Aptitude Questions

1. The length of the bridge, which a train 130 meters long and travelling at 45 km/hr can cross in 30
seconds, is:
A. 200 m
B. 225 m
C. 245 m
D. 250 m

2. A train running at the speed of 60 km/hr crosses a pole in 9 seconds. What is the length of the
train?
A. 120 metres
B. 180 metres
C. 324 metres
D. 150 metres

3. A train 125 m long passes a man, running at 5 km/hr in the same direction in which the train is
going, in 10 seconds. The speed of the train is:
A. 45 km/hr
B. 50 km/hr
C. 54 km/hr
D. 55 km/hr

4. The length of the bridge, which a train 130 meters long and travelling at 45 km/hr can cross in 30
seconds, is:
A. 200 m
B. 225 m
C. 245 m
D. 250 m

5. Two trains running in opposite directions cross a man standing on the platform in 27 seconds and
17 seconds respectively and they cross each other in 23 seconds. The ratio of their speeds is:
A. 1 : 3
B. 3 : 2
C. 3 : 4
D. None of these

6. A train passes a station platform in 36 seconds and a man standing on the platform in 20 seconds.
If the speed of the train is 54 km/hr, what is the length of the platform?
A. 120 m
B. 240 m
C. 300 m
D. None of these

7. A 300 meter long train crosses a platform in 39 seconds while it crosses a signal pole in 18
seconds. What is the length of the platform?
A. 150 m
B. 200 m
C. 350 m
D. 400 m
8. A train passes a station platform in 36 seconds and a man standing on the platform in 20 seconds.
If the speed of the train is 54 km/hr, what is the length of the platform?
A. 180 m
B. 200 m
C. 240 m
D. 320 m

9. The length of a train and that of a platform are equal. If with a speed of 90 k/hr, the train crosses
the platform in one minute, then the length of the train (in meters) is:
A. 850
B. 525
C. 550
D. 750

10. A train 110 meters long is running with a speed of 60 kmph. In what time will it pass a man who
is running at 6 kmph in the direction opposite to that in which the train is going?
A. 4
B. 6
C. 5
D. 9

11. A train speeds past a pole in 15 seconds and a platform 100 m long in 25 seconds. Its length is:
A. 100 m
B. 125 m
C. 130 m
D. 150 m

12. A train crosses a platform of 120 m in 15 sec, same train crosses another platform of length 180
m in 18 sec. then find the length of the train?
A. 175 m
B. 180 m
C. 185 m
D. 170 m

13. A train crosses a platform of 150 m in 15 sec, same train crosses another platform of length 250
m in 20 sec. then find the length of the train?
A. 150 m
B. 165 m
C. 155 m
D. 160 m

14. A train 400 m long can cross an electric pole in 20 sec and then find the speed of the train?
A. 65 Kmph
B. 70 Kmph
C. 72 Kmph
D. 75 Kmph

15. The two trains of lengths 400 m, 600 m respectively, running at same directions. The faster train
can cross the slower train in 180 sec, the speed of the slower train is 48 km. then find the speed of
the faster train?
A. 58 Kmph
B. 68 Kmph
C. 78 Kmph
D. 55 Kmph

16. A 1200 m long train crosses a tree in 120 sec, how much time will I take to pass a platform 700 m
long?
A. 180 sec
B. 190 sec
C. 170 sec
D. 175 sec

17. A train is 360 meter long is running at a speed of 45 km/hour. In what time will it pass a bridge of
140 meter length?
A. 20 sec
B. 30 sec
C. 40 sec
D. 50 sec

18. A train running at the speed of 60 km/hr crosses a pole in 9 seconds. Find the length of the train.
A. 150 m
B. 145 m
C. 140 m
D. 135 m

19. How many seconds will a 500 meter long train take to cross a man walking with a speed of 3
km/hr in the direction of the moving train if the speed of the train is 63 km/hr?
A. 25 sec
B. 28 sec
C. 30 sec
D. 35 sec

20. Two stations A and B are 110 km apart on a straight line. One train starts from A at 7 a.m. and
travels towards B at 20 kmph. Another train starts from B at 8 a.m. and travels towards A at a speed
of 25 kmph. At what time will they meet?
A. 9 a.m.
B. 10 a.m.
C. 10.30 a.m.
D. 11 a.m

21. In what time will a train 100 m long cross an electric pole, it its speed be 144 km/hr?
A. 2.5 sec
B. 4.25 sec
C. 5 sec
D. 12.5 sec

22. A train 280 m long, running with a speed of 63 km/hr will pass a tree in?
A. 15 sec
B. 16 sec
C. 18 sec
D. 20 sec
23. How long does a train 110 m long running at the speed of 72 km/hr takes to cross a bridge 132 m
length?
A. 9.8 sec
B. 12.1 sec
C. 12.42 sec
D. 14.3 sec

24. A train 360 m long is running at a speed of 45 km/hr. In what time will it pass a bridge 140 m
long?
A. 40 sec
B. 42 sec
C. 45 sec
D. 48 sec

25. A train running at the speed of 60 km/hr crosses a pole in 9 sec. What is the length of the train?
A. 120 m
B. 180 m
C. 324 m
D. Cannot be determined
E. None of these

26. A train covers a distance of 12 km in 10 min. If it takes 6 sec to pass a telegraph post, then the
length of the train is?
A. 90 m
B. 100 m
C. 120 m
D. 140 m

27. A train 240 m long passed a pole in 24 sec. How long will it take to pass a platform 650 m long?
A. 65 sec
B. 89 sec
C. 100 sec
D. 150 sec

28. The length of the bridge, which a train 130 m long and traveling at 45 km/hr can cross in 30 sec
is?
A. 200 m
B. 225 m
C. 245 m
D. 250 m

29. A train 800 m long is running at a speed of 78 km/hr. If it crosses a tunnel in 1 min, then the
length of the tunnel is?
A. 130 m
B. 360 m
C. 500 m
D. 540 m

30. A goods train runs at the speed of 72 km/hr and crosses a 250 m long platform in 26 sec. What is
the length of the goods train?
A. 230 m
B. 240 m
C. 260 m
D. 270 m

31. A train passes a station platform in 36 sec and a man standing on the platform in 20 sec. If the
speed of the train is 54 km/hr. What is the length of the platform?
A. 120 m
B. 240 m
C. 300 m
D. None of these

32. A 300 m long train crosses a platform in 39 sec while it crosses a signal pole in 18 sec. What is the
length of the platform?
A. 320 m
B. 350 m
C. 650 m
D. None of these

33. A train speeds past a pole in 15 sec and a platform 100 m long in 25 sec, its length is?
A. 50 m
B. 150 m
C. 200 m
D. None of these

34. A train moves fast a telegraph post and a bridge 264 m long in 8 sec and 20 sec respectively.
What is the speed of the train?
A. 69.5 km/hr
B. 70 km/hr
C. 79 km/hr
D. 79.2 km/hr

35. How many seconds will a 500 m long train take to cross a man walking with a speed of 3 km/hr in
the direction of the moving train if the speed of the train is 63 km/hr?
A. 25
B. 30
C. 40
D. 45

36. A man sitting in a train which is traveling at 50 kmph observes that a goods train, traveling in
opposite direction, takes 9 seconds to pass him. If the goods train is 280 m long, find its speed.?

A) 60 B) 62

C) 64 D) 65

37. man's speed with the current is 15 km/hr and the speed of the current is 2.5 km/hr. The man's
speed against the current is :
 A) 9.5 km/hr B) 10 km/hr

C) 10.5 km/hr D) 11 km/hr

38. A train of length 110 meter is running at a speed of 60 kmph. In what time, it will pass a man who
is running at 6 kmph in the direction opposite to that in which the train is going?

A) 10 B) 8

C) 6 D) 4

39. Two trains are running in opposite directions in the same speed. The length of each train is 120
meter. If they cross each other in 12 seconds, the speed of each train (in km/hr) is

A) 42 B) 36

C) 28 D) 20

40. Two trains started at the same time, one from A to B and the other from B to A . If they arrived at
B and A respectively 4 hours and 9 hours after they passed each other the ratio of the speeds of the
two trains was

A) 2:1 B) 3:2

C) 4:3 D) 5:4

41. A train travelling at a speed of 75 mph enters a tunnel 312312miles long. The train is 1414mile
long. How long does it take for the train to pass through the tunnel from the moment the front
enters to the moment the rear emerges?

A) 2.5 min B) 3 min

C) 3.2 min D) 3.5 min

42. Two cogged wheels of which one has 32 cogs and other 54 cogs, work into each other. If the
latter turns 80 times in three quarters of a minute, how often does the other turn in 8 seconds?

A) 48 B) 24

C) 38 D) 36
43. Two stations P and Q are 110 km apart on a straight track. One train starts from P at 7 a.m. and
travels towards Q at 20 kmph. Another train starts from Q at 8 a.m. and travels towards P at a speed
of 25 kmph. At what time will they meet?

A) 10.30 B) 10

C) 8.45 D) 9.30

44. A train moves with a speed of 108 kmph. Its speed in metres per second is :

A) 10.8 B) 18

C) 30 D) 38.8
45. Two trains having equal lengths, take 10 seconds and 15 seconds respectively to cross a post. If
the length of each train is 120 meters, in what time (in seconds) will they cross each other when
traveling in opposite direction?

A) 10 B) 25

C) 12 D) 20

46. A train moves past a telegraph post and a bridge 264 m long in 8 seconds and 20 seconds
respectively. What is the speed of the train ?

A) 69.5 km/hr B) 70 km/hr

C) 79 km/hr D) 79.2 km/hr

47. A train speeds past a pole in 15 seconds and a platform 100 m long in 25 seconds. Its length is:

A) 50 m B) 150 m

C) 200 m D) data inadequate

48. Two trains 140 m and 160 m long run at the speed of 60 km/hr and 40 km/hr respectively in
opposite directions on parallel tracks. The time (in seconds) which they take to cross each other, is:

A) 9 B) 9.6

C) 10 D) 10.8
49. Two trains of equal length , running in opposite directions , pass a pole in 18 and 12 seconds. The
trains will cross each other in

A) 14.4 sec B) 15.5 sec

C) 18.8 sec D) 20.2 sec

50. A 270 metres long train running at the speed of 120 kmph crosses another train running in
opposite direction at the speed of 80 kmph in 9 seconds. What is the length of the other train ?

A) 230 m B) 240 m

C) 260 m D) 320 m

51. Length of train is 170 meters and speed of train is 63 km/hour. This train can pass a bridge in 30
seconds, then find the length of the bridge.

A) 355 mts B) 325 mts

C) 365 mts D) 312 mts

52. A goods train runs at the speed of 72 kmph and crosses a 250 m long platform in 26 seconds.
What is the length of the goods train?

A) 230 m B) 240 m

C) 260 m D) 270 m

53. A train running at the speed of 40 km/hr crosses a signal pole in 9 seconds. Find the length of the
train ?

A) 90 mts B) 150 mts

C) 120 mts D) 100 mts

54. A train 110 metres long is running with a speed of 60 kmph. In what time will it pass a man who
is running at 6 kmph in the direction opposite to that in which the train is going?

A) 5 B) 6

C) 7 D) 10
55. A jogger is running at 9 kmph alongside a railway track is 240 meters ahead of the engine of a
120 meters long train running at 45 kmph in the same direction. In how much time will the
train pass the jogger ?

A) 48 sec B) 36 sec

C) 18 sec D) 72 sec

56. Two trains running in opposite directions cross a man standing on the platform in 27 seconds and
17 seconds respectively and they cross each other in 23 seconds. The ratio of their speeds is ?

A) 1 : 2 B) 3 : 1

C) 4 : 7 D) 3 : 2

57. Train K crosses a stationary Train L in 50 seconds and a pole in 20 seconds with the same speed.
The length of the Train K is 240 meters. What is the length of stationary Train L ?

A) 60 mts B) 120 mts

C) 240 mts D) 360 mts

58. A train 125 m long passes a man, running at 5 km/hr in the same direction in which the train is
going, in 10 seconds. The speed of the train is ?

A) 45 kmph B) 25 kmph

C) 30 kmph D) 50 kmph

59. Two trains are moving in the same direction at 72 kmph and 36 kmph. The faster train crosses a
girl sitting at window seat in the slower train in 32 seconds. Find the length of the faster train ?

A) 170 m B) 100 m

C) 270 m D) 320 m

60. A train is traveling at 48 kmph . It crosses another train having half of its length , traveling in
opposite direction at 42 kmph, in 12 seconds. It also passes a railway platform in 45 seconds. What is
the length of the platform ?

A) 500 B) 400
 C) 360 D) 480

61. Two trains of equal length, running with the speeds of 60 and 40 kmph, take 50 seconds to cross
each other while they are running in the same direction. What time will they take to cross each
other if they are running in opposite directions ?

A) 10 sec B) 11 sec

C) 12 sec D) 8 sec

62. A train covers a distance between station A and station B in 45 min.If the speed of the train is
reduced by 5 km/hr,then the same distance is covered in 48 min.what is the distance between the
stations A and B ?

A) 80 kms B) 60 kms

C) 45 kms D) 32 kms

63. A train 800 metres long is running at a speed of 78 km/hr. If it crosses a tunnel in 1 minute, then
the length of the tunnel (in meters) is :

A) 130 B) 360

C) 500 D) 540

64. Two trains of equal length are running on parallel lines in the same direction at 36 km/hr and 26
km/hr. The faster train passes the slower train in 36 sec. The length of each train is ?

A) 28 mts B) 54 mts

C) 24 mts D) 50 mts

65. Two trains, one from Hyderabd to Bangalore and the other from Bangalore to Hyderabad, start
simultaneously. After they meet, the trains reach their destinations after 9 hours and 16 hours
respectively. The ratio of their speeds is ?

A) 3 : 4 B) 4 : 3

C) 2 : 3 D) 3 : 2
66. Two goods trains each 520 m long, are running in opposite directions on parallel tracks. Their
speeds are 42 km/hr and 36 km/hr respectively. Find the time taken by the slower train to cross the
driver of the faster one ?

A) 60 sec B) 48 sec

C) 45 sec D) 34 sec

67. A train for Fathehpur leaves for every 2 hrs 30 min from Agra station. An announcement was
made that train left 37 mins ago and next train comes at 17:00hrs. At what time was the
announcement made ?

A) 15:07 hrs B) 15:20 hrs

C) 15:05 hrs D) 15:00 hrs

68. Two passenger trains start at the same hour in the day from two different stations and move
towards each other at the rate of 16 kmph and 21 kmph respectively. When they meet, it is found
that one train has traveled 60 km more than the other one. The distance between the two stations is
?

A) 387 kms B) 242 kms

C) 145 kms D) 444 kms

69. Train X crosses a stationary train Y in 60 seconds and a pole in 25 seconds with the same speed.
The length of the train X is 300 m. What is the length of the stationary train Y ?

A) 360 m B) 420 m

C) 460 m D) 320 m
70. Two trains are moving in opposite directions at 60 km/hr and 90 km/hr. Their lengths are 1.10
km and 0.9 km respectively. The time taken by the slower train to cross the faster train in seconds is
?

A) 42 sec B) 44 sec

C) 46 sec D) 48 sec

71. Two trains are running at 60 km/hr and 20 km/hr respectively in the same direction. Fast train
completely passes a man sitting in the slower train in 6 seconds. What is the length of the fast train ?
A. 6623 mtsA. 6623 mts
B. 6632 mtsB. 6632 mts
C.6345 mtsC.6345 mts
D. 6354 mtsD. 6354 mts

A) Option A B) Option B

C) Option C D) Option D

72. A train travelling with a speed of 60 km/hr catches another train travelling in the same direction
and then leaves it 120m behind in 18 seconds. The speed of the second train is

A) 42 kmph B) 72 kmph

C) 36 kmph D) 44 kmph

73. The two trains of lengths 400 m, 600 m respectively, running at same directions. The faster train
can cross the slower train in 180 sec, the speed of the slower train is 48 kmph. Then find the speed
of faster train ?

A) 68 kmph B) 52 kmph

C) 76 kmph D) 50 kmph

74. Two trains are running at 40 km/hr and 20 km/hr respectively in the same direction. Fast train
completely passes a man sitting in the slower train in 5 seconds. What is the length of the fast train?

A) 27 7/9 mts B) 25 8/7 mts

C) 21 1/4 mts D) 22 mts

75. A train 125 m long passes a man, running at 4 km/hr in the same direction in which the train is
going, in 10 seconds. The speed of the train is:

A) 49 kmph B) 50 kmph

C) 51 kmph D) 52 kmph
76. Express a speed of 36 kmph in meters per second?
A. 10 mps
B. 12 mps
C. 14 mps
D. 17 mps

77. Express 25 mps in kmph?

A. 15 kmph
B. 99 kmph
C. 90 kmph
D. None

78. The speed of a train is 90 kmph. What is the distance covered by it in 10 minutes?
A. 15 kmph
B. 12 kmph
C. 10 kmph
D. 5 kmph

79. A car covers a distance of 624 km in 6 ½ hours. Find its speed?

A. 104 kmph
B. 140 kmph
C. 104 mph
D. 10.4 kmph

80. In what time will a railway train 60 m long moving at the rate of 36 kmph pass a telegraph post
on its way?
A. 9 sec
B. 8 sec
C. 7 sec
D. 6 sec

81. A train 240 m in length crosses a telegraph post in 16 seconds. The speed of the train is?
A. 50 kmph
B. 52 kmph
C. 54 kmph
D. 56 kmph

82. The speed of a car is 90 km in the first hour and 60 km in the second hour. What is the average
speed of the car?
A. 72 kmph
B. 75 kmph
C. 30 kmph
D. 80 kmph
83. Walking with 4/5 of my usual speed, I miss the bus by 5 minutes. What is my usual time?
A. 35 min
B. 30 min
C. 25 min
D. 20 min

84. If a man walks to his office at ¾ of his usual rate, he reaches office 1/3 of an hour late than
usual. What is his usual time to reach office?
A. 1 hour
B. 2 hour
C. 3 hour
D. 4 hour

85. Two cars cover the same distance at the speed of 60 and 64 kmps respectively. Find the distance
traveled by them if the slower car takes 1 hour more than the faster car.
A. 906 km
B. 960 m
C. 960 km
D. 966 km

86. A man leaves a point P at 6 a.m. and reaches the point Q at 10 a.m. another man leaves the
point give at 8 a.m. and reaches the point P at 12 noon. At what time do they meet?
A. 8 a.m.
B. 8 p.m.
C. 9 a.m.
D. 9 p.m.

87. A thief goes away with a SANTRO car at a speed of 40 kmph. The theft has been discovered
after half an hour and the owner sets off in a bike at 50 kmph when will the owner over take the
thief from the start?
A. 2 hours
B. 2 hours 45 min
C. 2 hours 30 min
D. 2 hours 50 min

88. If I walk at 3 kmph, I miss the train by 2 min, if however, I walk at 4 kmph. I reach the station 2
min before the arrival of the train. How far do I walk to reach the station?
A. 4/5 km
B. 5/4 km
C. 6/5 km
D. 3/4 km

89. Two trains each 250 m in length are running on the same parallel lines in opposite directions
with the speed of 80 kmph and 70 kmph respectively. In what time will they cross each other
completely?
A. 10 sec
B. 11 sec
C. 12 sec
D. 14 sec

90. Two trains of equal length, running with the speeds of 60 and 40 kmph, take 50 seconds to cross
each other while they are running in the same direction. What time will they take to cross each
other if they are running in opposite directions?
A. 10 sec
B. 9 sec
C. 8 sec
D. 7 sec

91. If a train, travelling at a speed of 90 kmph, crosses a pole in 5 sec, then the length of train is?
A. 104 m
B. 125 m
C. 140 m
D. 152 m

92. Two trains travelling in the same direction at 40 and 22 kmph completely pass off another in 1
minute. If the length of the first train is 125 m, what is the length of the second train?
A. 125 m
B. 150 m
C. 175 m
D. 185 m

93. How many seconds will a train 100 meters long take to cross a bridge 150 meters long if the
speed of the train is 36 kmph?
A. 18
B. 22
C. 25
D. 28

94. A train 100 meters long completely crosses a 300 meters long bridge in 45 seconds. What is the
speed of the train is?
A. 32 kmph
B. 36 kmph
C. 40 kmph
D. 48 kmph
95. A 180 meter long train crosses a man standing on the platform in 6 sec. What is the speed of the
train?
A. 90 kmph
B. 108 kmph
C. 120 kmph
D. 88 kmph

96. Excluding stoppages, the speed of a train is 45 kmph and including stoppages it is 36 kmph. Of
how many minutes does the train stop per hour?
A. 10 min
B. 11 min
C. 12 min
D. 13 min

97. One train is traveling 45 kmph and other is at 10 meters a second. Ratio of the speed of the two
trains is?
A. 5:4
B. 4:5
C. 9:2
D. 2:9

98. A train leaves Delhi at 9 a.m. at a speed of 30 kmph. Another train leaves at 2 p.m. at a speed of
40 kmph on the same day and in the same direction. How far from Delhi, will the two trains meet?
A. 300 km
B. 400 km
C. 600 km
D. None

99. How long does a train 165 meters long running at the rate of 54 kmph take to cross a bridge 660
meters in length?
A. 45 sec
B. 75 sec
C. 55 sec
D. 54 sec

.100. Two trains 121 meters and 165 meters in length respectively are running in opposite
directions, one at the rate of 80 km and the other at the rate of 65 kmph. In what time will they be
completely clear of each other from the moment they meet?
A. 7 sec
B. 8.12 sec
C. 7.25 sec
D. 7.15 sec

101. The distance between Delhi and Mathura is 110 kms. A starts from Delhi with a speed of 20
kmph at 7 a.m. for Mathura and B starts from Mathura with a speed of 25 kmph at 8 p.m. from
Delhi. When will they meet?
A. 10.30 a.m.
B. 10.00 a.m.
C. 9.30 a.m.
D. 9.00 a.m.

102. A train of 24 carriages, each of 60 meters length, when an engine also of 60 meters length is
running at a speed of 60 kmph. In what time will the train cross a bridge 1.5 km long?
A. 1 ½ mins
B. 3 mins
C. 3 ½ mins
D. 7 mins

103. A motorcyclist goes from Bombay to Pune, a distance of 192 kms at an average of 32 kmph
speed. Another man starts from Bombay by car 2 ½ hours after the first, and reaches Pune ½ hour
earlier. What is the ratio of the speed of the motorcycle and the car?
A. 1:2
B. 1:3
C. 10:27
D. 5:4

104. A car after covering ½ of a journey of 100 km develops engine trouble and later travels at ½ of
its original speed. As a result, it arrives 2 hours late than its normal time. What is the normal speed
of the car is?
A. 50 kmph
B. 40 kmph
C. 30 kmph
D. 25 kmph

105. A 600 meter long train crosses a signal post in 40 seconds. How long will it take to cross a 3
kilometer long bridge, at the same speed?
A. 4 min
B. 5 min
C. 3 min 4 sec
D. Data inadequate

106. Two men A and B start from place X walking at 4 ½ kmph and 5 ¾ kmph respectively. How
many km apart they are at the end of 3 ½ hours if they are walking in the same direction?
A. 4 ½ km
B. 5 ¾ km
C. 4 3/8 km
D. 35 7/8 km

107. Two passenger trains start at the same hour in the day from two different stations and move
towards each other at the rate of 16 kmph and 21 kmph respectively. When they meet, it is found
that one train has traveled 60 km more than the other one. The distance between the two stations
is?
A. 445 km
B. 444 km
C. 440 km
D. 450 km

108. How long does a train 110 m long traveling at 60 kmph takes to cross a bridge of 170 m in
length?
A. 1.68 sec
B. 15 sec
C. 16 sec
D. 16.8 sec

109. A train sets off at 2 p.m. at the speed of 70 kmph. Another train starts at 3:30 p.m. in the same
direction at the rate of 85 kmph. At what time the trains will meet?
A. 9.30 p.m.
B. 8.30 p.m.
C. 10.30 p.m.
D. 10.45 p.m.

110. In the beginning, Ram works at a rate such that he can finish a piece of work in 24 hrs, but he
only works at this rate for 16 hrs. After that, he works at a rate such that he can do the whole work
in 18 hrs. If Ram is to finish this work at a stretch, how many hours will he take to finish this work?
a) 12 hrs
b) 18 hrs
c) 11½ hrs
d) 15 hrs
e) 22 hrs

111. A can do a piece of work in 10 days, and B can do the same work in 20 days. With the help of
C, they finished the work in 4 days. C can do the work in how many days, working alone?
1. 5 days
2. 10 days
3. 15 days
4. 20 days
5. 25 days

112. A can do a piece of work in 12 days. B can do this work in 16 days. A started the work alone.
After how many days should B join him, so that the work is finished in 9 days?

1. 2 days
2. 3 days
3. 4 days
4. 5 days
5. 1 days
113. A and B can do a piece of work in 4 days, while C and D can do the same work in 12 days. In
how many days will A, B, C and D do it together?
1. 12 days
2. 4 days
3. 3 days
4. 2 days
5. None of these

114. A and B can do a piece of work in 40 days, B and C can do it in 120 days. If B alone can do it in
180 days, in how many days will A and C do it together?
1. 45 days
2. 22.5 days
3. 25 days
4. 18 days
5. 12 days

115. A, B, C, and D can do a piece of work in 20 days. If A and B can do it together in 50 days, and C
alone in 60 days, find the time in which D alone can do it.
1. 120 days
2. 200 days
3. 150 days
4. 90 days
5. 75 days

116 . A, B, and C can do a piece of work in 8 days. B and C together do it in 24 days. B alone can do it
in 40 days. In what time will it be done by C working alone?
1. 25 days
2. 24 days
3. 60 days
4. 20 days
5. 30 days

117. A and B undertake to do a piece of work for Rs. 450. A can do it in 20 days and B can do it in 40
days. With the help of C, they finish it in 8 days. How much should C be paid for his contribution?
1. Rs. 180
2. Rs. 40
3. Rs. 120
4. Rs. 60
5. Rs. 50

118. Daku and Tamatar can do a piece of work in 70 and 60 days respectively. They began the work
together, but Daku leaves after some days and Tamatar finished the remaining work in 47 days.
After how many days did Daku leave?
1. 14 days
2. 16 days
3. 18 days
4. 10 days
5. 7 days

119. Ajay and Vijay undertake to do a piece of work for Rs. 480. Ajay alone can do it in 75 days while
Vijay alone can do it in 40 days. With the help of Pradeep, they finish the work in 25 days. How much
should Pradeep get for his work?

1. Rs. 40
2. Rs. 20
3. Rs. 360
4. Rs. 100
5. Rs. 60

120. A and B complete a work in 6 days. A alone can do it in 10 days. If both together can do the
work in how many days?
A. 3.75 days
B. 4 days
C. 5 days
D. 6 days

121. A and B together can do a piece of work in 8 days. If A alone can do the same work in 12 days,
then B alone can do the same work in?
A. 20 days
B. 16 days
C. 24 days
D. 28 days

122. A can do a piece of work in 4 days. B can do it in 5 days. With the assistance of C they
completed the work in 2 days. Find in how many days can C alone do it?
A. 10 days
B. 20 days
C. 5 days
D. 4 days

123. A and B can do a piece of work in 6 2/3 days and 5 days respectively. They work together for 2
days and then A leaves. In how many days after that B will complete the work alone.
A. 2 days
B. 1 ½ days
C. 3 days
D. 3 ½ days

124. A can do a piece of work in 30 days. He works at it for 5 days and then B finishes it in 20 days.
In what time can A and B together it?
A. 16 2/3 days
B. 13 1/3 days
C. 17 1/3 days
D. 16 1/2 days

125. A and B can do a piece of work in 12 days and 16 days respectively. Both work for 3 days and
then A goes away. Find how long will B take to complete the remaining work?
A. 15 days
B. 12 days
C. 10 days
D. 9 days

126. A and B can do a piece of work in 3 days, B and C in 4 days, C and A in 6 days. How long will C
take to do it?
A. 18 days
B. 20 days
C. 24 days
D. 30 days

127. A can do a piece of work in 10 days. He works at it for 4 days and then B finishes it in 9 days. In
how many days can A and B together finish the work?
A. 6 days
B. 8 days
C. 8 ½ days
D. 7 ½ days

128. A can do a piece of work in 40 days; B can do the same in 30 days. A started alone but left the
work after 10 days, then B worked at it for 10 days. C finished the remaining work in 10 days. C alone
can do the whole work in?
A. 24 days
B. 30 days
C. 44 days
D. 17 1/2 days

129. A work which could be finished in 9 days was finished 3 days earlier after 10 more men joined.
The number of men employed was?
A. 18
B. 20
C. 22
D. 24

130. A and B can do a piece of work in 7 days. With the help of C they finish the work in 5 days. C
alone can do that piece of work in?
A. 1 day
B. 10 days
C. 30 days
D. 32 days

131. Ravi can do a piece of work in 30 days while Prakash can do it in 40 days. In how many days will
they finish it together?
A. 17 1/7 days
B. 27 1/7 days
C. 23 2/7 days
D. 16 4/11 days

132. Anil can do a work in 15 days while Sunil can do it in 25 days. How long will they take if both
work together?
A. 3 4/9 days
B. 8 4/9 days
C. 9 3/8 days
D. 6 3/8 days

133. A can do a job in 18 days and B can do it in 30 days. A and B working together will finish twice
the amount of work in ------- days?
A. 21 ½ days
B. 22 ½ days
C. 23 ½ days
D. 12 ½ days

134. A can do a piece of work in 10 days and B can do it in 15 days and C can do it 20 days. They
started the work together and A leaves after 2 days and B leaves after 4 days from the beginning.
How long will work lost?
A. 8 2/3 days
B. 9 2/3 days
C. 10 2/3 days
D. 10 days

135. A can do a piece of work in 12 days. When he had worked for 2 days B joins him. If the
complete work was finished in 8 days. In how many days B alone can finish the work?
A. 18 days
B. 12 days
C. 24 days
D. 10 days

136. A and B together can do a work in 6 days. If A alone can do it in 15 days. In how many days can
B alone do it?
A. 10
B. 15
C. 12
D. 16

137. A can do a piece of work in 15 days and B in 20 days. They began the work together but 5 days
before the completion of the work, A leaves. The work was completed in?
A. 8 days
B. 10 days
C. 15 days
D. 11 3/7 days

138. A, B and C can do a piece of work in 24, 30 and 40 days respectively. They start the work
together but C leaves 4 days before the completion of the work. In how many days is the work
done?
A. 15 days
B. 14 days
C. 13 days
D. 11 days

139. A is thrice as efficient as B and is, therefore, able to finish a piece of work 10 days earlier than
B. In how many days A and B will finish it together?
A. 3 1/2 days
B. 3 4/5 days
C. 3 days
D. 5 days

140. A, B and C can do a piece of work in 7 days, 14 days and 28 days respectively. How long will
they taken, if all the three work together?
A. 3 days
B. 4 days
C. 5 days
D. 6 days

141. After working for 6 days, Ashok finds that only 1/3 rd of the work has been done. He employs
Ravi who is 60% as efficient as Ashok. How many days more would Ravi take to complete the work?
A. 19 days
B. 10 days
C. 20 days
D. 12 days

142. A is twice as good a work man as B and together they finish the work in 14 days. In how many
days A alone can finish the work?
A. 20
B. 21
C. 22
D. 23

143. A, B and C can do a work in 6, 8 and 12 days respectively doing the work together and get a
payment of Rs.1800. What is B’s share?
A. Rs.600
B. Rs.450
C. Rs.300
D. Rs.500

144. If A, B and C together can finish a piece of work in 4 days. A alone in 12 days and B in 18 days,
then C alone can do it in?
A. 21 days
B. 15 days
C. 12 days
D. 9 days

145. 5 men and 12 boys finish a piece of work in 4 days, 7 men and 6 boys do it in 5 days. The ratio
between the efficiencies of a man and boy is?
A. 1:2
B. 2:1
C. 2:3
D. 6:5

146. 9 men and 12 boys finish a job in 12 days, 12 men and 12 boys finish it in 10 days. 10 men and
10 boys shall finish it in how many days?
A. 8
B. 10
C. 12
D. 14
147. If 12 men do a work in 80 days, in how many days will 16 men do it?
A. 30
B. 40
C. 50
D. 60

148. A and B can finish a work in 16 days while A alone can do the same work in 24 days. In how
many days B alone will complete the work?
A. 56
B. 48
C. 36
D. 58

149. A can finish a piece of work in 5 days. B can do it in 10 days. They work together for two days
and then A goes away. In how many days will B finish the work?
A. 4 days
B. 5 days
C. 6 days
D. 8 days

150. Ramesh can finish a work in 20 days and Sushil in 25 days. They both work together for 5 days
and then Sushil goes away. In how many days will Ramesh complete the remaining work?
A. 8 days
B. 9 days
C. 10 days
D. 11 days

151. 16 men can complete a piece of work in 25 days. In how many days can 20 men complete that
piece of work?
A. 16 days
B. 18 days
C. 20 days
D. 22 days

152. 5 men are equal to as many women as are equal to 8 boys. All of them earn Rs.90 only. Men’s
wages are?
A. Rs.6
B. Rs.5
C. Rs.4.50
D. Rs.5.50

153. 45 men working 8 hours per day dig 30 m deep. How many extra men should be put to dig to a
depth of 50 m working 6 hours per day?
A. 25
B. 30
C. 45
D. 55

154. A is half good a work man as B and together they finish a job in 14 days. In how many days
working alone B finish the job?
A. 20
B. 21
C. 22
D. 23

155. A and B can do a piece of work in 8 days. B and C can do it in 12 days and A and C in 16 days.
Working together they will complete the work in how many days?
A. 14.76 days
B. 12.2 days
C. 9.48 days
D. 7.38 days
156. Two men and three women working 7 hours a day finish a work in 5 days. Four men and four
women working 3 hours a day complete the work in 7 days. The number of days in which only 7 men
working 4 hours a day will finish the work is?
A. 5 days
B. 6 days
C. 7 days
D. 10 days

157. A can do a piece of work in 20 days. B in 15 days A and C in 12 days. In how many days can A
finish the work if he is assisted by B on one day and C on the next, alternately?
A. 10
B. 8
C. 6
D. 4

158. 3 men or 6 women can do a piece of work in 20 days. In how many days will 12 men and 8
women do the same work?
A. 7/2
B. 15/4
C. 5
D. 4
159. A is twice as good a workman as B and they took 7 days together to do the work B alone can do
it in.
A. 12 days
B. 18 days
C. 21 days
D. 27 days

160. A can do half the work in one day where as B can do it full. B can also do half the work of C in
one day. Ratio in their efficiency will be?
A. 4:2:1
B. 2:4:1
C. 2:1:4
D. 1:2:4

161. A can do a piece of work in 12 days. He worked for 15 days and then B completed the
remaining work in 10 days. Both of them together will finish it in.
A. 12 1/2 days
B. 25 days
C. 6 days
D. 12 days

162. A can do a half of certain work in 70 days and B one third of the same in 35 days. They together
will do the whole work in.
A. 420 days
B. 120 days
C. 105 days
D. 60 days

163. If 3 workers collect 48 kg of cotton in 4 days, how many kg of cotton will 9 workers collect in 2
days?
A. 216
B. 108
C. 72
D. 36

164. Anita, Indu and Geeta can do a piece of work in 18 days, 27 days and 36 days respectively. They
start working together. After working for 4 days. Anita goes away and Indu leaves 7 days before the
work is finished. Only Geeta remains at work from beginning to end. In how many days was the
whole work done?
A. 16 days
B. 17 days
C. 18 days
D. 19 days

165. A, B and C completed a piece of work, A worked for 6 days, B for 9 days and C for 4 days. Their
daily wages were in the ratio of 3:4:5. Find the daily wages of C, if their total earning was Rs.1480?
A. Rs.80
B. Rs.75
C. Rs.100
D. Rs.90

166. 15 men take 21 days of 8 hours each to do a piece of work. How many days of 6 hours each
would 21 women take to do the same. If 3 women do as much work as 2 men?
A. 10
B. 20
C. 30
D. 40

167. Some persons can do a piece of work in 12 days. Two times the number of these people will do
half of that work in?
A. 3 days
B. 4 days
C. 6 days
D. 12 days

168. If 12 men and 16 boys can do a piece of work in 5 days and 13 men together will 24 boys can
do it in 4 days. Compare the daily work done by a man with that of a boy.
A. 4:3
B. 2:1
C. 1:2
D. 2:5

169. Two pipes X and Y can separately fill a cistern in 18 and 24 hours respectively. If they are
turned on alternately for one hour each, how long will it take to fill the cistern?
A. 20 hours 30 min
B. 24 hours
C. 18 hours 30 min
D. 16 hours

170. A and B can do a work in 5 days and 10 days respectively. A starts the work and B joins him
after 2 days. In how many days can they complete the remaining work?
A. 1 day
B. 2 days
C. 3 days
D. 4 days

171. A, B and C can do a work in 6 days, 8 days and 12 days respectively. In how many days can all
three of them working together, complete the work?
A. 2 2/3 days
B. 4 2/3 days
C. 1 2/3 days
D. 2 1/3 days

172. A and B can do a work in 12 days, B and C in 30 days and C and A in 36 days. In how many days
will the work be completed, if all three of them work together?
A. 160/11 days
B. 125/14 days
C. 180/13 days
D. 120/11 days

173. A, B and C can do a piece of work in 24 days, 30 days and 40 days respectively. They began the
work together but C left 4 days before the completion of the work. In how many days was the work
completed?
A. 5 days
B. 4 days
C. 7 days
D. 11 days

174. P is three times as fast as Q and working together, they can complete a work in 12 days. In
how many days can Q alone complete the work?
A. 16 days
B. 20 days
C. 17 days
D. 12 days
175. If 5 men and 2 boys working together, can do four times as much work per hour as a man and
a boy together. Find the ratio of the work done by a man and that of a boy for a given time?
A. 1:3
B. 3:1
C. 1:2
D. 2:1

176. 30 men can do a work in 40 days. When should 20 men leave the work so that the entire work
is completed in 40 days after they leave the work?
A. 5 days
B. 10 days
C. 15 days
D. 20 days

177. A and B can do a work in 4 hours and 12 hours respectively. A starts the work at 6AM and they
work alternately for one hour each. When will the work be completed?
A. 4 days
B. 7 days
C. 5 days
D. 6 days

178. A can do a work in 9 days and B can do the same work in 18 days. If they work together, in how
many days will they complete the work?
A. 8
B. 7
C. 6
D. 5
E. None of these.

179. A, B and C can do a work in 90, 30 and 45 days respectively. If they work together, in how many
days will they complete the work?
A. 15
B. 10
C. 20
D. 25
E. None of these

180. P alone can complete a piece of work in 6 days. Work done by Q alone in one day is equal to
one-third of the work done by P alone in one day. In how many days can the work be completed if P
and Q work together?
A. 4(3/4)
B. 4(1/2)
C. 4
D. 5
E. None of these
181. A and B can do a work in 18 day, B and C in 30 days, A and C in 22 (1/2) days. In how many
days can A,B and C individually do the work?
A. 30,45,60
B. 60,45,90
C. 45,60,90
D. 60,90,120
E. None of these

182. A can do a piece of work in 21 days and B in 28 days. Together they started the work and B left
after 4 days. In how many days can A alone do the remaining work?
A. 12
B. 10
C. 16
D. 14
E. None of these

. 183. Varma can read a book in k minutes. What part of the book can he read in 8 minutes?(k>8)
A. 8 + k
B. 8/k
C. k/8
D. (k - 8)/k
E. None of these.

184. Avinash is twice as fast as Bharat, and Bharat is one-third as fast as Chandra. If together they
can complete a piece of work in 30 days, in how many days can Avinash, Bharat and Chandra do the
work respectively?
A. 60,180,240
B. 90,180,120
C. 180,90,60
D. 90,60,180
E. None of these

185. A is twice as fast as B. If B alone can do a piece of work in 30 days, in what time can A and B
together complete the work?
A. 10
B. 12
C. 15
D. 8
E. None of these

186. A can do a piece of work in 10 days and B can do the same work in 12 days. A and B worked
together for 2 days. How many more days are required to complete the remaining work if they work
together?
A. 2(2/11)days
B. 3(3/11)days
C. 3(5/11)days
D. 6(3/11)days
E. None of these

187. 50 men can complete a work in 65 days.Five days after started the work, 20 men left the group.
In how many days can the remaining work be completed?
A. 60 days
B. 80 days
C. 75 days
D. Cannot be determined
E. None of these

188. Two persons A and B can complete a piece of work in 30 days and 45 days respectively. If they
work together, what part of the work will be completed in 3 days?
A. 1/3
B. 1/4
C. 1/6
D. 1/18
E. None of these.

189. Twenty four men can do a work in 35 days. How many men are required to complete the work
in 21 days?
A. 38
B. 40
C. 36
D. 42
E. None of these.

190. A certain number of men can do a work in 65 days working 6 hours a day. If the number of
men are decreased by one-fourth, then for how many hours per day should they work in order to
complete the work in 40 days?
A. 14
B. 13
C. 15
D. 16
E. None of these

191. Thirty men can do a work in 24 days. In how many days can 20 men can do the work, given that
the time spent per day is increased by one-third of the previous time?
A. 30
B. 28
C. 24
D. 33
E. None of these
192. Sixty men can stitch 200 shirts in 30 days working 8 hours a day. In how many days can 45
men stitch 300 shirts working 6 hours a day?
A. 60
B. 90
C. 70
D. 80
E. None of these.

193. If 12 men or 20 women can do a piece of work in 54 days, then in how many days can 9 men
and 12 women together do the work?
A. 35
B. 38
C. 40
D. 32
E. None of these.

194. Five men and nine women can do a piece of work in 10 days. Six men and twelve women can
do the same work in 8 days. In how many days can three men and three women do the work?
A. 24
B. 18
C. 20
D. 22
E. None of these.

195. Two men can complete a piece of work in four days. Two women can complete the same work
in eight days. Four boys can complete the same work in five days. If four men, eight women and 20
boys work together in how many days can the work be completed?
A. 1/2 day
B. 1(1/2) days
C. 1 day
D. 2 days
E. None of these

196. Twelve men and six women together can complete a piece of work in four days. The work done
by a women in one day is half the work done by a man in one day. If 12 men and six women started
working and after two days, six men left and six women joined, then in hoe many more days will the
work be completed?
A. 1(1/2)
B. 1
C. 2
D. 2(1/2)
E. None of these

197. Eight men, ten women and six boys together can complete a piece of work in eight days. In
how many days can 20 women complete the same work if 20 men can complete it in 12 days?
A. 9
B. 7.5
C. 6
D. Cannot be determined
E. None of these

198. A, B and C can do a work in 7 , 14 and 21 days respectively. They completed the work and got
Rs.242. What is the share of C?
A. Rs.55
B. Rs.44
C. Rs.66
D. Rs.77
E. None of these

199. X men can do a work in 120 days. If there were 20 men less, the work would have taken 60
days more. What is the value of X?
A. 60
B. 40
C. 50
D. 70
E. None of these

200. Sreedhar and Sravan together can do a work in 25 days. With the help of Pavan, they
completed the work in 8 days and earned Rs. 225. What is the share of Sravan, if Sreedhar alone can
do the work in 75 days?
A. Rs. 64
B. Rs. 52
C. Rs. 48
D. Rs. 58
E. None of these

201. Twelve men can complete a piece of work in 32 days. The same work can be completed by 16
women in 36 days and by 48 boys in 16 days. Find the time taken by one man, one woman and one
boy working together to complete the work?
A. (64 * 36)/13 days
B. (32 * 36)/13 days
C. (96 * 36)/13 days
D. (128 * 36)/13 days
E. None of these

202. A and B can do a work in 12 days and 36 days respectively. If they work on alternate days
beginning with B, in how many days will the work be completed?
A. 20 2/3
B. 9
C. 24
D. 26 5/9
E. None of these

203. A does a work in 10 days and B does the same work in 15 days. In how many days they
together will do the same work?
A. 5 days
B. 6 days
C. 8 days
D. 9 days

204. A man can do a job in 15 days. His father takes 20 days and his son finishes it in 25 days. How
long will they take to complete the job if they all work together?
A. Less than 6 days
B. Exactly 6 days
C. Approximately 6.4 days
D. More than 10 days

205. A take twice as much time as B or thrice as much time to finish a piece of work. Working
together, they can finish the work in 2 days. B can do the work alone in?
A. 4 hours
B. 6 hours
C. 8 hours
D. 12 hours

206. 10 women can complete a work in 7 days and 10 children take 14 days to complete the work.
How many days will 5 women and 10 children take to complete the work?
A. 3
B. 5
C. 7
D. Cannot be determined

207. If 12 men and 16 boys can do a piece of work in 5 days; 13 men and 24 boys can do it in 4 days,
then the ratio of the daily work done by a man to that of a boy is?
A. 2:1
B. 3:1
C. 3:2
D. 5:4

208. 4 men and 6 women can complete a work in 8 days, while 3 men and 7 women can complete it
in 10 days. In how many days will 10 women complete it?
A. 35
B. 40
C. 45
D. 50
209. If 6 men and 8 boys can do a piece of work in 10 days while 26 men and 48 boys can do the
same in 2 days, the time taken by 15 men and 20 boys in doing the same type of work will be?
A. 4 days
B. 5 days
C. 6 days
D. 7 days

210. 10 men and 15 women together can complete a work in 6 days. It takes 100 days for one man
alone to complete the same work. How many days will be required for one woman alone to
complete the same work?
A. 90
B. 125
C. 145
D. 150
E. None of these

211. 12 men can complete a piece of work in 4 days, while 15 women can complete the same work
in 4 days. 6 men start working on the job and after working for 2 days, all of them stopped working.
How many women should be put on the job to complete the remaining work, if it so to be
completed in 3 days?
A. 15
B. 18
C. 22
D. Data inadequate
E. None of these

212. A man, a woman and a boy can complete a job in 3, 4 and 12 days respectively. How many boys
must assist 1 man and 1 woman to complete the job in 1/4 of a day?
A. 1
B. 4
C. 19
D. 41

213. 3 men, 4 women and 6 children can complete a work in 7 days. A woman does double the work
a man does and a child does half the work a man does. How many women alone can complete this
work in 7 days?
A. 7
B. 8
C. 12
D. Cannot be determined
E. None of these

214. 12 men complete a work in 9 days. After they have worked for 6 days, 6 more men join them.
How many days will they take to complete the remaining work?
A. 2 days
B. 3 days
C. 4 days
D. 5 days

215. Kim can do a work in 3 days while David can do the same work in 2 days. Both of them finish
the work together and get Rs. 150. What is the share of Kim?
A. Rs. 30
B. Rs. 60
C. Rs. 70
D. Rs. 75

216. A alone can do a piece of work in 6 days and B alone in 8 days. A and B undertook to do it for
Rs. 3200. With the help of C, they completed the work in 3 days. How much is to be paid to C?
A. Rs. 375
B. Rs. 400
C. Rs. 600
D. Rs. 800

217. A and B together can complete a work in 12 days. A alone can complete it in 20 days. If B does
the work only for half a day daily, then in how many days A and B together will complete the work?
A. 10 days
B. 11 days
C. 15 days
D. 20 days

218. A, B and C can do a piece of work in 20, 30 and 60 days respectively. In how many days A do
the work if he is assisted by B and C on every third day?
A. 12 days
B. 15 days
C. 16 days
D. 18 days

219. 20 women can do a work in 9 days. After they have worked for 6 days. 6 more men join them.
How many days will they take to complete the remaining work?
A. 3:4
B. 4:3
C. 5:3
D. Data inadequate
220. Ronald and Elan are working on an assignment. Ronald takes 6 hrs to type 32 pages on a
computer, while Elan takes 5 hrs to type 40 pages. How much time will they take, working together
on two different computers to type an assignment of 110 pages?
A. 7 hrs 30 min
B. 8 hrs
C. 8 hrs 15 min
D. 8 hrs 25 min
221. Sakshi can do a piece of work in 20 days. Tanya is 25% more efficient than Sakshi. The number
of days taken by Tanya to do the same piece of work is?
A. 15
B. 16
C. 18
D. 25

222. A can do a piece of work in 4 hours; B and C together can do it in 3 hours, which A and C
together can do it in 2 hours. How long will B alone take to do it?
A. 8 hours
B. 10 hours
C. 12 hours
D. 24 hours
.

223. A and B can do a work in 8 days, B and C can do the same work in 12 days. A, B and C together
can finish it in 6 days. A and C together will do it in?
A. 4 days
B. 6 days
C. 8 days
D. 12 days

224. A and B can do a work in 12 days, B and C in 15 days, C and A in 20 days. If A, B and C work
together, they will complete the work in?
A. 5 days
B. 7 5/6 days
C. 10 days
D. 15 2/3 days

225. A is 30% more efficient than B. How much time will they, working together, take to complete a
job which A alone could have done in 23 days?
A. 11 days
B. 13 days
C. 20 3/17 days
D. None of these

226. A can finish a work in 18 days B can do the same work in 15 days. B worked for 10 days and left
the job. In how many days, A alone can finish the remaining work?
A. 5
B. 5 1/2
C. 6
D. 8

227. X and Y can do a piece of work in 20 days and 12 days respectively. X started the work alone
and then after 4 days Y joined him till the completion of the work. How long did the work last?
A. 6 days
B. 10 days
C. 15 days
D. 20 days

228. A can do a price of work in 30days while B can do it in 40 days. In how many days can A and B
working together do it?
A. 70 Days
B. 42 ¾ days
C. 27 1/7 days
D. 17 1/7 days

229. A and B can together do a price of work in 15 days. B alone can do it in 20 days. In how many
days can A alone do it?
A. 30 days
B. 40 days
C. 45 days
D. 60days

230. A can do (1/3) of a work in 5 days and B can do (2/5) of the work in 10 days. In how many days
both A and B together can do the work?
A. 7 ¾
B. 8 4/5
C. 9 3/8
D. 10

231. A, B and C contract a work for Rs. 550. Together A and B are to do 7/11 of the work. The share
of C should be?
A. Rs.183 1/3
B. Rs.200
C. Rs. 300
D. Rs.400

232. A can do a piece of work in 80 days. He works at it for 10 days and then B alone finishes the
work in 42 days. The Two together could complete the work in?
A. 24 days
B. 25 days
C. 30 days
D. 35 days

.233. Mahesh and Umesh can complete a work in 10 days and 15 days respectively. Umesh starts
the work and after 5 days Mahesh also joins him in all the work would be completed in
A. 7 days
B. 9days
C. 11 days
D. None of these
234. Twelve men can complete a work in 8 days. Three days after they started the work, 3 more
men joined them. In how many days will all of them together complete remaining work?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6

235. A can do a piece of work in 10 days and B can do the same piece of work in 20 days. They start
the work together but after 5 days. A leaves off B will do the remaining piece of work in?
A. 5 days
B. 6 days
C. 8days
D. 10days

236. A and B can together finish a work in 30 days. They worked for it for 20 days and then B left.
The remaining work was done by A alone in 20 more days. Alone can finish the work in?
A. 48 days
B. 50days
C. 54 days
D. 60 days

237. A can complete a job in 9 days. B in 10 days and C in 15 days. B and C start the work and are
forced to leave after 2 days. The time taken to complete the remaining work is?
A. 6 days
B. 9 days
C. 10 days
D. 13 days

238. A, B and C together earn Rs.150 per day while A and C together earn Rs. 94 and B and C
together earn Rs. 76. The daily earning of C is?
A. Rs. 75
B. Rs.56
C. Rs. 34
D. Rs.20
239. A can do a certain job in 12 days. B is 60% more efficient than A. Then Number of days it takes
B to do the same piece of work is?
A. 6
B. 6 ¼
C. 7 ½
D. 8

.240. A does half as much work as B in three –fourth of the time if together they take 18 days to
complete a work. How much time shall B take to do it?
A. 30days
B. 35 days
C. 40 days
D. None of these

241. 12 Men or 18 women can reap a field in 14 days. The number of days that 8 men and 16
women will take to reap it?
A. 5
B. 7
C. 8
D. 9

242. If 3 men or 4 women can construct a wall in 43 days, then the number of days that 7 men and
5 women take to construct it is?
A. 12
B. 18
C. 24
D. 30

243. 10 men can finish a piece of work in 10 days. Whereas it takes 12 women to finish it in 10 days
if 15 men and 6 women undertake to complete the work. How many days will they take to complete
it?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 5
D. 11

244. 8 Children and 12 men complete a certain piece of work in 9 days. If each child takes twice the
time taken by man to finish the work. In how many days will 12 men finish the same work?
A. 8
B. 15
C. 9
D. 12

245. A and B can do a work in 8 days, B and C can do the same work in 12 days. A, B and C together
can finish it in 6 days. A and C together will do it in :
A. 4 days
B. 6 days
C. 8 days
D. 12 days

246. A can finish a work in 24 days, B in 9 days and C in 12 days. B and C start the work but are
forced to leave after 3 days. The remaining work was done by A in:
A. 5 days
B. 6 days
C. 10 days
D. 10 1/2 days
247. X can do a piece of work in 40 days. He works at it for 8 days and then Y finished it in 16 days.
How long will they together take to complete the work?
A. 13 1/3 days
B. 15 days
C. 20 days
D. 26 days

248. At what time between 7 and 8 will the hands of a clock be in the same straight line but, not
together?
- Published on 15 May 17

a. 5 (5/11) min past 7

b. 5 (4/11) min past 7
c. 5 (3/11) min past 7
d. 5 (2/11) min past 7

249. At what time between 4 and 4.59 will the hands of a watch point in opposite directions?
-
a. 45 min. past 4
b. 40 min. past 4
c. 50 (4/11) min. past 4
d. 54 (6/11) past 4

250. The angle between the minute hand and the hour hand of a clock when the time is 8.30, is
-
a. 65
b. 75
c. 85
d. 90

251. At what time, in minutes, between 3 o'clock and 3.25 pm, both the needles of the clock will
coincide each other?

a. 13 (4/11)
b. 14 (4/11)
c. 15 (4/11)
d. 16 (4/11)
252. A jogger running at 9 km/hr along side a railway track is 240 m ahead of the engine of a 120 m
long train running at 45 km/hr in the same direction. In how much time will the train pass the
jogger?
A. 3.6 sec
B. 18 sec
C. 36 sec
D. 72 sec
253. A train 110 m long is running with a speed of 60 km/hr. In what time will it pass a man who is
running at 6 km/hr in the direction opposite to that in which the train is going?
A. 5 sec
B. 6 sec
C. 7 sec
D. 10 sec

254. Two trains 140 m and 160 m long run at the speed of 60 km/hr and 40 km/hr respectively in
opposite directions on parallel tracks. The time which they take to cross each other is?
A. 9
B. 9.6
C. 10
D. 10.8

255. Two trains are moving in opposite directions at 60 km/hr and 90 km/hr. Their lengths are 1.10
km and 0.9 km respectively. The time taken by the slower train to cross the faster train in seconds
is?
A. 36
B. 45
C. 48
D. 49

256. A train 125 m long passes a man, running at 5 km/hr in the same direction in which the train is
going, in 10 sec. The speed of the train is?
A. 45 km/hr
B. 50 km/hr
C. 54 km/hr
D. 55 km/hr

257. Two goods trains each 500 m long are running in opposite directions on parallel tracks. Their
speeds are 45 km/hr and 30 km/hr respectively. Find the time taken by the slower train to pass the
driver of the faster one?
A. 12 sec
B. 24 sec
C. 48 sec
D. 60 sec

258. Two trains of equal are running on parallel lines in the same direction at 46 km/hr and 36
km/hr. The faster train passes the slower train in 36 sec. The length of each train is?
A. 50 m
B. 72 m
C. 80 m
D. 82 m
259. A 270 m long train running at the speed of 120 km/hr crosses another train running in opposite
direction at the speed of 80 km/hr in 9 sec. What is the length of the other train?
A. 230 m
B. 240 m
C. 260 m
D. 320 m

260. Two trains are running in opposite directions with the same speed. If the length of each train is
120 m and they cross each other in 12 sec, then the speed of each train is?
A. 10
B. 18
C. 36
D. 72

261. Two trains of equal lengths take 10 sec and 15 sec respectively to cross a telegraph post. If the
length of each train be 120 m, in what time will they cross other travelling in opposite direction?
A. 10
B. 12
C. 15
D. 20

262. Two trains are running at 40 km/hr and 20 km/hr respectively in the same direction. Fast train
completely passes a man sitting in the slower train in 5 sec. What is the length of the fast train?
A. 23 m
B. 23 2/9 m
C. 27 m
D. 27 7/9 m

263. Two trains, each 100 m long, moving in opposite directions, cross other in 8 sec. If one is
moving twice as fast the other, then the speed of the faster train is?
A. 30 km/hr
B. 45 km/hr
C. 60 km/hr
D. 75 km/hr

264. Two trains, one from Howrah to Patna and the other from Patna to Howrah, start
simultaneously. After they meet, the trains reach their destinations after 9 hours and 16 hours
respectively. The ratio of their speeds is?
A. 2:3
B. 4:3
C. 6:7
D. 9:16

265. A train moves with the speed of 180 km.hr then its speed in meters per second is:
A. 5
B. 30
C. 40
D. 50
266. A train 280 meters long is moving at speed of 60 km/hr. The time taken by the train to cross a
platform 220 meters long is:
A. 20 Seconds
B. 25 Seconds
C. 30 Seconds
D. 35 Seconds

267. A train 50 meters long passes a platform 100 meters long in 10 seconds. The speed of the train
is:
A. 10 km/hr
B. 15 km/hr
C. 54 km/hr
D. 100 km/hr

268 A person sees a train passing over 1 km long bridge. The length of the train is half that of bridge
if the train clears the bridge in 2 minutes the speed of the train is:
A. 50 km/hr
B. 45 km/hr
C. 60 km/hr
D. 30 km/hr

269. A train 700 m long is running at the speed of 72km per hour if it crosses a tunnel in 1 minute.
Then the length of the tunnel is:
A. 500m
B. 550m
C. 600m
D. 700m

270. A train 270 meters long is moving at a speed of 25 kmph. It will cross a man coming from the
opposite direction at a speed of 2 km per hour in:
A. 36 Seconds
B. 32 Seconds
C. 28 Seconds
D. 24 Seconds

271. A train 300 m long crossed a platform 900 m long in 1 minute 12 seconds. The speed of the
train in km/hr was:
A. 45
B. 50
C. 54
D. 60

272. A train crosses a platform 100 meters long in 60 seconds at a speed of 45 km per hour. The
time taken by the train to cross an electric pole, is:
A. 8 Seconds
B. 1 minute
C. 52 Seconds
D. Data inadequate

273. A train of length 150 meters takes 10 seconds to pass over another train 100 meters long
coming from the opposite direction. If the speed of the first train be 30 kmph. The speed of the
second train is:
A. 54 kmph
B. 60 kmph
C. 72 kmph
D. 36 kmph

274. A 150-meter long train crosses a man walking at the speed of 6 kmph in the opposite direction
in 6 seconds. The speed of the train in km/hr is:
A. 66
B. 84
C. 96
D. 106
275. A train speeds past a pale in 15 seconds and speeds past a platform 100 meters long in 25
seconds. Its length in meters is:
A. 200
B. 150
C. 50
D. Data Inadequate

276. A train 100 meters long moving at a speed of 50 kmph crosses a train 120 meters long coming
from opposite direction in 6 seconds. The speed of second train is:
A. 132 kmph
B. 82 kmph
C. 60 kmph
D. 50 kmph

277. Two stations A and B are 110 kms apart on a straight line. One train starts from A at 7 a.m and
travels towards B at 20km per hour speed Another train starts from B at 8 a.m. and travels towards
A at a speed of 25 Km per hour at what time will they meet?
A. 9 a.m
B. 10 a.m
C. 11 a.m
D. none of these

278. A train running at certain speed crosses a stationary engine in 20 seconds. To find out the
speed of the train. Which of the following information is necessary:
A. Only the length of the train
B. Only the length of the engine
C. Either the length of the train of the length of the engine
D. Both the length of the train and the length of the engine.
279. A 120m long train takes 10 seconds to cross a man standing on a platform. The speed of the
train is
A. 10m/sec
B. 12 m/sec
C. 15 m/sec
D. 20 m/sec

280. The speed of a train 150m long is 50kmph. How much time will it take to pass a platform 600m
long?
A. 50 sec
B. 54 sec
C. 60 sec
D. 64 sec

281. How much time will a train 171m long take to cross a bridge 229m long, if it is running at a
speed of 45kmph?
A. 40 sec
B. 35 sec
C. 32 sec
D. 30 sec

282. A train travelling at a speed of 30m/sec crosses a platform 600m long in 30seconds. The length
of the train is
A. 120m
B. 150m
C. 200m
D. 300m

283. A 130m long train crosses a bridge in 30 seconds at 45kmph. The length of the bridge is
A. 200m
B. 225m
C. 245m
D. 250m

284. A train travelling at constant speed crosses a 96m long platform in 12 seconds and another
141m long platform in 15 seconds. The length of the train and it’s speed are?
A. 64m. 44km/hr
B. 64m.54km/hr
C. 84m.54km/hr
D. 84m.60km/hr

285. A train crosses a pole in 15 seconds while it crosses a 100m long platform in 25 seconds. The
length of the train is
A. 125m
B. 135m
C. 150m
D. 175m

286. Two trains 105m and 90m long run at the speeds of 45 kmph and 72 kmph respectively in
opposite direction on parallel tracks. The time which they take to cross each other is
A. 5 sec
B. 6 sec
C. 7 sec
D. 8 sec
287. A train passes two persons walking in the same direction in which the train is going. These
persons are walking at the rate of 3km/hr and 5km/hr respectively and the train passes them
completely in 10 seconds and 11 seconds respectively. The speed of the train is
A. 24 km/hr
B. 25km/hr
C. 27km/hr
D. 28km/hr

288. Two trains A and B start running together from the same point in the same direction at
60kmph and 72kmph respectively. If the length of each train is 240m. How long will it take for the
train B to cross train A?
A. 1 min 12sec
B. 1min 24 sec
C. 2min 24 sec
D. None of these

289. A train of length 150 metres takes 40.5 seconds to cross a tunnel of length 300 metres. What is
the speed of the train in km/hr?
A. 10 km/hr.
B. 20 km/hr.
C. 30 km/hr.
D. 40 km/hr.

290. At what time between 5.30 & 6 will the hands of a watch be at right angle?
-

a. 43(7/11) min past 5

b. 41(2/11) min past 5
c. 42 min past 5
d. 44(1/11) min past 5

291. At what time between 9.13 and 10.12 will the hands of a watch be together?
-

a. 45 min past 9
b. 49(1/11) min past 9
c. 48 min past 9
d. 47 min past 9
292. At what angle the hands of a clock are inclined at 40 minutes past 2?
-
a. 150°
b. 160°
c. 170°
d. 180°

293. An accurate clock shows 10 o'clock in the morning. Through how many degrees will the hour
hand rotate when the clock shows 6 o'clock in the evening?
-
a. 180
b. 190
c. 220
d. 240

294. An accurate clock is started at noon. By 10 minutes past 3, the hour hand has turned through:

a. 90
b. 95
c. 100
d. 105

295. Rohit has a watch that gains 5 seconds in 3 minutes. It was set right at 9 a.m. in the morning.

In the afternoon of the same day, when the watch indicated 4 o'clock, how much time will the watch
have gained?

a. No change
b. 10 min
c. (11)2/3 min
d. 12 min
296. At what angle are the hands of a clock inclined at 15 minutes past 4?

a. 32°
b. 37°
c. 32.5°
d. 37.5°

297. A correct clock shows 9 o'clock in the morning. Through how many degrees will the hour hand
rotate when the clock shows 3 o'clock in the afternoon?

a. 144°
b. 150°
c. 160°
d. 180°
298. How many times are the hands of a clock at right angles in 24 hours?

a. 22
b. 44
c. 24
d. 48

299. How many times do the hands of a clock coincide in 24 hours?

a. 22
b. 24
c. 26
d. 28

300. When the time in the clock is 7.20 pm, then the angle between the hands of the clock is

a. 80
b. 90
c. 100
d. 110

Aptitude Answers

Answer 1
Explanation:
Speed = [45 X 5/18] m/sec = [25/2] m/sec Time = 30 sec Let the length of bridge be x metres. Then,
(130 + x)/30 = 25/2 => 2(130 + x) = 750 => x = 245 m.

Answer 2 : Option D
Explanation:
Speed=(60 * 5/18) m/sec = (50/3) m/sec Length of the train = (Speed x Time) = (50/3 * 9) m = 150 m.

Answer 3 : Option B
Explanation:
Speed of the train relative to man = (125/10) m/sec = (25/2) m/sec. [(25/2) * (18/5)] km/hr = 45
km/hr. Let the speed of the train be x km/hr. Then, relative speed = (x - 5) km/hr. x - 5 = 45 ==> x =
50 km/hr.
Answer 4 : Option C
Explanation:
Speed = (45 * 5/18) m/sec = (25/2) m/sec. Time = 30 sec. Let the length of bridge be x meters. Then,
(130 + X)/30 = 25/2 ==> 2(130 + X) = 750 ==> X = 245 m.

Answer 5 : Option B
Explanation:
Let the speeds of the two trains be x m/sec and y m/sec respectively. Then, length of the first train =
27 x meters, and length of the second train = 17 y meters. (27 x + 17 y) / (x + y) = 23 ==> 27 x + 17 y =
23 x + 23 y ==> 4 x = 6 y ==> x/y = 3/2.

Answer 6 : Option B
Explanation:
Speed = (54 * 5/18) m/sec = 15 m/sec. Length of the train = (15 x 20)m = 300 m. Let the length of the
platform be x meters. Then, (x + 300)/36 = 15 ==> x + 300 = 540 ==> x = 240 m.

Answer 7 : Option C
Explanation:
Speed = [300 / 18] m/sec = 50/3 m/sec.
Let the length of the platform be x meters.
Then, x + 300 / 39 = 50/3
3(x + 300) = 1950 x = 350m.

Answer 8 : Option C
Explanation:
Speed = [54 * 5/18] m/sec = 15 m/sec.
Length of the train = (15 * 20) m = 300 m.
Let the length of the platform be x meters.
Then, x + 300 / 36 = 15
x + 300 = 540
x = 240 m.

Answer 9 : Option D
Explanation:
Speed = [90 * 5/18] m/sec = 25 m/sec; Time = 1 min. = 60 sec.
Let the length of the train and that of the platform be x meters.
Then, 2x/60 = 25 x = 25 * 60 / 2 = 750

Answer 10 : Option B
Explanation:
Speed of train relative to man = (60 + 6) km/hr = 66 km/hr
[66 * 5/18] m/sec = [55/3] m/sec.
Time taken to pass the man = [110 * 3/55] sec = 6 sec

Answer 11 : Option D
Explanation:
Let the length of the train be x meters and its speed be y m/sec.
They, x / y = 15 => y = x/15
x + 100 / 25 = x / 15
x = 150 m.
Answer 12 : Option B
Explanation:
Length of the train be ‘X’
X + 120/15 = X + 180/18
6X + 720 = 5X + 900
X = 180m

Answer 13 : Option A
Explanation:
Length of the train be ‘X’
X + 150/15 = X + 250/20
4X + 600 = 3X + 750
X = 150m

Answer 14 : Option C
Explanation:
Length = Speed * time
Speed = L/T
S = 400/20
S = 20 M/Sec
Speed= 20*18/5 (To convert M/Sec in to Kmph multiply by 18/5)
Speed = 72 Kmph

Answer 15 : Option B
Explanation:
Length of the two trains = 600m + 400m
Speed of the first train = X
Speed of the second train= 48 Kmph
1000/X - 48 = 180
1000/x - 48 * 5/18 = 180
50 = 9X - 120
X = 68 Kmph

Answer 16 : Option B
Explanation:
L = S*T
S= 1200/120
S= 10 m/Sec.
Total length (D)= 1900 m
T = D/S
T = 1900/10
T = 190 Sec

Answer 17 : Option C
Explanation:
Speed = 45 Km/hr = 45*(5/18) m/sec = 25/2 m/sec
Total distance = 360+140 = 500 meter
Time = Distance/speed
= 500 * (2/25) = 40 seconds
Answer 18: Option A
Explanation:
Speed = 60*(5/18) m/sec = 50/3 m/sec
Length of Train (Distance) = Speed * Time
(50/3) * 9 = 150 meter

Answer 19 : Option C
Explanation:
Let length of tunnel is x meter
Distance = 800+x meter
Time = 1 minute = 60 seconds
Speed = 78 km/hr = 78*5/18 m/s = 65/3 m/s
Distance = Speed*Time
800+x = (65/3) * 60
800+x = 20 * 65 = 1300
x = 1300 - 800 = 500 meters

Answer 20 : Option B
Explanation:
Suppose they meet x hours after 7 a.m.
Distance covered by A in x hours = 20x km.
Distance covered by B in (x - 1) hours = 25(x - 1) km.
Therefore 20x + 25(x - 1) = 110
45x = 135
x = 3.
So, they meet at 10 a.m.

Answer 21 : Option A
Explanation:
Speed = 144 * 5/18 = 40 m/sec
Time taken = 100/40 = 2.5 sec.

Answer 22 : Option B
Explanation:
Speed = 63 * 5/18 = 35/2 m/sec
Time taken = 280 * 2/35 = 16 sec

Answer 23 : Option B
Explanation:
Speed = 72 * 5/18 = 20 m/sec
Total distance covered = 110 + 132 = 242 m.
Required time = 242/20 = 12.1 sec.

Answer 24 : Option A
Explanation:
Speed = 45 * 5/18 = 25/2 m/sec
Total distance covered = 360 + 140 = 500 m
Required time = 500 * 2/25 = 40 sec

Answer 25 : Option E
Explanation:
Speed = 60 * 5/18 = 50/3 m/sec
Length of the train = speed * time = 50/3 * 9 = 150 m

Answer 26 : Option C
Explanation:
Speed = (12/10 * 60) km/hr = (72 * 5/18) m/sec = 20 m/sec.
Length of the train = 20 * 6 = 120 m.

Answer 27 : Option B
Explanation:
Speed = 240/24 = 10 m/sec.
Required time = (240 + 650)/10 = 89 sec.

Answer 28 : Option C
Explanation:
Speed = 45 * 5/18 = 25/2 m/sec.
Time = 30 sec
Let the length of bridge be x meters.
Then, (130 + x)/30 = 25/2
x = 245 m.

Answer 29 :Option C
Explanation:
Speed = 78 * 5/18 = 65/3 m/sec.
Time = 1 min = 60 sec.
Let the length of the train be x meters.
Then, (800 + x)/60 = 65/3
x = 500 m.

Answer 30 : Option D
Explanation:
Speed = 72 * 5/18 = 20 m/sec.
Time = 26 sec.
Let the length of the train be x meters.
Then, (x + 250)/26 = 20
x = 270 m.

Answer 31 : Option B
Explanation:
Speed = 54 * 5/18 = 15 m/sec.
Length of the train = 15 * 20 = 300 m.
Let the length of the platform be x m . Then,
(x + 300)/36 = 15 => x = 240 m.

Answer 32 : Option B
Explanation:
Speed = 300/18 = 50/3 m/sec.
Let the length of the platform be x meters.
Then, (x + 300)/39 = 50/3
3x + 900 = 1950 => x = 350 m.

Answer 33 : Option B
Explanation:
Let the length of the train be x m and its speed be y m/sec.
Then, x/y = 15 => y = x/15
(x + 100)/25 = x/15 => x = 150 m.

Answer 34 : Option D
Explanation:
Let the length of the train be x m and its speed be y m/sec.
Then, x/y = 8 => x = 8y
(x + 264)/20 = y
y = 22
Speed = 22 m/sec = 22 * 18/5 = 79.2 km/hr.

Answer 35 : Option B
Explanation:
Speed of train relative to man = 63 - 3 = 60 km/hr.
= 60 * 5/18 = 50/3 m/sec.
Time taken to pass the man = 500 * 3/50 = 30 sec.

Answer 36 : B) 62
Explanation:
Relative speed =280/9 m / sec = (280/9*18/5) kmph = 112 kmph. Speed of goods
train = (112 - 50) kmph = 62 kmph

Answer 37: B) 10 km/hr

Explanation:
Man's rate in still water = (15 - 2.5) km/hr = 12.5 km/hr. Therefore, Man's rate
against the current = (12.5 - 2.5) = 10 km/hr.

Answer 38 : C) 6

Explanation:
Distance = 110 m
Relative speed = 60 + 6 = 66 kmph (Since both the train and the man are in moving in opposite
direction)

= (66*5/18) m/sec = 55/3 m/sec

Time taken to pass the man = (100*3/55) = 6 s

Answer 39 : B) 36

Explanation:
Distance covered = 120+120 = 240 m

Time = 12 s

Let the speed of each train = v. Then relative speed = v + v = 2v

2v = distance/time = 240/12 = 20 m/s

Speed of each train = v = 20/2 = 10 m/s

= 10 × 36/10 km/hr = 36 km/hr

Answer 40 : B) 3:2

Explanation:
Note : If two trains (or bodies) start at the same time from points A and B towards each other and
after crossing they take a and b sec in reaching B and A respectively, then: (A's speed) : (B's speed) =
(b : a)
Therefore, Ratio of the speeds of two trains = 9–√:4–√9:4 = 3 : 2

Answer 41 : B) 3 min

Explanation:
Total distance covered =(72+14)72+14miles
=154154miles Time taken
= (154*75)154*75hrs =120120 hrs
=(120*60)min120*60min = 3 min

Answer 42 : B) 24
Explanation:
Less Cogs more turns and less time less
turns Cogs Time TurnsA 54 45 80B 32 8 ? Cogs Time TurnsA 54 45 80B 3
2 8 ?

Number of turns required=80 × 54/32 × 8/45 = 24 times

Answer 43 : B) 10
Explanation:

Assume both trains meet after x hours after 7 am

Distance covered by train starting from P in x hours = 20x km

Distance covered by train starting from Q in (x-1) hours = 25(x-1)

Total distance = 110

=> 20x + 25(x-1) = 110

=> 45x = 135

=> x= 3

Means, they meet after 3 hours after 7 am, ie, they meet at 10 am

Answer 44 : C) 30
Explanation:
108 kmph =(108*5/18) m/sec = 30 m / s.

Answer 45 : C) 12

Explanation:
Speed of train 1 = (12010)m/sec12010m/sec = 12 m/sec
Speed of train 2 =(12015)m/sec12015m/sec = 8 m/sec
if they travel in opposite direction, relative speed = 12 + 8 = 20 m/sec

distance covered = 120 + 120 = 240 m

time = distance/speed = 240/20 = 12 sec

Answer 46 : D) 79.2 km/hr

Explanation:

Let the length of the train be x metres and its speed by y m/sec.
Then, x/y = 8 => x = 8y
Now, (x+264)/20 = y
8y + 264 = 20y
y = 22.
Speed = 22 m/sec = (22*18/5) km/hr = 79.2 km/hr.

Answer 47 : B) 150 m

Explanation:
Let the length of the train be x metres and its speed be y m/sec.
Then, (x/y)= 15 y =(x/15)
(x+100)/25 = x/15
=> 15(x + 100) = 25x
=> 15x + 1500 = 25x
=> 1500 = 10x
=> x = 150 m.
Answer 48: D) 10.8

Explanation:

Relative speed = (60 + 40) km/hr =[ 100 x ( 5 / 18 ) ]m/sec = ( 250 /9 ) m/sec.

Distance covered in crossing each other = (140 + 160) m = 300 m.
Required time = [ 300 x ( 9/250 ) ] sec = ( 54/ 5 )sec = 10.8 sec.

Answer 49 : A) 14.4 sec

Explanation:

Let the length of the train be L metres

Speed of first train = 360018xL360018xL m/hour
Speed of secxond train = 360012xL360012xL m/hour
When running in opposite directions, relative speed = 200 L + 300 L m/hour
Distance to be covered = L + L = 2L metre
Time taken = 2L500Lx36002L500Lx3600 sec =14.4 sec

Answer 50 : A) 230 m

Explanation:

Relative speed = (120 + 80) km/hr

=(200*5/18)m/s = (500/9)m/s
Let the length of the other train be x metres.
Then, x+270/9 = 500/9
=> x + 270 = 500
=> x = 230.

Answer 51 : A) 355 mts

Explanation:
Given speed = 63 km/hr = 63×518=35263×518=352 m/s
Let the length of the bridge = x mts
Given time taken to cover the distance of (170 + x)mts is 30 sec.
We know speed = distancetimedistancetimem/s
⇒352=170+x30⇒352=170+x30
--> x = 355 mts.

Answer 52 : D) 270 m

Explanation:

Speed =[ 72 x (5/18) ]m/sec= 20 m/sec.

Time = 26 sec.
Let the length of the train be x metres.
Then,[ (x+250)/26 ]= 20
=> x + 250 = 520
=> x = 270.

Answer 53 : D) 100 mts

Explanation:

We know that Speed=distance/time

Speed=distance /time
distance= speed * time

⇒⇒ d=(40×518)×9 d=40×518×9
d= 100 mts.

Answer 54 : B) 6

Explanation:

Speed of train relative to man = (60 + 6) km/hr = 66 km/hr.

(66*5/18) m/sec = 55/3 m/sec
Time taken to pass the man = (110*3/55)m/sec = 6 sec.

Answer 55 : B) 36 sec

Explanation:

Speed of the train relative to jogger = (45-9) km/hr = 36 km/hr

=(36*5/18) m/sec = 10 m/sec
Distance to be covered =(240 + 120)m = 360 m
Time taken = 360/10 sec = 36 sec

Answer 56 : D) 3 : 2

Explanation:
Let the speeds of the two trains be x m/sec and y m/sec respectively.
Then, length of the first train = 27 x meters, and
length of the second train = 17 y meters.
(27 x + 17 y) / (x + y) = 23
=> 27 x + 17 y = 23 x + 23 y
=> 4 x = 6 y
=> x/y = 3/2.
Answer 57 : D) 360 mts

Explanation:
Speed of the Train K is given by s = d/t = 240/20 = 12 m/s
Distance covered by Train K in 50 seconds = 12 x 50 = 600 mts.
But it crosses Train L in 50 seconds
Therefore, the length of the Train L is = 600 - 240 = 360 mts.

Answer 58 : D) 50 kmph

Explanation:
Speed of the train relative to man = (125/10) m/sec = (25/2) m/sec.
[(25/2) x (18/5)] km/hr = 45 km/hr.
Let the speed of the train be 'S' km/hr.
Then, relative speed = (S - 5) km/hr.
S - 5 = 45 => S = 50 km/hr

Answer 59 : D) 320 m

Explanation:
Relative speed = (72 - 36) x 5/18 = 2 x 5 = 10 mps.
Distance covered in 32 sec = 32 x 10 = 320 m.
The length of the faster train = 320 m.

Answer 60 : B) 400

Explanation:

Speed of train 1 = 48 kmph

Let the length of train 1 = 2x meter

Speed of train 2 = 42 kmph

Length of train 2 = x meter (because it is half of train 1's length)

Distance = 2x + x = 3x
Relative speed= 48+42 = 90 kmph = (90*5/18) m/s = 25 m/s
Time = 12 s
Distance/time = speed
=>3x/12 = 25 (25*12)/3
Length of the first train = 2x = 200 meter
Time taken to cross the platform= 45 s

Speed of train 1 = 48 kmph = 480/36 = 40/3 m/s

Distance = 200 + y [where y is the length of the platform]
x =100m => 200+y = 45* 40/3
y = 400m

Answer 61 : A) 10 sec

Explanation:

Relative Speed = 60 -40 = 20 x 5/18 = 100/18

Time = 50
Distance = 50 x 100/18 = 2500/9
Relative Speed = 60 + 40 = 100 x 5/18
Time = 2500/9 x 18/500 = 10 sec.

Answer 62 : B) 60 kms

Explanation:

Let 'd' be the distance and 's' be the speed and 't' be the time
d=sxt
45 mins = 3/4 hr and 48 mins = 4/5 hr
As distance is same in both cases;
s(3/4) = (s-5)(4/5)
3s/4 = (4s-20)/5
15s = 16s-80
s = 80 km.
=> d = 80 x 3/4 = 60 kms.

Answer 63 : C) 500

Explanation:

Speed =[ 78 x ( 5/18 ) ] m/sec = 65/3 m/sec.

Time = 1 minute = 60 sec.
Let the length of the tunnel be x metres.
Then, [ (800 + x )/ 60 ]= 65/3
3(800 + x) = 3900
x = 500.

Answer 64 : D) 50 mts

Explanation:

Let the length of each train be x mts.

Then, distance covered = 2x mts.
Relative speed = 36 - 26 = 10 km/hr.
= 10 x 5/18 = 25/9 m/sec.
2x/36 = 25/9 => x = 50 mts.

Answer 65 : B) 4 : 3

Explanation:
Let us name the trains as A and B.
Then, (A's speed) : (B's speed)
= √b : √a = √16 : √9 = 4:3

Answer 66 : B) 48 sec

Explanation:

Relative speed = 42 + 36 = 78 km/hr = 653653 m/s

Distance = (520 + 520) =1040 mts.
Time = 1040×3651040×365= 48 sec

Answer 67 : A) 15:07 hrs

Explanation:
Next train comes at 17:00 hrs.
So, last train will be = 17:00hrs - 2:30hrs
= 14:30hrs
Announcement made after 37 min of the last train.
S0, 14:30hrs + 00:37 min
= 15:07 hrs.

Answer 68 : D) 444 kms

Explanation:

1h ----- 5 kms
? ------ 60 kms
Time = 12 hrs
Relative Speed = 16 + 21 = 37 kmph
T = 12 hrs
D = S x T = 37 x 12 = 444 kms.

Answer 69 : B) 420 m

Explanation:
Let the length of the stationary train Y be LY
Given that length of train X, LX = 300 m
Let the speed of Train X be V.
Since the train X crosses train Y and a pole in 60 seconds and 25 seconds respectively.
=> 300/V = 25 ---> ( 1 )
(300 + LY) / V = 60 ---> ( 2 )
From (1) V = 300/25 = 12 m/sec.
From (2) (300 + LY)/12 = 60
=> 300 + LY = 60 (12) = 720
=> LY = 720 - 300 = 420 m
Length of the stationary train = 420 m

Answer 70 : D) 48 sec

Explanation:

Relative speed = 60 + 90 = 150 km/hr.

= 150 x 5/18 = 125/3 m/sec.
Distance covered = 1.10 + 0.9 = 2 km = 2000 m.
Required time = 2000 x 3/125 = 48 sec.

Answer 71 : A) Option A

Explanation:

As Trains are moving in same direction,

Relative Speed = 60-20 = 40 kmph
--> 40×518=100940×518=1009 m/sec
Length of Train= Speed * Time
Length = 1009×61009×6
⇒2003=6623 mts⇒2003=6623 mts

Answer 72 : C) 36 kmph

Explanation:

Given speed of the first train = 60 km/hr = 60 x 5/18 = 50/3 m/s

Let the speed of the second train = x m/s
Then, the difference in the speed is given by
503 − x = 12018503 - x = 12018
=> x = 10 m/s
=> 10 x 18/5 = 36 km/hr

Answer 73 : A) 68 kmph
Explanation:

Let the speed of the faster train be 'X' kmph,

Then their relative speed= X - 48 kmph
To cross slower train by faster train,
Distance need to be cover = (400 + 600)m = 1 km. and
Time required = 180 sec = 180/3600 hr = 1/20 hr.
Time = Distance/Speed
=> 1/20 = 1/(x-48)
X = 68 kmph

Answer 74 : A) 27 7/9 mts

Explanation:
5 50
Relative speed = (40 - 20) km/hr = 20 x m/sec = m/sec.
18 9

50 250 7
Length of faster train = x5 m= m = 27 m.
9 9 9

Answer 75 : A) 49 kmph

Explanation:

Speed of the train relative to man

= (125/10) m/sec = (25/2) m/sec.
[(25/2) x (18/5)] km/hr = 45 km/hr.
Let the speed of the train be 'x' km/hr.
Then, relative speed = (x - 4) km/hr.
x - 4 = 45 => x = 49 km/hr.

Answer 76 : Option A
Explanation:
36 * 5/18 = 10 mps

Answer 77 : Option C
Explanation:
25 * 18/5 = 90 kmph

Answer 78 : Option A
Explanation:
90 * 10/60 = 15 kmph

Answer 79 : Option A
Explanation:
624/6 = 104 kmph

Answer 80 : Option D
Explanation:
T = 60/36 * 18/5 = 6 sec

Answer 81 : Option C
Explanation:
S = 240/16 * 18/5 = 54 kmph

Answer 82 : Option B
Explanation:
S = (90 + 60)/2 = 75 kmph

Answer 83 : Option D
Explanation:
Speed Ratio = 1:4/5 = 5:4Time Ratio = 4:51 -------- 5 4 --------- ? è 20

Answer 84 : Option A
Explanation:
Speed Ratio = 1:3/4 = 4:3
Time Ratio = 3:4
1 -------- 1/3
3 --------- ? 1 hour

Answer 85 : Option C
Explanation:
60(x + 1) = 64x
X = 15
60 * 16 = 960 km

Answer 86. : Option C

Explanation:
9 a.m.

Answer 87 : Option A
Explanation:
|-----------20--------------------|
50 40
D = 20

RS = 50 – 40 = 10

T = 20/10 = 2 hours

Answer 88 : Option A
Explanation:
x/3 – x/4 = 4/60
x = 4/5 km

Answer 89 : Option C
Explanation:
D = 250 m + 250 m = 500 m
RS = 80 + 70 = 150 * 5/18 = 125/3

T = 500 * 3/125 = 12 sec

Answer 90 : Option A
Explanation:
RS = 60 -40 = 20 * 5/18 = 100/18
T = 50
D = 50 * 100/18 = 2500/9
RS = 60 + 40 = 100 * 5/18
T = 2500/9 * 18/500 = 10 sec

Answer 91 : Option B
Explanation:
D = 90 * 5/18 * 5 = 125 m

Answer 92 : Option C
Explanation:
RS = 40 – 22 = 18 * 5/18 = 5 mps
T = 60 sec

D = 5 * 60 = 300 m

125
--------
175 m

Answer 93 : Option C
Explanation:
D = 100 + 150 = 250
S = 36 * 5/18 = 10 mps
T = 250/10 = 25 sec

Answer 94 : Option A
Explanation:
S = (100 + 300)/45 = 400/45 * 18/5 = 32

Answer 95 : Option B
Explanation:
S = 180/6 * 18/5 = 108 kmph

Answer 96 : Option C
Explanation:
T = 9/45 * 60 = 12

Answer 97 : Option A
Explanation:
45 * 5/18 = 10
25:20 5:4

Answer 98 : Option C
Explanation:
D = 30 * 5 = 150
RS = 40 – 30 = 10
T = 150/10 = 15
D = 40 * 15 = 600 km

Answer 99 : Option C
Explanation:
T = (660 + 165)/54 * 18/5
T = 55

Answer 100 : Option D

Explanation:
T = (121 + 165)/ (80 + 65) * 18/5
T = 7.15

Answer 101 : Option B

Explanation:
D = 110 – 20 = 90
RS = 20 + 25 = 45
T = 90/45 = 2 hours
8 a.m. + 2 = 10 a.m.

Answer 102 : Option B

Explanation:
D = 25 * 60 + 1500 = 3000 m
T = 3000/60 * 18/5 = 180 sec = 3 mins

Answer 103 : Option A

Explanation:
T = 192/32 = 6 h
T=6-3=3
Time Ratio = 6:3 = 2:1
Speed Ratio = 1:2

Answer 104 : Option D

Explanation:
[50/x + 50/(x/2)] – 100/x = 2
x = 25

Answer 105 : Option A

Explanation:
S = 600/40 = 15 mps
S = 3600/15 = 240 sec = 4 min

Answer 106 : Option C

Explanation:
RS = 5 ¾ - 4 ½ = 1 ¼
T = 3 ½ h.

D = 5/4 * 7/2 = 35/8 = 4 3/8 km

Answer 107 : Option B

Explanation:
1h ----- 5
? ------ 60

12 h
RS = 16 + 21 = 37

T = 12
D = 37 * 12 = 444
Answer 108 : Option D
Explanation:
D = 110 + 170 = 280 m
S = 60 * 5/18 = 50/3

T = 280 * 3/50 = 16.8 sec

Answer 109 : Option C

Explanation:
D = 70 * 1 ½ = 105 km
RS = 85 – 70 = 15

T = 105/15 = 7 h

3.30 + 7 h = 10.30 p.m.

Sol 110 : Option 5

Explanation:Ram’s 16 hr work = 16/24 = 2/3. Remaining work = 1 – 2/3 = 1/3.
Using work and time formula: This will be completed in 1/3 × 18 i.e. 6 hrs.
So, total time taken to complete work = 16 + 6= 22 hrs.

Sol 111 : Option 1

Explanation:Their combined 4 day work = 4(1/10 + 1/15) = 12/20 = 3/5.
Remaining work = 1 – 3/5 = ⅖.
This means C did 2/5 work in 4 days, hence he can finish the complete work in 5/2 × 4 = 10 days.

Sol 112 : Option 4

Explanation:A's work in 9 days = 9/12 = 3/4. Remaining work = 1/4.
This work was done by B in 1/4 × 16 = 4 days.
∴ B would have joined A after 9 – 4 = 5 days.

Sol 113 : Option 3

Explanation:A, B, C and D will together take ¼ + 1/12 = 4/12 = 1/3 ⇒ 3 days to complete the work.
Sol 114 : Option 1
Explanation:A + B take 40 days. B alone takes 180 days.
∴ A will take 1/40 – 1/180 = 7/360 ⇒ 360/7 days.
B + C take 120 days. ∴ C alone will take 1/120 – 1/180 = 1/360
i.e. 360 days. ∴ A & C together will take 7/360 + 1/360
= 8/360 ⇒ 360/8 = 45 days to complete the work.

Sol 115 : Option 5

Explanation:D alone will take 1/20 – 1/50 – 1/60 = 4/300 = 1/75
⇒ 75 days to complete the work.

Sol 116 : Option 3

Explanation:B & C do this work in 24 days. B alone does this work in 40 days. C alone will take 1/24
– 1/40 = 2/120=1/60 ⇒ 60 days to finish the work.
Sol 117 : Option 1
Explanation:A & B would have done 8/20 & 8/40 of the work respectively in 8 days. Together they
have done 3/5th of the work. This implies that C has done 2/5th of the work. Thus, C should be paid
2/5th of the amount i.e. 450 × 2/5 = Rs. 180.

Sol 118 : Option 5

Tamatar would have done 47/60 work in 47 days. The remaining work i.e. 13/60 must have been
done by Daku and Tamatar together. They can do the whole work in 60 × 70 / (60 + 70) = 60 ×
70/130 = 420/13 days.
So, they would have done 13/60 work in 420/13 × 13/60 = 7 days. Therefore, Daku left the work
after 7 days.

`Sol 119 : Option 2

Explanation:In 24 days, they would have done 1/3 and 5/8 of the work.
The remaining work is 1 – (1/3 + 5/8) = 1/24.
This means Pradeep has done 1/24th of the work, so he should be paid 1/24th of the amount i.e.
480 × 1/24 = Rs. 20 is the answer.

Answer 120 : Option A

Explanation:
1/6 + 1/10 = 8/30 = 4/15
15/4 = 3.75 days

Answer 121 : Option C

Explanation:
B = 1/8 – 1/2 = 1/24 => 24 days

Answer 122 : Option B

Explanation:
C = 1/2 - 1/4 - 1/5 = 1/20 => 20 days
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
C = 1/2 - 1/4 - 1/5 = 1/20 => 20 days

Answer 123 : Option B

Explanation:
3/20 * 2 + (2 + x)/5 = 1
x = 1 ½ days

Answer 124 : Option B

Explanation:
5/30 + 20/x = 1
x = 24
1/30 + 1/24 = 3/40
40/3 = 13 1/3 days

Answer 125 : Option D

Explanation:
3/12 + (3 + x)/16 = 1
x = 9 days

Answer 126 : Option C

Explanation:
2c = ¼ + 1/6 – 1/3 = 1/12
c = 1/24 => 24 days

Answer 127 : Option A

Explanation:
4/10 + 9/x = 1 x = 15
1/10 + 1/15 = 1/6 6 days

Answer 128 : Option A

Explanation:
10/40 + 10/30 + 10/x = 1
x = 24 days

Answer 129 : Option B

Explanation:
x ------- 9
(x + 10) ---- 6
x * 9 = (x + 10)6
x = 20

Answer 130 : Option C

Explanation:
C = 1/5 – 1/6 = 1/30 30 days

Answer 131 : Option A

Explanation:
1/30 + 1/40 = 7/120
120/7 = 17 1/7 days

Answer 132 : Option C

Explanation:
1/15 + 1/25 = 8/75
75/8 = 9 * 3/8 days

Answer 133 : Option B

Explanation:
1/18 + 1/30 = 8/90 = 4/45
45/4 = 11 ¼ *2 = 22 ½ days

Answer 134 : Option C

Explanation:
2/10 + 4/15 + x/20 = 1
x = 32/3 = 10 2/3

Answer 135 : Option A

Explanation:
8/12 + 6/x = 1
X = 18 days

Answer 136 : Option A

Explanation:
1/6 – 1/15 = 1/10 10

Answer 137 : Option D

Explanation:
(x – 5)/15 + x/20 = 1
x = 11 3/7 days

Answer 138 : Option D

Explanation:
x/24 + x/30 + x/40 = 1
x = 11 days

Answer 139 : Option D

Explanation:
WC = 3:1
WT = 1:3
x 3x
1/x – 1/3x = 1/10
x = 20/3
3/20 + 1/20 = 1/5 5 days

Answer 140 : Option B

Explanation:
1/7 + 1/14 + 1/28 = 7/28 = 1/4 => 4 days

Answer 141 : Option C

Explanation:
1/3 ---- 6
1 -------? A = 18
R = 1/18 * 60/100 = 1/30
1 ----- 1/30
2/3 ----? 20 days

Answer 142 : Option B

Explanation:
WC = 2:1
2x + x = 1/14 => x = 1/42
2x = 1/21
A can do the work in 21 days.

Answer 143 : Option A

Explanation:
WC = 1/6:1/8:1/12 4:3:2
3/9 * 1800 = 600

Answer 144 : Option D

Explanation:
C = 1/4 - 1/12 – 1/18 = 1/9 => 9 days

Answer 145 : Option D

Explanation:
5M + 12B ----- 4 days
7M + 6B ------- 5 days
20M + 48B = 35M + 30B
18B = 15M 5M = 6B
M: B = 6:5

Answer 146 : Option C

Explanation:
9M + 12B ----- 12 days
12M + 12B ------- 10 days
10M + 10B -------?
108M + 144B = 120M +120B
24B = 12M => 1M = 2B
18B + 12B = 30B ---- 12 days
20B + 10B = 30B -----? => 12 days

Answer 147 : Option D

Explanation:
12 * 80 = 16 * x
x = 60 days

Answer 148 : Option B

Explanation:
B = 1/16 – 1/24 = 1/48 => 48 days

Answer 149 : Option A

Explanation:
2/5 + (2 + x)/10 = 1 x = 4 days

Answer 150 : Option D

Explanation:
(5 + x)/20 + 5/25 = 1 => x = 11 days

Answer 151 : Option C

Explanation:
16 * 25 = 20 * x => x = 20 days

Answer 152 : Option A

Explanation:
5M = xW = 8B
5M + xW + 8B ----- 90 Rs.
5M + 5M + 5M ----- 90 Rs.
15M ------ 90 Rs. 1M = 6Rs.

Answer 153 : Option D

Explanation:
(45 * 8)/30 = (x * 6)/50 x =100
100 – 45 = 55

Answer 154 : Option B

Explanation:
WC = 1:2
2x + x = 1/14 x = 1/42
2x = 1/21 21 days

Answer 155 : Option D

Explanation:
A + B = 1/8
B + C = 1/12
C + A = 1/16
-------------------------------
2(A + B +C) = 1/8 + 1/12 + 1/16 = 13/48
A + B +C = 13/96
96/13 = 7.38 days
Answer 156 : Option A
Explanation:
2M + 3W ----- 35 h
4M + 4W ------- 21 h
7M -------? d
70M + 105W = 84M +84M
21W = 14M => 2M = 3W
4 * 35 = 7 * x x = 20 hours
20/4 = 5 days

Answer 157 : Option B

Explanation:
A + B = 1/20 + 1/15 = 7/60
A + C = 1/20 + 1/12 = 8/60
7/60 + 8/60 = 15/60 = 1/4
4 days * 2 = 8 days

Answer 158 : Option B

Explanation:
3M = 6W ---- 20 days
12M + 8W -----?
24W + 8 W = 32W ---?
6W ---- 20 32 -----?
6 * 20 = 32 * x => x = 15/4 days

Answer 159 : Option C

Explanation:
WC = 2:1
2x + x = 1/7
x = 1/21 21 days

Answer 160 : Option D

Explanation:
WC of A: B = 1:2
B: C = 1:2
---------------------
A: B: C = 1:2:4

Answer 161 : Option A

Explanation:
15/25 + 10/x = 1 x = 25
1/25 + 1/25 = 2/25
25/2 = 12 1/2 days
Answer 162 : Option D
Explanation:
A = 140 days
B = 105 days
1/140 + 1/105 = 7/420 = 1/60
=>60 days

Answer 163 : Option C

Explanation:
(3 * 4)/48 = (9 * 2)/ x
x = 72 kg

Answer 164 : Option A

Explanation:
4/18 + (x -7)/27 + x/36 = 1
x = 16 days

Answer 165 : Option C

Explanation:
3x 4x 5x
6 9 4
18x + 36x + 20x = 1480
74x = 1480 x = 20
5x = 100 Rs.

Answer 166 : Option C

Explanation:
3W = 2M
15M ------ 21 * 8 hours
21 W ------ x * 6 hours
14 M ------ x * 6
15 * 21 * 8 = 14 * x * 6
x = 30

Answer 167 : Option A

Explanation:
12/ (2 * 2) = 3 days

Answer 168 : Option B

Explanation:
12M + 16B ----- 5 days
13M + 24B ------- 4 days
60M + 80B = 52M + 96B
8M = 16B 1M = 2B
M: B = 2:1
Answer 169 : Option A
Explanation:
1/18 + 1/24 = 7/72
72/7 = 10 2/7
7/72 * 10 = 35/36 ----- 20 hours
WR = 1 – 35/36 = 1/36
1 h ----- 1/18
? ----- 1/36 = 1/2 hours
=> 20 1/2 hours

Answer 170 : Option B

Explanation:
Work done by A in 2 days = 2/5
Remaining work = 3/5
Work done by both A and B in one day = 1/5 + 1/10 = 3/10
Remaining work = 3/5 * 10/3 = 2 days.

Answer 171 : Option A

Explanation:
Work done by all three of them in one day = 1/6 + 1/8 + 1/12 = 3/8.
The number of days required = 8/3 = 2 2/3 days.

Answer 172 : Option C

Explanation:
One day work of A and B = 1/12
One day work of B and C = 1/30
One day work of C and A = 1/36
2(A + B + C) = 1/12 + 1/30 + 1/36
2(A + B + C) = 13/90
(A + B + C) = 13/180
Number of days required = 180/13 days.

Answer 173 : Option D

Explanation:
One day work of A, B and C = 1/24 + 1/30 + 1/40 = 1/10 Work done by A and B together in the last 4
days = 4*(1/24 + 1/30) = 3/10
Remaining work = 7/10
The number of days required for this initial work = 7 days.
The total number of days required = 4 + 7 = 11 days.

Answer 174 : Option A

Explanation:
P = 3Q
P + Q = 3Q + Q = 4Q
These 4Q people can do the work in 12 days, which means Q can do the work in 48 days.
Hence, P can do the work in 16 days.

Answer 175 : Option D

Explanation:
5M + 2B = 4(1M + 1B)
5M + 2B = 4M + 4B
1M = 2B
The required ratio of work done by a man and a boy = 2:1

Answer 176 : Option B

Explanation:
Total work to be done = 30 * 40 = 1200
Let 20 men leave the work after 'P' days, so that the remaining work is completed in 40 days after
they leave the work.
40P + (20 * 40) = 1200
40P = 400 => P = 10 days

Answer 177 : Option D

Explanation:
Work done by A and B in the first two hours, working alternately = First hour A + Second hour B =
1/4 + 1/12 = 1/3.
Total time required to complete the work = 2 * 3 = 6 days.

Answer 178 : Option C

Explanation:
One day's work of A and B = 1/9 + 1/8 = (2+1)/18 = 1/6 So, the time taken to complete the work is 6
days.

Answer 179 : Option A

Explanation:
One days's work of A, B and C = 1/90 + 1/30 + 1/45
= (1 + 3 + 2)/90 = 1/15
A, B and C together can do the work in 15 days.

Answer 180 : Option B

Explanation:
Work done by P alone in one day = 1/6th of the total work done by Q alone in one day = 1/3(of that
done by P in one day) = 1/3(1/6 of the total) = 1/18 of the total.
Work done by P and Q, working together in one day = 1/6 + 1/18 = 4/18 = 2/9 of the total
They would take 9/2 days = 4 (1/2) days to complete the work working together.

Answer 181 : Option E

Explanation:
(A+B+C)'s two days work = 1/18 + 1/30 + 2/45
= (5 + 3 + 4)/90 = 2/15
(A+B+C)'s one day work = 2/15 * 1/2 = 1/15
A's one day's work = 1/15 - 1/30 = 1/30
B's one day's work = 1/15 - 2/45 = 1/45
C's one day's work = 1/15 - 1/18= 1/90
So, A,B and C can individually do the work in 30, 45 and 90 days.

Answer 182 : Option D

Explanation:
Let A worked for x days.
x/21 + 4/28 = 1 => x/21 = 6/7 => x = 18
A worked for 18 days. So, A can complete the remaining work in 18 - 4 = 14 days.

Answer 183 : Option B

Explanation:
Part of the book he can read in 1 minute = 1/k
Part of the book he can read in 8 minutes =8/k.

Answer 184 : Option E

Explanation:
Let Chandra do the work in 2x days.
Bharat can do it in 6x days and Avinash can do it in 3x days.
1/(2x) + 1/(6x) + 1/(3x) = 1/30 => (3 + 1 +2)/6x = 1/30 => x = 30
So, the time taken to complete the work by Avinash, Bharat, Chandra is 90, 180, 60 days
respectively.

Answer 185 : Option A

Explanation:
A can do the work in 30/2 i.e., 15 days.
A and B's one day's work = 1/15 + 1/30 = (2 + 1)/30 = 1/10
So A and B together can do the work in 10 days.

Answer 186 : Option C

Explanation:
A can do 1/10 of the work in a day.
B can do 1/12 of the work in a 1 day.
Both of them together can do (1/10 + 1/12) part of work in 1 day = (6 + 5)/60 = 11/60
They take 60/11 days to complete the work together.
Given that they already worked for 2 days.
The number of days required to complete remaining work => 60/11 - 2 = 38/11 = 3 (5/11) days.

Answer 187 : Option E

Explanation:
After 5 days, the following situation prevails.
50 men can complete the work in 60 days.
30 men can complete the work in ? days.
M1 D1 = M2 D2
=> 50 * 60 = 30 * D2
=> D2 = (50 * 60)/30 = 100 days.

Answer 188 : Option C

Explanation:
A's one day's work = 1/30
B's one day's work = 1/45
(A + B)'s one day's work = 1/30 + 1/45 = 1/18
The part of the work completed in 3 days = 3 (1/18) = 1/6.

Answer 189 : Option B

Explanation:
We have M1 D1 = M2 D2
So, 24 * 35 = M2 * 21 => M2 = 40.

Answer 190 : Option B

Explanation:
Let the number of men initially be x. we have M1 D1 H1= M2 D2 H2
So, x * 65 * 6 = (3x)/4 * 40 * h2
=> h2 = (65 * 6 * 4)/(3 * 40) = 13.

Answer 191 : Option E

Explanation:
Let the number of hours working per day initially be x. we have M1 D1 H1= M2 D2 H2
30 * 24 * x = 20 * d2 * (4x)/3 => d2 = (30 * 24 * 3)/(24 * 4) = 27 days.

Answer 192 : Option D

Explanation:
We have M1 D1 H1 / W1 = M2 D2 H2 / W2 (Variation rule)
(60 * 30 * 8)/ 200 = (45 * D2 * 6) / 300
D2 = (60 * 30 * 8 * 300) / (200 * 45 * 6) => D2 = 80.

Answer 193 : Option C

Explanation:
Given that 12m = 20w => 3m = 5w
9 men + 12 women = 15 women + 12 women = 27 women
20 women can do the work in 54 days. So, 27 women can do it in (20 * 54) /27 = 40 days.

Answer 194 : Option C

Explanation:
(5m + 9w)10 = (6m + 12w)8
=> 50m + 90w = 48w + 96 w => 2m = 6w => 1m = 3w 5m + 9w = 5m + 3m = 8m
8 men can do the work in 10 days.
3m +3w = 3m + 1w = 4m
So, 4 men can do the work in (10 * 8)/4 = 20 days.

Answer 195 : Option A

Explanation:
Two men take four days to complete the work four men would take (2 * 4)/4 = 2 days to complete it.
Similarly four women would take two days to complete it and 20 children would take one day to
complete it.
All the three groups working togerther will complete 1/2 + 1/2 + 1/1 work in a day
= 2 times the unit work in a day.
They will take 1/2 a day to complete it working together.

Answer 196 : Option D

Explanation:
Work done by a women in one day = 1/2 (work done by a man/day)
One women's capacity = 1/2(one man's capacity)
One man = 2 women.
12 men = 24 women.
12 men + 6 women = 30 women
30 women can complete the work in four days. In the first 2 days they can complete 1/2 of the
work. Remaining part of the work = 1/2. If 6 men leave and 6 new women join, then new work force
= 30 women - 12 women + 6 women = 24 women.
Time taken by them to complete the remaining work = 1/2 (Time taken by 24 women to complete
the work) = 1/2 * (30 * 4)/24 = 2 (1/2) days.

Answer 197 : Option D

Explanation:
Let the number of units which can be completed by each man, each women and each boy be m/day,
w/day and b/day respectively.
Work = 8(8m + 10w +6b)units = 12(20m)
10w +6b = 22m
b is unknown.
We cannot find the relation between m and w.
We cannot answer the question.

Answer 198 : Option B

Explanation:
The ratio of their working rates = 1/7 : 1/14 : 1/21 = 6 : 3 : 2.
Since, they work together, the share of C
= 2/11 * 242 = Rs.44

Answer 199 : Option A

Explanation:
We have M1 D1 = M2 D2
120X = (X - 20)180
=> 2X = (X - 20) 3 => 2X = 3X - 60
=> X = 60

Answer 200 : Option C

Explanation:
Sravan's one day's work = 1/25 - 1/75 = 2/75
Sravan worked for 8 days. So, his 8 days work = 8 * 2/75 = 16/75
Sravan completed 16/75th of total work.
So, his share is 16/75 * 225 = Rs. 48.

Answer 201 : Option A

Explanation:
12 men take 32 days to complete the work.
One man will take (12 * 32) days to complete it.
Similarly one woman will take (16 * 36) days to complete it and one boy will take (48 * 16) days to
complete it.
One man, one woman and one boy working together will complete = 1/(12 * 32) + 1/(16 * 36) +
1/(48 * 16)
= 1/(4 * 3 * 16 * 2) + 1/(16 * 4 * 9) + 1/(16 * 3 * 4 * 4)
= 1/64(1/6 + 1/9 + 1/12) = 1/64 * 13/36 of the work in a day.
They will take (64 * 36)/13 days to complete the work working together.

Answer 202 : Option E

Explanation:
The work done in the first two days = 1/12 + 1/36 = 1/9
so, 9 such two days are required to finish the work.
i.e., 18 days are required to finish the work.

Answer 203 : Option B

Explanation:
A's 1 day work = 1/10; B's 1 day work = 1/15
(A + B)'s 1 day work = (1/10 + 1/15) = 1/6
So, both together will finish the work in 6 days.

Answer 204 : Option C

Explanation:
1 day work of the three persons = (1/15 + 1/20 + 1/25) = 47/300
So, all three together will complete the work in 300/47 = 6.4 days.-

Answer 205 : Option B

Explanation:
Suppose A, B and C take x, x/2 and x/3 respectively to finish the work.
Then, (1/x + 2/x + 3/x) = 1/2
6/x = 1/2 => x = 12
So, B takes 6 hours to finish the work.

Answer 206 : Option C

Explanation:
1 women's 1 day work = 1/70
1 child's 1 day work = 1/140
(5 women + 10 children)'s 1 day work
= (5/10 + 10/140) = (1/14 + 1/14) = 1/7
5 women and 10 children will complete the work in 7 days.

Answer 207 : Option A

Explanation:
Let 1 man's 1 day work = x and 1 boy's 1 day work = y.
Then, 12x + 16y = 1/5 and 13x + 24y = 1/4
Solving these two equations, we get:
x = 1/100 and y = 1/200
Required ratio = x:y = 1/100 : 1/200 = 2:1.

Answer 208 : Option B

Explanation:
Let 1 man's 1 day work = x and 1 woman's 1 day work = y.
Then, 4x + 6y = 1/8 and 3x + 7y = 1/10
Solving these two equations, we get:
x = 11/400 and y = 1/400
1 woman's 1 day work = (1/400 * 10) = 1/40.
Hence, 10 women will complete the work in 40 days.

Answer 209 : Option A

Explanation:
Let 1 men's 1 day work = x and 1 boy's 1 day work = y.
Then, 6x + 8y = 1/10 and 26x + 48y = 1/2
Solving these two equations, we get:
x = 1/100 and y = 1/200
(15 men + 20 boys)'s 1 day work = (15/100 + 20/200) = 1/4
15 men and 20 boys can do the work in 4 days.

Answer 210 : Option E

Explanation:
1 man's 1 day work = 1/100
(10 men + 15 women)'s 1 day work = 1/6
15 women's 1 day work = (1/6 - 10/100) = 1/15
1 woman's 1 day work = 1/225
1 woman alone can complete the work in 225 days.
Answer 211 : Option A
Explanation:
1 man's 1 day work = 1/48; 1 woman's 1 day work = 1/60.
6 men's 2 day's work = 6/48 * 2 = 1/4.
Remaining work = (1 - 1/4) = 3/4
Now, 1/60 work is done in 1 day by 1 woman.
So, 3/4 work will be done in 3 days by (60 * 3/4 * 1/3) = 15 women.

Answer 212 : Option D

Explanation:
(1 man + 1 woman)'s 1 day work = (1/3 + 1/4) = 7/12 Work done by 1 man and 1 woman in 1/4 day =
(7/12 * 1/4) = 7/48
Remaining work = (1 - 7/48) = 41/48
Work done by 1 boy in 1/4 day = ( 1/12 * 1/4) = 1/48
Number of boys required = 41/48 * 41 = 41.

Answer 213 : Option A

Explanation:
Let 1 woman's 1 day work = x.
Then, 1 man's 1 day work = x/2 and 1 child's 1 day work x/4.
So, (3x/2 + 4x + + 6x/4) = 1/7
28x/4 = 1/7 => x = 1/49
1 woman alone can complete the work in 49 days.
So, to complete the work in 7 days, number of women required = 49/7 = 7.

Answer 214 : Option A

Explanation:
1 man's 1 day work = 1/108
12 men's 6 day's work = 1/9 * 6 = 2/3
Remaining work = 1 - 2/3 = 1/3
18 men's 1 day work = 1/108 * 18 = 1/6
1/6 work is done by them in 1 day.
1/3 work is done by them in 6 * 1/3 = 2 days.

Answer 215 : Option B

Explanation:
Kim's wages : David's wages = Kim's 1 day work : David's 1 day work = 1/3 : 1/2 = 2:3
Kim's share = 2/5 * 150 = Rs. 60

Answer 216 : Option B

Explanation:
C's 1 day's work = 1/3 - (1/6 + 1/8) = 1/3 - 7/24 = 1/24
A's wages : B's wages : C's wages
1/6 : 1/8 : 1/24 = 4:3:1
C's share = 1/8 * 3200 = Rs. 400
Answer 217 : Option C
Explanation:
B's 1 day work = (1/12 - 1/20) = 1/30
Now, (A + B)'s 1 day work = (1/20 + 1/60) = 1/15
So, A and B together will complete the work in 15 days.

Answer 218 : Option B

Explanation:
A's 2 day's work = (1/20 * 2) = 1/10
(A + B + C)'s 1 day work = (1/20 + 1/30 + 1/60) = 1/10
Work done in 3 days = (1/10 + 1/10) = 1/5
Now, 1/5 work is done in 3 days.
Whole work will be done in (3 * 5) = 15 days.

Answer 219 : Option B

Explanation:
(20 * 16) women can complete the work in 1 day.
1 woman's 1 day work = 1/320
(16 * 15) men can complete the work in 1 day
1 man's 1 day work = 1/240
So, required ratio = 1/240 : 1/320 = 4:3.

Answer 220 : Option C

Explanation:
Number of pages typed by Ronald in 1 hour = 32/6 = 16/3
Number of pages typed by Elan in 1 hour = 40/5 = 8
Number of pages typed by both in 1 hour = (16/3 + 8) = 40/3
Time taken by both to type 110 pages = (110 * 3/40) = 8 1/4 = 8 hrs 15 min

Answer 221 : Option B

Explanation:
Ratio of times taken by Sakshi and Tanys = 125:100 = 5:4
Suppose Tanya takes x days to do the work.
5:4 :: 20:x => x= 16 days.
Hence, Tanya takes 16 days to complete the work.

Answer 222 : Option C

Explanation:
A's 1 hour work = 1/4;
(B + C)'s 1 hour work = 1/3;
(A + C)'s 1 hour work = 1/2
(A + B + C)'s 1 hour work = (1/4 + 1/3) = 7/12
B's 1 hour work = (7/12 + 1/2) = 1/12
B alone will take 12 hours to do the work.
Answer 223 : Option C
Explanation:
(A + B + C)'s 1 day work = 1/6;
(A + B)'s 1 day work = 1/8
(B + C)'s 1 day work = 1/12
(A + C)'s 1 day work = (2 * 1/6) - (1/8 + 1/12)
= (1/3 - 5/24) = 1/8
So, A and C together will do the work in 8 days.

Answer 224 : Option C

Explanation:
(A + B)'s 1 day work = 1/12;
(B + C)'s 1 day work = 1/15;
(A + C)'s 1 day work = 1/20
Adding, we get: 2(A + B + C)'s 1 day work = (1/12 + 1/15 + 1/20) = 1/5
(A + B + C)'s 1 day work = 1/10
So, A, B and C together can complete the work in 10 days.

Answer 225 : Option B

Explanation:
Ratio of times taken by A and B = 100:130 = 10:13
Suppose B takes x days to do the work.
x = (23 * 13)/10 = 299/10
A's 1 day work = 1/23; B's 1 day work = 10/299
(A + B)'s 1 day work = (1/23 + 10/299) = 1/13
A and B together can complete the job in 13 days.

Answer 226 : Option C

Explanation:
B's 10 day's work = 1/15 * 10 = 2/3
Remaining work = (1 - 2/3) = 1/3
Now, 1/18 work is done by A in 1 day.
1/3 work is done by A in (18 * 1/3) = 6 days

Answer 227 : Option B

Explanation:
Work done by X in 4 days = (1/20 * 4) = 1/5
Remaining work = (1 - 1/5) = 4/5
(X + Y)'s 1 day work = (1/20 + 1/12) = 2/15
Now, 2/15 work is done by X and Y in 1 day.
So, 4/5 work will be done by X and Y in (15/2 * 4/5) = 6 days.
Hence, total time taken = (6 + 4) = 10 days.

Answer 228 : Option D

Explanation:
(A +B)’s 1 day’s work = (1/30 + 1/40) = 7/120
Time is taken by both to finish the work = 120/7 days

= 17 1/7 days.

Answer 229 : Option D

Explanation:
A’s 1 day’s work = (1/15 – 1/20) = 1/60

Therefore, A alone can finish = 60 days

Answer 230 : Option C

Explanation:
1/3 of work is done by A in 5 days

Therefore, whole work will be done by A in 15 days

2/5 of work is done by B in 10 days

Whole work will be done by B in (10 x 5/2) i.e.., 25 days

Therefore (A + B)’s 1 day’s work = (1/15 + 1/25) = 8/75

So both together can finish 75/8 days i.e.., 9 3/8 days

Answer 231 : Option B

Explanation:
Work to be done by C = (1 – 7/11) = 4/11

Therefore, (A +B) = C = 7/11 : 4/11 = 7 : 4

Therefore C’s share = Rs.(550 x 4/11) = Rs. 200

Answer 232 : Option C

Explanation:
A’s 10 days work = (10 x 1/80) = 1/8

Remaining work = (1 -1/8) = 7/8

Therefore 7/8 work is done by A in 42 days.

Whole work will be done by A in (42 x 8/7)i.e.., 48 days

Therefore, (A+ B)’s 1 day work = (1/80 + 1/48) = 8/240 = 1/30.

A and B together can finish it in 30days.

Answer 233 : Option B

Explanation:
Umesh’s 5 day’s work = 5 x 1/15 = 1/3

Remaining work = (1 – 1/3) = 2/3 (1/10 +1/ 15) work is done by both in 1 day

Therefore 2/3 work is done by both in (6 x 2/3) = 4days.

The work was completed in 9 days

Answer 234 : Option B

Explanation:
1 man’s one day’s work = 1/96 12 men’s 3 day’s work = (3 x 1/8) = 3/8

Remaining work = (1 – 3/8) = 5/8 15 men’s 1 day’s work = 15/96

Now 15/96 work is done by them in 1day

Therefore 5/8 work will be done by them in (96/15 x 5/8) i.e., 4 days

Answer 235 : Option A

Explanation:
(A +B)’s 5 days work = 5 (1/10 +1/20) = ¾

Remaining work =(1 -3/4) = ¼ 1/20work is done by B in 1 day.

Therefore, ¼ work is done by B in (20 x 1/4)i.e.., 5 days

Answer 236 : Option D

Explanation:
(A+ B)’s 20 day’s work =(20 x 1/30) = 2/3

Remaining work = (1 -2/3) = 1/3 1/3 work is done by A in 20 days

Whole work can be done by A in (3 x 20)days i.e.., 60 days

Answer 237 : Option A

Explanation:
(B + C)’s 2 day’s work = 2 (1/10 + 1/15) = 1/3 Remaining work = (1 – 1/3) = 2/3 1/9 work is done by A
in 1 day Therefore 2/3 work is done by A in (9 x 2/3) = 6 days

Answer 238 : Option D

Explanation:
B’s daily earning = RS.(150 -94) = Rs. 56

A’s daily earning = Rs.(150 -76) = Rs.74

C’s daily earning = Rs.[150 – (56+74)] = Rs. 20

Answer 239 : Option C

Explanation:
Ratio of times taken by A and B = 160 : 100 = 8 : 5

If A takes 8 days B takes 5 days

If A takes 12 days, B takes =(5/8 x 12) = 7 ½ days

Answer 240 : Option A

Explanation:
B takes x days to do the work

Therefore, A takes (2 × 3/4x)i.e.., 3x/2 days to do it

Now , (A +B)’s 1 day’s work = 1/18

Therefore, 1/x + 2/3x = 1/18 or x =30.

Answer 241 : Option D

Explanation:
12 men = 18 women or 1 man = 3/2 women

Therefore 8 men + 16 women = (8 × 3/2 + 16) women i.e.., 28 women

Now 18 women can reap the field in 14 days

Therefore, 28 women can reap it in = 9 days

Answer 241 : Option A

Explanation:
3 men = 4 women or 1 man = 4/3 women

Therefore 7 men + 5 women = (7 × 4/3 + 5)women i.e.., 43/3 women

4 women can construct the wall in 43 days

Therefore, 43/3 women can construct it in = 12 days

Answer 242 : Option C

Explanation:
10 men = 12 women or 1 man = 6/5 women

Therefore 15 men + 6 women = (15 x 6/5 +6)women i.e,, 24 women

Now 12 women can do the work in 10 days

Therefore, 24 women can do it in = 5 days

Answer 243. : Option D

Explanation:
2 children = 1 man

Therefore (8 children +12 men) = 16 men

Now less men more days 12: 16 : : 9 : x

Therefore, x = (144/12) = 12 days

Answer 244 : Option C

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
2 children = 1 man

Therefore (8 children +12 men) = 16 men

Now less men more days 12: 16 : : 9 : x

Therefore, x = (144/12) = 12 days

Answer 246 : Option C

Answer 247 : Option C

Answer 248 : Option A

ANSWER: 5 (5/11) min past 7
Explanation:
When the hands of the clock are in the same straight line but not together, they are 30 minute
spaces apart.

At 7 o'clock, they are 25 min. spaces apart.

Minute hand must gain only 5 min. space.

55 min. spaces are gained in 60 min.

5 min. spaces would be gained in (60/55) x 5 = 5 (5/11) min

Required time = 5 (5/11) min past 7

ANSWER 249 : 54 (6/11) past 4
Explanation:
At 4 o'clock, the hands of the watch are 20 min. spaces apart.

To be in opposite directions, they must be 30 min. spaces apart.

Minute hand must gain 50 min. spaces.

55 min. spaces are gained in 60 min.

50 min. spaces are gained in 60/55 x 50 = 54 (6/11) min

Required time = 54 6/11 min past 4

ANSWER: 250
Explanation:
At 8 o’ clock, the hour hand is at 240 degrees from the vertical.

In 30 minutes,
Hour hand = 240 + 30 x (0.5) = 240 + 15 = 255 (The hour hand moves at 0.5 dpm)

Minute hand = 30 x (6) = 180 (The minute hand moves at 6 dpm)

Difference or angle between the hands = 255 - 180 = 75 degrees.

ANSWER: 251
Explanation:
At 3 o'clock, the minute hand is 15 min. spaces apart from the hour hand.
To be coincident, it must gain 15 min. spaces.
55 min. are gained in 60 min

15 min. spaces are gained in 60/55 x 15 = 16 4/11 min

The hands are co-incident at 16 (4/11) past 3.

Answer 252 : Option C

Explanation:
Speed of train relative to jogger = 45 - 9 = 36 km/hr.
= 36 * 5/18 = 10 m/sec.
Distance to be covered = 240 + 120 = 360 m.
Time taken = 360/10 = 36 sec.

Answer 253 : Option B

Explanation:
Speed of train relative to man = 60 + 6 = 66 km/hr.
= 66 * 5/18 = 55/3 m/sec.
Time taken to pass the men = 110 * 3/55 = 6 sec.
Answer 254 : Option D
Explanation:
Relative speed = 60 + 40 = 100 km/hr.
= 100 * 5/18 = 250/9 m/sec.
Distance covered in crossing each other = 140 + 160 = 300 m.
Required time = 300 * 9/250 = 54/5 = 10.8 sec.

Answer 255 : Option C

Explanation:
Relative speed = 60 + 90 = 150 km/hr.
= 150 * 5/18 = 125/3 m/sec.
Distance covered = 1.10 + 0.9 = 2 km = 2000 m.
Required time = 2000 * 3/125 = 48 sec.

Answer 256 : Option B

Explanation:
Speed of the train relative to man = 125/10 = 25/2 m/sec.
= 25/2 * 18/5 = 45 km/hr
Let the speed of the train be x km/hr. Then, relative speed = (x - 5) km/hr.
x - 5 = 45 => x = 50 km/hr.

Answer 257 : Option C

Explanation:
Relative speed = 45 + 30 = 75 km/hr.
75 * 5/18 = 125/6 m/sec.
Distance covered = 500 + 500 = 1000 m.
Required time = 1000 * 6/125 = 48 sec.

Answer 258 : Option A

Explanation:
Let the length of each train be x m.
Then, distance covered = 2x m.
Relative speed = 46 - 36 = 10 km/hr.
= 10 * 5/18 = 25/9 m/sec.
2x/36 = 25/9 => x = 50.

Answer 259 : Option A

Explanation:
Relative speed = 120 + 80 = 200 km/hr.
= 200 * 5/18 = 500/9 m/sec.
Let the length of the other train be x m.
Then, (x + 270)/9 = 500/9 => x = 230.

Answer 260.: Option C

Explanation:
Let the speed of each train be x m/sec.
Then, relative speed of the two trains = 2x m/sec.
So, 2x = (120 + 120)/12 => x = 10
Speed of each train = 10 m/sec.
= 10 * 18/5 =- 36 km/hr.

Answer 261 : Option B

Explanation:
Speed of the first train = 120/10 = 12 m/sec.
Speed of the second train = 120/5 = 8 m/sec.
Relative speed = 12 + 8 = 20 m/sec.
Required time = (120 + 120)/20 = 12 sec.

Answer 262 : Option D

Explanation:
Relative speed = (40 - 20) = 20 km/hr.
= 20 * 5/ 18 = 50/9 m/sec.
Length of faster train = 50/9 * 5 = 250/9 = 27 7/9 m.
Answer 263 : Option C
Explanation:
Let the speed of the slower train be x m/sec.
Then, speed of the train = 2x m/sec.
Relative speed = ( x + 2x) = 3x m/sec.
(100 + 100)/8 = 3x => x = 25/3.
So, speed of the faster train = 50/3 = 50/3 * 18/5 = 60 km/hr.

Answer 264 : Option B

Explanation:
Let us name the trains A and B.
Then, (A's speed) : (B's speed)
= √b : √a = √16 : √9 = 4:3

Answer 265. : Option D

Explanation:
180 km/hr = (180 × 5/18)m/sec = 50 m/sec

Answer 266 : Option C

Explanation:
Speed of the train = (60 × 5/18) m/sec = (50/3) m/sec.

Time taken by the train to cross the platform

=Time taken by it to cover (280+220)m

=(500 × 3/50) sec = 30 sec.

Answer 267 : Option C

Explanation:
Distance covered by train in 10 sec = (50+100)m = 150m

Speed = (150/10)m/sec = (15 ×18/5) km/hr = 54 km/hr

Answer 268 : Option B

Explanation:
Distance covered in 2/60 hr = (1+1/2) km = 3/2 km.

Distance covered in 1 hr = (3/2 × 60/2) km = 45 km.

Speed of the train = 45 km/hr

Answer 269 : Option A
Explanation:
Speed = (72 × 5/18 ) m/sec = 20 m/sec

Length of tunnel = x meters

(700+x)/60 = 20

=> 700 + x = 1200 or x = 500 m

Answer 270 : Option A

Explanation:
Relative speed = (25+2) km/hr

= 27 km/hr

= (27 x 5/18) m/sec

= (15/2) m/sec.

Time taken by the train to pass the man.

= (270 × 2/15) Sec = 36 Sec.

Answer 271 : Option D

Explanation:
Distance covered in 72 sec = (300+900)m

Speed = (1200/72)m/sec

=(50/3) m/sec

= (50/3 × 18/5) km/hr = 60 km/hr.

Answer 272 : Option C

Explanation:
Length of train = x meters

Speed = (45 × 5/18) m/sec = (25/2) m/sec

Distance covered in crossing the platform = (x + 100) m

(x + 100) × 2/25 = 60

or 2x + 200 = 1500 or x = 650

Time taken to cross the pale

= (650 × 2/25) Sec = 52 Sec.

Answer 273 : Option B

Explanation:
Relative speed = (150+100│10) m/sec = 25 m/sec

Speed of second train = (90-30) km/hr = 60 km/hr

Answer 274 : Option B

Explanation:
Speed of the train be x km/hr

Relative speed = (x + 6) km/hr

= [(x+6)×5/18] m/sec = 150/6

= ((x+6)×5)/18

or 5x + 30 = 450

or x = 84 km/hr

Answer 275 : Option B

Explanation:
length of the train be x meters and its

speed be y meters/sec x/y = 15

=> y = x/15

=> (x+100)/25 = x/15

=> x = 150 m

Answer 276 : Option B

Explanation:
Speed of the second train be x km/hr.

Relative speed = (50 + x) km/hr

= [(50 + x) × 5/18] m/sec

= (250+5x│18) m/sec 220 × 18

= 6 (250 + 5 x)
The speed of the second train = 82 km/hr.

Answer 277 : Option B

Explanation:
Suppose they meet x hrs after 7 a.m

Distance covered by A in x hrs = (20 × x)

Distance covered by B in (x-1) hrs = 25 (x -1) km.

So they meet at 10 a.m.

Answer 278 : Option D

Explanation:
Since the sum of the lengths of the train and the length of the engine is needed, So both the lengths
must be known.

`Answer 279 : Option B

Explanation:
Speed = (120/10) m/sec = 12 m/sec

Answer 280 : Option B

Explanation:
Speed =(50 x 5/18) m/sec = 125/9 m/sec

Required Time = 54 sec

Answer 281 : Option C

Explanation:
Speed = 25/2 m/sec

Required time = 32 sec

Answer 282 : Option D

Explanation:
Let the length of the train be x m.

Then it’s Speed = = 30 => 600 + x = 900 => x = 300m

Answer 283 : Option C

Explanation:
Let the length of the bridge be x metres.
Speed of the train =

But speed = (45 x 5/18) m/sec = 25/2 m/sec

Therefore, => 130 + x = 375 => (375 -130) = 245m

Hence, length of the bridge = 245m

Answer 284 : Option C

Explanation:
Let the length of the train be x metres.

=>

=> 15x(96 +x) = 12 x (141 + x)

=> 3x = (1692 -1440) = 252

=> X = 84m

Speed of the train = 15 m/sec

= (15 x 18/5)kmph = 54kmph

Answer 285 : Option C

Explanation:
Let the length of the train be x meters.

Then x/15 =

=> 25x = 1500 + 15x

=> 10x = 1500

=> x =150.

Hence the lengths of the trains is 150m

Answer 286 : Option B

Explanation:
Sum of the lengths of the trains = (105 + 90)m = 195m

Relative speed = (72 +45)kmph

= 117kmph =(117 x 5/18)m/sec = 585/18 m/sec

Required Time = (195 x 18/585)sec = 6 Sec

Answer 287 : Option B

Explanation:
Let the length of the train be x km and it’s speed be y km/hr

Speed of the train relative to first man =(y-3)km/hr

Speed of the train relative to second man = (y -5)km/hr

=>

=> Y-3 = 360x and 11y -55 =3600x

=> 10y -30 = 3600x and 11y -55 = 3600x

=> 10y -30 = 11y -55

=> y = 25

Therefore, Speed of the train = 25km/hr.

Answer 288 : Option D

Explanation:
Relative speed =(72 -60)kmph

= 12kmph = (12 x 5/18)m/sec = 10/3 m/sec

Total distance covered =(240 +240)m =480m

Required time =(480 x 3/10)sec = 144sec = 2min 24 sec.

Answer 289 : Option D

ANSWER 290 : 43(7/11) min past 5

Explanation:
At 5 o'clock, the hands are 25 min. spaces apart.

To be at right angles and that too between 5.30 and 6, the minute hand must gain 40 min
55 min. spaces are gained in 60 min.

40 min. spaces would be gained in (60/55 × 40) min. = 43 7/11 min.

Required time = 43(7/11) min. past 5.

ANSWER 291 : 49(1/11) min past 9

Explanation:
To be together between 9 and 10 o'clock, the minute hand must gain 45 min. space

55 min. spaces are gained in 60 min.

45 min spaces would be gained in (60/55 × 45) min. or 49 1/11 min.

The hands are together at 49 1/11 min. past 9.

.

ANSWER 292 : 160°

Explanation:
At 2 o’ clock, the hour hand is at 60° from the vertical.
In 40 minutes,
Hour hand = 60 + 40 x (0.5) = 80° (The hour hand moves at 0.5 dpm)
Minute hand = 40 x (6) = 240° (The minute hand moves at 6 dpm)

Difference or angle between the hands = 240 - 80 = 160°

ANSWER 293 : 240

Explanation:
Hour hand travels 30 degree per hour.
For, 8 hours, 8 x 30 = 240

ANSWER 294 : 95
Explanation:
At 3 o’ clock, the hour hand is at 90 degrees from the vertical.

In 10 minutes,
Hour hand = 90 + 10 x (0.5) = 95 (The hour hand moves at 0.5 dpm)
ANSWER 295 : (11)2/3 min
Explanation:
Time from 9 a.m. to 4 p.m. = 7 hrs

The clock gains 5 secs in 3 min

In 60 min, it will gain, (60 x 5) / 3 = 100 sec

i.e. the clock gains 100 seconds in one hour

In 7 hours, it will gain 700 sec.
700/60 mins = (11)2/3 mins

ANSWER 296 : 37.5°

Explanation:
At 4 o’ clock, the hour hand is at 120° from the vertical.

In 15 minutes,

Hour hand = 120 + 15 x (0.5) = 120 + 7.5 = 127.5° (The hour hand moves at 0.5 dpm)

Minute hand = 15 x (6) = 90° (The minute hand moves at 6 dpm)

Difference or Angle between the hands = 127.5 – 90 = 37.5°

ANSWER 297 : 180°

Explanation:
Hour hand traverses 30° per hour.
For 6 hours, 6 x 30 = 180°

ANSWER 298 : 44
Explanation:
In 12 hours, they are at right angles 22 times.
In 24 hours, they are at right angles 44 times.

ANSWER 299 : 22
Explanation:
The hands of a clock coincide 11 times in every 12 hours
(Since between 11 and 1, they coincide only once,
i.e. at 12 o'clock).

The hands coincide 22 times in a day.

ANSWER 300 : 100

Explanation:
At 7 o’ clock, the hour hand is at 210 degrees from the vertical.
In 20 minutes,
Hour hand = 210 + 20 x (0.5) = 220 (The hour hand moves at 0.5 dpm)
Minute hand = 20 x (6) = 120 (The minute hand moves at 6 dpm)
Difference or angle between the hands = 220 - 120 = 100 degree
 Logical reasoning

1.The only true education comes through the stimulation of the child's powers by the demands of
the social situations in which he finds himself. Through these demands he is stimulated to act as a
member of a unity, to emerge from his original narrowness of action and feeling, and to conceive
himself from the standpoint of the welfare of the group to which he belongs.

The passage best supports the statement that real education -

A.
will take place if the children imbibe action and feeling.

B.
will take place if the children are physically strong.

C.
is not provided in our schools today.

D.
comes through the interaction with social situations.

E.
comes from the self-centred approach of the students.
[#]

2. The attainment of individual and organisational goals is mutually interdependent and linked by a
common denominator - employee work motivation. Organisational members are motivated to
satisfy their personal goals, and they contribute their efforts to the attainment of organisational
objectives as means of achieving these personal goals.

The passage best supports the statement that motivation -

A. encourages an individual to give priority to personal goals over organisational

goals.

B.
is crucial for the survival of an individual and organisation.

C.
is the product of an individual's physical and mental energy.
 D.
is the external force which induces an individual to contribute his efforts.

E.
makes organisation and society inseparable.
[#]

Direction (for Q.No. 3):

Three of the words will be in the same classification, the remaining one will not be. Your answer will
be the one word that does NOT belong in the same classification as the others.
3. Which word does NOT belong with the others?

A.
cornea

B.
retina

C.
pupil

D.
vision
[#]

Direction (for Q.No. 4):

In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. You
have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions
is implicit in the statement.
Give answer
(A) If only assumption I is implicit
(B) If only assumption II is implicit
(C) If either I or II is implicit
(D) If neither I nor II is implicit
(E) If both I and II are implicit.
4. Statement: Ministry has announced an economic package to support the voluntary
organisations. - An official notice,
Assumptions:
Voluntary organisations do not need such support.
Government was not supporting the voluntary organisations earlier.

A.
Only assumption I is implicit
 B.
Only assumption II is implicit

C.
Either I or II is implicit

D.
Neither I nor II is implicit

E.
Both I and II are implicit
[#]

Direction (for Q.No. 5):

In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by three conclusions numbered
I, II and III, You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from
the commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions
logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
5. Statements: All snakes are trees. Some trees are roads. All roads are mountains.
Conclusions:
Some mountains are snakes.
Some roads are snakes.
Some mountains are trees.

A.
Only I follows

B.
Only II follows

C.
Only III follows

D.
Both I and II follow

E.
None follows
[#]

Direction (for Q.Nos. 6 - 7):

Each question given below consists of a statement, followed by two arguments numbered I and II.
You have to decide which of the arguments is a 'strong' argument and which is a 'weak' argument.
Give answer:
(A) If only argument I is strong
(B) If only argument II is strong
(C) If either I or II is strong
(D) If neither I nor II is strong and
(E) If both I and II are strong.
6. Statement: Should there be students union in college/university?
Arguments:
No. This will create a political atmosphere in the campus.
Yes, it is very necessary Students are future political leaders.

A.
Only argument I is strong

B.
Only argument II is strong

C.
Either I or II is strong

D.
Neither I nor II is strong

E.
Both I and II are strong
[#]

7. Statement: Should family planning be made compulsory in India?

Arguments:
Yes. Looking to the miserable conditions in India, there is no other go.
No. In India there are people of various religions and family planning is against the tenets of
some of the religions.

A.
Only argument I is strong

B.
Only argument II is strong

C.
Either I or II is strong

D.
Neither I nor II is strong

E.
Both I and II are strong
[#]
Direction (for Q.No. 8):
In each of the following questions, two statements numbered I and II are given. There may be cause
and effect relationship between the two statements. These two statements may be the effect of the
same cause or independent causes. These statements may be independent causes without having
any relationship. Read both the statements in each question and mark your answer as
(A) If statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect;
(B) If statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect;
(C) If both the statements I and II are independent causes;
(D) If both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes; and
(E) If both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.
8. Statements:
The school authority has asked the X Std. students to attend special classes to be conducted on
Sundays.
The parents of the X Std. students have withdrawn their wards from attending private tuitions
conducted on Sundays.

A.
Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect

B.
Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect

C.
Both the statements I and II are independent causes

D.
Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes

E.
Both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause
[#]

Direction (for Q.No. 9):

In each series, look for the degree and direction of change between the numbers. In other words, do
the numbers increase or decrease, and by how much
9. Look at this series: 2, 6, 18, 54, ... What number should come next?

A.
108

B.
148

C.
162
 D.
216
[#]

Direction (for Q.No. 10):

Read the below passage carefully and answer the questions:
At a small company, parking spaces are reserved for the top executives: CEO, president, vice
president, secretary, and treasurer with the spaces lined up in that order. The parking lot guard can
tell at a glance if the cars are parked correctly by looking at the color of the cars. The cars are yellow,
green, purple, red, and blue, and the executives names are Alice, Bert, Cheryl, David, and Enid.
* The car in the first space is red.
* A blue car is parked between the red car and the green car.
* The car in the last space is purple.
* The secretary drives a yellow car.
* Alice's car is parked next to David's.
* Enid drives a green car.
* Bert's car is parked between Cheryl's and Enid's.
* David's car is parked in the last space.
10. What color is the vice president's car?

A.
green

B.
yellow

C.
blue

D.
purple

E.
red
[#]

Direction (for Q.No. 11):

In each question below is given a statement followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You
have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then consider the two conclusions together
and decide which of them logically follows beyond a reasonable doubt from the information given in
the statement.
Give answer:
(A) If only conclusion I follows
(B) If only conclusion II follows
(C) If either I or II follows
(D) If neither I nor II follows and
(E) If both I and II follow.
11. Statements: Any young man, who makes dowry as a condition for marriage, discredits himself
and dishonours womanhood.
Conclusions:
Those who take dowry in marriage should be condemned by society.
Those who do not take dowry in marriage respect womanhood.

A.
Only conclusion I follows

B.
Only conclusion II follows

C.
Either I or II follows

D.
Neither I nor II follows

E.
Both I and II follow
[#]

Direction (for Q.No. 12):

In each question below is given a statement followed by three courses of action numbered I, II and
III. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then decide which of the three given
suggested courses of action logically follows for pursuing.
12. Statement: There are more than 200 villages in the hill area of Uttar Pradesh which are severely
damaged due to cyclone and it causes an extra burden of Rs 200 crore on State Government for
relief and rehabilitation work.
Courses of Action:
People of hill area should be shifted to other safer places.
State Government should ask more financial support from Central Government.
Government should levy relief tax to the corporate sector to ease the additional burden.

A.
None follows

B.
Only I and II follow

C.
Only II and III follow

D.
Only I and III follow
 E.
None of these
[#]

Direction (for Q.Nos. 13 - 14):

In each question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II.
You have to assume everything in the statement to be true and on the basis of the information given
in the statement, decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.
Give answer
(A) If only I follows
(B) If only II follows
(C) If either I or II follows
(D) If neither I nor II follows
(E) If both I and II follow.
13. Statement: On an average, about twenty people are run over by trains and die every day while
crossing the railway tracks through the level crossing.
Courses of Action:
The railway authorities should be instructed to close all the level crossings.
Those who are found crossing the tracks, when the gates are closed, should be fined heavily

A.
Only I follows

B.
Only II follows

C.
Either I or II follows

D.
Neither I nor II follows

E.
Both I and II follow
[#]

14. Statement: The Asian Development Bank has approved a $285 million loan to finance a project
to construct coal ports by Paradip and Madras Port Trusts.
Courses of Action:
India should use financial assistance from other international financial organisations to develop
such ports in other places.
India should not seek such financial assistance from the international financial agencies.

A.
 Only I follows

B.
Only II follows

C.
Either I or II follows

D.
Neither I nor II follows

E.
Both I and II follow
[#]

Direction (for Q.No. 15):

The logic problems in this set present you with three true statements: Fact 1, Fact 2, and Fact 3.
Then, you are given three more statements (labeled I, II, and III), and you must determine which of
these, if any, is also a fact. One or two of the statements could be true; all of the statements could
be true; or none of the statements could be true. Choose your answer based solely on the
information given in the first three facts.
15.
Fact 1: Pictures can tell a story.
Fact 2: All storybooks have pictures.
Fact 3: Some storybooks have words.
If the first three statements are facts, which of the following statements must also be a fact?
I: Pictures can tell a story better than words can.
II: The stories in storybooks are very simple.
III: Some storybooks have both words and pictures.

A.
I only

B.
II only

C.
III only

D.
None of the statements is a known fact.
[#]

Direction (for Q.No. 16):

Every one of the following questions consists of a related pair of words, followed by five pairs of
words. Choose the pair that best represents a similar relationship to the one expressed in the
original pair of words.
16. PASTORAL : RURAL

A.
metropolitan : urban

B.
harvest : autumn

C.
agrarian : benevolent

D.
sleepy : nocturnal

E.
wild : agricultural
[#]

Direction (for Q.Nos. 17 - 19):

In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. You
have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions
is implicit in the statement.
Give answer
(A) If only assumption I is implicit
(B) If only assumption II is implicit
(C) If either I or II is implicit
(D) If neither I nor II is implicit
(E) If both I and II are implicit.
17. Statement: Municipal Corporation has decided to ban the entry of vehicles from sub-urban
areas to the main city through main routes during peak hours to avoid traffic congestion.
Assumptions:
The people of sub-urban areas should not bring their vehicles during peak hours.
There is no traffic congestion by the vehicles of people residing in the main city.

A.
Only assumption I is implicit

B.
Only assumption II is implicit

C.
Either I or II is implicit

D.
Neither I nor II is implicit
 E.
Both I and II are implicit
[#]

18. Statement: Science is a sort of news agency comparable in principle to other new agencies. But
this news agency gives us information which is reliable to an extraordinary high degree due to
elaborate techniques of verification and its capacity to survive centuries. So, science should be
read with as much interest as we read news.
Assumptions:
Science encourages investigative spirit.
People read news out of interest.

A.
Only assumption I is implicit

B.
Only assumption II is implicit

C.
Either I or II is implicit

D.
Neither I nor II is implicit

E.
Both I and II are implicit
[#]

19. Statement: Retired persons should not be appointed for executive posts in other organisations.
Assumptions:
Retired persons may lack the zeal and commitment to carry out executive's work.
Retired persons do not take interest in the work and welfare of the new organisation.

A.
Only assumption I is implicit

B.
Only assumption II is implicit

C.
Either I or II is implicit

D.
Neither I nor II is implicit
 E.
Both I and II are implicit
[#]

Direction (for Q.No. 20):

Each question given below consists of a statement, followed by three or four arguments numbered I,
II, III and IV. You have to decide which of the arguments is/are 'strong' arguments) and which is/are
'weak' arguments) and accordingly choose your answer from the alternatives given below each
question.
20. Statement: Should India immediately stop digging coal from its mines?
Arguments:
Yes. The present stock of coal will not last long if we continue mining at the present rate.
No. We do not have alternate energy source of sufficient quantity.
No. This will put millions of people at a disadvantage and their lives will get adversely affected
and also the industry.

A.
Only I and II are strong

B.
Only II and III are strong

C.
Only I and III are strong

D.
All are strong

E.
None is strong

21. Statements: Applications of applicants who do no fulfil eligibility criteria and/or who do not
submit applications before last date will be summarily rejected and will not be called for the written
test.

Conclusions:
I. Those who are called for the written test are those who fulfil eligibility criteria and have submitted
their applications before last date.
II. Written test will be held only after scrutiny of applications.

Only conclusion I follows

Only conclusion II follows

Either I or II follows
 Neither I nor II follows

Both I and II follow

P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting round the circle and are facing the centre: P is second to the right
of T who is the neighbour of R and V. S is not the neighbour of P. V is the neighbour of U. Q is not
between S and W. W is not between U and S.
22. Which one is immediate right to the V if the position of S and U are interchanged ?

P
U

T
R

None of These

23. Statement: The X-Airlines has decided to increase the passenger fare by 15 percent with
immediate effect.

Assumptions:
I. The demand for seats of X-Airlines may remain unchanged even after the hike of fare.
II. Other airline companies may also hike the passenger fares.

Only assumption I is implicit

Only assumption II is implicit

Either I or II is implicit
Neither I nor II is implicit

Both I and II are implicit

Below given a series of some five numbers :

446 362 576 495 241
Answer the following questions based on these numbers :

24. If the middle digit in all the numbers are removed, then which of the following number will be
minimum ?
 446
362

576
495

241

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
25. Meager : Adequate :: Condign : ?

Far
Prolific

Ache
Immoral

None of these

Direction : Each of the following question consists of a statement followed by 2 arguments I and
II.Give answer

a)if only argument I is strong

b)if only argument II is strong
c)if either I or II is strong
d)if neither I or II are strong
e)if both I and II follow

6. Statement : The gov announced a heavy compensation package for all the victims of the terrorist
attacks.

Arguments:

I. Such incidents of terror may not occur in near future

II. Compensation may mitigate the anger among the citizens against the government.

if only argument I is strong

 if only argument II is strong

if either I or II is strong
if neither I or II are strong

if both I and II follow

27. Statement: No budgetary provision for the purpose of appointing additional faculty would be
made in the context of institute's changed financial priorities.

Assumptions:
I. Appointment of faculty requires funds.
II. There are areas other than appointment of faculty which require more financial attention.

Only assumption I is implicit

Only assumption II is implicit

Either I or II is implicit
Neither I nor II is implicit

Both I and II are implicit

Eight friends, A , B , C , D , E , F , G and H are seated in a circular arrangement facing the center
(i) AC, DG , HE and FB are seated adjacent to each other. A is also seated adjacent to H
(ii) B is second to the right of H
(iii) E is third to the right of C
(iv) G is opposite to E

28. Who is seated at 2nd right of D ?

G
B

C
E

H
29. Statement: The government is making efforts to boost tourism in State X.

Assumptions:
I. Tourism in State X dropped following political unrest.
II. Special discounts in the air fare have been announced.

Only assumption I is implicit

Only assumption II is implicit

Either I or II is implicit
Neither I nor II is implicit

Both I and II are implicit

30. Pointing to a man, a woman said, "His mother is the only daughter of my mother." How is the
woman related to the man ?

Sister
Grand Mother

Grandfather
Mother

None of these

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
31. Rigid : Broken :: Admiration : ?

Jovial
Disrespect

Repentance
Chide
 None of these

32. From the given below sentences, what can you conclude with the statements I and II?

Some papers are books

All papers are words

Statement I : All words being book is a possibility

Statement II : Some words are not papers

Only I follows
Only II follows

Both I and II follows

neither I nor II follows

either I or II follows

33. What is Rakhi's position from the left end of a row?

I. There are 4 students between Gauri and Rakhi. Bhavna is 6th to the right of Gauri.
II. Gini is 6th to the left of Rakhi and is 2nd from the left end.

If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.

If the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

If the data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the
question.
If the data given in both I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

If the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Answer the following questions based on these conditions :

Five persons F,M,K,J,E are sitting in a straight row, not necessarily in the same order. M do not sit in
the middle and is the immediate left of J. F and J occupy the extreme positions. K sits between F and
E.

34. If the position of K and J are interchanged, which of the following option denotes the first two
people ?

EJ
FK

FE
ME

FJ

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
35. Precocious : Futile :: Exquisite : ?

Grandiose
Outburst

Careless
Lifeless

None of these

In the following questions,the symbols $,#,@,% and * are illustrate the following meanings.
P$Q – P is not smaller than Q
P#Q – P is neither greater than nor equal to Q.
P@Q – P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q.
P%Q – P is not greater than Q
P*Q – P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q.

36. Statements:
K#L,L%M,M*N,N#O

Conclusions:
I. K # M
II. K * M
III. L % O
 I only
Either I or II only

III only
All I, II and III

None is true

Five girls are sitting on a bench to be photographed. Seema is to the left of Rani and to the right of
Bindu. Mary is to the right of Rani. Reeta is between Rani and Mary.
37. Who are at the corners in the photograph?

Rani and Bindu

Seema and Mary

Bindu and Mary

Mary and Reeta
None of these

Based on the given statement and few conclusions, choose the right statement which gives the
correct conclusions.
38. Statements:

Some fruits are mangos.

All mangos are guavas.
No guava is a banana.

Conclusions:

I. All guavas are fruits.

II. Some guavas are fruits

If only conclusion I follows.

If only conclusion II follows.

If either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.

If both conclusions I and II follows.
None of these
39. Find the letter in the 12th position when the alphabets are written in alphabetical order

L
N

O
P

None of these

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
40. Giraffes : bleat :: Parrots : ?

growl
chirp/creak

squawk
wail

None of these

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
41. Absurd : Logical :: Imminent : ?

Avoidable
Unhealthy

Enough
Exhausted

None of these

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
42. Patronize : Stoop :: Lament : ?

Normality
Sorrow

Fair
Bad

None of these

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
43. Larks : warble :: Peacocks : ?

scream
grunt

caw
hum

None of these

44. If P denotes +, Q denotes *, R denotes / and S denotes -, then 18 Q 12 P 4 R 5 S 6 = ?

33
43

210.8
63

None of these

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
45. Find the missing Number -> 20 : 8001 :: 2: ?

4
9
 8
5

None of these

46. R, U, X, A, D, ?

F
G

H
I

None of these

47. Statement: What a fool I am to rely on trickster like Shaleen !

Assumptions:
I. Shaleen is unreliable.
II. I am a fool.

Only assumption I is implicit

Only assumption II is implicit

Either I or II is implicit
Neither I nor II is implicit

Both I and II are implicit

Eight friends, A , B , C , D , E , F , G and H are seated in a circular arrangement facing the center
(i) AC, DG , HE and FB are seated adjacent to each other. A is also seated adjacent to H
(ii) B is second to the right of H
(iii) E is third to the right of C
(iv) G is opposite to E
48. Who is seated exactly opposite to G ?

A
B

C
D

Based on the given details answer the following questions :

D lives between B and F.

E and A live on successive floors.
B lives in the topmost floor.
There is exactly one person between C and E.
There are exactly two people between F and G.

49. Who lives in the seventh floor ?

D
F

A
B

50. Find the odd one out

Mountain
Valley

Glacier
Coast

None of these
In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
51 . Fictitious : Authentic :: Rural : ?

Associate
Metropolitan

Fundamental
Chatter

None of these

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
52. Turkeys : gobble :: Frogs : ?

scream
croak

bleat
cluck

None of these

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
53. Captious : Encouraging :: Exceptional : ?

Premature
Standard

Exhausted
Strange
 None of these

54. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the same series as
established by the five

1
2

3
4

55. Statements: Wind is an inexhaustible source of energy and an aerogenerator can convert it into
electricity. Though not much has been done in this field, the survey shows that there is vast potential
for developing wind as alternative source of energy.

Conclusions:
I. Energy by wind is comparatively newly emerging field.
II. The energy crisis can be dealt by exploring more in the field of aero-generation.

Only conclusion I follows

Only conclusion II follows

Either I or II follows
Neither I nor II follows

Both I and II follow

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
56. Bad : Evil :: Pillage : ?

Plunder
Beginning

Idleness
Apathetic

None of these

57. Statement: Kartik left for Delhi on Tuesday by train to attend a function to be held on Friday at
his uncle's house in Delhi.

Assumptions:
I. Kartik may reach Delhi on Wednesday.
II. Kartik may reach Delhi before Friday.

Only assumption I is implicit

Only assumption II is implicit

Either I or II is implicit
Neither I nor II is implicit

Both I and II are implicit

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
58. Cursory : Desultory :: Conversant : ?

Acquainted
Close

Disease
 Advantage

None of these

59. Find the odd one out

Again
Before

Now
After

None of these

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
60. Vehemence : Force :: Abbreviate : ?

Common
Dreary

Cease
Compress

None of these

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
61. Choleric : Calm :: Fury : ?

Holy
Ample
 Gloomy
Glee

None of these

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
62. Adherent : Devotee :: Exquisite : ?

Action
Abet

Elegant
Calm

None of these

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
63. Fate : Doom :: Prate : ?

Adequate
Chatter

Disbelief
Depressed

None of these
64. Find the number of triangles in the given figure:

16
15

14
13

None of these

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
65. Rebellion : Accept :: Ricochet : ?

Biased
Abnormal

Filthy
Destroy

None of these

These questions are based on the following arrangement of letter, number and symbol.

T74AGHK#5QR%23DF*LM6BE8@I$PV9
66. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement each of which immediately
preceded by a numerical?

None
One
 Two
Three

More than three

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
67. Jubilant : Depressed :: Quick : ?

Esteem
Devotee

Talkative
Clumsy

None of these

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
68. Rigid : Stiff :: Ally : ?

Depressed
Closing

Bright
Associate

None of these

69. In a certain code, RIPPLE is written as 613382 and LIFE is written as 8192. How is PILLER written
in that code ?

318826
 318286

618826
338816

None of these

70. Statement: Beware of dogs, our dogs do not bark, but they are trained to distinguish between
genuine guests and intruders.

Assumptions:
I. Barking dogs bite rarely.
II. Our dogs could be dangerous for intruders.

Only assumption I is implicit

Only assumption II is implicit

Either I or II is implicit
Neither I nor II is implicit

Both I and II are implicit

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
71. Impertinent : Irrelevant :: Ulterior : ?

Antagonist
Neglect

Concealed
Certain

None of these
Two statements I and II are given. These statements may be either independent causes or may be
effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the
other statements. Read both the statements and decide which of the following answer choice
correctly depicts the relationship between these two statements.
72. Statements:

I. Rural and semi-urban areas in the country have been suffering due to load-shedding for quite
some time.

II. If the Government is not able to overcome the power crisis, load-shedding will be extended even
to the urban areas.

Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.

Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect.

Both the statements I and II are independent causes.

Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes.

Both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.

73. Find the odd one out

Wood
Cork

Stone
Paper

None of these

In each of the following questions two statements are given and these statements are followed by
two conclusions numbered (1) and (2). You have to take the given two statements to be true even if
they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read the conclusions and then decide
which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding
commonly known facts.
Give answer:
(A) If only conclusion (1) follows
(B) If only conclusion (2) follows
(C) If either (1) or (2) follows
(D) If neither (1) nor (2) follows and
(E) If both (1) and (2) follow.

74. Statements: All the trucks are flies. Some scooters are flies.

Conclusions:

1. All the trucks are scooters.

2. Some scooters are trucks.

Only conclusion (1) follows

Only conclusion (2) follows

Either (1) or (2) follows

Neither (1) nor (2) follows

Both (1) and (2) follow

Two statements I and II are given. These statements may be either independent causes or may be
effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the
other statements. Read both the statements and decide which of the following answer choice
correctly depicts the relationship between these two statements.
75. Statements:

I. The State Government has announced special tax package for the new industries to be set-up in
the State.

II. Last year the State Government had hiked the taxes for all industrial activities in the State.

. Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.

Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect.

Both the statements I and II are independent causes.

Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes
 Both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
76. Duck : duckling :: Pigeon : ?

poult
squab / squeaker

piglet
cub

None of these

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
77. Beg : Implore :: Quip : ?

Disagreement
Logical

Lucid
Retort

None of these

78. Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the mirror image of the given combination.

1
2
 3
4

None of These

79. One evening before sunset Rekha and Hema were talking to each other face to face. If Hema's
shadow was exactly to the right of Hema, which direction was Rekha facing?

North
South

East
Data Inadequate

None of These

80. If train is called bus, bus is called tractor, tractor is called car, car is called scooter, scooter is
called bicycle, bicycle is called moped, which is used to plough a field ?

Train
Bus

Tractor
Car

None of these

Study the following information to answer the given questions:

In a certain code, 'always create new ideas‘ is written as ‘ba ri sha gi‘ , 'ideas and new thoughts‘ is
written as 'fa gi ma ri‘, 'create thoughts and insights‘ is written as 'ma jo ba fa‘, and 'new and better
solutions‘ is written as 'ki ri to fa‘.

81. What is the code for 'new'?

 ki
ri

to
fa

ba

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
82. Immaterial : Unimportant :: Decay : ?

Definite
Frankness

Wither
Disconnect

None of these

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
83. Quarantined : Gang :: Statute : ?

Lawlessness
Devoted

Holy
Elated

None of these

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
84. Poignant : Touching :: Relevant : ?
 Execute
Calm

Common
Fairness

None of these

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
85. Vilify : Malign :: Condign : ?

Deserved
Avoidable

Unfriendly
Building

None of these

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
86. Colossal : Enormous :: Veto : ?

Aid
Closing

Reject
Gang

None of these

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
87. Vehemence : Force :: Abet : ?

Ceasing
Aid

Inessential
Building

None of these

88. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the same series as
established by the five figure

1
2

3
4

Direction: Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the question given below:

U9PI%18R4$ME7QW3δZ5T#A2J
89. Which of the following is eleventh to the right of the nineteenth element from the right end?

1
Δ

7
 %

None of the above

Read the following information carefully to answer the following question:

‘P # Q’ means ‘P is the daughter of Q’

‘P © Q’ means ‘Q is the brother of P’
‘P = Q’ means ‘Q is the sister of P’
‘P & Q’ means ‘P is the son of Q’
‘P * Q’ means ‘P is the father of Q’
‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is the mother of Q’

90. Which of the following can be the correct conclusion drawn from the expression
‘L = M # N © P * Q’?

Q is the grandson of M
L is the uncle of N

N is the uncle of Q
Q is the niece of N

None of these

Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting in circular arrangements. E is fourth to the right of B.
A is to the third right of E. D is between A and F. C is fourth to the left of A. H is between G and C.
91. C is sitting between ?

AF
HE

BD
GB

None of these
92.
Statements: Fashion is a form of ugliness so intolerable that we have to alter it every six months.
Conclusions:
I. Fashion designers do not understand the public mind very well.
II. The public by and large is highly susceptible to novelty.

Only conclusion I follows

Only conclusion II follows

Either I or II follows
Neither I nor II follows

Both I and II follow

A “grammar” teacher instructs her students with the following inputs for re statement as per given
rules:

Input: Cigarette smoking is injurious to health.

Rule 1—Smoking of cigarette is injurious to health

Rule 2—Cigarette when smoked injurious health
Rule 3—Health is injured due to smoking
Rule 4—Smoking in any form is injurious to health

93. Rule 4 on an input is “coachings in any form are beneficial

for the students”; what would be Rule 1 for the input?

Taking of coachings is beneficial to the students

Coaching when taken, benefit the student

Students are benefited due to coachings

Data inadequate

None of these
In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
94. Quirk : Normality :: Wistful : ?

Fraud
Unusual

Destroy
Cheerful

None of these

95. Ann walks 4 miles in the direction of west then he turns to his right and walks further 3 miles,
how far is he exactly from the starting point (in miles) ?

6
7

5
5.5

4.5

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
96. Abject : Commendable :: Lament : ?

Relieve
Snare

Perpetual
Reject

None of these
97. Each question presents a situation and asks you to make a judgment regarding that particular
circumstance. Choose an answer based on given information.

Mrs. Carson took a taxi to meet her three friends for lunch. They were waiting for her outside the
restaurant when she pulled up in the car. She was so excited to see her friends that she left her tote
bag in the taxi. As the taxi pulled away, she and her friends took notice of the license plate number
so they would be able to identify the car when they called the taxi company.

#1: The four women seem to agree that the plate starts out with the letter J.

#2: Three of them agree that the plate ends with 12L.

#3: Three of them think that the second letter is X, and a different three think that the third letter is
K.

The four license plate numbers below represent what each of the four women thinks she saw. Which
one is most likely the license plate number of the taxi?

JXK 12L
JYK 12L

JXK 12I
JXX 12L
None of these

P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting round the circle and are facing the centre: P is second to the right
of T who is the neighbour of R and V. S is not the neighbour of P. V is the neighbour of U. Q is not
between S and W. W is not between U and S.
98. By counting clockwise, how many people are seated between P and V?

1
2

3
4

None of These
99. Statement: Doordarshan is concerned about the quality of its programmes particularly in view of
stiff competition it is facing from STAR and other satellite TV channels and is contemplating various
measures to attract talent for its programmes.

Courses of Action:
I. In an effort to attract talent, the Doordarshan has decided to revise its fee structure for the artists.
II. The fee structure should not be revised until other electronic media also revise it.

Only I follows
Only II follows

Either I or II follows
Neither I nor II follows
Both I and II follow

100. Statement: "According to me, you should get your child examined by a specialist doctor." - A
tells B.

Assumptions:
I. Specialist doctors are able to diagnose better than ordinary doctors.
II. B will certainly not agree with A's advice.

Only assumption I is implicit

Only assumption II is implicit

Either I or II is implicit
Neither I nor II is implicit

Both I and II are implicit

101. What is the two-digit number whose first digit is "a" and the second digit is "b"?. The number is
greater than 9.
I. The number is multiple of 51.
II. The sum of the digits "a" and "b" is 6.
 I alone sufficient while II alone not sufficient to answer
II alone sufficient while I alone not sufficient to answer

Either I or II alone sufficient to answer

Both I and II are not sufficient to answer

Both I and II are necessary to answer

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
102. Base : Aristocratic :: Exquisite : ?

Stiff
Careless

Refuse
Painstaking

None of these

103. Carl walks 24 miles in the direction of west then he turns to his right and walks further 7 miles,
how far is he exactly from the starting point (in miles) ?

26
25

24
25.5

24.5
Instructions:
A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers
rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and
rearrangement.

Input: some found 19 other 99 27 came 45

Step 1 : came some found 19 other 99 27 45

Step 2 : came 99 some found 19 other 27 45
Step 3 : came 99 found some 19 other 27 45
Step 4 : came 99 found 45 some 19 other 27
Step 5 : came 99 found 45 other some 19 27
Step 6 : came 99 found 45 other 27 some 19

Step 6 is the last step of the rearrangement of the above input. As per the rules followed in the
above illustration, for the following questions, find the appropriate step for the given input.
104. Step 2 of an input is : earn 77 39 47 hero gold 29 more

Which of the following is definitely the input?

47 77 39 earn hero gold 29 more

29 39 77 47 hero gold earn more

hero 29 39 77 47 gold earn more

Cannot be determined

None of the above

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
105. Humane : Aloof :: Therapeutics : ?

Zest
Destroy

Disease
Exhausted

None of these
106. If A is coded as -, B is coded as +, C is coded as * and D is coded as / then evaluate 7 A 4 B 8 C 10
D 4 C 5?

104
103

113
123

93

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
107. Ricochet : Rebound :: Blessing : ?

Blame
Development

Animated
Benediction

None of these

108. Catherine walks 4 miles in the direction of west then he turns to his right and walks further 3
miles, how far is he exactly from the starting point (in miles) ?

6
7

5
5.5

4.5
In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
109. Find the missing Number -> 111 : 223 :: 103: ?

205
204

207
208

None of these

110. Find out the alternative figure which contains (X) as its part

1
2

3
4

None of the above

111. Rita told Mani, "The girl I met yesterday at the beach was the youngest brother of the brother-
in-law of my friend's mother." How is the girl related to Rita's friend?

Cousin
Daughter

Niece
 Friend

Aunt

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
112. Base : Ignoble :: Bedlam : ?

Chaos
Authentic

Blame
Calm

None of these

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
113. Humane : Aloof :: Vilify : ?

Laud
Filthy

Forgo
Disprove

None of these

114. Based on the given statement and few conclusions, choose the right statement which gives the
correct conclusions.

Statements:
Some apples are oranges.
All oranges are grapes.
Some grapes are lichis.
No pine is orange
Conclusions:
I. All pines being grapes is a possibility
II. All apples being pines is a possibility
III. No orange is lichi.

Only I and III follow

Only I follow.

Only either I or II follows

All follows.

None of these

115. Statement: A large number of students are reported to be dropping out of school in villages as
their parents want their children to help them in farms.

Courses of Action:
I. The government should immediately launch a programme to create awareness among the farmers
about the value of education.
II. The government should offer incentives to those farmers whose children remain in schools.
III. Education should be made compulsory for all children up to the age of 14 and their employment
banned.

Only I and II follow

Only II and III follow

Only I and III follow

All follow

None of these

116. Find out how will the key figure (X) look like after rotation.

1
 2

3
4

None of these

Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting in circular arrangements. E is fourth to the right of B.
A is to the third right of E. D is between A and F. C is fourth to the left of A. H is between G and C.
117. Who is seated immediately next to A ?

G
H

C
B

None of these

Two statements I and II are given. These statements may be either independent causes or may be
effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the
other statements. Read both the statements and decide which of the following answer choice
correctly depicts the relationship between these two statements.
118. Statements:

I. The university authority has instructed all the colleges under its jurisdiction to ban use of cell
phones inside the college premises.

II. Majority of the teachers of the college signed a joint petition to the university complaining the
disturbances caused by cell phone ring tones inside the classrooms.

Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect

Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect.

Both the statements I and II are independent causes

Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes
 Both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.

119. Statements: Recent trends also indicate that the number of child migrants in large cities is
increasing. These children leave their families to join the ranks of urban poor doing odd jobs in
markets, workshops, hotels or in service sectors.

Conclusions:
I. Migration to big cities should be checked.
II. The plight of poor children should be thoroughly studied.

Only conclusion I follows

Only conclusion II follows

Either I or II follows
Neither I nor II follows

Both I and II follow

Study the following information to answer the given questions:

‘A @ B’ means A is not smaller than B

‘A # B’ means A is neither smaller than nor equal to B
‘A % B’ means A is neither smaller than nor greater than B
‘A $ B’ means A is not greater than B
‘A * B’ means A is neither greater than nor equal to B

120. Statements:
P * Q, Q # K, K $ J, J % T

Conclusions:
1) T @ K
2) P # K

If only conclusion 1 is true

If only conclusion 2 is true

If either conclusion 1 or 2 is true

If neither conclusion 1 nor 2 is true
 If both conclusions 1 and 2 are true

Answer the following questions based on the given data.

Among the six persons A,B,C,D,E and F each have different weight.C is lighter than only A. D is
heavier than 3 persons, E is lighter than F. The second heaviest person is of 74 kg and the second
lightest person is of 41 kg. E is not the lightest.
121. After arranging the person in ascending order of their weight find the person who comes
immediately after E.

B
D

C
F

None of these

Study the following information to answer the given questions.

A word arrangement machine when given an input line of words, rearranges them following a
particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of the input and the steps of
rearrangement.

Input : going but for crept te light sir

Step I : crept going but for te light sir

Step II: crept going light but for te sir
Step III: crept going light but for sir te
(Step III is the last step for this input)
As per the rules followed in the above steps,
find out in the given questions the appropriate step
for the given input.

122. Which of the following steps would read as

'not you only say wise yet are' for the input
'say not you are only wise yet'?

III
 V

VI
VII

None of these

Among the six persons P, Q, R, S, T and U each have different weight. U is heavier than 3 persons,
T is lighter than P. Q is lighter than only R. T is not the lightest. The second heaviest person is of 65
kg and the second lightest person is of 33 kg.

123. After arranging the person in ascending order of their weight find the person in second
position?

T
P

U
Q

None of the above

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
124. Seals : bark :: Hens : ?

cluck
croak

hoot
trumpet

None of these

Workspace
In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
125. Cajole : Deceive :: Notorious : ?

Cease
Cheerful

Indulgence
Infamous

None of these

Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below

A + B means A is brother of B
A - B means A is father of B
A * B means A is uncle of B
A / B means A is sister of B

126. From the given expression P - Q + R / S which of the following is true?

P is the aunt of S
P is the son of S

P is the maternal uncle of S

P is the father of S

None of the above

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
127. Larks : warble :: Dolphins : ?

cluck
click

bleat
 crow

None of these

In the following questions,the symbols $,#,@,% and * are illustrate the following meanings.
P$Q – P is not smaller than Q
P#Q – P is neither greater than nor equal to Q.
P@Q – P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q.
P%Q – P is not greater than Q
P*Q – P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q.
128. Statement: A*B , B@C , C$D , D#E

Conclusions: I. A @ D II. D * A III. E @ C

Either I or II only
I and II only

I only
II and III only

None is true

A, B, C, D, E, and F are sitting around a circular table facing the center. D is between C and F; B is to
the left of A; B is diagonally opposite to D; and E is between C and B.
129. How many people are seated between E and A if counted clockwise?

1
2

4
3

None of these

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
130. Horses : neigh :: Cats : ?

scream
quack

howl
meow

None of these

Direction : Each of the following question consists of a statement followed by 2 arguments I and
II.Give answer

a)if only argument I is strong

b)if only argument II is strong
c)if either I or II is strong
d)if neither I or II are strong
e)if both I and II follow

131. Statement : Three persons were caught with huge arms and ammunition in the city

Arguments:

I . The police should be instructed for night patrolling

II. The three persons should be set free and their movements should be carefully watched to nab the
other criminals

if only argument I is strong

if only argument II is strong

if either I or II is strong
if neither I or II are strong

if both I and II follow

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
132. Ephemeral : Transient :: Utopian : ?
 Idealistic
Ceasing

Depressed
Disagreement

None of these

133. One evening before sunset Rekha and Hema were talking to each other face to face. If Hema's
shadow was exactly to the right of Hema, which direction was Rekha facing?

North
Error! Not a valid embedded object. South

East
Data Inadequate

None of These

Six friends are sitting in a circle and are facing the centre of the circle. Deepa is between Prakash and
Pankaj. Priti is between Mukesh and Lalit. Prakash and Mukesh are opposite to each other. Prakash
is at the right of Deepa.
134. Who are the neighbours of Mukesh ?

Prakash and Deepa

Deepa and Priti

Priti and Pankaj

Lalit and Priti

None of these

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
135. Veracity : Truth :: Condign : ?

Definite
Boring

Deserved
Mercy

None of these

Direction: Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the question given below:

F8E7S9AQ2KMZ$6%*VL8@W4B35#UC
136. Which of the following is seventh to the right of the twenty-first from the right end of the above
arrangement?

6
$

*
%

None of the above

137. ATTRIBUTION, TTRIBUTIO, RIBUTIO, IBUTI, ?

IBU
UT

UTI
BUT

None of these
138. A, I, P, V, A, E, ?

E
F

G
H

None of these

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
139. Haughty : Arrogant :: Acclaim : ?

Certain
Applause

Good
Development

None of these

Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:

i) Akram, Bakhtawar, Changez, Dayud, Ekam, Farah, Gulrej and Humayun are seated in straight line
facing north.
ii) Changez sits fourth to the left of Gulrej. Dayud sits second to right of Gulrej.
iii) Only two people sit between Dayud and Akram. Bakhtawar and Farah sits adjacent to each other.
iv) Humayun is not an immediate neighbor of Dayud.

140. How many persons are seated between Akram and Ekam?

One
Error! Not a valid embedded object. Two

Three
Four

None of The Above

141. Find the odd one out

Hypothesis
Assumption

Observation
Experiment

None of these

142. Statement: Large number of people have become critically ill after consuming spurious liquor
from a local shop.

Courses of Action:
I. The Government should immediately close down all the shops selling liquor till the stocks are
tested for presence of toxicity.
II. The owner of the liquor shop should be asked to leave the town and open a shop elsewhere.
III. The owner of the liquor shop should immediately be arrested and tried for criminal negligence.

Only I and II follow

Only II and III follow

Only III follows

Only I and III follow

All follow
In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
143. Aberration : Normality :: Decay : ?

Scheme
Destroy

Development
Ache

None of these

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
144. Cruelty : Tyranny :: Absurd : ?

Ridiculous
Compassionate

Avoidable
Affluent

None of these

145. How is D related to A

Uncle
Sister

Niece
Cousin

None of these
In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
146. Butterfly : caterpillar :: Mole : ?

cygnet
hatchling, chick

calf
pup

None of these

Read the following information and answer the following question:

A – B means A is wife of B
A ÷ B means A is mother of B
A + B means A is son of B
A × B means A is brother of B

147. What does X+Y-Z mean ?

Z is the father of X
Z is the son of X

Z is the uncle of X
Z is the brother of X

None of these

148. Rita told Mani, "The girl I met yesterday at the beach was the youngest brother of the brother-
in-law of my friend's mother." How is the girl related to Rita's friend?

Cousin
Daughter

Niece
 Friend

Aunt

Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. A number arrangement machine
when given an input of words, rearranges them following a particular rule in each step.

The following is an illustration of input and steps of rearrangement.

Input: above has worked but as Marketing officer

Step I: above as has worked but Marketing officer

Step II: above as but has worked Marketing officer
Step III: above as but has Marketing worked officer
Step IV: above as but has Marketing officer worked
This is the final arrangement and step IV is the last step for this input

149. Which of the following is step III of given input?

Input: who assembled and saw tiny living things

and assembled who saw tiny living things

and assembled who saw things living tiny

and who assembled saw tiny living things

Cannot be determined

None of these

Input: 51 pour 31 star new 23 47 home

Step 1 : 23 51 pour 31 star new 47 home
Step 2 : 23 star 51 pour 31 new 47 home
Step 3 : 23 star 31 51 pour new 47 home
Step 4 : 23 star 31 pour 51 new 47 home
Step 5 : 23 star 31 pour 47 51 new home
Step 6 : 23 star 31 pour 47 new 51 home
150. Step 2 of an input is : 17 victory 19 37 58 store like town
which of the following will be step 3?

17 victory 19 town store 37 58 like

17 victory 19 town 37 store 58 like

17 victory 19 town 37 58 store like

There will be no such step

None of these

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
151. Bedlam : Harmony :: Qualm : ?

Jovial
Arrogant

Calm
Close

None of these

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
152. Find the missing one: GI : HJ :: OQ : ?

PS
PR

PQ
QR

None of these
In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
153. Tiger : cub :: Dinosaur : ?

hatchling / juvenile
chick

calf
infant

None of these

154. Find the letter in the 8th position when the alphabets are written in alphabetical order from the
right

P
Q

S
O

None of these

155. Directions-
P © Q means P is not smaller than Q
P % Q means P is not greater than Q
P # Q means P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q
P @ Q means P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q
P $ Q means P is neither greater than nor equal to Q

From the conditions given below, choose the correct option.

R # D and D © K, K $ M.

Statement I. M # R
Statement II. K $ R
 If only conclusion I is true
If only conclusion II is true

If either I or II is true
If neither I nor II is true

If both I and II are true

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
156. Constant : Broken :: Abhor : ?

Chatter
Concealed

Admire
Search

None of these

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
157. Chicken : chick :: Pig : ?

foal
lamb

piglet
pup / calf

None of these
158. If A is coded as +, B is coded as -, C is coded as * and D is coded as / then evaluate 8 A 3 B 2 C 24
D 4 C 3?

-25
-23

-15
-5

-35

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
159. Charlatan : Honest :: Quaint : ?

Lively
Moderate

Common
Groove

None of these

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
160. Penalize : Aid :: Philanthropist : ?

Acquire
Opponent

Revengeful
Conduct

None of these
161. Look at this series: 21, 9, 21, 11, 21, 13, 21, ... What number should come next ?

14
15

21
23

None of these

Direction: Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the question given below :

W1R%4JE#7MT2I9BH3A$9FQ5DG6USP
162. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way on the basis of above arrangement and
hence form a group. Which one does not belong to that group?

RW4
5FG

9QA
3B$

7ET

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
163. Vehemence : Calm :: Quest : ?

Dainty
Repeat

Artless
Retreat

None of these
164. When Anuj saw Manish, he recalled, "He is the son of the father of my daughter." Who is
Manish ?

Brother-in-law
Brother

Cousin
Uncle

None of these

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
165. Thrive : Cease :: Picturesque : ?

Arrogant
Dreary

Despise
Derisive

None of these

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
166. Bait : Discouragement :: Intimate : ?

Holy
Angry

Unfriendly
Peak

None of these
167. In a class of some students standing in a straight line , the position of David is 31st from left end
and 21st from right end. How many students are there in the class ?

52
55

50
51

53

P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting round the circle and are facing the centre:
P is second to the right of T who is the neighbour of R and V.
S is not the neighbour of P.
V is the neighbour of U.
Q is not between S and W. W is not between U and S.
U is the right of S.

168. Which one is immediate right to the V ?

P
U

T
R

None of These

169. A, B, C, D, E, F and G are members of a family consisting of four adults and three children, two
of whom, F and G are girls. A and D are brothers and A is a doctor. E is an engineer married to one of
the brothers and has two children. B is married to D and G is their child. Who is C?

E's daughter
 F's father

G's brother
A's son

None of these

Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:

Seven people P, Q, R, S, T, W and X are sitting in a straight line facing North, not necessarily in the
same order. R sits at one of the extreme ends of the line. T has as many people sitting on his right, as
on his left. S sits third to the left of X. Q sits on the immediate left of W. Q does not sit at any of the
extreme ends of the line.

170. If all the people are made to sit in alphabetical order from right to left, the positions of how
many people will remain unchanged?

Five
One

Three
Error! Not a valid embedded object. Two

None of these

Six friends A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around the hexagonal table each at one corner and facing
the center of the table.
A is second to the left of F.
B is the neighbour of C and D.
E is second to the left of D.

171. Find the third person to the right of F?

A
B

C
D
 E

172. Find the number of triangles in the given figure:

21
23

25
27

None of these

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
173. Bees : hum and buzz :: Larks : ?

bleat
coo

cluck
warble

None of these

174. Among M, N, O ,P and Q each securing different marks in an examination, whose position is last
among them.
I.P has secured less marks than only O and Q
II.N has secured more marks than M

If the data in statement I alone are sufficient

If the data in statement II alone are sufficient

If the data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer
If the data given in both I and II together are not sufficient

If the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer

In a class of 100 students, some students participate in sports, dance and music.
Dance : 40 people
Sports : 28 people
Music : 48 people
Dance and Musics : 16 people
Music and Sports : 14 people
Sports and Dance : 9 people
All activities : 5 people
With the given information answer the following questions :
175. How many students did not take part in any of these activities ?

14
24

16
18

20

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
176. Ulterior : Expressed :: Radiant : ?

Dull
Warlike

Jovial
 Revengeful

None of these

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
177. Bigoted : Biased :: Ingenuous : ?

Advantage
Blame

Artless
Foolish

None of these

178. Statement: "If you are a mechanical engineer, we want you as our supervisor." - An
advertisement by Company X.

Assumptions:
I. Mechanical engineers are expected to be better performers by Company X.
II. The Company X needs supervisors.
III. Mechanical engineers may get attracted and apply to Company X.

Only I and II are implicit

Only II and III are implicit

Only I and III are implicit

All are implicit

None of these

Based on the given details answer the following questions

Charlie lives in the topmost floor. There is exactly one person between Ben and Annie. There are
exactly two people between Feroz and David. Annie and Elly live on successive floors. Gina lives
between Charlie and Feroz.

179. How many people live between David and Charlie?

5
3

2
1

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
180. Precocious : Premature :: Questionable : ?

Blockage
Hatred

Quiet
Doubtful

None of these

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
181. Urge : Appetite :: Jubilant : ?

Elated
Authentic

Building
Calm

None of these
182. Y, B, T, G, O, ?

N
M

L
K

None of these

183. Statement: The civic authority has advised the residents in the area to use mosquito repellents
or sleep inside nets as large number of people are suffering from malaria.

Assumptions:
I. Local residents have enough money to arrange for the repellents or nets.
II. People may ignore and continue to get mosquito bites as they have other pressing needs.

Only assumption I is implicit

Only assumption II is implicit

Either I or II is implicit
Neither I nor II is implicit

Both I and II are implicit

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
184. Elephants : trumpet :: Humans : ?

talk
wail

roar
bleat

None of these
185. Statements: Company X has marketed the product. Go ahead; purchase it if price and quality
are your considerations.

Conclusions:
I. The product must be good in quality.
II. The price of the product must be reasonable.

Only conclusion I follows

Only conclusion II follows

Either I or II follows
Neither I nor II follows

Both I and II follow

Read the following information and answer the following question:

‘A $ B’ means ‘A is mother of B’
‘A # B’ means ‘A is father of B’
‘A @ B’ means ‘A is husband of B’
‘A % B’ means ‘A is daughter of B
186. L @ H $ J # T indicates what relationship of L with T?

Paternal Grandmother
Maternal Grandmother

Paternal Grandfather
Maternal Grandfather

None of these

187. Statements: A bird in hand is worth two in the bush.

Conclusions:
I. We should be content with what we have.
II. We should not crave for what is not.
 Only conclusion I follows
Only conclusion II follows

Either I or II follows
Neither I nor II follows

Both I and II follow

188.
Below question contains few statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to
assume everything in the statement to be true, then consider the two conclusions together and
decide which of them logically follows beyond a reasonable doubt from the information given in the
statement.

Statements:
Some wins are trophies.
Some trophies are cups.
No cup is a prize.

Conclusion:
I. At least some cups are wins.
II. All prizes being trophies is a possibility.

if only conclusion I follows

if only conclusion II follows

if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows

if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows

if both the conclusion I and conclusion II follows

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
189. Wistful : Cheerful :: Remote : ?

Talkative
Exile
 Close
Forgo

None of these

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
190. Astonish : Clear up :: Blame : ?

Adapt
Antiquated

Chatter
Acquittal

None of these

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
191. Picturesque : Dreary :: Crafty : ?

Groove
Delight

Ridiculous
Foolish

None of these

813 479 564 358

192. If the 1st and 3rd digits are interchanged, which number will be of maximum value ?

813
 479

564
358

None of these

193. Statements: Population increase coupled with depleting resources is going to be the scenario of
many developing countries in days to come.

Conclusions:
I. The population of developing countries will not continue to increase in future.
II. It will be very difficult for the governments of developing countries to provide its people decent
quality of life.

Only conclusion I follows

Only conclusion II follows

Either I or II follows
Neither I nor II follows

Both I and II follow

194. Statement: Footpaths of a busy road are crowded with vendors selling cheap items.

Courses of Action:
I. The help of police should be sought to drive them away.
II. Some space should be provided to them where they can earn their bread without blocking
footpaths.

Only I follows
Only II follows

Either I or II follows
Neither I nor II follows
 Both I and II follow

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
195. Find the missing one: VU : YX :: WV : ?

ZU
RR

ZR
ZV

None of these

196. What is the missing number in the hexagon ?

40
41

45
43

None of the above

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
197. Horse : foal :: Butterfly : ?

piglet
duckling

caterpillar
 cub

None of these

Directions :-
‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’
‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’
‘P # Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’
‘P & Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’
‘P * Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’

198. Statements:
N & B, B $ W, W # H, H * M
Conclusions:
I.M @ W
II.H @ N
III.W & N
IV.W # N

Only I is true
Only III is true

Only IV is true
Only either III or IV are true

Only either III or IV and I are true

A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around circle and are facing the center.
a. A is second to the right of E who is neighbor of C and G
b. D is not neighbor of A
c. G is neighbor of F
d. D is between H and F
Answer the following questions based on this given data

199. Find the person who sits immediate right of D ?

F
 H

G
E

None of the above

200. If A is coded as -, B is coded as +, C is coded as * and D is coded as / then evaluate 8 A 1 B 1 C

36 D 5 C 3 ?

29.6
30.6

38.6
28.6

18.6

Based on the given details answer the following questions:

Charlie lives in the topmost floor. There is exactly one person between Ben and Annie. There are
exactly two people between Feroz and David. Annie and Elly live on successive floors. Gina lives
between Charlie and Feroz.

201. Who lives in the seventh floor ?

Gina
Feroz

Elly
Charlie

David
Input: 51 pour 31 star new 23 47 home
Step 1 : 23 51 pour 31 star new 47 home
Step 2 : 23 star 51 pour 31 new 47 home
Step 3 : 23 star 31 51 pour new 47 home
Step 4 : 23 star 31 pour 51 new 47 home
Step 5 : 23 star 31 pour 47 51 new home
Step 6 : 23 star 31 pour 47 new 51 home
202. Step 2 of an input is : 17 victory 19 37 58 store like town
which of the following will be step 3?

17 victory 19 town store 37 58 like

17 victory 19 town 37 store 58 like

17 victory 19 town 37 58 store like

There will be no such step

None of these

203. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the same series as
established by the five figure

1
2

3
4

204. In a row of trees, a tree is 34th from left end and 15th from right end. How many trees are
there in the row?
 49
52

48
51

50

In each of the following questions two statements are given and these statements are followed by
two conclusions numbered (1) and (2). You have to take the given two statements to be true even if
they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read the conclusions and then decide
which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding
commonly known facts.

Give answer:
(A) If only conclusion (1) follows
(B) If only conclusion (2) follows
(C) If either (1) or (2) follows
(D) If neither (1) nor (2) follows and
(E) If both (1) and (2) follow.

205. Statements: All the windows are doors. No door is a wall.

Conclusions:

1. Some windows are walls.

2. No wall is a door.

Only conclusion (1) follows

Only conclusion (2) follows

Either (1) or (2) follows

Neither (1) nor (2) follows

Both (1) and (2) follow

Below given a series of some five numbers: 485 351 517 432 202
Answer the following questions based on these numbers:
206. If the middle digit in all the numbers are removed, then which of the following number will be
maximum ?

485
351

517
432

202

207. Which direction is Puneet facing?

I. If Puneet turns 135o to his right, he will be facing West.
II. If Puneet turns 45o to his right, he will be in the opposite direction of Suresh who is facing North.

If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.

If the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

If the data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the
question.
If the data given in both I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

If the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
208. Insidious : Cunning :: Poignant : ?

Agitated
Inessential

Continue
Touching
 None of these

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
209. Urbane : Unrefined :: Abstemious : ?

Religious
Gluttonous

Unhealthy
Absolve

None of these

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
210. Extravagant : Grandiose :: Lively : ?

Bore
Definite

Active
Close

None of these

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
211. Rigid : Stiff :: Quick : ?

Inappropriate
Common

Alive
 Avoidable

None of these

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
212. Perennial : Ceasing :: Affliction : ?

Chide
Delight

Advantage
Forbearing

None of these

213. If in a certain language, GRASP is coded as BMVNK, Which word would be coded as CRANE ?

FUDQH
HWFSJ

GVERI
XMVIZ

None of these

In each of the following questions there are three statements. Which are followed by three or four
conclusions. Choose the conclusions which logically follow from the given statements.
214. Statements: Some rats are cats.

Some cats are dogs.

No dog is cow.

Conclusions: 1. No cow is cat.

 2. No dog is rat.

3. Some cats are rats.

Only (1)
Only (1) and (2)

Only (1) and (3)

Only (2) and (3)

Only (3)

Direction : Each of the following question consists of a statement followed by 2 arguments I and
II.Give answer

a)if only argument I is strong

b)if only argument II is strong
c)if either I or II is strong
d)if neither I or II are strong
e)if both I and II follow

215. Statement : Many students at School and Degree level are not able to master the subjects even
if passed out with high scores

Arguments:

I. Education board should examine and revise the examination system to tap the real talent

II. Examination systems at all levels should be so designed as to discourage rote learning.

III. Difficulty level of the exam papers should be significantly increased.

if only argument I is strong

if only argument III is strong

if either I or II is strong
if Only I and III follow

if Only I and II follow

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
216. Conceit : Humility :: Acme : ?

Misfortune
Starting

Bitterness
Thrust

None of these

Ann ,Ben ,Charlie ,David ,Elle ,Feynman ,Gyle and Harry are sitting in a row facing North.
(i) Ann is fourth to the right of Elle
(ii) Harry is fourth left of David
(iii) Charlie and Feynman , which are not at the ends are neighbours of Ben and Elle respectively.
(iv) Harry is immediate left of of Ann and Ann is the neighbour of Ben .

217. Who is in the middle of Feynman and Harry ?

Elle
Ann

Gyle
Charlie

David

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
218. Stipulation : Prerequisite :: Impertinent : ?

Extra
Appear

Little
Irrelevant
 None of these

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
219. Find the missing one: PO : SR :: WV : ?

ZU
ZR

ZV
RR

None of these

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
220. Giraffes : bleat :: Hogs : ?

simper
scream

grunt
growl

None of these

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
221. Crafty : Foolish :: Exculpate : ?

Blame
Powerless

Search
 Perpetual

None of these

222. How is 'pages' written in that code?

I. In a certain code, 'register pages are white' is written as 'ow wri th tis' and 'pages were not given' is
written as 'sit tyd sot th'
II. In a certain code, 'crazy deal with pages' is written as 'sip kip pos dis' and 'fun with crazy deal' is
written as 'sip dis lik pos'.

If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.

If the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

If the data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the
question.
If the data given in both I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

If the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
223. Affliction : Advantage :: Thrive : ?

Cease
Sweltering

Undecided
Trickery

None of these

Five girls are sitting on a bench to be photographed. Seema is to the left of Rani and to the right of
Bindu. Mary is to the right of Rani. Reeta is between Rani and Mary.
224. Who are at the corners in the photograph?
 Rani and Bindu
Seema and Mary

Bindu and Mary

Mary and Reeta

None of these

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
225. Deers : bell :: Bears : ?

growl
crow

quack
croak

None of these

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
226. Exterminate : Uproot :: Bait : ?

Aid
Snare

Laud
Depressed

None of these

227. If Black means yellow, Yellow means white and White means Red, What is the color of Milk ?
 White
Black

Red
Yellow

None of these

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
228. Crow : chick :: Fox : ?

pup
colt

calf
duckling

None of these

229. Identify the figure that completes the pattern.

1
2

3
4

None of the above

230. Find the odd one out

Bardoli
Bhadravati

Porbandar
Champaran

None of these

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
231. Find the missing one: ED : HG :: RQ : ?

UM
VM

UQ
UP

None of these

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
232. Whale : calf :: Toad : ?

foal
tadpole

fawn
peachick

None of these
233. How many pages of the Book did Divya read on Sunday?

I. Divya read the last 50 pages of the book on Monday morning

II. The book has 300 pages out of which two-thirds were read by Divya before Sunday.

If the data in statement I alone are sufficient

If the data in statement II alone are sufficient

If the data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer
If the data given in both I and II together are not sufficient

If the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer

A family consists of six members P, Q, R, X, Y and Z. P and R are married couple.

Q is the son of R but R is not the mother of Q. Y is the brother of R. X is the daughter of P. Z is the
brother of P

234. How many female members are there in the family?

One
Two

Three
Four

None of the above

235.
Below question contains few statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to
assume everything in the statement to be true, then consider the two conclusions together and
decide which of them logically follows beyond a reasonable doubt from the information given in the
statement.

Statements:
Some wins are trophies.
Some trophies are cups.
No cup is a prize.

Conclusion:
I. At least some cups are wins.
II. All prizes being trophies is a possibility.

if only conclusion I follows

if only conclusion II follows

if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows

if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows

if both the conclusion I and conclusion II follows

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
236. Quip : Retort :: Magnificient : ?

Expressed
Liberation

Splendid
Definite

None of these

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
237. Browbeat : Badger :: Blame : ?

Criticism
Condemn

Adequate
Respect
 None of these

Total : 100 people

Dance only : 20
Music only : 23
Sports only : 10
Dance and Sports only : 9
Dance and Music only : 16
Sports and Music only : 14
Dance, Sports and Music : 5
None of these activities : 29

238. How many students particpate in Music and sports?

15
14

16
17

12

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
239. Find the missing one: GF : JI :: SR : ?

VQ
WN

VN
VR

None of these
240. The film director wants an actress for the lead role of Lucy who perfectly fits the description
that appears in the original screenplay. He is not willing to consider actresses who do not resemble
the character as she is described in the screenplay, no matter how talented they are. The screenplay
describes Lucy as an average-sized, forty something redhead, with deep brown eyes, very fair skin,
and a brilliant smile. The casting agent has four actresses in mind.

Actress #1 is a stunning red-haired beauty who is 5'9" and in her mid-twenties. Her eyes are brown
and she has an olive complexion.

Actress #2 has red hair, big brown eyes, and a fair complexion. She is in her mid-forties and is 5'5".

Actress #3 is 5'4" and of medium build. She has red hair, brown eyes, and is in her early forties.

Actress #4 is a blue-eyed redhead in her early thirties. She's of very slight build and stands at 5'.

1,2
2,3

1,4
2,4

None of These

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
241. Cats : meow :: Giraffes : ?

scream
bark

bleat
cluck

None of these

242. In a class of some students standing in a straight line , the position of Ben is is 31th from left
end and 9th from right end. How many students are there in the class ?
 40
43

38
42

39

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
243. Impertinent : Polite :: Ulterior : ?

Associate
Maxim

Expressed
Doubtful

None of these

244. If A is coded as +, B is coded as -, C is coded as * and D is coded as / then evaluate 3 A 4 B 5 C 7

D 5 C 2?

-6
-7

3
13

-17
Answer the questions based on the following data:

Among the six persons A,B,C,D,E and F each have different weight.
A is heavier than 3 persons, C is lighter than E.
D is lighter than only B.
C is not the lightest.
The second heaviest person is of 66 kg and the second lightest person is of 32 kg.

245. Who among the person weigh 66 kg?

F
C

E
D

None of these

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
246. Exculpate : Blame :: Abundant : ?

Depleted
Temporary

Filthy
Brilliant

None of these

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
247. Acquiesce : Conform :: Scold : ?

Chide
Kind
 Give
Drunkenness

None of these

248. Statement: "Private property, trespassers will be prosecuted" - A notice on a plot of land.

Assumptions:
I. The passerby may read the notice and may not trespass.
II. The people are scared of prosecution.

Only assumption I is implicit

Only assumption II is implicit

Either I or II is implicit
Neither I nor II is implicit

Both I and II are implicit

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
249. Find the missing one: JL : KM :: QS : ?

RU
RT

RS
ST

None of these

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
250. Elephant : calf :: Horse : ?
 piglet
stot / calf

foal
gosling

None of these

251. Identify the figure that completes the pattern.

1
2

3
4

None of these

252. Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the mirror image of the given combination.

1
2

3
4

None of the above

253. If Kiran says, “Rocky's mother is the only daughter of my mother”, How is Kiran related to
Rocky?

Brother
Father

Uncle
Grand father

None of these

254. - bc - - b - aabc

acac
babc

abab
aacc

None of these

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
255. Find the missing one: GF : JI :: FE : ?

ID
IA

IE
JA
 None of these

Direction: Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the question given below:

HB8$WE7*5C©Z2QA@6T#3J1FK9I%D4P
256. Which of the following will be 8th to the right of the 15th element from the left end?

*
F

A
J

None of the above

257. Statement: The Union Ministry of Tourism and Civil Aviation has fixed an annual target of Rs
10,000 crores by way of tourism earnings towards the end of the current decade.

Courses of Action:
I. There is no need of development of further new tourist spots to meet the target.
II. The Ministry should evolve attractive packages to woo the foreign tourists to meet the target.

Only I follows
Only II follows

Either I or II follows
Neither I nor II follows

Both I and II follow

258. Among P, Q, R, S and T each having a different height, Q is shorter than only T and S is shorter
than P and Q. Who among them is the shortest?
 R
S

P
Data inadequate

None of these

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
259. Urge : Disgust :: Exterminate : ?

Trickery
Help

Create
Similarity

None of these

P, Q, R, S, T, V, W and Z are sitting around a circle facing at the center. R is fourth to the left of P who
is second to the right of S. V is fourth to the right of S. Q is fourth to the left of W who is not an
immediate neighbor of P or S. Z is not an immediate neighbor of R.
260. Who is to the immediate right of V?

R
W

Z
P

None of these

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
261. Condone : Excuse :: Taboo : ?
 Forbidden
Ignorant

Indifferent
Calm

None of these

262. Among 5 people M, N, O, P and Q having different heights, who is the tallest ?

I.O is taller than only one person. Only 1 people is taller than only Q. M is not the Shortest.
II.O is shorter than 3 persons. Only one person is taller than Q. M is neither the taller nor the
shortest in the group.N is the shortest in the group.

If the data in statement I alone are sufficient

If the data in statement II alone are sufficient

If the data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer
If the data given in both I and II together are not sufficient

If the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
263. Rabbits : squeak :: Giraffes : ?

bleat
chirp/creak

bell
buzz

None of these
In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
264. Abate : Decrease :: Backlash : ?

Reaction
Advance

Agree
Cheerful

None of these

In each question below is given a group of letters followed by four combinations of digits/symbols.
You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters based on
the following coding system and mark the number of that combination as the answer.

Conditions:
1) If both the first and the last letter of the group are vowels, their codes are to be interchanged.
2) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel, both are to be coded as the code for
the consonant.

265. ERHBMT

%1@$6©
%1$@6©

©1$@6©
@%1$6©

None of the above

266. A,B,C,D,E,F,G and H are sitting in a row facing North.

(i) A is fourth to the right of E

(ii) H is fourth to the left of D

(iii) C and F, which are not at the ends are neighbours of B and E respectively.

(iv) H is immediate left of A and A is the neighbour of B.

Find the Odd man out ?

FG
GH

AC
FE

CD

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
267. Resistance : Liberation :: Care : ?

Conform
Memorable

Advantage
Hinder

None of these

268. If A is coded as -, B is coded as +, C is coded as * and D is coded as / then evaluate 5 A 8 B 6 C 5

D 2 C 3?

43
44

52
 42

32

269. Find out the alternative figure which contains (X) as its part

1
2

3
4

None of these

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
270. Radiant : Dull :: Temporal : ?

Privilege
Truth

Unhealthy
Immaterial

None of these

Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. A number arrangement machine
when given an input of words, rearranges them
The following is an illustration of input and steps of rearrangement.
Input: above has worked but as Marketing officer

Step I: above as has worked but Marketing officer

Step II: above as but has worked Marketing officer
Step III: above as but has Marketing worked officer
Step IV: above as but has Marketing officer worked
This is the final arrangement and step IV is the last step for this input.

271. Input: Changed pattern based on the new syllabus

What is the position of the word "pattern" from left end in step II of above input?

3rd
4th

5th
2nd

None of these

272. T, R, P, N, L, ?, ?

J, G
J, H

K, H
K, I

None of these

Five girls are sitting on a bench to be photographed. Seema is to the left of Rani and to the right of
Bindu. Mary is to the right of Rani. Reeta is between Rani and Mary.
273. Who is sitting immediate right to Reeta?

Bindu
Rani
 Mary
Seema

None of these

Six players K,M,G,D,L and T are sitting in a circular table facing the center. M is to the left of K . D is
between G and T . L is between G and M . And M is diagonally opposite to D.
274. Who sits diagonally opposite to L

T
D

K
M

None of these

275. Statement: It is reported that though Vitamin E present in fresh fruits and vegetables is
beneficial for human body, capsule Vitamin E does not have the same effect on human body.

Courses of Action:
I. The sale of capsule Vitamin E should be banned.
II. People should be encouraged to take fresh fruits and vegetables to meet the body's requirement
of Vitamin E.

Only I follows
Only II follows

Either I or II follows
Neither I nor II follows

Both I and II follow

276. Directions-
P © Q means P is not smaller than Q
P % Q means P is not greater than Q
P # Q means P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q
P @ Q means P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q
P $ Q means P is neither greater than nor equal to Q

From the conditions given below, choose the correct option.

R # D and D © K, K $ M.

Statement I. M # R
Statement II. K $ R

If only conclusion I is true

If only conclusion II is true

If either I or II is true
If neither I nor II is true

If both I and II are true

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
277. Ally : Associate :: Obscene : ?

Depressed
Hatred

Filthy
Disgust

None of these

278. Find the odd one out

Reader
Writer
 Printer
Publisher

None of these

The selection committee of a company laid down the following criteria of selection for the post of
Manager – Accounts:

1) The candidate must be a postgraduate in Commerce.

2) The candidate must have completed 21 years and should not be more than 35 years as on
31.7.1996.
3) If the candidate does not satisfy the criterion in (1) above but has completed his CA examination
he will referred to Director- Finance, who can allow the candidate to appear in the interview if
otherwise eligible.
4) If the candidate fulfils all the criteria mentioned in (1) and (2) above, he/she will be called for
group discussion.
5) The candidate must get 50% marks to qualify in the group discussion.
6) If the candidate qualifies in the group discussion he/she will be called for interview.
7) The candidate must get 30% marks in the interview (out of 50) to get finally selected.

Based on the above criteria, decide which of the following courses of action should be taken in case
of candidates described in each of the following questions.
279. Mr. Roy is a Commerce graduate, has passed his CA examination and was born on 18.4.1974.

if the candidates can be selected

if the candidate is to be referred to Director- Finance

if the candidate can be called for group discussion

if the candidate can be called for interview

if the candidate cannot be selected

Nine friends L, M, N, O, P, Q, R, S and T are sitting around a circle facing the centre. T sits 5th to the
right of R. N is not an immediate neighbor of either R of T. M sits between S and P. N sits 4th to the
left of P. O sits 2nd to the right of Q. S is not an immediate neighbor of T.
280. If all the nine friends are made to sit alphabetically in the clockwise direction starting from L,
positions of how many will remain unchanged (excluding L) ?
 Zero
One

Two
Three

None of these

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
281. Kangaroo : joey :: Whale : ?

calf
duckling

pup / calf
hatchling

None of these

Based on the given statement and few conclusions, choose the right statement which gives the
correct conclusions.
282.
Statements :
Some birds are goats.
Some goats are horses.
Some horses are lions.
Some lions are tigers.

Conclusions :
I. Some tigers are goats.
II. No tiger is goat.
III. Some lions are birds.
IV. No lion is bird.

Only either I or II follows

Only either III or IV follows
 Only either I or II and III or IV follows
Only I and II follows

None of these

283. Identify the figure that completes the pattern.

1
2

3
4

None of the above

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
284. Find the missing one: DF : EG :: EG : ?

FH
GH

FG
FI

None of these
P, Q, R, S, T, V, W and Z are sitting around a circle facing at the center. R is fourth to the left of P who
is second to the right of S. V is fourth to the right of S. Q is fourth to the left of W who is not an
immediate neighbor of P or S. Z is not an immediate neighbor of R.
285. Find the odd man out ?

WR
TR

RT
TS

None of these

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
286. Find the missing one: RO : PM :: PM : ?

NJ
OL

NM
NK

None of these

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
287. Find the missing one: WY : XZ :: NP : ?

OQ
PQ

OP
OR

None of these
288. Who is the tallest among A, B, C, D and E?
1) C is taller than B but not as tall as E.
2) A is not the shortest.
3) A is taller than only D.

only 1
only 2 and 3

only 1 and either 2 or 3

only 1 and 3

none of these

289. Statement: A > B > C and D >= E >= B

Conclusion I: C = E
Conclusion II: A > = E

If only conclusion I follows.

If only conclusion II follows.

If either conclusion I or conclusion II follows

If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.

If both conclusions I and II follow.

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
290. Quarantined : Gang :: Radical : ?

Close
Filthy

Inessential
 Charming

None of these

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
291. Ox : stot / calf :: Yak : ?

larva
calf

duckling
pup / calf

None of these

292. Some trees are branches

Some branches are seeds

Statement I : Some trees are not seeds

Statement II: Some seeds are not branches

Only I follows
Only II follows

Both I and II follows

neither I nor II follows

Either I or II follows

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
293. Ulterior : Expressed :: Radiant : ?
 Dull
Warlike

Jovial
Revengeful

None of these

294. If CONTRIBUTE is written as ETBUIRNTOC, which letter will be in the sixth place whencounted
from the left if POPULARISE is written in that code ?

L
A

I
R

None of these

295. adb_ac_da_cddcb_dbc_cbda

bccba
cbbaa

ccbba
bbcad

None of these
Read the following information and answer the following question:

i) A @ B means A is the father of B

ii) A + B means A is the husband of B
iii) A $ B means A is the brother of B
iv) A % B means A is the mother of B
v) A & B means A is the sister of B

296. What should come in the place of ? to make a relation R is the aunt of T in the expression :P %
Q+R&S?T

(+)
&

Either @ or %
$

297. P,Q,R,S,T,U,V and W are sitting in a row facing North.

(i) P is fourth to the right of T

(ii) W is fourth to the left of S

(iii) R and U, which are not at the ends are neighbours of Q and T respectively.

(iv) W is immediate left of P and P is the neighbour of Q.

Who is in the middle of U and W ?

T
P

V
R

S
In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
298. Whale : calf :: Frog : ?

kid, billy
calf

tadpole
lamb

None of these

299. If in a certain language, ITNIETAM is the code for INTIMATE, which word has the code
TREVNIETARBI ?

INVRETIBRATE
INVERTIBARTE

INVERTIBRETA
INVERTIBRATE

None of these

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
300. Vultures : scream :: Mice : ?

scream
quack

squeak and squeal

chirp/creak

None of these
1 Correct Answer: Option D

2 Correct Answer: Option A

3 Correct Answer: Option D

Explanation:
The cornea, retina, and pupil are all parts of the eye.

4 Correct Answer: Option B

Explanation:
Since the Ministry has decided to support the voluntary organisations, it is quite probable that they
are in need of it. So, I is not implicit. Further, since the economic package for the voluntary
organisations has been announced recently, it can be assumed that no such support was given to
them earlier. So, II is implicit.

5 Correct Answer: Option C

Explanation:
All snakes are trees. Some trees are roads.
Since the middle term is not distributed even once in the premises, so no definite conclusion follows.
Some trees are roads. All roads are mountains.
Since one premise is particular, the conclusion must be particular and should not contain the middle
term. So, it follows that 'Some trees are mountains'. III is the converse of this conclusion and so it
holds.
All snakes are trees. Some trees are mountains.
Since the middle term is not distributed even once in the premises, so no definite conclusion follows.

6 Correct Answer: Option E

Explanation:
The students union formation shall be a step towards giving to students the basic education in the
field of politics. However, it shall create the same political atmosphere in the campus. Thus, both the
arguments hold strong.

7 Correct Answer: Option E

Explanation:
Family planning is an essential step to curb population growth. So, argument I holds strong. Also,
family planning being against the tenets of some of the Indian religions, it is not necessary to make it
compulsory. Instead, it can be enforced by creating public awareness of the benefits of family
planning. So, argument II also holds.

8 Correct Answer: Option A

Explanation:
It seems quite evident that the parents have instructed their wards to abstain from private tuitions
on Sundays and attend special classes organised by the school.

9 Correct Answer: Option C

Explanation:
This is a simple multiplication series. Each number is 3 times more than the previous number

10 Correct Answer: Option A

Explanation:
The vice president's car cannot be red, because that is the CEO's car, which is in the first space. Nor
can it be purple, because that is the treasurer's car, which is in the last space, or yellow, because
that is the secretary's. The president's car must be blue, because it is parked between a red car (in
the first space) and a green car, which must be the vice president's.

11 Correct Answer: Option E

Explanation:
Clearly, the statement declares dowry as an evil practice and reflects its demerits. Thus, conclusion I
follows. Also, it is given that those who take dowry dishonour womanhood. This implies that those
who do not take dowry respect womanhood. So, II also follows.

12 Correct Answer: Option E

Explanation:
Since severe damage has been caused by cyclone, people in affected villages ought to be shifted to
safer places. Also, since relief work entails huge amounts, the State Government needs to pool up
funds by either of the ways given in II and III. So, I and either II or III follow.

13 Correct Answer: Option B

Explanation:
The accidents can clearly be prevented by barring people from crossing the tracks when the gates
are closed, So, only II follows.

14 Correct Answer: Option A

Explanation:
Clearly, such projects shall be an asset and a source of income to the country later on. So, course I
shall follow.

15 Correct Answer: Option C

Explanation:
Statements I and II are not supported by the facts. Statement III is true because if all story-books
have pictures and only some have words, then some storybooks have both words and pictures.

16 Correct Answer: Option A

Explanation:
Pastoral describes rural areas; metropolitan describes urban areas.

17 Correct Answer: Option D

Explanation:
It is mentioned that entry only through main routes has been banned. So, I is not implicit. Besides,
the entry has been banned to reduce the volume of traffic on roads and ease congestion. It could
only be done at the entrances to the city and not within the city itself. So, congestion by the city
vehicles is unavoidable. Hence, II is also not implicit.

18 Correct Answer: Option E

Explanation:
The statement mentions that science is reliable as facts can be verified by investigation. So, I is
implicit. II follows directly from the last sentence in the statement and so it is also implicit.

19 Correct Answer: Option D

Explanation:
Since both I and II do not follow from the statement, so neither of them is implicit.

20 Correct Answer: Option B

Explanation:
Though the reserves of coal are limited, yet stopping its use till alternate sources of energy have
been discovered, is no solution to conserve it. So, I is not strong. It is true that we haven't till date
found a renewable source of energy which is available in plenty and can substitute coal. So, II holds
strong. Further, stopping coal mining would surely throw the engaged workers out of employment.
So, III also holds strong.

21.Explanation:

The statement clearly mentions that fulfilling the eligibility criteria and submitting the application
before the stipulated date are both essential to avoid rejection. So, I follows. Also, since it is given
that the candidates whose applications are rejected shall not be called for written test, so II also
follows.

22. Explanation:

Solution is :

Person at immediate right of Vis T

23. Explanation:

Clearly, such decisions are taken only after making sure that it will not affect the company's business
adversely. So, I is implicit. However, the impact of this increase on other airlines cannot be
ascertained. So, II is not implicit.
24. Explanation:

If the middle digit in all the numbers are removed, it will be as

446 = 46
362 = 32
576 = 56
495 = 45
241 = 21
Minimum number = 21 , 241 is correct answer.

25. Explanation:

By Analyzing the left side, we can conclude that Adequate is the Antonym of Meager
By using the same logic, we can conclude that Immoral is the Antonym for Condign.

26. Explanation:

if neither I or II are strong

27. Explanation:

The phrase 'budgetary provision for the purpose of appointing additional faculty' makes I implicit.
Also, since no budgetary provision was provided for appointment of faculty in view of certain
changed financial priorities, it means that some other issues require more financial attention. So, II is
also implicit.

28. Explanation:
At the 2nd right of D , C is seated.

29. Explanation:

Efforts are being made to boost tourism does not mean that tourism has dropped. So, I is not
implicit. Also, the statement mentions nothing about discounts in air fare. So, II is also not implicit.

30. Explanation:

Blood relation Analysis : only daughter of my mother -> means herself

31. Explanation:

By Analyzing the left side, we can conclude that Broken is the Antonym of Rigid
By using the same logic, we can conclude that Disrespect is the Antonym for Admiration.

32. Explanation:
Solution is

So, only statement I follows

33. Explanation:

From I: it is given that Gauri is 5th to Rakhi but not given left or right
From II: Gini is 2nd from left end, and then rakhi is 6th to right of Gini, so Rakhi is 8th from left end.
So.the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

34. Explanation:

Arrangement is F,K,E,M,J
New Arrangement will be F,J,E,M,K

35. Explanation:

By Analyzing the left side, we can conclude that Futile is the Antonym of Precocious
By using the same logic, we can conclude that Careless is the Antonym for Exquisite.

36. Explanation:

I only

37. Explanation:
Bindu and Mary are at the corners in the photograph.

38. Explanation:

Some fruits are mangos. All mangos are guavas.

I + A => I - type of conclusion
"Some fruits are guavas". Conclusion II is Converse of it. All mangos are guavas No guava is a banana.
A + E => E - type of conclusion "No mango is a banana

39. Explanation:

ZYXWVUTSRQPONMLKJIHGFEDCBA
L is 11th position.
40. Explanation:

By Analyzing the given analogy, we can infer that in the left side an animal and the sound it makes is
given i.e. bleat is sound made by Giraffes
By Applying the same logic to the right side we can conclude that squawk is the sound made by
Parrots.

41. Explanation:

By Analyzing the left side, we can conclude that Logical is the Antonym of Absurd
By using the same logic, we can conclude that Avoidable is the Antonym for Imminent.

42. Explanation:

From Analyzing the left side, we can conclude that Stoop is the synonym of Patronize
By using the same logic, we can conclude that Sorrow is the synonym for Lament.

43. Explanation:

By Analyzing the given analogy, we can infer that in the left side an animal and the sound it makes is
given i.e. warble is sound made by Larks
By Applying the same logic to the right side we can conclude that scream is the sound made by
Peacocks.

44. Explanation:

Given,P denotes +,
Q denotes *,
R denotes / and
S denotes -

and the given expression:18 Q 12 P 4 R 5 S 6

By using correct symbols, we get,
=> 18 * 12 + 4 / 5 - 6
= 210.8

45. Explanation:

By analyzing the numbers we can find that in the first part, first number is cubed and added with 1
to get the second number i.e. 20^3 + 1 = 8001
By following the same approach for the next number we get 2^3 + 1 = 8 + 1 = 9

46. Explanation:

The letters move 3 steps forward.

47. Explanation:

Since one condemns oneself to rely on Shaleen, so I is implicit. The statement mentions that it was
foolish to rely on Shaleen. So, the person is a fool. Thus, II is implicit.

48. Explanation:
Solution is :

Eis exactly opposite to G

49. Explanation:

7B
6D
5F
4A
3E
2G
1C

50. Explanation:

This is the only geographical feature that has a movement.

51. Explanation:

By Analyzing the left side, we can conclude that Authentic is the Antonym of Fictitious
By using the same logic, we can conclude that Metropolitan is the Antonym for Rural.

52. Explanation:

By Analyzing the given analogy, we can infer that in the left side an animal and the sound it makes is
given i.e. gobble is sound made by Turkeys
By Applying the same logic to the right side we can conclude that croak is the sound made by Frogs.
53. Explanation:

By Analyzing the left side, we can conclude that Encouraging is the Antonym of Captious
By using the same logic, we can conclude that Standard is the Antonym for Exceptional.

54. Explanation:
5 is right answer.

55. Explanation:

The phrase 'not much has been done in this field' indicates that wind energy is a comparatively
newly emerging field. So, I follows. The expression 'there is vast potential for developing wind as
alternative source of energy' proves II to be true.

56. Explanation:

From Analyzing the left side, we can conclude that Evil is the synonym of Bad
By using the same logic, we can conclude that Plunder is the synonym for Pillage.

57. Explanation:

Clearly, it cannot be deduced as to which day Kartik would reach Delhi. But Kartik has left for Delhi
to attend a function to be held on Friday. So, he must have planned his journey to reach Delhi before
Friday. Thus, only II is implicit.

58. Explanation:

From Analyzing the left side, we can conclude that Desultory is the synonym of Cursory
By using the same logic, we can conclude that Acquainted is the synonym for Conversant.

59. Explanation:

All except Again denote certain period of time.

60. Explanation:

From Analyzing the left side, we can conclude that Force is the synonym of Vehemence
By using the same logic, we can conclude that Compress is the synonym for Abbreviate.

61. Explanation:

By Analyzing the left side, we can conclude that Calm is the Antonym of Choleric
By using the same logic, we can conclude that Glee is the Antonym for Fury

62. Explanation:

From Analyzing the left side, we can conclude that Devotee is the synonym of Adherent
By using the same logic, we can conclude that Elegant is the synonym for Exquisite.

63. Explanation:
From Analyzing the left side, we can conclude that Doom is the synonym of Fate
By using the same logic, we can conclude that Chatter is the synonym for Prate.

64. Explanation:
16 is right answer.

65. Explanation:

By Analyzing the left side, we can conclude that Accept is the Antonym of Rebellion
By using the same logic, we can conclude that Destroy is the Antonym for Ricochet.

66. Explanation:

Three is right answer .

67. Explanation:

By Analyzing the left side, we can conclude that Depressed is the Antonym of Jubilant
By using the same logic, we can conclude that Clumsy is the Antonym for Quick.

68. Explanation:

From Analyzing the left side, we can conclude that Stiff is the synonym of Rigid
By using the same logic, we can conclude that Associate is the synonym for Ally.

69. Explanation:

The alphabets are coded as shown:

RIPLEF
613829

So, in PILLER,
P is coded as 3,
I as 1,
L as 8,
E as 2 and
R as 6.

Thus, the code for PILLER is 318826.

70 . Explanation:

The statement clearly warns the visitors to beware of dogs as they are trained to welcome the
guests and intruders differently. So, II is implicit. I is vague and hence, it is not implicit.

71. Explanation:

From Analyzing the left side, we can conclude that Irrelevant is the synonym of Impertinent
By using the same logic, we can conclude that Concealed is the synonym for Ulterior.
72. Explanation:

If certain preventive measures are practiced at the rural and semi urban areas the problem will be
solved. But if the same is not practiced even at the cities the problem may roll into the city also, so
the two effects are of some common cause.

73. Explanation:

All except Stone are obtained directly or indirectly from trees.

74. Explanation:

Neither 1 nor 2 follows

75. Explanation:

Because due to hike of taxes last year the State Government has announced special tax package the
new industries to be set up in the State.

76. Explanation:

By Analyzing the given analogy, we can infer that in the left side an adult name and its baby name is
given i.e. duckling is baby of Duck
By Applying the same logic to the right side we can conclude that squab / squeaker is the baby of
Pigeon.

77. Explanation:

From Analyzing the left side, we can conclude that Implore is the synonym of Beg
By using the same logic, we can conclude that Retort is the synonym for Quip.

78. Explanation:

The correct answer is option A.

79. Explanation:
Solution is :
In the evening sun sets in West. Hence then any shadow falls in the East.
Since Hema's shadow was to the right of Hema
Hence Rekha was facing towards South

80. Explanation:

A 'tractor' is used to plough a field. But a 'tractor' is called 'car'.

So, 'car' will be used to plough the field.

81. Explanation:

Given,
I) 'always create new ideas'--- 'ba ri sha gi'
II)'ideas and new thoughts'--- 'fa gi ma ri'
III)'create thoughts and insights'--- 'ma jo ba fa'
IV) 'new and better solutions'---'ki ri to fa'
Common Word Common Code
From I, II and IV new ri
From I, III create ba
From I, II ideas gi
From II, III and IV and fa
From II, III thoughts ma

Thus, the remaining words and their corresponding codes are:

always --- sha
insights--- jo
better / solutions-- ki / to

82. Explanation:

From Analyzing the left side, we can conclude that Unimportant is the synonym of Immaterial
By using the same logic, we can conclude that Wither is the synonym for Decay.

83. Explanation:

By Analyzing the left side, we can conclude that Gang is the Antonym of Quarantined
By using the same logic, we can conclude that Lawlessness is the Antonym for Statute.

84. Explanation:

From Analyzing the left side, we can conclude that Touching is the synonym of Poignant
By using the same logic, we can conclude that Execute is the synonym for Relevant.

85. Explanation:

From Analyzing the left side, we can conclude that Malign is the synonym of Vilify
By using the same logic, we can conclude that Deserved is the synonym for Condign.
86. Explanation:

From Analyzing the left side, we can conclude that Enormous is the synonym of Colossal
By using the same logic, we can conclude that Reject is the synonym for Veto.

87. Explanation:

From Analyzing the left side, we can conclude that Force is the synonym of Vehemence
By using the same logic, we can conclude that Aid is the synonym for Abet.

88. Explanation:
3 is right answer.

89. Explanation:

Eleventh to the right of the nineteenth element from the right = (19 - 11)th element from the right =
8th from the right, i.e. Δ.

90. Explanation:

None of the expression explains‘L = M # N

©P*Q
So,None of these is correct answer.

91. Explanation:

C is seated between H and E.

92. Explanation:

(Only conclusion II follows) is right answer.

93. Explanation:

Rule 4. Coaching in any form are beneficial for the students.

Rule 1. Taking of coachings is beneficial to the students.

94. Explanation:

By Analyzing the left side, we can conclude that Normality is the Antonym of Quirk
By using the same logic, we can conclude that Cheerful is the Antonym for Wistful.

95. Explanation:

Ann is exactly 5 miles away from the starting point

96. Explanation:

By Analyzing the left side, we can conclude that Commendable is the Antonym of Abject
By using the same logic, we can conclude that Relieve is the Antonym for Lament.

97. Explanation:

The four women seem to agree that the plate starts out with the letter J. Three of them agree that
the plate ends with 12L. Three of them think that the second letter is X, and a different three think
that the third letter is K. The plate description that has all of these common elements is "Option A".

98. Explanation:
 By counting clockwise , no.of people
between P and V is2

99. Explanation:

Clearly, the decision to revise its fee structure for artists is taken by Doordarshan as a remedy to the
challenging problem that had arisen before it. It cannot wait till other media take action. So, only
course I follows.

100. Explanation:

The advice particularly mentions 'a specialist doctor' and not simply 'doctor'. So, I is implicit, B's
response to A's advice cannot be deduced from the given statement. So, II is not implicit.

101. Explanation:

From statement I:
A two digit number, greater than 9 and multiple of 51 should be 51 itself.
Because, 2 x 51 = 102 (3 digit number).
Therefore, I alone sufficient to answer.
From statement II:
A two digit number, greater than 9 and sum of the digit is 6.
It can be 15, 24, 33, 42, 51, 60.
So we cannot determine the required answer from the statement II alone.
Thus, I alone give the answer while II alone not sufficient to answer.

102. Explanation:
By Analyzing the left side, we can conclude that Aristocratic is the Antonym of Base
By using the same logic, we can conclude that Careless is the Antonym for Exquisite.

103. Explanation:

Carl is exactly 25 miles away from the starting point

104. Explanation:
Cannot be determined

105. Explanation:

By Analyzing the left side, we can conclude that Aloof is the Antonym of Humane
By using the same logic, we can conclude that Disease is the Antonym for Therapeutics.

106. Explanation:

Given,A is coded as -,
B is coded as +,
C is coded as * and
D is coded as /

and the given expression: 7 A 4 B 8 C 10 D 4 C 5

By using correct symbols, we get,
7 - 4 + 8 * 10 / 4 * 5
= 103

107. Explanation:

From Analyzing the left side, we can conclude that Rebound is the synonym of Ricochet
By using the same logic, we can conclude that Benediction is the synonym for Blessing.

108. Explanation:

Catherine is exactly 5 miles away from the starting point

109. Explanation:

By analyzing the numbers we can find that in the first part, first number is doubled and added with 1
to get the second number i.e. 111 * 2 + 1 = 223
By following the same approach for the next number we get 103 * 2 + 1 = 206 + 1 = 207

110. Explanation:
3 is right answer.
111. Explanation:

Daughter of brother-in-law - Niece; Mother's niece - Cousin.

So, the girl is the cousin of Rita's friend.
112. Explanation:

From Analyzing the left side, we can conclude that Ignoble is the synonym of Base
By using the same logic, we can conclude that Chaos is the synonym for Bedlam.

113. Explanation:

By Analyzing the left side, we can conclude that Aloof is the Antonym of Humane
By using the same logic, we can conclude that Laud is the Antonym for Vilify.

114. Explanation:

According to the given statements, only Conclusion I follows.

115. Explanation:

Literacy at basic level is the utmost need to prepare good future citizens. So, all children need to be
educated. This can be achieved by creating awareness, providing incentives, enforcing education and
banning employment of children. Thus, all the three courses
follow.

116. Explanation:
2 is right answer.

117. Explanation:
B is seated next to A .

118. Explanation:

Since the teachers of the colleges complained to the university about the disturbances caused by cell
phone ring-tones inside the classrooms, the university authority has instructed all the colleges under
its jurisdiction to ban use of cell phones inside the college premises.

119. Explanation:

The statement mentions the problem of increased migration of children to cities. But the ways to
deal with the problem cannot be deduced from it. So, neither I nor II follows.
120. Explanation:

PK<=J=T (First conclusion directly follows while for second conclusion we can’t say anything)

121. Explanation:

According to given data, the order of persons from heaviest to lightest is:
A>C>D>F>E>B

and Weight of C = 74 kg,

Weight of E = 41 kg

If the people are arranged in ascending of their weight, then the order becomes:
B, E, F, D, C , A

122. Explanation:

Here the rule followed is:

In each step the fourth word becomes first
word and the last word becomes fourth
word and all other words shift one place
rightwards except the third, which shifts two
place rightwards.
In order to make things easier, let us represent
the words digitally from 1 to 7. Then
we have: .
Input : 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
Step I : 4 1 2 7 3 5 6
Step II : 7 4 1 6 2 3 5
Step III: 6 7 4 5 1 2 3
Step IV : 5 6 7 3 4 1
2
StepV : 3 5 6 2 7 4 1
Step VI : 2 3 5 1 6 7
4
[Note: We have gone up to step VI because
one of the questions (Q. 171) demands
that.]

123. Explanation:

According to given data, the order of persons from heaviest to lightest is:
R>Q>U>P>T>S

and Weight of Q = 65 kg,

Weight of T = 33 kg

If the people are arranged in ascending of their weight, then the order becomes:
S, T, P, U, Q, R

124. Explanation:

By Analyzing the given analogy, we can infer that in the left side an animal and the sound it makes is
given i.e. bark is sound made by Seals
By Applying the same logic to the right side we can conclude that cluck is the sound made by Hens.

125. Explanation:

From Analyzing the left side, we can conclude that Deceive is the synonym of Cajole
By using the same logic, we can conclude that Infamous is the synonym for Notorious.

126. Explanation:

Given, '+' ---> Brother

'-' ---> Father
'*' ---> Uncle
'/' ---> Sister

From the given expression P - Q + R / S

P is the father of Q, who is the brother of R, who is the sister of S.
So, among the given options, the correct one is "P is the father of S".

127. Explanation:

By Analyzing the given analogy, we can infer that in the left side an animal and the sound it makes is
given i.e. warble is sound made by Larks
By Applying the same logic to the right side we can conclude that click is the sound made by
Dolphins.

128. Explanation:

I only

129. Explanation:
According to the given data, the correct seating arrangement around a circular tableis:

Hence, Three people (ie., C, D, F) areseated between E and A if counted clockwise.

130. Explanation:

By Analyzing the given analogy, we can infer that in the left side an animal and the sound it makes is
given i.e. neigh is sound made by Horses
By Applying the same logic to the right side we can conclude that meow is the sound made by Cats.

131. Explanation:

if neither I or II are strong

132. Explanation:

From Analyzing the left side, we can conclude that Transient is the synonym of Ephemeral
By using the same logic, we can conclude that Idealistic is the synonym for Utopian.

133. Explanation:

Solution is :
In the evening sun sets in West. Hence then any shadow falls in the East.
Since Hema's shadow was to the right of Hema
Hence Rekha was facing towards South

134. Explanation:

Hence, Priti and Pankaj are the neighbours of Mukesh.

135. Explanation:

From Analyzing the left side, we can conclude that Truth is the synonym of Veracity
By using the same logic, we can conclude that Deserved is the synonym for Condign

136. Explanation:

Seventh to the right of the twenty-first from the right end = (21 - 7) = 14th from the right end

Now, the 14th element from the right end of the given series is "%".

137. Explanation:

At each step, 1, 2, 3, ... letters are removed from the beginning and in the end alternatively.
B T U is a missing sequence.

138. Explanation:

The letters move 8, 7, 6, 5... steps forward.

139. Explanation:

From Analyzing the left side, we can conclude that Arrogant is the synonym of Haughty
By using the same logic, we can conclude that Applause is the synonym for Acclaim.

140. Explanation:
Number ofpersons seated between Akram and Ekam = One (i.e., Gulrej)

141. Explanation:

All others are parts of experiment.

142. Explanation:

Clearly, the owner of the shop should be punished for selling spurious liquor. Further, attempts
should be made to unearth other such unscrupulous liquor sellers by conducting raids and testing
samples collected from different shops. So, both II and III follow. However, sending the liquor shop
owner to another place may create a problem elsewhere also. So, II does not follow.

143. Explanation:

By Analyzing the left side, we can conclude that Normality is the Antonym of Aberration
By using the same logic, we can conclude that Development is the Antonym

144. Explanation:

From Analyzing the left side, we can conclude that Tyranny is the synonym of Cruelty
By using the same logic, we can conclude that Ridiculous is the synonym for Absurd.

145. Explanation:

Clearly, D’s father is the brother of CS father and Cs father is A’s uncle. So, D’s father is also A’s
uncle. Thus, D is A’s cousin.

146. Explanation:

By Analyzing the given analogy, we can infer that in the left side an adult name and its baby name is
given i.e. caterpillar is baby of Butterfly
By Applying the same logic to the right side we can conclude that pup is the baby of Mole.

147. Explanation:
X is son of Y ; Y is wife of Z

148. Explanation:

Daughter of brother-in-law - Niece; Mother's niece - Cousin.

So, the girl is the cousin of Rita's friend.

149. Explanation:

After careful analysis of the input and various steps of rearrangement, it is evident that in the first
step one word is arranged according to alpahabetical order. This step is continued till all
the words get arranged in alphabetical order.

Input: who assembled and saw tiny living things

Step I: and who assembled saw tiny living things
Step II: and assembled who saw tiny living things
Step III: and assembled living who saw tiny things

150. Explanation:

Step 2: 17 victory 19 37 58 store like town

Step 3: 17 victory 19 town 37 58 store like
Step 4: 17 victory 19 town 37 store 58 like
Step 4 is the last step.

151. Explanation:

By Analyzing the left side, we can conclude that Harmony is the Antonym of Bedlam
By using the same logic, we can conclude that Calm is the Antonym for Qualm.

152. Explanation:

By Analyzing the given analogy, : GI : HJ :: OQ : ? , we can find that in the left part , the first alphabet
(G) is shifted by 1 positions to the right and the second alphabet (I) is shifted by 2 positions to the
right to form HJ
Apply the same logic to the right half, by shifting O by 1 positions to the right we get P and by
shifting Q by 2 positions to the right we get R. Hence the right answer is PR

153. Explanation:

By Analyzing the given analogy, we can infer that in the left side an adult name and its baby name is
given i.e. cub is baby of Tiger
By Applying the same logic to the right side we can conclude that hatchling / juvenile is the baby of
Dinosaur.

154. Explanation:

ZYXWVUTSRQPONMLKJIHGFEDCBA
155. Explanation:

Given,
© ---≥
% --- ≤
# --- >
@ --- =
$ --- <

R # D and D © K, K $ M.
=> R > D≥ K < M

Statement I . M # R ---> M > R (False)

Statement II. K $ R ---> K < R (True)
Thus, only conclusion II is true.

156. Explanation:

By Analyzing the left side, we can conclude that Broken is the Antonym of Constant
By using the same logic, we can conclude that Admire is the Antonym for Abhor.

157. Explanation:

By Analyzing the given analogy, we can infer that in the left side an adult name and its baby name is
given i.e. chick is baby of Chicken
By Applying the same logic to the right side we can conclude that piglet is the baby of Pig.

158. Explanation:

Given,A is coded as +,
B is coded as -,
C is coded as * and
D is coded as /

and the given expression:8 A 3 B 2 C 24 D 4 C 3

By using correct symbols, we get,
8 + 3 - 2 * 24 / 4 * 3
= - 25

159. Explanation:

By Analyzing the left side, we can conclude that Honest is the Antonym of Charlatan
By using the same logic, we can conclude that Common is the Antonym for Quaint.

160. Explanation:

By Analyzing the left side, we can conclude that Aid is the Antonym of Penalize
By using the same logic, we can conclude that Opponent is the Antonym for Philanthropist.

161. Explanation:
In this alternating repetition series, the random number 21 is interpolated every other number into
an otherwise simple addition series that increases by 2, beginning with the number 9.

162. Explanation:

The odd one is "9 Q A"

In the other options,

Second element = 'First element - 2' positions in the given series
Third element = 'First element + 2' positions in the given series

This pattern is mismatched in the Option "9 Q A", so this is the odd one.

163. Explanation:

By Analyzing the left side, we can conclude that Calm is the Antonym of Vehemence
By using the same logic, we can conclude that Retreat is the Antonym for Quest.

164. Explanation:

Anuj's daughter's mother -- Anuj's wife;

Anuj's wife's father -- Anuj's father-in-law;
Father-in-law's son -- Anuj's brother-in-law.
So, Manish is Anuj's brother-in-law.

165. Explanation:

By Analyzing the left side, we can conclude that Cease is the Antonym of Thrive
By using the same logic, we can conclude that Dreary is the Antonym for Picturesque.

166. Explanation:

By Analyzing the left side, we can conclude that Discouragement is the Antonym of Bait
By using the same logic, we can conclude that Unfriendly is the Antonym for Intimate.

167. Explanation:

Number of students in total will be = 31+21 - 1= 51

168. Explanation:
Solution is

Immediate right to the V isT

169. Explanation:

E is married to A or D. But B is married to D. Thus, E is married to A. Thus, A, B, D, E are the four

adults and C, F, G are the three children in the family. B and D have a child G. A and E have two
children. They are C and F. Now, only F and G are girls. So, C is a boy. Thus, C is A's or E's son.

170. Explanation:

Thus, position of one person(Q) remains unchanged.

171. Explanation:
Third person to the right of F is C.

172. Explanation:
27 is right answer.

173. Explanation:

By Analyzing the given analogy, we can infer that in the left side an animal and the sound it makes is
given i.e. hum and buzz is sound made by Bees
By Applying the same logic to the right side we can conclude that warble is the sound made by Larks.

174. Explanation:

O, Q>P>N>M

175. Explanation:
Solution is

Students did not take part in any of these activities = 100 - (10+4+20+9+5+11+23)
= 100 - 82 = 18

176. Explanation:

By Analyzing the left side, we can conclude that Expressed is the Antonym of Ulterior
By using the same logic, we can conclude that Dull is the Antonym for Radiant.

177. Explanation:

From Analyzing the left side, we can conclude that Biased is the synonym of Bigoted
By using the same logic, we can conclude that Artless is the synonym for Ingenuous.

178. Explanation:

Clearly, the company lends more importance to mechanical engineers. This shows that they are
believed to perform better. So, I is implicit. Also, the advertisement is given because the company
needs supervisors. So, II is implicit. Further, the advertisement is meant to attract only mechanical
engineers for the vacancy in company X. Hence, III is also implicit.
179. Explanation:

The correct arrangement is:

7th Floor - Charlie
6th Floor - Gina
5th Floor - Feroz
4th Floor - Elly
3rd Floor - Annie
2nd Floor - David
1st Floor - Ben

Fourpeople live between David and Charlie.

180. Explanation:

From Analyzing the left side, we can conclude that Premature is the synonym of Precocious
By using the same logic, we can conclude that Doubtful is the synonym for Questionable.
181. Explanation:

From Analyzing the left side, we can conclude that Appetite is the synonym of Urge
By using the same logic, we can conclude that Elated is the synonym for Jubilant.

182. Explanation:

The sequence consists of two series (Y, T, O) and (B, G, ?). The first series consists of 2nd, 7th and
12th letters from the end of English alphabet. The second series consists of 2nd, 7th and 12th letters
from the beginning of English alphabet.

183. Explanation:

The civic authority has advised residents to keep away from mosquitoes to avert the risk of malaria.
Such an advice would surely be adhered to by the people. So, II is not implicit. Besides, it has been
advised to use mosquito repellents or nets. This means that people can afford to buy the same. So, I
is implicit.

184. Explanation:

By Analyzing the given analogy, we can infer that in the left side an animal and the sound it makes is
given i.e. trumpet is sound made by Elephants
By Applying the same logic to the right side we can conclude that talk is the sound made by Humans.

185. Explanation:

It is mentioned in the statement that one who considers price and quality before buying a product
should buy the product of company X. So, both I and II follow.

186. Explanation:
L is husband of H, H is mother of J, so L is father of J. Now J is father of T, so L is paternal grandfather
of T

187. Explanation:

Both the given conclusions clearly bring out the central theme of the proverb given in the statement.
So, both I and II follow.

188. Explanation:

The given conclusion I is not possible according to the given statement.

There is possibility for Conclusion II, so only conclusion II follows.

189. Explanation:

By Analyzing the left side, we can conclude that Cheerful is the Antonym of Wistful
By using the same logic, we can conclude that Close is the Antonym for Remote.

190. Explanation:

By Analyzing the left side, we can conclude that Clear up is the Antonym of Astonish
By using the same logic, we can conclude that Acquittal is the Antonym for Blame.

191. Explanation:

By Analyzing the left side, we can conclude that Dreary is the Antonym of Picturesque
By using the same logic, we can conclude that Foolish is the Antonym for Crafty.

192. Explanation:

Given numbers 813 479 564 358 1ST and 3rd digits repl. 318 974 465 953

193. Explanation:

The fact given in I is quite contrary to the given statement. So, I does not follow. II mentions the
direct implications of the state discussed in the statement. Thus, II follows.
194. Explanation:

Crowding on footpaths is a great inconvenience for walkers. So, stern action needs to be taken to
remove the vendors. But at the same time these people ought to be provided alternative means of
livelihood. So, both the courses follow.

195. Explanation:

By Analyzing the given analogy, : VU : YX :: WV : ? , we can find that in the left part , the first
alphabet (V) is shifted by 3 positions to the right and the second alphabet (U) is shifted by 1 positions
to the left to form YX
Apply the same logic to the right half, by shifting W by 3 positions to the right we get Z and by
shifting V by 1 positions to the left we get Y. Hence the right answer is ZR

196. Explanation:
40 is right answer.

197. Explanation:

By Analyzing the given analogy, we can infer that in the left side an adult name and its baby name is
given i.e. foal is baby of Horse
By Applying the same logic to the right side we can conclude that caterpillar is the baby of Butterfly.

198. Explanation:

Only either III or IV and I are true

199. Explanation:

Fsits immediate right of D

200. Explanation:

28.6 is right answer.

201. Explanation:

7 Charlie
6 Gina
5 Feroz
4 Elly
3 Annie
2 David
1 Ben

202. Explanation:

Step 2: 17 victory 19 37 58 store like town

Step 3: 17 victory 19 town 37 58 store like
Step 4: 17 victory 19 town 37 store 58 like
Step 4 is the last step.

203. Explanation:
3 is right Answer.

204. Explanation:

Number of trees in total will be = 34+15 - 1= 48

205. Explanation:

Only conclusion II follows

206. Explanation:

Given
If the middle digit in all the numbers are removed,the following number will be maximum
45, 31, 57, 42, 22
57 is maximum i.e 517.
207. Explanation:
From I : If Puneet is facing South East and turns to right 135o, he will face West
From II : If Puneet is facing South East and and turns to right 45o, he will face South which is
opposite to North.

208. Explanation:

From Analyzing the left side, we can conclude that Cunning is the synonym of Insidious
By using the same logic, we can conclude that Touching is the synonym for Poignant.

209. Explanation:

By Analyzing the left side, we can conclude that Unrefined is the Antonym of Urbane
By using the same logic, we can conclude that Gluttonous is the Antonym for Abstemious.

210. Explanation:

From Analyzing the left side, we can conclude that Grandiose is the synonym of Extravagant
By using the same logic, we can conclude that Active is the synonym for Lively.

211. Explanation:

From Analyzing the left side, we can conclude that Stiff is the synonym of Rigid
By using the same logic, we can conclude that Alive is the synonym for Quick.

212. Explanation:

By Analyzing the left side, we can conclude that Ceasing is the Antonym of Perennial
By using the same logic, we can conclude that Advantage is the Antonym for Affliction.

213. Explanation:

Each letter of the word is five steps ahead of the corresponding letter of the code.

214. Explanation:

Only 3 follows

215. Explanation:

if Only I and II follow

216. Explanation:

By Analyzing the left side, we can conclude that Humility is the Antonym of Conceit
By using the same logic, we can conclude that Starting is the Antonym for Acme.

217. Explanation:

Seating Arrangement is Elle ,Feynman ,Gyle ,Harry ,Ann ,Ben ,Charlie ,David

218. Explanation:

From Analyzing the left side, we can conclude that Prerequisite is the synonym of Stipulation
By using the same logic, we can conclude that Irrelevant is the synonym for Impertinent.

219. Explanation:

By Analyzing the given analogy, : PO : SR :: WV : ? , we can find that in the left part , the first
alphabet (P) is shifted by 3 positions to the right and the second alphabet (O) is shifted by 1 positions
to the left to form SR
Apply the same logic to the right half, by shifting W by 3 positions to the right we get Z and by
shifting V by 1 positions to the left we get Y. Hence the right answer is ZR

220. Explanation:

By Analyzing the given analogy, we can infer that in the left side an animal and the sound it makes is
given i.e. bleat is sound made by Giraffes
By Applying the same logic to the right side we can conclude that grunt is the sound made by Hogs.

221. Explanation:

By Analyzing the left side, we can conclude that Foolish is the Antonym of Crafty
By using the same logic, we can conclude that Blame is the Antonym for Exculpate.
222. Explanation:

From the given Statements

We conclude that
Pages is coded as - th.
If the data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

223. Explanation:

By Analyzing the left side, we can conclude that Advantage is the Antonym of Affliction
By using the same logic, we can conclude that Cease is the Antonym for Thrive.
224. Explanation:

Bindu and Mary are at the corners in the photograph.

225. Explanation:

By Analyzing the given analogy, we can infer that in the left side an animal and the sound it makes is
given i.e. bell is sound made by Deers
By Applying the same logic to the right side we can conclude that growl is the sound made by Bears.

226. Explanation:

From Analyzing the left side, we can conclude that Uproot is the synonym of Exterminate
By using the same logic, we can conclude that Snare is the synonym for Bait.
227. Explanation:

Color of Milk = White, White means Red

228. Explanation:

By Analyzing the given analogy, we can infer that in the left side an adult name and its baby name is
given i.e. chick is baby of Crow
By Applying the same logic to the right side we can conclude that kit/cub/pup is the baby of Fox.

229. Explanation:
2 is right answer.

230. Explanation:

All except Bhadravati are places related with Gandhiji.

231. Explanation:

By Analyzing the given analogy, : ED : HG :: RQ : ? , we can find that in the left part , the first alphabet
(E) is shifted by 3 positions to the right and the second alphabet (D) is shifted by 1 positions to the
left to form HG
Apply the same logic to the right half, by shifting R by 3 positions to the right we get U and by
shifting Q by 1 positions to the left we get T. Hence the right answer is UM

232. Explanation:
By Analyzing the given analogy, we can infer that in the left side an adult name and its baby name is
given i.e. calf is baby of Whale
By Applying the same logic to the right side we can conclude that tadpole is the baby of Toad.

233. Explanation:

From I and II, we find that Divya read (300 x 2/3) i.e. 200 pages before Sunday and the last 50 pages
on Monday.
This means that She read [300 - (200 + 50)] i.e. 50 pages on Sunday.

Therefore,data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer.

234. Explanation:

There are two female members in the family.

235. Explanation:

The given conclusion I is not possible according to the given statement.

There is possibility for Conclusion II, so only conclusion II follows.

236. Explanation:

From Analyzing the left side, we can conclude that Retort is the synonym of Quip
By using the same logic, we can conclude that Splendid is the synonym for Magnificient.
237. Explanation:

From Analyzing the left side, we can conclude that Badger is the synonym of Browbeat
By using the same logic, we can conclude that Criticism is the synonym for Blame.

238. Explanation:

Solution is :
No. of students participated in Music and sports = 9 + 5 = 14

239. Explanation:

By Analyzing the given analogy, : GF : JI :: SR : ? , we can find that in the left part , the first alphabet
(G) is shifted by 3 positions to the right and the second alphabet (F) is shifted by 1 positions to the
left to form JI
Apply the same logic to the right half, by shifting S by 3 positions to the right we get V and by shifting
R by 1 positions to the left we get U. Hence the right answer is VN

240. Explanation:

2,3 is right answer.

241. Explanation:

By Analyzing the given analogy, we can infer that in the left side an animal and the sound it makes is
given i.e. meow is sound made by Cats
By Applying the same logic to the right side we can conclude that bleat is the sound made by
Giraffes.

242. Explanation:

Number of students in total will be = 31+9 - 1= 39

243. Explanation:

By Analyzing the left side, we can conclude that Polite is the Antonym of Impertinent
By using the same logic, we can conclude that Expressed is the Antonym for Ulterior.

244. Explanation:

Given,A is coded as +,
B is coded as -,
C is coded as * and
D is coded as /

and the given expression:3 A 4 B 5 C 7 D 5 C 2

By using correct symbols, we get,
3+4-5*7/5*2
=-7

245. Explanation:

According to given data, the order of persons from heaviest to lightest is:
B>D>A>E>C>F

and Weight of D = 66 kg,

Weight of C = 32 kg

246. Explanation:

By Analyzing the left side, we can conclude that Blame is the Antonym of Exculpate
By using the same logic, we can conclude that Depleted is the Antonym for Abundant.

247. Explanation:

From Analyzing the left side, we can conclude that Conform is the synonym of Acquiesce
By using the same logic, we can conclude that Chide is the synonym for Scold.

248. Explanation:

Any notice is displayed assuming that people will read the notice and also follow the content of the
notice. So, I is implicit. Besides, the notice threatens any trespassers to be prosecuted. So, II is also
implicit.

249. Explanation:
By Analyzing the given analogy, : JL : KM :: QS : ?, we can find that in the left part, the first alphabet
(J) is shifted by 1 position to the right and the second alphabet (L) is shifted by 1 position to the right
to form "KM".

Apply the same logic to the right half, by shifting Q by 1 positions to the right we get "R" and by
shifting S by 1 position to the right we get "T". Hence the right answer is RT

250. Explanation:

By Analyzing the given analogy, we can infer that in the left side an adult name and its baby name is
given i.e. calf is baby of Elephant
By Applying the same logic to the right side we can conclude that foal is the baby of Horse.

251. Explanation:

2 is right answer .

252. Explanation:

1 is right answer .

253. Explanation:

Daughter of Kiran’s mother – Kiran’s Sister. So Kiran is an Uncle of Rocky.

254. Explanation:

The series is abc/cab/bca/abc. The letters are in cyclic order

acac is missing sequence.

255. Explanation:

By Analyzing the given analogy, : GF : JI :: FE : ? , we can find that in the left part , the first alphabet
(G) is shifted by 3 positions to the right and the second alphabet (F) is shifted by 1 positions to the
left to form JI
Apply the same logic to the right half, by shifting F by 3 positions to the right we get I and by shifting
E by 1 positions to the left we get H. Hence the right answer is IA

256. Explanation:

Given
8th to the right of the 15th element from the left end
= (15 + 8)
= 23rd element from left which is F.

257. Explanation:

Such a high target can be achieved only by a drastic increase in the number of tourists. The tourists
can be attracted only by developing spots worth seeing and providing attractive packages which
seem to be a good value-for-money offer to foreign tourists. So, only II follows.
258. Explanation:

According to height T > (P, Q) > (S, R) So from question, it is not clear that which one is shorter S or R.
So the given data is insufficient

259. Explanation:

By Analyzing the left side, we can conclude that Disgust is the Antonym of Urge
By using the same logic, we can conclude that Create is the Antonym for Exterminate.

260. Explanation:

"W"is to the immediate right of V.

261. Explanation:

From Analyzing the left side, we can conclude that Excuse is the synonym of Condone
By using the same logic, we can conclude that Forbidden is the synonym for Taboo.

262. Explanation:
Statement I : Not sufficient to answer the question.
Statement II:P>Q>M>O>N
So,the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

263. Explanation:

By Analyzing the given analogy, we can infer that in the left side an animal and the sound it makes is
given i.e. squeak is sound made by Rabbits
By Applying the same logic to the right side we can conclude that bleat is the sound made by
Giraffes.

264. Explanation:

From Analyzing the left side, we can conclude that Decrease is the synonym of Abate
By using the same logic, we can conclude that Reaction is the synonym for Backlash.

265. Explanation:

Letter E ---> %
Letter R ---> 1
Letter H ---> @
Letter B ---> $
Letter M ---> 6
Letter T --->©
Thus%1@$6© is correct answer.

266. Explanation:

A and C are not neighbours. Hence the odd one is AC.

267. Explanation:

By Analyzing the left side, we can conclude that Liberation is the Antonym of Resistance
By using the same logic, we can conclude that Advantage is the Antonym for Care.

268. Explanation:

Given,A is coded as -,
B is coded as +,
C is coded as * and
D is coded as /

and the given expression:5 A 8 B 6 C 5 D 2 C 3

By using correct symbols, we get,
5-8+6*5/2*3
= 42

269. Explanation:
1 is right answer .

270. Explanation:

By Analyzing the left side, we can conclude that Dull is the Antonym of Radiant
By using the same logic, we can conclude that Immaterial is the Antonym for Temporal.

271. Explanation:

After careful analysis of the input and various steps of rearrangement, it is evident that in the first
step one word is arranged according to alpahabetical order. This step is continued till all
the words get arranged in alphabetical order.

Input : Changed pattern based on the new syllabus

Step I: based Changed pattern on the new syllabus
Step II : based Changed new pattern on the syllabus

Thus,the position of the word "pattern" from left end in step II is "4th"

272. Explanation:

The letters move 2 steps backward in the English alphabetical order.

L-2=J
J-2=H

Thus, the answer is J,H.

273. Explanation:

Mary is sitting immediate right to Reeta

274. Explanation:

G
LT
MD
K
275. Explanation:

The statement implies that capsule Vitamin E does not function so effectively as natural Vitamin E.
Since no negative effect of capsule Vitamin E is mentioned, so I does not follow. Hence, only II
follows.

276. Explanation:

Given,
© ---≥
% --- ≤
# --- >
@ --- =
$ --- <

R # D and D © K, K $ M.
=> R > D≥ K < M

Statement I . M # R ---> M > R (False)

Statement II. K $ R ---> K < R (True)
Thus, only conclusion II is true.

277. Explanation:

From Analyzing the left side, we can conclude that Associate is the synonym of Ally
By using the same logic, we can conclude that Filthy is the synonym for Obscene.

278. Explanation:

All except Reader are persons involved in the preparation of a journal, newspaper or magazine.

279. Explanation:

if the candidate is to be referred to Director- Finance

280. Explanation:
Two is right answer .

281. Explanation:

By Analyzing the given analogy, we can infer that in the left side an adult name and its baby name is
given i.e. joey is baby of Kangaroo
By Applying the same logic to the right side we can conclude that calf is the baby of Whale.

282. Explanation:
According to the given statement,
Conclusions I and III are not possible
II and IV are negative statements and they follows
So, only either I or II and III or IV follows

283. Explanation:
2 is right answer .

284. Explanation:

By Analyzing the given analogy, : DF : EG :: EG : ? , we can find that in the left part , the first alphabet
(D) is shifted by 1 positions to the right and the second alphabet (F) is shifted by 2 positions to the
right to form EG
Apply the same logic to the right half, by shifting E by 1 positions to the right we get F and by shifting
G by 2 positions to the right we get H. Hence the right answer is FH

285. Explanation:
TR is right answer .

286. Explanation:

By Analyzing the given analogy, RO : PM :: PM : ?, we can find that in the left part, the first
alphabet (R) is shifted by 2 positions to the left and the second alphabet (O) is shifted by 2 positions
to the left to form "PM".

Apply the same logic to the right half, by shifting "P" by 2 positions to the left we get "N" and by
shifting "M" by 2 positions to the left we get "K". Hence the right answer is "NK"

287. Explanation:

By Analyzing the given analogy, : WY : XZ :: NP : ? , we can find that in the left part , the first alphabet
(W) is shifted by 1 positions to the right and the second alphabet (Y) is shifted by 2 positions to the
right to form XZ
Apply the same logic to the right half, by shifting N by 1 positions to the right we get O and by
shifting P by 2 positions to the right we get Q. Hence the right answer is OQ

288. Explanation:

1) E>C>B
2) A is not the shortest
3) A>D (only D),
So from 1 and 3 we get that E is the tallest person

289. Explanation:
Given Statement: A > B > C and D >= E >= B

Conclusion I: C = E (False)
=> From the given statement, E >= B > C
=> E > C
=> C < E

Conclusion II: A > = E(False)

=> From the given statement, A > B <= E.

290. Explanation:

By Analyzing the left side, we can conclude that Gang is the Antonym of Quarantined
By using the same logic, we can conclude that Inessential is the Antonym for Radical.

291. Explanation:

By Analyzing the given analogy, we can infer that in the left side an adult name and its baby name is
given i.e. stot / calf is baby of Ox
By Applying the same logic to the right side we can conclude that calf is the baby of Yak.

292. Explanation:

Solution is

Both the statements are negative considerations

293. Explanation:

By Analyzing the left side, we can conclude that Expressed is the Antonym of Ulterior
By using the same logic, we can conclude that Dull is the Antonym for Radiant.

294. Explanation:

The letters of the word are written in a reverseorder and then the letters of the second and fourth
pairs from the end of the word so formed are reversed in order, to obtain the code. Thus, the code
for POPULARISE is ESRIALPUOP.

295. Explanation:

The series is adbcacbdabcddcbadbcacbda.

296. Explanation:

Either @ or %

297. Explanation:
V is in the middle of U and W

298. Explanation:

By Analyzing the given analogy, we can infer that in the left side an adult name and its baby name is
given i.e. calf is baby of Whale
By Applying the same logic to the right side we can conclude that tadpole is the baby of Frog.

299. Explanation:

The letters in the first half and the last half of the code are separately reversed to obtain the word.

300. Explanation:

By Analyzing the given analogy, we can infer that in the left side an animal and the sound it makes is
given i.e. scream is sound made by Vultures
By Applying the same logic to the right side we can conclude that squeak and squeal is the sound
made by Mice.
 Verbal Ability

1. (solve as per the direction given above)

A.
The philosophers

B.
believe that by making men see

C.
reason through argument, society would be changed and human behaviour

D.
improvd

E.
All correct
[#]

Direction (for Q.No. 2):

In each question below, there is a sentence of which some parts have been jumbled up. Rearrange
these parts which are labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper
sequence.

2. I was
P : and stay fro few days in Delhi
Q : when my father told me
R : very excited
S : that I could go with him
The Proper sequence should be:

A.
PQRS

B.
RQSP
 C.
QRSP

D.
SPQR
[#]

Direction (for Q.No. 3):

Each sentences below consist of a word or a phrase which is bold. It is followed by four words or
phrases. Select the word or pharse which is closes to the OPPOSITE in meaning of the bold word or
phrase.

3. She used to disparage her neighbor every now and then.

A.
please

B.
praise

C.
belittle

D.
denigrate
[#]

Direction (for Q.No. 4):

In each of the sentences given below a word is printed in bold. Below it four choices are given. Pick
up the one which is most nearly the same in meaning as the word printer in bold and can replaces it
without altering the meaning of the sentence.

4. Lack of occupation is not necessary revealed by manifest idleness.

A.
easily perceived

B.
 easily acquired

C.
easily infected

D.
easily deflected
[#]

Direction (for Q.Nos. 5 - 8):

Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be
in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is
'D'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

5. (solve as per the direction given above)

A.
He explained the matter

B.
at great length

C.
but I was not the wiser

D.
No error.
[#]

6. (solve as per the direction given above)

A.
My father goes

B.
to the office
 C.
five day week.

D.
No error.
[#]

7. (solve as per the direction given above)

A.
The test will not need

B.
more than one and half hour

C.
to finish.

D.
No error
[#]

8. (solve as per the direction given above)

A.
My friend asked me

B.
if I can lend him my Parker pen

C.
for a few days.

D.
No error.
[#]
Direction (for Q.No. 9):
Some proverbs/idioms are given below together with their meanings. Choose the correct meaning of
proverb/idiom, If there is no correct meaning given, E (i.e.) 'None of these' will be the answer.

9. To make clean breast of

A.
To gain prominence

B.
To praise oneself

C.
To confess without of reserve

D.
To destroy before it blooms

E.
None of these
[#]

Direction (for Q.No. 10):

In questions given below, a part of the sentence is italicised and underlined. Below are given
alternatives to the italicised part which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In
case no improvement is needed, option 'D' is the answer.

10. I hope you won't object to me watching while you work.

A.
against me watching

B.
me to watch

C.
to my watching
 D.
No improvement
[#]

Direction (for Q.Nos. 11 - 13):

Pick out the most effective word(s) from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence
meaningfully complete.

11. Hardly had he arrived ...... it started raining.

A.
before

B.
when

C.
than

D.
after
[#]

12. Those who persist in the endeavor at long last triumph ...... the odds of life.

A.
over

B.
on

C.
upon

D.
about
[#]
13. This book is a useful ...... to our library.

A.
discovery

B.
asset

C.
addition

D.
arrival
[#]

Direction (for Q.No. 14):

In questions given below out of four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the
given word/sentence.

14. That which cannot be corrected

A.
Unintelligible

B.
Indelible

C.
Illegible

D.
Incorrigible
[#]

Direction (for Q.Nos. 15 - 16):

Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be
in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is
'E'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

15. (solve as per the direction given above)

A.
Mr.Raman said that

B.
he had a difference

C.
with

D.
the chairman at his statement.

E.
No error.
[#]

16. (solve as per the direction given above)

A.
The last year proved

B.
quite bad

C.
as major industries

D.
witness lot of problems.

E.
No error.
 [#]

Direction (for Q.Nos. 17 - 18):

In the following the questions choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

17. DILIGENT

A.
Progressive

B.
Brilliant

C.
Inventive

D.
Hard-working
[#]

18. CORPULENT

A.
Lean

B.
Gaunt

C.
Emaciated

D.
Obese
[#]

Direction (for Q.No. 19):

In the following questions choose the word which is the exact OPPOSITE of the given words.
19. NADIR

A.
Modernity

B.
Zenith

C.
Liberty

D.
Progress
[#]

Direction (for Q.No. 20):

Which of phrases given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold type to make
the grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is, mark 'E' as the answer.

20. The small child does whatever his father was done.

A.
has done

B.
did

C.
does

D.
had done

E.
No correction required
21. (solve as per the direction given above)

A.
Do you know

B.
to play

C.
the guitar?

D.
No error.
[#]

22. (solve as per the direction given above)

A.
After leaving his office

B.
he went directly

C.
to a restaurant.

D.
No error.
[#]

Direction (for Q.Nos. 23 - 24):

Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be
in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is
'E'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

23. (solve as per the direction given above)

 A.
The observers felt that

B.
the stronger team had to face

C.
defeat because the players

D.
didn't play whole hearted.

E.
No error.
[#]

24. (solve as per the direction given above)

A.
Ramesh did not like

B.
leaving his old parents alone in the house

C.
but he had no alternative

D.
as he has to go out to work.

E.
No error.
[#]

Direction (for Q.Nos. 25 - 28):

In the following the questions choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

25. RESCUE
 A.
Command

B.
Help

C.
Defence

D.
Safety
[#]

26. RECKLESS

A.
Courageous

B.
Rash

C.
Bold

D.
Daring
[#]

27. INSOLVENT

A.
Poor

B.
 Bankrupt

C.
Penniless

D.
Broke
[#]

28. AWAKENED

A.
Enlightened

B.
Realised

C.
Shook

D.
Waken
[#]

Direction (for Q.No. 29):

In each of the sentences given below a word is printed in bold. Below it four choices are given. Pick
up the one which is most nearly the same in meaning as the word printer in bold and can replaces it
without altering the meaning of the sentence.

29. Swift is known in the world of letters for his misogynism.

A.
hate for mankind

B.
hate for womankind
 C.
love for the reasonable

D.
love for the womankind
[#]

Direction (for Q.Nos. 30 - 32):

In the following questions choose the word which is the exact OPPOSITE of the given words.

30. EXTRAVAGANCE

A.
Luxury

B.
Poverty

C.
Economical

D.
Cheapness
[#]

31. FRUGAL

A.
Copious

B.
Extravagant

C.
Generous
 D.
Ostentatious
[#]

32. LEND

A.
Borrow

B.
Cheat

C.
Pawn

D.
Hire
[#]

Direction (for Q.Nos. 33 - 34):

Each sentences below consist of a word or a phrase which is bold. It is followed by four words or
phrases. Select the word or pharse which is closes to the OPPOSITE in meaning of the bold word or
phrase.

33. Unsettled conditions in the land led to exodus of hundreds of its citizens.

A.
invasion

B.
entry

C.
immigration
 D.
expulsion
[#]

34. Adversity teaches man to be humble and self-reliant.

A.
sincerity

B.
animosity

C.
curiosity

D.
prosperity
[#]

Direction (for Q.No. 35):

Pick out the most effective word(s) from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence
meaningfully complete.

35. The river overflowed its ...... and flooded the area.

A.
edges

B.
fronts

C.
limits

D.
 banks
[#]

Direction (for Q.No. 36):

In each sentence below, four words which are lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D) have been printed in bold
type, one which may be either inappropriate in the context of the sentence or wrongly spelt.The
letter of that word is answer.If all the four words are appropriate and also correctly spelt, mark 'E',
i.e., 'All Correct' as the answer.

36. (solve as per the direction given above)

A.
People in our country are distressed

B.
by the spate of strikes, an almost

C.
perpetual go slow and

D.
increadibily low productivity

E.
All correct
[#]

Direction (for Q.No. 37):

Which of phrases given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold type to make
the grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is, mark 'E' as the answer.

37. They failed in their attempt to repair the demolished portion of that building.

A.
 for their attempt to repair

B.
in their attempting to repair

C.
with their attempt to repair

D.
in their attempt for repairs

E.
No correction required
[#]

Direction (for Q.No. 38):

In questions below, each passage consist of six sentences. The first and sixth sentence are given in
the begining. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are
labelled as P, Q, R and S. Find out the proper order for the four sentences.

38.

S1: Most of the universities in the country are now facing financial crisis.
P : Cost benefit yardstick thus should not be applied in the case of universities.
Q : The current state of affairs cannot be allowed to continue for long.
R : Universities cannot be equated with commercial enterprises.
S : Proper development of universities and colleges must be ensured.
S6: The Government should realise this before it is too late.
The Proper sequence should be:

A.
QRPS

B.
QSPR

C.
 QRSP

D.
QPRS
[#]

Direction (for Q.Nos. 39 - 40):

Each question consist of two words which have a certain relationship to each other followed by four
pairs of related words, Select the pair which has the same relationship.

39. DIVA:OPERA

A.
producer:theatre

B.
director:drama

C.
conductor:bus

D.
thespian:play
[#]

40. TEN:DECIMAL

A.
seven:septet

B.
four:quartet
 C.
two:binary

D.
five:quince

Direction (for Q.Nos. 41 - 42):

Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be
in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is
'D'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

41. (solve as per the direction given above)

A.
Looking back, I find that among the many impressions ofthe people of India,

B.
absorbed while I lived among them,

C.
are their reverence for great men and women.

D.
No error.
[#]

42. (solve as per the direction given above)

A.
In management, as you rise higher,

B.
the problems you face becomemore and more unstructured and you can't just fall
back on
 C.
the tools you had been

D.
No error.
[#]

Direction (for Q.Nos. 43 - 45):

Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be
in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is
'E'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

43. (solve as per the direction given above)

A.
I cannot

B.
make from

C.
what you are saying

D.
about him.

E.
No error.
[#]

44. (solve as per the direction given above)

A.
Even after worked in the office
 B.
for as many as fifteen years,

C.
he still does not understand

D.
the basic objectives of the work.

E.
No error.
[#]

45. (solve as per the direction given above)

A.
Your machine would not have

B.
given you so much trouble

C.
if you had

D.
maintained it proper.

E.
No error.
[#]

Direction (for Q.Nos. 46 - 48):

In each of the sentences given below a word is printed in bold. Below it four choices are given. Pick
up the one which is most nearly the same in meaning as the word printer in bold and can replaces it
without altering the meaning of the sentence.

46. She has an insatiable love for music.

 A.
unsatisfiable

B.
unchanging

C.
irreconcilable

D.
undesirable
[#]

47. Traffic being what it is, it is lamentable that our roads are unable to take the load.

A.
unpardonable

B.
deplorable

C.
inexcusable

D.
terrible
[#]

48. Catching snakes can be hazardous for people untrained in the

art.

A.
tricky
 B.
harmful

C.
difficult

D.
dangerous
[#]

Direction (for Q.Nos. 49 - 50):

In the following questions choose the word which is the exact OPPOSITE of the given words.

49. FLAGITIOUS

A.
Innocent

B.
Vapid

C.
Ignorant

D.
Frivolous
[#]

50. IMPASSE

A.
Resurgence

B.
Breakthrough
 C.
Continuation

D.
Combination
[#]

Direction (for Q.Nos. 51 - 54):

Pick out the most effective word(s) from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence
meaningfully complete.

51. The grapes are now ...... enough to be picked.

A.
ready

B.
mature

C.
ripe

D.
advanced
[#]

52. The paths of glory lead ...... to the

grave.

A.
straight

B.
but

C.
in
 D.
directly
[#]

53. He passed the examination in the first class because he ......

A.
was hard working for it

B.
worked hardly for it

C.
had worked hard for it

D.
was working hard for it
[#]

54. The English schemed to continue their rule in India by playing off one community ...... the other.

A.
before

B.
upon

C.
against

D.
with
[#]
Direction (for Q.No. 55):
In each question, an incomplete statement (Stem) followed by fillers is given. Pick out the best one
which can complete incomplete stem correctly and meaningfully.

55. In order to help the company attain its goal of enhancing profit, all the employees ......

A.
urged the management to grant paid leave

B.
appealed the management to implement new welfare schemes

C.
voluntarily offered to work overtime with lucrative compensation

D.
voluntarily offered to render additional services in lieu of nothing

E.
decided to enhance production at the cost of quality of the product
[#]

Direction (for Q.Nos. 56 - 57):

In questions below, each passage consist of six sentences. The first and sixth sentence are given in
the begining. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are
labelled as P, Q, R and S. Find out the proper order for the four sentences.

56.

S1: Ants eat worms, centipedes and spiders.

P : They are usually much quicker than the ant itself.
Q : Nevertheless, these animals do not make easy game for ants.
R : Besides, they have an extraordinary number of ways of escaping.
S : They also eat larvae and insect adults such as flies, moths and spring tails.
S6: Some jump, and some give out a pungent repellent substance.
The Proper sequence should be:

A.
 SQPR

B.
SPRQ

C.
SQRP

D.
SRQP
[#]

57.

S1: Once upon atime there lived three young men in a certain town of Hindustan.
P : All the people of the neighbourhood were mortally afraid of them.
Q : They were so powerful that they could catch growing lions and tear them to pieces.
R : Someone told them that they would become immortal if they killed Death.
S : The young men believed themselves to be very good friends.
S6: All of them set out in search of their foe called Death.
The Proper sequence should be:

A.
QPRS

B.
SQPR

C.
RSQP

D.
SRPQ
[#]

Direction (for Q.Nos. 58 - 59):

In the following questions four alternatives are given for the idiom/phrase italicised and
underlined in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of
idiom/phrase.

58. Why do you wish to tread on the toes?

A.
To give offence to them

B.
To follow them grudgingly

C.
To treat them indifferently

D.
To be kicked by them
[#]

59. In spite of the immense pressure exerted by the militants, the Government has decided not
to give in.

A.
accede

B.
yield

C.
oblige

D.
confirm
[#]

Direction (for Q.No. 60):

In the questions below the sentences have been given in Direct/Indirect speech. From the given
alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the given sentence in Indirect/Direct speech.

60. Nita ordered her servant to bring her cup of tea.

A.
Nita told her servant, "Bring a cup of tea."

B.
Nita said, "Bring me a cup of tea."

C.
Nita said to her servant, "Bring me a cup of tea."

D.
Nita told her servant, "Bring her that cup of tea."

Direction (for Q.Nos. 61 - 63):

Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be
in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is
'D'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

61. (solve as per the direction given above)

A.
In spite of several reminders,

B.
he did not so far send

C.
any reply to me, letters.

D.
No error.
[#]

62. (solve as per the direction given above)

 A.
My wife has got

B.
a new job

C.
a month ago.

D.
No error.
[#]

63. (solve as per the direction given above)

A.
A body of volunteers

B.
have been organised

C.
to spread the message of the saint.

D.
No error.
[#]

Direction (for Q.Nos. 64 - 65):

Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be
in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is
'E'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

64. (solve as per the direction given above)

 A.
He being the eldest son,

B.
his father expects him

C.
to take care of several things

D.
besides his regular studies.

E.
No error.
[#]

65. (solve as per the direction given above)

A.
He was very disappointed

B.
when he found

C.
that someone else

D.
had secured higher marks.

E.
No error.
[#]

Direction (for Q.Nos. 66 - 68):

In each of the sentences given below a word is printed in bold. Below it four choices are given. Pick
up the one which is most nearly the same in meaning as the word printer in bold and can replaces it
without altering the meaning of the sentence.

66. The pioneers left a blazing trial of courage, manliness and chivalry.

A.
inventors

B.
explorers

C.
colonialist

D.
settlers
[#]

67. Even today many people are guided by abstruse moral values.

A.
dangerous

B.
impracticable

C.
obscure

D.
irrational
[#]

68. She baffled all our attempts to find

her.
 A.
defeated

B.
thwarted

C.
foiled

D.
circumvented
[#]

Direction (for Q.Nos. 69 - 70):

Pick out the most effective word(s) from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence
meaningfully complete.

69. She has an aversion ...... taking even onion and garlic.

A.
with

B.
at

C.
against

D.
to
[#]

70. He is a very careful person, he never takes side but remains ......

A.
 impartial

B.
unbiased

C.
neutral

D.
prejudiced
[#]

Direction (for Q.No. 71):

In each question below, there is a sentence of which some parts have been jumbled up. Rearrange
these parts which are labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper
sequence.

71. The national unity of a free people

P : to make it impracticable
Q : for there to be an arbitrary administration
R : depends upon a sufficiently even balance of political power
S : against a revolutionary opposition that is irreconcilably opposed to it
The Proper sequence should be:

A.
QRPS

B.
QRSP

C.
RPQS

D.
RSPQ
[#]
Direction (for Q.No. 72):
Which of phrases given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold type to make
the grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is, mark 'E' as the answer.

72. We don't know how did the thief made an escape.

A.
how the thief did make

B.
how the thief does make

C.
how the thief made

D.
how was the thief made

E.
No correction required
[#]

Direction (for Q.Nos. 73 - 74):

In questions given below, a part of the sentence is italicised and underlined. Below are given
alternatives to the italicised part which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In
case no improvement is needed, option 'D' is the answer.

73. The old man felled some trees in the garden with hardly no effort at all.

A.
hard effort

B.
hardly any effort

C.
a hardly any effort
 D.
No improvement
[#]

744. As he is past his teens now, he can look for himself.

A.
after

B.
to

C.
around

D.
No improvement
[#]

Direction (for Q.Nos. 75 - 76):

In questions below, each passage consist of six sentences. The first and sixth sentence are given in
the begining. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are
labelled as P, Q, R and S. Find out the proper order for the four sentences.

75.

S1: This weather-vane often tops a church spire, tower or high building.
P : They are only wind-vanes.
Q Neither alone can tell us what the weather will be.
:
R : They are designed to point to direction from which the wind is coming.
S : Just as the barometer only tells us the pressure of air, the weather-vane tells us the
direction of wind.
S6: The weather-vane can, however give us some indication of other.
The Proper sequence should be:
 A.
PQRS

B.
PSRQ

C.
PRSQ

D.
SPQR
[#]

76.

S1: I took cigarettes from my case.

P : But when the fit of coughing was over, he replaced it between his lips.
Q : I lit one of them and placed it between the lips.
R : Then with a feeble hand he removed the cigarette.
S : Slowly he took a pull at it and coughed violently.
S6: Then he continues to draw on it.
The Proper sequence should be:

A.
PSQR

B.
QPSR

C.
QSRP

D.
SRPQ
[#]
Direction (for Q.Nos. 77 - 79):
In questions given below out of four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the
given word/sentence.

77. Extreme old age when a man behaves like a fool

A.
Imbecility

B.
Senility

C.
Dotage

D.
Superannuation
[#]

78. A drawing on transparent

paper

A.
Red print

B.
Blue print

C.
Negative

D.
Transparency
[#]

79. A voice loud enough to be heard

 A.
Audible

B.
Applaudable

C.
Laudable

D.
Oral
[#]

Direction (for Q.No. 80):

In the following questions four alternatives are given for the idiom/phrase italicised and
underlined in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of
idiom/phrase.

80. It was he who put a spoke in my wheel.

A.
tried to cause an accident

B.
helped in the execution of the plan

C.
thwarted in the execution of the plan

D.
destroyed the plan

Direction (for Q.No. 81):

Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be
in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is
'D'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

81. (solve as per the direction given above)

A.
There is no question

B.
of my failing

C.
in the examination.

D.
No error.
[#]

Direction (for Q.Nos. 82 - 83):

Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be
in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is
'E'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

82. (solve as per the direction given above)

A.
I will put on

B.
a note in this regard

C.
for your consideration

D.
and necessary decision.
 E.
No error.
[#]

83. (solve as per the direction given above)

A.
Mr.Raman said that

B.
he had a difference

C.
with

D.
the chairman at his statement.

E.
No error.
[#]

Direction (for Q.No. 84):

In each of the sentences given below a word is printed in bold. Below it four choices are given. Pick
up the one which is most nearly the same in meaning as the word printer in bold and can replaces it
without altering the meaning of the sentence.

84. He was wanted at the outset of his career.

A.
end

B.
beginning
 C.
middle

D.
entrance
[#]

Direction (for Q.Nos. 85 -87):

Pick out the most effective word(s) from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence
meaningfully complete.

85. I listened, but I had no idea what he was ...... about.

A.
saying

B.
talking

C.
telling

D.
discussing
[#]

86. Owing to the power cut in the area, factories are being forced to ......
men

A.
throw away

B.
 send off

C.
put off

D.
lay off
[#]

87. He lives near a lovely ...... of countryside.

A.
length

B.
piece

C.
section

D.
stretch
[#]

Direction (for Q.No. 88):

Find the correctly spelt words.

88. (solve as per the direction given above)

A.
Hindrance

B.
 Hinderrance

C.
Hindrence

D.
Hinderence
[#]

Direction (for Q.Nos. 89 - 90):

In each sentence below, four words which are lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D) have been printed in bold
type, one which may be either inappropriate in the context of the sentence or wrongly spelt.The
letter of that word is answer.If all the four words are appropriate and also correctly spelt, mark 'E',
i.e., 'All Correct' as the answer.

89. (solve as per the direction given above)

A.
Stereotypes

B.
are dysfunctional

C.
in projecting

D.
an image of an unbiased individual

E.
All correct
[#]

90. (solve as per the direction given above)

 A.
He is a man of amiable

B.
disposition

C.
and emenable

D.
to rule and discipline

E.
All correct
[#]

Direction (for Q.Nos. 91 - 93):

In each question below, there is a sentence of which some parts have been jumbled up. Rearrange
these parts which are labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper
sequence.

91. Since the beginning of history

P : have managed to catch
Q : the Eskimos and Red Indians
R : by a very difficulty method
S : a few specimens of this aquatic animal
The Proper sequence should be:

A.
QRPS

B.
SQPR
 C.
SQRP

D.
QPSR
[#]

92. We went
P : along the railway line
Q : and had a right to
R : where other people not allowed to go
S : but daddy belonged to the railway
The Proper sequence should be:

A.
RPQS

B.
PRSQ

C.
RSQP

D.
PRQS
[#]

93. I was
P : and stay fro few days in Delhi
Q : when my father told me
R : very excited
S : that I could go with him
The Proper sequence should be:
 A.
PQRS

B.
RQSP

C.
QRSP

D.
SPQR
[#]

Direction (for Q.Nos. 94 - 95):

Which of phrases given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold type to make
the grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is, mark 'E' as the answer.

94. Ramesh is as tall if not, taller than Mahesh.

A.
not as tall but

B.
not so tall but as

C.
as tall as, if not

D.
as if not

E.
No correction required
[#]
95. "Friends and comrades, the light has gone away from our lives and there is darkness
everywhere"

A.
off

B.
out of

C.
out from

D.
out off

E.
No correction required
[#]

Direction (for Q.No. 96):

In each question, an incomplete statement (Stem) followed by fillers is given. Pick out the best one
which can complete incomplete stem correctly and meaningfully.

96. Practically, very little work could be completed in the last week as it was ......

A.
full of working days

B.
a very hectic week

C.
full of holidays
 D.
a very busy week

E.
loaded with work
[#]

Direction (for Q.No. 97):

In questions below, each passage consist of six sentences. The first and sixth sentence are given in
the begining. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are
labelled as P, Q, R and S. Find out the proper order for the four sentences.

97.

S1: Ms. Parasuram started a Petrol Pump in Madras.

P : A total to 12 girls now work at the pump.
Q : She advertised in newspapers for women staff.
R : They operate in 2 shifts.
S : The response was good.
S6: Thus she has shown the way for many others.
The Proper sequence should be:

A.
PQSR

B.
SQPR

C.
QSPR

D.
PQRS
[#]

Direction (for Q.Nos. 98 - 99):

In the following questions four alternatives are given for the idiom/phrase italicised and
underlined in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of
idiom/phrase.

98. The robber took to his heels when the police arrived.

A.
opened fire

B.
hid himself

C.
ran off

D.
surrendered
[#]

99. I ran out of money on my European tour.

A.
exhausted my stock of

B.
did not have enough

C.
lost

D.
carried a lot
[#]

Direction (for Q.No. 100):

Each question consist of two words which have a certain relationship to each other followed by four
pairs of related words, Select the pair which has the same relationship.

100. GRAVITY:PULL

A.
iron:metal

B.
north pole:directions

C.
magnetism:attraction

D.
dust:desert

Direction (for Q.Nos. 101 - 102):

Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be
in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is
'D'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

101. (solve as per the direction given above)

A.
Everyone visiting the house asked the young girl

B.
how could she kill the wolf

C.
single handed and without a weapon.

D.
No error.
[#]
102. (solve as per the direction given above)

A.
When I get a cold

B.
it takes me weeks

C.
to shake it off.

D.
No error.
[#]

Direction (for Q.Nos. 103 - 106):

Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be
in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is
'E'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

103. (solve as per the direction given above)

A.
When the national

B.
anthem was being

C.
sung, everyone were

D.
standing in silence.

E.
No error.
 [#]

104. (solve as per the direction given above)

A.
He tried as he could

B.
Naveen did not

C.
succeed in getting

D.
his car to start up.

E.
No error.
[#]

105. (solve as per the direction given above)

A.
I am contacting you

B.
sometime in next week

C.
to explain to you

D.
my problem in detail.

E.
No error.
[#]
106. (solve as per the direction given above)

A.
Immediately after boarding the bus,

B.
Mahesh asked the conductor.

C.
that if he knew

D.
where the museum was,

E.
No error.
[#]

Direction (for Q.No. 107):

In the following the questions choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

107. FORAY

A.
Maraud

B.
Contest

C.
Ranger

D.
Intuition
 [#]

direction (for Q.Nos. 108 - 109):

In each of the sentences given below a word is printed in bold. Below it four choices are given. Pick
up the one which is most nearly the same in meaning as the word printer in bold and can replaces it
without altering the meaning of the sentence.

108. The attitude of Western countries towards the Third World Countries is rather callous to say
the least.

A.
passive

B.
unkind

C.
cursed

D.
unfeeling
[#]

109. When he returned he was accompanied by a sprightly young girl.

A.
beautiful

B.
lively

C.
intelligent

D.
sportive
[#]
Direction (for Q.No. 110):
Each sentences below consist of a word or a phrase which is bold. It is followed by four words or
phrases. Select the word or pharse which is closes to the OPPOSITE in meaning of the bold word or
phrase.

110. A friendly dog meet us at the farmgate.

A.
helpful

B.
understanding

C.
quiet

D.
hostile
[#]

Direction (for Q.No. 111):

Pick out the most effective word(s) from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence
meaningfully complete.

111. Success in this examination depends ...... hard work alone.

A.
at

B.
over

C.
for
 D.
on
[#]

Direction (for Q.No. 112):

Find the correctly spelt words.

112. (solve as per the direction given above)

A.
Eflorescence

B.
Efllorescence

C.
Efflorescence

D.
Efflorascence
[#]

Direction (for Q.No. 113):

In each questions below five words are given. Find out that word, the spelling of which is WRONG.
The letter of that word is the answer. If all the four words are spelt correctly, the answer is 'E', i.e.,
"All Correct".

113. (solve as per the direction given above)

A.
Psychologist

B.
Psychaitrist
 C.
Physiologist

D.
Psychoanalyst

E.
All correct
[#]

Direction (for Q.No. 114):

In each sentence below, four words which are lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D) have been printed in bold
type, one which may be either inappropriate in the context of the sentence or wrongly spelt.The
letter of that word is answer.If all the four words are appropriate and also correctly spelt, mark 'E',
i.e., 'All Correct' as the answer.

114. (solve as per the direction given above)

A.
The funeral

B.
was plain and ostentatious

C.
It differed

D.
in nothing from the ordinery

E.
All correct
[#]
Direction (for Q.No. 115):
In questions given below, a part of the sentence is italicised and underlined. Below are given
alternatives to the italicised part which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In
case no improvement is needed, option 'D' is the answer.

115. The poor villagers have waited in the bitter cold for more than 4 hours now.

A.
have been waiting

B.
had waited

C.
has been waiting

D.
No improvement
[#]

Direction (for Q.Nos. 116 - 117):

In each question, an incomplete statement (Stem) followed by fillers is given. Pick out the best one
which can complete incomplete stem correctly and meaningfully.

116. Because he believes in democratic principles, he always ......

A.
decides all the matters himself

B.
listen to others views and enforces his own

C.
shown respect to others opinions if they match his own

D.
 reconciles with the majority views and gives us his own

E.
imposes his own views on others
[#]

117. Mahesh need not have purchased the bag, means ......

A.
it was not necessary for Mahesh to purchase the bag but he has purchased it

B.
it was necessary for Mahesh to purchase the bag and he has not purchased it

C.
it was not necessary for Mahesh to purchase the bag and he has not purchased
it

D.
it was necessary for Mahesh to purchase the bag but he has not purchased it

E.
Mahesh already has a bag but still he purchased another one
[#]

Direction (for Q.No. 118):

In questions below, each passage consist of six sentences. The first and sixth sentence are given in
the begining. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are
labelled as P, Q, R and S. Find out the proper order for the four sentences.

118.

S1: There is a touching story of Professor Hardy visiting Ramanujan as he lay desperately ill in
hospital at Putney.
P : 'No Hardy, that is not a dull number in the very least.
Q Hardy, who was a very shy man, could not find the words for his distress.
:
 R : It was 1729.
S : The best he could do, as he got to the beside was "I say Ramanujan, I thought the number
of taxi I came down in was a very dull number"
S6: It is the lowest number that can be expressed in two different ways as the sum of two
cubes.
The Proper sequence should be:

A.
PRSQ

B.
QSRP

C.
QSPR

D.
SQRP
[#]

Direction (for Q.No. 119):

In questions given below out of four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the
given word/sentence.

119. One who eats everything

A.
Omnivorous

B.
Omniscient

C.
Irrestible

D.
 Insolvent
[#]

Direction (for Q.No. 120):

In the following questions four alternatives are given for the idiom/phrase italicised and
underlined in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of
idiom/phrase.

120. I felt like a fish out of water among all those business tycoons.

A.
troubled

B.
stupid

C.
uncomfortable

D.
inferior

Direction (for Q.Nos.121 -124):

Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be
in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is
'D'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

121. (solve as per the direction given above)

A.
A lot of travel delay is caused

B.
due to the inefficiency and lack of good management
 C.
on behalf of the railways.

D.
No error.
[#]

122. (solve as per the direction given above)

A.
No sooner did I open the door

B.
when the rain, heavy and stormy, rushed in

C.
making us shiver from head to foot

D.
No error.
[#]

123. (solve as per the direction given above)

A.
Kamala's fountain-pen

B.
is as expensive

C.
as Shyama.

D.
No error.
[#]
124. (solve as per the direction given above)

A.
Scarcely had

B.
I arrived than

C.
the train left.

D.
No error.
[#]

Direction (for Q.Nos. 125 - 128):

Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be
in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is
'E'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

125. (solve as per the direction given above)

A.
An anti-extortion cell is opened

B.
by the district police headquarter

C.
six months ago

D.
as a precautionary measure.

E.
 No error.
[#]

126. (solve as per the direction given above)

A.
The job is much worse than I expected

B.
If I would have realised

C.
how awful it was going to be

D.
I would not have accepted it.

E.
No error.
[#]

127. (solve as per the direction given above)

A.
All renew licences

B.
may be collected from

C.
the cashier's counter after

D.
paying the fees.

E.
 No error.
[#]

128. (solve as per the direction given above)

A.
Our system of assigning

B.
different jobs to different people

C.
should be based on

D.
their strengths and weaknesses.

E.
No error.
[#]

Direction (for Q.Nos. 129 - 130):

In the following the questions choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

129. IMPROVEMENT

A.
Advancement

B.
Betterment

C.
Promotion
 D.
Preference
[#]

130. CANDID

A.
Apparent

B.
Explicit

C.
Frank

D.
Bright
[#]

Direction (for Q.Nos. 131 - 132):

In the following questions choose the word which is the exact OPPOSITE of the given words.

131. ENCOURAGE

A.
Dampen

B.
Disapprove

C.
Discourage

D.
Warn
 [#]

132. ESSENTIAL

A.
Extra

B.
Noughts

C.
Minors

D.
Trivial
[#]

Direction (for Q.No. 133):

Each sentences below consist of a word or a phrase which is bold. It is followed by four words or
phrases. Select the word or pharse which is closes to the OPPOSITE in meaning of the bold word or
phrase.

133. The commission took two years to go through the massive collection of files and documents
before preparing its report.

A.
meager

B.
heavy

C.
light

D.
short
 [#]

Direction (for Q.No. 134):

Find the correctly spelt words.

134. (solve as per the direction given above)

A.
Friming

B.
Burnning

C.
Running

D.
Fryng
[#]

Direction (for Q.No. 135):

In each questions below five words are given. Find out that word, the spelling of which is WRONG.
The letter of that word is the answer. If all the four words are spelt correctly, the answer is 'E', i.e.,
"All Correct".

135. (solve as per the direction given above)

A.
Boundary

B.
Exhibit
 C.
Depresion

D.
Demonstration

E.
All correct
[#]

Direction (for Q.No. 136):

In each sentence below, four words which are lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D) have been printed in bold
type, one which may be either inappropriate in the context of the sentence or wrongly spelt.The
letter of that word is answer.If all the four words are appropriate and also correctly spelt, mark 'E',
i.e., 'All Correct' as the answer.

136. (solve as per the direction given above)

A.
His decision was based on

B.
adequate and

C.
acurate

D.
information

E.
All correct
[#]

Direction (for Q.No. 137):

Which of phrases given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold type to make
the grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is, mark 'E' as the answer.

137. The long or short of it is that I do not want to deal with that new firm.

A.
The long and short of it

B.
The long and short for it

C.
The long or short for it

D.
The shot and long for it

E.
No correction required
[#]

Direction (for Q.No. 138):

In each question, an incomplete statement (Stem) followed by fillers is given. Pick out the best one
which can complete incomplete stem correctly and meaningfully.

138. It is not easy to remain tranquil when those around you ......

A.
behave in a socially acceptable manner

B.
exhibit pleasant mannerism

C.
are losing their heads

D.
 agree to whatever you say

E.
exhibit generous and magnanimous gestures
[#]

Direction (for Q.No. 139):

In questions given below out of four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the
given word/sentence.

139. A remedy for all diseases

A.
Stoic

B.
Marvel

C.
Panacea

D.
Recompense
[#]

Direction (for Q.No. 140):

Each question consist of two words which have a certain relationship to each other followed by four
pairs of related words, Select the pair which has the same relationship.

140. HOPE:ASPIRES

A.
love:elevates
 B.
film:flam

C.
fib:lie

D.
fake:ordinary

Direction (for Q.Nos. 141 - 142):

In the following questions choose the word which is the exact OPPOSITE of the given words.

141. DEAR

A.
Priceless

B.
Free

C.
Worthless

D.
Cheap
[#]

142. MINOR

A.
Big

B.
 Major

C.
Tall

D.
Heavy
[#]

Direction (for Q.Nos. 143 - 147):

Pick out the most effective word(s) from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence
meaningfully complete.

143. This, partly, explains how the Mehta family has been able to ...... its lavish lifestyle in recent
times, despite the fact that all its assets have been ......

A.
keep, removed

B.
afford, attached

C.
develop, liquidated

D.
keep up, destroyed
[#]

144. He is a person of sound character and ...... disposition.

A.
 beneficent

B.
morous

C.
amiable

D.
amicable
[#]

145. In high school many of us never realised the importance that grammar would ...... in later life.

A.
figure

B.
portray

C.
play

D.
exercise
[#]

146. Physically we are now all neighbors, but psychologically. we are ...... to each other.

A.
primitives
 B.
complimentary

C.
strangers

D.
cowards
[#]

147. The robbers were arrested and ...... prison yesterday.

A.
brought into

B.
brought to

C.
taken into

D.
taken to
[#]

Direction (for Q.No. 148):

In each questions below five words are given. Find out that word, the spelling of which is WRONG.
The letter of that word is the answer. If all the four words are spelt correctly, the answer is 'E', i.e.,
"All Correct".

148. (solve as per the direction given above)

A.
Filled

B.
Fulfiled

C.
Expelled

D.
Skilled

E.
All correct
[#]

Direction (for Q.No. 149):

In each question below, there is a sentence of which some parts have been jumbled up. Rearrange
these parts which are labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper
sequence.

149. It was to be
P : before their school examination
Q : which was due to start
R : the last expedition
S : in a month's
The Proper sequence should be:

A.
SRQP
 B.
RQSP

C.
RPQS

D.
SPRQ
[#]

Direction (for Q.Nos. 150 - 151):

Which of phrases given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold type to make
the grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is, mark 'E' as the answer.

150. Anand has the guts to rise from the occasion and come out successfully.

A.
in rising from

B.
to raise with

C.
to rise to

D.
to rise against

E.
No correction required
[#]

151. I have got some tea, but I do not have a sugar.

 A.
some

B.
got

C.
more

D.
any

E.
No correction required
[#]

Direction (for Q.No. 152):

In each question, an incomplete statement (Stem) followed by fillers is given. Pick out the best one
which can complete incomplete stem correctly and meaningfully.

152. "Anand stuck up a friendship with Mahesh in just 2 days" means ......

A.
Anand friendship with Mahesh came to an end recently

B.
Anand found out the other friends of Mahesh

C.
Anand fixed a deal with Mahesh in 2 days

D.
Anand's friendship with Mahesh lasted for 2 years

E.
Anand became a friend of Mahesh in less than 2 days
[#]
Direction (for Q.Nos. 153 - 157):
In questions given below out of four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the
given word/sentence.

153. A prima facie case is such

A.
As it seems at first sight

B.
As it is made to seem at first sight

C.
As it turns out to be at the end

D.
As it seems to the court after a number of hearings
[#]

154. One who does not care for literature or art

A.
Primitive

B.
Illiterate

C.
Philistine

D.
Barbarian
[#]

155. One absorbed in his own thoughts and feelings rather than in things outside
 A.
Scholar

B.
Recluse

C.
Introvert

D.
Intellectual
[#]

156. The part of government which is concerned with making of rules

A.
Court

B.
Tribunal

C.
Bar

D.
Legislature
[#]

157. That which cannot be believed

A.
Incredible

B.
Incredulous
 C.
Implausible

D.
Unreliable
[#]

Direction (for Q.Nos. 158 - 160):

In the following questions four alternatives are given for the idiom/phrase italicised and
underlined in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of
idiom/phrase.

158. The case was held over due to the great opposition to it.

A.
stopped

B.
postponed

C.
dropped

D.
cancelled
[#]

159. He struck several bad patches before he made good.

A.
came across bad soil

B.
Had a bad time
 C.
Went through many illness

D.
Had many professional difficulties
[#]

160. Do not imagine that Dharmendra is really sorry that his wife died. Those are only crocodile
tears.

A.
Pretended sorrow

B.
Tears a crocodile

C.
A weeping crocodile

D.
Mild regret

Direction (for Q.Nos. 161 - 162):

Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be
in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is
'D'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

161. (solve as per the direction given above)

A.
The charges in this hospital

B.
are less than

C.
 the hospital near my house.

D.
No error
[#]

162. (solve as per the direction given above)

A.
Even though the shirt is rather expensive

B.
but I wish to

C.
purchase it with my own money.

D.
No error.
[#]

Direction (for Q.Nos. 163 - 164):

Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be
in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is
'E'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

163. (solve as per the direction given above)

A.
His father promised to

B.
give him anything what he

C.
wants if he

D.
 passes in the examination.

E.
No error.
[#]

164. (solve as per the direction given above)

A.
After listening to

B.
his advice, I

C.
decided to not to

D.
go abroad for studies.

E.
No error.
[#]

Direction (for Q.No. 165):

In the following the questions choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

165. MELD

A.
To soothe

B.
Merge

C.
Purchase
 D.
Glisten
[#]

Direction (for Q.No. 166):

In each of the sentences given below a word is printed in bold. Below it four choices are given. Pick
up the one which is most nearly the same in meaning as the word printer in bold and can replaces it
without altering the meaning of the sentence.

166. The leader nodded his approbation.

A.
understanding

B.
approval

C.
admiration

D.
appreciation
[#]

Direction (for Q.No. 167):

In the following questions choose the word which is the exact OPPOSITE of the given words.

167. EXPAND

A.
Convert

B.
Condense

C.
 Congest

D.
Conclude
[#]

Direction (for Q.Nos. 168 - 169):

Each sentences below consist of a word or a phrase which is bold. It is followed by four words or
phrases. Select the word or pharse which is closes to the OPPOSITE in meaning of the bold word or
phrase.

168. Like poverty, affluence can sometimes create its own problems.

A.
indigence

B.
opulence

C.
sorrow

D.
exuberance
[#]

169. The actor is well known both for his humility and courage.

A.
pride

B.
determination

C.
 honesty

D.
gentleness
[#]

Direction (for Q.Nos. 170 - 172):

Pick out the most effective word(s) from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence
meaningfully complete.

170. Jawaharlal spent his childhood ...... Anand Bhawan.

A.
at

B.
in

C.
on

D.
across
[#]

171. Government buildings are ...... on the Republic day.

A.
enlightened

B.
lightened

C.
illuminated

D.
 glowed
[#]

172. We had to pay more taxi fare because the driver brought us by a ...... route.

A.
circular

B.
circumscribed

C.
longest

D.
circuitous
[#]

Direction (for Q.No. 173):

Find the correctly spelt words.

173. (solve as per the direction given above)

A.
Humorous

B.
Ganerous

C.
Pupolous

D.
Maretorious
[#]
Direction (for Q.Nos. 174 - 175):
In each question below, there is a sentence of which some parts have been jumbled up. Rearrange
these parts which are labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper
sequence.

174. I read an advertisement that said

P : posh, air-conditioned
Q : gentleman of taste
R : are available for
S : fully furnished rooms
The Proper sequence should be:

A.
PQRS

B.
PSRQ

C.
PSQR

D.
SRPQ
[#]

175. With her body

P : dragging her unwilling feet
Q : weak and infirm
R : doubled with age
S : she persisted in her mission
The Proper sequence should be:

A.
PQRS

B.
 QPRS

C.
RQPS

D.
SRPQ
[#]

Direction (for Q.No. 176):

Which of phrases given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold type to make
the grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is, mark 'E' as the answer.

176. We met him immediately after the session in which he had been given a nice speech.

A.
would be giving

B.
has been given

C.
will have given

D.
had given

E.
No correction required
[#]

Direction (for Q.No. 177):

In questions given below, a part of the sentence is italicised and underlined. Below are given
alternatives to the italicised part which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In
case no improvement is needed, option 'D' is the answer.

177. Not long back, in Japan, a mysterious nerve gas affected a large number of people.
 A.
effected

B.
infected

C.
infested

D.
No improvement
[#]

Direction (for Q.No. 178):

In questions given below out of four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the
given word/sentence.

178. Be the embodiment or perfect example of

A.
Characterise

B.
Idol

C.
Personify

D.
Signify
[#]

Direction (for Q.Nos. 179 - 180):

In the following questions four alternatives are given for the idiom/phrase italicised and
underlined in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of
idiom/phrase.

179. His friends advised him to be fair and square in his dealings.
 A.
Careful

B.
Considerate

C.
Polite

D.
Upright
[#]

180. We should give a wide berth to bad characters.

A.
give publicity to

B.
publicly condemn

C.
keep away from

D.
not sympathise with

Direction (for Q.Nos. 181 - 184):

Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be
in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is
'D'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

181. (solve as per the direction given above)

A.
The school is
 B.
within hundred yards

C.
from the church.

D.
No error.
[#]

182. (solve as per the direction given above)

A.
The tall three girls

B.
had left

C.
the day before.

D.
No error.
[#]

183. (solve as per the direction given above)

A.
Though he stoutly persisted in denying his involvement in the case,

B.
the facts made it very clear

C.
that he had hand in the cruel murder of his wife.
 D.
No error.
[#]

184. (solve as per the direction given above)

A.
The eminent speaker's speech

B.
was broadcasted over

C.
all the major radio-stations.

D.
No error.
[#]

Direction (for Q.Nos. 185 - 186):

Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be
in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is
'E'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

185. (solve as per the direction given above)

A.
While luminaries of the dance world

B.
have a dearth of opportunities to display their art

C.
upcoming dancers suffer from
 D.
an unfortunate lack of exposure.

E.
No error.
[#]

186. (solve as per the direction given above)

A.
The book is making

B.
waves and the sale

C.
is quite brisk in

D.
all major cities.

E.
No error.
[#]

Direction (for Q.No. 187):

In the following the questions choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

187. VORACIOUS

A.
Wild

B.
 Greedy

C.
Angry

D.
Quick
[#]

Direction (for Q.Nos. 188 - 189):

In each of the sentences given below a word is printed in bold. Below it four choices are given. Pick
up the one which is most nearly the same in meaning as the word printer in bold and can replaces it
without altering the meaning of the sentence.

188. The thief outwitted the constable on some pretext and disappeared on the way to the police
station.

A.
defeated

B.
be fooled

C.
cheated

D.
outmanoeuvred
[#]

189. The soldier displayed exceptional courage and saved Major from the enemy's hand.

A.
avoidable
 B.
unusual

C.
strange

D.
abnormal
[#]

Direction (for Q.No. 190):

In the following questions choose the word which is the exact OPPOSITE of the given words.

190. PATCHY

A.
Attractive

B.
Uniform

C.
Simple

D.
Clear
[#]

Direction (for Q.No. 191):

In each questions below five words are given. Find out that word, the spelling of which is WRONG.
The letter of that word is the answer. If all the four words are spelt correctly, the answer is 'E', i.e.,
"All Correct".

191. (solve as per the direction given above)

 A.
Gentalman

B.
Criticise

C.
Valuable

D.
Continuous

E.
All correct
[#]

Direction (for Q.Nos. 192 - 193):

In questions given below, a part of the sentence is italicised and underlined. Below are given
alternatives to the italicised part which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In
case no improvement is needed, option 'D' is the answer.

192. 20 kms are not a great distance in these days of fast moving vehicles.

A.
is not a great distance

B.
is no distance

C.
aren't a great distance

D.
No improvement
[#]
193. We were not the wiser for all this effort to explain the case to us.

A.
none

B.
neither

C.
nevertheless

D.
No improvement
[#]

Direction (for Q.No. 194):

In each question, an incomplete statement (Stem) followed by fillers is given. Pick out the best one
which can complete incomplete stem correctly and meaningfully.

194. It was an extremely pleasant surprise for the hutment-dweller when the Government officials
told him that ......

A.
he had to vacate hutment which he had been unauthorisedly occupying

B.
he had been gifted with a furnished apartment in a multi-storeyed building

C.
he would be arrested for wrongfully encroaching on the pavement outside his
dwelling

D.
they would not accede to his request

E.
 they had received the orders from the court to take possession of all his
belongings
[#]

Direction (for Q.Nos. 195 - 196):

In questions below, each passage consist of six sentences. The first and sixth sentence are given in
the begining. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are
labelled as P, Q, R and S. Find out the proper order for the four sentences.

195.

S1: Moncure Conway devoted his life to two great objects freedom of thought, and freedom
of the individual.
P : They threaten both kinds of freedom.
Q But something also has been lost.
:
R : There are now dangers, somewhat different in form from those of the past ages.
S : In regard to both these objects, something has been gained since his time.
S6: Unless a vigorous and vigilant public opinion can be aroused in defence of them, there will
be much less of both a hundred years hence then there is now.
The Proper sequence should be:

A.
PQRS

B.
QSPR

C.
SQRP

D.
RSPQ
[#]

196.

S1: American private lies may seem shallow.

P : Students would walk away with books they had not paid for.
Q : A Chinese journalist commented on a curious institution: the library
 R : Their public morality, however, impressed visitors.
S : But in general they returned them.
S6: This would not happen in china, he said.
The Proper sequence should be:

A.
PSQR

B.
QPSR

C.
RQPS

D.
RPSQ
[#]

Direction (for Q.Nos. 197 - 198):

In questions given below out of four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the
given word/sentence.

197. A religious discourse

A.
Preach

B.
Stanza

C.
Sanctorum

D.
Sermon
[#]
198. One who is determined to exact full vengeance for wrongs done to him

A.
Virulent

B.
Vindictive

C.
Usurer

D.
Vindicator
[#]

Direction (for Q.No. 199):

In the following questions four alternatives are given for the idiom/phrase italicised and
underlined in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of
idiom/phrase.

199. I did not mind what he was saying, he was only through his hat.

A.
talking nonsense

B.
talking ignorantly

C.
talking irresponsibly

D.
talking insultingly
[#]

Direction (for Q.No. 200):

In the questions below the sentences have been given in Direct/Indirect speech. From the given
alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the given sentence in Indirect/Direct speech.
200. The man said, "No, I refused to confers guilt."

A.
The man emphatically refused to confers guilt.

B.
The man refused to confers his guilt.

C.
The man told that he did not confers guilt.

D.
The man was stubborn enough to confers guilt.

Direction (for Q.No. 201):

Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be
in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is
'D'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

201. (solve as per the direction given above)

A.
She sang

B.
very well

C.
isn't it?

D.
No error.
[#]

Direction (for Q.Nos. 202 - 205):

Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be
in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is
'E'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).
202. (solve as per the direction given above)

A.
He deserted the path of honour

B.
in order to

C.
satisfy his ambition

D.
and then went down his doom very quickly.

E.
No error.
[#]

203. (solve as per the direction given above)

A.
Looking forward

B.
to seeing

C.
you

D.
soon.

E.
No error.
[#]

204. (solve as per the direction given above)

 A.
In spite of his

B.
being a Quiz Master

C.
show was

D.
a big flop.

E.
No error.
[#]

205. (solve as per the direction given above)

A.
The patient recover

B.
so fast that

C.
the expert doctors

D.
also were surprised.

E.
No error.
[#]
Direction (for Q.No. 206):
In each of the sentences given below a word is printed in bold. Below it four choices are given. Pick
up the one which is most nearly the same in meaning as the word printer in bold and can replaces it
without altering the meaning of the sentence.

206. Being a member of this club, he has certain rights.

A.
status

B.
truth

C.
virtues

D.
privileges
[#]

Direction (for Q.No. 207):

In the following questions choose the word which is the exact OPPOSITE of the given words.

207. NIGGARDLY

A.
Frugal

B.
Thrifty

C.
Stingy
 D.
Generous
[#]

Direction (for Q.No. 208):

Each sentences below consist of a word or a phrase which is bold. It is followed by four words or
phrases. Select the word or pharse which is closes to the OPPOSITE in meaning of the bold word or
phrase.

208. Harish displays enthusiasm whenever he is posed with a problem.

A.
eagerness

B.
weakness

C.
indifference

D.
softness
[#]

Direction (for Q.Nos. 209 - 211):

Pick out the most effective word(s) from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence
meaningfully complete.

209. If negotiations are to prove fruitful, there must not only be sincerity on each side, but there
must also be ...... in the sincerity of the other side.

A.
faith
 B.
belief

C.
substance

D.
certainty
[#]

210. Brothers must live in harmony. They must never fall ......

A.
off

B.
out

C.
apart

D.
away
[#]

211. West Bengal ...... plentiful rainfall and is consequently a very green part of the country.

A.
misses

B.
receives

C.
expects
 D.
regrets
[#]

Direction (for Q.Nos. 212 - 213):

In each question below, there is a sentence of which some parts have been jumbled up. Rearrange
these parts which are labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper
sequence.

212. This time

P : exactly what he had been told
Q : the young man did
R : beyond his dreams
S : and the plan succeeded
The Proper sequence should be:

A.
QPRS

B.
QPSR

C.
PQSR

D.
QSRP
[#]

213. It would
P : appear from his statement
Q : about the policy of management
R : in dealing with the strike
S : that he was quite in the dark
The Proper sequence should be:
 A.
RPSQ

B.
PSQR

C.
RQPS

D.
PRQS
[#]

Direction (for Q.No. 214):

In questions given below, a part of the sentence is italicised and underlined. Below are given
alternatives to the italicised part which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In
case no improvement is needed, option 'D' is the answer.

214. But in all these cases conversion from scale have well-formulated.

A.
can be well-formulated

B.
are well-formulated

C.
well-formulated

D.
No improvement
[#]
Direction (for Q.No. 215):
In each question, an incomplete statement (Stem) followed by fillers is given. Pick out the best one
which can complete incomplete stem correctly and meaningfully.

215. Despite his best efforts to conceal his anger ......

A.
we could detect that he was very happy

B.
he failed to give us an impression of his agony

C.
he succeeded in camouflaging his emotions

D.
he could succeed in doing it easily

E.
people came to know that he was annoyed
[#]

Direction (for Q.No. 216):

In questions below, each passage consist of six sentences. The first and sixth sentence are given in
the begining. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are
labelled as P, Q, R and S. Find out the proper order for the four sentences.

216.

S1: I usually sleep quite well in the train, but this time I slept only a little.
P : Most people wanted it shut and I wanted it open.
Q : As usual, I got angry about the window.
R : The quarrel left me completely upset.
S : There were too many people too much huge luggage all around.
S6: It was shut all night, as usual
The Proper sequence should be:
 A.
RSQP

B.
SQPR

C.
SQRP

D.
RSPQ
[#]

Direction (for Q.No. 217):

In questions given below out of four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the
given word/sentence.

217. A person who tries to deceive people by claiming to be able to do wonderful things

A.
Trickster

B.
Imposter

C.
Magician

D.
Mountebank
[#]
Direction (for Q.Nos. 218 - 220):
In the following questions four alternatives are given for the idiom/phrase italicised and
underlined in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of
idiom/phrase.

218. He visits the doctor off and on.

A.
everyday

B.
regularly

C.
never at all

D.
occasionally
[#]

219. Though he has lot of money, yet all his plans are built upon sand.

A.
established on insecure foundations

B.
based on inexperience

C.
resting on cheap material

D.
resting on immature ideas
[#]

220. The authorities took him to task for his negligence.

 A.
gave him additional work

B.
suspended his assignment

C.
reprimanded him

D.
forced him to resign

221. Which of the following statements is not correct ?

Pritam is between Manish and Kamla

Manish is two places away from Priya

Gaurav is sitting opposite Pritam

All of Above

222. Who among the following is seated between E and H ?

F
I

K
cannot be determined
223. The intruder stood quietly for few moments

for few time

for the few moments

for moments
for a few moments

224. (solve as per the direction given above)

One of the members

expressed doubt if

the Minister was an atheist.

no error

225. A black sheep

An unlucky person
A lucky person

An ugly person
A partner who takes no share of the profits

None of these
226. MORTAL

divine
immortal

spirtiual
eternal

227. VENT

opening
stodge

end
past tense of go

228. Success in this examination depends ...... hard work alone.

at
over
 for
on

229. Which sentence should come second in the paragraph?

1
3

4
5

230. (solve as per the direction given above)

my father goes
to the office

five day week

no error

231.
Seven friends Kamal, Manish, Rohit, Amit, Gaurav, Pritam and Priya are sitting in a circle. Kamal,
Manish, Rohit, AMit, Pritam and Priya are sitting at equal distances from each other.
Rohit is sitting after two places right of Pritam, who is sitting one place right of Amit. Kamal forms an
angle of 90 degrees from Gaurav and an angle of 120 degrees from Manish. Manish is just opposite
Priya and is sitting on the left of Gaurav.

Who is the only person sitting between Rohit and Manish ?

pritam
amit

gaurav
kamla

232. Architect : Building :: Sculptor : ?

museum
stone

chisel
statue

233. ZANY

clown
pet

thief
magnician
234. That rule is applicable ...... every one.

to
for

about
with

235. If A + B means A is the brother of B; A % B means A is the father of B and A x B means A is the
sister of B. Which of the following means M is the uncle of P?

M+K
M-K%TXP

M-K
M+K%TXP

236. ABJECT

challenge
miserable
 deny
disobey

237. Choose the odd one.

uncle
nephew

brother
niece

238. He dislikes the word dislike, isn't he

did not he
does not he

has not he
does he

239. Danger always involves

 enemy
attack

fear
help

240. Rohit walked 25 metres towards South. Then he turned to his left and walked 20 metres. He
then turned to his left and walked 25 metres. He again turned to his right and walked 15 metres. At
what distance is he from the starting point and in which direction ?

34 m,east
35 m, south

35 m,east
35 m, north

241. (solve as per the direction given above)

you will come

to my tomorrow

isn't it?
no error
242. Choose the word which is least like the other words.

sun
moon

mars
universe

243. Which one of the following is always associated with 'tree'?

flowers
roots

fruits
leaves

244. PIOUS

devout
pure

clean
245. CONCEDE

object
refuse

grant
accede

246. Rasik walked 20 m towards north. Then he turned right and walks 30 m. Then he turns right and
walks 35 m. Then he turns left and walks 15 m. Finally he turns left and walks 15 m. In which
direction and how many metres is he from the starting position?

45 m west
45 m north

45 m east
45 m south

247. What number should come next in the series, 1, 2, 3, 5, 8, ?

12
14

15
 13

248. OBEYING

ordering
following

refusing
contracdicting

249. Laws of nature differ from man-made laws because

the former state facts of Nature

they must be obeyed

they are natural

unlike human laws, they are systematic

250. Which sentence should come fifth in the paragraph?

1
3
2
4
 Answers
1. Correct Answer: Option D
Explanation:
improved

2. Correct Answer: Option B

3. Correct Answer: Option B

4. Correct Answer: Option A

5. Correct Answer: Option B

Explanation:
at length

6. Correct Answer: Option C

Explanation:
five days a week

1. Correct Answer: Option B

Explanation:
more than one and a half hour

1. Correct Answer: Option B

Explanation:
If I could lend him my Parker pen

1. Correct Answer: Option C

1. Correct Answer: Option C

1. Correct Answer: Option B

1. Correct Answer: Option A

1. Correct Answer: Option C

1. Correct Answer: Option D

Explanation:
 Incorrigible (Adjective): (of a person or their tendencies) Not able to be corrected,
improved, or reformed.

1. Correct Answer: Option D

Explanation:
the chairman over his statement

1. Correct Answer: Option D

Explanation:
'witnessed lots of problems' or 'witnessed a lot of problem'

1. Correct Answer: Option D

1. Correct Answer: Option D

1. Correct Answer: Option B

1. Correct Answer: Option C

1. Correct Answer: Option B

Explanation:
how to play

1. Correct Answer: Option D

1. Correct Answer: Option D

Explanation:
didn't play whole heartedly

1. Correct Answer: Option D

Explanation:
as he had to go out to work

1. Correct Answer: Option B

1. Correct Answer: Option B

1. Correct Answer: Option B

1. Correct Answer: Option D

1. Correct Answer: Option B

1. Correct Answer: Option C

Explanation:
Main Entry: extravagant

Part of Speech: adjective

Definition: indulgent, wasteful

Synonyms: absurd, bizarre, costly, crazy, exaggerated, excessive, exorbitant, expensive, extortionate,
extreme, fanciful, fancy, fantastic, flamboyant, flashy, foolish, garish, gaudy, grandiose, immoderate,
implausible, improvident, imprudent, inordinate, lavish, ludicrous, nonsensical, ornate, ostentatious,
outrageous, overpriced, preposterous, pretentious, prodigal, profligate, reckless, ridiculous, showy,
silly, spendthrift, steep, unbalanced, unconscionable, unreasonable, unrestrained

Antonyms: close, economical, moderate, provident, reasonable, saving, stingy, thrifty, unpretentious

1. Correct Answer: Option B

1. Correct Answer: Option A

1. Correct Answer: Option B

1. Correct Answer: Option D

1. Correct Answer: Option D

1. Correct Answer: Option D

Explanation:
incredibly

1. Correct Answer: Option E

1. Correct Answer: Option A

1. Correct Answer: Option D

1. Correct Answer: Option C

1. Correct Answer: Option A
Explanation:
I find that among the many impressions I got of the people of India

1. Correct Answer: Option B

Explanation:
the problem you face become more and more unstructured and you can't afford to fall back upon

1. Correct Answer: Option B

Explanation:
make out

1. Correct Answer: Option A

Explanation:
Even after working in the office

1. Correct Answer: Option D

Explanation:
maintained it properly

1. Correct Answer: Option A

1. Correct Answer: Option B

1. Correct Answer: Option D

1. Correct Answer: Option A

1. Correct Answer: Option B

1. Correct Answer: Option C

1. Correct Answer: Option B

1. Correct Answer: Option C

1. Correct Answer: Option C

1. Correct Answer: Option D

1. Correct Answer: Option A

1. Correct Answer: Option B

1. Correct Answer: Option A

1. Correct Answer: Option B

1. Correct Answer: Option C

1. Correct Answer: Option B

Explanation:
he has not so far sent

1. Correct Answer: Option A

Explanation:
My wife got

1. Correct Answer: Option B

Explanation:
has been organised

1. Correct Answer: Option E

1. Correct Answer: Option E

1. Correct Answer: Option D

1. Correct Answer: Option C

1. Correct Answer: Option C

1. Correct Answer: Option D

1. Correct Answer: Option A

1. Correct Answer: Option D

1. Correct Answer: Option C

1. Correct Answer: Option B

1. Correct Answer: Option A

1. Correct Answer: Option D

1. Correct Answer: Option C

1. Correct Answer: Option C

1. Correct Answer: Option D

1. Correct Answer: Option A

1. Correct Answer: Option C

1. Correct Answer: Option B

Explanation:
of me failing

1. Correct Answer: Option A

Explanation:
I will put up

1. Correct Answer: Option D

Explanation:
the chairman over his statement

1. Correct Answer: Option B

1. Correct Answer: Option B

1. Correct Answer: Option D

1. Correct Answer: Option D

1. Correct Answer: Option A

1. Correct Answer: Option E

1. Correct Answer: Option C

Explanation:
Amenable
1. Correct Answer: Option D

1. Correct Answer: Option B

1. Correct Answer: Option B

1. Correct Answer: Option C

1. Correct Answer: Option B

1. Correct Answer: Option C

1. Correct Answer: Option C

1. Correct Answer: Option C

1. Correct Answer: Option A

1. Correct Answer: Option C

1. Correct Answer: Option B

Explanation:
'how she could kill the wolf'

1. Correct Answer: Option A

Explanation:
When I catch cold

1. Correct Answer: Option C

Explanation:
Sung, everyone was

1. Correct Answer: Option D

Explanation:
his car start up

1. Correct Answer: Option B

Explanation:
sometime next week
1. Correct Answer: Option C
Explanation:
if he knew

1. Correct Answer: Option A

1. Correct Answer: Option D

1. Correct Answer: Option B

1. Correct Answer: Option D

1. Correct Answer: Option D

1. Correct Answer: Option C

Explanation:
Efflorescence - flowering, blossoming

1. Correct Answer: Option B

Explanation:
Psychiatrist

1. Correct Answer: Option D

Explanation:
ordinary

1. Correct Answer: Option A

1. Your Answer: Option (Not Answered)

Correct Answer: Option D

1. Correct Answer: Option A

1. Correct Answer: Option B

1. Correct Answer: Option A

1. Correct Answer: Option C

1. Correct Answer: Option C

Explanation:
on the part of the railways

1. Correct Answer: Option B

Explanation:
than the rain, heavy and stormy, rushed in

1. Correct Answer: Option C

Explanation:
as Shyama's

1. Correct Answer: Option B

Explanation:
'I arrived when'

1. Correct Answer: Option A

Explanation:
An anti-exortion cell has been opened

1. Correct Answer: Option B

Explanation:
If I had realised

1. Correct Answer: Option A

Explanation:
All renewed licences

1. Correct Answer: Option D

Explanation:
strength and weakness

1. Correct Answer: Option B

1. Correct Answer: Option C

1. Correct Answer: Option C

1. Correct Answer: Option A

1. Correct Answer: Option A

1. Correct Answer: Option C

1. Correct Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Depression

1. Correct Answer: Option C

Explanation:
Accurate

1. Correct Answer: Option A

1. Correct Answer: Option C

1. Correct Answer: Option C

1. Correct Answer: Option C

1. Correct Answer: Option D

1. Correct Answer: Option B

1. Correct Answer: Option D

1. Correct Answer: Option C

1. Correct Answer: Option C

1. Correct Answer: Option C

1. Correct Answer: Option D

1. Correct Answer: Option B

Explanation:
Fulfilled

1. Correct Answer: Option C

1. Correct Answer: Option C

1. Correct Answer: Option D
1. Correct Answer: Option E

1. Correct Answer: Option A

1. Correct Answer: Option C

1. Correct Answer: Option C

1. Correct Answer: Option D

1. Correct Answer: Option A

1. Correct Answer: Option B

1. Correct Answer: Option D

1. Correct Answer: Option A

1. Correct Answer: Option C

Explanation:
those in the hospital near my house

1. Correct Answer: Option B

Explanation:
I wish to

1. Correct Answer: Option B

Explanation:
give him anything that he

1. Correct Answer: Option C

Explanation:
decided not to

1. Correct Answer: Option B

1. Correct Answer: Option B

Explanation:
Approbation means Approval or Praise.
1. Correct Answer: Option B

1. Correct Answer: Option A

1. Correct Answer: Option A

1. Correct Answer: Option A

1. Correct Answer: Option C

1. Correct Answer: Option D

1. Correct Answer: Option A

1. Correct Answer: Option B

1. Correct Answer: Option C

1. Correct Answer: Option D

1. Correct Answer: Option B

1. Correct Answer: Option C

1. Correct Answer: Option D

1. Correct Answer: Option C

1. Correct Answer: Option B

Explanation:
within a hundred yards

1. Correct Answer: Option A

Explanation:
The three tall girls

1. Correct Answer: Option C

Explanation:
that he had involved in the cruel murder of his wife.

1. Correct Answer: Option B

Explanation:
was broadcast over

1. Correct Answer: Option B

Explanation:
have no dearth of opportunities to display their art

1. Correct Answer: Option C

Explanation:
is very brisk in

1. Correct Answer: Option B

Explanation:
If you describe a person, or their appetite for something, as voracious, you mean that they want a lot
of something.

1. Correct Answer: Option A

1. Correct Answer: Option B

1. Correct Answer: Option B

1. Correct Answer: Option A

Explanation:
Gentleman

1. Correct Answer: Option A

1. Correct Answer: Option A

1. Correct Answer: Option B

1. Correct Answer: Option C

1. Correct Answer: Option B

1. Correct Answer: Option D

Explanation:
A talk on a religious or moral subject, especially one given during a church service and based on a
passage from the Bible.
1. Correct Answer: Option B

1. Correct Answer: Option A

1. Correct Answer: Option A

1. Correct Answer: Option C

Explanation:
didn't she

1. Correct Answer: Option D

Explanation:
and then met his doom very quickly

1. Correct Answer: Option B

Explanation:
to see

1. Correct Answer: Option C

Explanation:
his show was

1. Correct Answer: Option A

Explanation:
The patient recovered

1. Correct Answer: Option D

1. Correct Answer: Option D

1. Correct Answer: Option C

1. Correct Answer: Option A

1. Correct Answer: Option B

1. Correct Answer: Option B

1. Correct Answer: Option B

1. Correct Answer: Option B
1. Correct Answer: Option B
 1. Correct Answer: Option E

1. Correct Answer: Option B

1. Correct Answer: Option A

1. Correct Answer: Option D

1. Correct Answer: Option D

1. Correct Answer: Option C

1. Explanation:

All of Above

1. Explanation:

1. Explanation:
for a few moments

1. Explanation:
expressed doubt that

1. Explanation:

None of these

1. Explanation:
immortal

1. Explanation:

OPENING

1. Explanation:

On
1. Explanation:

1. Explanation:

five days a week

1. Explanation:
Gaurav

1. Explanation:

As 'Architect' makes 'Building' similarly 'Sculptor' makes 'Statue'.

1. Explanation:
Clown

1. Explanation:
To

1. Explanation:

M + K → M is the brother of K

K % T → K is the father of T

T x P → T is the sister of P

Therefore, K is the father of P and M is the uncle of P.

1. Explanation:
rable

1. Explanation:
ther

1. Explanation:
does not he
1. Explanation:

1. Explanation:

35 m,east

1. Explanation:

won't you

1. Explanation:

All except the Universe are part of Universe.

1. Explanation:
Roots

1. Explanation:
Devout

1. Explanation:
Refuse

1. Explanation:
45 m east

1. Explanation:

In this series, each term is the sum of preceding two terms as,
1+2 = 3
3+2 = 5
5+3 = 8
Next term in the series will be,
8+5 = 13

1. Explanation:

Ordering

1. Explanation:

the former state facts of Nature

1. Explanation:

Current Affairs

1. What was the name of the last Sumatran Rhino of Malaysia which recently died In Borneo Rhino
Sanctuary?
(A) IMAN
(B) MEMAN
(C) RMAN
(D) SMAN

2. According to the United Nations, Environment Programme’s Emissions Gap Report gas emissions
have risen ______ per year over the last decade.
(A) 1.8%
(B) 1.5%
(C) 1.6%
(D) 1.7%

3. Which state cabinet has approved the nomination of at least one differently-abled member to
each panchayat?
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Rajasthan
(D) Chattisgarh

4. Shaukat Kaifi was the renowned actress of which cinema?

(A) Tamil
(B) Telugu
(C) Hindi
(D) Gujrati

5. _______ has rolled out special winter-grade diesel for Ladakh?

(A) BPCL
(B) HPCL
(C)Vedanta
(D) IOCL

6. “RN Kao: Gentle Spymaster” has been authored by _________.

(A) AP Gaur
(B) Roshni Rajaram
(C) Nitin A Gokhle
(D) Vijay Goyal

7. Defcom INDIA 2019 is being held in which city?

(A) Pune
(B) Bangalore
(C) Jaipur
(D) New Delhi
8. Which two states have most crimes against children?
(A) Rajasthan & Arunachal Pradesh
(B) Jammu & Kashmir & Bihar
(C) Bihar & Rajasthan
(D) Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh
9. The _______ International Tourism Mart (ITM-2019) was held in Imphal?
(A) 7th
(B) 6th
(C) 8th
(D) 9th

10. _________ amount was cleared by IMAC under the food processing scheme?
(A) 272 crores
(B) 271 crores
(C) 273 crores
(D) 274 crores

11. Who has been appointed as New Chief of Joint Staff of Pakistan Army?

A. Sahir Shamshad Mirza

B. Sadiq Sanjrani

C. Shah Mehmood Qureshi

D. Javed Hashmi

12. Sudhir Dhar, who recently died at 87 was famous personality of which profession?

A. Journalist

B. Cartoonist

C. Banker

D. Musician

13. U GRO Capital with which bank has recently signed loan co-origination partnership?

A. SBI

B. ICICI Bank

C. Dena Bank

D. Axis Bank

14. Which city organized the DEFCOM INDIA 2019?

A. Bengaluru

B. New Delhi

C. Mumbai

D. Noida

15. Which of the following NID has not been declared as institution of national importance?
 A. NID Gandhinagar

B. NID Amaravati

C. NID Bhopal

D. NID Kurukshetra

16. Who has recently taken oath as the pro-tem speaker of the Maharashtra assembly?

A. Kalidas Kolambkar

B. Vaibhav Madhukar Pichad

C. Sandeep Naik

D. SadaSarvankar

17. Which institute has developed catalytic convertor using Rajasthani clay?

A. MNIT Jaipur

B. IIT Jodhpur

C. NIIT Neemrana

D. BITS Pilani

18. Which e-commerce platform will open pop-up store on China's Pinduoduo until year-end?

A. Alibaba

B. Otto

C. eBay

D. Amazon

19. Who will sworn in as Maharashtra Chief Minister on November 28?

A. Raj Thackeray

B. AjitPawar

C. Bhagat Singh Koshyari

D. Uddhav Thackeray

20. Who has become the new owner of Chennai Superstarz in Premier Badminton League?
 A. K. Sathish Kumar

B. Sankar Muthusamy

C. R. Sivakumar

D. Vijay Prabhakaran

21. Who has recently been awarded honorary fellowship by Royal Aeronautical Society of UK?

A. G Satheesh Reddy

B. Yuri Koptev

C. Jim Bridenstine

D. K. Sivan

22. Who is the author of 'RN Kao: Gentleman Spymaster'?

A. Nitin Anant Gokhale

B. Rohinton Mistry

C. Anita Desai

D. Shashi Deshpande

23. Who has been awarded the 27th Ekalabya Award 2019?

A. Hima Das

B. JhilliDalabehera

C. Indumati

D. Shashi Chogan

24. Which of the following has recently received the Best Tea Garden School award?

A. Glenburn Tea Estate

B. Darang Tea Estate

C. Kharjan Tea Estate

D. Cooch Behar Tea Estate

25. Which project won the Aga Khan Architecture Award 2019?
 A. Warka Water

B. Courtyard House Plugin

C. Arcadia Education Project

D. Enghelab Street Rehabilitation

26. Intel and which company have partnered to bring 5G support to laptops?

A. Exynos

B. Realtek

C. Qualcomm

D. MediaTek

27. Which country organized the WATEC Conference?

A. UAE

B. Israel

C. Egypt

D. Qatar

28. Which high resolution imaging satellite has recently been launched by ISRO?

A. WorldView 1

B. GeoEye-1

C. QuickBird

D. Cartosat-3

29. Which of the following topped the list of states for crimes against children according to CRY
report?

A. Maharashta

B. Uttar Pradesh

C. West Bengal

D. Bihar
30. National Milk Day is celebrated on which date?

A. 25th November

B. 26th November

C. 24th November

D. 27th November

31. Who was conferred with the CII's 'Quality Ratna' award?

A. SarathBabu

B. Nita Ambani

C. Azim Premji

D. Suresh Krishna

32. Constitution Day in India is celebrated on which date?

A. 25th November

B. 26th November

C. 24th November

D. 27th November

33. Golden Target award is associated with which federation?

A. Worldwide Business Federation

B. Singapore Business Federation

C. World Darts Federation

D. International Shooting Sport Federation

334. Which city organized the 10th Commonwealth Youth Parliament?

A. Kolkata

B. New Delhi

C. Chennai

D. Mumbai
35. Which state has announced to give 5% reservation to sportspersons in jobs?

A. Kerala

B. Madhya Pradesh

C. Haryana

D. Rajasthan

36. Who is the author of 'Hemant Karkare: A Daughters Memoir'?

A. Shanti Karkare

B. Jui Karkare Navare

C. Bilavari Karkare

D. Shashwat-karkare

37. Who will be the new director of the United Nations World Tourism Organization?

A. Suresh Tripathi

B. Sandeep Ghosla

C. Tushar Bansal

D. Suman Billa

38. Ashok Leyland with which bank has recently signed an MOU for vehicle financing?

A. Bank of Baroda

B. Indian Bank

C. ICICI Bank

D. HDFC

39. Which National Park has been declared as Chhattisgarh's fourth 'tiger reserve'?

A. Guru Ghasidas

B. Achanakmar

C. Udanti-Sitanadi

D. Indravati
40. Who set the new meet record in the girls' under-16 200m at the 17th Milo National inter-district
junior athletics?

A. Sharon Maria

B. Kirti Kaushik

C. Disha Nashier

D. Neha Jangra

41. Which state has launched citizen helpline 14400 for corruption-related complaints?

A. Haryana

B. West Bengal

C. Andhra Pradesh

D. Maharashtra

42. Which city will host annual Modi-Abe summit-2019?

A. Guwahati

B. Vadodara

C. Thiruvananthapuram

D. Chandigarh
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43. Which state has launched immunisation campaign against Filaria?

A. Uttar Pradesh

B. Telangana

C. Himachal Pradesh

D. Chhattisgarh

44. The 13th Asia Pacific Screen Awards were awarded in which country?

A. India

B. Australia

C. Japan
 D. Brazil

45. Which city's metro is to launch an app to provide entertainment?

A. New Delhi

B. Hyderabad

C. Chennai

D. Kolkata

46. The Indian Railways Institute of Financial Management has been inaugurated in which city?

A. Hyderabad

B. Surat

C. New Delhi

D. Bengaluru

47. Which of the following will host the military drill 'Milan 2020'?

A. Indian Army

B. Indian Navy

C. Indian Air Force

D. Indian Coast Guard

48. Which city will host the 3rd Military Literature Festival?

A. New Delhi

B. Chandigarh

C. Lucknow

D. Chennai

49. Who won the recently concluded Scottish Open Title?

A. Anand Pawar

B. Kiran George

C. Luka Wraber
 D. Lakshya Sen

50. Which team won the ACC Emerging Teams Asia Cup?

A. Bangladesh

B. Pakistan

C. India

D. Sri Lanka

51. Which round of National Sample Survey was recently conducted by NSO?

A. 80th

B. 70th

C. 85th

D. 75th

52. Which city recently organized the 50th Conference of Governors?

A. Mumbai

B. New Delhi

C. Chandigarh

D. Mumbai

53. Who has recently tied Michael Jackson's record of 24 wins for favorite pop/rock album award?

A. Billie Eilish

B. Taylor Swift

C. Katy Perry

D. Rihanna

54. Which of the following has recently acquired majority stake in Cygnus Medicare?

A. Max Healthcare

B. Db Corp Ltd
 C. Fortis Hospital

D. Amar Ujala Ltd

55. Which city organized the 'Destination North East' festival?

A. Aizawl

B. Varanasi

C. Dispur

D. Banaras

56. Kshiti Goswami, who recently died at 77 was the former Chief Minister of which state?

A. Tripura

B. West Bengal

C. Odisha

D. Sikkim

57. Lachit Divas was celebrated in which state?

A. Tripura

B. Bihar

C. West Bengal

D. Assam

58. Who is the chairman of 15th finance commission?

A. N K Singh

B. Urjit Patel

C. Vijay Kelkar

D. C. Rangarajan

59. How many successive wins have been claimed by Vijender Singh in professional boxing circuit?

A. 10

B. 11
 C. 12

D. 13

60. What is India's rank in 2019 Nomuras Food Vulnerability Index?

A. 22nd

B. 36th

C. 44th

D. 57th

61. Which city organized the 2019 edition of Manipur Sangai Festival?

A. Chandel

B. Kamjong

C. Imphal

D. Bishnupur

62. Ban on which armed separatist has been extended for 5 years by central government?

A. National Democratic Front of Bodoland

B. United Liberation Front of Assam

C. Muslim United Liberation Tigers of Assam

D. National Liberation Front of Tripura

63. International Day for the Elimination of Violence against Women is celebrated on which date?

A. 25th November

B. 26th November

C. 24th November

D. 23rd November

64. Singapore with which country has recently signed an MOU on Cybersecurity Cooperation?

A. Japan
 B. South Korea

C. Indonesia

D. China

65. How much minimum balance penalty was collected by Public sector banks in 2018-19?

A. Rs 1,996.46 crores

B. Rs 3,996.46 crore

C. Rs 2,996.46 crore

D. Rs 996.46 crore

66. Who won the men's singles title at the Infosys Foundation India International Challenge 2019?

A. Hoo Pang Ron

B. Aleem Dar

C. Manu Attri

D. Xiaodong Sheng

67. Who won the World Athlete of the Year award in men's category?

A. Eliud Kipchoge

B. Asbel Kiprop

C. David Rudisha

D. ConseslusKipruto

68. Etawah Lion Safari is located in which state?

A. Maharashtra

B. Assam

C. Uttar Pradesh

D. Arunachal Pradesh

69. Which city organized the National Tribal Craft Mela - 2019?

A. Surat
 B. Faridabad

C. Bhubaneshwar

D. Ranchi

70. What is Oxford's 2019 Word of the Year?

A. Post-truth

B. Youthquake

C. Toxic

D. Climate Emergency

71. Indian Army celebrated the Poonch Link-up Day on which date?

A. November 25

B. November 24

C. November 23

D. November 21

72. Who became the youngest artist in the history of Grammys to score six Gammy Award
nominations?

A. Lana Del Rey

B. Swae Lee

C. Ariana Grande

D. Billie Eilish

73. AIIA will work with which country for integrating Ayurveda principles with modern medicine?

A. Russia

B. Japan

C. Israel

D. Australia

74. Anita Anand,who is an Indian born politician has become part of which country's cabinet?
 A. Russia

B. Australia

C. United Kingdom

D. Canada

75. In which state living root bridges are found?

A. Assam

B. Manipur

C. Odisha

D. Meghalaya

76. What is the rank of Indian in the report regarding physical activity of adolescents aged between
11 and 17 years?

A. 5

B. 8

C. 9

D. 10

77. Dallol Geothermal Field belongs to which country?

A. Russia

B. Sudan

C. Ethiopia

D. Norway

78. The largest biotechnology meeting of India was organized in which city?

A. New Delhi

B. Manesar

C. Leh

D. Hissar
79. GoI is to provide broad band connectivity to two lakh Gram Panchayats by March 2020 under
which Scheme?

A. Udaan Scheme

B. Stand Up India

C. BharatNet Project

D. Skill India Mission

80. 'SHIKHAR SE PUKAR' is a documentary film related to which topic?

A. Girl Education

B. Water Conservation

C. Women Empowerment

D. None of the above

81. Who will direct historical drama 'King Leopold's Ghost'?

A. Ridley Scott

B. Ben Affleck

C. FarhadSafinia

D. Adam Hochschild

82. Who has been awarded the 28th Bihari Puraskar?

A. Kamlesh Tripathi

B. Radhika Menon

C. Manisha Kulshreshtha

D. Vikram Seth

83. Which Institute has won Asia's best digital marketing institute award?

A. IIT Roorkee

B. Digital Gurukul

C. IIM Bengaluru

D. DCE Delhi
84. The 172nd Defence Pensioners Adalat was organized in which state?

A. MP

B. Assam

C. Bihar

D. UP

85. Which Indian city organized the '2019 World Conference on Access to Medical Products
Achieving the SDGs 2030'?

A. Kolkata

B. Chennai

C. Mumbai

D. New Delhi

86. NilkanthKhadilkar, who recently dies at 85 in Mumbai was a famous personality of which field?

A. Politician

B. Newspaper Editor

C. Cricketer

D. Musician

87. World Television Day celebrated on which of the following day?

A. November 22

B. November 21

C. November 23

D. November 24

88. Which state achieved highest road length in country under PMGSY (Pradhan Mantri Grameen
Sadak Yojana) in 2019?

A. Karnataka

B. Telangana
 C. Andhra Pradesh

D. Jammu and Kashmir

89. What is name of NASA's first electric airplane?

A. P-51 Mustang

B. X-57 Maxwell

C. B-52 Stratofortress

D. U-2 spy plane

90. Who receives MMA Amalgamations Business Leadership Award 2019 in Chennai?

A. Ratan Tata

B. Mukesh Ambani

C. Azim Premji

D. Aditya Birla

91. Which country will host the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) Forum of Young Scientists
and Innovators in 2020.

A. Russia

B. Pakistan

C. China

D. India

92. India has made an agreement with which country for expeditious grant of patents to Indian
entities and individuals?

A. Japan

B. USA

C. South Korea

D. Russia

93. The Reserve Bank has constituted a three-member panel to advise the administrator of which of
the following company?
 A. GAIL

B. IOCL

C. BPCL

D. DHFL

94. Tourism Ministry organizes 'International Tourism Mart' in which of the following cities?

A. Imphal

B. Hyderabad

C. Mumbai

D. New Delhi

95. The RBI has expanded the scope of SNRR Accounts. Non-residents permitted to open such
accounts for rupee denominated overseas borrowings, trade credit and trade invoicing for
popularising cross-border transactions in the domestic currency. What is meaning of S in SNRR?

A. Social

B. Strength

C. Special

D. Service

96. Who has become fifth Indian wicket-keeper to affect 100 dismissals in test cricket after M. S.
Dhoni, Syed Kirmani, Kiran More and NayanMongia?

A. Rishab Pant

B. Shreyas Iyer

C. WriddhimanSaha

D. Naman Ojha

97. CBDT Chairman inaugurates Web Portal for exchange of information on Income Tax. Who is
current CBDT chairman?

A. Rajiv Kumar

B. PK Das

C. P.C. Mody
 D. Vijay Keshav

98. The 5th Meeting of SCO Member States' Heads of Ministries and Departments of Science and
Technology held in Which city?

A. Moscow

B. St Petersburg

C. Volgograd

D. Vladivostok

99. Which company is to acquire IDBI Mutual Fund?

A. Reliance

B. Muthoot Finance Ltd

C. India Bulls

D. LIC

100. Who has won the award for Best Actor in ASIA PACIFIC SCREEN AWARDS?

A. Manoj Bajpayee

B. Ayushman Khurrana

C. Vicky Kaushal

D. Amitabh Bachan

101. What is current India's foreign exchange reserves amount?

A. USD 348.249 billion

B. USD 248.249 billion

C. USD 548.249 billion

D. USD 448.249 billion

102. Which state has allowed women to work in night shifts in all factories (registered under the
factories act)?

A. Karnataka

B. Maharastra
 C. Odhisa

D. Andhra Pradesh

103. Which software giant has launched "K-12 Education Transformation Framework" in India?

A. IBM

B. Microsoft

C. Alphabet

D. VMWare
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104. Munderwa Sugar Mill has been recently inaugurated in which Indian state?

A. Madhya Pradesh

B. Uttar Pradesh

C. Biharr

D. Haryana

105. Who has been named as the PETA India's Person of the Year 2019?

A. Shilpa Shetty

B. Virat Kohli

C. Akshay Kumar

D. Anushka Sharma

106. Which state has launched the Arundhati Gold Scheme?

A. Arunachal Pradesh

B. Assam

C. Nagaland

D. Sikkim

107. Who broke the World junior record score at 2019 ISSF World Cup?

A. YashaswiniDeswal
 B. ApurviChandela

C. Mehuli Ghosh

D. Manu Bhaker

108. Who was conferred with Lifetime Achievement Award by ICMR?

A. Kiran Mazumdar Shaw

B. Naina Lal Kidwai

C. ShobhanaBhartia

D. Roshni Nadar

109. NASA has recently detected water vapours on which Jupiter's moon?

A. Europa

B. Ganymede

C. Callisto

D. Io

110. Which of the following has recently unveiled its first ever electric truck?

A. Mitsubishi

B. BMW

C. Tesla

D. Mercedes-Benz

111. World Philosophy Day is observed on which date?

A. 19th November

B. 20th November

C. 21st November

D. 22nd November

112. Which city organized the 'India for Humanity-Jaipur Foot' event?

A. New Delhi
 B. Jaipur

C. Los Angeles

D. Washington DC

113. What is India's rank in 2019 Global Terrorism Index?

A. 7th

B. 9th

C. 11th

D. 13th

114. World Fisheries Day is celebrated on which date?

A. 19th November

B. 20th November

C. 21st November

D. 22nd November

115. Who is the longest serving Prime Minister of Japan?

A. Ito Hirobumi

B. Sato Eisaku

C. Abe Shinzo

D. Katsura Taro

116. National Institute for SOWA-RIGPA will be established at which place?

A. Gurugram

B. Srinagar

C. Howrah

D. Leh

117. Which city organized the World Conference on Access to Medical Products: Achieving the SDGs
2030'?
 A. Kolkata

B. Chennai

C. Mumbai

D. New Delhi

118. Which state's government has decided to legalise cultivation of cannabis for medical and
industrial purpose?

A. Maharashtra

B. Manipur

C. Kerala

D. Madhya Pradesh

119. Who has been newly appointed as the DGP of Odisha?

A. Bhupendra Singh

B. K P Singh

C. BK Sharma

D. Abhay

120. Who became the first Indian to be crowned Mr. Universe 2019 at the 11th WBPF
Championship?

A. Varinder Ghuman

B. Chitharesh Natesan

C. Thakur Anoop Singh

D. Sangram Chougule

121. Who will be the first female pilot of the Indian Navy?

A. Shivangi

B. Parul Chauhan

C. Shruti Sharma

D. Payal Sinha
122. Who topped the Fortune's Businessperson of the Year 2019 list?

A. Sundar Pichai

B. Satya Nadella

C. Jeff Bezos

D. Bill Gates

123. The world's first Muslim yoga camp is being organized at which place?

A. Leh

B. Kotdwar

C. Varanasi

D. Dehradun

124. Which state has launched a scheme to provide free Wi-Fi services to it's capital for one hour
each day?

A. Karnataka

B. Telangana

C. Andhra Pradesh

D. Kerala

125. Which country hosted the World Customs Organization RCP meeting of Asia Pacific?

A. Belgium

B. India

C. Myanmar

D. Thailand

126. Who has been named as the new Prime Minister of Sri Lanka?

A. Mahinda Rajapaksa

B. Maithripala Sirisena

C. Gotabaya Rajapaksa
 D. Ranil Wickremesinghe

127. Which is the first Hindi newspaper recently launched in Arunachal Pradesh?

A. Pradesh Bhasha

B. Arun Bhoomi

C. Hind Sahitya

D. Hindi Times

128. World Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease Day in 2019 is observed on which date?

A. November 19

B. November 20

C. November 21

D. November 22
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129. Who has been appointed as the new Chief information commissioner of the Tamil Nadu?

A. Yash Pal Singhal

B. Vinson M Paul

C. P.Sathasivam

D. R Rajagopal

130. Which country is to host India-ASEAN InnoTech Summit 2019?

A. Philippines

B. Indonesia

C. Myanmar

D. Thailand

131. Which Indian missile has recently been successfully test fired from a mobile launcher at night?

A. Prithvi-2

B. Agni-VI
 C. Dhanush

D. Surya

132. According to the Chit Funds (Amendment) Bill, 2019, what is the maximum commission for a
person managing the fund?

A. 3%

B. 5%

C. 7%

D. 9%

133. Which city organized the International Principal's Education Conference?

A. Nagpur

B. Bhopal

C. Patna

D. Ghaziabad
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134. Which Chinese sprinter has been appointed to the Athletes Commission of World Athletics?

A. XieZhenye

B. Zhang Peimeng

C. SuBingtian

D. Wei Yongli

135. Which is the first city in India to Install 'Third Umpire' RT-PCR Machines?

A. Mumbai

B. Chennai

C. Kolkata

D. New Delhi

136. Which state has made sanitary napkins mandatory for all the industries and factories for
women staff?
 A. Gujarat

B. Chhattisgarh

C. Kerala

D. Assam

137. Which is not one of the newly included states to promote pulses and oilseeds cultivation?

A. Haryana

B. Maharashtra

C. Karnataka

D. Gujarat

138. Who is the Internal Affairs Minister of Uzbekistan?

A. PulatBobojonov

B. YerlanTurgumbayev

C. KashkarJunushaliev

D. Vladimir Kolokoltsev

139. What is the estimated cost for the Census 2021?

A. Rs. 7,300 crores

B. Rs. 5,754 crores

C. Rs. 8,754 crores

D. Rs. 6,650 crores

140. Which became the first Indian firm to cross the Rs.9.5 lakh crore market capitalization mark?

A. Tata Group

B. Reliance Industries Limited

C. Larsen & Toubro

D. ITC Limited

141. Which of the following received the President's Colour award?

 A. Indian Military Academy

B. Indian Naval Academy

C. Indian Air Force Academy

D. Indian Coast Guard

142. Which city will organize the NuGen Mobility Summit 2019?

A. Surat

B. Nashik

C. Manesar

D. Panchkula

143. Which country has been given permission by India to use Chandipur test range?

A. Japan

B. Singapore

C. South Korea

D. Indonesia

144. Kranji War Memorial is located in which country?

A. Ethiopia

B. Singapore

C. Mali

D. Thailand

145. Which rocket of ISRO is to launch USA's commercial nano satellites?

A. PSLV-C48

B. PSLV-C46

C. PSLV-C47

D. PSLV-C45
146. DRDO is to double the range of which missile?

A. Agni-II

B. Brahmos

C. Prithvi

D. Astra

147. Which city is to host the first counter-terrorism table-top exercise for the 'Quad' countries?

A. Mumbai

B. Noida

C. New Delhi

D. Vishakhapatnam

148. Which company has been recognized as IT Ratna of Karnataka by Software Technology Parks of
India?

A. TCS

B. Infosys

C. Cognizant

D. Wipro

149. International Men's Day is celebrated on which date?

A. November 15

B. November 20

C. November 19

D. November 18

150. Which City has installed RT-PCR Machines for quick detection of diseases?

A. Bhopal

B. Lucknow

C. Kolkata

D. Nashik
151. India and which bank has signed an agreement to improve water resources in Karnataka?

A. Asian Development Bank

B. Bank of China

C. World Bank

D. International Monetary Fund

152. Golden Chariot service is associated with which railways?

A. Pakistan Railways

B. Myanmar Railways

C. Indian Railways

D. China Railways

153. Which bill has recently been passed by Lok Sabha?

A. Jallianwala Bagh National Memorial (Amendment) Bill

B. The Jammu and Kashmir Reservation (Second Amendment) Bill

C. The Chit Funds (Amendment) Bill, 2019

D. The Dam Safety Bill, 2019

154. Which city will organize India-Pakistan Asia/Oceania Group 1 Tie of Davis Cup tennis?

A. Tehran

B. Nur-Sultan

C. Dubai

D. Ankara

155. Which secessionist mobile application has recently been removed by google from Play Store?

A. Church Caster Lite

B. Pocket Torah

C. Religions of the world

D. 2020 Sikh Referendum

156. Which city organized the 2nd edition of South Asia Safety Summit?

A. Chennai

B. Puducherry

C. Madurai

D. New Delhi

157. India has partnered with which country to tackle chronic air pollution of Delhi?

A. USA

B. UK

C. Netherlands

D. China

158. Which city will host India's home matches of 2020 Hockey Pro League?

A. Jalandhar

B. Bhubaneswar

C. Chennai

D. Indore

159. Which state has bagged the 'Swachh Sarvekshan Grameen-2019' award?

A. Karnataka

B. Andhra Pradesh

C. Kerala

D. Telangana

160. Which Fast Patrol Vessel has recently been delivered to Indian Coast Guard by GRSE?

A. ICGS Annie Besant

B. ICGS Amrit Kaur

C. ICGS Kamla Devi

D. ICGS Vidya Jung

161. Who won the 2019 Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development?

A. David Attenborough

B. Jane Goodall

C. Dian Fossey

D. BiruteGaldikas

162. Which cricketer has recently been banned by Bangladesh for five years for assault?

A. Shakib al Hassan

B. Shahadat Hossain

C. Tamim Iqbal

D. Mashrafe Mortaza

163. Which city's police has launched robot CYBIRA?

A. Amravati

B. Chennai

C. Vishakhapatnam

D. Kochi

164. Which state has recently planned to ban the sale of junk food in schools?

A. Telangana

B. Haryana

C. Gujarat

D. Uttar Pradesh

165. The United Nations' (UN) Universal Children's Day is celebrated on which date?

A. November 15

B. November 17

C. November 19
 D. November 20

166. Who has been elected unopposed as a member of the AIBA Athletes Commission?

A. Sarita Devi

B. Mary Kom

C. Pinki Rani

D. Simranjit Kaur

167. Who is the newly appointed the Chief Justice of Jharkhand High Court?

A. ThottathilBhaskaran Nair Radhakrishnan

B. Ravi Ranjan

C. Shiavax Jal Vazifdar

D. R. Banumathi

168. The Plenary meeting of Kimberley Process Certification Scheme (KPCS)-2019 is to be hosted by
which country?

A. UAE

B. USA

C. China

D. India

169. Who has been recently hounoured with the Chetana Jubilee National Award-2019?

A. Gopal Subramaniam

B. ResulPookutty

C. Sunil Kumar

D. S.P. Balasubramanyam

170. Who won gold medal in the 63rd National shotgun championship?

A. Manisha Keer

B. Rajeshwari Kumari
 C. Karni Singh

D. Shreyasi Singh

171. Ballistic missile Shaheen-1 belongs to which country?

A. Israel

B. UAE

C. Iran

D. Pakistan

172. Which venue is to host an exhibition on Jallianwala Bagh Massacre?

A. Pragati Maidan, New Delhi

B. Mahatma Mandir, Gandhinagar

C. Victoria Memorial Hall, Kolkata

D. Shri Krishna Memorial Hall, Patna

173. The first-ever National Agrochemicals Congress was held in which city?

A. New Delhi

B. Chandigarh

C. Lucknow

D. Mohali

174. Who won Formula One Brazilian Grand Prix?

A. Lewis Hamilton

B. Max Verstappen

C. Sebastian Vettel

D. Charles Leclerc

175. Which of the following has recently unveiled an all-electric racing aircraft?

A. Defunct Racing

B. Air Race E
 C. Macchi Aviation

D. Alice electric

176. Who won men's singles title at ITTF Challenge Indonesia Open 2019?

A. SathiyanGnanasekaran

B. Harmeet Desai

C. Anthony Amalraj

D. Sanil Shetty

177. Which city organized the 12th Urban Mobility India Conference and Expo 2019?

A. Lucknow

B. Mumbai

C. Bhubaneshwar

D. Ranchi

178. India with which country is to carry out joint patrolling in Indian Ocean Region in 2020?

A. Germany

B. USA

C. France

D. Japan

179. Who won the men's singles title at ATP Finals-2019?

A. Stefanos Tsitsipas

B. Dominic Thiem

C. James Blake

D. Rafael Nadal

180. Which state's Olympic Association will launch 'Grassroot Olympic - Mission Talent Hunt'?

A. Madhya Pradesh

B. Haryana
 C. Telangana

D. Assam

181. What is India's rank in the 2019 IMD World Talent Ranking?

A. 50th

B. 59th

C. 42nd

D. 50th

182. Which state Government will create a dedicated Department of Foreign Cooperation ?

A. Bihar

B. UP

C. MP

D. Haryana

183. Women's Entrepreneurship Day (WED) 2019 is celebrated on which date?

A. November 17

B. November 18

C. November 19

D. November 16

184. Which state launched toll-free number 14500 to report incidents of sand smuggling?

A. Andhra Pradesh

B. Tamil Nadu

C. Karnataka

D. Kerala

185. Which company has launched an anti-bacterial LED bulb recently?

A. Syska
 B. Wipro

C. Philips

D. Panasonic

186. Which session of Rajya Sabha is going on in India?

A. 250

B. 320

C. 350

D. 150

187. Which bank will invest in India to develop logistics infrastructure of Kolkata metropolitan area?

A. Swiss Bank

B. World Bank

C. ADB

D. AIIB

188. Special winter grade diesel has been launched in which city?

A. New Delhi

B. Ladakh

C. Dehradun

D. Kohima

189. "World Day of Remembrance for Road Traffic Victims" in 2019 was observed on which date?

A. 16th November

B. 17th November

C. 18th November

D. 19th November

190. Who won the Panasonic Open title?

A. Kim Joo-hyung
 B. Shiv Kapur

C. Terry Pilkadaris

D. Vikrant Chopra

191. Which city has recently set Guinness record in CPR training?

A. Kochi

B. Bengaluru

C. New Delhi

D. Puducherry

192. Which Indian has been conferred the the Indian Personality of the Year Award (Sports)-2019?

A. Sachin Tendulkar

B. Virat Kohli

C. P V Sindhu

D. Bajrang Punia

193. Who has been elected unopposed as a member of the AIBA Athletes Commission?

A. Sarita Devi

B. Mary Kom

C. Pinki Rani

D. Simranjit Kaur

194. The annual exercise Sindu Sudarshan-VII of Indian Army is being conducted in which city?

A. Ajmer

B. Guwahati

C. Dispur

D. Barmer

195. Who has sworn in as the 47th Chief Justice of India recently?

A. C.H.Mishra
 B. Sharad Arvind Bobde

C. Ravinder Gulati

D. Jeorge Walter

196. TheIndia International Cherry Blossom festival- 2019, was celebrated in which state?

A. Assam

B. Sikkim

C. Nagaland

D. Meghalaya

197. The International Association of Athletics Federations has changed its name to which name?

A. Federation of Athletics

B. World Athletics

C. Athletics De international

D. International Athletics

198. Which state Government has recently launched Rythu Mitra?

A. UP

B. MP

C. Bihar

D. Telangana

199. The first-ever National Agrochemicals Congress was held in which Indian city?

A. New Delhi

B. Faridabad

C. Ghaziabad

D. Noida

200. "World Toilet Day" is observed on which date?

A. 19th November
 B. 16th November

C. 17th November

D. 18th November

201. Za'ir-Al-Bahr is a naval exercise of India with which country?

A. UAE

B. Qatar

C. France

D. Iran

202. Who won the Ghulam Ahmed Memorial Cup-2019?

A. News O' Star

B. Asteria

C. Phenomenal Cruise

D. Prince Valiant

203. National Epilepsy Day is being observed on which date?

A. November 17

B. November 16

C. November 15

D. November 18

204. Who has been inducted into the Smithsonians National Portrait Gallery?

A. Ramon Laguarta

B. Indra Nooyi

C. Chanda Kochhar

D. Satya Nadella

205. Who has sworn in as the new Sri Lankan president recently?
 A. Gotabaya Rajapaksa

B. Sajith Premadasa

C. Maithripala Sirisena

D. Karu Jayasuriya

206. Which is the first country to introduce WHO approved typhoid vaccine?

A. Japan

B. India

C. Pakistan

D. USA

207. Which team has qualified for Euro 2020 for the first time ever?

A. Norway

B. Finland

C. Liechtenstein

D. Gibraltar

208. Which city's green and white tea has recently got GI tag?

A. Munnar

B. Darjeeling

C. Nilgiri district

D. Coorg

209. Who became the first Indian to win the prestigious Italian award for sand art?

A. SudarsanPattnaik

B. Pavel Minilkov

C. Vito Maraschio

D. Reenat Sandhu

210. How many medals did India win at the Asian Youth Boxing Championship?
 A. 5

B. 7

C. 9

D. 12

211. "National Press Day" is celebrated on which date?

A. 19th November

B. 16th November

C. 17th November

D. 18th November

212. Which country's upper house unanimously passed resolution honouring Sikh Community?

A. Cuba

B. Bolivia

C. Mexico

D. US

213. Which city has topped the tap water quality ranking released by the Bureau of Indian
Standards?

A. Telangana

B. Mumbai

C. Chennai

D. Aizawl

214. Which former President of DDCA has resigned recently?

A. C. K. Khanna

B. Vinod Tihara

C. Rajat Sharma

D. Devendra Bishnoi

215. Who was conferred with the ICCR distinguished alumni award?
 A. Aditi Mohsin

B. Srabani Sen

C. Rezwana Choudhury Bannya

D. Suchitra Mitra

216. Who won the silver medal in high-jump at World Para-Athletics Championships?

A. MariyappanThangavelu

B. Nishad Kumar

C. Sharad Kumar

D. Varun Singh Bhati

217. Who is the author of 'The Daughter from a Wishing Tree: Unusual Tales about Women in
Mythology'?

A. Sudha Murty

B. Amitav Ghosh

C. Jhumpa Lahiri

D. Kiran Desai

218. India has recently conducted the first night-trial of which missile?

A. Akash

B. Brahmos

C. Prithvi

D. Agni II

219. Which famous film producer has recently passed away?

A. Rob Minkoff

B. Branko Lustig

C. Douglas Wick

D. David Franzoni
220. What is the name of India's 2nd mission to land on Moon?

A. Chandrayaan 1

B. Chandrayaan 2

C. Chandrayaan 3

D. Gaganyaan

221. Researchers of which institute has designed a paper-based sensor to detect the quality of milk?

A. IIT Hyderabad

B. IIT Bombay

C. IIT Guwahati

D. IIT Delhi

222. Which of the following bagged the Golden Leaf Award 2019?

A. Wan Ling Tea House Australia

B. Tobacco Board of India

C. Bash Tea Vietnam

D. Greendale Marketing

223. Which city organized the "International Symposium on Lighting" recently?

A. Gurugram

B. Noida

C. Sonipat

D. New Delhi

224. UNESCO's World Heritage Week is celebrated between which date?

A. 1st-7th November

B. 12th-18th November

C. 19th-25th November

D. 7th-13th November
225. Which country will organize the 8th International Conference on Agricultural Statistics?

A. Myanmar

B. USA

C. India

D. England

226. Sisseri River bridge has been inaugurated in which state?

A. Assam

B. Arunachal Pradesh

C. Nagaland

D. Manipur

227. Who topped the list in government requests for user data from Facebook in first half of 2019?

A. England

B. India

C. Germany

D. USA

228. "Health Reform report" is associated with which organization?

A. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare

B. Indian Red Cross Society

C. Indian Heart Association

D. NITI Aayog

229. Which state organized the first-ever international buyer-seller meet on Agriculture &
Horticulture?

A. Haryana

B. Gujarat

C. Arunachal Pradesh
 D. Maharashtra

230. Which country will host the 2019 World Kabaddi Cup?

A. India

B. Sri Lanka

C. Iran

D. Kenya

231. Jharkhand celebrated its foundation day on which date?

A. 13th November

B. 14th November

C. 15th November

D. 16th November

232. Which Australian leg-spinning all-rounder has recently passed away?

A. Kevin Roberts

B. Tony Mann

C. Brad Hogg

D. Darren Lehmann

233. What is India's rank in the Global Bribery Risk Index?

A. 45th

B. 60th

C. 26th

D. 78th

234. Who won the annual Tucholsky literary prize?

A. GuiMinhai

B. Amanda Lind

C. GuiConyou
 D. Jesper Bengtsson

235. "International Day for Tolerance" is celebrated on which date?

A. 13th November

B. 14th November

C. 15th November

D. 16th November

236. Which organization is to launch the Global High-Resolution Atmospheric Forecasting System?

A. Microsoft

B. IBM

C. Intel

D. Google

237. Which hospital has set Guinness World Record for the largest gathering of cardiac surgery
patients at one place?

A. Ramesh Hospitals, Vijayawada

B. Star Hospitals, Hyderabad

C. Max Healthcare, Gurgaon

D. Fortis Escorts Hospital, Jaipur

238. Which city has launched "Mukhyamantri Septic Tank Safai Yojana"?

A. Chandigarh

B. Mumbai

C. New Delhi

D. Hyderabad

239. Which city is to organize International Conference on Agricultural Statistics?

A. New Delhi

B. Panchkula
 C. Karnal

D. Faridabad

240. Which state recently got its first "child-friendly" police station?

A. Mizoram

B. Himachal Pradesh

C. Telangana

D. Kerala

241. Which is the partner country at the 14-day India International Trade Fair 2019?

A. Nepal

B. Afghanistan

C. Kazakhstan

D. Sri Lanka

242. Which institute launched the 9th world engineering education forum?

A. IIT Delhi

B. NIT Surathkal

C. IIIT Hyderabad

D. VIT Vellore

243. Which Japanese spacecraft has started journey home from asteroid Ryugu?

A. Hayabusa2

B. Akatsuki

C. Selene

D. Hisaki

244. Which state is to organize the International Conference on Yoga?

A. Madhya Pradesh
 B. Karnataka

C. Goa

D. Uttrakhand

245. 11th MaitreeDiwas was celebrated in which state?

A. Nagaland

B. Arunachal Pradesh

C. Mizoram

D. Manipur

246. Which city will have India's first- ever "North East Convention Centre"?

A. Kanpur

B. New Delhi

C. Mumbai

D. Kolkata

247. Which Indian sprinter has been named in TIME 100 Next list?

A. Srabani Nanda

B. Dutee Chand

C. Rachita Mistry

D. SanthiSoundarajan

248. Who has become the fastest Indian to take 250 Test international wickets at home soil?

A. R. Ashwin

B. Umesh Yadav

C. Mohammad Shami

D. Ishant Sharma

249. Who was conferred with the ABLF Lifetime Achievement Award?

A. Savitri Jindal
 B. Dilip Shanghvi

C. Gautam Adani

D. Cyrus Poonawalla

250. Who won the Cervantes Prize for 2019?

A. Antonio Colinas

B. Gabriel Ferrater

C. Joan Margarit

D. Andres Sanchez Robayna

251. Which country is to do clinical trials of second Ebola vaccine on 50,000 people?

A. Nigeria

B. Ivory Coast

C. Gabon

D. Republic of Congo

252. Which state has launched 'Nadu-Nedu' programme?

A. Telangana

B. Karnataka

C. Tamil Nadu

D. Andhra Pradesh

253. Which Indian wrestler is going to make mixed martial arts debut soon?

A. Vijender Singh

B. RituPhogat

C. Bajrang Punia

D. Babita Kumari

254. Which country organized the 2nd Summit of World Religious Leaders?

A. Belarus
 B. Armenia

C. Georgia

D. Azerbaijan

255. Who is the newly appointed Chief Secretary of Andhra Pradesh?

A. Nilam Sawhney

B. T. M. Vijay Bhaskar

C. Sudhi Ranjan Mohanty

D. Shailendra Kumar Joshi

256. Who has been presented with the Commonwealth 'Points of light' award?

A. Ronald Evans

B. Augustus

C. Patrick Charles

D. Jolly Johnson

257. Which state has launched e-Ganna app?

A. Punjab

B. Maharashta

C. Uttar Pradesh

D. Karnataka

258. Which Famous mathematician has recently passed away in Patna?

A. S. R. Srinivasa Varadhan

B. Vashishth Narayan Singh

C. C. R. Rao

D. Veeravalli S. Varadarajan

259. Which state organizes the "Bali Yatra" Festival every year?

A. Gujarat
 B. Tamil Nadu

C. Odisha

D. Nagaland

260. Which country has become the first South Asian nation to criminalise offences related to
match-fixing?

A. India

B. Bangladesh

C. Sri Lanka

D. Nepal

Which edition of the India International Trade Fair has begun in Delhi?
261.
A. 27th

B. 39th

C. 43rd

D. 32nd

262. Which country has passed the euthanasia bill?

A. Brazil

B. India

C. South Korea

D. New Zealand

263. Which country has just completed lander test for its first unmanned mars mission in 2020?

A. China

B. India

C. Australia

D. Japan

264. Which city organized the exhibition of Technologies in Food Processing?

 A. Lucknow

B. Jaipur

C. New Delhi

D. Chandigarh

265. Which is the focus country for the 39th India International Trade Fair?

A. Japan

B. Afghanistan

C. South Korea

D. Brazil

266. Which country has recently declared a health emergency due to dengue and malaria?

A. Chile

B. Sudan

C. Vietnam

D. Yemen

267. According to a recent decision of SC, which office has come under RTI act?

A. Intelligence Bureau

B. Ministry of Finance

C. Chief Justice of India

D. Directorate of Revenue Intelligence

268. Who is to receive the 2019 MuninBarkotoki Literary Award?

A. MonoranjanBori

B. Abhinandan

C. Suresh Menon

D. K.L. Savalkar

269. How much amount will India contribute to the UN Palestine refugee agency?
 A. USD 5 million

B. USD 1 million

C. USD 10 million

D. USD 15 million

270. World Diabetes Day is celebrated on which date?

A. November 13

B. November 14

C. November 15

D. November 16

271. Which city organized the 6th World Congress on Rural and Agriculture Finance?

A. Noida

B. New Delhi

C. Faridabad

D. Gurugram

272. Who has recently been elected to the board of The Metropolitan Museum of Art?

A. Roshni Nadar

B. Smita V. Krishna

C. Kiran Mazumdar

D. Nita Ambani

273. Which state launched a mobile app called "Sishu Suraksha"?

A. Tamil Nadu

B. Assam

C. Goa

D. Haryana

274. How many medals did India win in the 14th Asian Championship Shooting?
 A. 28

B. 22

C. 26

D. 30

275. Who has been newly appointed the chief justice of Meghalaya High Court?

A. Muhammad Raffiq

B. K Nagaraj Naidu

C. Ajay Kumar Mittal

D. Jugal Kantalal

276. Which West Indies cricketer has recently been banned for tampering the ball?

A. Nicholas Pooran

B. Carlos Brathwaite

C. Dwayne Smith

D. Lendl Simmons

277. Which LCA aircraft carried out night-time arrested landing at SBTF, Goa?

A. Mirage

B. Tejas

C. Sukhoi

D. MIG-21

278. Who won the Screen Actors Guild (SAG) Life Achievement Award?

A. Robert De Niro

B. Robert Downey Jr.

C. Will Smith

D. Tom Cruise

279. Children's Day is celebrated on which date in India?

 A. December 14

B. November 13

C. November 14

D. November 15

280. Who has attained top spot in the latest ICC ODI Player Rankings for batsmen?

A. Steven Smith

B. Rohit Sharma

C. Virat Kohli

D. Babar Azam

281. Who has recently been given charge of the Ministry of Heavy Industries and Public Enterprises?

A. S. Jaishankar

B. Arvind Sawant

C. Piyush Goyal

D. Prakash Javadekar

282. Who has become a part-owner of 'Queensboro', a second division United Soccer League team
in New York?

A. Leo Messi

B. David Villa

C. Zinedine Zidane

D. Diego Maradona

283. Which country will host 19th SCO Heads of Government Council in 2020?

A. Russia

B. China

C. Kazakhstan

D. India
 284. Which monument has entered World Monument Watch list?

A. BhimBetka Caves

B. Adhai Din Ka Jhonpra

C. Ajanta Caves

D. SurangaBawadi

285. Which city organized the world's first-ever Tibetan thanka fusion exhibition?

A. Dehradun

B. New Delhi

C. Mumbai

D. Shimla

286. Which institution has recently entered the Limca Book of Records for the 'Largest Zentangle
Art'?

A. NIFT-Kangra

B. NIFT-Delhi

C. NIFT-Bangalore

D. NIFT-TEA

287. Tesla is to build its first European plant in which city?

A. Paris

B. Berlin

C. London

D. Dublin

288. Which E-commerce Company has recently rolled out "Project Zero" in India?

A. Snapdeal

B. Amazon

C. Flipkart

D. Walmart
289. "Thalaivi", is a biopic based on the life of which politician?

A. Arun Jaitley

B. Indira Gandhi

C. Jayalalithaa

D. Sonia Gandhi

1290. A huge X-Ray burst from outer space has been detected by which telescope?

A. Hubble

B. Webb

C. NICER

D. Compton

291. Who is the newly appointed president of Australian Cricketers' Association?

A. Glenn McGrath

B. Ricky Pointing

C. Shane Watson

D. Mathew Hayden

292. Who is the first woman editor of the Financial Times?

A. Roula Khalaf

B. Shamsher Azam

C. Linda Pope

D. Lionel Barber

293. President's rule has recently been imposed in which state?

A. Madhya Pradesh

B. Maharashtra

C. Jharkhand

D. Chhattisgarh
294. Which city organized the Bandana Sen Library Awards for the first time?

A. Lucknow

B. Kolkata

C. New Delhi

D. Bhopal

295. What is the new name given the faraway ice world 'Ultima Thule'?

A. Canis

B. Magellanic

C. Arrokoth

D. Maffei

296. Which institute will provide incubation facility to its alumni start-up entrepreneurs?

A. NIT Rourkela

B. NIT Delhi

C. NIT Tiruchi

D. NIT Surathkal

297. The coastal security exercise "Sagar Kavach" was conducted off the coast of which state?

A. Odisha

B. Kerala

C. Gujarat

D. West Bengal

298. Who was the founder chairman of Response India Private Limited and a giant in Indian
advertising passed away recently?

A. Ram Ray

B. Joanna Coles

C. Satvik Bajaj
 D. Arthur Sadoun

299. Which state is to carry out a drive against e-cigarettes?

A. Haryana

B. Kerala

C. Bihar

D. Maharashtra

300. Who won the gold medal in men's F46 javelin throw at World Para Athletics Championships
2019?

A. Sundar Singh Gurjar

B. Neeraj Chopra

C. Ajeet Singh

D. Rinku

Answers

Answers
1 .Solution: (A)
Iman was the last surviving Sumatran Rhino in Malaysia, which died in Borneo Rhino Sanctuary due
to cancer. With the death of this Sumatran Rhino, they have become extinct in Malaysia. Iman was
captured in 2014 from Danum Valley in Malaysia.

2 . Solution: (B)
The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) released the Emissions Gap Report, which
states that greenhouse gas emissions have risen 1.5 per cent per year over the last decade. Each
year the Emissions Gap Report assesses the gap between estimated emissions in 2030 and levels
consistent with the 1.5*C and 2*C targets of the Paris Agreement.

3. Solution: (D)
Chhattisgarh government by amending the State Panchayati Raj Act of 1993, has made it mandatory
the presence of at least one differently-abled member to each panchayat. If differently-abled
members are not elected through the electoral process, then one member – either male or female –
would be nominated as a panch.

4. Solution: ( C )
Shaukat Kaifi was a veteran Bollywood actor. She passed away at the age of 93 on 23rd November
2019. She is the mother of Bollywood actress Shabana Azami and wife of renowned Urdu poet Kaifi
Azmi. She played leading roles in ‘Bazaar’, ‘UmraoJaan’ and Mira Nair’s Oscar-nominated film
‘Salaam Bombay’. Her last film was Shaadi Ali’s ‘Saathiya’.

5. Solution: (D)
A special winter-grade diesel has been launched by the Indian Oil Corporation (IOCL) for high
altitude regions such as Kargil, Ladakh, Kaza, and Keylong. This unique fuel is produced by Panipat
refinery and has been engineered to perform in extremely cold weather conditions.

6. Solution: (C)
Security expert Nitin A Gokhale is the author of the book “RN Kao: Gentle Spymaster” . The book is
based on the life of founding the father of India’s external intelligence agency Research & Analysis
Wing (RAW) Rameshwar Nath Kao.

7. Solution: (D)
The DEFCOM 2019 is being held in New Delhi on 26th and 27th November at the Manekshaw
Centre. The curtain raiser ceremony was held on 22nd October 2019 at India Habitat Centre, New
Delhi.DEFCOM will seek to deliberate on the theme ‘Communication as a Decisive Catalyst for
Jointness’.

8. Solution: (B)
Child Rights and You (CRY) recently released a report on the vulnerability of children in India, to
crime. Analysis done by the National Crime Records Bureau for the year 2016-17, was the basis of
the report. It stated that Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh topped the list of crimes against
children. There were 19,000 cases of crime against children in the two states.

9. Solution: (C)
The Ministry of Tourism in association with the North Eastern States organized the 8th International
Tourism Mart at Imphal, Manipur from 23rd to 25th November 2019. The event highlighted the
tourism potential of the region in the international markets.
10. Solution: (B)
Rs 271 crores for the CEFPPC (Creation/Expansion of Food Processing and Preservation Capacities)
scheme was sanctioned by the Inter-Ministerial Approval Committee chaired by Minister of Food
Processing Shri Harsimrat Kaur.

11. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
Pakistan Army announced the appointment of Lt General Sahir Shamshad Mirza as the new Chief of
Joint Staff and also the promotion of two Major Generals to the post of Lt General. Ali Amir Awan
and Muhammad Saeed serving as Major Generals elevated to the ranks of Lieutenant Generals.

12. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
Renowned cartoonist Sudhir Dhar, whose works have graced several newspapers in a career
spanning 58 years, died on November 27 after suffering a cardiac arrest. He was 87. Dhar began his
career with The Statesman in 1961, after which he moved to Hindustan Times. His cartoons have
also appeared in The Independent, The Pioneer, Delhi Times, New York Times and Washington Post,
among others.

13. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
On November 25, 2019 capital market company NewQuest's U GRO Capital has entered into a co-
origination partnership with the State Bank of India(SBI) in order to provide widened credit outreach
and faster disbursal. Through U GRO Capital's platform "GRO-Xstream", in-principle loan approval
will be done within 60 minutes.

14. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
The two-day DEFCOM INDIA 2019 seminar commenced at Manekshaw Centre, New Delhi on 26
November 2019. The theme for the seminar is, "Communications: A Decisive Catalyst for Jointness".

15. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
Parliament on November 26,2019 gave its nod to the Bill which declares the four National Institutes
of Design at Amaravati (AP), Bhopal (MP), Jorhat (Assam) and Kurukshetra (Haryana) declared as
institutions of national importance. The National Institute of Design (Amendment) Bill, 2019, which
has already been passed in the Rajya Sabha on August 6, was passed in the Lok Sabha .

16. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
Kalidas Kolambkar has taken oath as the pro-tem speaker of the Maharashtra assembly. He would
be administering the oath to all the 288 MLAs of the assembly. Usually, the senior-most member of
the assembly is appointed as the pro-tem speaker.

17. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
On November 26, 2019 a team from the indian Institute of Technology- Jodhpur's (IIT-J) chemistry
department led by professor Rakesh K Sharma, has developed catalytic converters for cars using
Rajasthani clay. This will make use of enhanced reduction in pollution and is also cheaper to
produce. The catalytic convertor was developed by extraction of the Iron-Nickel-Cobalt
nanoparticles from the Rajasthani clay which acts as oxygen reservoir.

18. Answer: Option D

Explanation:
Amazon.com Inc will open a pop-up store on Chinese e-commerce platform Pinduoduo Inc that will
run until the end of December and carry a selection of about 1,000 products from overseas.
19. Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Uddhav Thackeray to be sworn in as Maharashtra Chief Minister on November 28. Capping a day of
extraordinary and swiftly changing political developments, leaders of the Sena, Nationalist Congress
Party (NCP) and the Congress met Maharahstra Governor Bhagat Singh Koshyari late on November
26 to stake claim to form the next government, with Sena chief Uddhav Thackeray as Chief Minister.

20. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
There is a new owner and a change in name for the Chennai team in the season five of the Premier
Badminton League to begin on January 20. For four seasons, the Chennai team, under owner Vijay
Prabhakaran, was called Chennai Smashers, and now it will be called Chennai Superstarz.

21. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) chairman G Satheesh Reddy was awarded
honorary fellowship by Royal Aeronautical Society (RAeS) of United Kingdom (UK) during the Medals
and Awards presentation ceremony in London. He is the first Indian recipient of the prestigious
award in more than 100 years.

22. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
A book on the life history of legendary Spymaster and one of the Founding father of India's external
agency RAW (Research and Analysis Wing) written by Nitin Anant Gokhale will be published soon by
Bloomsbury India. The book is based on the anecdotes of RN Kao's life.

23. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
JhilliDalabehera, Odisha weightlifter has been awarded the 27th Ekalabya Award 2019, the annual
award organized by Indian Metals Public Charitable Trust (IMPaCT) managed by IMFA (Indian Metals
and Ferro Alloys limited) group. The award comprises a cash prize of Rs.5 lakhs along with citation.

24. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
Apeejay Tea's Kharjan Tea Estate bagged the award for the Best Tea Garden School at the Shramik
Kalyan Divas, 2019, held at Kotalgoorie Tea Estate Field, Mariani, Jorhat. The manager of Kharjan TE
received the award presented by Chief Minister SarbanandaSonowal present as occasion as chief
guest.
25. Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Arcadia Education Project honoured with the prestigious Aga Khan Architecture Award 2019 for its
Floating School Project. The architect of the project, Saif ul Haq, designed a school, which stays on
land during the dry season and floats on the water during the monsoon.

26. Answer: Option D

Explanation:
MediaTek planned to partner with Intel, the Taiwanese chipmaker, to be the first original equipment
manufacturers (OEMs) to deliver laptops powered by Intel and MediaTek's 5G solution.

27. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
Shri Gajendra Singh Shekhawat represented India at the WATEC Conference in Israel. The Water
Technology and Environment Control (WATEC) conference help to get updates on technologies
related to water and environmental management. Several countries participated in the conference
showcasing their revolutionary technologies and solutions. Israel is considered as the world hero in
terms of water management. They reuse 80% of its sewage water for agriculture.

28. Answer: Option D

Explanation:
Cartosat-3 satellite will be launched from Satish Dhawan Space Centre on November 27. Cartosat-3
is the highest resolution imaging satellite which will be useful in weather mapping and for defence
purposes. The satellite will be joined by 13 commercial nanosatellites from the US.

29. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
The Child Rights and You recently released a report "How Vulnerable are Children in India to crime?"
The report was based on the analysis of National Crime Records Bureau for 2016-17. The report says
that Uttar Pradesh topped the list of states for crimes against children.

30. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
National Milk Day is celebrated across the country on November 26 every year on the birthday of
Dr.VergheseKurien. He was the father of the White Revolution in India. National Milk Day is
celebrated to promote benefits related to milk and milk industry and to create awareness among
people about the importance of milk and milk products.
31. Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Chairman of Sundram Fasteners Ltd. Suresh Krishna was conferred the 'Quality Ratna' award by the
CII Institute of Quality at its 27th Quality Summit held in Bengaluru recently. Union Minister of
Chemicals and Fertilizers D.V. Sadananda Gowda presented the award to Mr. Krishna.

32. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
Constitution Day is celebrated in India on November 26 every year. On this day, the Constituent
Assembly of India formally adopted the Constitution of India, which came into effect on January 26,
1950.

33. Answer: Option D

Explanation:
Despite competing in the company of two of the world's best shooters Anjum Moudgil and
ApurviChandela, the young ElavenilValarivan was able to close the season as the World No.1 in
women's air rifle. She will be given the Golden Target award by the International Shooting Sport
Federation (ISSF) in Munich, Germany, on December 7.

34. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
Delhi Assembly will host a three-day Commonwealth Youth Parliament. As many as 47 participants
from 24 Commonwealth countries will participate in the event along with eleven participants from
India.

35. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
Madhya Pradesh's government announced a five percent reservation to sportspersons in state
government jobs. Minister of Sports and Youth Welfare Jitu Patwari announced while inaugurating
the Regional Olympic Games in Gwalior.

36. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
On November 25, 2019 Jui Karkare Navare, daughter of martyr Hemant Karkare, released her book
named A Daughter's Memoir. The book that was launched at Prerna Hall of Police Club is published
by Crossword. He was a positive role model, an inspiration.
37. Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Kerala cadre senior IAS officer Suman Billa will join the United Nations World Tourism Organisation
(UNWTO) at its headquarters in Madrid, Spain.

38. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
Commercial vehicle manufacturer Ashok Leyland Ltd. (ALL) has entered into a two-year
memorandum of understanding (MoU) with ICICI Bank to offer customised financial solutions to
customers across India with a focus on semi-urban and rural geographies.

39. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
The Chhattisgarh government has decided to declare Guru Ghasidas National Park in the state's
Korea district as a tiger reserve.

40. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
Sharon Maria (Nilgiris) and Kunal Kaushik (Dadri) set new meet records in the girls' under-16 200m
and boys' under-16 shotput events respectively on the final day of the 17th Milo National inter-
district junior athletics meet at Tarakarama Stadium (SV University).

41. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
Andhra Pradesh government has launched 14400, a citizen helpline number on November 25.
People can now directly complain about corruption in government departments.

42. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
The 19th-century colonial riverside bungalow and a cruise on the Brahmaputra are expected to be
among the highlights of the annual summit between Prime Minister Narendra Modi and his
Japanese counterpart Shinzo Abe held in Guwahati in mid-December.

43. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
Uttar Pradesh government launches a massive immunization campaign against the filariasis or
Filaria. The Central government has the set year 2021 as the deadline for complete eradication of
filaria in the country.

44. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
The Asia Pacific Screen Awards (APSA) is an international cultural initiative of the Brisbane City
Council, Australia, to honour and promote the films, actors, directors, and cultures of the Asia-Pacific
region to a global audience and to realize the objectives of UNESCO to promote and preserve the
respective cultures through the influential medium of film. The 13th Asia Pacific Screen Awards were
awarded in Brisbane, Australia.

45. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
Metro riders in Chennai will now be able to enjoy their favourite movies and songs on their
smartphones by downloading an app, to be launched in the first week of December. With
commuters yet to take to the network in a big way, CMRL has come up with the app to provide them
entertainment on their smartphones.

46. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
Indian Railway Institute of Financial Management (IRIFM), a new entity to impart professional
training in management of railway finances, was inaugurated in Hyderabad recently.

47. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
The Indian Navy will host military drill 'Milan 2020' in March which will witness the participation of
several countries. 41 nations from South Asia, Southeast Asia, Africa and Europe that share defence
cooperation with India have been invited for the drill.

48. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
Defence Minister Rajnath Singh will inaugurate the gala event on December 13,2019 at the Lake Club
of Chandigarh.

49. Answer: Option D

Explanation:
Indian shuttlerLakshya Sen won his fourth title in three months bagging the Scottish Open title.
Indian overcame the Brazilian opponent 18-21, 21-18, 21-19, in a 56-minute final.

50. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
Hosts Bangladesh handed a huge 77-run defeat against Pakistan in the high-scoring final of the eight-
nation ACC Emerging Teams Cup (Under-23) Cricket Championship at the Sher-e-Bangla National
Cricket Stadium in Mirpur. Hosts Bangladesh, which stormed the final with all-win record, had a
good opportunity to clinch their maiden title beating Pakistan in the final, but they failed following
footprint of their seniors back in 2012.

51. Answer: Option D

Explanation:
The National Statistical Office on November 23, 2019 released its survey on Household Social
Consumption related to health. The survey was conducted between July 2017 and June 2018. It was
a part of the 75th round of National Sample Survey.

52. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
The 50th annual Conference of Governors began with an inaugural session at the Rashtrapati
Bhawan in New Delhi. Seventeen first time Governors and Lt. Governors of the newly formed union
territories of Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh participated in the Conference.
53. Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Taylor Swift tied Michael Jackson's record at the American Music Awards as she collected her 24th
win and used her speech to thank her record label for allowing her to freely express herself as an
artist.

54. Answer: Option D

Explanation:
Leading media firm Amar Ujala Ltd has acquired a majority stake in Cygnus Medicare, which
operates a chain of super specialty hospitals, for around Rs 130 crore as part of its expansion plans in
the healthcare segment.

55. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
The Ministry of Development of North East Region conducted a four day long North East festival in
Varanasi. The festival is to be conducted between November 23, 2019 and November 26, 2019.

56. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
Senior Revolutionary Socialist Party (RSP) leader and former West Bengal minister Kshiti Goswami
died at a private hospital in Chennai due to old age-related illness on the morning of November 24.
He was 77 and is survived by his wife and daughter.

57. Answer: Option D

Explanation:
On 24 November each year Lachit Divas (Lachit Day) is celebrated statewide in Assam to
commemorate the heroism of LachitBorphukan and the victory of the Assamese army at the Battle
of Saraighat.
58. Answer: Option A
Explanation:
The 15th Finance Commission Chairman N K Singh for significant changes in the GST structure,
including reducing the complicated procedures with frequent rate changes, to improve collection.

59. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
Indian boxing star Vijender Singh for Ghana's former Commonwealth champion Charles Adamu claim
his 12th successive win and ensure that his four-year unbeaten streak in the professional circuit. The
34-year-old former Olympic bronze-medallist prevailed unanimously in an eight-round super
middleweight contest against the 42-year-old.

60. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
India ranked 44 out of 110 countries; a higher rank is worse. At 4.6%, India's retail inflation for
October touched a 16-month high because of the jump in food prices. Food inflation grew by almost
8% - nearly double the rate of overall retail inflation.

61. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
The 2019 edition of Manipur Sangai Festival is being organized from 24-30 November in Imphal.
Every year in November, Gateway of North-East region, Manipur celebrates the 'Sangai Festival',
which was named after the State animal, Sangai, the brow-antlered deer found only in Manipur.

62. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
The Centre on November 24 extended ban on Assam-based Bodo insurgent group National
Democratic Front of Bodoland (NDFB) for its involvement in violent activities, including killings,
extortion and for joining hands with anti-India forces.

63. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
The United Nations General Assembly has designated November 25 as the International Day for the
Elimination of Violence Against Women.

64. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
Singapore signed a memorandum of understanding (MOU) with South Korea to enhance
cooperation and information-sharing on cybersecurity, according to a statement from the city-
state's government.

65. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
Public sector banks collected Rs 1,996.46 crore in penalty from customers for not keeping minimum
monthly balance in savings account in 2018-19. In 2017-18, the 18 public sector banks collected Rs
3,368.42 crore by levying minimum balance penalty.

66. Answer: Option D

Explanation:
In the men single's final, India's Kaushal Dharmamer, fought hard but eventually lost to fifth seed
Xiaodong Sheng from Canada 19-21, 21-8, 14-21. Dharmamer took the second game with utmost
ease at 21 -18 and it seemed he had the upper hand after losing the first one. The Mumbai-lad was
ahead in the third game 12-10.

67. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
Eliud Kipchoge, the first man to run a marathon in less than two hours, and 400 metres hurdles
world champion Dalilah Muhammad won the World Athlete of the Year awards.

68. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
The Etawah Lion Safari, formally known as Etawah Safari Park was thrown open for public in Uttar
Pradesh on 24 November 2019 without the lion segment. It is a drive-through safari park located in
Etawah, Uttar Pradesh.

69. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
National Tribal Craft Mela - 2019 being held in Bhubaneshwar, Odisha from November 23 to 29.
More than 240 tribal artisans from 18 States such as Sikkim, Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu, Madhya
Pradesh, Karnataka, Manipur, Chhattisgarh, Rajasthan, Andhra Pradesh, Telengana, Gujarat, Uttar
Pradesh, Assam, Nagaland, West Bengal, Uttarakhand, and Himachal Pradesh including Odisha are
participating in the 8th National Tribal Craft Mela.

70. Answer: Option D

Explanation:
Oxford Dictionaries named climate emergency as its 2019 Word of the Year choosing it from an all-
environmental shortlist that also included climate action, climate denial eco-anxiety extinction, and
flight shame.

71. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
Indian Army on November 23, 2019 commemorated the Poonch Link-up Day. The event was
organized to pay tribute to the soldiers who sacrificed their lived defending Poonch during the
conflict in 1948.

72. Answer: Option D

Explanation:
Billie Eilish breaks Grammy record by becoming the youngest artist to be nominated in all of the
show's top categories. Billie Eilish received six Grammy nominations. Billie Eilish made Grammy
Awards history when nominations for the 2020 awards show were announced.

73. Answer: Option D

Explanation:
The All India Institute of Ayurveda (AIIA) signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with
Australia's Western Sydney University with aim to promote collaboration in research and developing
guidelines for integrating Ayurveda principles with modern medicine.

74. Answer: Option D

Explanation:
Canada's Prime Minister Justin Trudeau unveiled the new Cabinet. Anand is one of the seven
newcomers to the Cabinet for the new Trudeau government.

75. Answer: Option D

Explanation:
Living root bridges are a form of tree shaping common in the southern part of the Northeast Indian
state of Meghalaya. They are handmade from the aerial roots of rubber fig trees.

76. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
The World Health Organization on November 22, 2019 published its study about physical activity of
adolescents aged between 11 and 17 years. India was ranked eighth reporting lowest level of
physical activity.

77. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
Researchers have found an aquatic environment on Earth with complete absence of any form of life.
The findings revealed that any form of microbial life was absent in the hot, saline, hyperacid ponds
of Dallol Geothermal Field in Ethiopia.

78. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
India's largest biotechnology conglomerate was held in New Delhi between 21 November, 2019 and
23 November, 2019. The event was organized by the Department of Bio Technology under Ministry
of Science and Technology along with BIRAC (Biotechnology Industry Research Assistance Council)
and CII.

79. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
Government of India has set a target of providing broad band connectivity to two lakh Gram
Panchayats by March 2020. So far over 1, 28,000 Gram Panchayats have already been connected.
The project is being implemented under the BharatNet Project.

80. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
Union Minister for Jal Shakti Gajendra Singh Shekhawat released a short documentary film on Water
Conservation named 'SHIKHAR SE PUKAR' in New Delhi.

81. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
Ben Affleck has set King Leopold's Ghost, a true story of rebellion against genocide in the Congo in
the late 1800s, as his next directorial project.

82. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
Manisha Kulshreshtha awarded the 28th Bihari Puraskar for 2018 for her novel Swapnapash. The
award is presented by the KK Birla Foundation for writers of Rajasthani origin.

83. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
Digital Gurukul won the award as Asia's best digital marketing institute from Indore. It is partnered
with Germany based company Certification Institute to issue blockchain-powered Certificates to its
students.

84. Answer: Option D

Explanation:
Rajnath Singh inaugurated the 172nd Defence Pensioners Adalat in Uttar Pradesh capital Lucknow,
becoming the first Raksha Mantri to be a part of the event

85. Answer: Option D

Explanation:
The World Conference on Access to Medical Products Achieving the SDGs 2030 for the year 2019
was held in New Delhi, India. The Conference is a follow on from the 2017 and 2018 World
Conference on Access to Medical Products organized in November 2017 and October 2018 by the
Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

86. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
NilkanthKhadilkar, 85, was the editor of Marathi newspaper Navakal, died at a private hospital in
suburban Bandra. He was the editor of the newspaper for 27 years and had gained popularity for his
hard-hitting editorials which became the daily's popular feature.

87. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
World Television Day is observed on 21 November to highlight the daily value of television that it
plays in communication and globalization.

88. Answer: Option D

Explanation:
Jammu and Kashmir has achieved the highest road length in the country this year so far under a
Centre's rural roads' programme with the completion of around 11,400 kilometres covering 1,838
habitations.

89. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
The first all-electric configuration of NASA's X-57 Maxwell now is at the agency's Armstrong Flight
Research Centre in Edwards, California.

90. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
Azim Premji was conferred the 19th edition of Madras Management Association's Amalgamations
Business Leadership Award .

91. Answer: Option D

Explanation:
India will host the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) Forum of Young Scientists and
Innovators in 2020.The 5th Meeting of Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) Member States
Heads of Ministries and Departments of Science and Technology and Permanent Working Group on
S&T Cooperation concluded in Moscow, Russia.

92. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
The patent offices of India and Japan have inked an agreement for expeditious grant of patents to
Indian entities and individuals. The Union Cabinet approved a proposal for Bilateral Patent
Prosecution Highway (PPH) programme between the Indian Patent Office and patent offices of other
interested countries.

93. Answer: Option D

Explanation:
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) constituted a three-member panel to advise the Administrator of
Dewan Housing Finance Corporation Limited, DHFL, ahead of formally moving for resolution of the
troubled mortgage lender under the insolvency law.

94. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
Tourism Ministry would organise the eighth edition of "International Tourism Mart" in Imphal with
the aim to highlight the tourism potential of the north-eastern region in the domestic and
international markets.

95. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
SNRR account means a Special Non-Resident Rupee account. Deposits held in rupee accounts
maintained by foreign diplomatic missions and diplomatic personnel and their family members in
India with an authorized dealer.

96. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
WriddhimanSaha on Friday became the fifth Indian wicket-keeper to affect 100 dismissals in the
longest format of the game. The 35-year-old Saha affected his 100th dismissal when Umesh Yadav
had Shadman Islam (29) caught at the hands of the wicket-keeper.

97. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
The current Chairperson of CBDT is Pramod Chandra Mody. Mody, a 1982-batch IRS officer, succeeds
Sushil Chandra.

98. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
The 5th Meeting of Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO) Member States' Heads of Ministries
and Departments of Science and Technology and Permanent Working Group on S&T Cooperation
concluded in Moscow, Russia. Secretary, DSIR & DG, CSIR, Dr. Shekhar C. Mande, led the Indian
delegation.

99. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
Muthoot Finance will acquire IDBI Asset Management for Rs.215 crore to enter mutual fund space.
The deal, which is subject to necessary regulatory approvals including markets regulator SEBI, is
expected to be completed by February-end 2020.

100. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
Manoj Bajpayee won the award for Best Actor for his role in 'Bhonsle' directed by Devashish
Makhija.

101. Answer: Option D

Explanation:
India's forex reserves rose by USD 441 million to a fresh lifetime high of USD 448.249 billion in the
week to November 15 on an increase in core currency assets. The overall foreign exchange reserves,
which have been on an upward trend for many weeks now, had swelled by USD 1.71 billion to USD
448.249 billion.

102. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
The Karnataka government issued a notification allowing women to work in night shifts (7 pm to 6
am) in all factories registered under the factories act.

103. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
Software giant Microsoft has launched its "K-12 Education Transformation Framework" to facilitate
comprehensive digital transformation of schools in India.

104. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
Uttar Pradesh Chief Minister Yogi Adityanath inaugurated the newly established Munderwa Sugar
Mill of Uttar Pradesh State Sugar Corporation Limited in Basti district.

105. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
India captain Virat Kohli was, on November 20,2019 named People for the Ethical Treatment of
Animals (PETA) India's 'Person of the Year for 2019' for his animal advocacy efforts.

106. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
The Assam Cabinet approved the Rs.800 crore per year under the Arundhati scheme. The scheme
will come to effect from 1 January 2020. The State aims to reduce child marriage and strengthen
women empowerment.

107. Answer: Option D

Explanation:
Manu Bhaker has created history by winning India's first gold medal in the women's 10m Air Pistol
event at the 2019 ISS World Cup at Putian, China. Manu Bhaker also broke the junior world record
with her total score of 244.7.

108. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
Kiran Mazumdar-Shaw, chairperson and managing director of Biocon, has been conferred with
Lifetime Achievement Award by the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR), the apex body in
India for the formulation, coordination, and promotion of biomedical research.

109. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
NASA scientists have detected water vapor above the surface of Jupiter's moon Europa for the first
time. Overall, the moon may hold twice as much water as Earth. An upcoming NASA spacecraft will
travel to Europa to hunt for more clues about possible alien life.

110. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
Tesla Inc unveiled its first pickup truck, delivering on a promise by Chief Executive Elon Musk to build
an electric version of America's favourite vehicle and one that threatens the heart of Detroit
automakers' profits.

111. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
World Philosophy Day is observed on 21 November every year. The day is observed every third
Thursday of November month. On this day, UNESCO highlighted the value of philosophy for the
development of human thought, for each culture and individual.

112. Answer: Option D

Explanation:
The Indian embassy and Jaipur Foot USA recently celebrated the 150th birth anniversary of
Mahatma Gandhi as they organized a special event at the US capitol building titled 'India for
Humanity - Jaipur Foot'.

113. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
With 350 Indians killed and 540 injured in 748 terrorist incidents in 2018, India is at seventh place in
a global think tank's list of countries most affected by terrorism.

114. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
World Fisheries Day is celebrated on 21 November every year. The day aims to highlight the
importance of healthy ocean ecosystems. It also ensures the sustainable stocks of fisheries in the
world.

115. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
Prime Minister Abe Shinzo became the longest-serving prime minister in the history of Japan's
constitutional government as on November 20, 2019. He has served 2,887 days so far. He surpassed
the previous record held by Katsura Taro with a total of 2,886 days in office.

116. Answer: Option D

Explanation:
The Union Cabinet led by PM Narendra Modi approved the establishment of the National Institute
for SOWA-RIGPA in Leh, an autonomous organization under the Ministry of AYUSH on 20 November
2019.
117. Answer: Option D
Explanation:
The World Conference on Access to Medical Products Achieving the SDGs 2030 for the year 2019
was held in New Delhi, India.

118. Answer: Option D

Explanation:
Madhya Pradesh government has decided to legalise the cultivation of cannabis in the state for
medical and industrial purpose.

119. Answer: Option D

Explanation:
The Odisha State government has appointed senior IPS officer Abhay as the Director-General of
Police (DGP) Odisha. He was appointed based on the recommendation of the Union Public Service
Commission (UPSC).

120. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
Delhi-based 33-year-old Chitharesh Natesan from Kerala, known as the 'Indian Monster' in
bodybuilding circles, has been crowned Mr Universe 2019 in South Korea.

121. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
Lieutenant Shivangi will join naval operations upon completion of operational training here on
December 2. "Shivangi will graduate to become the first female pilot of the Indian Navy. She hails
from Muzzafarpur in Bihar and completed her schooling from DAV Public school in Muzzafarpur.

122. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
Microsoft's India-born Chief Executive Officer Satya Nadella has occupied the top spot in Fortune's
Businessperson of the Year 2019 list, an annual compilation that also includes Mastercard CEO Ajay
Banga and Arista head Jayshree Ullal.

123. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
The world's first Muslim yoga camp began at Kanva Ashram in Kotdwar town of Uttarakhand on 20
November 2019. The camp will be held from 20-24 November 2019. The yoga camp shows the
health benefits associated with practising Yoga.

124. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
Karnataka State has launched a scheme to provide free Wi-Fi services to Bengaluru for one hour
each day. The scheme has been launched after a consistent demand from the public, tourists, and
many other stakeholders to have such an infrastructure.
125. Answer: Option B
Explanation:
India hosted the 29th World Customs Organization (WCO) Asia Pacific Regional Contact Points (RCP)
that was held for 3 three days in Puducherry (from Nov 18 to 20, 2019).

126. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
Newly elected Sri Lankan President Gotabaya Rajapaksa on November 20 named his brother
Mahinda as Prime Minister, cementing the grip on power of a clan credited with crushing the Tamil
Tigers a decade ago.

127. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
Arunachal Pradesh Chief Minister Pema Khandu on November 20 launched the first Hindi daily of the
state in a simple ceremony here. Titled 'Arun Bhoomi', the daily will be published and edited by
Takam Sonia, who also heads the Arunachal Hindi Sanstha, an organization working for promotion
and propagation of Hindi language in the state.

128. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
The WHO (World Health Organization) and Global Initiative for Chronic Obstructive Lung Disease
(GOLD) organizes World COPD (Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease) Day on the third Wednesday
of November every year. It was first launched in 1997 by WHO, GOLD and other institutes in the US.
Theme: All Together to End COPD.

129. Answer: Option D

Explanation:
Tamil Nadu State government appointed senior bureaucrat and additional chief secretary to the
governor, R Rajagopal, as the next Chief information commissioner (CIC) of the state.

130. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
A three-day India ASEAN InnoTech Summit is to being held in Davao, Philippines. The Summit is
organized between 20 November, 2019 and 22 November, 2019.

131. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
India successfully testfired on November 20night its indigenously developed nuclear capable surface-
to-surface Prithvi-2 missile as part of a user trial by the Army from a test range off Odisha coast,
from the Interim Test Range (ITR) at Chandipur.

132. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
The Chit Funds (Amendment) Bill, 2019 was passed by the Lok Sabha on November 20, 2019. The Bill
raises the monetary limits for chit funds by three times. The maximum chit amount raised from Rs 1
lakh to Rs 3 lakh for those managed by individuals or less than four partners, and from Rs 6 lakh to
Rs 18 lakh for firms with four or more partners. The maximum commission for the person managing
the fund raised to 7% from the current 5%.

133. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
The International Principal's Education Conference (IPEC) held at Nagpur on 19 November 2019. The
IPEC conference will be held on 19-21 November.

134. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
Chinese sprinter SuBingtian has been appointed to the Athletes Commission of World Athletics,
formerly known as the International Association of Athletics Federations.

135. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
In a bid towards upholding state's public health the Kolkata Municipal Corporation (KMC) has
installed first of its kind high-end Reverse Transcription Polymerase Chain Reaction (RT-PCR)
Machines in India for quick detection of diseases such as dengue, tuberculosis (TB) and swine flu.

136. Answer: Option D

Explanation:
The Assam cabinet has made sanitary napkins mandatory for all the industries and factories of
Assam for their women staff. The decision was made by the Assam cabinet. The aim of the move by
the State cabinet is to promote hygiene among women. The State government also aims to ensure
women's welfare among the working women in the State.

137. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
The Government is to implement the National Food Security Mission (NFSM)-Oilseeds and Oil Palm
(OS&OP) in six more States, namely Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu, Gujarat, Karnataka,
and Andhra Pradesh.

138. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
Uzbekistan's Internal Affairs Minister PulatBobojonov on November 20 felicitated Home Minister
Amit Shah here by presenting him traditional dress of the Central Asian nation.

139. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
The Expenditure Finance Committee (EFC) has estimated the cost for the Census 2021 to be around
Rs.8,754 crore. The nationwide exercise will be conducted in 16 languages. Upon the suggestions of
the Technical Advisory Committee, certain changes have been made in the questionnaire. The
reference date for the census will be on 1 March 2021.

140. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
Reliance Industries Limited (RIL) became the first Indian firm to cross the Rs.9.5 lakh crore market
capitalization mark. Reliance Industries share price rose up to 3.66% to Rs.1,511.9 compared to the
previous close of Rs.1,458.50 on BSE.

141. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
President Ram Nath Kovind awarded the President's Colour to Indian Naval Academy at Ezhimala,
Kerala, on 20 November.

142. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
The International Centre for Automotive Technology (ICAT) is organising the summit at Manesar
from November 27-29, 2019.

143. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
India and Singapore on November 20 exchanged a Letter of Intent that could pave the way for the
city-state to conduct live firing of missiles like the Spyder air defence system at the Integrated Test
Range at Chandipur in Odisha. It is perhaps for the first time that India will open Chandipur
Integrated Test Range for any foreign country.

144. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
Visiting the Kranji War Memorial in Singapore, Defence Minister Rajnath Singh, who is on a two-day
visit to the island city, paid tributes to those who sacrificed their lives during the World War-II.

145. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
The Indian Space Research Organization will launch 13 commercial nano satellites of the United
States along with the imaging and mapping satellite Cartostat-3. The launch is scheduled on
November 25, 2019.The satellites will be launched by PSLV-C47, a Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle into
Sun Synchronous Orbit from Satish Dhawan Space Centre at Sriharikota.

146. Answer: Option D

Explanation:
The DRDO Chief, Mr G Sateesh Reddy recently announced that DRDO (Defence Research
Development Organization) is to increase the range of ASTRA air-to-air missiles. India is one of the
few countries to own a successful BMD-Ballistic Missile Defence programme.
147. Answer: Option C
Explanation:
The National Investigation Agency is hosting the first counter-terrorism exercise for the "Quad"
countries -- India, the US, Japan and Australia -- at the NIA headquarters in Delhi on November 21
and 22.

148. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
Software giant Infosys has been recognised as the IT Ratna of Karnataka at the Benglauru Tech
Summit 2019 for IT exports by the Software Technology Parks of India (STPI). Featuring in the
category of IT exports greater than or equal to Rs 10,000 crore, Infosys was awarded for fiscal 2018-
19 in STPI's Karnataka chapter.

149. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
International Men's Day is an annual international event celebrated on 19 November. The objectives
of celebrating an International Men's Day are set out in "The Six Pillars of International Men's Day".

150. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
The Kolkata Municipal Corporation (KMC) has installed first of its kind high-end Reverse
Transcription Polymerase Chain Reaction (RT-PCR) Machines in India for quick detection of diseases
such as dengue, tuberculosis (TB) and swine flu.

151. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
On November 18, 2019, India and the Asian Development Bank (ADB) signed a 91 million USD
agreement to improve water security of Karnataka. The loan will help to modernize the Vijayanagara
Channel irrigation systems and also to increase the efficiency of Krishna river basin.

152. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
Indian Railway Catering and Tourism Corporation (IRCTC) and Karnataka State Tourism Development
Corp (KSTDC) signed an MoU to operate Golden Chariot train. Golden Chariot will be a luxurious
train that will connect 15 tourism destinations in the country.

153. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
Parliament has passed the Jallianwala Bagh National Memorial (Amendment) Bill, 2019, with Rajya
Sabha approving it on November 19.

154. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
India will travel to Nur-Sultan to take on Pakistan in the upcoming Davis Cup tie. The International
Tennis Federation (ITF) has nominated the Kazakhstan capital to host the matches, ending days of
uncertainty over the venue.

155. Answer: Option D

Explanation:
Acceding to Punjab chief minister Captain Amarinder Singh's demand, IT major Google has removed
the secessionist, anti-India Mobile Application '2020 Sikh Referendum' from its Play Store with
immediate effect.

156. Answer: Option D

Explanation:
The 2nd edition of South Asia Safety Summit was organized by the Ministry of Women and Child
Development (WCD) and Facebook in New Delhi. The South Asia Safety Summit is being organized to
highlight the issue of safety while individuals and communities are connected on the digital
platform.

157. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
Atmospheric scientists from the U.K. and India have partnered to tackle chronic air pollution, which
is impacting the health of more than 20 million people in Delhi.

158. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
International Hockey Federation (FIH), the sport's governing body announced that Bhubaneswar will
host India's home matches of 2020 Hockey Pro League.

159. Answer: Option D

Explanation:
Telangana has bagged the 'Swachh Sarvekshan Grameen-2019' award that Minister for Panchayat
Raj and Rural Development ErrabelliDayakar Rao received from Union Minister for Chemicals and
Fertilizers at a function held in New Delhi.

160. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers Ltd (GRSE) on November 18 delivered to the Indian Coast
Guard ICGS 'Amrit Kaur', the third in a series of five 'Fast Patrol Vessels' (FPV).

161. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
David Attenborough, a renowned naturalist, has been conferred with the Indira Gandhi Prize for
Peace, Disarmament and Development 2019 for his tireless efforts towards awakening the
humankind to the need to preserve and protect the planet's biodiversity.
162. Answer: Option B
Explanation:
The Bangladesh Cricket Board on November 19 banned former national team fast bowler Shahadat
Hossain for five years, two of them suspended, after he assaulted a teammate in a match.

163. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
The Visakhapatnam police launched a first-of-its-kind humanoid cop. The robot has been placed at
Maharanipeta police station. A start-up company Robo Coupler Private Limited has designed this
robot 'CYBIRA' (cyber security interactive robotic agent) for registering and disposing of complaints
at police station in an effective manner.

164. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
The Gujarat State government plans to ban the sale of junk food in schools and in the 50m area
around them. The ban aims to encourage the consumption of healthy food among children. Earlier,
the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) recommended a ban on the sale of food
high in fat, salt, and sugar (HFSS) in schools.
165. Answer: Option D
Explanation:
The United Nations' (UN) Universal Children's Day, which was established in 1954, is celebrated on
November 20 each year to promote international togetherness and awareness among children
worldwide.

166. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
Veteran Indian boxer Sarita Devi has been elected unopposed as a member of the AIBA Athletes
Commission. She was the sole nominee from the Asian region.

167. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
Justice Dr Ravi Ranjan was sworn in as the 13th Chief Justice of Jharkhand High Court. He was
administered oath to office and secrecy under Article 219 of Constitution by Governor Draupadi
Murmu at the Raj Bhavan in Jharkhand's capital Ranchi.

168. Answer: Option D

Explanation:
The Plenary meeting of Kimberley Process Certification Scheme (KPCS) is to be hosted by India
between November 18, 2019 and November 22, 2019.

169. Answer: Option D

Explanation:
Eminent playback singer S.P. Balasubramanyam and Oscar-winning sound designer ResulPookutty
received the Chetana Silver Jubilee awards at the concluding ceremony of the jubilee celebrations of
the Chetana group of media and performing arts institutions.
170. Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Shreyasi Singh shot as if in a dream, especially in the climax, to clinch the women's trap gold with a
four-point margin over qualification topper Rajeshwari Kumari in the 63rd National shotgun
championship at the Dr.Karni Singh Range.

171. Answer: Option D

Explanation:
Pakistan on November 18 conducted a test launch of a surface-to-surface ballistic missile capable of
delivering all types of warheads up to 650 kilometres, the military announced. The Shaheen-1 missile
is capable of delivering all types of warheads up to range of 650 KMs.

172. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
Victoria Memorial Hall, a symbol of the grandeur of the colonial era, will for the first time host an
exhibition on what is considered the worst blot on the British Empire, the Jallianwala Bagh massacre
of 1919.

173. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
The first-ever National Agrochemicals Congress was held in Pusa, New Delhi. The four-day-long
meeting had the theme Country's Status on Various Fronts of Agrochemicals.

174. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
Max Verstappen underlined his potential as a champion of the future with a commanding victory for
Red Bull in an astonishing and crash-hit Brazilian Grand Prix at Interlagos.

175. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
An all-electric racing aircraft was unveiled by Air Race E, an Airbus-backed European planemaker, at
the on-going Dubai Air Show. The aircraft was called White Lightning. It was the world's first all-
electric racing aircraft.

176. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
Indian paddler Harmeet Desai won wins men's singles title at International Table Tennis Federation
(ITTF) Challenge Indonesia Open 2019 Table Tennis tournament held at Batam, Indonesia.

177. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
12th Urban Mobility India Conference and Expo 2019 organised in Lucknow. The annual Urban
Mobility India (UMI) Conference and Expo is a flagship event held under the aegis of the Ministry of
Housing and Urban Affairs, Government of India.

178. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
In a move aimed at strengthening the defence ties, French Navy Chief Admiral Christophe Prazuck
announced that the navies of India and France will carry out joint patrolling in the Indian Ocean
region next year.

179. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
Stefanos Tsitsipas beat Dominic Thiem beat to win the ATP Finals, his fourth career title and third of
2019. The 2019 ATP Finals was a men's tennis tournament played at the O2 Arena in London, United
Kingdom, from 10 to 17 November 2019.

180. Answer: Option D

Explanation:
The Assam Olympic Association (AOA) will launch a new programme called 'Grassroot Olympic -
Mission Talent Hunt' to identify the sports talent in the state and groom them.

181. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
India has slipped 6 places to 59 rank on a global annual list of 63 countries, due to low quality of life
and expenditure on education, according to the latest edition of IMD World Talent Ranking, which
was topped by Switzerland.

182. Answer: Option D

Explanation:
Haryana Government has decided to create a dedicated new department namely Department of
'Foreign Cooperation' in order to streamline and provide focus to various initiatives taken by the
state government for the promotion of investment, employment for youth and welfare of Non-
Resident Indians.

183. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
Women's Entrepreneurship Day (WED) is a day on which the work of women entrepreneurs is
observed and discussed, held on the nineteenth of November of each year. The inaugural event was
held in New York City at the United Nations, with additional events being held simultaneously in
several other countries.

184. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
Andhra Pradesh government on November 18 launched toll-free number 14500 to curb smuggling
and hoarding of sand and other irregularities in the supply of the construction material.
185. Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Syska Group launched an anti-bacterial LED bulb Bactiglow SSK-BAB-9W Bulb. The bulb is made with
microbial disinfection properties that electrocute harmful bacteria present in a room.

186. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
The 250th session of Rajya Sabha is to commence on 18 November 2019. As a part of the
observation, Chairman M Venkaiah Naidu released a publication that details the journey of the
upper house since its first sitting in May 1952.

187. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
The World Bank has submitted a master plan to develop logistics infrastructure of Kolkata
metropolitan area. The bank is to invest 300 million USD in the project.

188. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
Indian Oil Corporation on 17th November, 2019, launched special winter grade diesel that will
remain unfrozen even at -33 degree Celsius.

189. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
The World Day of Remembrance for Road Traffic Victims takes place on 17 th November every year
as the appropriate acknowledgment of victims of road traffic crashes and their families. The Day has
become an important tool in global efforts to reduce road casualties.

190. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
South Korean teenager Kim Joo-hyung on November 17 became the second-youngest winner on
golf's Asian Tour when he won the shortened Panasonic Open India by one stroke from local
challengers Shiv Kapur and S. Chikkarangappa.

191. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
A Guinness World Record was set in Kochi, with 28,523 students being trained in eight hours to
perform hands-only cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR).

192. Answer: Option D

Explanation:
Indian wrestler Bajrang Punia has been conferred the Indian Personality of the Year Award (Sports)
at the Indo Arab Leaders Summit & Awards 2019 in Dubai.

193. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
Veteran Indian boxer Sarita Devi has been elected unopposed as a member of the AIBA Athletes
Commission.

194. Answer: Option D

Explanation:
The Strike Corps (also known as Sudarshan Chakra Corps) of Indian Army is conducting the annually
held exercise, dubbed Sindu Sudarshan-VII, in Barmer, Rajasthan.

195. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
Justice Sharad Arvind Bobde was sworn in as the 47th Chief Justice of India on 18 November 2019.
The oath of office was administered by President Ram Nath Kovind at the Durbar Hall of the
Rashtrapati Bhavan. He has also decided various key cases and was part of the recent historic
Ayodhya verdict.

196. Answer: Option D

Explanation:
The fourth edition of the India International Cherry Blossom festival, 2019, was celebrated in
Shillong, Meghalaya. The festival was celebrated from 13-16 November 2019. The 2019 festival was
jointly celebrated by India and South Korea for the first time.

197. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
The International Association of Athletics Federations (IAAF) will now be known as World Athletics.
"Welcome to the new World Athletics website, the place to come for all things about our wonderful
sport. We'll be bringing you new features about athletes and the sport, as well as making it easier to
find the things we know you love," the official website said.

198. Answer: Option D

Explanation:
Telangana Finance Minister T Harish Rao and Agriculture Minister Singireddy Niranjan Reddy
launched Rythu Mitra, an exclusive mobile application on 17 November 2019. The app aimed to
serve the needs of farmers of Siddipet.

199. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
The first-ever National Agrochemicals Congress was held in Pusa, New Delhi. The meeting was
inaugurated by Union Minister for Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, Narendra Singh Tomar. The
meeting was held from 13-16 November.
200. Answer: Option A
Explanation:
World Toilet Day is an official United Nations international observance day on 19 November to
inspire action to tackle the global sanitation crisis. Worldwide, 4.2 billion people live without "safely
managed sanitation" and around 673 million people practice open defecation

201. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
A three-day naval exercise, Za'ir-Al-Bahr (Roar of the Sea) is being conducted between November 17
and November 21, 2019 between the Indian and Qatar Naval Forces.

202. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
Phenomenal Cruise (A.A. Vikrant up) won the Ghulam Ahmed Memorial Cup, the main event of the
races. The winner is owned by M/s. P. Ranga Raju, K.S.N. Murthy & C. Nanda Kumar and trained by
D. Netto.

203. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
National Epilepsy Day is observed on 17 November every year. The day aims to create awareness
about epilepsy, its causes, and treatment. Seminars, debates, and other events are organized to
educate people about epilepsy disease and its treatment methods.

204. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
Former Pepsico head Indra Nooyi was inducted into the Smithsonian's National Portrait Gallery along
with Amazon CEO Jeff Bezos.

205. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
Sri Lanka's controversial wartime defence secretary Gotabaya Rajapaksa won the hotly contested
presidential election, defeating the ruling party candidate Sajith Premadasa by more than 13 lakh
votes, marking the return of the powerful Rajapaksa dynasty known for its pro-China tilt.

206. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
Pakistan becomes the first country to introduce WHO approved typhoid vaccine. The Vaccine is to be
used in southern Sindh province as more than 10,000 cases of Typhoid were documented since
2017.

207. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
Finland qualified for a major tournament for the first time by defeating Liechtenstein 3-0 to book its
place at Euro 2020. Delighted fans flooded the pitch at full-time of the Group J fixture at the Telia 5G
Arena in Helsinki as Finland guaranteed second place behind Italy.

208. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
Two tea varieties of Darjeeling were registered under "Geographical Indication of Goods
(Registration and Protection) Act, 1999". It includes Green Tea and White Tea of Darjeeling.
Darjeeling produces 85 lakh kilograms of tea. Of this Green Tea constitutes 10 lakh kilo grams and
White Tea constitutes 1 lakh kilo grams.

209. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
Acclaimed Indian sand artist SudarsanPattnaik has been conferred the Italian Golden Sand Art
Award, 2019 at a ceremony in Rome, becoming the first Indian to win the prestigious award for his
contribution to sand art.

210. Answer: Option D

Explanation:
India signed off with 12 medals in the event with bronze coming from Arundhati Choudhury (69kg),
Komalpreet Kaur (+81kg), Jaismine (57kg), Satender Singh (91kg) and Aman (+91kg).

211. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
National Press Day is celebrated on 16th November 2019. It is celebrated every year. The day marks
the presence of free and responsible press. On this day, the Press Council of India started
functioning as a moral watchdog.

212. Answer: Option D

Explanation:
The United States Senate has unanimously passed a resolution recognizing the historical, cultural
and religious significance of the 550th birthday of Sikhism founder Guru Nanak Dev, besides the
Sikh's contributions in the US' growth.

213. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
According to a Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) study, Mumbai ranks the highest in the quality of
water among capital cities in states where samples of tap water were tested. In Mumbai, all 10
samples of tap water passed the BIS test.

214. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
Senior journalist Rajat Sharma on November 16 resigned from the post of President of Delhi &
Districts Cricket Association (DDCA), citing his inability to continue amidst "various pulls and
pressures" within the organisation.
215. Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Renowned Rabindra Sangeet exponent from Bangladesh Rezwana Choudhury Bannya has conferred
the ICCR distinguished alumni award in Dhaka.

216. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
India's celebrated para high-jumpers Sharad Kumar and MariyappanThangavelu qualified for next
year's Tokyo Paralympics after claiming the silver and the bronze medal respectively in the World
Para-Athletics Championships in Dubai.

217. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
Acclaimed author and Infosys Foundation chairman Sudha Murty has launched her much awaited
book The Daughter from a Wishing Tree Unusual Tales about Women in Mythology

218. Answer: Option D

Explanation:
India on November 11, 2019, conducted its first night-trial of AGNI II missile successfully. It is the
first night trial being tested by the country.

219. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
Branko Lustig was a Croatian film producer best known for winning Academy Awards for Best Picture
for Schindler's List and Gladiator. He is the only person born in the territory of present-day Croatia to
have won two Academy Awards.

220. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) announced their intention to send a second mission
to soft-land on the Moon planned for November 2020 dubbed as Chandrayaan 3 mission.

221. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Guwahati researchers have developed a paper-based sensor that
can make an assessment of the freshness of milk by a simple and instantaneous method.

222. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
Tobacco Board of India, Guntur, has been awarded the Golden Leaf Award at Tab Expo 2019 event in
Amsterdam, Netherlands. Executive Director of Tobacco Board, K. Sunitha, was presented the
award.
223. Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Ministry of Heavy Industries & Public Enterprises organized an International Symposium on Lighting
(iSoL) at International Centre for Automotive Technology (ICAT), Manesar in Gurugram, Haryana on
14 November 2019.

224. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
World Heritage Week is celebrated by UNESCO between November 19, 2019 and November 25,
2019. The Objective of celebrating World Heritage Week is to increase awareness among people
about safety and preservation of cultural heritages and monuments.

225. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
Ministry of Agriculture is to organize the 8th International Conference on Agricultural Statistics
(ICAS-VIII) in New Delhi from 18-21 November 2019. The Chief Guest of the ICAS conference will be
Bill Gates. The theme of 2019 ICAS-VIII is Statistics for the Transformation of Agriculture to Achieve
the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).

226. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
The Defence Minister of India inaugurated Sisseri River Bridge at Lower Dibang Valley in Arunachal
Pradesh. Sisseri River Bridge is a 200-metre long bridge between Jonai-Pasighat-Ranaghat-Roing
road.

227. Answer: Option D

Explanation:
India came in second after the US in terms of nations asking Facebook to divulge information related
to user accounts, with such requests increasing by more than 9 per cent to 22,684 in the first half of
2019, according to a report by the social networking giant.

228. Answer: Option D

Explanation:
NITI Aayog is to release Health System for a New India: Building Blocks-Potential Pathways to Reform
Report on 18 November 2019. The report was initiated at the national-level workshop Development
Dialogue held in 2018.

229. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
The first-ever international buyer-seller meet on Agriculture & Horticulture produce was held in
Itanagar, Arunachal Pradesh, on 14-15 November 2019. The aim of the meet is to promote the
export of agricultural products.
230. Answer: Option A
Explanation:
India is to host the 2019 World Kabaddi Cup from 1-9 December 2019. It will be organized by the
Punjab State government.

231. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
Jharkhand celebrates the 19th State Formation day on 15 November 2019. Jharkhand, the land of
forests, was formed on 15 November 2000. It is celebrating its 19th year of constitution in the year
2019. It was previously the southern half of Bihar.

232. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
Tony Mann, the leg-spinning all-rounder from Australia who was only the second night watchman to
score a Test century, passed away in Perth at the age of 74 after a battle with pancreatic cancer.

233. Answer: Option D

Explanation:
India ranked 78th in the Global Bribery Risk Index out of 178 countries. The index was released by
Trace Bribery Risk Matrix. India scored with a total risk score of 48.

234. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
Sweden culture minister on November 15 awarded the annual Tucholsky literary prize to a Chinese
author despite a threat from the Chinese ambassador to ban her from entering the country.

235. Answer: Option D

Explanation:
The United Nations' (UN) International Day for Tolerance is annually observed on November 16 to
educate people about the need for tolerance in society and to help them understand the negative
effects of intolerance.

236. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
IBM is to launch IBM GRAF, the Global High-Resolution Atmospheric Forecasting System, which will
be able to predict conditions up to 12 hours in advance. Such kind of precise forecasting system has
been available in the United States, Japan, and some west European countries.

237. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
Ramesh Hospitals Vijayawada, a group hospital of Aster DM Healthcare, one of the largest integrated
healthcare service networks in the GCC and the third largest healthcare company in India, achieved a
milestone by setting a Guinness World Record for holding the 'largest gathering of cardiac surgery
patients at one place'.
238. Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Chief Minister Arvind Kejriwal on November 15 launched 'Mukhyamantri Septic Tank Safai Yojana', a
scheme aimed at helping people in waste management and ensuring the safety of sanitation
workers.

239. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
The 8th International Conference on Agricultural Statistics (ICAS-VIII) will be organized by the
Ministry of Agriculture in New Delhi from 18th to 21st November 2019. The theme of this year's ICAS
is 'Statistics for Transformation of Agriculture to Achieve the Sustainable Development Goals
(SDGs)'.

240. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
Telangana's first 'child- friendly' police station was on November 14 inaugurated at Medipally, in
association with BachpanBachaoAndolan (BBA), founded by Nobel laureate Kailash Satyarthi.

241. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
The theme for the 39th edition of the fair (November 14-27, 2019) is 'Ease of Doing Business'
inspired by India's unique achievement of rising to 63rd rank on the World Bank's Ease of Doing
Business Index from 142nd rank in the year 2014. This year the status of 'Partner Country' has been
accorded to 'The Islamic Republic of Afghanistan' and 'The Republic of Korea' will be the 'Focus
Country'.

242. Answer: Option D

Explanation:
The prestigious event, held for the first time in India at VIT Vellore, features the IX World
Engineering Education Forum (WEEF) and the International Engineering Student Summit.

243. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
Japan's Hayabusa2 spacecraft has departed from a distant asteroid, starting its yearlong journey
home after successfully completing its mission to bring back soil samples and data that could provide
clues to the origins of the solar system.

244. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
Ministry of Ayurveda, Yoga & Naturopathy, Unani, Siddha, Sowa Rigpa, and Homoeopathy (AYUSH) is
to organize the International Conference on Yoga on 15-16 November 2019 at Mysuru, Karnataka.

245. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
The two-day socio-military cultural extravaganza is jointly organised by the Indian Army, Tawang civil
administration and volunteers at the high-altitude stadium, which stands as a testimony to the spirit
of solidarity and patriotic fervour that runs deep amongst the locals of Tawang district, Arunachal
Pradesh.

246. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
The site and plan for the first- ever "North East Convention Centre" (NECC) for Delhi has been
finalized and the construction work will begin soon after the completion of procedural formalities.

247. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
TIME magazine has named Indian athlete Dutee Chand to its first-ever TIME 100 Next, a new
expansion of the TIME 100 list of the most influential people in the world.

248. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
India off-spinner Ravichandran Ashwin, on November 14, became the joint-fastest with Muttiah
Muralitharan, to 250 Test wickets at home, getting there in 42 Tests.

249. Answer: Option D

Explanation:
Dr. Cyrus Poonawalla, founder and chairman of Serum Institute of India, was conferred with the
ABLF Lifetime Achievement Award in Dubai, UAE, on 14 November 2019.

250. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
Spain's government announced on November 4 that Catalan poet Joan Margarit won the 2019
Cervantes Prize, the Spanish-speaking world's highest literary honor.

251. Answer: Option D

Explanation:
A second Ebola vaccine is to be offered to around 50,000 people in the Democratic Republic of
Congo, as part of a major clinical trial. The European Commission has also approved the vaccine.
More than 2,100 people have died in DR Congo, in the second-largest Ebola outbreak on record.

252. Answer: Option D

Explanation:
Andhra Pradesh Chief Minister YS Jagan Mohan Reddy has launched the 'Nadu-Nedu' programme
which aims at transforming government schools into vibrant and competitive institutions.

253. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
Indian wrestler RituPhogat is set to make her professional mixed martial arts debut, taking on
Korea's Nam Hee Kim in an atomweight contest at the Cadillac Arena in Beijing, China on November
16.

254. Answer: Option D

Explanation:
The 2nd Summit of World Religious Leaders began in Baku, Azerbaijan. The summit was held from
14-15 November 2019.

255. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
The Andhra Pradesh government appointed IAS officer Nilam Sawhney as Chief Secretary of the
State. She became the first woman chief secretary of bifurcated Andhra Pradesh.

256. Answer: Option D

Explanation:
Britain's Prince Charles presents Commonwealth 'Points of light' award to Kerala-based Jolly
Johnson, the founder of Helping Hands Organisation (H20), during India visit.

257. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
UP government has launched a web portal and a mobile app, e-Ganna, for sugarcane farmers. Now,
farmers can get cane supply slip online through this app.

258. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
Famous mathematician Vashishth Narayan Singh passed away in Patna on 14 November 2019. He
was 77 years old. He was suffering from mental illness schizophrenia for 40 years. He earned world
recognition as he challenged Einstein's theory of relativity.

259. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
The festival 'Bali Yatra' was inaugurated in Cuttack, Odisha. The festival is organised every year in
memory of the rich maritime history of the state.

260. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
Sri Lanka has become the first South Asian nation to criminalise several offences related to match-
fixing as its parliament passed all three readings of a bill labelled "Prevention of Offences Related to
Sports".
261. Answer: Option B
Explanation:
The India International Trade Fair (IITF) 2019 has begun in New Delhi on 14 November 2019. The 14-
day fair is the 39th edition of IITF.

262. Answer: Option D

Explanation:
New Zealand lawmakers on November 13 voted in favour of a bill to legalise euthanasia, a
watershed moment that ended a contentious two-year debate.

263. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
China on November 14 successfully completed a lander test in northern Hebei province ahead of an
unmanned exploration mission to Mars in 2020.

264. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
The exhibition of Technologies in Food Processing was developed by Council of Scientific and
Industrial Research. The exhibition was organized in New Delhi showcases CSIR technologies in the
food sector to the industries and MSMEs.

265. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
9th India International Trade Fair (IITF) held at Pragati Maidan in New Delhi from November 14 to
27. Theme: 'Ease of Doing Business'. This year the status of 'Partner Country' has been accorded to
Afghanistan. South Korea will be the Focus Country.

266. Answer: Option D

Explanation:
Yemen has declared a health emergency, as the nation is battling severe cases of malaria and
dengue fever.

267. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
On November 13, 2019, the Supreme Court upheld the 2010 judgement of Delhi High Court that the
RTI (Right To Information) act was applicable to the office of CJI (Chief Justice of India) as well. The
CJI office and the SC are not two different public authorities.

268. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
The MuninBarkotoki Memorial Trust has selected young poet Ankur Ranjan Phukan and short story
writer MonoranjanBori for the MuninBarkotoki Literary Award 2019. The award recognized the
manuscripts Ankur Ranjan Phukan'sKhando-ta and MonoranjanBori'sMoh-jokh. The award aims to
encourage young and promising writers in the Assamese

269. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
India has announced that it is to contribute $5 million in 2020 to the UN Palestine refugee agency. It
aims to provide services to refugees in the fields of education and health.

270. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
World Diabetes Day is the primary global awareness campaign focusing on diabetes mellitus and is
held on 14 November each year. The theme for diabetes awareness month and World Diabetes Day
2019 is Family and Diabetes.

271. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
The sixth World Congress on Rural and Agriculture Finance was held in New Delhi. The meeting was
jointly organized by Asia-Pacific Rural Agricultural and Credit Association (APRACA) and National
Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD).

272. Answer: Option D

Explanation:
Philanthropist and businessperson Nita Ambani has been elected to the board of The Metropolitan
Museum of Art for her "truly exceptional" commitment to preserve and promote India's art and
culture.

273. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
The Assam State Commission for Protection of Child Rights is going to launch a mobile app Sishu
Suraksha on the occasion of Children's Day.

274. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
The 2019 Asian Shooting Championships is the 14th edition of the Asian Shooting Championships.
The event was held from 5 to 13 November 2019, at Lusail Shooting Complex, Doha, Qatar. India
won fourth in the championship with a medal tally of 26 out of which, five gold, ten silver, and 11
bronze.

275. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
Justice Muhammad Raffiq was sworn in as the Chief Justice of Meghalaya High Court. The oath of
office and secrecy was administered by Meghalaya Governor Tathagata Roy at Raj Bhavan in
Shillong, Meghalaya.

276. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
ICC has banned West Indies cricketer Nicholas Pooran for four international matches. He had
tampered the ball in the third ODI against Afghanistan. West Indies team player Nicholas Pooran has
broken Level 3 of the ICC Code of Conduct.
277. Answer: Option B
Explanation:
The arrested landing of the naval variant of LCA Tejas was carried out at INS Hansa in Goa. First night
time arrested landing of LCA Navy carried out successfully at SBTF Goa to demonstrate the ease of
handling and confidence achieved in arrested landing technologies.

278. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
LOS ANGELES (CNS) - Oscar-winning actor Robert De Niro was named the recipient of the Screen
Actors Guild Life Achievement Award, which honors performers who foster the "finest ideals of the
acting profession."

279. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
Children's Day is celebrated across India to increase awareness of the rights, care and education of
children. It is held on 14 November every year as a tribute to India's First Prime Minister, Jawaharlal
Nehru, fondly known as Chacha Nehru among children, he advocated for children to have fulfilled
education.

280. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
Indian skipper Virat Kohli and injury-sidelinedJaspritBumrah have maintained their top spots in the
latest ICC ODI Player Rankings for batsmen and bowlers respectively.

281. Answer: Option D

Explanation:
The President of India has assigned Union Minister Prakash Javadekar the heavy industries and
public enterprises portfolio after Arvind Sawant, the minister in charge, resigned. Javadekar is
already in charge of the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, and the Ministry of
Information and Broadcasting.

282. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
Former Spanish national team star David Villa is becoming a part-owner of a second division team in
New York that intends to launch in 2021.

283. Answer: Option D

Explanation:
India will host the 19th Council of Heads of Government of the Shanghai Cooperation Organization
next year, the first such high level meeting of the eight-member grouping to be organized in New
Delhi.
284. Answer: Option D
Explanation:
SurangaBawadi, an integral part of the ancient Karez system of supplying water through
subterranean tunnels built during Adil Shahi era in Vijayapura has been included it in the World
Monument Watch list for 2020.

285. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
The world's first-ever Tibetan thanka fusion exhibition kicked off at the Jehangir Art Gallery in Kala
Ghoda, Mumbai on November 12. A thanka, also spelled thangka, is a traditional Buddhist painting
depicting divinities or patterns related to Buddhism.

286. Answer: Option D

Explanation:
A 2,000-sq.ft. Artwork created in 2018 by the students of NIFT-TEA College of Knitwear Fashion,
Tiruppur, has entered the Limca Book of Records for the 'Largest Zentangle Art'.

287. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
The electric-car maker will build its first European factory as well as an engineering and design
center in Berlin. By building a plant in Germany, Tesla will be able to add the "Made in Germany"
accolade.

288. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
E-commerce major Amazon on November 12 has rolled out 'Project Zero' in India that will provide
brands with additional tools to identify and remove counterfeits from its platform.

289. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
Thalaivi is the biopic of Jayalalithaa that stars Bollywood actor KanganaRanaut in the lead role, also
has the likes of Arvind Swamy on board, while the music is by G.V. Prakash

290. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
NASA's NICER (Neutron Star Interior Composition Explorer) telescope detected a sudden spike of X-
Rays. The spike was caused by a massive thermo nuclear flash on the surface of a pulsar.

291. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
Former all-rounder Shane Watson has been appointed as the president of the Australian Cricketers'
Association. The appointment was made at the ACA's Annual General Meeting (AGM) which took
place in Sydney.
292. Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Roula Khalaf will become the first woman to edit the Financial Times in its 131-year history after
Lionel Barber, Britain's most senior financial journalist steps down.

293. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
Ram Nath Kovind signs the proclamation after the Union Cabinet recommended President's rule in
Maharashtra; Shiv Sena moves Supreme Court against the Governor rejecting its claim to form a
government and refusing to grant three days to demonstrate its requisite majority.

294. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
For the first time ever, the Bandana Sen Library Awards was presented at the India International
Centre, New Delhi. The heads of over 100 schools and their library teams attended the event. The
award ceremony was organized by OneUp Library, Bookstudio, and Learning Lab.

295. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
Ultima Thule, the farthest cosmic body ever visited by a spacecraft, has been renamed Arrokoth, or
"sky" in the Native American Powhatan language, following a backlash over the previous name's Nazi
connotation.

296. Answer: Option C

Explanation:
The National Institute of Technology-Tiruchi (NIT-T) will be incubating innovative start-up venture.

297. Answer: Option B

Explanation:
A two-day coastal security exercise Sagar Kavach was conducted by the Coast Guard district
headquarters off the coast of Kerala, Mahe and Lakshadweep, between November 11 and 12 to
assess the preparedness of all coastal security agencies in dealing with threats emanating from the
sea

298. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
Ram Ray, a well-known face of the advertising world passed away on Tuesday, November 12. He was
the founder chairman of Response India Private Limited. He died on November 12 after a prolonged
illness. He was 77. Ray worked as the chief of many Indian and international advertising and
marketing firms, headed J. Walter Thompson USA, as the only non-American.
299. Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Haryana Police is carrying out a month-long special drive from 10 November 2019. The drive will last
till 10 December. The drive aims to check the availability and usage of e-cigarettes and all other
forms of electronic nicotine delivery systems across Haryana. The move comes after the
announcement of the Central government that recently prohibited e-cigarettes through the
promulgation of the Prohibition of E-Cigarettes.

300. Answer: Option A

Explanation:
Javelin thrower Sundar Singh Gurjar has won India's second gold defending his World Para Athletics
Championships title in the men's F46 javelin throw event in Dubai. With this, India has secured three
Tokyo Paralympic Games quota, along with the bronze winner Ajeet Singh and Rinku.