucose in living cells
B. exchange of carbon dioxide D. The movement of air through the res-
C. exchange of oxygen piratory system
D. the movement of air 213. What is an other word for windpipe?
208. A chamber behind the nose and mouth A. Larynx
that leads to the trachea B. Trachea
A. pharynx C. Oesophagus
B. trachea D. Diaphragm
C. epiglottis 214. A liquid formed in the kidneys that con-
D. larynx sists of water, salts, nitrogen and wastes
is called
209. The process of exchanging oxygen and
A. Mucus
carbon dioxide in the lungs.
B. Urine
A. inspiration
C. Pee
B. expiration
D. Saliva
C. internal respiration
215. After the trachea, air travels through the
D. external respiration

210. What is the long tube that is also called A. Bronchiole

the windpipe
B. Alveoli
A. Bronchus C. Bronchus
B. Alveoli D. Capillary
C. Trachea
216. The circulatory system works with the
D. Mouth system to provide our body with oxy-
gen and get rid of CO2 (carbon dioxide).
211. The is the body’s main artery that
comes out of the heart with blood full of A. respiratory
oxygen. B. digestive
A. capillary C. muscular
B. vein D. skeletal

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1.13 Respiratory System 472

217. Your moves food from your mouth to B. is the greatest amount of air that can
your stomach. be made to pass into and out of the lungs
A. large intestine by the most forceful inspiration and expi-
ration.
B. small intestine
C. the delivery of oxygen from the lungs
C. colon to the bloodstream and the removal of car-
D. esophagus bon dioxide from the tissues.
D. the movement of air from outside the

NARAYAN CHANGDER
218. nasal cavity, pharynx, larynx, trachea,
body into the cells within tissues.
bronchial tubes, lungs
A. muscles involved in breathing 223. Which of the following is the most im-
portant stimulus to control the respiratory
B. epiglott/o
rate?
C. structure of respiratory system
A. chemical factors
D. pleuro/o
B. emotional factors
219. What is the main purpose of inspiration? C. physical factors
A. To get air into the body D. conscious control
B. To inflate the lungs
224. The tubes from the trachea to the lungs
C. To get O2 into the body
A. Trachea
D. To get CO2 into the body
B. Bronchi
220. There are tiny hairs in the respiratory C. Lungs
system that help filter out harmful parti-
D. Pharynx
cles in the air we breathe. These hairs are
called 225. Which best describes the pathway of
A. mucus air?
B. vocal cords A. Nose/MouthTrachea Bronchioles Alve-
oli Gaseous Exchange
C. cilia
B. Nose/Mouth EsophagusBronchi Bron-
D. flagella chioles
221. Two thin tubes that take urine from the C. Nose/Mouth TracheaBronchi Bronchi-
kidneys to the bladder are called olesAlveoli
A. Urehtra D. Nose/MouthTrachea Bronchioles-
B. Kidneys Bronchi Alveoli

C. Bronchus 226. The main organs of the respiratory sys-

D. Ureters tem
A. heart
222. Gaseous exchange is defined as
B. lungs
A. amount of air inspired and expired
with each normal breath during rest or ex- C. esophagus
ercise. D. trachea

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1.13 Respiratory System 473

227. A sticky liquid produced by the lining of C. diffusion

the nose is called D. speech

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A. Saliva
233. bronchus
B. Mucus
A. epi
C. Urine
B. no
D. Spit
C. bronch/o
228. What is respiratory system?
D. bronchi / o
A. The exchange of gases that takes place
in the lungs 234. The process of taking in oxygen and re-
B. In & out of air in the lungs leasing carbon dioxide from the body.
C. Inhale and exhale of air that take place A. transpiration
in the lungs B. respiration
D. All of the above C. digestion
229. The beginning of the respiratory system D. relaxation
that warms and moistens the air.
235. The diaphragm is found:
A. trachea
A. At the back of the throat.
B. nose
B. Below the larynx.
C. bronchi
C. Under the epiglottis.
D. diaphragm
D. Under the rib cage.
230. What is the role of RED BLOOD CELLS?
A. Protect the body from infection 236. Which structure does O2 diffuse through
to be passed into the capillaries in the
B. Carry oxygen around the body lungs for circulation?
C. Coagulate the blood and wounds A. Alveoli
D. All of the Above B. Bronchi
231. What is the respiratory tract? C. Bronchioles
A. Anything D. Trachea
B. Is a tract that connects our lungs to
237. Identify the correct pathway of air into
the outside
the blood.
C. Is a part of our lungs
A. Nose/mouth, trachea, bronchi, bron-
D. Is a long tube that goes to our brain chioles, alveoli, capillaries
232. Which body function is made possible by B. Nose/mouth, bronchi, bronchioles,
the fibrous bands stretched across the lar- alveoli, capillaries, trachea
ynx? C. Nose/mouth, trachea, bronchioles,
A. swallowing bronchi, alveoli, capillaries
B. breathing D. none of above

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1.13 Respiratory System 474

238. A lengthening of the muscle when made B. it exchanges O2 and CO2

less tense, to release. C. It pumps blood to the organs
A. relax D. it creates sound through the larynx
B. lung
244. The main function of the respiratory sys-
C. respiratory system tem is to supply the body with oxygen and
D. respiration to expel carbon dioxide. Which statement
explains how the respiratory system coor-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
239. Diffusion is dinates with the circulatory system when
A. Movement of gas from an area of high performing this function?
concentration to high A. Both systems ensure that every cell
B. Movement of gas from an area of high has equal concentrations of oxygen and
concentration to low carbon dioxide.
C. Movement of gas from an area of low B. Both systems ensure that oxygen is in-
concentration to high haled and delivered to cells, and carbon
dioxide is removed from cells by the blood-
D. Movement of gas from an area of low
stream and lungs.
concentration to low
C. Both systems ensure that carbon diox-
240. What is the normal respiratory rate for ide reaches the bloodstream, and oxygen
an adult at rest? is removed from the bloodstream.
A. 12 to 20 breaths per minute D. Both systems ensure that every cell
B. 20 to 25 breaths per minute has a higher concentration of carbon diox-
ide and a lower concentration of oxygen.
C. 6 to 12 breaths per minute
D. Over 25 breaths per minute 245. Where does air go after the pharynx dur-
ing inhalation?
241. What is the correct name for the voice A. nose
box?
B. trachea
A. Trachea
C. bronchi
B. Bronchus
D. alveoli
C. Bronchiole
246. What is oxygen needed for?
D. Larynx
A. energy releasing chemical reactions
242. Which part of the fish allows the ex-
B. to make glucose
change of gases?
C. to take in sunlight
A. gills
D. none of the above
B. gill cover
C. blood 247. The diaphragm is defined as
D. none of above A. the primary muscle used in the pro-
cess of inspiration. A dome shaped mus-
243. Which of these is NOT a job of the Respi- cle.
ratory System? B. the tube that takes air into the chest,
A. it warms the air also known as the windpipe.

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1.13 Respiratory System 475

C. tiny sacs at the end of the bronchioles, 253. What is the importance of the filament
where gaseous exchange takes place. and lamellae structure in a fish gills?

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D. a type of protein found in every red A. Decrease the surface area of the res-
blood cell. piratory system
B. Increase the efficiency of gaseous ex-
248. is characterized by a runny nose.
change
A. Pharyngitis
C. Decrease the efficiency of gaseous ex-
B. Rhinorrhea change
C. Laryngitis D. Dissolve gas
D. Pneumonia 254. During inspiration
249. When you exhale, air goes out of the tra- A. Air moves out of our lungs
chea to the B. The diaphragm contracts
A. bronchi C. Our lungs contract
B. alveoli D. Volume in the thoracic cavity increases
C. pharynx
255. larynx
D. esophagus
A. side
250. When you exhale, the diaphragm B. bronchial/o
A. moves upwards C. pharyng/o
B. moves downwards D. laryng/o
C. flattens 256. What are the most common diseases of
D. none of the above the upper respiratory system?
A. Cold
251. How many breaths does the average per-
son take per minute? B. Bronchitis
A. 10 C. Pneumonia

B. 20 D. none of above

C. 40 257. The structures that allow for the ex-

D. 60 change of oxygen and carbon dioxide be-
tween the lungs and blood are
252. What is rhinoscopy? A. bronchioles
A. Visual examination of all of the above B. alveoli
B. Visual examination of the larynx, tra- C. bronchi
chea, and bronchi via a flexible broncho-
D. epiglottis
scope.
C. Visual examination of the larynx via a 258. How does the exchange of gases take
laryngoscope. place in an organism respiratory system?

D. Visual examination of the nasal pas- A. Diffusion

sages. B. Respiration

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1.13 Respiratory System 476

C. Cellular respiration 264. What gas is released as waste from cel-

lular respiration?
D. none of above
A. Carbon Dioxide
259. An animal that produces little internal B. Glucose
body heat (cold blood) is called
C. Oxygen
A. Ectotherm D. none of above
B. Endotherm
265. The process of diffusing oxygen from the

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Coldy blood, into the interstitial fluid and into the
D. Regulater cells.
A. inspiration
260. Given the following structures:1. lar- B. expiration
ynx2. nasal cavity3. pharynx4. tra-
cheaWhich of the following is the correct C. internal respiration
order that air would flow during inhala- D. external respiration
tion.
266. How does frog in stage of tadpole breath
A. 1, 2, 3, 4 through?
B. 2, 3, 1, 4 A. Lungs
C. 2, 1, 3, 4 B. Gills
C. Skin
D. 4, 2, 3, 1
D. Same as frog in adult stage
261. The exchange of gases between blood
267. The job of the red blood cell is to
and cells is called
A. fight infection
A. Pulmonary Ventilation
B. deliver oxygen and remove carbon
B. Internal Respiration dioxide
C. External Respiration C. form scabs
D. Cellular Respiration D. deliver carbon dioxide and remove oxy-
gen
262. Through respiration, plants take in
268. Layman’s term of angina
A. oxygen A. Chest pain
B. carbon dioxide B. Palpitation
C. air C. Chest discomfort
D. none of above D. I don’t know

263. What is RDS? 269. Trachea system is the respiratory system

of
A. intravenous
A. Insects
B. respiratory distress syndrome B. Fish
C. oxygen C. Amphibians
D. shortness of breath D. Mammals

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1.13 Respiratory System 477

270. What is included in the respiratory sys- C. heart and blood

tem? Select ALL that apply. D. lungs and mouth

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A. nose
276. Sinus
B. trachea
A. sinus
C. lungs
B. layrang/o
D. diaphragm
C. into
271. The part of the respiratory system that
is/are affected when having COPD? D. no/o

A. Lungs 277. Gaseous exchange happens because of

B. alveoli
C. brunchi A. Osmosis
D. All of the above B. Respiration
C. Diffusion
272. Alveoli are
D. Semi-permeable membranes
A. the large “branches” that air travels
by to enter the lungs 278. Which gas is a product of cellular respira-
B. the little “branches” that carry air to tion?
the alveoli
A. Oxygen
C. the little sacs that allow gas to ex-
B. Carbon Dioxide
change with the capillaries
C. Both
D. The tiny blood vessels that wrap
around the alveoli D. Neither

273. The exchange of gases occurs in the 279. The main organ in the respiratory system
A. Trachea is the

B. Bronchi A. Heart

C. Alevoli B. Lungs
D. Nose C. Alveoli
D. none of above
274. cleans, moistens, and warms the air
A. trachea 280. In the given scenario what will happen?
An egg is placed in pure water for 48
B. larynx
hours.
C. nasal cavity
A. The egg will gain water and swell.
D. windpipe
B. Water will move in and out of the cell
275. What are some of the parts of the respi- equally, and the cell with neither shrink
ratory system? nor swell.
A. muscles and nerves C. The egg will lose water and shrink.
B. stomach and esophagus D. none of above

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1.13 Respiratory System 478

281. Layman’s term of dyspnea 286. Vital capacity is defined as

A. Difficulty in breathing A. amount of air inspired and expired
with each normal breath during rest or ex-
B. Shortness of breath ercise.
C. Breathlessness B. is the greatest amount of air that can
D. All of the above be made to pass into and out of the lungs
by the most forceful inspiration and expi-
282. which of the following is part of both di- ration.

NARAYAN CHANGDER
gestive and resperetory system? C. the delivery of oxygen from the lungs
A. larnyx to the bloodstream.
D. the movement of air from outside the
B. Pharnyx
body into the cells within tissues.
C. Bronchi
287. What is the first stop in the digestive sys-
D. diapgram tem?
A. mouth
283. What is the role of the respiratory sys-
tem? B. esophagus
A. Add CO2 C. stomach

B. Remove O2 D. small intestine

C. Add CO2 and remove O2 288. Which of the following is in the correct
order when you breathe air in?
D. Add O2 and remove CO2
A. nasal cavity, trachea, pharynx
284. capillaries are B. nasal cavity, pharynx, trachea
A. the large “branches” that air travels C. bronchi tubes, trachea, alveoli
by to enter the lungs D. alveoli, trachea, bronchi
B. the little “branches” that carry air to
289. Tubes that move air from the trachea to
the alveoli
the lungs.
C. the little sacs that allow gas to ex- A. Alveoli
change with the capillaries
B. Bronchi
D. The tiny blood vessels that wrap
C. Veins
around the alveoli
D. Arteries
285. What are the products of cellular respira-
290. At the alveoli the O2 and CO2 are
tion?
swapped through gaseous exchange into
A. Energy (ATP), Water, and Carbon DIox- and out of the
ide.
A. capillary
B. Water and Oxygen B. vessel
C. Oxygen and Carbon Dioxide C. vein
D. Water and Energy (ATP) D. Mr Winters wet football boot

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1.13 Respiratory System 479

291. Blood that reaches the lungs from the 297. The name of the muscle that allows to
heart is rich in breath is called

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A. air A. Lungs
B. oxygen B. Kidneys
C. carbon dioxide
C. Skeletal Muscle
D. none of above
D. Diaphragm
292. We breath out
298. Gaseous exchange is when
A. Oxygen
B. Air A. o2 diffuses from the alveoli to the cap-
illary
C. Water
B. co2 diffuses from the alveoli to the cap-
D. Carbon Dioxide
illary
293. Which of the following are the blood ves- C. o2 diffuses from the capillary to the
sels that have a wall that is 1 cell thick? alveoli
A. Veins
D. co2 diffuses from the capillary to the
B. Arteries alveoli
C. Capillaries
299. In the process of breathing, during what
D. none of above stage does the movement of the di-
294. In , a tube is inserted into the hole to aphragm enlarge the thoracic cavity?
keep it open. A. Internal respiration
A. bronciectasis B. External respiration
B. pharyngoscopy
C. Inspiration
C. tracheostomy
D. Experation
D. pneumonia
300. Another name for sugar is
295. What is the correct name for the wind-
pipe? A. ATP
A. Trachea B. Cellular
B. Bronchus C. Glucoes
C. Bronchiole
D. Fall Out Boy
D. Larynx
301. Which of these is NOT a function of the
296. The victim sustained several frac-
cardiovascular system?
tures in the car crash.
A. Transport Of Substances
A. pulmonary
B. laryngeal B. Produce energy
C. bronchial C. Temperature Control
D. costal D. Clotting of wounds

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1.13 Respiratory System 480

302. What is responsible for picking up the 307. Males have an Adam’s apple because the
oxygen in lungs and carrying it to all the vocal cords are
body cells that need it? A. larger
A. red blood cells B. wider
B. white blood cells C. smaller
C. veins D. twisted

D. ventricle 308. What are the main organ of the respira-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
tory system?
303. Which organ squeezes and mixes your A. diaphram
food into a mushy liquid?
B. lungs
A. mouth C. trachea
B. stomach D. bronchi
C. large intestine 309. The biggest difference between inhaled
D. small intestine gases and exhaled gases is..
A. Percentages of nitrogen and oxygen
304. The respiratory system is used to
B. Percentages of carbon dioxide and oxy-
A. Can live gen
B. To breath C. Both
C. Does not exist D. Neither

D. It’s useless 310. known as the voice box

A. windpipe
305. Define oxygen debt
B. larynx
A. The amount of oxygen needed at the C. pharynx
end of a physical activity to break down
any lactic acid. D. epiglottis

B. working at a high intensity level with- 311. Which is known as the voice box?
out oxygen for energy production. A. pharynx
C. the volume of oxygen an athlete can B. larynx
consume while exercising at maximum ca- C. trachea
pacity.
D. bronchi
D. smaller branches coming off the
312. Your is over 20 feet long and uses en-
bronchi.
zymes to chemically break down your food
306. Gas exchange occurs by: so your blood can absorb all the nutrients
to feed your body.
A. simple diffusion
A. mouth
B. osmosis B. stomach
C. active transport C. small intestine
D. none of these D. large intestine

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1.13 Respiratory System 481

313. What is another function of glottis? C. Trachea

A. Support the lung D. Larynx

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

B. As opening to the lungs
319. Muscular structure that helps to expand
C. Protect the lung structure and contract the lungs, forcing air in and
D. none of above out
A. Pharynx
314. Flap of tissue that covers the opening to
the windpipe during swallowing B. Nasal cavity
A. Pharynx C. Alveoli
B. Trachea D. Diaphragm
C. Epiglottis
320. The volume of gas inhaled or exhaled in
D. bronchioles one minute-What is this?
315. What is a disease of the respiratory sys- A. Minute ventilation
tem?
B. Stroke Volume
A. Asma
C. Inspiratory reserve volume
B. Diarrhea
D. Tidal volume
C. None previous days
D. Arma 321. Tiny hairs that move particles in the nose
are called
316. The tube in the body through which air
A. mucus
moves as it travels to and from the lungs;
the windpipe. B. vocal cords
A. heart C. cilia
B. bone D. flagella
C. blood vessel
322. A 1-year-old pediatric patient with spu-
D. trachea tum in the lower lungs. How should
phlegm drainage be arranged?
317. Which part of the Respiratory System
plays a major role in speech? Also known A. lie down
as the voice box. B. lying down, head low
A. nose
C. lying on the right side
B. pharynx
D. lying head high
C. larynx
D. trachea 323. Having to do with the voice or speaking.
A. heart
318. What structure is a passageway for both
food and air? B. lungs
A. Pharynx C. vocal
B. Bronchus D. singing

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1.13 Respiratory System 482

324. Which of the following is not a symptom B. Carbon Dioxide

of anemia? C. Nutrients
A. Exhaustion D. Carbon Monoxide
B. Dizziness
330. Which process moves gases over short
C. Difficulty understanding things
distances?
D. Overheating
A. Diffusion

NARAYAN CHANGDER
325. What would happen if your respiratory B. Bulk Flow
system stopped working for a while?
C. Cellular Respiration
A. you would get a transplant
D. Inspiration
B. you would die
331. How are the respiratory system and the
C. nothing
digestive system alike?
D. hard to get oxygen
A. Both take in items from the environ-
326. During cellular respiration, what happens ment that are necessary to sustain life
to the carbon dioxide? B. Both help the body move from one
A. It leaves the alveoli and is exhaled place to another.
from the lungs C. Both protect the body
B. It leaves the bloodstream and enters D. Both circulate nutrients around the
the alveoli body
C. It leaves the cells and enters the blood-
stream 332. What is the trachae?

D. It leaves the alveoli and enters the A. tube that travels food from mouth to
bloodstream stomach
B. wind pipe
327. Clusters of tiny air sacs that allow the
exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide C. voice box
A. Pharynx D. membraneous tube that takes in air
and food and liquids
B. Diaphragm
C. Alveoli 333. What does cyan/o mean?
D. Lungs A. lobe
B. hallow air sac
328. They are small tubes inside the lungs
C. dark blue
A. bronchi
D. bronchiole
B. bronchioles
C. lungs 334. This is where gas exchange takes place
D. none of above A. Lung

329. The respiratory system distributes to B. Bronchi

the body? C. Alveoli
A. Oxygen D. Trachea

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1.13 Respiratory System 483

335. The alveoli are defined as 340. Select the answer that is most scientifi-
cally accurate:
A. the primary muscle used in the pro-

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cess of inspiration. A dome shaped mus- A. air goes in and out and that’s how our
cle. body gets oxygen
B. the tube that takes air into the chest, B. air gets delivered to our cells through
also known as the windpipe. some pipes
C. tiny sacs at the end of the bronchioles, C. oxygen is absorbed from the air and
where gaseous exchange takes place. delivered to our cells

D. a type of protein found in every red D. oxygen diffuses from the air in our
blood cell. lungs, into our blood cells which then
transport the oxygen to our cells
336. What do we take in when we inhale?
341. bronchioles are
A. carbon dioxide
A. the large “branches” that air travels
B. oxygen by to enter the lungs
C. lungs B. the little “branches” that carry air to
the alveoli
D. none of above
C. the little sacs that allow gas to ex-
337. How we call (professionaly) coughing change with the capillaries
with the blood? D. The tiny blood vessels that wrap
A. Haemoptysis around the alveoli
B. Coughing with the blood 342. alveolus, air sac
C. Hoarseness A. alveol/o
D. none of above B. epiglott/o
C. lob/o
338. What is the respiratory structure used by
a grasshopper that helps it to adapt to dif- D. bronchiol/o
ferent situations?
343. ‘The number of breaths per minute’ is the
A. Trachea definition for
B. Gills A. Cardiac output
C. Moist outer skin B. Lung capacity
D. Lungs C. Breathing rate
D. Tidal volume
339. The only externally visible part of the res-
piratory system 344. Expiratory reserve volume is defined as
A. Eyes A. amount of air inspired and expired
with each normal breath during rest or ex-
B. Nose
ercise.
C. Pharynx
B. the maximum volume that can be ex-
D. Larynx haled.

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1.13 Respiratory System 484

C. the delivery of oxygen from the lungs C. Lungs

to the bloodstream. D. Nose
D. the maximum volume that can be in-
haled. 351. What is the most common cause of lung
cancer?
345. Carbon dioxide in the blood is converted A. Smoking cigarettes
to
B. Bad diet
A. bicarbonate
C. Genetics

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. oxygen
D. none of above
C. glucose
352. What is the function of “The Respiratory
D. lactic acid
System”
346. What 3 main components which make up A. A way of breathing
the CARDIOVASCULAR system?
B. Brings oxygen into the body and elim-
A. Arteries, Veins, Capillaries iates the waste carbon dioxide through
B. Heart, Lungs, Blood Vessels breathing
C. Heart, Oxyhaemoglobin, Lungs C. To rest your body
D. Heart, Blood, Blood Vessels D. A system to Respirate? ? ? ?

347. To breath in means 353. Which part of the respiratory system is

also part of the digestive system?
A. Exhale
A. Nasal Cavity
B. Inhale
B. Trachea
C. Oxygen
C. Pharynx
D. Respiration
D. Bronchi
348. What does the rib cage protect?
354. Why do cilia push mucus towards the
A. lungs esophagus (which leads to the stomach)?
B. heart A. The esophagus uses mucus to help
C. legs food move more easily.
D. arms B. The stomach needs the mucus to help
digest food.
349. Where would you find cilia?
C. The acid in the stomach kills germs in
A. nose and alveoli the mucus.
B. bronchioles and mouth D. The mucus contains nutrients that get
C. trachea and nose absorbed in the stomach.
D. all of the above 355. We have two
350. Which are the main organs in the respira- A. hearts
tory system? B. lungs
A. Heart C. stomachs
B. Stomach D. none of above

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1.13 Respiratory System 485

356. a process that allows the body to get 361. Organs of the respiratory system that
oxygen to burn food for energy and gets bring oxygen-rich air into the body and
rid of carbon dioxide send oxygen-poor air out of the body.

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. respiration A. heart
B. emphysema B. muscles
C. inhaling C. lungs
D. nasal passage D. bones

357. Cardiac Output is the volume of blood 362. What is the diaphragm’s main function?
pumped out the heart per minute BUT A. pump blood into the lungs
what is the equation? B. pump carbon dioxide out of the lungs
A. Q = HR + SV and pull oxygen into the lungs
B. Q = HR-SV C. pump oxygen out of the lungs and pull
carbon dioxide into the lungs
C. Q = HR X SV
D. pumping blood
D. Q = HR / SV
363. For the proper diffusion of gases into and
358. supply the body with oxygen and dispose out of animals it is necessary that the body
of carbon dioxide walls, gills or lungs
A. laryng/o A. be moist
B. respiration B. have a blood circulatory system
C. bronch/o, bronchi/o C. be very small
D. function of respiratory system D. have many partitions

359. Some benefits of deep breathing are 364. An organism that has a stable body tem-
perature should be classed as:
A. Reduced stress levels, lower blood
pressure, and increased oxygen (energy) A. Poikilotherm
B. Reduced stress and increased heart B. Homeotherm
rate C. Endotherm
C. lower vagal nerve activity and oxygen D. Ectotherm
levels
365. What organ in the respiratory system
D. Reduced stress and higher blood pres- where exchange of gases takes place?
sure
A. Trachea
360. What is the percentage of O2 in inspired B. Bronchioles
air?
C. Bronchi
A. 0.04%
D. Alveoli
B. 4%
366. The tiny pouches where the exchange of
C. 16%
oxygen of carbon dioxide takes place are
D. 21% called

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1.13 Respiratory System 486

A. Alveoli B. Visual examination of the larynx, tra-

B. Lungs chea, and bronchi via a flexible broncho-
scope.
C. Bronchioles
C. Test measures the acidity (pH) and the
D. Trachea
levels of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the
367. It is the process of breathing in oxygen. blood.
A. exhalation D. Test performed on sputum to detect

NARAYAN CHANGDER
the presence of Mycobacterium tubercu-
B. inhalation
losis, an acid-fast bacilli. Positive results
C. respiration indicate tuberculosis.
D. digestion
372. The muscle that controls our breathing is
368. The “windpipe” is also called the the
A. trachea A. Rectus abdominis
B. bronchi B. External obliques
C. bronchioles C. Diaphragm
D. alveoli
D. Pectoralis Major
369. The bronchus (bronchi) are defined as
373. Choose the best statement below that
A. the primary muscle used in the pro-
explains the relationship between respira-
cess of inspiration. A dome shaped mus-
tory and circulatory system.
cle.
A. The respiratory system takes in food
B. the tube that takes air into the chest,
and the circulatory system takes the food
also known as the windpipe.
to your muscles.
C. tube along which air passes from the
trachea into the lungs. B. The respiratory system takes in blood
and the circulatory system takes the blood
D. a type of protein found in every red to your muscles.
blood cell.
C. The respiratory system takes the oxy-
370. When we breathe, the diaphragm goes gen to your muscles and the circulatory
up and pushes out of our lungs. system takes in oxygen.
A. oxygen D. The respiratory system takes in oxy-
B. carbon dioxide gen and the circulatory system takes the
oxygen to all parts of your body.
C. gas
D. none of above 374. In an insects trachea, the air enters or
leaves through breathing pores known as
371. What is bronchoscopy?
A. valves
A. Test performed on blood serum to de-
tect the presence of streptolysin enzyme B. tracheoles
O, which is secreted by beta-hemolytic
C. spiracles
streptococcus. Positive results indicate
streptococcal infection. D. air sac

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1.13 Respiratory System 487

375. We need in our body. 381. A bag-like organ that holds the urine be-
fore it leaves the body is called
A. carbon dioxide

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A. Kidneys
B. oxygen
B. Liver
C. gas
C. Ureters
D. none of above
D. Urinary Bladder
376. How do frogs keep their skin moist?
A. Always get into the water 382. Which respiratory structure has ring
shaped cartilage to avoid it from collaps-
B. Live near the water source ing?
C. Secrete mucus A. Pharynx
D. Use their saliva B. Larynx

377. Every cell in your body needs C. Trachea

A. Carbon Dioxide D. Bronchi

B. Nitrogen 383. Which of the following leaf structures

C. Oxygen prevent a leaf from losing wafer through
transpiration
D. Glucose
A. Tall stems
378. How we call the smallest blood vessel? B. Waxy Cuticle
A. Capillary C. Stomata on lower surface
B. Vein D. Guard cells
C. Artery E. Green colour
D. none of above
384. How do the bronchi differ?
379. What structure connects the larynx to the A. The left lung has 3 lobes, the right lung
bronchi? has 2
A. Pleura B. Lobar bronchi are larger than primary
B. Oropharynx bronchi
C. Trachea C. Segmental bronchi feed into lobar
bronchi
D. Bronchioles
D. Tertiary bronchi feed into bronchioles
380. Which system shares the pharynx with
the respiratory system? 385. Tiny tubes that branch off of bronchi
A. circulatory A. capillaries
B. digestive B. alveoli
C. excretory C. bronchioles
D. skeletal D. pluera

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1.13 Respiratory System 488

386. a flap of tissue that closes when we eat 391. the tubes that go from the trachea into
so food doesn’t not go down the trachea the lungs
A. larynx A. alveoli
B. pharynx B. diaphragm
C. trachea C. epiglottis
D. epiglottis D. bronchial tubes

NARAYAN CHANGDER
387. How does the circulatory system work 392. Which part of the Respiratory Sys-
with the respiratory system in the se- tem collects air from the environment &
quence for cellular respiration? heats/moistens the air before entering
A. RBC’s take O2 from lungs and deliver the body?
to body cells. A. lungs
B. RBC’s take CO2 from body cells to B. nose
lungs. C. heart
C. Lungs inhale O2 for Cellular Respira- D. brain
tion and exhale CO2 as waste.
D. All of these. 393. Which mineral is an essential part of
hemoglobin and responsible for reversibly
388. The trachea leads to the binding to oxygen?
A. Bronchioles A. iron
B. Bronchi B. nitrogen
C. Esophagus C. oxygen
D. Pulmonary Vessel D. calcium

389. What is the definition of Heart Rate (HR) 394. When we breathe OUT, our diaphragm
A. Volume of blood pumped out of the left rises. The lungs , and the space inside
ventricle per beat becomes smaller. So, air is forced out of
the lungs, through the windpipe and out of
B. Number of times the heart beats per the nose.
hour
A. expand
C. Number of times the heart beats per
minute B. contract

D. Volume of blood pumped out of the C. reflect

heart D. none of above

390. A place to exchange oxygen and carbon 395. What is the percentage of nitrogen in ex-
dioxide is haled air?
A. bronchus A. 60%
B. alveoli B. 68%
C. lung C. 72%
D. bronchi D. 78%

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1.13 Respiratory System 489

396. In the respiratory zone, the bulk of gas 402. Respiration is defined as
exchange occurs in the
A. amount of air inspired and expired

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. Bronchioles with each normal breath during rest or ex-
B. Alveoli ercise.

C. Alveolar ducts B. is the greatest amount of air that can

be made to pass into and out of the lungs
D. Bronchi by the most forceful inspiration and expi-
397. In the trachea, the cartilaginous rings are ration.
U-shaped. They are open on one side to C. the delivery of oxygen from the lungs
allow movement of the to the bloodstream and the removal of car-
A. larynx bon dioxide from the tissues.

B. lungs D. the movement of air from outside the

body into the cells within tissues.
C. espohagus
D. diaphragm 403. Your lungs have as much surface area as
a
398. When we breathe, we take in
A. tennis court
A. nitrogen
B. soccer field
B. carbon dioxide
C. classroom desk
C. oxygen
D. kitchen table
D. hydrogen
404. The division of the trachea forms
399. Identify a characteristic of capillaries
A. nose
A. Thick cell wall
B. main bronchi
B. Small lumen
C. lungs
C. Contain valves to prevent backflow
D. alveoli
D. Semi permeable membrane
405. This acts like an “Air tube”
400. How does the respiratory system deliver
oxygen to different parts of the body? A. Pharynx
A. breathing B. Trachea
B. circulation C. Bronchi
C. inhale carbon dioxide D. Lungs
D. exhale oxygen
406. Which of these is not a function of the
401. What is the main purpose of expiration? Respiratory System?
A. To get air into the body A. Diffuses oxygen into the blood stream
B. To inflate the lungs B. Removes C02
C. To get O2 into the body C. Ventilation
D. To get CO2 out of the body D. regulate body temperature

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1.13 Respiratory System 490

407. What do we let out when we exhale? 413. a group of similar cells that perform the
A. oxygen same function
B. Carbon dioxide A. organ
C. lungs B. tendon
D. none of above C. tissue
408. At the end of broncioles are thin walled D. ligament
sacs called what?

NARAYAN CHANGDER
E. joint
A. trachea
B. bronchi 414. It is also called as the voicebox
C. alveoli A. Larynx
D. pneumonia
B. Pharynx
409. Choose which of the following are re-
C. Bronchi
quired to calculate Total Lung Volume?
A. Tidal Volume D. Alveoli

B. Inspiratory Reserve Volume 415. What is the definition of RESIDUAL VOL-

C. Expiratory Reserve Volume UME?
D. Residual Volume A. The volume of air breathed in (or out)
E. Vital Capacity during a normal breath at rest

410. This is the muscle that makes room for B. The volume of air that remains in the
air lungs after a maximal expiration
A. Trachea C. The additional air that can be forcibly
B. Lungs inhaled after the inspiration of a normal
tidal volume
C. Alveoli
D. Diaphragm D. The additional air that can be foribly ex-
haled after the expiration of a normal tidal
411. What are the main components of the car- volume
diovascular system?
A. Heart, blood vessels, lungs 416. Define VO2 max
B. veins, arteries, capillaries A. The amount of oxygen needed at the
C. Heart, blood, blood vessels end of a physical activity to break down
any lactic acid.
D. Blood vessels, blood, Haemaglobin
B. working at a high intensity level with-
412. This system supplies the body with oxy- out oxygen for energy production.
gen and rids it of carbon dioxide.
C. the volume of oxygen an athlete can
A. circulatory consume while exercising at maximum ca-
B. respiratory pacity.
C. muscular D. smaller branches coming off the
D. nervous bronchi.

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1.13 Respiratory System 491

417. The following are parts of the Respira- 422. Which of the following environmental
tory system EXCEPT. conditions can cause the stomata to close
during the day because the rate of transpi-

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A. Lungs
ration is too great
B. Trachea
A. Humid Weather
C. Heart
B. If plant loses too much water
D. Alveoli
C. high temperatures
418. What are the main organs of gas ex- D. high wind
change in the respiratory system? E. high level of carbon dioxide
A. diapragm
423. What does the diaphragm do in the respi-
B. lungs ratory system?
C. trachea A. Sucks air from the trachea to the phar-
D. bronchi ynx
B. Squeezes air as it enters the lungs
419. The other name for trachea is
C. Moves to change the size of the chest
A. food pipe cavity
B. wind pipe D. All of these
C. lung
424. The place in the lungs where oxygen and
D. heart carbon dioxide are exchanged

420. Which of the following combinations of A. Diaphragm

the features of the leaves of terrestrial B. Alveolus
(land) plants and their adaptations for gas C. Bronchi Tube
exchange is not correct?
D. Trachea
A. broad and flat to provide a large sur-
face area 425. Which is NOT a function of the cardiovas-
B. moist surface of the mesophyll cells to cular system?
allow gases to dissolve in the moisture A. produce energy
C. epidermis not covered by cuticle to al- B. transport oxygen
low gases to diffuse freely C. remove waste products
D. many stomata to allow gases to pass D. none of above
into and out of the leaves freely
426. A chamber behind the nose and mouth
421. Which is the odd one out? Gaseous ex- that leads to the trachea and is part of the
change is aided by digestive system and respiratory system.
A. Alveoli is covered in capillaries A. pharynx
B. A large blood supply B. trachea
C. walls one cell thick C. epiglottis
D. Valves D. larynx

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1.13 Respiratory System 492

427. A capillary is a form of 433. The nasal cavity

A. Gas exchange A. warms, filters and moisturizes air
B. Respiration B. is divided into the left and right parts
C. Blood vessel by a hard palate
D. Alveoli C. always leaks when I’m sick

428. Two organs that filter blood cells are D. all of the above

NARAYAN CHANGDER
called
434. The main function of the respiratory sys-
A. Kidneys tem is to deliver to your cells. This
B. Lungs allows them to undergo respiration, allow-
ing them to function, grow and repair.
C. Heart
D. Liver A. oxygen
B. blood
429. No one knows the cause or function, but
there are lots of hypothesis C. carbon dioxide
A. cough D. sweat
B. sneeze
435. Which of the following are gases that can
C. hiccup be found in the air around us? (Choose
D. yawn more than one)

430. The larynx is also known as the A. Oxygen

A. Voice box B. Carbon Dioxide

B. Passage to the lungs C. Nitrogen
C. Long vein D. Water Vapour
D. Airway
436. What carries blood away from your
431. What is included in the circulatory sys- heart?
tem? Select ALL that apply. A. Arteries
A. veins
B. Veins
B. capillaries
C. Capillaries
C. heart
D. Valves
D. arteries
437. the windpipe; a passage through which
432. Which part of the Respiratory System
air moves in the respiratory system.
plays a major role in speech?
A. nose A. trachea

B. pharynx B. lungs
C. larynx C. larynx
D. trachea D. bronchi

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1.13 Respiratory System 493

438. The volume of air breathed in and out 443. The process of breathing is called
with each normal breath. Under normal cir- A. Circulation
cumstances this represents about 500cm3

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of air breathed (both inhaled and exhaled)- B. Perspiration
WHat is this? C. Digestion
A. Expiratory Reserve volume D. Respiration
B. Inspiratory Reserve volume 444. How many breaths we take in one
minute?
C. Minute ventilation
A. 18-20
D. Tidal Volume
B. 10-12
439. They are two large bags that are con- C. 14-16
nected to the bronchi.
D. none of above
A. kidneys
445. What type of cells transport oxygen in
B. lungs the blood?
C. bronchioles A. red blood cells
D. none of above B. white blood cells
C. neurons
440. a condition where the alveoli is infected
D. cartilage cells
A. cystic fibrosis
446. What are the main organs in the respira-
B. pneumonia tory system?
C. asthma A. heart
D. emphysema B. lungs
C. stomach
441. Which body system helps the respira-
tory system distribute oxygen and return D. intestines
waste carbon dioxide to the lungs to be 447. What are the names of the air sacs in the
exhaled? lungs where gas exchange takes place?
A. integumentary A. Alveoli
B. circulatory B. Bronchi
C. digestive C. Bronchioles
D. skeletal D. Intercostal muscles
448. The trachea is a part of the respiratory
442. Flap of skin that covers the opening to
system. What can the trachea also be
the windpipe during swallowing
called and what is its function?
A. Stomach
A. windpipe, filters the air we breathe
B. Trachea B. windpipe, releases air out of the body
C. Pancreas C. tubes; carries air to the lungs
D. Epiglottis D. none of above

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1.13 Respiratory System 494

449. What is the name of the blood vessel that C. water and glucose
bring OXYGENATED blood back to the Left D. none of above
Atrium?
A. Pulmonary Artery 455. What is it called when oxygen combines
with haemoglobin?
B. Aorta
A. Oxyhaemoglobin
C. Vena Cava
B. Oxygenated Haemoglobin
D. Pulmonary Vein

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Oxygenglobin
450. Which does Boyles law state?
D. Haemoglobin with O2
A. Volume is proportional to pressure
B. Volume is inversely proportional to 456. The smallest passageway taking air to
pressure the alveoli
C. Volume is proportional to the square of A. Bronchi
the pressure B. Bronchus
D. Volume is inversely proportional to the C. Bronchioles
square of the pressure
D. Alveioli
451. The group of organs that take oxygen
from the air into our body and remove car- 457. After air moves through the pharynx
bon dioxide from the body are called it continues downward. The , or
windpipe, directs the air into 2 separate
A. Respiratory System branches or tubes.
B. Excretory System A. mucus
C. Urinary System B. trachea
D. Lung System
C. larynx
452. This takes in air and cleans it D. epiglottis
A. Pharynx
458. A long tube that connects the mouth to
B. Nasal Cavity the bronchi.
C. Trachea A. bronchi
D. Cilia B. esophagus
453. What gas is needed in order to perform C. trachea
respiration at the cellular level? D. none of above
A. oxygen
459. This system transports essentials and re-
B. carbon dioxide
moves wastes to and from the cells of the
C. hydrogen body.
D. nitrogen A. circulatory
454. Product of photosynthesis are B. respiratory
A. carbon dioxide and glucose C. skeletal
B. oxygen and glucose D. integumentary

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 1.14 Haemopoietic System 495

460. Air from the outside enters the lungs D. The tiny blood vessels that wrap
through the nose, and then the and around the alveoli
into the lungs.

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462. A cavity within a bone or other tissue,
A. windpipe especially one in the bones of the face or
B. gullet skull connecting with the nasal cavities.

C. stomach A. Sinus
B. Nose
D. heart
C. Pharynx
461. Bronchi are D. Larynx
A. the large “branches” that air travels
463. It is also called as your windpipe.
by to enter the lungs
A. Larynx
B. the little “branches” that carry air to
the alveoli B. Lung

C. the little sacs that allow gas to ex- C. trachea

change with the capillaries D. Bronchi

1.14 Haemopoietic System

1. Which of the following is NOT a function D. It is caused by defect in red cell mem-
of cytokine? brane.
A. To stimulate function 4. A radiological investigation of a man‘s
B. To induce maturation head revealed in his maxillary and
C. To promote apoptosis mandibular bones numerous round defects
with smooth walls. A histological study
D. To enhance proliferation showed osteolysis and osteoporosis ac-
2. Anemia can contribute to which of these companied with insufficient bone repair.
among older adults? The laboratory test of the urine detected
the Bence Jones protein. What is the most
A. More falls likely diagnosis?
B. High blood pressure A. Chronic myeloleukemia
C. Diminished eyesight B. Multiple myeloma
D. Diabetes C. Chronic erythromyelosis
3. Choose the CORRECT statement about ane- D. Acute myeloleukemia
mia of chronic disease. E. Acute nondifferentiated leucosis
A. Appearance of normochromic normo-
cytic anaemia in peripheral blood film. 5. At young men the increased cervical lymph
node is removed. Microscopic investiga-
B. Presence of macrocyte in peripheral tion revealed the altered node‘s structure,
blood film. an absence of lymphoid follicles, sites of
C. It is due to haemoglobin abnormali- a sclerosis and necrosis. The cellular in-
ties. filtrate is polymorphic with a presence

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1.14 Haemopoietic System 496

of lymphocytes, eosinocytes, and atypi- C. Bone fibrous dysplasia

cal one-nuclear cells and multinuclear giant D. Metastasis of adenocarcinoma
cells (Reed-Berezovsky-Sternberg cells).
What is the most likely diagnosis? E. Myeloma
A. Lymphogranulomatosis 10. A post-mortem of a 56-year-old woman
B. Burkett‘s lymphoma revealed the Hunter’s (atrophic; Moeller’s)
glossitis, atrophy of mucous membrane
C. Acute lymphatic leukemia
of a stomach and liver‘s hemosiderosis.

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Chronic lymphatic leukemia A bone marrow in all investigated bones
E. Mycosis fungoides was red. A microscopical study showed
hyper cellular infiltration in a lamina pro-
6. Hematopoiesis occurs where? pria of a stomach with a presence of lym-
A. white bone marrow phatic follicles. In a spinal cord there was
a funicular myelosis and also haemopoiesis
B. stem cells foci detected in a spleen. What is the most
C. red bone marrow likely diagnosis?
D. blood vessels A. Fanconi’s (congenital aplastic) anemia

7. Iron-deficiency anemia can cause pica, a B. Addison-Biermer anemia

rare condition in which a person craves eat- C. Hypoplastic anemia
ing nonfood items. Which of these would
D. Chronic gastritis (type A)
he or she eat?
E. Chronic gastritis (type B)
A. Ice
B. Soil 11. Which of the following is NOT a function
C. Clay of blood?

D. Any of the above A. Regulating electrolyte balance.

B. Regulating body temperature.
8. Blood is
C. Removal of toxins.
A. acidic
D. Removal of abnormal erythrocytes.
B. slightly alkaline
C. composed mostly of white blood cells 12. Megaloblastic anaemia is caused by
and platelets A. folate deficiency
D. cooler than body temperature B. vitamint B12 deficiency
9. An elderly male is admitted to the hospi- C. intrinsic factor deficiency
tal for treatment of humeral bone fructure. D. All are correct
His fracture‘s area X-ray showed a new
growth and lytic zone within lesion. His- 13. Complication of polycythemia is
tological examination of a biopsy revealed
A. thrombosis
abnormal plasma cells. What is the most
likely diagnosis? B. shortness of breath
A. Chronic osteomyelitis C. easy bruises
B. Chondrosarcoma D. All are correct

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1.14 Haemopoietic System 497

14. A thoracotomy of a 58-year-old woman 17. Each hemoglobin molecule is able to trans-
revealed in her anterior mediastinum the port molecules of oxygen
enlarged and soldered together lymph

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A. 1
nodes. Microscopical investigation re-
vealed atypical cells with predominance of B. 2
Hodgkin cells and giant Reed-Berezovsky-
C. 3
Sternberg cells. A sclerosis was absent.
What is the most likely diagnosis? D. 4
A. Lymphogranulomatosis with predomi-
nance of nodularis sclerosis 18. Many athletes train at high altitude to
take advantage of this effect-a legal form
B. Lymphogranulomatosis with predomi- of
nance of lymphoid tissue
A. Tour de France
C. Lymphosarcoma
D. Mixed-cellular variant of lymphogranu- B. Doping at the 2007 Tour de France
lomatosis C. Hemoglobin
E. Lymphogranulomatosis with low- D. Blood doping
spirited development of lymphoid tissue
15. A post-mortem of a 4-year-old girl re- 19. Which descendant does the hemocytoblast
vealed plural petechial hemorrhages on her form?
skin, serous and mucous membranes, large A. lymphoid stem cells
focal hemorrhage in a brain and necrotic
tonsillitis. Microscopical study showed B. red blood stem cells
multiple cell infiltrates with pre-vailing C. white blood stem cells
lymphocytes in a bone marrow, a liver, a
spleen, a thymus, lymph nodes, tonsils and D. leukemia stem cells
a skin. What is the most likely diagnosis?
20. The percentage of erythrocytes in blood is
A. Chronic lymphatic leukemia known as the
B. Hodgkin‘s lymphoma
A. hematocrit
C. Follicular non-Hodgkin‘s lymphoma
B. buffy coat
D. Acute lymphatic leukemia
C. hemoglobin
E. Mycosis fungoides
D. plasma
16. Which ONE of these is NOT TRUE concern-
ing the hemopoietic stem cell? 21. Primary polycythemia, often called poly-
A. It is believed to represent approxi- cythemia vera (PCV), polycythemia rubra
mately 1% of bone marrow cells. vera (PRV), as a result of an abnormality
B. It is thought to have a CD34+ and of the
CD38-phenotype. A. Bone marrow
C. It resembles a small to medium sized B. Immune system
lymphocyte.
C. Hematopoietic stem cell
D. It is effectively transferred during
stem cell transplantation. D. Lymphatic system

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1.14 Haemopoietic System 498

22. A patient presented with an infiltra- A. Myeloma

tive, plaque-like polymorphic skin rash, B. Lymphocytic lymphoma
which had various contours, sizes and
a congested-cyanotic color. The lesions C. Polycytemia vera (erythremia, Osler’s
tended to peripheral growth and fusion. disease)
A microscopical investigation of a skin D. Bone fibrous dysplasia
biopsy revealed massive lymphocytes‘ E. Chondrosarcoma
proliferation, which occupied the entire
derma and a hypodermic fatty layer. What 27. A 34-year-old male is found to have weak-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
is the most likely diagnosis? ness confusion, other neurologic manifes-
A. Limphoma of skin tation and polyuria X-ray examination re-
vealed multifocal destructive bone lesions
B. Systemic lupus erythematosus throughout the skeletal system. Elec-
C. Mycosis fungoi‘des trophoretic analysis revealed increased
level of Ig in the blood and Bence Jones
D. Intradermal nevus
protein in the urine. What is the most
23. Low MCV and low MCH associated with likely diagnosis?
deficiency of one of the following: A. Myeloma
A. Folate deficiency. B. Acute monocytic leukemia
B. B12 deficiency C. Lymphogranulomatosis
C. G6PD deficiency D. Chronic myeloleukemia
D. Iron deficiency E. Histiocytosis

24. What does erythropoietin control? 28. The continual process of producing new
A. rate of erythrocyte production blood cells of all kinds is called

B. rate of leukocyte production A. Erythropoiesis

B. Haemolysis
C. rate of myloid production
C. Haemopoiesis
D. rate of stem cell production
D. Leukopoiesis
25. Which of these causing haemolytic
anaemia? 29. Which of the following cell is a platelet pre-
cursor?
A. Iron deficiency anemia
A. Eosinophil
B. G6PD deficiency
B. Lymphocyte
C. Anemia of chronic disease
C. Megakaryocyte
D. All are correct
D. Reticulocyte
26. A 65-year-old female is noted to be ane-
mic. He serum protein electrophoresis 30. Erythropoiesis occurs in
demonstration a large monoclonal Ig G A. lymphatic tissues
kappa protein. In her bone marrow are in- B. red bone marrow
creased numbers of atypical plasma cells.
Her skull X-ray show multiple lytic areas. C. yellow bone marrow
What is the most likely diagnosis? D. all of the above

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1.14 Haemopoietic System 499

31. A 67-year-old female presented with pain- C. Hemolytic anemia

less enlargement of lymph nodes. His- D. Climbing peak of mount Kinabalu and
tological examination of a biopsy sam-

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return on the same day.
ple revealed that the whole lymph node
pattern was unclear, with heterogeneous 35. A physical examination of a young men‘s
cellular infiltrate. It included abnor- oral cavity revealed the atrophy of mucous
mal, immature cells admixed with lym- membrane and red spots on his tongue
phocytes, eosinophils, plasma cells and (atrophic; Hunter’s; Moeller’s glos-sitis).
macrophages. Binucleated Berezovsky- Sclera had a yellow coloring. A blood test
Reed-Sternberg cells, where surrounded showed the color index above one. For
by multiple cell types. What is the most what anemia these changes are character-
likely diagnosis? istic?
A. Acute myeloleukemia A. Asiderotic anemia
B. Chronic myeloleukemia B. Acute posthemorrhagic
C. Lymphogranulomatosis
C. Nutritional anemia due to vitamine B12
D. Mycosis fungoides deficiency
E. Tuberculosis D. Chronic posthemorrhagic
32. A patient has a cluster of matted together E. Hemolytic anemia
dense lymph nodes on his neck. Histologi-
cal examination of a removed lymph node 36. Schilling test is done on blood sample to
revealed proliferation of reticular cells,
presense of Reed-Sternberg cells. What A. investigate ability of parietal cell pro-
disease is meant? ducing intrinsic factors.
A. Myeloblastic leukosis B. to determine blood B12 concentration
B. Lymphoblastic leukosis C. to diagnose megaloblastic anemia
C. Myelocytic leukosis D. to assess the effectiveness of manage-
D. Lymphocytic leukosis ment for anemia.
E. Lymphogranulomatosis
37. The young man presented to his physi-
33. Which of the following red blood cell dis- cian with enlarged neck lymph nodes. A
orders may result from life at a higher al- microscopical investigation of a lymph
titude? node biopsy sample revealed the lym-
phoid tissue proliferation with presence of
A. aplastic anemia a giant Reed-Berezovsky-Sternberg cells,
B. sickle cell anemia eosinocytes, zones of necrosis and sclero-
C. pernicious anemia sis. What is the most likely diagnosis?

D. polycythemia A. Chronic lymphatic leukemia

B. Lymphogranulomatosis
34. Choose the risk factors for secondary poly-
cythemia. C. Lymphosarcoma
A. Acute asthma D. Histiocytosis
B. Cigarret smoking E. Multiple myeloma

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1.14 Haemopoietic System 500

38. A 14-year-old boy presented to a hospi- 41. Polycythemia often involving excess
tal with enlarged submaxillary and cervi- white blood cells and are also pro-
cal lymph nodes. A biopsy procedure was duced.
performed. Microscopical investigation re- A. Coagulation factor
vealed the disorder of a lymph node typi-
cal structure, a heterogeneous cellular pop- B. Macrophages
ulation with a presence of giant multinu- C. Blood plasma
clear cells and plural one-nuclear big cells. D. Platelet
There were also eosinocytes, neutrophils

NARAYAN CHANGDER
and lymphocytes in the cell infiltrate. In 42. Which of these statements is TRUE about
addition, sites of necrosis and sclerosis haemoglobin?
were found. What is the most likely di-
A. One molecule contains 1 atom of iron.
agnosis?
B. It is broken down in macrophages.
A. Hyperplasia of lymphatic nodes
C. It is different in children and adults.
B. Granulomatous lymphadenitis
D. It has a low level in blood at birth com-
C. Purulent lymphadenitis pared with adult life.
D. Non-Hodgkin‘s lymphoma
43. Which of this finding could be seen in tha-
E. Lymphogranulomatosis lasemic blood?
A. Megaloblast
39. Choose CORRECT statement regarding
reticulocytes. B. Target cell
A. They contain DNA not RNA. C. Heinz bodies
B. They are raised in megaloblastic D. Poikilocytosis
anaemia. 44. Which of these anemias related to Heinz
C. They are raised 12 months after Bodies observed under peripheral blood
splenectomy. film?
D. They are raised after haemorrhage. A. Thalassemia
B. G6PD deficiency anemia
40. A biopsy of the enlarged lymph node was
taken. A histological investigation re- C. Megaloblastic anemia
vealed a diffuse growth of lymphoid cells D. Iron deficiency anemia
with adding of eosinocytes, atypical his-
tiocytes, solitary giant Reed-Berezovsky- 45. A 25-year-old patient presented with pe-
Sternberg cells with two and more nuclei, ripheral adenopathy, involving a single
cell‘s necrosis and sclerosis. What is the cervical lymph node. A biopsy sample
most likely diagnosis? investigation revealed an unclear node
pattern with mixed cellular infiltration.
A. Lymphatic leukemia Histologycal study under higher magni-
B. Burkett‘s lymphoma fication showed numerous variants of
Berezovsky-Reed-Stenberg cells, lympho-
C. Sarcoidosis
cytes, necrotic area and mild diffuse fibro-
D. Lymphogranulomatosis sis. What is the most likely diagnosis?
E. Myeloleukemia A. Nodular lymphoma

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1.14 Haemopoietic System 501

B. Lymphogranulomatosis 50. The following are features of extravascu-

C. Burkitt’s lymphoma lar hemolysis EXCEPT:

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D. Lymphocytic lymphoma A. Raised serum bilirubin

E. Chronic lymphatic leukemia B. Increased urine urobilinogen.

C. Dark urine
46. Clinical investigation of a patient revealed
the enlarged lymph nodes, spleen and liver. D. Reticulocytosis
A microscopical study of the enlarged cervi- 51. White blood cells differ from red blood
cal (neck) lymph node showed the blurring cells because only they contain
of its structures and absence of lymphatic
follicles. All microscopical views were pre- A. a biconcave shape
sented by cells with round nuclei and nar- B. a nucleus and most organelles
row ring of a basophilic cytoplasm. What C. the ability to transport both oxygen
is the most likely diagnosis? and carbon dioxide
A. Lymphogranulomatosis D. the iron-containing molecule called
B. Lymphosarcoma hemoglobin
C. Myeloleukemia 52. Spherocytic anemia is caused by
D. Multiple myeloma A. mutation on gene that produce G6PD
E. Lymphatic leucosis enzyme leave the membrane exposed to
oxidation by free radicals
47. Dietary Iron is transported from intestine
by , and it will be stored in liver as B. mutation on gene lead to failure in
ankyrin and spectrin production
A. ferric, ferous
C. inherited defect on hemoglobin struc-
B. transferin, ferritin ture that caused crystallized hemoglobin
C. oxidized heam, oxidized iron and lead to change of RBC shape.
D. unconjugated bilirubin, conjugated D. none of above
bilirubin
53. How does iron-deficiency anemia affect
48. Which of the following is a feature BEST teenagers?
describe intravascular haemolysis? A. More trouble with written expression
A. Shortness of breath B. Restlessness
B. Jaundice C. Aggravates hyperactivity
C. Lethargic D. none of above
D. Haemoglobin in urine.
54. As the final step in the maturation process,
49. Which formed element is the most abun- lose their remaining ribosomes to be-
dant in blood? come erythrocytes.
A. erythrocyte A. Erythroblasts
B. eosinophil B. Normoblasts
C. platelet C. Proerythroblasts
D. basophil D. Reticulocytes

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1.14 Haemopoietic System 502

55. A post-mortem of a 15-year-old girl re- all the microscopic fields showed cells with
vealed enlarged neck, mediastinal and roundish nuclei and thin limbus of basophil
mesenteric lymph nodes, which were inte- cytoplasm. It is known from the clinical
grated in conglomerates. On a cut section, data that other groups of lymph nodes are
the tissue pattern of the nodes was non- also enlarged as well as spleen and liver.
uniform, with foci of necrosis. Microscopi- What disease might be suspected?
cal investigation showed the uneven struc- A. Lymphogranulomatosis
ture of lymph nodes, foci of sclerosis and
B. Lymphoid leukosis
necrosis. The cell population was also het-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
erogeneous and included uninuclear atypi- C. Myeloid leukosis
cal cells, giant multinuclear atypical cells, a D. Lymphosarcoma
significant amount of eosinocytes and neu- E. Multiple myeloma
trophils, and sparse lymphocytes. What is
the most likely form of Hodgkin lymphoma 58. Bone marrow failure may menifest this
(lymphogranulomatosis)? symptom.
A. Lymphogranulomatosis, lymphohistio- A. Lethargic
cytic variant B. Recurrent infection
B. Lymphogranulomatosis, mixed cell C. Prolonged bleeding after dental ex-
variant traction
C. Lymphogranulomatosis, nodular scle- D. Any of the above
rosis
59. Which of these statements is TRUE about
D. Lymphogranulomatosis, variant with β -thalassaemia major?
low-spirited development of lymphoid tis-
A. It presents at birth.
sue
B. It is caused by a defect in α globin syn-
E. Hodgkin‘s sarcoma
thesis.
56. A physical examination of a 42-year-old C. It is associated with splenomegaly.
man revealed enlarged lymph nodes. A D. It is associated with an increased risk
histological investigation of a lymph node of bone infarction.
showed lymphocytes, histiocytes, reticu-
lar cells, small and big Hodgkin‘s cells, 60. A liver biopsy was taken from a 66-year-
multinuclear Berezovsky-ReedSternberg old man, with a history of increased quan-
cells (Sternberg-Reed cells) infiltration tity of lymphocytes and pro-lymphocytes
with solitary necrotic areas. What dis- in his blood. A histological investigation
ease such changes characteristic for? of a liver sample revealed plural accumula-
A. Lymphogranulomatosis tions of the mentioned above cells, mainly
between hepatic segments. For what dis-
B. Chronic leucosis ease above listed changes are characteris-
C. Lymphosarcoma tic?
D. Metastasis of carcinoma of lungs A. Acute lymphatic leukemia
E. Acute leucosis B. Lymphogranulomatosis
C. Chronic persistence hepatitis
57. Microscopical examination of an enlarged
cervical lymph node revealed blurring of D. Chronic lymphatic leukemia
its structure, absence of lymphoid follicles; E. Hepatocellular carcinoma of liver

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1.14 Haemopoietic System 503

61. Why are RBCs unable to synthesize pro- 66. Secondary polycythemia is caused by ei-
teins, grow or divide? ther natural or artificial increases in the
production of , hence an increased pro-

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A. because they are fragile
duction of erythrocytes.
B. because they are anucleate
A. Erythropoietin
C. because of they are too small
B. Atrial natriuretic peptide
D. because they are too big
C. Renin
62. This physiologic (meaning normal) poly- D. Vasopressin
cythemia is a normal adaptation to living
at high altitudes known as 67. What part of blood is responsible for clot-
A. Hypoxia ting blood?

B. Altitude sickness A. Red Blood Cells

C. Decompression sickness B. White Blood Cells

D. Allergy C. Platelets
D. Plasma
63. A patient presents with an insatiable crav-
ing for ice and exhibits spoon shaped fin- 68. A 4-year-old girl died due to a post-
gernails and pallor. The least likely treat- hemorrhagic anemia, resulted from a
ment for this patient would be gastro-intestinal profuse bleeding. An
autopsy revealed an anemia of her or-
A. Iron tablet supplements
gans, the enlargement of the different
B. Increased enriched grains in the diet groups of lymph nodes, thymomegaly,
C. Increased red meat in the diet mild hepatomegaly, splenomegaly and
D. Transfusions of packed red blood cells bright red bone marrow. Microscopical
study showed hyper cellularity of a bone
64. Which of the following do NOT stimulate marrow with monomorphic blast cells infil-
erythropoietin production? trate, diffuse inflammatory tumor-like in-
A. Renal failure filtrates in a liver, a spleen, lymph nodes,
meninges and substance of a brain. What
B. High altitude is the most likely diagnosis?
C. Hypoxia A. Acute myeloblastic leucosis
D. Pregnancy B. Acute nondifferentiated leucosis
65. A vegetarian teenage girl with complain- C. Acute lymphoblastic leucosis
ing of symptoms and menifestations of D. Acute plazmoblastic leucosis
Koilonichia, glossitis and angular stom-
atitis. Her hemoglobin level is 6 g/dl. E. Acute monoblastic leucosis
Choose the appropriate management for 69. A tomography revealed enlarged lym-
her. phatic nodes. A histological investigation
A. Pain killers of lymph node‘s biopsy showed a circular
B. Intramuscular iron therapy growths of a connective tissue, which sur-
rounded a granuloma-like formation, made
C. Packed cell blood transfusion from lymphocytes, plasmocytes and giant
D. Supplementation of folic acids and vi- double-nuclear cells. What is the most
tamin C likely diagnosis?

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1.14 Haemopoietic System 504

A. Lymphosarcoma D. Acute myeloblastic leucosis

B. Tuberculosis E. Acute lymphoblastic leucosis
C. Lymphogranulomatosis
74. A 63-year-old man, with 20 years history
D. Sarcoidosis of working as the engineer for the service
E. Lymphatic leukemia of electronic microscopes, died of a sepsis.
An autopsy revealed plural hemorrhages
70. What is hematopoisis? in serous and mucous membranes, a gen-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. formed elements eral hemosiderosis, a fatty dystrophy of a
myocardium, liver and kidneys, ulcerative-
B. blood cell formation necrotic and purulent processes in a gastro-
C. erythrocyte formation intestinal system. The red bone marrow
was replaced by a fatty. What is the most
D. developing RBCs
likely diagnosis?
71. A decrease in the oxygen-carrying ability A. Megaloblastic anemia
of the blood, for any reason, is a condition
B. Posthemorrhagic anemia
known as
A. polycythemia C. Iron deficiency anemia

B. leukemia D. Hypoplastic anemia

C. anemia 75. The major production site of erythropoi-

D. leukocyctosis etin is
A. Endothelium
72. The main haemopoiesis site of an infant is
B. Liver
A. Liver
C. Muscle
B. Spleen
D. Kidney
C. All bones
D. Central skeleton only 76. An autopsy of a 67-year-old man revealed
the systemic enlargement of lymph nodes
73. An autopsy of a 35-year-old woman with formation of tumorous conglomer-
revealed the enlarged spleen, (weight ates. The spleen was also enlarged with
800gm), liver (weight 4000 gm) and a motley pattern of a cut surface. There
lymph nodes. A bone marrow of a femur were plural, tiny, yellowish-white spots
diaphysis was juicy (succulent), crimson- on a red background of a spleen‘s pulp.
red color. Microscopical study of a liver de- What is the most likely diagnosis?
fined dense infiltrates within portal tracts,
A. Sarcoidosis
consisted of immature blood cells. These
cells had a round nuclei and narrow ring B. Lymphosarcoma
of a cytoplasm. What is the most likely C. Carcinoma of lung
diagnosis?
D. Lymphogranulomatosis
A. Chronic myeloid leucosis
E. Lymphatic leukemia
B. Generalizated form of lymphogranulo-
matosis 77. The normal lifespan of an erythrocyte is
C. Chronic lymphatic leukemia A. 80 days

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 1.15 Lympho-Reticular System 505

B. 100 days A. Lymphogranulomatosis, with exhaus-

C. 120 days tion of lymphatic tissue

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D. 140 days B. Mixed cell variant of lymphogranulo-
matosis
78. Choose CORRECT statement about serum C. Lymphosarcoma
iron.
D. Lymphogranulomatosis, with predomi-
A. It is low in inflammatory diseases. nance of lymphatic tissue
B. high hepcidine increased serum iron E. Nodular sclerotic variant of lym-
C. It shows a diurnal rhythm. phogranulomatosis
D. It is transported in plasma by ferritin. 80. Which of these condition below related to
79. A microscopic investigation of the enlarged reticulocytosis?
neck lymph node biopsy revealed the blur- A. Thalassemia
ring of its structures, plenty of proliferat- B. Anemia of chronic disease
ing lymphocytes with adding of solitary
giant Reed-Berezovsky-Sternberg cells. C. Iron deficiency anemia
What is the most likely diagnosis? D. none of above

1.15 Lympho-Reticular System

1. Lymph capillaries are not found in what C. Cortex
structures of the body? D. Capsule
A. Bone
4. Where is the spleen located?
B. Bone Marrow
A. Right side of abdomen
C. Teeth
B. Left side of abdomen
D. All of These
C. Left side of Chest
2. What best describes a lymph node? D. Middle of the abdomen
A. Type of pathogen that attacks the im-
mune system 5. What are the components of the innate de-
fense system (primary immunity)?
B. Special kind of immune cell found in
the lymph A. Skin

C. Any organ being attacked by B. Mucous Membranes

pathogens C. Attack Cells
D. A capsule in the lymph vessels that are D. All of These
filled with B cells and T cells
6. Type of lymphatic organ that prevent in-
3. Lymph Node:These divide the node into testinal bacteria from crossing the intes-
compartments. Inner walls/divisions. tine wall. Found in small intestine.
A. Valve A. Lymph Node
B. Trabeculae B. Lacteals

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1.15 Lympho-Reticular System 506

C. Spleen 12. What is the function of the lymphatic ves-

D. Peyer’s Patches sels?
A. manage immune responses
7. Lymph Node:This nurtures lymphocytes
B. remove debris, foreign matter, bacte-
A. Valve ria, viruses, & toxins
B. Trabeculae C. drainage vessels which weave be-
tween tissue cells & blood capillaries
C. Cortex

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. “invite” infection which creates wide
D. Capsule
variety of immune cells with “memory”
8. What makes the Adaptive Defense Sys- 13. What do Peyer’s Patches do?
tem different from the Innate Defense Sys-
tem? A. Generates “memory” lymphocytes for
long term memory
A. It has memory.
B. “lymph filters”
B. It is the first line of defense.
C. causes T cells to become immunocom-
C. It does not act upon antigens. petent
D. All of These D. “invite” infection which creates wide
variety of immune cells
9. What causes T cells to become immuno-
competent by secretion of thymosin & thy- 14. Defense system where T cells go after
mopoietin body cells that have been infected with
A. spleen viruses, bacteria, or are cancerous.
A. Adaptive (Humoral) System
B. lymph nodes
B. Adaptive (Cellular) System
C. lymphatic vessels
C. Innate Defense System
D. thymus
D. Cardiovascular System
10. The fluid that is pushed out of the capillary
beds and between tissues is what? 15. Lymph flows:
A. In a circular pattern
A. Arterial Blood
B. Away from the heart
B. Venous Blood
C. Toward the heart
C. Lymph
D. Into the capillaries
D. Interstitial Fluid
16. This statement describes the function of
11. The lymphoid organ that programs T-cells antibodies:
and functions at peak levels during youth
is the: A. Prevent antigens from binding to-
gether
A. Thymus
B. Promote phagocytosis
B. Spleen
C. Inhibit inflammation
C. Peyer’s Patches D. Prevent breakdown of foreign anti-
D. All of These gens

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1.15 Lympho-Reticular System 507

17. Vessels that transports lymph. Elaborate C. single intestinal

drainage system for excess fluid. Perme- D. single jugular
able.

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23. What is tonsillitis caused by?
A. Lymphatic capillary
A. Virus
B. Thoracic Duct
B. Parasite
C. Lymphnode
C. Fungus
D. Spleen
D. Bacteria
18. Where are Peyer’s Patches found?
24. Long-lived lymphocytes are known as:
A. Large intestine
A. Effector Cells
B. Small intestine
B. Memory Cells
C. Kidney
C. Natural Killer Cells
D. Lymph Nodes
D. None of These
19. These are a type of immune system cell 25. Lymph Node:Fibrous outer layer that sur-
(white blood cell). They phagocytize rounds each lymph node
(“eat”) foreign substances and activate T
cells. A. Valve
B. Trabeculae
A. Lymphocytes
C. Cortex
B. Macrophages
D. Capsule
C. Reticular cells
D. None of these 26. The type of immunity that a fetus derives
from its mother is called:
20. Main lymphoid organ. Where lymph is reg- A. Naturally acquired active immunity
ularly inspected my lymphocytes.
B. Naturally acquired passive immunity
A. Lymph Node
C. Artificially acquired active immunity
B. Lacteals
D. Artificially acquired natural active im-
C. Spleen munity
D. Peyer’s Patches
27. T-cells mature in the:
21. This statement best describes lymph A. Thalamus
nodes: B. Thymus
A. filters lymph C. Bone Marrow
B. lymphocytes divide and multiply D. None of These
C. contain reticular fibers
28. What is the role of cilia in the mucous mem-
D. All of These brane?
22. Where are lymphatic vessels NOT lo- A. To move mucous
cated? B. Warm the throat
A. Paired lumbar C. Absorb water
B. Paired bronchomediastinal D. Store B & T cells

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1.15 Lympho-Reticular System 508

29. B-lymphocytes are considered the stars of C. Spleen

the immune system because:
D. Peyer’s Patches
A. They recognize & bind to specific anti-
gen. 34. Lymph Node:Stops the lymph from back
B. They produce antibodies that attach to flow similar to 4 areas of the heart.
their cell membranes. A. Valve
C. They produce and release antibodies B. Trabeculae

NARAYAN CHANGDER
to fight antigens.
C. Cortex
D. All of These
D. Capsule
30. How does the lymphatic system aid the
cardiovascular system? 35. Which of the following is not one of the
A. returning fluid to blood maintains four indicators of the inflammatory re-
blood pressure and volume sponse?

B. checking for invaders helps prevent in- A. Redness

fections B. Fever
C. producing lymphocytes helps maintain C. Swelling
the system
D. Pain
D. none of these

31. How does the lymphatic system aid the im- 36. Which is NOT a type of lymphoid cell?
mune system? A. macrophages
A. by cleansing lymph B. dentditic
B. by checking for invaders and foreign C. reticular
substances
D. thymous
C. by activating and producing lympho-
cytes 37. What does the thymus do?
D. all of these
A. Destroy cells
32. This lymphatic organ traps and removes B. Get rid of hormones
foreign particles from entering throat.
Forms a ring around entrance of pharynx. C. Produce hormones (ex. thymosin) to
program lymphocytes
A. Tonsils
D. The thymus doesn’t function
B. Appendix
C. Peyer’s Patches 38. An antigen is
D. Spleen A. A type of immune cell

33. A lymphatic capillary that absorb fat di- B. A substance that the immune system
rectly from the small intestine. recognizes as foreign
A. Lymph Node C. A symptom of an allergic reaction
B. Lacteals D. A cell that attacks microbes

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1.15 Lympho-Reticular System 509

39. The duct where the lymphatic vessels 44. Multiple Sclerosis is when
empty into. A. pancreatic beta cells are destroyed

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A. Thoracic Duct B. joints are destroyed
B. Lacteals C. when renal function is impaired
C. Spleen D. white matter and the spinal cord are
D. Peyer’s Patches destroyed

40. Which of the following are considered 45. Which semi-independent part of the lym-
“truly life-saving” vaccines? phatic system transports fluids escaped
A. Polio from the vascular system back to the
blood?
B. Tetanus
A. lymphatic vessels
C. Measles
B. lymphoid tissues and organs
D. All of These
C. lymph nodes
41. What is the reason for inflammatory re- D. lymphatic glands
sponse?
A. tells the body there is an injury that 46. Why does immunity from certain viruses
needs to be attended to not last a lifetime?

B. prevents spread of injury to nearby A. Only allergens create lifetime immu-

body tissues nity.

C. brings in cells to fight off infection B. Viruses change quickly and frequently.

D. keeps the infection from being able to C. Viruses do not create immune re-
enter the area of the injury/illness sponses.
D. Allergens mutate frequently.
42. Which of the following materials are not
returned to the blood by lymph? 47. Which line of defense has memory that rec-
A. Water ognizes and mounts an enhanced attack on
previously encountered pathogens?
B. Fat
A. 1st
C. Blood Cells
B. 2nd
D. Protein
C. 3rd
43. Vaccines are important because: D. 4th
A. They cause a stronger and faster pri-
mary response. 48. What are the 2 semi-independent parts of
the lymphatic system?
B. They cause a weaker and slower pri-
mary response. A. lymphatic vessels & lymphoid tis-
sues/organs
C. They cause a weaker and faster pri-
mary response. B. lymphatic organs & lymphatic tissues

D. They cause a stronger and slower pri- C. lymphatic tissues & lymphatic cells
mary response. D. lymphatic cells & lymphatic organs

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1.15 Lympho-Reticular System 510

49. How does the spleen help the immune sys- 55. What part of the immune systems is con-
tem? sidered the “lymph filters”?
A. Macrophages fight pathogens when A. spleen
the blood flows into the spleen B. thymus
B. Lymph is made here C. tonsils
C. Tiny little soldiers live in the spleen D. lymph nodes
D. The spleen doesn’t do anything

NARAYAN CHANGDER
56. What is true about the thymus?
50. What part of the lymphatic system stores A. It makes T cells
platelets?
B. It makes B cells
A. thymus
C. It makes tiny little soldiers
B. spleen
D. It stops working as you age
C. lymph nodes
57. What is a ring of lymphatic tissue around
D. thymus gland the entrance to the pharynx?
51. Which of the following is not an auto- A. tonsils
immune disease? B. lymph nodes
A. Multiple Sclerosis C. thymus glands
B. Type II Diabetes D. peyer’s patches
C. Hashimoto’s Disease
58. Defense system is antibody-focused immu-
D. Type I Diabetes nity. B cells make antibodies for specific
antigens. Patrol blood and lymph
52. How many lines of defense are there?
A. Adaptive (Humoral) System
A. 1
B. Adaptive (Cellular) System
B. 2
C. Innate Defense System
C. 3
D. Cardiovascular System
D. 4
59. T-lymphocytes do which of the following:
53. An autoimmune disease is
A. Cause inflammation
A. A loss of immunity
B. Activate macrophages
B. A loss of an antigens
C. Regulate the immune response
C. A loss of self tolerance
D. All of These
D. A loss of blood
60. Vaccines provide us with:
54. How does fever affect microbes?
A. Naturally acquired active immunity
A. Slows them down
B. Naturally acquired passive immunity
B. Makes them swell C. Artificially acquired active immunity
C. Slows their growth D. Artificially acquired natural active im-
D. Dehydrates them munity

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1.15 Lympho-Reticular System 511

61. Which semi-independent part of the lym- 67. The process by which antibodies bind to
phatic system houses phagocytic cells specific sites on bacterial exotoxins to
block their harmful effects is called:

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A. lymphatic vessels
B. lymphoid tissues and organs A. Agglutination
C. lymph nodes B. Neutralization
D. lymphatic glands C. Opsonization
62. The tiny oval shaped lymph structure lo- D. None of These
cated throughout the body are known as?
68. What do B Cells do when they encounter
A. Lymph nodes
an antigen?
B. Gallbladder
A. Produce antibodies
C. Spleen
B. Die
D. Liver
C. Split
63. What do most B cells become?
D. Produce antigens
A. Plasma cells
B. C cells 69. Why do cells put MHC’s on their cell mem-
C. Long-lived memory cells branes?
D. Antigens A. MHC’s identify them for destruction.

64. Which is not an antigen? B. MHC’s determines which antigens the

cells will fight.
A. Foreign protein
C. MHC’s identify abnormal cells.
B. Microorganisms
C. Nucleic Acids D. All of These

D. Lymphocytes 70. These are a type of immune system cell

65. Organ that programs the lymphocytes to (white blood cell). They are the main
carry out their protective roles. Produces warriors of the immune system by doing
Thymosin. T-cells mature here things like attacking foreign substances.

A. Tonsils A. Lymphocytes
B. Thymus B. Macrophages
C. Spleen C. Reticular cells
D. Peyer’s Patches D. None of these
66. Defense system that’s nonspecific; pro-
71. If the thoracic lymphatic duct became
tects from all antigens, External barricade
blocked, this effect would be evident:
& internal defenses. Phagocytes & NKCs
A. Swelling of the left arm
A. Adaptive (Humoral) System
B. Adaptive (Cellular) System B. Swelling of the right leg
C. Innate Defense System C. Swelling of left leg
D. Cardiovascular System D. All of These

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1.15 Lympho-Reticular System 512

72. As lymph travels through the lymphatic 77. What is in charge of removing debris, for-
system, it will be filtered by a lymph node. eign matter, bacteria, viruses, & toxins
What is the correct order of the path the from the body?
lymph takes?
A. tonsils
A. vessels → capillaries → duct → trunk
B. spleen
→ heart
B. heart → duct → trunk → vessels → C. thymus gland
capillaries D. lymphoid cells

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. capillaries → vessels → trunk →
78. Cell-to-Cell combat in the immune system
duct → heart
is known as:
D. none of these
A. Cellular immune response
73. What is hyperemia? B. First line of the immune defenses
A. lack of blood flow C. Cell-mediated response
B. blood clot
D. Cellular immune response and cell-
C. congestion of blood mediated response
D. redirection of bloodbflow for an inflam-
matory response 79. Antibodies do all of the following except:
A. Form blood clots
74. Which organ receives immature T cells,
then raises them to maturity-then releases B. Send chemical signals
them? C. Block receptor sites
A. Thymus D. Form clumps of antigens
B. Spleen
80. What makes the lymph fluid move through
C. Liver
the body?
D. Heart
A. Muscle contractions and gravity
75. Which of the following is NOT a lymphoid B. Pressure changes caused by breathing
organ? and gravity
A. Thymus C. Beating of the heart and gravity
B. Colon D. Muscle contractions and pressure
C. Spleen changes caused by breathing
D. None of These
81. What is in charge of “inviting” infections
76. Fever has the effect of doing all of these to create a wide variety of immune cells
except: with “memory”?

A. Speeding up the repair processes A. tonsils

B. Denaturing proteins B. thymus
C. Canceling the complement cascade C. spleen
D. None of These D. thymus gland

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1.15 Lympho-Reticular System 513

82. Which is NOT a sign of inflammatory re- 88. What happens in the lymph nodes as
sponse? lymph flows through them?

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A. redness A. Reticular fibers filter out debris
B. swelling B. Foreign substances are destroyed
C. heat C. Plasma and Mature T cells are added
D. hindered mobility D. All are correct

83. Immune sera(plural for Antiserum) are 89. What part of the lymphatic system stores
used for all of the following except: blood platelets?

A. Tuberculosis A. thymus
B. spleen
B. Rabies
C. lymph nodes
C. Black Widow Spider
D. thymus gland
D. Tetanus
90. What takes in cell debris, pathogens, and
84. What is your second line of defense? cancer cells?
A. external body membranes A. spleen
B. cellular & chemical defenses B. thymus
C. immune response C. lymphatic vessels
D. antibody replication D. peyer’s patches

85. What is your third line of defense? 91. As the body ages the T & B cells become
less responsive to
A. external body membranes
A. Antigens
B. cellular & chemical defenses
B. Self tolerance
C. immune response-antigens
C. Antibodies
D. antibody replication
D. I mmunity
86. What is found in the spleen, red bone
marrow and lymph nodes that fight mi- 92. These are all examples of mechanical mech-
crobes? anisms that prevent entry of microorgan-
isms into the body except:
A. Tiny little soldiers
A. tears to wash out eyes
B. Red Blood Cells
B. skin
C. Natural killer cells C. complement cascade
D. Lymph D. saliva in the mouth
87. What is your first line of defense? 93. The largest lymphatic structure is?
A. external body membranes A. Lymph
B. cellular & chemical defenses B. Lymph Nodes
C. immune response C. Tonsils
D. antibody replication D. Spleen

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 1.16 Alimentary Tract 514

94. This statement describes antigens: C. blood reservoir

A. Are foreign substances introduced D. filters lymph
into the body
97. When antibodies physically block the bind-
B. Are molecules produced by the body ing sites on viral/bacterial toxins so they
C. Stimulate an adaptive immune system can’t attach to your tissues.
response A. Neutralization
D. All of These B. Inflammation

NARAYAN CHANGDER
95. The role of the lacrimal glands is to C. Apoptosis

A. Produce mucous to protect the throat D. Vaccination

B. Produce mucous to protect the nose 98. This organ filters and cleanses blood of
bacteria and viruses. Major job is to de-
C. Produce tears to protect the eyes
stroy worn out red blood cells.
D. Produce saliva to protect the mouth
A. Tonsils
96. This statement best describes the spleen: B. Lacteals
A. venous supply C. Spleen
B. arterial supply D. Peyer’s Patches

1.16 Alimentary Tract

1. What is the visible part of a tooth called? 4. The small intestine is the longest of the di-
A. Enamel gestive organs. What benefit to body is it
that this organ is so long?
B. Crown
A. It allows the organ to secrete bile
C. Pulp which in turn breaks down food
D. Root
B. It allows more time for the food to be
2. Which of these is the correct formula of the in the organ which allows more absoption
human dentition? to take place.
A. I=2/2, C= 1/1 P= 2/2 M= 3/3 C. It provides more surface area for mu-
cus which helps digested food move more
B. I=1/2, C= 1/2 P= 2/3 M= 3/3
smoothly.
C. I=1/1, C= 1/2 P= 3/2 M= 3/3
D. none of above
D. I=2/2, C= 0/0 P= 2/2 M= 3/3
5. The outermost layer of the alimentary
3. Final digestion process takes place in
canal is
which part of the intestines?
A. Duodenum A. serosa

B. Colons B. mucosa
C. Jejunum C. submucosa
D. Ileum D. muscularis externa

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1.16 Alimentary Tract 515

6. What does the dentine contain? C. Fructose

A. Living cytoplasm D. Protein

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B. Cytoplasm 12. Which layer has smooth muscles and helps
C. Enamel propel food through the digestive system
D. Blood A. muscularis externa
B. mucosa
7. What is digestion?
C. submucosa
A. the breakdown of large food molecules
to smaller ones to allow them to be ab- D. serosa
sorbed into the bloodstream
13. provides the energy necessary for pho-
B. the breakdown of small food tosynthesis.
molecules to larger ones to allow them
A. water
to be absorbed into the bloodstream
B. sunlight
C. the process of eating food
C. glucose
D. none of above
D. soil
8. In the stomach, the substances released to
aid digestion include 14. the products of photosynthesis are
A. Saliva and Bile A. glucose and sunlight
B. Dilute HCl and gastric juice B. carbon dioxide and water
C. Bile and gastric juice C. glucose and chlorophyll

D. Saliva and dilute HCl D. oxygen and glucose

9. The teeth and tongue of the oral cavity 15. How do water enter the roots from the
break foodstuff down physically. This is soil?
an example of A. diffusion
A. mechanical digestion B. osmosis
B. chemical digestion C. transpiration
C. absorption D. active transport
D. peristalsis 16. The enzyme contained in saliva helps in the
initial digestion of what food class?
10. Which organ only stores the bile?
A. All food classes
A. liver
B. Lipids
B. gall bladder
C. Carbohydrates
C. pancrease
D. Mineral salts, vitamin and water
D. none of above
17. A leaf is the broadest part of the plant and
11. Amalyse breaks down starch into what? this is good for photosynthesis because,
A. Maltose the broad leaf
B. Glucose A. curls up when touched

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1.16 Alimentary Tract 516

B. increases surface area D. mouth, stomach, esophagus, large in-

C. catches rain water testine, small intestine

D. stores lipids for the plants 23. Tye blood component otherwise known as
thrombocytes are the
18. All of these foods do not necessarily un-
dergo digestion before they become ab- A. WBCs
sorbed except B. RBCs
A. Protein

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Platelets
B. Vitamins
D. Plasma
C. Mineral Salts
D. Water 24. Amylase breaks down simple
A. fats
19. In most herbivores, which of these sets of
teeth is absent? B. proteins
A. Incisors C. amino acids
B. Canines D. starches/carbs
C. Premolars
25. The process whereby digested foods enter
D. Molars into the blood is termed
20. How many layers are there in the alimen- A. Assimilation
tary canal B. Ingestion
A. 1 C. Absorption
B. 2 D. Peristalsis
C. 3
26. What is the purpose of the dentine?
D. 4
A. To sit there
21. Where does digestion begin?
B. To add a second layer of protection for
A. Stomach the pulp
B. Small Intestine
C. The connecting bridge of the pulp and
C. Mouth enamel
D. Esophagus D. To eat potatoes
22. Which of the following answers correctly 27. What is the alimentary canal?
sequences the pathway food takes from
the beginning to end? A. The portion of the digestive system
that food travels through.
A. mouth, esophagus, stomach, small in-
testine, large intestine B. The portion of the digestive system
that food does NOT travel through
B. mouth, esophagus, stomach, large in-
testine, small intestine C. The longest portion of the large intes-
tine.
C. mouth, stomach, esophagus, small in-
testine, large intestine D. The last part of the small intestine

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1.16 Alimentary Tract 517

28. All arteries carry blood away from the C. food is churned to break it down even
heart except the farther

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A. Veins D. none of above
B. Capillaries
34. What accomplishes most of the chemical di-
C. Pulmonary artery gestion in the large intestine? As a result
D. Pulmonary vein of this digestive, gas is produced.

29. The cell component found in plants which A. pancreatic enzymes

is responsible for making food is the B. bile
A. Cell membrane C. bacteria
B. Vacuole D. saliva
C. Chloroplast
35. Which organ releases digestive enzymes
D. none of above into the small intestine?
30. Vascular tissue that transports water and A. pancreas
minerals UPWARDS from a plant’s roots is
B. small intestine
know as
C. esophagus
A. Chlorophyll
B. Phloem D. salivary glands

C. Stomata 36. Which of the following structures is NOT

D. Xylem part of the digestive system?
A. esophagus
31. What part of a tooth contains the nerves?
A. Pulp B. larynx

B. Enamel C. stomach
C. Dentine D. pharynx
D. Gums 37. What is the function of the esophagus?
32. Whcih of the folowing organs secretes en- A. moves food by using peristalsis
zymes, specifically amylase, that digests B. digesting protein
carbohydrates only?
C. chemically digests fats and absorbs
A. large intestine
some vitamins
B. stomach
D. Absorption of proteins and alcohol
C. small intestine
D. oral cavity 38. What do teeth do?
A. Observe the mouth
33. In the stomach
B. Grind food for easier digestion
A. enzymes are added to break down the
food even more C. Release enzymes to start breaking
B. the mouth chews the food into smaller down the food
pieces D. Sit there

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 1.17 Liver 518

39. The greenish substance that is produced 43. What is the correct order?
and released from the liver to make lipids A. Digestion, Ingestion, Egestion
more watery and ready for digestion is
called B. Egestion, Digestion, Ingestion
A. Saliva C. Ingestion, Digestion, Egestion
B. Digestive juice D. Digestion, Egestion, Ingestion
C. Bile 44. Which of these animals possess homodont

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Phlegm type of dentition?
A. Fishes
40. Which organ makes bile?
B. Rabbits
A. liver
C. Birds
B. gall bladder
D. Crocodiles
C. pancreas
D. none of above 45. What organ is responsible for the majority
of the absoption that occurs in the diges-
41. During circulation, the heart first pumps tive system?
blood to the lungs for gaseous exchange. A. large intestine
This circulation is said to be
B. small intestine
A. Systemic
C. stomach
B. Pulmonary
D. oral cavity
C. Reproductive
D. none of above 46. What organ of the alimentary canal is
located between the esophagus and the
42. Innermost layer of alimentary canal is the small intestine?
A. mucosa A. stomach
B. serosa B. large intestines
C. submucosa C. pharynx
D. muscularis externa D. salivary glands

1.17 Liver
1. The 3 types of enzymes that acinar cells A. a high-fat diet and obesity.
produce are
B. excessive vitamin A intake and portal
A. amylase, protease, lipase hypertension.
B. amylose, proteose, lipid C. hepatitis and alcoholism.
C. amylase, pepsinogen, lipase D. renal colic and cystitis.
D. acinar cells produce bicarbnate
3. What is the name of the cells located in the
liver?
2. Two major causes of cirrhosis of the liver
are: A. hepatocytes

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1.17 Liver 519

B. acinar cells 7. A neonate born prematurely at 32-weeks’

C. duct cells gestationdevelops yellow skin and sclera
(physiological jaundice).Laboratory stud-

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D. osteoclasts
ies show elevated serum levels of biliru-
4. A liver biopsy from a 62-year-old alco- bin (breakdown product of heme). Inad-
holic man disclosesregenerative liver nod- equate bilirubinclearance by the liver in
ules surrounded by fibrous scar tis-sue this neonate was most likelycaused by or-
(histologic features of cirrhosis). The sur- gan immaturity. What liver enzyme conju-
gical patholo-gist asks you to comment gates serum bilirubin, making it water sol-
on the remarkable capacity of theliver to uble, for excre-tion in the bile?
regenerate. Hepatic stem cells that con- A. Alanine aminotransferase
tribute to liverregeneration reside in which
B. Aspartate transaminase
of the following locations?
C. Fatty acyltransferase
A. Canal of Herring
D. Glucuronyltransferase
B. Glisson capsule
E. Galactosyltransferase
C. Hepatic sinusoid
D. Space of Disse 8. A 69-year-old man is brought to the
E. Space of Mall emergency room ina disoriented state.
Physical examination reveals an odorof
5. The pancreas delivers an alkaline pH fluid alcohol, as well as jaundice and as-
to the duode-num that helps to neutral- cites. Serum levels ofaspartate amino-
ize the acidity of gastric juice, protect the transferase (AST), alanine aminotrans-
small intestine, and provide an optimum ferase(ALT), alkaline phosphatase, and
pHfor hydrolytic enzymes present in the bilirubin are all elevated.Increased serum
lumen. What por-tion of the exocrine pan- levels of alkaline phosphatase are an indi-
creas secretes most of this bicar-bonate- cator of injury to which of the following
and sodium-rich alkaline fluid? tissues/structures?
A. Intercalated ducts A. Bile ducts
B. Interlobular ducts B. Centrilobular hepatocytes
C. Intralobular ducts C. Islets of Langerhans
D. Pancreatic duct of Santorini D. Pancreatic exocrine acini
E. Pancreatic duct of Wirsung E. Periportal hepatocytes
6. A different visual field from the slide de- 9. Which 3 vessels are found in the portal
scribed inQuestion 2 is examined at the triad?
same magnification.Identify the structures
A. portal venule, hepatic vein, hepatic ar-
indicated by the arrows (shownin the im-
teriole
age).
B. portal venule, bile duct, hepatic arteri-
A. Arcuate arteries
ole
B. Hepatic arteries
C. hepatic venule, bile duct, hepatic arte-
C. Interlobular arteries riole
D. Sublobular veins D. portal arteriole, bile duct, hepatic arte-
E. Terminal hepatic venules riole

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1.17 Liver 520

10. A 62-year-old alcoholic presents to the 14. A 5-year-old girl presents with yellow
emergency roomwith 8 hours of severe ab- skin and sclerae.The parents believe that
dominal pain and vomiting.Physical exam- she recently swallowed a bottleof ac-
ination discloses exquisite abdominal ten- etaminophen tablets. A liver biopsy re-
derness. Serum levels of amylase and li- veals hepaticnecrosis. Which of the follow-
pase are elevated.These laboratory data ing enzymes metabolizedacetaminophen
indicate that this patient has suf-fered in- and generated toxic metabolites in the-
jury to which of the following internal or- liver of this young patient?
gans?

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Catalase
A. Duodenum B. Cytochrome P450
B. Gallbladder C. Myeloperoxidase
C. Liver D. NADPH oxidase
D. Pancreas E. Superoxide dismutase
E. Stomach 15. What are the rows od liver cells within a
liver lobule called?
11. What stimulates the production of en-
zymes in the pancreas? A. hepatic cords

A. CCK B. hepatic lines

C. liver lobes
B. Secretin
D. liver rows
C. Gastrin
D. Food 16. A 40-year-old woman presents with
an 8-month historyof generalized itching,
12. Which of the following is NOT a function weight loss, fatigue, and yellowsclerae.
of the liver? Physical examination reveals mild jaun-
dice. Aliver biopsy discloses bile duct in-
A. makes bile
jury and inflammation.Which of the follow-
B. controls blood sugar levels ing cells forms the lining epitheliumof the
C. removes old RBC’s biliary tree?
D. makes insulin A. Cholangiocytes
B. Endothelial cells
13. A 50-year-old malnourished man presents
C. Hepatic stellate cells
with a 6-monthhistory of night blindness.
Physical examination revealscorneal ulcer- D. Hepatocytes
ation. The patient is subsequently diag- E. Kupffer cells
nosedwith vitamin A deficiency. Which of
the following cells inthe liver stores vita- 17. What is the name of the sphincter that
min A as retinyl esters? controls the release of bile and pancreatic
juices into the duodenum?
A. Cholangiocytes
A. Sphincter of Oddi
B. Endothelial cells
B. Hepatopancreatic sphincter
C. Hepatic stellate cells
C. Bile sphincter
D. Hepatocytes D. Either Oddi or Hepatopancreatic
E. Kupffer cells sphincter

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1.17 Liver 521

18. What is the part of the pancreas that is 23. The arrows on the image provided for
close to the spleen called? Question 6 pointto the nuclei of endothe-
lial cells that line the hepaticsinusoids.

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. Head
Which of the following cytologic features
B. Neck bestcharacterizes these squamous epithe-
C. Body lial cells?
D. Tail A. Fenestrations
19. What is the functional unit of the liver B. Glycogen inclusions
called? C. Secretory granules
A. Liver lobule D. Slit-pore diaphragms
B. Acinus E. Stereocilia
C. Liver lobe
24. What is the direction of the blood and bile
D. Islet of Langerhans
flow within a liver lobule?
20. During a small group seminar, you are A. blood and bile flow towards the center
asked to dis-cuss pancreatic enzymes and of the lobule
their role in the digestionof food. Which
of the following enzymes catalyzes the- B. blood flows towards the center and
conversion of pancreatic proenzymes to ac- bile towards a triad of the lobule
tive enzymeswithin the lumen of the duo- C. blood and bile flow towards the triad
denum? of the lobule
A. Alkaline phosphatase D. bile flows towards the center and
B. Elastase blood towards a triad of the lobule
C. Maltase 25. Exocrine cells of the pancreas produce
D. Phospholipase A. digestive enzymes
E. Trypsin B. amylase and pepsinogen
21. What is the connective tissue that sepa- C. insulin
rates liver lobules from each other called?
D. glucagon
A. septum
B. sepsis 26. You are asked to discuss the gross and mi-
croscopic anat-omy of the liver during a
C. canal pathology conference. Classicliver lobules
D. separator are described as hexagonal prisms that
sur-round which of the following anatomic
22. The name of the hormone that increases structures?
the amount of sugar in the blood is called
A. Bile duct
A. insulin B. Central vein
B. glucagon C. Hepatic artery
C. glycogen D. Portal triad
D. CCK E. Portal vein

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1.17 Liver 522

27. What stimulates the production of bicar- C. Intrahepatic bile ducts

bonates in the pancreas? D. Extrahepatic bile ducts
A. CCK
E. Portal vein
B. Secretin
31. What is the function of bile?
C. Gastrin
A. digests fats
D. Food
B. emulsifies fats

NARAYAN CHANGDER
28. A 40-year-old woman with a history of in-
digestioninquires about the location of her C. accumulates fats
gallbladder. She alsoasks for information D. absorbs fats
regarding risk factors for gallstones.What
normal component of bile is associated 32. Where are the α and β cells in the pan-
with thepathogenesis of gallstones? creas located?
A. Bicarbonate A. Islets of Langerhans
B. Cholesterol B. Acini
C. Cholic acid C. Ducts
D. Mucin D. Hepatic cords
E. Sodium chloride 33. Duct cells of pancreas produce
29. During a clinical conference, you are asked A. enzymes
to discussiron storage disorders affect- B. hormones
ing the liver. You explain thatiron over-
load can occur due to increased breakdown C. α and β cells
oferythrocytes (hemolysis) or increased in- D. bicarbonate
testinal absorp-tion. Name the principal
iron storage pigment found inhepatocytes. 34. Injury or inflammation affecting the canal
of Herring inthe liver lobule is associ-
A. Bilirubin
ated with which of the followingpathologic
B. Cytochromes changes?
C. Hemoglobin A. Fat droplets within hepatocytes
D. Hemosiderin B. Fibrosis of the common bile duct
E. Transferrin C. Gallstones (cholelithiasis)
30. A 75-year-old man with congestive heart D. Hypertrophy of smooth muscle in the
failure com-plains of increasing shortness ampulla ofVater
of breath. On physicalexamination, the pa- E. Intrahepatic bile lakes
tient has an enlarged and tenderliver and
swollen legs. Increased venous pressure 35. What is the shape of liver lobules?
due toright-sided heart failure primarily
A. pentagon
affects which of thefollowing regions of
this patient’s liver? B. square
A. Centrilobular hepatocytes C. hexagone
B. Periportal hepatocytes D. octagone

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 1.18 Pancreas 523

36. Concentration of bile salts and pigments 39. Where is the head of the pancreas lo-
within thelumen of the gallbladder de- cated?
pends on active transportof Na+and

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. in the curve of the duodenum
HCO3-, as well as passive transport of
H2O.Which of the following proteins fa- B. above the stomach
cilitates the passivetransport of water C. in front of the stomach
across the plasma membrane of epi-thelial
cells lining the gallbladder? D. close to the urinary bladder
A. Aquaporin 40. A 44-year-old woman comes to the physi-
B. Cadherin cian with a6-week history of episodic
C. Occludin hunger and fainting spells.She is currently
seeing a psychiatrist because she is irri-
D. Perforin table and quarreling with her family. Lab-
E. Porin oratory studiesshow a serum glucose con-
centration of 35 mg/dL (nor-mal = 90
37. One of your classmates casually mentions
mg/dL). A CT scan of the abdomen demon-
that the liverproduces about 1 L of bile per
strates a 1.5-cm mass in the pancreas. An
day. As you attempt toconfirm this sur-
EM study ofthe tumor reveals membrane-
prising information through indepen-dent
bound, dense-core gran-ules. These secre-
study, you learn that cholangiocytes con-
tory vesicles most likely contain whichof
tinuouslymonitor the flow of bile. What
the following pancreatic hormones?
subcellular organelle issensitive to the di-
rectional flow of bile in the biliarytree? A. Glucagon
A. Cilia B. Insulin
B. Flagella C. Pancreatic polypeptide
C. Hemidesmosomes D. Secretin
D. Microvilli
E. Somatostatin
E. Stereocilia
41. Exocrine part of the pancreas is made of
38. What is the name of the blood vessel lo-
cells called
cated in the middle of the liver lobule?
A. Portal venule A. acinar cells

B. Hepatic venule B. duct cells

C. Central vein C. hepatocytes
D. Hepatic arteriole D. acinar and duct cells

1.18 Pancreas
1. These are tubes that transverses the buc- A. Parotid ducts
cal (cheek) region and enters the oral cav-
ity just posterior to the upper second mo- B. Submandibular gland
lar. They secretes saliva from the parotid C. Submandibular ducts
gland.
D. Sublingual ducts

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1.18 Pancreas 524

2. The following structure should not be in- 7. This is located near the junction of the
jured during splenectomy small and large intestines. It is very small
and is a vestigial structure.
A. Head of pancreas
A. Cecum
B. Neck of pancreas
B. Vermiform appendix
C. Body of pancreas
C. Coelom
D. Tail of pancreas
D. Colon

NARAYAN CHANGDER
3. Why pancreatic insulin better than injec-
8. Which hormones can cause diabetes if the
tion insulin?
pancreas produces too much or too little?
A. Insulin dosing is better because it
A. Insulin
takes into account food intake and phys-
ical activity. B. Somatostatin
B. Insulin dosing is direct into the portal C. Vasoactive intestinal peptide
veins D. Gastrin
C. Insulin dosing is continuous 9. What part of the pancreas is intraperi-
D. none of above toneal?
A. cola
4. A diagnosis of type 1 diabetes means that
B. body
A. The pancreas does not produce insulin
C. head
B. The insulin produced by the pancreas
is not effective D. neck

C. Insulin does not reach the blood 10. Most nutrients are absorbed here
D. We are sedentary A. liver
B. appendix
5. Which hormone prevents the glucose lev-
els from dropping to a dangerous point by C. small intestine
stimulating the stored glycogen to glucose D. large intestine
in the liver?
11. Where chemical digestion starts.
A. Glucagon
A. Small intestine
B. Gastrin
B. Oesophagus
C. Insulin
C. Mouth
D. Somatostatin
D. Stomach
6. These are salivary glands located just an- 12. Why is the esophagus/food pipe impor-
terior to the ears. tant?
A. Parotid ducts A. To swallow food
B. Parotid glands B. To choke
C. Submandibular glands C. To make your breath smelly
D. Sublingual glands D. None of these

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1.18 Pancreas 525

13. Somatostatin insulin secretion and 18. what do the enzymes break down
glucagon secretion A. sugars

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A. increases/increases B. fats
B. increases/decreases C. starches
C. decreases/increases D. all of the above
D. decreases/decreases E. skeletal structure
14. What are the functions of Pancreas? 19. Secretion of pancreatic juice is stimulated
A. Helps in digestion and regulating blood by
pressure A. Gastrin
B. Helps in digestion and regulating blood B. Secretin
sugar C. Enterokinase
C. Helps in blood sugar regulation and D. Enterogastron
produces insulin
20. What is the substance found in the stom-
D. Helps in blood sugar regulation and
ach that allows for chemical digestion to
produces glucagon
take place?
15. This is divided into lobes and is located on A. Gastric Juices
right side of body. It is divided into 4 lobes
B. Saliva
in humans (right, left, caudate, quadrate)
and is divided into 6 lobes in cats (left me- C. Bile
dial, left lateral, quadrate, right medial, D. none of above
right lateral, caudate).
21. An example of a hormone secreted by the
A. Spleen pancreas is:
B. Liver A. thyroid hormone
C. Pancreas B. growth hormone
D. Gall Bladder C. adrenaline
16. Choose one that is not the sign of diabetes D. insulin
mellitus 22. Which is NOT a clinical manifestation?
A. Excessive urination flushing glucose A. upper abdominal pain
and ketones
B. gallstones
B. Excessive thirst due to water loss
C. low blood pressure
C. Hunger due to inability to use sugar,
D. headaches
and loss of fat and protein
D. Extreme tiredness and paleness 23. All of the following is true of the Islets of
Langerhans EXCEPT
17. Which pancreatic cells secrete glucagon? A. they are centered around blood ves-
A. alpha sels in the pancreas
B. beta B. they include beta cells
C. delta C. they include alpha cells
D. f cells D. they include acinar cells

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1.18 Pancreas 526

24. What is the abnormal diminished content 30. The thyroxine hormone regulates:
of glucose in the blood called? A. The secretion of the adrenal cortex
A. Hyperglycemia B. The use of sugar by the cells
B. Hypothyroidism (metabolism)
C. Hyposecretion C. The level of calcium in the bloodstream
D. Hypoglycemia D. The reaction of the body to stress

NARAYAN CHANGDER
25. Small muscular pouch responsible for stor- 31. The fingerlike projections of the small in-
ing bile testine increase the surface area and are
A. pancreas known as

B. mechanical A. rugae

C. amylase B. villi

D. gallbladder C. microvilli
D. haustra
26. This is an extension of the peritoneum that
forms a double fold of tissue between the 32. In a patient with acute pancreatitis collec-
stomach and liver. tion of blood around umbilicus is known as
A. Mesentary A. Grey Turner sign
B. Vermiform appendix B. Cullens sign
C. Greater Omentum C. Kehr’s sign
D. Lesser Omentum D. Murphy’s sign

27. Peristalsis occurs in which of the following 33. Pancreatic amylase is also known as
locations A. steapsin
A. mouth, stomach B. amylopsin
B. large intestine, small intestine C. chymotrypsin
C. esophagus, small intestine D. carboxypeptidase
D. rectum, liver
34. causes the gallbladder to release bile
28. the ribs that cover the spleen are A. cholecystokinin
A. from 7 to 11 B. insulin
B. from 9 to 11 C. secretin
C. none D. glucagon
D. only 12
35. This moves bile from the common Hepatic
29. Type of digestion in the stomach: duct to the common bile duct.
A. Mechanical A. Common Hepatic Duct
B. Chemical B. Cystic Duct
C. Both C. Common Bile Duct
D. none of above D. Gall Bladder

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1.18 Pancreas 527

36. What is unique about the pancreas com- C. proteases

pared to the other glands?
D. nucleases

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A. It has two functions within the en-
docrine and nervous syetm 42. All of the following are functions of sodium
B. It produces the most amount of hor- bicarbonate except
mones in the endocrine system A. provides a favorable environment in
C. It’s the largest gland in the endocrine the small intestine for enzymes involved
system in digestion
D. It has two functions within the en- B. neutralizes the acidic chyme
docrine and exocrine system C. prevents the action of pepsin
37. These are salivary glands located inferior D. prevents the action fo chymotrypsin
to the tongue.
A. Parotid ducts 43. Which is NOT a function of the Digestive
System?
B. Parotid glands
A. To rid the body of solid waste
C. Submandibular glands
B. Absorb nutrients for energy & growth
D. Sublingual glands
C. Break down nutrients from food
38. what are the pancreatic juices called
D. Pump blood around the body
A. juicy
B. liquids 44. Arteria Pancreatica magna is a branch of
C. enzymes A. superior pancreatico duodenal artery
D. acid B. Inferior Pancreatico duodenal artery
39. the parts of the pancreas are C. Hepatic artery
A. head and tail D. Splenic artery
B. bottom, body, neck
45. This releases bile (emulsifies/breaks
C. head, neck, body, tail down lipids into smaller droplets) into the
D. visceral face, diaphragmatic face duodenum.

40. This transports bile to the duodenum from A. Spleen

the gall bladder. B. Liver
A. Common Hepatic Duct C. Pancreas
B. Cystic Duct D. Gall Bladder
C. Common Bile Duct
46. What comes first?
D. Gall Bladder
A. Mouth
41. Which of the following breaks down nu-
cleic acids into nucleotides? B. stomach
A. steapsin C. large intestine
B. trypsin D. none

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1.18 Pancreas 528

47. These secrete saliva (watery secretion C. Hypoglycemia

that contains mucus (a protein lubricant)
D. none of above
and salivary amylase (starch-digesting en-
zyme) into the oral cavity). They exist in
53. Albumin is the most important protein in
pairs.
blood serum. It is produced by
A. Small Intestines
A. Heart
B. Large Intestines
B. Lungs

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Pancreas
C. Liver
D. Salivary Glands
D. Endocrine glands
48. is a pear shaped, membranous sac that
stores and concentrates bile 54. During ERCP procedure the tube to be in-
A. Kidneys serted the following distance from pylorus
to reach the Major pancreatic duct opens
B. Lungs
A. 6-8 mm
C. Gallbladder
B. 6-8 cm
D. Heart
C. 8-10 cm
49. Bile is formed by the
D. 8-10mm
A. liver
B. spleen 55. What are the hormones associated with
C. pancreas the pancreas?

D. gallbladder A. Insulin & Glucagon

B. Islet cells
50. Treatment of type 2 diabetes requires
A. Diet, exercise and/or treatment C. Secretin

B. Insulin injections D. none of above

C. Rest in bed 56. A person can survive without pancreas.

D. none of above A. True
51. Enzymes and bile are carried by the pan- B. False
creatic duct and bile duct into the
C. Maybe
A. duodenum
D. none of above
B. ileum
C. jejunum 57. causes the pancreas to release pancre-
atic juice high in digestive enzymes
D. large intestine
A. cholecystokinin
52. Choose suitable candidate for an artificial
pancreas? B. insulin
A. Type II Diabetes C. secretin
B. Type I Diabetes D. glucagon

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1.18 Pancreas 529

58. What disease involves the pancreas? 63. Which component of the pancreas that pro-
duces hormone to regulate blood sugar
A. Alzheimers

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. Acinar Cells
B. Diabetes
B. Beta Cells
C. Heart disease
C. Delta Cells
D. Lung cancer
D. Islet of Langerhans
59. All of the following is true of glucagon, EX-
64. What do f cells make?
CEPT
A. nothing. you made them up
A. it signals the liver to release glycogen
as glucose B. cholecystokinin
B. it signals the liver to store glucose as C. pancreatic polypeptide
glycogen D. Insulin-like factor (ILF)
C. it is released when blood sugar levels 65. How are the disorders diagnosed?
are low
A. Genetic or stress induced
D. it is secreted by alpha cells
B. by a doctor
60. Choose all basic components for an artifi- C. a biopsy
cial pancreas
D. none of above
A. Glucose monitor, insulin reservoir, in-
sulin pump 66. Which pancreatic cells secrete somato-
statin?
B. Glucose monitor, insulin pump, algo-
rithm for insulin delivery A. alpha

C. Insulin reservoir, insulin pump, algo- B. beta

rithm for insulin delivery C. delta
D. none of above D. f cells

61. are the chief functional cells of the liver 67. what hormones does the pancreas release
A. Hepatocytes A. insulin

B. Nephrons B. glucagon
C. gastrin
C. Neurons
D. all of the above
D. All of the above
68. These are salivary glands located just me-
62. Where is the liver located in the human dial to the mandible on each side of the
body? face.
A. Beside pancreas A. Parotid ducts
B. Beside heart B. Parotid glands
C. Beside kidney C. Submandibular glands
D. Above the abdominal cavity D. Sublingual glands

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1.18 Pancreas 530

69. alpha cells secrete 75. the function of the spleen is

A. glucagon A. removes dead or worn-out blood cells
B. glycogen B. produces insulin
C. inslulin C. produces gastric juice
D. lipase D. produce bilis

70. the main pancreatic duct empties into 76. with one of the following organs. The vis-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. major duodenal papilla ceral face of the spleen is not related

B. papila duodenal door or A. stomach

C. duodenal blister B. tail of the pancreas

D. none C. right colic flexure

D. left kidney
71. Trypsinogen is converted into its active
form, trypsin, by 77. where is the pancreas
A. cholecystokinin A. behind your knee
B. secretin B. behind your stomach
C. enterokinase C. behind your liver
D. lipase D. behind your intestines

72. the artery that supplies the spleen is 78. Artificial Pancreas is a device used
A. pancreatoduodenal superior A. to detect glucose level in blood
B. right gastro-omental B. to deliver amount of insulin needed by
C. splenic the body

D. gastroduodenal C. to convert glucose to energy needed

by the body
73. Which of the following statements is true D. to convert stored glycogen to glucose
about the human liver?
A. Liver is triangular in shape 79. This moves bile from the liver to the cystic
duct.
B. Liver is the only visceral organ that can
regenerate A. Common Hepatic Duct

C. Liver is the largest and the internal or- B. Cystic Duct

gan of the human body C. Common Bile Duct
D. All of the above. D. Gall Bladder

74. Pancreatic juice contains all of the follow- 80. One of the main functions of the small in-
ing EXCEPT testine is
A. pepsin A. absorption of nutrients
B. trypsin B. absorption of water
C. chymotrypsin C. vitamin conversion
D. steapsin D. waste secretion

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1.18 Pancreas 531

81. Acinar cells empty into tubules that filter 86. This organ Moves food toward the esoph-
into the which then brings the pancre- agus
atic juice to the duodenum.

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. stomach
A. stomach B. tongue
B. sinusoids C. esophagus
C. canaliculi D. mouth
D. pancreatic duct
87. The following statements are all true, ex-
82. What is the pancreas for? cept
A. It produces juices that help break A. The liver is the largest, solid organ in
down food and hormones that help control the body
blood sugar levels. B. Blood supply to the liver is only
B. They move oxygen into the blood and through the hepatic artery
remove carbon dioxide in a process called C. Portal tracts in the liver are composed
gas exchange. by a hepatic arteriole, a portal venule and
C. It receives indigestible substances a bile ductule
from the small intestine, absorbs water, D. Blood leaves the liver through the hep-
and leaves waste products called feces. atic vein
D. none of above
88. a hormone created in our pancreas that
83. The digestive system absorbs nutrients helps in balancing the sugar level in our
in the small intestine with the and body is
then the nutrients is carried throughout A. Lipase
the body in the system.
B. Amylase
A. alveoli, respiratory
C. Insulin
B. villi, circulatory
D. none of above
C. alveoli, circulatory
89. causes the pancreatic cells to release
D. duodenum, respiratory
pancreatic juice high in sodium bicarbonate
84. Choose one which not the function of In- into the small intestine.
sulin A. cholecystokinin
A. Convert glycogen to glucose B. insulin
B. Oxidise glucose for energy C. secretin
C. Convert glucose to glycogen for stor- D. glucagon
age
90. what would happen if you damage your
D. Process glucose uptake from body pancreas
85. How many lobes are present in the liver? A. chronic pancreatitis
A. 1 B. loss of function
B. 2 C. digestion problems
C. 3 D. scar tissue may occur
D. 4 E. all of the above

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1.18 Pancreas 532

91. What does the pancreas do? B. it signals the liver to store glucose as
A. Secretes glucagon and insulin glycogen

B. Secretes bile into the stomach C. it is a hormone

C. Secretes stomach acid D. it is secreted by alpha cells

D. Secretes insulin into the stomach 97. What is an example of hyperfunction in the
pancreas?
92. All of the following is true of enterokinase

NARAYAN CHANGDER
except A. Pheochromocytoma

A. it is a hormone B. Diabetes mellitus

B. it is an enzyme C. Cushing syndrome
C. it is secreted by the small intestine D. Hypersecretion
D. it turns trypsinogen into trypsin 98. The most common cells of the pancreas are
93. what three things does the digestive sys-
tem do? A. acinar cells
A. burns calories, eliminate waste, and B. hepatic cells
helps you breath. C. kupffer cells
B. digest food, eat food, breaks up your D. pancreatic ducts
food.
C. digest food, absorb nutrients, and 99. The structure related posterior to the head
eliminate waste. of Pancreas is

D. makes nutrients, gets food into small A. hepatic artery

particles, helps swallow food. B. cystic artery
94. Which of the following would be consid- C. Portal vein
ered a main role of the digestive system? D. Bile duct
A. Break down food molecules
100. Which of the following is the function of
B. absorb nutrients the human liver?
C. Get rid of waste A. Production of bile
D. all of these B. Metabolization of fats
95. The pancreas is a gland C. Metabolization of carbohydrates
A. endocrine D. All of the above.
B. exocrine 101. What is the approximate weight of the
C. mixed liver in a healthy adult?
D. none of above A. 1.4kg
B. 2.3kg
96. All of the following is true of insulin, EX-
CEPT C. 0.9kg
A. it is secreted by beta cells D. 1.8kg

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1.18 Pancreas 533

102. This is a complex organ with many func- 107. what other system does the digestive
tions. It processes digestive material from system work with
the vessels returning blood from the in-

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A. nervous system
testines and has a role in either moving
nutrients into the bloodstream and stor- B. circulatory system
ing them in liver tissue. It also stores C. muscular system
fat soluble vitamins (A, D, E, K), produces D. skeletal system
blood plasma proteins (albumin), detoxi-
fies harmful material, and produces bile. 108. Pancreatic lipase is known as
A. Spleen A. steapsin
B. Liver B. amylopsin
C. Pancreas C. chymotrypsin
D. Gall Bladder D. trypisin
103. Which of the following is not a hormone 109. What is a risk factor for pancreas disease
A. cholecystokinin A. alcoholism
B. secretin B. older age
C. glucagon C. atkins diet
D. enterokinase D. all of the above
104. The structure formed behind the Neck of
110. Pancreatic juice contains all of the follow-
the Pancreas is
ing except..
A. common Bile duct
A. sodium bicarbonate
B. IVC
B. enzymes
C. Portal vein
C. calcium carbonate
D. common hepatic duct
D. nucleases
105. These are tubes that secrete saliva into
the oral cavity from the sublingual gland. 111. How is the hepatopancreatic ampulla of
the junction formed?
A. Parotid ducts
A. common bile duct with the main pan-
B. Submandibular gland creatic duct
C. Submandibular ducts
B. common liver with cystic
D. Sublingual ducts
C. right liver with left liver
106. This is a section of peritoneum that orig- D. accessory pancreatic with main pan-
inates between the stomach and trans- creatic
verse colon and drapes over the intestines
as a fatty apron. 112. Who is affected by diabetes?
A. Mesentary A. Men and women
B. Vermiform appendix B. Anyone (even animals)
C. Greater Omentum C. Men
D. Lesser Omentum D. Women

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1.18 Pancreas 534

113. What are some treatment options? 119. Which one here is a hormone?
A. Diet and Exercise A. Glycogen
B. Radiation B. Glycerol
C. Paresthesia C. Glucagon
D. Adjuvant Radio Therapy D. Glucose

114. Produces mucus and enzymes that chemi- 120. The gallbladder:

NARAYAN CHANGDER
cally break down food A. Helps improve immune system
A. Esophagus B. Helps in the process of digestion
B. liver C. Makes hormones
C. Pancreas D. none of above
D. salivary glands
121. Insulin and glucagon are produced by
115. what are the enzymes that are secreted A. the liver
from the pancreas?
B. the pancreas
A. amylase, lipase, protease
C. the kidneys
B. amylase, carbohydrase, protease
D. none of above
C. protease, isomerase, carbohydrase
D. none of above 122. Principal fat digesting enzyme is in pan-
creatic juice.
116. What is the function of the pancreas? A. True
A. To maintain healthy blood sugar levels B. False
B. To excrete waste C. Maybe
C. To pump blood to your heart D. none of above
D. To filter waste
123. These are tubes that secrete saliva into
117. What is a sign/symptom of pancreas dis- the oral cavity on each side of the oral cav-
ease? ity inferior to the tongue.
A. Left shoulder pain A. Parotid ducts
B. Epigastric pain B. Submandibular gland
C. Increased pain with laying supine C. Submandibular ducts
D. all of the above D. Sublingual ducts

118. Name of the hormones produced by the 124. The following structure lies on the poste-
hypothalamus? rior surface of the body of pancreas
A. Aldosterone and cortisol A. Splenic artery
B. Thyroxine and calcitonin B. Splenic vein
C. Parathyroid and thymosin C. Portal vein
D. Oxytocin and ADH D. Bile duct

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1.18 Pancreas 535

125. Which cells produce insulin? 131. The following structure lies on uncinate
A. Alpha cells process

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B. Beta cells A. Coeliac trunk

C. Delta cells B. Superior mesenteric artery

D. Both a and b C. Superior mesenteric vein

D. Superior mesenteric artery and vein
126. Which one here reduces the amount of
glucose in the blood? 132. Which of the following hormones is NOT
A. Glucagon secreted by the pancreas?

B. Insulin A. secretin

C. Glycogen B. glucagon

D. ADH C. insulin
D. none of above
127. ....Physically breaks down food through
mastication 133. Where is the pancreas located?
A. stomach A. Right abdomen in front of stomach
B. teeth B. In the stomach
C. tongue C. Upper left abdomen behind the the
D. esophagus stomach
D. Near the liver
128. How can a stool test help diagnose pan-
creatitis? 134. Closes when we swallow to prevent food
A. helps look for gallstones from entering into our lungs

B. test the elevated levels of pancreatic A. Esophagus

C. measuring fat to see how much nutri- B. gall bladder

ents you’re getting C. Epiglottis
D. observe the extent of inflammation D. Tongue

129. Hormone that maintains/reabsorbs the 135. Which pancreatic cells secrete insulin?
water in the body. A. alpha
A. Norepinephrine B. beta
B. Adrenaline C. delta
C. Melatonin D. f cells
D. ADH
136. All of the following are pancreatic pro-
130. the spleen is an organ teases EXCEPT
A. retroperitoneal A. trypsin
B. intraperitoneal B. chymotrypsin
C. subperitoneal C. carboxypeptidase
D. extraperitoneal D. steapsin

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1.18 Pancreas 536

137. Trypsin, Chymotrypsin and Carboxypep- A. Spleen

tidase split
B. Liver
A. proteins into amino acids
C. Pancreas
B. nucleic acids into nucleotides
D. Gall Bladder
C. starch and glycogen into disaccha-
rides 143. Which of the following hormones is NOT
D. lipids into glycerol and monoglyc- secreted by the small intestine?

NARAYAN CHANGDER
erides A. secretin
138. What do we call they yellow-green liquid B. cholecystokinin
found in our gallbladder?
C. insulin
A. Lipase
D. none of above
B. Protase
C. Bile 144. The islets of Langerhans are found in

D. Insulin A. Stomach
B. Alimentary canal
139. Name the two hormones produced by the
thyroid gland. C. Pancreas
A. Epinephrine and norepinephrine D. Liver
B. ADH and oxytocin
145. How long does the pancreas measure?
C. Calcitonin and thyroxine
A. 8-12 inches
D. Growth hormone and cortisol
B. 7-8 inches
140. What are the disorders associated with
C. 6-10 inches
the pancreas?
D. 5-9 inches
A. Pancreatic, Carboxypeptidase, and Li-
pase
146. Which cell type makes up the majority of
B. Scoliosis, Polysaccharide, and Trypsin the Islets of Langerhans?
C. Cystic fibrosis, Diabetes, and Pancre- A. alpha
atitis
B. beta
D. none of above
C. delta
141. The main pancreatic duct is from the
D. F cells
A. ventral pancreas
B. dorsal pancreas 147. Most chemical digestion takes place in
which organ?
C. main pancreas
A. Stomach
D. posterior pancreas
B. Small intestine
142. This secretes digestive enzymes and
C. Rectum
buffers which neutralize the stomach
acids. D. Esophagus

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1.18 Pancreas 537

148. Amylopsin breaks 153. What is the role of the pancreas?

A. proteins into amino acids A. regulates the endocrine system

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B. nucleic acids into nucleotides B. breaking down food and consuming it
C. starch and glycogen into disaccha- into energy for the body’s cell’s
rides C. controls the rate which cells burn fuels
D. lipids into glycerol and monoglyc- from food to make energy
erides D. increases blood pressure and heart
rate under stress
149. Which sentence better describe close-
loop system in artificial pancreas
154. The from the digestive system and
A. Require user acknowledgement prior the from the respiratory system in-
to insulin dosing crease the surface area of the body to in-
B. Does not require user acknowledge- crease absorption and gas exchange.
ment for insulin delivery A. duodenum, trachea
C. Bolus calculation was done by user B. villi, bronchi
D. none of above C. villi, alveoli
150. The wave-like contractions that moves a D. duodenum, alveoli
bolus through the digestive tract is known
as 155. superior border of the body of Pancreas
is related to
A. Chyme
A. splenic vein
B. appendix
C. bile B. splenic artery

D. peristalsis C. bile duct

D. Portal vein
151. Which of the following is NOT part of
the digestive tract? (Hint:Identify the sec- 156. Muscular tube that connects the mouth to
ondary organ.) the stomach
A. Mouth A. Epiglottis
B. Esophagus
B. Peristalsis
C. Small Intestine
C. Stomach
D. Liver
D. Esophagus
152. In embryologic development the pan-
creas rotates around to fuse with the 157. Name of the hormone that breaks down
pancreas glycogen into glucose.

A. anterior, posterior A. Aldosterone

B. ventral, dorsal B. Insulin
C. dorsal, ventral C. Glucagon
D. tail, body D. Cortisol

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 1.19 Biliary 538

158. The are a collection of endocrine cells 159. Name of the hormone that increases the
in the pancreas levels of calcium in the blood:
A. I cells A. Calcitonin
B. Islets of Langerhans B. Calcium
C. Acinar Cells C. Phosphatase
D. Chromaffin Cells D. Parathyroid

NARAYAN CHANGDER
1.19 Biliary
1. An organ of the digestive system that A. zero
makes chemicals to help the body break B. 5%
down fats and rid itself of harmful sub-
stances. C. 25%
A. esophagus D. 50%
B. mouth E. 100%
C. liver 5. What is the first-line therapeutic option
D. stomach of choice for a partial (not circumferential)
distal bile duct injury identified 48 hours
2. For a sthenic patient, where should the CR after surgery?
be directed for a PA stomach?
A. Roux-en-Y hepaticojejunostomy
A. T12
B. Choledochoduodenostomy
B. L1
C. Primary repair of the injury over a T
C. L3 tube
D. Iliac crests D. Resection and end-to-end bile duct
anastomosis
3. The open surgery procedure done
on the hepatobiliary system (exam- E. Endoscopic placement of a covered
ple:cholecystectomy = remove gallblad- bile duct stent across the injury
der), & then the contrast directly inject to
6. The capsule that covers the liver is called
the biliary duct. The images is taken using
fluoroscopy. This procedure is called A. Weinkeback capsule
A. ERCP B. Broca’s capsule
B. OTC C. Glisson’s capsule
C. T-tube cholangiography D. Hepatic capsule
D. PTC 7. Bile helps in the digestion of
4. Incidence of recurrent pancreatitis or other A. Carbohydrates
gallstone-related complications 6 week pe- B. Protein
riod following episode of gallstone pancre-
atitis who do not undergo cholecystectomy C. Fats
is: D. Nucleic acid

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1.19 Biliary 539

8. o F with type 1 DM, MI 3.5 weeks ago, mm Hg. Which of the following is the ap-
presents with RUQ pain, n/v, for 5 days. propriate imaging test to order for this pa-
HR 90, BP 170/100, temp 38C, bili 1.0, tient?

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lipase 48, WBC 18. US with stones, GBW
A. Abdominal ultrasound
6mm, CBD 6mm. After 24h abs, pain not
improved. What is next best step? B. Abdominal computed tomography (CT)
A. ERCP C. Magnetic resonance imaging/magnetic
resonance cholangiopancreatography
B. lap cholecystectomy
(MRI/MRCP)
C. open cholecystectomy
D. Hepatobiliary iminodiacetic acid
D. perc cholecystostomy tube (HIDA) scan
E. perc transhepatic biliary tube
12. Which of the following ultrasound findings
9. When is oral water soluble contrast media best describe cholesterolosis of the gall-
used? bladder?
A. For patients with esophageal reflux A. A single 13-mm hyperechoic, non-
B. For a patient that has a bezor shadowing, polyp

C. Patients with possible perforated B. A 10-mm mural mass with solid and
bowel cystic features

D. Patients with a possible peptic ulcer C. Hypoechoic, sessile, non-shadowing

polyp
10. What ligament attaches the liver to the an- D. Multiple, hyperechoic, peduncu-
terior abdominal wall? lated, non-shadowing, non-mobile 4-mm
A. Coronary Ligament masses
B. Triangular Ligament E. Multiple, hyperechoic, non-mobile 5-
C. Ligamentum Teres mm masses with posterior shadowing

D. Falciform Ligament 13. Splenic and Superior Mesenteric veins

drain into?
11. A 75-year-old man presents to the emer-
gency department when his primary care A. Hepatic Portal vein
physician ordered laboratory testing af- B. Inferior Mesenteric vein
ter he was noted to have scleral icterus
and jaundice. The patient’s total bilirubin C. Hepatic veins
level is 5.2 mg/dL and his alkaline phos- D. Inferior Vena Cava
phatase level is 327 U/L. He has had low-
grade abdominal pain over the past few 14. Considering the bile pathway, liver seg-
days but attributed it to his chronic irri- ments 2/3 are drained by?
table bowel syndrome. He has had no
prior surgeries and reports he is otherwise A. Right Posterior (lateral) sectoral duct
healthy. He takes a statin for high choles- B. Left Hepatic duct
terol. His vital signs on presentation are
C. Common Hepatic duct
temperature 101.5oF, heart rate 98 beats
per minute, and blood pressure 115/86 D. Right Anterior (medial) sectoral duct

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1.19 Biliary 540

15. A 65-year-old man with a history of extended cholecystectomy is indicated for

cholecystitis previously managed by per- which following finding?
cutaneous cholecystostomy (3 years ago), A. tumor confined to mucosa
coronary artery disease status post drug-
eluting stent placement (most recently 2 B. celiac lymphadenopathy or staging CT
years ago), chronic obstructive pulmonary C. hepatic metastases
disease, and dyslipidemia presents with a D. tumor invading serosa
high-grade small bowel obstruction. Non-
operative management by nasogastric de- E. peritoneal studding

NARAYAN CHANGDER
compression is unsuccessful, and the pa-
19. You see bile staining during lap whole sus-
tient is taken to the operating room for ex-
picious for bile leak, what is next most ap-
ploration. A firm, stonelike, mobile intralu-
propriate step?
minal mass is palpated in the distal ileum,
10 cm proximal to the ileocecal valve. The A. further dissection to determine loca-
bowel appears mildly dilated and well per- tion of bile leak
fused. What is the correct next maneu- B. convert to open
ver?
C. continue lap whole but fundus down
A. Small bowel resection and stapled approach
side-to-side functional end-to-end anasto-
D. perform IOC
mosis with 5-cm margin
B. Enterotomy with removal of the stone 20. o F presents with RUQ pain x12hours.
and transverse two-layered closure afebrile, anicteric. WBC 7, AST/ALT
28/32, Alphas 331. bili 3.2. US showed
C. Small bowel resection with handsewn CBD normal, no pericholecystis fluid. mur-
anastomosis and cholecystectomy phy’s negative. Which of the following
D. Diverting loop ileostomy studies should be used to confirm cbd
stone preoperatively?
16. The sympathetic nerve supply to the liver
is by A. HIDA

A. Vagus nerve B. CT scan

C. MRCP
B. Splanchnic nerve
D. ERCP
C. Mesenteric nerve
E. EUS
D. Hepatic plexus
21. The sphincter taht relaxes to allow bile to
17. How much percentage of the total blood
enter the duodenum is called
supply of the body flows into the liver at
a given point of time A. Sphincter of bile duct
A. 12% B. Duodenal sphincter
B. 13% C. Sphincter of Oddi
C. 14% D. Sphincter of Vater
D. 15% 22. of which vitamin is stored in the liver

18. Incidental gallbladder adenocarcinoma A. Vitamin A

found after cholecystectomy. completion B. Vitamin B

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1.19 Biliary 541

C. Vitamin C D. None of the answers are correct

D. Vitamin D
27. After the cholecystectomy, a special tube

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23. The following statements regarding gall- is inserted to the common bile duct and the
bladder cancer are TRUE except? surgery is close and the patient is bring
A. half of patients undergoing lym- to the ward. After 24 hour post-surgery,
phadenectomy during radical resection the contrast is injected through the open-
have nodal mets ing of T-tube and the images taken us-
ing fluoroscopy. This procedure is done
B. evaluation of <3 LN associated with to check for any residual calculi after the
worse survival surgery.This procedure is known as
C. R0 resection is key determinant of out-
A. ERCP
come
D. adjuvant radiation and chemotherapy B. OTC
reduces loco regional recurrences and im- C. T-tube cholangiography
proves survival
D. PTC
E. simple cholecystectomy is adequate
treatment for T1a tumors 28. Treatment for strasberg type A biliary in-
jury?
24. A patient has a confirmed diagnosis of
sphincter of Oddi dysfunction and has A. primary repair with T tube
failed medical management. Each of the
B. REY hepaticoj
following is an appropriate intervention
EXCEPT: C. ERCP stent and sphincterotomy
A. Transduodenal sphincteroplasty D. primary repair with serosal patch
B. Endoscopic sphincterotomy
29. A fluid in the mouth that helps digest food.
C. Biliary-enteric drainage
D. Endoscopic stent placement A. pepsin

E. Laparoscopic cholecystectomy B. pepsi

25. Optimal treatment for metastatic gallblad- C. saliva

der carcinoma is D. salty
A. gemcitabine monotherapy
30. What should be done if the esophagus
B. Yttrium-90 radioembolization is not filled with barium during a lateral
C. capecitabine and infusional 5- esophagus overhead?
flurouracil
A. Have the patient drink during exposure
D. gemcitabine and cisplatin
B. Shorten the exposure time
26. A patient would be rotated 35-40 degrees
C. Have the patient perform the Valsalva
for which of the following projections?
maneuver during exposure
A. Lateral esophagus
D. Nothing; the esophagus is not filled
B. RAO esophagus with barium during lateral esophagus
C. PA esophagus overhead

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1.19 Biliary 542

31. Another word for “swallowing” is D. MRCP

A. mastication E. ERCP
B. deglutition
35. The structure that transports the bolus
C. secretion from the pharynx to the stomach it called
D. propulsion
A. larynx
32. type 1 choledochal cysts should be treated

NARAYAN CHANGDER
with: B. trachea
A. diverticulectomy C. esophagus
B. complete excision, cholecystectomy, D. pyloric sphincter
REY hepaticoj
36. Which of the following projections would
C. transduodenal excision or sphinctero- best demonstrate the upper esophagus
plasty near T1?
D. whipple A. Soft tissue lateral
33. If a patient is contraindication to perform B. LAO
the ERCP, but the hepatobiliary contrast C. Swimmer’s lateral
images is required, the alternative inva-
sive procedure called can be done. Dif- D. AP with 25-30 degree cephalad angle
ferent from ERCP, the contrast media in-
37. Performing diagnostic or therapeutic imag-
jected using a needle directly through the
ing of hepatobiliary system using con-
skin → liver → biliary ducts, under the
trast. The contrast media administered
guidance of ultrasound or fluoroscopy.
through the catheter that enter esophagus
A. ERCP → stomach → duodenum. This procedure
B. OTC called
C. T-Tube cholangiography A. ERCP
D. PTC B. OTC
C. T-tube cholangiography
34. oM presents with a two-year history of
episodic RUQ abdominal pain. pain oc- D. PTC
curs whenever he attempts to eat pizza or
other fatty foods. previously undergone 38. This organ stores and churns food
abdominal sonography and was found to A. Pancreas
have no gallstones, pericholecystic fluid,
B. Stomach
or gallbladder wall thickening. He also has
undergoing EGD, which was unremarkable. C. Gallbladder
His symptoms persist, and he sought you D. Liver
out as a second opinion. Your next best
step in evaluating his pain further is: 39. A 63-year-old woman has severe jaundice
A. repeat US and back pain. She has been losing weight
for three months. Workup reveals obstruc-
B. CT tive jaundice secondary to a distal common
C. HIDA bile duct tumor. Among the following, the

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1.19 Biliary 543

preoperative laboratory test most likely B. 3rd week

to be abnormal is:
C. 4th week

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A. prothrombin time (PT)
D. 5th week
B. serum potassium
C. serum bicarbonate 44. The bile cholesterol saturation index is de-
termined by
D. partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
A. the ratios of hepatic biliary concentra-
E. carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) tions of calcium, bile salts, and lecithin
40. The lobes of the liver are drained by? B. the amount of glycoprotein secreted
A. Central veins into hepatic portal vein by the gallbladder as a function of choles-
terol
B. Central veins into Inferior vena cava
C. the relative concentrations of choles-
C. Central veins into hepatic veins
terol, lecithin, and bile salts
D. Central veins into splenic vein
D. the rate of bile salt absorption by the
41. A 52-year-old woman with a history of a gallbladder
distal gastrectomy and Roux-en-Y gastro- E. the relative concentrations of choles-
jejunostomy presents with biliary sphinc- terol, bilirubin, and bile acids
ter of Oddi dysfunction. You have elected
to perform a transduodenal sphinctero- 45. The closes when food moves from the
plasty. Which of the following is typically mouth and down the esophagus prevent-
a component of this procedure? ing food from entering the trachea.
A. Transverse duodenotomy at the level A. Mouth
of the duodenal bulb
B. Stomach
B. Division of the pancreatic sphincter
C. Bronchioles
C. Suturing the wall of the common bile
duct to the duodenal mucosa D. Epiglottis
D. Roux-en-Y duodenojejunostomy for 46. When performing a choledochotomy dur-
duodenal closure ing a laparoscopic or open bile duct explo-
E. Sequential dilation of the sphincter ration, how should the incision be made?
with Bakes dilators
A. Transversely, above the insertion of
42. Which area is a common area for both food the cystic duct
and air? B. Transversely, below the insertion of
A. pharynx the cystic duct
B. larynx C. Longitudinally, above the insertion of
the cystic duct
C. soft palate
D. epiglottis D. Longitudinally, below the insertion of
the cystic duct
43. Human liver development begins during E. Transversely if above the insertion of
weeks of gestation the cystic duct and longitudinally if below
A. 2nd week the insertion of the cystic duct

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1.19 Biliary 544

47. Which of the following structures allows D. Previous cholecystectomy, recent

your stomach to expand? surgery, sepsis, and parenteral nutrition
A. Parietal Cells E. Critical illness, known cholelithiasis,
B. pyloric sphincter parenteral nutrition, and trauma

C. rugae 52. Propulsion of food through the GI tract is

called
D. teniae coli
A. Peristalsis
48. Another word for “chewing” is

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Bolus
A. mastication
C. Metabolism
B. deglutition D. Defecation
C. digestion
53. Where should the CR be centered for a
D. secretion esophagus overhead image?
49. Which of the following pathology causes A. The sternal angle
an enlarged recess in the distal esopha- B. T3 or T4
gus?
C. T5 or T6
A. Schatzki ring
D. T7
B. Ulcer
54. The veins from the stomach, intestine, pan-
C. Achalasia crease ans spleen drain into
D. Zenker diverticulum A. Superior portal vein
50. What kV range is best used for an B. Hepatic vein
UGI using barium sulfate (single contrast C. Inferior portal vein
study)?
D. Inferior vena cava
A. 80 to 90 kV
55. Which of the following is TRUE about bile
B. 90 to 100 kV
leaks from ducts of Luschka?
C. 100 to 125 kV A. they are the second most common
D. 125 to 140 kV cause of post cholecystectomy leak
51. A 64-year-old male is TPN-dependent 2- B. they are the sole drainage from asso-
weeks status post bowel resection for per- ciated liver parenchyma
forated duodenal ulcer. He develops right C. they are most commonly seen after
upper quadrant pain, and abdominal ultra- cholecystectomy for acute inflammation
sound suggests acute acalculous cholecys- D. enteric drainage is usually required for
titis. Which are correct risk factors for the treatment
development of acalculous cholecystitis?
56. What end of the stomach does food en-
A. Critical illness, parenteral nutrition,
ter?
sustained narcotic therapy, and trauma
A. Phylorus
B. Parenteral nutrition, history of
cholelithiasis, burns, and trauma B. Cardioesophageal
C. Critical illness, history of biliary colic, C. Fundus
sepsis, and sustained narcotic therapy D. none of above

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1.19 Biliary 545

57. Liver segmental anatomy is named after B. EUS

which physician C. CA19-9 and CA-125

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A. Giulio Arantius D. ERCP
B. J Cantile E. lap cholecystectomy
C. Claude Couinaud
62. How many segments are present in the
D. Thomas Starzl liver
58. Which of the following is NOT a salivary A. 6
gland? B. 7
A. Parrot C. 8
B. Parotid D. 9
C. Submandibular 63. What is the arterial supply to the pan-
D. Sublingual creas?
A. Pancreaticoduodenal, Greater Pancre-
59. Following uneventful laparoscopic chole-
atic & Dorsal Pancreatic arteries
cystectomy, the final pathology shows a
T1a adenocarcinoma in the wall of the gall- B. Gastroduodenal, Right gastro-omental
bladder opposite to the gallbladder fossa & Common Hepatic arteries
wall. Definitive surgical treatment in- C. Left gastric, Inferior pancreatico-
cludes duodenal & Greater Pancreatic arteries
A. resection of a 2 cm rim of liver around D. Dorsal Pancreatic, Gastroduodenal &
the gallbladder fossa and a portal lym- Inferior Mesenteric arteries
phadenectomy
64. The lymphatic drainage of the liver is
B. hepatectomy including segments 4b
and 5 and portal lymphadenectomy A. Celiac nodes
B. Biliary nodes
C. portal lymphadenectomy alone
C. Axillary nodes
D. no additional therapy
D. Diaphragmatic nodes
E. radiation therapy to the gallbladder
fossa and portal triad 65. A hypersthenic patient will have a stomach
that is:
60. What separates the esophagus from the
stomach? A. High and vertical

A. villi B. Low and vertical

B. pyloric sphincter C. High and transverse

D. Low and transverse
C. rugae
D. cardiac sphincter 66. The primary function of gallbladder is
A. produce bile
61. oF, asymptomatic, US showed 3mm polyp
in gallbladder. What should you recom- B. store bile
mend? C. metabolize bile
A. follow up US in 6 months D. excrete bile

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1.19 Biliary 546

67. Prophylactic cholecystectomy should be A. Hiatal hernia

considered in all of the following scenarios B. Gastric carcinoma
EXCEPT:
C. Gastritis
A. gallstone 3.5cm
D. Schatzki ring
B. hemolytic anemias
C. heart transplant candidate 73. A muscular tube that helps move food from
the mouth to the stomach.
D. polyp 0.6cm

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. esophagus
68. Mechanical digestions occurs as B. trachaea
A. Chemicals help break down food C. small intestine
B. Teeth rip food into smaller pieces D. gall bladder
C. Peristalsis moves food through the GI
74. oF with unevenly lap whole at age 30,
tract
now has jaundice and pruritus. ERCP
D. Saliva helps with the break down of shows tight stricture at junction of right
foods and left hepatic duct. Most likely diagno-
sis is?
69. The gallbladder is innervated by
A. primary biliary cirrhosis
A. Hepatic plexus
B. cholangiocarcinoma
B. Pancreatic plexus
C. ischemic stricture of common hepatic
C. Biliary plexus duct
D. Duodenal plexus D. iatrogenic stricture of common hepatic
70. In terms of surface anatomy, where would duct
you find the gallbladder? E. sclerosing cholangitis
A. Subcostal plane-Midclavicular line 75. A 44-year-old woman who has previously
B. Right Hypochondrium undergone cholecystectomy presents with
intermittent right upper quadrant pain that
C. Epigastric region
seems biliary in origin. Her liver function
D. Transpyloric plane-Midclavicular line tests have been abnormal during episodes
of pain, and her bile duct is dilated to 1.5
71. Is an indication for ERCP preop EXCEPT:
cm on magnetic resonance cholangiopan-
A. US with CBD stone visualized creatography. Which of the following is
B. bilirubin 7 most appropriate?
C. cholangitis A. Empiric sphincterotomy
D. gallstone pancreatitis B. Biliary manometry
C. Transduodenal sphincteroplasty
72. Which of the following pathology causes
an irregular filling defect within the stom- D. Medical therapy
ach? E. Choledochoduodenostomy

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 1.20 Nervous System 547

1.20 Nervous System

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1. The structure of the eye responsible for 6. The nerve cell that carries impulses from a
color vision: sense receptor to the brain or spinal cord
is a
A. cones
A. Motor Neuron
B. cornea
B. Sensory Neuron
C. rods
C. Relay Neuron
D. ganglion cells
D. none of above
2. The peripheral nervous system (PNS) con-
7. What sense organ is responsible for our
sists of all nerve tissue located
sense of touch?
A. in the brain and spinal cord
A. Ears
B. in the brain only
B. Face
C. in the spinal cord only C. Nose
D. outside of the brain and spinal cord D. Skin

3. Select the two parts of the brain that are 8. The three sections of the brain we talked
not part of the cerebrum about are the Old Brain, Limbic System and
A. cerebellum the

B. brain stem A. Hippocampus

B. Cerebellum
C. sulcus
C. Spinal Cord
D. corpus callosum
D. cerebral cortex
4. A loss of hearing could be associated with
which cranial nerve? 9. Organisms can be separated by their
most basic characteristics into the broad-
A. Olfactory est group known as
B. Trigeminal A. Orders
C. Vestibulocochlear B. Phyla
D. Accessory C. Domains
D. Kingdoms
5. What would you expect to happen to the
deer population on the opening day of 10. The part of the nerve cell that receives a
hunting season? message.
A. Increase A. Nerve
B. Stay the same B. Brain
C. Decrease C. Dendrite
D. none of above D. Axon

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1.20 Nervous System 548

11. Amy has an itch on her nose and would C. a repolarization

like to scratch it. What part of her ner- D. a graded potential
vous system will control the movement of
her arm to scratch her nose? 16. Actions which are under your control
A. Somatic A. involuntary
B. Sympathetic B. voluntary
C. Parasympathetic C. brain

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Autonomic D. vertebrae

12. A chemical substance that transmits nerve 17. How many Types of Neurons
impulses across a synapse A. Favie
A. Neurotransmitter B. Three
B. Axon C. Tow
C. Synapse D. One
D. Nerve
18. What does the cerebellum control?
13. Which of the following is NOT part of the A. involuntary muscle movement
central nervous system?
B. voluntary muscle movement
A. The brain
C. thoughts, speech, memory
B. The spinal cord
D. none of the above.
C. The brain stem
D. Spinal nerves 19. When you touch something hot, what is
the path of the message?
14. Dr. Vazquez is examining a cell from the A. brain, nerve, spinal cord
nervous system of an animal. He notices
that at one end of the cell body is a long, B. nerve, spinal cord, brain
fibrous strand of tissue. He immediately C. spinal cord, nerve, brain
recognizes this as an axon that is respon- D. brain, spinal cord, nerve
sible for
A. carrying signals away from the cell 20. What are the three layers found in a ma-
body ture soil profile?

B. receiving signals from other cells and A. Sand, silt, and loam
carrying them toward the cell body. B. Gravel, sand, and silt
C. determining the speed at which an ac- C. Topsoil, humus, and parent material
tion potential will travel D. Topsoil, subsoil, and parent material
D. determining whether the cell inhibits
or excites neighboring neurons 21. What do you call the neuroglial cells that
form myelin sheaths around the nerve
15. A slight change in membrane potential that fibers of the CENTRAL NERVOUS SYS-
affects a small part of an axon is TEM?
A. an action potential A. Astrocytes
B. a threshold B. Ependymal cells

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1.20 Nervous System 549

C. Schwann Cells 27. carry messages between sensory neu-

D. Oligodendrocytes rons and motor neurons.

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A. Active Neurons
22. The brain has 3 major sections that send
B. Interneurons
and receive signals to control all the ac-
tivities that keep a person functioning ef- C. Refraction Neurons
ficiently. Which major section controls D. Flower Neurons
breathing and heart beat?
A. cerebellum 28. A Dendrite

B. cerebrum A. carries information towards the body

of the neuron
C. brain stem
B. carries information away from the
D. cortex body of the neuron
23. Branches of a neuron that collect stimuli C. sends impulses to other neurons

A. Myelin sheath D. acts as the cell’s nucleus

B. Dendrites 29. this part of the brain controls basic

C. Cell Body body functions like breathing, swallowing,
heart rate, blood pressure, and conscious-
D. none of above ness
24. are chemicals used to transmit an im- A. cerebrum
pulse across a synapse. B. cerebrum
A. impulse C. brain stem
B. synapse D. brain
C. axon
30. Is the nervous system complicated?
D. Neurotransmitter
A. Yes
25. What are two organs of the nervous sys- B. No
tem?
C. Maybe
A. heart and lungs D. none of above
B. brain and spinal cord
31. How is the Na+/K+ pump important to
C. stomach and kidney neuron function?
D. none of above A. It sets up a negative charge in the cell
= resting potential
26. A bundle of nerves that go to and from the
brain. B. It sets up a positive charge in the cell
= action potential
A. spinal cord
C. It causes the signal to pass down the
B. medulla
neuron = action potential
C. neuron D. It prevents the neuron from receiving
D. vertebrae a signal = repolarization

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1.20 Nervous System 550

32. Specialized structures which carry informa- 38. Which is NOT a function of the nervous sys-
tion between your body and the central tem?
nervous system
A. responding to a stimulus
A. nerves
B. gathering information
B. neuron
C. brain C. maintaining homeostasis
D. vertebrae D. Secreting hormones

NARAYAN CHANGDER
33. OUR NERVOUS SYSTEM CONTROLS EV-
39. Which brain structure controls all involun-
ERYTHING WE DO
tary processes such as breathing, heart-
A. TRUE beat, peristalsis
B. FALSE A. Cerebellum
C. SOMETIMES
B. Cerebrum
D. NOT SURE
C. Medulla
34. What are the three parts of the nervous
system? D. none of above
A. brain, spinal cord, nerves
40. how many Systems make the nervous sys-
B. brain, lungs, spinal cord tem
C. heart, brain, nerves
A. 5
D. brain, nerves, neurons
B. 8
35. What two parts make up the central ner-
vous system? C. 3
A. Brain and spinal cord D. 2
B. Brain and senses
41. Our are the cells in our body that act
C. Senses and spinal cord
like wires and carry signals throughout our
D. Brain and stimuli bodies.
36. A barometer is used for? A. heart
A. Temperature B. lungs
B. Density
C. nerves
C. Air pressure
D. none of above
D. Smog
37. Without the Nervous System, you couldn’t 42. Which structure is made of white matter?
A. The frontal lobe
A. walk
B. The amygdala
B. breathe
C. think C. The corpus callosum
D. all of the above D. The retina

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1.20 Nervous System 551

43. The lobe of the brain where voluntary mus- 48. What are the main two parts of the central
cle movement is coordinated is known as nervous system?
the:

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A. Brain and Skull
A. frontal. B. Brain and Spinal Cord
B. occipital. C. Spinal Cord and Nerves
C. parietal. D. Nerve Cells and Nerve Endings
D. temporal. 49. Part of the eye that has color
44. Any message that is sent by the body or A. Pupil
the brain using neurons is called an B. Iris
A. impulse C. Retina
B. reaction D. none of above
C. synapse 50. A simple rapid involuntary program re-
D. stimulus sponse to a stimuli is a
A. Stimuli Response
45. THE RECEIVES, PROCESS INFORMA-
TION AND PRODUCES FAST AND AUTO- B. Reflex
MATIC RESPONSES C. Neural Arc Response
A. BRAIN D. none of above
B. SPINAL CORD 51. Which is true about a neurotransmitter?
C. CEREBRUM A. Receives soundwaves in our ears
D. BRAIN STEM B. Links synapses across neurons
46. Which of the following are the parts of C. Shocks our neurons
neurons? D. Carries chloride across neurons
A. brain, spinal cord, and vertebral col- 52. The job of the nervous system is to col-
umn lect and information and store it in the
B. dendrite, axon, and cell body brain.
C. sensory and motor A. Store
D. cortex, medulla and sheath B. Process
C. remove
47. Ongoing exposure to cortisol in the body
can D. signal

A. increase risk taking behaviour 53. What is the purpose of the myelin sheath
on the axon?
B. help alleviate sleep issues
A. To maintain temperature
C. Improve the functioning of the cardio-
vascular system B. To improve conductivity

D. make your body more susceptible to in- C. To protect the axon

fection and illness. D. To release neurotransmitters

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1.20 Nervous System 552

54. A nerve cell that is the basic working unit C. remove wastes from the body
of the brain and nervous system which pro- D. all of these
cesses and transmits information
A. axon 60. WHEN YOU THINK OF AN ACTION IS

B. neuron A. VOLUNTARY

C. dendrite B. INVOLUNTARY

D. neurotransmitter C. STIMULI

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. RESPONSE
55. Select the three main parts of the brain.
61. The human body is made up of many sys-
A. cerebellum
tems. Which system is involved when
B. spinal cord blood cells are produced?
C. brain stem A. Digestive
D. cerebrum B. Muscular
E. liquid C. Skeletal
56. Which part of the brain helps keep your D. Nervous
balance so you don’t fall flat on your
62. -70 mV is a neuron’s
face?
A. refractory period
A. Cerebellum
B. hyperpolarization
B. Medulla oblongata
C. resting membrane potential
C. Pituitary gland
D. threshold potential
D. Spinal cord
63. The is part of the peripheral nervous
57. Organs of Nervous System:
system and controls our senses.
A. All of the above
A. Systemic
B. Nerve
B. Autonomic
C. Spinal cord
C. Somatic
D. Brain
D. Autonomous
58. The neurotransmitter(s) that are released
64. Which of the following is NOT a sense?
during fight or flight is(are):
A. hearing
A. acetylcholine only
B. nose
B. acetylcholine and norepinephrine
C. smell
C. norepinephrine only
D. touch
D. seratonin
65. A typical brain weighs how much
59. The main function of the nervous system
A. 3 pounds (1.4 kilograms)
A. send messages to and from the brain
and spinal cord to and from the body B. 3 ounces (85 grams)
B. break down food to be used by the C. 3 tons (2.7 metric tons)
body D. 3 kilograms (6.6 pounds)

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1.20 Nervous System 553

66. What are the two major divisions of the 71. What is another word for autonomic?
Nervous System? A. voluntary

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A. Central, Peripheral B. involuntary
B. Lungs, Vertebrae C. central
C. Legs, Arms D. brain
D. None of these 72. Which of the following is not controlled by
the autonomic nervous system?
67. The operation of the sodium-potassium
“pump” moves A. breathing

A. sodium ions out of the cell and potas- B. blood pressure

sium ions into the cell C. picking up a pencil
B. sodium and potassium ions into the D. digestion
cell
73. Ethan has just crashed his mums car, a
C. sodium ions into the cell and potas- possible primary appraisal he might make
sium ions out of the cell could be
D. sodium and potassium ions out of the A. ‘I can hide the car and say it was
cell. stolen’
E. sodium and potassium ions into the mi- B. ‘This is going to cost me a lot of money
tochondria. to fix’
C. ‘I will not be able to deal with this sit-
68. THERE ARE ABOUT ON OUR TONGUE. uation adequetly’
A. 10, 000 D. ‘This is irrelevant to me’
B. 9000
74. Which of these is an important safety rule
C. 7000 to follow when using an electrical device?
D. 5000 A. Wear an apron
B. Keep Work area Dry
69. The space between neurons is called
C. Extinguish all flames
A. Neuron
D. Wear protective gloves
B. Axon
75. Balance
C. Synapse
A. Optic
D. Myolemma
B. Trigeminal
70. All of the following are secondary (acces- C. Vestibulocochlear
sory) digestive organs EXCEPT
D. Vagus
A. Gallbladder
76. The two main types of cells found in the
B. Liver nervous system are
C. Pancreas A. axons and dendrites
D. Stomach B. neurons and neuroglia

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1.20 Nervous System 554

C. Schwann cells and ganglia 82. Which neurotransmitter is released in re-

D. neurons and Nodes of Ranvier sponse to stress and trauma?
A. Acetylcholine
77. What physiological responses are not char-
acteristic of the fight or flight response B. Endorphins

A. increased heart rate C. Serotonin

B. increased digestive rate D. GABA

83. All of the following systems rid the body

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. goosebumps
D. increased respiratory rate of waste EXCEPT the system.
A. Digestive
78. What is the best way for your brain to
B. Ecretory
make new connections?
C. Skeletal
A. Surgery
D. Respiratory
B. Shoving information into your ears
C. Trying hard and learning new things 84. The is the body’s main information cen-
ter where information is received and pro-
D. Sleeping
cessed.
79. The subdivision of peripheral nervous sys- A. Nerves
tem (PNS) that consists of nerves which
B. Spinal Cord
bring impulses to the central nervous sys-
tem (CNS). C. Brain
A. Sensory or Afferent division D. none of above
B. Motor or Efferent division 85. What does the peripheral nervous system
C. Somatic division do?
D. Autonomic division A. Help you learn new facts
B. Help nerve impulses move
80. The function of the nervous system is to
C. Controls balance and coordination
A. Gather, process, and react to the infor- D. Delivers messages from the Central
mation Nervous system to body
B. Help you think 86. The occipital lobe
C. store math facts A. Mainly deals with vision
D. Helps you wonder why the kid next to B. Mainly deals with conscious decisions
you stinks so much. C. Mainly deals with speech
81. Select the parts of the Central nervous sys- D. Mainly deals with proprioception
tem.
87. Motor neurons
A. Brain
A. the animal’s reaction to the stimulus
B. Spinal cord
B. found in the brain and spinal cord and
C. motor nerves allow sensory and motor neurons to com-
D. sensory nerves municate

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1.20 Nervous System 555

C. nerve cells that detect stimuli 93. Henry was on a hike when he saw a tiger
D. nerve cells that carry response infor- snake. He quickly picked up a stick and
tried to hit it. His friend Tom, who also

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

mation to muscles and other organs
saw the snake, quickly ran away to a safer
88. A cell that has chloroplast is capable of per- place on the track.Henry and Tom were
forming which process? demonstrating the:
A. Protein synthesis A. fight-flight-freeze response.
B. respiration B. reflex response.
C. Photosynthesis
C. reticular activating system.
D. digestion
D. sympathetic arousal response
89. The division of the Autonomic Nervous
System that prepares the body for “fight 94. Dendrites are part of a neuron that carries
or flight”. electrical signals the cell body.
A. sympathetic A. to
B. parasympathetic B. away
C. somatic C. in between
D. central
D. none of above
90. Plants and animals are considered renew-
able because they to replace dead 95. Which type of neuron transmits a signal
members of their species. from a sense organ to the central nervous
system?
A. Morph
A. sensory
B. Photosynthesize
C. Reproduce B. relay
D. Irrigate C. motor

91. The time period between the completion of D. efector

the action potential and repolarization
96. The bony structure that protects the brain.
A. Ploarized
A. Back bone
B. Depolarized
B. Teeth
C. Repolarization
D. Refractory Period C. Skull
D. Helmet
92. What does the nervous system do?
A. Pumps blood from your heart to your 97. “Fight or flight” behavior is associated
body with:
B. Carries messages back and forth be- A. Sympathetic
tween your brand and the rest of your
body B. Parasympathetic
C. Breaks up food C. Central
D. Secrete hormones. D. Somatic

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1.20 Nervous System 556

98. Point where axon of one neuron meets C. medulla

dendrite of second neuron:
D. none of above
A. Neurotransmitters
B. Synaptic cleft 104. Subdivision of the PNS that controls in-
voluntary activities, such as regulating car-
C. Synapse diac and smooth muscle glands.
D. none of above A. Autonomic Nervous System

NARAYAN CHANGDER
99. Which tool should be used to measure the B. CNS
stem length of a plant?
C. PNS
A. Thermometer
D. Somatic Nervous System
B. Graduated Cylinder
C. Metric Ruler 105. What does the brain send to the body to
tell it how to react?
D. Balance
A. Signals
100. A substance that has the ability to trans-
B. Nerves
mit messages between axon terminals of
two neurons. C. Organs
A. neurotransmitter D. none of above
B. Potassium ions
106. The is in charge of involuntary mus-
C. Sodium ions cles movement such as breathing, your
D. Calcium ions heart beat and your reflexes.
A. Cerebrum
101. these nerves carry information to the
CNS B. Cerebellum
A. efferent nerves C. Medulla
B. bones D. none of above
C. dendrites
107. A chemical produced by neurons that car-
D. afferent nerves ries messages to other neurons
102. The cerebrum, cerebellum, and brain stem A. myelin sheath
make up what? B. neurotransmitter
A. spinal cord
C. axon
B. brain
D. axon terminal
C. nerves
D. Nervous System 108. Click all that deal with the hypothalamus.
A. Senses body temperature
103. Which part of the brain controls balance
and coordination? B. Hunger and thirst
A. cerebrum C. Emotions
B. cerebellum D. Muscle endurance

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1.20 Nervous System 557

109. Which of the following is a part of the 115. Subdivision of the PNS that controls vol-
nervous system? untary activities such as activation of
skeletal muscles.

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A. lungs
B. the heart A. Autonomic Nervous System

C. the spinal cord B. CNS

D. skin C. PNS
D. Somatic Nervous System
110. What is the pH of a base?
A. 0-7 on a pH scale. 116. If I step on a nail what type of neu-
ron take that signal TO the CENTRAL NER-
B. 7 on a pH scale.
VOUS SYSTEM?
C. 7-14 on a pH scale.
A. interneurons
D. none of above
B. motor
111. Another name for Afferent Nerves C. sensory
A. Motor Nerve D. receptors
B. Sensory Nerve
117. What is NOT part of the peripheral ner-
C. Functional Nerve vous system (PNS)?
D. none of above
A. axons
112. What neuron carries signals to your mus- B. sensory receptors
cles?
C. spinal cord
A. Motor neurons
D. motor neurons
B. Interneurons
C. Sensory neurons 118. Receptors

D. Blood vessels A. react to a specific stimulus by sending

impulses
113. How many parts is the Nervous system B. carry motor impulses from the central
split into? nervous system
A. 1
C. are connections with different nerves
B. 5
D. are directed towards the peripheral
C. 2 nervous system
D. 3
119. The greatest amount of energy (and
114. Part of brain that coordinates muscle biomass) in a healthy ecosystem will be
movements. found in the
A. brain stem A. Tertiary Consumers
B. cerebrum B. Secondary Consumers
C. cerebellum C. Primary Consumers
D. spinal cord D. Producers

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1.20 Nervous System 558

120. These are chemicals that are used for 125. All parts of the nervous system except
communication for the brain and spinal cord
A. Neurotransmitters A. nerves
B. Dendrites B. neuron
C. Synaptic Vesicles C. central nervous system

D. Axon Terminals D. peripheral nervous system

126. The junction at which the end of the axon

NARAYAN CHANGDER
121. The Central Nervous System
of a neuron meets the end of a dendrite or
A. includes the brain & spinal cord and co- the cell body of another neuron
ordinates all movement A. Synapse
B. includes the whole body and coordi- B. Neurotransmitter
nates movement
C. Threshold
C. is responsible for voluntary movement
D. Nerve
D. has more dendrites than the PNS
127. List all that the brain controls. (mark all
122. What type of responses does the sympa- that apply)
thetic nervous system control? A. Thoughts
A. rest & digest B. Speech
B. fight or flight C. Memory
C. netflix & chill D. Muscles Movement
D. stress & digest E. None of the above

123. This is the protective covering over the 128. The place that is in the back of the light
axon of a neuron that helps to increase the where there are light receptor.
speed an impulse (message) is transmitted A. Retina
(sent) B. Pupil
A. synapse C. Iris
B. dendrites D. none of above
C. cell body 129. A “resting” motor neuron is expected to
D. Myelin sheath A. releases lots of acetylcholine.
124. Which of the following is NOT true about B. to have high permeability to sodium
neurons? ions.

A. They have huge appetites. C. to be equally permeable to sodium and

potassium ions.
B. They are the longest cells in the human
D. have a higher concentration of sodium
body.
ions on the inside the cell than on the out-
C. They do the heavy lifting for the ner- side.
vous system.
E. exhibit a resting potential that is more
D. They are replaceable. negative than the “threshold” potential.

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1.20 Nervous System 559

130. Interneurons/Relay neurons B. Cerebellum

A. nerve cells that detect stimuli C. Cerebrum

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B. a signal that causes an animal to react D. Olfactory nerve
in some way
136. this part of the brain contains the info
C. nerve cells that carry response infor- that makes us who we are:intelligence,
mation to muscles and other organs personality, emotion, speech, and ability
D. found in the brain and spinal cord and to feel and and move
allow sensory and motor neurons to com- A. brain stem
municate
B. cerebellum
131. Which nervous system is protected by C. cerebrum
bone? D. spinal cord
A. Peripheral Nervous System
137. Identify the 2 labels that could apply to
B. Outer Nervous System the nervous system response below. You
C. Central Nervous System smash a fly with your hand.
D. none of above A. Motor
B. Sensory
132. Senses recognize which are recog-
nized by the brain and results in a re- C. Autonomic
sponse. D. Somatic
A. Synapses 138. A deer’s heart rate and adrenaline levels
B. Brain messages increase when trying to escape a cheetah.
C. Stimuli (plural of stimulus) This is an example of:

D. Cerebrums A. maintaining homeostasis

B. responding to a stimulus
133. afferent neurons are to sensory neurons
C. gathering information
as efferent neurons are to neurons.
D. secreting hormones
A. motor
B. sensory 139. phagocytize bacterial cells
C. integration A. microglial
D. association B. astrocytes
C. ependymal
134. What is the black part of the eye called?
D. oligodendrocytes
A. Retina
140. The nervous system is made up of 2 com-
B. Nerve
ponentes the central & peripheral nervous
C. Pupil system?
D. Iris A. All of the above
135. Which part of the brain controls volun- B. Maybe
tary actions like talking? C. False
A. Brain stem D. True

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1.20 Nervous System 560

141. The sympathetic and parasympathetic 147. Which part controls and coordinates our
nervous systems are subdivisions of the movements and balance?
A. central nervous system A. Spinal cord
B. peripheral nervous system B. Cerebrum
C. autonomic nervous system C. Cerebellum
D. somatic nervous system D. Brain stem
142. Supporting cells in nervous tissue are

NARAYAN CHANGDER
148. The brain and spinal cord are part of the
called nervous system
A. neurons A. somatic
B. neuroglia B. autonomic
C. myofibrils C. peripheral
D. none of above D. central
143. The two main divisions of the Nervous
149. Which of the following statements best
System are:
describes how water moves as groundwa-
A. Central Nervous System (CNS) ter?
B. Outer Division (OD) A. After water infiltrates (soaks into) the
C. Mid-Level Nervous System (MLNS) ground, it travels through the zone of satu-
D. Peripheral Nervous System (PNS) ration and ends up in the zone of aeration.

E. Long Division B. After water infiltrates the ground, it

travels through the zone of aeration and
144. Which set of organs most helps people ends up in the zone of saturation.
know if something is cold? C. After water passes through the zone of
A. brain and skin aeration it infiltrates the ground and then
B. heart and tongue moves into the zone of saturation.
C. nose and muscle D. none of above
D. eyes and stomach 150. What detects a change in the surround-
145. cereb-/enceph-means what? ings?

A. smaller A. effector

B. glue B. stimulus
C. brain C. receptors
D. membrane D. neuron

146. Which term describes an electrical signal 151. The receives incoming information in
generated by neurons? a neural pathway
A. Equilibrium potential. A. pre-synaptic neuron
B. Action potential B. post-synaptic neuron
C. Membrane potential C. axon terminal
D. Resting potential D. synaptic gap

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1.20 Nervous System 561

152. are processes directly at the spinal 158. Which nervous system contains sensory
chord. They are quick, automatic re- and motor neurons that carry information
sponses to stimuli without conscious ef- between the central nervous system and

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fort. the rest of the body?
A. dendrites A. Autonomic Nervous System
B. synapse B. Somatic Nervous System
C. axons C. Peripheral Nervous System
D. reflexes D. Central Nervous System
153. About how much does the brain weigh? 159. Sight
A. 2 pounds A. I
B. 3 pounds B. II
C. 4 pounds C. III
D. 8 pounds D. IV
154. The place where 2 neurons meet and 160. What is the purpose of neurons?
transfer a messsage is called the
A. Neurons control persons imagination
A. synapse
B. Neurons coordinate skeletal muscles
B. dendrite
C. Neurons transmit messages through-
C. axon out body
D. nucleus D. Neurons control heart beat, breathing,
155. The letters PNS stands for what? and digestion
A. Personal Nervous System 161. Which system relays messages
B. Personal Nerver System A. Central Nervous System
C. Peripheral Nerve Signs B. Peripheral Nervous System
D. Peripheral Nervous System C. All of the above
156. THE CONTROLS BALANCE AND CO- D. none of above
ORDINATION
162. TICK THE MUSCLES
A. CENTRAL NERVOUS SYSTEM
A. FEMUR
B. SPINAL CORD
B. DELTOIDS
C. BRAIN STEM
C. FIBULA
D. CEREBELLUM
D. PECTORALS
157. Asthma is a (n) disease that most di-
rectly affects the system. 163. What order of Nervous system struc-
tures are activated/involved when you
A. infectious; circulatory touch a hot pan and immediately drop it.
B. infectious; digestive A. Somatic, Spinal Cord, Brain, Spinal
C. noninfectious; nervous Cord, Somatic
D. noninfectious; respiratory B. Somatic, Spinal Cord, Somatic

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1.20 Nervous System 562

C. Somatic, Spinal Cord, Autonomic C. Cerebellum

D. Autonomic, Spinal Cord, Autonomic D. Skull
164. Anything that causes your brain to react
170. FIGHT OR FLIGHT:
is called an
A. decreases heart rate
A. Stimulus
B. Action B. increase heart rate
C. reverses symptoms

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Impulse
D. Axon D. makes you fly

165. What nerve connects the lower back to 171. What are the two types of the Peripheral
the legs? Nervous System?
A. Sciatica Nerve A. Automatic, Somatic
B. cranial nerve
B. Peripheral, Central
C. magellan nerve
C. Nervous System, Digestive System
D. none of above
D. None of these
166. Which of the following is NOT a sense or-
gan? 172. THESE ARE THE BRANCHES OF A NEU-
A. Nose RON THAT RECIEVE INFORMATION FROM
OTHER NEURONS.
B. Eyes
A. DENDRITES
C. Tongue/Mouth
D. Hands B. SOMA
C. AXON
167. a signal molecule that transmits nerve im-
pulses across synapses D. none of above
A. neuron
173. The nervous system subdivision that is
B. neurotransmitter composed of the brain and spinal cord.
C. nerve A. Autonomic Nervous Sytem
D. action potential
B. CNS
168. Nerve Cells are also called: C. PNS
A. Capillaries
D. Somatic Nervous System
B. Axons
C. Neurons 174. Which of the following is least likely to
be considered a life event?
D. NeoCortex
A. Retiring from your job
169. Which part controls our voluntary move-
ments? B. Being late due to traffic congestion
A. Spinal cord C. Getting married
B. Cerebrum D. Having children

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1.20 Nervous System 563

175. The critical point at which a stimulus 180. The Brain is made of a large mass of
causes an action potential A. Muscular Tissue

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A. Synapse B. Neurons
B. Action potential C. Red Blood Cells
C. Membrane potential D. While Blood Cells
D. Threshold E. Glands
176. Which of the following is not the basic 181. What is “stimuli”?
function of the nervous system?
A. A major organ in the brain that is a part
A. detects and senses stimuli of the nervous system.
B. responds to sensory stimulation B. What your body does to a change or a
C. sends signal rapidly between body signal.
parts C. A change or a signal your body re-
D. produces fluids such as plasma and in- ceives.
testinal fluid D. none of above
177. Serotonin is a neurotransmitter that 182. How many nerve cells are in the body?
helps regulate:
A. Billions
A. learning and memory
B. Millions
B. pain and pleasure
C. 10, 000
C. muscle movements
D. none of above
D. sleep, moods/emotions
183. The lobe of your brain responsible for
178. Dopamine and Serotonin are examples of your sense of hearing, memories, lan-
guage
A. Axon A. Occipital
B. Neurotransmitters B. Temporal
C. Somatic Nerves C. Frontal
D. Autonomic Nerves D. Pons

179. Continuous propagation is 184. The controls balance, posture, and co-
A. along myelinated axons it moves at a ordination.
speed of about 18-140 meters per second A. Cerebrum
(18-140 mph) B. Cerebellum
B. the spread of action potential down C. Medulla
the axon
D. none of above
C. along unmyelinated axons it moves at
a speed of about 1 meter per second (2 185. The nervous system includes all the
mph) nerves outside the central nervous system
D. none of above A. central

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1.20 Nervous System 564

B. automatic 191. What part of the brain interprets im-

pulses from the senses?
C. peripheral
A. midbrain
D. none of above
B. cerebrum
186. Which of the following is an example of
C. cerebellum
an approach coping strategy?
D. brainstem
A. ‘I exercise more.’

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. ‘I eat.’ 192. How do impulses travel across one neu-
ron to another?
C. ‘I sleep more.’
A. By fusing neurotransmitters
D. ‘I get busy with other things to keep
my mind off it.’ B. Through a synapse
C. Through cell bodies
187. What is considered the command center
of the nervous system? D. By touching dendrites

A. Neurons 193. What is the largest nerve in the body?

B. Heart A. Cranial
C. Spinal Cord B. Facial
D. Brain C. Sciatic

188. Which is NOT a common disease of the D. Ocularmotor

Nervous System? 194. what are the two parts to the nervous
A. Alzheimer’s system?
B. Stroke A. PNS and CNS
C. Diabetes B. HNS and KNS
D. Parkinson’s C. CNS and PNA
D. none of above
189. Whose job is it to carry nerve impulses
away from a cell body in a neuron? 195. Polar-means what?
A. Axons A. treelike
B. Dendrites B. glue
C. Spinal Cord C. between
D. Synapses D. end

190. what is also known as a nerve cell? 196. inter-means what?

A. neuron A. self
B. sensory nerves B. star
C. dendrites C. between
D. toes D. nerve

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1.20 Nervous System 565

197. The Nodes of Ranvier exist because 202. Exhaustion may result from
A. it speeds up the message sent along A. a chronic stress

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the axon B. an acute stressor
B. schwann cells aren’t large enough to C. lot’s of acute stressors
cover the whole axon D. eustress
C. the neurons get damaged and gaps 203. What are ganglia?
form
A. clusters of nerve cells
D. it’s a side effect of the way the neuron
B. long extension of nerve cell
is developed
C. short extensions of nerve cell
198. Photo-means what? D. sensory receptors
A. Dark 204. Reflex
B. Small A. automatic response that occurs
C. Large rapidly and without conscious control

D. Light B. Response that can be consciously con-

trolled
199. What are the senses that the nervous C. Response that occurs after a few sec-
system receives messages from? (mark onds of trauma
all that apply) D. The bodies defense against damage
A. Vision
205. What part of the brain controls move-
B. Hearing ment and balance?
C. Smell A. Pons
D. Taste B. Parietal
C. Cerebrum
E. Touch
D. Cerebellum
200. What are the TWO parts of the periph-
206. Which lobe is located at the back of the
eral (outer) nervous system?
brain (around neck)?
A. Brain A. occipital
B. Sensory Organs B. parietal
C. Spinal Cord C. temporal
D. Nerves D. frontal

201. What type of cell gathers and carries in- 207. The nerve cell that transmits impulses
formation? from the brain or spinal cord to a muscle
or gland.
A. Nerve Ending
A. Motor Neuron
B. Sense Organ B. Relay Neuron
C. Sensory Cell C. Sensory Neuron
D. Nerve Cell D. none of above

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1.20 Nervous System 566

208. What is a receptor 213. A bundle of nerve tissue that links the
A. carries motor commands from the CNS brain to the nerves in peripheral nerve sys-
to areas of the body tem is called the
A. brain stem.
B. detect sensory information from out-
side the nervous system B. central nervous system.
C. carries sensory information from the C. spinal cord.
receptors to the CNS where it is pro- D. none of above

NARAYAN CHANGDER
cessed
214. a reflex is
D. none of above
A. a sneeze
209. Parts of the Nervous System include: B. a automatic response
A. nerves C. late reaction
B. lungs D. stomach pains
C. brain
215. Neurons are primarily composed of this
D. spinal cord cell?
E. heart A. heart

210. Which sensory receptor receives informa- B. skin

tion about light? C. brain
A. Photoreceptor D. skull
B. Thermorecepter 216. how many parts are in the cerebrum
C. Chemorecepter A. 5
D. Mechanoreceptor B. 3

211. Which way does an impulse travel C. 2

D. 1
A. From dendrite to axon and out axon
terminal 217. The lobe of your brain responsible for
B. From axon to axon and out dendrite making decisions based on information
terminal your senses are gathering
C. From axon to dendrite and out axon A. temporal
terminal B. pons
D. From cell body to dendrite and out C. frontal
axon terminal D. pariental
212. The type of nerves that carry impulses to 218. What are the three (3) main parts of the
the CNS nervous system?
A. Efferent A. cerebellum, cerebrum, medulla
B. Afferent B. cochlea, nerves, vestibule
C. Somatic C. brain, spinal cord, nerves
D. none of above D. none of above

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1.20 Nervous System 567

219. Part of the brain that relays signals to 224. Responds to information received from
the cerebellum and deals with respiration, the outside environment and inside your
bladder control, and swallowing. body. For example, touching a hot stove

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A. Pons is a stimulus.

B. Stimulus A. Nerves

C. Synapse B. Brain
D. Dendrite C. Stimulus
D. Dendrite
220. The Peripheral Nervous System is en-
tirely made of 225. What bone protects your brain?
A. Nerves outside of the Central Nervous A. Skull
System B. Cerebellum
B. Nerves inside of the Central Nervous
C. Cerbrum
System
D. Deltoids
C. Muscle Tissues inside of the Central
Nervous System 226. Which nerves take the information out
D. Muscle Tissues outside of the Central from the Central to the Periphery?
Nervous System A. ganglia
221. Which brain lobe was affected in Phineas B. afferent nerves
Gage, from his accident? C. Efferent nerves
A. frontal lobe D. none of above
B. parietal lobe
227. When you learn new skills, what are you
C. occipital lobe creating within your brain?
D. temporal lobe A. Memory block
222. This part of the neuron stores then B. Clusters
releases neurotransmitters into the C. Pathways
synapse.
D. Brain bumps
A. Axon
228. Surround neuron cell bodies in the PNS
B. Dendrite
A. Satellite cell
C. Myelin Sheath
D. Axon Terminal B. Schwann cell
C. Astrocyte
223. The surface on a neuron that releases
synaptic vesicles is the D. Oligodendrocyte

A. node of Ranvier. 229. What is the pH of an acid?

B. dendrite. A. 0-7 on a pH scale.
C. axon hillock. B. 7 on a pH scale.
D. postsynaptic membrane. C. 7-14 on a pH scale.
E. presynaptic membrane. D. none of above

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1.20 Nervous System 568

230. The membrane covering of the brain is 235. What controls all of the body’s activi-
known as the: ties?
A. cerebral aqueduct. A. brain
B. choroid plexus. B. Central nervous system
C. meninges. C. spinal cord

D. ventricles. D. nerves
236. These structures release neurotransmit-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
231. The tiny gap between neurons where
ters which are then sent into the synapse;
nerve impulses are sent from one neuron
they look like ET’s fingers.
to another. It is where communication oc-
curs between an axon and dendrite A. axon

A. synapse B. axon terminals

C. gene
B. axon terminal
D. neuron
C. impulse
D. myelin 237. White matter is and Grey matter is

232. TRANSPORT THE RESPONSE FROM THE A. myelinated; phosphorylated

CENTRAL NERVOUS SYSTEM TO THE MUS- B. unmyelinated; myelinated
CLES
C. myelinated; unmyelinated
A. SENSE ORGANS
D. phosphorylated; myelinated
B. MOTOR NERVES
238. Gaps between the myelin sheath along
C. SENSORY NERVES an axon are called
D. CENTRAL NERVOUS SYSTEM A. Dendrites
233. What makes up the Central Nervous Sys- B. Schwann cells
tem? C. Terminal branches
A. Blood and Heart D. Nodes of Ranvier
B. Spinal Cord 239. What nervous system has voluntary con-
C. Nerves trol and skeletal muscles
D. Brain and Spinal Cord A. CNS
B. SNS
234. Cerebrum
C. PNS
A. controls involuntary actions such as
D. none of above
breathing and heart rate
B. consists of the brain and the spinal 240. The part of the autonomic nervous
cord and is the control center of the body system is active during resting.
A. sympathetic
C. coordinates actions of muscles and
helps maintain balance B. parasympathetic
D. controls movement, senses and C. somatic
speech D. peripheral

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1.20 Nervous System 569

241. Which of the following best describes 246. How many neurones are in your brain?
how a wildfire benefits a forest?
A. 1 thousand

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A. Extreme temperatures cause seeds to
break open and allow for plant germina- B. 1000 billion
tion C. 1 hundred
B. Increases air pollution and destroys
D. 100 billion
homes
C. Sediment is deposited into the soil and 247. Which of the following is a function of the
more fertile soil is created skeletal system?
D. none of above
A. Carries impulses to your brain.
242. Which part of the neuron is a long fiber B. Sends chemical messages in your
that extends from the cell body to the blood.
axon terminals; the impulse travels down
this like a superhighway. C. Protects your internal organs.
A. dendrite D. Transports glucose from digested
B. terminal gap food.
C. cell body terminal
248. Identify the 2 labels that could apply to
D. axon the nervous system below. You smell
Grandma’s cooking and you start to drool.
243. What is the central nervous system
A. The centre of each nerve cell A. Somatic
B. The nerves that control the main func- B. Autonomic
tions of the body, such as heart rate and
C. Sensory
blood pressure
C. The brain and spinal cord D. Motor
D. The nerves that prepare the body for
249. Cerebellum
fight or flight response
A. Coordinates actions of muscles and
244. Neurons that only travel from the body controls balance
to the brain are called
A. sensory neurons B. Controls body’s reflex

B. interneurons C. Controls movement

C. motor neurons D. Controls speech and senses
D. none of above
250. Plants use sunlight to make food in a pro-
245. outermost membrane around myelin cess called
sheath
A. Respiration
A. neurilemma
B. Photosynthesis
B. Schwann cells
C. axon C. Fermentation
D. neurofibril D. Mitosis

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1.20 Nervous System 570

251. Which of these is the best way to dispose C. Cerebrum, cerebellum, brain and
of a potentially dangerous compound? spinal cord.
A. Place it in a hazardous material waste D. none of above
container
B. Recycle the compound for a future lab 257. Which part of the brain is responsible for
activity conscious thought?

C. Put it into a garbage can A. the occipital lobe

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Pour it down the drain B. the cerebellum
C. the cerebrum
252. What is paralysis?
D. the brain stem
A. Loss of feeling or unable to move some
body parts
258. What does Norepinephrine do?
B. Able to jump around
A. Increases your heart rate
C. Able to run
B. Increases motivation and pleasure
D. None of the above.
C. Calms you down
253. The main control center in an animal body; D. Makes you angry
part of the central nervous system.
A. Brain 259. Which part of the nervous system con-
tains the brain and spinal cord?
B. Brain Stem
A. central nervous system
C. Spinal Cord
D. Nervous System B. parasympathetic nervous system
C. peripheral nervous system
254. Where is the nucleus located?
D. sympathetic nervous system
A. Axon
B. Dendrites 260. What cell is found in the CNS and con-
C. Soma nects neurons to blood vessels and form
scar tissue?
D. Myelin Sheath
A. Microglial
255. Axons are part of a neuron that send elec- B. Oligodendrocytes
trical signals the cell body
C. Astrocytes
A. to
D. Ependymal
B. away from
C. in between 261. What type of neuron relays messages
D. none of above from sensory to motor?
A. Sensory
256. Which organs form the central nervous
system? B. Motor
A. Brain and skull C. Interneuron
B. Brain and spinal cord D. Cortex

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1.20 Nervous System 571

262. Which animal is a nocturnal animal? 268. Gated sodium channels open when
A. rodents, owls A. repolarization occurs

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B. rabbits, squirrels B. threshold is reached
C. hawks, eagles C. a stimulus arrives
D. horses, cattles D. potassium channels open

263. The spinal cord is 269. An automatic response that occurs

rapidly without conscious control
A. The command center of the nervous
system A. reflex
B. The body’s message and control cen- B. spinal cord
ter C. concussion
C. A long bundle of neurons that sends D. cerebellum
messages to and from the brain and all
270. Propioreceptors deals with
parts of the body.
A. muscle spindens, tendons, ligaments
D. All of the above.
and joints
264. How do you say memory loss? B. connective tissue
A. amnesty C. pain
B. amnesia D. none of above
C. anaemia 271. Which part of the brain controls personal-
D. anmesia ity, attention, emotions, body movement,
speech and problem solving?
265. Neurons that are in the brain only are
called A. cerebrum
B. Frontal Lobe
A. interneurons
C. medulla
B. sensory neurons
D. Parietal lobe
C. motor neurons
D. none of above 272. Part of the brain that controls vital and
involuntary processes.
266. THE BODY OF A NEURON IS CALLED A. cerebrum
A. DENDRITES B. cerebellum
B. SOMA C. brain stem
C. AXON D. spinal cord
D. none of above
273. What other systems does your nervous
267. What is responsible for maintaining the system work with?
resting membrane potential? A. Circulatory
A. Neurotransmitter receptors B. Respiratory
B. Voltage-gated ion channels C. Skeletal
C. The sodium-potassium pump D. Muscular
D. Ligand-gated ion channels E. Immune

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1.20 Nervous System 572

274. Connects the brain to the spinal cord. 280. True or False:The cerebrum is a bundle of
A. cerebrum nerves going down your back.
A. True
B. cerebellum
B. False
C. brain stem
C. Maybe
D. midbrain
D. none of above
275. The spinal cord is an extension of the
281. What would your body’s response be to

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. peripheral nervous system having the flame of a candle getting too
B. cerebellum close to your hand?
A. To sweat
C. brain stem
B. To yell
D. cerebrum
C. To pull your hand away
276. Area of cerebrum that allows us to speak D. none of above
A. Broca’s Area
282. What are the 2 major divisions of the pe-
B. Wernicke’s area ripheral nervous system (PNS)?
C. Precentral Gyrus A. Sensory & Motor
D. Postcentral Gyrus B. Peripheral & Central
C. Somatic & Autonomic
277. The is a thick bundle of nerves that
run up your back into your brain. D. Brain & Spinal Cord
A. Nerves 283. What are the main parts of the nervous
B. Spinal Cord system
A. Spinial cord and brain
C. Brain
B. Bones and nerves
D. none of above
C. Spinal cord and brain
278. Myelin is a lipid insulation produced by D. All of the above
the
284. What is responsible for detecting stim-
A. astrocytes
uli?
B. ependymal cells A. the brain
C. microglia B. the motor neurons
D. oligodendrocytes C. the relay neurons
279. Which term describes the difference in D. the receptor cells
electrical charge across a membrane? 285. NERVES ARE MADE UP OF
A. membrane potential A. METAL
B. resting potential B. PLASTIC
C. electrical potential C. NEURONS
D. electrical current D. NERVES

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1.20 Nervous System 573

286. Type of neuron that perceive information C. abducting

about your environment.
D. oculomotor

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A. Motor Neuron
B. Interneuron 292. What is the PNA’ job?
C. Sensory Neuron A. To send signals to the brain
D. none of above B. To send signals to the spinal cord
287. Which of the following is the final part of C. To send signals to the peripheral sys-
a reflex arc? tem
A. integration center D. none of above
B. effector
293. produce myelin around axons.
C. receptor
D. sensory neuron A. ependymal cells
B. oligodendrocytes
288. This part of the nervous system regulates
involuntary actions such as heart function, C. Schwann cells
blood pressure, breathing, digestion.
D. astrocytes
A. Autonomic Nervous System
B. Sensory Nervous System 294. This part of the brain consists of four
lobes .
C. Motor Nervous System
D. Peripheral Nervous System A. midbrain

289. Eye movement down and in B. pons

A. Occulomotor C. cerebrum
B. Trochlear D. cerebellum
C. Trigeminal
295. How can you keep the nervous system
D. Abducens healthy?
290. The brain is made up of three major parts. A. Make healthful food choices
What are they?
B. Drink plenty of water
A. The occipital lobe, the parietal lobe,
and the frontal lobe. C. Get plenty of sleep
B. The spinal cord, the cerebrum, and the D. All of the above
cerebellum.
C. The brain stem, the cerebrum, and the 296. The heart beating faster during exercise
cerebellum. is an example of which portion of the PNS

D. none of above A. Somatic

291. Loss of vision B. Sensory

A. optic nerve C. Autonomic

B. olfactory nerve D. none of above

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1.20 Nervous System 574

297. Which of the following is a function of the B. central nervous system

integumentary system? C. somatic nervous system
A. Protects the body from infection and D. parasympathetic nervous system
injury.
B. Mixes food with enzymes to help break 303. Select all of the correct answers:My ears
it down. are beneficial for my sense of and
C. Moves oxygen and nutrients to cells in A. Balance

NARAYAN CHANGDER
every system of the body. B. Smell
D. Speeds up or slows down cellular pro- C. Position
cesses.
D. Hearing
298. Which structure in the diencephalon re-
304. The nervous system controls uncon-
lays information going to the cerebrum?
scious activities.
A. Pineal body
A. somatic
B. Hypothalamus
B. sympathetic
C. Thalamus
C. parasympathetic
D. Pituitary gland
D. autonomic
299. Auto-means what?
305. The part of the brain that controls bal-
A. star ance, coordination, and unconscious muscle
B. hearing activities.
C. self A. Cerebrum
D. brain B. Cerebellum
300. Bile is produced by the and stored in C. Brain
the D. Spinal Cord
A. gallbladder, liver
306. The part of the nervous system which,
B. liver; gallbladder in vertebrates, consists of the brain and
C. small intestine; large intestine spinal cord.
D. stomach; pancreas A. Central Nervous System
B. Peripheral Nervous System
301. The major types of cells found in the ner-
vous system C. Stimulus
A. Neurons and chondrocytes D. Neuron
B. Sarcomeres and osteoblasts 307. name 1 disorder of the nervous system
C. Dendrites and axons
D. Neuroglia and neurons A. Pregnancy

302. What part of the nervous system is re- B. Heart failure

sponsible for the “fight or flight”? C. Carpel tunnel syndrome
A. sympathetic nervous system D. diabetes

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1.20 Nervous System 575

308. send signals away from neurons C. Vagus nerve

whereas receive signals from other D. Peripheral nerves
neurons.

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A. dendrites; axons 314. Which of the following organs is part of
the PNS?
B. axons; dendrites
A. Nerves
C. synapses; dendrites
B. Brain
D. axons; synapses
C. Spinal Cord
309. Which division of the nervous system D. Heart
deals with reflexes?
315. Sensory Neurons
A. Somatic
A. the animal’s reaction to the stimulus
B. Autonomic
B. nerve cells that detect stimuli
C. Sympathetic
C. nerve cells that carry response infor-
D. Parasympathetic mation to muscles and other organs
310. Type of doctor that specializes in working D. none of above
with the nervous system.
316. Gray matter is
A. cardiologist
A. On the outer edge of the brain
B. gastroenterologist
B. Inner part of the brain
C. neurologist
C. Is mostly made of fat.
D. nephrologist
D. Between your toes
311. What neuroglial cell is found in the PNS
317. The largest part of your brain
and forms individual myelin sheaths.
A. medulla
A. Oligodendrocytes
B. cerebrum
B. Schwann
C. cerebellum
C. Satellite
D. neuron
D. Ependymal
318. This part of the neuron receives chemi-
312. The only 2 parts of the body that are in- cal messages from the neurotransmitters
cluded in the central nervous system are of other neurons.
the and
A. Axon Terminal
A. brain and spinal cord
B. Dendrites
B. brain and backbone
C. Myelin Sheath
C. spinal cord and eyes
D. Cell Body
D. brain and eyes
319. Cell cycle describes the processes that
313. Nerves that originate in the brain. take place as a cell
A. Cranial nerves A. Absorbs nutrients
B. Spinal nerves B. makes proteins

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1.20 Nervous System 576

C. repairs old cells C. response

D. forms new cells D. nerve

320. Which organs contract and relax to pro- 326. Planning, recalling information, and deci-
vide movement? sion making are all functions of the:
A. Bones A. brain stem
B. Kidneys B. cerebrum
C. cerebellum

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Lungs
D. Muscles D. hypothalamus
327. Brain stem controls
321. Forms myelin sheath on peripheral
nerves in the PNS A. Breathing
A. Astrocytes B. Taste
B. Oligodendrocytes C. Movement
C. Microglia D. Sight
D. Schwann cells 328. A condition caused by sudden movement
of the brain, where the brain hits the skull
322. Similar to the rough Endoplasmic Reticu- is called
lum, site where proteins are made
A. Brain Injury
A. integrative
B. Concussion
B. motor
C. Headache
C. autonomic D. Nervous System disease
D. chromatophilic substance
329. According to function a neuron (interneu-
323. What are your 5 senses ron) that forms bridges would
A. Smell, touch, taste, hearing, sight A. Transmit impulses from brain and
spinal cords to muscles and glands direct-
B. taste, snorting, licking and sight
ing action
C. You have none
B. Carry Impulses from skin and organs
D. none of above to the spinal cord and brain about the ex-
ternal and internal environment
324. Which part of a neuron sends the impulse
on to another neuron? C. Transmit impulses between other neu-
rons
A. dendrite
D. none of above
B. synapse
330. Conscious activities are controlled by the
C. axon
nervous system
D. myelin sheath
A. somatic
325. An action is called a B. autonomic
A. stimulus C. peripheral
B. message D. central

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1.20 Nervous System 577

331. A cable-like structure that lets informa- 335. In a synaptic cleft, what RECEIVES the se-
tion travel through it away from the neu- creted neurotransmitters?
ron to be received by other neurons. “The A. Dendrite

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cable.”
B. Axon
A. motor neuron
C. Cell Body
B. dendrite D. Myelin sheath
C. axon
336. Consumers must gather and consume
D. synapse their food for energy. Consumers are clas-
E. neurochemical sified based on what they eat. Herbivores
eat , carnivores eat , and omnivores
332. Which of the following most accurately eat
represents how biotic factors are orga- A. Plants; plants and animals; animals
nized within an ecosystem from the small- B. Plants; animals; plants and animals
est unit to the largest? [
C. Plant and animals; plants; animals
A. Populations, ecosystems, biomes, or-
D. Animals; plants; plants and animals
ganisms, communities, and biosphere
B. Biosphere, ecosystems, populations, 337. Which is a major organ of the nervous
organisms, biomes, and communities system?
A. Stomach
C. Organisms, populations, communities,
ecosystems, biomes, and biosphere B. Brain
D. Communities, organisms, populations, C. Lung
biomes, ecosystems, and biosphere D. Bone

333. Which type of neuron would be connected 338. The cells in the nervous system are the
to photoreceptors in your eye?
A. Neurons
A. sensory neuron
B. Red blood cells
B. motor neuron
C. White blood cells
C. relay neuron
D. none of above
D. connector neuron
339. Select all that describe the cerebrum.
334. Saltatory propagation is.. A. Speech
A. the spread of action potential down the B. Memory
axon C. Muscle Movement
B. along myelinated axons it moves at a D. Heartrate
speed of about 18-140 meters per second
(18-140 mph) 340. What is the biggest part of the brain?
A. Brain stem
C. along unmyelinated axons it moves at
a speed of about 1 meter per second (2 B. Think tank
mph) C. Cerebrum
D. none of above D. Cerebellum

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1.20 Nervous System 578

341. What is the job of the spinal cord? C. Hypothalamus, brain, spinal cord and
A. To protect your muscles neurons

B. To communicate from your brain to the D. brain, nerves, motor nerves, spinal
rest of your body cord, sensory nerves

C. To open and close your lungs. 347. Which of these is a function of the periph-
D. none of above eral nervous system?
A. detect stimuli only
342. What is the transparent, jellylike tissue

NARAYAN CHANGDER
filling the eyeball? B. process information only

A. Iris C. respond to information only

B. Vitreous Humor D. detect and respond to information

C. Aqueous Humor 348. Which of the following do birds use to get

D. Macula the oxygen they need from the air?
A. vocal cords
343. What part of the eye sends messages to
the brain from the retina? B. stomach

A. Optic Nerve C. kidneys

B. Iris D. lungs

C. Lens 349. Which of the following is an example of

D. Cornea primary appraisal according to the Lazarus
and Folkman transactional model of stress
344. Sensory neurons carry nerve impulses and coping?
from the sense organs and internal organs A. determining the extent to which addi-
(like your stomach) to the tional resources are needed to cope
A. peripheral nervous system (PNS) B. evaluating the potential impact of the
B. central nervous system (CNS) stressor
C. muscles C. judging the usefulness of coping re-
D. sense organs sources that are available
D. any exchange between the individual
345. This part of the nervous system helps us and the environment
chew food mechanically.
A. Parasympathetic 350. Which part of the brain controls and coor-
dinates the movement of our body parts?
B. Sympathetic
A. cerebrum
C. Autonomic
B. cerebellum
D. Somatic
C. medulla oblongata
346. Which organs controls make up the ner- D. none of above
vous system?
A. Cerebrum, phepripheral system ner- 351. Name the 2 parts of a neuron
vous A. Membrane
B. Cerebellum, neurons and spinal cord B. Plasma

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1.20 Nervous System 579

C. Axon Terminal 357. A synapse is:

D. Dendrite A. The meeting of the dendrite of one neu-

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ron with the axon terminal of another
352. WHICH ONE DO WE USE WITHOUT B. The meeting of two axon terminals
THINKING? from different neurons
A. CONSCIOUS C. The meeting of two dendrites from dif-
B. UNCONSCIOUS ferent neurons
D. The meeting of two axon terminals
C. SUBCONSCIOUS
from the same neuron
D. NOT SURE
358. Which structure is not part of a neuron?
353. Which channel opens in response to phys- A. axons
ically stretching the membrane? B. myelin sheath
A. Voltage-gated C. cell body
B. Ligand-gated D. dendrite
C. Mechanically-gated 359. The central nervous system includes
D. Neural-gated A. Brain
B. Smooth Muscles
354. What do we call the nerve impulse or
“buzz” that occurs when a neuron is stim- C. Spinal Cord
ulated? D. Cardiac Muscles
A. Refraction
360. This insulating material forms a layer,
B. Action potential around the axon of a neuron. It enables
electrical signals to travel down the axon
C. Threshold
at higher speeds.
D. Membrane potential A. neuron
355. when does your brain stop making con- B. myelin sheath
nections C. dendrite
A. 18-21 D. neurotransmitter
B. 16-17 361. Sense of smell
C. 23-25 A. I
D. 30 + B. II
C. III
356. What are some of the body’s senses
D. VII
A. Vision
362. Which of the following is essential to
B. Touch hearing?
C. Taste A. Retina
D. Reflex B. Semicircular canals

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1.20 Nervous System 580

C. Cochlea 368. What part is responsible for visual pro-

D. Taste bud cessing?
A. frontal
363. Where in the neuron do action potentials
B. parietal
begin?
C. temporal
A. dendrite
D. occipital
B. axon hillock
369. Slows the heart rate

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. synapse
A. Glossopharyngeal
D. cell body
B. Vagus
364. The part of the brain that controls con- C. Accessory
scious thoughts, senses, language and
memories. D. Hypoglossal

A. Cerebellum 370. One of the hormones secreted during the

fight-flight-freeze response is
B. Cerebrum
A. cortical.
C. Dendrites
B. adrenaline.
D. Brain Stem
C. cortisol.
365. separate the blood from the brain. D. ACTH.
A. microglia
371. Aidan hears the fire alarm and gets up to
B. astrocytes leave the room.In this situation, the fire
C. satellite cells alarm is:
A. A stimulus
D. neurons
B. A sensory neuron
366. Peripheral Nervous System (PS) Consists
C. A motor neuron
of:
D. A relay neuron
A. 31 pairs of cranial nerves
B. 13 pairs of spinal nerves 372. THE PERIPHERAL NERVOUS SYSTEM
SENDS MESSAGES TO OUR
C. 21 pairs of cranial nerves
A. EYES
D. 12 pairs of cranial nerves
B. FEET
367. The is the largest part of the brain. C. HANDS
It is in charge of language, speech, 5 D. BRAIN
senses, problem solving, movement, and
thoughts. 373. What is the primary function of the
brain?
A. Cerebrum
A. To make nerve connections to all parts
B. Cerebellum
of the body
C. Medulla B. To help regulate and control ALL body
D. none of above functions

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1.20 Nervous System 581

C. To recall information for exams B. sensory

D. All of the above C. mixed

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374. What is definition of Autonomic? D. none of above
A. The neutrons detect a stimulus
380. Which system is most closely associated
B. Controls involuntary actions with the brain?
C. The muscles respond A. nervous
D. A reaction to stimulus B. muscular
375. The neuron’s resting potential is around C. circulatory
how many mV?
D. respiratory
A. 25
B. -25 381. Communication between neurons occurs
at
C. -70
A. Axon terminal
D. -55
B. Synapse
376. Neurotransmitters are released from
axon terminals via C. Muscle fiber
A. exocytosis D. Neuron membrane
B. diffusion
382. Name the two major parts of the central
C. active transport nervous system.
D. osmosis A. The brain and the skull.
377. What part of the brain controls taste? B. The brain and the body.
A. cerebrum C. The spinal cord and the brain.
B. cerebellum D. The spinal cord and the body.
C. brain stem
383. This part of the neuron helps excel the
D. spinal cord
rate at which impulses are given.
378. Which part of the brain controls invol- A. Cell body
untary movements such as digestion and
your heartbeat? B. Meninges
A. cerebrum C. Myelin Sheath
B. cerebellum D. Axon
C. medulla/spinal cord
384. Function of nervous system is
D. none of above
A. Digestion only
379. These nerves carry impulses from the
B. Circulation only
brain and spinal cord to produce action i
muscles and organs? C. Control and coordination of the body
A. Motor D. Breathing only

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1.20 Nervous System 582

385. What is the brainstem’s main function? C. conscious thought

A. Remembering faces D. control hearth rate
B. Breathing & heartbeat 391. Trey has symptoms of severe headache,
C. Muscle coordination nausea and vomiting. At the doctor’s of-
D. Speech fice, Trey had a lumbar puncture. His doc-
tor is concerned about which disorder?
386. If you picked up a hot coal, the signal A. Cerebral palsy

NARAYAN CHANGDER
from the sensory neurons in your finger-
tips would travel to in your spinal cord. B. Epilepsy

A. Sensory Neurons C. Hydrocephalus

B. Motor Neurons D. Meningitis

C. Interneurons 392. This system controls all your body’s func-

D. none of above tions.
A. Nervous system
387. A sudden change in the polarity of the
membrane of a neuron, gland cell, or mus- B. Digestive system
cle fiber that causes the transmission of C. Respiratory system
electrical impulses D. Endocrine system
A. Action potential
393. The steps below refer to various stages
B. Membrane potential in transmission at a chemical synapse:1.
C. Resting potential Neurotransmitter binds with receptors
associated with the postsynaptic mem-
D. Threshold
brane.2. Calcium ions rush into neuron’s
388. neurons carry messages to the cen- cytoplasm.3. An action potential depolar-
tral nervous system izes the membrane of the axon terminal.4.
The ligand-gated ion channels open.5. The
A. Motor
synaptic vesicles release neurotransmitter
B. Inter into the synaptic cleft.Which sequence of
C. Sensory events is correct?
D. Fun A. 3→ 2 → 5 → 1 → 4
B. 1 → 2 → 3 → 4 → 5
389. A is what your body does in reaction
to a stimuli. C. 5 → 1 → 2 → 4 → 3
A. reaction D. 4 → 3 → 1 → 2 → 5
B. response E. 2 → 3 → 5 → 4 → 1
C. change 394. The activity of acetylcholine in a synapse
D. none of above is terminated by
A. its degradation by a hydrolytic enzyme
390. What is function of cerebellum? on the postsynaptic membrane.
A. controls balance B. its active transport across the presy-
B. memory center naptic membrane.

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1.20 Nervous System 583

C. its diffusion across the presynaptic 400. Slow pain does all of these except
membrane. A. sharper

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D. its diffusion across the postsynaptic B. lasts longer
membrane.
C. occurs after fast pain
395. The is not involved in reflex actions.
D. none of above
A. spinal cord
401. Basic unit of the nervous system; another
B. nerves
name for nerve cell.
C. brain
A. brain stem
D. none of above
B. axon
396. Carries nervous signals from nervous sys- C. dendrite
tem to body and from body to nervous sys-
tem D. neuron
A. spinal cord 402. Which system is responsible for the over-
B. brain all control of all the internal processes that
occur in the body?
C. nerves
A. muscular system
D. cerebellum
B. nervous system
397. What is the purpose of the nervous sys-
tem? C. digestive system

A. Quick / direct communication. D. skeletal system

B. Communicating information to the 403. The nervous system is made of these
whole body at once. three parts:
C. Detecting stimuli only. A. Brain, Spinal Cord, and Nerves
D. Processing information only. B. Brain, Tendons, and Ligaments
398. A blocked blood vessel in the brain can C. Brain, Heart and Lungs
lead to a D. Spinal Cord, Vertebrae and nerves
A. kidney infection
404. The cerebrum is the part of your
B. stomach ulcer brain.
C. lung infection A. Smelling
D. stroke B. Testing
399. Which structure connects the Brain to the C. Wasting
Peripheral Nervous System, while also di-
D. Thinking
recting some of the body’s reflexes?
A. Spinal Cord 405. The main organ of the nervous system.
B. Esophagus A. spinal cord
C. Pharynx B. nerves
D. Larynx C. neuron
E. Trachea D. brain

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1.20 Nervous System 584

406. Connected to spinal cord, this controls C. axon

heartbeat, breathing, blood pressure & di- D. nucleus
gestion.
A. Nerves 412. The occipital lobe controls
B. Brain Stem A. Vision
C. Dendrites B. Smell
D. Brain C. Taste

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Movement
407. Which of these is not a reflex response?
A. moving a hand off something hot 413. The function of the ependymal cells is
B. sneezing A. Protection of the delicate neuron axon
C. picking up a book B. Maintain the health of the neuron
D. wink of eyes C. Circulates the cerebrospinal fluid
408. IS A TUBE LIKE STRUCTURE WHICH D. Insulate the electrical impulse
IS ATTACHED TO THE BRAIN .
414. Which system controls body move-
A. SPINAL CORD ments?
B. NERVES A. Autonomic Nervous System
C. SKELETON B. Central Nervous System
D. KIDNEY C. Peripheral Nervous System
409. Which one of the following is directly con- D. Somatic Nervous System
trolled by the somatic nervous system:
415. You are working quietly in the library
A. smooth muscle when a friend sneaks up from behind and
B. cardiac muscle scares you, making your heart race. At
C. skeletal muscle this time, your nervous system would
be dominant.
D. abdominal muscles
A. parasympathetic
410. The smallest blood vessels that help B. sympathetic
transfer gases and nutrients are called
C. somatic
A. Alveoli
D. central
B. Arteries
C. Capillaries 416. The brain and spinal cord are known as
what?
D. Veins
A. Nerve
411. The gap that a message has to cross to
B. Peripheral nervous system (PNS)
get from one neuron to the other is called
the C. Central nervous system (CNS)
A. synapse D. The Nervous System
B. dendrite E. The controller

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1.20 Nervous System 585

417. Which of the following is not a nervous C. Voltage-gated potassium channels

system function? open, and K+ ions diffuse out of the neu-
ron.

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A. Receives information from internal
and external environments D. There is an undershoot of the resting
B. Responds to stimuli potential.

C. Maintains balance in the body 423. The parts of the neuron in the correct se-
D. Shapes and supports the body quence are:
A. Synapse, cell body, dendrites, axon
418. What does Neuroglia also stand for
B. Axon, Synapse, cell body, dendrites
A. blood cell
C. Dendrites, cell body, axon, synapse
B. stem cell
D. Cell body, dendrites, synapse, axon
C. glial cells
D. none of above 424. Which of the following sends directions
from the brain to the muscles and glands?
419. Which of the following organs is not part A. Parasympathetic
of the central nervous system?
B. Motor
A. Brain
C. Sympathetic
B. Spinal Cord
D. Sensory
C. Nerves
D. none of above 425. What nerves does the peripheral nervous
system contain along the spinal cord?
420. What is one of the three major parts of A. Crainial
the Nervous System?
B. Sensory
A. Brain, Spinal Cord, Nerves
C. Motor
B. Heart, Lungs, Toungue
D. Spinal
C. Legs, Arms, Head
D. None of these 426. Specialized area where a neuron con-
tacts another cell; they allow for chemical
421. Which part of the brain controls all invol- communication between neurons and other
untary actions? cells through the use of neurotransmitters.
A. brain stem A. Stimulus
B. cerebrum B. Axon
C. cerebellum C. Dendrite
D. none of above D. Synapse

422. Which event triggers the creation of an 427. What is the nervous system
action potential? A. nervous system is the system by which
A. The sodium-potassium pump shuttles you become nervous.
ions across the membrane. B. nervous system is a network of nerve
B. The membrane depolarizes above a cells which transfer nerve urges between
certain threshold potential. parts of the body.

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1.20 Nervous System 586

C. Nervous system helps you in digesting. 433. THE LONG EXTENSION OF A NEURON IS
D. Nervous system helps you in excre- CALLED
tory. A. DENDRITES

428. The space between neurons: B. SOMA

A. neurotransmitter C. AXON

B. synapse D. none of above

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. terminal branches 434. In the line “Palms are sweaty, mom’s
D. schwann cells spaghetti, “ what part of the nervous sys-
tem does that deal with?
429. Neurotransmitters are that travel
A. Somatic
across the to another cell.
B. Sensory
A. electrical signals; receptors
C. Sympathetic
B. electrical signals; synapse
D. Parasympathetic
C. chemicals; receptors
D. chemicals; synapse 435. Rasheed accidentally bumped his leg on
a desk . What is the first thing that hap-
430. A group of the same species living in an pened within Rasheed’s nervous system?
area is a , but when there are groups
A. he yelled, “Ow!”
of different species in the same area that
is called a B. The nerves in his leg sensed pain.
A. Ecosystem; community C. The leg nerves sent a message to the
B. Niche; adaptation skin and his leg.

C. Population; biome D. The brain sent a message to the skin

and his leg.
D. Population; community
436. A neuron has a resting potential of about
431. Inside of a cell membrane more nega- millivolts
tively charge that the outside
A. +50
A. Ploarized
B. -70
B. Depolarized
C. -55
C. Repolarization
D. -80
D. Refractory Period
E. +35
432. The purpose of the Nerouns
437. The two parts of the Peripheral Nervous
A. Insulate the axon fibers increase rate
System
of speed
A. Brain and Spinal Cord
B. Collect Stimuli
B. Somatic and Autonomic
C. Transmit information in the form of
nerve impulses through the body C. Systematic and Brain
D. none of above D. Spinal cord and Autonomic

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1.20 Nervous System 587

438. An action potential moves along a(n): 444. Which nerve carries impulses from light,
A. dendrite taste, sound, and pain from the body to
the brain?

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B. cell body
A. motor
C. synapse
B. sensory
D. axon
C. mixed
E. myelin sheath
D. none of above
439. Part of tan axon that contains a nucleus
445. Shrugs the shoulders
A. Neuron
A. Accessory
B. Cell Body
B. Vestibulocochlear
C. Dendrite
C. Abducens
D. none of above
D. Trigeminal
440. Which way do sensory neurons carry im-
446. The left hemisphere of the brain controls
pulses?
everything EXCEPT
A. towards the brain
A. Math & Number Skills
B. away from the brain B. The left side of the brain
C. towards muscles C. Reasoning & logic skills
D. towards glands D. The right side of the body
441. What are the divisions of the Peripheral 447. Which of the following controls your in-
Nervous System? voluntary functions?
A. Somatic & Motor A. Somatic
B. Brake & Motor B. Parasympathetic
C. Somatic & Autonomic C. Autonomic
D. Sensory & Motor D. Sympathetic
442. Liz has trouble with appetite control, 448. A is the place where an organism
temperature regulation, and her weight. lives and gets all of its necessary supplies
Which area of the brain is affected? for survival.[
A. Brain stem A. Niche
B. Cerebellum B. Habitat
C. Cerebrum C. Abiotic factors
D. Hypothalamus D. Biotic factors
443. Which of the following is not part of the 449. What type of neuron would target your
peripheral nervous system? cardiac muscle tissue?
A. sensory neurons A. somatic motor
B. association or integration neurons B. visceral motor
C. motor neurons C. somatic sensory
D. none of above D. visceral sensory

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1.20 Nervous System 588

450. What would you do if you touched a cac- C. A sensory neuron

tus? D. The spinal cord
A. get a bandage
456. WHICH IS THE LARGEST PART OF OUR
B. yell ouch BRAIN .
C. deal with it A. CEREBRUM
D. be an idiot and just leave your hand on B. CEREBELLUM
451. WHICH ONE DO WE USE TO MAKE US DO C. MEDULA

NARAYAN CHANGDER
THINGS? D. SPINAL CORD
A. CONSCIOUS 457. What part of the neuron is myelinated?
B. SUBCONSIOUS A. Cell Body
C. UNCONSIOUS B. Axon
D. NOT SURE C. Synapse
452. Which part of your brain you should use D. Dendrite
now to recall memories on this topic? 458. Which part of the body is the control cen-
A. hypothalamus ter?
B. thalamus A. brain
C. midbrain B. spinal cord
D. cerebellum C. nerve endings
D. vertebrae
453. All of the statement about the synapse
are true, except 459. The brain and spinal cord are parts of
A. An anatomic space between neurons which body system?
B. Where the actual chemical neurotrans- A. excretory
mission occurs B. endocrine
C. Where the electrical neurotransmis- C. respiratory
sion occurs D. nervous
D. none of above
460. Fast pain does all of these except
454. neurons carry messages away from A. precise pain
the central nervous system. B. long lasting
A. Motor C. mainly skin
B. Inter D. none of above
C. Sensory
461. Which part of the brain controls your
D. Flower breathing?
455. A neuron that connects the central ner- A. Pituitary Gland
vous system and a muscle is called: B. Cerebrum
A. A motor neuron C. Brain Stem
B. A relay neuron D. Cerebellum

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1.20 Nervous System 589

462. What does the Amygdala control? 468. Neurons that travel only from the brain
A. Emotions to the body are called

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B. Jumping Ability A. motor neurons

C. Speed B. inteneurons

D. Strength C. sensory neurons

D. none of above
463. The lobe of your brain responsible for vi-
sion, motion, and spatial awareness 469. Organs, such as the stomach and the
A. Medulla Oblongata small and large intestines, are lined with
involuntary muscle tissue. These organs,
B. Parietal
due to the muscular contractions of their
C. Occipital walls, involuntarily
D. Frontal A. Add liquids to food to make it a slurry.

464. Controls Sleep B. Move food through the digestive tract.

A. Medulla Oblongata C. Secrete mucous.
B. Brainstem D. Supply digestive enzymes that aid in di-
gestion
C. Spinal Cord
D. none of above 470. The correct direction of the neural impulse
within one neuron.
465. What is a neurotransmitter?
A. Axon Terminal to Dendrite
A. fatty covering of the axon
B. Dendrite to Axon Terminal
B. nerve cell
C. Cell Body to Axon
C. chemical messenger
D. Axon Terminal to Cell Body
D. gap between neurons
471. The medulla oblongata controls
466. What TWO parts of the nervous system
make up the central nervous system? A. vision and speech
A. Brain B. hearing
B. Sensory organs C. heart rate and blood pressure
C. Spinal Cord D. respiration
D. Nerves
472. What is sensory Nerve
467. Which of these is found in plant cells, but A. carry messages from brain to muscles
not animal cells?
B. carry messages from muscle to brain
A. nucleus
C. carry messages from receptor to the
B. ribosomes brain
C. mitochondria D. carry messages from brain to sense or-
D. cell walls gan

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1.20 Nervous System 590

473. The part of the neuron that takes infor- C. Nothing will happen as motor nerves
mation away from the cell body is called will perform the functions.
a(n) D. none of above
A. dendrite
478. The three main parts of the brain are ,
B. axon , and
C. cell body A. Cerebrum, spinal cord, heart
D. Schwann cell B. Cerebrum, Cerebellum, Medulla

NARAYAN CHANGDER
474. The “selectivity” of a particular ion chan- C. Cerebrum, Medulla, Gray Matter
nel refers to its D. none of above
A. permitting passage by negative but not
positive ions. 479. Your peripheral nerves

B. permitting passage by positive but not A. radiate out from the spinal cord into
negative ions your extremities
B. Help with peripheral vision
C. ability to change its size depending on
the ion needing transport C. Connect all parts of your brain
D. binding with only one type of neuro- D. Are only in gray matter
transmitter.
480. Hormones of the body’s endocrine sys-
E. permitting passage only to a specific tem are important contributors to a stress
ion. response. Which gland in the brain initi-
ates hormonal secretion?
475. Which of these is found in all organisms?
A. pituitary
A. cell
B. hypothalamus
B. tissue
C. adrenal
C. organ
D. amygdala
D. organ system
481. What part of the neuron carries the im-
476. line space in the brain and spinal cord. pulse toward the nerve cell body?
A. ependymal cells A. Dorsal Root
B. microglia B. Dendrites
C. oligodendrocytes C. Myelin Sheath
D. astrocytes D. Axon
477. What will happen if all the sensory 482. Which of the following is measured in
nerves stop working in any human’s units of grams?
body?
A. Temperature
A. Messages will not reach to the brain or
spinal cord. B. Volume

B. Brain is not able to process the re- C. Length

ceived information. D. Mass

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1.20 Nervous System 591

483. Pneumonia is an infectious disease that is C. Peripheral

caused by either a bacteria or a virus and
D. Sympathetic
primarily affects the lungs. The meaning

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of the stem “pneumo-“is
489. What are the basic structural units of liv-
A. Disease ing organisms?
B. Breathe A. Cells
C. Lung B. Organs
D. Windpipe
C. Nuclei
484. An example of a reflex is D. Tissues
A. kicking a ball in soccer
B. sneezing 490. The is the basic building block of the
nervous system.
C. singing
A. soma
D. none of above
B. neuron
485. The brain is protected by the-
C. axon
A. menegies
D. terminal
B. cranium
C. fatty tissue 491. Cells in the retina; sensitive to dim light:
D. none of above A. cones
486. Water can be used over and over again B. pupil
through the natural process called
C. rods
A. Photosynthesis
D. iris
B. Respiration
C. Infiltration 492. What is the Peripheral Nervous System
D. The water cycle consist of?
A. The brain
487. The brain and the spinal cord make up
which part of the nervous system? B. The spinal Cord
A. Somatic Nervous system C. The nerves that connect the CNS to all
B. Automatic nervous system parts of the body.
C. Central Nervous system D. All of the above.
D. Peripheral Nervous system
493. the heart would be classified under this
488. Melissa fell off a horse and was para- nervous system response.
lyzed as a result of significant injury to her A. somatic
spinal cord. Which nervous system was
damaged? B. autonomic
A. Autonomic C. cerebral
B. Central D. sensory

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1.20 Nervous System 592

494. The branch like figures that receive im- 500. What part of your brain controls breath-
pulses & conducts them to the cell body ing?
A. Dendrite A. cerebrum
B. Axon B. cerebellum
C. Cell Body C. brain stem
D. Myelin Sheath D. spinal cord

495. What part of the brain is responsible for 501. What is the job of the autonomic nervous

NARAYAN CHANGDER
thought and planning? system?
A. frontal A. make the heart beat
B. parietal B. move the leg
C. temporal C. swallow your lunch
D. occipital D. none of above

496. Learn Nerve 502. What do we call the long “tail” like part
of the neuron, that is responsible for con-
A. II tinuing the electrical signal?
B. IV A. Dendrite
C. V B. Soma
D. VIII C. Axon
497. A nerve cell that is specialized to trans- D. none of above
fer messages in the form of fast moving
503. The part of the neuron that takes in and
electrical energy
receives messages is called the
A. neuron
A. dendrite
B. brain B. nucleus
C. medulla C. axon
D. cerebellum D. synapse
498. The nervous system containing the 504. Which part of the brain controls sense of
nerves outside the brain and spinal cord. touch, temperature and pain, and also spa-
A. Central Nervous System tial and visual perception
B. Peripheral Nervous System A. cerebellum
C. Neurons B. Frontal Lobe
D. Axon C. medulla
D. Parietal lobe
499. Which animals were the first to develop
a nerv net ( like a nervous system)? 505. Audi-/ oto-Means what?
A. insects A. Hearing
B. jellyfish B. Seeing
C. sponges C. Tasting
D. octopus D. Feeling

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1.20 Nervous System 593

506. carry impulses from the brain and 511. what are 2 nervous system diseases
spinal chord to muscles and glands A. Guillain-bare

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A. cell body B. yellow stone fever
B. inter-neurons C. parkinson
C. motor-neurons D. Guillain-bare syndrome
D. nervous system
512. What protects the organs of the central
nervous system?
507. HOW MANY LEVELS OF CONSCIOUS-
NESS ARE THERE? A. Fluid
A. 1 B. Bone
B. 2 C. Air

C. 3 D. Blood

D. 4 513. The space between an axon of a neuron

that is communicating with a dendrite of
508. Which part of the brain controls your another neuron is called a
senses?
A. Neuron
A. cerebrum B. Brain message
B. cerebellum C. Stimulus
C. brain stem D. Synapse
D. none of above
514. Your nervous system acts as a?
509. Which brain structure is responsible for A. Short Circuit
balance and is involved with movement? B. Relay System
A. Cerebellum C. Billing System
B. Cerebrum D. Tracking System
C. Medulla
515. Neuron is most common neuron in
D. none of above brain
A. Unipolar
510. Amy was in an automobile accident. Her
spinal cord was severed and she sustained B. Bipolar
damage to her brain. The medical staff C. Multipolar
at the trauma center understands that this
D. Pseudounipolar
substance might leak into surrounding tis-
sues. What is the substance? 516. Moves eyes laterally away from the nose
A. Cerebral aqueduct A. abducens
B. Cerebrospinal fluid B. facial
C. Choroid plexus C. trigeminal
D. Corpus callosum D. accessory

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1.20 Nervous System 594

517. Cranial nerves, spinal nerves, and all the C. spinal cord and spinal nerves
other nerves throughout the body are part D. cranial nerves and spinal nerves
of the nervous system
A. somatic 523. What is the correct sequence of the Re-
flex Arc?
B. autonomic
A. Afferent Neuron →Affector
C. peripheral
→Interneuron →Effector →Efferent
D. central Neuron

NARAYAN CHANGDER
518. The part of the brain located below the B. Affector → Afferent Neuron → In-
cerebrum is the: terneuron → Efferent Neuron → Effector
A. cerebellum. C. Efferent Neuron →Effector
→Interneuron →Affector → Afferent
B. diencephalon. Neuron
C. hypothalamus.
D. Effector →Efferent Neuron
D. thalamus. →Interneuron →Afferent Neuron
→Affector
519. The portion of your brain responsible for
sleeping cycles and breathing 524. The brain and spinal cord are made up
A. Pons of cells called neurons. The stem “neur-
“means
B. Frontal
A. Brain
C. Temporal
B. Lobe
D. Parietal
C. Connections
520. The two parts of the nervous system
D. Nerve
are?
A. PNS 525. The most immediate effect of adrenaline
and noradrenaline secretion is
B. CNS
A. arousal.
C. JNS
B. immobility.
D. TNS
C. relaxation.
521. Symptoms include:Tremor and Shuffling
gait D. energy conservation.

A. Parkinson’s Disease 526. The nervous system

B. Cushing’s syndrome A. receives information about what is go-
C. Polio ing on in your body as well as what is going
on around you.
D. Aphasia
B. tells your body how to react to the in-
522. What is the central nervous system (CNS) formation it receives.
made of? C. helps your body maintain homeosta-
A. brain and spinal cord sis.
B. brain and cranial nerves D. all of the above.

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1.20 Nervous System 595

527. The type of nerves that carry impulses to C. Pia mater

from the CNS to muscles and glands D. Ventricles

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A. Efferent
533. The cells that form the lining of the cav-
B. Afferent ities of the brain and spinal cord and line
C. Somatic the fluid-filled ventricles of the brain are
D. none of above called?
A. arachnoid cells
528. The central nervous system (CNS) con-
B. schwann cells
sists of
C. ependymal cells
A. the brain, only
D. neuroglia cells
B. the brain and spinal cord
C. the brain, spinal cord, and spinal 534. Lobe of cerebrum that processes vision
nerves A. Occipital
D. the brain and cranial nerves B. Frontal
529. Schwann cells produce layers of mem- C. Temporal
brane containing myelin, which provides: D. Parietal
A. nutrition 535. RECEIVE, PROCESS AND GIVES A RE-
B. insulation SPONSE
C. immunity A. SENSE ORGANS
D. DNA transcription B. SENSORY NERVES

530. Optic Nerve C. MOTOR NERVES

A. Cranial nerve I D. CENTRAL NERVOUS SYSTEM

B. Cranial nerve II 536. Propagation is

C. Cranial nerve IX A. along myelinated axons it moves at a
speed of about 18-140 meters per second
D. Cranial nerve XII
(18-140 mph)
531. What are the main organs of the Central B. along unmyelinated axons it moves at
Nervous System? a speed of about 1 meter per second (2
A. Brain & Chest mph)
B. Spinal Cord & Spinal Nerves C. the spread of action potential down
the axon
C. Brain & Spinal Cord
D. none of above
D. Heart & Brain
537. The reestablishment of a neuron to a po-
532. A patient sustains a fall while getting out
larized state
of the shower. Tests reveal damage to the
inner most meningeal layer. What struc- A. Refractory Period
ture was damaged? B. Polrization
A. Arachnoid C. Repolarization
B. Dura mater D. Depolarization

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1.20 Nervous System 596

538. Which of the following are 2 of the types 544. The person who is the most qualified to
of Nerve Endings rate the pain of the patient is
A. Cold and Pressure A. the nurse
B. Hot and Taste B. the doctor; specifically the surgeon
C. Sweet and Sour
C. the family member
D. Touch and Feel
D. the patient

NARAYAN CHANGDER
539. What do neuroglia do?
545. What are the TWO major divisions of the
A. Release neurotransmitters
nervous system
B. Support and nourish neurons
A. Central Nervous System
C. Release calcium to activate neurons
B. Sensory Nervous System
D. Absorb nutrients from neurons
C. Peripheral Nervous System
540. Part of the PNS that controls cardiac,
smooth muscles and glands D. Involuntary Nervous System
A. Autonomic 546. Which of the following statements about
B. Somatic action potentials in a given neuron is
C. Sensory false?
D. none of above A. They occur after the threshold poten-
tial is reached
541. What is the gap between two neurons
called? B. They are identical in duration.

A. Impulse C. They are identical in magnitude.

B. Synapse D. They are propagated down the length
C. CNS of the dendrite.

D. Inter neuron 547. Which of the following is/are neurotrans-

mitters? There may be more than one!
542. Which part of the brain is responsible
for:coughing, sneezing, vomiting? A. acetylcholine
A. pons B. dopamine
B. medulla C. calcium
C. cerebrum
D. seratonin
D. interbrain
548. Which type of nerves pass instructions to
543. This type of glia cell attacks microbes and
the muscles to carry out actions?
removes debris.
A. sensory nerves
A. Neurilemma
B. Astroglia B. motor nerves
C. Microglia C. none of these
D. Oligodendrocyte D. none of above

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1.20 Nervous System 597

549. What type of neuroglial cell is found in D. receives sensory data

the CNS and phagocytes bacteria and cel-
E. goes on a mini-vacation three times a
lular debris?

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week
A. Microglial
B. Oligodendrocytes 555. THE NERVOUS SYSTEM HAS HOW MANY
IMPORTANT PARTS?
C. Astrocytes
A. 1
D. Ependyman
B. 2
550. Connected to spinal cord, controls heart-
beat, breathing, blood pressure, digestion. C. 3
A. Nerves D. 4
B. Brain Stem
556. which nerve is where information leaves
C. Dendrites the eye and carries impulses to the brain?
D. Brain A. olfactory
551. The nervous system’s main objective is to B. motor
A. Coordinate actions C. optic
B. Allow someone the ability to feel D. sensory
C. Allow eyesight
D. Control digestion 557. Two neurons connect at a place called a

552. They are points on a nerve cell that A. cerebrum

receive information (signals) from other
nerve cells. “Tree branches.” B. synapse
A. motor neuron C. stimulus
B. dendrite D. cell body
C. axon
558. The main function of the occipital lobe is?
D. synapse
A. Touch
E. neurochemical
B. Taste
553. The function of motor neurons
C. Vision
A. Feeling pain
D. Memory
B. Moving limbs
C. Sweating 559. Lazarus and Folkman’s model is an
D. none of above example of a model.

554. The Nervous System: A. Transtheoretical, biological

A. sends signals to muscles and organs B. Transtheoretical, psychological

B. runs a food truck business C. Transactional, biological
C. interprets information D. Transactional, psychological

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1.20 Nervous System 598

560. What is the most basic unit of the ner- C. Autonomic

vous system? D. Somatic
A. Brain
566. All the other neurons that aren’t part of
B. Nerve the central nervous system are part of the
C. Neuron nervous system
D. Impulse A. peripheral
B. outer
561. What kind of stimuli would cause you to

NARAYAN CHANGDER
shiver? C. inside
A. Being very excited about a new bike. D. pulmonary
B. Jumping into a cold shower. 567. The human brain is made of 100 billion
C. Running really fast. neurons. Each neuron has a nucleus that
contains genes. Many neurons bind to-
D. none of above
gether to form a nerve.
562. The frontal, parietal, occipital, and tem- A. tissue
poral lobes make up the
B. system
A. brain stem. C. organ
B. cerebrum. D. cell
C. cerebellum.
568. What would happen if your spinal cord
D. none of above was severed?
563. the nervous system sends us signals A. You would become paralyzed and not
throughout our body be able to move
A. TRUE B. You would not be able to breathe
B. FALSE C. You would become blind
C. SOMETIMES D. none of above
D. NOT SURE 569. These three parts work together to make
up the Central Nervous System. They are
564. What is the insulating membrane that
the , , and
surrounds parts of the axon that helps the
impulses travel faster called? A. Brain, Spinal Cord, and Nerves
A. Axon B. Heart, Lungs, Brain
B. Dendrites C. Cerebrum, Cerebral Cortex, Cerebel-
lum
C. Node of Ranvier
D. none of above
D. Myelin Sheath
570. Consists of your brain and spinal cord
565. Which division of the nervous system can
be broken into sympathetic & parasympa- A. medulla
thetic? B. cerebrum
A. Central C. central nervous system
B. Peripheral D. peripheral nervous system

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1.20 Nervous System 599

571. Which of the following is an example of C. Interneurons

an internal stimulus?
D. Brain Neurons

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A. darkness
B. sunlight 577. The optic nerve is a
C. hunger A. Motor nerve
D. rain B. Relay nerve
572. Location at which a neuron can transfer C. Sensory nerve
an impulse to another cell with the use of
neurotransmitters is called D. none of above
A. myelin sheath
578. If I step on a nail what type of neu-
B. axon rons take the response to my muscles?
C. threshold A. motor
D. synapse
B. interneurons
573. Taste sensation on the anterior 2/3 of
C. sensory
the tongue
A. facial D. not neurons, muscle tissue sends the
response
B. trigeminal
C. glossopharngeal 579. Primary, Secondary, and Surface waves
D. hypoglossal are all types of

574. Which part of a neuron RECIEVES infor- A. Transverse waves

mation? B. Seismic waves
A. axon C. Longitudinal waves
B. dendrite
D. Standing waves
C. cell body
D. axon terminal 580. What is function of medula?

575. The tough, white covering:part of the ex- A. controls hearth rate
ternal coat of the eye: B. memory center
A. lens
C. controls balance
B. sclera
D. conscious thought
C. cornea
D. conjunctiva 581. Where can we find Hypothalamus?
576. What type of Neuron transmits informa- A. Diencephalon
tion from one neuron to the next in the
Central nervous system? B. Cerebellum

A. Sensory Neurons C. Brain Stem

B. Sensory Neurons D. Cerebrum

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1.20 Nervous System 600

582. What is the main function of the nervous 587. Allows you to swallow your food
system? A. Trigeminal
A. to inhale oxygen and exhale carbon B. Facial
dioxide
C. Glossopharyngeal
B. to break down food consumed by a per-
son for nutrients D. Hypoglossal
C. to control the body’s activities by relay- 588. dendr-means what?
ing messages

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. glue
D. to control the body’s movements
B. treelike
583. The ability of brain tissue to take on new C. membrane
functions, usually occurs after parts of the
D. nerve
brain have been damaged
A. Neurogenesis 589. The part of the brain that controls invol-
B. Brain Plasticity untary processes

C. Somatic Regeneration A. medulla

D. Stem Cell Lesions B. cerebrum
C. cerebellum
584. Which of the following is an accurate list
of the abiotic factors within an ecosys- D. spinal cord
tem?
590. which part of the brain carries out mental
A. Owls, squirrels, deer, oak trees, and processes such as learning and remember-
water ing?
B. Water, soil, air, temperature, and light A. brain stem
C. Producers, Consumers, and Decom- B. cerebrum
posers
C. cerebellum
D. Animals, water, soil, light, and plants
D. none of above
585. What does the cerebrum control?
591. How do neurons trasmit a signal:a) down
A. Memory, language, and thoughts. a neuron / b) from neuron to neuron?
B. Heartbeat, swallowing, and blinking. A. electrical / b) chemical
C. Coughing and sneezing
B. chemical / b) electrical
D. Standing, running, waving, and speak-
C. chemical / b) chemical
ing.
D. electrical / b) electrical
586. The motor/efferent division of the ner-
vous system carries impulses from the CNS 592. The pathway of nerves to and from the
to brain is called
A. muscles and glands A. cerebrum
B. muscles and bones B. cerebellum
C. muscles and blood cells C. brain stem
D. glands and blood cells D. medulla

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1.20 Nervous System 601

593. An extension of a neuron that carries im- 599. Henry was on a hike when he saw a tiger
pulses away from the cell body snake. He quickly picked up a stick and
tried to hit it. His friend Tom, who also

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A. Dendrite
saw the snake, quickly ran away to a safer
B. Nerve place on the track. Which division of the
C. Vein nervous system was most likely in control
D. Axon of their reactions to the snake?
A. sympathetic
594. The brain creates connections, or path-
B. parasympathetic
ways, between these microscopic cells:
C. limbic
A. synapses
D. somatic
B. lobes
C. neurons 600. The myelin sheath
D. Villi A. makes the signal travel faster
B. protects the neuron
595. The neurotransmitter that signals muscle
contraction is called C. carries the signal away from the cell
body
A. Acetylcholine
D. carries the signal to the cell body
B. Myosin
C. Actin 601. The part of the nervous system that con-
sists of nerves that branch out from the
D. Calcium CNS (central nervous system) and connect
596. Q. in the skin sense touch or other stim- to other body parts
uli. A. Sympathetic
A. Motor neurons B. Parasympathetic
B. Receptors C. Autonomic
C. Sensory neurons D. Peripheral
D. interneurons 602. Which part of the neuron receives sig-
nals?
597. Located on the brainstem
A. dendrite
A. Pons
B. axon
B. Cerebrum
C. cell body
C. Thalamus
D. myelin sheath
D. none of above
603. Which is the correct nerve pathway?
598. After seeing a moth, a frog uses its
tongue to catch it. This is an example of: A. dendrite > axon > cell body >
synapse > dendrite
A. responding to a stimulus
B. dendrite > cell body > axon >
B. secreting hormones synapse > dendrite
C. maintaining homeostasis C. axon > cell body > dendrite >
D. gathering information synapse > axon

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1.20 Nervous System 602

D. axon > cell body > dendrite > C. Mass

synapse > axon D. Density
604. Which of the following statements best 609. What are the two main parts of the cen-
quantitatively describes the optimum tral nervous system?
(best) soil pH to grow plants?
A. brain and spinal cord
A. Plants grow best when the soil is
slightly acidic. B. patella and phalanges

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Plants grow best when the soil is C. heart and lungs
slightly basic. D. stomach and pancreas
C. Plants grow best when the pH range is 610. What is another name for a nerve cell?
between 4 and 10.
A. Nerves
D. Plants grow best when the pH range is
between 5 and 7. B. Neuron
C. Nilli
605. Also called the “rest and digest” arm of
D. Brain
the nervous system.
A. Sympathetic 611. Thinking takes place in the
B. Parasympathetic A. cerebrum
C. Central B. cerebellum
D. Peripheral C. brain stem
D. spinal cord
606. Which part of the nervous system con-
sists of millions of nerve cells all over the 612. The third, innermost layer of the
body: meninges is called the
A. autonomic nervous system A. pia mater
B. central nervous system B. arachnoid mater
C. peripheral nervous system C. dura mater
D. somatic nervous system D. epidural mater
607. The afferent division of the PNS is also 613. The part of the neuron that insulates the
called the division. axon and increases the speed of the neural
A. motor message within the neuron.
B. sensory A. Synapse
C. somatic B. Dendrite
D. autonomic C. Myelin Sheath
D. Axon Terminal Button
608. Julio fills a graduated cylinder with liquid.
Which property of the liquid is Julio mea- 614. Inside of a cell membrane more positively
suring? charge that the outside
A. Volume A. Ploarized
B. Temperature B. Depolarized

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1.20 Nervous System 603

C. Repolarization 620. Which one is NOT part of the central ner-

D. Refractory Period vous system (CNS)?

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A. brain
615. narrow gaps between Schwann cells
B. spinal cord
A. neurilemma
C. nerves
B. neurofibrils
D. ganglia
C. nodes of Ranvier
621. What does the motor division do?
D. atrocytes
A. Send signals within your Brain
616. What is an example of your body main- B. It drives the neurons
taining homeostasis?
C. Send signals from your ears to the CNS
A. Your internal body temperature is
98.6o. D. Send signals from the CNS to Muscles

B. The hair growing on your head. 622. Located in the back of the cerebrum and
is the visual processing area of the brain.
C. Your fingernails and toenails breaking
when they get too long. A. Frontal Lobe
D. none of above B. Occipital Lobe
C. Axon
617. Which must be present in order for some-
thing to be classified as an organism? D. Stimulus
A. nucleus 623. Which of these do all cells release?
B. organ A. sugar
C. cell B. water
D. organelle C. oxygen
D. energy
618. The chemicals that carry messages to tar-
get neurons are stored in 624. Which body system coordinates all of the
A. vesicles. systems by controlling every activity that
takes place?
B. myelin sheaths.
A. The Nervous System
C. the cell body.
B. The Digestive System
D. the synaptic gap.
C. The Endocrine System
619. Jana was diagnosed with paraplegia af- D. The Circulatory System
ter a horse riding accident and can no
E. The Immune System
longer walk. She is unable to do so be-
cause her nervous system cannot com- 625. What kind of cells make up the nervous
municate with her nervous system. system?
A. central; autonomic A. Plasma
B. somatic; central B. Neurons
C. somatic; sympathetic C. Blood Vessels
D. autonomic; sympathetic D. Spinal Cord

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1.20 Nervous System 604

626. The nerves going to the upper limbs join 632. The neuron receives impulses from other
the spinal cord at the region. neurons at the:
A. cervical A. axon
B. thoracic B. dendrite
C. sacral C. Node of Ranvier

D. lumbar D. synapse
633. Which type of neuron transmits a signal

NARAYAN CHANGDER
627. The Brain and Spinal Cord make up the
from the central nervous system to an ef-
A. Peripheral NErvous System fector such as a muscle?
B. Central Nervous System A. sensory
C. Sensory Nervous System B. motor
D. Motor Nervous system C. relay
D. dendrite
628. Which are the main divisions of the ner-
vous system? 634. The epidermis is the top layer of skin.
“Epi-“means
A. afferent and efferent
A. Above
B. peripheral and central
B. Skin
C. somatic and autonomic
C. Through
D. sympathetic and parasympathetic
D. Under
629. Stem cells might be able to help a blind 635. What are the three major parts of your
person that brain?
A. has damage to the primary visual cor- A. Cerebrum
tex
B. Nerves
B. has myopia C. Cerebellum
C. has macular degeneration D. Spinal Cord
D. has a lesion in the LGN E. Brain Stem
630. Afferent nerves are called 636. Which animals are ‘crepuscular’?
A. efferent A. animals active during the night
B. sensory B. animals active during the day
C. motor C. animals active at dawn/twilight
D. animals active during day and night
D. peripheral
637. What is the brain stem (medulla) con-
631. -ellum means what? nected to?
A. smaller A. Phalanges
B. treelike B. Spinal Cord
C. glue C. Stop Lights
D. brain D. Sternum

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1.20 Nervous System 605

638. Children are playing near a fence . The C. self

fence blocks the view, but they know that
D. smaller
food is cooking on the other side. Which

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sense lets them know this? 644. Which of the following is NOT a function
A. Hearing of the nervous system?
B. smell A. monitor changes in the environment
C. taste B. synthesize hormones to react to stim-
D. touch uli
C. process and interpret input
639. Actions which are NOT under your control
D. activate muscles and glands
A. voluntary
B. involuntary 645. Which nerves branch directly from the
C. vertebrae brain stem and transmit nerve signals to
and from the eyes, mouth, face and scalp?
D. brain
A. cranial nerves
640. the parts or the nervous system
B. spinal nerves
A. brain and spinal cord
C. meninges
B. brain, spinal cord and nerves
D. none of above
C. brain, spinal cord, nerves and sense
organs 646. The brain has four lobes. Which is not a
D. none of above lobe of the brain?
A. Occipital
641. The nerves in this system are outside of
the brain and the spinal cord. They relay in- B. Temporal
formation between your brain and the rest C. Cerebral
of your body. “The electrical wires.”
D. Parietal
A. central nervous system
B. peripheral nervous system 647. What are the four types of tastebuds
C. neuron A. Sweet, Sour, Salty, Sugary
D. sensory neuron B. Sweet, Sour, Bitter, Spicy
642. Controls Reflexes C. Sweet, Bitter, Salty, Sour
A. Spinal Cord D. Sour, Bitter, Sugary, Spicy
B. Medulla
648. Which of the following are not examples
C. Cerebellum of renewable resources?
D. none of above A. Coal and natural gas
643. astro-means what? B. Plants and animals
A. Star C. Water and sunlight
B. hearing D. Wind and soil

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1.20 Nervous System 606

649. Which occurs first in neural development B. Compromised of unsheathed or uncov-

in the neural tube? ered
A. mitosis C. Myelinated nerve fibers
B. meiosis D. none of above
C. neural pruning 655. According to function a sensory neuron
D. differentiation would
A. Transmit impulses from brain and

NARAYAN CHANGDER
650. The stage of Selye’s General Adaptation spinal cords to muscles and glands direct-
Syndrome in which an organism initially re- ing action
sponds to a stressor is called
B. Carry Impulses from skin and organs
A. resistance. to the spinal cord and brain about the ex-
B. exhaustion. ternal and internal environment
C. alarm reaction. C. Transmit impulses between other neu-
rons
D. counter shock.
D. none of above
651. Which part of the brain coordinates the
656. Chemoreceptors deal with
actions of muscles and helps you maintain
balance? A. smell and taste
A. brain stem B. touch
B. cerebrum C. pain
D. none of above
C. cerebellum
D. none of above 657. Which 2 body systems interact and initi-
ate movement?
652. Insulating axon fibers which increase A. muscular and nervous system
rate of neural impulse transmisison
B. skeletal and muscular system
A. Dendrites
C. respiratory and nervous system
B. Cell Body
D. circulatory and nervous system
C. Myelin Sheath
658. White matter is
D. none of above
A. On the outer edge of the brain
653. What is the main control center of the B. Inner part of the brain.
body that contains the brain and spinal
C. collects information
cord?
D. is part of your eye
A. Peripheral nervous system
B. Central nervous system 659. All involuntary actions, such as breathing,
heartrate, and pulse are controlled by the
C. Autonomic nervous system
A. peripheral nervous system
D. Somatic nervous system
B. autonomic nervous system
654. Gray matter: C. somatic nervous system
A. Cell bodies and dendrites D. none of above

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1.20 Nervous System 607

660. What are the two divisions of the ner- C. To remove wastes from the body
vous system? D. none of above

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A. Central and Lower nervous systems
666. Controls Body Temperature
B. Central and Peripheral nervous sys-
A. Pans
tems
B. Brainstem
C. Lower and Cerebral nervous systems
C. Hypothalamus
D. Central and Muscular nervous systems
D. none of above
661. What part of the brain controls hunger 667. Gaps in the myelin sheath are called
and thirst?
A. nodes of Ranvier
A. Hypothalamus
B. synapses
B. Thalamus
C. Na+/K+ pumps
C. Pons
D. fenestrations
D. Medulla Oblongata
668. Can our body help us in any situation
662. Approximately how many synapses are without our Nerves reaching the brain
located in our brains? A. no
A. 1, 000 B. yes
B. 1, 000 billion C. Maybe
C. 1 million D. none of above
D. 1, 000 trillion 669. The brain stem (medulla) controls the fol-
lowing,
663. What is the protective tissue of the spinal
cord and brain called? A. Heart Rate
A. cerebellum fluid B. Running

B. meninges C. Walking
D. Talking
C. axons
D. none of above 670. Which is not a symptom of Parkinson’s
Disease
664. How many senses does the body have A. Bradykineasia
A. 5 B. Stuttering
B. 3 C. loss of sense of smell
C. 4 D. lower muscle tension
D. 2 671. Selye’s GAS model consists of three
stages called
665. This is the job of the nervous system.
A. Alarm, Reaction, Exhaustion
A. To send messages to and from the
brain and spinal cord to and from the body B. Alarm, Resistance, Exhaling
B. To break down food to be used by the C. Alarm, Resistance, Exhaustion
body D. Alert, Resistance, Exhaustion

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1.20 Nervous System 608

672. The pons connects 677. Which of these is an example of an effec-

tor?
A. the cerebellum to the cerebrum
A. taste buds on the tongue
B. the cerebrum to brain stem
B. photoreceptors (they detect light) in
C. the cerebrum to the interbrain the eye
D. the cerebellum to the brain stem C. a motor neuron leading to your arm

673. These structures receive the neurotrans- D. the pancreas

NARAYAN CHANGDER
mitter from previous neuron and send the 678. How do the neurons in the nervous sys-
message to the nucleus for processing tem communicate with each other?
A. central A. Electrically or Chemically
B. axon B. Text Messages
C. dendrites C. Only Chemically
D. reflexes D. Only Electronically

679. Identify the 2 labels that could apply to

674. Which part of the body is like a highway
the nervous system below. The muscles
for sending messages?
of your stomach move to begin digesting
A. Blood food.
B. Spinal Cord A. Sensory
C. Atrium B. Motor
D. Ventricle C. Autonomic
D. Somatic
675. What is a neuron
680. A neuron that connects the ear to the cen-
A. perform all the functions of the ner- tral nervous system is called
vous system (basic units)
A. A motor neuron
B. phagocytic functions as well
B. A relay neuron
C. unlike neurons, they can still divide
C. A sensory neuron
D. none of above D. The spinal cord
676. Which of the following is the correct se- 681. Neurons found in our sensory organs
quence in a typical reflex arc:
A. Motor Nerves
A. effector, afferent neuron, integration B. Efferent Neurons
center, efferent neuron, receptor
C. Sensory Neurons
B. receptor, afferent neuron, integration
D. Dendrites
center, efferent neuron, effector
C. effector, afferent neuron, integration 682. Which neurotransmitter is involved in
center, afferent neuron, receptor muscle movements?

D. receptor, efferent neuron, integration A. Acetylcholine

center, afferent neuron, effector B. Endorphins

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1.20 Nervous System 609

C. Serotonin 688. The perception of pain occurs in how

D. GABA many specialized parts of the brain?

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683. A thing or event that evokes a specific A. 1
functional reaction in an organ or tissue. B. 3
A. Stimulus C. 5
B. Frontal Lobe
D. All of them
C. Axon
D. Central Nervous System 689. Which part of the brain controls vision?

684. Spinal Cord A. Occipital Lobe

A. controls involuntary actions such as B. cerebellum
breathing and heart rate
C. Temporal Lobe
B. is the link between the brain and the
peripheral nervous system D. Frontal Lobe
C. largest part; controls movement, the
690. Peripheral Nervous System
senses, speech and abstract thought
D. coordinates actions of muscles and A. consists of a network of nerves that
helps maintain balance branch out to body

685. Which is controlled by conscious B. controls involuntary actions such as

thought? breathing and heart rate

A. voluntary actions C. coordinates actions of muscles and

helps maintain balance
B. breathing
C. heart rate D. located in the skull has 3 main regions
D. digestion
691. The nervous system works with these
686. Which isn’t part of the structure of a cell two systems to direct behavior and move-
body ment.
A. dendrites A. respiratory and excretory
B. axon B. skeletal and muscular
C. synaptic terminals
C. respiratory and digestive
D. chromosome
D. skeletal and digestive
687. A mosquito lands on your arm. You watch
it carefully then move your hand to swat 692. The nervous system is responsible for
it. Your sensation and response are due to in the body.
activity.
A. movement
A. spinal reflex
B. support
B. autonomic nervous system
C. somatic nervous system C. intellegence
D. parasympathetic nervous system D. controlling and coordinating activities

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1.20 Nervous System 610

693. What are the two main divisions of the 699. Which part of the nervous system is not
nervous system? involved in producing reflex actions?
A. The brain and spinal cord A. brain
B. The central nervous and peripheral B. spinal cord
nervous system C. receptors
C. The neurons and the dendrites D. sensory
D. The cerebrum and the medulla
700. Part of the brain that controls your auto-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
694. What helps warn us and protect us? nomic actions?
A. nerves A. cerebrum
B. reflexes B. cerebellum
C. both a and b C. medulla
D. none of above D. none of above

695. An electrical signal that travels along the 701. What is the function of Nervous system
length of an axon to a synapse A. it control’s the blood and tell it where
A. refractory period to go

B. graded potential B. it controls involuntary actions

C. it controls voluntary actions
C. action potential
D. it control’s the brain
D. contractility
702. The digestive organs are activated by
696. What is the insulator covering the axon
which nerve during parasympathetic sys-
which helps the impulse travel?
tems?
A. cell body
A. occulomotor nerve
B. dendrite B. facial nerve
C. myelin sheath C. vagus nerve
D. synapse D. glossopharyngeal nerve
697. A signal to do something is called a 703. What part of your brain controls bal-
A. stimulus ance?
B. response A. cerebrum
C. nerve B. cerebellum
D. muscle C. brain stem
D. spinal cord
698. Peripheral Nervous System includes
A. Brain 704. Which is not a sensory receptor
B. Spinal Cord A. thermoreceptors
C. All Parts of the nervous system out- B. chemoreceptors
sides of the brain and spinal cord C. photoreceptors
D. none of above D. sensoreceptors

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1.20 Nervous System 611

705. The medulla oblongata connects the brain 710. Which part of the brain is the largest?
to the A. medula oblongata

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A. heart B. cerebellum
B. spinal cord C. cerebrum
C. brain D. none of above
D. none of above 711. Which part of the brain is split into two
hemispheres?
706. Which of the following is the function of
A. Brain Stem
the somatic nervous system?
B. Cerebrum
A. controls the cardiac muscles and
smooth muscles as well as internal or- C. Cerebellum
gans D. Pituitary Gland
B. stimulates skeletal muscles for move- 712. Somatic motions are motions that we
ment
A. control voluntarily
C. makes the connections between the
B. have little control over
eyes and the brain
C. have no control over
D. stimulates the ears for better hearing
D. don’t actually do
707. Which part of the brain controls senses, 713. A gap between two nerve cells. Informa-
thinking, and memory? tion is transmitted from one nerve cell to
A. cerebrum another across this gap by chemical signals
or by electrical signals. “The gap.”
B. cerebellum
A. motor neuron
C. medulla
B. dendrite
D. none of above
C. axon
708. Which part of the neuron transmits im- D. synapse
pulses to other neurons? E. neurochemical
A. axon
714. Which part of the brain is surrounded by
B. cell body meninges?
C. dendrite A. cerebrum
D. node B. cerebellum
C. midbrain
709. What type of cells make up the nervous
D. interbrain
system?
A. long ones 715. A benefit of fight-flight-freeze is that
A. the body is quickly energised to react
B. Neurons
to a threat.
C. Blood
B. it enables an organism to successfully
D. Stem adapt to all types of situations.

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1.20 Nervous System 612

C. it prevents organisms from being 721. The nervous system is in involved in rapid
harmed by stressors that are threatening. (a) to connect to lots of other cells.
D. the individual organism can choose A. communication
how to respond to a threat depending on B. nerve
the situation.
C. impulses
716. What would happen if your cerebellum D. branches
was damaged?

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. You would lose balance 722. Human muscle cells need nutrients and
oxygen during exercise. The human body
B. You would not be able to breath is able to meet the needs of the muscle
C. You would be paralyzed cells during exercise by increasing?
D. none of above A. digestion

717. What is the colored part of the eye B. excretion

called? C. secretion
A. Iris D. circulation
B. Optic Nerve
723. What system helps the body defend it-
C. Cornea self against disease while maintaining the
D. Rods and Cones levels of body fluids?
A. integumentary
718. In what ways are neurons different from
every other cell in the body? B. lymphatic

A. Appearance C. digestive

B. They form networks D. nervous

C. They communicate with one another 724. Which part of the brain controls the auto-
D. All of the above matic processes?
A. medula oblongata
719. How many pairs of cranial nerves are
there? B. cerebrum

A. 10 C. cerebellum

B. 11 D. none of above
C. 12 725. Neuron
D. 13 A. a nerve cell with a unique structure for
receiving and passing on information
720. Can a nerve be repaired once it’s been
damaged? B. a signal that causes an animal to react
in some way
A. yes, depending on the severity
C. found in the brain and spinal cord and
B. no-never allow sensory and motor neurons to com-
C. no-not usually municate
D. yes-always D. none of above

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1.20 Nervous System 613

726. Which list most accurately identifies 732. Sensory information is best described as
structures in the nervous system? information.

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A. Brain, Spinal Cord, Nerves A. afferent
B. Nose, Bronchi, Lungs B. efferent
C. Esophagus, Stomach, Intestines C. internal
D. Skin D. external
727. This system controls everything you do. 733. Which is NOT correct
A. Nervous system A. the cerebrum is part of the brain
B. Skeletal system B. the brain is part of the nervous system
C. Respiratory system C. the heart is part of the nervous system
D. Digestive system D. the skull is around the brain
728. A network of branches coming from indi- 734. Why do the symptoms of a stroke vary
vidual cells. They carry information and from person to person?
electrical signals in the brain and nervous
system A. The stroke can cause either too much
excitation or too much inhibition
A. axon
B. The symptoms depend on whether the
B. axon terminal
stroke was ischemic or hemorrhagic
C. dendrite
C. The symptoms depend on which brain
D. neuron area was affected by the loss of blood sup-
ply
729. clear liquid that helps cushion brain &
spinal cord D. The symptoms depend on how much
neuroplasticity a person is capable of
A. cerebral palsy
B. cerebral nervous fluid 735. What isn’t a Nervous Systems function
C. cerebral spinal fluid A. monitors internal and external environ-
D. water ment to maintain homeostasis
B. integrate sensory information
730. What does the axon carry?
C. coordinates voluntary and involuntary
A. Impulses away from the cell body responses of other organ systems
B. Impulses to the cell body
D. integrates and coordinates the pro-
C. chemicals cessing of sensory data and transmission
D. messages of motor commands

731. How many parts are in the Nervous sys- 736. A cytoplasmic extension of a neuron that
tem? receives stimuli
A. 4 A. Axon
B. 2 B. Nerve
C. 3 C. Dendrite
D. none of above D. Synapse

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1.20 Nervous System 614

737. What is function of cerebrum? A. Spinal Cord and heart

A. memory center B. Brain and heart
B. controls hearth rate C. Spinal cord and brain
C. controls balance D. Heart and lungs
D. coordination 743. Eustress is
738. The part of the body that integrates the A. good stress

NARAYAN CHANGDER
information it receives from all over the B. bad stress
body in order to make decisions is called
C. a positive psychological response to
the
stress
A. peripheral nervous system
D. a positive biological response to stress
B. sympathetic nervous system
744. What is the name of cells that support
C. central nervous system the cells that send information?
D. parasympathetic nervous system A. Neurons
739. WHICH ONE IS ACTIVATED IN AN EMER- B. Axons
GENCY (SUCH AS BEING HIT HARD ON C. Dendrites
THE HEAD)
D. Neuroglia
A. CONSCIOUS
745. This releases neurotransmitters which
B. UNCONSCIOUS
are sent into the synaptic cleft for recep-
C. SUBCONSCIOUS tors on the dendrite
D. NOT SURE A. axon
740. The long, fiber like part of a neuron which B. axon terminal
the cell sends information to receiving neu- C. gene
rons D. neuron
A. axon
746. Cardiac muscle makes up the heart which
B. dendrite pumps blood throughout the body there-
C. axon terminal fore the stem “cardi-“means
D. gene A. Heart
B. Pump
741. All of the statements about myelin are
true except C. Circulate
A. Myelin is found on every neuron D. Blood
B. Is found on the axon 747. The part of the neuron that passes the
C. Appears white message along is called the
D. Speeds up neurotransmission A. axon
B. dendrite
742. The part(s) of the nervous system that
are protected by the axial skeleton would C. nucleus
be the D. synapse

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1.20 Nervous System 615

748. In what ways can there be variation of a C. A & B

neuron? D. Neither A or B

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A. Number of axons
754. The “effect” of a given stimulus is the
B. If the axon is myelinated or not
C. Length of the axons A. response
D. The number of nuclei in the cell body B. stimulus
749. What three parts make up the nervous C. cause
system? D. result
A. brain, heart, spinal cord
755. Which of these are the two major func-
B. brain, spinal cord, nerves tions of “neurons” (pick two)
C. nerves, arteries, veins A. Ability to respond to a stimulus and
D. nerves, liver, heart converts it to a nerve impulse
B. Ability to secrete lubricating sub-
750. The cells whose axons make up the optic stances
nerve are the cells
C. Ability to transmit impulse to other
A. amacrine neurons, muscles or glands.
B. horizontal D. Ability to excrete waste substance
C. ganglion from the body.
D. bipolar 756. Which cell relays messages from one tis-
sue to another?
751. Moves the tongue
A. Red Blood Cell-RBC
A. Trigeminal
B. White Blood Cell-WBC
B. Facial
C. Neuron
C. Hypoglossal
D. Tissue
D. Accessory
757. Which of the following is an example of
752. What three functions does your nervous a reflex:
system include?
A. Breathing
A. Sensory input, integration, & communi-
B. knee-jerk
cation
C. jumping
B. Integration, protection, & control
D. a calf following it’s mom
C. Sensory input, integration, & motor
output 758. What behavior is observed if the voltage
D. Motor output, protection, & control across a neuronal membrane is set to-20
mV?
753. The function of the dendrites is A. The sodium channel opens, and Na+
A. A Receives information from other ions flow in.
cells, B. The voltage-gated sodium and potas-
B. B. carry the message to the cell body. sium channels both remain closed

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1.20 Nervous System 616

C. The sodium channel opens, and Na+ C. 4 and frontal, parietal, temporal, and
ions flow out. occipital lobes
D. The potassium channel opens, and K+ D. 1 and smart lobe
ions flow in.
764. Sympathetic & parasympathetic re-
759. Which part of the brain is responsible for sponses are part of the nervous sys-
motor control (movement)? tem
A. cerebrum A. somatic

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. cerebellum B. autonomic
C. medulla C. peripheral
D. pons D. central

760. True or False:The cerebellum helps us 765. unmyelinated axons and neuron cell bod-
keep our balance. ies in CNS
A. True A. white matter
B. False B. gray matter
C. NEVER! C. neurilemma
D. none of above D. neurofibrils

761. The system of the body that carries infor- 766. Responsible for higher cognitive func-
mation to all parts of the body. tions such as memory, emotions, impulse
control, problem solving, social interaction,
A. Nervous system & motor function.
B. Spinal Cord A. Occipital Lobe
C. Neuron B. Frontal Lobe
D. Brain C. Dendrite
762. part of a neuron that receives informa- D. Peripheral Nervous System
tion from other neurons
767. Which nerve carries impulses from the
A. axon ear to the brain?
B. dendrites A. Auditory nerve
C. myelin sheath B. Oculomotor nerve
D. synapse C. Optic nerve

763. fill in the blank the cerebrum has D. Olfactory nerve

lobes. and what are the names of the 768. What is a reflex?
lobes
A. A response that is slow
A. 6 and islun, ower, faligum, ragatum,
vers, and onal lobes B. When the brain controls the muscles

B. 8 and lamineral, zavineal, gullinel, C. When the muscles move

kalingum, vigeal, aleguam, ultima, and D. An automatic response that occurs
egualince lobes rapidly without conscious control.

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1.20 Nervous System 617

769. These cells are present in our nervous B. cerebellum

system. C. Temporal Lobe

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A. neurons D. Frontal Lobe
B. protons
775. Which of the following potential stres-
C. marrow sors would be classified as having an in-
D. none of above ternal source?
770. THE BRAIN IS DIVIDED INTO A. travelling in an overcrowded peak hour
train
A. NEURON, AXON, CEREBELLUM
B. being refused entry to an important
B. CEREBELLUM, BRAIN STEM, CERE- exam for being late
BRUM, NEURON
C. achieving a lower grade than expected
C. CEREBELLUM, BRAIN STEM, CERE- for a SAC
BRUM
D. being bullied by another student
D. none of above
776. What does the congenial insensitivity do
771. What is the Nervous System?
to you?
A. The body system that provides struc-
A. You can’t feel hot or cold
ture and support for the body.
B. Unable to feel breaks, burns and open
B. The system that sends electrical sig-
wounds
nals through the body.
C. Can feel open wounds and burns
C. A new video game system.
D. none of above
D. none of above
777. THE TWO MAIN PARTS ARE THE NER-
772. Nerves that originate in the spinal cord.
VOUS SYSTEM
A. Central Nervous System
A. CENTRAL AND PERIPHERAL
B. Spinal Nerves
B. NORTH AND CENTRAL
C. Cranial Nerves
C. PERIPHERAL AND NORTH
D. Nervous Nerves
D. SOUTH AND WEST
773. Our receive messages and send them
778. The function of the nervous system can
to the brain. The brain sends messages to
best be described as
our body on how to respond.
A. nutrient delivery
A. heart
B. lungs B. movement and support

C. nerves C. protection and thermoregulation

D. none of above D. control and communication

774. Which part of the brain controls memory, 779. Which two ions affect membrane poten-
the understanding of speech, hearing, se- tial?
quencing and organization? A. Sodium & calcium
A. cerebrum B. Calcium & potassium

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1.20 Nervous System 618

C. Selenium & potassium 785. What is the eye an example of?

D. Sodium & potassium A. a stimulus
B. a sense organ
780. The brain acts as the body’s
C. a relay neuron
A. mother
D. a part of nerve cell
B. banker
786. Most nerves contain both sensory and
C. control cell motor so they are called?

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. control center A. mixed

781. The part of the nervous system that reg- B. collective

ulates involuntary functions is known as C. bridge
the D. none of above
A. central nervous system 787. Which waste is eliminated by interactions
B. peripheral nervous system between the respiratory and circulatory
systems?
C. autonomic nervous system
A. Carbon dioxide
D. somatic nervous system
B. Salt
782. The two major parts of the nervous sys- C. Oxygen
tem are the
D. Urea
A. brain and spinal cord
788. When the spinal cord responds in an
B. central and somatic nervous systems emergency to a stimulus before the brain,
C. sympathetic and parasympathetic sys- this is called a
tems. A. response
D. peripheral and central nervous sys- B. synapse
tems C. cerebral response
783. When a neuron is depolarized, what are D. reflex
the first channels to open? 789. What are the two major structural divi-
A. Sodium sions of the nervous system?
B. Potassium A. The brain and spinal cord
B. The central nervous and peripheral
C. Calcium
nervous system
D. ACTH
C. The neurons and the dendrites
784. connect sensory and motor neurons D. The cerebrum and the medulla
and carry impulses between them
790. Which part protects the brain?
A. nervous system A. Skull
B. cell body B. Cerebrum
C. motor-neurons C. Cerebellum
D. inter-neurons D. Brain Stem

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1.20 Nervous System 619

791. The Nervous System is divided into two 796. What is cilia?
parts called A. A virus.

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A. The Central Nervous System & The Pe- B. Hair-like projections from cells that
ripheral Nervous System move with a wave-like pattern.
B. The Central Nervous System & The C. A type of joint.
Paradigm Nervous System
D. A part of the skeletal system.
C. The Corollary Nervous System & The
Paradigm Nervous System 797. gli-means what?
D. The Corollary Nervous System & The A. glue
Peripheral Nervous System
B. between
792. Portion of a neuron that carries nerve im- C. smaller
pulses away from the cell body.
D. nerve
A. Pons
798. In contrast to the autonomic nervous sys-
B. Axon
tem, the somatic nervous system:
C. Dendrite
A. has two motor neurons
D. Synapse B. has two afferent neurons
793. Neurons that are part of the peripheral C. has one efferent neuron
nervous system that carry signals from D. stimulates effector cells
the brain to the muscles and glands of the
body. 799. Astrocytes are responsible for:
A. Motor Neurons A. producing cerebrospinal fluid
B. Sensory Neurons B. anchoring the neuron to blood vessels
C. Afferent Neurons C. producing myelin sheath
D. Dendrites D. destroying cancer cells

794. Which occurs first in embryonic develop- 800. What are the parts of the nervous sys-
ment? tem?
A. neurulation A. brain
B. gastrulation B. spinal cord
C. somite migration C. nerves
D. development of spina bifida D. all of these parts

795. What produces a chemical in your brain 801. Sympathetic nervous system stimulation
that helps you learn? causes:
A. Video Games A. decrease blood glucose
B. Exercise B. decrease GI periastalsis
C. Lounging on the couch C. increase GI periastalsis
D. Sitting in a desk D. decrease heart rate

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1.20 Nervous System 620

802. What is the center of the nervous sys- 807. Complete the sentence:A neurone is a
tem? nerve cell that carries an impulse
A. Eyes A. Electrical
B. Brain B. Chemical
C. Nerves C. Physical
D. none of above D. Mental

NARAYAN CHANGDER
803. Viscerorceptors deals with 808. The nervous system uses both chemical
and electrical to send messages along
A. internal visceral organs nerves.
B. skin A. impulses
C. bones B. axon
D. none of above C. synapse

804. The “threshold” potential of a membrane D. dendrites

A. is the minimum hyperpolarization 809. What part of your brain controls vision?
needed to prevent the occurrence of ac- A. cerebrum
tion potentials.
B. cerebellum
B. is the peak amount of depolarization
C. brain stem
seen in an action potential.
D. spinal cord
C. is the lowest frequency of action po-
tentials a neuron can produce. 810. What part of the eye bends light to focus
D. is the point of separation from a living it on the retina?
from a dead neuron A. Retina
E. is the minimum depolarization needed B. Iris
to operate the voltage-gated sodium and C. Optic Nerve
potassium channels
D. Lens
805. The outer layer of the meninges is the
811. nerve cells are called what?
A. arachnoid mater
A. nerves
B. pia mater
B. neurons
C. dura mater
C. nervous system
D. choroid plexus D. nerve cells
806. What is the main organ in the nervous 812. This part of the brain processes sensory
system? information
A. The Spinal Cord A. cerebellum
B. The Brian B. cerebrum
C. The Brain C. medulla
D. The Arms D. nerves

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1.20 Nervous System 621

813. Bundle of nerves that begins at the brain C. somatic nervous system
stem and continues down the center of the D. cerebellum
back.

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A. axon 819. Which brain structure controls all vol-
untary activities and is responsible for
B. nerve fiber thought, memory, emotions, and reason-
C. spinal cord ing?
D. brain stem A. Cerebellum
B. Cerebrum
814. Which of the following is an example of
an involuntary or automatic reaction? C. Medulla
A. breathing D. none of above
B. Saying hello to a friend 820. What are the two divisions of the motor
C. Solving 2 x 2 nervous system?
D. Learning a dance A. Sensory and Motor
B. Peripheral and Central
815. Area of gray matter (butterfly) on the
back posterior of the spinal cord C. Somatic and Autonomic
A. Dorsal Horn D. Brain and Spinal Cord
B. Ventral Horn 821. Which part of the Nervous System, in-
C. Anterior Column cludes smaller neurons that gather infor-
mation from the rest of the body and re-
D. Posterior Column ports back to the Central Nervous Sys-
816. What organ is included in the nervous tem?
system? A. A reflex
A. Lungs B. The node of Ranvier
B. Stomach C. The CNS
C. Spinal Cord D. The Peripheral Nervous System
D. Heart 822. Finger-like part of the neuron that re-
ceives input from other neurons
817. This is a fatty layer that insulates the
electrical impulse and increases the speed A. Axon
of impulses going down the axon. B. Dendrite
A. Dendrites C. Neuron
B. Cell Body D. Pons
C. Myelin Sheath
823. Without the nervous system, you
D. Synapse couldn’t
818. The “fight or flight” response during A. walk
threatening situations in the role of the: B. breathe
A. sympathetic nervous system C. think
B. parasympathetic system D. all of the above

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1.20 Nervous System 622

824. What do we call the “leaping” of the cur- What body systems are involved in this
rent across an axon? process as described?
A. Refraction A. digestive, muscular, integumentary,
and respiratory
B. Saltatory conduction
B. digestive, excretory, integumentary,
C. Membrane potential
and skeletal
D. Polarization
C. circulatory, excretory, nervous, and
skeletal

NARAYAN CHANGDER
825. this part is the main pathway between
brain and peripheral nervous system D. circulatory, digestive, muscular, and
A. brain stem nervous

B. spinal cord 830. According to function a motor neuron

would
C. cerabellum
A. Transmit impulses from brain and
D. nerves
spinal cords to muscles and glands direct-
826. Responsible for control of the bodily func- ing action
tions not consciously directed, such as B. Carry Impulses from skin and organs
breathing, the heartbeat, and digestion. to the spinal cord and brain about the ex-
A. Somatic Nervous System ternal and internal environment
B. Autonomic Nervous System C. Transmit impulses between other neu-
rons
C. Spinal Cord
D. none of above
D. Brainstem
831. nerve impulse
827. What is the Central Nervous System
A. action potential
made of?
B. resting potential
A. Brain, Spinal Cord
C. membrane potential
B. Mouth, Nose
D. synapse
C. Digestive System, Nervous System
832. Which is not a type of neuron
D. None of these
A. Sensory
828. If you are right handed, what side of the B. motor
brain controls that?
C. physical
A. Motor cortex of left hemisphere
D. interneuron
B. Motor cortex of right hemisphere
833. A Venus flytrap has hairs that can sense
C. Sensory cortex of left hemisphere
when an insect lands on its leaves. How
D. Sensory cortex of right hemisphere is this different from the sense of touch in
animals?
829. Humans feel hungry when their empty
stomachs contract and glucose levels in A. Animals do not have hairs that can
their body drop. Both of the situations sense things.
stimulate neurons that send messages to B. Most animals do not use their sense of
the brain which are interpreted as hunger. touch to catch food.

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1.20 Nervous System 623

C. The Venus flytrap does not have a D. none of above

brain to process the information.
839. The Central Nervous System is made up

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D. Animals also use sensory hairs to
taste the food but the Venus flytrap does of which TWO parts?
not. A. Brain
834. What are the main organs of the Periph- B. Arms
eral Nervous System? C. Legs
A. Spinal Nerves & sensory Receptors
D. Spine stimulus (changes in the outer or
B. Arms & Legs internal environment) .
C. Brain & Spinal Cord
840. Which sense organ helps you hear?
D. Optic Nerves & Receptors
A. Eyes
835. These carry signals from tissues and or-
gans to the brain and spinal cord B. Nose

A. Sensory Neurons C. Mouth

B. Motor Neurons D. Ears
C. Efferent Neurons
841. What type of neuroglia cell is found in the
D. Glial Cells CNS and provides multiple layers of myelin
sheaths?
836. A stimuli is a(n)-
A. feeling or physical reaction A. Microglial
B. something that causes us to act B. Oligodendrocytes
C. a response to an event C. Astrocytes
D. change in the environment D. Ependymal
837. What part of your nervous system car- 842. Which of the following bodily functions
ries messages? results from parasympathetic nervous sys-
A. nerves tem action?
B. brain A. increased salivation
C. spinal cord B. increased perspiration
D. muscles
C. increased respiration
838. Which of the following would benefit a D. decreased stomach contractions
farmer’s corn crop after flooding has oc-
curred? 843. What does your central nervous system
A. Fertile soil is created when sediment consist of?
and nutrients are deposited A. Foot and leg
B. Weeds would be wiped out and pre- B. Brain and spinal cord
vent overpopulation.
C. hand and arm
C. Harmful pesticides would be washed
off of crops. D. head and back

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1.20 Nervous System 624

844. these nerves carry impulses away from B. Somatic

the CNS.
C. Sensory
A. dendrites
D. none of above
B. afferent nerves
C. bones 850. Each layer of soil is called a which col-
lectively makes up a soil profile.
D. efferent nerves
A. Flat

NARAYAN CHANGDER
845. Which of the following systems mobilize
the body into action? B. Watershed

A. Motor C. Horizon
B. Somatic D. Substrate
C. Sympathetic
851. the part of the brain that includes the
D. Autonomic pons, medulla oblongata, and midbrain
846. What type of cell is found in the PNS that A. thalamus
regulates and stabilizes the cells environ- B. hypothalamus
ment?
C. brain stem
A. Astrocytes
B. Schwann D. hippocampus

C. Satellite 852. The cerebellum is the small part of the

D. Ependymal brain that controls your

847. A major function of the spinal cord is to A. Thinking

A. protect the spinal column. B. Balance

B. initiate voluntary muscle movements. C. Heart
C. connect the brain and central nervous D. Lungs
system.
853. how is the Nervous System made
D. connect the brain and peripheral ner-
vous system. A. The Brain

848. A bundle of nerves that runs along the B. Nerve cells and nerve vibes
back of a vertebrate within the spinal col- C. the spinal cord
umn.
D. the skull
A. Dendrites
B. Stimulus 854. Which of these occurs in all animals as
they change from babies to adults?
C. Brain Stem
D. Spinal cord A. Grow an additional digestive system
B. coloring becomes lighter
849. Part of the PNS that controls skeletal
muscles C. lose muscles and bone mass
A. Autonomic D. cells divide and grow

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1.20 Nervous System 625

855. Stores Memories 860. Which part of the cerebrum helps us think
about abstract things?
A. Cerebrum

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A. right half
B. Cerebellum
B. left half
C. Medulla
C. both the parts
D. none of above
D. none of above
856. Reflex responses are controlled in your 861. What is located in the Cerebrum
A. brain stem A. The brain
B. spinal cord B. Language
C. cerebrum C. Spinal cord
D. cerebellum D. Pancreas

862. Three steps the Central nervous system

857. Processing and interpretation of informa-
does Brain Receives information, and
tion from the five senses is called
Delivers the response.
A. stimuli
A. creates a response
B. integration B. reacts to stimulus
C. sensory input C. moves a muscle
D. motor output D. releases a neurotransmitter

858. Sensory pathways carry information to 863. What is the function of the nervous sys-
the and motor pathways carry infor- tem?
mation from the A. Transport nutrients around the body
A. somatic nervous system; peripheral B. Send and receive messages to re-
nervous system spond to a change in an organisms envi-
B. central nervous system; somatic ner- ronment
vous system C. Brings oxygen into the body
C. central nervous system; central ner- D. Moves body parts
vous system
864. a junction at which a neuron meets an-
D. peripheral nervous system; peripheral other cell
nervous system A. axon
859. Someone who is able to change their cop- B. dendrites
ing strategy to match the stressor would C. myelin sheath
be demonstrating
D. synapse
A. context-specific effectiveness
865. A single fiber in the neuron that carries
B. coping flexibility impulses away from the cell body:
C. avoidance coping A. axon
D. emotion-focused coping B. dendrite

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1.20 Nervous System 626

C. myelin sheath 871. Central Nervous System

D. nucleus A. coordinates actions of muscles and
helps maintain balance
866. What does P in PNS stand for?
B. controls movement, senses and
A. Plantaficial
speech
B. Person
C. consists of the brain and the spinal
C. Peripheral cord and is the control center of the body

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Plant
D. automatic response that occurs
867. The nervous system is composed of the rapidly and without conscious control
, , and
872. The nervous system is divided into two
A. heart, brain, kidneys main categories. They are the & ?
B. lungs, liver, stomach
A. Central & Peripheral Nervous System
C. brain, spinal cord, nerves
B. Brain & Central Nervous System
D. eyes, pancreas, veins
C. Spinal Cord & Peripheral Nervous Sys-
868. Branch-like extensions of the neuron that tem
receive chemical messages and carry them
D. Nose & Ears
to the cell body.
A. Dendrites 873. THE PERIPHERAL NERVOUS SYSTEM IS
B. Neurons ACTIVATED WHEN WE SOMETHING
C. Nerves A. SMELL
D. Spinal Cord B. TASTE

869. What are the 3 mains parts of the Ner- C. THINK

vous System D. SEE
A. Brain, heart, blood vessels
874. The part of the brain that controls cre-
B. Blood Vessels, spinal cord, blood ativity, insight, intuition, art, and music
C. Brain, Spinal Cord, Neurons awareness is the
D. Heart, blood vessels, and blood A. Midbrain
870. The nervous system is divided into the B. Temporal Lobe
and the ; the former consists of C. Corpus Callosum
; the latter
D. Right Hemisphere
A. ANS; PNS; the nerves around the body;
the ventricles 875. What are the two types of Motor Neu-
B. ANS; CNS; the nerves around the body; rons in the peripheral
the brain and spinal cord A. Involuntary and complementary
C. CNS; PNS; the nerves around the body;
B. Involuntary and Voluntary
the ventricles
C. Sensory and Voluntary
D. CNS; PNS; the brain and spinal cord;
the nerves around the body D. Sensory and Motor

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1.20 Nervous System 627

876. The Peripheral Nervous System is made A. neurotransmitter

of B. Carbon Dioxide

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A. The Brain C. Hydrogen
B. The Nerves D. Axon
C. The Spinal Cord 881. These connect Sensory and Motor Neu-
D. The Lungs rons to each other and are located in the
brain and spinal cord
877. A nerve cell is called a:
A. Sensory Neurons
A. neutron
B. Motor Neurons
B. nerve
C. Interneurons
C. neuron D. Afferent Neurons
D. synapse
882. The portion of your brain responsible for
878. How is an action potential propagated breathing, heart beating, blood pressure
down an axon after voltage-gated sodium A. Pons
channels open in a region of the neuron’s
B. Occipital
membrane?
C. Temporal
A. Sodium ions enter the neuron and dif-
fuse to adjacent areas, resulting in the D. Medulla Oblongata
opening of voltage-gated potassium chan- 883. The parietal lobe controls our reading of
nels farther down the axon.
B. Potassium ions enter the neuron and A. temperature
diffuse to adjacent areas, resulting in the
B. pressure
opening of voltage-gated sodium channels
farther down the axon. C. thirst
C. Sodium ions enter the neuron and dif- D. sight
fuse to adjacent areas, resulting in the 884. What do the motor neurons do?
opening of voltage-gated sodium channels
farther down the axon. A. carry messages from the brain and
spinal cord to muscles and glands
D. Potassium ions enter the neuron and
B. carry impulses from skin and sends to
diffuse to adjacent areas, resulting in the
organs the to spinal cord and brain
opening of voltage-gated potassium chan-
nels farther down the axon. C. carry impulses from sensory neurons
to motor neurons
879. This “decides” most responses. D. store messages
A. nerves
885. The Nervous System
B. brain
A. allows for communtication
C. muscles
B. maintains homeostasis in response to
D. eyes changing environmental conditions
880. What are the chemicals that the neurons C. support and protect neurons
use to communicate D. none of above

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1.20 Nervous System 628

886. Which of the following best describes C. cerebellum

where the diaphragm is located?
D. cerebrum
A. Above the lungs
B. Behind the lungs 892. long extension of neuron that sends in-
formation
C. Beside the lungs
D. Under the lungs A. dendrite
B. cell body
887. Parkinson’s Disease is characterised by a

NARAYAN CHANGDER
decreased level of C. axon
A. ACTH D. nodes of Ranvier
B. Adrenaline
893. Type of neuron that sends nerve impulses
C. Glutamate
to muscles and gland, by the command of
D. Dopamine other neurons.
888. Nerve cells that are activated by sensory A. Motor Neurons
input from the environment. Example:You
B. Interneurons
burn your hand on a hot pan. “Information
from the senses.” C. Sensory Neurons
A. central nervous system D. none of above
B. peripheral nervous system
894. Three main regions of the brain
C. neuron
D. sensory neuron A. Hippocampus, cerebellum, brain stem

889. THE MESSAGE TRAVELS TO BRAIN B. Cerebrum, cerebellum, brain stem

THROUGH C. Callosum, hippocampus, cerebrum
A. NERVE IMPULSE D. Brain stem, callosum, cerebellum
B. ELECTRICAL CURRENT
C. MOTOR NERVES 895. this part of the brain gives us balance and
coordination of muscles and body
D. none of above
A. cerebellum
890. TICK THE BONES
B. cerebrum
A. PELVIS
C. brain stem
B. TRICEPS
C. HUMERUS D. spinal cord

D. QUADRICEPS 896. An opening where light enters.

891. What part of the brain is the “coordina- A. Pupil
tion center” controlling respiration, blood
pressure, and chemical balance? B. Retina

A. hypothalamus C. Iris
B. thalamus D. none of above

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1.20 Nervous System 629

897. The reason for pain with a MI is due to C. Dendrite

A. Chest pain D. Brain

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B. Oxygen deprivation of the myocardium,
causing damage and death of the my- 903. What type of neuron would tell your
ocardium body there’s a red light?

C. Occlusion of the coronary artery (ies), A. somatic sensory

depriving the myocardium of oxygen B. visceral sensory
D. Build up of carbon dioxide C. somatic motor
898. The division of the Autonomic Nervous D. visceral motor
System that slows responses (resting and
digesting). 904. Baroreceptors deal with
A. sympathetic A. stretching veins
B. parasympathetic B. stretching in arteries
C. motor C. stretching skin
D. sensory
D. none of above
899. RECEIVE THE STIMULI AND SEND IM-
PULSES TO THE SENSORY NERVES 905. The portion of the nervous system that is
considered involuntary is the?
A. SENSE ORGANS
A. Central nervous system
B. MOTOR NERVES
B. Sensory nervous system
C. SENSORY NERVES
D. CENTRAL NERVOUS SYSTEM C. Autonomic nervous system
D. Motor nervous system
900. Nociceptors deals with
A. pain 906. Which of the following is regulated by
B. sense the autonomic nervous system

C. touch A. Breathing
D. none of above B. Kicking a soccer ball

901. Nerves that branch out from the spinal C. Balancing on one foot
cord and connect to rest of body. D. Raising your hand
A. Central Nerves
907. Which statements is NOT true for mela-
B. Peripheral Nerves tonin?
C. Cerebellum A. hormone secreted by pineal gland
D. Synapse
B. pigment that gives the colour of the
902. A nerve cell. skin
A. Neuron C. regulates circadian rhythm
B. Spinal cord D. stimulated by darkness

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1.20 Nervous System 630

908. Which of the TWO nervous systems con- 914. The muscles in the wall of the blood ves-
tains motor and sensory neurons? sels contract or relax to vary the blood
A. central nervous system flow. Which body system regulates the
contraction and relaxation of the mus-
B. peripheral cles?
C. motor A. digestive system
D. sensory B. excretory system

NARAYAN CHANGDER
909. What does the Myelin Sheath protect? C. skeletal system
A. Axon D. nervous system
B. Dendrite 915. The type of consumer which breaks down
C. Cell body and absorbs dead and decaying plants and
animals is a (n) and is responsible for
D. axon terminal
returning material back into the envi-
910. How long is a circalunar rhythm? ronment.
A. 365 days A. Decomposers; inorganic
B. 29.5 days B. Decomposers; organic

C. 1 day C. Omnivores; inorganic

D. 24.5 days D. Omnivores; organic

911. A neurotransmitter can bind with 916. The speed of neural conduction between
neurons will result in difficulties in speak-
A. any receptor site ing, vision, and balance if the insulat-
B. only one receptor site ing the axons is damaged or removed.
C. only one type of receptor site A. Axon
D. they don’t bind with any sites B. Myelin Sheath
C. Nucleus
912. The central nervous system is comprised
of all the neurons in the brain and the D. Brain
A. Spinal Cord 917. Which of these is a shared characteristic
B. Cerebellum of unicellular and multicellular organisms?
C. Medulla A. sexual reproduction
D. Pons B. specialized cells
C. waste production
913. Select all of the organs of the nervous
system: D. organ systems
A. Brain 918. Neuro-means what?
B. Heart A. Nerve
C. Spinal Cord B. Glue
D. Nerves C. Membrane
E. Stomach D. Few

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1.20 Nervous System 631

919. mening-means what? C. balancing

A. between D. routine

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B. membrane 925. Efferent (motor) division carries motor
C. nerve commands from the CNS to
D. self A. CNS
B. PNS
920. Opt-means what?
C. areas of the body
A. hearing
D. none of above
B. vision
926. Which Nervous system is involved in in-
C. speaking
creasing arousal levels to deal with a
D. feeling threat/stressor?
921. CENTRAL NERVOUS SYSTEM INCLUDES A. Sympathetic
THE B. Parasympathetic
A. BRAIN AND FEET C. Somatic
B. BRAIN AND EYES D. Central
C. BRAIN AND SPINAL CORD 927. Motor nerves are called
D. BRAIN AND HANDS A. afferent
922. What is an example of homeostasis? B. peripheral
A. Your feet pulling away when being tick- C. sensory
led. D. efferent
B. Your stomach growling when your 928. The motor system is divided into which
body needs nutrients. two systems?
C. Your hair growing really long in the A. Input, output
summer.
B. Sympathetic, parasympathetic
D. none of above
C. Motor, sensory
923. Which of the following neurotransmitters D. Somatic, autonomic
has a role in regulating mood, appetite, &
circadian rhythm? 929. The function of sneezing is to expel mu-
cus containing foreign particles from the
A. Dopamine nasal cavity. A person sneezes when for-
B. Epinephrine eign particles pass through the nasal hair
which triggers the release of chemical that
C. Serotonin
activates body system causing sneezing.
D. Norepinephrine What body part is activated?
924. The maintenance of an organism’s inter- A. circulatory system
nal environment is called:Body in Balance B. digestive system
A. compensating C. nervous system
B. homeostasis D. excretory system

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1.20 Nervous System 632

930. The substantia nigra is located in the C. Mechanical

region of the brain.
D. Peripheral
A. midbrain
B. forebrain 936. This is the electrical charge that travels
down an axon when a neuron is firing
C. hindbrain
A. Resting Potential
D. motor
B. Action Potential
931. The cerebrum also controls your

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Threshold
A. Muscles
D. Refractory Period
B. Heart
C. Liver 937. What is included in the anatomy of the
D. Bones CNS?
A. Brain & Spinal Cord
932. Carry message from body to brain from
the brain to body. B. Brain & Eyes
A. Nerves C. Spinal Cord & Peripheral Nerves
B. Neuron D. Brain & Peripheral Nerves
C. Brain
938. Which of these is considered an involun-
D. Spinal Cord tary action?
933. Action potentials move along axons A. laughing at a joke
A. more rapidly in myelinated than in non- B. screaming at someone who scared you
myelinated axons.
C. diaphragm contractions
B. by reversing the concentration gradi-
ents for sodium and potassium ions D. chewing your food
C. more slowly in axons of large than in 939. The lobe of your brain responsible for vol-
small diameter untary motion, expresive language, emo-
D. by the direct action of acetylcholine on tions, higher level decisions, problem solv-
the axonal membrane ing.

934. A nervous system cell specialized for elec- A. Frontal

trical and chemical transmission of signals. B. Parietal
A. Axon C. Medulla Oblongata
B. Dendrite D. Occipital Lobe
C. Neuron
940. Another name for the Medulla is the
D. Pons
A. Brain Stem
935. What type of impulse does a neuron fire
when it is stimulated? B. Spinal Cord
A. Electrical C. Neuron
B. Chemical D. none of above

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 1.21 Urinary System 633

941. Which cellular structure allows nutrients C. cranial nerves.

to pass into cells? D. peripheral nervous system.

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A. mitochondria
945. What neuroglial cell is found in the CNS
B. nucleus
and forms membranes around the CNS?
C. membrane
A. Microglial
D. chloroplast
B. Oligodendrocytes
942. The urinary bladder is a muscular organ C. Astrocytes
of the excretory system that collects urine
excreted by the kidney. How does the ner- D. Ependymal
vous system help the urinary system in ex-
946. Multipolar has a number amount of ax-
cretion?
ons
A. it signals the urinary bladder to absorb
A. one
more water from the urine.
B. two
B. It signals the urinary system to collect
waste from the different parts of the body. C. three
C. It signals the urinary bladder to hold D. four
and release urine at appropriate times.
947. Neurons that travel toward the central
D. It signals the urinary bladder to allow
nervous system are called
more urine to flow from the ureters.
A. afferent neurons
943. Neurons that transmit impulses Away
B. efferent neurons
from the CNS are called
A. sensory, ventral C. exit neurons

B. sensory, dorsal D. CNS neurons

C. motor, efferent 948. The major set of large set of nerves run-
D. motor, dorsal ning down the spinal column or vertebrae.
A. axon
944. Cranial nerves and spinal nerves are part
of the: B. spinal cord
A. autonomic nervous system. C. dendrite
B. central nervous system. D. cell body

1.21 Urinary System

1. Tube from the bladder to the outside. 2. Cells that detect high blood concentration
are called:
A. ureter
A. Chemoreceptors
B. urethra
B. Osmoreceptors
C. detrusor C. Thermoreceptors
D. cortex D. Nociceptors

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1.21 Urinary System 634

3. What is the term meaning surgical repair 8. intravenous pyelogram

of the bladder? A. an x-ray of the kidneys and ureters
A. cystoplasty following administration of a contrast
medium to improve visibility
B. nephroplasty
B. process of visually examining the blad-
C. cystorraphy
der
D. nephrorraphy C. x-ray of the urinary tract

NARAYAN CHANGDER
4. An increase in blood carbon dioxide levels D. none of above
is followed by a (an) in hydrogen ions,
9. water and nitrogenous wastes is
and a (an) in blood pH
A. blood
A. decrease, decrease
B. pus
B. decrease, increase
C. urine
C. increase, decrease
D. CSF
D. increase, increase
10. Suffix for setting free, or separation?
5. is secreted when blood pressure de-
A. -pexy
crease and triggers angiotensin II to vaso-
constrict the efferent arterioles to increase B. pyel/o
filtration rate C. -lysis
A. aldosterone D. -tripsy
B. erythropoietin 11. Where does filtration of blood take place
C. renin in the kidney?
D. antidiuretic hormone A. Glomeruli
B. Renal tubule
6. What is the primary function of the urinary
system? C. Renal artery

A. Breaking down food so it can be used D. Ureter

by the body 12. The lungs remove from the body.
B. Giving the body support and strength A. Oxygen
C. Removing waste and excess fluid from B. Blood
the body
C. Carbon dioxide
D. Turning oxygen into usable energy
D. White blood cells
through respiration
13. Which term means condition of blood in the
7. A glomerulus is a: urine?
A. nephron sac A. hematuria
B. cluster of capillaries B. pyuria
C. a blood molecule C. glycosuria
D. Bowman’s Capsule D. dysuria

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1.21 Urinary System 635

14. What are the waste products of the uri- 20. the prefix “nephr-” means:
nary system? A. urethra

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A. salt B. kidney
B. water C. ureter
C. nitrogenous waste D. renal pelvis
D. peristalsis 21. Which term is another word for urina-
15. Most glucose molecules are reabsorbed in tion?
the A. dysuria
A. proximal convoluted tubules. B. diaphoresis
B. distal convoluted tubules. C. micturition
C. collecting ducts D. filtration
D. loop of Henle 22. Urine is carried from the kidney to the uri-
nary bladder by the-
16. Prefix for complete, thorough?
A. ureter
A. -ectasis
B. glomeruli
B. dia-
C. nephrons
C. -uria D. urethras
D. urethr/o
23. A hollow muscular sac that holds up to 500
17. Which part of your urinary system re- mL of urine:
leases urine from your body to the exte- A. Bladder
rior?
B. Kidney
A. Ureters
C. Ureter
B. Bladder D. Urethra
C. Urethra
24. urinalysis
D. Kidneys
A. laboratory analysis of urine
18. Where does secretion take place in the B. x-ray of the urinary tract
nephron?
C. mechanical replacement of kidney
A. PCT function when the kidney is not working
B. Loop of Henle D. none of above
C. DCT 25. Why is it important to pee when you have
D. Glomerulus to?
A. To remove toxins and other harmful
19. Absence of urination
things from your blood
A. urinia
B. So your kidneys and bladder stay
B. anuria healthy
C. urinary system C. So you don’t pee your pants
D. pyuria D. All of the above

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1.21 Urinary System 636

26. Each kidney consists of more than one mil- C. renal cortex
lion of
D. Glomerulus
A. Alveoli
B. Renal tubule 32. locate behind the peritoneum, where the
kidneys are located
C. Urethra
A. kidneys
D. Nephrons
B. aldosterone
27. the ball of blood capillaries in each nephron

NARAYAN CHANGDER
of a kidney where bulk filtration occurs. C. retroperitoneal
A. glomerulus D. none of above
B. renal corpuscle
33. The layer of the kidney made of pyramids
C. proximal convoluted tubule and columns.
D. distal convoluted tubule A. cortex
28. Which of the following hormones increase B. medulla
reabsorption of water in the collecting
ducts? C. pelvis

A. ADH D. hilum
B. renin
34. Which nephron process removes or filters
C. aldosterone substances from the bloodstream?
D. insulin A. reabsorption
29. The inability to voluntarily control the ex- B. digestion
ternal urethral sphincter is known as
C. filtration
A. incontinence
D. secretion
B. urinary retention
C. hyperplasia 35. Urine is expelled from the urinary bladder
D. urgency by
A. excretion
30. The tube that carries urine from the kidney
to the urinary bladder B. defecation
A. renal funnel C. micturition
B. ureter D. filtration
C. urethra
36. when ascending of permanent kidneys is
D. nephron tubule
completed?
31. The inner layer of the kidneys housing A. by the 9th week
the deeper nephron loops and collecting
tubules that deliver urine to the center B. by the 5th week
A. renal medulla C. by the 4th week
B. renal nephron D. by the 6th week

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1.21 Urinary System 637

37. How many sections are there in a nephrons B. family history

network of convoluted tubules C. diets high in protein, salt and sugar

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A. 1 D. drinking too much alcohol
B. 2
43. Urine production.
C. 3
A. diuresis
D. 4
B. micturition
38. Helps maintain the pH of the blood C. reabsorption
A. Secretion of hydrogen ions from the D. excretion
blood to nephrons
B. Reabsorption of water 44. The renal corpuscles are found in the

C. Filtration red blood cells A. renal cortex

D. Diffusion B. renal medulla

C. renal pelvis
39. can rid the body of a wide range of
acidic and basic substances and adjust the D. hilum
pH. E. both a and b
A. The kidneys and respiratory system 45. sugar in the urine
B. Kidneys and liver A. hematuria
C. only kidneys B. glycosuria
D. only respiratory system C. pyuria
40. Place in orderA. urine passes through D. dysuria
uretersB. urea enters the kidneysC. urine
enters urethra 46. a tube that carries urine out of body

A. ABC A. urethera

B. BCA B. ureter

C. CBA C. bladder

D. BAC D. kidney

41. What do you call a sterilization proce- 47. Materials involved in Ascending Loop of
dure that cuts the vas deferens to prevent Henle reabsorption. (Select all that apply)
transport of sperm? A. Na+
A. Ejaculation B. K+
B. Tubal ligation C. Urea
C. Abstinence D. Cl-
D. Vasectomy 48. Which structure of the nephron lies primar-
42. Kidney stones can be caused by all of the ily in the renal medulla?
following EXCEPT A. PCT
A. dehydration B. Loop of Henle

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1.21 Urinary System 638

C. DCT C. BLADDER
D. Glomerulus D. URINARY MEATUS
49. Average daily urine output in adult
55. Johnny went to the doctor for an annual
A. 1, 100 CC checkup and the doctor notified him that
B. 1.2 liters he had glycosuria. This is likely due to:
C. 1400 cc A. Diabetes mellitus

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. 1.3 liters B. Bacterial infection
50. This vessel carries “clean” blood out of the C. Muscle Atrophy
kidneys back to the blood stream D. Kidney stones
A. urethra
B. ureters 56. First part of urine formation

C. renal vein A. filtration

D. renal artery B. void

51. Movement of materials from the filtrate C. chronic renal failure

into the blood. D. none of above
A. reabsorption
57. Another name for the Urinary System is
B. filtration
the
C. dialysis
A. Excretory System
D. glomerulus
B. Exitory System
52. What is excretion?
C. Digestive System
A. the process of digesting food
D. Circulatory System
B. the process of breathing
C. the process of removing waste from 58. What structure in the bladder senses that
the body it is full?
D. the process of adding nutrients to the A. Cortex
body
B. Trigone
53. Blood in the urine is called: C. Sphincter
A. Hematuria
D. Rugae
B. Radiation
C. Polyuria 59. All of the following are key organs in the
urinary system except:
D. Retention
A. kidney
54. EXTERNAL OPENING OF THE URINARY
SYSTEM B. bladder
A. URETER C. urethra
B. URETHRA D. appendix

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1.21 Urinary System 639

60. The proximal end of the nephron tube that 65. Potassium ions enter the by
surrounded the ball of blood capillaries A. a proximal tubule, diffusion

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A. proximal convoluted tubule B. proximal tubule, active transport
B. glomerular capsule C. distal tubule, diffusion
C. renal corpuscle D. distal tubule, active transport

D. glomerulus 66. urine

A. waste products combined with water
61. the process of removing waste products
B. millions of these are in each kidney to
from the blood due to kidney failure
filter unwanted materials from blood
A. hemodyalysis C. external opening of the urethra where
B. lithotripsy urine exits the body
C. pyramids D. none of above

D. none of above 67. Required nutrients such as glucose, min-

eral salts, vitamins, amino acids and some
62. Beatrice is making a 3D model of the kid- water are into the nephron.
ney that she can use like a puzzle to study. A. secreted
Her model is completely to scale. If Beat-
B. reabsorbed
rice were to break down the model, what
would be the smallest unit capable of pro- C. excretion
ducing urine? D. filtered
A. glomerulus 68. What is the medical word element that
B. loop of Henle means stone or calculus?

C. nephron A. keton/o
B. lith/o
D. renal sinus
C. meat/o
63. What is the medical word element that D. nephr/o
means bladder?
69. The fluid in Bowman’s capsule does not
A. glomerul/o contain a significant amount of
B. cyst/o A. glucose
C. keton/o B. hormones
D. lith/o C. electrolytes
D. plasma protein
64. This lies in the anterior corner of the
trigone of the bladder. 70. What is the functional filtration unit in the
kidney?
A. Internal urethral orifice
A. hilum
B. Adventitia bundle B. calyx
C. Ureteral opening C. nephron
D. Ureter D. pyramid

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1.21 Urinary System 640

71. The funnel-shaped tube at the center of the B. creatinine

kidneys that delivers urine to the exit. C. urea
A. renal funnel D. sodium
B. renal pelvis
77. What are the two ways substances are re-
C. renal medulla
moved from the blood and added to the
D. renal cortex forming urine?
A. glomerular filtration and tubular secre-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
72. The condition of having a stone in the kid-
ney is- tion
A. ureterolithiasis B. glomerular filtration and tubular reab-
sorption
B. cystolithiasis
C. tubular secretion and tubular reab-
C. nephrolithiasis
sorption
D. ureterolithiasis
D. tubular reabsorption and micturition
73. Before the kidney filters it out, where
does urea and uric acid exist? 78. Which of the following is an example of
the urinary system’s ability to maintain
A. In your intestines homeostasis?
B. In your liver A. A person drinks a large amount of wa-
C. In your stomach ter and urinary output increases.
D. In your bloodstream B. The kidneys are protected by a heavy
cushion of fat and a fibrous capsule.
74. As the blood enters the glomerulus, the
waste product that enter the glomerular C. As people get older, the frequency of
space is called: nocturne increases.

A. Urine D. When physical activity increases, the

blood flow through the kidneys decreases.
B. Stool
C. Feces 79. The functional unit of the kidney responsi-
ble for filtering metabolic waste from the
D. Filtrate blood and maintaining homeostasis is:
75. Blood vessels, nerves and the renal pelvis A. the nephron
enter/exit the kidney at the
B. the medulla
A. Hilum
C. the calyx
B. Corticomedullary junction
D. the ureter
C. Ureter
80. Chemical that results from the breakdown
D. Renal sinus
of proteins
76. The presence of which of the following in A. Urine
urine, even in small amounts, is indicative
of a possible problem in the renal system B. Urea
of a patient? C. Pee
A. glucose D. Nephron

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1.21 Urinary System 641

81. Which one of the following terms de- C. kidney stones

scribes the location of the kidneys? D. none of above

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A. retroperitoneal
87. For blood supply, the renal artery connects
B. retroperineal to the while the renal vein connects to
C. intraperitoneal the
D. suprarenal A. Abdominal aorta inferior vena cava

82. Which body system’s main functions are B. Urinary artery urinary vein
to filter the blood and eliminate metabolic C. Ureteral artery ureteral vein
waste?
D. Renal pelvis renal pyramid
A. Endocrine
88. Most reabsorption takes place in the
B. Nervous
A. proximal tubule
C. Digestive
B. loop of henle
D. Urinary
C. distal tubule
83. Which stage of urine production involves
D. collecting duct
adding ammonia, uric acid, and other
waste substances directly into the renal 89. are specialized epithelial cells of the
tubule? distal convoluted tubule. These cells sense
A. reabsorption sodium chloride concentration in the tubule,
which in turn reflects the systemic blood
B. filtration
pressure.
C. secretion
A. Podocytes
D. excretion
B. Juxtaglomerular cells
84. The proximal convoluted tubule in the C. Mesangial cells
nephron aids in:
D. Macula densa
A. Reabsorption
B. Secretion 90. Which stage of urine production involves
returning water, nutrients, and elec-
C. Filtration trolytes to the bloodstream?
D. Urination A. filtration
85. Examination of urine to test for infection. B. excretion
A. dialysis C. secretion
B. micturition D. reabsorption
C. urinalysis 91. urination at night
D. filtration A. retention
86. inflammation of the nephrons B. nocturia
A. nephritis C. homeostasis
B. nephron syndrome D. none of above

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1.21 Urinary System 642

92. When you drink a larger volume of water 98. What word best describes the function of
than is required by your body tissues: nephrons?
A. ADH secretion will be increased A. tube
B. ADH secretion will be inhibited B. filter
C. ADH secretion will not be affected C. passageway
D. None of the above D. reservoir

NARAYAN CHANGDER
93. What is the normal pH of blood? 99. Solutes involved PCT reabsorption. (SE-
A. slightly acidic LECT ALL THAT APPLY)
B. slightly basic A. Na+
C. neutral B. H
D. none of above C. Creatinine
94. A surgical incision into the renal pelvis is- D. Glucose
A. nephrotomy E. Amino acids
B. nephroplasty
100. What system does the excretory system
C. pyeloplasty work with by filtering the blood?
D. pyelotomy A. respiratory
95. The functional unit of the kidney is the B. digestive
A. Vasa recta C. circulatory
B. Nephron D. nervous
C. Glomerulus
101. What is one of the earliest signs of
D. Renal Corpuscle nephron damage and uremia?
96. The layer of the kidney superficial to the A. burning upon urination
renal pyramids but deep to the renal cap- B. the absence of urination
sule is:
C. albumin or formed elements of blood
A. Renal pyramid in the urine
B. Renal pelvis D. extreme pain
C. Renal medulla
102. What cells migrate from the wall of the
D. Renal lobe
yolk sac into the indifferent gonad of the
97. Lyme disease can present an infection in developing embryo during the 4th week of
what organ? development?
A. Kidney A. Germinal cells
B. Bladder B. Primordial germ cells
C. Ureter C. Primary oocytes
D. Bowman’s capsule D. Leydig cells

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1.21 Urinary System 643

103. Kidney stones are primarily made up of 109. The tube connecting each kidney to the
urinary bladder is the
A. ureter

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A. cholesterol
B. salt B. urethra

C. protein C. calyx
D. ductus (vas) deferens
D. calcium
110. What is the function of the urethra?
104. Son
A. It filters urea out of the bloodstream
A. Measure B. It delivers urine from the bladder to
B. Ketone the outside world
C. Stone C. It transfers urine from the kidneys to
the bladder
D. Sound
D. It prevents urine from leaking out of
105. Which is cleaner, urine or saliva? the bladder
A. urine 111. The urinary system
B. saliva A. produces, stores, and eliminate urine
C. both are equally filthy B. maintains the balance of chemicals
and water in the body
D. none of above
C. cleans up the blood
106. Which is NOT an excretory organ? D. all of the above
A. Skin 112. What is NOT a function of the kidney?
B. Liver A. Filter blood
C. Large intestine B. Regulate electrolytes
D. Heart C. Regulate blood pressure

E. Lungs D. Make blood components

113. In what part of the urinary system does
107. Word part for kidney? peristalsis regularly occur?
A. nephr/o A. nephron
B. lith/o B. ureters
C. cyst/o C. bladder
D. glomerul/o D. urethra
114. What is the medical word element that
108. the pathway of urine formation is
means kidney?
A. kidney, ureter, bladder, urethra A. nephr/o
B. bladder, kidney, ureter, urethra B. meat/o
C. ureter, kidney, urethra, bladder C. lith/o
D. urethra, bladder, kidney, ureter D. keton/o

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1.21 Urinary System 644

115. Materials involved in Descending Loop of B. blood backing up into glomerulus

Henle reabsorption? C. protein concentrations
A. H2O
D. none of above
B. Urea
121. What is the outer layer of the kidney?
C. Vitamins
A. glomerulus
D. Lactate
B. renal cortex

NARAYAN CHANGDER
116. A patient was found to have blood in
C. meatus
their urine likely due to a UTI. What is the
term for the presence of blood in urine? D. urethra
A. Ketonuria 122. Which structure funnels urine into the
B. Glycosuria ureter?
C. Hematuria A. Renal Pelvis
D. Pyuria B. Renal Cortex
117. Which blood vessel enters the glomerular C. Renal Medulla
capsule? D. Renal Capsule
A. The afferent arteriole
123. What reproductive structure is described
B. The efferent arteriole as a hollow, muscular, pear-shaped or-
C. The peritubular capillaries gan?
D. The vasa recta A. Uterus
B. Vagina
118. What are alveoli?
A. sacs in the heart C. Perineum

B. voicebox D. Ovary

C. sacs in the lungs 124. Which excretory organ eliminates wa-

D. cillia ter and some chemical wastes in perspira-
tion?
119. ORGAN THAT DOESN‘T CONNECT WITH A. lungs
URINARY SYSTEM(MORE THAN 1 AN-
SWER) B. skin
A. KIDNEYS C. liver
B. SKIN D. kidneys
C. LUNG 125. Water is reabsorbed from the proximal
D. RENAL ARTERY convolutions by which process?
E. URETHRA A. diffusion
B. active transport
120. Afferent arterioles constrict causing de-
crease in filtration due to C. osmosis
A. lack of blood D. facilitated diffusion

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1.21 Urinary System 645

126. CLUSTER OF CAPILLARIES IN NEPHRON 132. The mechanism of water reabsorption by

A. CORTEX the renal tubules is
A. active transport

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B. NEPHRON
B. osmosis
C. BOWMAN’S CAPSULE
C. filtration
D. GLOMERULUS
D. cotransport with sodium ions
127. What is the function of the Urthera
133. What is the rhythmic wavelike motion
A. Filter Blood of the involuntary muscle of the ureters
B. Transport Urine called?
C. Hold Urine A. Urea
B. Contraction
D. Dispose Urine
C. Peristalsis
128. A disease caused by inadequate secretion D. Undulation
of ADH by the pituitary gland is
134. The bladder has three opening, which
A. diabetes mellitus
are?
B. diabetes insipidus
A. one from kidney, one from ureter, one
C. diabetic acidosis from urethra
D. coma B. two from ureter and one from urethra
C. three from ureter
129. A stone in the urinary bladder is known
as a? D. two from urethra and one from ureter
A. Uretolith 135. What is the name for the microscopic fil-
B. Cystolith tering unit of the kidneys?
A. hilum
C. Choelith
B. cortex
D. Nephrolith
C. medulla
130. Urine is produced by the D. nephron
A. Urethra
136. At the you have urine
B. Urinary bladder
A. proximal tubule
C. Kidney B. loop of henle
D. Ureter C. distal tubule
131. The compound made from nitrogenous D. collecting duct
metabolic wastes that the kidneys are re- 137. What is the portion of a nephron that is
sponsible for filtering out. active in filtering urine?
A. urea A. urethra
B. gluco hormones B. ureter
C. urine C. glomerulus
D. ions D. renal cortex

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1.21 Urinary System 646

138. What are kidney stones? 144. Which of the following is secreted in the
A. actual stones Distal Convoluted Tubule

B. hardened minerals and salts A. Potassium

C. dried out blood B. Drugs
D. passing pain C. Medications
139. What is the main function of the urinary D. Ammonia

NARAYAN CHANGDER
system?
145. What is the name of an expandable, hol-
A. Keep your body hydrated
low organ that acts as a temporary reser-
B. Expelling water from your body voir for urine?
C. Removing poisons from your body A. renal cortex
D. Removing solid wastes from your body
B. renal medulla
140. HOLLOW MUSCULAR SAC THAT STORES C. urinary bladder
URINE
D. hilum
A. KIDNEY
B. BOWMAN’S CAPSULE 146. Which of the following is/are right for
C. BLADDER pronephroi?
D. URETHRA A. Pronephroi is transitory, nonfunctional
structures appear in the 4th week
141. If you could see the inside lining of any
empty bladder, what would you see? B. Pronephroi is permanent kidney

A. villi C. pronephroi consists of glomeruli and

pronephric tubules
B. lacteals
C. rugae D. pronephroi comes from extraembry-
onic mesoderm
D. cilia
147. Which is NOT a urinary system organ?
142. What stage of urine formation creates a
plasma-like filtrate of the blood? A. Kidneys
A. Glomerular filtration B. Lungs
B. Tubular reabsorption C. Bladder
C. Tubular secretion
D. Ureters
D. Water conservation
148. The majority of glomeruli are located in
143. What is the term meaning inflammation
the
of the bladder?
A. renal pelvis
A. urethritis
B. pyelitis B. renal cortex
C. cystitis C. renal medulla
D. ureteritis D. vasa recta

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1.21 Urinary System 647

149. Kidney stones can be cause by the in- B. hydrogen

creased intake of:(select all that apply) C. potassium

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A. Foods high in Vitamin D D. sodium
B. Foods high in Oxalic Acid
155. What structures transport urine to the
C. High Fat diets bladder?
D. High Protein diets A. ureters
150. The connective tissue that surrounds the B. urethra
kidneys is the:
C. kidneys
A. Hilum
D. bladder
B. Renal Capsule
156. Why is the scrotum located outside the
C. Calyx
body?
D. Renal Pyramid
A. The lower temperature is essential for
151. The urethra is an organ that allows for sperm production.
B. To protect the testes from abdominal
A. storage of urine. trauma.
B. urine to exit the body. C. To keep the testes away from the in-
fective potential of the digestive system.
C. urine to move from the kidney to the
bladder. D. The vas deferens provides a longer
pathway for the maturation of sperm.
D. bile to move from the liver to the gall
bladder. 157. What carries urine from the kidneys to
the bladder?
152. What might happen if your bladder
lacked muscles? A. glomerulus
A. urine might leak out of your bladder B. meatus
B. urine could not enter the bladder C. ureters
C. your kidneys would shut down D. urethra
D. you would not be able to expel urine 158. The blood comes in through the renal
from your bladder artery to the arteriole to the glomeru-
lus.
153. A patient is experiencing pain when they
urinate. They probably have: A. efferent
A. Nocturia B. afferent
B. Dysuria C. peritubular
C. Proteinuria D. none of above
D. Hematuria 159. What are the symptoms of a UTI?
154. When aldosterone is released, secretion A. frequent need to urinate
of occurs. B. painful/burning sensation when uri-
A. ammonium nating

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1.21 Urinary System 648

C. dark urine 165. What is the term used to describe main-

D. blood in urine taining a careful balance in our body?

E. cramps A. homeostasis
B. homosapian
160. What is the medical word element that
means renal pelvis? C. homozygous
A. olgi/o D. urination

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. py/o 166. What structure projects into the minor ca-
C. pyel/o lyx?
D. ureter/o A. Papillae

161. The is a sac-like muscular organ that B. Pyramid

stores urine until it is released from the C. Medulla
body. D. Cortex
A. ureters
167. Which of the following is closest to the
B. kidneys
glomerulus?
C. bladder
A. loop of Henle
D. urethra
B. DCT
162. Urine passes through the C. PCT
A. renal hilum to the bladder D. collecting duct
B. glomerulus to ureter to renal tubule
168. Water leaves the nephron by
C. pelvis of kidney to ureter to bladder to
urethra A. active transport
D. none of above B. filtration into the capillary network
C. osmosis
163. If someone has hematuria, they are ex-
periencing D. facilitated diffusion
A. pus in the urine 169. What organ filter waste from the blood?
B. blood in the urine A. bladder
C. glucose in the urine B. kidneys
D. urea in the urine C. small intestine
164. INNER SECTION OF THE KIDNEY THAT D. urethra
CONTAINS MOST OF THE COLLECTING
TUBULES WHICH CARRY THE URINE 170. Which part of the nephron can be found
FROM NEPHRONS THROUGH THE KIDNEY in the renal medulla
A. MEDULLA A. PCT
B. CORTEX B. DCT
C. GLOMERULUS C. Loop of Henle
D. NEPRON D. Bowman’s Capsule

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1.21 Urinary System 649

171. The process of removal of the body’s A. hilum

wastes is called B. ureters

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A. gas exchange. C. tubes
B. respiration. D. none of above
C. excretion.
177. You can control the expulsion of urine
D. filtration. through the?
172. Place in order:A. urine passes through A. micturition
ureters into the bladderB. waste in blood
B. ureter sphincter
(urea) enters the kidneysC. urine excretes
from the urethra C. external sphincter
A. B A C D. internal sphincter
B. C A B 178. In addition to water, the principal compo-
C. B C A nents of urine are
D. A C B A. amino acids and fatty acids
B. urea and salts
173. Which of the following are structures of
the urinary system C. ammonia and bile
A. ureters D. hydrochloric acid and bases
B. urethra 179. What is the correct sequence for parts of
C. kidneys the renal tubule?
D. bladder A. Proximal convoluted tubule, nephron
loop, distal convoluted tubule
E. uterus
B. Proximal convoluted tubule, vasa
174. Besides producing a sex cell, what else recta, distal convoluted tubule
does the reproductive system produce?
C. Proximal convoluted tubule, distal con-
A. Red Blood cells voluted tubule, nephron loop
B. urine D. Collecting duct, proximal convoluted
C. hormones tubule, distal convoluted tubule
D. none of above 180. Drinking alcohol inhibits this hormone,
causing you to increase the loss of water
175. Involuntary Urination:
and urinate more often.
A. Polyuria
A. rennin
B. Incontinence
B. ADH
C. Uremia
C. ANH
D. Dysuria
D. aldosterone
176. notched or indented area in kidney
through which the ureter, nerves, blood 181. A treatment for kidney failure would in-
vessels, and lymph vessels enter and clude
leave the kidney A. increased fluid intake

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1.21 Urinary System 650

B. antibiotics B. Renin
C. restricted fluid intake C. ADH
D. high protein diet D. Parathyroid hormone

182. What comes second? 188. Substances travel from the glomerulus
A. Ureter into Bowman capsule by the process of:
B. Bladder A. diffusion.

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Kidneys B. active transport.
D. none of above C. filtration.
D. osmosis.
183. The medical term for abnormal kidney
condition is 189. The three interrelated processes of urine
A. nephroptosis formation are
B. nephrosis A. filtration, secretion, and excretion
C. nephromalacia B. secretion, reabsorption, and micturi-
tion
D. nephritis
C. excretion, storage, and micturition
184. What is the functional unit of the kid-
D. filtration, reabsorption, and secretion
ney?
A. glomerulus 190. Components of the Urinary System in-
B. renal tubule clude:

C. nephron A. 2 kidneys

D. renal corpuscule B. 2 ureters

C. 1 bladder
185. During which process is 99% of the wa-
ter returned to the blood vessels? D. 1 urethra
A. Filtration E. All of the above
B. Reabsorption 191. What is a like a storage bag for the
C. Secretion urine?
D. none of above A. Bladder
B. Kidney
186. If you have painful urination it is called
C. Urethra
A. polyuria
D. none of above
B. dysuria
C. oliguria 192. Word part for bladder?
D. anuria A. cyst/o

187. Which hormone promotes water reab- B. -cele

sorption? C. glomerul/o
A. Aldosterone D. nephr/o

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1.21 Urinary System 651

193. Thin-walled tube that carries urine from 199. hormone that stimulates the kidney to re-
the urinary bladder to the outside of the tain sodium ions and water
body by peristalsis.

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A. blood
A. urethra B. aldosterone
B. urinary bladder C. urine
C. ureters D. none of above
D. none of above 200. Of all the blood pumped per minute by the
194. Word part for urethra? heart, approximately goes through the
kidneys
A. urethr/o
A. 1/5
B. ureter/o
B. 1/3
C. -uria C. 1/2
D. -ectasis D. 3/4
195. What is the definition of Polyuria? 201. Which of the following means small
A. Below normal amounts of urination amount of urine?
B. Excessive Urination A. hematuria

C. Urination at night B. anuria

C. oliguria
D. Painful Urination
D. dysuria
196. Which of the following is one of the pro-
cesses in urine formation? 202. blood in urine
A. Filtration from afferent arteriole A. hematuria

B. Tubular secretion B. neurogenic bladder

C. peristalsis
C. Glomerular resorption
D. none of above
D. Urine synthesis
203. Which part of the filtration process re-
197. The waste product of respiration is moves water, salts, nutrients and waste
A. oxygen from the blood.
B. carbon dioxide A. tubular reabsorption
C. hydrogen B. glomerular filtration
D. none of above C. tubular secretion
D. none of above
198. Painful urination
204. What is the name for the screening test
A. Edema
that includes physical observation, chemi-
B. Cystitis cal tests, and microscopic evaluation?
C. Anuria A. culture and sensitivity
D. Dysuria B. cystoscopy

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1.21 Urinary System 652

C. urinalysis 210. When the lobulation of the fetal kidney

disappears?
D. blood urea nitrogen
A. at the end of the first year of infancy
205. If your blood pressure is high because B. at the end of organogenesis
of increased blood volume, what hormone
will correct this? C. at the end of fetal life
D. at the end of 36 week
A. rennin
211. Which bones protect the spinal cord?

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. ADH
C. ANH A. Skull
B. Vertebrae
D. aldosterone
C. Rib cage
206. What is the diaphragm? D. Teeth
A. lungs
212. Hollow, muscular sac that temporarily
B. sacs in the lungs stores urine
C. trachea A. urethra
D. muscle under the lungs B. urinary bladder
C. ureters
207. Ureters are
D. none of above
A. Tubes that connect the kidneys to the
bladder 213. This structure branches into the peritubu-
lar capillaries
B. Tubes that connect the small intestine
and the large intestine A. Afferent arteriole
C. Passageways in the lungs B. Efferent arteriole

D. Blood vessels in the circulatory system C. Bowman’s Capsule

D. Glomerulus
208. renal hypoplasia
214. What is the filtering unit of the kidney?
A. underdeveloped kidney
A. The nephron
B. bleeding from the ureter
B. The bladder
C. pertaining to something moving
C. The renal pelvis
through the urethra
D. The renal cortex
D. none of above
E. The urinary tract
209. Urine is carried from the kidneys to the
215. Which is NOT part of a neuron? (nerve
bladder by two thin tubes called:
cell)
A. Ureters A. Dendrite
B. Tubulars B. Axon
C. Capillaries C. Red blood cell
D. Urinary Tract D. Cell body

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1.21 Urinary System 653

216. The main functions of the urinary system C. Renal tubule system
are
D. Collecting duct

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A. Removal of waste and storage of nutri-
ents 221. By regulating the water-salt balance,
B. Regulation of water balance and blood what else does the kidney maintain?
glucose level A. blood pH
C. Regulation of water and electrolyte B. blood volume
balance, only
C. blood pressure
D. Removal of waste and regulation of
water and electrolyte balance D. blood volume & pressure

217. Break down Hydronephrosis 222. A woman who is NOT sexually active
A. Over-kidney-condition of could still develop:

B. Abnormal-liver-condition of A. Endometriosis
C. Water-kidney-condition of B. Chlamydia
D. none of above C. Gonorrhea

218. dialysis D. Syphillis

A. mechanical replacement of kidney 223. What is the function of the kidneys? (SE-
function when the kidney is not working LECT ALL THAT APPLY)
B. process of cutting into the urinary mea- A. Regulation of blood glucose
tus to widen it
B. Absorption of nutrients
C. an x-ray of the kidneys and ureters
following administration of a contrast C. Regulation of blood pH
medium to improve visibility D. Production of erythropoietin
D. none of above
224. osmoreceptor cells are found where?
219. The steps of formation of urine
A. hypothalamus
A. Filtration, secretion, selective reab-
sorption, excretion B. hippocampus
B. Excretion, filtration, selective reab- C. frontal lobe
sorption, secretion. D. blood
C. Filtration, selective reabsorption, Ex-
cretion, secretion 225. the nephron structure that consists of a
D. Filtration, selective reabsorption, se- ball of blood capillaries and the surround-
cretion, Excretion. ing tube that is the start of the nephron
A. glomerular capsule
220. The Bowman’s capsule and glomerulus
make up the: B. renal corpuscle
A. Renal corpuscle C. nephron
B. Loop of Henle D. loop of henle

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1.21 Urinary System 654

226. The space between 2 neurons is called the C. equally

A. dendrite D. depends on the size
B. axon 232. Anti-diuretic hormone (ADH) is released
C. node of Ranvier by which gland of the endocrine system
D. synapse A. Thyroid

227. What is the order of Urine moving B. Pituitary

NARAYAN CHANGDER
through the body C. Ovaries
A. Bladder, Kidneys, Ureters, Urthera D. Adrenal
B. Ureters, Bladder, Kidneys, Bladder
233. Which blood vessel leaves the glomerular
C. Kidneys, Ureters, Bladder, Urethra capsule?
D. Urethra, Bladder, Ureters, Kidneys A. The afferent arteriole
228. Inflammation of the bladder B. The efferent arteriole
A. nephritis C. The peritubular capillaries
B. cystitis D. The vasa recta
C. sinusitis 234. What is the C-shaped structure in the
D. renalitis nephron that surrounds the glomerulus
sometimes called?
229. In humans, which substances are nor-
A. Bowman’s capsule
mally filtered out of the blood by the
nephrons and then excreted? B. bladder
A. water, carbon dioxide, and glucose C. renal pelvis
B. urea, water, and mineral salts D. hilum
C. water, glycogen, and urea 235. The passive process performed by the
D. glucose, water, and red blood cells glomerulus that removes molecules based
on size is
230. Excess water and some chemical and cel-
A. glomerular filtration
lular waste products eliminated from the
body in liquid waste is called B. tubular reabsorption
A. urea C. glomerular reabsorption
B. urine D. tubular secretion
C. liquid waste 236. Females are more likely to have a urinary
D. solid waste tract infection because of:

231. If a substance is secreted, it will be A. Longer urethra

concentrated in the urine than in the B. Shorter ureter
plasma. C. Shorter urethra and location of the ure-
A. more thra
B. less D. Shorter ureter and location of ureter

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1.21 Urinary System 655

237. Drink at least 8oz. glasses of water C. GLOMERULONEPHRITIS

daily. D. CYSTITIS

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A. 2
242. Which of the following regions is NOT
B. 4 found in the renal tubule?
C. 6 A. Glomerulus
D. 8 B. Bowman’s capsule
238. double walled capsule surrounding the C. Loop of Henle
glomerulus D. Collecting Duct
A. loop of henle
243. The is a muscle that prevents urine
B. distal convoluted tubule
from exiting the bladder until you’re ready
C. bowmans capsule to pee.
D. none of above A. Calf
239. Which of the following is least likely to B. Quadriceps
be present in the glomerular filtrate (the C. Pectoral
filtrate produced by the nephron before it
D. Sphincter
enters the loop of Henle) of a healthy adult
nephron? 244. pyelonephritis
A. amino acids A. inflammation of the renal pelvis and
B. glucose kidney because of a urinary tract infection
that spreads to the kidneys
C. electrolytes
B. displacement of the bladder against
D. large protein molecules
the vaginal wall
240. Which of the choices below is NOT a func- C. pertaining to the ureter
tion of the urinary system?
D. none of above
A. helps maintain homeostasis by control-
ling the composition, volume, and pres- 245. The official name for urination, or the re-
sure of blood lease of urine from the urinary bladder
B. regulates blood glucose levels and pro- A. defecation
duces hormones B. micturition
C. maintains blood osmolarity C. secretion
D. eliminates solid, undigested wastes D. oration
and excretes carbon dioxide, water, salts,
and heat 246. Constantly filtering blood to remove
waste products and excess water is the
241. TOXIC CONDITION THAT OCCURS WHEN function of which organ?
KIDNEYS FAIL AND URINARY WASTE
PRODUCTS ARE PRESENT IN THE BLOOD A. Ureter
STREAM B. Urethra
A. UREA C. Kidneys
B. UREMIA D. Bladder

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1.21 Urinary System 656

247. Which is NOT a function of the kidneys? B. Renal papillary muscles

A. Production/release of calcitriol and C. Sphincters
erythropoietin D. Bladder vessicle
B. Regulation of blood composition and
253. What is the function of the Urinary
pH
A. To remove waste from your blood
C. Storage of urine
B. To add waste to the blood
D. Regulation of blood volume and pres-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
sure C. To give nutrients to our body
E. Maintenance of blood osmolarity D. To deoxygenate blood

248. Eat to keep the urinary system 254. uremia

healthy.. A. accumulation of waste products in the
A. cranberries blood

B. peaches B. surgical fixation of the bladder to the

abdominal wall
C. grapes
C. pertaining to the bladder
D. veggies
D. none of above
249. What is the process of artificially filtering
255. Why are urinary tract infections more
waste products from the patients blood?
common in women than men?
A. hydroureter
A. women’s urethras are shorter than
B. homeostasis men’s
C. diuresis B. women’s ureters are shorter than
D. hemodialysis men’s
C. men’s ureters are shorter than
250. In which of these conditions is blood in women’s
the urine?
D. men’s ureters are shorter than
A. Pyuria women’s
B. Hematuria
256. Which are the tubes that carry urine from
C. Dysuria the kidney to the bladder?
D. Glycosuuria A. Adrenal tubes
251. What is 95% of urine composition? B. Kidneys
A. Water C. Ureters
B. Acids D. Urethras
C. Urea 257. Which kidney function in replaced by
D. Hormones hemodialysis?
A. Reabsorption
252. What are the two muscles at the urethra
that control the exit of urine out of the B. Elimination
body? C. Secretion
A. Sphinxes D. Filtration

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1.21 Urinary System 657

258. inflammation of the bladder, most com- 264. Which of these is a solute normally found
monly caused by ecoli in urine?

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A. cystitis A. Urea, uric acid, creatinine
B. urinitis B. Blood proteins
C. dysuria C. Pus (WBCs)
D. none of above D. Red blood cells

259. The Bowman’s Capsule and Loop of Henle 265. How many nephrons does the average
are parts of the: adult kidney contain?
A. Bladder A. exactly1
B. Urethra B. roughly 100, 000
C. Renal Pelvis C. roughly 1, 000, 000
D. Nephron D. roughly 1000

260. What is the correct order of urinary sys- 266. A construction worker falls and strikes
tem organs his lower abdomen on a hard object. What
might he experience as a result?
A. Ureters, bladder, kidneys, urethra
A. anuria
B. Urethra, bladder, ureters, kidneys
B. nocturia
C. Kidneys, urethra, bladder, ureters
C. hematuria
D. Kidneys, ureters, bladder, urethra
D. polyuria
261. The average adult urinary bladder is mod-
erately full with of urine within it. 267. Where is water reabsorbed in the
nephron?
A. 500 mL
A. collecting ducts
B. 1 L
B. loop of nephron
C. 1 Gallon
C. proximal & distal tubes
D. 2 L
D. all of the above
262. means excessive urination.
268. The urinary system does all of the follow-
A. Enuresis
ing except
B. Overactive bladder A. Regulate blood volume
C. Oliguria B. Eliminate organic wastes
D. Polyuria C. Secrete glucose molecules
263. Which of the following factors affect GFR D. Regulates plasma electrolyte concen-
(glomerular filtration rate)? trations
A. autoregulation 269. What organ is not involved directly in the
B. hormonal regulation urinary system?
C. autonomic regulation A. Uretha
D. enzymatic regulation B. Bladder

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1.21 Urinary System 658

C. Large Intestine C. Buffers

D. Ureter D. Alkalosis
270. Blood to be filtered enters through the:
276. Also known as excretory system, respon-
A. popliteal artery sible for removing certain wastes and ex-
B. renal veins cess water from the body or maintaining
the body’s acid-base balance
C. renal artery
A. Urinary system

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. renal arteriole
B. anuria
271. is a condition when a person is unable
to voluntarily control the urethral sphinc- C. urine
ter. D. none of above
A. Urgency
B. Incontinence 277. Normal pH of urine is

C. Frequency A. 1
D. Retention B. 8

272. Word part for hernia, tumor, or cyst? C. 6

A. cyst/o D. 13
B. lith/o
278. Another name for the nephron loop is the:
C. -cele
A. Loop of Bowman
D. nephr/o
B. Loop of Henle
273. Which of the following are characteristics
C. Bowman’s Capsule
of urine?
A. normal color is somewhat yellow D. Glomerular Loop

B. pH is around 7.5 279. Urea recycling can cause a build up of

C. pH is around 6 urea in the
D. It is sterile. A. Renal medulla
274. What is a symptom of a UTI? B. Loop of Henle
A. dysuria C. Ascending tubule
B. dyspepsia D. Renal Pelvis
C. dysphagia
280. Which part of the urinary system does
D. dyspnea
most of the work?
275. These are chemicals or combination of A. ureters
chemicals that can take up excess hydro-
gen ions or excess hydroxide ions. B. kidneys
A. Diuretics C. bladder
B. Antidiuresis D. urethra

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1.21 Urinary System 659

281. What are the main excretory organs? 287. Materials involved in DCT secretion. Se-
A. bladder lect all that apply
A. H+

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B. kidneys
B. Urea
C. ureters
C. NH4+
D. urethra
D. K+
282. What is another excretion system?
288. Juxtaglomerular cells are involved in the
A. Respiratory system secretion of
B. Circulatory system A. ADH
C. Integumentary system B. oxytocin
D. Nervous system C. renin
D. aldosterone
283. below normal amounts of urination, early
E. atrial natriuretic factor
sign of acute kidney failure
A. olguria 289. Word part meaning to crush?
B. dysuria A. -lysis
B. -ptosis
C. polyuria
C. -pexy
D. none of above
D. -tripsy
284. Filtrate in which part of the nephron
290. Oliguria (urinating below the average
tubule has the highest osmolality?
amount) is the opposite of
A. Proximal tubule
A. Hematuria
B. Ascending loop of Henle B. Polyuria
C. Descending loop of Henle C. Incontinence
D. Distal tubule D. Retention
285. Which of the following is NOT a symptom 291. What is the abbreviation for cys-
of antifreeze ingestion by an animal? toscopy?
A. Ataxia A. cysto
B. Polydipsia B. CY
C. Halitosis C. CPY
D. CTY
D. Weight gain
292. Which blood vessels branch off of the
286. Narrow tubes that carry urine from each aorta to supply blood to the kidneys for
kidney to the bladder filtration?
A. Ureters A. renal arteries
B. Urine B. renal veins
C. Bladder C. vena cava
D. Urethra D. pulmonary arteries

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1.21 Urinary System 660

293. What is the name for the area of the kid- B. URINE
ney where the renal artery enters and the C. FECES
renal vein exits?
D. UREA
A. hilum
B. cortex 299. How does urine move down the ureter?
C. medulla A. gravity
D. nephron B. peristalsis

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. pressure
294. What term means scanty urine?
D. projectile
A. anuria
B. polyuria 300. Urinary retention
C. oliguria A. Presence of stones in urine
D. hematuria B. Condition of a narrowed ureter
C. Inflammation of the urethra
295. What organs compose the Urinary Sys-
tem? D. Abnormal accumulation of urine
A. Two kidneys, two urethrae, a ureter, 301. remove urea from (filters) the blood and
and a urinary bladder regulate concentrations of most of the sub-
B. Two kidneys, a ureter, a urinary blad- stances in the body fluids
der, and a urethra A. liver
C. Two kidneys, two ureters, a urinary B. kidney
bladder, and a urethra
C. urinary bladder
D. Two kidneys, two ureters, two ure-
thrae, and a urinary bladder D. ureter

296. What makes you Breathe? 302. Water retention will cause blood pres-
sure to
A. Lebron james
A. drop
B. Respiratory system
B. stabilize
C. nervous system
C. rise
D. I really dont know
D. all of the answers
297. What very important job do kidneys
have? 303. Na is the symbol for what element?
A. To make urine A. Sodium
B. To filter waste out of the blood B. Nitrate
C. All of the above C. Oxygen
D. none of above D. Uranium 235

298. LIQUID WASTE PRODUCT THAT IS 95% 304. The presence of serum protein in the urine
WATER is called
A. PLASMA A. proteinuria

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1.21 Urinary System 661

B. hematuria 310. The two narrow tubes that urine flows

through from the kidneys to the bladder
C. urea
are the

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D. pyurea
A. urethras
305. The 3 steps of urine formation does NOT B. kidneys
include: C. esophagus
A. filtration D. ureters
B. reabsorption 311. Most nephrons are located within the re-
C. secretion nal
A. cortex
D. penetration
B. pelvis
306. Where is urea created? C. pyramids
A. In your intestines D. medulla
B. In your liver 312. Organ that stores urine.
C. In your stomach A. bladder
D. In your bloodstream B. kidney
C. adrenal gland
307. the functional unit within a kidney
D. gall bladder
A. glomerulus
313. The ascending side of the Loop of Henle
B. renal cortex
is permeable to?
C. nephron A. Sodium and chloride ions
D. medulla B. Glucose
C. Water
308. Which organ of the excretory system
stores urine until the body is ready to elim- D. Amino Acids
inate it?
314. If a patient has one functioning kidney
A. ureters what kind of treatment would they go
through?
B. urethra
A. None
C. urinary bladder
B. Dialysis
D. urea
C. Blood Transfusion
309. What is the function of ADH? D. none of above
A. decreases reabsorption of water and 315. a harmful substance formed when cells
salts use protein for energy
B. increases reabsorption of hydrogen A. urine
ions B. urea
C. increase reabsorption of salts C. water
D. increases reabsorption of water D. carbondioxide

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1.21 Urinary System 662

316. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT 321. Suffix for stretching or enlargement?
FILTERED OUT OF THE BLOOD IN THE A. urethr/o
GLOMERULUS?
B. ureter/o
A. WATER
C. -uria
B. PROTEIN D. -ectasis
C. MINERAL SALTS
322. Which from the following is correct in uro-
D. METABOLIC PRODUCTS genital system embryology

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. The urogenital system develops from
317. The three stages of urine production are
the paraxial mesoderm
, , and
B. Pronephroi is transitory, nonfunctional
A. filtration, reabsorption, and secretion structures appear in the 6th week
B. filtration, urine secretion, and leukocy- C. Mesonephroi is endodermal in origin
tosis
D. metanephroi is last set of kidnays
C. reabsorption, discretion, and secre-
tion 323. An infection in the urethra is called?
A. Pyelonephritis
D. secretion, absorption, and dissemina-
tion B. Cystitis
C. Urethritis
318. Using an artificial method of ridding the
body of waste molecules is called? D. none of above

A. CAPD 324. Which of the hormones involved in the

regulation of water-salt balance is pro-
B. Hemodialysis duced by the juxtaglomerular apparatus?
C. Acidosis A. aldosterone
D. Uremia B. rennin
C. ADH
319. The urinary bladder is composed of
epithelium. D. ANH

A. transitional 325. urinary incontinence

B. simple squamous A. involuntary outflow of urine

C. stratified squamous B. loss of kidney function

C. insertion of a flexible tube into the
D. pseudostratified columnar
bladder to withdraw urine
320. Urine is really just waste that comes out D. none of above
of our:
326. What percentage of urine is water?
A. blood
A. 2%
B. GI tract B. 100%
C. stool C. 95%
D. serous fluid D. 60%

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1.21 Urinary System 663

327. Urine is formed in the C. Garage

A. Major calices D. Urethra

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B. Vasa recta
333. INABILITY TO EMPTY THE BLADDER
C. Capsular space
A. CYSTITIS
D. Nephron
B. URINARY RETENTION
328. What is this structure?
C. DYSURIA
A. 1
D. ANURIA
B. 3
C. 5 334. Where is urine stored?
D. 2 A. kidneys
329. The final part of the nephron tubule that B. urinary bladder
does some final reabsorption and excre- C. urethra
tion, and carries urine to the collecting
duct. D. ureters
A. distal convoluted tubule 335. The watery fluid produced by the kidneys
B. renal corpuscle is
C. proximal convoluted tubule A. urea
D. Bowman’s capsule B. urine
330. This structure is responsible for almost C. solid waste
70% of the reabsorption that takes place
D. diarrhea
in the nephron
A. PCT 336. What is the urethra?
B. DCT A. tube that carries waste to the bladder
C. Loop of Henle B. tube that carries urine outside the
D. Collecting Duct body

331. the tube that connects the kidney and C. stores urine
bladder D. filters the blood
A. ureter
337. Which term describes the procedure used
B. renal tube to remove waste products from the blood
C. urethra of a patient whose kidneys no longer
work?
D. nephron
A. urethroplasty
332. Urine is stored here until you’re ready to
void(pee): B. prostectomy
A. Kidneys C. hemodialysis
B. Bladder D. kidney transplant

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1.21 Urinary System 664

338. Where does FILTRATION take place in the 344. Urine is transported from the urinary
nephron? bladder to the outside of the body by the
A. Glomerulus
B. Bowman’s Capsule A. urethra
C. PCT B. ureter
D. Collecting Duct
C. renal pelvis
339. Filtration of the blood in nephrons allows

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. collecting duct
blood plasma to pass through without
A. blood cells and proteins 345. The three stages of urine production are
B. macro molecules filtration, , and secretion.
C. Glucose A. digestion
D. Ammonia B. reabsorption
340. Amber-colored urine could be a sign of: C. respiration
A. Dehydration
D. conduction
B. Incontinence
C. Dysuria 346. Albumin
D. Protenuria A. Kidney
341. This structure brings blood TO the B. Protein
glomerulus to be filtered.
C. Bacteria
A. Afferent arteriole
B. Efferent arteriole D. Pressure
C. Renal vein
347. The function of the Urinary System is to
D. Loop of Henle
342. What are the functions of the kidneys? A. filter wastes from your blood.
Mark all that apply
B. move food around your systems.
A. Regulate volume of urine
B. Regulate composition of urine C. regulate the amount of water in your
cells.
C. Regulate pH of body fluids
D. help the body move.
D. Remove metabolic wastes from blood
343. Under normal conditions, most nutrients 348. The urinary system consists of a pair of
are reabsorbed in which portion of the
nephron?
A. pancreas
A. Proximal tubule
B. urethras
B. Ascending loop of Henle
C. Distal tubule C. urinary bladders
D. Collecting tubule D. kidneys

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1.21 Urinary System 665

349. The organ that removes metabolic 355. muscular tubes that extend from renal
wastes including urea, excess water, and pelvis of each kidney, empty urine into
salts from the blood. bladder

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A. lung A. ureters
B. liver B. urinary tubes
C. kidney C. hilum
D. colon
D. none of above
350. involuntary urination is known as
356. The excretory system is responsible for
A. continence moving toxic wastes, dissolved molecules,
B. anuria and excess heat. You would conclude that
C. incontinence the excretory system contributes to

D. uremia A. circulating molecules around the body

B. maintaining homeostasis in the body
351. glucose in the urine
A. dysuria C. producing egg and sperm cells in the
body
B. urinary meatus
D. gas exchange
C. glycosuria
D. none of above 357. It is the hormone made by the kidneys,
needed for absorption of calcium phos-
352. Urine production takes place in the: phate, the active form of vitamin D.
A. nephrons of the kidneys A. Erythropoietin
B. urinary bladder
B. Creatinine
C. ureter
C. Calcitriol
D. renal pelvis
D. Calcium
353. Where does urea exist before the kidney
filters it out 358. Diuretics are chemicals that?
A. in bloodstream A. increase the flow of urine
B. in intestines B. decreases the amount of salts reab-
C. in liver sorbed
D. in stomach C. decrease the amount of urine

354. Approximately L of filtrate enters the D. none of above

nephrons each day; of that volume %
359. INNER SECTION OF KIDNEY
is reabsorbed in the proximal tubule.
A. 180 L and 65% A. RENAL PELVIS

B. 240 L and 85% B. GLOMERULUS

C. 80 L and 35% C. MEDULLA
D. 280 L and 99% D. CORTEX

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1.21 Urinary System 666

360. What is a nephron? C. The detrusor muscle

A. filtering unit in the kidney D. The sphincter muscles
B. neuron
366. What is the loss of bladder control which
C. filtering unit in the heart leads to leaking urine or urinating when
D. filtering unit in the brain you don”t want to?
A. anuria
361. During the process of filtration in the

NARAYAN CHANGDER
nephron, most of the water, glucose, and B. incontinence
vitamins are: C. diuresis
A. stored in the bladder D. polyuria
B. excreted through the ureters
367. The descending nephron loop is perme-
C. reabsorbed into the blood able to:
D. concentrated in the urine
A. water
362. What is Oliguria? B. lons
A. Calcium nitrate C. salt
B. Involuntary urination D. sugar
C. Blood in the urine
368. The total amount of blood that passes
D. Below normal amounts of information through the kidney’s filtration organs ev-
ery minute
363. The fatty tissue surrounding the kidneys
is important because it A. respiration rate
A. keeps it warm B. urinary rate
B. stabilizes the position of the kidneys C. kidney blood rate
C. produces vitamin D D. glomerular filtration rate
D. is necessary as a barrier between the
369. The hormone associated with the male re-
adrenal glands and kidneys
productive system is:
364. Materials involved in collecting duct reab- A. Estrogen
sorption. Select all that apply
B. Testosterone
A. H2O
C. Progesterone
B. Na+
D. Oxcytocin
C. Urea
D. K+ 370. How many sperm are able to fertilize an
egg?
365. What is the collective name for the layers
A. 1
of muscle in the wall of the urinary blad-
der? B. 2
A. The muscularis C. 3
B. The ureteral muscles D. it depends

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1.21 Urinary System 667

371. The renal blood vessels enter and leave 377. The functional units of the kidneys are:
the kidney at the: A. Nephrons

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A. cortex B. Renal Papilla
B. renal papilla C. Minor Calyx
C. medulla D. Major Calyx
D. hilum 378. The portion of the nephron closest to the
372. What is the opening where urine is re- renal corpuscle is the
leased from the body? A. Loop
A. urethra B. Proximal convoluted tubule
B. ureters C. Distal convoluted tubule
C. bladder D. The minor calyx
D. kidneys 379. What is the muscular sac that stores
urine until it is ready to be emptied from
373. Word root for glomerulus? the body?
A. nephr/o A. Kidneys
B. lith/o B. Ureter
C. cyst/o C. Urethra
D. glomerul/o D. Bladder
374. The basic functional unit of the kidney is 380. The passage extending from the uterus
the to the vulva; the place where semen is de-
A. Renal corpuscle posited
A. vagina
B. Glomerulus
B. uterus
C. Loop
C. cervix
D. Nephron
D. ovary
375. What would cause a positive Pap
smear? 381. What is the term for the creation of an ar-
tificial opening between the urinary blad-
A. Herpes der and the exterior of the body?
B. Endometriosis A. nephrostomy
C. Cervical cancer B. urethrotomy
D. Breast cancer C. cystostomy
376. Which of the following is NOT a process D. pyelotomy
in the urinary system? 382. Difficult or painful urination is called
A. glomular filtration A. urea
B. glomular reabsorption B. anuria
C. tubular secretion C. oliguria
D. tubular reabsorption D. dysuria

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1.21 Urinary System 668

383. The sac that holds the urine is known as 389. Which molecule moves back in the the
the? bloodstream by osmosis in the loop of
A. ureter Henle?
B. bladder A. Urea
C. kidney B. Red Blood Cells
D. urethra C. Proteins
384. Filtration of blood occurs at the

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Water
A. Glomerulus
B. Glomerular capsule 390. Which of the following is reabsorbed in
the PCT? (mark all that apply)
C. Proximal convoluted tubule
D. Bladder A. Wastes
B. Ammonia
385. Where do solutes go when they leave the
nephron? C. Amino Acids
A. Respiratory system D. Water
B. Circulatory system
E. Glucose
C. Sweat glands
D. Digestive system 391. The secretes renin.
386. What is the term for the surgical incision A. juxtaglomerular cells
into the kidney?
B. macula densa
A. nephrotomy
C. podocytes
B. urethrotomy
C. cystotomy D. fenestrations

D. pyelostomy 392. What stage of urine formation concen-

387. Urine is carried to the bladder by trates wastes?
A. Blood vessels A. Glomerular filtration
B. The urethra B. Tubular reabsorption
C. The calyxes
C. Tubular secretion
D. The ureter
D. Water conservation
388. Place the following events in sequence:A)
Urine passes through the uretersB) Urea 393. The blood vessel that carries blood out of
enters the kidneysC) Urine enters the ure- the kidney is the
thra
A. Renal Artery
A. B, A, C
B. Renal Vein
B. C, B, A
C. B, C, A C. Hepatic vein
D. A, C, B D. Nephrons

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1.21 Urinary System 669

394. urinary meatus C. The portion of the nephron that at-

A. external opening of the urethra where taches to the collecting duct
D. The horseshoe shaped portion of the

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urine exits the body
B. the dilated top portion of the ureter nephron

C. millions of these are in each kidney to 400. Meaning “behind the abdominal cavity”,
filter unwanted materials from blood this term describes organs like the kidneys
that lie posterior to the abdomen serous
D. none of above
membrane
395. CARRY BLOOD INTO THE KIDNEYS A. posteroabdominal
A. RENAL VEINS B. retroabdominal
B. URETERS C. retroperitoneal
C. RENAL ARTERIES D. anterolateral
D. TRACHEA 401. MICROSCOPIC FILTERING UNIT IN KID-
NEY
396. Material involved in Ascending Loop of
Henle secretion A. GLOMERULUS
A. Urea B. BOWMAN’S CAPSULE
B. H2O C. NEPHRON
C. Cl- D. CORTEX

D. K+ 402. What is the main function of the excre-

tory system?
397. The urinary bladder has openings for the
A. to collect and remove wastes from the
and the
body
A. urethra, kidneys
B. to strengthen skeletal muscles
B. urethras, detrusor C. to protect the nervous system
C. ureters, kidneys D. to bring oxygen to body cells
D. ureters, urethra
403. first part of the nephron, cluster of capil-
398. The act of drawing urea out of the collect- laries where substances are filtered from
ing duct, to draw water out of the nephron the blood
loop, only to put that urea back in the fil- A. ADH
trate a few steps back.
B. incontinence
A. resecretion C. glomerulus
B. absorption D. none of above
C. urea recycling
404. The outer portion of the kidney is called
D. loop of henle the ?
399. A glomerulus is A. medulla
A. The expanded end of the nephron B. calyx
B. A knot of capillaries that lies in the re- C. cortex
nal corpuscle D. papilla

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1.21 Urinary System 670

405. What is glomerular filtration? 410. tube that carries urine from bladder to
the outside
A. Water and most solutes in blood
plasma moves across the wall of the cap- A. ureter
illaries into capsule and then renal tubule B. bladder tubes
B. Filtered fluid moving towards collect- C. urethra
ing duct
D. none of above
C. Solutes entering the glomerular cap-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
sule 411. nephritis, inflammation of glomerulus of
kidney
D. none of above
A. bacteria
406. Alcohol and caffeine are known to cause B. kidney stones
dehydration because they decrease the ef- C. glomerulonephritis
fectiveness of
D. none of above
A. Adrenaline
412. The renal corpuscle functions to filter
B. Antidiuretic Hormone
A. water
C. Thyroid Hormone
B. blood plasma
D. Insulin
C. urine
407. -trophy D. none of above
A. Process 413. Hormone produced in the adrenal gland
B. Nourishment that regulates salt and water balance by
increasing sodium reabsorption.
C. Dissolve
A. ADH
D. Hernia
B. Aldosterone
408. voiding C. Angiotensin
A. emptying the urinary bladder D. ANP
B. displacement of the bladder against 414. The stores urine.
the vaginal wall
A. urinary bladder
C. surgical fixation of the bladder to the
B. kidney
abdominal wall
C. urethra
D. none of above
D. none of above
409. The major functional organ of the urinary
415. The functional or working unit of the kid-
system is the
ney is the
A. Gallbladder A. renal artery
B. Ureter B. renal cortex
C. Kidney C. nephron
D. Nephrons D. ureter

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1.21 Urinary System 671

416. What is the medical term for absence of C. HOMEODYNAMICS

urine production or output? D. HEMODYNAMICS

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A. bladder neck obstruction
422. The renal capsule is made of connective
B. anuria
tissue only.
C. cystocele
A. True
D. dysuria
B. False
417. What is the term meaning suturing of the
C. Most of the time
bladder?
D. Only when sodium is present
A. cystorraphy
B. nephrorraphy 423. A healthy habit to keep the urinary sys-
C. cystorrhagia tem working properly is to

D. cystorrhexis A. urinate a lot.

B. eat salty foods.
418. What is the term meaning excessive uri-
nation? C. eat sugary foods.
A. incontinence D. drink lots of water.
B. polyuria 424. Infection of the bladder is called?
C. anuria
A. Urethritis
D. dysuria
B. Cystitis
419. The ascending limb of the loop of Henle C. Urinalysis
functions to:
D. Renalitis
A. remove water and additional solutes.
B. help regulate aldosterone secretion. 425. Which of the following is not a function
of the nephron in the kidney?
C. increase the rate of active transport of
Na+ in the distal tubules and collecting A. the dilution of urine
ducts. B. the secretion of water
D. dilute the filtrate by removing solutes. C. the reabsorption of ions
420. Which of the following is not a region of D. the filtering of nitrogenous waste
the kidney?
426. Which of the following statements is/are
A. cortex
TRUE?
B. medulla
A. In reabsorption, the solutes are re-
C. pelvis absorbed across the filtration membrane
D. hypothalamus into the interstitial fluid by transport pro-
cesses, such as active transport and co-
421. THE STATE OF EQUILIBRIUM, OR CON- transport.
STANT STATE OF NATURAL BALANCE
B. In secretion, solutes are secreted
A. HEMODIALYSIS across the wall of the nephron into the fil-
B. HOMEOSTASIS trate.

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1.21 Urinary System 672

C. Filtration is the movement of materials 432. What is the microscopic functional unit of
across the wall of the nephron into Bow- the kidney?
man’s capsule to form a filtrate. A. Renal cortex
D. All statements need further evalua- B. Renal medulla
tion.
C. Nephron
427. causes the collecting ducts to reab- D. none of above
sorb more water.
433. Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. ADH can be prevented by:
B. renin A. A vaccine
C. ANP B. Antibiotics
D. none of these is correct C. Diet and exercise
D. Avoiding risky behavior
428. Which is NOT an organ of the urinary sys-
tem? 434. What determines when you need to go to
the bathroom?
A. kidney
A. how full the large intestines is
B. bladder
B. how full the stomach is
C. ureter C. how full the bladder is
D. liver D. how full the kidneys are
429. Break down glomerulonephritis 435. What is the medical term when stones
are formed in the kidney?
A. glomerul/o/nephr/itis
A. urolithiasis
B. glom/erul/o/nephr/itis
B. colic
C. Glo/merul/o/nephr/itis
C. ureterolithiasis
D. none of above
D. nephrolithiasis
430. Normal pH of urine. 436. The blood vessels in the kidney that
A. 9 carry blood after filtration, and follow the
nephron to pick up reabsorbed materials.
B. 8-8.5
A. glomerular capsule
C. 6.5-8.0
B. proximal convoluted tubule
D. 3-6
C. vasa recta
431. What is the insertion of a sterile instru- D. renal medulla
ment through the urethra into the bladder
437. Where in the male reproductive system
to withdraw fluid?
is testosterone produced?
A. cystoscopy A. Ejaculatory duts
B. dialysis B. Seminal vesicles
C. homeostasis C. Testes
D. catherization D. Prostate gland

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1.21 Urinary System 673

438. Fluid normally found inside the Bowman’s 444. In CAPD, what serves as the dialysis
capsule is called? membrane?
A. the peritoneum membrane

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A. blood
B. plasma B. the kidneys themselves
C. urine C. the walls of the blood vessels
D. filtrate D. none of above

439. At which of these sites is the osmotic 445. This is the formation of a new glucose
pressure lowest? (least concentrated fil- molecule.
trate) A. gluconeogenesis
A. glomerular capillary B. glycolysis
B. proximal tubule C. glucosamine
C. bottom of the loop of Henle D. glucagon
D. first part of the distal tubule 446. The structural and functional units of the
E. collecting duct kidney are called
440. Blood vessel that supplies blood to the A. nephrons
kidney B. pyramids
A. Renal Vein C. renal papillae
B. Renal Pelvis D. renal columns
C. Renal Artery 447. This structure is responsible for the
D. Renal Medulla largest portion of reabsorption:

441. The renal pelvis is continuous with the A. loop of Henle

A. bladder B. proximal convoluted tubule

C. distal convoluted tubule
B. urethra
D. Bowman’s capusle
C. ureter
D. renal cortex 448. When molecules move from the tubule
into the blood, this process is known as:
442. Which organ produces egg cells?
A. glomerular filtration.
A. The vagina
B. tubular secretion.
B. The fallopian Tubes
C. tubular reabsorption.
C. The uterus
D. tubular elimination.
D. The ovaries
449. Hormone produced by the pituitary gland
443. Each kidney contains how many that constricts blood vessels and reduces
nephrons? urine output.
A. 1 million A. ADH
B. 10 million B. ANP
C. 1 billion C. GFR
D. 10 billion D. ASP

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1.21 Urinary System 674

450. The machine for hemodialysis is some- 455. The reabsorption process occurs in
times termed a
A. glomerulus
A. peritoneal
B. proximal convoluted tubules
B. artificial kidney
C. Bowman’s capsule
C. calculus
D. None of them
D. KUB
456. What supplies blood to the kidney?

NARAYAN CHANGDER
451. The bladder is made of which type of ep-
A. inferior vena cava
ithelium?
B. renal artery
A. Columnar
C. renal vein
B. Simple Cubioidal
D. ureter
C. Stratified Squamous
D. Transitional 457. In what order does fluid pass through
kidney layers/areas on the way to the
452. two bean shaped organs where blood fil- ureters?
tration happens
A. hilum →medulla→cortex
A. kidneys
B. cortex→medulla→hilum
B. bladder
C. hilum→cortex→medulla
C. ureters
D. medulla→calyx→cortex
D. urethra
458. What is the use of an artificial kidney ma-
453. ureter chine to filter the blood of a person to re-
move waste products called?
A. a long, narrow tube extending from the
kidney for the passage of urine A. catheterization
B. filters waste products from the blood B. hemodialysis
C. external opening of the urethra where C. azotemia
urine exits the body
D. BUN
D. none of above
459. Given these structures:Bowman’s cap-
454. What disease would show the follow- sule collecting duct distal tubule loop of
ing concerning a urinalysis test:presence Henle proximal tubule Choose the arrange-
of glucose, calcium oxalate crystals; pale ment that lists the structures in order as
in color; high specific gravity; and sweet filtrate leaves the glomerulus and travels
odor? to the renal calyx
A. PKU A. 1, 5, 4, 3, 2
B. UTI B. 4, 1, 2, 3, 5
C. diabetes C. 1, 3, 4, 5, 2
D. nephritis D. 2, 5, 3, 4, 1

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1.21 Urinary System 675

460. The conveys urine to the outside of B. Juxtaglomerular cells

the body.
C. Mesangial cells

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A. urethra
D. Macula densa
B. urinary bladder
C. kidney 466. Each kidney is surrounded by connective
tissue called renal envolture
D. none of above
A. true
461. The ring of smooth muscle, therefore un-
der control of the autonomic nervous sys- B. false
tem, that controls the exit of the urinary C. only epithelial tissue
bladder to the erethra.
D. renal vase
A. detrusor
B. internal urethral sphincter 467. What is the function of ureters
C. external urethral sphincter A. Transport Urine
D. trigone B. Clean blood
462. How many kidneys does a human usually C. Hold Urine
have? D. Carry waste outside of the body
A. 2
468. The process of urination is called?
B. 1
C. 3 A. rugae

D. 4 B. cystitis
C. micturition
463. the diffusion of solutes across a selec-
tively (Semi) permeable membrane D. peristaltic contractions
A. dialysis
469. Which of the following anatomical por-
B. bacteria tions of a nephron connects the Bowman’s
C. nephritis capsule to the loop of Henle?
D. none of above A. distal convoluted tubule

464. The kidneys help control the rate of red B. connecting tubule
blood cell formation by secreting C. proximal convoluted tubule
A. aldosterone D. collecting duct
B. erythropoietin
470. Which kidney structure empties into the
C. renin
ureter?
D. antidiuretic hormone
A. renal pelvis
465. are smooth muscle cells that regulate
B. calyx
blood pressure and the filtration rate of
the glomerulus. C. renal papilla
A. Podocytes D. renal pyramid

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1.21 Urinary System 676

471. Which of the following is the job of the C. excessive urine

nephrons?
D. normal amount of urine
A. They remove wastes from the blood.
B. They produce urea. 477. What is the other term for Urinary Sys-
tem?
C. They produce urine.
A. Endocrine system
D. They clean the kidneys
B. Renal System

NARAYAN CHANGDER
472. What are the walls of a ureter composed
of? C. Cardiovascular system

A. skeletal muscle and mucous mem- D. Integumentary System

brane
478. The thin tube surrounded with smooth
B. mucous membrane and fibrous con- muscle that carries urine from the urinary
nective tissue bladder to the outside world
C. mucous membrane, smooth muscle,
A. urethra
and fibrous connective tissue
B. nephron tubule
D. skeletal muscle, fibrous connective tis-
sue, and cartilage C. ureter

473. to much urine is D. glomerulus

A. oliguria 479. Filtered blood exits through the:
B. polyuria
A. renal arterioles
C. pyuria
B. renal venules
D. hematuria
C. renal vein
474. The outer tissue of the kidney is:
D. renal artery
A. The renal capsule
B. The renal cortex 480. Choose the answer below that is the cor-
rect anatomical order:
C. The renal medulla
A. Bladder, urethra, kidney, ureter
D. The renal convexion
B. Kidney, ureter, bladder, urethra
475. When the egg and sperm meet, it is
known as C. Ureter, urethra, kidney, bladder

A. intercourse D. Bladder, kidney, ureter, urethra

B. ejaculation 481. The proximal convoluted tubule is where
C. fertilizat ion begins
D. none of above A. reabsorption

476. What is anuria? B. filtration

A. no urine C. secretion
B. small amount of urine D. excretion

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1.21 Urinary System 677

482. The normal range for pH of urine is 488. Word part meaning stone, calculus?
A. less than 7.0 A. lith/o

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B. greater than 8.0 B. nephr/o
C. 4.5-8.0 C. cyst/o
D. usually around 6.0 D. -cele

483. What is one way to prevent UTIs from 489. is the fluid that passes from the
occurring? blood through the capillary walls of the
glomeruli into Bowman’s capsule.
A. Drink more coffee
A. Glomerular filtrate
B. Wipe from back to front
B. Urine
C. Wipe from front to back
C. Urea
D. Wear rayon undergarments
D. Water
484. If white blood cells were present in urine,
490. The renal system does not play a direct
what would be a possible diagnosis?
role in regulating which of the following?
A. diabetes
A. blood solute concentrations
B. ketonuria
B. blood temperature
C. PKU
C. blood pressure
D. UTI D. blood pH
485. involuntary urination 491. What could be a symptom of a urinary
A. incontinence tract infection?
B. glomertus A. Make your body healthy
C. ADH B. White blood cells in the urine
D. none of above C. Kidney stones
D. Bile in the urine
486. Alcohol acts as a diuretic because it
A. increases secretion of ADH 492. What word best describes the function of
the nephrons (inside the Kidneys)?
B. inhibits secretion of ADH
A. tube
C. increases rate of glomerular filtration
B. passageway

D. none of above C. filter

D. reservoir
487. When ADH is secreted, urine will:
493. What is a urinary bladder sphincter? ?
A. Be more dilute
A. A circular muscle that helps you hold
B. Be more concentrated
your bladder and relaxes when you pee.
C. Have a larger volume B. A tube that connects a kidney to a blad-
D. All of the above der.

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1.21 Urinary System 678

C. A tube that waste passes through to 499. The first part of the nephron tubule, it
get out of the body. uses active transport to reabsorb sodium
D. a muscle that is found in the kidneys and chloride ions, sugars, and water from
that helps you filter your blood the filtrate.
A. collecting duct
494. Which term describes the involuntary dis-
charge of urine? B. proximal convoluted tubule
A. Polyuria C. renal corpuscle

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Enuresis D. distal convoluted tubule
C. Nocturia 500. The yellow fluid that remains after the
D. Anuria nephrons have cleaned the blood is called
A. ADH.
495. The presence of ketones in the urine may
indicate: B. urine.
A. diabetes C. caffeine.
B. kidney infection D. urea.
C. anemia
501. kidney stones, when salts in urine precip-
D. renal failure itate
496. Indention where veins and arteries enter A. kidney failure
the kidney. B. renal calculus
A. medulla C. pyramids
B. pyramid D. none of above
C. kidney heart
502. The nonselective, passive process per-
D. renal hilum formed by the glomerulus that forms blood
497. The process of artificially filtering the plasma without blood proteins is called
blood to remove waste is known as A. glomerular filtration
A. kidney failure B. tubular reabsorption
B. kidney stones C. glomerular reabsorption
C. lithotrypsy D. tubular secretion
D. dialysis
503. When an increase in blood pressure
498. which sentence is/are right stretches arterioles in the kidneys, this
describes the fact that they vasoconstrict
A. A nephron derived from the
to reduce flow without feedback from the
metanephrogenic blastema
rest of the body.
B. A collecting tubule derived from the
A. autoregulation
ureteric but
B. homeostasis
C. metanephroi begin to develop in the
fifth week C. auto centering
D. All are the right D. vasodilation

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1.21 Urinary System 679

504. Which of the following is NOT found in 509. Which one of the following is NOT a sub-
the urine normally? stance reabsorbed by the tubules?
A. urea

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A. sodium
B. chloride B. water
C. blood C. glucose

D. urea D. amino acids

510. This vessel carries oxygen rich blood into
505. What is the correct order of tubules
the kidney
through the nephron?
A. urethra
A. Collecting duct, DCT, PCT, Loop of
Henle B. renal vein
C. ureters
B. Loop of Henle, PCT, DCT, collecting
duct D. renal artery
C. Collecting duct, PCT, Loop of Henle, 511. What is located within the glomerular
DCT capsule?
D. PCT, Loop of Henle, DCT, collecting A. the renal cortex
duct B. a knot of capillaries
506. What does ADH do? C. the loop of nephron

A. Makes us thirsty D. none of above

B. Increases our urine 512. A “ball of capillaries” within each

nephron is called the
C. Allows us to retain water
A. ureter
D. Causes polyuria
B. urethra
507. How is the female urethra different from C. glomerulus
the male urethra? D. hilum
A. It is longer
513. Which of the following does not assist
B. It is wider the kidneys in excretion of nitrogenous
C. It is shorter wastes?
D. It is more narrow A. liver
B. sweat glands
508. The passage of blood through a semiper-
C. blood
meable membrane to rid the blood of harm-
ful wastes, extra salt, and water using an D. pancreas
outside device when the kidneys are in fail- 514. Materials involved in DCT reabsorption.
ure. SELECT ALL THAT APPLY
A. Dialysis A. Na+
B. Cystitis B. H+
C. Pyelitis C. H2O
D. none of above D. HCO3-

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1.21 Urinary System 680

515. The flow of urine from the bladder is con- 521. All of the following belong to the urinary
trolled by the- system EXCEPT the
A. urinary meatus A. prostate
B. urethral meatus B. ureter
C. urinary sphincters C. bladder
D. urinary strictures D. urethra
516. what is the precursor for ureter? 522. All of the following are functions of the

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. stalk of ureteric bud kidneys, except:
B. stalk of metanephrogenic blastema A. Regulation of blood protein levels
C. mesonephric glomerulus B. Regulation of blood pH
D. urogenital ridge C. Secretion of erythropoietin
D. Maintenance of ion balance
517. What region of the kidney is deep to the
renal cortex? 523. Where does fertilization of an ovum usu-
A. renal medulla ally take place?
B. renal hilum A. in the ovary
C. renal fascia B. in the cervix
D. renal column C. in the uterus
518. Extracellular fluid D. in the fallopian tube
A. tends to be higher in sodium and chlo- 524. Kidney stones are hard granules made
ride than intracellular fluid from?
B. includes interstitial fluid and plasma A. calcium
C. has a fairly consistent composition B. phosphates
throughout the body C. uric acid
D. all of the above
D. all of the above
519. Which of the following terms refers to
525. Which of the following parts is not found
the urinary system?
in the urinary system?
A. portal
A. Ureters
B. renal
B. Urethra
C. coronary
C. Bladder
D. cephalic
D. Rectum
520. The muscle that controls urine exiting the
body is the 526. Which one of the following is NOT one of
the functions of the kidneys?
A. ureter.
A. produce hormones that assist in diges-
B. sphincter. tion
C. urethra. B. convert vitamin D from its inactive to
D. bladder. its active form

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1.21 Urinary System 681

C. regulate blood volume 532. A urinary disorder that has the symptoms
of burning, frequent urination and little uri-
D. dispose of metabolic waste products
nation

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527. Which stage of urine production involves A. Kidney stones
the removal of substances from the blood- B. Urinary tract infection
stream?
C. Kidney disease
A. reabsorption
D. Urinary incontinence
B. excretion
533. Which disease is this:Wheezing, cough-
C. filtration ing, & shortness of breath
D. secretion A. emphysema
528. Each of the following is part of the uri- B. asthma
nary system, except the C. It isn’t one
A. Kidney D. nausea
B. Liver 534. What takes out the urine(pee)?
C. Urinary bladder A. Ureter
D. Ureter B. Kidneys
E. Urethra C. Bladder
D. Urethra
529. The outer layer of the kidney
535. This term means the entry of substances
A. medulla into the body from the filtrate.
B. cortex A. Reabsorption
C. glomerulus B. Secretion
D. Bowman’s capsule C. Excretion
D. Filtration
530. ADH has the greatest effect on the reab-
sorption of water in the: 536. medication that causes urination to re-
A. proximal tubule. move excess water

B. ascending loop of Henle A. diuretic

B. enuresis
C. descending loop of Henle.
C. polyuria
D. distal tubule.
D. none of above
531. The functional and structural unit of the
537. What might happen if nephrons are dam-
kidneys is the
aged?
A. nephron A. Kidneys can become diseased.
B. loop of Henle B. Kidney stones can form.
C. glomerular capsule C. Bacteria can enter the kidneys.
D. basement membrane D. Kidneys will make more urine.

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1.21 Urinary System 682

538. The factor that forces substances to be C. the dilated top portion of the ureter
filtered through the glomerular capillary
D. none of above
wall is:
A. The osmotic pressure of blood 544. This structure brings blood to the
B. The hydrostatic pressure of blood glomerulus:

C. Aldosterone A. Afferent arteriole

D. Renin B. Efferent arteriole

NARAYAN CHANGDER
539. Urine exits the bladder and the body C. PCT
through a tube called the: D. DCT
A. Ureter
545. The hormone released by the posterior pi-
B. Urinary tract tuitary to prevent excessive water loss in
C. Urethra the urine is
D. Bladder A. antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
540. Which side of the Loop of Henle is perme- B. insulin
able only to water? C. cortisol
A. Ascending D. aldosterone
B. Descending
C. Transcending 546. The nutrients required by the body and
selectively reabsorbed in the nephron are
D. Resending
A. Hydrogen ions
541. polycystic kidneys
B. ammonia
A. cysts gradually replace normal renal
tissue, can result in renal failure C. glucose, amino acids, vitamins, miner-
als salts
B. inflammation of the bladder
D. none of above
C. process of cutting into the urinary
meatus to widen it 547. What is normally found in urine?
D. none of above A. red blood cells
542. The major calices merge to form a single, B. bacteria
funnel-shaped
C. glucose
A. Renal pelvis
D. urea
B. Renal pyramid
C. Renal cortex 548. crushing kidney stones with sound waves
(shock waves)
D. Renal medulla
A. lithotripsy
543. kidney
B. dyalysis
A. filters waste products from the blood
C. nephrons
B. a long, narrow tube extending from the
kidney for the passage of urine D. none of above

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1.21 Urinary System 683

549. The most important organ of the urinary 555. successive muscular contractions along
system the wall of a hollow muscular structure

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A. liver A. peristalsis
B. kidney B. bacteria
C. bladder C. bladder infections
D. urethra D. none of above
550. when the upper limit of glomeruli is 556. urologist
reached?
A. specialist in the study of the urinary
A. until 10th week
system
B. until 32nd week
B. pertaining to something moving
C. until 30 th week through the urethra
D. until full term C. bleeding from the ureter
551. Excretion of waste is D. none of above
A. Filtration + secretion + reabsorption
557. The protein channels that allow water
B. Filtration + secretion-reabsorption molecules to cross cell membranes, their
C. Filtration-secretion + reabsorption positioning is important for regulating wa-
ter reabsorption in the kidneys’ collecting
D. none of above
ducts.
552. After reabsorption in nephrons is com- A. ligand channels
pleted, the fluid that is left in the tubules
is transported to the B. aquaporins
A. Bowman’s capsule C. leaky channels
B. circulatory system D. sodium channels
C. urinary bladder 558. What is the term meaning the complete
D. bile duct stopping of urine formation by the kid-
neys?
553. ADH is released from the pituitary gland
into the: A. nocturia
A. Circulatory system B. polyuria
B. Endocrine system C. oliguria
C. Nervous system D. anuria
D. All of the above 559. The folds in the mucosa layer of the blad-
554. What would you find inside the glomeru- der that allow for expansion and contrac-
lus? tion
A. Urea A. micturition
B. Urine B. medulla
C. Blood C. rugae
D. Lymph D. peristaltic

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1.21 Urinary System 684

560. Word root for ureter? 566. Which of these causes increased blood
A. ureter/o sodium levels?

B. urethr/o A. decrease in aldosterone secretion

C. -uria B. increase in atrial natriuretic factor se-
D. -ectasis cretion

561. painful urination C. decrease in renin secretion

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. pyuria D. decrease in ADH secretion
B. dysuria
567. Starting from the glomerular capsule, the
C. yellow urine
correct order of the renal tubule regions is
D. none of above

562. Which of these reduces filtration pres- A. proximal convoluted tubule, nephron
sure in the glomerulus loop (loop of Henle), distal convoluted
A. elevated blood pressure tubule
B. constriction of afferent arterioles B. distal convoluted tubule, proximal con-
C. cardiovascular shock voluted tubule, nephron loop (loop of
Henle)
D. b and c
C. nephron loop (loop of Henle), proxi-
E. all of the above
mal convoluted tubule, distal convoluted
563. pus in the urine tubule
A. pyuria D. proximal convoluted tubule, distal con-
B. polyuria voluted tubule, nephron loop (loop of
Henle)
C. olguria
D. dysuria 568. The formation or discharge of pus from
the kidney is known as
564. Blood vessels and the renal calices are lo-
cated in the A. Nephroectasis
A. Renal hilum B. Nephrorpyosis
B. Renal pelvis
C. Renal colic
C. Renal capsule
D. Nephroptosis
D. Renal sinus

565. Which part of the urinary system is 569. This urine conducts urine from the kid-
shared with the reproductive system in neys to the bladder.
males?
A. urethra
A. bladder
B. ureter
B. ureters
C. kidneys C. renal pelvis
D. urethra D. micturition

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1.21 Urinary System 685

570. the organ primarily responsible for filter- 576. The portion of the nephron that is at-
ing toxins out of the blood, regulating wa- tached to the collecting duct is the:
ter, salt and pH in the blood, and for mak-

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A. Glomerulus
ing urine
A. liver B. Distal convoluted tubule

B. thymus C. Proximal convoluted tubule

C. bladder D. Loop of Henle
D. kidney
577. Given these vessels:arcuate artery inter-
571. The majority of the filtrate is made in the lobar artery interlobular artery Choose the
path an erythrocyte takes as it passes
from the renal artery to the afferent ar-
A. PCT
teriole
B. DCT
A. 1, 2, 3
C. Loop of Henle
B. 2, 1, 3
D. Bowman’s Capsule
C. 2, 3, 1
572. The kidney’s job is to
D. 3, 2, 1
A. make bile.
B. store urine. 578. The removal of metabolic wastes from
C. filter waste from blood. the body as a result of cellular activities
D. release urine outside of the body. A. Respiration

573. funnel-shaped structure where urine B. Inhalation

empties into from the collecting ducts C. Exhalation
A. renal pelvis D. Excretion
B. renal canal
579. Condition in which body tissues contain
C. hilum
an excessive amount of tissue fluid.
D. none of above
A. Cystitis
574. the pathway of urine is
B. Nephritis
A. kidney, ureter, bladder, urethra
C. Kidney stones
B. bladder, kidney, ureter, urethra
D. Edema
C. ureter, kidney, urethra, bladder
D. urethra, bladder, kidney, ureter 580. What is the major waste product of pro-
tein metabolism?
575. What is the suffix that means urine?
A. urea
A. -uria
B. -uro B. oliguria
C. -iasis C. urine
D. -genesis D. nephrons

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1.21 Urinary System 686

581. Kidney function is accomplished by which D. collecting duct, proximal convoluted

of these mechanisms? tubule, loop of Henle, distal convoluted
A. secretion tubule
B. filtration 586. Part of the urinary system that could be
C. reabsorption affected by Urinary Tract Infection
D. all of the above A. Urethra
582. Which of the following correctly lists the B. Ureter

NARAYAN CHANGDER
order of structures through which urine
C. Kidney
flows after its formation in the nephron?
D. All organs of the system
A. calyx, renal pelvis, ureter, urinary blad-
der, urethra
587. bloody urine
B. renal pelvis, calyx, ureter, urinary
bladder, urethra A. polyuria

C. renal pelvis, calyx, urethra, ureter, uri- B. hematuria

nary bladder C. oliguria
D. renal pelvis, calyx, urinary bladder, D. anuria
ureter, urethra
583. Which of these structures contain blood? 588. THE BLADDER HAS THESE INSIDE ON THE
MUCOUS MEMBRANES THAT ALLOW IT
A. glomerulus TO STRETCH OR EXPAND
B. Bowman’s capsule
A. DIVERTICULUM
C. collecting duct
B. NEPRONS
D. loop of Henle
C. RUGAE
E. a and b
D. BLOOD CAPILLARIES
584. bladder
A. where urine is stored 589. Where are the kidney’s located?
B. the dilated top portion of the ureter A. below the waist, toward the back
C. filters waste products from the blood B. below the waist, toward the front
D. none of above C. above the waist, toward the back
585. The correct order for the renal tubules is: D. above the waist, toward the front
A. proximal convoluted tubule, collecting
duct, distal convoluted tubule, loop of 590. The smooth muscle layer around the uri-
Henle nary bladder; when it contracts it creates
pressure in the bladder to force urine out.
B. distal convoluted tubule, loop of Henle,
proximal convoluted tubule, collecting A. muscular oblique
duct B. detrusor
C. proximal convoluted tubule, loop of
C. rectus abdominis
Henle, distal convoluted tubule, collecting
duct D. funds

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1.21 Urinary System 687

591. The kidneys can help maintain a rising 596. The materials filtered out of the blood are
blood pH by excreting ions and reab- picked up by the
sorbing ions by the tubule cells.

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A. Glomerulus
A. bicarbonate; hydrogen B. Bowman’s Capsule
B. hydrogen; bicarbonate C. Convoluted Tubules
C. ammonia; carbonic acid D. Collecting Tubules
D. carbon dioxide; oxygen
597. The presence of what condition would in-
592. What does your bladder have in common dicate the urgent need for a kidney trans-
with a balloon? plant?
A. it’s filled with air A. kidney stones
B. it’s lighter than air B. kidney failure

C. it can expand C. retention

D. it’s made of muscle D. oliguria

598. liquid waste product produced by the uri-

593. What is the urinary system?
nary system, 95% water, waste prod-
A. system of that rids the body of solid ucts are urea, uric acid, creatinine, mineral
waste salts, and various pigments
B. how food enters the body A. amonia
C. system that rids the blood of liquid B. urine
waste
C. pyuria
D. digests food D. none of above
594. The blood vessel carrying blood from the 599. Fancy word for urination.
abdominal aorta into the kidney is the
A. micturition
A. renal artery
B. pee
B. hepatic artery
C. potty
C. renal vein
D. excreting fluid
D. glomerulus
600. INFLAMMATION OF KIDNEY TISSUE AND
595. A patient has hypertension due to renal THE RENAL PELVIS, USUALLY CAUSED BY
arteriosclerosis. Why would this cause hy- PYOGENIC BACTERIA
pertension?
A. CYSTITIS
A. The patient would excrete too much
B. GLOMERULONEPHRITIS
urine
C. CHOLECYSTITIS
B. The patient would excrete too much
salt D. PYELONEPHRITIS
C. The patient has too much stress 601. What is the abbreviation for intravenous
D. The filtration of the kidney has de- pyelogram?
clined because of blockage A. IP

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1.21 Urinary System 688

B. IPM C. 1 thousand
C. IVP D. 1 hundred
D. Ipym
607. The elimination of urine (micturition) is
602. impairment of bladder control due to which process?
brain nerve conduction issues
A. Secretion
A. infection
B. Filtration

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. neurogenic bladder
C. Reabsorption
C. urinary tract
D. Excretion
D. none of above

603. We become thirsty on a hot day too 608. TUBE FROM BLADDER TO OUTSIDE
prompt us to drink to replace in order A. URETHRA
to maintain homeostasis.
B. URETER
A. urine
C. URINARY MEATUS
B. wastes
D. GLOMERULUS
C. blood
D. lost fluids 609. What is the correct order that waste is
eliminated out of the body from the uri-
604. Filtrate that is turned into urine leaves nary system?
the body through the process of
A. Kidneys, urethra, bladder and ureters
A. filtration
B. reabsorption B. Bladder, bladder, ureters and urethra

C. secretion C. Ureters, kidneys, bladder and urethra

D. none of above D. Kidneys, ureters, bladder and urethra

605. As glomerular filtrate moves through the 610. A tube which urine is removed from the
ascending loop of Henle, the filtrate be- body is the
comes more dilute. Why?
A. bladder
A. the ascending loop of Henle is perme-
able to water and ions B. kidney
B. the ascending loop of Henle is perme- C. ureter
able to ions but impermeable to water D. urethra
C. the ascending loop of Henle is imper-
meable to water and ions 611. renal failure
D. the ascending loop of Henle is perme- A. loss of kidney function
able to water but not to ions
B. involuntary outflow of urine
606. A kidney has about nephrons. C. inability of the bladder to empty com-
A. 1 million pletely during urination
B. 1 billion D. none of above

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1.21 Urinary System 689

612. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS THE MED- 618. The organ lined with transitional epithe-
ICAL TERM FOR EXCESSIVE URINATION lium, that stores urine produced in the kid-
neys until it can be excreted.

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A. ANURIA
B. OLIGURIA A. gallbladder
C. POLYURIA B. nephron
D. NOCTURIA C. urinary bladder
613. Urine is stored here until you’re ready to D. liver
pee:
619. The ring of skeletal muscle, therefore un-
A. Kidneys
der voluntary control, that controls the
B. Bladder exit of the urinary bladder to the urethra.
C. The garage A. external and sphincter
D. Urethra
B. muscular oblique
614. SELECT ALL OF THE FOLLOWING THAT C. external urethral sphincter
ARE WASTE PRODUCTS DISSOLVED IN THE
WATER OF URINE D. detrusor
A. UREA 620. Which area of the brain contains the re-
B. URIC ACID ceptors responsible for detecting changes
C. CREATININE in water potential
D. MINERAL SALTS A. Hypothalamus

615. How much urine can the bladder hold? B. Medulla Oblongata
A. 2L C. Amygdala
B. 500 mL D. Hippocampus
C. 100 mL
621. Which of the following would you not ex-
D. 800 mL pect to find in the renal vein once blood has
616. There are sections of tubules in gone through the kidneys?
nephron. A. oxygen
A. one B. nutrients
B. two C. electrolytes
C. three
D. waste
D. four
622. Urine flows out of the kidneys through
617. What is the tough connective tissue that
narrow tubes called
protects the kidneys?
A. Gallbladder
A. Renal Cortex
B. Renal Medulla B. Ureter
C. Renal Pelvis C. Nephrons
D. Renal Fascia D. Urethra

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1.21 Urinary System 690

623. The is under skeletal muscle control 629. What is filtrate?

A. detrusor A. Waste that is in the blood
B. internal urethral sphincter B. Fluid in the collecting duct
C. external urethral sphincter C. Fluid that enters capsular space
D. none of above D. none of above

624. Tube from the kidney to the bladder. 630. Which is the correct order that urine trav-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
els through the body?
A. kidney vein
A. Kidneys, bladder, ureters, urethra
B. kidney artery
B. Kidneys, urethra, bladder, ureters
C. ureter
C. Bladder, kidneys, urethra, ureters
D. urethra
D. Kidneys, ureters, bladder, urethra
625. an organ that stores urine
631. The kidneys are located on either side of
A. ureter the upper lumbar vertebrae
B. bladder A. right kidney is slightly inferior to the
C. urethera left

D. kidney B. left kidney is slightly inferior to the

right
626. Urine is moved down the ureters by: C. right kidney is slightly superior to the
A. Peristalsis left

B. Gravity D. left kidney is slightly superior to the

right
C. Muscle atrophy
E. A and B are correct
D. Forced pressure
632. What is the medical term for blood in the
627. Which solute is the driver ion for osmo- urine?
sis?
A. hematuria
A. Sodium
B. dysuria
B. Potassium
C. bacteriuria
C. Calcium
D. proteinuria
D. Urea
633. The kidneys help your cardiovascular sys-
628. UTI stands for: tem by?
A. Upper respiratory infection A. eliminating bicarbonate ions
B. Upper tract infection B. correct blood pressure & volume
C. Urinary tract infection C. releasing hormones
D. none of above D. none of above

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1.21 Urinary System 691

634. Break down pyelonephritis C. ureter → kidney → bladder → ure-

A. Root cv root suffix thra
D. kidney → bladder → ureter → ure-

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B. Prefix root cv suffix
thra
C. Prefix cv root root
D. none of above 640. What does your body have in common
with a balloon?
635. What classification of drug would be used
A. It’s filled with air
to treat bacterial infections of the urinary
tract? B. It’s lighter than air
A. antispasmodics C. Its made of musscle
B. diuretics D. It can expand
C. antibiotics
641. Before the kidney filter it out, where
D. potassium supplements does urea exist?
636. cystitis A. In your intestines
A. inflammation of the bladder B. In your liver
B. surgical fixation of the bladder to the C. In your stomach
abdominal wall
D. In your bloodstream
C. underdeveloped kidney
D. none of above 642. Another name for the uterine lining is
A. endometrial tissue/endometrium
637. ADH is created in the:
B. a fallopian tube
A. Hypothalamus
B. Posterior Pituitary Gland C. urethral lining

C. Brain D. urethra
D. Kidney 643. external opening of the urethra to the
outside of the body
638. triangular shaped divisions of the
medulla of the kidney A. urinary meatus
A. pyramids B. renal pelvis
B. triangles C. hilum
C. renal calculus D. ureter
D. none of above
644. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS THE MED-
639. Which of the following is the correct path- ICAL TERM FOR BLOOD IN THE URINE
way of urine through the urinary system? A. HEMATURIA
A. kidney → ureter → bladder → ure-
B. ANURIA
thra
C. OLIGURIA
B. kidney → urethra → bladder →
ureter D. NOCTURIA

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1.21 Urinary System 692

645. What is the role of podocytes in the C. mesonephric duct, metanephros,

nephron? mesonephros
A. Allow for filtration according to size D. pronephros, metanephros, mesonephros
B. Allow for filtration according to pH
651. inner section of the kidney, contains most
C. Secretion
of the collecting tubules
D. Excretion
A. peristalsis

NARAYAN CHANGDER
646. What does honey-colored urine indi- B. hematuria
cate?
C. medulla
A. You are dehydrated
B. You are fine D. none of above

C. You are dying 652. The nephron has how many main parts?
D. You ate too much honey A. 1
647. What is the name of the cavity where the B. 2
ureter merges with the kidney?
C. 3
A. renal cortex
D. 4
B. renal pelvis
C. renal medulla 653. What gland sits atop each kidney?
D. urinary bladder A. Adrenal
648. What is emphysema? B. Thymus
A. enlarged alveoli cells C. Pituitary
B. disease in the pharnyx D. Pancreas
C. lungs are shrunken
D. bronchial tubes contracting 654. Carbon dioxide and water vapor are re-
leased by
649. controlled by ADH and Aldosterone A. kidneys
A. urine
B. heart
B. production of urine
C. lungs
C. incontinence
D. stomach
D. none of above

650. The sequential development of the renal 655. This structure carries renal filtrate/ urine
structures within intermediate mesoderm to the renal pelvis:
can best be described as: A. PCT
A. pronephros, mesonephros, metanephros B. Loop of Henle
C. Collecting Duct
B. mesonephric duct, paramesonephric
duct, metanephros D. DCT

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1.21 Urinary System 693

656. The loop of Henle can concentrate urine 661. Word root for renal pelvis?
because of which one? A. pyel/o

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A. The change from water permeability to B. -pexy
impermeability along the loop allows this.
C. -ptosis
B. It can actively pump water into the in- D. -lysis
terstitial space.
C. Its length allows it to do this easily as 662. The medial indentation where the ureter,
water leaks out along the length. blood vessels, and nerves are connected to
the kidney is called the
D. It becomes more and more narrow,
A. renal hilum
forcing water to exit.
B. renal pyramid
657. Renal Arteries C. renal capsule
A. Takes blood from the kidney to heart D. renal column
B. Transports blood to the kidney 663. The arteries supply the kidneys with
C. Takes nutrients from small intestine blood.
D. Transports blood from body cells to A. Renal
hear B. Urethral

658. Which nephron process involves adding C. Pulmonary

ammonia, uric acid, and other waste sub- D. Pelvic
stances directly into the renal tubule?
664. The transports urine from the kidneys
A. reabsorption to the bladder.
B. filtration A. ureter
C. secretion B. urethra
D. digestion C. kidney
D. none of above
659. The kidneys help maintain homeostasis
on all of these factors EXCEPT: 665. Reabsorption, as performed in the kid-
ney, may be defined as the:
A. Blood volume
A. movement of molecules out of the
B. Blood pH tubule and into the peritubular blood.
C. Blood glucose B. movement of molecules out of the per-
D. Blood sodium itubular blood and into the tubule for ex-
cretion
660. What can you infer about urine from the C. movement of water and solutes from
movie the plasma in the glomerulus, across the
A. it is mostly water glomerular-capsular membrane, and into
the capsular space of Bowman capsule.
B. it is mostly urea
D. volume of plasma from which a sub-
C. it is mostly salt
stance is removed by the kidney per
D. it is mostly poison minute

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1.21 Urinary System 694

666. The two components of a nephron are the 672. What is the external opening of the ure-
thra called?
A. Renal tubule and vasa recta A. Urethra
B. Renal corpuscle and renal tubule
B. Urinary meatus
C. Glomerulus and renal tubule
C. Micturition
D. Renal corpuscle and glomerulus
D. none of above
667. Which of the following is not part of a

NARAYAN CHANGDER
nephron? 673. The tubes that connect between the kid-
A. glomerular capsule neys and urinary bladder is
B. proximal convoluted tubule A. Renal tubule
C. collecting duct
B. Ureters
D. ureter
C. Urethra
668. Functions of the kidneys are:
D. Urinary bladder
A. eliminate urine, hold sodium, secrete
glucose 674. What structure of the urinary system is
B. eliminate waste, creatine and urea retroperitoneal and attached to abdominal
C. Regulate blood pressure and volume wall
D. Regulate blood electrolytes and main- A. Bladder
tain pH
B. Kidneys
E. all are correct except A
C. Ureters
669. What is the term meaning abnormal hard-
ening of the kidney? D. Urethra

A. arthrosclerosis 675. The greatest volume of water is reab-

B. nephrosclerosis sorbed by the
C. nephrostenosis A. proximal tubule
D. cystostenosis
B. loop of Henle
670. How many urethras do we have? C. distal tubule
A. 1
D. collecting duct
B. 2
C. 4 676. The primary function of the bladder is to
D. 10 do what?

671. Urine is about A. Concentrate urine

A. 95% water & 5% waste products B. Transport urine from the kidney to the
nephron
B. 50% water & 50% waste products
C. 75% water & 25% waste products C. Store urine until it can be excreted
D. 80% water & 20% waste products D. Make urine

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1.21 Urinary System 695

677. What is the average GFR for a healthy B. interstitial cystitis

adult?
C. enuresis

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A. 100 meters/ min
D. dysuria
B. 125 mL/ min
C. 12 L/ day 683. The system that removes waste from
your body is the
D. 12.5 gal/hr
A. digestive system
678. where is lie the primordial permanent kid-
B. endocrine system
neys?
C. excretory stystem
A. in the neck region
B. in the abdominal cavity D. integumentary system

C. in the pelvic region 684. Skin, liver and kidney are examples of
D. none of them A. Excretion
679. What should not be found in the compo- B. Digestion
sition of urine. Mark all that apply
C. Respiration
A. glucose
D. All the above
B. proteins
C. ketones 685. The major organ of the urinary system is
the
D. blood cells
A. Gallbladder
680. If you do not drink enough water, which
B. Ureter
hormone will the hypothalamus produce to
regulate urine production? C. Kidney
A. rennin D. Nephrons
B. ADH
686. Loss of voluntary control over the dis-
C. ANH charge of urine from the bladder is urinary
D. aldosterone
A. retention
681. This watery fluid contains urea and other
waste B. urgency
A. Urea C. nocturia
B. Urine D. incontinence
C. Bladder
687. Part of the kidney that leads to the
D. Urethra ureter.
682. What is the medical term when there is A. hilum
abnormal dilation of the renal pelvis and
B. cortex
calyces due to pressure from accumulated
urine that cannot flow C. pelvis
A. hydronephrosis D. medulla

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1.21 Urinary System 696

688. One major function of the urinary system A. Prostate gland

is to to filter out B. Barthom’s gland
A. cellular wastes and toxins. C. Epididymis
B. blood D. Testes
C. kidneys
694. Kidneys are said to be retroperitoneal
D. bladder which means they are
A. in front of the peritoneal cavity

NARAYAN CHANGDER
689. What are treatment options for someone
with kidney failure? B. on the side of the peritoneal cavity
A. Hemodialysis C. behind the peritoneal cavity
B. Nutrition D. above the peritoneal cavity
C. Kidney transplant 695. What is reabsorbed along the descending
D. Hemodialysis and kidney transplant loop of Henle?
A. NaCl
690. What is the function of the Kidneys
B. Water
A. Transport Urine
C. Amino acids
B. Clean blood
D. Drugs
C. Hold Urine
696. Select all the substances that are se-
D. Carry waste outside of the body
creted in the Proximal Convoluted Tubule
691. The structure that connects a kidney to A. Glucose
the urinary bladder is the B. Urea
A. ureter C. Medication
B. urethra D. Drugs
C. renal pelvis E. Ammonia
D. collecting duct
697. Increased aldosterone causes
692. Select the correct flow of fluid through A. decreased reabsorption of sodium
the nephron. B. decreased secretion of potassium
A. Loop of Henle, PCT, DCT, Bowman’s C. decreased reabsorption of chloride
capsule, collecting duct
D. increased permeability of the distal
B. Bowman’s capsule, PCT, loop of Henle, tubule to water
DCT, collecting duct
E. decreased volume of urine
C. Bowman’s capsule, DCT, loop of Henle,
PCT, collecting duct 698. The healthiest habit for the urinary sys-
tem is to
D. PCT, Bowman’s capsule, loop of Henle,
collecting duct, DCT A. urinate a lot.
B. eat salty foods.
693. What structure contains muscular tissue
that contracts during ejaculation to aid in C. eat sugary foods.
the expulsion of semen? D. drink lots of water.

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1.21 Urinary System 697

699. Which nephron process involves return- 704. Kidneys maintain homeostasis by regu-
ing water, nutrients, and electrolytes to lating levels
the bloodstream?

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A. waste
A. reabsorption B. blood
B. digestion C. water
C. secretion D. food
D. filtration
705. What is the function of the bladder
700. During urine production, a number of A. Hold urine
waste products can be excreted. When
comparing the following categories of B. Transport urine
waste products, which substance would be C. Clean blood
least likely to be reabsorbed by a normal, D. Dispose Urine
healthy patient?
706. Inside the bladder where the ureters and
A. amino acids
the urethra openings are is called the
B. glucose
A. trigone
C. sodium
B. macula densa
D. urea
C. juxtaglomerular apparatus
701. Which of the following is a function of the D. fenstration
kidney?
707. bean shaped organs that excrete urine,
A. Control red blood cell production
located high and in back of the abdominal
B. Control white blood cell production cavity
C. Activate Vitamin A A. kidney
D. Maintain reproductive hormone levels B. lungs
702. inflammation of the urethra C. spleen
A. urethritis D. none of above
B. production of urine 708. Urine is made up of more than 90%
C. pyelonephroitis A. WATER
D. none of above B. LIPIDS
703. Place the parts of the nephron in order. 1. C. glucose
ascending limb of loop; 2. descending limb D. urea
of loop; 3. proximal convoluted tubule; 4. E. creatinine
glomerulus; 5. collecting duct; 6. distal
convoluted tubule 709. Stones in the kidneys
A. 4, 3, 2, 1, 6, 5 A. renal calculi
B. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 B. renal calcium
C. 2, 1, 6, 4, 3, 5 C. cystitis
D. 1, 2, 4, 3, 6, 5 D. renal calcaneous

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1.21 Urinary System 698

710. What is an infection of the urinary blad- C. 75%

der called? D. 95%
A. pyelonephritis
716. As urine is excreted, muscle contractions
B. urethritis
of the urinary bladder will cause the urine
C. cystitis to pass into the
D. none of above A. ureter

NARAYAN CHANGDER
711. AS FILTERED MATERIALS PASS B. glomerulus
THROUGH THE , SUBSTANCES NEEDED C. urethra
BY THE BODY ARE REABSORBED
D. Bowman’s capsule
A. GLOMERULUS
B. CONVOLUTED TUBULE 717. kidneys retain less water, which dilutes
the urine and increases urine output
C. URETER
A. prevention of release of ADH
D. URETHRA
B. Release of ADH
712. The treatment for most kidney stones is
C. Release of ANP
A. to wait until it passes.
D. Release of Aldosterone
B. lithotrypsy
C. break it down with a laser 718. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS THE MED-
ICAL TERM FOR INFLAMMATION OF THE
D. surgery URINARY BLADDER
713. C-SHAPED STRUCTURE SURROUNDING A. CYSTITIS
GLOMERULUS B. PYELONEPHRITIS
A. BOWMAN’S CAPSULE
C. URETHRITIS
B. MEDULLA
D. HEMATURIA
C. CORTEX
719. During menstruation, the bleeding is the
D. RENAL PELVIS
result of:
714. How are the kidneys different from the A. Detachment of the myometrium
respiratory system in maintaining the cor-
rect pH level in your blood? B. Deterioration of the endometrium

A. faster acting & more power effect. C. A ruptured follicle

B. slower acting, but more powerful ef- D. A ruptured fallopian tube

fect.
720. incontinence
C. faster acting, but weaker effect.
A. no control over excretory functions
D. none of above such as urination or feces
715. Urine is about % water. B. inflammation of the bladder
A. 25% C. pus in the urine
B. 50% D. none of above

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1.21 Urinary System 699

721. Which one of the following is NOT one of 726. What structure in the kidneys filters the
the major roles of the kidneys in normal blood?
healthy adults?

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A. Ureters
A. conversion of ammonia to bicarbonate
B. Nephrons
ion
C. Bladder
B. maintenance of electrolyte balance of
the blood D. Urethra
C. ensuring proper blood pH
727. What is the ureter?
D. maintenance of water balance of the
A. filter
blood
B. stores urine
722. The bladder is lined with epithelium.
C. tubes from kidney to bladder
A. Simple columnar
D. urea
B. Transitional
C. Stratified squamous 728. What substance tells the kidneys to take
water from the nephrons?
D. Simple cuboidal
A. bacteria
E. Pseudostratified columnar
B. a diuretic
723. A patient with nephrolithiasis is suffering
C. urine
from:
A. stones D. antidiuretic hormone

B. an infection 729. Which sequence represents the correct

C. cancer pathway for the removal of urine from the
human body?
D. renal failure
A. kidney → ureter → urinary bladder
724. Calcium is represented by what symbol → urethra
on the periodic table? B. kidney → urethra → urinary bladder
A. ca → ureter
B. CA C. ureter → kidney → urinary bladder
C. Ca → urethra

D. cA D. urethra → kidney → urinary bladder

→ ureter
725. The urinary system works with the
system to help remove wastes from the 730. microscopic filtering located in the kid-
body. neys
A. circulatory A. nephrons
B. digestive B. blood vessels
C. muscular C. bladder
D. skeletal D. none of above

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1.21 Urinary System 700

731. Urine is formed in a three-step process. C. Urologist

Which of the following gives the correct or- D. Nephrologist
der in which these steps take place in the
nephron? 736. What are the processes the kidneys go
A. tubular secretion, tubular reabsorp- through to create and rid the body of
tion, glomerular filtration urine? Mark all that apply
B. tubular reabsorption, tubular secre- A. Filtration
tion, glomerular filtration B. Reabsoption

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. glomerular filtration, tubular reab- C. Secretion
sorption, tubular secretion
D. Voiding
D. glomerular filtration, tubular secre-
tion, tubular reabsorption 737. What might happen if your bladder
lacked sphincter muscles?
732. This hormone is secreted by the heart and
promotes excretion of sodium ions & wa- A. you would not be able to expel urine
ter. from the bladder
A. aldosterone B. urine would not enter the bladder
B. CAPD C. your kidneys would shut down
C. ANH D. urine might leak out of your bladder
D. ADH 738. The inner most layer of the kidney is the
733. Slender tubes that transport urine from A. Renal cortex
the kidney to the urinary bladder B. Renal medulla
A. urethra
C. Renal pelvis
B. urinary bladder
D. Renal calyx
C. ureters
739. makes the distal convoluted tubule
D. none of above
permeable to water, allowing the reab-
734. Diffusion of dissolved molecules through sorption of sodium and secretion of potas-
a semipermeable natural or synthetic mem- sium.
brane to allow small molecules to pass A. aldosterone
through.
B. renin
A. uremia
C. angiotensin II
B. homeostasis
D. erythropoietin
C. CAPD
D. dialysis 740. Urine gets its normal yellow-amber or
straw color from the pigment known as?
735. A specialist in diagnosing and treating
A. bilirubin
diseases and disorders of the kidneys is
a/an? B. albumin
A. Gynecologist C. urochrome
B. Proctologist D. hemoglobin

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1.21 Urinary System 701

741. What toxic substance is excreted in the C. Thyroid stimulating hormone

urine? D. Progesterone

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A. Glucose
747. Before entering the ureters, urine collects
B. Sodium ions in the-
C. Carbon dioxide A. urinary bladder
D. Urea B. renal cortex
742. The mechanism of water reabsorption by C. glomeruli
the renal tubules is D. renal pelvis
A. renal columns.
748. The urethra in the male serves two body
B. renal pyramids. systems-urinary and:
C. osmosis A. reproductive
D. active transport B. endocrine
743. In which structure does the filtrate offi- C. lymphatic
cially become urine? D. muscular
A. PCT
749. enuresis
B. DCT
A. bedwetting at night
C. Loop of Henle
B. loss of kidney function
D. Collecting Duct
C. inability of the bladder to empty com-
744. Females make eggs everyday pletely during urination
A. False, they make them every month D. none of above
B. False, they make them every year 750. Suffix for surgical fixation?
C. False, they are born with all the eggs A. pyel/o
they’ll ever have
B. -pexy
D. True
C. -ptosis
745. Which condition is very detrimental to D. -lysis
kidney function?
751. Movement of a substance from the tubule
A. Hypertension
to the blood.
B. Diabetes
A. secretion
C. Pneumonia B. reabsorption
D. Atherosclerosis C. filtration
746. What hormone, secreted by the pituitary D. excretion
controls the amount of water that is reab-
sorbed in the kidneys? 752. Along the descending limb of the nephron
loop (loop of Henle) is reabsorbed
A. Thyroxine while along the ascending limb of the
B. Anti-diuretic hormone nephron loop is reabsorbed.

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1.21 Urinary System 702

A. water urea 758. the outermost layer of the kidneys hous-

B. salt water ing the glomeruli and convoluted tubules
of every nephron
C. water salt
D. urea water A. renal pelvis

753. Most of solutes and water filtered out of B. renal cortex

the blood are reabsorbed at the C. renal nephron
A. Proximal convoluted tubule

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. renal funnel
B. Nephron loop
C. Bladder 759. The functional unit of the kidney:
D. Ureters A. Renal Pelvis
754. The inability to retain urine. B. Hilum
A. Renal failure
C. Nephron
B. Dysuria
D. Medulla
C. Kidney stones
D. Incontinence 760. is a common kidney problem, often
755. The term for painful urination is: caused by inflammation or painful swelling
of some of the glomeruli .
A. dysuria
B. pyuria A. Nephritis
C. anuria B. Tendonitis
D. polyuria C. Osteoarthritis
756. Which from the following is correct in uri- D. Bronchitis
nary system embryology?
A. The urogenital system develops from 761. emptying urine from the bladder
the intermediate mesoderm which ex-
tends along the dorsal body wall of the em- A. filtration
bryo B. void
B. Pronephroi is transitory, nonfunctional
C. ureters
structures appear in the 4th week
C. Mesonephroi consists of glomeruli and D. none of above
mesonephric tubules. These tubules open
into the mesonephric ducts 762. Angiotensin II increases the secretion
of , which stimulates reabsorption of
D. All are the right
sodium
757. Word part for urination?
A. aldosterone
A. -ectasis
B. erythropoietin
B. ureter/o
C. -uria C. renin
D. dia D. antidiuretic hormone

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1.21 Urinary System 703

763. A decrease in blood concentration results 768. takes filtrate and puts it back into the
in which of these? bloodstream

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A. increased ADH secretion A. filtration
B. increased permeability of the collect- B. reabsorption
ing ducts
C. secretion
C. less concentrated urine D. none of above
D. increased volume of urine
769. The are cells in the distal tubule that
E. both c and d lie between the afferent and efferent ar-
terioles and it detects decreases in sodium
764. If urine is red it means that
and potassium levels
A. something is possibly wrong with or- A. juxtaglomerular cells
gans in the system.
B. macula densa
B. there may be blood in the urine.
C. podocytes
C. you’ve taken in too much water.
D. fenestrations
D. you’ve eaten something with red food
dye. 770. If your pee is light or pale yellow, it
means that:
765. When salts and other wastes collect in
the kidneys, which of the following can A. You are hydrated
form? B. You’re dehydrated
A. nephrons C. You don’t have enough yellow food dye
B. bile in your diet

C. kidney stones D. You aren’t getting enough sun

D. hormones 771. Urine is made of:

766. WHAT MOVES URINE FROM THE KID- A. Water and nutrients
NEYS TO THE BLADDER B. water and lemonade
A. GRAVITY C. everything you drank that day
B. PERSTALSIS D. water and waste products
C. SKELETAL MUSCLES
772. what is/are the main source for perma-
D. VALVES nent kidneys?
A. The ureteric but and pronephroi
767. The kidneys help keep homeostasis of
B. The metanephrogenic blastema and
A. glucose
mesonephroi
B. proteins
C. The ureteric but and metanephrogenic
C. water blastema
D. lipids D. the pronephroi and axial mesoderm

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1.21 Urinary System 704

773. Basic unit of the kidney. 779. BEAN-SHAPED ORGAN BY VERTEBRAL

A. nephron COLUMN
B. medulla A. PANCREAS
C. renin B. STOMACH
D. ureter
C. KIDNEY
774. The tubule that travels from the renal D. BLADDER
pelvis to the bladder is referred to as the

NARAYAN CHANGDER
what?
780. Which part of the renal corpuscle is a ball
A. Afferent arteriole of capillaries?
B. Efferent arteriole A. Bowman’s capsule
C. Ureter
B. Glomerulus
D. Glomerulus
C. Afferent Arteriole
775. The tube that carries urine from the blad-
der out of the body is called D. Efferent Arteriole
A. Renal tubule
781. The concave part of the kidney where
B. Ureters vessels and nerves enter and exit the kid-
C. Urethra ney.
D. Urinary bladder A. hilum
776. The urine passes through the as it B. medulla
passes out of the body.
C. nephron
A. urethra
B. ureters D. cortex
C. bladder
782. How many kidneys does a person nor-
D. kidney mally have?
777. RENAL CARRY BLOOD TO THE KID- A. one
NEYS
B. two
A. VEINS
B. ARTERIES C. three

C. CAPILLARIES D. four
D. none of above
783. What type of muscle is in the urinary sys-
778. this blood vessels carries “dirty” blood tem?
into the kidney
A. smooth
A. ureter
B. skeletal
B. renal artery
C. urethra C. striated
D. renal vein D. voluntary

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1.21 Urinary System 705

784. Why do women experience cystitis more 789. normally found in urine
frequently than men? A. amonia

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A. because of the length of the urethra B. pyuria
B. because they urinate more frequently C. bacteria
than males
D. none of above
C. because their bladder is smaller
790. What is urine?
D. because the uterus takes up space in
the pelvis A. waste that has excess water salt and
other waste
785. The hormone secreted by the posterior pi- B. solid waste
tuitary gland in reaction to low blood pres-
sure, this triggers the kidneys to reabsorb C. filters for the blood
more water from urine. D. carries waste to bladder
A. luteinizing hormone 791. What system monitors the excretory sys-
B. epinephrine tem and controls the levels of compounds
and fluids
C. antidiuretic hormone
A. nervous
D. adrenomedullin
B. digestive
786. What is the order of the uri- C. endocrine
nary/excretory system?
D. circulatory
A. Ureters, bladder, urethra, kidneys
792. What is surgically removed during a cir-
B. Bladder, kidneys, ureters, urethra cumcision?
C. Kidneys, ureters, bladder, urethra A. Foreskin
D. Kidneys, urethra, bladder, urethra B. Cowper’s gland

787. This is the smooth dense irregular con- C. Scrotum

nective tissue that is continuous with the D. Vas deferens
outer coat of the ureter.
793. Podocytes are found in
A. renal capsule
A. the glomerulus
B. adipose capsule
B. the renal pelvis
C. renal hilus
C. Bowmans capsule
D. renal cortex
D. the loop of Henle
788. HOW MUCH URINE IS PRODUCED DAILY 794. The outer layer of the kidney is the
A. 500-1, 000 ML A. Renal cortex
B. 2, 000-3, 000 ML B. Renal medulla
C. 1, 500-2, 000 ML C. Renal pelvis
D. 4, 000-5, 000 ML D. Renal lobe

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1.21 Urinary System 706

795. is the movement of water, small C. get rid of urea, excess water, and
solutes, & ions across a filtration mem- some other waste materials released by
brane out of the glomerular capillary blood the cells.
plasma into capsular space. D. control thoughts, voluntary actions,
A. Net filtration pressure and other sensations of the five senses.
B. Colloidal osmotic pressure 800. Smooth muscle that forms the bladder
C. Glomelular filtration wall.

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. none of above A. detrusor
796. urinary retention B. glomerulus
A. inability of the bladder to empty com- C. cortex
pletely during urination D. medulla
B. insertion of a flexible tube into the
801. The inner region of the kidneys that con-
bladder to withdraw urine
tains the dense network of nephrons
C. bedwetting at night
A. cortex
D. none of above
B. medulla
797. This muscle surrounds the bladder and C. glomerulus
controls the release of liquid waste.
D. Bowman’s capsule
A. Sphincter Muscle
B. Bladder Muscle 802. What is the abbreviation for voiding cys-
tourethrography?
C. Speedy Muscle
A. VUR
D. Ureter Muscle
B. VC
798. When you are dehydrated what out of
C. VCUG
the following options will happen? [3]
D. VCY
A. Less ADH will be secreted by the pitu-
itary. 803. The sensation of thirst increases when
B. More water will be reabsorbed back A. the oral mucosa is dry
into the blood.
B. the osmolality of the blood increases
C. Osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus
C. blood pressure decreases
will detect increased blood concentration.
D. all of the above
D. The volume of urine will increase.
E. More ADH will be secreted by the pitu- 804. Tubular secretion involves the movement
itary. of substances

799. What is the function of the kidneys in the A. From capillary blood to tubular blood
excretory/urinary system? B. From proximal convoluted tubule to
A. store urine before it is eliminated from glomerulus
the body. C. From proximal convoluted tubule to
B. break down food into smaller pieces distal convoluted tubule
through chemical digestion D. From tubular fluid to capillary blood

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1.21 Urinary System 707

805. Which of the following is NOT a charac- C. glucose

teristic of urine? D. amino acids

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A. Is yellow in color
811. Which term means releasing urine from
B. Contains proteins the body?
C. Contains urochrome A. micturation
D. Is sterile B. voiding
806. Block plasma proteins from entering the C. urination
glomerulus D. all of the above
A. juxtaglomerular cells 812. The hormone released to prevent exces-
B. macula densa sive water loss in the urine is
C. podocytes A. Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH)
D. fenestrations B. Angiotensin II
C. Atrial Natruiretic Peptide
807. The main waste filtered from the blood in
the kidneys is: D. Aldosterone
A. carbon dioxide 813. The functional unit of the kidney is the
B. urine A. renal pelvis
C. urea B. renal sinus
D. salts C. nephron
D. calyx
808. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS THE MED-
ICAL TERM FOR ABSENCE OF URINATION 814. What is the outermost layer of the kid-
A. POLYURIA ney?

B. ANURIA A. renal cortex

C. OLIGURIA B. renal medulla

C. renal pelvis
D. NOCTURIA
D. renal capsule
809. What could be used to remove renal cal-
culi? 815. bean shaped organ
A. lithotripsy A. bladder
B. urinalysis B. lung

C. dialysis C. pancreas
D. kidney
D. antibiotics
816. Abbreviation for urinary tract infection
810. Which one of the following is NOT a sub-
stance typically reabsorbed by the tubules A. UI
under normal healthy conditions? B. UTI
A. urea C. UT
B. water D. none of above

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1.21 Urinary System 708

817. A patient is diagnosed with kidney dis- C. uremia

ease. One can assume that this patient has D. nocturia
a loss of what?
A. The loop of Henle 823. What is the term for an inflammation of
the kidneys?
B. White blood cells
A. cystitis
C. Urine
B. cholecystitis
D. Nephrons

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. renal calculus
818. Of the following substances, which are D. nephritis
not usually present in urine?
824. Where does filtration take place?
A. urea, phosphorus
A. Loop of Henle
B. glucose, protein
B. Proximal Tubule
C. ketone, sodium
C. Glomerulus
D. potassium, creatinine
D. Collecting duct
819. Where is glucose reabsorbed in the pro-
cess of filtration? 825. What does the symbol K mean on the pe-
riodic table?
A. glomerular filtration
A. Potassium
B. tubular reabsorption
B. Kalcium
C. tubular secretion
C. Keratin
D. none of above
D. Dicarbon Titrate
820. If urine is positive for it could signify
826. The carries blood to the glomerulus
renal disease.
and the carries blood away from it.
A. thromobcytes A. afferent arterioles, efferent arterioles
B. platelets B. efferent arterioles, afferent arterioles
C. WBCs C. interlobar arteries, arcuate arteries
D. protein D. arcuate arteries, interlobar arteries
821. Gradual and progressive loss of function 827. Which is NOT a normal component of
of the nephrons urine?
A. Chronic renal failure A. blood
B. kidney stones B. urea
C. glomerulonephritis C. uric acid
D. none of above D. creatinine
822. White blood cells, dysuria and fever are 828. Point of exit for the ureters from the kid-
all symptoms of: neys
A. renal failure A. hilum
B. cystitis B. cortex

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1.21 Urinary System 709

C. medulla 834. What does hemodialysis do?

D. nephron A. provide oxygen for the blood

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B. remove waste products from the blood
829. is the inability to hold or control uri-
C. add electrolytes to the blood
nation.
D. balance the amount of water in the
A. anticontinence blood
B. encontinence 835. Word part for drooping down?
C. incontinence A. pyel/o
D. uncontineunce B. -pexy
C. -ptosis
830. Which of the following organs is not con-
D. -lysis
sidered a main organ of the Urinary Sys-
tem? 836. The air sacs that are covered with capil-
A. Kidneys laries where gas exchange takes place
A. bronchioles
B. Ureters
B. pulmonary vein
C. Bladder
C. pulmonary artey
D. Stomach D. alveoli
831. Inflammation of the kidney: 837. The part of the nephron tubule that dips
into the renal medulla, and returns to the
A. Nephritis
renal cortex, actively removing salts from
B. Urinary tract infections the filtrate to build up a concentration gra-
C. Renal failure dient.
A. glomerulus
D. Diabetes mellitus
B. proximal convoluted tubule
832. What is a kidney? C. renal corpuscle
A. stores urine D. nephron loop
B. a filter for the blood 838. Which of the following are urinary sys-
tem diseases?
C. liquid waste
A. kidney infection
D. carries urine from bladder to outside
B. cystitis
the body
C. UTI
833. What is considered a normal component D. Leukemia
of urine?
839. The act of voiding urine is called
A. bacteria
A. nocturia
B. sugar B. micturition
C. uric acid (urea) C. oliguria
D. red blood cells D. urodynia

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1.21 Urinary System 710

840. ADH is released by the pituitary gland C. Get rid of nutrients

when
D. Make you poop
A. The blood is too concentrated
B. The blood has the same osmolarity as 846. in-
urine A. no; not
C. The blood is too dilute B. opening at the tip of the urethra
D. The blood is too weak
C. urethra

NARAYAN CHANGDER
841. What is the most common cause of a uri- D. none of above
nary tract infection?
A. Strep 847. urethra
B. Staph A. the duct by which urine leaves the blad-
C. E-coli der and eventually exits the body
D. Virus B. external opening of the urethra where
urine exits the body
842. What C-shaped structure in the nephron
surrounds the glomerulus? C. the dilated top portion of the ureter

A. Bowman’s capsule D. none of above

B. bladder
848. What word describes the function of the
C. renal pelvis nephrons?
D. hilum A. Tube
843. The urinary bladder B. Passageway
A. has walls composed of skeletal muscle C. Filter
B. is lined with simple columnar epithe- D. Reservoir
lium
C. is connected to the outside of the body 849. Infection of the urinary tract (kidneys,
by ureters ureters, bladder, urethra) by microorgan-
D. is located in the pelvic cavity isms.
A. Kidney stones
844. The kidneys produce about liters of
fluid per day but most is reabsorbed. B. Urinary tract infections
A. 150 C. Renal failure
B. 180 D. Diabetes mellitus
C. 200
850. Pyuria is
D. 125
A. pus in the urine
845. The main function of the urinary system
is to: B. blood in the urine
A. Get rid of waste and extra fluid C. electrolytes in the urine
B. Keep waste in the body D. none of above

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1.21 Urinary System 711

851. Frequent urination at night is called 857. Which of the following acts as the trig-
A. auria ger for the initiation of micturition (void-
ing/urinating)?

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B. hematuria
A. the stretching of the bladder wall
C. nocturia
B. motor neurons
D. oliguria
C. the pressure of the fluid in the bladder
852. TUBE FROM KIDNEY TO BLADDER D. the sympathetic efferents
A. URETER
858. urination
B. URETHRA
A. emptying the urinary bladder
C. URINARY MEATUS
B. displacement of the bladder against
D. MEDULLA the vaginal wall
853. What can you infer about urine from the C. surgical fixation of the bladder to the
movie “Chloe and the Nerb or BrainPop? abdominal wall
” D. none of above
A. it is mostly urea
859. Kidneys create a liquid called:
B. it is mostly water
A. Urine
C. it is mostly salt
B. Blood
D. it is mostly poison
C. Feces
854. What is the tube from the bladder to the D. Carbon Dioxide
outside of the body?
860. What hormones regulate the reabsorp-
A. urethra
tion of sodium and water in the distal con-
B. ureter voluted tubule?
C. glomerulus A. aldosterone and rennin
D. renal cortex B. creatinine and renin
855. The location of the kidneys in relationship C. aquaporin and aldosterone
to the peritoneal lining of the abdominal D. none of above
cavity is referred to as
861. What does dark honey-colored urine indi-
A. retroperitoneal
cate?
B. retroabdominal A. You are dehydrated
C. posterior B. You are fine
D. dorsal C. You are dying
856. How many kidneys do you have? D. You ate too much honey
A. 1 862. What is the external opening of the ure-
B. 3 thra?
C. 5 A. meatus
D. 2 B. renal cortex

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1.21 Urinary System 712

C. glomerulus C. creatitine
D. urethra D. urea

863. What function do the kidneys perform? 869. Hollow, expandable organ made of tran-
sitional epithelium.
A. eliminate carbon dioxide
A. kidney
B. supply oxygen to body cells
B. ureter
C. remove urea and excess water
C. bladder

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. play a role in gas exchange
D. urethra
864. What structure carries urine from the kid-
870. stones in the kidneys
ney to the bladder?
A. calculi
A. Urethra
B. calcium
B. Ureter
C. cystitis
C. Renal Vein
D. calcaneous
D. Renal Hilum
871. The blood vessel carrying blood from the
865. What would you find inside the capillary aorta into the kidney is the
of a nephron?
A. renal artery
A. Urea
B. hepatic vein
B. Urine
C. renal vein
C. Blood
D. glomerulus
D. Lymph
872. The female gonads are the:
866. Which substance should never be found A. Ovaries
in the urine?
B. Fallopian tubes
A. K
C. Follicles
B. Urea
D. Mammary glands
C. Salt
873. In homeostasis, the kidney regulates the:
D. Glucose
A. levels of electrolytes
867. bed wetting B. amount of water in the body
A. enursis C. pH
B. dyalisis D. all of the above
C. kidney stones
874. In which of these conditions is sugar in
D. none of above the urine?
868. A normal byproduct of muscle A. Hematuria
metabolism. B. Dysuria
A. renin C. Glycosuria
B. diuresis D. Pyuria

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1.21 Urinary System 713

875. Materials involved PCT secretion. (SE- C. inner tissue of the renal cortex
LECT ALL THAT APPLY) D. renal medullary

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A. Urea
881. What is the main function of a nephron?
B. Vitamins
A. It breaks down red blood cells to form
C. Creatinine nitrogenous wastes.
D. Uric acid B. It regulates the chemical composition
E. H+ of the blood.

876. Which process reclaims water and so- C. It forms urea from the waste products
lutes from fluid and returns them to of protein metabolism.
blood? D. It absorbs digested food from the con-
tents of the small intestine.
A. Glomerular filtration
B. Tubular reabsorption 882. Which of the following should not be in
your urine?
C. Tubular secretion
A. urea
D. Water conservation
B. water
877. is the funnel shaped structure in the
C. nitrogenous waste
center of the kidney.
D. blood
A. Renal pelvis
B. Renal cortex 883. renal pelvis
C. Renal medulla A. the dilated top portion of the ureter
D. Urinary bladder B. millions of these are in each kidney to
filter unwanted materials from blood
878. When does a woman experience lacta-
C. a long, narrow tube extending from the
tion?
kidney for the passage of urine
A. During fertilization
D. none of above
B. After ovulation
884. The rate of which a particular chemical is
C. During labor and deilvery
removed from the plasma is called the
D. After childbirth
A. glomerular filtration rate
879. hollow, muscular sac that lies behind the B. renal capacity
symphysis pubis that holds urine
C. renal clearance
A. bladder D. none of these is correct
B. lungs
885. The nephron is the structural unit of the
C. kidneys human
D. none of above A. lung
880. The renal medulla contains the: B. liver
A. the renal cortex interlobals C. kidney
B. renal pyramids D. intestine

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1.21 Urinary System 714

886. This blood vessel carries oxygen poor 891. Which of these conditions means no urine
blood out of the kidneys and back to the output?
inferior vena cava A. Oligouria
A. Ureters B. Anuria
B. Urethra C. Dysuria
C. Renal vein D. Polyuria
D. Renal artery

NARAYAN CHANGDER
892. Which of the following does not filter out
887. Which of the following substances can be of the blood in the glomerulus?
eliminated from the blood by tubular secre- A. water
tions?
B. salts
A. potassium ions
C. nutrients
B. hydrogen ions
D. plasma proteins
C. ammonium ions
D. all of the above 893. Another term for urination is:
A. micturition
888. What is another word for stone?
B. nutrition
A. Calculus
C. elimination
B. Geometry
D. evacuation
C. Algebra
D. Calcium 894. The juxtaglomerular apparatus
A. Helps reabsorb water from the collect-
889. What test is performed to determine re- ing ducts
peated bladder infections or stress incon-
tinence and to identify congenital or ac- B. Adjusts blood flow into the vasa recta
quired structural abnormalities of the blad- C. Produces a concentrated urine
der and urethra? D. Monitors blood sodium concentration
A. VCUG and adjusts glomerular filtration volume
B. nuclear scan 895. A glomerulus+Bowman’s capsule+renal
C. ultrasound tubule.
D. IVP A. urinary tract

890. Which statement below is incorrect about B. renal pelvis

the function of the kidneys: C. kidney
A. The kidneys eliminate waste from the D. nephron
blood.
896. The urinary bladder is located in the:
B. They control the volume of water in the
body. A. Thoracic cavity

C. They regulate pH and osmolality. B. Dorsal cavity

D. They make the hormones adrenaline C. Abdominal cavity

and progesterone. D. Pelvic cavity

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 1.22 Locomotor System 715

897. Which of the following is not a function A. nephroplasty

of the urinary system? B. cystoplasty

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A. preforms functions important to home-
C. nephromalacia
ostasis
D. esophagorrhexis
B. balances appropriate blood levels
C. proper balance of water, salt & acids 902. The is/are responsible for urine stor-
in the body fluids age.
D. constantly filters the blood to removes A. Bladder
waste materials B. Kidneys
898. Urinary tract infections are often diag- C. Ureter
nosed by which one? D. Urethra
A. Bladder failure
903. Which of the following structures takes
B. Decreased urination
blood AWAY from the glomerulus?
C. Bacteria in the urine
A. Renal tubule
D. Nephron death
B. Renal artery
899. The following are considered functions of C. Afferent arteriole
the Urinary System EXCEPT:
D. Efferent arteriole
A. Regulation of red blood cell synthesis
B. Vitamin D synthesis 904. Cells produce waste that can become
if they build up.
C. Absorption of digested molecules
A. toxic
D. Excretion
B. nutritious
900. Which statement is true? C. beneficial
A. The efferent arteriole is wider than the
D. none of above
afferent arteriole
B. The afferent artery is wider than the 905. A 65 year old healthy male begins to
efferent artery have difficulty starting to urinate, urinary
frequency, and nocturia. What MOST
C. The afferent arteriole is wider than the
LIKELY is the cause?
efferent arteriole
A. Prostatic hypertrophy
D. The afferent and efferent arterioles
are the same width B. Testicular cancer

901. What is the term meaning abnormal soft- C. Epididymitis

ening of the kidney? D. Orchitis

1.22 Locomotor System

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1.22 Locomotor System 716

1. which one does not join here? 7. Which joints do not allow movement?
A. Tibia A. Flexible joints
B. fibula B. Semi-flexible joints
C. Femur C. Fixed joints
D. pectorals
D. Ligaments
2. Which are the three types of muscles that
we have in our body? 8. What is the largest bone in the human

NARAYAN CHANGDER
body?
A. Skeletal and locomotor
A. Fibula
B. Skeletal, cardiac and smooth
C. Smooth and flat B. Tibia
D. None are correct C. Femur

3. Bones D. Clavicle
A. move automatically, for example, the 9. We have
heart.
A. 206 bones
B. support the body and protect the inter-
nal organs (heart, lungs and brain) B. 209 bones
C. This allows the skeleton to bend. C. 600 bones
D. none of above D. none of above
4. which of these is not from the locomotor 10. Our locomotor system
system?
A. makes our body move
A. Biceps
B. makes our body study
B. Deltoid
C. Jaw C. makes our senses work
D. alveolus D. none of above

5. Bones make up 11. Which is an example of a joint?

A. the joints A. Femur
B. the skeleton B. Heart
C. the muscles
C. Cranium
D. none of above
D. Elbow
6. The nervous system is made up of ,
and 12. Where is the smallest bone in the body lo-
cated?
A. nerves
B. senses A. In the back

C. spinal cord B. In the hand

D. skull C. In the foot
E. brain D. In the middle ear

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 1.23 Female Reproductive System 717

13. The , the and the work together B. Bones

to enable us to interact with our environ-
C. Nerves
ment.

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D. Skin
A. five senses
B. four senses 18. and work together at the to
C. nervous system allow our body to bend and move.

D. reproductor system A. skull

E. locomotor system B. joints

C. nerves
14. WHAT IS THE LOCOMOTIVE SYSTEM?
D. muscles
A. THE ONE IN CHARGE OF KEEPING THE
HUMAN BODY STANDING. E. bones
B. TO STRENGTHEN THE HUMAN BODY. 19. Bones are
C. IS IN CHARGE OF CARRYING OUT THE
A. hard
MOVEMENTS OF THE HUMAN BODY.
B. flexible
D. none of above
C. rigid
15. Muscles are
D. elastic
A. hard
B. flexible 20. Which muscles are involuntary?
C. rigid A. Skeletal and the cardiac muscle
D. elastic B. Skeletal and smooth muscles
C. Smooth and the cardiac muscle
16. Our locomotor system is made up of
A. joints D. Skeletal muscles

B. five senses 21. Which is the odd-one out?

C. muscles A. Knee
D. bones B. Foot
17. The skeleton is made up of C. Hip
A. Muscles D. Pharynx

1.23 Female Reproductive System

1. Which part of the male reproductive sys- D. The penis
tem produces sperm?
2. Which structure is correctly paired with its
A. The Scrotum function?
B. The prostate A. ovary-provides milk for newborns
C. The testicles B. testis-development of sperm

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1.23 Female Reproductive System 718

C. placenta-storage of released eggs 8. How are called the fisical differences be-
D. uterus-produces estrogen tween men and women.

3. The place where an unborn baby grows A. Primary sexual characteristics

and develops is called the B. Secondary sexual characteristics
A. Fallopian Tubes C. Sexual characteristics
B. Uterus
D. Uterus
C. Vagina

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Ovaries 9. This contains urine.
E. Cervix A. Testes
4. This is the passage that connects the B. Bladder
uterus with the outside of the body. It is
a canal inside the body with an external C. Urethra
opening between the thighs. D. Vas Deferens
A. Uterus
B. Ovaries 10. The monthly discharge of the soft uterine
lining.
C. Vagina
A. Fertilization
D. Urethra
B. Ovulation
5. Where are sperm produced?
A. Testes C. Menstruation
B. Ovaries D. Urethra
C. Penis
11. The human male reproductive system is
D. Uterus adapted for the production of
6. What structures secrete progesterone and A. sperm and the delivery of these cells
estrogen, and release an egg (ovum) once for internal fertilization
a month during a womans menstrual cy-
cle? B. gametes that transport food to the egg
A. uterus C. zygotes and the development of these
B. fallopian tube cells into a fetus
C. ovaries D. hormones that stimulate placenta for-
D. vagina mation in the male

7. The process of releasing a mature ovum 12. Reproductive organ that provides a place
into the fallopian tubes each month is to support a developing human.
called
A. fallopian tube
A. cervix
B. vagina
B. menstruation
C. ovulation C. bladder
D. uterus D. uterus

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1.23 Female Reproductive System 719

13. A pap smear is used to test for precancer- C. Bladder

ous cells on the females D. Vas Deferens

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A. uterus
19. Which of the following is NOT the function
B. ovary of male hormones?
C. cervix A. Produces sperm cells.
D. Fallopian tube B. Releases semen
14. Menopause C. Keeps reproductive system in proper
function.
A. when menstruation ends at death
D. Prepares the growth of deposited
B. when menstruation ends in early age
sperm cell.
C. when menstruation ends in middle age
20. For this to occur a sperm cell must come
D. when menstruation ends old age
into direct contact with an egg cell.
15. What is it called when an fertilized egg im- A. Fallopian tube
plants on the Fallopian tube instead of the B. Menstruation
uterus?
C. Fertilization
A. non uterine pregnancy
D. Ovulation
B. ectopic pregnancy
C. Fallopian tubal pregnancy 21. Which of the following hormones is respon-
sible for stimulating and maintaining milk
D. tubal ligation production?
16. What is the life expectancy of the sperm A. Androgen
cell inside the female reproductive tract? B. Estrogen
A. 24 hours C. Progesterone
B. 48 hours D. Prolactin
C. 72 hours
22. The part of the female reproductive sys-
D. 92 hours tem where fertilization takes place
17. What are the two sex glands? There is A. Uterus
one on the right side and one on the left B. Womb
side.
C. Vaginal opening
A. uterus
D. Fallopian Tubes
B. ovaries
23. What transports the sperm from the testi-
C. vagina
cles to the prostate and the seminal vesi-
D. hymen cles?
18. This carries sperm from the testes to the A. bladder
urethra. B. scrotum
A. Seminal Vesicle C. vas deferens
B. Prostate Gland D. testosterone

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1.23 Female Reproductive System 720

24. nourishes sperm. 30. reproductive organs that produce eggs and
A. Testicles hormones

B. Epididymis A. cervix
B. vagina
C. Semen
C. ovaries
D. Urethra
D. none of above
25. This carries sperm, semen and urine out of
31. The passageways for the eggs as they

NARAYAN CHANGDER
the body.
make their way toward the uterus and the
A. Testes place where the egg may be fertilized.
B. Bladder A. Vagina
C. Prostate Gland B. Ovaries
D. Urethra C. Uterus
26. What structure in females is a small, sen- D. Fallopian Tubes
sitive protrusion that is comparable to the 32. This produces a fluid that keeps sperm
penis in males which is located where the healthy.
two labia minora meet?
A. Bladder
A. Vagina
B. Scrotum
B. Clitoris
C. Seminal Vesicle
C. Labia majora D. Urethra
D. Uterus
33. The female sex hormone
27. When does oogenesis begin? A. Estrogen/Progesterone
A. at birth B. testosterone
B. before birth C. vagina
C. at the onset of adulthood D. prostate gland
D. at the onset of puberty 34. The proliferation phase occurs during
28. This produces semen. A. the first week of the menstrual cycle
A. Prostate Gland B. the second week of the menstrual cy-
cle
B. Bladder
C. the last two weeks of the menstral cy-
C. Epididymis cle
D. Vas Deferens D. menopause
29. An egg cell leaves the and goes into 35. Females make primary oocytes everyday
the fallopian tube.
A. False, they make them every month
A. Testicle
B. False, they make them every year
B. Ovary C. False, they are born with all the pri-
C. Uterus mary oocytes they’ll ever have
D. Scrotum D. True

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1.23 Female Reproductive System 721

36. Which area of the Female Reproduction C. pleasure

System is responsible for nourishing and D. receive the sperm from the male
protecting a fertilized egg?

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A. Ovary 42. What hormones are releases by the Pitu-
itary Gland?
B. Fallopian Tube
C. Uterus A. FSH, Oestrogen, LH and Progesterone

D. Vagina B. FSH, Oestrogen, and Progesterone

C. FSH, LH and Progesterone
37. The male gland that adds a nutrient filled
fluid to the sperm. D. FSH and LH
A. Prostate gland 43. What structure produces estrogen and pro-
B. Male gland gesterone?
C. Female gland A. Uterus
D. Adrenal gland B. Ovary
38. The urethra belongs to which reproductive C. Cervix
system? D. Vagina
A. Male
44. Which of the following is the male sex
B. Female
gland listed with the appropriate sex hor-
C. Both mone and sex cell.
D. none of above A. Ovary, estrogen, egg
39. Which term describes the narrow open- B. Ovary, testosterone, egg
ing of the uterus that extends into the C. Testes, testosterone, sperm
vagina?
D. a. Testes, estrogen, sperm
A. fundus
B. cervix 45. The tube that carries sperm from the testi-
cles.
C. vulva
D. labia majora A. Urethra
B. Testicles
40. An ovum that has been fertilized and con-
tains half of Mother’s genes and half of C. Penis
Father’s genes D. Vas Deferens
A. spermatogenesis
46. What is the only 100% fool-proof method
B. Zygote to keep from contracting an STD or becom-
C. Embryo ing a parent before you are ready?
D. Fetus A. Having “protected sex”
41. The physiological purpose of the clitoris is B. Picking the right partner
A. fetal development C. Abstaining from sexual activity
B. maturation of the ovum D. None of the above

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1.23 Female Reproductive System 722

47. The beginning of sexual maturation. 53. In both males and females, urine is stored
A. puberty in the ?

B. testosterone A. Urethra
C. glans B. Anus
D. estrogen C. Bladder
D. Stomach
48. The fetus develops in the:

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. cervix 54. The passageways for the eggs as they
B. fallopian tube make their way toward the uterus and the
place where the egg may be fertilized are
C. uterus called the
D. none of above A. Fallopian Tubes
49. In males, what is the loose pouch-like sac B. Uterus
of skin that hangs behind and below the C. Vagina
penis?
D. Ovaries
A. scrotum
E. Cervix
B. testicles
C. urethra 55. The hollow, tunnel-like structure through
which menstrual blood and babies leave
D. none of above
the body is called the
50. Male organ that allows a male to pass se- A. Fallopian Tubes
men and urine from his body.
B. Uterus
A. Penis
C. Vagina
B. Urethra
D. Ovaries
C. Testicles
E. Cervix
D. Vas Deferens
56. Primordial germ cell undergo mitosis
51. Testicular cancer is surprisingly most com-
rapidly to form
mon in males between the ages of
A. 1-14 A. primary oocyte

B. 15-35 B. secondary oocyte

C. 36-55 C. Oogonium

D. 55-100 D. Ovum

52. Which are the two tipes of Sexual charac- 57. Oogenesis can be define as
teristics? A. production of ovum in ovary
A. Primary sexual characteristics B. production of secondary oocyte in
B. Sperm ova characteristics ovary
C. Secondary sexual characteristics C. production ovum in vagina
D. Therty sexual characteristics D. production secondary oocyte in vagina

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1.23 Female Reproductive System 723

58. The shedding of the lining of the uterus B. Uterus

along with some blood once a month. Also C. Vagina
called a monthly period.

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D. Ovaries
A. Gestation
E. Cervix
B. Conception
C. Menstruation 64. What are the products of oogenesis in cor-
D. None of the above rect order?
A. Oogonium →primary oocyte and first
59. When does completion of meiosis occur? polar body → secondary oocyte and sec-
A. Stage 1 ond polar body →ovum
B. Stage 2 B. Primary oocyte → oogonium and first
C. Fertilisation polar body → secondary oocyte and sec-
ond polar body →ovum
D. Ovulation
C. Oogonium → primary oocyte →
60. Which Gland is responsible for sending hor- secondary oocyte and first polar body
mones to the Ovary to mature an egg →ovum and second polar body
cell?
D. Ovum →primary oocyte and first polar
A. Ovary body → secondary oocyte and second po-
B. Testes lar body → oogonium
C. Pituitary 65. is the male sex hormone that controls
D. Gonads the production of sperm.
A. testosterone
61. This is a duct that carries urine from the
bladder. In females it is located in front of B. semen
the vagina opening. C. scrotum
A. Hymen D. penis
B. Urethra
66. What term is used to describe when a ma-
C. Fallopian tube
tured egg has been released into the Fal-
D. Uterus lopian Tube?
62. Identify the part being described:a loose, A. Menstruation
pouch-like sac that protects and supports B. Fertilized Egg
the testes and sperm
C. Ovulation
A. scrotum
D. Ejaculation
B. vas deferens
C. epididymis 67. The neck of the uterus.
D. testes A. Ovary
B. Cervix
63. The is the narrow, lower end of the
uterus that opens into the vagina. C. Vagina
A. Fallopian Tubes D. Vulva

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1.23 Female Reproductive System 724

68. Tick on haploid cell in oogenesis. 74. What 2 hormones are needed to maintain
A. secondary oocyte the lining of the endometrium?

B. primary oocyte A. FSH and LH

C. polar body B. Estrogen and Progesterone

D. oogonia C. FSH and Estrogen

D. LH and Progesterone
69. A sac that regulates the temperature of

NARAYAN CHANGDER
the testes. 75. This carries the egg cell from the ovaries
A. Scrotum to the uterus.

B. Prostate gland A. Endometrium

C. Cowper’s gland B. Cervix

D. Seminal vesicles C. Ovary

D. Fallopian Tube
70. How many weeks is considered full term
pregnancy? 76. The DUCT through which urine and semen
A. 36 weeks are discharged, but not at the same time.

B. 42 weeks A. Penis

C. 40 weeks B. Scrotum

D. none of above C. Urethra

D. Testicle
71. What is another term that is used for an
Egg in the Female Reproduction System? 77. The beginning of menstruation is called
A. Ovum A. Menopause
B. Sperm B. Oligomenorrhea
C. Ovary C. Menarche
D. Speculum D. Premenstrual syndrome

72. are the reproductive glands in which 78. What does STD stand for?
eggs are produced. A. Standard transmitted disease
A. Ovaries B. Sexually targeted diseases
B. Uterus C. Sexually transmitted diseases
C. Fallopian Tubes D. Severely targeted diseases
D. Vagina
79. Passage that leads from the uterus to the
73. What do we call a fertilized egg? outside of the body.
A. Sperm A. Cervix
B. Testosterone B. Ovary
C. Zygote C. Uterus
D. Egg D. Vagina

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1.23 Female Reproductive System 725

80. which of the following statement is true C. Gametes

about primary oocytes D. Testes/testicles

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A. undergo meiosis I forming secondary
oocyte 86. How many premature egg cells is a female
baby born with?
B. is a haploid cell
A. About 2 million
C. develop from oogonia
B. About 400, 000
D. arrested at prophase I until puberty
C. About 2, 000
81. The bulging, rounded upper part of the D. Zero. She doesn’t have any eggs until
uterus is the: puperty.
A. cervix
87. the lining of the uterus that thickens as an
B. vagina egg matures
C. hymen A. cervix
D. fundus B. endometrium
82. The hollow, tunnel-like structure through C. uterus
which menstrual blood and babies leave D. none of above
the body.
A. Uterus 88. If fertilisation doesn’t happen in what
stage of meiosis II does the secondary
B. Vagina oocyte reach?
C. Ovaries A. Telophase
D. Hymen B. Prophase
83. What’s the part of the uterus that leads to C. Metaphase
the vagina D. Anaphase
A. Cerbis
89. When an egg has not been fertilized, it
B. Carlyx leaves the body with the lining of the
C. Cervix uterus. This is known as
D. Xervis A. menstruation

84. What structure of the female reproductive B. ovulation

system surrounds the vagina and is made C. fertilization
up of fat deposits? D. none of above
A. perineum
90. Which hormones are responsible for
B. ovary changes in a women? (select all correct)
C. labia majora A. ICSH
D. uterus B. Testosterone
85. Primary female sex organs C. FSH
A. testicles D. Oestrogen
B. Ovary/ovaries E. Progesterone

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1.23 Female Reproductive System 726

91. The produce the eggs. 97. Where can the sperm cell find and fertilise
A. Fallopian Tubes an egg cell inside a woman’s body?
B. Uterus A. uterus
C. Vagina B. ovaries
D. Ovaries C. fallopian tube
E. Cervix D. cervix

NARAYAN CHANGDER
92. The shedding of the uterine lining is called 98. Oogenesis results in the formation of:
A. 1 ovum; 2 polar bodies
A. cervix B. 2 ova; 2 polar bodies
B. menstruation C. 1 ovum; 3 secondary oocytes
C. ovulation D. 4 ova
D. uterus
99. What hormone initiates growth of follicles
93. Genes that always show up in the off- in the ovaries?
spring
A. FSH
A. Inheritance
B. LH
B. Dominant
C. Estrogen
C. Recessive
D. Progesterone
D. XY Chromosome
100. Fertilization produces a single cell called
94. How often are female eggs created? a(n)
A. Every month
A. embryo
B. Every other month
B. zygote
C. All at birth
C. fetus
D. None of the above
D. egg cell
95. The male reproductive organ.
101. Female organ in which egg cells and sex
A. Cervix hormones are produced
B. Penis A. Cervix
C. Testes B. Ovary
D. Vas Deferens
C. Fallopian Tube
96. What’s the definition of the uterus D. Uterus
A. Is an organism with strong muscular
102. A sex cell that contains an individual’s ge-
walls were the baby is made
netic material
B. Is an organ with muscular walls were
A. Sperm
the baby come outside
C. Is a muscle were the baby grows B. Ovum

D. Is an organ with muscular walls were C. Gamete

the baby grows. D. Chromosomes

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1.23 Female Reproductive System 727

103. Females produce one mature egg cell each C. to under go psychological change
month during a process called D. to become a man

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A. Toxic Shock Syndrome
109. What structure in males is the tube that
B. Menstrual Cycle carries urine from the bladder to outside of
C. Ovulation the body and has the additional function of
D. Estrogen ejaculating semen when the man reaches
orgasm.
104. Which parent determines the gender of A. prostate gland
offspring
B. penis
A. Mother
C. urethra
B. Father
D. scrotum
C. Both
D. Fate 110. Fertilization of an egg by a sperm occurs
in the
105. The is a hollow, muscular organ that
A. fallopian tubes.
nourishes and protects a developing fetus.
B. cervix.
A. cervix
C. vagina
B. ovulation
D. ovary
C. uterus
D. vagina 111. Once an ovum is released from an ovary

106. What is the major male sex hormone?

A. zygote forms
A. Progesterone
B. menstruation starts
B. Testosterone
C. it enters the fallopian tubes
C. estrogen
D. ovarian cysts form
D. dopamine
112. The structure that provides protection
107. During which phase of the menstrual cy- and cushioning for the vaginal and urethral
cle if a woman were to have intercourse opening is the
during this time, the thick mucus captures
A. labia majora
the man’s sperm, nourishes it, and helps
it to move towards the egg for fertiliza- B. cervix
tion? C. fimbriae
A. Follicular D. endometrium
B. Ovulatory
113. Which structure in the male reproductive
C. Luteal system produces the sperm cells?
D. none of above A. epididymis
108. What is the function of puberty? B. vas deferens
A. to grow bigger C. seminal vesicles
B. prepare body for reproduction D. seminiferous tubules

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1.23 Female Reproductive System 728

114. What do the male reproductive organs 120. Where do the egg and sperm meet?
do?
A. The ovary
A. Move the sperm
B. The fallopian tube
B. Produce sperm and take care of it
C. The vas deferens
C. Produce and transport sperm
D. At a party
D. Stores sperm
121. Sperm and other secretions from the male

NARAYAN CHANGDER
115. Where does the embryo implant and de-
reproductive system make up
velop into a fetus?
A. scrotum
A. Cervix
B. Ovary B. sperm

C. Uterus C. semen
D. Fallopian tube D. penis

116. The womb 122. Where are the fem. reproductive organs
located?
A. Uterus
B. Vagina A. In the highest abdomen

C. Cervix B. In the lower abdomen

D. I dont know C. No of the above
D. none of above
117. How long is the whole menstrual cycle?
A. 1 week 123. The female gamete is an
B. 14 days A. egg
C. 28 days-30 days B. ovum
D. 9 months C. oocyte
118. If fertilization does not occur, the uterine D. all of these names apply
lining will be shed and removed through
the 124. Which is/are the correct one?
A. Fallopian tube A. Primary sexual charac. are other fisi-
B. vagina cal differences between men and women.

C. uterus B. Secondary sexual charac. is the differ-

ence between men and female reproduc-
D. urethra tive organs
119. The muscle layer of the uterus is the: C. Secondary sexual charac. are other
A. endomenses fisical differences between men and
women
B. endometrium
D. Primary sexual charac. is the differ-
C. myomenses ence between men and women reproduc-
D. myometrium tive organs

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1.23 Female Reproductive System 729

125. The two hormones that maintain the lin- C. A fertilized egg.
ing of the uterus are:
D. A developed union of egg and sperm

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A. FSH and estrogen cell.
B. LH and estrogen
131. Select TWO male secondary characteris-
C. estrogen
tics
D. Progesterone and estrogen
A. produce testosterone
126. The is the passageway from the B. growth of skeletal muscle
uterus to the outside of the body.
C. enlargement of testis
A. menstruation
B. uterus D. production of FSH

C. cervix 132. How long can sperm live in the body of a

D. vagina women?

127. The male sex hormone A. 3 days

A. estrogen B. up to 5 days
B. testosterone C. 2 days
C. progestrone D. only 1 day 24 hours
D. prostate gland
133. The inner layer of the uterus is the
128. During which phase of the menstrual cy-
A. endometrium
cle if an egg is not fertilized, it passes
through the uterus and the lining of the B. fimbriae
uterus breaks down and sheds.
C. corpus luteum
A. Follicular
D. vulva
B. Ovulatory
C. Luteal 134. Which is not a part of the female repro-
D. none of above ductive system?
A. cervix
129. The release of a mature egg cell from the
ovary. B. epididymis
A. Fertilization C. fallopian tubes
B. Ovulation D. uterus
C. Menstruation
135. Sperm and testosterone are produced
D. Ovaries
here.
130. The following choices are processes of A. Testes
menstrual cycle. Which of these correctly
describes menstruation? B. Prostate Gland
A. An unfertilized egg. C. Vas Deferens
B. A thick uterine lining. D. Bladder

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1.23 Female Reproductive System 730

136. Narrow end of the uterus that opens into 141. A reproductive disorder in which uterine
the vagina; it stretches and extends to tissue migrates and grows in the ovaries
10cm for a baby to be born. or fallopian tubes is called
A. Uterus A. vaginitis
B. Vagina B. pelvic inflammatory disease
C. Cervix C. endometriosis
D. Ovary D. toxic shock syndrome

NARAYAN CHANGDER
137. What are the 3 primary hormones in the 142. Mature sperm are stored here.
male reproductive system? A. Testes
A. testosterone B. Urethra
B. estrogen C. Epididymis
C. luteinizing hormone D. Scrotum
D. follicle-stimulating hormone 143. What structure connects the ovary to the
E. progesterone uterus?
A. Fallopian tube
138. The place where an unborn baby grows
B. Cervix
and develops.
C. Vagina
A. Ovaries
D. none of above
B. Uterus
C. Menstruation 144. Bag of skin that covers testicles

D. Fallopian Tubes A. semen

B. glands
139. A time in a female’s life when she no
C. scrotum
longer produces sufficient hormones to
maintain a menstrual cycle is called D. epididymis
A. attraction 145. This connects the ovary to the uterus.
B. menopause A. Penis
C. reproduction B. Fallopian tube
D. fertilization C. A and D
D. Uterus
140. These are sex cells that are produced by
the testes and are needed to fertilize an 146. The average woman will ovulate on what
egg. day of her menstrual cycle?
A. semen A. 7th day
B. sperm B. 14th day
C. ovary C. 21st day
D. zygotes D. 3rd day

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1.23 Female Reproductive System 731

147. What is the vagina C. Vagina

A. The part of outside, the vulva D. Cervix

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B. The part that have an outside of the 153. Where does meiosis occur in the female?
body
A. Cervix
C. Is a muscular tube that connect the
uterus with the outside of the body B. Uterus

D. none of above C. Ovary

D. Testicles
148. The risk of toxic shock syndrome is re-
duced by 154. Oogenesis occur in
A. performing monthly breast self-exams A. uterus
B. practicing abstinence B. vagina
C. bathing regularly C. cervix
D. changing tampons often D. ovary

149. This occurs about two weeks after ovula- 155. What is also called the birth canal?
tion and normally lasts three to five days. A. Uterus
A. Fallopian Tubes B. vagina
B. Menstruation C. ovary
C. Fertilization D. rectum
D. Ovum
156. Which male reproductive structure is re-
150. What hormones are released by the folli- sponsible for making testosterone and pro-
cle cells of the ovary? ducing sperm cells?
A. FSH A. vas deferens
B. LH B. testicles
C. Estrogen C. scrotum
D. Progesterone D. prostate gland

151. How long does an egg live inside the Fal- 157. What happens during labor?
lopian tube? A. Strong muscular contractions push the
A. 12-24 hours baby out.
B. 3 days B. The fetus develops a heartbeat.
C. up to 5 days C. The umbilical cord is tied and cut.
D. one month D. Strong muscular contractions of the
uterus cause the cervix to enlarge.
152. After conception, the fertilized egg then
moves to the , where it implants into 158. Which gland provides fluid that neutral-
the lining of the uterine wall. izes acid and lubricates the urethra
A. Uterus A. Cowpers gland
B. Ovaries B. Prostate gland

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1.23 Female Reproductive System 732

C. Pituitary gland 164. In day 1 of the ovarian cycle women are

in which phase?
D. Seminal vesicle gland
A. Luteal
159. How about the route an egg takes? B. Follicular
A. Ovaries, epididymus, urethra C. Menstrual
B. Ovaries, fallopian tubes, cervix D. Ovulation
C. Ovaries, fallopian tubes, uterus

NARAYAN CHANGDER
165. The lower portion of the uterus which ex-
D. Ovaries, uterus, clitoris tends into the vagina is the:
A. cervix
160. What female internal structure produce
B. vulva
eggs and hormones? These are small,
oval-shaped glands. C. ovary
A. Ovaries D. none of above

B. Fallopian tubes 166. The structure that draws the mature egg
into the Fallopian tube is the
C. Uterus
A. fimbriae
D. none of above
B. cervix
161. The pouch of skin that contains the testi- C. vagina
cles. D. corpus luteum
A. Testicles
167. Pear shaped organ where the fetus
B. Penis grows and develops until birth
C. Urethra A. Uterus
D. Scrotum B. Ovary
C. Fallopian Tubes
162. In the female reproductive system this is
where fertilization occurs. D. Cervix

A. Uterus 168. What are the hormones that the ovaries

produce?
B. Ovaries
A. Testosterone and estrogen
C. Vagina
B. Estrogen and FSH
D. Fallopian Tubes
C. FSH and LH
163. In human, how many chromosomes are D. Estrogen and progesterone
found in a primary oocytes .
169. How are Identical twins made?
A. 23 A. 1 egg 2 sperm egg splits
B. 46 B. 2 eggs 1 sperm
C. 69 C. 1 egg 1 sperm egg splits
D. 92 D. 2 egg 2 sperm

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1.23 Female Reproductive System 733

170. What are the 3 phases of the menstrual 176. What is the name of the Endocrine Gland
cycle? that is present inside of the Female Repro-
ductive System?

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A. follicular phase
B. hormonal phase A. Pituitary Gland
C. luteal phase B. Uterus
D. ovulatory phase C. Ovaries
171. The egg cells is released from the ovary D. Testes
into the
A. Fallopian tube 177. What is the main role of FSH?
B. Uterus A. Stimulates follicle to burst and release
C. Cervix the ovum

D. Vagina B. Stimulates rebuilding of the uterus

wall
172. Referred to as the birth canal
C. Stimulates one egg cell to develop (be-
A. Cervix come follicle)
B. Uterus
D. Completes development of uterus wall,
C. Vagina promotes glycogen storage
D. Ovary
178. A developing fetus will grow here.
173. Which female reproductive structure con-
tains the ova? A. Uterus
A. fallopian tube B. Vagina
B. uterus C. Cervix
C. ovary D. Endometrium
D. none of above
179. What is the process called when a sperm
174. The lining of the uterus coming out and egg produce a zygote?
through the vagina (sometimes called
‘having a period’). A. Reproduction
A. Conception B. Excretion
B. Fertilization C. Fertilization
C. Implantation D. Sneezing
D. Menses
180. Which ovarian phase is the final phase to
175. Which one of the following is not occur?
diploid?
A. Luteal
A. germinal epithelial cell
B. oogonia B. Ovulation

C. primary oocyte C. Follicular

D. secondary oocyte D. Menstrual

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1.23 Female Reproductive System 734

181. Either of 2 tubes through which an egg C. Mitosis

travels each month on its way to the D. none of above
uterus.
187. A narrow tube that leads to the uterus.
A. Uterus
Eggs released from the ovaries travel
B. Fallopian Tubes through these to the uterus.
C. Cervix A. Fallopian Tube
D. Ovary B. Vagina

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Fertilization
182. What do you call the process in which the
ovary releases a mature egg cell? D. Vagina
A. menstruation 188. Identify the part being described:a hol-
B. oogenesis low, pear-shaped organ that receives and
hold fertilized egg cell
C. ovulation
A. cervix
D. fertilisation
B. fallopian tubes
183. The is the opening of the uterus C. ovaries
A. cervix D. uterus
B. vagina 189. Which is the route that sperm takes to
C. ovulation leave the male body?
D. uterus A. Testes, vas deferens, seminal vesicles,
penis
184. A muscular tube leading from the cervix B. Testes, epididymus, seminal vesicles,
to the outside of the body is the: penis
A. fallopian tube C. Testes, epididymus, urethra, penis
B. labia majora D. Testes, epididymus, vas deferens, ure-
C. vagina thra
D. none of above 190. This is a pear-shaped organ that is lo-
cated between the ovaries. It is also
185. Which hormones are secreted by the pitu- known as the womb.
itary gland? (select all correct)
A. Uterus
A. Testosterone
B. Ovaries
B. Progesterone
C. Vagina
C. FSH
D. Urethra
D. ICSH
191. This is the passageway from the uterus
E. Oestrogen out of the body.
186. Which type of cell division split into two A. Fallopian Tube
identical cells B. Cervix
A. Meiosis C. Vagina
B. Inheritance D. Seminal Vesicle

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1.23 Female Reproductive System 735

192. This is the lining of the uterus. C. uterus

A. Cervix D. ovary

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B. Fallopian Tube 198. In females, what structure contains
C. Endometrium sweat and oil-secreting glands?
D. Ovaries. A. Labia majora
B. Labia minora
193. The physiological purpose of the vagina
C. Bartholin’s glands
is
D. Clitoris
A. fetal development
B. maturation of the ovum 199. What is the main role of Progesterone?
A. Completes development of uterus wall,
C. digestion
promotes glycogen storage
D. to receive the sperm from the male
B. Stimulates follicle to burst and release
194. What hormone needs to spike to signal the ovum
ovulation? C. Stimulates rebuilding of the uterus
A. FSH wall
D. Stimulates one egg cell to develop (be-
B. LH
come follicle)
C. Estrogen
200. During which phase of the menstrual cy-
D. Progesterone cle, do hormones stimulate the growth of
195. If a female leaves a tampon in too long a about 15-20 eggs in the ovaries and in-
rare but sometimes fatal bacterial illness crease estrogen production?
could occur. This illness is known as A. Follicular
A. Chicken pox B. Ovulatory
B. Premenstrual syndrome (PMS) C. Luteal
C. Old tampon syndrome (OTS D. none of above

D. Toxic shock syndrome (TSS) 201. During menstrual cycle, as pituitary

glands releases hormones it results to an
196. Which of the following are female sec- important process which is
ondary sex characteristics? (Choose all A. Start of the cycle
that apply)
B. Release of hormones.
A. wider hips
C. Cause the egg in the ovary to mature.
B. pubic hair growth
D. Capture the needed hormones.
C. broader shoulders
202. Which of the following hormones is se-
D. development of breast creted by the ovaries?
197. The structure that has 3 layers of tissue A. estrogen
to hold and nurture the fetus is the B. melatonin
A. Fallopian tube C. progesterone
B. vagina D. two of these

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1.23 Female Reproductive System 736

203. What hormone signal ovulation? C. Estrogen

A. FSH D. Luteinizing hormone
B. LH 209. Identify the part being described. Tubes
C. Estrogen that connects the ovaries to the uterus.
D. Progesterone A. cervix
B. fallopian tubes
204. This is the opening of the uterus.
C. vagina

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Vagina
D. fimbriae
B. Fallopian Tube
210. Testosterone is produced by the
C. Epididymis
A. ovaries
D. Cervix
B. hypothalamus
205. This produces egg cells and estrogen. C. anterior pituitary gland
A. Vagina D. testicles
B. Ovary 211. The skin sack that holds the testes.
C. Fallopian Tube A. Bladder
D. Vas Deferens B. Scrotum

206. During which phase of the menstrual cy- C. Prostate Gland

cle does the dominant follicle releases its D. Epididymis
egg from the ovary and captured in the fal-
212. Male organ in which sperm and sex hor-
lopian tubes?
mones are produced.
A. Follicular
A. Penis
B. Ovulatory B. Testicles
C. Luteal C. Vas Deferens
D. none of above D. Scrotum
207. In females, what structure is the canal 213. Inability to have an erection or to sustain
that joins the cervix. It is also known as an erection
the birth canal. A. Epididymitis
A. Uterus B. Impotent
B. Ovaries C. Testicular cancer
C. Vagina D. Orchitis
D. Clitoris 214. Which of the following is not a secondary
sex characteristic in male?
208. Which of the following hormones is re-
sponsible for male secondary sex charac- A. deeper voice
teristics? B. broader sholders
A. Progesterone C. wider hips
B. Androgen D. facial hair

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1.23 Female Reproductive System 737

215. Sex cells have the number of chromo- 221. Sperm is ejected from the male body
somes of other body cells. through the

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A. twice A. semen
B. half B. testes
C. same C. scrotum
D. none of the above D. penis

216. what is the first stage of labor? 222. Two small glands that secrete testos-
terone and produce sperm are the
A. Placental
A. scrotum
B. expulsion
B. semen
C. dialation
C. testes
D. none of above
D. testosterone
217. Sperm travels through these vesicles to
the seminal gland to make semen. 223. The is an external skin sac that holds
the testes.
A. Vas deferens
A. penis
B. Fallopian tube
B. scrotum
C. Ovaries
C. semen
D. Epididymis
D. testes
218. The female reproductive structure that
224. The female sex organ through which a
serves as a passageway for the ova to the
baby passes during birth.
uterus is the:
A. Uterus
A. fallopian tube
B. Fallopian Tube
B. cervix
C. Vagina
C. vaginal canal
D. Ovaries
D. none of above
225. Which of the following is a female ga-
219. On what day of the cycle is ovulation? mete?
A. Day 4 A. sperm cell
B. Day 8 B. egg cell
C. Day 14 C. ovary
D. Day 28 D. testicle
220. The skin covered sac that surround the 226. Female sex hormones are produced by
testes. the
A. Scrotum A. endometrium
B. Prostate gland B. ovaries
C. Cowper’s gland C. ova
D. Seminal vesicles D. fallopian tubes

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 1.24 Male Reproductive System 738

227. The egg cells of a female. They lie dor- B. vagina

mant until puberty.
C. uterus
A. Ova or ovum
D. ovary
B. Sperm
C. Vagina 230. Where does fertilization occur in the fe-
male reproductive system?
D. Hymen
A. Fallopian tube
228. Where in their female reproductive sys-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
tem is fertilisation most likely to take B. Ovary
place? C. Uterus
A. fallopian tube D. Vagina
B. uterus
231. Fertilization occurs in the
C. vagina
D. cervix A. fallopian tube
B. vas deferans
229. The structure that hold and nurture the
fetus (developing baby) is the C. vagina
A. fallopian tube D. cervix

1.24 Male Reproductive System

1. The scrotum contains the: 4. In which organ does sperm production take
A. prepuce place?
A. Testes
B. prostate gland
B. Penis
C. seminal vesicles
C. Prostate
D. testes
D. Vas deferens
2. What is the primary sex hormones of
males? 5. What pea-sized male reproductive struc-
ture is located inferior to the prostate?
A. Prostate gland
A. vas deferens
B. Testosterone
B. testes
C. Urine
C. bulbourethral gland
D. Semen D. seminal vesicles
3. What makes sperm and testosterone, the 6. The process of making sperm begins in the
male hormone? male:
A. Testicles A. at birth
B. Prostate gland B. at puberty
C. Epididymis C. halfway through each month
D. Penis D. once a month

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1.24 Male Reproductive System 739

7. Which male reproductive structure is also 12. Pairs of muscles found in the scrotum that
part of the male urinary system? work synergistically in controlling temper-
ature are called

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A. testicle
B. seminal vesicle A. darts
C. urethra B. spongy body
D. ureter C. cremaster
D. corpus cavernosum
8. Where do sperm mature and become able
to swim? 13. What is next to the testes and also stores
A. Epididymis sperm?
B. Vas deferens A. epididymis
C. Urethra B. scrotum
D. Penis C. seminal vesicles
9. What are the glands that secrete fluid to D. testicle
carry sperm? 14. A major male sex organ that stores sperm.
A. Penis
A. Prostate Gland
B. Epididymis
B. Testicle
C. Semen
C. Epididymis
D. Seminal Vesicles
D. Vas deferens
10. Which statement is true about epi-
didymis? 15. What is the organ through which urine and
semen leave the body.
A. A set of oily openings that release
sperm A. Scrotum

B. A set of coiled tubes which transport B. Testicles

and stores sperm cells. C. Penis
C. Producer of male sex hormones. D. Testes
D. Transport mature sperm to the ure-
16. Tiny male cell that unites with the female
thra.
ovum to form a fertilized egg or zygote.
11. The scrotum is an important adaptation in A. Testes
humanmales because the optimum temper-
B. Scrotum
ature for spermdevelopment is
C. Sperm
A. 10 to 12 degrees below normal
bodytemperature D. Semen
B. 2 to 4 degrees below normal body tem- 17. What is inside the scrotum (bag)
perature
A. scrotum
C. 2 to 4 degrees above normal body tem-
perature B. testes

D. 10 to 12 degrees above normal C. penis

bodytemperature D. foreskin

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1.24 Male Reproductive System 740

18. A sex cell (ovun-sperm) is produced by: B. scrotum

A. mitosis C. seminal vesicles
B. meiosis D. testicle
C. simple cell division
24. The reproductive system of a male mam-
D. bipartition mal provides
19. Which of the following is not a structure A. support for the internal development

NARAYAN CHANGDER
in the male reproductive system? of theembryo
A. Vas deferens B. materials through the placenta
B. Ovary C. a means for the delivery of gametes
C. Penis D. the ovaries for gamete production
D. Testes
25. Male hormone is
E. Prostate
A. testosterone
20. What are sex organs located outside the B. estrogen
body called?
C. progesterone
A. Circumcision
D. none of above
B. Genitals
C. Erection 26. The primary function of the human male
reproductivesystem is to
D. Internal organs
A. provide a site for fertilization
21. What is sperm count of a functionally ster- B. produce and transport gametes
ile male?
C. protect and nourish the embryo
A. above 300 million/mL
D. prevent urine from leaving the body
B. below 300 million/mL
C. below 150 million/mL 27. about how many sperm are ejaculated un-
der normal circumstances
D. below 20 million/mL
A. Millions
22. The process of human creation is described
in the Al-Quran B. Hundreds

A. Al-Mu’minun 12-14 C. Hundred thousands

B. Unbelievers 12-14 D. Thousands
C. Al-Mu’minun 22-24 28. What hormone is released by the anterior
D. Supplies 1-4 pituitary to stimulate division of spermato-
gonia?
E. Supplies 11-14
A. gnRH
23. Which male reproductive structure con-
B. FSH
nects with the testes and also stores
sperm? C. LH
A. epididymis D. testosterone

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1.24 Male Reproductive System 741

29. Which male reproductive structure con- 34. the organ that removes urine from the
nects the epididymis and the ejaculatory male body and that can deliver sperm to
duct? the female reproductive system

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A. seminal vesicles A. Penis
B. urethra B. Vagina
C. vas deferens C. Urethra
D. bulbourethral gland D. Testes

30. A major male sex organ that produces 35. What fluid contains millions of sperms that
sperm. is produced by the sex organs of males?
A. Prostate Gland A. Testosterone
B. Testicle B. Semen
C. Ovary C. Urine
D. Vas deferens D. Estrogen

31. After a sperm matures, it travels into this 36. What is the tube through which urine and
tube (that’s where the vasectomy occurs) semen are discharged?
A. urethra A. Penis
B. epididymis B. Scrotum
C. vas deferens C. Urethra
D. none of above D. Semen

32. Which statement is true regarding male re- 37. The duct that propels live sperm toward
production? ejaculation is the

A. Puberty around 9-15 years A. vas deferens

B. The number of testicles is 2 (pairs) B. fallopian tube

C. The testes produce sperm in the pro- C. seminiferous tubule

cess of spermatogenesis D. epididymis
D. Sperm will go to the egg without inter- 38. When a male baby is born, the end of the
course, for example when swimming penis is covered by:
E. The process of releasing sperm is A. prepuce
called fertilization
B. scrotum
33. Name the structure that produces a thin C. foreskin
milky fluid that aids in sperm motility and
D. testes
contributes to about 30% of overall se-
men volume. 39. The sperm’s acrosome
A. testis A. contains nutrients
B. seminal vesicle B. contains enzymes
C. prostate gland C. has a high density of mitochondria
D. bulbourethral gland D. provides the blood-testis barrier

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1.24 Male Reproductive System 742

40. What are the male gametes? 46. What is the name of the organ that fills
A. testes with blood and becomes erect during sex?
B. spermatozoa A. Epididymis
C. seminiferous tubules B. Prostate gland
D. prostate glands C. Penis
D. Vas deferens
41. Which structure of the male reproductive
system is suspended in a sac? 47. stimulates secondary sex characteristics in

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. scrotum males and stimulates sperm production.
B. testes A. Hypothyroidism
C. penis B. Hyperthyroidism
D. foreskin C. Testosterone
D. Estrogen
42. When do males start to produce sperm
cell? 48. The male gonad that produces sperm and
A. At birth the male hormone testosterone is the
B. At adulthood A. Penis
C. At puberty B. Epididymis
D. At childhood C. Testis
D. Cowper’s Gland
43. Name the three types of accessory glands
in the male reproductive organs 49. External male reproductive organs
A. seminal vesicles (choose two answers)
B. led to the ejaculator A. Testis
C. vas deferens B. Penis
D. prostate gland C. Scrotum
E. Cowper’s gland D. Epididymis
E. urethra
44. The tube or duct that carries live sperm
from the testes during ejaculation is the 50. The male reproductive organ that stores
A. vas deferens maturing sperm is the
B. fallopian tube A. Epididymis
C. ureter B. Vas Deferens
D. epididymis C. Prostate GlandProstate Gland
D. Urethra
45. Which anterior pituitary hormone is in-
volved in testosterone production? 51. Male sex hormones are called
A. LH (leutinizing hormone) A. Androgens
B. FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone) B. Progesterone
C. testosterone C. FSH
D. inhibin D. GnRH

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1.24 Male Reproductive System 743

52. Sperm are stored in the: 58. Which of the following secretes alkaline
A. epididymis fluid?

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B. prostate gland A. Seminal vesicle

C. seminal vesicles B. Seminiferous tubule

C. Prostate gland
D. urethra
D. Bulbourethral gland
53. Another name for the sex cell is
59. Which statement is not compatible with
A. zygote
spermatogenesis?
B. testicle
A. The process of sperm formation
C. gamete
B. Spermatozoids contained in the testes
D. hormone cannot fertilize
54. Sperm are produced in the: C. occurs in the testes
A. prostate D. produce 1 functional spermatozoid cell

B. seminal vesicles 60. Which of the following produces sperm

C. testes through spermatogenesis?

D. vas deferens A. Leydig cells

B. Prostate gland
55. you should do this once a month to help
C. Bulbourethral gland
detect any abnormalities or lumps
D. Seminiferous tubule
A. wear protective gear during contact
sports 61. How long can a sperm live inside the ure-
B. shower or bathe thra of the female?
C. physical check-up A. One week
D. self-examination B. Up to 5 Days
C. 2 Days
56. A coiled structure located on the back side
of the testicle. This is where sperm ma- D. Up to 6 Days
tures for about three weeks. 62. Sperm move through the duct system of
A. Urethra men using:
B. Epididymis A. gravity
C. Ovaries B. peristalsis
D. Penis C. hand pressure
D. viagra
57. Sperm + fluids from seminal vesicle and
prostate gland 63. Exam for Male Reproductive System
A. semen A. A
B. testes or testicles B. B
C. scrotum C. C
D. none of above D. D

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1.24 Male Reproductive System 744

64. What is the function of the protective 69. The 3 functions of the MALE reproductive
pouch that covers the testicles? system:
A. Scrotum A. produce sex hormones, produce eggs,
B. used to regulate the temperature in provide nourishing environment for the
the testes baby
C. testes B. produce sex hormones, produce/store
sperm. deliver sperm to female reproduc-
D. produces sperm cells and semen
tive system

NARAYAN CHANGDER
65. The testicles are located outside of the C. produce hormones, urination, cleans-
male body because: ing of reproductive organs
A. the sperm have a shorter distance to D. none of above
travel during intercourse.
B. more sperm can be created. 70. This walnut-sized gland makes fluid that
mixes with the sperm to form semen.
C. there is no room to fit the testicles in-
side the body. A. Seminal vesicle
D. production of sperm best takes place B. Epididymis
at a temperature lower then body temper- C. Prostate gland
ature.
D. Cowper’s gland
66. The bulbourethral glands (Cowper’s
71. The testicles in the male are similar to the
glands) produce
in the female.
A. gametes
A. Fimbria
B. semen
B. Fallopian tube
C. lubricating mucus
C. Ovaries
D. sperm
D. Uterus
67. once a sperm matures, it travels through
this tube 72. What is the tube called that carries the
sperm away from the testicles and stores
A. Vas deferens
them until they leave the body?
B. Fallopian tube
A. Vas deferens
C. Ovaries
B. Cowper’s gland
D. Epididymis
C. Penis
68. What is the function of vas deferens?
D. Epididymis
A. A muscular tube that passes upward
alongside the testes and transports ma- 73. True sperm journey
ture sperm to the urethra. A. Testicles-Epididimis-Vas Deferens-
B. Sperm storage organ. Seminal Vessels-Uretra
C. Feces holding area. B. Testicles-Scrotum-Vas Deferens-
D. It produces sugar-rich fluid that pro- Seminal Vesicles-Uretra
vides sperm with a source of energy to C. Testicles-Epididimis-Vas Deferens-
help them move. Seminal Vessels-Penis

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1.24 Male Reproductive System 745

D. Epididymis-Testis-Seminal Vesicles- 79. Which of the following is a viral infection

Vas Deferens-Uretra of the T cells?

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E. Epididymis-Testis-Seminal Vesicles- A. HIV/AIDS
Vas Deferens-Penis B. Herpes
74. This pouch makes a fluid that gives sperm C. Gonnorhea
energy and helps them move? D. Chlamydia
A. Seminal vesicle 80. the sex cells that are made by males and
B. Prostate gland that are needed to fertilize eggs.
C. Scrotum A. Sperm

D. Penis B. Egg
C. Fallopian Tube
75. Which of these secrete testosterone?
D. Vas deferens
A. Leydig cells
81. What occurs when the tissues of the penis
B. Sertoli cells fill with blood?
C. Smooth muscle A. Sperm
D. None of these B. Vas defernes
C. Erection
76. What structure connects the testes with
the ductus deferens? D. Epididymus
A. ejaculatory ducts 82. This structure has two functions:Production
B. urethra of testosterone and sperm.
A. Testicles
C. epididymis
B. Prostate
D. prostate gland
C. Pituitary Gland
77. The pair of endocrine glands that produce D. Penis
sperm are the?
83. Sperm and fluids combine to form:
A. Adreanal
A. Smegma
B. pancreas
B. Schmaltz
C. Ovaries
C. Semen
D. Testes
D. Mittelschmertz
78. A set of coiled tubes that connect to the 84. Inside the penis there is an special tissue
vas deferens. called
A. Fallopian tube A. integunmentary tissue
B. Epididymis B. muscle tissue
C. Urethra C. erectile tissue
D. Seminal Vesicle D. epithelial tissue

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1.24 Male Reproductive System 746

85. The path a sperm travels through the male 90. Which of the following is not a secondary
reproductive system is.. male sex characteristic?
A. Testicles, Epididymis, Vas Deferens, A. Increased facial/body hair
Seminal Vesicle, Urethra, Prostate, Cow-
B. Lower voice
per’s gland, Penis
B. Testicles, Vas Deferens, Seminal C. Thinner skin
Vesicle, Epididymis, Prostate, Cowper’s D. Thickening & lengthening of bones
Glands, Urethra, Penis

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Penis, Urethra, Testicles, Epididymis, 91. What is a possible consequence of a block-
Seminal Vesicle, Vas Deferens, Prostate, age in the Vas Deferens?
Cowper’s gland A. the seminal fluid won’t be expelled
D. Testicles, Epididymis, Vas Deferens, B. sperm won’t be produced
Seminal Vesicle, Prostate, Cowper’s
gland, Penis, Urethra C. Fertilization won’t occur
D. mature sperm will not be transported
86. The portion of erectile tissue that sur-
to the urethra in preparation for ejacula-
rounds the urethra is the
tion
A. prepuce
B. glans 92. The technology that can be used in patients
with prostate cancer is
C. corpus spongiosum
A. vasectomy
D. rete testes
B. tubectomy
87. The head of the penis is what we called?
C. Operation
A. Prostate gland
D. Trans Urethral Resection of the
B. Glans Prostate
C. Root
D. Shaft 93. What carries urine and sperm to the out-
side of the body, but never at the same
88. Where is the place where sperm mature time?
and are stored? A. Prostate gland
A. Epididymis
B. Epididymis
B. Vas desferens
C. Urethra
C. Urethra
D. Vas deferens
D. Testes
94. once sperm are made they move into this
89. The skin covered sac that surround the
coiled tube
testes is the
A. Scrotum A. Epididymis

B. Prostate gland B. Vas deferens

C. Cowper’s gland C. Fallopian tube
D. Seminal vesicles D. Uterus

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1.24 Male Reproductive System 747

95. When semen is pushed through and out of 101. A major male sex organ that produces
a males body through the urethra is a pro- and stores sperm.
cess called

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A. Prostate Gland
A. Ejaculation B. Testicle
B. Erection C. Ovary
C. Menstruation D. Vas deferens
D. Transportation
102. The Mother of Cell pada konteks sper-
96. Sperm are formed in the matogenesis adalah
A. seminiferous tubules A. Sel interstisial
B. epididymis B. Sel sertoli
C. ductus deferens C. lumen
D. vas deferens D. Sel Leydig
97. Which glands make a fluid that cleans the E. sel basal
urethra before sperm pass through it?
103. In human males, sperm cells are sus-
A. Penis pended in a fluid medium. The main advan-
B. Cowper’s gland tage gained from this adaptation is that
C. Prostate gland the fluid

D. Seminal vesicle A. removes polar bodies from the surface

of thesperm
98. What organs make the fluid for semen? B. activates the egg nucleus so that it be-
A. Seminal vesicle and prostate gland gins todivide
B. Seminal vesicle and cowper’s gland C. acts as a transport medium for sperm
C. Prostate gland and cowper’s gland D. provides currents that propel the egg
D. Penis and testicles down theoviduct

99. What holds the testicles and keeps them at 104. Which process only occurs in the male
the best temperature for making sperm? body
A. Sperm A. erection
B. Penis B. ejaculation
C. Scrotum C. Menstruation
D. Testicles D. Ovulation

100. The part of the sperm that penetrates the E. Fertilization

ovum 105. The epididymis
A. Mitochondria A. all of these
B. Acrosome B. is a very long coiled tube inside the
C. Fluffy area scrotum.
D. Corona radiata C. is where sperm mature.
E. Sperm tail D. is where sperm are stored.

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1.24 Male Reproductive System 748

106. Erectile tissue in the penis that is hollow C. Seminal Vesicle

and can be filled with blood from the arter-
D. Vas Deferens
ies causing an erection or tension is called
112. What part of male reproductive system
A. darts that function as a sac that holds the
B. spongy body testes?
C. cremaster A. Vas deferens

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. corpus cavernosum B. Scrotum
107. A muscular tube that transports sperm- C. Penis
filled semen.
D. Prostate gland
A. Vas deferens
B. Fallopian tube 113. This is a common site of cancer in men.
C. Scrotum A. Prostate
D. Penis B. Vas Deferens
108. which two organs produce semen C. Epididiymis
A. Vas deferens and scrotum D. Urethra
B. prostate gland and seminal vesicles
114. Which reproductive structure is correctly
C. Penis and testes
paired withits function?
D. Prostate gland and epididymis
A. uterus-usual site of fertilization
109. ( ) are stored in the epididymis, a net-
work of tubes located on the back of the B. testis-usual location for egg develop-
testicles. ment

A. Eggs C. ovary-delivers nutrients to the embryo

B. Testosterone D. sperm-transports genetic material
C. Sperm
115. The sac that holds the testicles is
D. Tadpoles
A. Testes
110. This structure is used for both excretion
(urination) and reproductive funtions. B. Epididymis

A. Urethra C. Ovaries
B. Endometrium D. Scrotum
C. Cowper’s Gland
116. What is the male sex cell?
D. Scrotum
A. Sperm cell
111. What structure regulates the tempera-
ture of the testes? B. Red blood cell

A. Epididymis C. White blood cell

B. Scrotum D. Egg cell

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1.24 Male Reproductive System 749

117. What would happen if the testes were B. Prostate Gland

located inside the body? C. Vas deferens

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A. Sperm would not be produced because D. Seminal Vesicle
it is too warm.
123. In the embryo, where are the testes
B. Testosterone levels would increase be-
formed?
cause of the warm temperature.
A. in the scrotum
C. The seminal vesicles would no longer
be needed. B. in the bladder
D. Hormones from the testes wouldn’t be C. in the abdomen
able to get into the blood. D. in the thoracic cavity
118. (? ? ) is the male sex hormone. 124. This is the mixture of sperm cells and flu-
A. Testosterone ids that protect and carry them through
the vas deferens
B. Estrogen
A. lymph
C. Androgen
B. semen
D. Androsterone
C. blood
119. Which gland may carry sperm that is re- D. urine
leased prior to ejaculation?
125. The process of removing the foreskin
A. Seminal vesicle from the penis is:
B. Prostate A. Circumnavigation
C. Bulbourethral gland B. Circumventing
D. none of above C. Circumcision
120. What organelles are abundant in sperm D. Circumcircular
cells to provide energy for flagellum move-
126. Adds fluid to sperm to nourish and pro-
ment?
tect it
A. ribosomes A. penis
B. lysosomes B. prostate gland & seminal vesicle
C. enzymes C. semen
D. mitochondria D. none of above
121. The skin around the testes 127. What is the function of seminal vesicle?
A. urethra A. A muscular tube that passes upward
B. scrotum alongside the testes and transports ma-
ture sperm to the urethra.
C. semen
B. Sperm storage organ.
D. none of above
C. Feces holding area.
122. What is a long muscular tube that carries D. It produces sugar-rich fluid that pro-
sperm from epididymis to the urethra? vides sperm with a source of energy to
A. Scrotum help them move.

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1.24 Male Reproductive System 750

128. the male reproductive organs that pro- A. Epididymis

duce sperm and testosterone. B. Vas Deferens
A. Testicles C. Urethra
B. Ovaries D. Seminal Vesicles
C. Vas deferens
134. ( ) is the male sex hormone.
D. Prostate gland
A. Testosterone

NARAYAN CHANGDER
129. Once sperm are made they mature in this B. Estrogen
coiled tube
C. Adrenaline
A. penis
D. Insulin
B. epididymis
C. sperm 135. Each testis contains more than 30 meters
of tiny, tightly packed (? ? ) tubules.
D. none of above
A. seminiferous
130. What gland should be checked for cancer B. seminary
yearly after age 45
C. seminal
A. prostate
D. epididymal
B. seminal vesicle
C. bulbourethral 136. What body part secretes the pre-
ejaculate that helps protect sperm from
D. pituitary the acidic environment of the urethra?
131. Where is the male sex cell and hormone A. Ejaculatory Duct
produced? B. Seminal Vesicle
A. Scrotum C. Prostate Gland
B. Epididymis D. Cowper’s Gland
C. Testes
137. A cancer occurs in a man’s organ, a small
D. Urethra walnut-shaped gland that produces semi-
132. Which of the following is a correct se- nal fluid.
quence of cells in spermatogenesis? A. testes or testicles
A. spermatogonium → secondary sper- B. penis
matocyte → primary spermatocyte C. prostate gland
B. primary spermatocyte → spermatogo- D. none of above
nium → secondary spermatocyte
C. spermatogonium → primary sperma- 138. The organ that contains the urethra
tocyte → secondary spermatocyte where urine and semen leave the body.

D. none of the above A. scrotum

B. penis
133. What is the tube through which sperm
passes from the testicles to the ejaculatory C. semen
ducts? D. none of above

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1.24 Male Reproductive System 751

139. Which of the following secretes citrate B. Vas deferens

and enzymes to break up the semen clot C. Scrotum
during intercourse?

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D. Sperm
A. Leydig cells
145. Which of the following is the correct path
B. Prostate gland of a sperm leaving the testis?
C. Bulbourethral gland A. Rete testes-seminiferous tubules-
D. Seminiferous tubule efferent ductules-epididymus vas defer-
E. Seminal vesicle ens
B. Seminiferous tubules-Rete testes-
140. The ejaculatory duct connects the vas def- efferent ductules-Epididymus-vas defer-
erens with the: ens
A. urethra C. Epididymus-Rete testes-seminiferous
B. epididymis tubules-Efferent ductules-vas deferens

C. seminiferous tubules D. none of above

D. foreskin 146. Semen contains

A. fructose
141. After meiosis..
B. vitamin C
A. 4 dipolid cells are formed
C. prostaglandins
B. 2 aploid cells are formed
D. all of these substances
C. 2 diploid cells are formed
147. What cells secrete testosterone?
D. 4 aploid cells are formed
A. Sertoli cells
142. What is the soft skin sack that contains B. Spermatocytes
the testicles and controls the temperature
C. Spermatids
for sperm production?
D. Leydig cells
A. Testicles
B. Penis 148. The organ that secretes 10

C. Scrotum 149. The structures that fill with blood in or-

der to cause erection of the penis are
D. Semen
A. prostate tissues
143. What is the mixture of sperm cells and B. erectile tissues
fluids?
C. scrotum tissues
A. Testosterone
D. gonadal tissues
B. Deferens
150. Where is the male sex hormone testos-
C. Semen terone produced?
D. Vesicles A. Penis
144. What is the male sex cell that is needed B. Testes
for reproduction? C. Urethra
A. Seminal vesicles D. Scrotum

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1.24 Male Reproductive System 752

151. What is the whitish fluid made by the B. prostate cancer

prostrate gland and the sperm called when C. inguinal hernia
mixed together?
D. testicular cancer
A. Sperm
B. Semen 157. Which one of the following is not part of
the male reproductive system?
C. Nocturnal emission
A. Urethra
D. Seminal Vesicles

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Prostate gland
152. The primary male hormone is
C. Seminal vesicles
A. testosterone
D. Kidney
B. estrogen
C. progesterone 158. A pair of oblong organs where sperm
cells are made.
D. FSH
A. Penis
153. What is the male gland that secretes B. Scrotum
testosterone?
C. Testicles
A. Ovaries
D. none of above
B. Pituitary
C. Testes 159. What part of male reproductive system
that function as a sac that holds the testes
D. Adrenal glands
at temperature below 37?
154. What is the part that expelled out the se- A. Vas deferens
men and the urine out of the body
B. Scrotum
A. Vas deferens
C. Penis
B. Testes
D. Prostate gland
C. Penis
D. Seminal Vesicle 160. The erectile tissue that is located on the
dorsal surface of the penis is the
155. An organ that functions as a producer of A. corpora cavernosa
fructose fluid which is used by sperm as a
source of energy during activities. B. corpus spongiosum
A. Seminal Vesicles C. penile urethra
B. Testis D. membranous urethra
C. Vas Deferens 161. The gametes that are made by males and
D. Prostate Gland that are needed to fertilize eggs.
E. Epididymis A. Sperm
B. Egg
156. A weakened or torn spot in the muscular
wall holding the small intestines in. C. Fallopian Tube
A. Testicular torsion D. Vas deferens

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1.24 Male Reproductive System 753

162. The male gamete, sperm, are formed in C. seminal vessicles

the D. prostate gland

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A. epididymis
168. The gland that regulates the control of
B. vas deferens spermatogenesis is
C. testes A. adrenal
D. prostate
B. hypothalamus
163. The process of making new sperm is C. testis
called:
D. pituitary
A. spermatogenesis
169. Approximately how many sperm cells are
B. spermatomaking
produced by each testicle daily by a mature
C. spermatoreguvination male?
D. spermatolysis A. 5, 000
164. The structures that produce the seminal B. 1
fluid is the C. 85 million
A. seminal vesicles & urethra D. 123, 685
B. seminal vesicles & prostate gland
170. The external organs of the male reproduc-
C. prostate gland & epididymis tive system are the:
D. prostate gland & testes A. testes and penis
165. The reproductive organs that produce B. scrotum and penis
sperm and testosterone C. foreskin and testes
A. prostate gland & seminal vesicle D. testes and urethra
B. testes or testicles
171. When the spermatic cord becomes
C. semen twisted around a testicle causing severe
D. none of above pain and even sterility
A. Testicular torsion
166. Which part of the male anatomy DOES
NOT help produce a part of the final semi- B. prostate cancer
nal fluid used in reproduction? C. inguinal hernia
A. Testicles D. testicular cancer
B. Seminal Vesicles
172. Which hormone stimulates enlargement
C. Prostate Gland of testes and causes development of sec-
D. Urethra ondary sex characteristics?

167. Which male reproductive structure sur- A. LH

rounds the urethra? B. Testosterone
A. bulbourethral gland C. FSH
B. testes D. Estrogen

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 1.25 Endocrine System 754

173. Which of the following secretes mucous? A. Cowper’s Gland

A. Bulbourethral gland B. Testicles
B. Seminal vesicle C. Bladder
C. Leydig cells
D. Penis
D. Scrotum
177. The two male reproductive organs that
174. The vas deferens is a continuation of the:
produce most of the fluids that make up

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. testis semen are called
B. scrotum A. Testes & Epididymis
C. epididymis
B. Seminal Vesicle & Prostate
D. urethra
C. Vas Deferens and Urethra
175. During spermatogenesis,
D. Scrotum and Penis
A. sperm are produced in the seminifer-
ous tubules of the testes and become ma- 178. What are the male sex cells (gametes)?
ture in the epididymis.
A. testes
B. sperm are produced in the epididymis
of the testes and become mature in the B. sperm
seminiferous tubules. C. seminiferous tubules
C. sperm are produced in the vas defer- D. prostate glands
ens of the testes and become mature in
the epididymis 179. The prostate gland is approximately the
D. sperm are produced in the vas defer- size of a:
ens of the testes and become mature in A. strawberry
the seminiferous tubules.
B. peanut
176. ( ) a tube like structure that functions in
C. grape
sexual reproduction and the elimination of
urine. D. baseball

1.25 Endocrine System

1. Hormone released by the thyroid glands A. Androgens
that promotes a decrease in blood calcium B. Adrenaline
levels.
C. Progesterone
A. cortisol
D. Follicle-stimulating hormone
B. calcitonin
C. glucagon 3. Which category of hormone binds to a re-
ceptor on a cell membrane and needs the
D. melatonin help of a second messanger?

2. What hormone is responsible for a flight- A. Steroid

or-fight response? B. Nonsteroid

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1.25 Endocrine System 755

C. both 9. Which of these organs is part of the En-

D. neither docrine system?
A. Takis

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4. This gland regulates sugar levels in the
B. Stomach
blood:
C. Testes
A. Ovaries
D. Diaphram
B. Thyroid
10. Primary hormone produced by the adrenal
C. Pancreas
medulla, also called adrenaline.
D. Adrenal A. epinephrine
5. This is a stage of sexual development dur- B. norepinephrine
ing which a person becomes sexually ma- C. histamine
ture and physically able to reproduce.
D. insulin
A. Adolescence
11. Group of cells that make special chemicals
B. Puberty for your body
C. Menopause A. hormones
D. Teenage B. cells

6. Which of these hormones stimulates the C. glands

contraction of the uterus during child- D. nerves
birth?
12. Regulates the level of calcium and phos-
A. Prolactin phorous; increases rate of metabolism
B. Oxytocin A. thyroid
C. Oestrogen B. pancreas
D. Progesterone C. pituitary
D. testes
7. The thyroid gland’s main job is to manage
your: 13. A nonsteroid hormone acts on target cell
by
A. Metabolism
A. causing a second messenger to be
B. Blood pressure
formed
C. Lymphatic system B. causing the cell to divide
D. None of them C. promoting phagocytosis
8. The parts of the Central Nervous System D. directly causing protein synthesis
are the 14. What hormone does the pancreas make
A. neurotransmitters and hormones that controls the level of glucose?
B. brain and spinal cord A. Insulin
C. internal organs and skeletal muscles B. Adrenaline
D. sympathetic and parasympathetic ner- C. Growth hormones
vous systems D. Sugar

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1.25 Endocrine System 756

15. The pituitary gland is located B. thyroid stimulating hormone

A. in the brain. C. antidiuretic hormone
B. in the neck. D. adrenocorticotropic hormone
C. above the kidneys. 21. What part of the brain controls automatic
D. above the heart. functions such as breathing and heart
rate?
16. A girl’s gonads, they are located in her
A. The Cerebrum

NARAYAN CHANGDER
pelvis. They produce eggs and secrete the
female hormones estrogen B. The Cerebellum
A. ovaries C. The Medulla
B. testes D. The Corpus Callosum

C. eggs 22. Place in order:A. cells send negative feed-

back to glandsB. hormones are released
D. scrotum
into the bloodC. hormones are absorbed by
17. What is the primary role of the hypothala- target cells
mus? A. A B C
A. to supply oxygen to the brain B. B A C
B. to connect the nervous system to the C. A C B
endocrine system D. B C A
C. to create and release growth hormone
23. What is your largest endocrine
D. to coordinate muscle movements gland:Hint:It’s found in your belly!
18. The “master gland” that controls all the A. Adrenal
other glands and helps you grow is known B. Tummy
as the
C. Pituitary
A. thyroid gland.
D. Pancreas
B. adrenal gland.
24. How does the Digestive System work with
C. pituitary gland.
the Endocrine System?
D. none of above A. Makes hormones for the thymus
19. Specialized epithelial tissue that secretes B. Sends hormones to the pancreas
a product directly into a hollow organ or C. Works with the pancreas to produce
duct. hormones.
A. exocrine gland D. Digests hormones
B. thyroid gland
25. What are the chemical messengers that
C. endocrine gland the endocrine system produces?
D. pineal gland A. proteins
20. Which of the following “does not be- B. hormones
long”? C. antibodies
A. growth hormone D. pathogens

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1.25 Endocrine System 757

26. Hormones produced by the gland reg- C. response to stress and injury
ulate oxygen consumption and the rate of D. all of the above
metabolism.

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A. adrenal 32. This hormone is produced by the Pituitary
Gland
B. pituitary
A. adrenaline
C. thymus
B. growth hormone
D. thyroid
C. testosterone
27. Which cell gets an impulse from the brain D. estrogen
to the muscles in order to respond to a sit-
uation? 33. Hormone produced by the adrenal glands
A. sensory neuron A. adrenalin
B. motor neuron B. thyroxine
C. axon neuron C. testosterone
D. dendrite neuron D. growth hormone

28. The gland is the gland that regresses 34. What does insulin do?
in size as one ages. A. Lowers Blood Sugar
A. adrenal B. Rasies Blood Sugar
B. pineal C. Lowers Blood Pressure
C. thymus D. Increases Blood Pressure
D. thyroid 35. This type of diabetes is called juvenile dia-
29. Which of the following is NOT a function betes or insulin-dependent diabetes.
of hormones? A. Type I
A. Reproduction B. Type II
B. Immunity C. Type III
C. Growth D. Type IV
D. Homeostasis 36. The excretory system’s functions are
30. Homeostasis is described as when the A. help the brain
body is B. control bodily functions
A. balanced C. get rid of waste
B. functioning below capacity D. regulate water in the body
C. functioning above capacity 37. The part of the urinary anatomy that is dif-
D. metabolising ferent in males and females
31. Which of the following is a function of the A. ureter
Endocrine System? B. urethra
A. growth and development C. bladder
B. maintaining homeostasis D. kidney

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1.25 Endocrine System 758

38. Luteinizing hormone is responsible for 44. Which are glands?

A. the way we see. A. Thyroid
B. gamete formation. B. Thymus
C. adrenaline.
C. Throat
D. the release of sex hormones.
D. Adrenal
39. What is a common problem with the en-
docrine system? 45. Which endocrine glands produces it’s hor-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Hemophilia mone in large quantities as a result of emo-
tional stimulation?
B. Diabetes
C. Lung Cancer A. Thyroid

D. Bad gas B. Adrenal cortex

40. Which hormone requires iodine and regu- C. Adrenal medulla

lates growth and development? D. Islets of Langerhans
A. Thyroxine
46. Which hormone regulates water balance
B. Calcitonin
by reducing the amount of water leaving
C. Insulin the body
D. Growth Hormone A. aldosterone
41. Which of the following terms “does not be- B. antidiuretic hormone
long”
C. growth hormone
A. thyroid gland
D. thyroxine
B. gonads
C. insulin 47. Iodine is added to table salt to help pre-
D. parathyroid vent deficiencies of an essential mineral
needed for the proper function of the
42. Organ located behind the stomach; se-
cretes digestive enzymes and bicarbonate A. parathyroid glands.
into the small intestine and the hormones B. thyroid glandthyroid gland.
insulin and glucagon into the bloodstream.
C. adrenal glands.
A. medulla
D. pancreas.
B. pancreas
C. glucagon 48. Feedback loops are important because
D. insulin they allow organisms and the environment
to
43. Which does the brain NOT do?
A. change based on new inputs
A. store and retrieve memories
B. process information B. fall apart

C. collect sound waves C. change based on new outputs

D. control involuntary activites D. maintain balance

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1.25 Endocrine System 759

49. What type of hormones can pass through C. thymus

the lipid membrane of a cell? D. ovaries

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A. Steroid hormones
55. Gland that increases the rate at which you
B. Nonsteroid hormones use energy
C. both A. thymus
D. neither B. adrenal
50. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is stored in C. thyroid
the pituitary gland is responsible for the D. none of above
retention of
A. gas 56. This is the oversecretion of glucocorticoids.
Adrenal tumor.
B. salt
A. graves disease
C. minerals
B. addison’s disease
D. water
C. exophthalmos
51. The pituitary gland is called this D. cushings syndrome
A. least important
57. Which gland is located on the kidneys?
B. adrenals
A. adrenal
C. master gland
B. parathyroid
D. thymus
C. thymus
52. Hyperthyroidism and is caused by an over- D. pineal
active thyroid gland.
58. Gland located on top of the Kidneys pro-
A. wells syndrome
duces a hormone called adrenaline that
B. graves disease controls the body’s response to stress,
C. williams syndrome A. Thyroid gland
D. exophthalmos B. Parathyroid glands
53. The ideal concentrationof glucose in the C. Adrenal gland
blood is normally maintained by two fur- D. Pancreas
ther hormones
59. What is the job of Anti-diuretic hormone
A. Insulin and glucagon
(ADH)?
B. Insulin and testosteron
A. A hormone that promotes the kidneys
C. Insulin and estrogen to absorb more water.
D. none of above B. A hormone secreted by the pituitary
gland that stimulates ovulation stimulates
54. Which gland is located closest to the hu- the production of androgen by the testes.
man brain?
C. A hormone created by the pituitary
A. thyroid gland stored in the posterior pituitary
B. pituitary gland.

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1.25 Endocrine System 760

D. A hormone that increases growth in an- D. occipital

imal or plant cells, especially used by ani-
mals. 65. Which gland secretes the thymosin hor-
mone that helps in the development of the
60. What receives impulses & conducts them immune system?
to the cell body? A. Ovaries
A. Neurons
B. Testes
B. Somas
C. Pituitary

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Dendrites
D. Thymus
D. Axon Terminals
66. Which is not a part of the endocrine sys-
61. Are chemicals that travel in the blood and tem?
cause changes in different parts of the
A. Pancreas
body
B. Hormones
A. Hormones
C. Glands
B. Glands
C. Parathyroid D. Lungs

D. Adrenal Gland 67. You hit a growth spurt and find that
you’ve grown three inches over the sum-
62. Hypothalamus mer! What gland is involved in this sce-
A. is an endocrine gland that transports nario?
oxytocin and vassopresin to the pituitary A. Pituitary
gland for storage.
B. Pancreas
B. is an endocrine gland that stores oxy-
tocin and vasopressin. C. Thymus
C. is a hormone that controls the brain D. none of above
into having certain dreams in sleep.
68. Throughout the year you’ve found that
D. is a hormone that determines the en- you feel tired and sluggish and you’ve put
ergy levels of a person. on some extra weight. What gland might
be the cause of this?
63. Which gland is the female sex gland?
A. Pituitary
A. ovary
B. Thyroid
B. thyroid
C. Adrenal
C. testes
D. none of above
D. pituitary
69. links the nervous system with the en-
64. Lobe that is involved in sensing touch, as
docrine system.
well as spatial processing, language, and
memory. A. thymus
A. frontal B. hypothalamus
B. temporal C. parathyroid
C. parietal D. pituitary

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1.25 Endocrine System 761

70. Hormone produced by the thymus C. Parasympathetic nervous system

A. thyroxin D. Somatic nervous system

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B. testosterone 76. A type of cell communication of which
C. thymus chemical messengers are released and di-
D. thymosin rectly carried in the bloodstream to near
or distant cells bearing the appropriate re-
71. a disease by which people cannot control ceptors.
sugar levels in the blood A. direct
A. hypertension B. endocrine
B. sleep apnea C. paracrine
C. diabetes D. synaptic
D. hyperthyroidism
77. Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) is pro-
72. Lobe that interprets vision (visual percep- duced by the gland.
tion). A. adrenal
A. parietal B. hypothalamus
B. temporal C. pituitary
C. frontal D. ovarian
D. occipital
78. An Organ That Secretes Specialized Chem-
73. Maintaining a constant body temp, supply icals Into The Bloodstream.
of glucose, amount of water, and pH are A. systems
performed by which mechanism of the fol-
lowing? B. glands

A. Negative feedback C. cells

B. Enzymatic activity D. tissues

C. Positive feedback 79. The thyroid gland is located over the

D. Chemical digestion A. hypothalamus

74. Type 1 diabetes is related to an imbalance B. kidneys

in which hormone? C. thymus
A. insulin D. trachea
B. adrenaline 80. Scientist studying memory want to know
C. melatonin whether a set of numbers (24156) or a
D. estrogen set of letters (BJRFS) is easier to remem-
ber. What would be one constant (or con-
75. What part of the nervous system is re- trolled) variable that the scientist would
sponsible for restoring the body back to use in this investigation?
normal functioning after arousal? A. number of correct answers
A. Central nervous system B. the length of the sets-5 numbers and 5
B. Sympathetic nervous system letters

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1.25 Endocrine System 762

C. height of the people being tested 86. The hormone that lowers blood sugar is:
D. none of above A. Insulin
81. How does the Circulatory System work B. Glucagon
with the Endocrine System?
C. Cortisol
A. Makes hormones
D. GnRH
B. Sends hormones to organs and cells
87. What hormones are produced by the pan-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Sends energy to tissue
creas?
D. Sends messages to the brain
A. Testosterone
82. All of the following are ways to control
hormone levels EXCEPT; B. Insulin and Glucagon
A. neural control C. Epinephrine
B. humoral control D. Calctonin
C. hormonal control
88. Hormone formed by the pancreas; raises
D. femoral control the glucose level of blood by stimulating
83. What element is needed to produce proper the liver to break down glycogen.
amounts of Thyronine (T3) and Thyroxine A. pancreas
(T4)?
B. hormone
A. Iodine
C. histamine
B. Iron
C. Calcium D. glucagon

D. Zinc 89. Group of glands that act as body’s master

regulator; affects growth, metabolism, &
84. Location:below the thalamus It is about
reproduction
the size of an almond. It is responsible
for maintaining your body’s internal bal- A. Integumentary System
ance. Is considered the link between the
B. Endocrine System
nervous system and the endocrine system.
Called the “Gate-Keeper” C. Nervous System
A. Pituitary gland D. Lymphatic & Immune System
B. Hypothalamus
90. One reason a person might be severely
C. Thyroid gland
overweight is due to
D. Pancreas
A. an undersecretion of thyroxine.
85. The gland produces melatonin. B. a defect in hormone release from the
A. thymus posterior pituitary.
B. adrenal C. a lower than normal level of insulin-
C. pineal like growth factors.
D. pituitary D. hyposecretion of oxytocin.

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1.25 Endocrine System 763

91. As a general rule, hormone concentrations A. a group of organs and glands that pro-
are controlled by duce hormones.

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A. positive feedback B. hormones
B. negative feedback C. organs
C. thermostats D. glands
D. cellular demands 97. This duct unites with the Common Bile Duct
to enter the duodenum;
92. Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) is re-
sponsible for the A. Duct of Mansini
A. production of milk B. Duct of Hobbs
B. production of sperm C. Duct of Wirsung
C. release of eggs by the ovaries D. Duct of Santorini
D. response in an emergency 98. What is Oxytocin responsible for?
93. This gland is largest in young children and A. Labor Contractions
shrinks with age. B. Regulating Heart Rate
A. thyroid gland C. Milk Production
B. thymus gland D. Maintaing BP
C. pineal gland
99. targets mammary glands which promotes
D. pituitary gland the production of milk in mammals
94. This gland is located between the lungs be- A. growth hormone
hind the sternum and secretes thymosin B. prolactin
that helps mature WBC’s in our bodies
when we are children. C. progesterone

A. thyroid D. parathyroid hormone

B. parathyroid 100. What is the change of a cell membrane

C. thymus from positive to negative called?

D. brain stem A. Glycolysis

B. Action Potential
95. Which hormone controls the rate glucose is
burned and converted into chemical energy C. Temporal Summation
(metabolism)? D. Electrolysis
A. Glucagon 101. If you have diabetes, you most likely
B. Parathyroid hormone have a problem with this hormone.
C. Adrenaline A. ADH
D. Thyroxine B. Glucagon

96. The Endocrine system is composed of C. Insulin

what? D. PTH

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1.25 Endocrine System 764

102. Lobe that understands words and lan- C. increases blood glucos
guage. Also involved in visual memory. D. programs “T” lymphocytes
A. occipital
108. Known as the “Little Brain” and is in
B. temporal
charge of balance and coordinating move-
C. frontal ments
D. parietal A. Thalamus

NARAYAN CHANGDER
103. How does the endocrine system work B. Reticular Formation
with the skeletal system? C. Hypothalamus
A. To help breath D. Cerebellum
B. to help digest
109. How does the Nervous System work
C. to help bone growth with the Endocrine System?
D. to help fend of viruses
A. Sends energy to cells
104. Prolactin is a hormone associated with B. Works with the pancreas
C. Sends endocrine information through
A. the growth of bones. the blood
B. the release of an egg by the ovary D. Uses neurons, endocrine chemicals,
C. the production of milk and hormones
D. stimulation of the thyroid gland 110. What gland produces prolactin?
105. A characteristic of hormones is they A. Pancreas
A. Work more quickly than the nervous B. Thyroid
system.
C. Pituitary Gland
B. Work more slowly than the nervous
D. Adrenal Glands
system.
C. Have narrower effects than the ner- 111. Which hormone stimulates milk produc-
vous system. tion?
D. Travel along nerves. A. FSH-follicle stimulating hormone

106. What is the biggest endocrine gland in B. PRL prolactin

the body? C. TSH thyroid stimulating hormone
A. pituitary D. GH growth hormone
B. adrenal
112. What gland controls body temperature
C. pancreas and feelings of sleep and hunger?
D. hypothalamus A. Testies
107. The thymus gland B. Ovaries
A. reduces blood calcium level C. Pituitary
B. raises blood calcium level D. Hypothalamus

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1.25 Endocrine System 765

113. What gland secretes thyroxin causing 118. Hormone that stimulates the production
metabolism to increase? of proteins and in consecuence develop-
ment of the body

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A. Thyroid
B. Parathyroid A. Prolactine

C. Adrenal B. Thyrosine

D. Pancreas C. Follicle Stimulating Hormone

D. Growth Hormone
114. What are hormones?
A. chemical messages released by 119. Male reproductive Glands
glands in the endocrine system A. Ovaries
B. impulses that travel to neurons and de- B. Tetses
liver messages
C. Eggs
C. muscles in the intestines that cause
peristalsis D. Gonads
D. tissues in the endocrine system that 120. What is the function of the glands in the
send chemical messages endocrine system?
115. The autonomic nervous system is one A. Act as a messenger to the cell
branch of the B. Sends information through the nerves
A. Central nervous system C. Monitors the bloodstream for chemi-
B. Somatic nervous system cal imbalances and releases hormones
C. Peripheral nervous system D. Removes liquid waste from the body
D. Sympathetic nervous system 121. Messages are transmitted from one neu-
116. Which of the following describes the sim- ron to another through the:
ilarity between the nervous system and A. axon terminal of one neuron to the
the endocrine system? axon terminal of another neuron.
A. The signal is in the form of electrical B. dendrites of one neuron to the den-
impulses drites of another neuron.
B. The response is slow and prolonged C. synapses of one neuron to the axon
C. Contains target tissues or target or- terminal of another neuron.
gans D. axon terminals of one neuron to the
D. Consists of ductless glands dendrites of other neurons.

117. How many organs/glands are in the En- 122. This is the undersecretion of the adrenal
docrine System glands.
A. 7 A. cushing’s syndrome
B. 4 B. graves disease
C. 32 C. addison’s disease
D. 9 D. goiter

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1.25 Endocrine System 766

123. Damage to the medulla would most likely 129. What is the largest area of the brain that
result in controls everything conscious?
A. impaired planning abilities A. Cerebellum
B. death B. Cerebrum
C. a coma C. Diencephalon
D. blindness D. Brain Stem
124. The endocrine system is in charge of 130. Hormone producing glands located atop

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. giving signals to nerves. the kidneys. Each consists of medulla and
cortex areas.
B. controlling and regulating body pro-
cesses chemically through hormones. A. adrenal cortex
C. the excretion of waste. B. adrenal medulla
D. breaking down nutrients. C. adrenal glands
D. pineal gland
125. Where does the root “endo” come
from? 131. A group of cells that produces and se-
A. Russian cretes, or gives off, chemicals.
B. Latin A. Glands
C. Greek B. Hormones
D. Welsh C. Cells
D. thymus
126. Which part of the brain controls balance
and body position? 132. The adrenal glands give you several hor-
A. cerebrum mones. One is that triggers the bodies
stress response of fight or flight.
B. medulla
A. testosteone
C. cerebellum
B. Luteinizing hormone
D. impluses
C. Follicle-stimulating hormone
127. Which gland produces prolactin? D. Adrenalin
A. Pituitary Gland
133. Endocrine glands secrete
B. Parathyroid
A. Hormones
C. Thyroid
B. Neurotransmitters
D. Pineal Gland
C. A wide range of chemical substances
128. Which of the following physiologic func- D. none of above
tions is not regulated by anterior pituitary
hormones? 134. This hormone lowers blood sugar levels
A. Growth A. norepinephrine
B. Thyroid function B. epinephrine
C. Sleep C. glucagon
D. Reproduction D. insulin

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1.25 Endocrine System 767

135. What do we call the effect of a hormone C. testes

that the release of the hormone? D. adrenal

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A. glands
141. What do the Adrenal glands do?
B. hormones
A. Release hormones that control blood
C. positive feedback sugar levels
D. negative feedback B. Release hormones that produce sperm
136. How many different hormones are there C. Release hormones which stimulate T
in the human body? cell devolpment
A. 73 D. Release hormones which help the body
respond to stress
B. 50
C. 29 142. What gland secretes thyroxin which
causes metabolism to increase?
D. 47
A. Thyroid
137. What is the hormone that the pancreas
B. Parathyroid
secretes that controls the amount of glu-
cose in our bodies? C. Adrenal
A. testosterone D. Pancreas
B. growth hormone 143. Hormones work on a system called the
C. insulin feed back system.

D. progesterone A. negative
B. positive
138. What do parathyroids regulate in the
body? C. alternating

A. Growth hormone D. automatice

B. Calcium 144. A condition in which the thyroid gland

produces TOO much of the thyroid hor-
C. Antidiuretic
mones and many body systems become
D. none of above too active. Can cause rapid unhealthy
weight loss
139. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
from the pituitary stimulates the A. Hypothyroidism
glands to release B. Hyperthyroidism
A. Pineal, cortisol C. Testosterone
B. Adrenal, cortisol D. Estrogen
C. Pineal, TSH
145. Which Endocrine gland plays a role in the
D. Adrenal, TSH digestive system?
140. This gland releases the male sex hormone A. Thymus
testosterone. B. Pancreas
A. ovaries C. Adrenal glands
B. pancreas D. Ovaries

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1.25 Endocrine System 768

146. Triangular shaped glands located on top 152. When there’s not enough energy avail-
of the kidneys. able, the hypothalamus signals the pitu-
A. pineal glands itary gland to release

B. carrillo glands A. thyroxine

B. thyroid stimulating hormone
C. vincent glands
C. hormones
D. adrenal glands
D. testosterone

NARAYAN CHANGDER
147. Which is the master gland?
153. The emergency hormone to face the dan-
A. pineal ger or to fight is secreted by:
B. pituitary A. Adrenal medulla
C. adrenal B. Adrenal cortex
D. thyroid C. Islets of Langerhans
148. What type of cell produces insulina? D. Pituitary
A. D cell 154. Increases heart rate, breathing rate and
B. G cell blood pressure when you get a fright
C. B cell A. adrenals
D. none of above B. thyroid
C. parathyroid
149. What gland produces e pinephrine, which
is better known as adrenaline? D. pancreas

A. Thyroid 155. What part of the Endocrine System rec-

ognize the chemical products from the
B. Adrenal glands
glands?
C. Thymus
A. Hormones
D. Pineal
B. Glands
150. The electrical signal within one neuron C. Receptors
travels from D. none of above
A. Axon Terminal to Dendrite
156. Which two endocrine glands regulate
B. Dendrite to Axon Terminal other endocrine glands?
C. Cell Body to Axon A. Thyroid and adrenal glands
D. Axon Terminal to Cell Body B. Thyroid and pituitary
151. Select the word part that means “kid- C. Hypothalamus and thyroid
ney” D. Hypothalamus and pituitary
A. nephr/o
157. Thyroid hormone is a hormone
B. cyst/o recorgnized by what type of receptor?
C. pyel/o A. cytoplasmic receptor
D. ur/o B. cell membrane receptor

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1.25 Endocrine System 769

C. nuclear receptor 163. What do we call the effect of a hormone

that causes more of the hormone to be re-
D. Enzyme-linked
leased?

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158. Which of the following is an example of A. glands
a gland? B. hormones
A. Heart C. positive feedback
B. Pancreas D. negative feedback
C. Stomach 164. The GI tract produces a hormone, ,
D. Kidneys which aids in digestion.
A. triiodothyronine
159. What is a network of tissues and organs
that release chemicals that control certain B. gastrin
body functions? C. thyroxine
A. Endocrine System D. thymosin
B. Nervous System 165. Cells that have receptors for a particular
C. Body System hormone.

D. Organ System A. gland cells

B. neurons
160. What is the main female hormone? C. hormones
A. testosterone D. target cells
B. estrogen
166. Which endocrine glands are found in the
C. oxytocin brain?
D. adrenaline A. Pituitary
B. Hypothalamus
161. The location of the thymus gland is behind
the C. Thryroid

A. trachea D. Adrenal
E. Pancreas
B. esophagus
C. sternum 167. The chemicals produced by endocrine
glands are called:
D. thyroid gland
A. Target Cells
162. Which system helps hormones travel B. Hormones
through the body?
C. Negative Feedback
A. Nerves system D. Neurotransmitters
B. Respiratory system
168. It is an organ that produces and releases
C. Muscular system a secretion.
D. Circulatory system A. Gland

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1.25 Endocrine System 770

B. Liver B. when there isn’t enough calcium in

C. Bladder your bloodstream

D. Thyroid C. when you’re threatened by a school-

yard bully
169. Which of these hormones is produced by D. when you’ve had too much to eat
the pancreas?
A. insulin 175. Disease characterized by a high blood
sugar concentration and glucose in the

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. parathyroid
urine, caused by either deficient insulin
C. melatonin production (Type 1) or insufficient glucose
D. growth uptake by cells (Type 2)
A. adrenal glands
170. Progesterone is secreted by
B. pineal gland
A. testicles
B. Pancreas C. target cell

C. Ovary D. diabetes mellitus

D. The anterior lobe of the pituitary gland 176. How does the negative-feedback system
work?
171. Disease that occurs when the pancreas
does not make enough insulin A. It’s having a negative attitude
A. Cushing Syndrome B. It’s having a positive attitude
B. Diabetes C. It’s the body’s way of balancing; home-
ostasis
C. Hypertrophia
D. It’s the body’s way of being unbal-
D. Hypotension
anced.
172. Where is the melatonin produced?
177. Gland located in the front part of the
A. Pancreas lower neck, is shaped like a bow tie or but-
B. Pineal Gland terfly produces thyroxine Plays a major
C. Hypothalmius role in the metabolism, growth and mat-
uration of the human body.
D. Ovary
A. Thyroid
173. Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune dis- B. Pancreas
order that impacts the gland.
C. Pituitary
A. pineal
D. Adrenal
B. adrenal
C. thymus 178. Ductless gland that secretes one or more
hormones into the bloodstream.
D. thyroid
A. endocrine system
174. In what scenario might your body release
adrenaline? B. exocrine system

A. when you’re waking up from a long C. adrenal glands

night’s sleep D. endocrine gland

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1.25 Endocrine System 771

179. What does melatonin do? 185. What is the primary function of the Pitu-
itary Gland?
A. Raises our blood sugar

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A. To control the other glands.
B. Regulates our blood pressure
B. To regulate sleep cycles.
C. Regulates our metabolism
C. To regulate the metabolism.
D. Regulates our sleep cycle
D. To interact with the nervous system.
180. Where are the adrenal glands located?
186. Communication through bloodstream to
A. One on each side of the larynx distant cells.
B. On top of the kidneys A. Endocrine Communication
C. Behind the orbital bone B. Direct Communication
D. The inner ear C. Paracrine Communication
D. Autocrine Communication
181. Where is testosterone made?
187. Maintaining a constant body temp, sup-
A. Ovaries
ply of glucose, amount of water, and pH
B. Pituitary gland are examples of
C. Testis A. negative feedback
D. none of above B. enzymes and substrates
C. positive feedback
182. Organ that holds urine until it leaves the
body D. chemical digestion

A. Bladder 188. Which hormone is responsible for stimu-

lating the cells of the body to rapidly di-
B. Ureter
vide?
C. Urethra
A. FSH
D. none of above B. GH
183. this hormone stores sugar in the liver and C. TSH
muscles when sugar levels are high D. LH
A. insulin
189. Which endocrine gland secretes testos-
B. glucagon terone?
C. T3 A. Ovaries
D. melatonin B. Pituitary
C. Testes
184. Example of exocrine gland
D. Adrenal
A. insuline
190. What gland deals with stimulating the
B. Adrenaline
adrenal glands to produce certain hor-
C. Hystamine mones?
D. Sweat Gland A. Parathyroid

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1.25 Endocrine System 772

B. Pineal Body 196. A very tiny gland of the endocrine sys-

C. Pituitary tem, a gland that controls many body ac-
tivities.
D. Thyroid
A. hormone
191. An example of a reflex action includes B. pituitary gland
A. Touching a butterfly C. hypothalamus
B. Brushing your hand against the side of D. adrenal gland

NARAYAN CHANGDER
your body
197. Liquid waste from the kidneys is
C. Touching a hot stove
A. mucus
D. Your legs moving as you walk
B. urine
192. The nervous system interacts with the
C. urethra
system when it send a message to
the adrenal glands to release the hormone D. perspiration
“adrenaline” into our blood.
198. Glucagon is released in response to:
A. endocrine
A. low blood glucose levels
B. skeletal
B. high blood glucose levels
C. muscular
C. low blood salt levels
D. digestive D. low blood calcium levels
193. Which hormone helps create male sex 199. Region of the brain forming the floor
characteristics and sperm production? of the third ventricle; helps regulate the
A. Thyroxine body’s internal environment by secreting
B. Testosterone releasing factors that affect the secretion
of hormones of the anterior pituitary.
C. Estrogen
A. hypothalamus
D. Progesterone
B. hyperthyroidism
194. There are main hormone-producing C. hypothyroidism
glands in the body.
D. thymus gland
A. 7
200. The function that allows the body to elim-
B. 16
inate salt, waste, and excess water and
C. 10 heat is:
D. 8 A. absorption
195. Which of the following might indicate B. excretion
that a person is dehydrated? C. production
A. Sugar in the urine D. none of above
B. Blood in the urine 201. Your endocrine system does what in your
C. Dark color of urine puberty years?
D. Light color of urine A. makes me grow taller

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1.25 Endocrine System 773

B. changes my voice 207. The condition that occurs when the body
C. makes me grow a beard does NOT produce enough insulin is
A. anemia

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D. all of the above
B. diabetes
202. An organ that releases hormones directly C. hypoglycemia
into the bloodstream is called:
D. cardiac arrest
A. Hormone
208. Which gland is considered the master
B. Target Cell gland?
C. Endocrine Gland A. Pitutiary Gland
D. Negative Feedback B. Pineal Gland

203. Gland that controls how slow or fast you C. Adrenal Gland
use energy D. Parathyroid
A. pituitary 209. This is the master gland.
B. thyroid A. pituitary gland
C. thymus B. okleshen gland
D. adrenal C. bruk gland
D. hypothalamus
204. What is the LARGEST of the 3 parts of
your brain? 210. Diabetes occurs when your doesn’t
work correctly.
A. cerebellum
A. thyroid
B. cerebrum
B. pancreas
C. spinal cord
C. pituitary
D. medulla D. adrenals
205. Which of the following Endocrine glands 211. This is the enlargement of features after
is not found in the Brain? childbirth; oversecretion of Growth Hor-
A. Pituitary mone after growing has stopped.

B. Pineal A. dwarfism
B. addison’s disease
C. Hypothalamus
C. acromegaly
D. Thymus
D. Clark’s disease
206. What is a hormone?
212. The process by which an organism’s inter-
A. term used for people that are growing nal environment is kept stable in spite of
B. special chemical messages located on changes in the external environment.
the endocrine glands A. Positive Feedback
C. special cells that send signals to the B. Negative Feedback
brain C. Homeostasis
D. used in reproduction D. Targeted Cells

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1.25 Endocrine System 774

213. What are the testes? C. thyroid

A. control menstrual cycle D. pancreas
B. produces hormones to control blood 219. Produces female sex characteristics
sugar level
A. thymus
C. control blood pressure
B. ovaries
D. control male characteristics
C. thyroid
214. The pituitary gland is most similar to:

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. testes
A. a worker in a factory
220. A tissue or group of tissues that make
B. a mail carrier
and releases hormones.
C. the boss of a big office
A. Endocrine System
D. a security guard
B. Pancreas
215. Hormone that is important in bone C. Flight or Fight Response
growth and menopause and is produced by
D. Glands
the ovaries;
A. testosterone 221. What gland found in the brain produces
melatonin?
B. insulin
A. Pineal
C. estrogen
B. Pituitary
D. prolactin
C. Thymus
216. Which of these activities is related to the
D. Thyroid
endocrine system?
A. Filtering the blood to remove un- 222. Controls cardiac and respiratory function.
wanted waste A. midbrain
B. Maintaining chemical balances within B. pons
the body
C. brainstem
C. Exchanging carbon dioxide for oxygen
D. medulla oblongata
D. Controlling and sending all electrical
impulses to our nerves 223. Stores Urine
A. Kidney
217. The hormone that targets bones and mus-
cles is B. Urinary Bladder
A. antidiuretic hormone (ADH) C. Liver
B. growth hormone (GH) D. Ureter
C. prolactin (PRL) 224. Controls glucose levels in blood
D. leutinizing hormone (LH) A. Parathyroid
218. Insulin is released by the B. Pancreas
A. adrenal glands C. Pituitary gland
B. liver D. Hypothalamus

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1.25 Endocrine System 775

225. The hormone secreted by the adrenal 231. System of the body that plays a role
medulla in response to a stressor is: in regulating mood, growth and develop-
ment, tissue function, metabolism, and

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A. Aldosterone
sexual function and reproductive pro-
B. Cortisol cesses.
C. Epinephrine A. Nervous System
D. ACTH B. Reproductive Syatem
226. Chemical made by glands C. Endocrine System
A. enzymes D. Respiratory System
B. cells 232. Refers to underactivity of the thyroid
C. hormones gland which can slow body growth, al-
D. none of above ter brain development, delay puberty and
cause edema, lethargy, weight gain, and
227. is a hormone that helps to break low body temperature; treated with thy-
down glucose. roxine pills.
A. Parathyroid hormone (PTH) A. hypothalamus
B. Thymosin B. thyroxine
C. Triiodothyronine C. hyperthyroidism
D. Insulin D. hypothyroidism
228. What are the five functions of the En- 233. Caused by under secretion of an antidi-
docrine system? uretic hormone; always thirsty
A. water, protein, storage, balance and A. graves disease
breathing B. addison’s disease
B. 3 C. diabetes insipidus
C. growth, reproduction, metabolism, be- D. colladamegaly
havior, and water-electrolyte-nutrient bal-
ance. 234. What are the three parts of the brain?
D. 5 A. Brain Cell, Cerebrum, Brain Organs
229. Insulin is produced by B. Cerebrum, Neurons, Nerve Cells
A. the liver C. Cerebrum, Cerebellum, brain stem

B. the pancreas D. none of above

C. the kidneys 235. Which of the following is not a character-

D. none of above istics of hormone?
A. It can works on more than one target
230. The thyroid gland produces organ.
A. T3 B. It is protein in nature.
B. T4 C. It is transported via the blood stream
C. Prolactin D. It has only a long term effect on the
D. Calcitonin biological system.

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1.25 Endocrine System 776

236. Which gland helps respond to stress and C. Prolactin

danger? D. Thyroxine (T4)
A. Thyroid
242. The adrenal glands release adrenaline to
B. Adrenal help the body regulate
C. Pancreas A. diseases
D. Parathyroid B. body temperature.
237. What effect does adrenaline have on the

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. stress.
body? D. hormones.
A. Causes heart and breathing rate to in-
crease. 243. The endocrine system relies on the of
the circulatory system to deliver its’ mes-
B. Causes heart and breathing rate to de-
sage to target cells in the body
crease.
A. insulin
C. Has no effect on heart and breathing
rate. B. axon
D. none of above C. blood
D. terminal branches
238. Hormones cause specific effects by
A. Flooding the entire body 244. Neuroendocrine gland located just below
the hypothalamus of the brain; with the
B. Targeting specific parts of the brain
anterior and posterior lobes secretes eight
C. Targeting specific groups of cells in the hormones.
body
A. pituitary gland
D. Spreading through the nervous system
B. thymus gland
239. This gland regulates blood sugar in the C. pineal gland
body.
D. thyroid gland
A. Pancreas
245. The master gland of the endocrine system
B. Ovaries
is the gland.
C. Adrenal
A. pineal
D. Parathyroid
B. pituitary
240. Where are hormones secreted out of? C. thyroid
A. liver D. thymus
B. gall bladder
246. Thousands of second receptors release
C. glands per 1 hormone attached to G protein in
D. none of above plasma membrane is called:

241. The hormone for mammary glands to pro- A. duplication

duce milk is called B. receptor cascade
A. Vasopressin C. amplification
B. Oxytocin D. hydration

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1.25 Endocrine System 777

247. How many major glands are there in the D. Pancreas does not function correctly
endocrine system?
253. Birth contractions, increasing milk supply,

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A. 7 and clotting of a cut are examples of
B. 10 A. negative feedback
C. 8 B. mechanical digestion
D. 11 C. positive feedback
248. Adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH) is D. excretion
produced by the and targets the
254. What do your adrenals do?
A. pituitary, adrenal A. secrete insulin
B. adrenal, hypothalamus B. Give you Superman strength for fight
C. adrenal, pituitary or flight
D. adrenal, kidneys C. change your voice
249. Hormones that are secreted by the pos- D. none of above
terior pituitary gland are made in the 255. The hormones of the play a role in
A. cerebrum regulating metabolism.
B. cerebellum A. thymus gland
C. hypothalamus B. parathyroid gland
D. thalamus C. thyroid gland
D. pineal gland
250. the regulates the amount of calcium
in the blood. 256. Birth contractions, increasing milk supply,
A. parathyroid and clotting of a cut are examples of
B. thyroid A. negative feedback
C. adrenal B. mechanical digestion
D. hypothalamus C. positive feedback
D. excretion
251. Which hormone is NOT produced by the
pituitary gland 257. What hormone prevents water loss?
A. Thyroxin A. Growth hormone
B. FSH B. Vasopressin
C. TSH C. Oxytocin
D. Growth hormone D. T3

252. What is Metabolic Disorder? 258. Which of these hormones is NOT pro-
duced in the pituitary gland?
A. Metabolism does not function properly
A. Follicle stimulating hormone
B. Hypothalamus does not function prop-
erly B. Luteinizing hormone
C. Pituitary Gland does not function prop- C. Oxytocin
erly D. Melatonin

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1.25 Endocrine System 778

259. Which hormone induces a positive feed- C. Esophagus, Stomach, Small and large
back mechanism by causing increasing fre- instestine
quency of contractions during childbirth D. Pineal gland, Thyroid gland, Adrenal
A. prolactin gland, and pancreas
B. progesterone 265. Which endocrine disorder is correctly
C. oxytocin matched with the malfunctioning gland?
D. estrogen A. diabetes insipidus and the posterior pi-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
tuitary gland
260. Where are hormones produced (made)
B. giantism and the posterior pituitary
A. Glands gland
B. Bloodstream C. goiter and the adrenal medulla
C. Target organs D. diabetes mellitus and the parathyroid
D. none of above glands

261. Hormone of which its production in fowl 266. Which section of the brain controls
such as chicken is triggered by increased breathing and heart beat?
light. A. cerebellum
A. LH B. cerebrum
B. estrogen C. brain stem
C. FSH D. cortex
D. oxytocin
267. The three main types of diabetes are
262. How do glial cells help the brain func- A. Type 1
tion?
B. Type 2
A. They release hormones into the blood.
C. Type 3
B. They gather information.
D. Type 4
C. They send and receive electrical sig-
nals. E. Gestational diabetes

D. They protect and support neurons. 268. The parathyroid hormone (PTH) regu-
lates
263. Which gland can only be found in fe-
males? A. calcium and iodine

A. ovary B. iodine and phosphate

B. testes C. calcium and phosphate

C. pancreas D. salt

D. adrenal 269. What is the gland that secretes insulin?

264. What are some major organs of the En- A. pituitary

docrine system? B. adrenal
A. Heart and blood vessels C. pancreas
B. Mouth, Lungs, Bronchi, and Trachea D. testes

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1.25 Endocrine System 779

270. An increase in hormone A causes an in- 276. Which of these is not produced in the pi-
crease in hormone B, which then causes a tuitary gland?
decrease in A.

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A. follicle stimulating hormone
A. failure to maintain homeostasis B. luteinizing hormone
B. feedback mechanism C. oxytocin
C. disruption in cellular communication D. melatonin
D. breakdown of chemicals
277. The produce the hormone, erythropoi-
271. How do hormones travel to target cells? etin, which increases the production of red
blood cells.
A. Blood Stream
A. kidneys
B. Ducts
B. heart
C. Secretory Vessicles
C. lungs
D. Goblet Cells
D. brain
272. Which hormone helps regulate a woman’s
menstrual cycle? 278. These are the types of cell membrane re-
ceptors except?
A. Thyroxine
A. nuclear receptor
B. Testerone
B. enzyme-linked receptor
C. Estrogen
C. G-protein couple receptor
D. Progesterone
D. ion channel-linked receptor
273. The gland that controls regulation of
metabolic rate is the: 279. What is the function of the parathyroid
gland?
A. Thyroid
A. produces hormones that influence the
B. Parathyroids metabolic rate
C. Pancreas B. decreases the blood calcium
D. Adrenal Glands C. increases the blood calcium levels
274. The response to stress is called D. decreases the bone calcium levels
A. Stay or Stray Response 280. Which gland is also called the master
B. Fight or Stay Response gland?
C. Flee or Stray Response A. Pituitary gland
D. Fight or Flight Response B. Thyroid gland
C. Adrenal gland
275. What is the Endocrine System?
D. Ovary
A. glands that produce hormones
B. makes blood pump through the body 281. This gland is often called the “master
gland” and it controls many of your bodies
C. lets you excrete waste from your body functions. It also tells other glands when
D. forms bones in your body to produces their hormones.

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1.25 Endocrine System 780

A. Thymus C. Down Syndrome

B. Pituitary D. Hirschhorn Syndrome
C. Adrenal
287. This is the lowering of the blood sugar
D. Pancreas levels that deprive the body of glucose.
282. Damage to the cerebral cortex in frontal A. hypoglycemia
lobe would most likely result in B. hyperglycemia

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. diminished planning abilities C. hypothyroidism
B. death
D. Taylor’s syndrome
C. blindess
288. Tube where urine is carried out of the
D. coma
body
283. What is an advantage that the endocrine A. Urethra
system has over the nervous system?
B. Liver
A. It acts instantly
C. Kidney
B. It has long lasting effects
D. Ureter
C. It has short term effects
D. It will effect any cell it comes into con- 289. Peptide hormones that are 200 amino
tact with acids long + carbohydrate side chain

284. Which endocrine gland secretes estrogen A. Eicosanoids

and progesterone? B. Glycoproteins
A. Adrenal C. Short Polypeptides
B. Pancreas D. Small Proteins
C. Thymus
290. This hormone is secreted by the pineal
D. Ovaries gland and regulates the sleep cycle.
285. A neurotransmitter and adrenal A. Aldosterone
medullary hormone, associated with sym-
B. Glucagon
pathetic nervous system activation.
C. Melatonin
A. epinephrine
B. insulin D. Thymosin

C. norepinephrine 291. Neurotransmitter is to as hormone is

D. exocrine gland to
A. central nervous system peripheral
286. Syndrome that occurs when the pitu-
nervous system
itary gland makes too much of the hor-
mone ACTH. ACTH then signals the adrenal B. peripheral nervous system central
glands to produce too much cortisol. nervous system
A. Diabetes C. endocrine system nervous system
B. Cushing Syndrome D. nervous system endocrine system

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1.25 Endocrine System 781

292. Hormone produced by the testes 298. Chemical messengers that signal a change
A. human growth hormone in the body
A. hormone

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B. thyroxin
C. testosterone B. enzyme

D. oestrogen C. protein
D. carbohydrate
293. Hormones are
299. What does homeostasis mean?
A. only noticeable when we hit puberty.
A. Building the body to resist diseases
B. signals sent to nerves.
B. Maintaining a constant internal envi-
C. reactions produced through the move-
ronment
ments of endocrine glands.
C. Keeping enough oxygen in the body to
D. special chemical messengers created
survive
in the endocrine glands.
D. none of above
294. The gland that helps the body respond to
stress and danger 300. I am referred to as the vanishing gland.

A. Hormones A. Ovaries

B. Glands B. Pineal Gland

C. Adrenal
C. Parathyroid
D. Thymus
D. Adrenal Gland
301. chemical made by glands that tell cells to
295. What Is Hypoglycemia?
make something or respond in some way.
A. Low blood sugar
A. acid
B. High Blood sugar B. enzyme
C. Hyperactive C. perspiration
D. OCD D. hormone
296. Which of the following responds to the 302. A hormone secreted by the pineal gland
output message from the Control Center? that seems to synchronize our body’s daily
A. Effector rhythms and may induce sleep.
B. Receptor A. medulla
C. Sense Organs B. insulin
D. Brain & Spinal Cord C. calcitonin
D. melatonin
297. The “master gland” of the endocrine sys-
tem, a gland that controls many body ac- 303. What is the structural and functional unit
tivities. of an organism?
A. hormone A. Hormones
B. pituitary gland B. Cell
C. hypothalamus C. Gland
D. adrenal gland D. Feedback

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1.25 Endocrine System 782

304. Which of the following is a plant hor- 310. What disease can the endocrine system
mone? cause?
A. Parathormone A. endosis
B. FSH B. osteoporosis
C. Insulin
C. hormonetopia
D. Auxin
D. pneumonoultramicroscopicsilicovol-
305. Hormone that is structurally related to canoconiosis

NARAYAN CHANGDER
cholesterol and are lipid soluble.
311. A process in which a system is turned off
A. parathyroid hormone
by the condition it produces is called:
B. steroid hormone
A. Negative Feedback
C. hormone
B. Negative Energy
D. nonsteroid hormone
C. Postive Feedback
306. The hormone responsible for gamete for-
mation is called D. Photosynthesis
A. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) 312. Chemical messengers that circulate
B. Growth hormone throughout the body in the blood?
C. Luteinizing hormone (LH) A. Cells
D. Oxytocin B. Glands
307. When you eat a burger, your body pro- C. Hormones
duces insulin to control blood sugar . What
type of feedback is that D. Adrenaline

A. Positive feedback 313. A hormone is

B. Negative Feedback A. a chemical substance produced by a
C. None gland and carried by the lymph.
D. Both B. an enzyme produced by a gland and
carried by the blood.
308. The male gonads are the
A. ovaries C. a chemical substance produced by an
organ and carried by the blood.
B. seminal vesicles
D. a chemical substance produced by a
C. prostate glands
gland and carried by the blood.
D. testes
314. Which hormone is responsible for “fight
309. Which part of the Endocrine System pro-
or flight”?
duces the most hormones?
A. Glucagon
A. Hypothalamus
B. Pituitary Gland B. Progesterone
C. Thyroid C. Adrenaline
D. Adrenal Glands D. Thymosin

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1.25 Endocrine System 783

315. regulates blood-sugar levels. 321. Hypoglycemia results from low sugar lev-
A. Endocrine System els due to the

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B. Pancreas A. absence of insulin

C. Flight or Fight Response B. presence of too much insulin

D. Glands C. presence of iodine and calcium

D. lack of sugar in one’s diet
316. An organ found on the heart and helps
the immune system is called: 322. This is the only gland that is both en-
A. Thyroid docrine and exocrine gland.

B. Thymus A. thyroid gland

B. gonzalez gland
C. Ovaries
C. pancreas
D. Testes
D. thymus gland
317. What is the fight or flight hormone which
is produced by the adrenals? 323. When levels go above or below a set
point a hormone is released to return the
A. Cortisol
body to set point. When the body is re-
B. Adrenaline stored to set point no more hormone is re-
C. Testorerone leased. This is an example of
D. Aldosterone A. a positive feedback loop
B. a negative feedback loop
318. targets the brain and make people sleepy
when its dark C. a neutral feedback loop
A. melanin D. none of above
B. melanoma 324. Hyper secretion of which hormone can
C. melatonin cause gigantism?
D. melons A. adreno-corticotrophic hormone
B. human growth hormone
319. Which structure within the brain controls
the pituitary gland? C. leuteinising hormone
A. the pineal gland D. oxytocin
B. thymus gland 325. What type of cell stimulates hunger?
C. thyroid gland A. B cell
D. hypothalamus B. F cell
320. Dwarfism is the result of a lack of C. A cell
hormone. D. none of above
A. adrenocorticotrophic (ACTH) 326. What is the function of the hypothala-
B. oxytocin mus?
C. antidiuretic (ADH) A. the master gland
D. growth (GH) B. controls all other endocrine glands

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1.25 Endocrine System 784

C. senses the hormone levels in the blood 331. what does endocrine mean?
D. helps you go to sleep A. Secretes outside the body

327. The gland is triangular in shape and B. Hormones

sits atop the kidney. C. Secretes inside and outside the body
A. adrenal D. Secretes inside the body
B. thyroid 332. Which hormone is responsible for the de-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. pineal velopment of secondary sexual traits in
D. thymus males?
A. Estrogen
328. Chemical substances that act like messen-
ger molecules in the body. They influence B. Epinephrine
almost every cell, organ, and function of C. Progesterone
bodies. Their function is to transfer infor- D. Testosterone
mation and instructions from one set of
cells to another. 333. A collection of specialized cells that is lo-
A. Enzymes cated in the lower central part of the brain,
is the main link between the endocrine and
B. Hormones nervous systems.
C. Cells A. pituitary gland
D. Electrolytes B. hypothalamus
329. An intracellular messenger molecule gen- C. thyroid gland
erated by the binding of a chemical mes- D. Pancreas
senger (hormone or neurotransmitter) to
a plasma membrane receptor on a cell’s 334. Communication through extracellular flu-
outer surface; mediates intracellular re- ids to nearby cells.
sponses to an extra-cellular (first) messen- A. Endocrine Communication
ger.
B. Direct Communication
A. steroid hormone
C. Paracrine Communication
B. hormone
D. Autocrine Communication
C. second messenger
D. aldosterone 335. What is the function of the somatic ner-
vous system?
330. Gland located in the front part of the A. It controls higher mental functions.
lower neck, is shaped like a bow tie or but-
terfly and produces hormones that control B. It governs the stress response.
the rate at which cells burn fuels from food C. It controls movements of muscles.
to produce energy. D. It mediates hormone release.
A. Thyroid
336. How do hormones travel from the glands
B. Pancreas where they are made to their target or-
C. Pituitary gans?
D. Adrenal A. Bloodstream

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1.25 Endocrine System 785

B. Nerves 342. Hormone produced by the Thyroid Gland,

C. Bones which controls the rate at which cells burn
fuels from food to produce energy.

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D. none of above
A. Testosterone
337. What are the two main types/categories B. adrenaline
of glands in the human body? C. Thyroxine
A. Endoderm & Mesoderm D. oestrogen
B. Connective & Muscle
343. Which pairing is NOT correct?
C. Merocrine & Apocrine
A. Ovaries/testes-reproductive hor-
D. Exocrine & Endocrine mones

338. cells that recognize the hormones B. adrenals-epinephrine

chemical structure. C. pancreas-enzyme
A. specialized cells D. pituitary-growth hormone
B. blood cells 344. An endocrine gland that controls many
C. target cells body activities like growth, water balance,
and blood pressure:
D. stem cells
A. Hypothalamus
339. Which system begins the sexual func- B. Pituitary Gland
tions with hormones?
C. Thymus
A. Nervous D. Thyroid
B. Muscluar
345. Which of these hormones controls the
C. Digestive concentration of urine?
D. Endocrine A. calcitonin
340. Reflex actions are important because B. ADH
C. adrenaline
A. They provide a quick, involuntary re-
sponse D. noradrenaline
B. They prevent injury 346. What type of product is secreted by en-
C. They are essential to the survival of or- docrine glands?
ganisms A. Sweat
D. All of the above B. Hormones
C. Saliva
341. Involved in the development of immune
system, including the production of White D. Tears
Blood Cells such as T-lymphocytes 347. What are Testes?
A. adrenals A. Regulates sleep and mood
B. parathyroid B. Protects from diseases
C. thymus C. Helps develop physical characteristics
D. testes D. Used for reproduction and fertility

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1.25 Endocrine System 786

348. What makes up the CNS 354. Located around the stomach and small
A. brain and spinal cord intestine Primary Hormones:Insulin and
Glucagon Functions:Digestion of enzymes;
B. brain and neurons regulate blood-glucose levels; insulin up-
C. brain take
D. spine and neurons A. Thyroid
349. The part of a nerve cell that contains the B. Pancreas

NARAYAN CHANGDER
nucleus is called the C. Pineal
A. neuron D. Goiter
B. cell body
C. axon 355. Which hormone is the “flight or fight”
hormone?
D. dendrite
A. adrenaline
350. The major role of the hypothalamus is to
B. testosterone
maintain
A. homeostasis C. oxytocin

B. estrogen D. insulin
C. progesterone 356. How are hormones moved through the
D. testosterone body?

351. Gland responsible for a deep voice A. Through airways

A. Testes B. Through skin
B. Pineal Gland C. Through the blood
C. Adrenal D. none of above
D. Parathyroids
357. A part of the brain that links the nervous
352. Which of the following hormones is re- system and the endocrine system; also
sponsible for the regulation of the men- controls sleep and hunger:
strual cycle? A. Hypothalamus
A. thyroxine
B. Thyroid
B. estrogen
C. Testes
C. progesterone
D. Ovaries
D. both b and c
358. Which of the following produces
353. The name for the specific cell that each
adrenaline?
hormone will individually regulate.
A. target cell A. thyroid gland

B. cortisol B. parathyroid glands

C. cortex C. pancreas
D. pancreas D. adrenal glands

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1.25 Endocrine System 787

359. What is the function of the endocrine sys- to release epinephrine into the blood-
tem? stream.

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A. to circulate blood throughout the body D. Calm the body down and conserve and
B. the framework of the body; supports replenish energy.
and protects the body
364. Controls heartbeat and breathing
C. to regulate the activities of the body
A. Pons
D. to eliminate wastes from the body
B. Medulla
360. How was my quiz C. Cerebellum
A. Awesome D. Thalamus
B. Good
365. Enlarged or protruding eyes.
C. Nice
A. exaphthalmos
D. Bad
B. exophtalmos
361. Which of the following symptoms can be
signs of hypoglycemia, also known as in- C. exophtalmos
sulin shock: D. exophthalmos
A. Lack of Coordination
366. What hormone is responsible for the
B. Dizzy “fight or flight” response?
C. Inappropriate Demeanor A. Testosterone
D. All of the Above B. Cortisol
362. Which term refers to the body’s use of C. Adrenaline
energy for energy and growth? D. Parathyroid Hormone
A. Excretion
367. increases blood calcium concentration and
B. Metabolism
decreases blood phosphate ion concentra-
C. Digestion tion
D. Respiration A. thyroxine
363. The function of the somatic nervous sys- B. thyroid-stimulating hormone
tem is to C. parathyroid hormone
A. convey information from the skin and D. insulin
muscles to the CNS about conditions such
as pain and temperature 368. is the relative constancy of our
B. take messages to and from the body’s body’s environment despite external or in-
internal organs, monitoring such pro- ternal changes.
cesses as breathing, heart rate, and di- A. homeostasis
gestion.
B. negative feedback
C. Arouse the body, mobilize its energy
during physical exercise and in stressful C. excretory
situations, and activate the adrenal gland D. none of above

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1.25 Endocrine System 788

369. Which is an activity of the endocrine sys- 374. Which of the following are chemicals that
tem? travel in the blood and cause changes in
A. send and receive messages through different parts of the body?
neurons A. Hormones
B. control body functions B. Glands
C. detect stimuli from the outside envi-
C. Parathyroid
ronment
D. Adrenal Gland

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. control the nervous system
370. This hormone comes from the ovaries and 375. The failure of a cell to react normally to
promotes growth of the uterine lining. insulin is most likely due to the absence of
A. Epinephrine
B. Parathyroid hormone A. vacuoles
C. Progesterone B. receptors
D. Thyroxine C. mitochondria
371. The main male hormone is? D. sugars
A. progesterone
376. What is common name for the pituitary
B. testosterone
gland
C. estrogen
A. Servant gland
D. oxytocin
B. Master gland
372. What is the main role of the endocrine
system? C. Gland of importance
A. to regulate long term changes in the D. none of above
body such as growth and development. It
also controls many of your body’s daily ac- 377. The anterior lobe of the pituitary does
tivities. NOT contain which hormone?
B. To make sure you have energy when A. prolactin
you wake up in the morning and allows you
B. glucagon
to fall asleep at night.
C. It gives you the ability to process infor- C. growth hormone
mation such as how to do a math equation, D. adrenocorticotropic
or comprehend what you have read in a
book. 378. Which of the following conditions results
D. none of above from hyposecretion of the thyroid gland in
an adult?
373. Gigantism is the result of
A. myxedema
A. an underactive thyroid gland.
B. too much growth hormone B. ketoacidosis

C. too little growth hormone C. tetany

D. an overactive adrenal gland D. pheochromocytoma

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1.25 Endocrine System 789

379. Homeostasis in the human body is often 385. The organ that produces atrial natriuretic
maintained by a: peptide hormone is the

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A. neutral feedback loop A. pituitary gland
B. solar feedback loop B. heart
C. positive feedback loop C. spleen
D. negative feedback loop D. kidney
380. Which is NOT an amino acid derivative? 386. Four tiny glands attached to the Thyroid,
A. TSH they release a hormone, which regulates
the level of calcium in the blood
B. Thyroxine
A. parathyroid gland
C. Melatonin
D. Dopamine B. Thyroid gland
C. Pancreas
381. is the thyroid hormone that controls
how much energy is available to the cells. D. Adrenal gland
A. TSH 387. What is the function of the adrenal
B. thyroxine glands?
C. progesterone A. help prepare the body for stress
D. estrogen B. control male characteristics and
sperm production
382. Which of the following is NOT a charac-
C. control female characteristics and
teristic of hormones?
menstrual cycle
A. Transported in blood flow
D. produces hormones that control BSL
B. Produces slow and prolonged re- (blood sugar level)
sponse
C. The duration of effect is short 388. The junction where the ducts meet or junc-
tion at the small intestine and pancreas is
D. Only affect specific target cells called;
383. What is a stressor? A. Ampulla of Colten
A. A part of the brain B. Ampulla of Santorini
B. A Hormone C. Ampulla of Wirsung
C. A Stimulus D. Ampulla of Vater
D. The Biology teacher
389. Which of the following IS correctly paired
384. An abnormal enlargement of the thyroid A. Thyroid-promotes metabolism
gland.
B. Parathyroid-promotes childbirth
A. goiter
C. Pineal-promotes storage of calcium in
B. Staff bones
C. Diabetes D. Prolactin-promotes growth and devel-
D. Hyperthroidism opment

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1.25 Endocrine System 790

390. Which gland secretes oestrogen? 395. The Master Gland is also known as this.
A. Pituitary A. pituitary
B. Adrenal B. ovary
C. Ovaries C. thyroid
D. Pineal D. parathyroid

391. What is the thyroid gland? 396. The gland that stimulates estrogen secre-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. produces thryoxine which regulates tion and is in the female.
metabolism throughout the body A. Thyroid
B. Located in the brain produces hor- B. testes
mones which control the pituitary gland
C. ovary
C. Located in the chest area and pro-
D. adrenal
duces thymosin which stimulates T cell de-
velopment. 397. Which hormone helps regulate blood
D. Produces testosterone which is re- sugar levels?
sponsible for sperm production A. calcitonin
392. What are the functions of hormones? B. aldosterone
A. For coordinating the production, use, C. oxytocin
and storage of energy. D. insulin
B. For reacting to stimuli outside from the
body. 398. The gland that stimulates secondary sex
characteristics in females.
C. For maintaining homeostasis.
A. Thyroid
D. For regulating processes like develop-
ment and reproduction. B. testes
C. ovary
393. What is the female gland that secretes
estrogen and progesterone? D. adrenal

A. Testes 399. Hormones from this gland help the im-

B. Pancreas mune system develop during childhood.

C. Thymus A. parathyroid

D. Ovaries B. thymus
C. pituitary
394. Excessive secretion of insulin can cause
the blood glucose level to be too low. This D. sdrenal
health issue is known as
400. Some people with spinal cord injuries do
A. Diabetes mellitus not sweat below the area of the injury.
B. Diabetes insipidus Without the ability to sweat, the human
body temperature begins to rise. Which
C. Hypothyroidism statement would best describe this situa-
D. Hypoglycaemia tion?

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1.25 Endocrine System 791

A. Feedback mechanisms regulate blood 406. Why is the pituitary the “master
sugar levels. gland”?

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B. Gene mutations are increased. A. Its hormones affect other glands.
C. Energy from ATP is not available. B. Its hormones can replicate the actions
of other hormones.
D. Dynamic equilibrium is disrupted.
C. All hormones start as immature pitu-
401. Where is the thyroid gland located? itary hormones.
A. Alongside the pancreas D. Its hormones control reproduction.
B. Under the arms
407. The gland that stimulates body
C. Just below the neck metabolism (calorie burning)
D. none of above A. Thyroid

402. The gland surrounds the thyroid B. testes

gland. C. ovary
A. pineal D. none of above
B. pituitary 408. What is the pituitary gland?
C. thymus A. helps you sleep
D. parathyroid B. influences metabolic rate
403. The testes and ovaries release C. master gland
A. blood D. decreases blood calcium
B. sex hormones 409. In a “fight or flight” situation, there is
C. insulin an increase in
D. water A. Metabolic activity
B. Heart rate
404. The hormones secreted by the anterior
lobe of the pituitary gland include all of C. Blood pressure
the following except D. Blood sugar
A. oxytocin E. Respiratory rate
B. growth hormone 410. Only one of the following statements is
C. prolactin true. Analyze the statements to determine
D. ACTH which is completely true about how the en-
docrine system and cardiovascular system
405. What does the endocrine system do? work together.
A. Responsible for digestion A. The endocrine system uses glands to
produce hormones that travel with the
B. Regulate bone growth blood through the blood vessels.
C. Release homrones into the bloood- B. The endocrine system uses glands
stream to produce electrical signals that travel
D. Maintains immmun system through the blood vessels.

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1.25 Endocrine System 792

C. The endocrine system uses nerve cells 416. The chemical product of an endocrine
to control all other systems including the gland.
cardiovascular system and the beating of A. Homeostasis
the heart.
B. Hormone
D. The endocrine system uses white
blood cells to kill diseases that might in- C. Nerve Cell
fect the body. D. Neurotransmitter

NARAYAN CHANGDER
411. Organs of the female reproductive sys- 417. What does your pancreas do?
tem in which eggs and estrogen are pro-
duced: A. Stars in a Weird Al video
A. Testes B. secretes insulin to break down sugar
B. Ovaries C. secretes insulin to break dance
C. Hypothalamus D. none of above
D. Pituitary Gland 418. These glands produce the male sex hor-
412. What is another word for balance? mone.

A. homeostasis A. Testies
B. equilibrium B. Ovareis
C. both a and b C. Thymus
D. none of above D. Thyroid

413. Helps make a lining for the uterus 419. Development of immune system
A. Ovaries A. adrenals
B. Thymus B. parathyroid
C. Testes C. thymus
D. Pineal D. testes
414. Which of these is called the “master” 420. The hormone, oxytocin, is produced by
gland? the , but it is stored in the posterior
A. adrenal lobe of the pituitary gland.
B. thyroid A. thyroid gland
C. pituitary B. hypothalamus
D. pancreas C. adrenal gland
415. A hormone that is an antidiuretic will? D. thalamus
A. cause the body to release fluid 421. What is the endocrine system?
B. cause the body to start maturing A. A system of vessels that circulates
C. cause the body to retain fluid blood around the body.
D. cause the body to begin egg produc- B. A group of bones and tissue that pro-
tion vides support and structure for the body.

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1.25 Endocrine System 793

C. A group of glands that work together 427. Which one of the following is a possi-
with the nervous system to coordinate all ble effect of developing a mutation on the
body functions cAMP secondary messenger on the func-

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tions of the target cell?
D. A group of organs that is responsible
for eliminating wastes. A. The hormone will not bind to its recep-
tor
422. The cells on which a hormone acts. B. The nucleus will not produce a new en-
A. Thymus zyme
B. Pineal gland C. The signal of the hormone will not be
carried to inside of the cell
C. Testosterone
D. A mutated enzyme will be made by the
D. Target cells cell
423. Secretions of an endocrine gland are usu- 428. What is the function of the testes?
ally called I-hormones II-enzymes III-
A. Cause pain
neurotransmitters
B. Filter wastes
A. I only
C. Control sperm count
B. II only
D. Control hormones
C. I and II only
429. Luteinizing hormone (LH) targets the
D. I, II and III
A. adrenal gland
424. Disease that occurs when the Pancreases B. pituitary gland
does not make enough or any Insulin
C. ovaries only
A. Cushing Syndrome
D. ovaries and testes
B. Diabetes
430. A chemical messenger molecule secreted
C. Hypertrophia by an endocrine gland or cell into the blood-
D. Hypotension stream that has effects on specific target
cells throughout the body.
425. Known as the “master” gland A. cortex
A. Pituitary Gland B. thyroxine
B. Pineal Gland C. hormone
C. Thymus Gland D. histamine
D. Adrenal Gland 431. Which is NOT a reason for Inactivation of
a hormone?
426. controls changes in growing male’s body
A. Binds to receptor on target cell.
A. ovaries
B. Broken down by kidney or liver.
B. testes
C. Broken down when in contact with red
C. pancreas blood cells.
D. thymus D. Broken down by enzymes in blood.

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1.25 Endocrine System 794

432. Which of the following is considered a fe- C. estrogen

mal gonad? D. testosterone
A. Pituitary Gland
438. The division of the peripheral nervous
B. Ovaries
system that controls the body’s skeletal
C. Hypothalmus muscles is the:
D. Testes A. Somatic Nervous System

NARAYAN CHANGDER
433. Gland located on top of the kidneys that B. Autonomic Nervous System
produces hormones called corticosteroids C. Parasympathetic Nervous System
that influence or regulate salt and water
balance in the body, the body’s response D. Sympathetic Nervous System
to stress, metabolism, the immune system,
439. The substance produced by an endocrine
and sexual development and function.
gland.
A. Thyroid gland
A. Homeostasis
B. Parathyroid glands
B. Hormone
C. Adrenal gland
C. Nerve Cell
D. Pancreas
D. Neurotransmitter
434. The light sensitive inner layer of the eye
440. Communication through extracellular flu-
A. Retina ids back to original cell.
B. Cornea
A. Endocrine Communication
C. Lens
B. Direct Communication
D. Pupil
C. Paracrine Communication
435. Oxytocin is responsible for D. Autocrine Communication
A. eliminating toxins in the body.
441. What is the function of the pineal? ?
B. uterine contraction during childbirth.
A. Secrete hormones that makes us the
C. female secondary sex characteristics. modern edgy teen
D. growth of uterine lining. B. Regulates when you go to sleep &
436. Acetylcholine and dopamine, which help wake up
control movement, are examples of: C. Helps the chillen (Children) grow
A. axons. D. none of above
B. glands.
442. A is any structure that makes or se-
C. chromosomes. cretes hormones:
D. neurotransmitters. A. organelle
437. releases the female sex hormones B. organ
A. progesterone C. gland
B. ovaries D. your dog, Fido

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1.25 Endocrine System 795

443. a disease that is characterized by high C. liver

levels of sugar in the blood. Usually D. spleen
caused by the pancreas producing too little

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insulin or body not responding to insulin. 449. A group of lipid-based chemicals synthe-
A. Hormones sized by most tissue cells that act as local
messengers.
B. Pituitary Gland
A. prostaglandins
C. Endocrine System
B. thyroid gland
D. Type 2 Diabetes
C. adrenal gland
444. Excessive Height & Growth Above Aver- D. pineal gland
age. Happens When Normal Bone Growth
Is Still Taking Place. 450. A hormone antagonist is one that has the
opposite function. The hormone that has
A. achondroplasia
the opposite function of insulin is
B. chinpirism
A. glucagon
C. gigantism
B. human growth hormone
D. acromegaly C. antidiuretic hormone
445. What hormone lowers blood glucose lev- D. thyroxin
els?
451. A hormone that has the opposite effect
A. glucocorticoid to insulin; it releases glucose from stores
B. insulin in the liver and muscles.
C. glucagon A. Glucogen
D. aldosterone B. Thyroxine

446. Islets of Langerhans is found in what or- C. Glucose

gan? D. ACTH
A. Pancreas and regulates calcuim 452. The part of the nervous system respon-
B. Pancreas and regulates sugar levels sible for digestion, heart beating, and
breathing
C. Liver and regulates bile
A. somatic nervous system
D. Liver and regulates sugar
B. peripheral nervous system
447. What are Adrenals?
C. central nervous system
A. Gets rid of energy
D. autonomic nervous system
B. Helps produce ribosomes
453. What is the thymus gland?
C. Helps generate energy
A. decreases blood calcium
D. Helps produce mitochondria
B. increases bone calcium levels
448. What hormone lowers the blood sugar C. stimulates the immune response in
when it is too high? children
A. insulin D. produces a hormone that increases
B. glucagon blood

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1.25 Endocrine System 796

454. Which gland causes calcium to be stored C. thyroxine.

in bones? D. ecdysone.
A. Thyroid
460. Which is the main control of the nervous
B. Testes system?
C. Pituitary A. heart
D. Thymus B. brain
455. What pancreatic hormone increase blood C. liver

NARAYAN CHANGDER
glucose levels? D. kidney
A. glucagon 461. The two major divisions of the nervous
B. insulin system are:
C. glucocorticoid A. brain and spinal cord.
D. epinephrine B. central and somatic nervous system.
C. sympathetic and parasympatheic sys-
456. In humans increased thyroxine produc- tems.
tion results in:
D. peripheral and central nervous sys-
A. Increased metabolism tems.
B. Decreased metabolism
462. What does the pituitary gland do?
C. Dwarfism
A. baseball sized, controls hormones in
D. Cretinism the body and messages to the brain
457. What is meant by the “fight or flight” re- B. palm sized, controls bone strength and
sponse? food digestion
A. a survival response to do nothing C. pea sized, controls growth and devel-
opment
B. a survival response to freeze
D. shoe sized, makes you stronger and
C. a survival response to run or stay and pumps blood from your heart
protect yourself
463. The system regulates long term
D. a survival response to laugh
changes such as growth and development
458. Homeostasis means the body’s ability to A. Endocrine
do what?
B. Hypothalamus
A. change for the better C. Nervous
B. maintain balance D. Thymus
C. change for the worst
464. What is the definition of Target Cells
D. none of above
A. Cells that look like targets
459. After eating a carbohydrate-rich meal, B. Hormones that make you grow bigger
the mammalian pancreas increases its se- C. Cells that are specialized in a way that
cretion of enables them to recognize a hormone’s
A. glucagon. chemical structure
B. insulin. D. Chemical messengers

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1.25 Endocrine System 797

465. Hormones help your body do what? C. reacting to stress

A. Regulate processes D. regulating its temperature

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B. Maintain homeostasis
471. The metabolic rate is controlled by which
C. Stimulate glands hormone?
D. All over the above A. thyroid stimulating hormone
466. Which of the following is not part of the B. growth hormone
endocrine system?
C. prolactin
A. Thyroid
D. adrenocorticortitropic
B. Adrenals
C. Appendix 472. The nerve cell that connects sensory and
motor neurons is a
D. Pituitary
A. Motor Neuron
467. Where is the Pituitary Gland located?
B. Sensory Neuron
A. Below the hypothalmus
C. Interneurons
B. On top of the pineal gland
D. Glial cells
C. Behind the pineal gland
D. Above the hypothalmus 473. A hormone containing four iodine
molecules that is secreted by the thyroid
468. External portion of the adrenal gland; its gland
primary hormones, aldosterone and cor-
A. melatonin
tisol, influence inflammation, metabolism,
interstitial fluid volume, and other func- B. histamine
tions. C. hormone
A. adrenal glands
D. thyroxine
B. adrenal medulla
C. adrenal cortex 474. Wrinkled part of the brain’s surface
where the body processes information
D. cortex
A. Forebrain
469. Which hormone is believed to be respon- B. Cerebral Cortex
sible for the fight or flight response?
C. Corpus Callosum
A. Adrenaline
D. Cerebellum
B. Cortisol
C. Oxytocin 475. Which of the following neurotransmitters
D. Testosterone is a hormone for the human mood?
A. epinephrine
470. Without your thymus, your body would
have trouble: B. serotonin
A. fighting infections C. dopamine
B. sleeping normally D. acetylcholine

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1.25 Endocrine System 798

476. Help produce T-cells which help fight off 481. General term for the inner zone of an or-
disease. gan.
A. Ovaries A. medulla
B. Thymus B. insulin
C. Testes C. melatonin
D. Adrenal D. cortex
482. Which of the following pituitary hor-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
477. These release testosterone, which con-
trols changes in a male’s body and regu- mones regulate fluid balance?
lates sperm production. A. LH
A. Ovaries B. FSH
B. Target Cells C. Oxytocin
C. Parathyroids D. ADH

D. Testes 483. What kind of functions are regulate by

hormones?
478. A gland that releases Oxytocin, this
A. Sleep
causes the uterus to contract as a new life
is born. B. Metabolism
A. hormone C. Both are correct
B. pituitary gland D. none of above

C. hypothalamus 484. This disease is when low blood glucose or

low blood sugar occurs when blood glucose
D. adrenal gland
drops below healthy levels
479. Homeostasis A. Giantism
A. allows for a wildly fluctuating internal B. Diabetes
environment C. Hypothyroidism
B. is impossible in vertebrates D. Hypoglycemia
C. is the maintenance of a relatively sta-
485. The hormone that triggers uterine con-
ble internal environment and often incor-
tractions is
porates a form of feedback regulation
A. antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
D. is the maintenance of a relatively sta-
ble external environment and often incor- B. adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH)
porates a form of feedback regulation C. prolactin

480. The endocrine system regulates all of the D. oxytocin

following except: 486. This is the chemicals secreted by glands .
A. growth A. eryhtrocytes
B. immunity B. leukocytes
C. deglutition C. hormones
D. reproduction D. receptors

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1.25 Endocrine System 799

487. What gland deals with stimulating the have problems with their eyes:The eye-
thyroid glands to produce thyroid hor- balls may seem to be bulging out
mones?

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A. Cushing Syndrome
A. Pituitary B. Diabetes
B. Adrenals C. Goiter
C. Thyroid D. Graves disease
D. Pineal Body
493. An endocrine gland, located in the neck,
488. is caused due to lack of secretion of that produces the hormones thyroxine, tri-
proper amount of insulin. iodothyronine, and calcitonin.
A. Diabetes A. thyroid gland
B. Lung cancer B. thyroxine
C. Leukemia C. parathyroid gland
D. Infections D. thymus gland

489. Gland that controls fight or flight re- 494. A gland that Controls glucose levels in
sponse blood
A. pituitary A. Parathyroid
B. thyroid B. Pancreas
C. thymus C. Pituitary gland
D. adrenal D. Hypothalamus

490. Neuroendocrine gland located just below 495. Where can you find the pituitary gland?
the hypothalamus of the brain. It is re- A. In your left foot
ferred to as the “master gland.”
B. Next to your liver
A. pituitary gland
C. At the base of your brain
B. thymus gland
D. Near your heart and lungs
C. pineal gland
496. Thymosin and thympoietin are hormones
D. thyroid gland that assist with
491. Which of the following glands produces A. metabolism
estrogen? B. respiration
A. Pineal C. immunity
B. Pituitary D. reproduction
C. Ovary
497. The gland produces insulin
D. Adrenal
A. Anterior Pituitary
492. Is an autoimmune disorder that leads B. Adrenal Cortex
to an overactive thyroid gland (hyperthy-
roidism). Anxiety or nervousness, Fatigue, C. Parathyroid
Hair loss Many people with this disease D. Pancreas

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1.25 Endocrine System 800

498. This part of the brain that links the ner- 504. Which row shows the effects of increased
vous system and the endocrine system. adrenaline release? breathing rate » pulse
A. Pancreas rate » pupil
B. Hypothalamus A. decreases »increases »widens
C. Pituitary gland B. increases » decreases » widens
D. Pineal gland C. increases » increases» narrows
499. General term for the outer surface layer D. increases » increases» widens

NARAYAN CHANGDER
of an organ.
505. This hormone is involved in daily rhythms
A. cortisol
B. hormone A. prolactin

C. cortex B. melatonin
D. medulla C. antidiuretic hormone

500. What is glucagon’s major role in the D. thyroxine

body?
506. Stimulates skeletal growth; stimulates
A. to raise blood sugar development of male and female sex or-
B. to lower blood sugar gans
C. to receive signals from the pituitary A. pancreas
D. none of above B. adrenals
501. Estrogen is for C. pituitary
A. male secondary sex characteristics. D. hypothalamus
B. female secondary sex characteristics.
507. Located at the base of the brain just be-
C. female primary sex characteristics.
neath the hypothalamus, this gland is con-
D. aroused responses of women. sidered the most important part of the
502. Which category of hormone is released endocrine system because it makes hor-
from an axon terminal and crosses a mones that control several other endocrine
synapse? glands

A. Steroid A. pineal
B. Nonsteroid B. hypothalamus
C. both C. thyroid
D. neither D. Pituitary
503. The gland is a butterfly shaped
508. Communication through gap junctions.
gland located in the neck.
A. Endocrine Communication
A. adrenal
B. thyroid B. Direct Communication
C. thymus C. Paracrine Communication
D. pineal D. Autocrine Communication

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1.25 Endocrine System 801

509. Which of the following hormones is re- A. medulla

sponsible for stimulating the development B. cerebellum
of ova and sperm?

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C. midbrain
A. FSH
D. limbic system
B. TSH
514. The pineal gland-
C. GH
A. produces a hormone (melatonin) that
D. LH
helps you go to sleep
510. Which two senses respond to chemical in- B. produces a hormone that stimulates
formation? the immune response
A. smell & taste C. produces a hormone that increases
B. smell & hearing blood

C. hearing & sight D. produces a hormone that deceases

bone calcium levels
D. touch & taste
515. Which is NOT a sense organ?
511. What gland helps support the immune
A. ears
system by helping white blood cells pro-
duce antibodies? B. fingers
A. Thyroid C. tongue
B. Thymus D. hair
C. Adrenal 516. Controls behaviors (hunger, thirst, sleep,
D. Ovaries body temperature) through the release of
hormones.
512. Non-lipid hormones require a link with a A. hypothalamus
in the plasma membrane and a is
released in to cell for action. B. thalamus
C. adrenal glands
A. C protein, second messenger
D. pineal gland
B. G protein, water molecule
C. C protein, water molecule 517. Which statement describes a feedback
mechanism involving the human pan-
D. G protein, second messenger
creas?
513. Imagine that you have stumbled across A. The production of estrogen stimulates
a secret laboratory where an evil scien- the formation of gametes for sexual repro-
tist is conducting unauthorized brain re- duction.
search. By altering brain structures, he B. The level of oxygen in the blood is re-
has created superheroes who have special- lated to heart rate.
ized powers or abilities. One of these su-
perheroes is absolutely fearless, has no C. The level of sugar in the blood is af-
emotions, and is willing to undertake ex- fected by the amount of insulin in the
tremely dangerous missions. In this case, blood.
the brain structure that the scientist MOST D. The production of urine allows for ex-
likely altered would be cretion of cell waste.

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1.25 Endocrine System 802

518. Hormone produced by the Ovaries which C. Hypothalamus

helps with the regulation of a girl’s men- D. Testes
strual cycle
A. Testosterone 524. Your metabolism is controlled by the thy-
roid gland. What’s the best explanation
B. adrenaline for “metabolism”?
C. insulin A. the rate at which your cells use energy
D. progesterone B. your body’s sleep cycle

NARAYAN CHANGDER
519. All of the following are endocrine glands C. your sexual maturity
EXCEPT: D. your body temperature
A. adrenal glands
525. Which of the following pairs is mis-
B. sebaceous glands
matched?
C. pineal glands
A. follicle-stimulating hormone-targets
D. pituitary glands gonads
520. What hormone regulates sugar level? B. prolactin-targets breasts
A. insulin C. thyroid-stimulating hormone-targets
thyroid
B. histamine
D. adrenocorticotropin hormone-targets
C. estrogen
adrenal medulla
D. thyroxin
526. What type of hormone is lipid based and
521. To carry on the reaction of hormones de water insoluble?
novo, the following are required by the
A. Prostoglandins
cells except?
B. Nonsteroids
A. required environment
C. Steroids
B. materials or ingredients
D. Vitamin K
C. biological pathways
D. enzyme system 527. A condition in which the levels of thyroid
hormones in the blood are excessively high
522. are chemical messengers that com-
A. Hyperthyroidism
municate information with certain target
cells. B. Hypothyroidism
A. Glands C. Diabetes
B. Hormones D. Growth Hormone abnormalities
C. Tissues 528. Small glands attached to the thyroid that
D. Neurons controls calcium in your blood:

523. An organ found in the neck that regulates A. Hypothalamus

metabolism is called: B. Pituitary Gland
A. Thymus C. Parathyroid Gland
B. Thyroid D. Ovaries

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1.25 Endocrine System 803

529. What is the function of oestrogen and 534. Involved in emotional responses like rec-
progesterone ognizing facial expressions of fear.

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A. Sexual development in females and A. amygdala
ovary/uterus during pregnancy B. basal ganglia
B. Sexual development in females and C. brainstem
building of muscles
D. medulla oblongata
C. Supports females to develop muscles
and helps in pregnancy 535. Select the types of neurons (multiple an-
swers)
D. none of above
A. Sensory Neuron
530. Hormones can only trigger a reaction in a B. Motor Neuron
certain type of cells. These cells are called:
C. Interneuron
A. trigger cells D. Pseudoneuron
B. target cells
536. This is the inner portion of the adrenal
C. thyroid cells glands.
D. walmart cells A. parietal
B. cortex
531. This function of the skin as an accessory
organ allows the body to retain or lose C. medulla
heat by sweating which is also called D. visceral
A. Perspiration
537. What might happen if your parathyroid
B. Precipitation gland didn’t function properly?
C. Transpiration A. you couldn’t become a mother or fa-
ther
D. Urination
B. your endocrine system would shut
532. What gland is involved in both digestion down
and the endocrine system? C. you wouldn’t be able to react to stress
A. Pineal properly
B. Pituitary D. your nerves and muscles would not
function properly
C. Pancreas
538. Produces eggs.
D. P
A. Ovaries
533. What structure in the brain can detect of B. Pancreas
the body needs a particular hormone?
C. Testes
A. thalamus
D. Pineal
B. hypothalamus
539. produces epinephrine and nor-
C. pituitary
epinephrine which promote the fight or
D. parathyroid flight response

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1.25 Endocrine System 804

A. pancreas 545. What gland deals with increasing heart

B. testes rate and blood pressure when the body ex-
periences stress?
C. adrenal glands
D. pineal gland A. Adrenals
B. Parathyroids
540. The adrenal glands release adrenaline to
deal with C. Pineal Body
A. Disease D. Thyroid

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Body temperature
546. Hormone produced by the adrenal cortex
C. Stress
that regulates sodium reabsorption.
D. Hormones
A. epinephrine
541. Peer pressure either negative or positive
is part of this change in adolescence. B. histamine
A. social C. aldosterone
B. mental D. hormone
C. bone and muscle growth
547. Testosterone is produced in the
D. physical
A. ovary
542. What is positive feedback?
B. testes
A. It is when something good happens in
the endocrine system. C. pancrease
B. It is when the amount of hormones D. thyroid
produced is balanced.
C. It is when the production of more hor- 548. An increase in the level of hormone A
mones is counteracted. causes an increase in the level of hormone
D. It is when increased hormone secre- B. The increase in the level of hormone B
tion is enhanced to produce even more then causes a decrease in the level of hor-
hormones. mone A. This process is an example of
A. a failure to maintain homeostasis
543. When you question the actions of others
and yourself B. a feedback mechanism
A. mental changes C. a disruption in cellular coordination
B. physical changes
D. the breakdown of chemicals
C. social changes
D. puberty 549. What does the parathyroid hormone con-
trol?
544. Which is NOT a steroid hormone?
A. calcium levels
A. calcitrol
B. cholesterol B. fight or flight response

C. prostaglandin C. metabolism
D. testosterone D. growth rate

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1.25 Endocrine System 805

550. Which gland is shaped like a butterfly? 555. If a person has a brain tumor that results
in a disruption of his/her eating behavior,
A. Thyroid
which of the following areas is the most

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B. Ovaries likely location of the tumor?
C. Pituitary A. hypothalamus
D. Thymus B. thalamus
C. limbic system
551. Which of these functions are the main
function of the endocrine system? D. cerebellum

A. To ensure that we take in oxygen 556. Condition when the levels of thyroid hor-
through the lungs mones in the blood are abnormally low.
B. To make hormones that control growth A. Cushing Sydrome
and development B. Hyperthyroidism
C. To control balance, movement, and co- C. Hypothyroidism
ordination D. Diabetes
D. to protect the body from disease
caused by pathogens 557. The hormones epinephrine and nore-
pinephrine are found in which gland?
552. An endocrine gland, located in the neck, A. gonads
that produces the hormones thyroxine and B. pancreas
calcitonin.
C. adrena
A. thyroid gland
D. pituitary
B. thyroxine
558. Activates the “fight or flight” response:
C. parathyroid gland
A. sympathetic nervous system
D. thymus gland
B. parasympathetic system
553. This hormone stimulates ovaries and C. somatic nervous system
testes D. cerebellum
A. luteinizing hormone
559. When a system is turned off by the con-
B. thyroid stimulating hormone dition it produces.
C. prolactin A. target cells
D. follicle stimulating hormone B. homeostasis
C. hormone
554. When compared to the nervous system,
the work of the endocrine system is D. negative feedback
and its effect is 560. Choose the word that is a gland
A. faster/long-lasting A. Insulin
B. faster/short-lasting B. Thyroid
C. slower/long-lasting C. Glucagon
D. slower/short-lasting D. none of above

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1.25 Endocrine System 806

561. The is the structure in a neuron that 567. A type of cell in the hypothalamus that
contains the nucleus essentially functions as both a nerve cell
A. hormones and an endocrine cell because it generates
nerve impulses and releases hormone into
B. axon blood vessels.
C. dendrites
A. target cell
D. cell body
B. neuroendocrine cell
562. Responsible for female sexual develop-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. endocrine system
ment and the menstrual cycle
A. Oestrogen D. endocrine gland

B. Testosterone 568. Which of the following is considered the

C. Progesterone “master endocrine gland”?
D. Glucagon A. Pituitary Gland
563. Which one of the following hormones con- B. Heart
verts excess of glucose into glycogen? C. Thyroid Gland
A. Glucagon
D. Pancreas
B. Insulin
C. Thyroxine 569. What is the function of the ovaries?
D. Adrenaline A. control female characteristics and
menstrual cycle
564. Structure of the Endocrine System which
produces and releases hormones. B. control male characteristics
A. Endocrine Glands C. produce hormones that control BSL
B. hormones D. control blood pressure
C. Homeostasis
570. What is the function of Adrenalin?
D. Negative Feedback
A. Allows body to maintain the fight or
565. What hormone lowers calcium in blood? flight response for longer
A. Prolactin B. Gives the kidneys a break from clean-
B. Insulin ing the blood
C. Progesterone C. Helps with male sexual development
D. Calcitonin D. none of above
566. Which of the following is NOT correctly
571. What is the name of a molecule
paired
(ex:hormone) that binds to a receptor
A. Anterior pituitary-Growth hormone
A. ligand
B. Pineal gland-Melatonin
B. nucleotide
C. Thyroid-ADH (antidiuretic hormone)
C. target cell
D. Parathyroid gland-PTH (parathyroid
hormone) D. Ion

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1.25 Endocrine System 807

572. What two hormones pancreas produced C. ADH

A. glucagon and cortisol D. both A & C

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B. glucose and insulin 578. What is melatonin used for in the body?
C. glucagon and insulin A. Sleep regulation
D. glucose and aldosterone B. Appetite regulation
573. Controls long term changes such as C. Glucose regulation
growth D. none of above
A. limbic system
579. The flow of an impulse through a neuron
B. endocrine system
A. dendrites axon cell body
C. nervous system synapse
D. temporal lobe B. dendrites cell body axon
termnal axon
574. This gland is sometimes called the master
gland, though it is only about the size of a C. dendrites cell body axon
pea: axon ternimal
A. Pituitary D. axon axon terminal cell body
dendrties
B. Adrenal
C. Pineal 580. What is the Thyroid?

D. Hypothalamus A. Helps with Blood levels

B. Produces white blood cells
575. A goiter is an enlargement of what or-
gan? C. Gets Steroids

A. pancreas D. Regulates Metabolism

B. liver 581. During spurts of bone and muscle growth

all but ONE of these happen normally
C. thyroid
A. you may have aches and pains
D. hypothalamus
B. girls may experience growth spurt first
576. Hormone secreted by the testes This hor-
C. you should eat as much food as possi-
mones tell a guy’s body when it’s time to
ble
make the changes associated with puberty
D. exercise is important
A. Thyroxine
B. progesterone 582. In a lactating mammal, the two hormones
that promote milk synthesis and milk re-
C. Testosterone
lease, respectively, are
D. adrenaline
A. prolactin and calcitonin.
577. Which of the following hormones is se- B. prolactin and oxytocin.
creted by the posterior pituitary? C. follicle-stimulating hormone and
A. oxytocin luteinizing hormone.
B. FSH D. luteinizing hormone and oxytocin.

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1.25 Endocrine System 808

583. Which hormone helps create female sex B. adrenal glands

characteristics? C. thalamus
A. Thyroxine D. pineal gland
B. Testosterone
589. Which gland secretes insulin?
C. Estrogen
A. Pancreas
D. Progesterone
B. Ovaries

NARAYAN CHANGDER
584. The condition that occurs when an adult C. Pituitary
continues to produce growth hormone is
D. Thymus

A. acromegaly 590. Carries urine from the bladder to the out-

side of your body
B. diabetes
A. Urethra
C. dwarfism
B. Ureters
D. hypogylcemia
C. Bladder
585. Involves an overactive thyroid gland and
D. None of the above
hypersecretion of thyroid hormone and can
create hyperactivity, nervousness, agita- 591. Which statement best describes the chem-
tion, and weight loss. ical substances secreted by endocrine
A. hypothalamus glands?
B. hypothyroidism A. They are secreted in one place and
most often act at another
C. hyperthyroidism
B. they are distributed by the nervous
D. thyroxine
system
586. These glands help your body react in an C. They are secreted into specialized
emergency. ducts for transport.
A. thyroid D. They are found only in vertebrates
B. pituitary
592. What is NOT a disorder or disease for the
C. adrenal endocrine system
D. pineal A. Type 1/2 Diabetes
587. Which gland makes hormones that help B. Osteoporosis
you grow and stay full of energy? C. Cushing’s Syndrome
A. Thyroid D. Huntington’s disease
B. Adrenal 593. What gland is known as the the master
C. Muscle gland?
D. Pituitary A. Adrenal

588. Norepinephrine and epinephrine are pro- B. Pituitary

duced by the C. Thyroid
A. hypothalamus D. Thymus

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1.25 Endocrine System 809

594. Chemical product of an Endocrine Gland. 599. The chemical product of an endocrine
gland is called a(n)
A. Homeostasis
A. chromosome

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B. Hormone
B. horomone
C. mitosis
C. target cell
D. meiosis D. hypothalamus
595. Which hormone helps glucose get it into 600. This gland is activated by FSH and LH
the cells of the body? A. pancreas
A. Calcitonin B. gonads
B. Thyroxin C. parathyroid
C. Insulin D. thymus

D. Cortisol 601. What deals with stimulating the growth

of bone and other body tissues?
596. Hormones are A. Pituitary
A. email messages B. Adrenals
B. chemical messages C. Thyroid
C. voicemail messages D. Parathyroids

D. chemical markers 602. What is the name of the specialised cells

that form the endocrine part of the pan-
597. A hormone is creas?
A. a chemical substance produced by a A. Islets of langherans
gland and carried by the lymph. B. Cortex
B. an enzyme produced by a gland and C. Medulla
carried by the blood. D. Pineal
C. a chemical substance produced by an 603. The ripening of fruit and the dropping of
organ and carried by the blood. leaves and fruit are principally controlled
D. a chemical substance produced by a by
gland and carried by the blood. A. auxins.
B. indole acetic acid.
598. The master gland of the body, secret-
ing a large number of hormones that af- C. cytokinins.
fect other glands, growth and develop- D. ethylene.
ment. Housed within a bony cradle deep
within the skull. 604. An organ that produces secretions called
hormones is known as a:
A. Thymus
A. chemical
B. Pineal B. gland
C. Thyroid C. hormone
D. Pituitary D. duct

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1.25 Endocrine System 810

605. Gland that produces Thyroxine, which 611. What is the fight or flight hormone?
helps regulate growth and metabolism
A. Cortisol
A. Pineal Gland
B. Epinephrine and Norepinphrine
B. Pituitary Gland
C. Testorerone
C. Adrenal Gland
D. Thyroid Gland D. Aldosterone

606. The primary male hormone is 612. What is a target cell?

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. adrenocorticoptrophic (ACTH) A. A cell that has receptors for a particu-
B. thymosin lar hormone
C. estrogen B. A cell that secretes thyroxine
D. testosterone C. A cell located in the adrenal glands
that helps in the secretion of epinephrine
607. Define glycaemia
D. All of the above
A. 1
B. 2 613. Your body has two main (body system)
C. 3 bosses:What are they?
D. 4 A. the digestive system and the skeletal
system
608. Which of the following is a stimulus?
B. the endocrine system and the muscu-
A. a red light
lar system
B. a fire alarm
C. the muscular system and the nervous
C. a change in air pressure system
D. all of the above
D. the endocrine system and the nervous
609. Examples of things that the body has to system
manage within a certain range include:
614. Hormones travel through your:
A. Body’s checking and savings accounts
B. Blood sugar A. blood
C. Body temperature B. neurons
D. Hydration (water balance-how many C. bone marrow
fluids we contain)
D. brain
E. The brain’s electrical bill
615. If you have diabetes, the gland that helps
610. Several types of second receptors release maintain your sugar levels in equilibrium is
per 1 hormone attached to G protein in your:
plasma membrane is called:
A. gut
A. duplication
B. receptor cascade B. liver
C. amplification C. pancreas
D. hydration D. none of above

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1.25 Endocrine System 811

616. Glands are small organs located through- 621. When an ant in a colony dies, the live
out your body that secrete (that means re- ants will throw the dead ant out of the
lease) substances called: anthill. If a live ant from the colony, ant

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A. Plasma X, is sprayed with a chemical characteristic
of dead ants, the live ants will repeatedly
B. Hormones throw this ant out of the anthill until they
C. Enzymes can no longer detect the chemical on ant
D. Bile X. What is the best explanation for this
behavior?
617. There are 2 ways the body communicates, A. The ants are responding to a chromo-
nervous system and endocrine. What are somal mutation in ant X.
the differences between them?
B. The chemical is exhibiting a feedback
A. Endocrine is fast and nervous is slow mechanism.
B. The endocrine travels through neurons C. The live ants must continue this behav-
and the nervous travels through the circu- ior until they have eliminated ant X.
latory system
D. The chemical acts as a stimulus for a
C. The endocrine is long lasting and the particular behavior.
nervous is fast
622. What are the two major systems of the
D. The endocrine maintains homeostasis
nervous system?
and the nervous does not
A. Central and peripheral
618. A hormone produced by the ovaries that
B. Autonomic and somatic
controls the development of eggs and
adult female characteristics is called: C. Brain and spinal cord
A. Testes D. Sympathetic and parasympathetic
B. Testosterone 623. The pituitary gland consists of a(n)
C. Insulin A. anterior lobe
D. Estrogen B. both lobes
619. The organ system consists of glands that C. posterior lobe
regulate various body functions. D. tri-lobe
A. Endocrine System
624. True or False? Your reproductive system
B. Nervous System is part of the endocrine system
C. Circulatory System A. true
D. Reproductive System B. false
620. Interior portion of the adrenal gland; pro- C. maybe
duces epinephrine and norepinepthrine. D. none of above
A. adrenal medulla 625. What is Hypothyroidism?
B. adrenal cortex A. Thyroid produces too many hormones
C. adrenal glands B. Thyroid doesn’t produce enough hor-
D. medulla mones

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1.25 Endocrine System 812

C. Thyroid doesn’t produce any hor- 631. Jerry was out for a walk when he was
mones approached by a thief who demanded his
D. Thyroid swells up wallet. Immediately his pupils dilated, he
began to perspire, and his heart acceler-
626. Body system that includes all of the ated. These changes were activated by his
hormone-secreting organs and glands; in-
A. sympathetic nervous system
volved in coordination and control of body
activities. B. parasympathetic nervous system

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. endocrine system C. somatic nervous system
B. neuroendocrine cell D. peripheral nervous system
C. exocrine gland
632. What is the Parathyroid?
D. endocrine gland
A. Controls Calcium
627. Which is not a function of the endocrine
system? B. Regulates metabolism
A. Filters blood to remove waste C. Rids of paramecium
B. Maintains mood D. Used in reproduction
C. Controls metabolism
633. Located in the abdomen at the end of the
D. Regulates chemical levels in the blood- fallopian tubes. The female sex glands
stream that store the ova and produce female sex
628. A hormone produced by the adrenal gland hormones
that is a powerful cardiac stimulant: A. Ovaries
A. adrenalin B. testes
B. calcitonin
C. eggs
C. estrogen
D. scrotum
D. oxytocin
634. This is a hormone that is believed to aid
629. Small endocrine glands located on the thy-
in a person’s sleep.
roid gland that produce parathyroid hor-
mone. A. melanocytes
A. thyroid gland B. mccallumocytes
B. parathyroid hormone C. melatonin
C. thymus gland
D. melanin
D. parathyroid gland
635. Which is a short polypeptide?
630. Regulates the activities of other glands
A. TSH
A. ovaries
B. testes B. FSH
C. thymus C. ADH
D. hypothalamus D. PRL

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1.25 Endocrine System 813

636. Which behavior would likely keep your 641. The gonads of the female body are the
nervous system especially your brain
healthy?

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A. uteri
A. smoking B. fallopian tubes
B. watching a scary movie C. prostate glands
C. eating popcorn with butter D. ovaries
D. doing crossword or math puzzles 642. Which hormone raises blood glucose
level?
637. Which is a Tryptophan derivative?
A. mineralocorticoids
A. Thyroxine
B. calcitorin
B. Dopamine
C. gluccocoticoids
C. Melatonin
D. oxytocin
D. Epinephrine
643. How do hormones move around the
638. Which two glands are present in your body?
neck area?
A. Through the blood
A. Adrenal glands and Thyroid glands B. Through the lymphatic system
B. Adrenal glands and Pineal glands C. Through the bronchioli
C. Thyroid glands and Parathyroid glands D. none of above

644. Where are the adrenal glands found in

D. none of above
the body
639. Which statement describes a similarity A. Beside the stomach
between all enzymes, neurotransmitters, B. On top of the kidneys
and hormones?
C. Next to the thyroid gland
A. shape is critical to their ability to func-
tion D. none of above

B. Their ability to replicate ensures more 645. Controls your blood sugar
of the species A. thyroid
C. They work better at 100◦ C than 37◦ C B. pancreas
D. They are made by and carried by the C. adrenals
blood
D. kidneys
640. The failure of a cell to react normally to 646. A is an organ that produces or re-
insulin (a hormone) is most likely leases a chemical.
A. vacuoles A. blood cell
B. receptors B. target cell
C. mitochondria C. gland
D. sugars D. thyroxine

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1.25 Endocrine System 814

647. This gland is often dubbed the “master C. gigantism

gland” because its hormones control other D. achondroplasia
parts of the endocrine system, namely
the thyroid gland, adrenal glands, ovaries, 652. Which organ produces insulin and regu-
and testes. lates blood sugar?
A. pineal A. Hypothalamus
B. hypothalamus B. Thalamus

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. thyroid C. Pancreas
D. Pituitary D. Parathyroid
648. The “cause” for something to happen is 653. Produces the hormone insulin and
the glucagon, which controls the level of glu-
A. response cose in the blood.
B. effect A. Thyroid Gland
C. stimulus B. Pancreas
D. homeostasis C. Thymus Gland
D. Pituitary Gland
649. is the chemical product of an en-
docrine gland. 654. When might your body release
A. insulin adrenaline?
B. hormone A. when you’re waking up from a long
night’s sleep
C. target cells
B. when there isn’t enough calcium in
D. negative feedback
your bloodstream
650. The major role of the interneuron (associ- C. when you’re threatened by a school-
ation neuron) is to yard bully
A. carry information from the central ner- D. when you’ve had too much to eat
vous system to muscles and/or the vis-
cera 655. This organ regulates blood-sugar levels.
B. form a lipid-protein (lipoprotein) cell A. Endocrine System
membrane on the outside of axons B. Pancreas
C. transmit nerve impulses from the skin C. Flight or Fight Response
and organs to the central nervous system
D. Glands
D. connect motor and sensory neurons in
their pathways 656. This is the outer portion of the adrenal
glands.
651. This Condition Makes Your Arms And
Legs Short In Comparison To Your Head A. parietal
And Trunk. B. cortex
A. acromegaly C. medulla
B. addison’s disease D. visceral

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1.25 Endocrine System 815

657. This hormone controls your sleep and 661. In a reflex arc, the sensory neuron leads
wake cycle: to the and the motor neuron leads to
the

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A. insulin
B. melatonin A. Spinal cord, CNS

C. oxytocin B. Brain, effector

D. thyroxine C. Spinal cord, effector

D. Muscle, CNS
658. This disease occurs then too much thy-
roid production an make a child grow too 662. Some of the organs in the Endocrine Sys-
quickly tem are
A. Giantism A. Testes, Ovaries, Pancreas, Thymus,
B. Hypothyroidism Thyroid
C. Hypoglycemia B. Brain, Stomach
D. Diabetes C. Testes, Ovaries, Central Sulcus, Cere-
bellum
659. What is negative feedback?
D. Testes, Pancreas, Frontal Lobe
A. It is when something bad happens to
the endocrine system. 663. The yellow, tadpole-shaped organ that
B. It is when the hormones produce is not produces insulin is the
balanced. A. stomach
C. It is when the production of more hor-
B. spleen
mones is counteracted.
C. pancreas
D. It is when increased hormone secre-
tion is enhanced to produce even more D. hypothalamus
hormones.
664. Endocrine glands produce which main-
660. The anterior pituitary produces the fol- tain the body in homeostasis
lowing hormone(s)
A. oils
A. oxytocin for uterine contraction and
B. neurotransmitters
ADH (anti-diuretic hormone) for re-
absorption of water by kidneys C. tears
B. melatonin which controls wake/sleep D. hormones
cycles and calcitonin which stores calcium
in bones 665. What are glands?
C. prolactin which promotes milk produc- A. Another word for hormones.
tion and growth hormone which promotes
B. Organ where oxygen can pass
growth and development of bone and mus-
through.
cle
C. Cells that removes materials from the
D. parathyroid hormone which targets
blood, concentrates or alters them.
bone destroying cells (osteoclasts) to re-
lease stored calcium D. A type of disease.

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1.25 Endocrine System 816

666. Hormone formed by alpha cells in the 671. The Pituitary Gland is called this
islets of Langerhans in the pancreas; raises A. Least important
the glucose level of blood by stimulating
the liver to break down glycogen. B. adrenals

A. pancreas C. Master Gland

B. hormone D. thymus

C. histamine 672. A woman’s egg cells can be found inside

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. glucagon her:
A. thyroid
667. Glucocorticoid produced by the adrenal
cortex, also called hydrocortisone, that B. ovaries
during fasting assists in maintaining blood C. thymus
glucose levels by promoting the utilization D. testes
of fats by increasing the breakdown of pro-
tein to amino acids in muscle. 673. What is the endocrine systems function?
A. hormone A. control bodily functions
B. cortex B. secrete hormones
C. cortisol C. get rid of waste
D. calcitonin D. control the brain
668. Controls hearing, and language compre- 674. Where are the major endocrine glands lo-
hension cated?
A. Frontal Lobe A. In the head, shoulders, knees, and
B. Temporal Lobe toes
C. Occipital Lobe B. In the abdomen, joints, brain, and
spinal column
D. Parietal Lobe
C. In the brain, neck, abdomen, and groin
669. This type of Diabetes usually happens to D. In the gall bladder, appendix, tonsils,
People After Age 45 And/Or Are Over- and spleen
weight With Hbp.
A. Type I 675. When comparing the Endocrine and Ner-
vous System which of the following is a
B. Type II difference between the two?
C. Type III A. Speed of transmission
D. Type IV B. Duration of transmission
670. Which one of these hormones is involved C. Method of transmission
in controlling our fight or flight response D. All are different
A. oxytocin
676. A condition caused by a failure of the
B. norepinephrine adrenal cortex to secrete sufficient corti-
C. calcitonin sol and aldosterone.
D. GH A. Cushing’s syndrome

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1.25 Endocrine System 817

B. aldosterone 682. What hormone is secreted from the thy-

C. adrenal glands roid gland?

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A. Thysidine
D. Addison’s disease
B. Thyromite
677. All of the following glands are present in
C. Thyroxine
the brain except the gland.
D. none of above
A. hypothalamus
B. pineal 683. Thyroxine and calcitonin are produced by
the gland.
C. thymus
A. adrenal
D. pituitary
B. thymus
678. Two hormones associated with the fe- C. thyroid
male reproductive cycle are
D. pituitary
A. oxytocin and prolactin
684. Hormones help your body by
B. prolactin and estrogen
A. Telling your cells what to do.
C. oxytocin and estrogen
B. Helping you breathe.
D. progesterone and estrogen
C. Sending nerve messages.
679. What is the male hormone produced by D. Oxidising your blood.
the testes?
685. Which of the following gland does NOT
A. adrenalin
belong to the endocrine system?
B. estrogen A. pituitary
C. insulin B. testes
D. testosterone C. salivary
680. Glucocorticoid produced by the adrenal D. thyroid
cortex, also called hydrocortisone, that as-
686. Glands are small organs located through-
sists in maintaining blood glucose levels by
out your body that secrete (release) sub-
promoting the breakdown of proteins.
stances called
A. hormone
A. Plasma
B. cortex
B. Hormones
C. cortisol C. Enzymes
D. calcitonin D. Bile
681. Melatonin is responsible for 687. Where is thyroxin produced?
A. the color of our skin. A. Thyroid gland
B. our body rhythms and sleep patterns. B. Pituitary Gland
C. how high or deep our voice is. C. Fat cells
D. the amount of hair we grow. D. Ovary

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1.25 Endocrine System 818

688. Which of the following are functions of B. Reticular Formation

the thyroid gland?
C. Cerebellum
A. Sleep Cycle
D. Thalamus
B. Growth
C. Blood Glucose Levels 694. Stimulates development of male and fe-
male sex organs for puberty
D. Metabolism and Energy
A. pancreas

NARAYAN CHANGDER
689. Which gland secretes glucagon?
B. adrenals
A. Testes
C. pituitary
B. Adrenal gland
D. hypothalamus
C. Pancreas
D. Gall bladder 695. What hormone produced by the testes
controls the development of physical char-
690. What is the function of the Thyroid gland
acteristics in mature men?
A. Hormones that are used to change the
A. Estrogen
metabolic rate of a person’s body
B. Hormones that are used to help you B. Adrenaline
run C. Testosterone
C. Hormones to help you swallow D. Insulin
D. Penguin
696. The chemical substances produced by en-
691. Why is the pituitary gland considered the docrine glands are called what?
main gland of the endocrine system?
A. hormones
A. It sends nerve impulses to other en-
docrine glands to control their secretion B. drugs
of hormones C. blood
B. It secretes hormones that control the D. tissues
secretion of other endocrine glands
C. It has the largest size 697. Secretes Growth Hormone
D. It is located below the hypothalamus A. Pituitary

692. All hormones B. Pancreas

A. are produced by endocrine glands. C. Ovaries
B. are carried to target cells in the blood. D. Testes
C. are lipid-soluble molecules.
698. Part of endocrine system
D. are protein molecules.
A. Pancreas
693. Receives sensory information and relays
B. Lungs
it to the proper part of brain for further
processing C. Kidney
A. Hypothalamus D. Spleen

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1.25 Endocrine System 819

699. Hormone produced by the Adrenal Glands 705. Which hormone regulates calcium levels
A. adrenaline in the blood?

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B. Thyroxine A. ACTH
B. FSH
C. Testosterone
C. PTH
D. Growth hormone
D. Calctonin
700. A hormone containing iodine that is se-
creted by the thyroid gland. 706. An endocrine gland that controls many
body activities.
A. melatonin
A. hormone
B. histamine
B. pituitary gland
C. hormone
C. hypothalamus
D. thyroxine
D. homeostasis
701. Which type of neuron causes a muscle to
contract in a reflex arc? 707. Oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone are
synthesized in the
A. Motor Neuron
A. hypothalamus
B. Sensory Neuron
B. anterior pituitary
C. Interneuron
C. posterior pituitary
D. Effector
D. adrenal cortex
702. What type of hormone is composed of
708. The electrical charge that travels down
cholesterol?
the axon is called?
A. Steroid hormones
A. Chemicals
B. Nonsteroid hormones B. Neurotransmitters
C. both C. Action Potential
D. neither D. Excitatory
703. Testosterone is for 709. This gland controls metabolism, which is
A. male secondary sex characteristics. the speed at which our bodies use calories.
B. female secondary sex characteristics. A. hypothalamus
C. male primary sex characteristics. B. pituitary
D. aroused responses of men. C. thyroid
D. pancreas
704. What are some diseases for the En-
docrine system? 710. Where are hormones produced?
A. Thyroid Cancer and Type 1 diabetes A. Glands
B. Influenza and asthma B. Bloodstream
C. Kidney disease C. Target organs
D. Gallstones D. Target Cells

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1.25 Endocrine System 820

711. these hormones promote secondary sex B. cerebral cortex

characteristics in females C. hindbrain
A. testosterone and GH D. forebrain
B. epinephrine and nor-epinephrine
717. Shape of this gland resembles a pine
C. estrogen and progesterone
cone.
D. prolactin and oxytocin
A. Pituitary

NARAYAN CHANGDER
712. Promotes a strong immune system by B. Pineal
producing T-cells (T-lymphocytes)
C. Pancreas
A. epinephrine
D. Thymus
B. insulin
718. The endocrine system helps to maintain a
C. thymosin
stable environment in a process known as
D. testosterone

713. The purpose of the endocrine system is to A. peristalsis

A. maintain homeostasis by reacting B. homeostasis
quickly to stimuli C. metabolism
B. produce substances that protect the D. respiration
body from bacteria
C. maintain metabolism, growth and de- 719. Hypothyroidism is caused by thyrox-
velopment in homeostasis ine secretion, whereas hyperthyroidism is
caused by thyroxine secretion.
D. transport molecules throughout the
body A. adequate, excessive
B. inadequate, excessive
714. This hormone regulates body energy us-
age. C. adequate, insufficient
A. triiodothyronine (T3) D. inadequate, insufficient
B. thyroxine (T4) 720. Glucose levels in the blood are controlled
C. adrenaline by the:
D. calcitonin A. Pancreas
B. Thyroid
715. Which hormones remain functional for
several weeks? C. Parathyroids
A. Thyroid Hormones D. Adrenal Glands
B. Steroid Hormones 721. Which detects at least five different
C. Both chemical substances?
D. Neither A. Semicircular canals

716. The amygdala, the hypothalamus and the B. Cochlea

hippocampus are a part of C. Taste bud
A. limbic system D. Anvil

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1.25 Endocrine System 821

722. The main elements of the endocrine sys- 727. Which is NOT a mechanism of action for
tem are Hormones?

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A. The glands, hormones, and cell recep- A. Alter Genetic Activity
tors B. Alter the rate of Protein Synthesis
B. The glands, nerves, and blood vessels C. Change Membrane Permeability
C. The blood, tissue, and brain D. Stops Mitotic activity
D. The hormones, blood, and brain 728. A narrow band of thyroid tissue that
holds together the 2 lobes of the thyroid
723. Endocrine gland thought to be involved in
gland.
setting the biological clock and influencing
reproductive function. A. ampulla
A. adrenal glands B. lobelus
B. thymus gland C. isthmus
C. pineal gland D. thymus

D. pituitary gland 729. A pair of endocrine glands just above

the kidneys that releases the hormone
724. These are glands or organs that secrete adrenaline?
into the internal environment;they do not
A. Hypothalamus
have ducts.
B. Ovaries
A. parietal glands
C. Testes
B. endocrine glands
D. Adrenal
C. exocrine glands
730. this hormone causes an increase in bone
D. visceral glands
density, deepening of the voice, and in-
725. A hypersecretion of growth hormone dur- creased production of body and facial hair
ing adulthood causes: A. estrogen
A. gigantism B. insulin
B. short statue (dwarfism) C. testosterone
C. acromegaly D. progesterone
D. myxedema 731. This is caused by under activity of the thy-
roid gland;causes myexdema
726. What is the function of Thyroxine in the
body? A. hyperthyroidism
B. hypothyroidism
A. Metabolism-rate of chemical reactions
in cells C. exophthalmos
B. To produce saliva for mechanical di- D. duntemanism
gestion
732. Caused by under secretion of the growth
C. Respiration and oxygen transfer hormone; stunted growth.
D. none of above A. acromegaly

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1.25 Endocrine System 822

B. thyroidism 738. Automatic functions, such as the heart

beating, are controlled by the
C. dwyerism
A. Central nervous system
D. dwarfism
B. Peripheral nervous system
733. Bodys control command organ C. Autonomic nervous system
A. Brain D. Somatic nervous system
B. Spinal cord

NARAYAN CHANGDER
739. A cell in the body that recognizes a hor-
C. Stomach mone’s chemical structure:
D. Heart A. Hormone Cell
B. Target Cell
734. The impulse changes to as it moves
ACROSS the synapse to other neurons. C. Stem Cell
A. electrical D. Red Blood Cell

B. chemical 740. Total of how fast your body uses energy

C. it stays the same A. energy levels
D. liquid B. metabolism
C. sugar levels
735. Adrenaline is secreted from which
gland? D. No such thing!

A. The Kidneys 741. This hormone increases heart rate,

breathing rate as well as blood pressure
B. The Adrenal Gland
A. Adrenaline
C. The Pituitary Gland
B. Insuline
D. The Parathyroid Gland
C. Hystamine
736. Which of these are functions to the en- D. Melanine
docrine system?
742. The adrenal glands release adrenaline
A. Blood pressure that give you superman strength and to
B. Growth help the body regulate
C. Eating A. diseases
D. Development B. body temperature.
C. stress.
737. What does Adrenocorticotropin (ACTH)
do? D. none of above

A. stimulates growth in gonads 743. The “master gland” is known as the

B. stimulates the production of eggs and A. thyroid gland.
sperm B. adrenal gland.
C. stimulates milk production C. pancreas.
D. stimulates thyroid D. pituitary gland.

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1.25 Endocrine System 823

744. How do the hormones get around the C. histamine

body? D. hormone

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A. Through the circulatory system
750. What is the Hypothalamus responsible
B. Through the skeletal system
for?
C. Through the digestive system
A. Senses the body’s needs and sends
D. Through the respiratory system signals to different organs
745. Melatonin is released by which gland? B. Maintains homeostasis
A. thyroid C. Produce sperm and to produce hor-
B. gonads mones
C. pineal D. none of above
D. adrenal 751. The location of the pineal gland is at the
746. The secretions from endocrine glands are base of the
called These are complex chemicals A. brain
that influence actions at distant sites and
B. neck
control body functions.
C. coccyx
A. Hormones
B. Sebaceous Fluids D. sternum

C. Purulent Drainage 752. The “Master Gland” that secretes many

D. Lymph hormones, some of which affect other
glands.
747. The gland that stimulates body
A. Pituitary Gland
metabolism
A. Thyroid B. Thyroid Gland

B. testes C. Adrenal Gland

C. ovary D. Pancreas Gland
D. adrenal 753. Gland that helps fight infection
748. Hormone that is structurally related to A. pituitary
proteins and are lipid insoluble. B. thyroid
A. steroid hormone
C. thymus
B. parathyroid hormone
D. pancreas
C. nonsteroid hormone
D. norepinephrine 754. which of these organs work with the en-
docrine system,
749. Substance produced by basophils and
A. Thyroid gland
mast cells that causes vasodilation and in-
creases vascular permeability. B. heart
A. thyroxine C. Pancreas
B. insulin D. lungs

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1.25 Endocrine System 824

755. Part of the peripheral that controls con- B. Addison’s disease

scious activities C. histamine
A. autonomic D. endocrine system
B. somatic
760. What two systems work together to pro-
C. sympathetic vide communication for your body?
D. parasympathetic A. Nervous and Respiratory

NARAYAN CHANGDER
756. What is the main function of the en- B. Endocrine Respiratory
docrine system? C. Nervous and Endocrine
A. It creates chemicals, or hormones, D. Circulatory and Respiratory
that are sent around the body to maintain
homeostasis. 761. This part of the neuron carries mes-
sages from the body cell to the terminal
B. It creates electrical messages that are
branches.
sent around the body to maintain home-
ostasis. A. axon
C. It maintains the correct level of oxygen B. neurons
in the body to maintain homeostasis. C. dendrites
D. It releases waste from the body to D. pancreas
maintain homeostasis.
762. What is homeostastis?
757. Which of the following is the nervous sys-
A. When the glands receive feedback
tem’s main control center?
B. When the hormones communicate in-
A. the brain
formation from one set of glands to an-
B. the peripheral nerve other
C. the neuron C. When the endocrine system works to
D. the spinal cord, which is made up of maintain stable internal conditions
peripheral nerves D. none of above
758. The male reproductive organs that pro- 763. This gland is regulated by glucose level in
duces sperm and testosterone is called: the blood
A. Ovaries A. thyroid gland
B. Testes B. pituitary
C. Hypothalamus C. pancreas
D. Thymus D. adrenal
759. Disease caused by too much cortisol 764. Increases heart rate and breathing
from excessive production of glucose from rate;increases blood pressure
glycogen and protein, and retention of too A. adrenals
much salt; causes fat accumulation in cer-
tain areas of the body including the face, B. thyroid
abdomen, and back of the neck. C. parathyroid
A. Cushing’s syndrome D. pancreas

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1.25 Endocrine System 825

765. How do hormones get to the rest of your 771. Adolescence is a life stage characterized
body? by ALL except:

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A. respiratory system A. growth spurt
B. nervous system B. puberty (sexual maturity)
C. circulatory system C. spending more time w/friends
D. reproductive system D. decrease in memory
766. Hormone released by the parathyroid 772. Which describes homeostasis?
glands that regulates blood calcium levels.
A. change in homeostatic environment
A. steroid hormone
B. a stable internal environment-
B. parathyroid gland (nutrition, metabolism, excretion, water
C. nonsteroid hormone and salt balances).
D. parathyroid hormone C. is the ability of a neuron to respond to
the stimulus and convert it into a nerve im-
767. What gland secretes thyroxine? pulse
A. Adrenals D. They send important information from
B. Parathyroids one set of cells to another.
C. Pineal Body
773. Hormones from this gland control other
D. Thyroid endocrine glands
768. Hormones released by endocrine glands A. Pituitary
travel to B. Hypothalamus
A. the lungs C. Thymus
B. the heart D. Pancreas
C. individual target cells
774. The largest gland in the body that pro-
D. the brain duces hormones T3 and T4 to regulate
769. Can a hormone affect any cell? metabolism.

A. Yes, they affect all cells A. pituitary gland

B. No, the cell has to have a matching re- B. thyroid gland

ceptor C. adrenal gland
C. Maybe D. thymus gland
D. Depends on the situation
775. Which one of the following hormones
770. and trigger egg development in a stimulates the breakdown of glycogen in
woman’s body. the liver into glucose
A. estrogen and testosterone A. Insulin
B. estrogen and adreniline B. Adrenaline
C. testosterone and progesterone C. Glucagon
D. estrogen and testosterone D. Thyroxine

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1.25 Endocrine System 826

776. Which of the following hormones does 781. Which of these hormones stimulates the
not act via a second messenger system? contractions during childbirth?
A. Glucagon A. prolactin
B. Epinephrine B. oxytocin
C. GH C. oestrogen
D. Testosterone D. progesterone
782. What is the Hypothalamus?

NARAYAN CHANGDER
777. These glands secrete into external envi-
ronment; They have ducts. A. Helps metabolism
A. parietal glands B. Regulates blood sugar
B. endocrine glands C. Helps develop physical characteristics
C. visceral glands D. Maintains Homeostasis
D. exocrine glands 783. What does your thyroid gland do?
778. Hyper secretion of which hormone causes A. regulates metabolism/calorie burning
gigantism? for energy
A. Adreno-corticotrophic hormo B. secretes insulin
B. Human growth hormone C. secretes bile
C. Leuteinising hormone D. none of above
D. Oxytocin 784. This disease occurs when the Thryroid
gland does not produce enough Thyroxine
779. Structural Class of Hormones that are
to meet the body’s needs.
smallest in size.
A. Gigantism
A. Lipid Derivatives
B. Hypoglycemia
B. Peptide Hormones
C. Hypothyroidism
C. Amino Acid Derivatives
D. Diabetes
D. Carbohydrate Derivatives
785. Increases and decreases blood sugar
780. What are the levels of organization start- level
ing from simple to complex?
A. parathyroid
A. cells-tissues-organs-organ systems-
B. pancreas
organisms-populations-communities-
ecosystem C. pituitary
B. ecosystem-communitites-populations- D. adrenal
organisms-organ systems-organs-
786. Which of the following hormones is NOT
tissues-cells
secreted by the anterior pituitary?
C. cells-organs-tissues-organ systems- A. GH
populations-ecosystem
B. oxytocin
D. tissue-cells-organs-organ systems-
organisms-populations-communities- C. TSH
ecosystem D. PRL

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1.25 Endocrine System 827

787. Which of these diseases are bad for the C. Ca+

endocrine system?
D. Cl-

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A. heartburn
792. What gland secretes hormones responsi-
B. thyroid cancer
ble for the “fight or flight” response?
C. happiness
A. Pineal
D. stress
B. Ovaries
788. The skeletal system interacts with the
C. Adrenaline
nervous system by protecting the spinal
cord. However, if a person breaks his D. Pituitary
neck, it is common that the spinal cord is
damaged or even completely ripped. What 793. The part of the autonomic nervous sys-
is the likely effect of a broken neck? tem that calms the body after a scare.
A. the person will be unable to blink and A. Sympathetic
smile B. Parasympathetic
B. the person will be able to move arms C. Peripheral
and legs but much more slowly
D. Somatic
C. the brain will not be able to communi-
cate with the peripheral nerves 794. Along with the nervous system, the
D. the peripheral nerves will receive sig- system coordinates the various activities
nals from the brain but will be unable to of body parts.
send signals A. digestive
789. The skin produces which helps vita- B. endocrine
min D to absorb calcium.
C. circulatory
A. gastrin
D. respiratory
B. cholecalciferol
C. cholesterol 795. Insulin and Glucagon are both produced
by the
D. antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
A. Thyroid
790. What is the role of the nervous system?
B. Pituitary Gland
A. to transport oxygen
C. Adrenal Glands
B. to protect organs
D. Pancreas
C. to send and receive chemical mes-
sages 796. What is a gland?
D. to gather and respond to information A. Group of muscles that work together
791. Which is NOT a common Second Messen- B. Fat Cluster
ger? C. A group of cells that produce and se-
A. cAMP crete chemicals
B. cGMP D. Cancerous tissue

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1.25 Endocrine System 828

797. Insulin is released in response to: C. Threshold

A. low blood glucose levels D. Impulse
B. low blood calcium levels 803. Insulin causes
C. high blood glucose levels A. a decrease in the concentration of
D. high blood calcium levels blood glucose

798. This hormone stimulates the thyroid B. a decrease in the permeability of cell
membranes to glucose

NARAYAN CHANGDER
gland
A. Luteinizing hormone C. an increase in the production of glu-
cose from glycogen
B. prolactin
D. a release of adrenaline into the body
C. thyroid-stimulating hormone
D. growth hormone 804. Hormone that develops male sex charac-
teristics
799. What gland secretes a hormone that can A. Follicle Stimulating Hormone
cause metabolism to increase?
B. Testosterone
A. Thyroid
C. Estrogen
B. Parathyroid
D. Glucagon
C. Adrenal
D. Pancreas 805. This system sends chemical mes-
sagengers (hormones) that regulate
800. produces the hormons insulin and growth, development, and metabolism.
glucagon.
A. endocrine
A. thyroid
B. nervous
B. thymus
C. immune
C. pancreas
D. skeletal
D. tests
806. Gland that controls your growth
801. What are ovaries?
A. pituitary
A. Male part, used in reproduction and
B. thyroid
fertility
C. adrenal
B. Female part, used to store hormones
D. thymus
C. Found in both, used to store hormones
D. Female part, used in reproduction and 807. A hormone secreted by the pancreas that
fertility enhances the uptake of glucose by cells,
thus lowering blood glucose levels.
802. What is the chemical used by a neuron to
transmit an impulse across a synapse to A. medulla
another nerve cell? B. insulin
A. Neurotransmitters C. histamine
B. Synapse D. hormone

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1.25 Endocrine System 829

808. People with enlarged thyroid glands de- 813. What gland is located in the throat and
velop a condition called “goiter”. This is controls metabolism?
often visible as:

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A. Thymus
A. a growth on the forehead B. Thyroid
B. a lump in the neck C. Adrenal
C. a swelling in the abdomen D. Pineal
D. pimples on the back 814. Hormone regulation operates under
which type of feedback mechanism?
809. The process of maintaining a constant in-
ternal environment. (life) A. positive feedback
B. negative feedback
A. Endothermic
C. zero feedback
B. Homeostasis
D. Hormones are not regulated
C. Goiter
815. controls the release of energy from
D. Ovaries
food molecules.
810. How many parts does the brain have? A. adrenal
A. 1 B. hypothalamus

B. 2 C. thyroid
D. parathyroid
C. 3
D. 4 816. targets bone and muscle to promote
growth and development
811. Which gland regulates the immune sys- A. growth hormone
tem; helps fight disease?
B. prolactin
A. Ovaries C. oxytocin
B. Testes D. ADH (antidiuretic hormone)
C. Pituitary
817. Which Endocrine gland/organ is only
D. Thymus present during pregnancy?
A. Pineal gland
812. Which statement best describes the func-
tion of the nervous system in the body? B. Thymus
A. to protect other organs and tissues C. Ovaries
D. Placenta
B. send messages to body parts using
only chemicals 818. What gland secretes hormones that keep
C. to gather information through the your electrolytes balanced by deciding how
senses (stimuli) and also control all other much sodium and potassium you body
body systems needs.

D. to transport oxygen and carbon diox- A. Testosterone

ide B. Cortisol

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1.25 Endocrine System 830

C. Adrenaline C. testes
D. Parathyroid Hormone D. parathyroid

819. What controls the pituitary gland? 825. These cells have specific receptors for
specific hormones.
A. thalamus
A. receptor cells
B. hypothalamus
B. target cells
C. adrenal cortex
C. gonzalez cells

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. medulla oblongata
D. lambert cells
820. Which of your glands is responsible for 826. together these two hormones produced
the tallest man in the world’s height? by the pancreas control blood sugar levels
A. pancreas A. epinephrine and nor-epinephrine
B. pituitary B. T3 and T4
C. thyroid C. estrogen and progesterone
D. none of above D. insulin and glucagon

821. What hormone does the pancreas se- 827. This hormone raises blood sugar levels
crete? A. insulin
A. Insulin and glucagon B. glucagon
B. Testosterone and progesterone C. epinephrine
C. Thyroxine D. norepinephrine
D. none of above 828. Which hormone promotes the kidneys to
reabsorb water?
822. Insulin is a hormone produced by the
A. oxytocin
A. liver
B. LH
B. bladder
C. ADH
C. pancreas
D. PRL
D. heart
829. Which gland produces female reproduc-
823. Girls and boys both experience these tive hormones?
physical changes: A. Ovaries
A. facial hair B. Testes
B. broader shoulders C. Pituitary
C. oily skin D. Thymus
D. hips widen 830. When was the term hormone used?
824. Maintains the level of calcium and phos- A. Early 1700s
phorous in the blood B. Late 1900s
A. thymus C. Late 1700s
B. ovaries D. Early 1900s

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1.25 Endocrine System 831

831. There are about one million cells that 837. This is an enlarged thyroid gland and is
make up this part of the pancreas; of the diffuse type.

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A. islet of langerhans A. gaiter
B. islet of santorini B. goiter
C. islet of leila
C. acromegaly
D. islet of vater
D. schobel’s disease
832. Cortisone hormone is secreted by:
A. Medulla of adrenal 838. The hormone produced by the thyroid
gland that regulates calcium levels is
B. Cortex of adrenal
A. calcitonin
C. Pancreas
D. Thyroid B. thyroxine

833. The sense organs and the muscles are C. triiodothyronine

part of the D. norepinephrine
A. Central nervous system
839. Organs that filter blood to remove
B. Peripheral nervous system
wastes collected from all cells
C. Autonomic nervous system
A. Ureters
D. Somatic nervous system
B. Kidneys
834. What is a difference between Nervous &
Endocrine System regulation? C. Urethra

A. rely on release of chemicals that bind D. Epiglottis

receptors on target cells
840. Which type of neuron conveys messages
B. length of time of action
from your brain and spinal cord to your
C. negative feedback mechanisms muscles in order to control your body’s
D. homeostasis movements?

835. What is the Thymus? A. Interneuron

A. Produces M cells B. Motor
B. Produces Red blood cells C. Sensory
C. Produces T cells D. Endocrine
D. Sends oxygen
841. small glands located on the posterior side
836. The organs that make up the endocrine of the thyroid gland, that regulate calcium.
system are called what?
A. thyroid gland
A. Glands
B. Cells B. parathyroid gland

C. Tissues C. thymus gland

D. Hormones D. cole gland

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 1.26 Skin 832

842. Diabetes is a homeostatic imbalance A. the body to produce reproductive cells

where the production of hormone is af- B. cells to communicate with each other
fected.
C. cells to synthesize proteins
A. Adrenaline
D. the body to convert inorganic material
B. Insulin into organic nutrients
C. Estrogen
845. Most freely circulating hormones remain
D. Oxytocin active from minutes to hour(s).

NARAYAN CHANGDER
843. The master gland is known as the: A. 1, 10
A. pituitary B. 2, 1
B. thyroid C. 20, 20
C. adrenal D. 60, 200
D. ovary 846. An enlargement of the thyroid gland is
844. Molecules in a certain medication attach called:
to receptors on nerve cells. This prevents A. insulinoma
the normalchemical signal from binding to B. goiter
the receptor. One immediate result of tak-
ing this medication might be a disruption C. adenocarcinoma
in the ability of D. myxedema

1.26 Skin
1. Which of the following statements is TRUE B. tissue damaged caused by extreme
regarding hair loss? cold or contact
A. Stem cells in hair follicles losing their C. localized skin infection in a gland or
ability to develop hair follicle
B. Hair loss occurs during the telogen D. skin redness
stage
4. The epidermis is highly thickened in the
C. You lose 50-100 hairs per day
D. All of the following statements are true A. Eyelid
B. Thigh
2. Where is the epidermis the thickest on the
body? C. Lip

A. palms D. Palm
B. scalp 5. What is the name of the middle layer?
C. arms A. dermis
D. stomach B. subcutaneous
3. What is a furuncle? C. epidermis
A. small area of healing tissue D. none of above

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1.26 Skin 833

6. The sebaceous gland produces an oil. what 12. What does sunlight (UV exposure) do to
is that oil called? folate in our body?
A. breaks it down

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A. hair oil
B. olive oil B. builds it up
C. sebaceous C. creates it
D. sebum D. makes it stronger

7. What does melanin protect? 13. The hypodermis is also referred to as

A. The nucleus A. subcutaneous

B. subdermis
B. Nucleic acid
C. lower epidermis
C. Folate
D. none of above
D. All of the above
14. What is the largest organ in the human
8. What layer of skin senses pain? body?
A. callus A. Skin
B. epidermis B. Hair
C. dermis C. Nails
D. hypodermis D. All of the Above
9. Select the option which is not a function of 15. deepest skin layer, contains blood vessels,
the skin sweat and oil glands, deep pressure recep-
A. Protection tors
A. papillary layer
B. Temperature regulation
B. reticular layer
C. Sensory Reception
C. dermal layer
D. Burns Fat
D. epidermal layer
10. Which of the following behaviors has lead
to Vitamin D deficiencies such as rickets 16. The stratum germinativum is composed of
disease in the US? several layers with special cells that pro-
duce a dark skin pigment called:
A. Popularity of soda
A. granules
B. Minimal time outdoors
B. melanin
C. Alternatives to milk C. elongated
D. All of the above D. keratin
11. Layer of skin that is avascular with flat- 17. What is the evolutionary benefit for dark
tened cells full of keratin skin near the equator?
A. hypodermis A. Skin cancer protection
B. endodermis B. Folate Protection
C. dermis C. It has no evolutionary relationship
D. epidermis D. Easier vitamin D production

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1.26 Skin 834

18. How can someone prevent skin cancer C. Jaundice

A. Avoid sun exposure D. Low Melanin Production
B. Wear sunscreen regularly E. Tanning
C. Avoid tanning beds
24. the inner layer of the skin
D. Wear protective clothing
A. dermis
E. Check skin regularly
B. melanin

NARAYAN CHANGDER
19. Melanin is found in the layer of the
skin. C. pores
A. middle D. skin
B. top 25. What are melanocytes?
C. bottom
A. The cells that make the skin water-
D. none of above proof
20. Skin color is due to a pigment called B. The cells that make pigment
A. Keratin C. The cells that cover the skin
B. Melanin D. The cells that make the skin harder
C. Chromatin
26. Sweating to regulate body temperature is
D. Epithelium an example of
21. What layer of skin connects to muscle and A. negative feedback
bone?
B. positive feedback
A. callus
C. a homeostatic imbalance
B. epidermis
D. aging
C. dermis
D. hypodermis 27. Which layer of skin is AVASCULAR (lack of
blood cells)?
22. What is the part of the dermis that makes
the sweat and moves it to the skin’s sur- A. hypodermis
face? B. epidermis
A. Blood vessels C. dermis
B. Nerves D. none of above
C. Oil glands
28. This substance is in the dermis and gives
D. Sweat glands
color to the skin?
23. Skin exposure to sunlight stimulates A. oil
melanocytes to produce more melanin pig-
ment, resulting in the of the skin. B. nutients
A. Freckles & Moles C. sweat
B. Pallor or Blanching D. pigment

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1.26 Skin 835

29. In which layer do you find the sweat 35. What gland is responsible for keeping our
glands? hair soft and is a barrier for bacteria and
fungi?

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A. subcutaneous
B. dermis A. Sudoriferous
C. epidermis B. Sebaceous
D. none of above C. Melanin

30. The layer of the epidermis that is capable D. Carotene

of dividing is
36. It is the body’s glands that secretes an
A. Stratum basale oily liquid that naturally moisturizes the
B. Stratum corneum skin.
C. Stratum lucidum A. sweat gland
D. Stratum spinosum B. eccrine
31. Which is NOT a function of the skin? C. sebaceous gland
A. Insulation D. apocrine
B. Movement
37. What type of cut will have a scab?
C. Excretion
A. shallow
D. Vitamin D Production
B. deep
32. The pigment that gives skin its color and
protects from UV radiation is C. medium

A. keratin D. all cuts have scabs

B. melanin 38. What is the evolutionary benefit of light
C. chromatin skin in the northern latitude.
D. dermatin A. Skin cancer protection
33. What is Pheomelanin? B. Folate Protection
A. A type of melanin that produces dark C. It has no evolutionary relationship
brown/black skin D. Easier vitamin D production
B. A type of melanin that produces red-
dish/yellow pigment 39. Which of the following lists the stratum of
C. An enzyme that controls skin color the epidermis from superficial to deep?

D. An enzyme that produces melanin A. corneum, lucidum, granulosum,

spinosum, basale
34. The roots of the hair are in the?
B. basale, spinosum, granulosum, lu-
A. epidermis cidum, corneum
B. dermis C. granulosum, lucidum, corneum,
C. hypodermis basale, spinosum
D. indodermis D. none of above

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1.26 Skin 836

40. How many taste buds are there in your 46. This part is 3 mm thick, it contains blood
tongue? vessels, nerves, hair root, and glands, con-
A. 1000-2000 taste buds tains all living cells?
B. 3000-10 000 taste buds A. dermis

C. 300-1000 taste buds B. epidermis

D. none of above C. blood

D. heart
41. What’s an example of something the skin

NARAYAN CHANGDER
keeps in our body? 47. Epithelial tissue that is dry and exposed to
the outside of the body. Barrier against
A. Water
outside agents. ex. skin
B. Germs
A. cutaneous
C. Oil
B. mucous
D. Sweat
C. serous
42. An abnormal mass of cancer cells is called D. synovial
a
48. what are some remedies for skin allergy
A. tumor
A. biopsy
B. cyst
B. papaya
C. lesion
C. calamine
D. polyp
D. calcium
43. Melanin protects
49. The layer of the dermis that houses the
A. Vitamin D breakdown nerve endings which provide the body
B. Folate breakdown with the sense of touch is found in the:
C. DNA mutations A. secretory layer
D. Bones from breakdown B. reticular layer
C. dermal layer
44. How does melanin protect cell’s DNA from
the damaging effects of Ultraviolet light? D. papillary layer
A. It relies on folate 50. The dermis is the layer of skin.
B. It doesn’t you must use sunscreen A. 1st
C. it activates vitamin D3 production B. 2nd
which takes care of that C. 3rd
D. Forms a protective cap over the nu- D. 4th
cleus of skin cells
51. Which are function(s) of the skin (Choose
45. What causes goose bumps? all that apply)
A. hair follicles A. hold in water
B. sebaceous glands B. protect from infection
C. arrector pili muscle C. provide the sense of touch
D. hot weather D. regulate body temperature

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1.26 Skin 837

52. Which layer houses pain and touch recep- C. keratin

tors?
D. collagen

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A. epidermis
B. dermis 58. Which vitamin can be manufactured by
skin exposure to the sun?
C. hypodermis
A. Thiamin
D. none of above
B. Vitamin K
53. When the blood is poorly oxygenated, the
epidermis of light-skinned people appears C. Vitamin D
blue or gray. In dark-skinned people, it is D. none of above
apparent in their nail beds.
A. Bruising 59. The bumpy part of the tongue.
B. Carotene A. papillae
C. Hemoglobin B. tongue
D. Erythema C. saliva
E. Cyanosis D. posterior
54. Dead skin cells fall off of this.
60. This infection seems to be highly prevalent
A. Dermis it hospitals and is highly contagious.
B. Epidermis A. mrsa-staph infection
C. Oil glands B. vitilago
D. Sweat glands
C. exzema
55. The term for a skin flake? D. impetigo
A. patch
61. The matrix is is wrapped around the derma
B. crust
papilla, it forms new hair cells. What are
C. scale they called?
D. wheal A. blood cell
56. Small processes in the dermis which con- B. bone cells
tain blood capillaries and nerve endings
C. nerve cells
A. Hair
D. melanocytes
B. Nails
C. Papillae 62. New skin cells are formed every
weeks.
D. none of above
A. 3
57. The cells that produce the dark skin pig-
ment called melanin are? B. 4
A. papule C. 2
B. melanocytes D. none of above

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1.26 Skin 838

63. What keeps the body at a constant tem- 69. What is the function of the derma papilla?
perature? A. To produce sebum
A. Blood vessels B. To make the hair bad condition
B. Nerves C. To nourish the hair follicle
C. Oil glands D. To get rid of dead skin
D. Sweat glands
70. These are the tiny openings on your skin
64. Goosebumps are caused by contractions of that release sweat.

NARAYAN CHANGDER
the muscle A. Hair Follicle
A. Arrector pili B. Stomata
B. Apocrine C. Melanin
C. Eccrine D. Pores
D. Sebaceous 71. Which of the following lists the stratum
65. Which of the following is the top layer of of the epidermis from SUPERFICIAL TO
the epidermis? DEEP?
A. basale A. corneum, lucidum, granulosum,
spinosum, germinativum
B. spinosum
B. germinativum spinosum, granulosum,
C. granulosum lucidum, corneum
D. lucidum C. granulosum, lucidum, corneum, germi-
E. corneum nativum, spinosum
66. The principal heat regulating region of the D. none of above
body 72. Bleaching your hair will
A. Thyroid glaind A. Remove original pigment of hair
B. Hypothalamus B. Disturbs scales on cuticle
C. Epidermis C. Lead to hair loss
D. none of above D. Bleaching will lead to all of the above
67. Where are the sweat glands located? 73. Which layer of the skin does NOT contain
A. dermis blood vessels?
B. epidermis A. epidermis
C. hypodermis B. hypodermis
D. none of above C. dermis
D. none of above
68. a structure out of which strands of hair
grow 74. What is the thickest layer of skin?
A. Follicles A. epidermis
B. Pores B. dermis
C. Head C. hypodermis
D. Eyelashes D. subcutaneous

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1.26 Skin 839

75. The tiny grains of pigment deposited in C. the inner most layer
cells that provide skin with its color are:
D. none of above

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A. keratin
B. protein 81. The outside covering of your body. It is
the largest organ?
C. melanin
A. skin
D. collagen
B. nerves
76. The tough protein that gives hair, nails,
C. blood
and the outer layers of skin its strength
is D. small intestine
A. keratin
82. What is a critical role of the blood vessels
B. melanin in the dermis
C. chromatin A. Cooling
D. dermatin B. Protection against being cut
77. Red and itchy skin that burns or itches, can C. Protection from water
lead to blisters or legion. D. Nerve response
A. impetigo
83. Which layer contains accessory structures
B. ringworm
such as sweat glands, sebaceous glands,
C. eczema and hair follicles?
D. psoriasis A. epidermis
78. Select which is NOT an important role of B. dermis
the skin. C. hypodermis
A. excretion
D. hyperdermis
B. filtration
C. temperature regulation 84. What gives the skin color?

D. none of above A. paste

B. sun
79. What is the name of tube that our hair
grows from? C. pigment
A. Follicle D. albino
B. Root
85. Which process is responsible for providing
C. Shaft nutrients to the more superficial layers of
D. Sebaceous the epidermis?
A. diffusion
80. What layer of skin has a layer of fat asso-
ciated with it? B. mitosis
A. the outer most layer C. arteries
B. the middle layer D. capillaries

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1.26 Skin 840

86. Fingerprints help you things and hold 92. Black-and-blue marks that reveal sites
them. through the epidermis where blood has es-
A. Slide caped from the circulation and has clotted
in the tissue spaces.
B. Drop
A. Bruising
C. Wet
B. Carotene
D. Grip
C. Hemoglobin

NARAYAN CHANGDER
87. What is the most damaging burn? D. Erythema
A. 1st degree E. Cyanosis
B. 2nd degree
93. How many layers of skin do we have?
C. 3rd degree
A. 2
D. none of above
B. 3
88. What is the condition called when your C. 1
skin is a yellowish tint?
D. none of above
A. Jaundice
94. The integumentary system includes the
B. Albino
A. cardiovascular system
C. Cyanosis
B. digestive organs
D. Erythema
C. Eyes and ears
89. Why does skin get inflamed? D. hair, nails and skin
A. acne
95. What is the top layer of skin called?
B. blood loss
A. callus
C. excess fluid for damaged tissue
B. epidermis
D. to teach you a lesson
C. dermis
90. The functions of the skin include all of D. hypodermis
these except:
96. Who would be most at risk of developing
A. taking in nutrients
rickets, a bone disease caused by insuffi-
B. Reducing water loss cient calcium absorption?
C. preventing the entry of microorgan- A. Children born to mothers with dark
isms skin living far from the equator.
D. regulating body temperature B. Adults with dark skin who live close to
the equator.
91. How many epidermal layers does “thin
skin” contain? C. Children born to mothers with light
skin, living close to the equator.
A. 3
D. Adults with light skin who live close to
B. 4 the equator.
C. 5 E. Anyone who eats a diet that includes a
D. 6 lot of fish

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1.26 Skin 841

97. How many layers of skin are there? C. Epidermis

A. 1 D. Dermis

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B. 2 103. Sweat glands are found in the
C. 4 A. epidermis layer
D. 3 B. dermis layer
98. People with light complexioned skin C. subcutaneous layer
mostly produce D. none of above
A. Melanin
104. Where on the body would we find “thick
B. Eumelanin skin”? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY!!!
C. Pheomelanin A. palms
D. none of above B. soles of feet
99. What cell produces a dark brown pig- C. abdomen
ment? D. face
A. Keratinocytes E. knees
B. Melanocytes 105. What layer of skin are nerve cells found
C. Merkel (Tactile) Cells in?
D. Langerhans (dendritic) cell A. the dermis

100. What are keratinocytes? B. the epidermis

A. The cells that insert keratin into the top C. the hypodermis
layer of cells D. the subcutaneous layer
B. The top layer of cells 106. What are the three main layers of the
C. The cells filled with keratin who them- skin?
selves block water A. The epidermis, the dermis, and the
D. Large cells that eat bacteria subcutaneous
B. The epidermis, the dermis, and the se-
101. Which skin layer is composed of dead
baceous
cells? (check all that apply)
C. The dermis, the sebaceous, and the su-
A. stratum corneum
doriferous
B. stratum lucidum
D. The sudoriferous, the dermis, and the
C. stratum spinosum epidermis
D. stratum basale
107. The deepest layer of the epidermis, the
E. stratum germinativum basal cell layer, is also known as the:
102. Which of the three main layers of the skin A. stratum germinativum
is covered in keratinized cells? B. stratum corneum
A. Stratodermis C. stratum spinosum
B. Hypodermis D. keratin dermis

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1.26 Skin 842

108. What is the deepest layer of the skin? 114. What are the main layers of the skin from
A. Subcutaneous layer deep to superficial?

B. Dermis A. epidermis, dermis, hypodermis

C. Epidermis B. dermis, hypodermis, epidermis
D. Sweat gland C. dermis, epidermis, hypodermis
109. The dermis layer is made up of two lay- D. hypodermis, dermis, epidermis
ers, which are the:

NARAYAN CHANGDER
115. which of the following is a type of skin
A. papillary and reticular allergy
B. papillary and dermal
A. ezcrema
C. dermal and tactile
B. hives
D. tactile and reticular
C. dopic dermaitites
110. At the base of each hair, this releases oil
D. all of the above
to protect the body.
A. Blood vessels 116. The major organ of the integumentary
B. Nerves system is
C. Oil glands A. Skin
D. Sweat glands B. Nails

111. The epidermis is the layer of the skin. C. Hair

A. Second D. Glands
B. Thirds
117. Traveling away from the equator, what
C. Top happens in general to the amount of UV
D. Organ intensity?

112. Which pigment does hemoglobin pro- A. The intensity decreases.

duce? B. The intensity increases
A. yellow to reddish-brown to black C. The intensity stays the same.
B. yellow to orange D. It is impossible to predict.
C. pink to crimson
118. What selective advantage did people
D. none of above
have to lose increased melanin production?
113. What does ABCDE stand for related to (Or in other words, to have less melanin?
skin? )
A. asymmetrical, boarder A. Increased protection from skin cancer
B. color, diameter B. Increased protection from folate de-
C. elevation struction
D. evolving C. Increased synthesis of vitamin D
E. all of the above D. All of the above

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1.26 Skin 843

119. Oil glands that are found all over the skin, C. precision
except on the palms and soles, are called
D. oncologist

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A. merocrine glands 125. These are sensitive to gentle touch sen-
B. sebaceous glands sations
C. apocrine glands A. fibroblasts
D. sweat glands B. merkel cells
120. The largest organ of the human body is C. langerhans cells
the:
D. pacinian corpuscles
A. liver
B. skin 126. What is the integumentary system made
up of?
C. lungs
D. heart A. skin, nails, and hair
B. ribs, lungs, and heart
121. How many layers are present in the hu-
man skin? C. veins and arteries
A. 1 D. muscles
B. 2
127. What is the evaporation of a liquid to cool
C. 3
the body?
D. 3
A. Shivering
122. Highly infectious fungal infection of the
scalp or skin, whose name doesn’t match B. Sweating
its source C. Vasodilation
A. Athlete’s Foot D. Vasoconstriction
B. Psoriasis
C. Ringworm 128. With the help of the sun, what vitamin is
produced by our skin?
D. Verrucae
A. Vitamin A
123. Inflammation of the sebaceous glands,
usually occurs during adolescence B. Vitamin B

A. Acne Vulgaris C. Vitamin C

B. Athlete’s Foot D. Vitamin D
C. Impetigo
129. What are the 2 types of melanin?
D. Verrucae
A. Eurimelanin and Photomelanin
124. A surgical is a doctor who is qualified
to diagnose and removetumors. B. Phymelanin and Euromelanin

A. dentist C. Eumelanin and Pheomelanin

B. nurse D. none of above

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1.26 Skin 844

130. Made up of mostly dense connective tis- C. pink to crimson

sue; helps bind the body together; consist D. none of above
of 2 regions:papillary and reticular layers.
A. dermis 136. What type of burn typically requires a
skin graft?
B. epidermis
A. 1st degree
C. subcutaneous
B. 2nd degree
D. hypodermis

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. 3rd degree
131. What selective advantage did people
have to increase melanin production? D. 4th degree

A. Increased protection from skin cancer 137. Skin is your largest

B. Increased protection from folate de- A. system
struction
B. cell
C. Increased synthesis of vitamin D
C. organ
D. All of the above
D. none of above
132. This part of the brain detects and controls
processes to help regulate body tempera- 138. The structure that holds the root of the
ture in humans. hair firmly in place.
A. the cerebrum A. Hair follicle
B. the medulla B. Hair shaft
C. hypothalamus C. Hypodermis
D. the brain stem D. Sweat pore

133. These are special groups of cells which 139. Which of these is an inflammatory, un-
produce and store substances comfortable, and often chronic disease of
A. glands the skin, characterized by moderate to se-
vere inflammation, scaling, and sometimes
B. pores severe itching?
C. hair roots A. eczema
D. blood vessels B. acne
134. Rickets is a disease that causes: C. psoriasis
A. Skin cancer D. herpes simplex
B. weak bones in small children
140. In what order are the outermost to inner-
C. low folate levels most skin layers?
D. MC1R genes to turn off A. dermis, hypodermis, epidermis
135. Which color does carotene produce? B. epidermis, dermis, hypodermis
A. yellow to reddish-brown to black C. hypodermis, epidermis, dermis
B. yellow to orange D. none of above

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1.26 Skin 845

141. Which cells create the pigment that gives 147. What layer of epidermis does mitotic di-
skin its color? vision occur?
A. stratum lucidum

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A. melanocytes
B. keratinocytes B. stratum basale
C. erythrocytes C. stratum granulosum
D. adipocytes D. stratum corneum

142. Which is a type of skin cancer? 148. Why do fingerprints help identify people?
CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWER:)
A. Basal cell carcinoma
A. Because everyone has their own fin-
B. Leukemia
gerprints
C. Squamous cell carcinoma
B. Because they’re cool
D. Melanoma
C. Because hair color can be the same.
143. It’s crimson color causes fair-skinned peo- D. Because eye color can be the same.
ple to have a rosy glow through their epi-
dermis. 149. Name the three main parts of the Skin
System
A. Bruising
A. skin, heart, blood
B. Carotene
B. skin, bones, ligaments
C. Hemoglobin
C. skin, hair, nails
D. Erythema
D. skin, nerves, brain
E. Cyanosis
150. What term means skin paleness?
144. Skin color is due primarily to the presence
A. petechiae
of a pigment called
B. pallor
A. Melanin
C. pustule
B. Eumelanin
D. purpura
C. Pheomelanin
D. none of above 151. The protein that makes us “waterproof”
is called
145. Gland that secretes oil into the hair shaft A. keratin
is the
B. melanin
A. sebaceous gland
C. carotene
B. sudoriferous gland
D. mucus
C. follicle gland
152. Hole on skin surface that lets the oil exit
D. pore
duct
146. a pigment that colors the skin A. Meccrine Gland
A. Epidermis B. Apocrine Gland
B. Melanin C. Sudoriferous Gland
C. Dermis D. Pore
D. Chloroplast E. Duct

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1.26 Skin 846

153. Which population would be most at risk C. Middle skin

for developing rickets, a skeletal disorder D. Be right back
that is caused by a lack of vitamin D, cal-
cium, or phosphate? 158. Your hair is made up of a substance called
A. People with less melanin living near A. keratin
the equator B. melanin
B. People with less melanin living near C. vitamin
the poles

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. felanin
C. People with more melanin living near
the equator 159. Melanin is responsible for
D. People with more melanin living near A. skin color
the poles B. skins stretchiness

154. A predisposition to acne is based on C. immune system responses

heredity and D. feeling pain
A. diet 160. Hair is composed of protein that grows
B. age from cells originating within the:3
C. use of noncomedogenic makeup A. dermal papilla
D. hormones B. medulla layer
C. hair bulb
155. The deeper layer of the dermis that sup-
plies the skin with oxygen and nutrients is D. hair follicle
the: 161. what are the main reasons for skin al-
A. basal layer lergy
B. subcutaneous layer A. immune system disorders
C. reticular layer B. scratching
D. papillary layer C. sedentary lifestyle
D. vitiligo
156. In people who eat large amounts of foods
rich in this, the skin tends to take on 162. What layer of the skin is avascular?
a yellow-orange cast because this is de- A. Dermis
posited in the stratum corneum.
B. Subcutaneous/Hypodermis
A. Bruising
C. Epidetmis
B. Carotene
D. none of above
C. Hemoglobin
163. Which vitamin is synthesized by the
D. Erythema
skin?
E. Cyanosis
A. A
157. What does Epidermis mean? B. E
A. Top skin C. K
B. Below skin D. D

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1.26 Skin 847

164. These are arranged in a unique patterns 169. Type of skin cancer more serious than
that show through the epidermal surface basal cell carcinoma; often characterized
making our fingerprints visible. by scaly red papules or nodules.

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A. Dermal Papillae A. Squamous Cell Carcinoma
B. Meissner’s corpuscles B. Contact Dermatitis
C. Pacinian corpuscles C. Retention Hyperkeratosis

D. none of above D. Malignant Melanoma

170. The vascular of the skin is the:
165. Pacinian corpuscles are receptors
A. Dermis
A. Touch
B. Epidermis
B. Sound
C. Hypodermis
C. Light D. Stratum basale
D. Pain
171. The epidermis layer of the skin is also
166. Epithelial wet tissue that lines the cavi- known as the:
ties closed to exterior. Occurs in pairs. Ex A. dermis layer
plura and pericardium B. papillary layer
A. cutaneous C. cuticle layer
B. mucous D. subcutaneous layer
C. serous 172. Umami means
D. synovial A. Sweet taste
167. In a cold environment, what happens to B. Meaty taste
your blood vessels C. Salty taste
A. they constrict D. none of above
B. they dilate 173. Upper dermal region; uneven and peglike
C. they do nothing, they have nothing to projections; layer that “creates” finger-
do with temperature prints
D. they bring more melanin to the surface A. dermal layer
of the skin B. reticular layer
C. papillary layer
168. A benign skin disorder that looks like red
or pink patches, or burst blood vessels, D. subucatanouos layer
that often patients mistake with “blush- 174. The coloring in the skin; found in the epi-
ing” dermis.
A. hives A. Melanin
B. rosacea B. Oil
C. acne C. Perspiration
D. ringworm D. Pores

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1.26 Skin 848

175. gives us the coloring on our skin. 181. what skin is OG

A. Poors A. Reina’s drawing
B. Melanin B. recon expert
C. Hair follicle C. aerial assault trooper
D. Stomata D. cole name elf

176. A tumor or growth of pigmented skin is 182. openings that allow sweat to reach the

NARAYAN CHANGDER
an surface of the skin
A. melanoma A. vitamin D
B. ecthyma B. dermis
C. exanthema C. pores
D. eczema D. disease

177. What are the two layers of skin? 183. Acne is a skin disorder characterized by
chronic inflammation of the glands.
A. Epidermis & Dermis
A. sudoriferous
B. Hyperbole & Hair
B. sebaceous
C. Ear & Heart
C. sweat
D. Root & Gland
D. adrenaline
178. Nerves and blood vessels originate in the
, travel up to the but are not found 184. The outermost and thinnest layer of the
in the skin is the:
A. hypodermis epidermis dermis A. surface
B. endodermis epidermis dermis B. epidermis
C. dermis epidermis hypodermis C. subcutaneous
D. hypodermis dermis epidermis D. dermis

179. What causes a scar to form? 185. Which of the following is not a function
of the skin?
A. excess collagen
A. regulates body temperature
B. a bad cut
B. stores water and fat
C. genetics
C. prevents entry of bacteria
D. none of above
D. supports body movement
180. What are two things that the skin keeps
out? 186. Which of the following lists the stratum
of the epidermis from deep to superficial?
A. Sweat and oil
A. corneum, lucidum, granulosum,
B. Blood vessels and melanin spinosum, basale
C. Dirt and germs B. basale, spinosum, granulosum, lu-
D. Germs and blood vessels cidum, corneum

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1.26 Skin 849

C. granulosum, lucidum, corneum, 192. Which skin layer is only present in thick
basale, spinosum skin?

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D. none of above A. stratum corneum
B. stratum lucidum
187. Where is melanin produced?
C. stratum spinosum
A. Epidermis
D. stratum granulosum
B. Dermis
E. stratum basale (aka:germinativum)
C. Hypodermis
193. Condition where the blood flow to the tis-
D. Subcutaneous layer sue is insuffecient to keep alive and the
tissue dies and necrosis.
188. Widely distributed glands in the skin.
A. eczema
A. apocrine glands
B. alopecia
B. sweat glands
C. gangrene
C. endocrine glands D. staph infection
D. eccrine glands
194. What gives skin its color?
189. The layer of skin that we see. A. UV rays
A. melanin B. genetics
B. corneum C. melanin
C. keratin D. your parents

D. spinosum 195. A is a slightly raised mark on the skin

formed after an injury or lesion of the skin
190. Under certain types of emotional stress has healed.
(fear, anger, and others), some people be-
A. mole
come pale.
B. scar
A. Freckles & Moles
C. scale
B. Pallor or Blanching
D. stain
C. Jaundice
196. what battlepass is rare
D. Low Melanin Production
A. season2
E. Tanning
B. season3
191. What are the main layers of the skin from C. season4
superficial to deep?
D. season5
A. epidermis, dermis, hypodermis E. fortnite chapter2 season1
B. dermis, hypodermis, epidermis
197. What determines how a person’s skin
C. dermis, epidermis, hypodermis ages?
D. hypodermis, dermis, epidermis A. lifestyle

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1.26 Skin 850

B. genetics B. Stimulation of UV rays

C. sun exposure C. Acclimatization to the seasonal change
D. all of these determine how skin ages D. All of the above

198. What evaporates on the skin to help cool 204. If you travel north from the equator,
down the body? what generally happens to the intensity of
A. Sweat ultraviolet (UV) light?

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Oil A. intensity increases
C. Melanin B. The intensity decreases
D. Blood C. The intensity stays the same
D. It is impossible to predict.
199. What are the three main parts of a nail
A. Root, body, free edge 205. Which answer is more appropriate?
B. Free edge, cuticle, nail body A. Traits are good or bad.
C. Root, nail, free edge B. Traits can be harmful or hurtful de-
D. Dermis, epidermis, body pending on the environment.
C. Traits are always helpful or hurtful, re-
200. A is an abnormal, rounded, solid lump gardless of the environment.
above, within, or under the skin that is
larger than a papule. D. Traits are helpful or bad.
A. tubercle 206. What are the two types of melanin?
B. mole A. Light melanin and dark melanin
C. macula B. Eumelanin and Dysmelanin
D. bulla C. Eumelanin and Pheomelanin
201. Your skin color is determined by your D. All of the above
A. Genetic Inheritance 207. Check all that apply. These animals are
B. Environmental factors able to control their internal body temper-
C. Culture atures.

D. None of the above A. birds

B. homeotherms
202. Keratin
C. mammals
A. is produced by keratinocytes
D. frogs
B. make skin tough and waterproof
C. is found in your hair and nails 208. This is an absence of melanin.
D. all of the above A. chloasma
B. lentigines
203. Tanning is primarily
A. An increase in the number and size of C. albinism
melanin granules D. none of above

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1.26 Skin 851

209. The upper layer of the dermis. Has D. nerve endings are damaged and hair is
uneven layers with fingerlike projections missing
that cause fingerprints.

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215. Raised red itchy areas that may flare as
A. papillary
the result of an infection or allergic reac-
B. reticular tion.
C. pancinean A. eczema
D. subcutaneous B. hives
210. Which of the following can prolonged C. acne
and/or excessive exposure to the sun D. psoriasis
cause?
A. tan 216. Skin absorbs sunlight and gives us vita-
min
B. leathery skin
A. A
C. skin cancer
B. B
D. all of these
C. D
211. The function of the your hair is to?
D. none of above
A. Protect
217. The two layers of the Epidermis are the:
B. look good
A. stratum corneum & stratum germina-
C. regulate body temperature
tivum (basale)
D. A and C
B. stratum middlium & stratum germina-
212. in our bodies keeps us warm. tivum (basale)
A. Fat C. stratum corneum & stratum sensa-
tionum
B. Muscles
D. stratum langerhans and stratum
C. Skin
melanin
D. none of above
218. The first layer of the skin is called
213. How does sweat cool you?
A. dermis
A. evaporation
B. epidermis
B. condensation
C. subcutaenous
C. invagination
D. none of above
D. oder
219. As new hair cells are formed, what hap-
214. Which of these sounds like a first degree
pens to the old hair?
burn?
A. it is forced in
A. the epidermis is completely missing
B. it is forced out
B. the skin is blistered and swollen with
pus building up C. it stays in
C. only the top layer of skin is affected D. nothing happens to it

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1.26 Skin 852

220. What provides a waterproof barrier? B. Going from a living cell to a dead cell
A. sweat glands filled with keratin

B. skin cells C. Regulating temperatures

C. pores D. Creating Vitamin D

D. none of above 226. Which of these is NOT a function of the
skin
221. What disease is described below:The con-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
genital absence of any pigmentation or col- A. produce movement
oration, resulting in white hair, scales, and B. cover and line body surfaces
skin
C. act as a physical and microbial barrier
A. Hypomelanoma
D. cushion and protect the internal or-
B. Hypermelanoma gans
C. Albinism
227. What is a corium?
D. Hyperalbinemia
A. the dermis of the hoof
222. What color does the skin turn when the
blood is poorly oxygenated? B. the combining form of hoof

A. pink C. rudimentary claws

B. brown D. non permanent structures and shed

and regrown eventually
C. orange
D. blue 228. The hair root is located?
A. Below the surface of the skin
223. What does the hair follicle make the hair
sensitive to? B. Above the skin
A. Smell C. In the sebaceous gland
B. noise D. In the arrector pili Muscle
C. touch
229. This Part of the integumentary system is
D. dogs used as a tool for precise activities
224. A mark on the skin; may indicate an in- A. tendons
jury or damage that changes the structure B. muscles
of tissues or organs.
C. skin
A. Miliaria Rubra
D. nails
B. Eczema
C. Skin Tag 230. The top layer of the skin is called the
D. Lesion A. dermis
B. oil gland
225. Keratinization is the process of
C. nerve
A. Creating Melanin and determining skin
color D. epidermis

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1.26 Skin 853

231. What is the oily substance that protects 236. Nerve endings in our skin send signals to
the skin against water called? our

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A. seaweed A. muscles
B. callus B. brain

C. sebum C. skin
D. none of above
D. skin
237. Reddened epidermis may indicate embar-
232. If a person lives in an environment with rassment (blushing), fever, hypertension,
low radiation what kind of skin color inflammation, or allergy.
would be the best adapted
A. Bruising
A. Darker skin tones to increase produc-
B. Carotene
tion of Vitamin D Synthesis
C. Hemoglobin
B. Darker skin tones to protect DNA and
Folate D. Erythema
E. Cyanosis
C. Lighter Skin tones to increase produc-
tion of Vitamin D 238. New skin cells are always being made at
D. Lighter Skin tones to protect DNA and the part of the epidermis.
Folate A. highest
B. lowest
233. A localized collection of pus is a
C. middle
A. bleb
D. epidermis
B. abcess
239. Connective tissue that lines of fibrous
C. nodule capsules surrounding the joint.
D. vesicle A. cutaneous

234. The medical branch of science that deals B. mucous

with the study of the skin, its functions C. serous
and diseases, is: D. synovial
A. dermatology
240. Where is the melanin located in the skin?
B. physiology A. epidermis
C. anatomy B. Dermis
D. histology C. Hypo-dermis
D. none of above
235. Melanin protects us from the
A. sun 241. A papule is a
A. small solid raised that is less then 0.5
B. diseases
cm in diameter
C. bones
B. flat discolored lesion that is less than
D. none of above 1 cm in diameter

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1.26 Skin 854

C. a flaking dry patch 247. What type of skin cancer is the follow-
ing:large brownish spotmole that changes
D. solid raised lesion that is greater than
in color, size or feel
0.5 cm in diameter
A. Squamous cell carcinoma
242. What is found in the sun and tanning beds B. Sebaceous gland carcinoma
that causes problems to the skin?
C. Basal cell carcinoma
A. OV radiation
D. Kaposi sarcomi

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. IV radiation
E. Melanoma
C. UW radiation
248. Sweat comes out of the
D. UV radiation
A. fat layer
243. What type of tissue are there amounts of B. pores
in the hypodermis?
C. dermis
A. Fat D. none of above
B. Bone
249. This portion of the skin is less than 1 mm
C. Intestine thick, dead skin cells are located here, it is
D. Keratinocytes also water proof
A. epidermis
244. UVB rays are needed to help
B. dermis
A. Decrease melanin production
C. living cells
B. Produce calcium D. skin doctor
C. Produce Vitamin D
250. Inflammation of connective tissue is
D. Increase pheomelanin
A. connectitis
245. The blood vessels carry and nutri- B. dermatitis
ents. C. cutaneitis
A. Sweat D. cellulitis
B. Oil
251. People who are lighter skinned have
C. Melanin A. Freckles & Moles
D. Oxygen B. Pallor or Blanching
246. What are the tiny pathways that carry C. High Melanin Production
messages to the brain and other body D. Low Melanin Production
parts? E. Tanning
A. Blood vessels
252. Which skin layer is also referred to as
B. Nerves stratum germinativum?
C. Oil glands A. stratum corneum
D. Sweat glands B. stratum lucidum

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1.26 Skin 855

C. stratum spinosum 258. The skin is about mm thick.

D. stratum granulosum A. 3

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E. stratum basale B. 2
C. 4
253. This is often associated with a skin ab-
scess that eventually fills with puss. D. none of above
A. acne vulgaris 259. What is a structure out of which strands
B. impetigo of hair grows?
C. boil A. Follicles
D. ringworm B. Pores
C. Head
254. your fingernails and toenails are made of
a t ough substance called? D. Eyelashes
A. melanin 260. Which layer contains the colouring of the
B. vitamin skin?
C. keratin. A. top
D. flavin B. bottom
C. middle
255. The skin keeps in things the body needs
such as D. none of above

A. oil 261. Which part of the hair shaft contains the

B. water most pigment from melanin that gives you
your hair color?
C. organs
A. Cuticle
D. fingerprints
B. Cortex
256. Vitamin D’s major function: C. Medulla
A. To prevent birth defects in unborn chil- D. Follicle
dren
262. Also called the subcutaneous layer. An-
B. To keep the bones supplies with Cal-
chors the skin to the underlaying organs.
cium
Comprised of adipose tissue.
C. To help the red blood cells absorb iron
A. dermis
B. epidermis
D. none of above
C. endodermis
257. Contains blood vessels, sweat & oil
D. hypodermis
glands, and hair roots
A. Epidermis 263. An abnormal yellowing of the skin that
usually signifies a liver disorder in which
B. Reticular layer excess bile pigments accumulate in the
C. Papillary layer blood and deposit in the tissues.
D. none of above A. Freckles & Moles

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1.26 Skin 856

B. Pallor or Blanching 269. The clear, transparent layer just under

the stratum corneum that consists of small
C. Jaundice
cells through which light can pass is the:
D. Low Melanin Production A. stratum spinosum
E. Tanning B. stratum granulosum

264. It’s important that you use a sunscreen C. stratum lucidium

with enough D. stratum corneum

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. perfume 270. What are the ABCD’s of Skin Care?
B. UVA protection A. Asymmetry, Balance, Color, Diameter
C. UVB protection B. Align, Balance, Code, Diameter
D. Broadband protection for both UVA C. Asymmetry, Brightness, Chest, Dia-
and UVB gram
D. none of above
265. The hair begins in the layer.
271. Metastasis is
A. dermis
A. the spread of cancer from one part of
B. subcuateous the body to another.
C. epidermis B. the growth of tumors in the lungs
D. none of above C. cancer of the blood cells
D. cancer that is found in connective tis-
266. What kind of cells create melanin? sues
A. Keratinocyte
272. What type of gland are sebaceous
B. Melanocyte glands?
C. Leukocyte A. apocrine
D. Erythrocyte B. holocrine
C. merocrine
267. The second layer of the skin is called the
D. none of above
A. epidermis
273. A contagious, recurring viral infection
B. dermis characterized by fever blisters or cold
C. adipose sores is;
A. herpes simplex
D. none of above
B. herpes dermatitis
268. The 3 layers of the hair shaft include C. psoriasis
A. Cuticle, cortex and medulla D. eczema
B. Follicle, shaft and medulla 274. Meissner’s corpuscles are receptors
C. Cuticle, shaft and cortex A. Touch
D. Shaft, follicle and medulla B. Sound

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1.26 Skin 857

C. Light 280. An inflammation of the skin caused by

D. Pain having contact with certain chemicals or
substances.

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275. *Around the nail is a nonliving band of A. Keratoma
outer skin called the ?
B. Nevus
A. cuticle
C. Contact Dermatitis
B. cube
C. edge D. Tubercle

D. nail 281. Which skin layer is where mitosis can be

observed?
276. What do you predict would happen to the
frequency of the genes that cause more of A. stratum corneum
the molecules to be made in a population B. stratum lucidum
over time?
C. stratum spinosum
A. It would increase
D. stratum granulosum
B. It would increase because individuals
with the genes pass it to offspring. E. stratum basale (aka:germinativum)
C. It would decrease because they don’t
need those genes. 282. First degree burns are not very serious
because they only affect
D. It would stay the same.
A. the epidermis.
277. Which pigment is found primarily on the
B. the dermis.
palms of the hands and soles of the feet?
C. the hypodermis.
A. melanin
B. hemoglobin D. the calluses.

C. carotene 283. The term goose bumps is directly related

D. none of above to the contraction of which structures?
A. hair follicles
278. Pheomelanin is
A. Dark brown to black B. erector pili

B. Red to yellow C. sebaceous glands

C. An absence of color D. lunula

D. A type of melanin 284. Which of the following is a function of
279. Which of the following is NOT a function hair?
of the sebaceous gland A. Protection from UV rays
A. secreting sebum B. Insulation
B. making skin waterproof C. Sensation
C. prevents water loss D. All of the above are functions of the
D. prevents growth of bacteria hair

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1.26 Skin 858

285. Condition where melanin is destroyed 291. What is the purpose of sebaceous
and white patches appear in dark skin tone glands?
areas. A. to secrete sebum
A. rosacea B. so you don’t have to wash your hair
B. vitiligo
C. keep you young
C. vertigo
D. none of above
D. impetigo

NARAYAN CHANGDER
292. The outermost layer of skin is called
286. Most common and least severe type of
skin cancer; often characterized by light or A. dermis
pearly nodules B. epidermis
A. Vitiligo C. endodermis
B. Malignant Melanoma D. hypodermis
C. Psoriasis
293. When sweat pores leave films on a sur-
D. Basal Cell Carcinoma face of an object, a is formed.
287. These cells synthesize skin pigment to A. Fingerprint
give skin and hair its color; found in the B. Dermal Papillae
deepest layer of the epidermis:
C. Papillary Layer
A. keratinocytes
D. Reticular Layer
B. melanocytes
E. Sensory Receptors
C. Langerhans’ cells
D. Merkel cells 294. The bottom layer of skin is called the
layer.
288. What is the function of the epidermis?
A. subcutaneous
A. Provide a protective layer
B. epidermis
B. Determine skin color
C. dermis
C. Prevent water loss
D. none of above
D. All of the above
295. This is an overgrowth reaction to a scar.
289. What are fingernails made of?
A. keloid
A. Kryptonite
B. Keratin B. carbuncle

C. Melanin C. raised epidermis

D. Hemoglobin D. vitilago

290. Which colors do melanin produce? 296. Skin redness is called

A. yellow to reddish-brown to black A. pallor
B. yellow to orange B. cellulitis
C. pinkish to crimson C. scleroderma
D. none of above D. erythema

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1.26 Skin 859

297. Nails are made out of what? 302. What is the only real difference between
people’s skin?
A. All of the Above
A. the amount of melanin

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

B. Terminal
B. their genes
C. Vellus
C. their lifestyle
D. Keratin D. their sun exposure
298. What is the main source of heat in the 303. This function of the skin that allows the
human body? body to retain or lose heat.
A. the sun A. body temperature regulation
B. warm clothing B. storage

C. metabolic reactions C. excretion

D. absorption
D. the subcutaneous layer
304. What does hypodermis mean?
299. Production of a dark pigment in one spot
A. Above skin
on the body that making the epidermis
darker in this spot. B. Below skin

A. Freckles & Moles C. The middle skin

D. Be right back
B. Pallor or Blanching
305. Why do you turn red when you are hot?
C. High Melanin Production
A. The blood vessels in your skin con-
D. Low Melanin Production strict, reducing blood flow to cool the body
E. Tanning B. The blood vessels constrict to increase
blood flow to cool the body
300. What is the most dangerous form of
skin cancer, often characterized by black C. The blood vessels dilate to increase
or dark brown patches on the skin that blood flow to the skin
may appear uneven in texture, jagged, or D. The blood vessels dilate to decrease
raised? blood flow to the skin
A. basal cell carcinoma 306. Which of the following pigments are in
B. malignant melanoma moles and freckles?
A. carotene
C. squamous cell carcinoma
B. hemoglobin
D. verruca cell
C. betacarotene
301. The oldest cells of the epidermis will be D. melanin
found here
307. Muscles pull hair up to trap air when
A. Stratum Corneum
A. It is cold outside
B. Stratum Basale B. It is hot outside
C. Stratum Spinosum C. It is humid outside
D. Stratum Granulosum D. Michael Myers is outside your window

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1.26 Skin 860

308. Which population would be most at risk 313. Which of the following structures of the
for having a folate deficiency? skin protects the body against pathogens
and water loss
A. People with less melanin living near
the equator A. dermis
B. People with less melanin living near B. epidermis
the poles C. subcutaneous layer
C. People with more melanin living near D. sebaceous gland

NARAYAN CHANGDER
the equator
314. Folate is:
D. People with more melanin living near
the poles A. a B-Vitamin
B. used to make DNA and other genetic
309. Where are sebaceous glands not found? material
A. scalp C. important for pregnancy
B. arms D. all of the above
C. legs 315. Which of these is life threatening when
D. palms you have a 3rd degree burn?
A. infection and dehydration
310. In which layer of the skin would I find
sebaceous glands? B. the pain
A. dermis C. loss of blood

B. epidermis D. storage of energy in fat

C. hypodermis 316. Pruritus is commonly called

D. none of above A. hair loss
B. dry skin
311. Infection where sores are covered by a
thick dry honey-colored crust, most com- C. itching
mon in the summer or fall. D. pus
A. ringworm 317. Skin cancer can be
B. impetigo A. basal cell carcinoma
C. vitiligo B. squamous cell carcinoma
D. boils C. melanoma

312. The cell is carrying out its typical func- D. all of the above
tions, not engaged in preparing for cell di- 318. When does the Arrector pili muscle con-
vision tract?
A. S-phase A. when warm
B. Gap 0 B. when sweating
C. Cytokinesis C. when really warm
D. Anaphase D. when scared or cold

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1.26 Skin 861

319. Which of these does your skin NOT pro- 324. Auto-immune disease where the body at-
tect you from tacks it’s own tissues and forms scar tis-
sue on the skin and organs.

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A. chemical damage
A. Staph infection
B. mechanical damage
B. scleroderma
C. microbial damage
C. alopecia
D. your skin protects you from all of the
above D. exzema

325. Epithelial wet tissue whose function is ab-

320. What cell produces a protein allows for
sorption and secretion. Lines body cavities
waterproofing of the skin, nails, and
that are open to the outside of the body.
hair?
Example in the mouth and nose.
A. Keratinocytes
A. cutaneous
B. Melanocytes
B. mucous
C. Merkel (Tactile) Cells C. serous
D. Langerhans (Dendritic) cell D. synovial
321. The vasculated area of skin is the: 326. What is melanin?
A. Dermis A. A protein pigment that absorbs and re-
B. Epidermis flects light
B. A protein that is waterproof and tough
C. Hypodermis
C. A cell found in the epidermis
D. Stratum basale
D. A vitamin that helps you sleep
322. Which of these is a job of an internal reg-
ulator cyclin? 327. Another autoimmune disease where the
hair follicles are attacked by the body.
A. Ensure that all chromosomes have
lined up in the center of the cell before cell A. Lucidium
division B. Allopica
B. Ensure that spindle fibers have at- C. Male Pattern Baldness
tached to all centromeres before cell di- D. Scleroderma
vision
328. You do not grow hair on which part(s) of
C. Ensure that DNA has been replicated
your body?
before cell division
A. lips
D. All of these
B. arm pits
323. What is the top layer of the skin called? C. palms of hands
A. Dermis D. bottom of feet
B. Hypodermis
329. What is the MC1R gene?
C. Epidermis
A. Gene that codes for Vitamin D3 produc-
D. Subcutaneous tion

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1.26 Skin 862

B. Gene that codes for folate B. heart

C. Gene that codes for a protein involved C. skeptical
in eumelanin production
D. ribbon
D. Gene that codes for the production of
melanin 335. The inner layer of skin comprised of the
papillary and reticular layers is called the
330. Change in pigmentation of skin caused by
A. dermis
exposure to the sun or ultraviolet light.

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. epidermis
A. Rosacea
C. endodermis
B. Tan
C. Cholasma D. hypodermis

D. Keloid 336. The layer of skin that we see and is

treated by the practitioner is the:
331. Which factor is directly responsible for
the skin pigmentation you were born A. melanin
with? B. corneum
A. Your exposure to the sun C. keratin
B. Different amounts and types of D. spinosum
melanin
337. The underlying or inner layer of the skin,
C. The food you eat
which is also called the derma or true skin,
D. Weather you live in hot or cold temper- is the:
atures
A. dermis
332. Body hair consists of B. papillary
A. A combination of oval and triangular C. dermal
cross sections
D. epidermis
B. Oval cross sections
C. Triangular cross sections 338. Where does blood get its red color from?
D. Circular cross sections A. Hemoglobin
B. Carbon Dioxide
333. What layer of the of the skin is found
only in the palms of yours hands and the C. Oxygen
soles of your feet? D. Phagocytes
A. Stratum granulosum
339. The underlying or inner layer of the skin,
B. Stratum spinosum which is also called the derma corium, cutis,
C. Stratum lucidum or true skin, is the:
D. Stratum basale A. dermis
B. papillary
334. What do we call an animal or person with
little to no pigment? C. dermal
A. albino D. epidermis

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1.26 Skin 863

340. The fibrous protein that gives the skin C. camouflaged

form and strength is called? D. coloured

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A. papule
346. Fungal infection that can often be found
B. collagen
living on floors of gyms or locker rooms,
C. keratin thrives in moist and warm environments.
D. dermal papillae A. ringwork
341. Which of the following statements is B. Tinea Pedis
FALSE regarding animal hair? C. impetigo
A. Animal hair does not regulate body D. psoriasis
temperature
B. Animal hair can change color in a pat- 347. Noncontagious skin disease, may be
tern hereditary, thick red area covered with
white or silver scales
C. Animal hair pigmentation is darker to-
ward the medulla A. Eczema
D. Animal hair is more corse than human B. Impetigo
hair C. Dermatitis
342. Fatty tissue found below the dermis is: D. Psoriasis
A. papillae 348. What are fingerprints?
B. papillary layer A. Fingerprints are the result of the der-
C. tactile mal papilla pushing up.
D. subcutaneous tissue B. Fingerprints are the negative image of
the epidermal ridges
343. Excessive sweating, caused by heat or
general body weakness is; C. fingerprints are the negative image of
the dermal papilla
A. anhidrosis
D. none of above
B. bromhidrosis
C. prickly heat 349. Which of the following is not a way the
skin loses heat?
D. hyperhidrosis
A. conduction
344. What produces the pigment in skin?
B. convection
A. melanocytes
C. goosebumps
B. uv rays
D. sweating
C. genetics
D. skin cancer 350. The epidermis is composed of
A. stratified squamous epithelium
345. Keratin deposited in the skin cells helps
to make the skin B. simple columnar epithelium
A. protective against bacteria C. adipose tissue
B. waterproof D. connective tissue

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1.26 Skin 864

351. Producing or containing pus 357. Name two ways the body cools itself?
A. abcess A. sweet & candy
B. purulent B. water & chocolate

C. mucocutaneous C. sweat & blood vessels expand

D. pop & hot shower
D. polyp
358. The part of hair that projects from the
352. Most damage to the skin is from: surface of the scalp or skin is called

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. sports A. shaft
B. tanning beds B. follicle
C. shoveling snow C. cuticle
D. sun exposure D. root
359. Which skin layer is most deep?
353. Which skin layer is most superficial?
A. stratum corneum
A. stratum corneum
B. stratum lucidum
B. stratum lucidum
C. stratum spinosum
C. stratum spinosum
D. stratum granulosum
D. stratum granulosum E. stratum basale
E. stratum basale
360. People who are darker skinned have
354. What is the largest organ in the body? A. Freckles & Moles
A. Skin B. Pallor or Blanching
B. Liver C. High Melanin Production

C. Heart D. Low Melanin Production

E. Tanning
D. Brain
361. Too much UV rays penetrating the skin
355. The dermis is than the epidermis. can cause
A. thinner A. Anemia
B. stickier B. An uptake of calcium
C. slimier C. Increase in fat production
D. thicker D. Darkening of the skin
362. Gland that secretes sweat into a duct
356. What is the purpose of melanin?
that leads to a pore is the
A. the protect the skin from UV rays A. sebaceous gland
B. the provide color to the skin B. sudoriferous gland
C. to make people appear different C. follicle gland
D. none of above D. adipose

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1.26 Skin 865

363. What type of cells and tissue make up 369. Which term means pertaining to dead tis-
skin? sue?

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A. muscle A. abrasion
B. bone B. carbuncle
C. epithelial C. purulent
D. epidermis D. necrotic

364. If you want to lower your body temper- 370. What is a laceration?
ature, which is your best option A. crazy ride at the fair
A. constrict your blood vessels B. incision into the skin for medical pur-
B. create more melanin poses
C. create more keratin C. a superficial scrape

D. sweat D. accidental cut into the skin

365. Which layer is full of fat tissue? 371. Taste buds are equipped with

A. epidermis A. saliva

B. dermis B. taste receptors cell

C. brain cells
C. subcutaneous layer
D. none of above
D. none of above
372. What makes the skin waterproof?
366. This layer of skin is the thickest layer.
A. Keratin
A. The epidermis
B. Kryptonite
B. The dermis
C. Celulose
C. The subcutaneous layer
D. none of above
D. none of above
373. Cancer creates abnormal cells by disrupt-
367. Which hairs are long, straight, stiff hairs ing
that form the outer coat?
A. the cell cycle
A. Guard Hairs
B. red blood cell formation
B. Secondary Hairs
C. DNA replication
C. Tactile hairs
D. ATP synthesis
D. Cilia hair
374. Lack of exposure to sunlight may lead to
368. The muscle that raises hair is called deficiency of this
A. arrector pilli A. Vitamin D
B. sudoriferous B. Vitamin K
C. sebaceous C. Vitamin E
D. eccrine D. none of above

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 1.27 Parasitic Diseases 866

375. What are the two functions of the Skin 379. Your skin colour you have when you are
System? born is classified as
A. Help pump blood & regulate heart rate A. Genetic
B. Keep dirt, germs out & regulate body B. Environmental factors
temperature C. Natural skin colour
C. Helps with movement & shape D. None of the above
D. Support body & heart rate

NARAYAN CHANGDER
380. What pigment makes the skin brown?
376. what are the main allergens that cause A. Melanin
skin allergy
B. Carotene
A. water
C. Hemoglobin
B. paper
D. Lithogene
C. cement
D. none of the above 381. Melanin protects us from UV radiation by
A. preventing our DNA from being scram-
377. What oil is secreted from the skin? bled
A. coconut B. preventing Folate in our blood stream
B. skin to be broken down
C. sebum C. All of the these
D. none of above D. none of these

378. What is the colour of the skin of an indi- 382. The top of the papillary layer where it
vidual suffering from albinism? joins the epidermis is the:
A. Yellowish A. epidermal-dermal connection
B. Pinkish B. dermis corpuscles
C. Reddish-brown C. epidermal-dermal junction
D. none of above D. epidermis junction

1.27 Parasitic Diseases

1. Which of the following parasites lay eggs B. asymptomatic
around the rectum of horses? C. husbandry
A. lungworm D. de-wormer
B. pinworm
3. Disease transmitted by Arthropods-
C. whipworm vectors:Ture bug-endemic areas:South
D. roundworm America

2. The careful management of domestic af- A. Malaria

fairs or resources B. Changas’ disease
A. lethargy C. Kala azar & other leishmaniases

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1.27 Parasitic Diseases 867

D. none of above 9. This parasitic disease is caused my mites.

A. Mange
4. Wobbler syndrome is the malformation or

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compression of what part of the horse? B. Lyme Disease
C. Ear Infection
A. Leg bones
D. Malaria
B. Joints
C. Spinal cord 10. Which of the following parasites are small
arachnids which feed on the blood of ani-
D. Hip bone mals?

5. What is a common way that pathogenic A. lice

protozoa are transmitted? B. mice
A. eating undercooked food C. ticks

B. fecal-oral contact D. flies

C. airborne 11. Which of the following parasites may

grow up to 10 to 12 feet long?
D. sexual contact
A. ringworm
6. Intermediate host B. lungworm
A. carries the immature stages of the par- C. round worm
asite D. tapeworm
B. carries the mature stages of the para- 12. Disease transmitted by Arthropods-
site vectors:Ticks-endemic areas:Europe &
C. carries arrested form of the parasite Asia
D. carries potential source of infection af- A. African Sleeping Sickness
ter eradication of infection B. Changas’ disease
C. Tick-borne encephalitis
7. After the doctors get a throat sample, they
send it to the to confirm the diagnosis. D. none of above
A. World Health Organization 13. Which of the following parasites lays eggs
on the hair of the rear legs on animals?
B. Center For Disease Control
A. lice
C. Doctors Hospital
B. mites
D. Jackson North
C. flies
8. Disease transmitted by Arthropods- D. heel flies
vectors:Ticks-endemic areas:Mediterranean
14. Which statement correctly describes the
area; parts of Africa, Asia & Australia
life cycle of a tick?
A. Sandfly fever
A. Adult, baby, toddler, teenager
B. Tick-born typhus fever B. Adult, egg, larvae, pupae
C. Dengue fever C. Adult, egg, ticklett, larvae
D. none of above D. Adult, egg, larvae, nymph

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1.27 Parasitic Diseases 868

15. Disease transmitted by Arthropods- C. Trichuris trichiura

vectors:ticks-endemic areas:Parts of US,
D. Diphyllobothrium latum
Australia, and Europe
A. Tularemia 21. Examination of feces directly in cases of
B. Lyme disease Ascariasis aims to:
C. Plague A. Assess the level of antibodies in the
blood
D. none of above

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Obtaining the parasite’s DNA
16. Which of the following digestive systems
is also known as polygastric? C. Find and identify parasites
A. ruminant D. Measuring parasite antigen levels
B. non-ruminant
22. Osteochondrosis Dissecans is NOT caused
C. mongastric by which of the following?
D. hindgut fermenter A. Mineral deficiencies
17. To help prevent EPM, a horse owner B. High energy diet
should do which of the following?
C. Contaminated feed
A. Keep feed closed in metal containers
D. Growing too fast
B. Keep feed covered with a tarp
C. Keep feed inside of feed bags 23. What did the doctor think the infection
D. Keep feed outside was at first?
A. Mononucleosis
18. a disease that can be transmitted from an-
imals to humans B. Acne
A. protozoa C. Necrotizing faciitis
B. host D. Staphylococcus
C. vector
D. zoonosis 24. The specimens needed for filariasis exami-
nation are:
19. Disease transmitted by Arthropods- A. Feces and urine
vectors:Mosquitoes-endemic areas:Tropics
& subtropics B. Blood and urine
A. Dengue fever C. CSF and faeces
B. African sleeping sickness D. Duodenal blood and aspirate
C. Yellow fever
25. What can spread disease? Choose 3
D. none of above
A. insects
20. All of the following helminths may be ac-
quired thru ingestion EXCEPT: B. washing your hands
A. Schistosoma japonicum C. air
B. Enterobius vermicularis D. food

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1.27 Parasitic Diseases 869

26. a parasite that lives on the host 31. is a viral infection that mainly spreads
through a bite from an infected animal.
A. meniscus

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A. Anthrax
B. zoonosis
B. Pink eye
C. ectoparasite
C. Zika
D. protozoa
D. Rabies
27. Which of the following systems defends 32. Which parasite has a long life cycle for be-
the body against infectious organs and tween 3-5 years?
other invaders?
A. flea
A. respiratory system B. tick
B. integumentary system C. mite
C. immune system D. none of above
D. endocrine system 33. What is NOT an example of a parasite?

28. Helminth:Hookworms, pinworms, and sev- A. Tick

eral other roundworms live in intestines or B. Flea
the lymphatic system C. Tapeworm
A. Roundworms D. Mushroom
B. Flatworms 34. is when a disease that is transmitted
C. Fluke to and from humans to animals and vice
versa.
D. none of above
A. Zoonotic
29. Which of the following parasites adults lay B. Rabies
eggs on skin of an animal, then hatch, feed
C. Vector
on the skin and reach adult stage in about
12 days? D. Parasite

A. lice 35. What is the study of parasites, their hosts,

and the relationship between them?
B. ticks
A. Mycology
C. flies
B. Parasitology
D. mites
C. Virology
30. Which of the following parasites burrow D. Bacteriology
holes through the intestinal wall and then
36. Below are parasitic diseases that cause ab-
goes to lungs where they mature?
normalities in the vascular system
A. lungworms
A. Ascariasis
B. liver flukes B. Amoebiasis
C. strongyles C. Trichinosis
D. pinworms D. Malaria

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1.27 Parasitic Diseases 870

37. When cats lick this external parasite, it 42. Disease transmitted by Arthropods-
causes a tapeworm. vectors:Ticks-endemic areas:Western
A. Flea US(orbivirus)
A. Colorado tick fever
B. Tick
B. African sleeping sickness
C. Lice
C. Sandfly fever
D. Mites
D. none of above

NARAYAN CHANGDER
38. The immune system is divided into two
43. These worms get into your body by the
main parts. Which part of the immune sys-
food you eat.
tem responds to vaccines?
A. Hookworms
A. immune
B. Pinworms
B. innate
C. Tapeworms
C. acquired
D. none of above
D. required
44. Disease transmitted by Arthropods-
39. the study of parasites vectors:Ticks-endemic areas:US, Canada,
Mexico & parts of South America
A. vector
A. Scrub typhus fever
B. host
B. Colorado tick fever
C. ectoparasite
C. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
D. parasitology
D. none of above
40. What is the definition of protozoan? 45. What is the condition in which there is a
A. showing no evidence of disease deficiency of hemoglobin in blood?
B. the careful management of domestic A. Anemia
affairs or resources B. Husbandry
C. The host in which a parasite under- C. Heartworms
goes development but does not reach ma- D. Husbandry
turity
46. What features make a tick a successful
D. Predominantly single celled organisms
parasites?
housing a membrane bound nucleus and
belonging to the kingdom Protista A. Strong back legs
B. Flat body
41. Which of the following parasites larva
C. long life cycle
must attach to a snail to complete their
lifecycle and then encyst on water plants D. Magnetic legs
eaten by livestock? 47. Where did the couple travel to?
A. lungworms A. Africa
B. liver flukes B. South America
C. strongyles C. Australia
D. pinworms D. Asia

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1.27 Parasitic Diseases 871

48. a larval stage of the heartworm 54. How do hookworms get inside your
A. parasitology body?

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B. larva A. through your feet
C. mircofilaria B. through your fingernails
D. protozoa C. through the food you eat

49. Which of the following parasitic hosts D. none of above

presents potential source of infection to
man after eradication of a disease. 55. What internal parasite is transmitted
through feeding mosquitoes?
A. Defenitive host
A. The host in which a parasite undergoes
B. Intermediate host
development but does not reach maturity
C. Reservoir host
B. Husbandry
D. Accidental host
C. Anemia
50. any animal that harbors a parasite D. Heartworms
A. parasitology
B. LARVA 56. Which of the following statements is IN-
CORRECT about parasites?
C. host
A. Parasites can live by themselves.
D. protozoa
B. Parasites cannot live by themselves.
51. Which of the following animals is the
source of infective sporocysts causing C. Parasites are small organisms.
EPM? D. Parasites can live in our intestine.
A. Raccoons
57. A is a particular abnormal condition
B. Mice that negatively affects the structure or
C. Opossums function of part or all of an organism.
D. Skunks A. virus

52. What was the guys name? B. disease

A. Jamal C. infection
B. Peter D. affliction
C. Adam
58. An organism that lives on or in another or-
D. Andrew ganism and benefits by gaining nutrition at
the host’s expense
53. How long was his treatment?
A. 2 weeks A. parasite

B. 10 days B. vector
C. 21 days C. arthropod
D. 45 days D. host

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1.27 Parasitic Diseases 872

59. Opportunistic parasitic infection is C. On the skin

A. infection that occur in immunocompe- D. In the ear
tent patient.
65. Which of the following is NOT a symptom
B. infection that occur in immunodefi- of EPM?
cient patient.
A. Stiffness
C. a strong parasitic infection.
B. Coughing
D. common in athletes.
C. Head tilt

NARAYAN CHANGDER
60. This external parasite is known to cause D. Paralysis
Lyme Disease.
66. Giardia, roundworms and hookworms are
A. Lice
B. Ticks
A. parasites
C. Mites
B. vectors
D. Fleas C. bacteria
61. Which of the following parasites adults D. virus
live in the cecum where they lay eggs to
bepassed with feces then eggs are eaten 67. This internal parasite lives in feces and,
and hatch? when consumed, causes weight loss vom-
iting, and diarrhea.
A. pinworms
A. Roundworm
B. whipworms
B. Tapeworm
C. tapeworms
C. Coccidia
D. lungworms
D. Hookworm
62. How does an animal contract giardia?
68. Which of the following is a hermaphroditic
A. drinking contaminated water helminth?
B. contact with other dogs A. Ancylostoma duodenale
C. airborne-contracted by breathing B. Dipylidium caninum
D. eating raw food diets C. Schistosoma mekongi
63. Mosquitos are know to carry several D. Ascaris lumbricoides
types of disease such as West Nile Virus,
69. What is the definition of intermediate
Zika Virus and
hosts?
A. Flu/Influenza A. predominantly single celled organisms
B. Rabies housing a membrane bound nucleus and
C. Malaria belonging to the kingdom Protista
D. none of above B. the host in which a parasite undergoes
development but does not reach maturity
64. Ectoprasites can be found C. showing no evidence of disease
A. In the digestive system D. medicine used to cure an animal of
B. In the fur worms

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1.27 Parasitic Diseases 873

70. Disease transmitted by Arthropods- C. In the mouth

vectors:Tsetse fly-endemic areas:Africa D. none of above

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A. African Sleeping Sickness
76. Which of these is NOT caused by a virus?
B. Changas’ disease
A. Parvo
C. Kala azar & other leishmaniases
D. none of above B. Distemper
C. Panleukopenia
71. The gold standard for malaria screening is
D. Leptospirosis
A. Rapid Diagnostic Test
B. PCR 77. How long was the couples journey?
C. Microscopy A. 2 weeks
D. Quantitative Buffy Coat B. 6 weeks

72. What is the infective stage of Ascaris lum- C. 6 months

bricoides? D. 2 months
A. Encysted larva
78. the most common endoparasite of puppies
B. Filariform larva and kittens is
C. embryonated egg A. flea
D. trophozoite B. roundworm
73. Wobbler syndrome typically affects what C. mite
type of horse? D. protozoa
A. Older
79. EPM is a disease caused by a protozoan
B. Younger
affecting which part of a horse?
C. Middle-aged
A. Digestive system
D. Both older and Younger
B. Muscular system
74. What is a parasite? C. Central nervous system
A. The nutrition a worm needs to survive. D. Respiratory system
B. A sandwhich.
80. Which of the following best describes par-
C. A parasite is an organism that is de-
asites?
pendent on its host for its life functions.
A. An organism which serves as a resi-
D. An organism that relies on worms to
dence for a parasite
spread diseases.
E. A symptom of a disease that causes B. An organism which transmits infec-
body aches and fever. tious diseases
C. An organism which causes a disease
75. Where are Ectoparasites found? or infection by fungus
A. In the digestive system D. An organism which lives on or in a host
B. On the skin at the expense of the host

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1.27 Parasitic Diseases 874

81. What doctor is he referred to by his pri- 87. Anthelmintic resistance checks and
mary care doctor? (FEC) should be conducted prior to apply-
A. Oncologist ing control measures against parasitic gas-
troenteritis.
B. Infectious Disease
A. feline egg count
C. Dermatologist
D. Pediatrician B. fecal egg collections

82. What is the most common worm in the in- C. fecal egg counts

NARAYAN CHANGDER
testine? D. final egg counts
A. pinworm
B. tapeworm 88. What did the couple see as the first sign
of the infection?
C. hookworm
A. A whole
D. threadworm
B. A pimple
83. are organisms which transmit infec-
tious diseases. C. A scar
A. hosts D. A worm
B. vectors
89. Which body system produces hormones
C. internal parasites
which regulate metabolism?
D. protozoans
A. immune system
84. Where on an animal does an endoparasite
live? B. respiratory system
A. On the body C. digestive system
B. In the body D. endocrine system
C. In the ear
90. How does a horse contract EPM?
D. In the mouth
A. Being bitten by an opossum
85. Which parasites can be treated with a lime
sulphur dip? B. Ingesting residue from opossum feces
A. Ticks C. Being bitten by a skunk
B. Mites D. Ingesting residue from mice feces
C. Fleas
D. Lice 91. Which of the following parasites eggs
hatch and migrate into nasal chamber si-
86. What features make a tick a good para- nuses?
site?
A. nasal bots
A. Salvia contains glue
B. flies
B. Saliva contains an anaesthetic
C. Salvia contains a magnet C. mites
D. Saliva contains an anticoagulant D. lice

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1.27 Parasitic Diseases 875

92. Deer ticks can cause Lyme disease in hu- 97. Where in the body does the tapeworm at-
mans. Where are they usually found? tach itself?

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A. They are found on deers and then A. Small Intestine
transferred to other animals.
B. Brain
B. They are found only on deer.
C. Liver
C. They can be picked up outside but
mostly found on deer D. Spleen
D. None of the above. E. Colon

93. Definitive host 98. Disease transmitted by Arthropods-

A. carries the immature stages of the par- vectors:female sandfly-endemic ar-
asite eas:Mediterranean region, India, and
parts of South America
B. carries the mature stages of the para-
site A. Dengue fever

C. carries arrested form of the parasite B. African sleeping sickness

D. carries potential source of infection af- C. Sandfly fever
ter eradication of infection D. none of above
94. Which of the following parasites larvae
99. Enterobius vermicularis is commonly
burrow holes into arteries and internal or-
known as:
gans?
A. lungworms A. Pinworm

B. liver flukes B. threadworm

C. strongyles C. dog tapeworm
D. pinworms D. dog hookworm

95. Disease transmitted by Arthropods- 100. Disease transmitted by Arthropods-

vectors:Lice-endemic areas:Asia, N. Africa, vectors:Mites-endemic areas:Asia & Aus-
Asia and Australia tralia
A. Typhus fever A. Sandfly fever
B. Lyme disease B. Typhus fever
C. Dengue fever C. Scrub typhus fever
D. none of above
D. none of above
96. Which of the following organisms is the
deadliest on Earth? 101. These parasites can kill an animal’s liver.

A. shark A. Flukes
B. lion B. Mites
C. snake C. Tapeworm
D. mosquito D. Kidneyworm

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1.27 Parasitic Diseases 876

102. Identify which of the listed parasites is to two weeks and become adults in two to
not an ectoparasite: four weeks?
A. Roundworm A. mites
B. Cheyletiella mites B. ticks
C. Fleas C. flies
D. Ticks D. lice

NARAYAN CHANGDER
103. In which organ system of the human body 108. WHich type of medication is most com-
would a doctor most likely find a para- monly used to treat parasitic infections?
site? A. penicillin
A. skeletal system B. antibiotics
B. digestive system C. anthelmintics
C. muscular system D. aspirin
D. reproductive system 109. This external parasite feeds on epidermal
(skin) debris and earwax.
104. Which is the most common parasite of
dogs and cats A. Ear Mites
A. Ticks B. Fleas
B. Mites C. Ear Ticks

C. Fleas D. Misquitos

D. Lice 110. Which of the following parasitic diseases

commonly produces sub-clinical production
105. Disease transmitted by Arthropods- losses to ruminants, leaving animals not
vectors:Sandfly-endemic areas:Tropical visibly affected?
and subtropical regions
A. ascaris
A. Malaria
B. coccidiosis
B. Plague
C. mange
C. Kala azar & other leishmaniases D. parasitic gastroenteritis
D. none of above
111. a parasite that lives within the host
106. Which of the following parasites has a A. endoparasite
spherical shape?
B. host
A. cocci
C. microfilaria
B. bacilli
D. larva
C. spirilli
112. A parasite is an organism that cannot live
D. bacci
on its own and requires another organism,
107. Which of the following parasites life a , to provide it with the essentials of
cycles includes adults laying and gluing life.
eggsto hair follicles, then eggs hatch in one A. vector

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1.27 Parasitic Diseases 877

B. host 117. Which of the following parasites has seg-

ments containing eggs which break offand
C. organism
are passed with feces, then the eggs are

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D. parasite eaten by mites and develop untileaten by
a major host?
113. What is tapeworm?
A. tapeworms
A. Live in the cecum of animals and act as B. lungworms
blood sucking parasites
C. roundworms
B. Are the most common internal para-
D. liver flukes
site encountered
118. Which of the following is commonly re-
C. Are transmitted through feeding
ferred to as Pork tapeworm?
mosquitoes who deposit larvae
A. Dipylidium caninum
D. Transmitted through nursing and con-
tact with contaminated feces B. Taenia saginata
C. Taenia solium
114. Which of the following parasites are also D. Diphyllobothrium latum
known as blood worms?
119. The term for the animal that a parasite
A. whipworms
lives on/in is:
B. liver flukes A. Fomite
C. strongyles B. Micro-organism
D. roundworms C. Host
D. Vector
115. Select all of the following which are NOT
considered external parasites 120. A tapeworm lives in the intestines of its
A. fleas host. Which example best describes the re-
lationship between the tapeworm and its
B. fungi host?
C. helminths A. The tapeworm benefits from its host;
however, the host is not affected.
D. lice
B. The tapeworm does not benefit from
E. protozoans its host, but the host does benefit.
116. What is whipworm? C. The tapeworm benefits from its host,
and the host is negatively affected.
A. Live in the cecum of animals and act as
D. none of above
blood sucking parasites
B. Are the most common internal para- 121. What is a good way to prevent dis-
site encountered ease/parasites? Choose 2
A. washing your hands regularly
C. Are blood sucking parasites residing in
the small intestine B. limiting person to person contact
D. Are transmitted through feeding C. playing in soil in your bare feet
mosquitoes who deposit larvae D. eating raw foods

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1.27 Parasitic Diseases 878

122. Which of the following are also known as 127. These parasites can lay up to 2, 000 eggs
cattle grubs? in their lifetime.
A. lice A. Fleas
B. mites B. Ticks
C. ticks C. Lice
D. heel flies D. Mites

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123. Identify the correct definition of the term 128. Which is a distinguishing characteristic
parasite: describing most parasitic diseases?

A. A micro-organism that invades host A. They are often carried by insects or

cells and replicates inside them vectors.
B. They are usually harmless diseases
B. An organism that lives in or on another
and seldom fatal.
living body to benefit the host
C. They are most often experienced in
C. An organism that lives in or on another
very dry climates.
living body to benefit itself
D. They are most often experienced in
D. none of above
very wet climates.
124. What should you do to avoid parasitic in- 129. Which of the following helminths is clas-
fections? sified as a roundworm?
A. Take a bath twice a week. A. Taenia solium
B. Keep your fingernails long and un- B. Necator americanus
clean.
C. Schistosoma japonicum
C. Avoid sharing personal things such as
D. Fasciola hepatica
combs, hair brushes, caps, or hat.
D. Do not clean your surroundings. 130. Which of the following correctly defines
a parasite?
125. This is the most common parasite of cats A. A close relationship between two or
and dogs more different organisms of different
A. Flea species that benefit from each other.
B. Tick B. An organism that lives in a close rela-
tionship with another organism, its host,
C. Lice
and causes it harm.
D. Mite
C. An organism that is capable infecting
itself.
126. Which of the following parasites are also
known as ascarids? D. A plant considered undesirable,
unattractive, or troublesome, especially
A. whipworm
one growing where it is not wanted, as in
B. roundworm a garden.
C. liver fluke
131. How do humans come in contact with par-
D. lungworm asites?

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1.27 Parasitic Diseases 879

A. Riding a rollercoaster B. There are a lot of animals and a lot of

B. Only Digested protozoans so it is reasonable that they
could come into contact with each other.

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C. Only hand contact with the parasite
C. Protozoans and Animals have the
D. Digested or contact with the parasite.
same basic cell type and the same nutri-
132. which of the following systems protects tional needs-protozoans therefore ‘know’
and supports the body tissues and or- how animal hosts work and how to exploit
gans? them.
A. endocrine D. A lot of animals live in the tropics
B. skeletal where a lot of protozoans live also.
C. circulatory 137. Some animals have an allergic reaction to
D. integumentary this parasite’s saliva.
133. What is it called when the laminae in the A. Flea
foot becomes so inflamed and damaged it B. Tick
no longer supports the coffin bone, which
then rotates and sinks? C. Mite
A. Acute laminitis D. Lice
B. Symptomatic laminits
138. What is an example of an endoparasite?
C. Chronic laminitis
A. Flea
D. Asymptomatic laminitis
B. Hookworm
134. Which of the following is spread by the
production of easily dispersed spores? C. Tick
A. Mycosis D. Mite
B. Parasites
139. Which of the following parasitic diseases
C. Fungus is caused solely by external parasites?
D. Helminths
A. anaplasmosis
135. The presence of round helminths or round- B. parasitic gastroenterities
worms in swine is a symptom of which par-
asitic disease? C. mange
A. anaplasmosis D. coccidiosis
B. ascaris
140. Salmonella can be transmitted by which
C. coccidiosis animals? (The bacteria are naturally oc-
D. parasitic gastroenteritis curring in these reptiles and amphibians).
136. Why are protozoan parasites so common A. Turtles and lizards
in animals? B. Chickens and swine
A. Animals have to drink water, and in
C. Bats and horses
nature water can easily become contam-
inated via the fecal route. D. Snakes and sheep

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1.27 Parasitic Diseases 880

141. What does a parasite use as a host in the 146. what parasite transmits lime disease
human body?
A. dirofilaria
A. Uses Tissues and Fluids
B. tick
B. Hair only
C. lice
C. Tissues only
D. Fluids and Nails D. heartworm

142. is a skin disease caused by several 147. Are small, wingless, bloodsucking insects

NARAYAN CHANGDER
species of tiny mites, common external acting as parasites on warm blooded ani-
parasites found in companion canines. mals
A. Ringworms A. Fleas
B. Hookworms
B. Ticks
C. Mange
C. Heartworm
D. Heartworms
D. Hookworms
143. Which of the following parasites can
cause skin problems such as scabies, scabs, 148. Disease transmitted by Arthropods-
mange or barn itch? vectors:ticks and lice-endemic areas:Rocky
A. lice Mts, Pacific Coast, many tropical and sub-
tropical regions
B. mites
C. flies A. Relapsing fever
D. horse bots B. Lyme disease

144. What are the symptoms of Tapeworm? C. Murine typhus fever

A. diarrhea, may include fresh blood, D. none of above
weight loss, anemia
B. abdominal pain, hunger, mild weight 149. When cats or dogs ingest this external
loss, worms in feces parasite, it causes a tapeworm.

C. black, tarry diarrhea, dark stool, A. Flea

lethargy, anemia, vomiting, irritated skin B. Tick
where hookworms penetrated the body
C. Lice
D. expanded abdomen, diarrhea, may
have roundworms present, vomiting, may D. Mites
have roundworms present, lethargy loss
of appetite 150. is an infectious disease caused by bac-
teria found in feral swine, elk, moose, and
145. What do you call an organism that is so bison.
small that you cannot see it at once?
A. Lyme disease
A. host
B. parasite B. Brucellosis

C. pests C. Mange
D. none of above D. Mad Cow disease

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1.27 Parasitic Diseases 881

151. Which one of these is a parasitic dis- 157. What is the name of the hair-like struc-
ease? tures on some protozoans like paramecium
have, that are used for movement?

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A. Anorexia
B. Anemia A. tentacles
C. Cancer B. trichocysts
D. Aids C. Flagella

E. Malaria D. Cilia
158. What is an example of an ectoparasite?
152. An organism that lives on or in a host and
causes it harm is called A. Flea
A. a host B. Hookworm
B. a parasite C. Tapeworm
C. a cell D. Lungworm
D. a virus 159. immature stage of the parasite life style
153. Children may get by biting their nails. A. zoonosis
A. pinworms B. larva
B. hookworms C. ectoparasite
C. tapeworms D. parasitology
D. none of above 160. Disease transmitted by Arthropods-
vectors:Fleas-endemic areas:Tropical &
154. What is parasitism? subtropical regions
A. both organisms are harmed A. Murine typhus fever
B. one organism benefits and the other is B. Colorodo tick fever
harmed
C. Scrub typhus fever
C. both organisms benefit
D. none of above
D. none of above
161. Which of the following parasites com-
155. What are the common signs of a mite in- pletes their life cycle by mating, engorging
festation? from feeding, then dropping to the ground
A. Itching to lay eggs in the environment?
B. A temperature A. lice
C. Hair loss B. mites
D. Lethargy C. ticks
D. roundworms
156. Which of the following will NOT help pre-
vent Osteochondrosis Dissecans? 162. What infection did he actually have?
A. Providing a balanced diet A. Necrotizing faciitis
B. Providing regular exercise B. Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis
C. Providing a high energy diet C. Staphylococcus Aureus
D. Providing routine examinations D. Valley fever

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1.27 Parasitic Diseases 882

163. Which of the following parasites glue 167. A person, animal or microscopic organism
onto the mouths of horses when rubbed that carries and transmits an infectious
orbitten and enter the stomach and attach pathogen into another living organism.
to the wall? A. vector
A. Horse bots B. arthropod
B. Nasal bots C. parasite
C. lice D. host

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. heel flies
168. Where might a parasitic protozoan live?
164. How did Adam get the disease? A. In a pig’s intestines
A. He was bit by a mosquito B. All of these!
B. He was bit by a rat C. On the surface of a pond
C. He was bit by a sandfly D. In the mud of a riverbank
D. He was bit by a student
169. Which of the following systems pumps
165. Coccidiosis is caused by a spore-forming and delivers blood to organs throughout
protozoa called coccidia, which the body?
A. are host specific A. endocrine
B. only affect ruminants B. circulatory
C. are highly contagious C. respiratory
D. affect the Northeast and Midwest D. digestive

166. What is an intermediate host? 170. What are the symptoms of hookworms
A. Husbandry A. Itching and a localized rash
B. Anemia B. a mild persistent cough, reluctance to
C. The host in which a parasite under- exercise, fatigue after moderate activity,
goes development but does not reach ma- decreased appetite, and weight loss.
turity C. Diarrhea
D. Heartworms D. none of above

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