304 E/C (2)

1. Cells present in the mature pollen grains are

(1) Central celland generative cell (2) Antipodal celland vegetative cell
(3) Vegetative cell and generative cell dA) Filiform celland micropylar cell
2. Match List-I with List-II:
List-I LisU
Structures Functlons
(A) Filiform apparatus () Madeup of sporopollenin
(B) Tapetum (I) Attachyment of ovule to the placenta
(C) Exine () Guides pollen tube into the synergid
(D) Funicle
ADAo#
sADADO#O&
D&
(V) Nourishes the pollen grain
Choose the correct answer from the options given belpw:
(1) (A)-(IV), (B) -(), (C) -(), (D) -(II)
(2) (A)-(I), (B) -(V), (C) -(), (D) -(I1)
(3) (A)- (),(B) -(I), (C) - (I), (D) -(IV)
(4) (A) -(), (B) -(II), (C) -(IV), (D) -(II)

3. Primary Endosperm Nucleus is the product of:

(1) Double fusion (2) Triple fusion
(3) Parthenogenesis (4) Apomixis

4. In humans, mammary gland is divided into lobes.

(1) 10- 12 e) 25 30
(3) 30 -35 4) 15- 20

5. Sex in human embryo is determined by :

(1) X' chromosome of egg
(2) Xor 'Y'chromosome of sperm
(3) Only Y' chromosome of sperm
(4) Health of mother
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304 E/C (3)
6. Arange the following stages of oogenesis in order of their occurrence.
(A) Ovum (B) Oogonia
(C) Primary oocyte (D) Secondary oocyte
Choose the correct answerfrom the options givçn below:
(1) (C), (B),(D), (A) (2) (B), (C), (D), (A)
(3) (D), (C), (A), (B) (4) (A), (D), (C), (B)

7. Which of the following pair of contrasting trajt was not studied by Mendel ?
(1) Pink and white flowers
(2) Inflated and constricted pods
(3) Axial and terminal flowers
ANG#O&
(4) Green and yellow pods

8. Failure of chromatids to segregate during cell,kvision cycle results in :

(1) Polyploidy (2) Euploidy
(3) Aneuploidy (4) Autopolyploidy

9. Select the correctly matched pair about sickle<4l anaemia:

Genotype : Phenotype AUUO#O&
(A) Hb^ HD: Diseased phenotype
(B) Hb^ Hb: Diseased phenotype
(C) Hb Hb: Diseased phenotype
(D) Hb HH: Carrier of disease

Choose the correct answer from the options givn below:

(1) (C) and (D) only
(2) (A)and (C) only
(3) (B), (C) and (D) only
(4) (A), (B), and (C) only
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304 E/C
(4)
10. Match List-I with List-II:
List-I List-II
Scientists Discovery
(A) Sutton and Boveri (1) X-Body
(B) Sturtevant (1) Chromosomal Theory of Inheritance
(C) Henking (Il) Transform@don in bacteria
(D) Griffith (IV) Genetic maps
Choose the correct answer from the options given blow :
(1) (A)- (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (D, (D) - (I)
(2) (A) - (II), (B) - ), (C) - (IV), (D) -(II)
(3) (A) -(), (B)-(), (C) - (I), (D) - ((V)
(4) (A)- (IV), (B) - ), (C) - (I), (D) - (I)
11. Which of the following statements are incorrect with respect to nucleotides ?
(A) Purines and pyrimidines are nitrogenous bases.o
(B) Nucleotides are non-enzymatic molecules.
(C) Phosphate group is linked to -OH of SCofa iteleoside through phosphoester linkage.
(D) In RNA, every nucleotide residue has an additiçnl - OH group present at 2position in the ribose.
(E) Thymine is an exanmple of Pyrimidine.
Choose the correct answer from the options given beBow :
(1) (A), (B) and (E) only (D) and (E) only
(3) (B) and (D) only (4) (B) and (E) only

12. Anrange the given steps of DNA fingerprinting in the sequence from initiation to end.
(A) Digestion of DNA by restriction endonuclease
(B) Isolation of DNA
(C) Hybridisation using labelled VNTR probe
(D) Transferring (blotting) of separated DNA fagmegtst
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
to synthetic membrane

(1) (A), (B),(C), (D) (A), (D), (C), (B)

(3) (B),(A), (D), (C) 4 (C),(A), (B), (D)
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304 E/C (5)

13. Nucleosome is associated with molecules of histones.

(1) Four
(2) Nine
(3) Two
(4) Eight

14. Select the observations drawn from the human genome project which are correct.
(A) The human genome contains 3164.7 milliobp.
(B) The average gene consists of 3000 bases.
(C) Total number of genes is estimated at 30,00d.
(D) The functions are unknown for over 50% oFdiscovered genes.
(E) Less than 2% of the genomne codes for proteins.
Choose the correct answer from the options giver below:
(1) (A), (B), (C) and (D) only
AGADO#0&
(2) (A), (C), (D) and (E) only
(3) (A), (C) and (E) only (4) (A), (B),(C), (D) and (E)
15. Analogous structures are a result of :
(1) Convergent evolution
(2) Divergent evolution
(3) Parallel evolution
(4) Retrogressive evolution

16. Which of the following does not affect the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium ?
(1) Natural selection (2) Genetic drift

(3) Gene pool ) (4) Gene migration

17. Which of the following primates was more ike ar ape?

(1) Homo erectus (2) Dryopithecus

(3) Australopithecines (4) Ramapithecus

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 304 E/C (6)
18. Match List-I with List-II :
List-I List-II
Placental mammals Counterpart Marsupials
(A) Anteater () Spotted cuscus
(B) Bobcat (Il) Numbat
(C) Lemur (IIl) Flying Phahger
(D) Flying squirrel (IV) Tasmanian-jger cat
Choose the correct answer from the options given belo :
(1) (A)-(1), (B) - (IV),(C) -(I), (D) -(I) (A) -(II), (B) -(), (C) - (IV), (D) - (11)
(3) (A) -(IV), (B) -().(C) -(I), (D) -(I) (4 (A) - (IV),(B) -(1),(C) - (III),(D) - (II)
19. Identify the incorrect statement/s :
(A) Intestinalperforation and death may occur in severe cases of typhoid infection.
(B) Common cold is caused by Rhinoviruses.
(C) Lips and fingernails may turn grey to bluish colaß in severe cases of pneumonia.
(D) Pneumonia is caused by Salmonella.
(E) Typhoid fever could be confirmed by Widal testy
Choose the answer from the options given below:
(1) (A), (C) and (D) only (2 (B) and (E) only
(3) (D) only (4 (A)and (D) only
20. Match List-I with List-II:
List-I List-II
Types of barriers Examples
(A) Cytokine barriers (|) Mucis coating
(B) Physical barriers (I) Teartrom eyes
(C) Cellular barriers (II) Phagoytosis
(D) Physiological barriers (IV) Intetfetons
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (A) -(V), (B) -(II), (C) -(), (D) -(II) (3 (A) - (U), (B) - (1V), (C) - (I1), (D) -(I)
(3) (A)-(ID,(B) -(), (C) -(I),(D)-( ) · (4)' (A) - (1V),(B) - (), (C) - (I), (D) - (1)
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304 E/C (7)

21. Smack is chemically:

(1) Diacetylmorphine (2) Cocaine
(3) Benzodiazepine (4) Amphetamine

22. Antibodies are secreted by :

ÜO#C&
(1) T-Cells (2) B-Cells
(3) a-Cells ) (4) B-Cells
23. In sewage treatment, flocs are :
(1) the solids that settle during sedimentation
(2) the supernatant that is formed above the pathary sludge.
(3) the masses of bacteria associated with fungal filaments.
(4) the bacteria which grow anaerobically andare also called anaerobic sludge digesters.
24. Match List-Iwith List-II:
List-I List-II
Products Orga~isms
(A) Statin
Clot buster
(I) Streptococus
(B) (I) Trichoderma
(C) Swiss cheese (I) Monaseus
(D) Cyclosporin-A (IV) Propgnibacterium
Choose the correct answer from the options giye below :
(1) (A) - ), (B) - (), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)
(2) (A)-(),(B) -(), (C)-(),(D) -(I)
(3) (A) - III), (B) -(IV), (C) - (), (D) -()
(4) (A) -(I), (B) - (I1I), (C) -(), (D) - (IV) ADAOO#
25. The beetle used as abiocontrol agent for aphidsznd mosquitoes is :
(1) Trichoderma (2) Dragonflies
(3) Ladybird (4) Silver fish
26. Downstream processing method involves : <
(1) Identification (2) Amplification
(3) Fermentation (4) Purification
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 304 E/C (8)
27.
Which of the following is not the correctly matched pair of organism and its respective cell wall degrading
enzyme ?
() Fungi -Chitinase (2) Algac -Methylase
(3) Plant cclls -Cellulasc (4) Bacteria -Lys0zymc
28.
Arrange the following steps involved in transformajpn of bacteriain asequence from initiation to end.
(A) Incubation of rDNA with bacterial cellon ice
(B) Treatment with divalent cations
(C) Heat shock treatment
(D) Selection on antibiotic containing agar plate A
(E) Placed them again on ice
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (A), (B), (D), (C), (E) (2) (B), (A), (C), (E), (D)
(3) (B), (C), (D), (A), (E) (4) (A),(C), (B), (D), (E)
29. Which of the following statements are incorrect ?
(A) Fragments of DNA can be separated by ELISA
(B) Transformation is a procedure through which 'apiece of DNA is introduced in a host
bacterium.
(C) Recombinant DNA technology does not involve isolation of a desired DNA fragment.
(D) DNA ligases are used for stitching DNA fragments into a vector.
Choose the answer from the options given below:
(1) (A)and (C) only (A) and (B) only
(3) (B) and (C) only (4) (A), (C) and (D) only
30. Which of the following statements are true ?
(A) Milk obtained from 'Rosie' is nutritionally mórebalanced for human babies than natural human milk.
(B) Biopiracy refers to the use of bioresources witi'ut proper authorisation from MNCS.
(C) GEACis the decisive body for safety and validity of GMOs and GM research respectively.
(D) Transgenic animals help us to understand the çontribution of genes in the development of disease.
Choose the correct answer from the options given þelow :
(1) (A) and (C) only 2) (C) and (D) only
(3) (A) and (D) only (4) (B) and (C) only
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 304 E/C (9)
31. Match List-I with List-II :
List-I List-II
Transgene Used for/Products

(A) a-l-antitrypsin (1) Meloidegyne incognitia

(B) crylAc (II) Corn borer
(C) Antisense RNA (II) Treat emphysema
(D) crylAb (IV)Cotton bollworms
Choose the correct answer from the options giyen below :
(1) (A) - (uI), (B) - (IV), (C) - (), (D) -
(2) (A)- ), (B) - (D), (C) - (I), (D) -(IV)<
(3) (A) -(), (B) -(1), (C) -), (D)- (v
(4) (A) -(), (B) -(TV), (C) -(II), (D)- (I)

32. Expand "GEAC":

(1) Genetic and Environmental Advisory Cotmittee
(2) Gene Establisment Approval Committe"|
(3) Genetic Engineering Advisory Committée
(4) Genetic Engineering Approval Commitee

33. When an insect feeds on the Bt plant,the insect dies due to the conversion of inactive protein to active
protein in:
(1) Alkaline pH of thegut.
(2) Acidic pH of the gut.

(3) Acidic pH of saliva.

(4) Alkaline pH of saliva.
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304 E/C (10 )
34. Match List-I with List-II :
List-II
List-I
Interspecies Relationships Features
other
(A) Commensalism () Onc species is benefitted at the expense of the
unaffected
(B) Mutualism (1) One species is harmed and the other is
(C) Amensalism (II) Both the species are benefitted
(D) Parasitism (() One spacies benefits and other remains unaffected
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) - (I), (B) -(I), (C) -(III), (D) -(IV) 21(A)- (TV), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) -()
(3) (A) -(1), (B) - (), (C) -(II), (D) -(IV) (f (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) -(), (D)-(I)
What type of
35. In a country, at any time, the population has the same'number of youngs and mature ones.
growth does it reflect ?

(1) Expanding (2) Declining (3) Stable (4) S-shaped

a#ODVOV
co-exist indefinitdly and violate the Gause's Competitive Exclusion
36. Two closely related species can
Principle by :
(1) eliminating the inferior species.
(2) resource partitioning.
(3) interacting with each other symbiotically.
(4) changing the area of grazing.

37. The process of mineralisation by microorganisms helps in the release of :

(1) inorganic nutrients from detritus and formation qfhumus.
(2) organic nutrients from humus.
(3) inorganic nutrients from humus.
O#OOV
(4) organic and inorganic nutrients from detritus.

38. In which ecosystem is the biomass of primary consumers greater than producers ?
(1) Forests (2) Grassland (2 Desert (4) Sea

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 304E/C (11 )

39. Choose thecorrect statements with respect to decomposition from the following:
(A) Decomposition is an anaerobic process.
(B) Decomposition rate of detritus depends upon the chemical nature of it.
(C) Water-soluble organic nutrients go into the soil and get precipitated in the process of leaching.
(D) Humification follows mineralisation.
Choose the correct answer from the options given bea:
(1) (B) and (D) only ( (A)and (C) only
(3) (B)and (C) only ( (A) and (D) only

40. Match List-I with List-II :

List-I List-II
Concepts Explanation
(A) Standing state (I) Available biomass for the consumption of heterotrophs
(B) Secondary productivity (II) Rate of formation of organic matter by consumers
(C) Standing crop (II) Mass of livipg matter in a trophic level at a given time
(D) Net primary productivity (V) Amount of gineralnutrients in the soil at agiven time
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(I) (A)-(IV),(B) - (II),(C) -(1), (D) -(1) (2) (A)-(), (B) -(), (C) -(), (D) -(IV)
(3) (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) -() (4 (A)- (), (B) -(IV), (C) -(ID), (D) (
- )
Read the passage carefully and give the answer to the next five questions :

India was amongst the first countries in the world to initiate action plans and programmes at a national level to
initiated in 1951l
attain total reproductive health as a social goal. These programmes called 'family planning' were
wider reproduction-related
and were periodically assessed over the past decades. Improyed programmes covering
various reproduction-related aspects
areas are currently in operation. Creating awareness among the people about
healthy society are the major tasks under
and providing facilities and support for building up areproductively
these programmes.
Transmitted-Disease ?
41. Which of the following is not a Sexually
e) Filariasis
(1) Chlamydiasis
( Trichomoniasis
(3) Genital herpes
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 304 E/C (12 )
Medical Termination of Pregnancy ?
42. Which of the following statements is incorrect with respcct to

() They are considered safe during the first trimester.

(2) It is legalised in India from 1971.
of 2 registered medical
after 24 weeks, but with the opinion
(3) MTPs can be performed even
practitioners on specific grounds.
pregancics undergo MTP in a year globally.
(4) About 20% of the total number of concefd

43. Match List-I with List-II:

List-I List-II
Various Assisted Process Involved
Reproductive Technologies
(A) ZIFT (I) Formation of embryo in vitro by injecting sperm directly
iHto ovum
(B) ICSI (II) Transferring of embryo with more than 8 blastomeres into
the uterus

(C) IUI (I) ransferring of fertilised egg up to 8 blastomeres into

tallopian tube
(D) IUT (IV) ansfer of semen from a healthy donor into the uterus
atificially
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (4)- (I), (B) -(), (C) -(), (D) -(IV (2) (A) -(I), (B) -(), (C) -(V),. (D) -(1I)
(3) (A)-(),(B) - (1), (C)- (IV), (D) -(07 (4) (A)- (IV), (B) -(II), (C)- ). (D) -()
44.
DO#O&
Which of the following methods of contraception is not meant for females ?
(1) IUDs
(2) Lactational amenorrhea
(3) Vasectomy
(4) Condoms

45. 'Saheli' - an oral contraceptive pill, also knova as the Once a week' pill, was developed by :
(1) AIIMS (2) NBRI
(3) CDRI (4) NBPGR
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 304E/C (13 )
Resdthe passage carefully and give the answers to the next five questions :
Doesthe number of species in acommunity really matter to the functioning of the ecosystem ? This is a question
or which ecologists have not been able to give a definitive answer. For many decades, ecologists believed that
ommunities with more species, generally, tend to be moreable than those with less species. According to the
International Union for Conservation of Nature and NaturaResources (IUCN)(2004), the total number of plant
ond animal species described so far is more than 1.5 million,

46. Which of the following is nota characterstic of astablhiological community?

(1) It must be resistant to invasions by alien species.
(2) It shouldnot showtoomuch variation in productiyty from year to year.
(3) All the species are equally important in a stable community and absence of any one leads to its
unstability.
(4) It is resilient to occasional disturbances, whether natural or man-made.

47. In 'rivet popper hypothesis' the 'rivet' signifies:

(1) Key species ( Endemic species
(3) Community Species
48. The scientist who proved that species richness direely correlates with the stability of a community,
was

(1) Paul Ehrlich David Tilman

(3) Robert May (4) Edward Wilson

49. ®DØ#Ô
Among the vertebrates, which of the following is the most species-rich group ?
(1) Reptiles (28 Fishes
(3) Insects (4) Mammals
diversity in tropics
50. The following are the various hypotheses proposed inexplaining the greatest biological
except :
tropical latitudes have remained relatively
(1) Temperate regions are subjected to glaciatioz but
undisturbed.
which helps the diversity to flourish.
(2) Tropical environments have more humidity/moispre
seasonal and more constant.
(3) Tropical environments are less
tropics which contributes to higher productivity and hence.
(4) There is more solar energy available in the
biodiversity.
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