1

TABLE OF CONTENTS

1. Polity and Governance 03 26. Third Japan-India 2+2 Foreign and Defence
1. Unified Pension Scheme ...................................................... 03 Ministerial Meeting ............................................................... 82
2. Wayanad Tragedy and Loss and Damage Funds in 27. Action Plan (2024-2028) for the Implementation of
UNFCCC (Polity) ...................................................................... 09 the India Poland - Strategic Partnership ..................... 87
3. New Guidelines for Preventive Detention: Supreme 28. 19th India-Africa Business Conclave .............................. 91
Court ............................................................................................ 13 29. Turkmenistan-Afghanistan-Pakistan-India (TAPI)
4. Anti-corruption ombudsman Lokpal Constitutes New pipeline ....................................................................................... 94
Inquiry Wing ............................................................................ 17 30. First Legally Binding International AI Treaty ........... 97
5. Public Accounts Committee to hold ‘performance 31. China-hosted FOCAC summit .......................................... 100
review’ of regulatory bodies ............................................. 20 32. India Signs two Defence agreements with USA ...... 103
6. ‘Effective consultation’: SC ruling on process of HC
5. Environment & Biodiversity 106
judges’ appointment ............................................................. 23
33. Uttarakhand: Now the first state to Launch Gross
7. Paper on Consumption Pattern: Economic Advisory
Environment Product ......................................................... 106
Council to the Prime Minister (EAC-PM)..................... 26
34. Air Quality Life Index (AQLI) 2024 .............................. 109
8. Recent auctions under the Enemy Property Act ...... 29
35. BioE3 (Biotechnology for Economy, Environment and
9. Swachh Bharat Mission decreased infant mortality in
Employment): Centre launches new policy ............ 112
country: Nature Journal ...................................................... 31
36. Launch of Samudra Pratap: Firstindigenously built
10. Centre and Tripura sign Peace pact with 2 insurgent
Pollution Control Vessel .................................................... 115
outfits........................................................................................... 34
37. India Contributes highest to the world Plastic
11. ‘Aparajita Woman and Child Bill (West Bengal
Pollution: Nature Study ..................................................... 117
Criminal Laws and Amendment) Bill 2024’.. ............. 37
38. Swachh Vayu Survekshan Award 2024 ...................... 120
12. Himachal Pradesh's Billto Raise Women's Minimum
Marriage Age to 21 ................................................................ 39 6. What's happening in FamiLE
13. New Flag and insignia ofthe Supreme Court ............. 42 7. Science & Technology 123
14. Justice Hema Committee Report on Malayalam Film 39. Completion of SSLV Development Project ................ 123
Industry ...................................................................................... 44 40. National Space Day 2024 .................................................. 126
15. NALSA’s third National Lok Adalat ................................ 47 41. India launches its first reusable hybrid rocket
16. Formation of 5 New Districts in Ladakh ...................... 50 'RHUMI-1' ................................................................................ 129
8. Sports 132
2. Economy & Governance 52
17. RBI’s Five Strategic Priorities for India's Financial 42. National Sports Day 2024 ................................................ 132
Future .......................................................................................... 52 43. ICC Appoints New Chairman ........................................... 135
18. Overhauling of Income Tax Act ........................................ 55 44. Paralympic Games Paris 2024 ........................................ 138
19. RBI Governor Shaktikanta Das for receiving 'A+' 9. Miscellaneous 144
global rating .............................................................................. 61 45. National Geoscience Awards 2023 ............................... 144
20. National Bank for Financing Infrastructure and 46. India’s second nuclear-powered submarine:
Development ............................................................................ 63 INS Arighat .............................................................................. 147
21. RBI to Launch Unified Lending Interface .................... 65 47. Ramon Magsaysay Award 2024 ..................................... 149
3. How to revise current affairs in the last 60 days for CLAT 48. Major Military Exercises in the Past Month ............. 153
2025 49. India leads as top origin country and destination
for Hindu migrants: Pew Research Centre ............... 155
4. International Affairs 67 50. World Suicide Prevention Day ........................................ 158
22. Comprehensive Strategic Partnership between India
and Malaysia ............................................................................. 67 10. Important One Liners. 160
23. UN General Assembly launched the Multidimensional 11. CLAT POST Mock Test 199
Vulnerability Index (MVI)................................................... 72 51. Question Paper ...................................................................... 199
24. India hosts Voice of Global South summit .................. 76 52. Answer Key and Explanation .......................................... 221
25. Ukraine Visit of Prime Minister Modi ........................... 79

2
 Polity & Governance
Unified Pension Scheme
News Highlights:
The Unified Pension Scheme (UPS) was approved by the Union Cabinet on August 24, 2024,
marking a significant shift in India's pension system. The scheme offers government
employees 50% of their last drawn salary as an assured lifelong pension, along with
inflation-adjusted benefits like Dearness Relief (DR).
Additionally, the scheme is contributory in nature, similar to the National Pension Scheme
(NPS), but offers a fixed payout like the Old Pension Scheme (OPS). The scheme is expected to
benefit 23 lakh Central Government employees and will be implemented from April 1,
2025.

NEW UNIFIED PENSION SCHEME

Assured Pension: Inflation Indexation:

Employees with at least 25 years of service will The pension, family pension, and minimum pension
receive 50% of their average basic salary from will be indexed to inflation using the All India
the last 12 months as pension. For those with Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers
fewer years of service, the pension will be (AICPI-IW), ensuring protection against rising
proportionate, with a minimum of ₹10,000 per costs of living​.
month for those with 10 or more years of service​.

Contributions: Lump Sum Payment:

Under the UPS, employees contribute 10% of their At superannuation, employees will receive an
salary, while the government contributes 18.5%, additional lump-sum payout, which is 1/10th of
adjusted based on periodic actuarial assessments​ their monthly emoluments (pay plus DA) for
every six months of service​.

Family Pension:
In case of the employee’s death, 60% of the last
pension will be provided to their family​.

Undoing of 21 Years Old Pension Model

The NDA government reversed a 21-year-old reform of India’s civil services pension system boldly brought in by the
Atal Bihari Vajpayee government, unveiling what it called a new ‘Unified Pension Scheme’ (UPS) that is virtually akin to
the Old Pension Scheme, and assures government employees 50% of their last drawn pay as a lifelong monthly benefit.
The Cabinet decision was informed by recommendations of a committee under former Finance Secretary and
Cabinet Secretary-designate T.V. Somanathan, set up in March 2023 to review the National Pension System (NPS).

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 PENSION SCHEMES IN INDIA OVERVIEW

OLD PENSION SCHEME & NATIONAL PENSION SCHEME

Introduction: Introduction
The Old Pension Scheme (OPS) was The old pension scheme was done away
introduced in 1871 during British rule under with by the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP)-led
the Pensions Act. It was designed to offer government during Atal Bihari Vajpayee's
financial security to government employees regime in December 2003. The national
after retirement. pension scheme (NPS) took effect from April
Defined Benefit Plan: OPS is a 'Defined 1, 2004. It was created to reduce the
Benefit' pension system where the pension is financial burden of pensions on the
calculated based on the last drawn salary, government and to provide market-
ensuring a fixed payout. linked retirement savings for
government employees.
Applicability: Initially, the NPS was
applicable only to Central Government
Pension Benefits employees, excluding the Armed Forces.
50% of Last Salary: The OPS assured Later, it was extended to all Indian citizens
government employees 50% of their last drawn (voluntarily) and also became mandatory for
basic salary as a lifelong monthly pension. This most state government employees who
benefit was seen as highly favourable, joined after its implementation​.
providing financial security to retirees.
Dearness Allowance (DA): Along with the
pension, retirees received a Dearness Defined Contribution Plan
Allowance (DA), which was adjusted Employee and Employer Contributions:
periodically based on the inflation rate to Unlike the Old Pension Scheme (OPS),
mitigate the cost of living. which was based on a defined benefit, the
Family Pension: After the employee's death, NPS is a defined contribution system.
50-60% of the pension amount was passed This means both the employee and
on to the spouse or family, ensuring employer contribute towards the pension
continued financial support. fund. The employee contributes 10% of
their salary and Dearness Allowance
(DA), while the government contributes
Unfunded Nature 14% for central government employees.
No Contribution from Employees: Under OPS, Voluntary Contributions: Private
employees were not required to contribute any individuals can also join the NPS and
amount towards their pension fund during their contribute voluntarily.
working years.
Pay-As-You-Go: The scheme operated under a
'Pay-As-You-Go' system, meaning that pensions Permanent Pension Account Number
were directly paid out from government Every NPS subscriber is issued a Permanent
revenue, primarily funded by taxes collected Pension Account Number (PPAN), which is
from citizens. This led to increased pension unique and allows the portability of the
liabilities for the government over time. account across jobs and locations.

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 OLD PENSION SCHEME & NATIONAL PENSION SCHEME

Provident Fund and Gratuity Two-Tiered Structure

General Provident Fund (GPF): Employees Tier I Account: This is the mandatory
could also contribute to the General pension account for government employees,
Provident Fund (GPF), which would where contributions are locked-in until
accumulate with interest and be paid upon retirement (age 60). 40% of the
retirement as a lump sum. accumulated fund must be used to
Gratuity: A lump-sum gratuity was also purchase an annuity to provide regular
offered at retirement, capped at ₹20 lakh. monthly income post-retirement. The
remaining 60% can be withdrawn, with 60%
of the withdrawal being tax-free.
Tier II Account: This is a voluntary savings
Pension Liability
account where individuals can withdraw
Financial Burden: One of the major reasons
their savings at any time. Unlike the Tier I
for discontinuing OPS was the huge financial
account, Tier II does not have any
burden it placed on government finances.
withdrawal restrictions or tax exemptions​.
Since the system was unfunded, governments
struggled to meet the rising pension liabilities,
especially as the number of retirees grew.
Unsustainable Over Time: With increasing Market-Linked Returns
life expectancy and more retirees, the The NPS allows for market-linked returns
pension liability kept increasing, leading to because contributions are invested in
concerns about the sustainability of the OPS. various financial instruments, including
government bonds, equities, and corporate
debt. Fund managers like SBI Pension Fund,
Key Numbers LIC Pension Fund, and UTI Retirement
Pension Bill: India's annual pension bill had Solutions manage the investments.
skyrocketed by ₹3.37 lakh crore by 2020-21, Growth Potential: Since the pension is
accounting for almost 9.2% of the GDP. The linked to market performance, the potential
burden on state finances led to the for higher returns exists, although there is no
replacement of OPS with NPS​. guaranteed fixed pension amount as in OPS.

No Employee Control Tax Benefits

No Investment Management: In the OPS, Section 80C: Contributions to NPS are
employees had no control over the eligible for tax deduction under Section
investment or growth of their pension 80C up to ₹1.5 lakh.
amount. In contrast, under NPS, contributions Section 80CCD (1B): An additional
are market-linked, allowing for growth based deduction of ₹50,000 is available exclusively
on investment choices. for NPS under this section, making it a tax-
efficient retirement savings option.
Tax-Free Withdrawals: Upon retirement,
60% of the lump sum withdrawal is tax-
free, while 40% is used for purchasing an
annuity that provides a regular pension​.

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 Regulation by PFRDA
Exit and Withdrawal Rules The Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority
Retirement: At the age of 60, (PFRDA) regulates the NPS and ensures transparency,
subscribers must use 40% of the safety, and fairness in the pension market.
accumulated corpus to
purchase an annuity from an
insurance company to provide a
Global Models
monthly pension. The rest can
NPS was inspired by similar pension systems in other
be withdrawn as a lump sum,
countries, such as Chile and Singapore, where the shift to a
and 60% of this withdrawal is
defined contribution model helped alleviate the fiscal
tax-free.
pressure on governments while providing pension benefits
Early Exit: If an employee exits
to employees.
the NPS before the age of 60,
they are required to invest 80%
of the corpus in an annuity plan.
Partial Withdrawals: Investment Options
Subscribers can withdraw up to NPS provides subscribers with the flexibility to choose their
25% of their own contribution preferred investment mix. They can choose from three
for specific purposes like higher different asset classes:
education, marriage, purchase Equity (E): Investment in stocks with higher growth potential
of property, or medical but also higher risk.
treatment after completing at Corporate Bonds (C): Debt investments in corporate bonds.
least three years in the scheme​. Government Bonds (G): Investment in government securities
with lower risk and moderate returns.

Criticism and Challenges

No Guaranteed Returns: Since NPS is linked to the stock market, there is no guarantee of a fixed return or a
specific pension amount, unlike OPS.
Low Awareness: Despite its tax advantages and flexibility, there is still low awareness and relatively low
adoption of NPS compared to other savings schemes like the Employee Provident Fund (EPF).

Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA)

PFRDA (Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority) was initially established in 2003, it was done under
the "Interim Pension Fund Regulatory & Development Authority" (IPRDA) Act, and the final PFRDA Act was passed
in 2013, making the PFRDA a permanent entity under that legislation.
Objective: The primary objective of PFRDA is to promote, regulate, and ensure the orderly growth of the pension
sector in India. It is tasked with overseeing pension schemes like the National Pension System (NPS).
Regulation and Development: PFRDA is responsible for regulating the pension funds and providing protection to
subscribers under various pension schemes like NPS and Atal Pension Yojana (APY).
Dr. Deepak Mohanty is the current Chairperson of the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority
(PFRDA).
Atal Pension Yojana (APY): Introduced in 2015, APY is a government-backed pension scheme aimed at
unorganized sector workers, providing guaranteed minimum pensions.
In 2023, the PFRDA introduced more flexibility for subscribers, allowing partial withdrawals for specific needs like
housing or medical treatment.
PFRDA is also working towards increasing the digital footprint for easy access to pension schemes, improving
subscriber engagement and grievance redressal.

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 Features OPS NPS UPS

1871, during British rule, January 1, 2004, Approved by the Union

Introduction
replaced in 2004 to replace OPS Cabinet in 2024

Defined Contribution Hybrid scheme

Defined Benefit scheme
Pension Type scheme (market-linked combining fixed benefit
(fixed pension)
returns) and contribution

Contribution by 10% of basic salary + DA

No contribution 10% of basic salary + DA
Employee

Guaranteed 50% of the

Pension Guaranteed 50% of last No guaranteed pension,
average basic salary (last 12
Guarantee drawn salary depends on market returns
months)

Dearness Inflation-indexed
Linked to inflation,
Allowance (DA) Not applicable pension with periodic
adjusted periodically
DA adjustments

50-60% of the pension No specific provision, based

Family Pension 60% of the last drawn pension
amount on the annuity plan chosen

Gratuity + GPF (General 60% of the corpus can be 1/10th of monthly

Retirement
Lump Sum Provident Fund) withdrawn (40% for emoluments for every
annuity) completed six months

Withdrawal at Fixed monthly 60% lumpsum

Fixed pension with minimum
Retirement pension for life withdrawal, 40% for
₹10,000 per month
purchasing an annuity

Annuity Mandatory 40% for pension 60% of pension pre-death to

Not applicable
Purchase through annuity family members

Deductions under Section Likely similar tax

Tax Benefits Not applicable 80C and 80CCD(1B) benefits as NPS

Not included in the Gratuity plus lump-sum

Gratuity Up to ₹20 lakh scheme, but eligible under payout at superannuation
separate acts

No portability Portable across jobs, Portable, with retrospective

Portability sectors, and locations
(job-specific) effect for those under NPS

Managed by the Managed by PFRDA- Likely government and

Pension Fund
government directly regulated pension fund private management
Management
managers

Lower cost due to shared Moderate cost; ₹6,250

Cost to High cost due to
contributions and market crore/year additional burden
Government unfunded liabilities
investments on exchequer​

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7
 PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. What year was the National Pension System (NPS) (c) Arvind Subramanian Committee
implemented for new employees? (d) Vijay Kelkar Committee
(a) 2000 (b) 2002
(c) 2004 (d) 2006 4. What percentage of the average basic pay is guaranteed
as a pension under the Unified Pension Scheme (UPS) for
2. What is the full form of "PFRDA," the regulatory eligible employees?
authority established to promote old-age income (a) 60%
security? (b) 50%
(a) Pension Fund Regulatory & Development Authority (c) 40%
(b) Public Financial Regulatory & Development Agency (d) 30%
(c) Personal Fund Regulatory & Development Authority
(d) Pension Financial Regulation & Distribution 5. What is the minimum qualifying service required for an
Association employee to receive the full assured pension under the
Unified Pension Scheme (UPS)?
3. Which committee's recommendations led to the (a) 20 years
establishment of the Unified Pension Scheme (UPS) that (b) 15 years
will replace the National Pension System (NPS)? (c) 25 years
(a) Raghuram Rajan Committee (d) 30 years
(b) T. V. Somanathan Committee

ANSWER KEYS & EXPLANATIONS

1. Correct answer: (c) 2004 4. Correct Answer: (b) 50%
Explanation: The National Pension System (NPS) was Explanation: Under the Unified Pension Scheme (UPS),
specifically implemented for employees joining on or eligible employees are guaranteed a pension that amounts
after January 1, 2004. to 50% of their average basic pay drawn over the last 12
months prior to superannuation. This ensures a
2. Correct Answer: (a) Pension Fund Regulatory & significant portion of their earnings is secured as a
Development Authority pension.
Explanation: The full form of PFRDA is "Pension Fund
Regulatory & Development Authority," as established by 5. Correct Answer: (c) 25 years
its founding act, aimed at regulating and overseeing Explanation: The Unified Pension Scheme (UPS) stipulates
pension funds to secure old-age income. that employees must have a minimum qualifying service
of 25 years to receive the full assured pension. This
3. Correct Answer: (b) T. V. Somanathan Committee requirement ensures that long-term service is adequately
Explanation: The Unified Pension Scheme (UPS), which is rewarded with a stable pension in retirement.
set to replace the National Pension System (NPS), was
developed based on the recommendations of the T. V.
Somanathan Committee in 2023.

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Wayanad Tragedy and Loss and Damage Funds in UNFCCC (Polity)
News Highlights:
The recent devastating landslides in Kerala’s Wayanad district on July 30, 2024, have sparked widespread
discussion about disaster preparedness and climate change. The landslides swept through multiple villages,
including Mundakkai and Chooralmala, causing massive destruction. These landslides led to the tragic loss of
285 lives, making it one of the deadliest natural disasters in Kerala's recent history.
This led to a critical conversation on whether sub-national entities such as Kerala can access the United Nations
Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)'s Loss and Damage Fund (LDF). This discussion stems
from the increasing climate-related impacts, especially on local communities, and the complex mechanisms involved
in accessing international climate funds like the LDF.

What is the Loss and Damage Fund (LDF)?

Purpose:
Establishment: Oversight and Governance: The LDF aims to provide financial
The Loss and Damage Fund The fund is managed by a
support to regions suffering
(LDF) was established at the Governing Board that
economic and non-economic
2022 United Nations determines the distribution of
losses due to climate change.
Framework Convention on funds.
These losses include extreme
Climate Change (UNFCCC) The World Bank acts as the
weather events (e.g., hurricanes,
Conference (COP27) interim trustee of the LDF.
floods) and slow-onset processes
(e.g., rising sea levels,
desertification).

Disbursement Mechanisms:
The LDF Governing Board is
currently developing mechanisms
for direct access, small grants, &
rapid disbursement options.
Principle of Operation: The fund is designed to offer
The LDF operates on the "Polluter Pays Principle", which mandates that financial relief to vulnerable
historically high-emitting countries, such as developed nations, countries and communities,
compensate vulnerable nations and regions impacted by climate change. particularly those with minimal
contribution to global emissions.
Pledged Amount:
At COP28, a pledge of $475 million was made towards the LDF to strengthen financial assistance to those impacted
by climate-related disasters.

History of the Loss and Damage Movement

Initiation:
The movement for creating a Loss and Damage Fund was initiated in the early 1990s by the
island nation of Vanuatu and the Alliance of Small Island States (AOSIS). They sought
compensation for damages caused by rising sea levels and other climate impacts.

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 Key Milestones

COP19 (2013) in Warsaw, Poland

A formal agreement was made to establish a Loss and Damage Mechanism.

COP25 (2019) in Madrid, Spain

The Santiago Network for Loss and Damage was established, though no financial commitments
were made.

COP26 (2021) in Glasgow, UK

The Glasgow Dialogue on Finance for Loss and Damage was initiated to advance negotiations.

COP27 (2022) in Egypt

The Loss and Damage Fund (LDF) was formally established, along with the Transitional
Committee (TC) to work on funding mechanisms.

India’s Role and Challenges in Climate Negotiations

Damage from Disasters: India faced over $56 billion in weather-related damages from 2019 to 2023. This
includes damages from events such as floods, cyclones, and droughts.
Focus on Mitigation: India has primarily focused on mitigation (reducing emissions) rather than adaptation
(adjusting to climate impacts). As a result, India's engagement in Loss and Damage dialogues at COP meetings has
been limited, despite its vulnerability.
Need for a Legal Framework:
India lacks a clear legal and policy framework to streamline climate finance for adaptation and loss and
damage.
The focus should be on locally led adaptation efforts to ensure that vulnerable communities benefit directly from
international climate finance.
Climate Finance Taxonomy:
The introduction of a Climate Finance Taxonomy in the Union Budget 2024 raised hopes for increased
international climate finance. However, there are still no clear guidelines for accessing loss and damage funds.
State-Level Interventions and Challenges
Kerala’s Financial Burden:
State governments, including Kerala, often bear the financial burden of disaster recovery due to the acute loss
and damage from climate events.
After the catastrophic 2018 floods, Kerala launched the Rebuild Kerala Development Programme, a
comprehensive recovery plan.
This programme was funded by loans from the World Bank and the KfW Development Bank (a German
financial institution), showcasing the importance of international climate finance for post-disaster recovery.
Absence of Standardised Damage Assessments:
One of the key barriers to accessing the LDF is the absence of standardised methods for assessing damages,
particularly from slow-onset events (e.g., rising sea levels, desertification).
This lack of assessments may result in unassessed or underreported damages, reducing the likelihood of
receiving adequate financial support.

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Challenges in Accessing the Loss and Damage Fund (LDF)
Bureaucratic Delays:
Climate funds, including the LDF, are often slow to be disbursed after disasters, particularly affecting local
communities at the sub-national level.
The disbursement processes can be complex, involving several bureaucratic steps, which delay immediate relief
efforts.
Centralised Systems:
Current climate finance mechanisms are largely centralised, limiting the flow of funds directly to local
communities. Without more decentralised processes, the effectiveness of the fund at the ground level remains
limited.
Lack of Local-Level Frameworks:
The absence of localised frameworks for disaster damage assessments and access to funds is a critical obstacle.
Vulnerable regions like Kerala require streamlined processes to efficiently tap into these funds.

United Nations Framework Convention on

Climate Change (UNFCCC)

1 Introduction

The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) is an international

environmental treaty adopted at the Earth Summit in Rio de Janeiro in 1992.
It entered into force on March 21, 1994, and as of 2021, the convention has 197 parties, which includes
countries and the European Union.

2 Purpose and Objectives:

The primary objective of the UNFCCC is to stabilize greenhouse gas concentrations in the atmosphere at
a level that would prevent dangerous anthropogenic interference with the climate system.
The treaty aims to achieve this stabilization in a time frame sufficient to allow ecosystems to adapt
naturally to climate change, ensure that food production is not threatened, and to enable economic
development to proceed in a sustainable manner.

3 Structure and Meetings:

Conference of the Parties (COP): The COP is the supreme decision-making body of the convention,
which meets annually to review the implementation of the Convention and any other legal instruments
that the COP adopts.
The first COP meeting was held in Berlin, Germany in March 1995.
Secretariat: Based in Bonn, Germany, the UNFCCC secretariat provides organizational and logistical
support for the COP meetings and assists in the implementation of the convention.

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 PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. In which year was the Loss and Damage Fund (LDF) 4. At which Conference of the Parties (COP) to the United
established during the UNFCCC Conference of Parties Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change
(COP)? (UNFCCC) was the formal agreement made that led to the
(a) 2020 (b) 2021 establishment of the Loss and Damage Fund?
(c) 2022 (d) 2023 (a) COP 17
(b) COP 18
2. Where was the 27th UNFCCC Conference of Parties (c) COP 19
(COP27), during which the Loss and Damage Fund (d) COP 20
(LDF) was established, held?
(a) Paris, France 5. Who serves as the interim trustee for the Loss and
(b) Bonn, Germany Damage Fund (LDF) established to address the impacts of
(c) Madrid, Spain climate change?
3. (d) Sharm El-Sheikh, Egypt (a) World Bank
(b) International Monetary Fund
Which district in Kerala experienced a devastating (c) United Nations
landslide in early July 2024 due to heavy rainfall and (d) Green Climate Fund
fragile ecological conditions?
(a) Idukki (b) Wayanad
(c) Kannur (d) Kozhikode

ANSWER KEYS & EXPLANATIONS

1. Correct Answer: (c) 2022 4. Correct Answer: (c) COP 19
Explanation: The Loss and Damage Fund (LDF) was Explanation: The formal agreement to establish the Loss
established in 2022 during the 27th UNFCCC Conference and Damage Fund was made at the 19th Conference of the
of Parties (COP27). This fund is a pivotal initiative Parties (COP 19) to the United Nations Framework
designed to provide financial support to regions that are Convention on Climate Change, held in Warsaw, Poland, in
experiencing both economic and non-economic losses 2013.
due to the impacts of climate change.
5. Correct Answer: (a) World Bank
2. Correct Answer: (d) Sharm El-Sheikh, Egypt Explanation: The World Bank serves as the interim
Explanation: The 27th UNFCCC Conference of Parties trustee for the Loss and Damage Fund (LDF), a fund
(COP27), which saw the establishment of the Loss and established to provide financial support for regions
Damage Fund (LDF), was held in Sharm El-Sheikh, Egypt. suffering from both economic and non-economic losses
due to climate change. The role of the World Bank as
3. Correct Answer: (b) Wayanad interim trustee involves managing the fund's resources
Explanation: Wayanad district in Kerala faced a until a permanent solution is instituted
significant natural disaster with a devastating landslide in
early July 2024, triggered by heavy rainfall and the area's
fragile ecological state. This event highlights the
vulnerability of the region to climatic extremes.

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New Guidelines for Preventive Detention: Supreme Court
News Highlights:
The Supreme Court of India has issued new guidelines for preventive detention to strengthen protections for personal
liberties. These directives were laid out in a landmark judgement that revises procedural requirements for detaining
authorities and highlights the importance of upholding constitutional rights during detention.

Case Details
Key Provisions of the Guidelines
Fair and Effective Opportunity
Case Name Jaseela Shaji vs. Union of
India Obligates detaining authorities to provide all
Bench Justice Bhushan R Gavai, relevant documents used in the detention decision.
Composition with Justices Prashant
Kumar Mishra and KV
Viswanathan Non-Arbitrary Actions

Authorities are mandated to uphold the detainee's

Specifics of the Legal Ruling rights throughout the detention process.
Primary Legislation Involved: Conservation of
Foreign Exchange and Prevention of Smuggling
Timeliness
Activities Act, 1974 (COFEPOSA).
Key Constitutional Reference: Article 22(5) of the Calls for prompt communication to avoid undue
Constitution of India, which mandates that an delay in the detention process.
individual detained under preventive detention has
the right to be informed of the grounds of detention
and to be afforded an earliest opportunity for Review Limitations
representation.
Procedural Issues Addressed: Detention without a review from an advisory board
Language and Documentation: The judgement is capped at three months.
highlighted the necessity of providing all
documentation, including translations in the Right to Challenge
detainee's native language, to facilitate a fair
chance to contest detention. Ensures detainees have the right to contest their
Handling of Representations: Criticised the detention orders.
excessive delay in processing Shaji’s
representation and emphasised the
constitutional obligation to address such Advisory Board Function
matters expeditiously.
Defined as a critical check against arbitrary state
Implications and Impact power.
Immediate Release: The order for Shaji’s release
highlighted procedural failures and emphasised
Exceptional Use
timely and fair processing of detention matters.
Future Detention Practices: Sets a precedent
Stipulates that preventive detention should be
requiring thorough adherence to constitutional
employed solely in exceptional circumstances.
provisions, aiming to prevent arbitrary detentions
and protect personal liberties.

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Here’s a breakdown of the Article 22's parts:
Part 1: Rights of Arrested Persons What is Article 22?
Clause (1): Right to be informed of arrest
reasons and to legal representation.
Detainees must be informed of the Article 22 of the Indian Constitution deals with
grounds for their arrest as soon as protection against arrest and detention in
possible. certain cases. It specifies the rights of
Detainees have the right to consult and individuals who are arrested or detained and
be defended by a lawyer of their choice. lays out the procedural requirements that the
Clause (2): Presentation before a magistrate. authority must follow.
Detainees must be presented before a
magistrate within 24 hours of arrest,
excluding travel time.
Detention beyond 24 hours must be
authorised by a magistrate.

Part 2: Preventive Detention

Clause (3): Exclusions from the rights in clauses (1) Detainees must be given the earliest opportunity to
and (2). make a representation against the detention.
Does not apply to enemy aliens. Clause (6): Non-disclosure of public interest facts.
Does not apply to persons detained under laws Authorities are not required to disclose
providing for preventive detention. information considered against public interest.
Clause (4): Advisory Board review for detention Clause (7): Parliamentary authority over preventive
beyond three months. detention.
Detention beyond three months requires Specifies conditions under which detainees can be
justification from an Advisory Board. held beyond three months without Advisory Board
Clause (5): Communication of detention grounds. review.
Authorities must communicate the grounds of Defines the maximum period of detention and
detention to the detainee promptly. procedures for Advisory Board reviews.
Legal Framework for Preventive Detention
Major Statutes
Preventive Detention Act, 1950: Originally enacted to provide for preventive detention for reasons connected
with the security of the state, maintenance of public order, and maintenance of supplies and services essential to the
community.
Maintenance of Internal Security Act (MISA), 1971: Used extensively during the Emergency (1975-1977) to detain
individuals without trial. It was repealed in 1977.
National Security Act (NSA), 1980: Allows for preventive detention of individuals acting in any manner prejudicial
to the defense of India, the relations of India with foreign powers, or the security of India.
Conservation of Foreign Exchange and Prevention of Smuggling Activities Act (COFEPOSA), 1974: Provides for
preventive detention in cases of smuggling and foreign exchange manipulations.
44th Amendment, 1978
Strengthened the protections under Article 22.
Required that the grounds of detention be disclosed to the detained individual, although exceptions are allowed if
the information is considered to be against public interest or the security of the state.
International Context
International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (ICCPR): India is a signatory to the ICCPR, which limits the use of
preventive detention and insists on procedural guarantees for the protection of detained individuals. The legal
framework in India aligns with these international obligations.

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Important Judgements to know
1. A.K. Gopalan vs. State of Madras (1950)
Citation: AIR 1950 SC 27
Summary: This was one of the first major Supreme Court cases challenging preventive detention under the Indian
Constitution. The Court upheld the detention under the Preventive Detention Act of 1950, interpreting Article 22
narrowly and distinguishing between "lawful detention" and "personal liberty."
2. ADM Jabalpur vs. Shivkant Shukla (1976)
Citation: AIR 1976 SC 1207
Summary: Known as the Habeas Corpus case, it was decided during the Emergency (1975-1977). The Supreme
Court controversially held that the right to life and liberty under Article 21 could be suspended, and writs of habeas
corpus could not be issued during the Emergency. This judgment was widely criticized and is considered a low point
in Indian jurisprudence.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Under which act was the preventive detention order 4. Which Amendment Act reduced the period of detention
upheld by the Kerala High Court in the case of Jaseela without obtaining the opinion of an advisory board from
Shaji vs the Union of India? three to two months, although this provision has not yet
(a) IPC (b) COFEPOSA been enforced?
(c) POTA (d) TADA (a) 42nd Amendment (b) 44th Amendment
(c) 45th Amendment (d) 46th Amendment
2. Which article of the Constitution was highlighted by the
Supreme Court in 2024 as protecting the fundamental 5. In which case did the Allahabad High Court rule that
right against arbitrary preventive detention? preventive detention should not be used when a person is
(a) Article 14(5) (b) Article 19(5) already detained, unless their actions cause widespread
(c) Article 21(5) (d) Article 22(5) public disorder or disrupt societal peace?
(a) Abhayraj Gupta v. Superintendent, Central Jail,
3. Which type of detention punishes a person after a trial Bareilly
and conviction in court for an offense they committed? (b) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
(a) Preventive Detention (c) Gopalan v. State of Tamil Nadu
(b) Administrative Detention (d) Shreya Singhal v. Union of India
(c) Punitive Detention
(d) Indefinite Detention

ANSWER KEYS & EXPLANATIONS

1. Correct Answer: (b) COFEPOSA protection against arrest and detention in certain cases,
Explanation: The preventive detention order in Jaseela including the rights of detainees to be informed of the
Shaji vs the Union of India was upheld under the grounds of arrest, and to consult and be defended by a
Conservation of Foreign Exchange and Prevention of legal practitioner of their choice.
Smuggling Activities (COFEPOSA) Act, 1974. 3.
Correct Answer: (c) Punitive Detention
2. Correct Answer: (d) Article 22(5) Explanation: Punitive Detention refers to the type of
Explanation: The Supreme Court stressed that failure to detention where a person is punished after a trial and
provide all relevant documents and information for a conviction in court for an offense they committed. It
detainee to effectively challenge the detention constitutes adheres to the due process of law, meaning the individual
a violation of the fundamental right under Article 22(5) of has been legally processed through the judicial system. In
the Constitution. Article 22 specifically deals with contrast, Preventive Detention is based on suspicion to

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 prevent a potential future offense, and neither 5. Correct Answer: (a) Abhayraj Gupta v. Superintendent,
Administrative Detention nor Indefinite Detention Central Jail, Bareilly
specifically involves punishment after trial and conviction Explanation: In the case of Abhayraj Gupta v.
for a committed offense. Superintendent, Central Jail, Bareilly in 2021, the
Allahabad High Court held that preventive detention
4. Correct Answer: (b) 44th Amendment should not be utilized if a person is already detained,
Explanation: The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 aimed to especially if their actions have not caused widespread
reduce the period of detention without the opinion of an public disorder or disrupted societal peace. This ruling
advisory board from three months to two months. emphasizes the unnecessary application of preventive
However, this specific provision has not been brought detention laws when the individual's behavior does not
into force; thus, the original period of three months still pose a significant threat to public order or peace.
continues.

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Anti-corruption ombudsman Lokpal Constitutes New Inquiry Wing
News Highlights:
Over a decade after the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act of 2013 was passed, the anti-corruption ombudsman, Lokpal, has
officially constituted an inquiry wing for conducting preliminary probes into graft cases involving public servants.
The Lokpal Act came into force on January 1, 2014, but the Lokpal began functioning only on March 27, 2019, after
the appointment of its chairperson and members.
Constitution of the Inquiry Wing:
The full bench of the Lokpal, in a meeting on August 30, 2024, decided to constitute
the inquiry wing as per Section 11 of the Act. This wing will investigate offences
punishable under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988, committed by specified
public servants.
Lokpal's chairperson, Justice A M Khanwilkar, has been authorized to begin the
selection process for the appointment of officers and staff to provide logistical
assistance in the inquiry wing. Justice A M Khanwilkar
Lokpal's chairperson
Staffing and Organogram:
The organogram approved on August 6, 2024, provides for a Director of Inquiry who will be supported by three
Superintendents of Police (SPs) overseeing general, economic and banking, and cyber-related inquiries. Each SP will
be further assisted by inquiry officers and staff.
Current Status and Vacancies:
As of now, the Lokpal has a vacancy for two members (one judicial and one non-judicial). The Lokpal can have eight
members in total, but currently, it has three judicial and three non-judicial members.
Pending and Resolved Complaints:
As of July 2024, there were 82 complaints regarding graft, 32 of which were resolved, leaving 52 pending. Among
these complaints, 31 were newly registered in July, including one against a Member of Parliament and five against
central government officials.
Prosecution Wing:
The Lokpal Act also mandates the creation of a prosecution wing, headed by a Director of Prosecution, to handle the
prosecution of public servants. However, this wing is yet to be constituted. Currently, both the Director of Inquiry
and the Director of Prosecution positions remain vacant.

Lokpal: About
The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 was enacted to
establish the institution of Lokpal at the central level
and Lokayuktas at the state level to inquire into
allegations of corruption against public
functionaries.

Important Sections of the Lokpal Act:

Section 3: Establishes the appointment of the Lokpal by the President on the recommendation of a selection
committee consisting of the Prime Minister, Speaker of the Lok Sabha, Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha, Chief
Justice of India, and an eminent jurist.
Section 4: Discusses the qualifications of the members and the chairperson of Lokpal.
Section 11: Requires Lokpal to set up an inquiry wing to conduct preliminary inquiries into graft cases.

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 Section 14: Empowers the Lokpal to investigate Prime Ministers under specific conditions (only with approval from
two-thirds of the full bench and excluding certain matters like security, defense, foreign relations).
Section 20: Deals with the power of Lokpal to prosecute public servants under the Prevention of Corruption Act,
1988.
Section 34: Grants Lokpal administrative and financial powers for running the institution, including the
establishment of inquiry and prosecution wings.

Jurisdiction Prime Minister (Limited)

The Lokpal can investigate complaints of corruption against

Ministers
Inquiry & Prosecution Wings
Section 11: Lokpal must constitute an Inquiry Members of Parliament
Wing to conduct preliminary investigations.
Section 15: Lokpal must also constitute a
Group A, B, C, and D
Prosecution Wing to prosecute public servants
officers and officials of the
once sufficient grounds for action are found.
Central Government

Role of Lokpal
Functionaries under any
Lokpal can order a Central Bureau of corporation, board,
Investigation (CBI) or Central society, or body financed
Vigilance Commission (CVC) probe into or controlled by the
allegations of corruption, and it can central government.
directly supervise the investigations.
Time Limit for Investigations
Article 32 and 226 of the Constitution The preliminary inquiry must be completed
empower individuals to approach the within 90 days, and the investigation must be
Supreme Court and High Courts if they completed within 6 months, extendable by a
are not satisfied with the decisions of maximum of 6 months with proper justification.
Lokpal.

Lokpal’s Powers and Functions State Lokpal oversees corruption issues at

the central level, while Lokayuktas
Lok- function at the state level, based on the
It has powers of civil court and can
summon witnesses, order the production ayuktas respective state laws.
of documents, and seize property.

Lokpal can recommend actions like Complaints Handling

removal, suspension, or confiscation of and Transparency
property of public servants found guilty.
Section 23: Lokpal ensures that complaints can be
Appointment Process filed even by ordinary citizens, including anonymous
whistleblowers, under specific protections.
The selection committee is chaired by the Prime Minister and
includes the Speaker of Lok Sabha, Leader of Opposition, Chief Section 44: Public servants under Lokpal's
Justice of India (or a nominated Supreme Court judge), and an jurisdiction must submit their declaration of assets
eminent jurist. and liabilities.

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 PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Which section of the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, 4. What is the title of the head of the prosecution wing that
mandates the Lokpal to establish an inquiry wing for is mandated to be established under the Lokpal and
conducting preliminary inquiries into offences under Lokayuktas Act, 2013 but has yet to be constituted?
the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988? (a) Director of Legal Affairs
(a) Section 7 (b) Section 9 (b) Director of Prosecution
(c) Section 11 (d) Section 13 (c) Chief Legal Officer
2. (d) Attorney General
Under the organisational structure of the Lokpal, how
many Superintendents of Police (SPs) assist the 5. Who is the current Secretary heading the Administrative
Director of Inquiry? Branch of the Lokpal?
(a) One (b) Two (a) Pradip Kumar Tripathi
(c) Three (d) Four (b) Anil Swarup
3. (c) Rajesh Verma
What is the maximum timeline for the Inquiry Wing (d) Ajay Bhushan Pandey
under the Lokpal to finalize its preliminary inquiry and
submit a report?
(a) 30 days (b) 45 days
(c) 60 days (d) 90 days

ANSWER KEYS & EXPLANATIONS

1. Correct Answer: (c) Section 11 4. Correct Answer: (b) Director of Prosecution
Explanation: Section 11 of the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, Explanation: Under the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013,
2013, mandates the establishment of an inquiry wing by there is a provision for the establishment of a prosecution
the Lokpal. This wing's responsibility is to conduct wing, which is to be headed by the "Director of
preliminary inquiries into offences under the Prevention Prosecution." This wing is responsible for the prosecution
of Corruption Act, 1988, which are allegedly committed of public servants involved in corruption cases. However,
by specified public servants and functionaries. this wing has yet to be constituted.

2. Correct Answer: (c) Three 5. Correct Answer: (a) Pradip Kumar Tripathi
Explanation:The organisational structure of the Lokpal Explanation: Pradip Kumar Tripathi is the current
includes a Director of Inquiry who is assisted by three Secretary heading the Administrative Branch of the
Superintendents of Police (SPs): SP (general), SP Lokpal. This position involves significant responsibilities,
(economic and banking), and SP (cyber). Each of these including overseeing the administrative aspects of the
SPs is further supported by inquiry officers and other Lokpal's operations to ensure efficiency and compliance
staff. with the law.

3. Correct Answer: (c) 60 days

Explanation: The Inquiry Wing of the Lokpal is required
to finalize its preliminary inquiry and submit a report to
the Lokpal within a maximum timeline of 60 days. This
process includes obtaining feedback from both the public
servant under investigation and the designated
competent authority for each category of public servant.

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 Public Accounts Committee to hold ‘performance review’ of
regulatory bodies
News Highlights:
The Public Accounts Committee (PAC), chaired by K.C. Venugopal (Indian National Congress), will hold a
performance review of regulatory bodies established by Acts of Parliament, such as SEBI (Securities and Exchange
Board of India) and TRAI (Telecom Regulatory Authority of India).
The PAC has selected 160 subjects for deliberation, including investigations into fees, tariffs, and user charges at
public infrastructure such as airports.
The committee has picked five subjects for suo motu investigations, with a focus on
Scope of Review
The PAC’s review will cover several regulatory bodies, including SEBI, which was established under the Securities
and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992.
SEBI has come under scrutiny, especially after allegations made by Hindenburg Research in 2023 concerning the
Adani Group and alleged stock manipulation. The Supreme Court had directed SEBI to investigate these
allegations.
The review will also include TRAI, responsible for regulating telecom services in India.
Another focus of the PAC is the regulation of fees, tariffs, and user charges at public infrastructure facilities like
airports, highways, and railway stations.
Seven major Indian airports, managed by the Adani Group, are under scrutiny. The management of these airports
has been a key issue in the Congress's 2024 election campaign, where allegations of favouritism towards the Adani
Group by the government have been raised.
Public Accounts Committee
The Public Accounts Committee (PAC) is a committee of parliament members that audits the
government's revenue and expenditure. The Public Accounts Committee was introduced in 1921
after its first mention in the Government of India Act, 1919 also called Montford Reforms.
The Public Accounts Committee is now constituted every year under Rule 308 of the Rules of
Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha. Parliamentary committees draw their
authority from Article 105 and Article 118.

Examination of Public Accounts: The PAC audits the annual accounts of the
Key Functions government and scrutinises the expenditures and revenues, ensuring they align with
the decisions of Parliament.
of the PAC Scrutiny of Government Audits: The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)
submits reports to the President, and these are later reviewed by the PAC to ensure
that public money has been spent appropriately.
Review of Expenditure: The committee reviews the utilisation of funds in various
government programs and projects, ensuring that expenditures are justified, and no
financial irregularities have occurred.
Examination of Regulatory Bodies: The PAC can examine the performance of
regulatory bodies like the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) and
Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI), assessing their effectiveness in
managing and regulating their respective sectors.
Investigation of Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs): The PAC also reviews the
financial operations of government-owned corporations and Public Sector
Undertakings (PSUs), ensuring efficient management of public funds.

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 The PAC consists of 22 Financial Accountability: The PAC
members: 15 from the Lok Structure ensures that public funds are not Importance
Sabha and 7 from the Rajya of the PAC wasted, and every rupee is of the PAC
Sabha. Members are accounted for.
appointed annually. Government Oversight: It acts as a
The chairperson of the PAC is check on government functioning,
appointed by the Speaker of Lok Sabha preventing financial misconduct and
and is traditionally (Not Mandatorily) a ensuring transparency.
senior member of the Opposition party, Public Interest Protection: By examining
ensuring a non-partisan approach in
the finances of public projects, the PAC
scrutinising government finances.
ensures that public resources are used for
The committee is assisted by the CAG in
the benefit of the citizens.
its audits and inquiries.

Calling Witnesses: The PAC has the authority to call ministers, officials, and other
individuals for questioning related to its investigations.
Recommendations not Binding on Government: While the PAC cannot enforce its
recommendations, they carry significant weight, and the government is expected to act
Powers of the
upon them.
PAC Broad Ambit: The PAC has a wider scope of investigation compared to other
parliamentary committees. It is empowered to review the revenue and expenditure of
all government departments and even public infrastructure and utilities like airports
and highways.

Other Financial Parliamentary Committees :

Estimates Committee Committee on Public Undertakings

Objective: To examine the budget estimates and Objective: To examine the reports and accounts of
suggest improvements in the organisation, efficiency, public sector undertakings (PSUs) and to evaluate the
and administration of various ministries and efficiency of PSUs.
departments. Members: Comprises 22 members – 15 from Lok
Members: It consists of 30 members, all from the Lok Sabha and 7 from Rajya Sabha (the upper house).
Sabha (the lower house of Parliament). Chairperson: Traditionally, the chairperson is a
Chairperson: Traditionally a member of the ruling member of the opposition. Baijayant Panda is the
party, but the chairperson is elected from among its current chairperson of the Committee on Public
members. Dr. Sanjay Jaiswal is the current Undertakings (COPU).
chairperson. Role: Assesses whether PSUs are being run on sound
Powers: Can recommend changes in the expenditure commercial principles and are achieving their
patterns and suggest measures for economy and intended objectives.
efficiency. Reports: Regularly submits reports to Parliament on
Reports: Provides reports on estimates of various its findings.
ministries and departments but cannot question the Source: It was set up in 1964 following the
policy laid down by Parliament. recommendation of the Krishna Menon Committee.
Constitution: Established in 1950 under the rules of
procedure and conduct of business in the Lok Sabha.

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 PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. In which year was the Public Accounts Committee first 4. The Government of India Act of 1919, which first
set up? mentioned the Public Accounts Committee, is also known
(a) 1919 (b) 1921 by what name?
(c) 1935 (d) 1947 (a) Rowlatt Act (b) Morley-Minto Reforms
(c) Montford Reforms (d) Simon Commission
2. Under which rule of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct
of Business in Lok Sabha is the Public Accounts 5. Which articles of the Constitution grant authority to the
Committee constituted every year? Parliamentary committees including the Public Accounts
(a) Rule 250 (b) Rule 308 Committee?
(c) Rule 375 (d) Rule 400 (a) Article 75 and Article 110
(b) Article 105 and Article 118
3. How many members are there in the Public Accounts (c) Article 123 and Article 130
Committee? (d) Article 112 and Article 115
(a) 20 (b) 22 (c) 25 (d) 30

ANSWER KEYS & EXPLANATIONS

1. Correct Answer: (b) 1921 Parliament, ensuring a balanced oversight of public
Explanation: The Public Accounts Committee was first set accounts.
up in 1921, following the provisions outlined in the
Government of India Act of 1919. 4. Correct Answer: (c) Montford Reforms
Explanation: The Government of India Act of 1919, which
2. Correct Answer: (b) Rule 308 first mentioned the establishment of the Public Accounts
Explanation: The Public Accounts Committee (PAC) is Committee, is also commonly known as the Montford
constituted every year under Rule 308 of the Rules of Reforms. These reforms marked a significant step
Procedure and Conduct of Business in the Lok Sabha. This towards the introduction of a more participatory form of
rule outlines the procedural framework for the government in British India.
establishment and operation of the PAC, ensuring its
annual reconstitution to maintain its role in auditing 5. Correct Answer: (b) Article 105 and Article 118
government revenues and expenditures. Explanation: The authority for Parliamentary committees
such as the Public Accounts Committee (PAC) is derived
3. Correct Answer: (b) 22 from Article 105 and Article 118 of the Constitution of
Explanation: The Public Accounts Committee consists of India. These articles outline the powers, privileges, and
22 members, with 15 members drawn from the Lok immunities of Parliament and its members, as well as the
Sabha and 7 from the Rajya Sabha. This composition procedure for conducting Parliament's business, which
allows for representation from both houses of includes the functioning of committees.

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‘Effective consultation’: SC ruling on process of HC judges’
appointment
News Highlights:
The Supreme Court has directed the Himachal Pradesh High Court (HC) collegium to reconsider the names of two
judicial officers, Chirag Bhanu Singh and Arvind Malhotra, for elevation to the Bench. This came after the HC
collegium recommended other names, leading the affected officers to approach the SC.
The SC's ruling focused on whether there was “effective consultation” in the reconsideration process after the SC
collegium’s earlier recommendation.

Collegium System
The term "collegium" originated from Latin, meaning a body
of colleagues bound together by collective responsibility.
The system was crystallized through three key Supreme
Court judgments collectively known as the Three Judges
Cases (1982, 1993, 1998).
It was introduced in 1993 in the Second Judges Case.
Initially it formed in the consultation with the 2 senior-most
judges in the SC. However, in 1998 – Supreme Court
expanded the Collegium into 5 member body.
Supreme Court Collegium: headed by CJI & 4 other senior
most judges of Apex Court
High Court Collegium: Chief Justice of HC & 4 other Senior
most judges of that court.
In the matter of Transfer – the opinion of the CJI is deemed
“determinative”.

Brief on the Four-Judges Cases

First Judges Case (S.P. Gupta vs Union of India, 1981): This case marked the beginning of the debate on judicial
appointments. The Supreme Court ruled that the power of appointment of judges to the higher judiciary lies
primarily with the executive, and the Chief Justice of India's (CJI) opinion does not have primacy. The court held that
the "consultation" with the CJI in the appointment process did not imply his or her concurrence, giving the executive
significant influence over these appointments.
Second Judges Case (Supreme Court Advocates-on Record Association vs Union of India, 1993): Overturning
the 1981 decision, the Supreme Court established the Collegium System, consisting of the CJI and four senior-most
judges of the Supreme Court. It ruled that the recommendations of this Collegium would have primacy in judicial
appointments and transfers, and that "consultation" really meant "concurrence". This case was pivotal in giving the
judiciary a dominant role in appointments to its own ranks, aiming to preserve the independence of the judiciary.
Third Judges Case (In Re: Presidential Reference, 1998): This case arose from a Presidential Reference made
under Article 143 of the Constitution, seeking the Supreme Court’s opinion on the working of the Collegium system.
The court reaffirmed its earlier stand on the Collegium system and detailed the processes involved, including the
necessity of transparency and the establishment of suitability criteria for appointees. It clarified that the CJI must
make decisions in consultation with the four senior-most judges, and these consultations must be in consensus.
Fourth Judges Case (Supreme Court Advocates-on Record Association vs Union of India, 2015): This case was
a response to the National Judicial Appointments Commission Act [Constitution (Ninety-ninth Amendment) Act,
2014,], which intended to replace the Collegium System with a new commission that included members from the
judiciary, the executive, and the public. The Supreme Court struck down the NJAC Act, ruling that it was
unconstitutional as it interfered with the independence of the judiciary. The court reiterated the need for the
judiciary to have the final say in appointments to preserve its independence from the executive.

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 Important One-Liners!
The Supreme Court of India was established on First Chief Justice of India: Justice H.J. Kania.
January 28, 1950, succeeding the Federal Court of First female judge of the Supreme Court: Justice M.
India established under the Government of India Act Fathima Beevi, appointed in 1989.
1935. First female Chief Justice: Justice B.V. Nagarathna is
The foundation stone of the Supreme Court's set to take over as India's first female Chief Justice (CJI)
building was laid on October 29, 1954, by Dr. of India in 2027.
Rajendra Prasad, the first President of India. The concept of PIL was pioneered by Justice P.N.
The Supreme Court’s building is designed in an Indo- Bhagwati. It allows any public-spirited citizen to
British architectural style by the chief architect approach the court for enforcing constitutional or legal
Ganesh Bhikaji Deolalikar, the first Indian to head rights when those affected are unable to do so
the Central Public Works Department. themselves, often due to poverty or a lack of education.
The Supreme Court originally had a strength of one Longest-serving Chief Justice: Chief Justice Y.V.
Chief Justice and seven other judges. Today, it Chandrachud served for over 7 years (February 22,
consists of the Chief Justice of India and 33 other 1978 - July 11, 1985).
Judges appointed by the President of India. Last Shortest-serving Chief Justice: Chief Justice K.N. Singh
time the strength was increased in 2019. held the office for about 17 days.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. What is the First Judges Case also known by? 4. Which article of the Constitution was referenced in the
(a) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala Third Judges Case to expand the Collegium to a five-
(b) Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain member body?
(c) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (a) Article 124
(d) S.P. Gupta v. Union of India (b) Article 136
(c) Article 140
2. How many judges, including the Chief Justice, are part of (d) Article 143
a High Court collegium?
(a) Three (b) Four 5. In which year did the Supreme Court introduce the
(c) Five (d) Six Collegium system, specifying that "consultation" with the
Chief Justice of India implies "concurrence"?
3. Who heads the Supreme Court collegium responsible (a) 1987
for the appointment of judges? (b) 1993
(a) Prime Minister (b) Chief Justice of India (c) 1998
(c) Law Minister (d) President of India (d) 2001

ANSWER KEYS & EXPLANATIONS

1. Correct Answer: (d) S.P. Gupta v. Union of India 2. Correct Answer: (c) Five
Explanation: The First Judges Case, decided in 1981, is Explanation: A High Court collegium is composed of five
formally known as S.P. Gupta v. Union of India. This members, including the Chief Justice of the High Court
landmark decision is significant for its impact on the and the four other senior-most judges of that court. This
group is responsible for making recommendations for
process of judicial appointments and the balance of
judicial appointments, which are then forwarded for
power between the Judiciary and the Executive in India. approval to the Supreme Court collegium and
subsequently to the government.

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3. Correct Answer: (b) Chief Justice of India 5. Correct Answer: (b) 1993
Explanation: The Supreme Court collegium, which plays a Explanation: The Collegium system was introduced in
crucial role in the appointment of judges to the higher 1993 by the Supreme Court in the case of Supreme Court
judiciary, is headed by the Chief Justice of India (CJI). The Advocates-on-Record Association vs Union of India. This
landmark ruling redefined the meaning of "consultation"
CJI is joined by the four other senior-most judges of the
with the Chief Justice of India as "concurrence,"
Supreme Court. essentially making the Supreme Court collegium's
recommendations binding on the central government and
4. Correct Answer: (d) Article 143 granting the judiciary significant authority in the
Explanation: In the Third Judges Case (1998), the appointment and transfer of judges to the higher
Supreme Court expanded the Collegium to a five-member judiciary.
body, comprising the Chief Justice of India and four of his
senior-most colleagues, in response to a Presidential
reference under Article 143 of the Constitution.

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Paper on Consumption Pattern: Economic Advisory Council to the
Prime Minister (EAC-PM)
News Highlights:
According to a working paper by the Economic Advisory Council to the Prime Minister (EAC-PM), authored by
Sanjeev Sanyal, India’s average household expenditure on food has fallen to less than half for the first time since 1947.
The working paper titled ‘Relative Economic Performance of Indian States: 1960-61 to 2023-24’ highlights the
economic decline in West Bengal and compares it with other Indian states.

State Specific findings of the Working Paper:

Declining Share of West Bengal in National GDP:
West Bengal was the third-largest contributor to India’s GDP in 1960-61 with a share of 10.5%.
By 2023-24, its share had dropped to 5.6%, indicating a consistent decline in its
economicperformance over the last six decades.
The per capita income of West Bengal, which was 127.5% of the national average in 1960-61,
dropped to 83.7% in 2023-24, placing it behind states like Rajasthan and Odisha.
Relative Performance of Other States:
Odisha, which historically lagged behind, has seen significant improvement in its economic
performance in recent years.
Bihar, while its relative position has stabilized in the last two decades, remains significantly behind
other states and requires faster growth to catch up.
Maritime States Leading Economic Growth:
Maritime states, except for West Bengal, have consistently outperformed other regions of India.
This includes western and southern states such as Maharashtra, Gujarat, Tamil Nadu, Kerala, and
Karnataka.
Southern States' Economic Surge After 1991:
The southern states—Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu—have
collectively accounted for 30% of India’s GDP in 2023-24.
The economic liberalization of 1991 was a turning point, after which southern states outpaced other
regions in terms of growth and per capita income.
These states saw a notable increase in per capita income, surpassing the national average after
1991.
Northern States:
Delhi and Haryana also stood out in terms of economic performance, with Delhi consistently
maintaining one of the highest per capita incomes throughout the study period.

Broader Trends:
Decline in Household Expenditure on Food:
The paper also notes a significant socio-economic shift: for the first time since 1947, the average household
expenditure on food in India has dropped to less than half of total expenditure.
This reflects changes in consumption patterns, improved economic conditions, and the availability of non-food-
related goods and services.
For the first time since 1947, India’s average household expenditure on food has dropped to less than 50% of
total expenditure.
In previous decades, food constituted a larger portion of household budgets. For instance:

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 In 1950s: Households spent about 70-75% of their total income on food.
By the 1980s: This reduced to 60-65%.
In 2023-24: The average household expenditure on food has fallen below 50%, indicating improved economic
conditions and diversification of spending.
Data and Methodology:
The paper uses current prices and covers the period from 1960-61 to 2023-24, providing insights into how
individual states have performed in response to various national and state-specific policies.
Key Committees and Schemes to Remember
National Food Security Act (NFSA), 2013: Aims to provide subsidized food grains to approximately 75% of the
rural and 50% of the urban population in India. Ensures legal entitlements to food for about two-thirds of the
population through Public Distribution System (PDS). Guarantees 5 kg of food grains per person per month at
subsidized prices.
Public Distribution System (PDS): A government-sponsored initiative to distribute essential commodities like
wheat, rice, sugar, and kerosene to the needy at subsidized rates. Managed by the Food Corporation of India
(FCI), PDS is aimed at providing food security and preventing malnutrition.
One Nation One Ration Card (ONORC), 2019: Enables inter-state portability of ration cards, allowing
beneficiaries to access their PDS entitlements from anywhere in the country. Aimed at improving access to food for
migrant workers and ensuring seamless delivery of subsidized food grains.
Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana (PMGKAY), 2020: Launched during the COVID-19 pandemic to
provide free food grains (5 kg per person per month) to 80 crore beneficiaries under NFSA. Extended multiple
times due to the prolonged impact of the pandemic on vulnerable populations.
Expert Committee on National Food Security: This committee, headed by M.S. Swaminathan, proposed the
National Food Security Act to ensure food security for all. Played a key role in framing the policies that ultimately
led to the passing of the NFSA, 2013.
Ashok Dalwai Committee (2016): Formed to double farmers' income by 2022, focusing on enhancing
agricultural productivity and improving food availability. Recommendations included better post-harvest
management, reducing wastage, and promoting value addition in agriculture.
Committee on Doubling Farmers' Income (2016): Headed by Ashok Dalwai, the committee recommended
strategies for increasing farm productivity, enhancing market access, and improving the overall food supply chain.
Shanta Kumar Committee (2015): Formed to suggest reforms in the functioning of the Food Corporation of
India (FCI). Recommended targeted PDS and better management of food stocks.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Which agency serves as the Nodal Agency for the EAC- 4. Who has the prime responsibility of procuring food
PM? grains at the Minimum Support Price (MSP)?
(a) RBI (b) Ministry of Finance (a) RBI
(c) NITI Aayog (d) SEBI (b) Ministry of Agriculture
(c) State Governments
2. How many countries are included in the EAC-PM's (d) FCI
working paper on the share of religious minorities?
(a) 165 (b) 167 (c) 170 (d) 175 5. Who heads the Economic Advisory Council to the Prime
Minister (EAC-PM)?
3. In which year was the Economic Advisory Council to the (a) Prime Minister
Prime Minister (EAC-PM) established? (b) Chairman
(a) 2015 (b) 2016 (c) Finance Minister
(c) 2017 (d) 2018 (d) President

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 ANSWER KEYS & EXPLANATIONS
1. Correct Answer: (c) NITI Aayog 4. Correct Answer: (d) FCI
Explanation: The NITI Aayog is specified as the Nodal Explanation: The Food Corporation of India (FCI) is
Agency for administrative, logistic, planning, and specifically tasked with the prime responsibility of
budgeting purposes for the EAC-PM. procuring food grains at the Minimum Support Price
(MSP).
2. Correct Answer: (b) 167
Explanation: The question specifies that the working 5. Correct Answer: (b) Chairman
paper published by the Economic Advisory Council to the Explanation: The Economic Advisory Council to the Prime
Prime Minister (EAC-PM) covers the share of religious Minister (EAC-PM) is headed by a Chairman.
minorities in 167 countries, including India.

3. Correct Answer: (c) 2017

Explanation: The Economic Advisory Council to the Prime
Minister (EAC-PM) was established in 2017 to offer
advice on economic and related issues to the Government
of India, specifically to the Prime Minister.

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Recent auctions under the Enemy Property Act
News Highlights:
What is Enemy Property?
A parcel of land in Baghpat district, Uttar
Pradesh, previously belonging to the family of
former Pakistan President Pervez
Musharraf, is set to be auctioned under The
Enemy Property Act.
The Union Home Affairs Ministry has issued
a notice for the e-auction of around 13 bighas
of land, which is classified as enemy property.
The auction is part of the Indian government’s
larger effort to dispose of enemy properties
left behind by individuals who migrated to
Pakistan and China after the wars of 1962, After the India-Pakistan wars of 1965 and 1971, and
1965, and 1971. the Sino-Indian War of 1962, several individuals
There are 13,252 enemy properties in India, migrated to Pakistan and China, leaving behind
valued at over Rs1 lakh crore. Most of these properties in India. These properties were designated
properties belong to people who migrated to as enemy properties under the Defence of India Act,
Pakistan, and over 100 to those who migrated 1962, and subsequently vested with the Custodian of
to China. Enemy Property for India.
Uttar Pradesh (5,982) has the highest number The Enemy Property Act, 1968, allows the Indian
of enemy properties, followed by West Bengal government to control these properties and prevent
(4,354). them from being reclaimed by their former owners or
heirs.
Judicial and Legislative Challenges
The most significant legal challenge came from The Custodian of Enemy Property for India, under the
the estate of the Raja of Mahmudabad in Ministry of Home Affairs, holds all enemy properties on
Uttar Pradesh. After migrating to Pakistan in behalf of the central government. The custodian has the
1957, his properties were declared enemy authority to manage, dispose of, or sell enemy
property. His son, however, remained in India properties after receiving approval from the government.
and fought a legal battle to reclaim the estate.
In 2005, the Supreme Court ruled in favor of
the Raja's son, opening the door for other In 2017, Parliament passed the Enemy Property
claims. In response, the government passed (Amendment and Validation) Bill, 2016, which
ordinances and amendments, negating the expanded the scope of the original Act:
court’s ruling and reinstating the Custodian’s It included legal heirs or successors of enemy
control over enemy properties. subjects, even if they are Indian citizens or citizens of a
Article 300A: States that no person shall be country that is not an enemy.
deprived of property save by the authority of The law ensures that enemy property continues to
law. The Enemy Property Act is an exception vest in the Custodian, even if the enemy subject dies
to this, as it allows the state to legally vest and or their nationality changes.
manage properties of enemy subjects without The amendments were introduced to prevent claims of
compensation. succession or transfer from individuals whose
Article 73: Extends the executive powers of relatives migrated to Pakistan or China after the wars.
the Union to matters including enemy The goal was to avoid situations where heirs attempted
property and its management under the to reclaim properties through legal loopholes.
Enemy Property Act.

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 PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Whose family of former Pakistan President previously 4. Which section of the Public Premises (Eviction of
owned the parcel of land in Uttar Pradesh that is set to Unauthorised Occupants) Act, 1971, defines "public
be auctioned under the Enemy Property Act? premises"?
(a) Nawaz Sharif (b) Pervez Musharraf (a) Section 1 (b) Section 2
(c) Zulfikar Ali Bhutto (d) Imran Khan (c) Section 3 (d) Section 4

2. In which year was the Enemy Property Act enacted? 5. In which 2005 case did the son of a former Raja, who had
(a) 1947 (b) 1956 acquired Pakistani citizenship, challenge the classification
(c) 1965 (d) 1968 of his inherited properties in Uttar Pradesh as enemy
property after his father's death?
3. In which year was the Enemy Property (Amendment (a) Union of India vs. Raja Mohammad Amir Mohammad
and Validation) Bill, originally modifying the 1968 Act Khan
and the 1971 Act, passed by Parliament? (b) Government of India vs. Nawab of Bhopal
(a) 2015 (b) 2016 (c) Republic of India vs. Maharaja of Gwalior
(c) 2017 (d) 2018 (d) State of India vs. Nawab of Pataudi

ANSWER KEYS & EXPLANATIONS

1. Correct Answer: (b) Pervez Musharraf This amendment expanded the definitions and scope
Explanation: The land in question, located in Kotana concerning what constitutes enemy property and its
Bangar village of Baghpat district and measuring around management.
13 bighas, was previously owned by the family of former
Pakistan President Pervez Musharraf. This property is 4. Correct Answer: (b) Section 2
being auctioned under the Enemy Property Act, which Explanation: Under the Public Premises (Eviction of
deals with the management and disposal of properties in Unauthorised Occupants) Act, 1971, "public premises" are
India owned by nationals of enemy countries, in this case, defined in Section 2(e). This definition is crucial as it
Pakistan. specifies the scope of what constitutes public premises
under the law, which in turn determines the applicability
2. Correct Answer: (d) 1968 of the act regarding unauthorized occupations.
Explanation: The Enemy Property Act was enacted in
1968 following the India-Pakistan war of 1965. This 5. Correct Answer: (a) Union of India vs. Raja Mohammad
legislation was put in place to regulate properties in India Amir Mohammad Khan
owned by individuals who were classified as "enemy Explanation: In the 2005 case, the son of a Raja who had
aliens" or "enemy subjects," primarily those who became left India, acquired Pakistani citizenship, and whose
citizens of countries that India was at war with, such as properties had consequently been declared enemy
Pakistan during that period. property, challenged their classification following his
father's death. The legal battle focused on whether
3. Correct Answer: (c) 2017 properties could be reclaimed by his son, who remained
Explanation: The Enemy Property (Amendment and an Indian citizen and had not abandoned his nationality,
Validation) Bill, which amended the Enemy Property Act, thereby questioning the broad application of the Enemy
1968, and the Public Premises (Eviction of Unauthorised Property Act in such familial scenarios.
Occupants) Act, 1971, was passed by Parliament in 2017.

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Swachh Bharat Mission decreased infant mortality in country:
Nature Journal
News Highlights:
Key Findings of the Study:
A global study published in Scientific
Reports (a journal by Nature) has found
that the Swachh Bharat Mission (SBM), Impact of Toilet Access on Infant and Child
launched in 2014, has significantly Mortality:
contributed to reducing infant The study found a strong inverse relationship
mortality and under-five mortality between toilet access and infant/child mortality.
rates in India. Districts with improved access to sanitation showed
The research estimates that the SBM has
averted 60,000 to 70,000 infant
1 significant reductions in death rates among infants
and children under five.
deaths annually between 2014 and For every 10% increase in district-level toilet access
2020 by increasing access to toilets and under SBM, there was a 0.9-point reduction in the
improving sanitation across the country. Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) and a 1.1-point
The study analyzed data from 35 states reduction in the Under-Five Mortality Rate (U5MR).
and union territories, covering over Scale of Toilet Construction:
600 districts from 2000 to 2020, As of July 2024, nearly 120 million toilets have
demonstrating that improved sanitation been constructed across rural and urban India,
has had a direct impact on child
survival outcomes.
2 transforming access to sanitation.
Districts with over 30% toilet coverage saw a
reduction of 5.3 points in IMR and 6.8 points in
Economic and Social Impact:
U5MR, highlighting the large-scale impact of SBM.
According to the United Nations
Broader Health Benefits:
Department of Economic and Social
In addition to reducing mortality, the increased
Affairs, households in ODF villages save
3
access to toilets under SBM has contributed to lower
up to ₹50,000 annually on healthcare
incidences of diarrhea, malnutrition, and
costs, and the benefits of SBM have
exposure to fecal-oral pathogens, all of which are
exceeded costs by 4.7 times.
critical drivers of child mortality..
SBM has also contributed to the
empowerment of women by improving Cost-Benefit Analysis:
safety and dignity through access to The United Nations Department of Economic and
toilets, reducing the risk of disease, and
promoting hygiene education.
4 Social Affairs reported that households in open
defecation-free villages save up to ₹50,000
annually in medical expenses, with benefits
exceeding costs by 4.7 times.
Disparities in Toilet Adoption:

5 Despite the overall success, the study noted that disparities in toilet adoption persist due to caste
and religion-based discrimination. Some communities, especially marginalized groups, face
challenges in accessing and using toilets.

Government Programs and Complementary Initiatives:

The implementation of the Jal Jeevan Mission and expanded piped water supply coverage (from
6 16% to 78%) have further enhanced health outcomes by providing cleaner water and sanitation.
Sources noted that the Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) declined three times faster from 2015 to
2020 compared to the earlier period (2000–2015).

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Swachh Bharat Mission (SBM)
The Swachh Bharat Mission (SBM) was launched on October 2, 2014, by the Government of India under the
leadership of Prime Minister Narendra Modi.
The mission was initiated to eliminate open defecation and improve solid waste management (SWM) in urban and
rural areas of India.
Phase I Achievements (2014-2019):
Construction of over 100 million toilets across rural India.
SBM Phase I focused primarily on eradicating open defecation in rural areas by constructing toilets and promoting
sanitation education to change public behavior.
Declared India free from open defecation in October 2019.
Large-scale awareness campaigns were conducted, involving media, celebrities, and local community leaders.
Swachh Bharat Mission (SBM)-Urban 2.0 (SBM-U 2.0)
The Swachh Bharat Mission (SBM)-Urban 2.0 (SBM-U 2.0) was launched on October 1, 2021. This five-year
program was launched by the Government of India to make all cities in India "garbage-free cities" by 2026.

Swachh Survekshan, an initiative under the Swachh

Bharat Mission (Urban), started in 2016 with the
objective of evaluating the cleanliness, sanitation,
and waste management practices of urban cities
across India.
Swachh Survekshan 2024 continues to emphasize
innovative measures, such as addressing legacy waste
dumpsites, implementing the 3Rs (Reduce, Reuse,
Recycle), and enhancing the safety of SafaiMitras
(sanitation workers).

Indore's Clean Sweep: Indore, Madhya The Ministry of Housing and

Pradesh, continues its record-breaking streak by Urban Affairs (MoHUA) is
being named the cleanest city in India for the responsible for conducting this
eighth consecutive year. Its efforts in waste survey, with the current minister
management and citizen engagement have overseeing the initiative being
made it an example of urban cleanliness​. Manohar Lal Khattar​.

Varanasi, the Best Ganga Town: For its efforts Surge in Participation:
in river cleanliness and waste management along Starting from just 73 cities in
the Ganga, Varanasi was recognized as the best 2016, Swachh Survekshan has
Ganga town under Swachh Survekshan 2024​. grown to assess 4,477 cities in
2024, reflecting the vast scale Manohar Lal Khattar
Surat and Navi Mumbai Shine: Surat (Gujarat) of urban India’s push towards
and Navi Mumbai (Maharashtra) claimed the cleanliness​.
second and third spots, respectively, in the list
of cleanest cities. These cities have been
consistent performers in recent years​.

Citizen Participation: Swachh Survekshan 2024

saw a record 12 crore citizen responses, making it
one of the largest citizen engagement initiatives
globally for a cleanliness survey​

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 PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. How many Indian states and districts were covered in Bharat Mission (SBM) potentially avert between 2011
the study published in Nature, which analyzed data and 2020?
from 2011 to 2020, to assess the impact of the Swachh (a) 10,000-20,000 (b) 20,000-30,000
Bharat Mission (SBM) on infant and under-five 4. (c) 40,000-50,000 (d) 60,000-70,000
mortality rates?
(a) 28 states and 560 districts How many household toilets were constructed from
(b) 35 states and 640 districts 2014 to 2020 under SBM?
(c) 29 states and 600 districts (a) 50 million (b) 75 million
(d) 33 states and 700 districts (c) 90 million (d) 109 million

2. In which year was the Swachh Bharat Mission (SBM), a 5. Who recruits the volunteers known as Swachh Bharat
flagship sanitation program aimed at achieving Preraks to monitor the progress of sanitation activities
universal sanitation coverage, launched by Prime under the Swachh Bharat Mission?
Minister Narendra Modi? (a) Government of India
(a) 2012 (b) 2013 (b) Tata Trusts
(c) 2014 (d) 2015 (c) Non-Governmental Organizations
(d) Local Municipalities
3. How many infant deaths annually did the Swachh

ANSWER KEYS & EXPLANATIONS

1. Correct Answer: (b) 35 states and 640 districts annually from 2011 to 2020. This significant reduction in
Explanation: The study that assessed the impact of the infant mortality highlights the impact of improved
Swachh Bharat Mission (SBM) on reducing mortality sanitation and hygiene practices promoted by the
rates among infants and young children analyzed data mission.
spanning from 2011 to 2020 across 35 Indian states and
640 districts. 4. Correct Answer: (d) 109 million
Explanation: From 2014 to 2020, the government
2 Correct Answer: (c) 2014 constructed 109 million household toilets under the
Explanation: The Swachh Bharat Mission (SBM) was Swachh Bharat Mission, contributing to the declaration
launched on October 2, 2014, by Prime Minister Narendra that more than 600,000 villages are open defecation free
Modi. The program focused on ensuring open defecation- (ODF). This large-scale construction effort was pivotal in
free conditions through sustainable sanitation practices, advancing the goals of the mission.
including toilet construction, mass mobilization, behavior
change, and excreta management systems. This initiative 5. Correct Answer: (b) Tata Trusts
marked a significant step towards improving public Explanation: Tata Trusts is responsible for recruiting the
health and hygiene in India. volunteers known as Swachh Bharat Preraks. These
volunteers are crucial to the Swachh Bharat Mission,
3. Correct Answer: (d) 60,000-70,000 where they monitor and facilitate the progress of various
Explanation: According to a study published in the sanitation-related activities, ensuring the mission's goals
journal Nature, the Swachh Bharat Mission potentially are met effectively across different regions.
. averted between 60,000 and 70,000 infant deaths

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Centre and Tripura sign Peace pact with 2 insurgent outfits
News Highlights:
The Central Government and the Tripura Government signed a peace pact with two insurgent outfits—National
Liberation Front of Tripura (NLFT) and All Tripura Tiger Force (ATTF)—leading to over 328 insurgents laying
down their arms.
Union Home Minister Amit Shah announced a ₹250-crore package to support the rebels’ transition to civilian
life, aiding their reintegration into the mainstream.
This peace pact marks the 12th peace settlement for the Northeast and the third for Tripura. Since the NDA
government came into power, 10,000 insurgents across the region have surrendered and returned to the
mainstream.

History of Insurgency in Tripura

The insurgency in Tripura dates back to 1967 with the
emergence of small militant groups like Sengkrak. The
1980s saw a surge in armed conflict with the rise of
groups like the NLFT and ATTF.
These groups sought greater autonomy and rights for
the indigenous tribal populations but were involved in
violent activities that destabilized the region.
Insurgency in Tripura began to decline during the Left
Front government’s rule, as economic packages and
rehabilitation incentives encouraged rebels to lay down Tripura
their arms.

Key Details of the Peace Pact:

Participants: The agreement was signed in the
presence of Union Home Minister Amit Shah, Tripura
Chief Minister Manik Saha, TIPRA Motha founder
Pradyot Kishore Debbarma, and officials from the
Ministry of Home Affairs.
Rebel Groups Involved: The National Liberation Front of Tripura NLFT) and the All Tripura Tiger Force
(ATTF), both insurgent groups involved in armed struggle for decades, are the key signatories to the peace
agreement. These groups had been active in seeking autonomy for Tripura's indigenous tribal population.
The National Liberation Front of Tripura (NLFT) is a separatist organization that was established in 1989.
It seeks the secession of Tripura, a state in Northeast India, from India, advocating for a separate sovereign Tripura
for the indigenous Tripuri people.
NLFT has been responsible for significant incidents of violence. One notable example was the massacre in Bagber
refugee camp in 1997, where they killed about 30 people. The NLFT was outlawed in April 1997 under the
Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967

Recent Peace agreements include:

The 2019 NLFT peace accord. The 2022 Assam-Meghalaya interstate boundary
The Bru migrant resettlement agreement in 2020, agreement and the Assam-Arunachal Pradesh
which provided homes and rehabilitation for Bru interstate boundary agreement.
refugees in Tripura. The 2023 ULFA Accord, aimed at reducing
The 2020 Bodo Accord in Assam. insurgency in Assam.
The Karbi Peace Accord (2021) and the Dimasa
Accord.

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 Ongoing Manipur Conflict

Ethnic Conflict:
Manipur is home to a complex ethnic composition, with major
communities including the Meiteis, Nagais, and Kukis.
The Meitei community, which comprises around 53% of the
population, primarily inhabits the Imphal Valley, while the
Nagas and Kukis are dominant in the hill districts.
Tensions have long existed between the Meiteis and the tribal
communities (Nagas and Kukis) due to historical grievances,
land disputes, and political representation issues.
A key factor in the recent tensions is the demand for Scheduled
Tribe (ST) status by the Meitei community. The Meiteis, despite
being the majority, are not recognized as an ST.
The tribal groups, particularly the Kukis and Nagas, oppose the
Meiteis' ST demand.

Violence and Clashes:

Ethnic violence erupted in May 2023 between the Meitei and
Kuki communities over the Meitei demand for ST status.
Violent clashes have led to the loss of lives, displacement of
thousands, and destruction of property.
The violence is linked to deep-seated historical conflicts over
land ownership in the hills and valley, with both Meitei and
Kuki communities accusing each other of trying to dominate the
region.

Armed Insurgency:
Manipur has witnessed armed insurgency for decades, with
multiple insurgent groups operating in the state. Some of the
major insurgent outfits include the United National Liberation
Front (UNLF), People’s Liberation Army (PLA), and Kuki
National Organization (KNO).
These groups primarily fight for greater autonomy or
independence from India, with the UNLF advocating for an
independent Manipur, while Kuki groups demand a separate
Kuki homeland.
Insurgent activities have further complicated the situation,
leading to ongoing security operations by the Indian Army and
paramilitary forces.
The Meiteis dominate politics in the Imphal Valley, while Kuki
and Naga communities have more influence in the hill areas.
The unequal representation has led to persistent demands for
autonomy by the hill tribes.

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 PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. When was the National Liberation Front of Tripura 4. Alongside the National Liberation Front of Tripura
(NLFT) formed? (NLFT), which other major insurgent group signed the
(a) 1986 (b) 1987 peace agreement with the Central and Tripura state
(c) 1989 (d) 1991 governments to end violence in the state?
(a) ULFA
2. Under which act was the NLFT outlawed in April 1997? (b) ATTF
(a) POTA, 2002 (c) NDFB
(b) Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967 (d) PLA
(c) Indian Penal Code
(d) National Security Act 5. Which scheme aims to enhance regional connectivity in
the North East?
3. Who headed one of the two groups that resulted from (a) Bharatmala Pariyojana
the NLFT split in February 2001? (b) UDAN
(a) Biswamohan Debbarma (c) Swadesh Darshan Scheme
(b) Nayanbasi Jamatiya (d) National Bamboo Mission
(c) Mangal Debbarma
(d) Biswajit Debbarma

ANSWER KEYS & EXPLANATIONS

1. Correct Answer: (c) 1989 4. Correct Answer: (b) ATTF
Explanation: The NLFT was formed in 1989. Explanation: The peace agreement to end violence in
Tripura was signed by the Central Government, the state
2. Correct Answer: (b) Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, government of Tripura, and two major insurgent groups,
1967 specifically the National Liberation Front of Tripura
Explanation: The NLFT was outlawed under the Unlawful (NLFT) and the All Tripura Tiger Force (ATTF).
Activities (Prevention) Act of 1967 in April 1997.

3. Correct Answer: (a) Biswamohan Debbarma 5. Correct Answer: (b) UDAN

Explanation: The NLFT split into two groups in February Explanation: The Regional Connectivity Scheme (RCS)-
2001, one headed by Biswamohan Debbarma and the UDAN is specifically designed to improve regional
other by Nayanbasi Jamatiya. connectivity, which includes enhancing air travel
accessibility in less connected areas such as the North
East of India.

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‘Aparajita Woman and Child Bill (West Bengal Criminal Laws and
Amendment) Bill 2024’
News Highlights:
The West Bengal Legislative Assembly passed the Aparajita Women and Child (West Bengal Criminal Laws
Amendment) Bill, 2024 on September 3, 2024, introducing stringent measures for the punishment of sexual
assault, including capital punishment in severe cases.
The bill comes after the rape and murder of a doctor at R.G. Kar Medical College, triggering outrage across the
state and the country.
Chief Minister Mamata Banerjee hailed the Bill as a "historic and model" legislation, ensuring increased
punishment, speedy investigation, and swift justice for victims of sexual assault.

Key Amendments

Enhanced Punishment for Sexual Assault:

The Bill amends Section 64(1) of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS),
2023, replacing the previous punishment for rape with rigorous
imprisonment for life (meaning imprisonment for the remainder of the
person's life) or death.
Section 64(2) of BNS, which deals with the rape of a police officer, public
servant, or member of the armed forces, now provides the same
punishment: life imprisonment or death.
Section 66 has been amended to include death penalty for rape cases that
result in the victim's death or leave the victim in a persistent vegetative state.

Speedy Investigation:
The Bill mandates that investigations into rape cases must be completed
within 21 days from the filing of the First Information Report (FIR).
A special Aparajita Task Force will be formed from the West Bengal police
to ensure time-bound completion of investigations into sexual assault cases.
The establishment of 52 special fast-track courts is aimed not only at handling
sexual violence cases but also cases related to women and children
specifically. These courts are designed to ensure timely justice and prevent
delays.

Amendments to Other Legal Acts:

In addition to amending the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023, and
Bhartiya Nagrik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, the Bill also proposes
amendments to the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO)
Act, 2012.
The amendments extend stringent penalties for crimes against children,
including sexual exploitation and abuse under POCSO.

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What led to the enactment of Aparajita Act
Trigger for the Bill: The Bill was introduced following the rape and murder of a doctor at R.G. Kar Medical
College, which shocked the state and sparked widespread protests demanding stricter action against sexual
offenders.
Public Outrage and Protests: Protests across the state, including by doctors and civil society groups, demanded
swift action and accountability in the handling of sexual assault cases. Some prominent figures, such as playwright
Chandan Sen and theatre artist Biplab Bandyopadhyay, returned state honors in solidarity with the protestors.
Connection to the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita: The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023, is the new criminal law
framework that replaces the Indian Penal Code (IPC). The Aparajita Bill introduces amendments to BNS sections
to impose harsher penalties for sexual crimes.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Which of the following Acts is not proposed to be punishment and the harshest penalties for rape and
amended by the Aprajita Bill 2024? sexual harassment?
(a) Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS) 2023 (a) Tamil Nadu (b) West Bengal
(b) Bhartiya Nagrik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS) 2023 (c) Maharashtra (d) Karnataka
(c) Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act
(POCSO) 2012 4. Under the Aparajita Women and Child Bill, 2024, what is
(d) Indian Penal Code (IPC) the mandated time frame for completing investigations
into rape cases?
2. Which article of the Indian Constitution provides states (a) 21 days (b) 30 days
with the authority to legislate on issues listed in the (c) 2 months. (d) 3 months
State List but introduces complexity due to concurrent
jurisdiction over criminal laws? 5. Under which section of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha
(a) Article 246 (b) Article 245 Sanhita (BNSS) is it mandated that no private or
(c) Article 248. (d) Article 249 government hospitals can charge fees for the treatment of
rape victims?
3. Which state's assembly passed the Aparajita Women (a) Section 350D. (b) Section 357C
and Child Bill, 2024, that includes provisions for capital (c) Section 365B. (d) Section 375A

ANSWER KEYS & EXPLANATIONS

1. Correct Answer: (d) Indian Penal Code (IPC) Aparajita Women and Child (West Bengal Criminal Laws
Explanation: The Aprajita Bill 2024 proposes Amendment) Bill, 2024.
amendments to several key legal provisions, specifically
targeting the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS) 2023, the 4. Correct Answer: (a) 21 days
Bhartiya Nagrik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS) 2023, and the Explanation: The Aparajita Women and Child (West
Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act 2012 Bengal Criminal Laws Amendment) Bill, 2024, specifies
(POCSO). that investigations into rape cases must be completed
within 21 days of the initial report.
2. Correct Answer: (a) Article 246
Explanation: Article 246 of the Indian Constitution grants
states the authority to legislate on matters enumerated in 5. Correct Answer: (b) Section 357C
the State List. However, this authority becomes complex Explanation: Section 357C of the Bharatiya Nagarik
due to the concurrent jurisdiction states share with the Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), part of the Code of Criminal
central government over criminal laws. Procedure, stipulates that no private or government
3. Correct Answer: (b) West Bengal hospital can charge fees for the treatment of rape victims.
Explanation: The West Bengal Assembly passed the

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Himachal Pradesh's Bill to Raise Women's Minimum Marriage Age
to 21
News Highlights:
On August 27, 2024, the Himachal Pradesh Assembly passed the Prohibition of Child Marriage (Himachal
Pradesh Amendment) Bill, 2024, raising the minimum marriageable age for women from 18 to 21 years.
The Bill was passed by voice vote on the first day of the Assembly's monsoon session and aims to promote gender
equality and higher education for women.
This makes Himachal Pradesh the first state in India to legislate an increase in the minimum age of marriage for
women to 21 years.
Key Changes Proposed by the Bill
Raising the Minimum Marriageable Age for Women:
The Prohibition of Child Marriage (Himachal Pradesh Amendment) Bill, 2024 raises the minimum age of
marriage for women from 18 to 21 years. This eliminates the gender-based distinction found in the Prohibition of
Child Marriage Act, 2006, which previously allowed men to marry at 21 and women at 18.

Uniform Definition of a Child:

The Bill redefines the term "child" as any person (male or female) who has not completed 21 years of age,
ensuring uniformity in the age definition across genders.

Extended Time to File for Annulment:

Under the original 2006 Act, individuals married as minors could seek an annulment within two years of
reaching the age of majority (before turning 20 for women and 23 for men). The new Bill extends this period
to five years, allowing both women and men to file for annulment before turning 23.

Superseding Other Laws:

A new provision, Section 18A, states that the provisions of this Bill will take precedence over any conflicting
laws or religious and cultural practices, ensuring uniform application across the state.

Applicability Across Himachal Pradesh:

The Bill seeks to ensure gender equality and promote higher education for women, while also aiming to
reduce instances of early pregnancies and health risks associated with early motherhood.

Legal Implication:
Concurrent Jurisdiction:
Marriage and divorce fall under the Concurrent List in the Seventh Schedule (Entry 5) of the Indian
Constitution, allowing both the Centre and states to legislate on the matter.
However, since this Bill introduces provisions that differ from those in the 2006 Act (central law), Article 254 of
the Constitution becomes relevant. This article states that if a state law is inconsistent with an existing central law,
the inconsistent provisions may be void unless the Bill is reserved for the President’s assent.
Need for President’s Assent
When the President grants assent to a state law that is inconsistent with a central law, the state law prevails within
that state, according to Article 254(2).
For this Bill to become law, the Governor of Himachal Pradesh will need to reserve it for the President’s
consideration. If the President grants assent, the state law will override the provisions of the central law
within Himachal Pradesh.

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Major Concerns
Potential Misuse of the Law: Women’s rights activists have raised concerns that increasing the minimum
marriage age could lead to greater parental control over young women, especially in inter-caste or inter-
religious marriages. Parents may misuse the law to punish daughters for eloping or pursuing marriages against
their wishes.
Impact on Marginalized Communities: Activists argue that this reform could exacerbate policing of marriages
within marginalized communities, leaving many women who marry before 21 without legal protections associated
with the institution of marriage.
Criminalizing Early Marriages: The increase in the minimum marriage age may criminalize marriages involving
young women between 18 and 21 years, potentially exposing them to legal action and endangering their life and
liberty.
Alternative Recommendations: Both the 2008 Law Commission Report and the National Human Rights
Commission (NHRC) 2018 Report recommended a uniform marriageable age of 18 years for both men and
women, emphasizing that the focus should be on empowering young adults to make their own decisions rather
than imposing age-based restrictions.

Some Statics on Child Marriage in India

According to the National Family Health Survey (NFHS-5) (2019-2021), 23.3% of women aged 20-24 in India
were married before reaching the legal age of 18, indicating ongoing child marriage despite legal prohibitions.
The minimum age for marriage is intended to curb child marriage, which remains prevalent in rural areas, with
states like Bihar (40%) and West Bengal (41%) showing higher rates.
WHO data shows that complications during pregnancy and childbirth are the leading cause of death for girls aged
15-19 globally.
UNICEF reports that girls under 18 are 50% more likely to die during childbirth compared to women in their 20s.
The risk of infant mortality is also 60% higher for babies born to mothers under 18.
UNICEF estimates that 60% of girls who marry before 18 discontinue their education.
Government of India’s U-DISE (Unified District Information System for Education) 2019-2020 shows a
dropout rate of 15% for girls at the secondary school level, often due to early marriages.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Which Act does the Himachal Pradesh (HP) Assembly marriage and divorce, including child marriages, fall that
aim to amend by raising the minimum marriageable age allows both central and state governments to legislate?
for women from 18 to 21 years? (a) Entry 3 (b) Entry 5 (c) Entry 7 (d) Entry 9
(a) Child Marriage Restraint Act, 1929
(b) Prohibition of Child Marriage (Amendment) Act, 4. When was The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of
2010 Children) Act, enforced?
(c) Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006 (a) 2014 (b) 2015 (c) 2016 (d) 2017
(d) Child Marriage Prevention Act, 1995
5. Which committee, established by the Ministry for Women
2. Under which article of the Indian Constitution can a and Child Development in June 2020, recommended
state governor reserve a bill for the President's increasing the marriage age to 21 and enhancing access to
consideration if it might undermine the authority of the education, skill training, and sex education?
High Court or conflict with central laws? (a) The Verma Committee
(a) Article 200 (b) Article 201 (b) The Malhotra Committee
(c) Article 202 (d) Article 203 (c) The Jaya Jaitly Committee
(d) The Sharma Committee
3. According to the Seventh Schedule of the Indian
Constitution, under which entry does the regulation of

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 ANSWER KEYS & EXPLANATIONS
1. Correct Answer: (c) Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, It highlights the shared jurisdiction, which allows for
2006 (PCMA 2006) collaborative or independent legislative efforts by both
Explanation: The Himachal Pradesh Assembly has passed levels of government, but also stipulates that in cases of
a bill to amend the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, conflict between state and central laws, the state law may
2006 (PCMA 2006), specifically aiming to raise the be deemed "void" unless it receives the President's assent.
minimum marriageable age for women from 18 to 21
years. 4. Correct Answer: (c) 2016
Explanation: The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of
2. Correct Answer: (a) Article 200 Children) Act, 2015, was enforced on January 15, 2016.
Explanation: Article 200 of the Indian Constitution This enforcement date marks when the provisions of the
outlines the powers of a state governor regarding bills Act officially came into effect, guiding the care, protection,
passed by the state legislature. The governor has the development, treatment, and social re-integration of
options to assent, withhold assent, return the bill for children in need across India under the auspices of the
reconsideration, or reserve it for the President's Ministry of Women and Child Development.
consideration. A bill is specifically reserved for the
President's consideration under circumstances where the 5. Correct Answer: (c) The Jaya Jaitly Committee
governor believes it could undermine the authority of the Explanation: The Jaya Jaitly Committee was established in
High Court or conflict with central laws, emphasizing the June 2020 by the Ministry for Women and Child
role of the governor in safeguarding the constitutional Development specifically to assess the implications of
and legal framework. increasing the marriage age. The committee's
recommendations included raising the marriage age to 21
3. Correct Answer: (b) Entry 5 and improving access to education, skill training, and sex
Explanation: Entry 5 of the Concurrent List in the Seventh education to support this change, aiming to promote
Schedule of the Indian Constitution includes the better socio-economic conditions for women and greater
regulation of marriage and divorce. This entry permits gender equality.
both central and state governments to legislate on issues
concerning child marriages.

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New Flag and insignia of the Supreme Court
News Highlights:
On September 1, 2024, President Droupadi Murmu unveiled the new flag and insignia of the Supreme Court of
India as part of the celebration marking 75 years of the establishment of the country's top court.
The event was part of the National Conference of District Judiciary held at Bharat Mandapam in New Delhi, with
more than 800 participants from the district judiciary in attendance.
Law Minister Arjun Ram Meghwal and Chief Justice of India (CJI) DY Chandrachud also attended the event,
along with other dignitaries. A commemorative coin and postage stamp were also released to mark the occasion.
The new flag and insignia were conceptualized and designed by National Institute of Fashion Technology, Delhi.

New Flag and Insignia of the Supreme Court

Design of the Flag:
The flag of the Supreme Court features the Sanskrit
shloka: "Yato Dharmastato Jayah", which translates
to “Where there is Dharma, there is victory”. This
phrase underscores the commitment of the judiciary
to upholding justice and moral righteousness.
The flag is navy blue in color, symbolizing the values
of justice, integrity, and stability that the judiciary
stands for.
Design of the Insignia:
The insignia of the Supreme Court also carries the
same Sanskrit motto, reaffirming the institution's
dedication to ensuring that justice prevails in society.
At its center, the insignia features the Supreme Court building, representing the institution’s authority and its role
as the highest judicial body in India.
Above the Supreme Court building is the Ashok Chakra, a symbol derived from the Sarnath Lion Capital of
Emperor Ashoka, signifying the Dharmachakra or the "wheel of the law". This is the same Ashok Chakra
featured on the Indian national flag, symbolizing the eternal movement of justice and law.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Which of the following is not featured on the new flag of (a) Article 104 (b) Article 114
the Supreme Court, unveiled by President Droupadi (c) Article 124 (d) Article 134
Murmu to mark the 75th year of its establishment?
(a) The Ashoka Chakra 4. Which institution was responsible for conceptualizing
(b) The Supreme Court building and designing the new flag and insignia of the Supreme
(c) The book of the Constitution of India Court?
(d) The national emblem (a) Indian Institute of Technology (IIT), Delhi
(b) National Institute of Fashion Technology (NIFT), Delhi
2. What is inscribed in Devanagari script on the new (c) National Institute of Design (NID), Ahmedabad
insignia of the Supreme Court of India? (d) School of Planning and Architecture (SPA), Delhi
(a) Satyameva Jayate (b) Yato Dharmastato Jayah
(c) Bharat Mata Ki Jai (d) Jai Hind 5. In what year was a black bronze sculpture of Mother
India, portrayed as a lady, installed on the lawn of the
3. According to the Indian Constitution, which article Supreme Court?
states that "There shall be a Supreme Court of India"? (a) 1968 (b) 1978 (c) 1988 (d) 1998

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 ANSWER KEYS & EXPLANATIONS
1. Correct Answer: (d) The national emblem 4. Correct Answer: (b) National Institute of Fashion
Explanation: The new flag of the Supreme Court, unveiled Technology (NIFT), Delhi
by President Droupadi Murmu, features the Ashoka Explanation: The National Institute of Fashion Technology
Chakra, the Supreme Court building, and the book of the (NIFT) in Delhi was responsible for conceptualizing and
Constitution of India. It does not feature the national designing the new flag and insignia of the Supreme Court.
emblem, which is a common element on many official This design initiative was part of the celebration marking
flags and emblems but was not included on this specific the 75th year of the Supreme Court's establishment,
flag designed to commemorate the 75th year of the reflecting the fusion of traditional symbols and modern
Supreme Court's establishment. aesthetics.

2. Correct Answer: (b) Yato Dharmastato Jayah 5. Correct Answer: (b) 1978
Explanation: The new insignia of the Supreme Court of Explanation: In 1978, a black bronze sculpture depicting
India features the inscription ‘Yato Dharmastato Jayah’ in Mother India in the form of a lady figure was installed on
Devanagari script. This phrase, which translates to the lawn of the Supreme Court. This sculpture stands at a
"Where there is righteousness (Dharma), there is height of 210 centimeters and represents the
victory," underscores the Supreme Court's commitment embodiment of the nation, symbolically overseeing the
to justice and righteousness in its proceedings and ethos. proceedings of the highest judicial body in India.

3. Correct Answer: (c) Article 124

Explanation: Article 124 of the Indian Constitution
explicitly states that "There shall be a Supreme Court of
India." This article lays the foundational legal framework
for the establishment and the functioning of the highest
court in the country, delineating its role, powers, and
structure within the judiciary system.

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Justice Hema Committee Report on Malayalam Film Industry
News Highlights:
The Justice K. Hema Committee Report on the Malayalam film industry was made public on August 19, 2024,
exposing widespread sexual exploitation, inhuman working conditions, and gender-based discrimination
within the industry.
The report has led to numerous fallouts, with prominent actors, directors, and producers facing legal
consequences and being named in cases of sexual abuse and harassment.

Key Findings of the Hema Committee Report:

Sexual Exploitation and Casting Couch:

The report confirms the existence of "casting couch" practices, where women are forced into
1 sexual exploitation in exchange for roles in movies.
Male producers, directors, and actors dominate the industry, often controlling opportunities and
exploiting their positions.

Inhuman Working Conditions:

The report highlights inhuman working conditions, including the lack of basic amenities like
2 changing rooms and toilets, especially during outdoor shoots.
Women face wage disparities and long working hours without appropriate facilities or safety
measures.

Substance Abuse and Illegal Bans:

Drug and alcohol abuse were rampant on film sets, leading to unsafe environments for women.
3 Illegal bans and discrimination were also noted, with powerful individuals in the industry
blacklisting women who resisted exploitation or raised complaints.

The Hema Committee, comprising retired High Court Justice K. Hema, former
actor Sharada, and retired IAS officer K.B. Valsala Kumari was formed in 2017
after Kerala-based Women in Cinema Collective’s (WCC) petition, to study
issues of sexual harassment and gender inequality in Malayalam film industry.
The WCC itself came into existence after a Malayalam woman actor came forward
alleging abduction and sexual assault on her in Kochi. The investigation done by a
team of Kerala Police converged on Malayalam actor Dileep.
Retired Justice K. Hema

Fallout of the Report

Resignations and Legal Cases:
Actor Siddique resigned as the general secretary of the Association of Malayalam Movie Artistes (AMMA)
following allegations of sexual assault by actress Revathy Sampath. The police have lodged cases against him.
Filmmaker Ranjith, who was the chairperson of the Kerala State Chalachitra Academy, resigned after Bengali
actor Sreelekha Mitra accused him of inappropriate behavior during the production of the 2009 film Paleri
Manikyam. He faces a non-bailable case under Section 354 of the Indian Penal Code (assault or criminal force to
a woman with intent to outrage her modesty).

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Accusations Against Prominent Figures:
Several big names in the Malayalam film industry, including CPI(M) MLA and actor M. Mukesh, actor and
producer Maniyanpilla Raju, and actor Jayasurya, were accused of physical and verbal abuse by actress Minu
Muneer.
Actor Dileep continues to face legal proceedings after being implicated in the abduction and sexual assault of a
prominent female actor in 2017. The case, which shook the industry, led to the formation of the Women in Cinema
Collective (WCC).
Special Investigation Team (SIT):
A Special Investigation Team (SIT), led by senior women police officers, has been constituted to conduct a
preliminary inquiry into the sexual harassment allegations.
This is expected to lead to more legal action against individuals accused of abuse, based on the Hema Committee’s
findings.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Which of the following individuals was not a member of (c) Women's Rights Advocacy Committee
the Hema committee that investigated the Malayalam (d) Workplace Conduct Review Committee
film industry?
(a) Sharada (b) K B Valsala Kumari 4. Which section of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, formerly
(c) Anjali Menon (d) K Hema the Indian Penal Code, deals specifically with assault or
criminal force to a woman with intent to outrage her
2. In which year was the POSH (Prevention of Sexual modesty?
Harassment) Act, aimed at addressing sexual (a) Section 352 (b) Section 354
harassment faced by women in the workplace, enacted (c) Section 356 (d) Section 358
by the Government of India?
(a) 2010 (b) 2011 (c) 2012 (d) 2013 5. Which act is specifically aimed at preventing trafficking
for commercial sexual exploitation?
3. Which committee is mandated to be established under (a) Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act, 1956 (ITPA)
the Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (b) Protection of Children from Sexual Offenses Act
(Prevention, Prohibition, and Redressal) Act to address (c) Human Trafficking and Protection Act
issues of sexual harassment? (d) Commercial Sexual Exploitation Prevention Act
(a) Equal Employment Opportunity Committee
(b) Internal Complaints Committee (ICC)

ANSWER KEYS & EXPLANATIONS

1. Correct Answer: (c) Anjali Menon protection against sexual harassment and ensuring that
Explanation: The Hema committee included retired their rights are safeguarded in the workplace.
Kerala High Court judge Justice K Hema, with members
including veteran actor Sharada and retired IAS officer K 3. Correct Answer: (b) Internal Complaints Committee (ICC)
B Valsala Kumari. Explanation: The Internal Complaints Committee (ICC) is
mandated under the Sexual Harassment of Women at
2. Correct Answer: (d) 2013 Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition, and Redressal) Act.
Explanation: The POSH Act, or the Prevention of Sexual This committee is a crucial component of the act, serving
Harassment Act, was enacted in 2013 by the Government as the primary body for addressing and resolving
of India. This legislation was designed to create a safe and incidents of sexual harassment at the workplace, thus
conducive work environment for women, offering them ensuring a safe and supportive environment for women
employees.

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4 Correct Answer: (b) Section 354
Explanation: Section 354 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, previously known as the Indian Penal Code, addresses the
issue of assault or the use of criminal force against a
woman with the intent to outrage her modesty. This section is crucial in the legal framework for protecting women
from physical acts that threaten or violate their modesty and dignity.

5. Correct Answer: (a) Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act, 1956 (ITPA)

Explanation: The Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act, 1956 (ITPA) is specifically designed to prevent trafficking for the
purpose of commercial sexual exploitation. This act provides a legal framework to combat and penalize trafficking
activities, focusing on protecting individuals from being exploited in commercial sex trade.

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NALSA’s third National Lok Adalat
News Highlights:
The third National Lok Adalat of 2024, organised by the National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) on September
14th, marked a significant milestone in reducing court case backlogs by settling over one crore cases across various
jurisdictions.
The Adalats were organised by legal services authorities nationwide, under the aegis of the National Legal Services
Authority (NALSA) and the stewardship of Justice Sanjiv Khanna, Judge, Supreme Court of India and
Executive Chairman, NALSA.

Event Overview:

Cases Reviewed and Disposed

Total Cases Solved Types of Cases Financial Impact

The Lok Adalat achieved a Resolutions covered a wide range The settlements reached an
resolution of 1,14,56,529 cases, of disputes including criminal approximate value of ₹8,482.08
with 94,60,864 pre-litigation compoundable offences, traffic crore, highlighting the economic
and 19,95,665 pending court challans, bank recoveries, motor implications of the resolutions.
cases being settled. accident claims, labour disputes,
and matrimonial disputes..

Operational Details
Geographical Coverage: Participation and Trust

The event was held across 27 There was massive participation

states and Union Territories, from the public, reflecting strong
covering a diverse array of legal trust and reliance on the efficiency
jurisdictions and court levels, from of Lok Adalats to provide swift and
taluks to high courts. fair justice.

Key Facts about Lok Adalat

Statutory Basis: Lok Adalats have a statutory basis under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, which provides
the necessary legal framework for their functioning and empowers them to settle disputes with the same efficacy as
a court decree.
Types of Cases Handled: They handle a variety of case types, including matrimonial disputes, labour disputes,
compensation matters, criminal compoundable cases, and more. However, non-compoundable criminal cases, which
are serious and non-negotiable in nature, are not dealt with by Lok Adalats.

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 Statutory Basis: Lok Adalats have a statutory basis under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, which provides
the necessary legal framework for their functioning and empowers them to settle disputes with the same efficacy as
a court decree.
Types of Cases Handled: They handle a variety of case types, including matrimonial disputes, labour disputes,
compensation matters, criminal compoundable cases, and more. However, non-compoundable criminal cases, which
are serious and non-negotiable in nature, are not dealt with by Lok Adalats.
Voluntary Participation: Participation in Lok Adalat sessions is voluntary for the parties involved, and either party
can opt out before the resolution is awarded.
No Court Fees: No court fees are charged if a matter is filed in a Lok Adalat, and if a matter pending in a court is
referred to a Lok Adalat, the court fee originally paid is refunded if the dispute is settled.
Binding Decisions: Decisions rendered by a Lok Adalat are binding on the parties and are considered final and
enforceable. The awards are made with the consent of all parties and can be executed through legal procedures if
necessary.
Jurisdiction and Composition: Lok Adalats have the competence to deal with a number of civil and criminal
matters. Typically, a Lok Adalat panel consists of a judicial officer (as the chairperson), along with lawyers and social
workers.
Benefits: The key benefits include speedy resolution of disputes, minimal costs, and reduction of the burden on the
court system by resolving disputes at a preliminary stage.
Frequency and Organization: They are held periodically, at various levels from the taluk level up to the national
level, organised by various committees of the National Legal Services Authority (NALSA).
First Ever Lok Adalat: The first ever Lok Adalat was held in Gujarat in 1982. This event was pivotal as it laid the
groundwork for the institutionalisation of Lok Adalats across India.
Amendment of 2002: This amendment was particularly noteworthy as it introduced the concept of Permanent Lok
Adalats for public utility services, which are now an essential part of the dispute resolution mechanism within this
sector.
Committees on Lok Adalat
Justice P.N. Bhagwati, a former Chief Justice of India, was instrumental in the development of the Lok Adalat system in India:
Justice Bhagwati introduced the Legal Aid scheme in 1971 through the Legal Aid Committee.
Bhagwati Report: The report produced by the committee appointed by the Government of India in 1976 to study
the implementation of legal aid was influential in articulating an ideological framework for legal aid.
Lok Adalat: Justice Bhagwati proposed and implemented the modern ideology of Lok Adalat, a non-adversarial
system of dispute resolution. The first Lok Adalat was held in 1982 in Gujarat.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Who presided over the 3rd National Lok Adalat of the (a) Civil Procedure Code
year 2024, organized by the National Legal Services (b) Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987
Authority (NALSA)? (c) Indian Judicial Act
(a) Justice Sanjiv Khanna (b) Justice Rohinton Nariman (d) Arbitration and Conciliation Act
(c) Justice U.U. Lalit (d) Justice Indu Malhotra
2. 4. What is the full form of NALSA, the authority established
In how many States and Union Territories was the 3rd to provide free legal services to the weaker sections of
National Lok Adalat of 2024 organized? society?
(a) 15 (b) 21 (c) 27 (d) 29 (a) National Arbitration and Legal Services Authority
(b) National Association for Legal Services and Aid
3. Under which act are Lok Adalats given statutory status, (c) National Legal Services Authority
making their awards final and binding like a decree of a (d) National Alliance for Law and Social Aid
civil court, with no appeal permissible?

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5. When and where was the first Lok Adalat camp held in independent India, marking the beginning of its widespread
adoption?
(a) 1975, Maharashtra (b) 1982, Gujarat
(c) 1989, Delhi (d) 1990, Karnataka

ANSWER KEYS & EXPLANATIONS

1. Correct Answer: (a) Justice Sanjiv Khanna According to this act, the award (decision) issued by Lok
Explanation: Justice Sanjiv Khanna, a Judge of the Adalats is treated as a decree of a civil court. It is final and
Supreme Court of India and the Executive Chairman of binding on all parties involved, and notably, no appeal
NALSA, presided over the 3rd National Lok Adalat of the against such an award is permissible in any court of law.
year 2024. His leadership played a key role in
coordinating the Lok Adalats across various levels, 4. Correct Answer: (c) National Legal Services Authority
including Taluks, Districts, and High Courts in States and Explanation: The full form of NALSA is the National Legal
Union Territories. Services Authority. NALSA was constituted under the
Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, which came into
2. Correct Answer: (c) 27 force on 9th November 1995. It was established to create
Explanation: The 3rd National Lok Adalat of 2024 was a uniform nationwide network to provide free and
organized across 27 States and Union Territories. This competent legal services to the weaker sections of society,
event underscores the broad scope and impact of the ensuring access to justice for all.
National Legal Services Authority's efforts to facilitate
accessible legal services and resolve disputes through the 5. Correct Answer: (b) 1982, Gujarat
Lok Adalat system nationwide. Explanation: The first Lok Adalat camp in independent
India was held in Gujarat in 1982. Its success in effectively
3. Correct Answer: (b) Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 settling disputes quickly and amicably led to the
Explanation: Lok Adalats have been granted statutory widespread adoption of Lok Adalats across the nation.
status under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987.

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Formation of 5 New Districts in Ladakh
News Highlights:
Union Home Minister Amit Shah announced the creation of
five new districts in Ladakh. This decision aims to enhance
governance and bring administration closer to the people of
this strategically important Union Territory (UT).
“Ladakh is a very large Union Territory in terms of area.
At present, Ladakh has two districts; Leh and Kargil.
It is one of the least populated areas of India
The new districts added are namely Zanskar, Drass,
Sham, Nubra, and Changthang, in addition of the
existing Leh and Kargil.
Background:
Article 370 Removal: Following the abrogation of Article 370
on August 5, 2019, Ladakh became a Union Territory and
came under the direct administration of the Union Home
Ministry. The removal of Article 370 facilitated Ladakh's direct
development initiatives under central government
supervision.

Next Step in Official Formation of the Districts:

Committee Formation: The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) has tasked the Ladakh administration with forming a
committee to evaluate various logistical and structural aspects related to the formation of the five new districts.
This includes deciding on district boundaries, headquarters, the creation of posts, and other related administrative
requirements.
Report Submission: The committee is required to submit its detailed report within three months. Based on this
report, the final proposal for the creation of new districts will be sent to the Union Home Ministry for approval and
implementation.
How are New Districts formed:
Authority: The power to create or reorganise districts lies with the respective state or Union Territory (UT)
government. This is under the purview of the State Reorganisation Act or Union Territory laws. The central
government plays a minimal role, except in Union Territories like Ladakh, where direct central intervention can
occur.
Constitutional Provisions: The Constitution of India does not explicitly mention the creation of districts, but
administrative reorganisation is generally done under Article 3 (which concerns the formation of new states or
UTs) and the State Reorganisation Act.
Factors considered:
Population: Ensuring the new district has a manageable population for efficient administration.
Geographical Spread: Large, remote, or inaccessible areas are prime candidates for district reorganisation.
Administrative Efficacy: The ability to deliver government schemes and services efficiently to citizens.
Economic and Infrastructure Factors: Assessing the district's potential for development and available
infrastructure.
Boundary Delimitation and Administrative Setup: The committee provides recommendations on the
headquarters of the new district, its boundaries, and the administrative structure, including the creation of new
posts (such as District Magistrates, District Collectors, and police chiefs).
Public Notification: Once approved, the government issues an official gazette notification, announcing the
creation of the new district, along with its headquarters and jurisdictional details.

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Prime Minister's Development Package (PMDP) for Ladakh:
Ladakh is part of the Prime Minister’s Development Package (PMDP), announced after the bifurcation of Jammu and
Kashmir into two UTs. The PMDP includes 63 projects with an overall budget of ₹80,068 crore for the development of
the erstwhile Jammu and Kashmir. Out of these, 9 projects costing ₹21,441 crores are specifically for Ladakh.
Projects in Ladakh: As of now, two out of these nine projects have been completed, and six more are underway.
The focus of these projects is on infrastructure, connectivity, and socio-economic development of the region.
Budget Allocations: From 2020 to 2024, budget allocations for Ladakh have been significantly increased, averaging
₹5,958 crore annually, indicating a serious effort by the central government to ensure rapid development.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. How many new districts were granted "in-principle 4. What is the approximate average elevation of Ladakh,
approval" for formation in Ladakh by the Ministry of making it the highest plateau in India?
Home Affairs? (a) 2,000 m (6,500 ft)
(a) Three (b) Four (c) Five (d) Six (b) 3,000 m (9,800 ft)
(c) 4,500 m (14,800 ft)
2. Which of the following is not one of the five newly (d) 1,500 m (4,900 ft)
approved districts of Ladakh?
(a) Zanskar (b) Drass (c) Leh (d) Nubra 5. What is the capital city of Ladakh as of 2024?
(a) Kargil
3. In which year did Ladakh become a Union Territory (b) Drass
under the Union Home Ministry's direct administration? (c) Leh
(a) 2017 (b) 2018 (c) 2019 (d) 2020 (d) Changthang

ANSWER KEYS & EXPLANATIONS

1. Correct Answer: (c) Five Union Home Ministry, separating it from the erstwhile
Explanation: The Ministry of Home Affairs granted "in- state of Jammu and Kashmir.
principle approval" for the formation of five new districts
in Ladakh. This will increase the total number of districts 4. Correct Answer: (b) 3,000 m (9,800 ft)
in the Union Territory to seven, reflecting efforts to Explanation: Ladakh is the highest plateau in India, with
improve administrative efficiency and governance in the most of its land situated at an elevation of over 3,000
region. meters (9,800 feet) above sea level. This unique
geographical feature contributes to its distinctive terrain
2. Correct Answer: (c) Leh and climate.
Explanation: Leh is already a district in Ladakh and is not
one of the five newly approved districts. The new districts 5. Correct Answer: (c) Leh
are Zanskar, Drass, Sham, Nubra, and Changthang, which Explanation: Leh is the capital city of Ladakh as of 2024
were granted "in-principle approval" by the Ministry of and is also the largest town in the region. Ladakh is
Home Affairs to enhance administrative efficiency in the known for its famous river valleys, including the Indus,
Union Territory. Nubra, and Shyok, which enhance its geographical
significance.
3. Correct Answer: (c) 2019
Explanation: Ladakh became a Union Territory in 2019
after the removal of Article 370. This significant change
brought Ladakh under the direct administration of the

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 Economy & Governance
RBI’s Five Strategic Priorities for India's Financial Future
News Highlights:
At the Global Fintech Festival (GFF) 2024 in Mumbai, at Jio World
Convention Centre, RBI Governor Shaktikanta Das outlined a five-point
agenda for shaping India’s financial future.
His speech emphasised the significant strides India has made thanks to a
vibrant fintech ecosystem and a tech-savvy population.
He discussed critical areas including financial inclusion, digital public
infrastructure, cybersecurity, sustainable finance, and reinforcing
financial infrastructure, aiming to position India as a global leader in
fintech.

Das's 5-Point Agenda at GFF 2024

1. Financial Inclusion
Objective: Increase financial services accessibility across India.
Progress: RBI’s Financial Inclusion Index rose from 53.9 in March 2021
RBI Governor Shaktikanta Das giving a
to 64.2 in March 2024. speech at GFF 2024 in Mumbai, at Jio
Key Initiative: Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana has led to over 530 World Convention Centre
million bank accounts, with significant inclusion in rural and semi-urban
areas, and for women.
Technology Focus: Emphasis on
using technology to expand
financial services to underserved
Das's 5-Point Agenda
regions, with fintech companies
playing a crucial role.
Reinforcing
2. Enhancing Digital
Public Infrastructure 01 Financial 05 Financial
Infrastructure
Inclusion
Development:
Integration of advanced
technologies into India’s
financial systems.
Projects:
Promoting
Implementation of the
Unique Lending
Interface (ULI), along
04 Long-Term
Sustainable
with the existing JAM Finance
(Jan Dhan-Aadhaar-
Mobile) trinity and UPI.
Impact: Aimed at Enhancing
revolutionising financial
services, enhancing 02 Digital Public
Infrastructure 03 Strengthening
Cybersecurity
inclusion, and efficiency. (DPI)

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3. Strengthening Cybersecurity
Legislation: Implementation of the Digital Personal Data Protection Act to bolster data security.
Security Measures: Focus on real-time monitoring, regulatory compliance, and promoting cybersecurity
awareness.
Sector Expectation: Banks and fintech firms, particularly NBFCs, are encouraged to maintain transparency and
fairness in financial practices.
4. Promoting Long-Term Sustainable Finance
Initiatives: Introduction of sovereign green bonds and green deposits to promote environmental sustainability
within the financial sector.
Technology Application: Utilisation of AI and big data to assess environmental risks and enhance sustainable
finance practices.
5. Reinforcing Financial Infrastructure
Global Integration Efforts: The RBI is focusing on enhancing cross-border payment systems and making UPI and
RuPay recognized globally.
Technological Adoption: There’s a cautious approach towards adopting artificial intelligence, with a focus on
innovation to bolster the financial infrastructure.

What is the Global Fintech Festival (GFF)?

Event Description: The Global Fintech

Festival is a major annual event that
gathers industry leaders, policymakers, and
innovators from around the world to
discuss and explore the future of financial
technology.
Organisers: The festival is organised by the
Payments Council of India and the National
Payments Corporation of India, entities that
play pivotal roles in shaping India's digital
payment systems.
Purpose: The event aims to showcase the latest trends, innovations, and
advancements in fintech. It also serves as a platform for discussing regulatory
frameworks, challenges, and opportunities within the global financial ecosystem.
Location: Mumbai, India
Significance: As one of the largest fintech conferences globally, GFF 2024
emphasises India's commitment to becoming a leader in the fintech industry. It
provides a unique opportunity for networking, collaboration, and learning from key
stakeholders across the global financial landscape.
About Fifth Edition:
Theme- "Blueprint for the Next Decade of Finance: Responsible AI | Inclusive |
Resilient,"
The event will feature over 800 speakers and more than 300 sessions
including keynotes, panel discussions, and fireside chats.

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 PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Which of the following organizations is not a co- (a) New Delhi
organizer of the Global Fintech Festival (GFF) 2024? (b) Mumbai
(a) Payments Council of India (PCI) (c) Bangalore
(b) National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) (d) Hyderabad
(c) Fintech Convergence Council (FCC)
(d) International Finance Corporation (IFC) 4. When was the digital payment solution e-RUPI, which
facilitates one-time payments via QR code or SMS string,
2. What is the theme of the fifth edition of the Global launched?
Fintech Festival (GFF) 2024? (a) August 2019
(a) Advancing Financial Markets: Technology and (b) August 2020
Sustainability (c) August 2021
(b) Navigating Future Financial Trends: Digital (d) August 2022
Innovations
(c) Blueprint for the Next Decade of Finance: 5. Which of the following is not one of the countries where
Responsible AI | Inclusive | Resilient QR-based UPI payments have been enabled by NPCI
(d) Enhancing Financial Services: Integration and International Payments (NIPL) in partnership with
Efficiency Liquid Group?
(a) India
3. Where was the Global Fintech Festival (GFF) 2024, (b) Malaysia
during which RBI Governor Shaktikanta Das outlined (c) Vietnam
five strategic priorities for India’s financial future, held? (d) Japan

ANSWER KEYS & EXPLANATIONS

1. Correct Answer: (d) International Finance Corporation Governor Shaktikanta Das presented five strategic priorities
(IFC) aimed at enhancing India’s role as a leading global economy.
Explanation: The Global Fintech Festival (GFF) 2024 is
organized annually by the Payments Council of India 4. Correct Answer: (c) August 2021
(PCI), the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI), Explanation: e-RUPI was launched in August 2021 as a
and the Fintech Convergence Council (FCC). digital payment solution designed to streamline
transactions by allowing one-time payments through a QR
2. Correct Answer: (c) Blueprint for the Next Decade of code or SMS string, enhancing the convenience and security
Finance: Responsible AI | Inclusive | Resilient of digital transactions.
Explanation: The theme of the fifth edition of the Global
Fintech Festival (GFF) 2024 is "Blueprint for the Next 5. Correct Answer: (a) India
Decade of Finance: Responsible AI | Inclusive | Resilient." Explanation: NPCI International Payments (NIPL) partnered
This theme is focused on preparing a strategic approach with Liquid Group to enable QR-based UPI payments in 10
for the financial industry, highlighting key areas such as countries (Malaysia, Thailand, Philippines, Vietnam,
the responsible use of AI, inclusivity, and resilience to Singapore, Cambodia, South Korea, Japan, Taiwan, and Hong
ensure sustainable and comprehensive growth in the Kong).
sector.

3. Correct Answer: (b) Mumbai

Explanation: The Global Fintech Festival (GFF) 2024 was
held in Mumbai, where Reserve Bank of India (RBI)

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Overhauling of Income Tax Act
News Highlights:
The Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) has formed an internal committee to review the Income Tax Act of 1961
to identify and eliminate outdated or redundant clauses. This initiative is part of the government’s comprehensive
review to simplify tax laws for better compliance, reduce litigation, and make them more in line with global
practices.
CBDT chairman Ravi Agrawal stated that the committee will focus on adopting global best practices and removing
clauses that have reached their "sunset" phase.
The committee is expected to complete its review within six months, as per the timeline announced by Finance
Minister Nirmala Sitharaman in the 2024-25 Union Budget.

Key Aspects of the Income Tax Act Review: Simplification and Modernization

Objective:
1 The primary goal is to make the Income Tax Act more concise, lucid, and easier to comprehend, thereby
minimising disputes and ensuring tax certainty for taxpayers.

Methodology:
2 The review involves eliminating outdated and redundant sections, with a panel led by V.K. Gupta focused on
modernising tax computation methods and simplifying the appeals system.

Expected Completion:
3 The comprehensive review is scheduled to be completed within a six-month timeframe, as stated in the
2024-25 Union Budget announcement by Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman.

Historical Context:
Income Tax Act, 1961: The Act was originally framed in 1922 and underwent significant changes in 1961. However,
over the years, many of its provisions have become outdated.
Efforts at Simplification: Previous efforts to simplify the tax law include the 1958 Law Commission of India report,
which sought to modernize the Income Tax Act of 1922. This current review follows a similar path toward
modernization.
Reforms in Corporate Tax: In recent years, corporate tax rates have been reduced, incentives have been phased out,
and the effective tax rate for corporations fell from 29.49% in 2017-18 to 23.26% in 2021-22.
Income Tax Act, 1961:
The Act was originally framed in 1922 and underwent significant changes in 1961. However, over the years, many of
its provisions have become outdated.
Efforts at Simplification: Previous efforts to simplify the tax law include the 1958 Law Commission of India report,
which sought to modernize the Income Tax Act of 1922. This current review follows a similar path toward
modernization.
Reforms in Corporate Tax: In recent years, corporate tax rates have been reduced, incentives have been phased out,
and the effective tax rate for corporations fell from 29.49% in 2017-18 to 23.26% in 2021-22.
Importance of Reviewing the Income Tax Act:
Complexity of Existing Law: The Income Tax Act, 1961, contains over 298 sections and 23 chapters, making it
complex for taxpayers to navigate. Simplification will reduce the burden and enhance compliance.
Global Alignment: The review seeks to align India’s tax laws with global standards, including addressing issues like
tax avoidance and applying global practices like those recommended by the OECD’s BEPS project.

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 Expected Benefits from the Overhaul of the Income Tax Act, 1961

1 2 3

For Taxpayers For Economy

Ease of Compliance: Stimulation of
By simplifying the Economic Growth: A
language and transparent and efficient
structure of the Act, For Government tax system reduces the
taxpayers can Efficient Tax Collection: cost of compliance and
understand and Streamlined laws and procedures disputes for businesses,
comply with their tax are anticipated to improve the potentially leading to
obligations more easily efficiency of tax collection, greater economic
without extensive legal minimising leakages and activity and growth.
or professional help. enhancing revenue for the Alignment with Global
Reduced Litigation: government. Standards: Ensuring
Clarity in tax laws is Boost in International that India's tax laws are
expected to lead to Confidence: A modernised tax in line with international
fewer disputes and system can improve India's best practices helps in
litigations, thus attractiveness as an investment maintaining the
providing greater tax destination, potentially leading to competitiveness of the
certainty to taxpayers. increased foreign direct Indian economy globally.
investment.

Impact of Tax Reforms on Revenue and Economic Growth:

Direct Tax to GDP Ratio: Corporate Tax Revenue: Personal Income Tax
Despite lower tax rates, the Effective corporate tax rates Growth:
direct tax to GDP ratio has have reduced, leading to more Simplified slabs and better
increased, indicating stronger competitive tax regimes and compliance have increased
compliance and revenue increased revenue from lower the taxpayer base and
collection. rates. revenue.

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Objectives of the New Direct Tax Law:
Reducing Complexities:
The existing law has many sub-sections and clauses that make it difficult for both taxpayers and officials to
navigate.
Simplification will help reduce litigation and enhance compliance.
Streamlining Personal and Corporate Tax:
Personal income tax slabs have already been simplified, with a reduction in the number of slabs. The number of
taxpayers has increased significantly, from 89.8 million in 2019-20 to 93.7 million in 2022-23.
Corporate tax reforms have also seen reductions, with foreign corporate tax rates falling to 35%, and the
abolition of the angel tax.
Global Tax Avoidance and Erosion:
The new tax code will incorporate global standards to combat tax avoidance,
especially within the digital economy.
India’s alignment with global initiatives like the OECD's BEPS (Base Erosion
and Profit Shifting) will be part of the review process.
Sunset Clauses:
Clauses that have outlived their relevance (i.e., sunset clauses) will be 165 Years of Income
eliminated as part of the review process, further streamlining the law. Tax in India
Vivad Se Vishwas Scheme:
The government introduced the Vivad Se Vishwas scheme to resolve tax The review committee’s
disputes. This scheme, along with higher monetary thresholds for disputes, announcement coincided
aims to reduce confrontations between taxpayers and the Income Tax with a celebration marking
Department. 165 years of income tax in
Language of Communication: India, highlighting the
A significant focus will be on using simpler language in tax notices and law's long history and the
communications to make them easier for taxpayers to understand, thereby need for modernization.
encouraging compliance.

Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT)

The Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) is a government body
responsible for administering India's direct tax laws.
Established in 1963, CBDT has played a key role in reforming the
Indian taxation system.
Notable reforms include:
Introduction of the presumptive income scheme.
Rationalization of tax rates under the Income Tax Act.
Recent involvement in the implementation of the GST regime.
CBDT oversees the collection and management of taxes on capital Ravi Agrawal
gains and dividends. CBDT Chairman
Organisational Structure Authority: As a part of the Department of Revenue under the Ministry of Finance, CBDT is
the highest tax administrative body in India responsible for the formulation and administration of direct tax laws.
Leadership: Headed by Chairman Ravi Agrawal, with a team of members responsible for specific areas like
legislation, administration, revenue, audit, and IT. Key Responsibilities Policy Formulation: CBDT formulates policies
for the administration of direct taxes in India, aiming to increase tax compliance and optimise revenue collections.
Administrative Functions: Overseeing the Income Tax Department, which conducts assessments, collections,
and enforcement of direct tax laws.
International Taxation: Handling bilateral tax treaties and matters related to international taxation to prevent
tax evasion and double taxation.

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 Interesting Facts on Income Tax and the Income Tax Act

First Income Tax in India: World's First Income Tax:

1 The first income tax was The first known income tax 4
introduced in India in was levied in 1799 by
1860 by James Wilson, a William Pitt the Younger
British economist and in Britain to fund the war
politician, to recover from against Napoleon.

.5%
the financial losses after
the 1857 Revolt.

97
5
Income Tax Act, 1961:
3 The Income Tax Act of 1961 is the Highest Income Tax Rate:
primary legislation that governs the Prime Minister and Congress
taxation of incomes in India. It was leader Indira Gandhi saw
taxation as "a major
2 1961 introduced with 298 sections
instrument to achieve greater
Income Tax Act, 1922: and 23 chapters, detailing various
The Income Tax Act of rules, exemptions, and procedures equality of incomes and
1922 was the first law related to income tax collection. wealth". Her government in
that governed income 1973-74 raised income tax
tax in independent rates to 97.5%, but soon had
India. It served as the Corporate Tax Rates: to withdraw the policy..
backbone for taxation India has been reducing corporate 9
until the Income Tax Act tax rates over time. The effective tax rate
for domestic companies dropped from Income Tax Day:
of 1961 replaced it.
29.49% in 2017-18 to 25% in 2024-25 to Income Tax Day is
encourage business growth and celebrated in India on
8 July 24th every year
investment.
First Income Tax Slab: to commemorate the
establishment of the
In the Income Tax Act of 10 Income Tax Exemptions: 6
1961, the first tax slab for Under the EEE (Exempt-Exempt- income tax system in
individuals was 10% for Exempt) regime, certain investments India in 1860.
incomes above ₹15,001 such as the Public Provident Fund
and up to ₹30,000. (PPF) and Employees' Provident
Fund (EPF) are exempt at all three
stages: contribution, accumulation,
and withdrawal.
Section 80C
11 of the Income Tax Act: 12 7
Section 80C is the most commonly Largest Taxpayer: Number of Taxpayers:
used section by taxpayers to claim Reliance Industries is often As of 2023, India has 93.7
deductions on various investments, regarded as one of India’s million income taxpayers,
such as Life Insurance Premiums, largest corporate taxpayers, a significant increase from
Public Provident Fund, and contributing significant 89.8 million in 2019-2020
National Savings Certificates, with amounts to the exchequer due to tax reforms and
an upper limit of ₹1.5 lakh/year. annually. simplified tax regimes.

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 13 Tax Evasion and 14
Prosecution:
The longest sentence for Black Money and Income Disclosure:
tax evasion under Indian India’s Income Declaration Scheme (IDS)
law is seven years of of 2016 allowed individuals to disclose
imprisonment, as per the undeclared income (black money) by paying
Income Tax Act, 1961. tax on it, which resulted in the declaration of
₹65,250 crores worth of undisclosed wealth.

Filing Income Tax

E-Filing of Income Tax:
Returns:
India introduced the e-
Filing of Income Tax
15 filing of income tax
16 Returns (ITR) became
returns in 2006,
Direct Tax to GDP Ratio: compulsory for
revolutionizing the way
India’s Direct Tax to GDP individuals earning
taxpayers interacted
ratio has been consistently more than ₹2.5 lakh
with the Income Tax
increasing, showing a annually in India.
Department.
healthy compliance level, despite reduced
tax rates. It is a critical indicator of the 17
country’s economic strength.

Key Judgments Relating to the Income Tax Act

Vodafone International Holdings B.V. vs. Union of India (2012):

The Supreme Court ruled that Vodafone's acquisition of Hutchison's stakes was not liable
to tax in India, leading to the introduction of an amendment related to indirect transfers.
CIT vs. Calcutta Export Company (2018):
The Supreme Court held that a rebate under sections 90/90A of the Income Tax Act
cannot be disallowed due to the non-furnishing of a Tax Residency Certificate.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. How many sections are contained in the Income Tax Act 3. Which scheme aims to settle direct tax disputes by
of 1961, which serves as the foundational statute for providing taxpayers with an opportunity to resolve
income taxation in India? pending appeals and avoid prolonged litigation?
(a) 305 (b) 298 (a) Aay Samaadhaan Yojana
(c) 275 (d) 250 (b) Bharat Settle Tax Initiative
(c) Pratyaksh kar Sauhaardapoorn Samaadhaan
2. In which year was the Central Board of Direct Taxes (d) Vivad Se Vishwas Scheme
(CBDT) established?
(a) 1924 (b) 1937 4. Within which department of the Ministry of Finance does
(c) 1963 (d) 1971 the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) operate?

3.
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 (a) Department of Economic Affairs 5. How many members, each holding the rank of ex-officio
(b) Department of Financial Services Special Secretary to the Government of India, comprise
(c) Department of Revenue the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT)?
(d) Department of Expenditure (a) Four (b) Five
(c) Six (d) Seven

ANSWER KEYS & EXPLANATIONS

1. Correct Answer: (b) 298 4. Correct Answer: (c) Department of Revenue
Explanation: The Income Tax Act of 1961, which outlines Explanation: The Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT)
the framework for levying, administering, and collecting functions within the Department of Revenue, which is a
income tax from individuals and corporations in India, part of the Ministry of Finance. This structural placement
consists of 298 sections. This comprehensive structure underscores the CBDT's crucial role in the administration
includes all necessary provisions to address various and management of direct taxes in India, ensuring that tax
aspects of taxation within the country. policies and regulations are effectively implemented.

2. Correct Answer: (c) 1963 5. Correct Answer: (c) Six

Explanation: The CBDT was established in 1963 and it Explanation: The Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT)
has been responsible for several important reforms in the includes six members, each of whom holds the rank of ex-
Indian taxation system. Some of these include the officio Special Secretary to the Government of India. These
introduction of the presumptive income scheme, the members work alongside the Chairman to coordinate the
rationalization of rates under the Income Tax Act, and various functions of the Board, playing a vital role in the
more recently, the GST regime. administration and management of direct taxes in India.

3. Correct Answer: (d) Vivad Se Vishwas Scheme

Explanation: The Vivad Se Vishwas Scheme is specifically
designed to settle direct tax disputes, offering taxpayers a
chance to resolve pending appeals and thus avoid
prolonged litigation. This initiative serves as a crucial
mechanism for simplifying and expediting tax dispute
resolution.

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RBI Governor Shaktikanta Das for receiving 'A+' global rating
News Highlights:
In the Global Finance Central Banker Report Cards 2024, Shaktikanta Das, Governor of the Reserve Bank of
India (RBI), was rated A+ for the second consecutive year, placing him among the top three central bankers globally.
Das shares the A+ rating only with two other heads of central banks: Christian Kettel Thomsen of Denmark and
Thomas Jordan of Switzerland, highlighting the effectiveness of India’s monetary policy amidst global financial
challenges.
This recognition underscores the RBI’s robust management of economic recovery post-pandemic and during global
uncertainties like inflation control and currency stability. It enhances India’s standing in global economic governance
by placing it in the elite group of nations with highly effective central bank leadership.

Governor: Reserve Bank of India

Shaktikanta Das assumed office as the 25th Governor of the Reserve
Bank of India on December 12, 2018. His term was extended in 2021
for an additional three years, running until December 2024.
Das is a retired Indian Administrative Service (IAS) officer from the
1980 batch.
He served under Finance Minister Arun Jaitley, where he played a
significant role in major financial reforms like the Goods and Services
Tax (GST) implementation.

Key Contributions:
Economic Recovery: Das spearheaded RBI’s response to major economic
challenges, particularly during the COVID-19 pandemic, by implementing
Shaktikanta Das monetary policies aimed at inflation control, financial stability, and
mitigating the impacts of global economic uncertainties.
Global Finance Magazine:
Founded: The magazine was established in 1987 and is headquartered in New York.
Readership: Global Finance has a circulation of 50,050 and reaches readers in 163 countries. It primarily caters to
corporate leaders, bankers, and investors, helping them navigate global business and finance trends.
Central Banker Report Cards:
The Central Banker Report Cards,
published since 1994, evaluate central
bank governors from nearly 100
Reserve Bank of India
countries, including regional central
banks like the European Union and Established: April 1, 1935
Central Bank of West African States. Statutory Background: Reserve Bank of India Act,
1934
Grading System: Central bankers are
Nationalized on: January 1, 1949
graded on a scale from "A+" to "F" based Headquarters: Mumbai, Maharashtra
on their success in managing inflation, Incumbent Governor: Shaktikanta Das
economic growth, currency stability, and Functions: Regulates the issuance of banknotes.
interest rates. Maintains reserves to ensure monetary stability.
The report highlights leaders whose Operates and oversees the currency and credit
strategies demonstrate originality, system.
Formulates and executes India's monetary policy.
creativity, and tenacity in managing Controls the supply and cost of credit.
their respective economies.

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 PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. When was the Reserve Bank of India established? 4. Which of the following central bankers received an "A+"
(a) April 1, 1930 (b) April 1, 1932 rating in the Global Finance Central Banker Report Cards
(c) April 1, 1933 (d) April 1, 1935 alongside Shaktikanta Das?
(a) Christian Kettel Thomsen
2. How many full-time Deputy Governors can the Reserve (b) Adrian Orr
Bank of India have, in addition to the Governor, (c) Christine Lagarde
according to its central board of directors? (d) Michele Bullock
(a) Two (b) Three
(c) Four (d) Five 5. What is the range of grades given to central bank
governors in Global Finance's Central Banker Report
3. In which report did RBI Governor Shaktikanta Das Cards?
receive an ‘A+’ rating for the second consecutive time? (a) "A" to "D"
(a) World Economic Forum's Global Competitiveness (b) "A+" to "F"
Report (c) "B-" to "E"
(b) IMF's World Economic Outlook (d) "A+" to "E"
(c) Global Finance Central Banker Report Cards
(d) OECD Economic Surveys

ANSWER KEYS & EXPLANATIONS

1. Correct Answer: (d) April 1, 1935 Explanation: RBI Governor Shaktikanta Das received an
Explanation: The Reserve Bank of India was established ‘A+’ rating in the Global Finance Central Banker Report
on April 1, 1935, in accordance with the provisions of the Cards 2024. This marks his second consecutive
Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. This marked the formal achievement of this high honor, recognizing his effective
institution of the central banking authority in India, leadership and contributions to the banking sector.
responsible for regulating the issuance and supply of the
Indian rupee and managing the country's main payment 4. Correct Answer: (a) Christian Kettel Thomsen
systems. Explanation: Shaktikanta Das received an "A+" rating in
the Global Finance Central Banker Report Cards alongside
2. Correct Answer: (c) Four Christian Kettel Thomsen of Denmark and Thomas Jordan
Explanation: According to the structure of the central of Switzerland.
board of directors of the Reserve Bank of India, there can
be one Governor and not more than four Deputy 5. Correct Answer: (b) "A+" to "F"
Governors serving full-time. Explanation: In Global Finance's Central Banker Report
Cards, central bank governors are assessed and graded on
3. Correct Answer: (c) Global Finance Central Banker their performance, with grades ranging from "A+" to "F."
Report Cards

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National Bank for Financing Infrastructure and Development
News Highlights:
The Government of India has officially notified the National Bank for Financing Infrastructure and
Development (NaBFID) as a public financial institution under the Companies Act, 2013.
This step, effective from September 10, 2024, aims to fortify India’s infrastructure financing framework, allowing
NaBFID to better facilitate large-scale infrastructure projects.
The Companies Act of 2013 governs the formation, duties, directors, and dissolution of companies. It serves as a
partial replacement for the Companies Act of 1956.

NaBFID was set up in April 2021 by the National Bank for Financing
Infrastructure and Development Act, 2021, as the fifth All India
Financial Institution (AIFI) to support long-term, non-recourse
infrastructure financing in India.
The institution has both developmental and financial objectives,
focusing on closing the financing gap in the infrastructure sector by
providing innovative financial instruments.

Financial Structure:

Authorised Share Capital: ₹1 lakh crore.

Initial Capital Infusion: The Government of India (GOI) has infused ₹20,000 crore, along with a
grant of ₹5,000 crore.

Key Initiatives:

First Loan: NaBFID disbursed its first loan in December 2022, to a tunnel project in Jammu and
Kashmir, run by Quazigund Expressway Pvt Ltd
Total Sanctions: By 2024, NaBFID has sanctioned loans worth more than ₹86,804 crore across diverse
infrastructure sectors such as roads, renewable energy, ports, railways, and city gas distribution.
Long-Term Loans: Around 50% of the loans have been sanctioned for a tenure of 15-20 years.
Future Plans: NaBFID plans to sanction loans worth ₹3 lakh crore by March 2026.

Partnerships:

NaBFID collaborates with multilateral institutions for long-term credit lines, blended finance, and
technical assistance.
It has partnered with the International Finance Corporation (IFC) to offer Transaction Advisory
Services aimed at developing a pipeline of investment-ready Public-Private Partnership (PPP) projects
in India's infrastructure sector.

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 PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. In which year was the National Bank for Financing 4. Who is the current Managing Director and CEO of the
Infrastructure and Development (NaBFID) established? National Bank for Financing Infrastructure and
(a) 2019 (b) 2020 Development (NaBFID)?
(c) 2021 (d) 2022 (a) Rajkiran Rai
(b) Uday Kotak
2. As of its establishment, NaBFID ranks as which number (c) Chanda Kochhar
of All India Financial Institution (AIFI)? (d) Shikha Sharma
(a) Third (b) Fourth
(c) Fifth (d) Sixth 5. What is the authorized share capital of the National Bank
for Financing Infrastructure and Development (NaBFID)
3. Under which ministry does the National Bank for upon its establishment?
Financing Infrastructure and Development (NaBFID) (a) Fifty lakh crore rupees
operate? (b) Ten lakh crore rupees
(a) Ministry of Financial Services (c) One lakh crore rupees
(b) Ministry of Finance (d) Five lakh crore rupees
(c) Ministry of Financial Affairs
(d) Ministry of Economic and Financial Affairs

ANSWER KEYS & EXPLANATIONS

1. Correct Answer: (c) 2021 4. Correct Answer: (a) Rajkiran Rai
Explanation: NaBFID was established by the Government Explanation: Rajkiran Rai is the current Managing
of India in April 2021. It was set up to facilitate long-term Director and CEO of NaBFID, as indicated by reports
non-recourse infrastructure financing, marking it as a noting his commentary on the bank's financial
significant step in India's financial infrastructure performance.
development.
5. Correct Answer: (c) One lakh crore rupees
2. Correct Answer: (c) Fifth Explanation: NaBFID was set up with an authorized share
Explanation: NaBFID was designated as the nation's 5th capital of one lakh crore rupees. This substantial
All India Financial Institution (AIFI) upon its capitalization reflects its capacity to handle large-scale
establishment. This designation places it after other infrastructure financing projects.
established AIFIs in terms of chronological order.

3. Correct Answer: (b) Ministry of Finance

Explanation: The National Bank for Financing
Infrastructure and Development (NaBFID) falls under the
jurisdiction of the Ministry of Finance.

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RBI to Launch Unified Lending Interface
News Highlights:
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is preparing to launch the Unified Lending Interface (ULI) nationwide, following
a successful pilot project.
This platform is expected to revolutionise the lending landscape in India, similar to how the Unified Payments
Interface (UPI) transformed the country's retail payments ecosystem.

Need for Unified Lending Interface

The rapid progress in digital public infrastructure (DPI) in India has encouraged banks, NBFCs, fintech companies,
and startups to develop innovative solutions in payments, credit, and other financial services.
A key challenge in digital credit delivery has been the availability of critical data for credit appraisal, which exists
across multiple entities, including central and state governments, account aggregators, banks, credit
information companies, and digital identity authorities. This fragmentation has hindered frictionless and
timely delivery of rule-based lending.

What is ULI? Objectives: Time Reduction: ULI will

significantly reduce the time
ULI is a tech platform required for credit appraisal,
designed to facilitate a especially for rural and small
seamless, consent-based borrowers.
flow of digital information
from various sources, Efficiency: The platform aims
including state land records to enhance the efficiency of
and other data service lending processes by reducing
providers, to lenders. costs, enabling quicker
disbursement, and ensuring
scalability for lenders.

Pilot In 2022, the RBI launched a How It Works:

Project pilot project to digitise Example: A dairy farmer
Kisan Credit Card (KCC) applying for a loan can have
loans of less than ₹1.6 lakh, their cash flows verified
demonstrating early success through their milk
in paperless loan cooperative, their land
disbursement at the ownership verified from
borrower’s doorstep. state land records, and their
financial condition evaluated
Encouraged by these results, through farming patterns.
the RBI announced the The ULI will automate these
Public Tech Platform for processes, enabling faster
Frictionless Credit in 2023, decision-making and
which has now evolved into immediate loan
the Unified Lending Interface disbursement.
(ULI).

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 PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. By which organization was the Unified Lending 4. What key feature of the Unified Lending Interface (ULI)
Interface (ULI) launched as a pilot project? will simplify data access and reduce technical integration
(a) Securities and Exchange Board of India complexity?
(b) Reserve Bank of India (a) Standardised APIs
(c) Ministry of Finance (b) Blockchain technology
(d) State Bank of India (c) Advanced encryption
(d) Machine learning algorithms
2. In which year was the Unified Lending Interface (ULI)
initially launched as a pilot project? 5. Which electronic platform allows MSMEs to auction their
(a) 2021 (b) 2022 trade receivables at competitive rates?
(c) 2023 (d) 2024 (a) FASTag
(b) BHIM
3. The Unified Lending Interface (ULI) is part of which (c) TReDS
significant group known as the 'new trinity' in India's (d) Aadhaar Pay
digital infrastructure?
(a) GST, NEFT, and RTGS
(b) PAN, TAN, and BIN
(c) SEBI, RBI, and IRDAI
(d) JAM, UPI, and ULI

ANSWER KEYS & EXPLANATIONS

1. Correct Answer: (b) Reserve Bank of India 4. Correct Answer: (a) Standardised APIs
Explanation: The Unified Lending Interface (ULI) was Explanation: The Unified Lending Interface (ULI)
launched as a pilot project by the Reserve Bank of India incorporates standardized Application Programming
(RBI) in 2023. This initiative is aimed at transforming the Interfaces (APIs) to facilitate a 'plug and play' approach.
lending sector by simplifying and unifying the lending This feature is essential as it simplifies data access and
processes across various financial institutions. significantly reduces the complexity involved in technical
integration between different financial systems.
2. Correct Answer: (c) 2023
Explanation: The Unified Lending Interface (ULI) was 5. Correct Answer: (c) TReDS
launched as a pilot project by the Reserve Bank of India in Explanation: The Trade Receivables Discounting System
2023. (TReDS) is an electronic platform specifically designed for
MSMEs (Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises) to auction
3. Correct Answer: (d) JAM, UPI, and ULI their trade receivables at competitive rates. This platform
Explanation: The 'new trinity' in India’s digital helps MSMEs improve their cash flow by providing a
infrastructure refers to JAM (Jan Dhan, Aadhaar, and mechanism to finance their receivables efficiently and
Mobile), UPI (Unified Payments Interface), and ULI quickly.
(Unified Lending Interface). These three elements
represent key advancements in making financial
transactions and services more accessible and integrated
across the country.

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 International Affairs
Comprehensive Strategic Partnership between India and Malaysia
News Highlights:
India and Malaysia upgraded their bilateral relationship to a Comprehensive Strategic Partnership on 20 August
2024 during Malaysian Prime Minister Anwar Ibrahim's state visit to India. This significant diplomatic event marks
a new era in the relationship, enhancing cooperation across various sectors such as digital technologies, defence, trade,
and more.

Strategic Partnership Upgrade: Overview

Prime Minister of Prime Minister of

Malaysia India
Dato’ Seri Anwar Shri Narendra
Ibrahim Modi

List of MoUs and Agreements Signed

Recruitment, Employment, and Repatriation of Workers:
Enhancing workforce mobility and addressing challenges such as human
trafficking.

Ayurveda and Traditional Systems of Medicines:

Promoting traditional medicine through educational and research initiatives.

Digital Technologies:
Strengthening cooperation in digital infrastructure, cybersecurity, and emerging
technologies.

Tourism:
Facilitating travel and promoting tourism initiatives between the two nations. India
noted Malaysia’s designation of 2026 as Visit Malaysia Year.

Culture, Arts, and Heritage: Youth and Sports:

Encouraging cultural exchanges Fostering youth engagement and
and heritage conservation. sports collaborations.

Financial Services:
Public Administration and
Including an agreement between
Governance Reforms:
Labuan Financial Services Authority
Sharing best practices and
(LFSA) and International Financial
enhancing governance.
Services Centres Authority, India

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 Bilateral Trade and Educational Cooperation ASEAN-India Trade in
Economic Cooperation India allocated 100 seats under Goods Agreement
Bilateral trade between India and the Technical and Economic Both countries supported the
Malaysia saw a record high of USD Cooperation (ITEC) Programme expedited review of the ASEAN-
19.5 billion. Both leaders highlighted for Malaysian students in areas India Trade in Goods Agreement
the need to further enhance trade such as cybersecurity, AI, and (AITIGA) to make it more effective
relations by encouraging machine learning, enhancing for businesses. The aim is to
investments in sectors such as educational collaboration. conclude the review process by
fintech, energy, digital technologies, 2025, improving supply chain
and start-ups to strengthen the connectivity between India and
economic partnership. 02 ASEAN nations.

01 03

Defence Collaboration
Both countries agreed to intensify
Multilateral Cooperation defence cooperation through Sustainable Development
and BRICS regular military exchanges and and Climate Action
joint exercises, along with
Malaysia expressed appreciation expanding the defence industry Malaysia agreed to join India’s
for India’s support for ASEAN and R&D collaborations. International Big Cat Alliance
centrality and India's collaboration (IBCA), furthering collaboration in
in Malaysia’s 2025 ASEAN wildlife conservation. Both
Chairmanship. India also agreed to 05 countries also emphasised
cooperation on climate change
support Malaysia’s request to join
BRICS. mitigation and sustainable energy.
The two nations reaffirmed their Malaysia acknowledged India’s
commitment to UN reforms, with global climate initiatives, including
Special Rice Allocation
India receiving Malaysia’s support the International Solar Alliance
for its bid for permanent India agreed to a one-time export (ISA) and the Coalition for Disaster
membership in the UN Security of 2,00,000 metric tonnes of Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI),
Council (UNSC) white rice to Malaysia, easing reflecting shared goals in
concerns over food security. sustainability.

04 06 07

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Past Tensions and Resolutions:
Bilateral Friction:
Relations had been strained over Malaysia’s criticism of India's Citizenship Amendment Act, Jammu and Kashmir
reorganisation, and India’s demand for the extradition of Zakir Naik, a controversial preacher wanted for hate
speech and money laundering.
Mr. Ibrahim emphasised the need to overcome past differences and strengthen ties between two multicultural
nations.

India - Malaysia Relations

The Chola Empire, under

rulers like Rajaraja Chola I and
Rajendra Chola I, established maritime trade routes and
exerted control over parts of Southeast Asia, including the
Malay Peninsula.

Malaysia is India's 13th largest trading partner, while India

ranks among Malaysia's top ten trading partners, being the
3rd largest partner in ASEAN.

The Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement

(CECA), signed in 2011, covers goods, services, and
investment and serves as a cornerstone of trade relations
between the two countries.

Defense Minister Rajnath Singh's visit in July 2023 resulted in amendments to the 1993 MoU,
along with the establishment of Hindustan Aeronautics Limited's regional office in Kuala Lumpur.

Joint military exercises such as Harimau Shakti (Army), Samudra Lakshmana (Navy), and Udara
Shakti (Air Force) have strengthened inter-service cooperation.

The Indian Navy and the Royal Malaysian Navy regularly engage in maritime cooperation,
promoting regional security.

Malaysia is home to 2.95 million Indians, forming the second-largest Persons of Indian Origin
(PIO) community globally. The community is primarily Tamil-speaking, with significant numbers
also speaking Telugu, Malayalam, and Punjabi.

The Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose Indian Cultural Center (NSCBICC) in Kuala Lumpur, established
in 2010, promotes cultural exchanges, offering classes in Carnatic vocal music, Kathak dance,
Yoga, and Hindi.

India's influence on Malaysian culture is evident in literary works such as the Hikayat Seri Rama,
a Malay adaptation of the Hindu Ramayana, showcasing how Indian epics have transcended
borders.

Shared cultural heritage is also visible in religious sites like the Sri Veera Hanuman Temple, with
architecture rooted in Indian traditions.

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 Malaysia
Location: Malaysia is located in
Southeast Asia, divided into two
main regions: Peninsular Malaysia
(West Malaysia) and East Malaysia
(on the island of Borneo).
Borders: It shares land borders
with Thailand, Indonesia, and
Brunei, and maritime borders with
Vietnam and the Philippines.
Capital: The capital city is Kuala
Lumpur, while Putrajaya serves
as the administrative capital.
Languages: The official language is Malay (Bahasa Malaysia), but English is widely spoken. Chinese dialects
(Cantonese, Hokkien, Mandarin) and Tamil are also common.
Government: Malaysia is a constitutional monarchy with a parliamentary democracy. The head of state is the King
(Yang di-Pertuan Agong), who is elected from the nine hereditary Malay rulers for a five-year term.
Prime Minister: The head of government is the Prime Minister, currently Anwar Ibrahim (as of 2024).
Parliament: Malaysia has a bicameral parliament with the Dewan Rakyat (House of Representatives) and
Dewan Negara (Senate).
Trade Partners: Major trading partners include China, Singapore, the United States, Japan, and India. Malaysia
is the world’s second-largest exporter of palm oil.
Currency: The currency is the Malaysian Ringgit (MYR).
Colonial Period: Malaysia was colonised by the Portuguese, Dutch, and later the British. It gained independence
from the British in 1957.
Formation: The Federation of Malaya merged with Sarawak, Sabah, and Singapore to form Malaysia in 1963.
However, Singapore separated from Malaysia in 1965 and became an independent country.
Festivals: Major festivals include Hari Raya Aidilfitri (Eid al-Fitr), Chinese New Year, Deepavali, and
Thaipusam.
Popular Destinations: Malaysia is a major tourist destination, known for places like Kuala Lumpur, Langkawi,
Penang, Borneo (Sabah and Sarawak), and the Cameron Highlands.
UNESCO World Heritage Sites: Notable UNESCO sites include George Town and Malacca, recognized for their
colonial history and cultural significance.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Where will India establish an Ayurveda Chair to ASEAN countries?
promote traditional medicine education and research in (a) ASEAN-India Trade in Goods Agreement
Malaysia? (b) Asia-India Trade and Investment Growth Agreement
(a) Universiti Malaya (c) ASEAN-India Technological Integration Growth
(b) Universiti Tunku Abdul Rahman Agreement
(c) Universiti Sains Malaysia (d) Asia-India Transport Infrastructure Growth
(d) Universiti Teknologi Malaysia Agreement

2. What is the full form of AITIGA, which is being reviewed 3. In which year did Malaysia gain its independence from
to enhance supply chain connections between India and the United Kingdom?

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 (a) 1947 (b) 1950 5. The historical ties between India and Malaysia were
(c) 1957 (d) 1963 significantly influenced by which empire?
(a) Mughal Empire
4. Which of the following is not a joint military exercise (b) Chola Empire
between India and Malaysia? (c) Gupta Empire
(a) Harimau Shakti (b) Samudra Lakshmana (d) Maurya Empire
(c) Yudh Abhyas (d) Udara Shakti

ANSWER KEYS & EXPLANATIONS

1. Correct Answer: (b) Universiti Tunku Abdul Rahman 4. Correct Answer: (c) Yudh Abhyas
Explanation: India will establish an Ayurveda Chair at Explanation: "Yudh Abhyas" is a joint military exercise
Universiti Tunku Abdul Rahman in Malaysia. This between India and the United States, not Malaysia. The
initiative is part of a broader effort to promote education joint exercises between India and Malaysia include
and research in Ayurveda and traditional medicine in "Harimau Shakti" (Army), "Samudra Lakshmana" (Navy),
Malaysia, strengthening ties between the two nations in and "Udara Shakti" (Air Force), which focus on enhancing
this field. inter-service cooperation and strengthening strategic
bonds between the two nations.
2. Correct Answer: (a) ASEAN-India Trade in Goods
Agreement 5. Correct Answer: (b) Chola Empire
Explanation: The ASEAN-India Trade in Goods Agreement Explanation: The historical ties between India and
(AITIGA) is a key trade agreement between India and Malaysia trace back over a millennium, with significant
ASEAN countries, designed to promote trade and influence from the Chola Empire, which thrived between
strengthen economic ties. The leaders of India and ASEAN the 9th and 13th centuries. The Chola Empire's naval
have agreed to expedite the review process of AITIGA, expeditions and trade routes played a key role in
aiming to make it more business-friendly and effective. establishing cultural and economic connections between
The goal is to conclude the review by 2025, enhancing South India and Southeast Asia, including Malaysia.
supply chain connections between the two regions.

3. Correct Answer: (c) 1957

Explanation: Malaysia gained its independence from the
United Kingdom in 1957. This marked the end of British
colonial rule and the establishment of Malaysia as a
constitutional monarchy. The country celebrates its
independence annually on August 31st, known as Hari
Merdeka.

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UN General Assembly launched the Multidimensional Vulnerability
Index (MVI)
News Highlights:
The UN General Assembly launched the Multidimensional Vulnerability Index (MVI) on Tuesday, aimed at
measuring the economic vulnerability of small island developing states (SIDS) and other developing nations to
secure low-interest financing.
The MVI will act as a complement to GDP and other development metrics, helping nations access financing based on
their vulnerabilities, including climate change, external shocks, and economic instability.
What is Multidimensional Vulnerability Index (MVI)?
Purpose and Creation:
The MVI was developed to address the structural vulnerabilities faced by small island developing states (SIDS) and
other developing nations that may not meet the GDP criteria for accessing low-interest financing but are highly
vulnerable to external shocks.
It is the result of years of international discussions and was based on findings from a UN high-level panel. The index
incorporates a variety of economic, environmental, and social factors that contribute to a country's vulnerability.

STRUCTURE OF MVI

Universal-Level Quantitative Assessment Vulnerability-Resilience Country Profiles

The MVI produces an overall score for each country This offers a more detailed and tailored analysis of
based on their structural vulnerability and resilience each country’s vulnerability and resilience factors,
across various dimensions of sustainable development. allowing for country-specific insights.

INDICATORS Regional violence Import dependency

Refugee impacts Demographic pressure

Voluntary Use and Support:
While the use of the MVI is
voluntary, the resolution Exposure to extreme weather events (e.g., climate change)
encourages UN bodies and
multilateral development Water and arable land resources Pandemics
banks to incorporate it into
their policy decisions to
complement traditional
Child mortality (under five years old)
economic metrics like GDP.
Support for Developing Nations:
Initially proposed by SIDS, the MVI aims to be a tool for all developing countries to address vulnerabilities and ensure
access to financing that reflects their exogenous shocks and resilience deficits.
UN Resolution:
The resolution establishing the MVI was adopted by consensus at the UN General Assembly, mandating that the UN and
an independent committee of experts keep the index updated to ensure its relevance and accuracy.

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Reception and Impact:
The Alliance of Small Island States (AOSIS), which played a pivotal role in advocating for the MVI, hailed the adoption
of the index as a "monumental step forward".
Samoa’s ambassador to the UN, Fatumanava-o-Upolu III Dr Pa'olelei Luteru, emphasised the importance of the MVI
being deployed in real-world contexts, allowing it to be tested and refined to unlock a new way of thinking about
development.
Conceptual Framework for the MVI:
1. Structural Vulnerability:
Linked to a country’s exposure to external shocks (e.g., natural disasters, economic crises).
2. Structural Resilience:
Reflects a country’s ability to recover from such shocks.
The framework addresses three dimensions of sustainable development—economic, environmental, and social—within
both vulnerability and resilience:
Economic Vulnerability: Exposure to external economic risks (e.g., dependence on exports).
Environmental Vulnerability: Risk from natural hazards and climate change.
Social Vulnerability: Social risks like demographic pressure and lack of social safety nets.
Economic Resilience: The economic infrastructure and capital that support recovery.
Environmental Resilience: Natural resources and infrastructure that reduce environmental risks.
Social Resilience: Human capital and social cohesion that enhance recovery potential.

THE UNITED NATIONS

Established: 1 4 UN Charter:
October 24, 1945, A foundational
after World War II, to treaty that outlines
prevent future conflicts the principles,
and foster international functions, and
cooperation. structure of the UN.

Replaced: 2 3 Founding
League of Members:
Primary Goal:
Nations, which 51 countries, As
To maintain international peace and security, promote
had failed to of 2024, there
human rights, foster social and economic development,
prevent WWII. are 193 member
provide humanitarian aid, and uphold international law.
states in the UN.

General Assembly: Security Council:

The deliberative body of the UN Responsible for maintaining international peace and
where all member states are security. It has 15 members: 5 permanent members (China,
represented. It meets annually, France, Russia, the United Kingdom, and the United
and decisions on important matters States) and 10 non-permanent members elected for two-
require a two-thirds majority. year terms. The five permanent members have veto power.

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 Secretariat: Economic and Social International
The administrative body Council (ECOSOC): Court of Justice
of the UN, led by the Coordinates the economic, (ICJ):
Secretary-General, who social, & environmental The UN's primary
is the chief spokesperson work of the UN and its judicial branch,
and diplomat of the UN. specialized agencies. located in The
Hague,
Netherlands. It
Trusteeship Council: settles disputes
Established to oversee the transition of territories from between states
colonial rule to independence. The council suspended its and provides
operations in 1994 after the last trust territory, Palau, gained advisory opinions
independence. on legal matters.

Secretary General of the UN

The Secretary-General is the head of the UN Secretariat and the chief administrative
officer of the organization. The Secretary-General is appointed by the General
Assembly on the recommendation of the Security Council for a five-year term,
renewable for another term.
The current Secretary-General (as of 2024) is António Guterres (right image)
former PM of Portugal, who has been in office since January 1, 2017.

The UN works through various specialized agencies to

address global issues:

United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees (UNHCR):

Provides support for refugees and displaced persons.
World Food Programme (WFP): Provides food aid in
emergencies.
United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural
United Nations Children's Fund (UNICEF): Organization (UNESCO): Promotes education, science,
Works on children's rights, education, and welfare. and culture.
World Health Organization (WHO): Focuses International Labour Organization (ILO): Focuses on labor
on global public health. rights and promoting decent work.

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 PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Who launched the Multidimensional Vulnerability Index 4. Which group of countries, despite not being poor enough
(MVI) to assist Small Island Developing States (SIDS) in in terms of GDP per capita to access low-interest
securing low-interest financing? development financing, has been calling for a measure
(a) World Bank due to their vulnerability to external shocks like climate
(b) International Monetary Fund (IMF) change?
(c) United Nations General Assembly (a) Least Developed Countries (LDCs)
(d) World Trade Organization (WTO) (b) Landlocked Developing Countries (LLDCs)
(c) Small Island Developing States (SIDS)
2. Which of the following is not one of the dimensions (d) Emerging Economies
covered by the Multidimensional Vulnerability Index
(MVI)? 5. Which part of the Multidimensional Vulnerability Index
(a) Technological (b) Environmental (MVI) ranks countries based on their level of
(c) Economic. (d) Social vulnerability?
(a) Vulnerability and Resilience Country Profiles
3. How many main pillars is the Multidimensional (VRCPs)
Vulnerability Index (MVI) built on? (b) Universal Quantitative Assessment
(a) One (b) Two (c) Country Vulnerability Report
(c) Three (d) Four (d) Global Resilience Tracker

ANSWER KEYS & EXPLANATIONS

1. Correct Answer: (c) United Nations General Assembly These pillars provide a comprehensive framework to
Explanation: The United Nations General Assembly assess a nation's vulnerability and resilience.
launched the Multidimensional Vulnerability Index (MVI)
to help Small Island Developing States (SIDS) secure low- 4. Correct Answer: (c) Small Island Developing States (SIDS)
interest financing. The MVI addresses the unique Explanation: Small Island Developing States (SIDS), despite
vulnerabilities of SIDS, helping them access financial not being poor enough in terms of GDP per capita to qualify
resources for sustainable development and climate for low-interest development financing, have been
resilience. advocating for a measure like the Multidimensional
Vulnerability Index due to their significant vulnerability to
2. Correct Answer: (a) Technological external shocks, such as climate change. This highlights the
Explanation: The Multidimensional Vulnerability Index unique challenges faced by these nations.
(MVI) covers three main dimensions of sustainable
development: economic, environmental, and social. The 5. Correct Answer: (b) Universal Quantitative Assessment
technological dimension is not one of the primary areas of Explanation: The Universal Quantitative Assessment of the
focus for the MVI. MVI ranks countries based on their level of vulnerability
using a summary index number. This ranking provides a
3. Correct Answer: (b) Two broad evaluation of structural vulnerability and resilience
Explanation: The Multidimensional Vulnerability Index applicable to all developing countries.
(MVI) is built on two main pillars: Structural Vulnerability,
which relates to a country’s exposure to adverse external
shocks and stressors, and Structural Resilience, which
refers to the capacity of a country to withstand and recover
from such shocks.

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India hosts Voice of Global South summit
News Highlights:
India will host the third Voice of Global South Summit First Voice of Global Second Voice of Global
on August 17, 2024 in a virtual format. South Summit South Summit
The theme of the summit is “An Empowered Global
South for a Sustainable Future”. January 12-13, 2023 November 17, 2023
This initiative is an extension of Prime Minister Host: India Host: India
Narendra Modi's vision of 'Sabka Saath, Sabka Vikas, Theme: "Unity of voice, Theme: "Together, For
Unity of purpose" Everyone's Growth,
Sabka Vishwas aur Sabka Prayas', underpinned by
With Everyone's Trust"
India’s philosophy of Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam (the
world is one family).
Both previous summits saw the participation of over
Purpose: 100 countries from the Global South.
The summit provides a platform for countries from the
Global South to discuss and deliberate on shared challenges such as climate change, food and energy security, and
developmental issues.
Inputs from previous summits influenced discussions and decisions at the G-20 Summit under India’s Presidency in
2023, including the New Delhi Leaders’ Declaration.
Structure of the 3rd Summit:
The summit will include an inaugural session at the Head of State/Government level, hosted by Prime Minister
Narendra Modi.
There will be 10 ministerial sessions covering a range of topics relevant to the Global South.

Key Outcomes of the Summit 2024

Global Development Compact (GDC)
Prime Minister Modi introduced the Global Development Compact (GDC), a four-part proposal aimed at enhancing
cooperation within the Global South. The GDC focuses on:
Trade for Development: Strengthening trade relations to ensure equitable benefits for developing nations.
Capacity Building for Sustainable Growth: Supporting education, skills, healthcare, and governance development.
Technology Sharing: Promoting collaboration in technological advancements and innovation.
Concessional Finance and Grants: Providing concessional financing and grants for developmental projects.

Funding and Support Initiatives Global Institutions Reform

India committed to:

Prime Minister Modi emphasized the need to reform
A USD 2.5 million fund to promote trade activities global institutions like the UN and WTO to make them
and boost economic growth. inclusive and responsive to the Global South. He urged
A USD 1 million fund to support capacity building in developed countries to meet their climate finance and
trade policy and negotiations. development aid commitments.

Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs)

The summit reaffirmed the Global South's dedication to achieving the SDGs by 2030, addressing challenges in
development finance, healthcare, climate change, youth empowerment, digital transformation, and trade.

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The Global South
The Global South refers to countries primarily in
Latin America, Africa, Asia, and Oceania that are Ministers' Session Theme
developing or least-developed economically.
It is a term that emerged to highlight the socio- Charting a Unique Paradigm
Foreign
economic and political differences between for Global South
wealthier, industrialized nations (Global North) and
developing nations (Global South), despite some of Health One World-One Health
these countries being geographically located in
the Northern Hemisphere.
The Global South includes countries like India, Youth Engagement for a
Youth
China, Brazil, Nigeria, Indonesia, South Africa, Better Future
and Mexico.
The term Global South became widely used during Trade for Development-
Commerce/Trade
Perspectives from Global South
the Cold War era to describe countries that were
neither aligned with the Western bloc (led by the
Information & DPIs for Development- A
US) nor the Eastern bloc (led by the USSR). These Technology Global South Approach
countries were initially called Third World
countries. People-Centric Approach to
The Global South accounts for roughly 80% of the Finance
Global Finance
world’s population, making it the most populous
region. Countries like China and India alone Global South and Global
Foreign (2nd)
comprise nearly 40% of the global population. Governance
Many Global South nations have youthful
populations, with a significant portion of their Sustainable Energy Solutions
Energy
citizens under the age of 30. In Africa, more than for a Sustainable Future
60% of the population is under 25 years old.
Poverty and Inequality: A large portion of the Prioritising Human Resource
Global South suffers from high levels of poverty Education Development: A Global South
Perspective
and income inequality. The World Bank estimates
that over 700 million people in the Global South Pathways for Progress- A
live in extreme poverty (on less than $1.90 per Environment Global South Perspective on
day). Mitigating Climate Change
The Global South includes a mix of democracies,
authoritarian regimes, and hybrid political
systems. Countries like India, South Africa, and Brazil are established democracies, while others like North Korea
and Venezuela operate under authoritarian governments.
The Global South has increasingly exerted its influence on the international stage through forums like the Non-
Aligned Movement (NAM), Group of 77 (G77), and BRICS (Brazil, Russia, India, China, South Africa).
The Global South advocates for reforms in international organisations such as the United Nations, International
Monetary Fund (IMF), and World Trade Organization (WTO), to make them more inclusive and representative of
developing countries' interests.

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 PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. India hosted which edition of the Voice of Global South (c) Noam Chomsky (d) Edward Said
Summit on 17th August 2024?
(a) 1st (b) 2nd 4. Which line is used to geographically separate the Global
(c) 3rd (d) 4th South from the Global North?
(a) Equator
2. What was the theme of the Voice of Global South Summit (b) Tropic of Cancer
hosted by India on 17th August 2024? (c) Prime Meridian
(a) Sustainable Growth and Peace (d) Brandt Line
(b) An Empowered Global South for a Sustainable Future
(c) Unity for Global Prosperity 5. Which of the following regions is not typically
(d) Green Development for the Future considered part of the Global South?
(a) Latin America
3. Who coined the term "Global South" in 1969 to describe (b) Europe
countries affected by the dominance of the Global North? (c) Africa
(a) Immanuel Wallerstein (b) Carl Oglesby (d) Asia

ANSWER KEYS & EXPLANATIONS

1. Correct Answer: (c) 3rd 4. Correct Answer: (d) Brandt Line
Explanation: India hosted the 3rd Voice of Global South Explanation: The Brandt Line is used to geographically
Summit on 17th August 2024. The summit, held in virtual distinguish the Global South from the Global North. It
format, aimed to discuss and advance issues relevant to the roughly divides the world into richer, industrialized
Global South, with a strong emphasis on empowerment countries (Global North) and poorer, developing regions in
and sustainability. Latin America, Asia, Africa, and Oceania (Global South).

2. Correct Answer: (b) An Empowered Global South for a 5. Correct Answer: (b) Europe
Sustainable Future Explanation: Europe is not considered part of the Global
Explanation: The theme of the 3rd Voice of Global South South. The Global South generally refers to regions outside
Summit hosted by India in 2024 was "An Empowered Europe and North America, including Latin America, Asia,
Global South for a Sustainable Future." This theme reflects Africa, and Oceania. These regions are typically low-income
the focus on fostering empowerment and sustainable and politically or culturally marginalized in the global
development for nations in the Global South. context.

3. Correct Answer: (b) Carl Oglesby

Explanation: Carl Oglesby, an American academic, coined
the term "Global South" in 1969 to describe countries that
experienced political and economic exploitation by the
Global North. His work highlighted the imbalan

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Ukraine Visit of Prime Minister Modi
News Highlights:
Prime Minister Narendra Modi made his first-ever visit to Ukraine on August 23, 2024, marking the first visit by an
Indian Prime Minister to the country since its independence in 1991.

Key Takeaways from PM's Visit to Ukraine:

BHISHM Cubes

1 PM Modi presented four BHISHM (Bharat Health Initiative for Sahyog Hita and Maitri) Cubes to the
Ukrainian government to assist with healthcare and humanitarian efforts amid the ongoing war.
These cubes are part of Project Aarogya Maitri.

Commemoration and Cultural Diplomacy

Modi visited the Martyrologist Exposition on children at the National Museum of History of Ukraine to

2 pay respects to the victims of the war, and also paid tribute to Mahatma Gandhi at the ‘Oasis of Peace’
park in Kyiv.
He also interacted with Ukrainian students learning Hindi at the School of Oriental Studies,
acknowledging their contribution to promoting Indian culture.

Indo-Ukrainian Relations & Future Opportunities

Modi’s visit signals a departure from India’s traditional foreign policy, which historically favoured
Russia. While India maintained strong ties with Russia, its relationship with Ukraine was not as strong.
Bilateral trade between India and Ukraine was impacted due to the Russia-Ukraine conflict, dropping

3 from $3.39 billion in 2021-22 to $0.71 billion in 2023-24.

The post-war reconstruction of Ukraine offers opportunities for India’s involvement in defence
industrial cooperation, agriculture, and economic partnerships.
Ukraine’s pre-war significance as a major supplier of sunflower oil to India further adds to the
importance of restoring bilateral relations.

Peace and Diplomacy

PM conveyed India’s commitment to being a peacemaker in the region. He expressed India’s readiness

4
to play an active role in restoring peace in Ukraine.
Modi’s visit is part of a broader diplomatic effort to engage with Europe, especially Eastern and Central
Europe, beyond India’s traditional focus on Russia, Germany, France, and Britain.
India’s Non-Alignment policy is evolving toward maintaining close ties with all countries rather than
keeping equal distance, reflecting a multi-aligned approach to diplomacy.

India’s Balanced Foreign Policy:

5
Despite increased engagement with Ukraine, India-Russia relations remain strong, with India playing a
critical role in helping Russia manage sanctions and maintaining military cooperation.
Modi’s visit to Ukraine is not seen as a move to abandon Russia but rather as an attempt to expand
India’s global influence while maintaining strategic balance.

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 Ukraine

Location: Eastern Europe

Neighbouring Russia to the

Countries: east, Belarus
to the north,
Poland,
Slovakia, and
Hungary to
the west, and
Romania and
Moldova to
the southwest.

Coastline along: Black Sea & the Sea of Azov

Official Language: Ukrainian, though Russian is widely spoken, especially in the eastern and
southern parts of the country.

Independence Day: August 24, 1991, following the collapse of the Soviet Union.

Historical Ties: Ukraine has been part of various empires and states, including the Kievan Rus,
Polish-Lithuanian Commonwealth, and the Soviet Union.

Government Unitary republic with a presidential-parliamentary. The President of Ukraine

System: is the head of state, and the Prime Minister is the head of government.

Legislature: Unicameral legislature, known as the Verkhovna Rada.

Culture: Ukrainian folk traditions, especially in music and dance, play a central role
in the country's identity, and Ukraine is home to UNESCO World Heritage
sites like Kyiv's Saint Sophia Cathedral and Lviv’s Old Town.

Chernobyl Disaster: Ukraine was the site of the Chernobyl nuclear disaster in 1986, one of the
worst nuclear accidents in history. The Chernobyl Exclusion Zone remains a
tourist destination and a reminder of the risks associated with nuclear energy.

Western Alignment Ukraine has expressed a strong desire to align with Western institutions,
& War with Russia: seeking membership in the European Union (EU) and NATO.
Russia has long viewed NATO's expansion towards its borders, particularly
Ukraine’s aspirations to join NATO, as a threat to its security. Russia
opposed Ukraine's potential NATO membership, fearing it would
undermine its strategic buffer zone.
The ongoing war with Russia has caused severe economic and
humanitarian crises, with millions displaced and thousands of casualties
since 2022.

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 PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. When did Ukraine declare its independence? 4. Where are the two Admiral Grigorovich-class frigates,
(a) 12 June 1990 (b) 24 August 1991 for which Ukraine is supplying critical components,
(c) 15 July 1992 (d) 1 January 1993 being constructed?
(a) Mazagon Dock Limited (MDL)
2. What are the Bhishm Cubes, gifted by India to Ukraine, (b) Cochin Shipyard Limited (CSL)
designed for? (c) Goa Shipyard Limited (GSL)
(a) Portable shelter for displaced people (d) Hindustan Shipyard Limited (HSL)
(b) Mobile hospitals for emergency medical care
(c) Water purification in disaster zones 5. After which 2019 strike did the Indian Air Force (IAF)
(d) Portable communication centers make an emergency procurement of R-27 air-to-air
missiles from Ukraine for its SU-30MKI fighters?
3. In June 2009, India signed a USD 400 million agreement (a) Uri strike
with which Ukrainian company to upgrade its fleet of (b) Kargil strike
AN-32 aircraft? (c) Balakot air strike
(a) Antonov (b) SpetsTechnoExport (STE) (d) Pathankot strike
(c) Motor Sich (d) Ukroboronprom

ANSWER KEYS & EXPLANATIONS

1. Correct Answer: (b) 24 August 1991 4. Correct Answer: (c) Goa Shipyard Limited (GSL)
Explanation: Ukraine declared its independence on 24 Explanation: The two Admiral Grigorovich-class frigates
August 1991, following the collapse of the Soviet Union. are being constructed at Goa Shipyard Limited (GSL), with
This significant moment marked the beginning of Ukraine's Ukraine supplying critical components for their
status as a sovereign state. construction. These frigates are part of India's efforts to
enhance its naval capabilities.
2. Correct Answer: (b) Mobile hospitals for emergency
medical care 5. Correct Answer: (c) Balakot air strike
Explanation: The Bhishm Cubes, gifted by India to Ukraine, Explanation: Following the Balakot air strike in 2019, the
are designed to provide emergency medical care through Indian Air Force made an emergency procurement of R-27
mobile hospitals. These units are part of the Bharat Health air-to-air missiles from Ukraine for its SU-30MKI fighters.
Initiative for Sahyog Hita & Maitri (BHISHMA) and are This procurement was aimed at enhancing the IAF's air
aimed at supporting Ukraine's medical infrastructure combat capabilities.
during crises.

3. Correct Answer: (b) SpetsTechnoExport (STE)

Explanation: India signed a USD 400 million agreement
with Ukraine's SpetsTechnoExport (STE) in June 2009 to
upgrade its fleet of AN-32 aircraft. The upgrade aimed to
extend the operational life of the aircraft and improve their
avionics.

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Third Japan-India 2+2 Foreign and Defence Ministerial Meeting
News Highlights:
India and Japan recently held their third 2+2 Foreign and Defence Ministerial Meeting in New Delhi. India and
Japan reaffirmed their strong commitment to ensuring a free, open, and rules-based Indo-Pacific, which is driven by the
growing influence of China’s military activities in the region.
The ministers expressed support for the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) and endorsed the
ASEAN Outlook on the Indo-Pacific (AOIP), which promotes ASEAN’s centrality in fostering peace, cooperation,
and stability across the Asia-Pacific and Indian Ocean regions.
Both sides emphasised regional cooperation and stressed the importance of UN Charter principles in maintaining a
rules-based order in the Indo-Pacific.

Key Highlights from the Third 2+2 Foreign & Defence Ministerial Meeting

1. Quadrilateral Security Dialogue (QUAD)

Japan and India reiterated their commitment to enhancing collaboration within the QUAD
alongside the United States and Australia, building on previous discussions held at the
Quad Foreign Ministers' Meeting in July 2024.
Both countries emphasised the need to collaborate in providing security assistance to third
countries for regional peace and stability.
2. Defence and Security Cooperation
The dialogue highlighted defence cooperation as a pillar of their Special Strategic and
Global Partnership.
Progress in joint military exercises, including Veer Guardian (2023), Dharma Guardian,
JIMEX (naval), SHINYUU Maitri (air force), and Malabar (with Australia and the US),
was appreciated.
Japan’s National Security Strategy (2022) has further strengthened the bilateral defence
relationship.
Both sides agreed to revise the 2008 Joint Declaration to better address contemporary
security challenges and align with the evolving global security environment.
3. Technology Cooperation
Discussions included the potential transfer of Japan’s Unified Complex Radio Antenna
(UNICORN) technology, which enhances missile and drone detection capabilities.
Defence technology cooperation and the possibility of Japanese naval ship maintenance in
India were explored, emphasizing further collaboration on cutting-edge defence
technologies.
4. Counterterrorism
Both sides condemned terrorism and violent extremism, with a focus on cross-border
terrorism.
The ministers called for bringing perpetrators of the 26/11 Mumbai attacks to justice and
supported global efforts to dismantle terrorist groups like Al Qaeda, ISIS/Daesh, Lashkar-
e-Taiba (LeT), and Jaish-e-Mohammad (JeM).
5. Women, Peace, and Security (WPS)
India and Japan emphasised the critical role of women in peacekeeping operations and
supported the Women, Peace, and Security (WPS) agenda to address gendered impacts of
conflict and promote women’s participation in peace processes.

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 6. Economic Cooperation
Japan’s investment in India remains a vital part of the economic partnership, supporting
India’s Make in India initiative and infrastructure projects like the Mumbai-Ahmedabad
High-Speed Rail Corridor.
7. Cybersecurity and Digital Economy
Both sides agreed to collaborate on enhancing cyber resilience and protecting critical
infrastructure.
The digital economy and fintech were also discussed, with an emphasis on the need for
secure digital infrastructure and technology partnerships to boost both economies.
8. Environmental and Climate Change Collaboration
Both countries committed to sustainable development in the Indo-Pacific, focusing on climate
action, green energy, and cooperation on environmental issues.
Renewable energy partnerships were discussed, particularly in the field of solar and
hydrogen energy.
9. Strategic Infrastructure:
The two nations stressed the importance of strategic infrastructure development in the Indo-
Pacific, particularly in maritime security and logistics.
Both sides discussed ways to expand connectivity through regional infrastructure projects
that support economic and security interests.

The 2+2 Meetings

Definition & Purpose: India-Japan Relations
2+2 meetings are high-level diplomatic A Timeline
dialogues that involve the Foreign Ministers
and Defence Ministers of two countries.
This format enables in-depth discussions on
strategic, security, and defense issues and 6th Century AD
aims to enhance bilateral relations and
address mutual concerns in these areas. Introduction of Buddhism in Japan:
India’s 2+2 Partners: Buddhism, which originated in India, was
United States: The first 2+2 dialogue with the introduced to Japan. Indian philosophical
US took place in 2018. This dialogue replaced traditions, the Bodhisattva ideals, and Indian
the Strategic and Commercial Dialogue to art heavily influenced Japanese Buddhist
focus more on defense and strategic practices.
cooperation.
Japan: India and Japan engage in 2+2
dialogues to bolster their strategic
partnership and Indo-Pacific security 8th Century AD
cooperation.
Australia: The India-Australia 2+2 dialogue
Cultural Awareness through Silk Road:
focuses on cooperation in defense, the Indo-
Cultural Awareness Through the Silk Road:
Pacific region, and maritime security.
India and Japan were aware of each other's
Russia: India’s first 2+2 dialogue with Russia
cultural existence via the Silk Road.
took place in 2021, aimed at strengthening
Although there was no direct trade,
defense cooperation and ensuring security in
Indian culture, especially through
a multipolar world.
Buddhism, impacted Japan.
India also engages in the 2+2 dialogue format
with Brazil and the United Kingdom.

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 India-Japan Relations

1868-1912 (Meiji Era) Post-World War II

Modernization of Japan (Meiji 1947 (India's Independence):

Restoration): India gained independence and was
Japan opened up to the world and one of the first nations to re-establish
modernized during this period. Indian diplomatic relations with Japan.
intellectuals and leaders interacted with 1951 (San Francisco Peace Treaty):
Japanese counterparts. India did not sign the San Francisco Peace
Treaty, choosing instead to establish a
Swami Vivekananda's Visit to bilateral peace treaty with Japan.
Japan (1893): 1952 (India-Japan Peace Treaty):
Swami Vivekananda visited Japan and The India-Japan Peace Treaty was
was impressed by its modernization, signed, making India one of the first
viewing Japan as an inspiration for countries to restore diplomatic ties with
India's national resurgence. post-war Japan.
Rabindranath Tagore's 1950s-1960s (India's Support for
Engagement with Japan Japan’s Recovery):
(Multiple Visits): India sent iron ore to Japan to help in its
Tagore developed close bonds with industrial recovery, contributing to
Japanese intellectuals and artists. Japan’s post-war economic resurgence.
His aesthetics were influenced by
Japanese culture, particularly the
Zen Buddhist concept of beauty.
He also shared anti-imperialist 1950s-1960s
views with Japanese thinkers.
Japan’s Contribution to
Indian Steel Industry:
Japan helped modernize India’s
World War II Era steel industry, including
supporting the construction of
Japan's Support for Indian the Bokaro Steel Plant.
Independence Movement:
Japan played a significant role in
supporting the Indian independence
struggle during WWII. Subhas
1986
Chandra Bose, a prominent Indian Japan’s Official Development
freedom fighter, formed the Indian
Assistance (ODA) to India:
National Army (INA) in 1943 with the
Japan became a major source of ODA to India,
assistance of Japan’s Imperial Army.
helping fund various development projects,
Japan provided financial and military
including the Delhi Metro through the Japan
support to Bose in his efforts to
International Cooperation Agency (JICA).
overthrow British rule in India.

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 India-Japan Relations

2000 2011 21st

Century
Global Comprehen- (Strategic and
Partnership sive Economic Growth)
between India Economic
India-Japan Strategic
and Japan: Partnership
Partnership:
During Japanese Agreement
Prime Minister Economic and strategic ties
(CEPA): continued to strengthen in the
Yoshiro Mori’s visit
India and Japan signed 21st century. Japan became
to India, the two nations the CEPA to enhance India’s 12th largest trading
elevated their relationship economic cooperation partner, and India is one of the
to a Global Partnership. and trade relations. top recipients of Japanese
Foreign Direct Investment (FDI).

PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Where was the third 2+2 Foreign and Defence 4. In which century did the historical connection between
Ministerial Meeting between India and Japan held on 20 Japan and India begin with the introduction of
August 2024? Buddhism?
(a) Tokyo (a) 4th century
(b) Mumbai (b) 5th century
(c) Osaka (c) 6th century
(d) New Delhi (d) 7th century

2. In which year did the first 2+2 dialogue between India 5. During the 2019 G20 Osaka summit, Japan and India
and the US take place? signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU)
(a) 2016 establishing a sister-state relationship between Gujarat
(b) 2017 and which Japanese prefecture?
(c) 2018 (a) Osaka
(d) 2019 (b) Hyogo
(c) Kyoto
3. What did Indian Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru (d) Hokkaido
donate to Ueno Zoo in Tokyo in 1949, symbolizing the
beginning of a renewed relationship between India and
Japan after World War II?
(a) An elephant
(b) A tiger
(c) A lion
(d) A panda

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 ANSWER KEYS & EXPLANATIONS
1. Correct Answer: (d) New Delhi 4. Correct Answer: (c) 6th century
Explanation: India and Japan recently held their third 2+2 Explanation: The historical connection between Japan and
Foreign and Defence Ministerial Meeting in New Delhi, India began in the 6th century when Buddhism, along with
focusing on strengthening bilateral security and defense significant Indian cultural and philosophical influences, was
cooperation between the two countries. introduced to Japan. This laid the foundation for long-
standing ties between the two nations.
2. Correct Answer: (c) 2018
Explanation: The first 2+2 dialogue between India and the 5. Correct Answer: (b) Hyogo
United States took place in 2018. This framework was Explanation: In 2016, India and Japan signed a
established to enhance defense and strategic cooperation Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) to establish a
between the two countries by bringing together their sister-state relationship between Gujarat and Hyogo
foreign and defense ministers. Prefecture. This agreement was further reinforced during
the 2019 G20 Osaka summit with the signing of a sister-city
3. Correct Answer: (a) An elephant relationship between Ahmedabad and Kobe, a city within
Explanation: In 1949, Indian Prime Minister Jawaharlal Hyogo Prefecture.
Nehru donated an elephant to Ueno Zoo in Tokyo. This
gesture symbolized the beginning of a renewed
relationship between India and Japan after World War II.
The donation was a symbol of goodwill and friendship
between the two nations.

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Action Plan (2024-2028) for the Implementation of the India-
Poland Strategic Partnership
News Highlights:
India and Poland upgraded ties to a "strategic partnership" after wide-ranging talks between Prime Minister
Narendra Modi and Polish Prime Minister Donald Tusk.
Both countries emphasised the importance of bilateral defence cooperation with Poland eager to assist in
modernising India's defence forces. The Action Plan prioritises India-EU negotiations, technology cooperation, and
connectivity partnerships.
Meeting with Polish Prime Minister Donald Tusk: PM Modi held wide-ranging talks with his Polish counterpart,
focusing on enhancing bilateral relations, including signing a Social Security Agreement and unveiling the five-
year Action Plan (2024-2028) for the strategic partnership between the two countries.
Meeting with President Andrzej Duda: Modi also held talks with the President of Poland, Andrzej Duda, discussing
bilateral cooperation, global security, and the deepening of ties in various sectors.

Highlights of Prime Minister of India’s Visit to Poland:

1
Five-Year Action Plan (2024-2028): The two nations agreed on a five-year action plan to strengthen
cooperation in multiple areas. Key focus areas include political dialogue, security cooperation,
economic ties, and technology partnerships.

Strategic Partnership Elevation: India and Poland elevated their bilateral relations to the level of a

2 "Strategic Partnership", underscoring their deep-rooted connections and shared commitment to

enhancing collaboration across key sectors.

Counter-Terrorism Cooperation: The leaders reaffirmed their commitment to combating terrorism in

3 all its forms. They emphasised the need to implement UN Security Council resolutions and pressed for the
early adoption of the Comprehensive Convention on International Terrorism (CCIT).

India-EU Partnership: The discussions focused on advancing the India-EU Strategic Partnership, with

4 support for concluding the India-EU trade and investment negotiations and operationalizing the India-
EU Trade and Technology Council (TTC). Both nations will collaborate on the India-EU Connectivity
Partnership to promote economic and security cooperation.

Cultural and Educational Exchanges: The two sides agreed to bolster cultural ties, educational

5 partnerships, and promote tourism between India and Poland. People-to-people exchanges were also
emphasized to enhance mutual understanding.

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 Climate and Technology Cooperation:
India and Poland agreed to collaborate on clean energy and sustainable technology, including

6
potential space exploration initiatives. Poland expressed support for India's International Energy
Agency ambition, while India encouraged Poland to join the International Solar Alliance (ISA) and
the Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI).
Both sides committed to cybersecurity cooperation, emphasising the role of Information and
Communication Technology (ICT) in driving economic and social development.

7
Transport and Connectivity: Enhancing transport infrastructure and increasing direct flight
connections between the two nations were identified as priorities for boosting people-to-people
exchanges and promoting trade.

Political and Security Cooperation: Both sides emphasised regular high-level political dialogues and

8 security consultations to enhance defence cooperation. A Joint Working Group for Defence
Cooperation will convene in 2024 to explore potential areas for collaboration in defence production and
modernization of armed forces.

Trade and Investment: The visit prioritised economic security and trade expansion with a focus on

9
balancing trade and exploring new sectors like high-tech and green technologies. The Joint
Commission for Economic Cooperation (JCEC), led by commerce ministers from both countries, was
identified as a key mechanism to address trade imbalances and boost sectors like food processing, IT,
agriculture, and renewable energy.

India-Poland Relations

Historic Diplomatic Relations:

India and Poland established diplomatic relations in 1954.
In 2024, the countries marked 70 years of diplomatic ties,
culminating in the upgrade to a strategic partnership.
Defence Cooperation:
Poland expressed interest in becoming a key partner in India's effort
to modernise its defence forces and enhance domestic defence
production.
The countries agreed to fully utilise the Joint Working Group for
Defence Cooperation for more structured engagements.
Poland is eager to participate in India's domestic defence production and expand its defence
cooperation under the Make in India initiative.
Economic and Trade Relations:
The bilateral trade volume between India and Poland has been growing, with Poland being a significant
player in food processing, mining, and pharmaceuticals.
Poland's role in green technologies was highlighted as both countries agreed to collaborate on clean
coal technology, green hydrogen, and renewable energy.

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 Poland
Geography:
Poland is located in Central Europe,
bordered by Germany to the west,
Czech Republic and Slovakia to the
south, Ukraine and Belarus to the
east, and Lithuania and the Baltic
Sea to the north.
The country covers an area of
312,696 square kilometres, making
it the 9th largest country in Europe.
Capital and Major Cities:
The capital city is Warsaw, which is
also the largest city.
Other important cities include
Kraków, Łódź, Wrocław, Poznań,
and Gdańsk.
Population: Poland has a population of approximately 38 million people, making it the 5th most
populous country in the European Union.
Political Structure:
Poland is a parliamentary republic with a president as the head of state and a prime minister as
the head of government.
The current president is Andrzej Duda, and the current prime minister is Mateusz Morawiecki.
Currency: The currency of Poland is the Polish złoty (PLN).

European Union and NATO Membership:

Poland became a member of the European Union (EU) in 2004.
It has been a member of NATO since 1999, playing an active role in the alliance's security operations.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. In which year were diplomatic relations between India 4. At which memorial did the Prime Minister of India pay
and Poland established? tribute in Warsaw, commemorating the Jamsaheb of
(a) 1947 (b) 1954 Nawanagar, who provided shelter to over a thousand
(c) 1957 (d) 1960 Polish children during World War II?
(a) Kolhapur Memorial
2. What is the capital city of Poland? (b) Gandhi Memorial
(a) Warsaw (b) Krakow (c) Monte Cassino Memorial
(c) Gdansk (d) Poznan (d) Dobry Maharaja Memorial

3. The Monument to the Battle of Monte Cassino 5. As part of the India-Poland relationship, cooperation has
commemorates soldiers from which military unit who been strengthened in designating individuals affiliated
fought in one of the bloodiest battles of World War II? with groups listed by which UNSC sanctions committee?
(a) First Polish Army (a) UNSC 1373 Sanctions Committee
(b) Indian National Army (b) UNSC 1540 Sanctions Committee
(c) British Expeditionary Force (c) UNSC 1267 Sanctions Committee
(d) Second Polish Corps (d) UNSC 2231 Sanctions Committee

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 ANSWER KEYS & EXPLANATIONS
1. Correct Answer: (b) 1954 This battle was one of the bloodiest of the war, with
Explanation: Diplomatic relations between India and soldiers from Poland, India, and other nations
Poland were established in 1954. This laid the foundation contributing to the Allied effort.
for cooperation between the two nations, particularly in
areas such as anti-colonialism, anti-imperialism, and the 4. Correct Answer: (d) Dobry Maharaja Memorial
fight against racism. Explanation: The Prime Minister of India paid tribute at
the Dobry Maharaja Memorial in Warsaw, which honors
2. Correct Answer: (a) Warsaw the Jamsaheb of Nawanagar, Shri Digvijaysinhji
Explanation: Warsaw is the capital city of Poland, located Ranjitsinhji Jadeja, who provided shelter to over a
in Central Europe. It is the political, cultural, and thousand Polish children during World War II. He is
economic hub of the country, with a rich history and a fondly remembered in Poland as the "Dobry (Good)
vital role in Polish governance. Maharaja" for his humanitarian efforts.

3. Correct Answer: (d) Second Polish Corps 5. Correct Answer: (c) UNSC 1267 Sanctions Committee
Explanation: The Monument to the Battle of Monte Explanation: India and Poland have strengthened
Cassino commemorates the soldiers of the Second Polish cooperation in designating individuals affiliated with
Corps who fought in the Battle of Monte Cassino during terrorist groups listed by the United Nations Security
World War II. Council (UNSC) 1267 Sanctions Committee.

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19th India-Africa Business Conclave
News Highlights:
India is looking to expand its exports to African countries significantly, with Commerce Secretary Sunil
Barthwal announcing a goal to double Indian exports to the African continent to $200 billion by 2030.
This expansion will focus on key sectors such as automobiles, agriculture, agro-products, pharmaceuticals, and
logistics. India's bilateral trade with Africa, which stood at $100 billion in 2022, is expected to increase rapidly,
making Africa a vital emerging market for India.
The 19th India-Africa Business Conclave, organized by the Confederation of Indian Industry (CII), was attended
by vice presidents from five African nations: the Republic of Burundi, The Gambia, Liberia, Mauritius, and
Zimbabwe.

Pharmaceuticals:
Indian pharmaceutical exports to Africa reached Automobiles:
$3.8 billion in 2023, with room for further growth India sees the automobile industry as a major
as Indian firms can provide affordable medicines to area of collaboration. With the rising demand
meet Africa’s healthcare needs. for affordable vehicles, India is aiming to
India is known for its ability to produce low-cost, strengthen its exports of automobiles and
high-quality generic drugs, which can significantly components to African markets.
benefit African healthcare systems.
Key Areas of Focus
for Indian Exports
to Africa

Agriculture and Agro-Tech: Logistics and Infrastructure:

India has the potential to help Africa secure its food Efficient logistics and transportation are vital for the
supply by sharing seed technology and setting up distribution of goods across Africa, and India aims to
incubation centers to enhance food production. The
collaborate on building this infrastructure.
trade of processed foods and agricultural
technology has significant prospects. Expanding special economic zones (SEZs) in Africa
India’s experience in agro-products and agro-tech will be key for increasing trade and investment,
can also play a vital role in improving agricultural according to the Ministry of External Affairs (MEA)
efficiency in African nations. Secretary, Dammu Ravi.

Africa's Critical Minerals for Green Energy:

African countries are rich in critical minerals like cobalt, copper, lithium, and rare earth elements, which are
essential for manufacturing electric vehicles (EVs) and clean energy products like wind turbines.
Minerals and Energy: Africa is a key supplier of critical minerals to India, including cobalt, copper, and lithium,
which are essential for manufacturing electric vehicles and other clean energy technologies. African nations like the
Democratic Republic of Congo (DRC) are among the top suppliers of these minerals.
Crude Oil and Natural Gas: Africa supplies 15% of India’s total crude oil imports, with countries like Nigeria
and Angola being significant partners in the energy sector.

India’s Investments in Africa:

Lines of Credit: India has extended 196 lines of credit worth $12 billion to support development projects in 42
African countries. These projects include infrastructure, energy, healthcare, and education.

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Key Facts About Africa:
Geographical Size: Africa is the world's second-
largest and second-most populous continent,
after Asia in both cases.
At about 30.3 million km² including adjacent islands,
it covers 6% of Earth's total surface area and
20% of its land area. With 1.3 billion people as of
2018, it accounts for about 16% of the world's
human population.
Number of Countries: Africa consists of 54
recognized sovereign countries, making it the
continent with the most countries in the world.Largest Desert: The
Sahara Desert, located in North Africa, is the largest hot desert in the
world, covering approximately 9.2 million square kilometers, roughly
the size of the United States.
Longest River: The Nile River, flowing through countries like Egypt and
Sudan, is the longest river in the world at about 6,650 kilometers (4,130
miles).
Youngest Population: Africa has the youngest population globally, with a
median age of around 19.7 years. Over 60% of Africa’s population is under
the age of 25, making it a critical region for future global labor and market
growth.
African Union (AU): The African Union (AU) is a continental organization
composed of 55 member states (including Western Sahara), aimed at
promoting unity, economic development, and cooperation. The AU is
headquartered in Addis Ababa, Ethiopia.
Colonial History: Africa was heavily colonized by European powers from the late 19th century to the mid-20th
century. Countries like Britain, France, Portugal, and Belgium established colonies in Africa. The last African
country to gain independence was South Sudan in 2011.
Mount Kilimanjaro: Mount Kilimanjaro in Tanzania is the tallest mountain in Africa, standing at 5,895 meters
(19,341 feet). It is also the highest free-standing mountain in the world.
Islands in Africa: Africa is home to several island nations, including Madagascar, the world’s fourth-largest island,
as well as Mauritius, Comoros, Seychelles, and Cape Verde.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Who inaugurated the 19th CII India Africa Business (d) Together Towards Tomorrow
Conclave on August 21, 2024?
(a) Prime Minister Narendra Modi 3. In which year was the Confederation of Indian Industry
(b) President Droupadi Murmu (CII) founded?
(c) Vice President Jagdeep Dhankhar (a) 1885 (b) 1895
(d) Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman (c) 1905 (d) 1915

2. What was the theme of the 19th CII India Africa 4. Where is the headquarters of the Confederation of Indian
Business Conclave held in 2024? Industry (CII) located?
(a) Creating One Future (a) Mumbai (b) Kolkata
(b) One World, One Market (c) Bengaluru (d) New Delhi
(c) Strengthening Global Partnerships

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5. Who is the President of the Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) for the year 2024-25?
(a) Ratan Tata (b) Sanjiv Puri (c) Mukesh Ambani (d) Gautam Adani

ANSWER KEYS & EXPLANATIONS

1. Correct Answer: (c) Vice President Jagdeep Dhankhar 4. Correct Answer: (d) New Delhi
Explanation: Vice President Jagdeep Dhankhar Explanation: The headquarters of the Confederation of
inaugurated the 19th CII India Africa Business Conclave Indian Industry (CII) is located in New Delhi. CII plays a
in New Delhi on August 21, 2024. This event focused on significant role in promoting industry growth and forming
strengthening economic and business ties between India policy dialogues between the government and the private
and African nations. sector.

2. Correct Answer: (a) Creating One Future 5. Correct Answer: (b) Sanjiv Puri
Explanation: The theme of the 19th CII India Africa Explanation: Sanjiv Puri, the Chairman and Managing
Business Conclave in 2024 was "Creating One Future." Director of ITC Limited, has been elected as the President
This theme reflects India's civilizational ethos and aligns of the Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) for the year
with the motto of India's G20 Presidentship, "One Earth, 2024-25.
One Family, One Future," highlighting unity and
collaboration in shaping a shared future.

3. Correct Answer: (b) 1895

Explanation: The Confederation of Indian Industry (CII)
was founded in 1895. It is a non-governmental, non-profit
organization that plays a crucial role in fostering the
growth of Indian industries and promoting business
partnerships.

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Turkmenistan-Afghanistan-Pakistan-India (TAPI) pipeline
News Highlights:
Afghanistan is set to begin work on its section of the Turkmenistan-Afghanistan-Pakistan-India (TAPI) gas
pipeline, a $10 billion project aiming to transport 33 billion cubic meters of natural gas annually.
The pipeline, which has faced repeated delays due to security concerns in Afghanistan, is seen as a crucial project for
regional cooperation and energy security in South Asia. Afghanistan’s Taliban government, along with officials from
Turkmenistan, marked the launch of the project at a border ceremony.

News Highlights:
Overview:
The TAPI Pipeline, also known as the
"Peace Pipeline", is a 1,814-kilometer
project designed to transport natural gas
from Turkmenistan’s Galkynysh gas field
to India, passing through Afghanistan and
Pakistan.
At full capacity, the pipeline will transport
33 billion cubic meters (bcm) of gas
annually to the respective countries:
Afghanistan (5%), Pakistan (47.5%), and
India (47.5%) during the 30-year
commercial operations period.
Route:
The pipeline will originate from the
Galkynysh gas field in southeast
Turkmenistan.
It will pass through Afghanistan, including Herat and Kandahar, then traverse Balochistan province in Pakistan,
and finally reach Fazilka in the Indian state of Punjab, near the Indo-Pak border.
Timeline and Delays:
The TAPI project was conceived in the 1990s as a strategic energy project for the region.
An inter-governmental agreement was signed in 2010 by Turkmenistan, Afghanistan, Pakistan, and India.
A Gas Pipeline Framework Agreement was signed in December 2010, followed by a bilateral gas sale
agreement in May 2013.
Work on Turkmenistan’s section of the pipeline began in 2015, while a groundbreaking ceremony for the Afghan
section was held in February 2018 in Herat. However, due to security concerns, work was delayed multiple times,
particularly in Afghanistan.
Afghanistan has now announced the start of operations on its side, though experts expect the pipeline to become
fully operational only in the next decade due to ongoing challenges, including financing and security issues.
Financing:
The Asian Development Bank (ADB) is the primary financier of the TAPI project and also serves as the
transaction adviser for the development.
Turkmenistan secured a $700 million loan from the Islamic Development Bank in 2016 for financing its
portion of the pipeline.
The remaining three countries—Afghanistan, Pakistan, and India—have made an initial investment of $200 million
for the project’s development.
Economic Impact and Benefits:
The TAPI pipeline is expected to deliver cheaper natural gas compared to liquefied natural gas (LNG), ensuring a
consistent supply to energy-deficit regions in Afghanistan, Pakistan, and India.

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India's Role:
India’s commitment to the TAPI project has been questioned in the past, especially due to its tense relations with
Pakistan and easy access to global liquefied natural gas (LNG) markets. However, India remains a key buyer, slated
to receive 47.5% of the gas supply.

Afghanistan & Turkmenistan

Turkmenistan holds the fourth-largest

natural gas reserves in the world, primarily
in the Galkynysh gas field, one of the largest
gas fields globally.
The capital of Turkmenistan is Ashgabat,
known for its white marble buildings. It holds
the Guinness World Record for having the
highest concentration of white marble
buildings in the world.
About 70% of Turkmenistan is covered by
Afghanistan is often called the "Crossroads of Central Asia"
the Karakum Desert, one of the largest sand due to its rich history and role as a cultural and trade hub for
deserts in the world. The desert is also home many ancient civilizations, including the Persians, Greeks,
to the famous Darvaza Gas Crater, often Mauryas, and Mongols.
called the "Door to Hell," a natural gas field Afghanistan is a landlocked country bordered by six
that has been burning continuously since countries: Pakistan, Iran, Turkmenistan, Uzbekistan, Tajikistan,
1971. and China.
Turkmenistan is one of the few countries in Afghanistan was home to the famous Buddhas of Bamiyan, two
monumental statues carved into the cliffs in the Bamiyan Valley.
the world that is officially neutral. The
They were destroyed by the Taliban in 2001 but remain a
country’s status as a "Permanent Neutral" symbol of the country's rich cultural heritage.
was recognized by the United Nations in The national sport of Afghanistan is Buzkashi, a traditional
1995. game where players on horseback try to grab a goat carcass and
Turkmenistan celebrates its cultural heritage carry it toward the goal
through sports like horse racing and Ahal- Afghanistan is the world’s largest producer of opium, which is
Teke horses, which are native to the country used to make heroin. The opium poppy cultivation is a major
and considered one of the oldest and most issue in the country’s rural economy.
Afghanistan has a very young population, with about 63% of
beautiful horse breeds in the world.
its people under the age of 25, according to recent estimates.
Despite being the 52nd largest country in The Hindu Kush mountain range stretches across much of
the world by area, Turkmenistan has a small Afghanistan and includes some of the country’s highest peaks,
population of around 6 million people. with altitudes reaching over 7,500 meters (24,600 feet)
Government: Unitary presidential republic Kabul, the capital of Afghanistan, is one of the world’s highest
under a totalitarian hereditary dictatorship capitals, situated at an elevation of about 1,800 meters (5,900
President- Serdar Berdimuhamedow feet).
Vice President- Raşit Meredow Afghanistan has long been seen as a strategically important
location in global geopolitics, often referred to as the
Chairman of the People's Council-
"Graveyard of Empires" due to the number of foreign powers
Gurbanguly Berdimuhamedow that have attempted to control it, including the British Empire,
Soviet Union, and United States
Political Authorities: Hibatullah Akhundzada is the supreme
leader of Afghanistan. The Prime Minister is Hasan Akhund.

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 PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. From which gas field in Turkmenistan does the TAPI 4. Which organization is funding the Turkmenistan-
pipeline transport natural gas? Afghanistan-Pakistan-India (TAPI) pipeline project and
(a) Galkynysh gas field (b) Tengiz gas field acting as its transaction adviser?
(c) Shah Deniz gas field (d) Kashagan gas field (a) World Bank
(b) Asian Development Bank (ADB)
2. How long is the Turkmenistan-Afghanistan-Pakistan- (c) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
India (TAPI) pipeline expected to be? (d) United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
(a) 1,500 kilometres (b) 1,600 kilometres
(c) 1,814 kilometres (d) 2,000 kilometres 5. How is the annual natural gas transported by the TAPI
pipeline distributed among the buyer countries?
3. In which year did India join the Turkmenistan- (a) Afghanistan 10%, Pakistan 45%, India 45%
Afghanistan-Pakistan-India (TAPI) pipeline initiative, (b) Afghanistan 5%, Pakistan 47.5%, India 47.5%
marking a major milestone in the project's (c) Afghanistan 15%, Pakistan 42.5%, India 42.5%
development? (d) Afghanistan 20%, Pakistan 40%, India 40%
(a) 2003 (b) 2005
(c) 2008 (d) 2010

ANSWER KEYS & EXPLANATIONS

1. Correct Answer: (a) Galkynysh gas field 4. Correct Answer: (b) Asian Development Bank (ADB)
Explanation: The TAPI pipeline is designed to transport Explanation: The Asian Development Bank (ADB) is
natural gas from the Galkynysh gas field in funding the Turkmenistan-Afghanistan-Pakistan-India
Turkmenistan through Afghanistan, Pakistan, and into (TAPI) pipeline project and is also serving as the
India. transaction adviser for its development.

2. Correct Answer: (c) 1,814 kilometres 5. Correct Answer: (b) Afghanistan 5%, Pakistan 47.5%,
Explanation: The TAPI pipeline is expected to span India 47.5%
approximately 1,814 kilometres. This extensive Explanation: During the 30-year commercial operations
infrastructure project is designed to transport a period, the natural gas transported by the TAPI pipeline
significant volume of natural gas from Turkmenistan will be distributed among the buyer countries as follows:
through Afghanistan and Pakistan to India, promoting Afghanistan will receive 5% of the annual volume, while
energy security and regional cooperation. Pakistan and India will each receive 47.5%. This
distribution reflects the agreements made to meet the
3. Correct Answer: (c) 2008 energy demands of each nation involved in the project.
Explanation: India joined the TAPI pipeline initiative in
2008, marking a significant milestone in the
development of this regional project. India's
involvement helped to propel the project forward,
aiming to enhance energy security and economic ties
among the participating countries.

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First Legally Binding International AI Treaty
News Highlights:
The United States, the European Union (EU), and the United Kingdom (UK) have made a significant move by
signing the first legally binding international treaty on artificial intelligence (AI).
This groundbreaking treaty, known as the Council of Europe Framework Convention on Artificial Intelligence,
Human Rights, Democracy, and the Rule of Law, was signed at the Council of Europe conference in Vilnius,
Lithuania. The treaty prioritises human rights in regulating the use of AI, both in the public and private sectors.

AI Treaty: Features
The AI convention is the result of 24 months of negotiations among 57 countries, including

1
the US, UK, EU, Japan, Canada, and Australia.
It adopts a risk-based approach to the design, development, use, and decommissioning of AI
systems. The treaty applies to AI systems used in both the public sector and the private sector,
covering their entire lifecycle.

The treaty was developed under the leadership of the Council of Europe, an international

2
organisation that promotes human rights, democracy, and the rule of law.
Besides the US, UK, and EU, several other countries including Andorra, Georgia, Iceland,
Norway, Moldova, San Marino, and Israel have also signed the treaty.
Non-member states such as Argentina, Australia, Japan, and Mexico were involved in
drafting the treaty and are expected to sign soon.

The treaty holds signatory countries accountable for any harmful or discriminatory outcomes
resulting from the use of AI systems.

3 Signatories must ensure that AI systems respect privacy rights and equality, and victims of AI-
related human rights violations must have legal recourse.
Countries must protect democratic processes by ensuring that AI systems do not undermine the
separation of powers or interfere with judicial independence.

The treaty covers AI systems used in a wide range of sectors but includes exemptions for

4 national security and research and development.

It emphasises the need for measures to be taken throughout the AI lifecycle to prevent risks
associated with public and private-sector AI activities.

This treaty is the first global, legally binding agreement that addresses the need to regulate AI in a

5
way that respects human rights, democratic principles, and the rule of law.
The treaty holds nations accountable for AI-related violations such as privacy breaches,
discrimination, and human rights abuses. It provides legal mechanisms for individuals harmed by
AI systems to seek justice.

The diverse participation of countries from different continents underscores the global

6
importance of the treaty. It complements existing AI frameworks like the G7 Pact on AI (October
2023), Europe’s AI Act, and the Bletchley Declaration (November 2023), which focus on
regional or multilateral cooperation.

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 Council of Europe
The Council of Europe was founded on May 5,
1949, making it one of the oldest
intergovernmental organisations in Europe.
Its primary mission is to promote human rights,
democracy, and the rule of law across Europe.
The CoE is not part of the European Union but
works closely with it.
The Council of Europe has 46 member states,
including countries from both the European
Union (EU) and non-EU members like Turkey,
Ukraine, and Iceland.
Russia was a member until March 2022, when
it was expelled following its invasion of Ukraine.
Vatican City is one of the few European
countries that is not a member.
The CoE is headquartered in Strasbourg, France, where its principal buildings, such as the Palais de
l'Europe, are located.
The flag of the Council of Europe is the same as the European Union flag—a circle of 12 gold stars on a
blue background—because the EU later adopted it. The 12 stars represent unity, completeness, and
perfection.
The anthem of the CoE is Beethoven’s "Ode to Joy" from the Ninth Symphony, which symbolises
European unity and human rights.
Several non-European countries, including Canada, Japan, Mexico, and the United States, have
observer status with the Council of Europe.
Israel is also an observer, and Kazakhstan has applied for membership, showing the Council's reach
beyond Europe.
The Venice Commission, officially known as the European Commission for Democracy through Law,
is an advisory body of the CoE. It provides legal advice to member states and beyond, especially in
constitutional matters.
It plays a critical role in promoting democracy, human rights, and the rule of law.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. In which year was the Council of Europe (COE) (b) Only Asian countries
founded? (c) African Union members
(a) 1945 (b) 1949 (c) 1955 (d) 1960 (d) European Union members, the United States, and the
United Kingdom
2. Where is the headquarters of the Council of Europe
(COE) located? 4. How many member states does the Council of Europe
(a) Paris, France (b) Brussels, Belgium (COE) currently have?
(c) Strasbourg, France (d) Geneva, Switzerland (a) 27 (b) 33 (c) 46 (d) 50

3. According to the Council of Europe, the first legally 5. In which year was the Bletchley Declaration signed by 28
binding international treaty on Artificial Intelligence countries?
(AI) will be open for signing by which of the following (a) 2020 (b) 2021
groups? (c) 2022 (d) 2023
(a) Only European Union members

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 ANSWER KEYS & EXPLANATIONS
1. Correct Answer: (b) 1949 nations including European Union members, the United
Explanation: The Council of Europe (COE) was founded States, and the United Kingdom. This landmark treaty
in 1949. It is an international organization committed to aims to set international standards for the development
promoting democracy, human rights, and the rule of law and use of AI technologies.
across its member states.
4. Correct Answer: (c) 46
2. Correct Answer: (c) Strasbourg, France Explanation: The Council of Europe (COE) currently has
Explanation: The headquarters of the Council of Europe 46 member states, including most European countries. It
(COE) is located in Strasbourg, France. This location is distinct from the European Union and plays a
serves as the central point for the organization's significant role in promoting human rights, democracy,
operations and activities focused on enhancing and the rule of law throughout the continent.
democratic principles and human rights across Europe.
5. Correct Answer: (d) 2023
3. Correct Answer: (d) European Union members, the Explanation: On November 1, 2023, 28 governments
United States, and the United Kingdom (including the UK, US, France, Germany, India and China)
Explanation: The Council of Europe announced that the signed the Bletchley Declaration. The Declaration, signed
first legally binding international treaty on Artificial at the AI Safety Summit 2023, aims to coordinate global
Intelligence (AI) will be open for signing by participating cooperation on artificial intelligence (AI) safety.

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China-hosted FOCAC summit
News Highlights:
The Forum on China-Africa Cooperation (FOCAC), a crucial diplomatic event hosted by China, has seen 53 African
nations in attendance, marking a significant step in China-Africa relations.
At the ninth edition of the summit in Beijing, Chinese President Xi Jinping pledged $51 billion in funding to
support 30 infrastructure projects across Africa, as part of efforts to strengthen cooperation in sectors like state
governance, industrialisation, and agriculture.
The summit comes at a time when China is experiencing an economic slowdown and seeks to adjust its investment
strategy in Africa, moving towards more targeted and sustainable projects.

Forum on China-Africa Cooperation

(FOCAC):

The Forum on China-Africa Cooperation (FOCAC)

was established in 2000 to formalize and expand the
strategic partnership between China and African
countries. It provides a framework for economic,
political, and cultural cooperation.
A summit is held every three years, alternating
between China and an African nation. These summits
are key for establishing long-term bilateral projects,
investments, and agreements.

FOCAC includes 53 African nations as members, representing nearly the entire continent except
Eswatini, which maintains diplomatic ties with Taiwan, contrary to Beijing’s "One China" Policy.
The African Union Commission (AUC), the leading organization responsible for promoting economic
integration and cooperation across Africa, is also a member of FOCAC.

The theme for the 2024 FOCAC summit is “Joining Hands to Advance Modernization and Build a
High-Level China-Africa Community with a Shared Future”. This theme reflects China and Africa’s
shared goal of modernization, mutual development, and closer integration in global economic and
political affairs.

Evolution of China-Africa Relations:

China has long supported African liberation movements and was an advocate for the decolonization of African
nations during the 1950s. This helped China gain political influence and allies in Africa during global forums in the
1970s, including support to displace Taiwan as China’s representative in the United Nations Security Council.
One of the first significant infrastructure projects China undertook in Africa was the Tanzania-Zambia railway,
completed in 1976, which was built as a symbol of Chinese commitment to African development.
Current Trade and Investments:
China is Africa’s largest bilateral trading partner, a status it has held since 2009. Trade between China and Africa
amounted to $282 billion in 2023, according to the International Monetary Fund (IMF).
China imports approximately 20% of Africa’s exports, mainly primary commodities like metals, minerals, and
fuel, and supplies about 16% of African imports, largely in the form of manufactured goods, electronics, and
machinery.

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Belt and Road Initiative (BRI):
Africa is a key partner in China’s Belt and Road Initiative (BRI), which aims to create land and maritime routes
connecting China to global markets, modeled after the historical Silk Road.
Over the past decade, China has reportedly invested over $120 billion in infrastructure projects that support BRI
goals in Africa, including ports, railways, and highways.
Significance of the summit
The 2024 FOCAC comes at a crucial moment for China as it deals with a prolonged economic slowdown, increased
concerns over loan defaults by African nations, and a shift in its global investment strategy. In recent years, African
nations like Zambia and Ghana have defaulted on loans from China, raising concerns about debt sustainability.
China is adjusting its investment strategy to focus on smaller, more sustainable projects, while African nations are
likely to seek additional financing for infrastructure and development projects.
Chinese lending to Africa has significantly decreased in recent years, plummeting from a peak of about $28 billion
in 2016 to just $1 billion in 2022 and $4.6 billion in 2023. This reduction reflects a cautious approach by China
in response to growing concerns over debt and economic challenges.
China’s messaging at FOCAC emphasized the importance of China-Africa solidarity, framing the two as “victims of
Western imperialism” and reinforcing China’s image as a "developing country". This narrative resonated with
African leaders, who welcomed the renewed commitments to economic cooperation.

Debt trap and Trade Imbalance Concerns

China has faced accusations of debt trap diplomacy, where it allegedly extends loans for infrastructure projects in
developing countries, leading them to debt burdens and increased dependence on China. The Hambantota port in
Sri Lanka is often cited as an example of this, where a 99-year lease was given to a Chinese firm after Sri Lanka
failed to repay its debts.
China has rejected these accusations, arguing that defaults are often due to domestic mismanagement by the
borrowing countries rather than any deliberate strategy by Beijing.
Countries like South Africa have expressed concerns about the trade imbalance in favor of China, as African
exports remain heavily skewed towards raw materials, while imports from China consist of manufactured goods,
limiting local industrial growth in Africa.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. In which city was the Forum on China-Africa 4. Which African nation is not a member of the Forum on
Cooperation (FOCAC) summit, attended by 53 African China-Africa Cooperation (FOCAC) due to its diplomatic
nations, hosted? ties with Taiwan?
(a) Shangha (b) Beijing (a) Eswatini
(c) Guangzhou (d) Shenzhen (b) Botswana
(c) Kenya
2. When was the Forum on China-Africa Cooperation (d) Nigeria
(FOCAC) established to formalize the strategic
partnership between China and African nations? 5. What is the full form of AfCFTA, the agreement that opens
(a) 1990 (b) 1995 up prospects for deeper economic integration among
(c) 2000 (d) 2005 African nations?
(a) African Continental Free Trade Agreement
3. How frequently is the Forum on China-Africa (b) Africa Comprehensive Free Trade Area
Cooperation (FOCAC) summit conducted? (c) African Continental Financial Trade Association
(a) Every two years (b) Every three years (d) Africa Continental Free Trade Alliance
(c) Every four years (d) Every five years

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 ANSWER KEYS & EXPLANATIONS
1. Correct Answer: (b) Beijing 4. Correct Answer: (a) Eswatini
Explanation: The Forum on China-Africa Cooperation Explanation: Eswatini is the only African nation that is not
(FOCAC) summit, which saw attendance from 53 African a member of the Forum on China-Africa Cooperation
nations, was hosted in Beijing. This summit showcased (FOCAC) due to its diplomatic ties with Taiwan. This is in
China's evolving approach to its partnership with Africa contrast with the "One China" Policy, which is a significant
amidst various economic pressures. diplomatic principle upheld by China.

2. Correct Answer: (c) 2000 5. Correct Answer: (a) African Continental Free Trade
Explanation: The Forum on China-Africa Cooperation Agreement
(FOCAC) was established in 2000 to formalize and Explanation: AfCFTA stands for the African Continental
enhance the strategic partnership between China and Free Trade Agreement. This agreement is a significant
African nations. It facilitates cooperative agreements and step towards economic integration across the African
economic partnerships between China and the continent. continent, aiming to create a single market for goods and
services, facilitated by movement of persons to deepen
3. Correct Answer: (b) Every three years the economic integration and prosperity of African
Explanation: The Forum on China-Africa Cooperation countries.
(FOCAC) summit is conducted every three years, with the
hosting duties alternating between China and an African
member nation. This regular engagement helps to
continually strengthen and renew the strategic and
economic ties between the participants.

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India Signs two Defence agreements with USA
News Highlights:
India and the US have signed two new agreements as part of their growing defence ties: the Security of Supply
Arrangement (SOSA) and a Memorandum of Agreement on the Assignment of Liaison Officers.
These agreements strengthen the bilateral military cooperation that has been developing between the two nations
over the past decade. Defence Minister Rajnath Singh concluded his four-day official visit on August 25, 2024,
during which several strategic initiatives were discussed, including joint co-production projects.

Two New Defence Agreements

Security of Supply 1. Memorandum of Agreement on

Arrangement (SOSA): 2. Liaison Officers:

SOSA ensures that both India and the US will This agreement enables the deployment of
provide reciprocal priority support for goods Indian armed forces officers in key US
and services that promote national defence. This Strategic Commands. The first Indian liaison
arrangement will allow both countries to resolve officer will be posted to the US Special
supply chain disruptions and meet urgent Operations Command headquarters in
national security needs. Florida.
India became the 18th SOSA partner of the US, The goal is to enhance information-sharing
joining a group of nations that collaborate on and improve coordination between the Indian
defence supply chains. and US militaries, strengthening overall
While SOSA is legally non-binding, it is considered defence collaboration.
an important mechanism to improve
interoperability with US defence trade partners.

The US and India are also working towards concluding a Reciprocal Defence Procurement (RDP) Agreement,
which will be legally binding and facilitate better defence trade by promoting interoperability and
standardisation of conventional defence equipment.
Some recent Agreements between India and USA
The 2013 Joint US-India Declaration on Defence Cooperation and the 2015 US-India Defence Framework
outlined a long-term vision for bilateral defence collaboration, covering areas such as joint training, technology
transfer, and industrial cooperation.
2023 Roadmap for Defence Industrial Cooperation: The 2023 roadmap emphasizes co-production in areas such
as jet engines, unmanned platforms, and ground mobility systems. The US has endorsed India’s integration into
global defence supply chains and is supporting the development of naval and maritime infrastructure in India.
Initiative on Critical and Emerging Technologies (iCET): In January 2023, the iCET was established as a
framework to expand cooperation in critical and emerging technologies between India and the US, covering both
commercial and defence technologies. This initiative seeks to co-develop and co-produce cutting-edge defence
systems.
India-US Defence Acceleration Ecosystem (INDUS-X): The INDUS-X was launched in June 2023 during Prime
Minister Narendra Modi’s state visit to the US. It is an initiative to foster defence innovation by building a defence
innovation bridge between the two nations, supporting collaboration in technology, systems, and products.

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 Foundational Agreements in India-US Defence Relations:

General Security of Military Information Agreement (GSOMIA) – 2002: This agreement established
the framework for sharing military information between India and the US.

Logistics Exchange Memorandum of Agreement (LEMOA) – 2016: LEMOA enables reciprocal use of
each other's military bases for logistics support, facilitating joint operations and cooperation in
global missions.
Communications Compatibility and Security Agreement (COMCASA) – 2018: COMCASA is an India-
specific version of a US defence agreement that enhances interoperability between the two
militaries, allowing India access to high-end communication technology for its US-origin platforms.

Basic Exchange and Cooperation Agreement (BECA) – 2020: BECA facilitates the exchange of
geospatial intelligence, including high-end military technology, maps, and other sensitive data,
enhancing India’s precision-strike capabilities and intelligence gathering.

Industrial Security Annex (ISA) – 2019: The ISA under the GSOMIA allows for the exchange of
classified information between the defence industries of India and the US, promoting industrial
cooperation in defence projects.

Major Defence Partner Designation – 2016: In 2016, the US designated India as a Major Defence
Partner, providing India with preferential access to defence technologies and military platforms.

Strategic Trade Authorisation (STA) Tier 1 Status – 2018: India was elevated to Strategic Trade
Authorisation (STA) Tier 1 status, allowing licence-free access to a range of military and dual-use
technologies regulated by the US Department of Commerce.

Defence Trade and Technology Initiative (DTTI) – 2012: The DTTI was established to promote
industrial cooperation and defence trade between India and the US. It encourages joint research
and development, and facilitates technology transfer.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. India Signs two Defence agreements with USA (d) Fort Bragg, North Carolina
1. What is the rank of India among the Security of
Supplies Arrangement (SOSA) partners of the US?
(a) 10th (b) 15th (c) 18th (d) 20th 4. What is the full form of GSOMIA, the agreement that laid
the foundation for India-US defense cooperation in 2002?
2. Which of the following countries is not a Security of (a) General Security of Military Information Agreement
Supplies Arrangement (SOSA) partner of the US? (b) Global Security of Military Intelligence Agreement
(a) Canada (b) Germany (c) General Strategy of Military Integration Agreement
(c) Japan (d) Italy (d) Global Strategy of Military Information Association

3. Where will India deploy its first Liaison Officer under 5. In which year was the Logistics Exchange Memorandum
the Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) aimed at of Agreement (LEMOA) signed, establishing a framework
enhancing information-sharing with the US? for reciprocal logistical support between the militaries of
(a) Pentagon, Washington D.C. India and the US?
(b) US Special Operations Command, Florida (a) 2014 (b) 2015 (c) 2016 (d) 2017
(c) Naval Station Norfolk, Virginia

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 ANSWER KEYS & EXPLANATIONS
1. Correct Answer: (c) 18th 4. Correct Answer: (a) General Security of Military
Explanation: India is the 18th partner of the United States Information Agreement
under the Security of Supplies Arrangement (SOSA). This Explanation: GSOMIA stands for General Security of
partnership underscores the strategic collaboration Military Information Agreement. It was established in
between the US and India, particularly in terms of 2002 as a foundational agreement for India-US defense
securing and stabilizing supply chains. cooperation, specifically facilitating the sharing of
sensitive military information between the two nations.
2. Correct Answer: (b) Germany
Explanation: India is the 18th SOSA partner of the US 5. Correct Answer: (c) 2016
after Australia, Canada, Denmark, Estonia, Finland, Israel, Explanation: The Logistics Exchange Memorandum of
Italy, Japan, Latvia, Lithuania, the Netherlands, Norway, Agreement (LEMOA) was signed in 2016. This agreement
Republic of Korea, Singapore, Spain, Sweden, and the UK. established a framework for reciprocal logistical support
between the militaries of India and the United States,
3. Correct Answer: (b) US Special Operations Command, enhancing operational cooperation and strategic
Florida partnership.
Explanation: Under the Memorandum of Understanding
(MoU) between India and the US, India will start by
deploying a Liaison Officer to the US Special Operations
Command in Florida.

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 Environment & Biodiversity
Uttarakhand : Now the first state to Launch Gross Environment Product
News Highlights:
Uttarakhand became the first state in the world to launch the Gross Environmental Product (GEP) Index,
an innovative initiative aimed at measuring the ecological status of the region.
This move marks a significant step towards balancing
economic development with environmental sustainability.
Chief Minister Pushkar Singh Dhami launched the GEP Gross
Index in Dehradun on Friday, stating that the GEP will Environmental
now be released alongside GDP to create a harmony Product (GEP)
between ecology and economy.

Advantages of the Gross Environmental Product (GEP): Gross Environmental Product

1 (GEP)
Quantitative Indicator: GEP can serve as a quantitative
metric for measuring ecological health and can be applied
The Gross Environmental Product
to official performance appraisals and environmental
auditing. (GEP) is a system for measuring the
Impact Assessment: GEP helps assess the impact of value of ecosystem services that
human activities on ecosystems and natural resources, support human welfare and
enabling better environmental planning and conservation sustainable development.
strategies. It is a part of green GDP and aims to
EcoCompensation & Revenue Sharing: The GEP quantify the benefits provided by
provides a scientific basis for EcoCompensation and can natural ecosystems, such as forests,
inform public financial transfers, similar to how India’s water bodies, soils, and biodiversity.
Finance Commission includes forest cover as a criterion
in revenue-sharing between the Union and states.
2 Significance:
Measuring Progress: GEP helps measure the progress of
ecosystem services, which is crucial for tracking
sustainable development. It provides a comprehensive In some cases, GEP can surpass the
understanding of how ecosystems contribute to economic GDP of certain regions. For example,
and social well-being. in 2000, the GEP of Qinghai (China)
Universal Measure: GEP can be applied universally to was greater than its GDP, reflecting
different ecosystems and countries, making it a global the immense value of ecosystem
standard for assessing ecological contributions. This services in supporting both the
universality allows for consistent comparisons and environment and the economy.
benchmarking across borders, fostering international
cooperation in environmental management.
3 Formula for GEP Index:
Raising Environmental Awareness: The GEP Index will
raise public awareness about the value of environmental GEP Index = (Air-GEP Index + Water-
conservation and highlight the importance of ecological GEP Index + Soil-GEP Index + Forest-
sustainability in development planning. By quantifying the GEP Index). These four components of
economic benefits of ecosystems, it also helps the environment are directly impacted
policymakers and the public recognize the tangible returns
by development activities and reflect
of investing in and preserving our natural resources.
the health of the ecosystem.

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 Why Uttarakhand Needs GEP
Ecological Contributions: Uttarakhand, with over GEP vs. GDP: Gross Domestic Product (GDP)
71% forest cover, provides ecological services measures economic output but often ignores
worth ₹95,112 crore per year to the nation. Its environmental degradation. GEP provides an
forests generate employment worth ₹300 crore alternative by quantifying the contributions of
annually, fuelwood worth ₹3,395 crore, and natural ecosystems to the economy, capturing the
timber worth ₹1,243 crore. Additionally, the true value of natural capital in sustaining
forests help prevent flooding, saving the state economic and social well-being.
₹1,306 crore annually. Environmental Accounting: The System of
Himalayan Role: The Himalayas play a critical role National Accounts (SNA) is an accounting
in sustaining the Gangetic Plains, home to over framework for measuring economic activities.
500 million people. Uttarakhand is also the origin Green GDP integrates environmental information
of major rivers like the Ganga, Yamuna, and into the national accounting system, adjusting for
Sharada, further emphasizing the state's ecological environmental damage. This helps measure both
significance. economic progress and environmental
Wildlife & Natural Resources: Uttarakhand is sustainability.
home to wildlife reserves like Corbett National
Park and Rajaji Tiger Reserve, making the state a
critical biodiversity hotspot.

Facts on Uttarakhand!

Land of the Gods: Uttarakhand is often referred to as "Devbhumi" or the Land of the Gods because of its
numerous temples and pilgrimage sites like Kedarnath, Badrinath, Gangotri, and Yamunotri. These four
sites together form the famous Char Dham pilgrimage circuit.
Birthplace of River Ganga: The Ganga, one of the holiest rivers in India, originates from Gaumukh, located
at the Gangotri Glacier in Uttarakhand.
Yoga Capital of the World: The town of Rishikesh is globally recognized as the Yoga Capital of the World.
It attracts thousands of spiritual seekers and yoga enthusiasts from around the world, and many
international yoga festivals are held here annually.
World’s Highest Shiva Temple: The Tungnath Temple, located at an altitude of 12,073 feet in the Garhwal
region, is the highest Shiva temple in the world. It’s a popular trek destination and part of the Panch Kedar
(five temples dedicated to Lord Shiva).
Jim Corbett National Park: Jim Corbett National Park is the oldest national park in India, established in
1936 as Hailey National Park. It was renamed after the famous British hunter and conservationist Jim
Corbett, and is home to a large population of Bengal tigers.
Auli - The Skiing Paradise: Auli, in Uttarakhand, is known as the Skiing Capital of India and is one of the
top skiing destinations in the world. It also offers stunning views of the Nanda Devi and other snow-capped
Himalayan peaks.
Valley of Flowers: The Valley of Flowers is a UNESCO World Heritage site and one of the most beautiful
places in India. Located in the Chamoli district, this high-altitude valley is known for its vibrant floral
meadows and rare medicinal plants.
Birthplace of Chipko Movement: Uttarakhand was the birthplace of the Chipko Movement, a pioneering
environmental conservation movement in the 1970s where villagers, especially women, hugged trees to
prevent their cutting. This movement gained global recognition for environmental protection.

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 PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Which was the first state in India to assign monetary 4. Which formula best describes the calculation of Green
values to its natural resources like air, water, forest, and GDP?
soil, introducing the concept of Gross Environment (a) GDP + Cost of Environmental Conservation
Product (GEP)? (b) GDP - Cost of Natural Resource Depletion
(a) Kerala (b) Uttarakhand (c) GDP + Environmental Benefits
(c) Himachal Pradesh. (d) Assam (d) GDP - (Cost of Natural Resource Depletion +
Environmental Degradation)
2. Who is credited with establishing the concept of Gross
Environmental Product (GEP) at the global level in 5. Which consultancy firm publishes the Global Green
1997? Economy Index (GGEI)?
(a) Amartya Sen. (b) Robert Costanza (a) McKinsey & Company
(c) Nicholas Stern (d) Joseph Stiglitz (b) Boston Consulting Group
(c) Deloitte
3. In which year was the concept of Gross Environmental (d) Dual Citizen
Product (GEP) established at the global level by
ecological economists like Robert Costanza?
(a) 1990 (b) 1995
(c) 1997 (d) 2000

ANSWER KEYS & EXPLANATIONS

1. Correct Answer: (b) Uttarakhand 4. Correct Answer: (d) GDP - (Cost of Natural Resource
Explanation: Uttarakhand became the first state in India Depletion + Environmental Degradation)
to assign monetary values to its natural resources, Explanation: Green GDP is calculated by subtracting the
including air, water, forest, and soil, and termed this cost of natural resource depletion and environmental
valuation as the Gross Environment Product (GEP). degradation from the conventional Gross Domestic
Product (GDP) of a country. This adjusted indicator, also
2. Correct Answer: (b) Robert Costanza known as the environmentally adjusted domestic product,
Explanation: Robert Costanza, along with other ecological reflects how sustainable a country's economic growth is
economists, is credited with establishing the concept of and its impact on the wellbeing of its people. The formula
Gross Environmental Product (GEP) at the global level. GDP - (Cost of Natural Resource Depletion +
This concept was introduced to quantify the economic Environmental Degradation) accurately captures this
value of the natural resources and ecosystem services. calculation.

3. Correct Answer: (c) 1997 5. Correct Answer: (d) Dual Citizen

Explanation: The concept of Gross Environmental Explanation: The Global Green Economy Index (GGEI) is
Product (GEP) was established in 1997. This initiative published by Dual Citizen, a consultancy firm that
was part of an effort to incorporate the economic specializes in providing data-driven solutions for
valuation of natural resources and ecosystem services sustainability. This index is a key tool for assessing and
into global economic assessments. comparing the green economic performance of different
countries globally.

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Air Quality Life Index (AQLI) 2024
News Highlights:
According to the Air Quality Life Index (AQLI) 2024 report by the Energy Policy Institute at the University of
Chicago (EPIC), India saw a 19.3% reduction in particulate pollution in 2022, adding an average of 51 days to
the life expectancy of its citizens.
This is the second-highest reduction globally after Bangladesh. Despite this improvement, more than 40% of
India’s population still breathes air that exceeds the PM2.5 standards.
Key Findings of AQLI 2024:
Impact on Life Expectancy:
Global Impact: If PM2.5 levels were
reduced to the WHO guidelines of 5
µg/m³, it could add 1.9 years to global
life expectancy, equating to a total of
14.9 billion life years worldwide.
India: Indians could lose 3.6 years of
life expectancy if the country fails to
meet the WHO's PM2.5 standards.
Pollution Reduction in India:
In 2022, PM2.5 concentrations in India
were 19.3% lower than in 2021, with
the highest reductions in West Bengal
and Jharkhand. Despite this, the
northern plains, the most polluted
region, saw only a 17.2% reduction.
If India meets its National Clean Air
Programme (NCAP) target, life
expectancy in non-attainment cities
could increase by two years compared
to 2017.
India Specific Findings
All of India’s 1.4 billion people live in
areas where the annual average particulate
pollution level exceeds the WHO
guideline. Ninety-four percent live in
areas where it exceeds India’s own air
quality standard.
Particulate pollution has sharply increased
over time. Since 1998, average annual
particulate pollution has increased 22
percent, cutting 1.3 years off the life of the
average resident over thos years.
A quarter of India’s population is exposed to
pollution levels not seen in any other
country, with 248 million residents of
northern India on track to lose more than
8 years of life expectancy if pollution levels
persist.

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 Delhi, the national capital, has the highest level of pollution in the country, with pollution 14 times greater
than the WHO guideline. Residents of Delhi stand to lose 13 years of life expectancy if pollution persists.
National Clean Air Programme (NCAP):
Launched in 2019, NCAP aims for a 20-30% reduction in particulate pollution by 2024, with a revised target of
40% by 2026. As of 2022, pollution in districts with non-attainment cities declined by 18.8% since 2017, adding
10.8 months to life expectancy.
Policy Impact
In 2019, the central government declared a “war on pollution” and announced the National Clean Air
Programme (NCAP).
NCAP aims for a 20-30% reduction in particulate pollution by 2024, with a revised target of 40% by 2026. As of
2022, pollution in districts with non-attainment cities declined by 18.8% since 2017, adding 10.8 months to life
expectancy.
Though the NCAP’s goals are non-binding, if India does achieve and sustain this reduction, it would lead to
remarkable health improvements: a nationwide reduction of 25 percent, the midpoint of the NCAP’s target, would
increase India’s national life expectancy by 1.8 years, and by 3.5 years for residents of Delhi.

Global Scenario of Air Pollution

US: Since 1970, the US has seen a 67.2% reduction in pollution, adding 1.5 years to life expectancy.
China: After implementing strict air quality measures in 2014, China saw a 41% reduction in pollution,
increasing life expectancy by 2 years.
South and Southeast Asia: The region remains the most polluted, contributing to 45% of global life
years lost. In Myanmar, pollution reduces life expectancy by 2.9 years.
Africa: In Central and West Africa, PM2.5 concentration averages 22.2 µg/m³, reducing life expectancy
by 1.7 years.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Which institution released the Air Quality Life Index 4. In which year was the National Air Quality Index
(AQLI) 2024? launched to effectively disseminate air quality
(a) World Health Organization information to the public?
(b) Energy Policy Institute at the University of Chicago (a) 2012
(c) United Nations Environment Programme (b) 2014
(d) Environmental Protection Agency (c) 2016
(d) 2018
2. According to the AQLI 2024 report, what percentage of
India's population breathes air that exceeds the national 5. Which program was revamped by the Government of
PM2.5 standard? India in 2022 to achieve a 40% reduction in particulate
(a) 20% (b) 30% pollution levels by 2026 in 131 non-attainment cities?
(c) 40% (d) 50% (a) National Solar Mission
(b) National Green Corps
3. What is the World Health Organization's recommended (c) National Clean Air Programme
annual average concentration limit for PM2.5? (d) National Environmental Policy
(a) 5 µg/m³ (b) 10 µg/m³
(c) 15 µg/m³ (d) 20 µg/m³

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 ANSWER KEYS & EXPLANATIONS
1. Correct Answer: (b) Energy Policy Institute at the This stringent guideline is set to minimize health risks
University of Chicago (EPIC) associated with air pollution, as fine particulate matter
Explanation: The Air Quality Life Index (AQLI) 2024 was can penetrate deep into the respiratory tract and into the
released by the Energy Policy Institute at the University lungs, causing significant health problems.
of Chicago (EPIC). This index provides a detailed analysis
of the impact of air pollution on life expectancy around 4. Correct Answer: (b) 2014
the world. Explanation: The National Air Quality Index was launched
in 2014 as part of an initiative to provide accessible and
2. Correct Answer: (c) 40% understandable air quality information to the public.
Explanation: The Air Quality Life Index (AQLI) 2024
report highlights that more than 40% of India's 5. Correct Answer: (c) National Clean Air Programme
population is exposed to air quality that surpasses the Explanation: In 2022, the Government of India revamped
national PM2.5 standard of 40 µg/m³. This indicates a the National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) with the goal
significant portion of the population is breathing air of achieving a 40% reduction in particulate pollution
considered unsafe based on national standards. levels by 2026. This ambitious target is focused on 131
non-attainment cities, which are cities identified as
3. Correct Answer: (a) 5 µg/m³ consistently failing to meet the national air quality
Explanation: The World Health Organization (WHO) standards.
recommends that the annual average concentrations of
particulate matter (PM2.5) should not exceed 5 µg/m³.

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BioE3 (Biotechnology for Economy, Environment and Employment):
Centre launches new policy
News Highlights:
The Union Government has recently launched the BioE3 (Biotechnology for Economy, Environment, and
Employment) Policy, aimed at transforming the biotech sector and accelerating the adoption of biomanufacturing
technologies in India.
The policy focuses on making industrial and manufacturing processes more sustainable by leveraging
biotechnology, with a long-term goal of creating a $300 billion bioeconomy by 2030.
What is the BioE3 Policy?
Aim: The BioE3 policy is designed to promote biomanufacturing by adopting cutting-edge biotechnology solutions,
aligning research, and developing sustainable industrial processes that mimic natural biological systems.
Implementation: The policy is overseen by the Department of Biotechnology (DBT) and aims to foster
innovation, research, and entrepreneurship in six thematic sectors of biotechnology, leading to economic and
environmental benefits.

Benefits of Biotechnology as per the BioE3 Policy

01
Sustainable Biomanufacturing:
Biotechnology can transform traditional
chemical processes into environment-
friendly alternatives, such as bioplastics
06 01
and biofuels, reducing the environmental Futuristic Bio-based
impact of industrial production. Marine and Chemicals and
For instance, biodegradable plastics Space Enzymes
Research
like polylactic acid (PLA), produced
from renewable resources like corn
starch or sugarcane, can replace
harmful petrochemical-based plastics. Carbon
Animal-Free Products: Precision 05 Capture and
Utilisation
Thematic
Sectors
Functional
Foods and 02
fermentation technology can produce Smart Proteins
animal-free milk, offering the same
taste, texture, and nutritional value as
natural milk, but with a lower carbon
footprint. Climate- Precision
Carbon Capture: Microorganisms such Resilient Biotherapeutics
Agriculture
as bacteria and algae can be used for

04 03
carbon capture and transformation of
CO2 into useful byproducts like biofuels,
eliminating the need for costly and
unsustainable carbon storage.
Synthetic Biology: Synthetic biology allows for the creation of novel organisms or biochemicals designed to
perform specific functions, such as the production of enzymes for industrial applications or lab-grown organs for
medical transplants.

Economic and Environmental Potential of BioE3:

Economic Impact: Biomanufacturing alone is expected to contribute between $2 trillion and $4 trillion to the
global economy over the next decade. The BioE3 policy positions India to be a leader in the bioeconomy, which has
already grown from $10 billion in 2014 to $130 billion in 2024.

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 Job Creation and Skill Development: Bio-hubs established under this policy will act as training centres to develop
skilled professionals in synthetic biology, bioinformatics, and bioprocess engineering. This will help bridge the skill
gap in the evolving biomanufacturing sector.
Climate Change Mitigation: The policy aligns with India’s climate goals of reducing emission intensity by 45% by
2030 and achieving net zero emissions by 2070. Biotechnology-driven decarbonization, through processes like
microbial CO2 conversion, will play a critical role in achieving these targets.

India's Biotechnology Sector: India’s biotechnology industry is valued at around $80 billion and is projected to
reach $150 billion by 2025. The country is a global leader in biopharmaceuticals, biosimilars, and vaccine
production.
Notable Biotech Innovations: Insulin production through genetically modified bacteria, Golden Rice, a GM crop
designed to combat vitamin A deficiency., Lab-grown meat and animal-free dairy as sustainable food sources.

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Why is the BioE3 Policy Important for India?
Catering to Growing Nutritional Needs: With a projected population of 1.67 billion by 2050, India will face
increased demand for nutritious food. Biotechnology will help address this challenge by producing smart proteins
and functional foods with a low carbon footprint.
Advancing Cell and Gene Therapy: The global cell and gene therapy market is expected to reach $22 billion by
2027. BioE3 will strengthen India’s position in personalised medicine by advancing technologies like mRNA
therapeutics, gene therapy, and monoclonal antibodies.
Tackling Climate Change: The policy supports climate-resilient agriculture and carbon capture, both of which
are critical to mitigating climate change while ensuring food security and sustainable development.
Space and Marine Research: BioE3 will focus on space biomanufacturing to develop life support systems that
can recycle waste, produce oxygen, and create food in space, essential for future long-duration space missions.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Which body approved the 'BioE3 Policy for Fostering (c) Technology Development and Deployment
High-Performance Biomanufacturing'? (d) Environmental Conservation
(a) Supreme Court (b) Parliament
(c) Union Cabinet. (d) State Governments 4. What does 'BioE3' stand for in the context of the new
biotechnology policy?
2. Alongside the BioE3 Policy, the Union Cabinet merged (a) Biotechnology for Economy, Environment, and
three schemes of the Science & Technology Ministry Employment
into a single scheme named: (b) Biotechnology for Ecology, Economy, and
(a) Bharat Shakti (b) Vigyan Jyoti Employment
(c) Vigyan Dhara (d) Tech Pragati (c) Biotechnology for Economy, Energy, and Efficiency
(d) Biotechnology for Education, Environment, and
3. Which of the following is NOT one of the three central Energy
sector umbrella schemes implemented by the
Department of Science & Technology (DST) before their 5. By which year does the BioE3 Policy aim to achieve a US
merger? $300 billion bioeconomy?
(a) S&T Institutional and Human Capacity Building (a) 2025 (b) 2030
(b) R&D and Innovation (c) 2040 (d) 2050

ANSWER KEYS & EXPLANATIONS

1. Correct Answer: (c) Union Cabinet schemes: Science and Technology (S&T) Institutional and
Explanation: The 'BioE3 Policy for Fostering High- Human Capacity Building, R&D and Innovation, and
Performance Biomanufacturing' was approved by the Technology Development and Deployment.
Union Cabinet.
4. Correct Answer: (a) Biotechnology for Economy,
2. Correct Answer: (c) Vigyan Dhara Environment, and Employment Explanation: The full form
Explanation: The Union Cabinet merged three schemes of of 'BioE3' as per the policy introduced by the Department
the Science & Technology Ministry into a single scheme of Biotechnology is 'Biotechnology for Economy,
called "Vigyan Dhara." Environment, and Employment'.
5. Correct Answer: (b) 2030 Explanation: The BioE3 Policy
3. Correct Answer: (d) Environmental Conservation is designed to scale up efforts in high-performance
Explanation: The Department of Science & Technology biomanufacturing with the ambition of achieving a US
(DST) implemented three central sector umbrella $300 billion bioeconomy by 2030.

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Launch of Samudra Pratap: First indigenously built Pollution Control
Vessel
News Highlights:
India has launched its first indigenously developed Pollution Control Vessel (PCV), named ‘Samudra Pratap’,
constructed by Goa Shipyard Limited (GSL) for the Indian Coast Guard (ICG).
This milestone highlights India's growing self-reliance in defence production and its focus on environmental
protection in maritime zones

KEY DETAILS ON ‘SAMUDRA PRATAP’:

FIRST INDIGENOUSLY DEVELOPED PCV:

1 ‘Samudra Pratap’ is India's first Pollution Control Vessel designed and
constructed indigenously by Goa Shipyard Limited (GSL) for the Indian
Coast Guard (ICG).
The vessel is designed to mitigate oil spills and tackle other forms of
marine pollution, protecting India’s vast coastline and maritime
ecosystems.

SPECIFICATIONS:
2 The ship has a length of 114.5 metres, a breadth of 16.5 metres, and
displaces 4,170 tonnes.
Its keel-laying ceremony was held on November 21, 2022, marking the
start of the construction phase.

CONTRACT FOR POLLUTION CONTROL VESSELS:

3 GSL signed a contract to build two Pollution Control Vessels for the Indian
Coast Guard, valued at Rs 583 crores.
This is the first time such vessels are being designed and built
indigenously in India, marking a significant achievement in shipbuilding
capabilities.

SPECIAL KEEL-LAYING CEREMONY:

4 The ship’s construction began with a keel-laying ceremony on November
21, 2022, a naval tradition that dates back centuries and signifies the start
of a ship’s construction.

NAME SIGNIFICANCE:
5 The name ‘Samudra Pratap’ translates to ‘Ocean Majesty’, highlighting its
role in preserving the majesty of India's marine environments.

Significance of the Launch:

Self-Reliance in Defense:
During the launch event, Raksha Rajya Mantri Shri Sanjay Seth emphasised India’s growing self-reliance
(Atmanirbharta) in defence production.
India, now the fifth-largest economy globally, is making strides in defence shipbuilding not only for its needs
but also for exporting ships to other countries.

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 Contribution to Maritime Environmental Security:
The introduction of ‘Samudra Pratap’ into the Indian Coast Guard’s fleet enhances India’s ability to address oil
spills and marine pollution.
The vessel is crucial in managing environmental challenges posed by increasing maritime traffic and
industrial activities along India’s coastline.
Broader Role in Coast Guard Operations:
Apart from its pollution control role, ‘Samudra Pratap’ is expected to contribute to broader maritime
operations, strengthening the Indian Coast Guard’s ability to monitor and respond to environmental threats
and ensuring the protection of India's maritime interests.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. What is the name of the first indigenously built 4. Who is the current Raksha Rajya Mantri who urged
Pollution Control Vessel launched on 29th August 2024? industry partners to aim for self-sufficiency and net
(a) Samudra Raksha (b) Samudra Prahari export status in defense production?
(c) Samudra Shakti. (d) Samudra Pratap (a) Rajnath Singh
(b) Sanjay Seth
2. Where was the first indigenously built Pollution Control (c) Ajay Bhatt
Vessel launched? (d) Nirmala Sitharaman
(a) Mumbai (b) Kochi
(c) Goa (d) Chennai 5. What is the crew complement of the Pollution Control
Vessel?
3. Which oil spill is considered the largest and most (a) 24 officers and 90 sailors
famous in history? (b) 24 officers and 115 sailors
(a) Deepwater Horizon (b) Prestige (c) 30 officers and 100 sailors
(c) Exxon Valdez. (d) Amoco Cadiz (d) 20 officers and 120 sailors

ANSWER KEYS & EXPLANATIONS

1. Correct Answer: (d) Samudra Pratap 4. Correct Answer: (b) Sanjay Seth
Explanation: The name of the first indigenously built Explanation: As of June 11, 2024, the current Raksha
Pollution Control Vessel launched is Samudra Pratap. Rajya Mantri (Minister of State for Defence) of India is
Shri Sanjay Seth.
2. Correct Answer: (c) Goa
Explanation: The Pollution Control Vessel was launched 5. Correct Answer: (b) 24 officers and 115 sailors
in Goa. Explanation: The crew complement of the Samudra
Pratap includes 24 officers and 115 sailors, designed to
3. Correct Answer: (a) Deepwater Horizon efficiently manage the operations aboard this large and
Explanation: The Deepwater Horizon oil spill, which technologically advanced vessel.
occurred in 2010 in the Gulf of Mexico, is recognized as
the largest and most famous oil spill in history.

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India Contributes highest to the world Plastic Pollution: Nature Study
News Highlights:
India has emerged as the world’s largest contributor to plastic pollution, accounting for nearly 20% of global
plastic emissions, as per a recent study published in Nature in 2024.
This study underscores the urgency of addressing plastic waste, especially as the UN Environmental Assembly is
in the process of negotiating a legally binding international treaty on plastic pollution, expected to be finalised by
the end of 2024​.
Reasons for India’s High Plastic Pollution
Inadequate Waste Management Infrastructure: In 2019-20, it was reported that 50% of the plastic waste
generated in India remained unutilized, contributing to air, water, and soil pollution​.
Data Gaps: The 2022 audit by the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) found inconsistencies in plastic waste
data provided by State Pollution Control Boards (SPCBs), with many urban local bodies (ULBs) underreporting or
misreporting waste statistics​.
Recycling Inefficiencies: India’s recycling sector is mostly informal and unregulated, leading to lower-quality
recycled materials and less effective waste management​.

Key Findings of the Study

Global Plastic Emissions: The study estimates that 251 Mt of plastic waste is
produced globally each year, enough to fill approximately 200,000 Olympic-sized
swimming pools. Out of this total, 52.1 Mt is unmanaged and ends up in the
environment, either as debris or through open burning​.
India’s Plastic Waste Problem: India generates 9.3 Mt of plastic pollution annually,
including 5.8 Mt from open burning and 3.5 Mt as debris. This places India at the top
of global plastic polluters​.
It is even higher than countries like Nigeria (3.5 mt), Indonesia (3.4 mt), and China (2.8
mt).
Waste Collection in India: Although India reports an 81% waste collection rate, the
actual figure may be lower due to exclusion of rural areas, open burning, and informal
recycling sectors​. Waste produced per day is 0.12 kilograms per capita per day.
Unmanaged Waste: Globally, 43% of unmanaged plastic waste is debris, and 57% is
burned in uncontrolled settings. India is a major contributor to both types of pollution,
with significant public health and environmental impacts​.

Global North-South Divide

The study highlights a significant divide between the Global North and Global South. Countries in Southern Asia,
Sub-Saharan Africa, and Southeast Asia, including India, are the largest contributors to plastic waste.
In contrast, High-Income Countries (HICs), such as those in Europe and North America, generate more plastic
waste but have better waste collection and disposal systems, preventing them from being top polluters​.

Impact of Plastic Pollution

Environmental Degradation: Plastics take hundreds of years to decompose, breaking down into microplastics that
pollute water bodies and marine ecosystems. These pollutants are now found in remote places such as Mount
Everest and the Mariana Trench​.
Health Hazards: The burning of plastics releases toxic chemicals like carbon monoxide and dioxins, which are
linked to severe health issues such as respiratory diseases, cancers, and developmental disorders​.

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 Global and Indian Efforts to Address Plastic Pollution

Global Initiatives
UN Plastic Pollution Treaty: In 2022, 175 nations agreed
to negotiate a legally binding agreement to tackle plastic
pollution by 2024​.
Basel Convention (2019 Amendment): This agreement
regulated the transboundary movements of hazardous
plastic waste and placed stricter controls on plastic waste
exports​.
Indian Initiatives
Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR): India’s EPR policy makes producers responsible
for the entire lifecycle of plastic products, including disposal and recycling​.
Plastic Waste Management (Amendment) Rules, 2022: These rules prohibit the use of
plastic carry bags with thickness less than 120 microns, aiming to reduce single-use plastics​.
Swachh Bharat Abhiyan and Beach Clean-Up Drives: National campaigns focus on
cleanliness and removal of plastic waste, particularly from beaches and tourist destinations​.

Plastic Waste Management (PWM) Rules, 2016

Objective: To address the growing issue of plastic waste and establish a framework for the
management of plastic waste across the country.
Key Provisions:
Ban on the manufacture, sale, and use of plastic carry bags less than 50 microns in
thickness.
Introduction of the concept of Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR), which mandates
plastic producers to collect and recycle plastic waste generated by their products.
Local bodies, such as municipalities, are tasked with ensuring proper plastic waste
management within their jurisdictions.
Penalties: Local authorities are authorized to fine violators of these rules.

Plastic Waste Management (Amendment) Rules, 2021

Objective: Further strengthening the provisions of the 2016 rules to phase out single-use
plastics.
Key Provisions:
Ban on single-use plastic items such as straws, cutlery, earbuds with plastic sticks, and
plastic flags by July 2022.
Increase in the minimum thickness of plastic carry bags to 75 microns (later increased to
120 microns in 2022)​.

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 PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. According to recent research published in Nature, what 4. Which campaign, launched by the United Nations
fraction of global plastic emissions is attributed to Environment Programme in 2017, focuses on raising
plastic pollution from India? awareness about plastic pollution and marine litter?
(a) One-tenth (b) One-fifth (a) Green Oceans Initiative
(c) One-quarter (d) One-third (b) Marine Conservation Drive
(c) Blue Planet Project
2. Which chemical, used to harden plastic, is known to (d) Clean Seas Campaign
contaminate food and drinks and cause alterations in
liver function, fetal development, the reproductive 5. In which year was the London Convention on the
system, and brain function? Prevention of Marine Pollution by Dumping Wastes and
(a) Polyethylene (b) Polypropylene Other Matter established?
(c) BPA (d) PVC (a) 1962
(b) 1972
3. According to a new study published in the journal (c) 1982
Nature, which country is the second biggest plastic (d) 1992
polluter with 3.5 million tonnes of emissions annually?
(a) Brazil (b) Nigeria
(c) Indonesia (d) China

ANSWER KEYS & EXPLANATIONS

1. Correct Answer: (b) One-fifth 4. Correct Answer: (d) Clean Seas Campaign
Explanation: The research highlighted in the journal Explanation: The Clean Seas Campaign was initiated by
Nature indicates that India is responsible for about one- the United Nations Environment Programme in 2017. It is
fifth of global plastic emissions, which totals recognized as the largest global campaign aimed at
approximately 9.3 million metric tonnes per year. This increasing awareness and action against plastic pollution
significant fraction underscores India's substantial and marine litter.
contribution to global plastic pollution.
5. Correct Answer: (b) 1972
2. Correct Answer: (c) BPA Explanation: The London Convention, formally known as
Explanation: BPA, or Bisphenol A, is a chemical used to the 1972 Convention on the Prevention of Marine
harden plastics and is known for its contamination effects Pollution by Dumping Wastes and Other Matter, was
on food and drinks. It has been linked to several health established in 1972. This international agreement set out
issues, including changes in liver function, impacts on to control pollution of the marine environment by
fetal development in pregnant women, disruptions in the regulating the dumping of substances that could
reproductive system, and alterations in brain function. potentially harm human health, harm living resources and
marine life, damage amenities, or interfere with other
3. Correct Answer: (b) Nigeria legitimate uses of the sea.
Explanation: The study featured in Nature highlights
Nigeria as the second largest plastic polluter, emitting 3.5
million tonnes of plastic each year. Indonesia follows
closely as the third biggest with 3.4 million tonnes.

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Swachh Vayu Survekshan Award 2024
News Highlights:
On 7th September 2024, the Swachh Vayu Survekshan Awards were presented in Jaipur on the occasion of the
International Day of Clean Air for Blue Skies (also celebrated as Swachh Vayu Diwas).
The event was attended by Union Environment Minister Bhupender Yadav and Rajasthan Chief Minister Bhajan
Lal Sharma. Nine cities were awarded for their efforts in improving air quality under the National Clean Air
Programme (NCAP).
This event also emphasised the continuous national efforts under Prime Minister Narendra Modi's leadership to
address air pollution through various schemes such as the Vehicle Scrap Policy and Ek Ped Maa Ke Naam
campaign​.

Swachh Vayu Survekshan Overview

Launched By: The Ministry of Environment, Forest Year of Introduction: The ranking system
and Climate Change (MoEF&CC), India. and guidelines for SVS were launched in
Objective: To rank Indian cities based on their efforts to September 2022 under NCAP, which is
combat air pollution, particularly by implementing the aimed at improving air quality in 130 Indian
City Action Plans (CAP) under the National Clean Air cities by reducing air pollution levels.
Programme (NCAP). Primary Goal: To reduce air pollution levels,
Targeted Cities: A total of 131 NCAP cities are specifically Particulate Matter (PM10), by
evaluated. These cities include both large metropolitan 20-30% by 2024 (initial target), and further
areas and smaller towns. extending the goal to 40% by 2025-26, using
2017-2018 levels as the base year​.

Objectives:
To promote awareness about air pollution among all Ranking Framework
sections of society. The award rankings are based on data
To inform citizens about the health impacts of air submitted by cities and urban local bodies
pollution. (ULBs) through the PRANA portal, which
To compare air quality across cities and identify monitors the progress of the NCAP
areas of improvement. programme. The rankings compare air quality
To help achieve the NCAP's vision of "Clean Air for All"​. conditions across cities and assess the
effectiveness of measures taken to reduce
pollution​.
Award Winners in 2024
The Swachh Vayu Survekshan Awards 2024 recognized cities under three population categories:
Category 1 (Cities with a population of over 10 lakhs): Surat, Jabalpur, and Agra.
Category 2 (Cities with a population between 3 and 10 lakhs): Firozabad, Amravati, and Jhansi.
Category 3 (Cities with a population under 3 lakhs): Raebareli, Nalgonda, and Nalagarh.
Municipal commissioners of these cities were awarded cash prizes, trophies, and certificates for their cities'
performance​.

Facts related to Clean Air:

The First Clean Air Act: The first law aimed at reducing air pollution was the Clean Air Act of 1956 in the UK,
which was passed in response to the "Great Smog of London" in 1952, where thick smog caused thousands of deaths
due to respiratory illnesses​.
Air Pollution Reduces Lifespan: According to the Air Quality Life Index (AQLI), air pollution is the greatest risk to
human health, reducing the global average life expectancy by 2.2 years, more than smoking, alcohol, and unsafe water​.

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 India's Air Pollution Impact: In India, it’s estimated that 1.67 million deaths in 2019 were attributable to air
pollution. This makes India one of the countries with the highest death rates related to air pollution​.
Plants Improve Air Quality: Certain plants like Spider Plants, Peace Lilies, and Snake Plants are known to
reduce indoor air pollution by absorbing harmful chemicals such as benzene, formaldehyde, and carbon monoxide​.
Air Pollution's Economic Cost: The World Bank estimates that air pollution costs the global economy more than
$5 trillion each year in welfare costs and lost labor​.
Clean Air and the Brain: Exposure to air pollution, particularly fine particulate matter (PM2.5), has been linked to
cognitive decline, including conditions such as Alzheimer's disease and other forms of dementia​.
Ancient Concern: Concern over air pollution isn't new—ancient Romans were worried about smoke from wood
and coal burning, and in 1285 King Edward I of England banned coal burning in London​.
The Clean Air Day: International Day of Clean Air for Blue Skies is observed every year on September 7,
focusing on the importance of clean air and the impact of air pollution on health and the environment​.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Where was the Swachh Vayu Survekshan Award 2024 4. How many categories were there in the Swachh Vayu
presented on the occasion of the International Day of Survekshan Award 2024, under which the best
Clean Air for Blue Skies? performing National Clean Air Campaign (NCAP) cities
(a) Jaipur (b) Mumbai were recognized?
(c) New Delhi (d) Kolkata (a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) Four
2. When is the International Day of Clean Air for Blue Skies
celebrated annually? 5. Which portal was launched by the Ministry of
(a) 5th June (b) 7th September Environment, Forest, and Climate Change (MoEFCC) to
(c) 22nd April (d) 16th October monitor the implementation of the National Clean Air
Campaign (NCAP), track action plans and
3. Which organization declared the International Day of implementation status of cities, and share best practices?
Clean Air for Blue Skies in 2019? (a) VAYU (b) NIRMAL
(a) World Health Organization (c) SWACHH (d) PRANA
(b) United Nations Environment Programme
(c) United Nations General Assembly
(d) International Union for Conservation of Nature

ANSWER KEYS & EXPLANATIONS

1. Correct Answer: (a) Jaipur 3. Correct Answer: (c) United Nations General Assembly
Explanation: The presentation of the Swachh Vayu Explanation: The International Day of Clean Air for Blue
Survekshan Award 2024 took place in Jaipur, coinciding Skies was declared by the United Nations General Assembly
with the International Day of Clean Air for Blue Skies. (UNGA) in 2019. This declaration reflects the global
This city served as the venue for the event, highlighting commitment to enhancing public awareness and action
its significance in the context of promoting clean air towards improving air quality.
initiatives.
4. Correct Answer: (c) Three
2. Correct Answer: (b) 7th September Explanation: The Swachh Vayu Survekshan Award 2024
Explanation: The International Day of Clean Air for Blue recognized the best performing cities under the National
Skies is celebrated every year on the 7th of September. Clean Air Campaign (NCAP) in three different categories
This day is dedicated to raising awareness and promoting based on population. These categories were divided as
activities that improve air quality. follows: cities with a population over 10 lakhs, cities with a

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 population between 3 to 10 lakhs, and cities with a population under 3 lakhs.

5. Correct Answer: (d) PRANA

Explanation: The "PRANA" portal was launched by the Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change specifically
to monitor the implementation of the National Clean Air Campaign (NCAP). This portal helps in monitoring action plans
and the implementation status of cities involved in the campaign, as well as facilitates the sharing of best practices
among cities.

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 Science & Technology
Completion of SSLV Development Project
News Highlights:
In August, 2024, the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) successfully launched the SSLV-D3 from the
Satish Dhawan Space Centre in Sriharikota, marking the completion of the Small Satellite Launch Vehicle (SSLV)
Development Project.
This mission placed the EOS-08 Earth observation satellite into orbit.
With this successful launch, SSLVs are now ready for commercial use by NewSpace India Limited (NSIL), ISRO's
commercial arm.
Small Satellite Launch Vehicle (SSLV)?
SSLV Overview: The Small Satellite Launch
Vehicle (SSLV) is a new launch vehicle developed
by ISRO designed specifically for launching small
satellites into space.
It has been developed as a cost-effective, rapidly
deployable solution with minimal infrastructure
requirements.
The SSLV offers a streamlined design to serve the
needs of commercial and on-demand satellite
launches​.
SSLV Design and Configuration
Dimensions and Weight: The SSLV is 34 metres in
length and has a 2-metre diameter. It weighs
approximately 120 tonnes at lift-off​.
Propulsion Stages: It features three solid
propulsion stages and a liquid propulsion-based
Velocity Trimming Module (VTM), which is used
for fine velocity adjustments before the satellite is
placed into orbit​.
Uses of SSLV
Payload Capacity: The SSLV is designed to launch
small satellites weighing between 10 kg to 500 kg
into Low Earth Orbit (LEO). These satellites are
classified as mini, micro, or nano-satellites​.
Commercial and On-Demand Launches: SSLV is tailored for quick and on-demand launches for commercial
purposes. It significantly reduces the cost and time required for launches compared to ISRO’s larger vehicles,
making it ideal for smaller satellite projects​.
India's Journey Towards SSLV
First Mission (SSLV-D1): The first SSLV mission in August 2022, carrying EOS-02 and AzaadiSat, faced issues.
The rocket failed to place the satellites in their intended orbit due to incorrect trajectory​.
Second Mission (SSLV-D2): In February 2023, ISRO achieved success with SSLV-D2, placing three satellites into a
450 km circular orbit​.
Third Mission (SSLV-D3): The SSLV-D3 mission was successfully launched in August 2024, marking the
completion of ISRO’s developmental phase for SSLVs​.

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 Comparison with PSLV and GSLV

Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle Geosynchronous Satellite LV

The PSLV, often called ISRO's The GSLV is used for placing
workhorse, is capable of launching heavier satellites into
larger payloads, up to 1,860 kg into low geosynchronous transfer orbit (GTO).
earth orbits. It has had a long track GSLV Mk-II can carry satellites
record of success since 1994, often weighing up to 2,200 kg, while the Mk-
being used for multiple satellite launches​ III can handle payloads up to 4,000 kg​

Difference between the two: The SSLV, unlike the PSLV and GSLV, is tailored for smaller payloads and quick
launches. It is highly cost-effective (estimated at around Rs 30 crore per launch) and requires significantly less
time (just 72 hours) and workforce (only 6 people) for integration​.

Significance and Benefits of SSLV

Cost Efficiency: The SSLV is expected to cost about one-fourth of a PSLV launch, making it a more
economical choice for launching small satellites​.
Quick Turnaround Time: SSLV takes only 72 hours for integration, compared to 70 days required for larger
launch vehicles like the PSLV​.
Supporting Multiple Satellite Launches: It is designed to launch multiple small satellites simultaneously,
supporting multiple orbital drop-offs​.

NewSpace India Limited

Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle

Established: March 6, 2019.
Parent Organization: NSIL is the commercial arm of ISRO, under the
Department of Space (DoS), tasked with commercialising space
products and services​.
Objective: To enhance India's participation in the global space
economy by enabling the commercialization of ISRO’s technologies
and facilitating private sector involvement​.
Roles and Functions
Satellite Launch Services: NSIL provides launch services using ISRO’s PSLV, GSLV, and SSLV vehicles
for domestic and international clients.
Spacecraft Production: It collaborates with industries to manufacture and market satellite systems
and space infrastructure​.
Technology Transfer: NSIL is responsible for transferring ISRO-developed technologies to private
players, enhancing the space ecosystem​.
Key Projects
GSLV-MkIII Commercial Launch: NSIL facilitated a historic commercial launch in 2020 by
launching 36 satellites for the UK-based OneWeb using ISRO’s GSLV Mk-III​.
SSLV Production: NSIL is actively involved in producing Small Satellite Launch Vehicles (SSLVs)
for cost-effective, on-demand launches​.

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 PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. What is the name of the Earth observation satellite that 4. Which commercial arm of ISRO has the primary
was precisely placed into orbit by the third responsibility of facilitating Indian industries to take up
developmental flight of the Small Satellite Launch advanced technology space-related activities?
Vehicle (SSLV)? (a) New Space India Limited
(a) EOS-03 (b) EOS-06 (b) Bharat Aerospace
(c) EOS-08 (d) EOS-15 (c) Antrix Corporation
(d) Indian Space Enterprises
2. What is the name of the module used in ISRO's Small
Satellite Launch Vehicle (SSLV) as a terminal stage to 5. What is the configuration of the GSLV's third stage?
adjust the satellite's velocity for precise orbital (a) Cryogenic Upper Stage
placement? (b) Liquid fuel stage
(a) Velocity Adjustment Module (c) Solid fuel stage
(b) Velocity Trimming Module (d) Ion propulsion stage
(c) Orbital Correction Module
(d) Final Velocity Adjuster

3. In which year was the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle

(PSLV) first used by ISRO?
(a) 1988 (b) 1990
(c) 1994 (d) 1998

ANSWER KEYS & EXPLANATIONS

1. Correct Answer: (c) EOS-08 4. Correct Answer: (a) New Space India Limited
Explanation: The third developmental flight of ISRO's Explanation: New Space India Limited (NSIL) is the
Small Satellite Launch Vehicle (SSLV) successfully commercial arm of the Indian Space Research
placed the Earth observation satellite EOS-08 into orbit. Organisation (ISRO) tasked with the primary
The satellite EOS-08 is part of India's ongoing efforts to responsibility of facilitating Indian industries in
enhance its capabilities in Earth observation from space. undertaking advanced technology space-related
activities.
2. Correct Answer: (b) Velocity Trimming Module
Explanation: The SSLV utilizes a liquid propulsion-based 5. Correct Answer: (a) Cryogenic Upper Stage
Velocity Trimming Module (VTM) as its terminal stage. Explanation: The third stage of the GSLV is the
This module is critical for making fine adjustments to indigenously built Cryogenic Upper Stage (CUS), which
the satellite's velocity, ensuring that it is placed carries cryogenic propellants. This stage is crucial for
accurately in its designated orbit. providing the necessary thrust and efficiency required
for placing satellites into higher orbits such as the GTO.
3. Correct Answer: (c) 1994
Explanation: The Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV),
ISRO's third generation of satellite launch vehicles, was
first used in 1994. This launch marked the beginning of
a series of over 50 successful launches, solidifying
PSLV's reputation as a reliable vehicle for sending
satellites into various orbits.

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National Space Day 2024
News Highlights:
India celebrated its Maiden National Space Day (NSD) on August 23, 2024, commemorating the historic
Chandrayaan-3 mission's successful soft landing on the Moon's surface.
Since then, India's space programme has been actively engaging in several space missions and planning for future
projects, despite a quiet period at Sriharikota, India's primary spaceport.
The theme for National Space Day 2024 is ‘Touching Lives while Touching the Moon: India's Space Saga’.

Overview of India's Recent Space Programme

Chandrayaan-3 Mission Success: On August 23, 2023, the Chandrayaan-3 mission landed
the Vikram Lander on the lunar surface, making India the fourth country to land on the

1
Moon and the first to land near its southern pole. The deployment of the Pragyan Rover
followed the landing, and the site was named 'Shiv Shakti' point.
Aditya L1: Following Chandrayaan-3, ISRO launched the Aditya-L1 mission on September 2,
2023, to study solar activity. By January 2024, Aditya-L1 had reached the Lagrange point L1
(first Earth-Sun Lagrange point) and conducted its first solar storm study in May 2024.

Gaganyaan TV-D1: As part of the human spaceflight mission Gaganyaan, ISRO conducted its
first successful abort test (TV-D1) on October 21, 2023, to demonstrate the Crew Escape

2
System's efficiency.
XPoSat: ISRO launched the X-ray Polarimeter Satellite (XPoSat) on January 1, 2024, which
became operational by mid-January. It focuses on studying X-ray polarisation in space, making
India the second country after NASA to develop a space-based polarimeter.
INSAT-3DS: Launched on February 17, 2024, onboard a GSLV rocket, INSAT-3DS plays a key
role in meteorological studies and preparing for the joint NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture
Radar (NISAR) mission in 2025.

Reusable Launch Vehicle (RLV-TD): ISRO conducted two landing experiments with its
downscale Reusable Launch Vehicle in March and June 2024. These experiments pave the

3
way for developing an orbital return flight vehicle.
Small Satellite Launch Vehicle (SSLV): The final SSLV development flight successfully
launched on August 16, 2024, marking the completion of the SSLV programme.
Next-Generation Launch Vehicle (NGLV): ISRO is actively developing the NGLV, a three-
stage launch vehicle aimed at carrying heavier payloads than its predecessors. A project report
was submitted to the Union Cabinet in February 2024, requesting funding for the NGLV.

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 Gaganyaan Mission
India's Gaganyaan mission, aimed at sending humans to space, has been making significant
progress.

4
The astronaut candidates (Gaganyatris) were announced by Prime Minister Modi in
February 2024, including Wing Commander Shubhanshu Shukla and Group Captains
Prashanth Nair, Ajit Krishnan, and Angad Pratap.
Shukla and Nair are currently undergoing advanced training in the U.S., and the crewed flight
to the International Space Station is expected by 2025, facilitated by SpaceX and Axiom
Space.

Important Future Missions of ISRO

ISRO has laid out an ambitious roadmap for the next two decades:
Gaganyaan’s 25-year roadmap: Includes uncrewed and crewed missions, with plans for a

1
lunar landing by 2040.
Lunar Exploration Roadmap: Involves missions like a lunar sample return and long-duration
lunar surface missions, in collaboration with NASA’s Artemis programme.
Bharatiya Antariksha Station (BAS): Planned by 2035, BAS is intended to be India’s space
station.

Private Sector Contributions

Agnikul Cosmos successfully launched its SoRTeD-01 vehicle from Sriharikota on March 21,

1
2024, using a semi-cryogenic engine.
Skyroot Aerospace continues its progress towards launching Vikram 1, having tested its
solid-fuel engines successfully in mid-2024.
Dhruva Space and Bellatrix Aerospace launched experiments aboard the PSLV-C58 mission
on January 1, 2024.

Indian National Space Policy 2023

India’s National Space Policy 2023 fosters a robust ecosystem involving private players,
streamlining public-private partnerships to enhance India's space capabilities.

1
NewSpace India Limited (NSIL): Now responsible for commercial space activities, including a
deal with SpaceX to launch GSAT-20 in August 2024.
IN-SPACe: India’s space regulator has been promoting private sector involvement, licensing
private companies for satellite broadband and ground station services.

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 PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. On what date is National Space Day (NSD) celebrated in 4. Which satellite, launched by ISRO on 1st January 2024, is
India? aimed at studying radiation polarization in space?
(a) 15th August (b) 23rd August (a) X-ray Polarimeter Satellite
(c) 26th January. (d) 2nd October (b) Advanced Radiation Tracker
(c) Cosmic Ray Analysis Satellite
2. In which year was Aryabhata, India's first satellite, (d) Space Radiation Detector
launched to study the Earth's atmosphere and radiation
belts? 5. Which vehicle, launched by Agnikul Cosmos in March
(a) 1965. (b) 1970 2024, marked the first use of a semi-cryogenic engine as
(c) 1975. (d) 1980 its first stage from Indian soil?
(a) SoRTeD-01
3. What is the theme for National Space Day 2024 in India? (b) AgniKraft-1
(a) Touching Lives while Touching the Moon: India's (c) CryoLaunch-1
Space Saga (d) AgniVeer-X
(b) Exploring Frontiers: India's Space Journey
(c) Innovating Tomorrow: The Impact of Space
(d) Navigating Cosmos: India's Astronautical Pursuits

ANSWER KEYS & EXPLANATIONS

1. Correct Answer: (b) 23rd August 4. Correct Answer: (a) X-ray Polarimeter Satellite
Explanation: India celebrates National Space Day (NSD) Explanation: The X-ray Polarimeter Satellite (XPoSat),
on the 23rd of August each year. This date was chosen to launched by ISRO on 1st January 2024, is specifically
commemorate the historic landing of Chandrayaan-3 on designed to study radiation polarization in space. This
the Moon, marking a significant milestone in India's space mission follows NASA’s Imaging X-ray Polarimetry
exploration history. Explorer (IPEX) and represents the second space-based
observatory of its kind to perform such studies.
2. Correct Answer: (c) 1975
Explanation: Aryabhata, India's first satellite, was 5. Correct Answer: (a) SoRTeD-01
launched in 1975. It carried scientific instruments Explanation: The SoRTeD-01 vehicle, launched by Agnikul
designed specifically to study the Earth's atmosphere and Cosmos in March 2024, is notable for being the first
its radiation belts, marking a significant milestone in launch vehicle to use a semi-cryogenic engine as its first
India's space exploration history. stage from Indian soil. This milestone represents a
significant advancement in rocket propulsion
3. Correct Answer: (a) Touching Lives while Touching the technologies within India.
Moon: India's Space Saga
Explanation: The theme for National Space Day 2024 in
India is "Touching Lives while Touching the Moon: India's
Space Saga." This theme captures the essence of India's
space missions impacting both technology and society.

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India launches its first reusable hybrid rocket 'RHUMI-1'
News Highlights:
On August 24, 2024, India launched its first reusable hybrid rocket, RHUMI-1, developed by Tamil Nadu-based
startup Space Zone India, in collaboration with the Martin Group.
The rocket was launched from Thiruvidandhai in Chennai, carrying 3 Cube Satellites and 50 PICO Satellites.
This mission aims to gather data for research on global warming and climate change.

ELECTRICALLY
HYBRID ROCKET ADJUSTABLE LAUNCH ENVIRONMENTALLY
TRIGGERED PARACHUTE
ENGINE ANGLE FRIENDLY
SYSTEM

RHUMI-1 uses a RHUMI-1 features an RHUMI-1 includes an The rocket is 100%

combination of solid adjustable launch eco-friendly, TNT-free and
and liquid mechanism, which electrically triggered designed to reduce
propellants, allows precise parachute system that the environmental
providing improved control over its ensures the safe impact often
efficiency and launch trajectory, recovery of rocket associated with
reducing operational ranging from 0 to components, making it rocket launches.
costs. 120 degrees. a 100% pyrotechnic-
free system.

Reusable Rocket Technology

RHUMI-1 is part of India’s growing investment in reusable rocket technology, marking a significant milestone in space
exploration. Reusable rockets can return to Earth after releasing their payload and be relaunched with a new payload,
leading to various benefits:
Cost Savings: Reusable rockets can reduce launch costs by up to 65%, as they can be re-deployed instead of
constructing new rockets for every mission.
Reduction in Space Debris: Reusable technology minimizes discarded rocket components, thereby contributing to
the reduction of space debris in Earth's orbit.
Increased Launch Frequency: Reusable rockets enable faster turnaround times, allowing for more frequent
launches and quicker completion of missions.

Satellites on Board
Cube Satellites: RHUMI-1 carried three Cube Satellites. These are a type of nanosatellite, typically weighing
between 1-10 kg. Cube Satellites are known for their modular design and cost-effectiveness, widely used for
scientific research and commercial applications.
Pico Satellites: The mission also included 50 PICO Satellites, which are even smaller than Cube Satellites, weighing
between 0.1-1 kg. These satellites are primarily used for experimental purposes and gathering specific data on
atmospheric conditions, global warming, and climate change.

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Space Zone India

Space Zone India is a Chennai-based aerospace technology startup that focuses on providing innovative, low-
cost solutions for the space industry. The company is dedicated to space education and fostering talent in space
sciences, especially among students.

Founded by Anand Megalingam, a visionary entrepreneur, Space Zone

India focuses on making space technology more accessible and cost-
Founding and effective.
Leadership Mentorship: The startup is mentored by Dr. Mylswamy Annadurai,
former Director of the ISRO Satellite Centre (ISAC) and a key figure in
several ISRO missions.

Providing hands-on training in aerospace fields such as aerodynamics,

satellite technology, drone technology, and rocket technology.
Key Objectives: Raising awareness about career opportunities in space sciences through
collaborations with private institutions, schools, and universities.
Engaging students in real-world space missions, offering them practical
experience in satellite design and construction.

Dr. A.P.J Abdul Kalam Students Satellite Launch (2023): Over 2,500
Notable students from across India contributed to the design and construction of
Projects: a satellite launch vehicle that could carry 150 Pico Satellites. This
mission exemplifies the company's commitment to youth engagement in
space technology.

Collaborates with private institutions, engineering colleges, and schools

(both public and government) across India to promote education in
Partnerships and space sciences.
Collaborations: Engages with industry leaders to advance aerospace technology and
push the boundaries of space research in India.

Martin Group

The Martin Group is an Indian conglomerate involved in various sectors, including aerospace and defense. It
collaborated with Space Zone India for the development and launch of the RHUMI-1 rocket.
Martin Group partnered with Space Zone India in developing the RHUMI-1, India’s first reusable hybrid
rocket, launched on August 24, 2024. The company provided expertise and resources to aid the rocket’s
development, focusing on hybrid propulsion systems and advanced launch technologies.

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 PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. How many Cube Satellites were carried by the RHUMI-1 4. From which location was the RHUMI-1 rocket launched?
rocket on its mission? (a) Sriharikota
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 (b) Thiruvidandhai
(c) Bengaluru
2. What type of trajectory was the RHUMI-1 rocket (d) Thumba
launched into?
(a) Orbital (b) Polar 5. Which startup developed the RHUMI-1 rocket in
(c) Geostationary (d) Suborbital collaboration with Martin Group?
(a) Space Zone India
3. What is the weight range of a Cube satellite? (b) Skyroot Aerospace
(a) 0.1 to 1 kg (b) 1 to 10 kg (c) Agnikul Cosmos
(c) 10 to 20 kg (d) 20 to 30 kg (d) Bellatrix Aerospace

ANSWER KEYS & EXPLANATIONS

1. Correct Answer: (c) 3 4. Correct Answer: (b) Thiruvidandhai
Explanation: The RHUMI-1 rocket carried 3 Cube Explanation: RHUMI-1, a rocket developed by the Tamil
Satellites for its mission to gather data on global warming Nadu-based startup Space Zone India in collaboration
and climate change. This setup highlights its capacity for with Martin Group, was launched from Thiruvidandhai in
multiple payload deliveries within a single mission. Chennai.

2. Correct Answer: (d) Suborbital 5. Correct Answer: (a) Space Zone India
Explanation: The RHUMI-1 rocket was launched into a Explanation: Space Zone India, a Tamil Nadu-based
suborbital trajectory using a mobile launcher. This startup, developed the RHUMI-1 rocket in collaboration
trajectory type is typically used for missions that do not with Martin Group. This collaboration highlights the
require a satellite to remain in orbit around the Earth, involvement of local industry and expertise in advancing
suitable for the rocket’s research objectives on climate India's space capabilities.
change.

3. Correct Answer: (b) 1 to 10 kg

Explanation: Cube satellites, commonly referred to as
nano satellites, have a weight range between 1 to 10 kg.

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 Sports
National Sports Day 2024
News Highlights:
National Sports Day 2024 was celebrated on August 29 to honour the legacy of Major Dhyan Chand, a legendary Indian
field hockey player. The day promotes sports and physical fitness across the nation through various events and
activities, commemorating his significant contributions to Indian hockey.

National Sports Day Major Dhyan Chand

The day serves to inspire people to participate

in physical activities, fostering a sports culture
and acknowledging the achievements of Indian
athletes.

Celebrated on: August 29

Significance: Birth anniversary of
Major Dhyan Chand
Announced: 2012
Declaring Authority: Government of India

Birth: August 29, 1905

Allahabad, United Provinces of Agra and Oudh,
RESET Programme British India

Achievements: Played a key role in India winning

The RESET Programme,
three consecutive Olympic gold medals in 1928,
officially known as the
1932, and 1936.
"Retired Sportsperson
Empowerment Training"
Programme, was launched
on National Sports Day, Hockey Career: Began with the British Indian
August 29, 2024, by Dr. Army’s regimental team, where he practiced under
Mansukh Mandaviya, the moonlight, earning him the nickname "Hockey
Union Minister of Youth Wizard" and "The Magician" for his stick work.
Affairs & Sports.
It is designed to engage and Recognition: Received the Padma Bhushan, India’s
empower retired athletes by third-highest civilian award, in 1956 after retiring
leveraging their experience from the Indian Army as a Major.
to benefit upcoming sports
talents and integrate them
actively into India's sports Legacy: Dhyan Chand remains one of the greatest
ecosystem. hockey players of all time, and his legacy
continues to inspire generations of athletes.

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Key Features RESET Programme

Eligibility: Educational Learning and Development:

The programme is Levels: It includes self-paced
targeted at athletes Courses are online learning modules,
aged between 20-50 offered at two on-ground training
years who have won educational levels: sessions, and internships.
international medals, for those who have Additionally, the
participated in completed at least programme provides
significant international Class 12 and for placement assistance and
events, or have been those who have an entrepreneurial guidance to
recognized nationally or education up to help athletes transition into
at the state level. Class 11. new careers or ventures. Mansukh Mandaviya
Minister of Youth
Affairs and Sports
& the Minister of
Implementation and Partnerships Labour and
Employment

Application Process:
The Lakshmibai Interested retirees can apply through a
National Institute of dedicated portal set up by the LNIPE. The
Physical Education selection process involves a thorough evaluation
(LNIPE) plays a to ascertain the suitability of candidates for
crucial role in the various courses offered under the programme.
execution of the
RESET Programme.
This partnership is intended to facilitate a robust platform for retired athletes to
acquire new skills, engage with the community, and contribute to nurturing new
generations of sports professionals.

Prestigious Sports Awards in India

Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award: India’s highest sporting honor, awarded for outstanding performances in
sports over a four-year period.
Recipients receive a medallion, certificate, and cash prize.
Recipients for the year 2023 (Conferred in January 2024): Satwiksairaj Rankireddy & Chirag Shetty for
Badminton.
Arjuna Award: Given for consistent sports performance over four years. Cricketer Mohammed Shami, para-archer
Sheetal Devi, Boxer Mohammad Hussamuddin were amongst the recipients of the Arjuna Award.
Recipients receive a statuette of Arjuna, certificate, and cash prize.
Dronacharya Award: The highest sports honor for coaches, awarded to those who have produced medal winners in
prestigious international events. Last Awarded: 2023 (Conferred in January 2024)
For the Regular Category: Lalit Kumar (Wrestling), R. B. Ramesh (Chess), Maheveer Prasad Saini (Para Athletics),
Shivendra Singh (Hockey), Ganesh Prabhakar Devrukhkar (Mallakhamb)
For Lifetime Category:
Jashkirat Singh Grewal (Golf), Bhaskaran E (Kabaddi), Jayanta Kumar Pushilal (Table Tennis)

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 Maulana Abul Kalam Azad Trophy: Awarded to universities for top performance in inter-university tournaments
over one year. Guru Nanak Dev University (GNDU) in Amritsar won the 2023 Maulana Abul Kalam Azad (MAKA)
Trophy for the 25th time.
Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puraskar: Awarded to organisations, corporates, or individuals for promoting and
developing sports over three years. Recipients for the year 2023: Odisha Mining Corporate Limited & Jain Deemed
to be University, Bengaluru.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. On which day is National Sports Day celebrated 4. Which civilian award did Major Dhyan Chand receive in
annually in India? 1956?
(a) August 28 (b) August 29 (a) Padma Bhushan (b) Padma Vibhushan
(c) August 30 (d) August 27 (c) Bharat Ratna (d) Padma Shri

2. What programme did the government launch on NSD 5. Which trophy is awarded to institutions for top
2024? performance in inter-university sports tournaments over
(a) RESET (b) BOOST the last year?
(c) SPORT (d) FAST (a) Dronacharya Award
(b) Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna
3. In which year did the government launch the Khelo (c) Arjuna Award
India movement? (d) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad Trophy
(a) 2016 (b) 2017
(c) 2018 (d) 2019

ANSWER KEYS & EXPLANATIONS

1. Correct Answer: (b) August 29 4. Correct Answer: (a) Padma Bhushan
Explanation: National Sports Day in India is celebrated Explanation: Major Dhyan Chand was awarded the
annually on August 29 to honor the birthday of Major Padma Bhushan in 1956, which is the third-highest
Dhyan Chand, a legendary hockey player whose civilian award in India.
contributions to Indian sports are celebrated widely on
this day. 5. Correct Answer: (d) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad Trophy
Explanation: The Maulana Abul Kalam Azad Trophy is
2. Correct Answer: (a) RESET awarded annually to the institution or university that
Explanation: On National Sports Day 2024, the shows the best overall performance in inter-university
government launched the Retired Sportsperson tournaments throughout the year. This award recognizes
Empowerment Training (RESET) Programme. This the institution's excellence and achievement in fostering
initiative is aimed at empowering retired athletes competitive sports among its students.
through various training and development
opportunities.

3. Correct Answer: (c) 2018

Explanation: Khelo India Programme is a national
yojana/scheme for the development of sports in India. It
was launched in the year 2018 by the then Sports
Minister Col. Rajyavardhan Singh Rathore in Delhi. This
program has been launched to improve the sports
culture in India.

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ICC Appoints New Chairman
News Highlights:
Jay Shah, currently the Secretary of the Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI), has been elected unopposed as
the next Chairman of the International Cricket Council (ICC).
He will officially take over the role on December 1, 2024, succeeding New Zealand’s Greg Barclay, who will step
down in November.
Jay Shah’s unopposed election marks him as the youngest Indian to hold this high-profile position, and he is only
the fifth Indian to lead the ICC.

Jay Shah, at the age of 35, will join the ranks of notable Indians who have
previously held the top positions at ICC, making him the youngest ever to do so.
Career in Cricket Administration:
Shah started his career in cricket administration in 2009 as an Executive
Board Member of the GCA. In 2013, he became the Joint Secretary of
the GCA and oversaw the construction of the Narendra Modi Stadium in
Ahmedabad.
In 2015, Shah joined the BCCI's finance and marketing committees. In
2019, he became the youngest Secretary of the BCCI. During his tenure,
the IPL became the most profitable cricket league in the world.
In January 2021, Shah was appointed as the President of the ACC. He
was re-elected as ACC President in January 2024.
In November 2022, Shah was elected as the head of the ICC's Finance
and Commercial Affairs (F&CA) committee. He is set to officially assume
office as the Chairman of the ICC on December 1, 2024.

Facts about the International Cricket Council (ICC) Jay Shah

Founded in 1909: The ICC was originally established as the Imperial Cricket Conference in 1909 by England,
Australia, and South Africa. It was later renamed the International Cricket Conference in 1965 and finally the
International Cricket Council (ICC) in 1989 to reflect its global membership.
105 Member Countries: The ICC has 105 member countries, which are divided into three categories: 12 Full
Members (with Test status), 37 Associate Members, and 56 Affiliate Members.
First ICC Chairman: N. Srinivasan became the first-ever ICC Chairman in 2014 when the post of ICC President was
replaced by the Chairmanship in a governance restructure. Jagmohan Dalmiya was the first non-white president of
the ICC (1997-2000).
Cricket World Cups: The ICC organizes major international tournaments such as the Cricket World Cup (ODI), the
T20 World Cup, and the ICC Champions Trophy. The ODI World Cup is held every four years, with the inaugural
event taking place in 1975 in England.
ICC Headquarters: The ICC's headquarters are located in Dubai, UAE, which is considered a neutral and strategic
location for a global sports governing body.
Women’s Cricket: The ICC has been a strong proponent of promoting women’s cricket, organizing events like the
Women's Cricket World Cup and the Women's T20 World Cup, which have seen growing popularity and
viewership over the years.
ICC Awards: The ICC presents annual awards to recognize the best players in the world. Categories include
Cricketer of the Year, Test Cricketer of the Year, ODI Cricketer of the Year, and T20I Cricketer of the Year.

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 Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI)

Origins
The Board of Control for Cricket in India
(BCCI) is the governing body for cricket in
India.
Established in December 1928 as a society
under the Tamil Nadu Societies Registration
Act.
It is affiliated with the International Cricket
Council (ICC) and controls all the cricket
activities in the country. Indian Premier League (IPL):
Launched in 2008, the IPL is a
Structure and Governance: professional Twenty20 cricket league
BCCI is structured as a society, comprising in India, conceptualized by the BCCI.
state cricket associations as its members. It is usually held between March and
The key positions in BCCI include the May of every year and features players
President, Secretary, and Treasurer. from around the world.
The management is governed by its General IPL has significantly contributed to
Body and a number of committees. BCCI’s financial strength and has
popularized cricket further across the
Function and Responsibilities:
globe.
Organizes all the official cricket tournaments
within India including the domestic leagues Legal and Regulatory Challenges:
like the Ranji Trophy, Duleep Trophy, and The Lodha Committee reforms in 2016
others. were a significant legal intervention
Selects players, umpires, and officials for by the Supreme Court of India aimed
the national cricket team. at improving transparency and
BCCI is responsible for the promotion and accountability in BCCI’s operations.
development of cricket in India, focusing on The reforms included age caps for
infrastructure development, supporting officials, tenure limits, and one state-
grassroots programs, and enhancing player one vote policy to democratize cricket
performance and welfare. administration.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. In what year was the Imperial Cricket Conference, the has NOT held the position of ICC chairman?
precursor to the International Cricket Council, founded? (a) Jagmohan Dalmiya (b) Sharad Pawar
(a) 1905 (b) 1909 (c) 1911 (d) 1915 (c) N Srinivasan (d) Kapil Dev

2. Jay Shah, the new ICC chairman as of December 2024, 4. Which of the following is NOT an international
previously held which position in the Board of Control tournament organized by the ICC?
for Cricket in India (BCCI)? (a) ICC Cricket World Cup
(a) President (b) Vice-President (b) ICC T20 World Cup
(c) Treasurer (d) Secretary (c) ICC Champions Trophy
(d) ICC Global Challenge Cup
3. As of 2024, Jay Shah is the fifth Indian to be elected as
chairman of the ICC. Which of the following individuals

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5. As of 2024, how many Full Members does the International Cricket Council (ICC) have?
(a) 10 (b) 12 (c) 14 (d) 16

ANSWER KEYS & EXPLANATIONS

1. Correct Answer: (b) 1909 4. Correct Answer: (d) ICC Global Challenge Cup
Explanation: The Imperial Cricket Conference, which Explanation: The ICC is known for organizing major
was the original name of what is now known as the international cricket tournaments such as the ICC
International Cricket Council (ICC), was founded in Cricket World Cup, ICC T20 World Cup, and ICC
1909. Champions Trophy. However, there is no tournament
called the "ICC Global Challenge Cup" organized by the
2. Correct Answer: (d) Secretary ICC.
Explanation: BCCI Secretary Jay Shah was elected
unopposed as the new Chairman of the International 5. Correct Answer: (b) 12
Cricket Council (ICC). Shah, currently serving as the Explanation: The ICC has 108 members as of 2024,
Secretary of the Board of Control for Cricket in India consisting of 12 Full Members who play Test matches
(BCCI), will officially assume the role on December 1, and 96 Associate Members.
2024.

3. Correct Answer: (d) Kapil Dev

Explanation: Jay Shah became the fifth Indian to serve as
ICC chairman, following predecessors such as Jagmohan
Dalmiya, Sharad Pawar, N Srinivasan, and Shashank
Manohar.

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Paralympic Games Paris 2024
News Highlights:
India achieved unprecedented success at the 2024 Paris Paralympics, securing a record-
breaking 29 medals—7 gold, 9 silver, and 13 bronze. This marked India’s most successful
Paralympic campaign to date, showcasing the country's growing dominance in para-sports.
This remarkable achievement underlined the role of government-backed initiatives like the
Khelo India Program and the Target Olympic Podium Scheme (TOPS) in empowering
Indian para-athletes to reach new heights on the global stage.

History & Evolution of the Paralympics

Origin of Paralympics: The Paralympic movement began with the
Stoke Mandeville Games in 1948, organised by Dr. Ludwig
Guttmann to provide a competitive platform for injured
servicemen. Over time, it grew into the Paralympic Games, the
first official edition of which was held in Rome in 1960, with 400
athletes from 23 countries​.
Paralympic Games Today: The Paralympics now feature both
Summer and Winter Games, held every four years in the same
cities as the Olympic Games, thanks to the cooperation between the
International Paralympic Committee (IPC) and the
International Olympic Committee (IOC). The Games have grown
into a global platform with athletes from across the world
showcasing their abilities.
Dr. Ludwig Guttmann

India’s Early Participation in Paralympics:

First Appearance (1968): India made its Paralympic debut at the
1968 Tel Aviv Games with a delegation of 10 athletes. Though
they did not win any medals, this marked the beginning of India’s
journey in para-sports​.
First Paralympic Medal (1972): India won its first Paralympic
gold in 1972 at the Heidelberg Games, when Murlikant Petkar
set a world record in the 50m freestyle swimming event,
finishing in 37.331 seconds​.

The word "para" means "alongside": The prefix "para" in the

word Paralympic means "alongside" in Greek.
The idea is therefore that the Paralympic Games exist alongside
the Olympic Games.

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Significant Paralympic Moments for India:
After not participating in the 1976 and 1980 Paralympics, India returned in 1984,
1984 winning four medals—two silvers and two bronzes. Bhimrao Kesarkar won
silver in Men’s Javelin Throw L6, while Joginder Singh Bedi secured silver in Men’s
U S A
Shot Put L6, along with two bronzes in Men’s Javelin Throw L6 and Men’s Discus
Throw L6​.

2004 India's breakthrough came in 2004 when

Devendra Jhajharia won gold in Men’s Javelin
Athens Throw F44/46 and Rajinder Singh Rahelu
earned bronze in Men’s Powerlifting 56kg​.

2012 India secured one medal at the 2012 London

Games. Girisha N Gowda won silver in the
London Men’s High Jump F42, India’s only medal at
these Games​.

2016 India saw substantial success in Rio, winning four

medals:
Devendra Jhajharia
R i o Gold: Mariyappan Thangavelu (Men’s High He is India’s most decorated
Jump F42) Paralympian with two gold medals
Gold: Devendra Jhajharia (Men’s Javelin in Javelin Throw from the 2004 and
Throw F46) 2016 Games​
Silver: Deepa Malik (Women’s Shot Put F53)
Bronze: Varun Singh Bhati (Men’s High Jump F42)
This performance cemented India’s place as a strong contender in para-sports​.

The Tokyo 2020 Paralympics were historic for India, with the country securing 19 medals—
2020 its highest tally up to that point. Among the standout athletes were:
Avani Lekhara: Gold (Women’s 10m Air Rifle Standing SH1) and
Tokyo
Bronze (Women’s 50m Rifle 3 Positions SH1)
Sumit Antil: Gold (Men’s Javelin Throw F64)
Pramod Bhagat: Gold (Men’s Singles Badminton SL3)
Krishna Nagar: Gold (Men’s Singles Badminton SH6)
Devendra Jhajharia: Silver (Men’s Javelin Throw F46)
Manish Narwal: Gold (Men’s 50m Pistol SH1)​.

India’s Best Performance: India’s para-athletes made history by winning 29 medals at

the 2024 Paris Paralympics, finishing 18th in the overall medal standings
2024 Notable Performances:
Avani Lekhara: Gold (Women’s 10m Air Rifle Standing SH1)
Paris Nitesh Kumar: Gold (Men’s Singles Badminton SL3)
Sumit Antil: Gold (Men’s Javelin Throw F64)
Navdeep Singh: Gold (Men’s Javelin Throw F41), marking India’s first-ever gold in this
category after the disqualification of Iran’s Beit Sayah Sadegh​.
Key Achievements in Badminton: Badminton played a crucial role in India’s medal haul,
with Suhas Yathiraj winning silver in the Men’s Singles SL4 and Manoj Sarkar
earning bronze​.

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Government Support and Initiatives:
The success at the 2024 Games is attributed in large part to support from programs like Khelo India and TOPS
(Target Olympic Podium Scheme), which provide comprehensive financial and training support to elite athletes​.
Under TOPS, athletes receive a ₹50,000 Out-of-Pocket Allowance (OPA) monthly, alongside funding for
personalized training​.

Motto & Mascot

2024 Paris Paralympics

Motto: The official motto for the Mascot:

2024 Paris Paralympics is "Ouvrons The mascot for the
Grand les Jeux," which translates to 2024 Paris Paralympics is the
"Games Wide Open." This slogan Paralympic Phryge, a Phrygian
reflects the idea of openness, cap that symbolizes liberty and
inclusivity, and bringing sports to a freedom, which has deep roots
wider audience, both within in French history. The Paralympic
traditional stadiums and around the Phryge is characterized by its
host city. It also emphasizes the vibrant energy, spontaneity, and a
power of sports to transform society, visible prosthetic limb, promoting the values of inclusivity and celebrating
especially in terms of inclusivity and athletes with disabilities. The mascot aims to inspire and lead a revolution
support for people with disabilities​. through sport, showing the transformative power of physical activity​.

Rank Country Gold Silver Bronze Total Medals

1 China Gold Silver Bronze Total Medals

2 United Kingdom Gold Silver Bronze Total Medals

3 USA Gold Silver Bronze Total Medals

4 Brazil Gold Silver Bronze Total Medals

5 France Gold Silver Bronze Total Medals

6 Australia Gold Silver Bronze Total Medals

7 Ukraine Gold Silver Bronze Total Medals

8 Italy Gold Silver Bronze Total Medals

9 Netherlands Gold Silver Bronze Total Medals

10 Uzbekistan Gold Silver Bronze Total Medals

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 India
India’s Medal Tally at Paris
Rank 18 Paralympics
Gold 7

Silver 9

Bronze 13

Total Medals 29

Athlete Sport/Event Medal

Avani Lekhara Women's 10m Air Rifle Standing SH1 (Shooting) Gold

Mona Agarwal Women's 10m Air Rifle Standing SH1 (Shooting) Bronze

Preethi Pal Women's 100m T35 (Athletics) Bronze

Manish Narwal Men's 10m Air Pistol SH1 (Shooting) Silver

Rubina Francis Women's 10m Air Pistol SH1 (Shooting) Bronze

Preethi Pal Women's 200m T35 (Athletics) Bronze

Nishad Kumar Men's High Jump T47 (Athletics) Silver

Yogesh Kathuniya Men's Discus Throw F56 (Athletics) Silver

Nitesh Kumar Men's Singles SL3 (Badminton) Gold

Thulasimathi Murugesan Women's Singles SU5 (Badminton) Silver

Manisha Ramadass Women's Singles SU5 (Badminton) Bronze

Suhas Yathiraj Men's Singles SL4 (Badminton) Silver

Rakesh Kumar & Sheetal Devi Mixed Team Compound (Archery) Bronze

Sumit Antil Men's Javelin Throw F64 (Athletics) Gold

Nithya Sre Sivan Women's Singles SH6 (Badminton) Bronze

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 Athlete Sport/Event Medal

Deepthi Jeevanji Women's 400m T20 (Athletics) Bronze

Mariyappan Thangavelu Men's High Jump T63 (Athletics) Bronze

Sharad Kumar Men's High Jump T63 (Athletics) Silver

Ajeet Singh Men's Javelin Throw F46 (Athletics) Silver

Sundar Singh Gurjar Men's Javelin Throw F46 (Athletics) Bronze

Sachin Khilari Men's Shot Put F46 (Athletics) Silver

Harvinder Singh Men's Individual Recurve Open (Archery) Gold

Dharambir Nain Men's Club Throw F51 (Athletics) Gold

Parnav Soorma Men's Club Throw F51 (Athletics) Silver

Kapil Parmar Men's -60kg J1 (Judo) Bronze

Praveen Kumar Men's High Jump T64 (Athletics) Gold

Hokato Hotozhe Sema Men's Shot Put F57 (Athletics) Bronze

Simran Sharma Women's 200m T12 (Athletics) Bronze

Navdeep Singh Men's Javelin Throw F41 (Athletics) Gold

Indian Record Breakers at the 2024 Paralympics

Avani Lekhara: The Indian shooter made history by becoming the first Indian woman
to win two gold medals at the Paralympic Games. She set a world record in the
women's 10m air rifle standing SH1 category​.
Sumit Antil: The javelin thrower defended his gold medal in the F64 category with a
massive throw of 70.59m, breaking his own world record set at the Tokyo 2020
Paralympics, not once but three times during the event​.
Mariyappan Thangavelu: He won his third consecutive Paralympic medal in the
high jump (T42), becoming the first Indian to achieve such a feat​.
Sheetal Devi: At just 17 years old, she became the youngest Indian Paralympic
medallist, securing bronze in archery. She and Rakesh Kumar also set a world record in
the mixed compound archery event​.
Navdeep Singh: Gold (Men’s Javelin Throw F41), marking India’s first-ever gold in
this category after the disqualification of Iran’s Beit Sayah Sadegh​.

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 International Record Breakers at the 2024 Paralympics
Jaydin Blackwell (USA): The American sprinter set a new world record in the men’s
100m T38 with a time of 10.64 seconds​.
Vanessa Low (Australia): The four-time Paralympian set a world record in the
women’s long jump T61, leaping 5.45 meters​.
Simone Barlaam (Italy): In swimming, Barlaam broke the world record in the men’s
50m freestyle S9 with a time of 23.90 seconds, further cementing his place with three
gold medals at the event​.
Gabriel Geraldo dos Santos Araujo (Brazil): In the men’s 150m individual medley
SM2, he broke the world record twice, first in the heats and then again in the final​.
Folashade Oluwafemiayo (Nigeria): She shattered the world record in women's
powerlifting (86kg+) with a lift of 167kg​.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. How many total medals did India win in the Paris 4. In which competition class did Navdeep Singh win
Paralympics 2024? India's first-ever gold medal in the men's javelin throw
(a) 25 (b) 27 (c) 29 (d) 35 at the Paralympics?
(a) F40 (b) F41
2. In which year were Olympic-style games for athletes (c) F42 (d) F44
with a disability organized for the first time?
(a) 1956 (b) 1960 5. Which country finished on top with the highest number
(c) 1964 (d) 1972 of gold medals at the Paris Paralympics 2024?
(a) United States
3. What is the name of the mascot for the Paris Paralympic (b) Russia
Games 2024, inspired by the Phrygian cap? (c) Great Britain
(a) Paralympic Phryge (b) Paralympic Pierre (d) China
(c) Paralympic Phrix (d) Paralympic Phoenix

ANSWER KEYS & EXPLANATIONS

1. Correct Answer: (c) 29 Phrygian cap, which is a symbol of liberty and freedom.
Explanation: India achieved its 'best-ever campaign' at
the Paris Paralympics 2024 by securing a total of 29 4. Correct Answer: (b) F41
medals. This remarkable performance highlights the skill Explanation: Navdeep Singh won India's first-ever gold
and dedication of the Indian Paralympic athletes. medal in the men's javelin throw in the F41 category at
the Paralympics. The F41 category is designated for field
2. Correct Answer: (b) 1960 athletes with short stature, providing a competitive
Explanation: The first Olympic-style games for athletes platform tailored to their specific physical characteristics.
with a disability were organized in Rome in 1960. This
marked a significant milestone in sports, offering a new 5. Correct Answer: (d) China
competitive platform for disabled athletes, similar to the Explanation: China finished on top of the medal tally at
Olympic Games. the Paris Paralympics 2024, securing a total of 94 gold
medals. This dominant performance underscores China's
3. Correct Answer: (a) Paralympic Phryge strong Paralympic program and their continued
Explanation: The mascot for the Paris Paralympic Games excellence in various sports disciplines at the Paralympic
2024 is named "Paralympic Phryge," inspired by the level.

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 Miscellaneous
National Geoscience Awards 2023
News Highlights:
The President of India, Smt. Droupadi Murmu, conferred the National Geoscience Awards (NGA) 2023 at a
ceremony held at the Rashtrapati Bhavan Cultural Centre, New Delhi.
The prestigious awards recognized the exceptional contributions of 21 geoscientists, including individuals and
teams, across various categories.
These awards celebrate significant achievements in mineral discovery and exploration, mining technology, and
applied geosciences.
The ceremony was attended by key officials, including Shri G. Kishan Reddy, Minister of Coal and Mines, and Shri
V.L. Kantha Rao, Secretary, Ministry of Mines.
Important Facts related to 2023 Awards
In 2023, a total of 12 awards were presented to 21 geoscientists.
These included 9 individual awards and 3 team awards, recognizing excellence across various geoscience domains.
The awards were conferred by the President of India, Smt. Droupadi Murmu, during a grand ceremony at
Rashtrapati Bhavan Cultural Centre, New Delhi.

Key Recipients
Prof. Dhiraj Mohan Banerjee (INSA): Received the National Geoscience Award for Lifetime Achievement 2023
for outstanding contributions to geosciences.
GSI Team 1 (Abhishek Kumar Shukla, Danira Stephen Dsilva, Parsuram Behera, M.N. Praveen): Awarded for
mineral discovery and exploration (excluding fossil fuels) of economic and strategic importance.
GSI Team 2 (Sanjay Singh, Shailendra Kumar Prajapati, Shashank Shekhar Singh, Kevinguzo Chasie): Recognized
for mineral discovery and exploration (excluding fossil fuels).
Dr. Pawan Dewangan (CSIR-NIO, Goa): Awarded for innovative contributions in coal, lignite, methane, and
hydrocarbon discovery and exploration.
Dr. Harsh Kumar Verma (CSIR-CIMFR, Bilaspur): Awarded for contributions to mining technology and
sustainable mineral development.
Prof. Narasimha Mangadoddy: Recognized for work in mineral beneficiation and sustainable mineral
development.
Dr. Rahul Mohan (NCPOR, Goa): Awarded for contributions to basic geosciences including Arctic/Antarctic
research and geological mapping.
GSI Team 3 (Krishna Kumar, Pragya Pandey, Triparna Ghosh, Debasish Bhattacharya): Won team award for
contributions to basic geosciences.
Prof. Vikram Vishal (IIT Bombay): Awarded for contributions to applied geology, geothermal energy,
seismotectonics, and environmental studies.
Dr. Bantu Prasanta Kumar Patro: Recognized for advancements in geophysics, geophysical survey techniques,
and instrumentation.
Prof. Srimath Tirumala Gudemella Raghukanth: Awarded for natural hazard investigations, including
earthquakes, landslides, and tsunamis.
Dr. Ashutosh Pandey (IISER, Thiruvananthapuram): Received the National Young Geoscientist Award 2023 for
his groundbreaking research and significant insights into the geodynamic evolution of the Eastern Dharwar
Craton.

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 01 02 03
AWARD INITIATION NOMINATION AND CATEGORIES OF AWARDS
SELECTION PROCESS 1. National Geoscience
The National Geoscience Nominations can be made by Award for Lifetime
Awards (NGA), instituted by individuals, team members, Achievement: Awarded to an
the Ministry of Mines, former awardees, or heads of individual for a lifetime of
Government of India, in 1966. institutions. The selection significant contributions to
process involves scrutiny by the geosciences.
Originally known as the Sectional Scrutiny 2. National Geoscience
National Mineral Awards Committees (SSC) and Award: Given to individuals or
until 2009, the NGA further evaluation by the teams for notable work in the
recognizes individuals and Screening Committee of fields of earth sciences over
teams for extraordinary Experts (SCE). The final the past decade.
achievements and recommendations are made 3. National Young
contributions in fields such as to the Award Making Geoscientist Award:
mineral discovery and Authority (AMA), with Presented to an individual
exploration, mining shortlisted candidates for below 35 years of age,
technology, mineral certain awards possibly recognizing their promising
beneficiation, and applied invited for presentations and contributions to the field.
geosciences. interviews.

Any professionally qualified Indian geoscientist/engineer/technologist/academic

04 with a meritorious background in geosciences is eligible for the awards.

National Geoscience Award and National Young Geoscientist Award are based on
ELIGIBILITY contributions primarily in India, made within the last 10 years, except for
CRITERIA
Lifetime Achievement.
Lifetime Achievement and Young Geoscientist Awards are given to individuals only;
team awards are limited to four members, with a maximum of five team awards.
Young Geoscientist Award nominees must be under 35 years as of 31st December
of the previous year.
Awardees cannot win a second time in the same field but may apply in other
fields. Lifetime Achievement awardees cannot apply for any other awards.

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 PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. How many geoscientists were conferred with the 4. In what year was the National Geoscience Awards
National Geoscience Awards in 2023? established by the Ministry of Mines?
(a) 19 (b) 20 (c) 21 (d) 22 (a) 1962
(b) 1964
2. Who received the Lifetime Achievement Award at the (c) 1966
National Geoscience Awards 2023? (d) 1968
(a) Dr. Ashutosh Pandey
(b) Prof. Anil Gupta 5. Under how many categories are the National Geoscience
(c) Dr. Harish Kumar Awards given?
(d) Prof. Dhiraj Mohan Banerjee (a) Two
(b) Three
3. For what research was Dr. Ashutosh Pandey honored at (c) Four
the National Geoscience Awards 2023? (d) Five
(a) Western Ghats Geology
(b) Eastern Himalayan Studies
(c) Eastern Dharwar Craton
(d) Northern Aravalli Range

ANSWER KEYS & EXPLANATIONS

1. Correct Answer: (c) 21 4. Correct Answer: (c) 1966
Explanation: The President of India conferred the Explanation: The National Geoscience Awards were
National Geoscience Awards (NGA) 2023 to 21 established in 1966 by the Ministry of Mines. These
geoscientists in recognition of their contributions to the awards recognize and honor significant contributions in
field of geosciences. the field of geosciences, including mining, and have
become one of the most prestigious honors in this
2. Correct Answer: (d) Prof. Dhiraj Mohan Banerjee domain.
Explanation: Prof. Dhiraj Mohan Banerjee was honored
with the Lifetime Achievement Award at the National 5. Correct Answer: (b) Three
Geoscience Awards 2023 for his pioneering work in Explanation: The National Geoscience Awards are
phosphorites and Precambrian geology. distributed under three distinct categories: Lifetime
Achievement, National Geoscience Awards, and National
3. Correct Answer: (c) Eastern Dharwar Craton Young Geoscientist Award.
Explanation: Dr. Ashutosh Pandey was honored as the
National Young Geoscientist at the National Geoscience
Awards 2023 for his research on the Eastern Dharwar
Craton.

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India’s second nuclear-powered submarine: INS Arighat
News Highlights:
Defence Minister Rajnath Singh commissioned India’s second nuclear-powered ballistic missile submarine
(SSBN), INS Arighat, at the Ship Building Centre (SBC) in Visakhapatnam.
India also marked a significant milestone in its maritime defense capabilities with the simultaneous launch of two
Anti-Submarine Warfare Shallow Water Craft (ASW SWC) ships, Malpe and Mulki, at the Cochin Shipyard Ltd.
(CSL), Kochi.
These vessels are the fourth and fifth ships in the Mahe-class of the ASW SWC project, being constructed for the
Indian Navy under the Aatmanirbhar Bharat initiative. The launch was officiated by Mrs. Vijaya Srinivas and
attended by Vice Admiral V. Srinivas, showcasing India's strides in indigenous shipbuilding.

INS Arighat is India's second indigenously-

built nuclear-powered ballistic missile
submarine (SSBN), following INS Arihant,
which was commissioned in 2016.
Construction: It was built at the Ship Building Centre (SBC) in
Visakhapatnam, under the Eastern Naval Command, as part of India's growing
emphasis on nuclear deterrence and maritime defence.
Strategic Role: INS Arighat is key to India's nuclear second-strike capability, which forms part of
the country's no-first-use policy for nuclear weapons. Its ability to remain hidden underwater
makes it a significant deterrent against adversaries, as it can survive a first strike and deliver a
retaliatory attack.
Contract and Construction: The project
Features of INS Arighat: The submarine
for eight ASW Shallow Water Crafts
measures 111.6 metres in length, with a beam of
(SWC) was awarded to Cochin Shipyard
11 metres and a draught of 9.5 metres. It has a
Ltd. (CSL) by the Ministry of Defence in
displacement of approximately 6,000 tonnes.
April 2019. The ships are designed to
Propulsion: INS Arighat is powered by a
undertake anti-submarine operations in
pressurised water reactor (PWR) and utilises a
coastal waters, low-intensity maritime
seven-blade propeller, providing it with
operations, and mine-laying activities.
enhanced stealth and manoeuvrability.
Indigenous Focus: Over 80% of the
Speed: It can reach speeds of 12–15 knots
components used in building these ships
(22–28 km/h) on the surface and up to 24
are indigenously developed, reflecting
knots (44 km/h) when submerged.
the country's commitment to self-
Armament: The submarine is equipped with
reliance in defense production under
four K-4 submarine-launched ballistic
the Aatmanirbhar Bharat initiative.
missiles (SLBMs), which have a range of over
Indian Navy key Authorities
3,500 kilometres, or twelve K-15 SLBMs, which
Chief of the Naval Staff (CNS): Admiral
can strike targets within 750 kilometres.
Dinesh K Tripathi
The K-15 missiles can carry strategic nuclear
Vice Chief of the Naval Staff (VCNS):
warheads, making them a critical asset in
Vice Admiral Krishna Swaminathan
nuclear deterrence. INS Arighat also carries
Navy Master Chief Petty Officer:
torpedoes and mines for underwater defence.
Dilbahadur Chhetri

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 PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. How many ASW-SWC vessels are being constructed by 4. Which shipyard is responsible for building the Arnala
Cochin Shipyard Limited (CSL) for the Indian Navy as Class ASW-SWC for the Indian Navy?
per the contract signed in 2019? (a) Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited
(a) Six (b) Eight (b) Cochin Shipyard Limited
(c) Ten (d) Twelve (c) Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers Limited
(d) Goa Shipyard Limited
2. What is the maximum speed of the Mahe-class ASW-
SWC vessels? 5. Which two ships from the Arnala class were launched in
(a) 10 knots (b) 15 knots March 2024?
(c) 20 knots (d) 25 knots (a) Agray and Akshay
(b) Arnala and Androth
3. What will the ASW-SWC vessels be named once (c) Amini and Anjadip
commissioned? (d) Androth and Amini
(a) INS Malpe and INS Mahe
(b) INS Malpe and INS Mulki
(c) INS Mulki and INS Mysore
(d) INS Mahe and INS Mangalore

ANSWER KEYS & EXPLANATIONS

1. Correct Answer: (b) Eight 4. Correct Answer: (c) Garden Reach Shipbuilders and
Explanation: As per the contract signed in 2019, Cochin Engineers Limited
Shipyard Limited (CSL) is responsible for constructing a Explanation: The Arnala Class of Anti-Submarine Warfare
total of eight Anti-Submarine Warfare Shallow Water Shallow Water Craft (ASW-SWC) is being built by the
Craft (ASW-SWC) vessels for the Indian Navy. Kolkata-based Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers
Limited for the Indian Navy. This shipyard specializes in
2. Correct Answer: (d) 25 knots building vessels for the Indian defense sector, including
Explanation: The Mahe-class Anti-Submarine Warfare various classes of ships for submarine warfare.
Shallow Water Craft vessels are capable of reaching a
maximum speed of 25 knots. 5. Correct Answer: (a) Agray and Akshay
Explanation: The ships Agray and Akshay, part of the
3. Correct Answer: (b) INS Malpe and INS Mulki Arnala class ASW-SWC, were both launched in March
Explanation: The two Anti-Submarine Warfare Shallow 2024.
Water Craft vessels will be named INS Malpe and INS
Mulki upon their commissioning.

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Ramon Magsaysay Award 2024
News Highlights:
The 66th Ramon Magsaysay Awards 2024 have honoured five exceptional individuals and one organisation for
their transformative contributions across Asia.
This prestigious award, often referred to as Asia’s Nobel Prize, recognizes their efforts in diverse fields such as
environmental conservation, healthcare, and cultural preservation.

Ramon Magsaysay Award: About

1
Establishment: The award was created in 1957 in memory of Ramon Magsaysay, the 7th
President of the Philippines, renowned for his leadership and integrity. It is awarded annually to
individuals or organizations in Asia who exhibit selfless service to their communities.

Funds for the Award: The Rockefeller Brothers Fund, based in New York City, funds the Ramon

2 Magsaysay Award. The award was established in 1957 by the trustees of the Rockefeller Brothers Fund
in collaboration with the Philippine government. The award is presented by the Ramon Magsaysay
Award Foundation Annualy.

3
Categories: Initially awarded in five categories (Government Service, Public Service, Community
Leadership, Journalism & Literature, and Peace & International Understanding), the categories were
discontinued in 2009, and since then, the awards are not limited to specific fields.

First Recipient: The first Ramon Magsaysay Awards were given in 1958. The first person to receive

4 the Ramon Magsaysay Award was Acharya Vinoba Bhave in 1958 for his contributions to community
leadership. Other 1958 winners included Dr. Mary Rutnam for Public Service, and the Operation
Brotherhood from the Philippines for Peace and International Understanding​.

Prize: The Ramon Magsaysay Award includes a cash prize of USD 50,000, along with a

5 certificate and medallion. The award is given to Asian individuals and organizations who have
demonstrated excellence in their fields.
The Ramon Magsaysay Award is also known internationally as the "Nobel Prize of Asia."

6
Recent Indian Recipients: Dr. Ravi Kannan, a surgical oncologist and the Director of the Cachar
Cancer Hospital and Research Centre (CCHRC) in Assam, was the 2023 Ramon Magsaysay
Award recipient from India.

Emergent Leadership: The Ramon Magsaysay Award for Emergent Leadership is conferred to
outstanding young individuals who are 40 years old or below, and to organizations not more than 10

7 years old that are engaged in exceptionally worthy work. It is supported by a grant from the Ford
Foundation.
As of 2024, 326 individuals and 27 organizations from 23 countries across Asia have been elected
to receive Asia’s premier prize and highest honor.

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 2024 Awardees
Since its inception, more than 300 people and 26 organisations hailing
from 22 Asian nations have won the Award.
The honorees this year, who shall be felicitated in a ceremony held in
Manila are: beloved Japanese animator Hayao Miyazaki, Bhutanese
scholar and social worker Phuntsho Karma, Vietnamese doctor
Nguyen Thi Ngoc Phuong, who works for victims of Agent Orange used
during the Vietnam War, Indonesian conservationist Farhan Farwiza,
founder of Yayasan Hutan Alam dan Lingkungan Aceh (HAkA), dedicated
to preserving the Leuser ecosystem, and the Rural Doctors Movement
from Thailand.

Hayao Miyazaki (Japan):

The renowned animator and co-founder of Studio Ghibli is
celebrated for his influential role in using art, particularly animation,
to explore human emotions, environmental issues, and peace. His
works like Spirited Away, My Neighbor Totoro, and Princess Mo

Farwiza Farhan (Indonesia):

An environmentalist dedicated to protecting the Leuser Ecosystem
in Sumatra, Farhan is recognized for her leadership in conserving
biodiversity and empowering local communities, especially women,
through advocacy and forest conservation.

Karma Phuntsho (Bhutan):

A former monk and cultural scholar, Phuntsho is honored for his
work in preserving Bhutan's cultural heritage while promoting
modern educational values. He founded the Loden Foundation,
which fosters social entrepreneurship and education in Bhutan.

Dr. Nguyen Thi Ngoc Phuong (Vietnam):

A pioneering doctor, Phuong is recognized for her lifelong advocacy
for victims of Agent Orange, a chemical used during the Vietnam
War. Her work focuses on uncovering the truth and offering medical
care to those affected by the war’s toxic legacy.

Rural Doctors Movement (Thailand):

This collective of Thai healthcare professionals has transformed
healthcare in rural areas since the 1970s, advocating for accessible
medical care and resisting the commercialization of healthcare
services in underserved communities.

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 Some of the Notable Indian Winners of Ramon Magsaysay Award
This list covers only a few of the notable recipients and is not exhaustive

Highest Number of Indian Recipients: India has had a total of 56 recipients so far,
across various categories including Public Service, Journalism, Community Leadership,
and more.
First Female Indian Recipient: Mother Teresa (1962) was one of the earliest female
winners for her work with the poor and destitute in Kolkata.
Multiple Awards in a Single Year: In 1963, Verghese Kurien, Dara Nusserwanji
Khurody, and Tribhuvandas Patel all received the award for their pioneering work in the
Indian dairy cooperative movement (Operation Flood), which later led to the creation of
Amul.
Youngest Indian Recipient: Sandeep Pandey received the award in 2002 at the age of
37, for his work in grassroots activism through Asha for Education, promoting education
for underprivileged children.
First Ramon Magsaysay Award for Emergent Leadership: Introduced in 2001, the
Emergent Leadership category aims to recognize emerging leaders like Arvind Kejriwal
(2006) for his work on Right to Information (RTI) activism, which paved the way for
greater governmental transparency in India.
Notable Contributions by Indian Awardees: Ela Bhatt (1977) received the award for her
work with SEWA (Self Employed Women's Association), empowering millions of women
in India through self-reliance and cooperative movements.
Aruna Roy (2000) is widely known for her role in drafting and campaigning for India’s RTI
Act, which transformed citizens' ability to hold the government accountable.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Who was the first recipient of the Ramon Magsaysay (a) Bharat Vatwani (b) Ravish Kumar
Award from India? (c) Thodur Madabusi Krishna (d) Sonam Wangchuk
(a) Mother Teresa (b) Vinoba Bhave
(c) Satyajit Ray (d) Amitabha Chowdhury 4. What is the cash prize amount associated with the
Ramon Magsaysay Award as of 2024?
2. Which award category was introduced in 2001 to (a) USD 30,000 (b) USD 40,000
recognize emerging leaders? (c) USD 50,000 (d) USD 60,000
(a) Community Leadership
(b) Emergent Leadership 5. Which organization from Thailand won the Ramon
(c) Peace and International Understanding Magsaysay Award in 2024 for transforming healthcare in
(d) Journalism, Literature, and Creative Communication rural areas?
Arts (a) Bangkok Health Foundation
(b) Rural Doctors Movement
3. Who among the following Indian recipients won the (c) Thai Health Promotion Foundation
Ramon Magsaysay Award for Journalism, Literature, (d) Thailand Medical Services
and Creative Communication Arts in 2019?

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 ANSWER KEYS & EXPLANATIONS
1. Correct Answer: (b) Vinoba Bhave 4. Correct Answer: (c) USD 50,000
Explanation: Vinoba Bhave was the first Indian recipient Explanation: As of 2024, each recipient of the Ramon
of the Ramon Magsaysay Award, honored in 1958 for Magsaysay Award receives a cash prize of USD 50,000,
Community Leadership due to his significant role in the along with a medallion and a citation, to honor their
Bhoodan Movement, where he encouraged landowners to transformative contributions in their respective fields.
voluntarily give part of their land to landless people.
5. Correct Answer: (b) Rural Doctors Movement
2. Correct Answer: (b) Emergent Leadership Explanation: The Rural Doctors Movement in Thailand
Explanation: The Emergent Leadership category was was awarded in 2024 for their longstanding dedication to
introduced in 2001 specifically to recognize and honor transforming healthcare in rural areas by advocating for
emerging leaders who have shown considerable promise accessible medical care and resisting the
and impact early in their careers. commercialization of healthcare services, particularly for
underserved communities.
3. Correct Answer: (b) Ravish Kumar
Explanation: Ravish Kumar was awarded the Ramon
Magsaysay Award in 2019 for his work in Journalism,
Literature, and Creative Communication Arts, where he is
recognized for his fearless and unwavering commitment
to a professional, ethical journalism that represents the
interest of the downtrodden.

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Major Military Exercises in the Past Month
News Highlights:
Indian Forces Participated in two major military exercises recently i.e. Eastern Bridge and Yudh Abhyas.

Eastern Bridge Exercise 2024 Yudh Abhyas 2024

The Eastern Bridge Exercise 2024 is the The 20th edition of Exercise Yudh Abhyas—
seventh edition of a bilateral military exercise the India-USA Joint Military Exercise—
between the Indian Air Force (IAF) and the commenced on September 9, 2024, at the
Royal Oman Air Force (RAFO). Taking place at Mahajan Field Firing Ranges in Rajasthan.
the Masirah Air Force Base in Oman from
September 11 to 22, 2024

The exercise will continue until September 22,

2024, and is focused on enhancing counter-
The exercise serves as a platform to: terrorism capabilities under a semi-desert
Enhance interoperability between the two environment.
air forces. The joint exercise aims to build
Strengthen strategic and operational interoperability between the Indian and
cooperation. US militaries, promote camaraderie, and
Improve tactical and operational skills strengthen bilateral defence cooperation.
through joint drills and complex mission
scenarios.

First conducted in 2004, the exercise alternates

The exercise reflects the growing defense between India and the USA each year,
collaboration between India and Oman, symbolising the growing strategic partnership
showcasing their commitment to: between the two countries.
Regional security: The exercise helps build
military readiness to face shared challenges
in the Gulf region and beyond.
Maritime and Air Defense: Oman plays a Participating Contingents
crucial role in supporting Indian naval Indian Army: The Indian Army's contingent
operations, especially with access to consists of 600 personnel, primarily
strategic locations like the Duqm port. represented by a battalion of the RAJPUT
Regiment along with supporting arms and
services.
US Army: The US contingent is also
Participating Aircraft comprised of approximately 600 personnel
The IAF and RAFO will participate with some of from the 1-24 Battalion of the 11th
their key combat and transport aircraft: Airborne Division, based in Alaska.
Indian Air Force (IAF): MiG-29s, Jaguars,
and C-17s.
Royal Air Force of Oman (RAFO): Various Objectives and Focus Areas
combat aircraft, including F-16s and Hawks. The primary objective of Yudh Abhyas 2024
This exercise underscores the growing defense is to enhance the joint military capability of
cooperation between India and Oman, crucial both forces to conduct counter-terrorism
partners in maintaining regional stability, operations in a sub-conventional scenario,
especially in the Gulf region. in line with Chapter VII of the United
Nations Charter.

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 PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Where did the 20th edition of the India-USA Joint 4. Which of the following is a major Army exercise between
Military Exercise YUDH ABHYAS-2024 take place? India and the USA?
(a) Mahajan Field Firing Ranges, Rajasthan (a) Cope India
(b) Leh, Ladakh (b) Malabar Exercise
(c) Jaisalmer, Rajasthan (c) SALVEX
(d) Pune, Maharashtra (d) Ex VAJRA PRAHAR

2. Since which year has Exercise YUDH ABHYAS been held 5. Which chapter of the United Nations Charter provides
annually? the framework for enforcement actions, including
(a) 2002 (b) 2003 military measures, in Exercise YUDH ABHYAS-2024?
(c) 2004 (d) 2005 (a) Chapter V
(b) Chapter VI
3. Which edition of the India-USA Joint Military Exercise (c) Chapter VII
YUDH ABHYAS took place in 2024? (d) Chapter VIII
(a) 17th edition (b) 18th edition
(c) 19th edition (d) 20th edition

ANSWER KEYS & EXPLANATIONS

1. Correct Answer: (a) Mahajan Field Firing Ranges, 4. Correct Answer: (d) Ex VAJRA PRAHAR
Rajasthan Explanation: Ex VAJRA PRAHAR is a major Army exercise
Explanation: The 20th edition of the India-USA Joint between India and the USA, focused on special operations
Military Exercise YUDH ABHYAS-2024 took place at the and counter-terrorism.
Mahajan Field Firing Ranges in Rajasthan.
5. Correct Answer: (c) Chapter VII
2. Correct Answer: (c) 2004 Explanation: Chapter VII of the United Nations Charter
Explanation: Exercise Yudh Abhyas has been held provides the framework for the Security Council to take
annually since 2004. enforcement action, including both non-military and
military measures, to maintain or restore international
3. Correct Answer: (d) 20th edition peace and security.
Explanation: The 20th edition of the India-USA Joint
Military Exercise YUDH ABHYAS was held in 2024.

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India leads as top origin country and destination for Hindu
migrants: Pew Research Centre
News Highlights:
India has emerged as the leading country of origin and destination for Hindu migrants globally, according to a
2024 report by the Pew Research Center.
The report reveals that 7.6 million Hindus born in India are living abroad, while 3 million Hindus born in
other countries have migrated to India.
Additionally, the report emphasises that India is the second-largest source of Muslim migrants, further
highlighting its significant role in global migration patterns.
Religious Composition
of Migrants

Christians:
Christians represent the
largest share of global
migrants, constituting
47% of the migrant
population.

Hindus:
Hindus make up only 5%
of the global migrant
population, though they
represent 15% of the
world’s total population.
Key Findings on Global Migration Trends (Pew Report 2024)
Global Migration Statistics
Total International Migrants: Over 280
million people or 3.6% of the global
population were living as international
migrants in 2020. Muslims:
Migration Growth: The number of international Muslims account for
migrants increased by 83% from 1990 to 2020, 33% of Indian-born
far outpacing global population growth of 47%. migrants, while globally,
Average Distance Traveled: Migrants travel an India is the second-
average of 2,200 miles. However, Hindus travel largest source of Muslim
the longest, averaging 3,100 miles. migrants after Pakistan.

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Hindu Migration Patterns Muslim Migration Patterns
India as Top Source and Destination: India leads as Indian Muslims:
both the top origin and destination for Hindu Muslims in India are more likely to emigrate
migrants. About 7.6 million Hindus born in India live compared to Hindus. While they form only 15% of
abroad, and 3 million Hindus born in other countries India’s population, they represent 33% of Indian-
have migrated to India. born migrants.
Global Distribution: Hindu migrants are mostly from Major destination countries for Indian Muslim
the Asia-Pacific region, especially from India, migrants include UAE (1.8 million), Saudi Arabia
Bangladesh, and Nepal. (1.3 million), and Oman (720,000).
44% of Hindu migrants reside in Asia-Pacific. Global Impact:
24% live in the Middle East-North Africa region. The Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) countries have
22% have migrated to North America. seen the largest growth in migrant populations—a
Migration to the US and Bangladesh-India Route: surge of 277% since 1990—with 75% of migrants in
1.8 million Hindus from India have migrated to the region being Muslims, while Hindus and Christians
the US for better employment and education. comprise 11% and 14%, respectively.
1.6 million Hindus from Bangladesh have 9.9 million Indian migrants currently reside in
migrated to India due to historical, socio- GCC countries.
economic, and political reasons.

Impact of Diaspora on Home-Country Growth

Remittances: In 2022, migrants sent over USD 430 billion in remittances to their home countries, providing significant
economic support.
Remittances make up 30% of Nepal's GDP and 37% of Tajikistan's GDP.
Economic Growth and Knowledge Transfer: The Indian diaspora plays a crucial role in economic growth, with
investments in businesses and government bonds contributing to India’s financial development. Additionally, the
transfer of skills and knowledge by the diaspora enhances local productivity, especially in sectors such as
technology and outsourcing.

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 PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Who published the report titled "The Religious 4. In which year did The Pew Charitable Trusts become the
Composition of the World’s Migrants"? primary sponsor of the Times Mirror Center for the
(a) United Nations People & the Press?
(b) World Bank (a) 1990
(c) Pew Research Center (b) 1993
(d) International Migration Organization (c) 1996
(d) 2000
2. As of 2024, which country accounts for the largest
share of Hindu migrants in the world? 5. What percentage of the global migrant population is
(a) Nepal (b) Bangladesh made up of Christians?
(c) US (d) India (a) 33%
(b) 47%
3. What percentage of the world’s population was living (c) 50%
as international migrants in 2020? (d) 55%
(a) 2.5% (b) 3.6%. (c) 4.2%. (d) 5.1%

ANSWER KEYS & EXPLANATIONS

1. Correct Answer: (c) Pew Research Center 4. Correct Answer: (c) 1996
Explanation: The report titled "The Religious Explanation: In 1996, The Pew Charitable Trusts became
Composition of the World’s Migrants" was published by the primary sponsor of the Times Mirror Center for the
the Pew Research Center. People & the Press, and it was renamed the Pew Research
Center for the People & the Press.
2. Correct Answer: (d) India
Explanation: As of 2024, India accounts for 57% of the 5. Correct Answer: (b) 47%
world’s Hindu migrants and is home to 94% of the global Explanation: Christians account for 47% of the global
Hindu population. This makes India the largest source migrant population, reflecting their significant
country for Hindu migrants. representation in international migration.

3. Correct Answer: (b) 3.6%

Explanation: In 2020, more than 280 million people, or
3.6% of the world’s population, were living as
international migrants.

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World Suicide Prevention Day
News Highlights:
On September 10, 2024, the world will observe World Suicide Prevention Day, focusing on raising awareness about
suicide prevention and reducing stigma surrounding mental health.
With over 700,000 people dying by suicide globally each year, this day serves as a platform to encourage open
conversations and highlight the importance of community support in protecting lives.
Organized by the International Association for Suicide Prevention (IASP) in collaboration with the World
Health Organization (WHO), the event aims to inspire action, educate the public, and offer hope.

Theme for World Suicide Prevention Day 2024-2026

“Changing the Narrative on Suicide”

....Start the Conversation
The goal of this theme is to transform the way society perceives
suicide, moving from stigma and silence to openness,
understanding, and support.

World Suicide Prevention Day: History

The International Association for Suicide Prevention (IASP) first established World Suicide Prevention Day
in 2003.
It was created to draw global attention to the preventability of suicides and to foster dialogue among organizations,
governments, and the public. Each year, it aims to educate, raise awareness, and encourage efforts to reduce suicide
rates worldwide.
Significance of World Suicide Prevention Day
Suicide is one of the leading causes of death globally, particularly among 15-29-year-olds, and is responsible for
more than 700,000 deaths annually.
This day brings attention to the urgent need for mental health awareness, intervention, and support for
individuals struggling with suicidal thoughts. It emphasizes that seeking help is essential and that open
conversations can prevent suicides by breaking the stigma surrounding mental health issues.
Initiatives - Global & National
WHO’s Mental Health Action Plan National Suicide Prevention Mental Health Care Act
(2013-2030) Strategy (NSPS) – India (2017) – India
The World Health Organization (WHO) Launched by the Ministry of Health This landmark legislation
developed this global action plan to and Family Welfare in 2022, the emphasizes the right to
promote mental well-being and reduce NSPS is India's first suicide mental healthcare and
suicides. It highlights four key objectives: prevention policy aimed at mandates access to services
Strengthening leadership and reducing suicide mortality by 10% for individuals with suicidal
governance for mental health. by 2030. The strategy focuses on: tendencies. It decriminalizes
Providing comprehensive, integrated, Creating national frameworks for attempted suicide and
and responsive mental health mental health services. focuses on treatment rather
services. Developing a suicide surveillance than punishment,
Implementing suicide prevention system. encouraging a supportive
policies. Strengthening emergency approach to mental health
Strengthening information systems services and increasing access to crises.
for evidence-based interventions. mental health support.

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International Association for Suicide The National Mental Health Program (NMHP) – India
Prevention (IASP) Established in 1982 by the Indian government, the NMHP aims to
Founded in 1960, the IASP works improve mental health services, including suicide prevention. The
alongside the WHO to create global program provides:
awareness campaigns like World Psychosocial interventions at the community level.
Suicide Prevention Day. It Support for early diagnosis and treatment of mental health
emphasizes community support, conditions.
reducing stigma, and promoting The development of counseling centers in schools and
global suicide prevention initiatives. workplaces.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. When is World Suicide Prevention Day (WSPD) 4. What is the triennial theme for World Suicide Prevention
observed annually? Day from 2024 to 2026?
(a) 1st September (b) 10th September (a) "Changing the Narrative on Suicide"
(c) 20th September (d) 30th September (b) "Hope for Life"
(c) "Speak Up, Save Lives"
2. Where was the first World Suicide Prevention Day (d) "Together for Mental Health"
(WSPD) launched in 2003?
(a) New York (b) London 5. Which ministry announced the "National Suicide
(c) Geneva (d) Stockholm Prevention Strategy" in India?
(a) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
3. Which organizations initiated the first World Suicide (b) Ministry of Home Affairs
Prevention Day (WSPD) in 2003? (c) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
(a) United Nations and WHO (d) Ministry of Education
(b) Red Cross and IASP
(c) IASP and WHO (d) UNICEF and WHO

ANSWER KEYS & EXPLANATIONS

1. Correct Answer: (b) 10th September 4. Correct Answer: (a) "Changing the Narrative on Suicide"
Explanation: World Suicide Prevention Day (WSPD) is Explanation: The triennial theme for World Suicide
observed every year on 10th September to raise Prevention Day from 2024 to 2026 is "Changing the
awareness about the preventability of suicide and to Narrative on Suicide," which encourages open discussions
promote open discussions on mental health. about suicide and mental health, aiming to replace stigma
with understanding and support.
2. Correct Answer: (d) Stockholm
Explanation: The first World Suicide Prevention Day 5. Correct Answer: (c) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
(WSPD) was launched in Stockholm on 10th September Explanation: The "National Suicide Prevention Strategy"
2003. was announced by the Ministry of Health and Family
Welfare, Government of India.
3. Correct Answer: (c) IASP and WHO
Explanation: The first World Suicide Prevention Day
(WSPD) was initiated by the International Association for
Suicide Prevention (IASP) and the World Health
Organization (WHO) in 2003.

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 IMPORTANT ONE LINERS
NATIONAL
Uttarakhand Pioneers in Valuing Natural Resources with Gross Environment Product
 Uttarakhand has become the first state in India to assign monetary values to its natural resources,
encompassing air, water, forest, and soil, introducing the Gross Environment Product (GEP).
 The GEP, distinguishing between man-made conservation efforts like 'amrit sarovars' and natural processes
such as rainfall and reflects a 0.9% increase in environmental products from 2020 to 2022, highlighting the state's
commitment to integrating ecological health into its economic metrics.

India to Centralise Transportation Systems into Unified Hubs

 The Ministry of Roads, Transport and Highways has announced an ambitious initiative to centralise India’s
transportation networks—roadways, railways, airways, waterways, and ropeways—into integrated hubs and
terminals.
 This strategy aims to serve as a one-stop solution for 87% of the country's passenger traffic, which primarily travels
by road.
 As part of this plan, two pilot hubs will be developed in Katra and Tirupati, with additional hubs in Varanasi and
Nagpur managed by the National Highways Logistics Management (NHLM), a subsidiary of the National Highways
Authority of India focused on improving transport logistics and infrastructure.

India and Japan Strengthen Ties at 3rd 2+2 Ministerial Meeting

 India and Japan recently held their third 2+2 Foreign and Defence Ministerial Meeting in New Delhi, against the
backdrop of rising geopolitical tensions and China’s assertiveness in the Indo-Pacific region.
 Both countries emphasised their commitment to a free, open, and rules-based Indo-Pacific, aligning strategically in
response to China’s growing military presence.
 They supported the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN)'s unity and central role in fostering regional
cooperation and peace, endorsing the ASEAN Outlook on the Indo-Pacific.

Natal Indian Congress Marks 130th Foundation Year: A Legacy of Resistance and Unity
 The Natal Indian Congress (NIC), established on August 22, 1894, by Mahatma Gandhi, recently marked its 130th
foundation year.
 Originally founded to combat discrimination against Indians in Natal, South Africa, the NIC was the first Indian
Congress of its kind.
 Over the decades, it evolved under the umbrella of the South African Indian Congress (SAIC) from the 1920s and saw
a shift towards more radical leadership in the 1930s and 1940s, culminating in Dr. G.M. Naicker’s leadership started
in 1945.
 The NIC’s activism intensified, leading to the imprisonment of several leaders by the 1950s and 1960s.

Prime Minister Commemorates Maharaja Bir Bikram Kishore Manikya Bahadur

 The Prime Minister paid homage to Maharaja Bir Bikram Kishore Manikya Bahadur on his birth anniversary,
recognizing his transformative contributions to Tripura.
 Known as the "Modern Architect of Tripura," he was pivotal in founding the first higher educational institution and
advocating for land reforms that benefited indigenous communities.
 His efforts led to the establishment of the Tripura Tribal Areas Autonomous District Council. Maharaja Bir Bikram,
born on August 19, 1908, was also the first ruler of Tripura to travel to Europe and America. He donated land for the
Agartala airport, which was renamed in his honour in 2018.

160
State of Healthcare in Rural India, 2024" Report Highlights Critical Gaps
 The "State of Healthcare in Rural India, 2024" report highlights significant healthcare challenges in rural areas
across 21 Indian states.
 Approximately 50% of rural households have government health insurance, yet 34% lack any insurance, and 61% are
without life insurance. Access issues persist, with only 39% having nearby diagnostic facilities and a mere 12.2%
accessing subsidised medicines.
 Additionally, 73% of households with elderly require constant care, predominantly provided by family members,
underscoring the need for enhanced caregiver support and infrastructure improvements.

Bharatmala Pariyojana: Enhancing India's Road Network and Connectivity

 The Bharatmala Pariyojana, launched under the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways, is a comprehensive road
development initiative aimed at enhancing freight and passenger movement across India.
 Initiated in 2017, the first phase of Bharatmala was initially set for completion by 2022 but faced delays due to slow
implementation and financial hurdles.
 As of March 31, 2024, nearly 50% of the project has been completed, with completion now projected for 2027-28.
This program forms a critical part of the Ministry's Vision 2047, which seeks to establish high-speed corridors and
world-class amenities within 100-150 km of all citizens.

India Launches Jan Poshan Kendra Initiative to Boost Nutrition and Efficiency in Public Distribution
 The Indian government has initiated a pilot project to transform 60 Fair Price Shops (FPS) into "Jan Poshan
Kendras" across Gujarat, Rajasthan, Telangana, and Uttar Pradesh.
 This transformation is part of an effort to enhance the nutritional offerings available under the Pradhan Mantri Garib
Kalyan Anna Yojana (PMGKAY). The Jan Poshan Kendra initiative not only aims to sell additional items beyond
subsidised grains, addressing the income challenges of ration dealers, but also to improve service quality with the
introduction of digital tools and support systems to increase transparency and efficiency.
 Presently, 0.54 million FPSs distribute about 60-70 million tonnes of food grain annually to over 800 million
beneficiaries.
 The government plans to expand this initiative, converting approximately 100,000 fair price shops into "nutri-hubs"
over the next three years, aiming to further enhance the nutritional access and efficiency of India's vast public
distribution system.

Union Minister of Power Launches Three Innovative Online Platforms to Boost Power Sector Efficiency
 The Union Minister of Power has launched three online platforms—PROMPT, DRIPS, and JALVIDYUT DPR—to
enhance efficiency, transparency, and effectiveness in India's power sector.
 Developed by the Central Electricity Authority (CEA) and NTPC, PROMPT facilitates real-time tracking of thermal
power projects, DRIPS addresses power disruptions from natural disasters, and JAL VIDYUT DPR monitors
hydroelectric projects.
 These platforms aim to improve project management, disaster response, and coordination across the sector, reflecting
the Ministry's commitment to modernising infrastructure management and increasing operational transparency.

Indian Prime Minister's Historic Visit to Ukraine: Strengthening Bilateral Ties and Promoting Peace
 India's Prime Minister visited Ukraine, marking the first visit by an Indian head of state since Ukraine's independence
in 1991.
 The visit highlighted India's active stance on the Russia-Ukraine conflict, emphasising peace and resolution through
stakeholder engagement.
 Key outcomes included the establishment of an Intergovernmental Commission to enhance bilateral trade, the signing
of four agreements aimed at strengthening cooperation in agriculture, medical regulation, and cultural ties, and the
donation of four mobile hospital units to Ukraine.

161
 Additionally, the Prime Minister extended an invitation to the Ukrainian President to visit India, reinforcing bilateral
relations.

8th Dharma Dhamma Conference Focuses on Cosmology in Indian Traditions

 The 8th Dharma Dhamma conference, organised by the India Foundation in collaboration with Gujarat University,
was held in Ahmedabad, featuring Vice-President Jagdeep Dhankhar as the chief guest.
 The 2024 conference's theme, "Cosmology in Dharma and Dhamma," explored the unique aspects of Dharmic
cosmology rooted in Indian traditions which address the nature of life and the universe, suggesting that life's brevity
doesn't necessarily imply a definitive meaning.
 This conference, a critical initiative by the India Foundation, aimed to deepen the understanding and foster harmony
between Hindu and Buddhist philosophies, reflecting their enduring relevance and shared insights into cosmology, as
detailed in ancient texts such as the Vedas, Itihasa-Purana, Brahmanas, Buddhist Nikayas and Sutras, and Jain Karikas
and Sutras.

India Modifies Cross-Border Electricity Trade Guidelines Amid Regional Unrest

 The Ministry of Power has recently updated the 2018 guidelines for the Import/export (cross-border) of Electricity,
enabling power plants that export electricity to neighbouring countries to also sell their output in India.
 This change specifically allows the sale of power to the local grid in cases of payment delays from neighbouring
countries.
 This amendment comes in response to the ongoing unrest in Bangladesh, where Indian electricity suppliers like Adani
Power’s 1600 MW Godda plant in Jharkhand have been selling electricity exclusively to Bangladesh since 2023.
 Additionally, National Thermal Power Corporation Limited (NTPC) and Damodar Valley Corporation (DVC) have
agreements to supply 500 MW and 300 MW to Bangladesh, respectively.

New Smartphone-Based Sensor Developed for Parkinson's Disease Management

 Scientists at the Institute of Advanced Study in Science and Technology (IASST), an autonomous body under the
Department of Science and Technology, have developed an innovative and affordable smartphone-based sensor
system for managing Parkinson's disease.
 This portable fluorescence turn-on sensor system is designed to accurately monitor levels of L-dopa, a crucial
medication used to manage dopamine deficiencies in Parkinson’s patients.
 The sensor utilises a combination of silk-fibroin protein coated on reduced graphene oxide nanoparticles, which emit
a glow when detecting L-dopa in bodily fluids like blood, sweat, or urine.

Sikh Holy Books Returned to Indian Embassy in Qatar

 In December 2023, Qatari authorities returned two saroops of the Guru Granth Sahib to the Indian embassy after
initially confiscating them from individuals accused of unauthorised religious activities.
 Saroops are revered as living gurus within Sikhism, comprising 1,430 pages each and embodying hymns from six Sikh
gurus and various saints.
 Compiled first in 1604 by Guru Arjan Dev and later enriched by Guru Gobind Singh, the Guru Granth Sahib was
declared the eternal Guru of the Sikhs in 1708.

NGT Fines Punjab Government Rs 1,000 Crore for Waste Mismanagement

 The National Green Tribunal (NGT) has imposed a hefty penalty of Rs 1,000 crore on the Punjab government due to
its persistent failure in managing solid and liquid waste, despite previous warnings.
 This penalty, reflecting environmental damages over six months, must be deposited with the Central Pollution Control
Board within a month.

162
51st Fighter Wing Enhances Readiness in Ulchi Freedom Shield 24 Exercise
 The 51st Fighter Wing at Osan Air Base, South Korea, is actively participating in the Ulchi Freedom Shield 24, a joint
military exercise with South Korean forces running from August 19 to August 23, 2024.
 The exercise aims to boost the wing's operational readiness and strengthen command and control systems in
collaboration with the Seventh Air Force and U.S. Forces Korea.
 Key activities include local flying operations and Agile Combat Employment, emphasizing rapid response and
adaptability across various bases.
 This strategic training underscores the U.S.'s commitment to regional security and stability in the Pacific, reinforcing
a combined defense posture with South Korea.

India Surpasses China as Top Buyer of Russian Oil in July 2024

 In July 2024, India overtook China to become the leading importer of Russian oil, accounting for 44% of its total oil
imports with a daily intake of 2.07 million barrels—a 12% increase from the previous year.
 This shift was influenced by reduced refining profits in China and the availability of Russian oil at discounted rates
due to Western sanctions linked to the Ukraine conflict.
 The strategic increase in India's Russian oil purchases, including a notable rise in Russian ESPO Blend crude, has
contributed to stabilizing global oil prices and managing inflation.
 Meanwhile, Iraq and Saudi Arabia remain key suppliers, with the Middle East's overall share in India's oil imports
rising to 40%.

India-Denmark Partnership Launches Smart Laboratory on Clean Rivers to Revitalize Varuna River
 Under the collaborative Environmental Strategic Partnership between India and Denmark, the Smart Laboratory on
Clean Rivers (SLCR) project has been initiated to rejuvenate the Varuna River, with a combined funding of ₹21.8 crore.
 This innovative project aims to leverage advanced technology and a comprehensive river management plan to
enhance the river’s health and bolster the local economy and social conditions over the next 2-3 years.

IIM Bangalore Partners with Alumnus Mathew Cyriac to Launch India’s First Global Centre for PE and VC
 On August 25, 2024, the Indian Institute of Management Bangalore (IIM-B) signed a landmark Memorandum of
Understanding with alumnus Mathew Cyriac, Executive Chairman of Florintree Advisors, to establish India’s inaugural
Global Centre of Excellence in Private Equity and Venture Capital.
 Named after prominent investment banker Tony James, the Centre aims to be a global leader in these fields, fostering
advanced research and educational endeavours.

ASSOCHAM Environment and Carbon Conference Opens in New Delhi with Focus on Achieving Net Zero by 2070
 Shri Kirti Vardhan Singh, the Union Minister of State for Environment, Forest, and Climate Change, inaugurated the
ASSOCHAM Environment and Carbon Conference in New Delhi, emphasising collaborative efforts to achieve India's
goal of net zero emissions by 2070.
 Highlighting climate change as a global challenge requiring international cooperation, the Minister outlined India’s
commitment to bolstering climate resilience and fulfilling its Nationally Determined Contributions.

Assam Assembly Passes Law to Mandate Registration of Muslim Marriages and Divorces, Aiming to Curb Child
Marriage and Polygamy
 The Assam Legislative Assembly has enacted the Assam Compulsory Registration of Muslim Marriages and Divorces
Bill, 2024, repealing the outdated 1935 Act that allowed child marriage and marriages without mutual consent.
 This new legislation sets stringent age and consent requirements for Muslim marriages in Assam, with a woman
needing to be at least 18 and a man 21. Couples must now register their intent to marry 30 days in advance, allowing
time for any legal objections.

163
Google DeepMind's "Morni Project" Aims to Develop AI for 125 Indian Languages
 Google DeepMind's India-based "Morni Project" is pioneering AI development to comprehend and interact with 125
Indian languages, enhancing digital inclusivity across India's diverse linguistic landscape.
 Despite India's recognition of 22 official languages, Morni seeks to support over 100 additional languages, some
spoken by massive, yet digitally underrepresented populations.
 Faced with the significant challenge of scarce digital data for 73 of these languages, Google has initiated Project Vaani
in collaboration with the Indian Institute of Science and ARTPARK.

Prime Minister Modi Inaugurates Vadhvan Port Project in Maharashtra, Aiming for Global Top Ten Status
 Prime Minister Narendra Modi laid the foundation stone for the ambitious Vadhvan Port project in Palghar,
Maharashtra, on August 30, 2024.
 With an estimated cost of ₹76,000 crore, the port is designed to handle 23.2 million TEUs and aims to rank among the
world's top ten ports.
 Strategically located near Dahanu at a deep-water site, Vadhvan Port is set to enhance India's trade capabilities by
facilitating large container ships and reducing shipping costs and times.

India Conducts First National Mock Drill on Zoonotic Diseases, "Vishanu Yuddh Abhyas"
 India held its first national mock drill, Vishanu Yuddh Abhyas, from August 27 to 31, 2024, to assess preparedness for
zoonotic disease outbreaks. Initiated under the National One Health Mission (NOHM), the exercise aimed to test
coordination between sectors like human health, animal husbandry, and wildlife management. Key organisations,
including the NCDC, ICMR, and DAHD, participated, focusing on disease identification and control.

President Murmu Approves Formation of 23rd Law Commission of India

 President Droupadi Murmu has approved the establishment of the 23rd Law Commission, which will function from
September 1, 2024, to August 31, 2027.
 This new commission, consisting of a Chairperson, four full-time members, two ex-officio members, and up to five
part-time members, aims to review and suggest reforms to India's legal system.

India Launches Vishvasya Blockchain Stack and National Blockchain Portal to Boost Trust in Digital Services
 India's Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) has introduced the Vishvasya Blockchain
Technology Stack, NBFLite, Praamaanik, and the National Blockchain Portal to enhance blockchain adoption and trust
in digital services.
 Central to this initiative is the National Blockchain Framework (NBF), designed to build secure, transparent, and
efficient public services using distributed infrastructure, smart contracts, and strong privacy features. Collaborating
with institutions like C-DAC and IIT Hyderabad, this initiative aims to tackle challenges like skill shortages and vendor
lock-in while promoting research and development in blockchain technology.

Indian Army Celebrates Lance Naik Charan Singh’s 100th Birthday, Honouring His Service in World War II
 Lance Naik Charan Singh (retired), a World War II veteran, was honoured by the Indian Army on his 100th birthday
in a special ceremony at his home in Himachal Pradesh.
 Enlisting in 1942 at 18, Singh served 17 years in the Army Service Corps, including during World War II and the Burma
campaign, earning honours like the Burma Star Award.
 The Indian Army, led by a Brigadier, celebrated his milestone birthday, reflecting its enduring respect for veterans.
Singh’s life and military service continue to inspire, particularly in his hometown, where his contributions are deeply
cherished.

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Union Health Secretary Releases “Health Dynamics of India 2022-23” Report Highlighting Key Data on Healthcare
Infrastructure and Workforce
 Union Health Secretary Shri Apurva Chandra released the “Health Dynamics of India (Infrastructure and Human
Resources) 2022-23” report, providing comprehensive data on India's healthcare facilities and workforce.
 Formerly known as “Rural Health Statistics,” this report offers valuable insights to aid in policy-making under the
National Health Mission (NHM).
 It details 1,69,615 Sub-Centres, 31,882 Primary Health Centres, 6,359 Community Health Centres, and 1,340 District
Hospitals, supported by over 2.39 lakh health workers.

India-USA Joint Military Exercise Yudh Abhyas 2024 Begins in Rajasthan

 The 20th edition of the India-USA Joint Military Exercise, Yudh Abhyas 2024, commenced on September 9, 2024, at the
Mahajan Field Firing Ranges in Rajasthan.
 Running until September 22, this annual exercise strengthens defense cooperation between the two nations.
 India is represented by 600 personnel from the RAJPUT Regiment, while the US has sent troops from the 1-24 Battalion
of the 11th Airborne Division, Alaska.

Indian Army Participates in 5th Edition of Joint Military Exercise AL NAJAH with Oman
 The Indian Army has sent a contingent to Oman for the 5th edition of the India-Oman Joint Military Exercise AL NAJAH,
being held from September 13 to 26, 2024, in Salalah, Oman.
 This biennial exercise, which began in 2015, aims to strengthen military cooperation, focusing on counter-terrorism
operations.
 The Indian Army’s 60-member team, primarily from a Mechanised Infantry Regiment, will join an equal number of
personnel from Oman’s Royal Army Frontier Force.

Union Minister Launches “Rangeen Machhli” App to Boost India's Ornamental Fisheries Sector
 Union Minister Shri Rajiv Ranjan Singh launched the Rangeen Machhli mobile app in Bhubaneswar, aimed at
supporting India's growing ornamental fisheries sector under the Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY).
 The app provides multilingual information on popular ornamental fish, helps users find local aquarium shops, and
offers educational modules on aquarium care and ornamental aquaculture.

Port Blair to be Renamed ‘Sri Vijaya Puram’ in Honor of India’s Historical Legacy
 Union Minister Amit Shah announced that Port Blair, the capital of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, will be renamed
Sri Vijaya Puram.
 This renaming reflects Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s vision of replacing colonial-era names with those that honor
India’s rich history and freedom struggle.
 The new name acknowledges the region's ancient connections, particularly to the Chola dynasty, which played a
significant role in Southeast Asia.

Typhoon Yagi: Asia’s Strongest Storm of 2024 Causes Over 400 Deaths, Massive Destruction Across Multiple
Countries
 In early September 2024, Typhoon Yagi, the strongest storm of the year in Asia, struck Myanmar, Vietnam, Laos, and
Thailand, causing widespread devastation.
 The typhoon resulted in over 400 deaths, forced hundreds of thousands from their homes, and led to severe flooding
and landslides.

Subhadra Yojana: Odisha’s New Scheme to Empower Women

 The Odisha government has launched the Subhadra Yojana to commemorate Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s 74th
birthday, aiming to provide ₹10,000 annually to economically weaker women aged 21 to 60.

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 The scheme will distribute funds in two installments: ₹5,000 on Rakhi Purnima and ₹5,000 on International Women’s
Day, deposited directly into Aadhaar-linked bank accounts. Over five years, it is expected to benefit 1 crore women,
with an allocation of ₹55,825 crore. This initiative seeks to attract women voters and compete with the BJD's Mission
Shakti programme.

Chennai Celebrates 146th Birth Anniversary of Social Reformer Periyar E.V. Ramasamy
 On September 17, 2024, Chennai commemorated the 146th birth anniversary of Periyar E.V. Ramasamy, a renowned
social reformer from Tamil Nadu, with Chief Minister M.K. Stalin leading the tributes.
 Born in 1879 in Erode, Periyar initially joined the Congress party but left due to disagreements over caste issues. He
founded the Self-Respect Movement in 1925 and gained national prominence during the Vaikom Satyagraha in 1924.

Exercise AIKYA: Enhancing Disaster Preparedness and Coordination

 Exercise AIKYA is a two-day national event in Chennai organised by the National Disaster Management Authority
(NDMA) and the Army Southern Command, aimed at improving coordination among various organisations for disaster
response.
 The event gathers representatives from multiple sectors, including Railways, Civil Aviation, and Health, alongside
officials from the Indian Meteorological Department and the National Remote Sensing Centre.

4th Global Renewable Energy Investors Meet and Expo Highlights Gujarat's Leadership
 The 4th Global Renewable Energy Investors Meet and Expo was successfully held in Gujarat, marking the first
occurrence outside Delhi. Gujarat emerged as the top-performing state, excelling in various renewable energy
capacities, particularly in wind power and ranking second in solar power, with only Rajasthan surpassing it.
 The event featured significant initiatives such as the “Mission 100 GW of Renewable Energy in Gujarat” and “Gujarat
Energy Vision 2047,” presented by Chief Minister Bhupendra Patel. Union Minister Pralhad Joshi acknowledged the
state’s contribution of about 53% to India’s solar generation capacity, further reinforcing Gujarat's critical role in the
nation’s renewable energy landscape.

INTERNATIONAL
Cyber Attack Disrupts Elon Musk's Interview with Donald Trump on X
 Recently, an interview between Tesla CEO Elon Musk and former US President Donald Trump on the platform X
(formerly Twitter) was interrupted by a cyber attack known as Denial of Service (DoS).
 Types of DoS attacks include the Smurf Attack, where attackers flood their own servers by using a spoofed IP address
of the target, and the SYN Flood Attack, where the attacker begins but does not complete multiple connection requests
to the server, blocking legitimate traffic.

UN General Assembly Introduces Multidimensional Vulnerability Index to Aid Small Island States
 The UN General Assembly has recently launched the Multidimensional Vulnerability Index (MVI), a new quantitative
tool designed to assist small island developing states (SIDS) in obtaining low-interest financing.
 The MVI comprises two main components, Universal Level Quantitative Assessment which provides a summary index
that ranks countries based on their structural vulnerability and resilience, using a unified methodology to produce an
overall MVI score and Vulnerability-Resilience Country Profiles which offer a detailed, tailored analysis of a country's
specific vulnerability and resilience factors.

ESA's JUICE Probe Successfully Executes Double Slingshot Maneuver to Journey Towards Jupiter
 The European Space Agency's Jupiter Icy Moons Explorer (JUICE) Probe recently performed a critical double slingshot
manoeuvre, utilising the gravitational forces of both the Moon and Earth.
 This intricate navigation sequence involved JUICE passing 434 miles from the Moon and then 4,229 miles from Earth,
leveraging these gravity assists to adjust its trajectory efficiently while conserving propellant.

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 This successful execution has set JUICE on a course to reach Jupiter by 2031, aided by additional gravity assists from
Venus in 2025 and Earth in 2026 and 2029.
 JUICE aims to explore Jupiter’s three large icy moons—Callisto, Europa, and Ganymede—with the ultimate goal of
orbiting Ganymede to assess its potential to support life, building on the legacy of NASA’s Galileo mission and other
significant Jupiter missions like Juno and Cassini-Huygens.

Australia Enacts Right to Disconnect Law, Joining Global Trend

 Australia has introduced a significant labour reform granting workers the legal right to "disconnect" from work-
related communications outside their designated working hours.
 This new legislation permits workers to refuse to monitor, read, or respond to such communications unless refusal is
considered "unreasonable," a determination that depends on factors like the nature of the job and compensation for
overtime.
 This move aligns Australia with countries like France, which pioneered similar laws in 2017 to address issues
stemming from the “always on” work culture.

Sri Lanka Launches Visa-Free Entry for 35 Countries to Boost Tourism

 Starting October 1, 2024, Sri Lanka will allow citizens from 35 countries, including India, the UK, the US, and China, to
visit without a visa for six months.
 This initiative aims to increase tourism, simplify travel, and stimulate economic growth by capitalising on the sector's
significant contribution to the national income.
 The policy addresses past controversies over visa fees and positions Sri Lanka as a more accessible destination,
building on existing visa exemptions for several countries.

Telegram CEO Pavel Durov Arrested in France Amid Privacy Concerns and Legal Scrutiny
 Pavel Durov, the CEO and co-founder of Telegram, was arrested at Le Bourget airport in Paris, linked to a French
investigation into the app’s role in enabling illegal activities such as drug trafficking and cyberstalking through its
privacy features.
 A Russian expatriate and staunch privacy advocate, Durov created Telegram in 2013 to offer secure communication,
distinguishing the platform with strong encryption and large group chat capabilities.

Pacific Islands Forum 2024 Tackles Climate Change and US-China Rivalry in Tonga
 The Pacific Islands Forum (PIF) convened in Nuku'alofa, Tonga, on August 26, 2024, drawing over 1,500 delegates
from approximately 40 countries to discuss pressing issues like climate change and the strategic tussle between China
and the US in the Pacific.
 Founded in 1971, the PIF comprises 18 Pacific nations including Australia, New Zealand, and Fiji, focusing on regional
growth, security, and cooperation.
 This year's key agenda includes addressing the dire impacts of climate change, with Pacific nations facing existential
threats from rising sea levels and a significant funding gap in the Pacific Resilience Facility.

Berkshire Hathaway Hits $1 Trillion Market Cap, Led by Warren Buffett's Strategic Decisions
 Berkshire Hathaway, under the leadership of Warren Buffett, reached a landmark $1 trillion market value on August
28, becoming the first non-tech company to achieve this milestone.
 This historic valuation followed Buffett's strategic move to sell nearly half of Berkshire's Apple shares, accumulating
a massive $280 billion cash reserve. Buffett, who began his career as an investment analyst, co-founded Berkshire
with Charlie Munger in 1965, transitioning it from a textile company to a diversified conglomerate.

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Angkor Wat Named Most Photogenic UNESCO World Heritage Site in Asia
 Cambodian Prime Minister Hun Manet announced that Angkor Wat has been recognized as the most photogenic
UNESCO World Heritage site in Asia by Times Travel, as reported by the Times of India.
 The list includes other iconic sites such as the Taj Mahal and Hampi in India, the Great Wall of China, the Ancient City
of Bagan in Myanmar, Borobudur in Indonesia, Ha Long Bay in Vietnam, Historic Monuments of Kyoto in Japan, Petra
in Jordan, and the Rice Terraces of the Philippine Cordilleras.

SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY

ISRO's SSLV Successfully Launches Earth Observation Satellite
 The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has successfully launched the third developmental flight of the Small
Satellite Launch Vehicle (SSLV), which precisely positioned the Earth observation satellite EOS-08 into orbit.
 This launch marks the successful completion of ISRO's SSLV Development Project. The SSLV is designed as a three-
stage launch vehicle incorporating solid propulsion stages and a liquid propulsion-based Velocity Trimming Module
(VTM) for final orbital adjustments. It aims to provide low-cost access to space with the ability to launch Mini, Micro,
or Nanosatellites ranging from 10 to 500 kg into a 500 km orbit.

Recent Blue Moon Event Sparks Interest in Its Unique Occurrence

 In August 2024, the occurrence of a "blue moon," the second full moon within a single calendar month, captivated
skywatchers and sparked discussions about its significance.
 The term "blue moon" does not refer to the moon's colour but rather to the rarity of having two full moons in one
month or four in a single season—the latter being termed a seasonal blue moon.
 Typically, a lunar cycle lasts about 29.5 days, leading to approximately 12 cycles per year. However, every 2.5 to 3
years, an extra full moon, known as a blue moon, is observed, with the next one due on May 31, 2026.

Polaris Dawn to Conduct Historic Private Spacewalk at Unprecedented Altitude

 The upcoming Polaris Dawn mission, led by billionaire Jared Isaacman, is poised to make history by conducting the
first private spacewalk at an altitude of 700 kilometres, surpassing the International Space Station's orbit.
 The mission will navigate through the radiation-rich Van Allen Belts, providing vital data on radiation effects and
testing new SpaceX spacesuits.
 Key health research will focus on Spaceflight Associated Neuro-ocular Syndrome and decompression sickness, using
Biobanks for sample collection. Polaris Dawn, slated for launch on August 26, 2024, will also evaluate advanced
communication technologies via SpaceX's Starlink network, setting the stage for future exploratory missions and the
use of SpaceX’s Starship.

Astronomers Discover Brightest Quasar in the Universe, Providing Insight into Cosmic Beginnings
 Astronomers using the Very Large Telescope have identified J0529-4351, the brightest quasar ever observed, offering
unprecedented clarity into the early universe.
 Located in a galaxy with a supermassive black hole, this quasar outshines the Sun by over 500 trillion times and
expands at an extraordinary rate, absorbing one solar mass per day.
 Situated more than 12 billion light-years away, J0529-4351's light provides a snapshot of cosmic conditions billions
of years ago, with its vast accretion disk spanning seven light-years.

Japan's JAXA Ends Operations of "Moon Sniper" Lander, SLIM

 Japan's space agency, JAXA, has officially concluded operations of its lunar lander, the Smart Lander for Investigating
Moon (SLIM), also known as the "Moon Sniper," after unsuccessful attempts to reestablish communication.
 Launched as a small-scale lunar lander, SLIM was designed for high-precision landings to enhance understanding of
the Moon's origins and test technologies for low-gravity exploration.

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 Despite achieving a soft landing on the Moon in January 2024, which marked Japan as the fifth country to accomplish
this, subsequent communication failures led to the cessation of its mission. This event follows other successful lunar
landing by nations like India, Russia, the USA, and China.

Scientists at JILA Near Completion of World's First Nuclear Clock

 Researchers at JILA, a joint institute of the University of Colorado Boulder and the National Institute of Standards and
Technology (NIST), are on the verge of developing the world’s first nuclear clock.
 Unlike atomic clocks, which measure time based on atomic vibrations, nuclear clocks will measure energy changes
within an atom's nucleus, promising even greater accuracy.

DRDO and Indian Navy Successfully Test Vertical Launch Short Range Surface-to-Air Missile (VL-SRSAM)
 The Defence Research & Development Organisation (DRDO) and the Indian Navy have successfully flight-tested the
Vertical Launch Short Range Surface-to-Air Missile (VL-SRSAM) at the Integrated Test Range in Chandipur, Odisha.
 The missile, launched from a land-based vertical launcher, accurately intercepted a high-speed aerial target,
demonstrating its capability to defend against airborne threats.

Indian Immunologicals and ICMR Collaborate to Develop India's First Zika Virus Vaccine
 Indian Immunologicals Limited (IIL) has partnered with the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) to develop
India's first Zika virus vaccine. The Memorandum of Agreement (MoA) outlines plans for phase I clinical trials, funded
by ICMR, to test the vaccine’s safety and efficacy at four key locations in India, including ACTREC Mumbai and PGIMER
Chandigarh.
 IIL is also collaborating with Griffith University, Australia, and has completed pre-clinical tests. Besides Zika, IIL is
working on vaccines for Kyasanur Forest Disease, Chikungunya, and a SARS-CoV-2 nasal booster. The Zika virus,
primarily spread by mosquitoes, currently has no licensed vaccine, making this development crucial for public health.

Asteroid 2024 PT5: Earth’s Temporary Mini-Moon from September to November 2024
 From September 29 to November 25, 2024, Earth will gain a temporary companion—a mini-moon named asteroid
2024 PT5.
 This small asteroid, about 10 meters in size, will be captured by Earth’s gravity, briefly orbiting alongside our
permanent Moon.
 Discovered by NASA’s ATLAS program, this mini-moon will follow a unique horseshoe-shaped orbit before moving
away.

India Prepares for Historic Axiom-4 Mission in 2025

 In 2025, India will mark a significant milestone in space exploration with Group Captain Shubhanshu Shukla piloting
the Axiom-4 (Ax-4) mission, which will be India’s first human presence on the International Space Station (ISS) and
the second government-sponsored human spaceflight following Wing Commander Rakesh Sharma's mission in 1984.
 This collaboration with Axiom Space, announced by Prime Minister Narendra Modi during his U.S. visit, aims to
advance India’s capabilities in human spaceflight. Shubhanshu Shukla, alongside Group Captain Prashanth Nair, will
join an international crew led by veteran astronaut Peggy Whitson.

APPOINTMENTS & RESIGNATIONS

Sanjeev Raina Appointed as ADG of ITBP, Overseeing Forces Along India-China LAC
 Sanjeev Raina, a senior officer from the 1987 ITBP batch, has been appointed as the Additional Director General (ADG)
of the Indo-Tibetan Border Police, tasked with overseeing forces along the critical India-China Line of Actual Control
(LAC).

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 Notably, Raina is only the second non-IPS officer to achieve this rank within the ITBP. Raina's tenure will be brief, as
he is set to retire in over a month, succeeded by IG Jaspal Singh.

B Srinivasan Appointed as New Director General of National Security Guard

 The Indian government has appointed B Srinivasan as the new Director General of the National Security Guard (NSG),
succeeding Nalin Prabhat who has been reassigned as the Special Director General of Jammu and Kashmir Police.
 A 1992 batch IPS officer from Bihar, Srinivasan will lead the elite counter-terrorism unit until his retirement in August
2027.

Apple Names Kevan Parekh as New CFO, Effective January 2025

 Apple has announced Kevan Parekh as its next Chief Financial Officer, set to take over from Luca Maestri on January
1, 2025. Parekh, an experienced electrical engineer with an extensive background in financial management at
companies like Thomson Reuters and General Motors, has been with Apple for over a decade.
 This leadership transition reflects Apple's strategic continuity and Parekh's growing influence within the company.
His promotion also underscores the notable rise of Indian-origin executives in leading global firms.

TV Somanathan Appointed as New Cabinet Secretary of India Following Rajiv Gauba’s Retirement
 TV Somanathan, a seasoned IAS officer from the 1987 Tamil Nadu cadre, has been appointed as India’s new Cabinet
Secretary on August 10, 2024, following the retirement of Rajiv Gauba, who served in the position for five years.
 Somanathan, previously the Union Finance Secretary, brings a wealth of experience in finance and administration,
having held prominent roles, including Joint Secretary in the Prime Minister's Office and Director for Corporate Affairs
at the World Bank.

Amrit Mohan Prasad Appointed New Director General of Sashastra Seema Bal
 Amrit Mohan Prasad, an Indian Police Service (IPS) officer from the Odisha cadre, has been appointed as the Director
General (DG) of the Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB), as approved by the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet. Prasad
previously served as the Special Director General of the Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF).

Jordan Appoints Jafar Hassan as New Prime Minister Following Elections

 King Abdullah II of Jordan has appointed Jafar Hassan as the new Prime Minister, succeeding Bisher Al-Khasawneh.
Jafar Hassan, previously the head of the King's office and a former planning minister, holds a Ph.D. in political science
from the University of Geneva and a master's degree from Harvard.

Atishi Marlena Appointed as New Chief Minister of Delhi Following Kejriwal's Resignation
 Arvind Kejriwal has resigned as Chief Minister of Delhi, paving the way for Atishi Marlena to take over leadership of
the Aam Aadmi Party (AAP).
 Born into an academic family, Atishi is an alumnus of St. Stephen’s College and has pursued further studies at Oxford
University on prestigious scholarships.
 In 2018, she dropped "Marlena" from her public name to focus on her professional identity as a leader in social work
and education.

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 BOOKS & AUTHORS
Tarun Chugh’s Book "Modi’s Governance Triumph" Released in New Delhi
 BJP General Secretary Tarun Chugh's book, Modi’s Governance Triumph: Reshaping India’s Path to Prosperity, was
launched in New Delhi, attended by Home Minister Amit Shah and Coal Minister G. Kishan Reddy.
 The book analyzes key initiatives like Make in India and GST, highlighting Modi's policies on poverty alleviation,
economic disparity, and national security. It also delves into the Atmanirbhar Bharat vision, challenges faced by the
administration, and the ambitious outlook for India's future as a global power by 2047.

Dr. Kalpana Sankar’s Autobiography Unveiled, Celebrating Women’s Empowerment

 Dr. Kalpana Sankar’s autobiography, The Scientist Entrepreneur: Empowering Millions of Women, was launched at an
event on Cathedral Road.
 The book highlights grassroots initiatives fostering women’s economic empowerment through microfinance. Dr.
Soumya Swaminathan, chairperson of MS Swaminathan Research Foundation, released the book, while other notable
figures like Zoho's Sridhar Vembu and actor Anu Hasan participated. Dr. Swaminathan praised NGOs like Hand in
Hand India, co-founded by Dr. Sankar, for bridging gaps between government programs and community needs,
offering inspiration to aspiring social entrepreneurs.

IAF Chief Launches Comic Book Series Celebrating Air Force Heroes
 Air Chief Marshal V R Chaudhari launched the first comic book in a series highlighting the Indian Air Force's rich
history and heroic deeds. Aimed at inspiring youth, the book features stories of Marshal of the Air Force Arjan Singh
DFC and the 1971 Battle of Boyra. It also provides career information for aspiring IAF personnel.
 The comic will be freely distributed during induction drives, with a digital version releasing on Air Force Day, October
8. This initiative bridges generational gaps and promotes Air Force careers through engaging storytelling.

Governor of Tamil Nadu Unveils "Sri Rama in Tamilagam – An Inseparable Bond"

 Thiru. R.N. Ravi, Governor of Tamil Nadu, presided over the release of Sri Rama in Tamilagam – An Inseparable Bond,
authored by Dr. D.K. Hari and Dr. D.K. Hema Hari. The book explores Lord Rama's deep-rooted connection with
Tamilagam (now Tamil Nadu), portraying the region as a living heritage of the Ramayana. It highlights temples as
stone renditions of the epic and emphasizes the cultural unity between North and South India.

Piyush Goyal Launches ‘India@100’ by Prof. K V Subramanian

 Union Minister Piyush Goyal launched India@100: Envisioning Tomorrow’s Economic Powerhouse, authored by Prof. K
V Subramanian, in New Delhi. During the event, Goyal emphasized India's potential to achieve Viksit Bharat
(Developed India) by 2047 through the collective efforts of its 1.4 billion citizens. He highlighted advancements across
sectors like infrastructure, employment, tourism, manufacturing, shipping, and technology as key drivers in
transforming India into a global economic powerhouse.

IMPORTANT DAYS
September 10, 2024, World Suicide Prevention Day
 On September 10, 2024, the world will observe World Suicide Prevention Day, focusing on raising awareness about
suicide prevention and reducing stigma surrounding mental health. Organized by the International Association for
Suicide Prevention (IASP) in collaboration with the World Health Organization (WHO), the event aims to inspire
action, educate the public, and offer hope. The theme for World Suicide Prevention Day 2024-2026 is “Changing the
Narrative on Suicide” with the call to action “Start the Conversation”.

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 The International Association for Suicide Prevention (IASP) first established World Suicide Prevention Day in 2003.
National Suicide Prevention Strategy (NSPS) launched by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare in 2022, the NSPS
is India's first suicide prevention policy aimed at reducing suicide mortality by 10% by 2030.

August 26, 2024: 114th Birth Anniversary of Mother Teresa

Celebrating the Legacy of Compassion and Service
 August 26, 2024, marks the 114th birth anniversary of Mother Teresa, born in 1910 in Albania. Revered globally for
her humanitarian work, she founded the Missionaries of Charity in 1950 to serve the poorest of the poor. Her selfless
service earned her numerous accolades, including the Nobel Peace Prize and India’s Bharat Ratna.

August 29: International Day Against Nuclear Tests

 On August 29, the world observes the International Day Against Nuclear Tests, a reminder of the devastating effects
of over 2,000 nuclear tests since 1945.
 Established by a UN resolution in 2009, the day marks the closure of Kazakhstan's Semipalatinsk Nuclear Test site in
1991, a pivotal moment in the anti-nuclear movement.

August 25-29, 2024: World Water Week

 The Stockholm International Water Institute (SIWI) is organising World Water Week 2024 from August 25-29,
focusing on the theme “Bridging Borders: Water for a Peaceful and Sustainable Future.” This annual event, held since
1991, highlights the global interconnectivity of water issues and emphasises cooperation to tackle challenges related
to water security, food, nutrition, and ecosystem health.

India Water Week 2024: A Focus on Water Conservation

 President Droupadi Murmu inaugurated the 8th India Water Week in New Delhi from September 17 to 20, 2024,
bringing together Union Ministers, international representatives, and experts to emphasize the significance of water
conservation. The event featured 18 sessions promoting discussions on effective water management strategies,
alongside a “Jal Bharo” ceremony symbolizing the need to protect this vital resource. The event celebrated grassroots
initiatives, featuring stories from “Water Warriors” Ujiaro Bai and Lakmen Mary Nongkhlaw.

August 20, 2024: Sadbhavna Diwas

 Sadbhavna Diwas, first observed on August 20, 1992, commemorates Rajiv Gandhi, India's youngest Prime Minister,
known for promoting national unity and communal harmony.
 The day highlights his vision of a modern, inclusive India by encouraging peaceful coexistence, social justice, and
national integration.
 The 2024 observance reinforces the importance of civic responsibility and tolerance, with citizens taking a pledge to
foster goodwill and resolve differences peacefully through dialogue and constitutional means

August 20: World Mosquito Day

 World Mosquito Day is observed annually on August 20 to honour Sir Ronald Ross, who in 1897 uncovered the
connection between mosquitoes and malaria transmission.
 Ross's research, conducted in Secunderabad, India, identified the female Anopheles mosquito as the vector for the
Plasmodium parasite, responsible for spreading malaria. This groundbreaking discovery transformed public health
efforts, particularly in regions affected by mosquito-borne diseases, and earned Ross the Nobel Prize in Physiology or
Medicine in 1902.

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September 1-7: National Nutrition Week (Rashtriya Poshan Maah)
 National Nutrition Week, observed annually from September 1 to September 7 in India, focuses on the significance of
a nutritious diet for physical and mental well-being. First observed in 1982, it promotes awareness about the dangers
of fast food and encourages healthy eating habits.
 Originally initiated by the American Dietetic Association in 1975, India adopted this observance to spread knowledge
about nutrition’s role in longevity and vitality. The 2023 theme, “Healthy Diet Gawing Affordable for All,” as per
UNICEF, emphasises making nutritious food accessible to everyone.

September 5: Teachers' Day (India)

 Teachers' Day in India, celebrated on September 5, commemorates the birth anniversary of Dr. Sarvepalli
Radhakrishnan, India's second President, scholar, and educationist. The day recognizes the pivotal role teachers play
in shaping society and future generations.
 Dr. Radhakrishnan believed in the transformative power of education, and this day is marked by events and activities
in schools and institutions to honour teachers.

September 8: International Literacy Day

 International Literacy Day, celebrated annually on September 8 since 1967, highlights the transformative power of
literacy in building inclusive and resilient societies. Established by UNESCO, this day addresses the challenges of
illiteracy and advocates for accessible education.
 The 2024 theme, “Promoting Multilingual Education: Literacy for Mutual Understanding and Peace,”
emphasises the role of multilingualism in fostering communication and social cohesion.

September 14: Hindi Day (Hindi Diwas)

 Hindi Day is celebrated on September 14 to commemorate the adoption of Hindi as India's official language by the
Constituent Assembly in 1949. The day, suggested by Pandit Jawahar Lal Nehru, highlights the significance and
prestige of the Hindi language, symbolising the country's cultural unity.
 Schools and institutions across India organise events like essay writing, debates, and Hindi typing competitions to
inspire people towards Hindi. In addition to Hindi Day, January 10 is observed as World Hindi Day, celebrating the
global importance of the language.

September 15: National Engineer’s Day (India)

 National Engineer’s Day is celebrated on September 15 in India to commemorate the birth anniversary of Sir
Mokshagundam Visvesvaraya, the Father of Indian Engineering. First observed in 1968, this day highlights his
pivotal contributions to modern infrastructure, including the invention of automatic floodgates and advanced
irrigation techniques. As India’s 19th Diwan of Mysore, Sir MV is known for transforming the region and was awarded
the Bharat Ratna in 1955.

September 15: International Day of Democracy

 The International Day of Democracy, observed annually on September 15, promotes the universal value of democracy
and assesses its global state. It emphasizes that democracy is built on the will of the people, requiring active
participation from individuals, governments, and civil society.
 Democracy safeguards human rights, supports equality, freedom, and dignity, and relies on periodic elections by
universal suffrage. This day serves as a reminder that democracy is not a singular goal, but an ongoing process that
evolves with the active involvement of its citizens.

September 16: World Ozone Day

 World Ozone Day, observed on September 16 annually, commemorates the signing of the Montreal Protocol in 1987,
a global agreement to protect the ozone layer by reducing the use of ozone-depleting substances.

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 The 2024 theme, “Montreal Protocol: Advancing Climate Action". The ozone layer, vital for shielding life on Earth from
harmful ultraviolet radiation, has been gradually healing, with projections for full recovery in mid-latitudes by the
2030s and in polar regions by 2060.

OBITUARIES
Rakesh Pal, Director General of the Indian Coast Guard
 Rakesh Pal, who served as the 25th Director General of the Indian Coast Guard, passed away at the age of 59 due to a
severe cardiac arrest in Chennai. He was in the city to attend a Coast Guard event led by Defence Minister Rajnath
Singh.
 Pal, a flag officer from Uttar Pradesh, joined the Indian Coast Guard in January 1989 after attending the Indian Naval
Academy. Over his 34-year career, he played a crucial role in modernizing the Coast Guard, earning the Vishist Seva
medal for his contributions. He became Director General in July 2023, leading the maritime law enforcement agency
which operates under the Ministry of Defence.

Maria Branyas Morera, World’s Oldest Person

 Maria Branyas Morera, the world’s oldest person at 117 years old, has passed away. Born in San Francisco in 1907,
she lived through two world wars and spent her last two decades in a nursing home in Olot, Spain.
 Officially recognized by Guinness World Records in January 2023, Maria was known for her sharp mind, fondly
recalling childhood memories despite age-related mobility and hearing issues.

General Sundararajan Padmanabhan, Former Chief of Army Staff

 General Sundararajan Padmanabhan, the 20th Chief of Army Staff, passed away at the age of 83 in Chennai due to age-
related ailments. Cremated with full military honours, he was born in Thiruvananthapuram in 1940 and had an
exemplary career after being commissioned into the Regiment of Artillery in 1959.
 Known for his strategic leadership, General Padmanabhan commanded multiple key units and was integral in counter-
terrorism operations in Kashmir. Affectionately called "Paddy," he led the Indian Army during ‘Operation PARAKRAM’
and was an Honorary ADC to the President of India. He retired in 2002 after 43 years of service.

Dr. Ram Narain Agarwal, Renowned Indian Scientist and ‘Father of Agni Missiles’
 Dr. Ram Narain Agarwal, a pioneering figure in India’s missile program, passed away at the age of 84 in Hyderabad.
Fondly known as the 'Father of Agni Missiles,' Dr. Agarwal's revolutionary contributions spanned over 22 years in
defence research, where he collaborated with luminaries like Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam.
 He played a crucial role in developing missile technologies such as re-entry systems, heat shields, and guidance
systems. His leadership in the Agni missile program, especially Agni V, significantly boosted India's strategic defence
capabilities. Dr. Agarwal also founded the Advanced Systems Laboratory (ASL), leaving behind a legacy of innovation
and excellence in missile technology. He was honoured with several prestigious awards, including the Padma Shri,
Padma Bhushan, and Lifetime Achievement Award.

Aruna Vasudev, ‘Mother of Asian Cinema’

 Aruna Vasudev, an eminent Indian film scholar and critic known as the 'Mother of Asian Cinema,' passed away at the
age of 88. A passionate advocate for Asian films, Aruna championed Indian and Asian cinema on the global stage,
fostering interest and scholarship worldwide.
 She was the founding editor of Cinemaya and the creator of NETPAC, dedicated to promoting Asian cinema. Known
for her warmth and authority, Aruna was a fixture at national and international film festivals. Among her many
accolades were the Officier des Arts et des Lettres and the Satyajit Ray Memorial Award by FIPRESCI India.

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Death of Māori King Marks End of an Era in New Zealand
 Kiingi Tuheitia Pootatau Te Wherowhero VII, the Māori King, passed away shortly after celebrating 18 years of
leadership. He was the seventh monarch of the Kiingitanga movement, initiated in 1858 to unify New Zealand's
indigenous Māori tribes against British colonisation.
 The movement aimed to halt land sales to non-indigenous people and cease inter-tribal conflicts. Throughout New
Zealand’s history, significant clashes like the Wairau Valley incident and the Waikato War marked the struggle
between Māori and European settlers for land and sovereignty.

RANKING
Global Air Quality Study Reveals Life Expectancy Gains from Pollution Reduction
 The 2024 Air Quality Life Index by the University of Chicago highlights a critical global health issue: reducing PM2.5
levels to WHO standards could extend global life expectancy by 14.9 billion years. In India, over 40% of the population
breathes air that surpasses the national standard of 40 µg/m³, with potential gains of 1.9 additional years per person
if WHO guidelines are met.
 The report stresses uneven pollution distribution, with severe impacts in regions like South Asia and significant
improvements in countries like the US and China through rigorous policies. Compliance remains a challenge globally,
affecting life expectancy and health.

Rajiv Gandhi International Airport Named Best Airport for Third Consecutive Year
 Rajiv Gandhi International Airport (RGIA) in Hyderabad has clinched the title of Best Airport at the India Travel
Awards for the third consecutive year, underscoring its commitment to superior passenger service.
 This accolade, complemented by the Skytrax award for ‘Best Airport Staff in India & South Asia 2024,’ highlights RGIA's
consistent quality and its pivotal role in positioning Hyderabad as a key hub in South Asian air travel.

NHPC, SJVN, and RailTel Attain Prestigious Navratna Status, Expanding Investment Autonomy
 NHPC, SJVN, and RailTel have been awarded Navratna status by the Government of India, marking a significant
milestone for these public sector enterprises.
 This recognition, previously held by 17 companies, allows them greater operational freedom, including investment
autonomy of up to ₹1,000 crore per project. The status, earned through strong financial performance and high MoU
ratings, enables these companies to form joint ventures, set up subsidiaries abroad, and invest further in their sectors.

Telangana, Tamil Nadu, and Rajasthan Emerge as Fastest-Growing Large States in India
 The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) has recognized Telangana, Tamil Nadu, and
Rajasthan as the fastest-growing large states in India, with each surpassing the national average GDP growth of 8.2%.
 Telangana led the way with a 9.2% growth, reaching a GSDP of ₹7.9 lakh crore, followed by Tamil Nadu at 8.2% (₹15.7
lakh crore), and Rajasthan at 8%.

India Achieves Tier 1 Status in Global Cybersecurity Index 2024, Ranking Among World's Best
 India has achieved Tier 1 status in the Global Cybersecurity Index (GCI) 2024, a recognition of its commitment to
building a robust cybersecurity infrastructure.
 The GCI, developed by the International Telecommunication Union (ITU), evaluates countries based on legal, technical,
organisational, capacity development, and cooperative measures to ensure online security. India’s impressive score
of 98.49 reflects its strong legal framework, such as the Information Technology Act (2000) and the Digital Personal
Data Protection Bill (2022), placing it among the top 47 nations globally for cybersecurity practices.

Amul Named World's Strongest Food Brand in 2024

 Amul has been named the world’s strongest food brand in Brand Finance's Global Food & Drinks Report 2024. With a
Brand Strength Index (BSI) score of 91 and a valuation of $3.3 billion, Amul saw an 11% rise in brand value.

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 Its dominance in India’s dairy market and strong metrics in familiarity and recommendation contributed to its AAA+
rating. Hershey’s, with a $3.9 billion valuation, took second place. Despite a 4% drop in the broader food sector’s brand
value, Amul continues to thrive.

Mumbai, Delhi Rank Among Top 3 Cities Globally for Prime Residential Price Growth
 According to Knight Frank's report, Mumbai and Delhi ranked second and third globally for annual price rise in prime
residential properties in the June 2024 quarter. Mumbai saw a 13% increase, up from 6th place a year ago, while New
Delhi jumped from 26th to third with a 10.6% rise.
 Bengaluru ranked 15th with a 3.7% increase. Globally, Manila topped the list with a 26% rise, while Los Angeles and
Miami ranked 4th and 5th. Cities like Vienna and Bangkok saw declines, with Wellington ranking last.

Mumbai Named Billionaire Capital of Asia in Hurun India Rich List 2024
 The Hurun India Rich List 2024 has named Mumbai as Asia’s new billionaire capital, surpassing Beijing. Mumbai now
hosts 386 billionaires, up by 58, with a total wealth of $445 billion. This positions Mumbai third globally behind New
York (119) and London (97). Delhi ranks second in India with 217 billionaires, while Hyderabad (104) overtakes
Bengaluru (100).
 Mumbai’s rise is attributed to its robust financial sector and entrepreneurial ecosystem. Beijing's decline, with 18
fewer billionaires, reflects broader economic challenges in China.

India’s Influence Shines in TIME100 Most Influential People in AI 2024 List

 The TIME100 Most Influential People in AI 2024 list highlights India’s growing presence in the global AI landscape.
 Sundar Pichai, CEO of Google, and Ashwini Vaishnaw, India’s Minister of Electronics and Information Technology, lead
Indian representation. Tech leaders like Satya Nadella, Nandan Nilekani, and innovators such as Rohit Prasad and
Aravind Srinivas showcase India’s impact in driving AI innovation.
 The list also includes thought leaders like Amba Kak and Amandeep Singh Gill, reflecting India’s role in shaping AI
ethics and policy globally.

Switzerland Tops "Best Countries for 2024" Survey for Third Consecutive Year
 In the “Best Countries for 2024” survey, Switzerland ranked as the best country for the third year in a row, out of 89
countries.
 The survey, which assessed categories like adventure, entrepreneurship, and quality of life, saw European countries
dominate the top 25. Switzerland was followed by Japan, the USA, Canada, and Australia.
 India ranked 33rd, dropping three spots from last year, performing best in the "movers" and heritage categories, but
scoring low in social purpose and adventure. The UAE and Qatar were the only Middle Eastern countries in the top 25.

Indian Companies Shine in TIME World’s Best Companies of 2024

 TIME’s World’s Best Companies of 2024 list features 22 Indian-born enterprises, highlighting their global influence.
 HCLTech leads Indian companies, ranking 112th globally, followed by Infosys (119th) and Wipro (134th). Sectors
such as technology, banking, manufacturing, and energy are well-represented, with Mahindra Group, Reliance
Industries, and ICICI Bank also featured.
 The rankings, based on employee satisfaction, revenue growth, and sustainability, underscore India's economic
diversity and global competitiveness.

Cristiano Ronaldo Reaches 1 Billion Followers Across Social Media

 Cristiano Ronaldo has become the first person in the world to surpass 1 billion followers across various social media
platforms, highlighting his unparalleled global appeal. Here's a breakdown of his follower count:
o Instagram: 638 million
o Facebook: 170 million

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 o X (formerly Twitter): 113 million
o YouTube: 60.6 million

India Rises to Tier 1 in Global Cybersecurity Index 2024

 India has ascended to Tier 1 in the Global Cybersecurity Index (GCI) 2024, released by the International
Telecommunication Union (ITU), recognizing its strong commitment to cybersecurity.
 Ranked with a score of 98.49, India is one of 47 countries in Tier 1, excelling in five assessment pillars: Legal
Measures, Technical Measures, Organisational Measures, Capacity Development, and Cooperation. India's
cybersecurity success is driven by robust legal frameworks, including the Information Technology Act and the
Digital Personal Data Protection Bill (2022).

SPORTS
Vithya Ramraj Shatters P.T. Usha’s 39-Year-Old Record at the 63rd National Open Athletics Championships
 At the National Open Athletics Championships in Bengaluru, Vithya Ramraj broke a nearly four-decade-old Indian
record in the women's 400m hurdles, previously held by the iconic P.T. Usha. Ramraj clocked in at 56.23 seconds,
besting Usha's 1985 record of 56.80 seconds.
 This historic achievement underscores a significant moment in Indian athletics, spotlighting Ramraj’s rising
prominence. The event also witnessed standout performances across various disciplines, with Tamil Nadu's Nithin
breaking the men’s 200m meet record. Ancy Sojan earned the best woman athlete title with a remarkable long jump
of 6.71 metres.

Scotland to Host Commonwealth Games 2026 After Victoria's Withdrawal

 Scotland will host the Commonwealth Games in 2026 after Victoria, Australia, withdrew due to rising costs, which
were later found to be overstated.
 Glasgow, which previously hosted the Games in 2014, will welcome athletes again but on a smaller scale. The Scottish
government has pledged to host the event without requiring extra public funds, with the Commonwealth Games
Federation providing £20 million, including £5 million for facility upgrades.

Women's T20 World Cup 2024 Relocated from Bangladesh to UAE Due to Safety Concerns
 The ICC has announced the relocation of the 2024 Women's T20 World Cup from Bangladesh to the UAE, set to take
place from October 3 to 20 in Dubai and Sharjah.
 Political unrest in Bangladesh, following Prime Minister Sheikh Hasina’s resignation and ongoing turmoil, led to safety
concerns and travel advisories from several participating nations.

Jannik Sinner and Aryna Sabalenka Win First Cincinnati Open Titles
 Top-ranked Jannik Sinner and women’s No. 2 Aryna Sabalenka claimed their first Cincinnati Open titles with straight-
set victories. Sabalenka defeated Jessica Pegula 6-3, 7-5, securing her 15th WTA title, while Sinner triumphed over
Frances Tiafoe 7-6 (4), 6-2, becoming the youngest Cincinnati champion since Andy Murray in 2008.
 Sabalenka’s win reinforces her as a U.S. Open contender despite recent injuries, while Sinner looks forward to the U.S.
Open after his milestone victory. Tiafoe and Pegula faced challenges in their respective finals, with errors and fatigue
contributing to their defeats.

Neeraj Chopra Secures Second Place at Lausanne Diamond League with Season's Best Throw
 Neeraj Chopra, India’s star javelin thrower, claimed a second-place finish at the Lausanne Diamond League,
showcasing his resilience.
 Despite initial struggles, Chopra surged in the final rounds, delivering an 89.49m throw in the sixth round—his
season’s best, surpassing his Paris Olympics throw. Grenada’s Anderson Peters won gold with a 90.61m throw, while

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 Germany's Julian Weber secured bronze. Battling a groin injury, Chopra’s performance earned him 15 points in the
Diamond League standings, tying him for third place.

Diana Pundole Becomes First Indian Woman to Win National Car Racing Championship
 Diana Pundole, a teacher and mother from Pune, made history by becoming the first Indian woman to win the national
championship in the saloon category at the MRF Indian National Car Racing Championship 2024 in Chennai.
 Achieving this milestone on her birthday weekend, Diana overcame personal and societal challenges in a male-
dominated sport. Her racing career, fueled by a lifelong passion, includes competing internationally at prestigious
tracks like Dubai Autodrome and Hockenheimring.

Lando Norris Triumphs at Dutch Grand Prix, Secures Second Career Win
 Lando Norris delivered an exceptional performance at the Dutch Grand Prix, claiming his second career victory with
a commanding lead over Max Verstappen. Despite losing the lead early, Norris executed a decisive overtake to regain
control, finishing over 20 seconds ahead of Verstappen, who had to settle for second on home turf. Ferrari’s Charles
Leclerc secured third place, marking a strong result for the team. McLaren enjoyed mixed fortunes with Oscar Piastri
finishing fourth, while Carlos Sainz earned fifth for Ferrari.

Avani Lekhara Creates History with Second Paralympic Gold

 Para shooter Avani Lekhara made history on August 30 by becoming the first Indian woman to win two Paralympic
gold medals. She retained her title in the women's 10m air rifle standing SH1 event at the Paris 2024 Paralympics,
setting a new Paralympic record with a score of 249.7.
 This victory adds to her gold and bronze from the Tokyo 2020 Paralympics, making her the second Indian Paralympian
after Devendra Jhajharia to win multiple golds. Avani’s accolades include the Khel Ratna Award and Padma Shri for
her contributions to Indian sports.

Lord’s to Host ICC World Test Championship Final in 2025

 The iconic Lord’s Cricket Ground in London will host the final of the ICC World Test Championship (WTC) from June
11 to June 15, 2025, marking the first time the "Home of Cricket" will stage this prestigious event.
 Previously, the WTC finals were held at Southampton's Ageas Bowl in 2021 and The Oval in 2023, where New Zealand
and Australia emerged victorious. Lord’s, steeped in cricketing tradition, will now witness the battle between the top
two teams from the ongoing WTC cycle, with June 16 reserved for potential interruptions.

Siddhartha Aggarwal Becomes Oldest Indian to Swim Solo Across English Channel
 On August 29, 49-year-old Siddhartha Aggarwal from Bengaluru became the oldest Indian to swim solo across the
English Channel, completing the 42 km swim in 15 hours and six minutes. His achievement surpasses the previous
record set by Srikaanth Viswanathan at age 46.
 Aggarwal’s journey began in 2018 with a relay swim across the Channel, and after 15 months of rigorous training
under coach Satish Kumar, he accomplished this solo feat despite challenging tides and winds. His remarkable
dedication serves as an inspiration for swimmers of all ages.

India Announces Bid for 2030 Youth Olympics at OCA General Assembly
 India's Union Minister of Youth Affairs & Sports, Dr. Mansukh Mandaviya, announced India's bid to host the 2030
Youth Olympics at the Olympic Council of Asia's (OCA) 44th General Assembly on September 8, 2024.
 Competing against countries like Peru, Mexico, and Thailand, this bid aligns with India’s long-term goal of hosting the
2036 Olympics. Dr. Mandaviya highlighted India's sports initiatives, such as the ‘Khelo India’ scheme and the ‘Target
Olympic Podium Scheme (TOPS)’, which have significantly boosted the country’s sports infrastructure and athlete
development. The ASMITA program, promoting women's participation in sports, was also spotlighted.

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Jannik Sinner Wins U.S. Open, Securing His Second Grand Slam Title
 World No. 1 Jannik Sinner clinched his second Grand Slam title at the U.S. Open, defeating Taylor Fritz in a commanding
final. Despite being cleared of a doping controversy just before the tournament, Sinner overcame doubts and delivered
a dominant performance, showcasing his powerful baseline game.
 His victory not only reaffirmed his top ranking but also ended a long Grand Slam drought for American men, with the
last U.S. winner being Andy Roddick in 2003. Fritz, playing in his first Grand Slam final, fell short but remains optimistic
about his future in the sport.

Saleema Imtiaz Becomes First Pakistani Woman Nominated to ICC Development Umpires Panel
 Saleema Imtiaz has made history as the first Pakistani woman to be nominated to the ICC International Panel of
Development Umpires, as announced by the Pakistan Cricket Board (PCB). Imtiaz, who began her umpiring career
with the PCB women’s panel in 2008, has officiated in notable events like the 2022 Asia Cup and the 2023 ACC
Emerging Women’s Cup.
 With 22 T20Is under her belt, her nomination allows her to officiate in women’s bilateral international matches and
ICC events. Imtiaz’s achievement symbolises a growing influence of women in cricket and the PCB's commitment to
gender development in the sport.

India Clinches Fifth Men’s Asian Champions Trophy Title with Jugraj Singh’s Winning Goal
 India’s Men’s Hockey Team secured their fifth Asian Champions Trophy title in 2024 by defeating hosts China 1-0 in a
tense final. Jugraj Singh scored the decisive goal with an assist from Harmanpreet Singh, breaking the deadlock after
China’s strong defensive effort in the first half. India dominated possession but faced challenges from China’s
counterattacks, keeping the scoreboard at 0-0 until Jugraj’s second-half strike secured the win.

Awards of the Tournament:

 Top Goal Scorer: Yang Jihun (Korea) – 9 Goals
 Promising Goalkeeper: Kim Jaehan (Korea)
 Best Goalkeeper: Wang Caiyu (China)
 Rising Star: Hanan Shahid (Pakistan)
 Player of the Tournament: Harmanpreet Singh (India)
Third Place: Pakistan defeated South Korea 5-2 to claim third place.
India now holds the record for the most Asian Champions Trophy titles, with five wins.

SUMMIT’S & MOU’S

India Hosts 3rd Voice of Global South Summit
 On August 17th, 2024, India hosted the 3rd Voice of Global South Summit (VOGSS) in a virtual format, under the theme
"An Empowered Global South for a Sustainable Future". The summit saw participation from 123 countries, with
notable absences being China and Pakistan.
 This event, part of an ongoing series that began in January 2023, aims to provide a platform for developing nations to
address global challenges like the COVID pandemic, Ukraine conflict, and issues of debt, food, and energy security.
 The summit highlighted India's commitment to fostering global cooperation, emphasising initiatives like a USD 2.5
million fund for trade promotion and a USD 1 million fund for building trade policy capacity.

INDUS-X Summit 2024: Boosting US-India Defense Collaboration at Stanford University

 Scheduled for September 9-10, 2024, at Stanford University, the third edition of the INDUS-X Summit aims to deepen
US-India cooperation in defence technology and innovation.
 This strategic event will convene key leaders, including former U.S. Secretary of State Condoleezza Rice, alongside
policymakers, venture capitalists, and academics from both nations. The summit’s focus is on harnessing private

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 investment to enhance the cross-border defence innovation ecosystem, continuing the momentum from its inception
in June 2023.

India and South Africa Sign Agreement to Boost Submarine Rescue Capabilities
 On September 4, 2024, the Indian and South African navies formalised an agreement to enhance submarine rescue
support, ensuring South African submarine crew safety during emergencies.
 The agreement grants South Africa access to India's Deep Submergence Rescue Vehicle (DSRV), capable of rescuing
submariners from depths of up to 650 metres. This partnership, initiated after a 2023 accident that claimed the lives
of three South African navy members, reflects a commitment to maritime safety.

India and Malaysia Sign MoU on Public Administration and Governance Reforms
 The Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG) of India and the Public Service
Department of Malaysia signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) on August 20, 2024, for cooperation in public
administration and governance reforms.
 This five-year agreement focuses on citizen-centric services, e-governance, transparency, and public grievance
redress mechanisms. The MoU was exchanged during a ceremonial function attended by Indian Prime Minister
Narendra Modi and Malaysian Prime Minister Anwar Bin Ibrahim at Hyderabad House, New Delhi.

Tata Power Solar Systems Ltd Signs Financing Agreement with ICICI Bank
 Tata Power Solar Systems Ltd (TPSSL) has partnered with ICICI Bank to offer loans for solar unit financing to
residential and corporate customers. Customers can avail loans up to Rs 90 lakh, with collateral-free options and
repayment tenures of up to 5 years.
 Additionally, higher loan amounts with collaterals are available for up to 20-year tenures. This initiative, part of
TPSSL's efforts to expand solar energy adoption, is set to make solar panel purchases more accessible to a broader
customer base.

BANKING & ECONOMY

Indian Government Launches BHASKAR Platform to Boost Startup Ecosystem
 The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) has launched BHASKAR (Bharat Startup
Knowledge Access Registry), a digital platform under the Startup India programme to strengthen India's startup
ecosystem.
 BHASKAR aims to provide startups, investors, mentors, and service providers with essential resources, enabling
better networking, collaboration, and growth opportunities.

RBI Reports Significant Decline in Outward Remittances Amid Economic Uncertainties

 According to recent data from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), there has been a significant decrease in outward
remittances under the Liberalised Remittance Scheme (LRS), with figures dropping from USD 3.890 billion in June
2023 to USD 2.181 billion in June 2024, marking a 43.93% decline.
 The reduction has been influenced by global economic uncertainties and the introduction of a 20% Tax Collection at
Source (TCS) on overseas tour packages, which has particularly affected remittances for travel, previously over 50%
of total outflows.
 This tax adjustment aligns with the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 regulations, underscoring a shift
towards tighter fiscal oversight amidst economic shifts.

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54th GST Council Meeting Proposes Tax Cuts on Cancer Drugs and Health Insurance, Considers Adjustments for
Other Goods
 The 54th Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council meeting, chaired by Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman in New
Delhi, focused on reducing tax rates for essential items such as cancer drugs, health insurance, and savoury snacks.
 Key cancer drugs like Trastuzumab Deruxtecan and Osimertinib may see GST reductions from 12% to 5%, easing
treatment costs for patients.

2024-25 Budget Boosts Women-Led Development with Historic Funding Allocations

 The 2024-25 Indian budget prioritises women-led development, with the Gender Budget Statement (GBS) exceeding
₹3 lakh crore, accounting for 1% of GDP—a first. Pro-women allocations now represent 6.8% of the total budget, up
from 5%.
 The new Part C in the GBS includes schemes like PM Kisan, supporting initiatives with at least 30% funding for women,
while established women-specific programs like SAMARTHYA continue under Part A, highlighting a significant
increase in funding dedicated to enhancing women's roles in development.

Bandhan Bank Launches Avni, a Women-Focused Savings Account

 On August 22, 2024, Bandhan Bank introduced the Avni Savings Account for women, featuring benefits like free
airport lounge access, ₹10 lakh personal accident insurance, and a ₹3.5 lakh lost card liability.
 It requires a ₹25,000 minimum average quarterly balance. Accompanied by the Bandhan Bank Delights loyalty
program, users can earn and redeem points for rewards across various categories.

RBI Updates e-Mandate Framework for Auto-Replenishment of FASTag and NCMC

 The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has revised its e-mandate framework to include auto-replenishment transactions for
FASTag and the National Common Mobility Card (NCMC).
 These transactions, triggered when balances fall below a set threshold, will no longer require a pre-debit notification.
The update streamlines irregular recurring payments such as tolls and mobility card top-ups.

RBI Penalizes UCO Bank and Cent Bank Home Finance Ltd for Regulatory Non-Compliance
 The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has imposed penalties on two financial institutions for regulatory violations. UCO
Bank was fined Rs 2.68 crore for breaches related to current account openings, deposit interest rates, and fraud
classification.
 Cent Bank Home Finance Ltd faces a Rs 2.1 lakh penalty for non-compliance with Know Your Customer (KYC)
regulations.

HDFC Bank Launches GIGA Suite for Gig Workers

 HDFC Bank has launched GIGA, a comprehensive suite of financial products for India's gig workers and freelancers.
Offerings include flexible savings accounts, business debit and credit cards, health insurance with premiums starting
at Rs 20/day, and investment options through HDFC AMC.
 Specialised loans, like collateral-free business and car loans, are also available. Partnerships with Razorpay and
Payoneer facilitate seamless domestic and international payments, enabling gig workers to manage their finances with
ease.

RBI Imposes Penalties on Three Housing Finance Companies for Non-Compliance

 The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has penalised Godrej Housing Finance Ltd and Aadhar Housing Finance Ltd with fines
of Rs 5 lakh each, and HUDCO with Rs 3.5 lakh for failing to adhere to housing finance regulations.
 Godrej Housing Finance did not obtain two independent valuation reports for loans above Rs 75 lakh, Aadhar Housing
Finance violated the 'Fair Practices Code,' and HUDCO failed in customer risk categorization and creating floating
charges on depositor assets.

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RBI Fines HDFC Bank and Axis Bank for Regulatory Non-Compliance
 The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has imposed penalties on HDFC Bank (₹1.91 crore) and Axis Bank (₹1 crore) for
violations related to deposit regulations, KYC norms, and agricultural loans.
 HDFC Bank faced penalties for non-compliance in areas like deposit interest rates, recovery agent conduct, and
operational issues. Axis Bank was fined for issuing multiple customer identification codes, collateral violations on
agricultural loans, and subsidiary activities outside permitted regulations.

Union Bank of India Joins Partnership for Carbon Accounting Financials (PCAF)
 Union Bank of India has become the first major Indian bank to join the Partnership for Carbon Accounting Financials
(PCAF), reflecting a global focus on managing climate risks. PCAF provides a standardised approach for financial
institutions to assess and disclose greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions tied to their loans and investments, often referred
to as Scope 3 emissions.
 This move aligns with the RBI’s draft guidelines on climate risk disclosures, which emphasise governance, strategy,
and risk management for regulated entities.

LIC Selects Infosys for Next-Gen Digital Platform under DIVE Programme
 The Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) has partnered with Infosys to build a next-generation digital platform
as part of its DIVE (Digital Innovation and Value Enhancement) programme.
 This platform will enhance customer services, business lifecycle management, and streamline operations for sales
intermediaries. It marks a strategic shift for LIC from previous IT collaborations with Tata Consultancy Services (TCS)
and Tech Mahindra. The platform will be cloud-native, modular, and designed to integrate emerging technologies.

YES BANK and Paisabazaar Launch Co-Branded PaisaSave Credit Card

 YES BANK and Paisabazaar have partnered to introduce the YES BANK Paisabazaar PaisaSave Credit Card, designed
to reward frequent shoppers.
 The card offers 3% cashback on online transactions and unlimited cashback for all purchases, both online and offline.
It also provides a fuel surcharge waiver and a virtual Rupay Credit Card option for UPI payments. There is no joining
fee, and the annual fee of ₹499 can be waived if annual spending exceeds ₹1.2 lakh.

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 IMPORTANT ONE LINERS
NATIONAL
Uttarakhand Pioneers in Valuing Natural Resources with Gross Environment Product
 Uttarakhand has become the first state in India to assign monetary values to its natural resources,
encompassing air, water, forest, and soil, introducing the Gross Environment Product (GEP).
 The GEP, distinguishing between man-made conservation efforts like 'amrit sarovars' and natural processes
such as rainfall and reflects a 0.9% increase in environmental products from 2020 to 2022, highlighting the state's
commitment to integrating ecological health into its economic metrics.

India to Centralise Transportation Systems into Unified Hubs

 The Ministry of Roads, Transport and Highways has announced an ambitious initiative to centralise India’s
transportation networks—roadways, railways, airways, waterways, and ropeways—into integrated hubs and
terminals.
 This strategy aims to serve as a one-stop solution for 87% of the country's passenger traffic, which primarily travels
by road.
 As part of this plan, two pilot hubs will be developed in Katra and Tirupati, with additional hubs in Varanasi and
Nagpur managed by the National Highways Logistics Management (NHLM), a subsidiary of the National Highways
Authority of India focused on improving transport logistics and infrastructure.

India and Japan Strengthen Ties at 3rd 2+2 Ministerial Meeting

 India and Japan recently held their third 2+2 Foreign and Defence Ministerial Meeting in New Delhi, against the
backdrop of rising geopolitical tensions and China’s assertiveness in the Indo-Pacific region.
 Both countries emphasised their commitment to a free, open, and rules-based Indo-Pacific, aligning strategically in
response to China’s growing military presence.
 They supported the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN)'s unity and central role in fostering regional
cooperation and peace, endorsing the ASEAN Outlook on the Indo-Pacific.

Natal Indian Congress Marks 130th Foundation Year: A Legacy of Resistance and Unity
 The Natal Indian Congress (NIC), established on August 22, 1894, by Mahatma Gandhi, recently marked its 130th
foundation year.
 Originally founded to combat discrimination against Indians in Natal, South Africa, the NIC was the first Indian
Congress of its kind.
 Over the decades, it evolved under the umbrella of the South African Indian Congress (SAIC) from the 1920s and saw
a shift towards more radical leadership in the 1930s and 1940s, culminating in Dr. G.M. Naicker’s leadership started
in 1945.
 The NIC’s activism intensified, leading to the imprisonment of several leaders by the 1950s and 1960s.

Prime Minister Commemorates Maharaja Bir Bikram Kishore Manikya Bahadur

 The Prime Minister paid homage to Maharaja Bir Bikram Kishore Manikya Bahadur on his birth anniversary,
recognizing his transformative contributions to Tripura.
 Known as the "Modern Architect of Tripura," he was pivotal in founding the first higher educational institution and
advocating for land reforms that benefited indigenous communities.
 His efforts led to the establishment of the Tripura Tribal Areas Autonomous District Council. Maharaja Bir Bikram,
born on August 19, 1908, was also the first ruler of Tripura to travel to Europe and America. He donated land for the
Agartala airport, which was renamed in his honour in 2018.

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State of Healthcare in Rural India, 2024" Report Highlights Critical Gaps
 The "State of Healthcare in Rural India, 2024" report highlights significant healthcare challenges in rural areas
across 21 Indian states.
 Approximately 50% of rural households have government health insurance, yet 34% lack any insurance, and 61% are
without life insurance. Access issues persist, with only 39% having nearby diagnostic facilities and a mere 12.2%
accessing subsidised medicines.
 Additionally, 73% of households with elderly require constant care, predominantly provided by family members,
underscoring the need for enhanced caregiver support and infrastructure improvements.

Bharatmala Pariyojana: Enhancing India's Road Network and Connectivity

 The Bharatmala Pariyojana, launched under the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways, is a comprehensive road
development initiative aimed at enhancing freight and passenger movement across India.
 Initiated in 2017, the first phase of Bharatmala was initially set for completion by 2022 but faced delays due to slow
implementation and financial hurdles.
 As of March 31, 2024, nearly 50% of the project has been completed, with completion now projected for 2027-28.
This program forms a critical part of the Ministry's Vision 2047, which seeks to establish high-speed corridors and
world-class amenities within 100-150 km of all citizens.

India Launches Jan Poshan Kendra Initiative to Boost Nutrition and Efficiency in Public Distribution
 The Indian government has initiated a pilot project to transform 60 Fair Price Shops (FPS) into "Jan Poshan
Kendras" across Gujarat, Rajasthan, Telangana, and Uttar Pradesh.
 This transformation is part of an effort to enhance the nutritional offerings available under the Pradhan Mantri Garib
Kalyan Anna Yojana (PMGKAY). The Jan Poshan Kendra initiative not only aims to sell additional items beyond
subsidised grains, addressing the income challenges of ration dealers, but also to improve service quality with the
introduction of digital tools and support systems to increase transparency and efficiency.
 Presently, 0.54 million FPSs distribute about 60-70 million tonnes of food grain annually to over 800 million
beneficiaries.
 The government plans to expand this initiative, converting approximately 100,000 fair price shops into "nutri-hubs"
over the next three years, aiming to further enhance the nutritional access and efficiency of India's vast public
distribution system.

Union Minister of Power Launches Three Innovative Online Platforms to Boost Power Sector Efficiency
 The Union Minister of Power has launched three online platforms—PROMPT, DRIPS, and JALVIDYUT DPR—to
enhance efficiency, transparency, and effectiveness in India's power sector.
 Developed by the Central Electricity Authority (CEA) and NTPC, PROMPT facilitates real-time tracking of thermal
power projects, DRIPS addresses power disruptions from natural disasters, and JAL VIDYUT DPR monitors
hydroelectric projects.
 These platforms aim to improve project management, disaster response, and coordination across the sector, reflecting
the Ministry's commitment to modernising infrastructure management and increasing operational transparency.

Indian Prime Minister's Historic Visit to Ukraine: Strengthening Bilateral Ties and Promoting Peace
 India's Prime Minister visited Ukraine, marking the first visit by an Indian head of state since Ukraine's independence
in 1991.
 The visit highlighted India's active stance on the Russia-Ukraine conflict, emphasising peace and resolution through
stakeholder engagement.
 Key outcomes included the establishment of an Intergovernmental Commission to enhance bilateral trade, the signing
of four agreements aimed at strengthening cooperation in agriculture, medical regulation, and cultural ties, and the
donation of four mobile hospital units to Ukraine.

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 Additionally, the Prime Minister extended an invitation to the Ukrainian President to visit India, reinforcing bilateral
relations.

8th Dharma Dhamma Conference Focuses on Cosmology in Indian Traditions

 The 8th Dharma Dhamma conference, organised by the India Foundation in collaboration with Gujarat University,
was held in Ahmedabad, featuring Vice-President Jagdeep Dhankhar as the chief guest.
 The 2024 conference's theme, "Cosmology in Dharma and Dhamma," explored the unique aspects of Dharmic
cosmology rooted in Indian traditions which address the nature of life and the universe, suggesting that life's brevity
doesn't necessarily imply a definitive meaning.
 This conference, a critical initiative by the India Foundation, aimed to deepen the understanding and foster harmony
between Hindu and Buddhist philosophies, reflecting their enduring relevance and shared insights into cosmology, as
detailed in ancient texts such as the Vedas, Itihasa-Purana, Brahmanas, Buddhist Nikayas and Sutras, and Jain Karikas
and Sutras.

India Modifies Cross-Border Electricity Trade Guidelines Amid Regional Unrest

 The Ministry of Power has recently updated the 2018 guidelines for the Import/export (cross-border) of Electricity,
enabling power plants that export electricity to neighbouring countries to also sell their output in India.
 This change specifically allows the sale of power to the local grid in cases of payment delays from neighbouring
countries.
 This amendment comes in response to the ongoing unrest in Bangladesh, where Indian electricity suppliers like Adani
Power’s 1600 MW Godda plant in Jharkhand have been selling electricity exclusively to Bangladesh since 2023.
 Additionally, National Thermal Power Corporation Limited (NTPC) and Damodar Valley Corporation (DVC) have
agreements to supply 500 MW and 300 MW to Bangladesh, respectively.

New Smartphone-Based Sensor Developed for Parkinson's Disease Management

 Scientists at the Institute of Advanced Study in Science and Technology (IASST), an autonomous body under the
Department of Science and Technology, have developed an innovative and affordable smartphone-based sensor
system for managing Parkinson's disease.
 This portable fluorescence turn-on sensor system is designed to accurately monitor levels of L-dopa, a crucial
medication used to manage dopamine deficiencies in Parkinson’s patients.
 The sensor utilises a combination of silk-fibroin protein coated on reduced graphene oxide nanoparticles, which emit
a glow when detecting L-dopa in bodily fluids like blood, sweat, or urine.

Sikh Holy Books Returned to Indian Embassy in Qatar

 In December 2023, Qatari authorities returned two saroops of the Guru Granth Sahib to the Indian embassy after
initially confiscating them from individuals accused of unauthorised religious activities.
 Saroops are revered as living gurus within Sikhism, comprising 1,430 pages each and embodying hymns from six Sikh
gurus and various saints.
 Compiled first in 1604 by Guru Arjan Dev and later enriched by Guru Gobind Singh, the Guru Granth Sahib was
declared the eternal Guru of the Sikhs in 1708.

NGT Fines Punjab Government Rs 1,000 Crore for Waste Mismanagement

 The National Green Tribunal (NGT) has imposed a hefty penalty of Rs 1,000 crore on the Punjab government due to
its persistent failure in managing solid and liquid waste, despite previous warnings.
 This penalty, reflecting environmental damages over six months, must be deposited with the Central Pollution Control
Board within a month.

51st Fighter Wing Enhances Readiness in Ulchi Freedom Shield 24 Exercise

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 The 51st Fighter Wing at Osan Air Base, South Korea, is actively participating in the Ulchi Freedom Shield 24, a joint
military exercise with South Korean forces running from August 19 to August 23, 2024.
 The exercise aims to boost the wing's operational readiness and strengthen command and control systems in
collaboration with the Seventh Air Force and U.S. Forces Korea.
 Key activities include local flying operations and Agile Combat Employment, emphasizing rapid response and
adaptability across various bases.
 This strategic training underscores the U.S.'s commitment to regional security and stability in the Pacific, reinforcing
a combined defense posture with South Korea.

India Surpasses China as Top Buyer of Russian Oil in July 2024

 In July 2024, India overtook China to become the leading importer of Russian oil, accounting for 44% of its total oil
imports with a daily intake of 2.07 million barrels—a 12% increase from the previous year.
 This shift was influenced by reduced refining profits in China and the availability of Russian oil at discounted rates
due to Western sanctions linked to the Ukraine conflict.
 The strategic increase in India's Russian oil purchases, including a notable rise in Russian ESPO Blend crude, has
contributed to stabilizing global oil prices and managing inflation.
 Meanwhile, Iraq and Saudi Arabia remain key suppliers, with the Middle East's overall share in India's oil imports
rising to 40%.

India-Denmark Partnership Launches Smart Laboratory on Clean Rivers to Revitalize Varuna River
 Under the collaborative Environmental Strategic Partnership between India and Denmark, the Smart Laboratory on
Clean Rivers (SLCR) project has been initiated to rejuvenate the Varuna River, with a combined funding of ₹21.8 crore.
 This innovative project aims to leverage advanced technology and a comprehensive river management plan to
enhance the river’s health and bolster the local economy and social conditions over the next 2-3 years.

IIM Bangalore Partners with Alumnus Mathew Cyriac to Launch India’s First Global Centre for PE and VC
 On August 25, 2024, the Indian Institute of Management Bangalore (IIM-B) signed a landmark Memorandum of
Understanding with alumnus Mathew Cyriac, Executive Chairman of Florintree Advisors, to establish India’s inaugural
Global Centre of Excellence in Private Equity and Venture Capital.
 Named after prominent investment banker Tony James, the Centre aims to be a global leader in these fields, fostering
advanced research and educational endeavours.

ASSOCHAM Environment and Carbon Conference Opens in New Delhi with Focus on Achieving Net Zero by 2070
 Shri Kirti Vardhan Singh, the Union Minister of State for Environment, Forest, and Climate Change, inaugurated the
ASSOCHAM Environment and Carbon Conference in New Delhi, emphasising collaborative efforts to achieve India's
goal of net zero emissions by 2070.
 Highlighting climate change as a global challenge requiring international cooperation, the Minister outlined India’s
commitment to bolstering climate resilience and fulfilling its Nationally Determined Contributions.

Assam Assembly Passes Law to Mandate Registration of Muslim Marriages and Divorces, Aiming to Curb Child
Marriage and Polygamy
 The Assam Legislative Assembly has enacted the Assam Compulsory Registration of Muslim Marriages and Divorces
Bill, 2024, repealing the outdated 1935 Act that allowed child marriage and marriages without mutual consent.
 This new legislation sets stringent age and consent requirements for Muslim marriages in Assam, with a woman
needing to be at least 18 and a man 21. Couples must now register their intent to marry 30 days in advance, allowing
time for any legal objections.

Google DeepMind's "Morni Project" Aims to Develop AI for 125 Indian Languages

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 Google DeepMind's India-based "Morni Project" is pioneering AI development to comprehend and interact with 125
Indian languages, enhancing digital inclusivity across India's diverse linguistic landscape.
 Despite India's recognition of 22 official languages, Morni seeks to support over 100 additional languages, some
spoken by massive, yet digitally underrepresented populations.
 Faced with the significant challenge of scarce digital data for 73 of these languages, Google has initiated Project Vaani
in collaboration with the Indian Institute of Science and ARTPARK.

Prime Minister Modi Inaugurates Vadhvan Port Project in Maharashtra, Aiming for Global Top Ten Status
 Prime Minister Narendra Modi laid the foundation stone for the ambitious Vadhvan Port project in Palghar,
Maharashtra, on August 30, 2024.
 With an estimated cost of ₹76,000 crore, the port is designed to handle 23.2 million TEUs and aims to rank among the
world's top ten ports.
 Strategically located near Dahanu at a deep-water site, Vadhvan Port is set to enhance India's trade capabilities by
facilitating large container ships and reducing shipping costs and times.

India Conducts First National Mock Drill on Zoonotic Diseases, "Vishanu Yuddh Abhyas"
 India held its first national mock drill, Vishanu Yuddh Abhyas, from August 27 to 31, 2024, to assess preparedness for
zoonotic disease outbreaks. Initiated under the National One Health Mission (NOHM), the exercise aimed to test
coordination between sectors like human health, animal husbandry, and wildlife management. Key organisations,
including the NCDC, ICMR, and DAHD, participated, focusing on disease identification and control.

President Murmu Approves Formation of 23rd Law Commission of India

 President Droupadi Murmu has approved the establishment of the 23rd Law Commission, which will function from
September 1, 2024, to August 31, 2027.
 This new commission, consisting of a Chairperson, four full-time members, two ex-officio members, and up to five
part-time members, aims to review and suggest reforms to India's legal system.

India Launches Vishvasya Blockchain Stack and National Blockchain Portal to Boost Trust in Digital Services
 India's Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) has introduced the Vishvasya Blockchain
Technology Stack, NBFLite, Praamaanik, and the National Blockchain Portal to enhance blockchain adoption and trust
in digital services.
 Central to this initiative is the National Blockchain Framework (NBF), designed to build secure, transparent, and
efficient public services using distributed infrastructure, smart contracts, and strong privacy features. Collaborating
with institutions like C-DAC and IIT Hyderabad, this initiative aims to tackle challenges like skill shortages and vendor
lock-in while promoting research and development in blockchain technology.

Indian Army Celebrates Lance Naik Charan Singh’s 100th Birthday, Honouring His Service in World War II
 Lance Naik Charan Singh (retired), a World War II veteran, was honoured by the Indian Army on his 100th birthday
in a special ceremony at his home in Himachal Pradesh.
 Enlisting in 1942 at 18, Singh served 17 years in the Army Service Corps, including during World War II and the Burma
campaign, earning honours like the Burma Star Award.
 The Indian Army, led by a Brigadier, celebrated his milestone birthday, reflecting its enduring respect for veterans.
Singh’s life and military service continue to inspire, particularly in his hometown, where his contributions are deeply
cherished.

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Union Health Secretary Releases “Health Dynamics of India 2022-23” Report Highlighting Key Data on Healthcare
Infrastructure and Workforce
 Union Health Secretary Shri Apurva Chandra released the “Health Dynamics of India (Infrastructure and Human
Resources) 2022-23” report, providing comprehensive data on India's healthcare facilities and workforce.
 Formerly known as “Rural Health Statistics,” this report offers valuable insights to aid in policy-making under the
National Health Mission (NHM).
 It details 1,69,615 Sub-Centres, 31,882 Primary Health Centres, 6,359 Community Health Centres, and 1,340 District
Hospitals, supported by over 2.39 lakh health workers.

India-USA Joint Military Exercise Yudh Abhyas 2024 Begins in Rajasthan

 The 20th edition of the India-USA Joint Military Exercise, Yudh Abhyas 2024, commenced on September 9, 2024, at the
Mahajan Field Firing Ranges in Rajasthan.
 Running until September 22, this annual exercise strengthens defense cooperation between the two nations.
 India is represented by 600 personnel from the RAJPUT Regiment, while the US has sent troops from the 1-24 Battalion
of the 11th Airborne Division, Alaska.

Indian Army Participates in 5th Edition of Joint Military Exercise AL NAJAH with Oman
 The Indian Army has sent a contingent to Oman for the 5th edition of the India-Oman Joint Military Exercise AL NAJAH,
being held from September 13 to 26, 2024, in Salalah, Oman.
 This biennial exercise, which began in 2015, aims to strengthen military cooperation, focusing on counter-terrorism
operations.
 The Indian Army’s 60-member team, primarily from a Mechanised Infantry Regiment, will join an equal number of
personnel from Oman’s Royal Army Frontier Force.

Union Minister Launches “Rangeen Machhli” App to Boost India's Ornamental Fisheries Sector
 Union Minister Shri Rajiv Ranjan Singh launched the Rangeen Machhli mobile app in Bhubaneswar, aimed at
supporting India's growing ornamental fisheries sector under the Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY).
 The app provides multilingual information on popular ornamental fish, helps users find local aquarium shops, and
offers educational modules on aquarium care and ornamental aquaculture.

Port Blair to be Renamed ‘Sri Vijaya Puram’ in Honor of India’s Historical Legacy
 Union Minister Amit Shah announced that Port Blair, the capital of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, will be renamed
Sri Vijaya Puram.
 This renaming reflects Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s vision of replacing colonial-era names with those that honor
India’s rich history and freedom struggle.
 The new name acknowledges the region's ancient connections, particularly to the Chola dynasty, which played a
significant role in Southeast Asia.

Typhoon Yagi: Asia’s Strongest Storm of 2024 Causes Over 400 Deaths, Massive Destruction Across Multiple
Countries
 In early September 2024, Typhoon Yagi, the strongest storm of the year in Asia, struck Myanmar, Vietnam, Laos, and
Thailand, causing widespread devastation.
 The typhoon resulted in over 400 deaths, forced hundreds of thousands from their homes, and led to severe flooding
and landslides.

Subhadra Yojana: Odisha’s New Scheme to Empower Women

 The Odisha government has launched the Subhadra Yojana to commemorate Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s 74th
birthday, aiming to provide ₹10,000 annually to economically weaker women aged 21 to 60.

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 The scheme will distribute funds in two installments: ₹5,000 on Rakhi Purnima and ₹5,000 on International Women’s
Day, deposited directly into Aadhaar-linked bank accounts. Over five years, it is expected to benefit 1 crore women,
with an allocation of ₹55,825 crore. This initiative seeks to attract women voters and compete with the BJD's Mission
Shakti programme.

Chennai Celebrates 146th Birth Anniversary of Social Reformer Periyar E.V. Ramasamy
 On September 17, 2024, Chennai commemorated the 146th birth anniversary of Periyar E.V. Ramasamy, a renowned
social reformer from Tamil Nadu, with Chief Minister M.K. Stalin leading the tributes.
 Born in 1879 in Erode, Periyar initially joined the Congress party but left due to disagreements over caste issues. He
founded the Self-Respect Movement in 1925 and gained national prominence during the Vaikom Satyagraha in 1924.

Exercise AIKYA: Enhancing Disaster Preparedness and Coordination

 Exercise AIKYA is a two-day national event in Chennai organised by the National Disaster Management Authority
(NDMA) and the Army Southern Command, aimed at improving coordination among various organisations for disaster
response.
 The event gathers representatives from multiple sectors, including Railways, Civil Aviation, and Health, alongside
officials from the Indian Meteorological Department and the National Remote Sensing Centre.

4th Global Renewable Energy Investors Meet and Expo Highlights Gujarat's Leadership
 The 4th Global Renewable Energy Investors Meet and Expo was successfully held in Gujarat, marking the first
occurrence outside Delhi. Gujarat emerged as the top-performing state, excelling in various renewable energy
capacities, particularly in wind power and ranking second in solar power, with only Rajasthan surpassing it.
 The event featured significant initiatives such as the “Mission 100 GW of Renewable Energy in Gujarat” and “Gujarat
Energy Vision 2047,” presented by Chief Minister Bhupendra Patel. Union Minister Pralhad Joshi acknowledged the
state’s contribution of about 53% to India’s solar generation capacity, further reinforcing Gujarat's critical role in the
nation’s renewable energy landscape.

INTERNATIONAL
Cyber Attack Disrupts Elon Musk's Interview with Donald Trump on X
 Recently, an interview between Tesla CEO Elon Musk and former US President Donald Trump on the platform X
(formerly Twitter) was interrupted by a cyber attack known as Denial of Service (DoS).
 Types of DoS attacks include the Smurf Attack, where attackers flood their own servers by using a spoofed IP address
of the target, and the SYN Flood Attack, where the attacker begins but does not complete multiple connection requests
to the server, blocking legitimate traffic.

UN General Assembly Introduces Multidimensional Vulnerability Index to Aid Small Island States
 The UN General Assembly has recently launched the Multidimensional Vulnerability Index (MVI), a new quantitative
tool designed to assist small island developing states (SIDS) in obtaining low-interest financing.
 The MVI comprises two main components, Universal Level Quantitative Assessment which provides a summary index
that ranks countries based on their structural vulnerability and resilience, using a unified methodology to produce an
overall MVI score and Vulnerability-Resilience Country Profiles which offer a detailed, tailored analysis of a country's
specific vulnerability and resilience factors.

ESA's JUICE Probe Successfully Executes Double Slingshot Maneuver to Journey Towards Jupiter
 The European Space Agency's Jupiter Icy Moons Explorer (JUICE) Probe recently performed a critical double slingshot
manoeuvre, utilising the gravitational forces of both the Moon and Earth.
 This intricate navigation sequence involved JUICE passing 434 miles from the Moon and then 4,229 miles from Earth,
leveraging these gravity assists to adjust its trajectory efficiently while conserving propellant.

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 This successful execution has set JUICE on a course to reach Jupiter by 2031, aided by additional gravity assists from
Venus in 2025 and Earth in 2026 and 2029.
 JUICE aims to explore Jupiter’s three large icy moons—Callisto, Europa, and Ganymede—with the ultimate goal of
orbiting Ganymede to assess its potential to support life, building on the legacy of NASA’s Galileo mission and other
significant Jupiter missions like Juno and Cassini-Huygens.

Australia Enacts Right to Disconnect Law, Joining Global Trend

 Australia has introduced a significant labour reform granting workers the legal right to "disconnect" from work-
related communications outside their designated working hours.
 This new legislation permits workers to refuse to monitor, read, or respond to such communications unless refusal is
considered "unreasonable," a determination that depends on factors like the nature of the job and compensation for
overtime.
 This move aligns Australia with countries like France, which pioneered similar laws in 2017 to address issues
stemming from the “always on” work culture.

Sri Lanka Launches Visa-Free Entry for 35 Countries to Boost Tourism

 Starting October 1, 2024, Sri Lanka will allow citizens from 35 countries, including India, the UK, the US, and China, to
visit without a visa for six months.
 This initiative aims to increase tourism, simplify travel, and stimulate economic growth by capitalising on the sector's
significant contribution to the national income.
 The policy addresses past controversies over visa fees and positions Sri Lanka as a more accessible destination,
building on existing visa exemptions for several countries.

Telegram CEO Pavel Durov Arrested in France Amid Privacy Concerns and Legal Scrutiny
 Pavel Durov, the CEO and co-founder of Telegram, was arrested at Le Bourget airport in Paris, linked to a French
investigation into the app’s role in enabling illegal activities such as drug trafficking and cyberstalking through its
privacy features.
 A Russian expatriate and staunch privacy advocate, Durov created Telegram in 2013 to offer secure communication,
distinguishing the platform with strong encryption and large group chat capabilities.

Pacific Islands Forum 2024 Tackles Climate Change and US-China Rivalry in Tonga
 The Pacific Islands Forum (PIF) convened in Nuku'alofa, Tonga, on August 26, 2024, drawing over 1,500 delegates
from approximately 40 countries to discuss pressing issues like climate change and the strategic tussle between China
and the US in the Pacific.
 Founded in 1971, the PIF comprises 18 Pacific nations including Australia, New Zealand, and Fiji, focusing on regional
growth, security, and cooperation.
 This year's key agenda includes addressing the dire impacts of climate change, with Pacific nations facing existential
threats from rising sea levels and a significant funding gap in the Pacific Resilience Facility.

Berkshire Hathaway Hits $1 Trillion Market Cap, Led by Warren Buffett's Strategic Decisions
 Berkshire Hathaway, under the leadership of Warren Buffett, reached a landmark $1 trillion market value on August
28, becoming the first non-tech company to achieve this milestone.
 This historic valuation followed Buffett's strategic move to sell nearly half of Berkshire's Apple shares, accumulating
a massive $280 billion cash reserve. Buffett, who began his career as an investment analyst, co-founded Berkshire
with Charlie Munger in 1965, transitioning it from a textile company to a diversified conglomerate.

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Angkor Wat Named Most Photogenic UNESCO World Heritage Site in Asia
 Cambodian Prime Minister Hun Manet announced that Angkor Wat has been recognized as the most photogenic
UNESCO World Heritage site in Asia by Times Travel, as reported by the Times of India.
 The list includes other iconic sites such as the Taj Mahal and Hampi in India, the Great Wall of China, the Ancient City
of Bagan in Myanmar, Borobudur in Indonesia, Ha Long Bay in Vietnam, Historic Monuments of Kyoto in Japan, Petra
in Jordan, and the Rice Terraces of the Philippine Cordilleras.

SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY

ISRO's SSLV Successfully Launches Earth Observation Satellite
 The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has successfully launched the third developmental flight of the Small
Satellite Launch Vehicle (SSLV), which precisely positioned the Earth observation satellite EOS-08 into orbit.
 This launch marks the successful completion of ISRO's SSLV Development Project. The SSLV is designed as a three-
stage launch vehicle incorporating solid propulsion stages and a liquid propulsion-based Velocity Trimming Module
(VTM) for final orbital adjustments. It aims to provide low-cost access to space with the ability to launch Mini, Micro,
or Nanosatellites ranging from 10 to 500 kg into a 500 km orbit.

Recent Blue Moon Event Sparks Interest in Its Unique Occurrence

 In August 2024, the occurrence of a "blue moon," the second full moon within a single calendar month, captivated
skywatchers and sparked discussions about its significance.
 The term "blue moon" does not refer to the moon's colour but rather to the rarity of having two full moons in one
month or four in a single season—the latter being termed a seasonal blue moon.
 Typically, a lunar cycle lasts about 29.5 days, leading to approximately 12 cycles per year. However, every 2.5 to 3
years, an extra full moon, known as a blue moon, is observed, with the next one due on May 31, 2026.

Polaris Dawn to Conduct Historic Private Spacewalk at Unprecedented Altitude

 The upcoming Polaris Dawn mission, led by billionaire Jared Isaacman, is poised to make history by conducting the
first private spacewalk at an altitude of 700 kilometres, surpassing the International Space Station's orbit.
 The mission will navigate through the radiation-rich Van Allen Belts, providing vital data on radiation effects and
testing new SpaceX spacesuits.
 Key health research will focus on Spaceflight Associated Neuro-ocular Syndrome and decompression sickness, using
Biobanks for sample collection. Polaris Dawn, slated for launch on August 26, 2024, will also evaluate advanced
communication technologies via SpaceX's Starlink network, setting the stage for future exploratory missions and the
use of SpaceX’s Starship.

Astronomers Discover Brightest Quasar in the Universe, Providing Insight into Cosmic Beginnings
 Astronomers using the Very Large Telescope have identified J0529-4351, the brightest quasar ever observed, offering
unprecedented clarity into the early universe.
 Located in a galaxy with a supermassive black hole, this quasar outshines the Sun by over 500 trillion times and
expands at an extraordinary rate, absorbing one solar mass per day.
 Situated more than 12 billion light-years away, J0529-4351's light provides a snapshot of cosmic conditions billions
of years ago, with its vast accretion disk spanning seven light-years.

Japan's JAXA Ends Operations of "Moon Sniper" Lander, SLIM

 Japan's space agency, JAXA, has officially concluded operations of its lunar lander, the Smart Lander for Investigating
Moon (SLIM), also known as the "Moon Sniper," after unsuccessful attempts to reestablish communication.
 Launched as a small-scale lunar lander, SLIM was designed for high-precision landings to enhance understanding of
the Moon's origins and test technologies for low-gravity exploration.

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 Despite achieving a soft landing on the Moon in January 2024, which marked Japan as the fifth country to accomplish
this, subsequent communication failures led to the cessation of its mission. This event follows other successful lunar
landing by nations like India, Russia, the USA, and China.

Scientists at JILA Near Completion of World's First Nuclear Clock

 Researchers at JILA, a joint institute of the University of Colorado Boulder and the National Institute of Standards and
Technology (NIST), are on the verge of developing the world’s first nuclear clock.
 Unlike atomic clocks, which measure time based on atomic vibrations, nuclear clocks will measure energy changes
within an atom's nucleus, promising even greater accuracy.

DRDO and Indian Navy Successfully Test Vertical Launch Short Range Surface-to-Air Missile (VL-SRSAM)
 The Defence Research & Development Organisation (DRDO) and the Indian Navy have successfully flight-tested the
Vertical Launch Short Range Surface-to-Air Missile (VL-SRSAM) at the Integrated Test Range in Chandipur, Odisha.
 The missile, launched from a land-based vertical launcher, accurately intercepted a high-speed aerial target,
demonstrating its capability to defend against airborne threats.

Indian Immunologicals and ICMR Collaborate to Develop India's First Zika Virus Vaccine
 Indian Immunologicals Limited (IIL) has partnered with the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) to develop
India's first Zika virus vaccine. The Memorandum of Agreement (MoA) outlines plans for phase I clinical trials, funded
by ICMR, to test the vaccine’s safety and efficacy at four key locations in India, including ACTREC Mumbai and PGIMER
Chandigarh.
 IIL is also collaborating with Griffith University, Australia, and has completed pre-clinical tests. Besides Zika, IIL is
working on vaccines for Kyasanur Forest Disease, Chikungunya, and a SARS-CoV-2 nasal booster. The Zika virus,
primarily spread by mosquitoes, currently has no licensed vaccine, making this development crucial for public health.

Asteroid 2024 PT5: Earth’s Temporary Mini-Moon from September to November 2024
 From September 29 to November 25, 2024, Earth will gain a temporary companion—a mini-moon named asteroid
2024 PT5.
 This small asteroid, about 10 meters in size, will be captured by Earth’s gravity, briefly orbiting alongside our
permanent Moon.
 Discovered by NASA’s ATLAS program, this mini-moon will follow a unique horseshoe-shaped orbit before moving
away.

India Prepares for Historic Axiom-4 Mission in 2025

 In 2025, India will mark a significant milestone in space exploration with Group Captain Shubhanshu Shukla piloting
the Axiom-4 (Ax-4) mission, which will be India’s first human presence on the International Space Station (ISS) and
the second government-sponsored human spaceflight following Wing Commander Rakesh Sharma's mission in 1984.
 This collaboration with Axiom Space, announced by Prime Minister Narendra Modi during his U.S. visit, aims to
advance India’s capabilities in human spaceflight. Shubhanshu Shukla, alongside Group Captain Prashanth Nair, will
join an international crew led by veteran astronaut Peggy Whitson.

APPOINTMENTS & RESIGNATIONS

Sanjeev Raina Appointed as ADG of ITBP, Overseeing Forces Along India-China LAC
 Sanjeev Raina, a senior officer from the 1987 ITBP batch, has been appointed as the Additional Director General (ADG)
of the Indo-Tibetan Border Police, tasked with overseeing forces along the critical India-China Line of Actual Control
(LAC).

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 Notably, Raina is only the second non-IPS officer to achieve this rank within the ITBP. Raina's tenure will be brief, as
he is set to retire in over a month, succeeded by IG Jaspal Singh.

B Srinivasan Appointed as New Director General of National Security Guard

 The Indian government has appointed B Srinivasan as the new Director General of the National Security Guard (NSG),
succeeding Nalin Prabhat who has been reassigned as the Special Director General of Jammu and Kashmir Police.
 A 1992 batch IPS officer from Bihar, Srinivasan will lead the elite counter-terrorism unit until his retirement in August
2027.

Apple Names Kevan Parekh as New CFO, Effective January 2025

 Apple has announced Kevan Parekh as its next Chief Financial Officer, set to take over from Luca Maestri on January
1, 2025. Parekh, an experienced electrical engineer with an extensive background in financial management at
companies like Thomson Reuters and General Motors, has been with Apple for over a decade.
 This leadership transition reflects Apple's strategic continuity and Parekh's growing influence within the company.
His promotion also underscores the notable rise of Indian-origin executives in leading global firms.

TV Somanathan Appointed as New Cabinet Secretary of India Following Rajiv Gauba’s Retirement
 TV Somanathan, a seasoned IAS officer from the 1987 Tamil Nadu cadre, has been appointed as India’s new Cabinet
Secretary on August 10, 2024, following the retirement of Rajiv Gauba, who served in the position for five years.
 Somanathan, previously the Union Finance Secretary, brings a wealth of experience in finance and administration,
having held prominent roles, including Joint Secretary in the Prime Minister's Office and Director for Corporate Affairs
at the World Bank.

Amrit Mohan Prasad Appointed New Director General of Sashastra Seema Bal
 Amrit Mohan Prasad, an Indian Police Service (IPS) officer from the Odisha cadre, has been appointed as the Director
General (DG) of the Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB), as approved by the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet. Prasad
previously served as the Special Director General of the Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF).

Jordan Appoints Jafar Hassan as New Prime Minister Following Elections

 King Abdullah II of Jordan has appointed Jafar Hassan as the new Prime Minister, succeeding Bisher Al-Khasawneh.
Jafar Hassan, previously the head of the King's office and a former planning minister, holds a Ph.D. in political science
from the University of Geneva and a master's degree from Harvard.

Atishi Marlena Appointed as New Chief Minister of Delhi Following Kejriwal's Resignation
 Arvind Kejriwal has resigned as Chief Minister of Delhi, paving the way for Atishi Marlena to take over leadership of
the Aam Aadmi Party (AAP).
 Born into an academic family, Atishi is an alumnus of St. Stephen’s College and has pursued further studies at Oxford
University on prestigious scholarships.
 In 2018, she dropped "Marlena" from her public name to focus on her professional identity as a leader in social work
and education.

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 BOOKS & AUTHORS
Tarun Chugh’s Book "Modi’s Governance Triumph" Released in New Delhi
 BJP General Secretary Tarun Chugh's book, Modi’s Governance Triumph: Reshaping India’s Path to Prosperity, was
launched in New Delhi, attended by Home Minister Amit Shah and Coal Minister G. Kishan Reddy.
 The book analyzes key initiatives like Make in India and GST, highlighting Modi's policies on poverty alleviation,
economic disparity, and national security. It also delves into the Atmanirbhar Bharat vision, challenges faced by the
administration, and the ambitious outlook for India's future as a global power by 2047.

Dr. Kalpana Sankar’s Autobiography Unveiled, Celebrating Women’s Empowerment

 Dr. Kalpana Sankar’s autobiography, The Scientist Entrepreneur: Empowering Millions of Women, was launched at an
event on Cathedral Road.
 The book highlights grassroots initiatives fostering women’s economic empowerment through microfinance. Dr.
Soumya Swaminathan, chairperson of MS Swaminathan Research Foundation, released the book, while other notable
figures like Zoho's Sridhar Vembu and actor Anu Hasan participated. Dr. Swaminathan praised NGOs like Hand in
Hand India, co-founded by Dr. Sankar, for bridging gaps between government programs and community needs,
offering inspiration to aspiring social entrepreneurs.

IAF Chief Launches Comic Book Series Celebrating Air Force Heroes
 Air Chief Marshal V R Chaudhari launched the first comic book in a series highlighting the Indian Air Force's rich
history and heroic deeds. Aimed at inspiring youth, the book features stories of Marshal of the Air Force Arjan Singh
DFC and the 1971 Battle of Boyra. It also provides career information for aspiring IAF personnel.
 The comic will be freely distributed during induction drives, with a digital version releasing on Air Force Day, October
8. This initiative bridges generational gaps and promotes Air Force careers through engaging storytelling.

Governor of Tamil Nadu Unveils "Sri Rama in Tamilagam – An Inseparable Bond"

 Thiru. R.N. Ravi, Governor of Tamil Nadu, presided over the release of Sri Rama in Tamilagam – An Inseparable Bond,
authored by Dr. D.K. Hari and Dr. D.K. Hema Hari. The book explores Lord Rama's deep-rooted connection with
Tamilagam (now Tamil Nadu), portraying the region as a living heritage of the Ramayana. It highlights temples as
stone renditions of the epic and emphasizes the cultural unity between North and South India.

Piyush Goyal Launches ‘India@100’ by Prof. K V Subramanian

 Union Minister Piyush Goyal launched India@100: Envisioning Tomorrow’s Economic Powerhouse, authored by Prof. K
V Subramanian, in New Delhi. During the event, Goyal emphasized India's potential to achieve Viksit Bharat
(Developed India) by 2047 through the collective efforts of its 1.4 billion citizens. He highlighted advancements across
sectors like infrastructure, employment, tourism, manufacturing, shipping, and technology as key drivers in
transforming India into a global economic powerhouse.

IMPORTANT DAYS
September 10, 2024, World Suicide Prevention Day
 On September 10, 2024, the world will observe World Suicide Prevention Day, focusing on raising awareness about
suicide prevention and reducing stigma surrounding mental health. Organized by the International Association for
Suicide Prevention (IASP) in collaboration with the World Health Organization (WHO), the event aims to inspire
action, educate the public, and offer hope. The theme for World Suicide Prevention Day 2024-2026 is “Changing the
Narrative on Suicide” with the call to action “Start the Conversation”.

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 The International Association for Suicide Prevention (IASP) first established World Suicide Prevention Day in 2003.
National Suicide Prevention Strategy (NSPS) launched by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare in 2022, the NSPS
is India's first suicide prevention policy aimed at reducing suicide mortality by 10% by 2030.

August 26, 2024: 114th Birth Anniversary of Mother Teresa

Celebrating the Legacy of Compassion and Service
 August 26, 2024, marks the 114th birth anniversary of Mother Teresa, born in 1910 in Albania. Revered globally for
her humanitarian work, she founded the Missionaries of Charity in 1950 to serve the poorest of the poor. Her selfless
service earned her numerous accolades, including the Nobel Peace Prize and India’s Bharat Ratna.

August 29: International Day Against Nuclear Tests

 On August 29, the world observes the International Day Against Nuclear Tests, a reminder of the devastating effects
of over 2,000 nuclear tests since 1945.
 Established by a UN resolution in 2009, the day marks the closure of Kazakhstan's Semipalatinsk Nuclear Test site in
1991, a pivotal moment in the anti-nuclear movement.

August 25-29, 2024: World Water Week

 The Stockholm International Water Institute (SIWI) is organising World Water Week 2024 from August 25-29,
focusing on the theme “Bridging Borders: Water for a Peaceful and Sustainable Future.” This annual event, held since
1991, highlights the global interconnectivity of water issues and emphasises cooperation to tackle challenges related
to water security, food, nutrition, and ecosystem health.

India Water Week 2024: A Focus on Water Conservation

 President Droupadi Murmu inaugurated the 8th India Water Week in New Delhi from September 17 to 20, 2024,
bringing together Union Ministers, international representatives, and experts to emphasize the significance of water
conservation. The event featured 18 sessions promoting discussions on effective water management strategies,
alongside a “Jal Bharo” ceremony symbolizing the need to protect this vital resource. The event celebrated grassroots
initiatives, featuring stories from “Water Warriors” Ujiaro Bai and Lakmen Mary Nongkhlaw.

August 20, 2024: Sadbhavna Diwas

 Sadbhavna Diwas, first observed on August 20, 1992, commemorates Rajiv Gandhi, India's youngest Prime Minister,
known for promoting national unity and communal harmony.
 The day highlights his vision of a modern, inclusive India by encouraging peaceful coexistence, social justice, and
national integration.
 The 2024 observance reinforces the importance of civic responsibility and tolerance, with citizens taking a pledge to
foster goodwill and resolve differences peacefully through dialogue and constitutional means

August 20: World Mosquito Day

 World Mosquito Day is observed annually on August 20 to honour Sir Ronald Ross, who in 1897 uncovered the
connection between mosquitoes and malaria transmission.
 Ross's research, conducted in Secunderabad, India, identified the female Anopheles mosquito as the vector for the
Plasmodium parasite, responsible for spreading malaria. This groundbreaking discovery transformed public health
efforts, particularly in regions affected by mosquito-borne diseases, and earned Ross the Nobel Prize in Physiology or
Medicine in 1902.

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September 1-7: National Nutrition Week (Rashtriya Poshan Maah)
 National Nutrition Week, observed annually from September 1 to September 7 in India, focuses on the significance of
a nutritious diet for physical and mental well-being. First observed in 1982, it promotes awareness about the dangers
of fast food and encourages healthy eating habits.
 Originally initiated by the American Dietetic Association in 1975, India adopted this observance to spread knowledge
about nutrition’s role in longevity and vitality. The 2023 theme, “Healthy Diet Gawing Affordable for All,” as per
UNICEF, emphasises making nutritious food accessible to everyone.

September 5: Teachers' Day (India)

 Teachers' Day in India, celebrated on September 5, commemorates the birth anniversary of Dr. Sarvepalli
Radhakrishnan, India's second President, scholar, and educationist. The day recognizes the pivotal role teachers play
in shaping society and future generations.
 Dr. Radhakrishnan believed in the transformative power of education, and this day is marked by events and activities
in schools and institutions to honour teachers.

September 8: International Literacy Day

 International Literacy Day, celebrated annually on September 8 since 1967, highlights the transformative power of
literacy in building inclusive and resilient societies. Established by UNESCO, this day addresses the challenges of
illiteracy and advocates for accessible education.
 The 2024 theme, “Promoting Multilingual Education: Literacy for Mutual Understanding and Peace,”
emphasises the role of multilingualism in fostering communication and social cohesion.

September 14: Hindi Day (Hindi Diwas)

 Hindi Day is celebrated on September 14 to commemorate the adoption of Hindi as India's official language by the
Constituent Assembly in 1949. The day, suggested by Pandit Jawahar Lal Nehru, highlights the significance and
prestige of the Hindi language, symbolising the country's cultural unity.
 Schools and institutions across India organise events like essay writing, debates, and Hindi typing competitions to
inspire people towards Hindi. In addition to Hindi Day, January 10 is observed as World Hindi Day, celebrating the
global importance of the language.

September 15: National Engineer’s Day (India)

 National Engineer’s Day is celebrated on September 15 in India to commemorate the birth anniversary of Sir
Mokshagundam Visvesvaraya, the Father of Indian Engineering. First observed in 1968, this day highlights his
pivotal contributions to modern infrastructure, including the invention of automatic floodgates and advanced
irrigation techniques. As India’s 19th Diwan of Mysore, Sir MV is known for transforming the region and was awarded
the Bharat Ratna in 1955.

September 15: International Day of Democracy

 The International Day of Democracy, observed annually on September 15, promotes the universal value of democracy
and assesses its global state. It emphasizes that democracy is built on the will of the people, requiring active
participation from individuals, governments, and civil society.
 Democracy safeguards human rights, supports equality, freedom, and dignity, and relies on periodic elections by
universal suffrage. This day serves as a reminder that democracy is not a singular goal, but an ongoing process that
evolves with the active involvement of its citizens.

September 16: World Ozone Day

 World Ozone Day, observed on September 16 annually, commemorates the signing of the Montreal Protocol in 1987,
a global agreement to protect the ozone layer by reducing the use of ozone-depleting substances.

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 The 2024 theme, “Montreal Protocol: Advancing Climate Action". The ozone layer, vital for shielding life on Earth from
harmful ultraviolet radiation, has been gradually healing, with projections for full recovery in mid-latitudes by the
2030s and in polar regions by 2060.

OBITUARIES
Rakesh Pal, Director General of the Indian Coast Guard
 Rakesh Pal, who served as the 25th Director General of the Indian Coast Guard, passed away at the age of 59 due to a
severe cardiac arrest in Chennai. He was in the city to attend a Coast Guard event led by Defence Minister Rajnath
Singh.
 Pal, a flag officer from Uttar Pradesh, joined the Indian Coast Guard in January 1989 after attending the Indian Naval
Academy. Over his 34-year career, he played a crucial role in modernizing the Coast Guard, earning the Vishist Seva
medal for his contributions. He became Director General in July 2023, leading the maritime law enforcement agency
which operates under the Ministry of Defence.

Maria Branyas Morera, World’s Oldest Person

 Maria Branyas Morera, the world’s oldest person at 117 years old, has passed away. Born in San Francisco in 1907,
she lived through two world wars and spent her last two decades in a nursing home in Olot, Spain.
 Officially recognized by Guinness World Records in January 2023, Maria was known for her sharp mind, fondly
recalling childhood memories despite age-related mobility and hearing issues.

General Sundararajan Padmanabhan, Former Chief of Army Staff

 General Sundararajan Padmanabhan, the 20th Chief of Army Staff, passed away at the age of 83 in Chennai due to age-
related ailments. Cremated with full military honours, he was born in Thiruvananthapuram in 1940 and had an
exemplary career after being commissioned into the Regiment of Artillery in 1959.
 Known for his strategic leadership, General Padmanabhan commanded multiple key units and was integral in counter-
terrorism operations in Kashmir. Affectionately called "Paddy," he led the Indian Army during ‘Operation PARAKRAM’
and was an Honorary ADC to the President of India. He retired in 2002 after 43 years of service.

Dr. Ram Narain Agarwal, Renowned Indian Scientist and ‘Father of Agni Missiles’
 Dr. Ram Narain Agarwal, a pioneering figure in India’s missile program, passed away at the age of 84 in Hyderabad.
Fondly known as the 'Father of Agni Missiles,' Dr. Agarwal's revolutionary contributions spanned over 22 years in
defence research, where he collaborated with luminaries like Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam.
 He played a crucial role in developing missile technologies such as re-entry systems, heat shields, and guidance
systems. His leadership in the Agni missile program, especially Agni V, significantly boosted India's strategic defence
capabilities. Dr. Agarwal also founded the Advanced Systems Laboratory (ASL), leaving behind a legacy of innovation
and excellence in missile technology. He was honoured with several prestigious awards, including the Padma Shri,
Padma Bhushan, and Lifetime Achievement Award.

Aruna Vasudev, ‘Mother of Asian Cinema’

 Aruna Vasudev, an eminent Indian film scholar and critic known as the 'Mother of Asian Cinema,' passed away at the
age of 88. A passionate advocate for Asian films, Aruna championed Indian and Asian cinema on the global stage,
fostering interest and scholarship worldwide.
 She was the founding editor of Cinemaya and the creator of NETPAC, dedicated to promoting Asian cinema. Known
for her warmth and authority, Aruna was a fixture at national and international film festivals. Among her many
accolades were the Officier des Arts et des Lettres and the Satyajit Ray Memorial Award by FIPRESCI India.

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Death of Māori King Marks End of an Era in New Zealand
 Kiingi Tuheitia Pootatau Te Wherowhero VII, the Māori King, passed away shortly after celebrating 18 years of
leadership. He was the seventh monarch of the Kiingitanga movement, initiated in 1858 to unify New Zealand's
indigenous Māori tribes against British colonisation.
 The movement aimed to halt land sales to non-indigenous people and cease inter-tribal conflicts. Throughout New
Zealand’s history, significant clashes like the Wairau Valley incident and the Waikato War marked the struggle
between Māori and European settlers for land and sovereignty.

RANKING
Global Air Quality Study Reveals Life Expectancy Gains from Pollution Reduction
 The 2024 Air Quality Life Index by the University of Chicago highlights a critical global health issue: reducing PM2.5
levels to WHO standards could extend global life expectancy by 14.9 billion years. In India, over 40% of the population
breathes air that surpasses the national standard of 40 µg/m³, with potential gains of 1.9 additional years per person
if WHO guidelines are met.
 The report stresses uneven pollution distribution, with severe impacts in regions like South Asia and significant
improvements in countries like the US and China through rigorous policies. Compliance remains a challenge globally,
affecting life expectancy and health.

Rajiv Gandhi International Airport Named Best Airport for Third Consecutive Year
 Rajiv Gandhi International Airport (RGIA) in Hyderabad has clinched the title of Best Airport at the India Travel
Awards for the third consecutive year, underscoring its commitment to superior passenger service.
 This accolade, complemented by the Skytrax award for ‘Best Airport Staff in India & South Asia 2024,’ highlights RGIA's
consistent quality and its pivotal role in positioning Hyderabad as a key hub in South Asian air travel.

NHPC, SJVN, and RailTel Attain Prestigious Navratna Status, Expanding Investment Autonomy
 NHPC, SJVN, and RailTel have been awarded Navratna status by the Government of India, marking a significant
milestone for these public sector enterprises.
 This recognition, previously held by 17 companies, allows them greater operational freedom, including investment
autonomy of up to ₹1,000 crore per project. The status, earned through strong financial performance and high MoU
ratings, enables these companies to form joint ventures, set up subsidiaries abroad, and invest further in their sectors.

Telangana, Tamil Nadu, and Rajasthan Emerge as Fastest-Growing Large States in India
 The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) has recognized Telangana, Tamil Nadu, and
Rajasthan as the fastest-growing large states in India, with each surpassing the national average GDP growth of 8.2%.
 Telangana led the way with a 9.2% growth, reaching a GSDP of ₹7.9 lakh crore, followed by Tamil Nadu at 8.2% (₹15.7
lakh crore), and Rajasthan at 8%.

India Achieves Tier 1 Status in Global Cybersecurity Index 2024, Ranking Among World's Best
 India has achieved Tier 1 status in the Global Cybersecurity Index (GCI) 2024, a recognition of its commitment to
building a robust cybersecurity infrastructure.
 The GCI, developed by the International Telecommunication Union (ITU), evaluates countries based on legal, technical,
organisational, capacity development, and cooperative measures to ensure online security. India’s impressive score
of 98.49 reflects its strong legal framework, such as the Information Technology Act (2000) and the Digital Personal
Data Protection Bill (2022), placing it among the top 47 nations globally for cybersecurity practices.

Amul Named World's Strongest Food Brand in 2024

 Amul has been named the world’s strongest food brand in Brand Finance's Global Food & Drinks Report 2024. With a
Brand Strength Index (BSI) score of 91 and a valuation of $3.3 billion, Amul saw an 11% rise in brand value.

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 Its dominance in India’s dairy market and strong metrics in familiarity and recommendation contributed to its AAA+
rating. Hershey’s, with a $3.9 billion valuation, took second place. Despite a 4% drop in the broader food sector’s brand
value, Amul continues to thrive.

Mumbai, Delhi Rank Among Top 3 Cities Globally for Prime Residential Price Growth
 According to Knight Frank's report, Mumbai and Delhi ranked second and third globally for annual price rise in prime
residential properties in the June 2024 quarter. Mumbai saw a 13% increase, up from 6th place a year ago, while New
Delhi jumped from 26th to third with a 10.6% rise.
 Bengaluru ranked 15th with a 3.7% increase. Globally, Manila topped the list with a 26% rise, while Los Angeles and
Miami ranked 4th and 5th. Cities like Vienna and Bangkok saw declines, with Wellington ranking last.

Mumbai Named Billionaire Capital of Asia in Hurun India Rich List 2024
 The Hurun India Rich List 2024 has named Mumbai as Asia’s new billionaire capital, surpassing Beijing. Mumbai now
hosts 386 billionaires, up by 58, with a total wealth of $445 billion. This positions Mumbai third globally behind New
York (119) and London (97). Delhi ranks second in India with 217 billionaires, while Hyderabad (104) overtakes
Bengaluru (100).
 Mumbai’s rise is attributed to its robust financial sector and entrepreneurial ecosystem. Beijing's decline, with 18
fewer billionaires, reflects broader economic challenges in China.

India’s Influence Shines in TIME100 Most Influential People in AI 2024 List

 The TIME100 Most Influential People in AI 2024 list highlights India’s growing presence in the global AI landscape.
 Sundar Pichai, CEO of Google, and Ashwini Vaishnaw, India’s Minister of Electronics and Information Technology, lead
Indian representation. Tech leaders like Satya Nadella, Nandan Nilekani, and innovators such as Rohit Prasad and
Aravind Srinivas showcase India’s impact in driving AI innovation.
 The list also includes thought leaders like Amba Kak and Amandeep Singh Gill, reflecting India’s role in shaping AI
ethics and policy globally.

Switzerland Tops "Best Countries for 2024" Survey for Third Consecutive Year
 In the “Best Countries for 2024” survey, Switzerland ranked as the best country for the third year in a row, out of 89
countries.
 The survey, which assessed categories like adventure, entrepreneurship, and quality of life, saw European countries
dominate the top 25. Switzerland was followed by Japan, the USA, Canada, and Australia.
 India ranked 33rd, dropping three spots from last year, performing best in the "movers" and heritage categories, but
scoring low in social purpose and adventure. The UAE and Qatar were the only Middle Eastern countries in the top 25.

Indian Companies Shine in TIME World’s Best Companies of 2024

 TIME’s World’s Best Companies of 2024 list features 22 Indian-born enterprises, highlighting their global influence.
 HCLTech leads Indian companies, ranking 112th globally, followed by Infosys (119th) and Wipro (134th). Sectors
such as technology, banking, manufacturing, and energy are well-represented, with Mahindra Group, Reliance
Industries, and ICICI Bank also featured.
 The rankings, based on employee satisfaction, revenue growth, and sustainability, underscore India's economic
diversity and global competitiveness.

Cristiano Ronaldo Reaches 1 Billion Followers Across Social Media

 Cristiano Ronaldo has become the first person in the world to surpass 1 billion followers across various social media
platforms, highlighting his unparalleled global appeal. Here's a breakdown of his follower count:
o Instagram: 638 million
o Facebook: 170 million
o X (formerly Twitter): 113 million

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 o YouTube: 60.6 million

India Rises to Tier 1 in Global Cybersecurity Index 2024

 India has ascended to Tier 1 in the Global Cybersecurity Index (GCI) 2024, released by the International
Telecommunication Union (ITU), recognizing its strong commitment to cybersecurity.
 Ranked with a score of 98.49, India is one of 47 countries in Tier 1, excelling in five assessment pillars: Legal
Measures, Technical Measures, Organisational Measures, Capacity Development, and Cooperation. India's
cybersecurity success is driven by robust legal frameworks, including the Information Technology Act and the
Digital Personal Data Protection Bill (2022).

SPORTS
Vithya Ramraj Shatters P.T. Usha’s 39-Year-Old Record at the 63rd National Open Athletics Championships
 At the National Open Athletics Championships in Bengaluru, Vithya Ramraj broke a nearly four-decade-old Indian
record in the women's 400m hurdles, previously held by the iconic P.T. Usha. Ramraj clocked in at 56.23 seconds,
besting Usha's 1985 record of 56.80 seconds.
 This historic achievement underscores a significant moment in Indian athletics, spotlighting Ramraj’s rising
prominence. The event also witnessed standout performances across various disciplines, with Tamil Nadu's Nithin
breaking the men’s 200m meet record. Ancy Sojan earned the best woman athlete title with a remarkable long jump
of 6.71 metres.

Scotland to Host Commonwealth Games 2026 After Victoria's Withdrawal

 Scotland will host the Commonwealth Games in 2026 after Victoria, Australia, withdrew due to rising costs, which
were later found to be overstated.
 Glasgow, which previously hosted the Games in 2014, will welcome athletes again but on a smaller scale. The Scottish
government has pledged to host the event without requiring extra public funds, with the Commonwealth Games
Federation providing £20 million, including £5 million for facility upgrades.

Women's T20 World Cup 2024 Relocated from Bangladesh to UAE Due to Safety Concerns
 The ICC has announced the relocation of the 2024 Women's T20 World Cup from Bangladesh to the UAE, set to take
place from October 3 to 20 in Dubai and Sharjah.
 Political unrest in Bangladesh, following Prime Minister Sheikh Hasina’s resignation and ongoing turmoil, led to safety
concerns and travel advisories from several participating nations.

Jannik Sinner and Aryna Sabalenka Win First Cincinnati Open Titles
 Top-ranked Jannik Sinner and women’s No. 2 Aryna Sabalenka claimed their first Cincinnati Open titles with straight-
set victories. Sabalenka defeated Jessica Pegula 6-3, 7-5, securing her 15th WTA title, while Sinner triumphed over
Frances Tiafoe 7-6 (4), 6-2, becoming the youngest Cincinnati champion since Andy Murray in 2008.
 Sabalenka’s win reinforces her as a U.S. Open contender despite recent injuries, while Sinner looks forward to the U.S.
Open after his milestone victory. Tiafoe and Pegula faced challenges in their respective finals, with errors and fatigue
contributing to their defeats.

Neeraj Chopra Secures Second Place at Lausanne Diamond League with Season's Best Throw
 Neeraj Chopra, India’s star javelin thrower, claimed a second-place finish at the Lausanne Diamond League,
showcasing his resilience.
 Despite initial struggles, Chopra surged in the final rounds, delivering an 89.49m throw in the sixth round—his
season’s best, surpassing his Paris Olympics throw. Grenada’s Anderson Peters won gold with a 90.61m throw, while
Germany's Julian Weber secured bronze. Battling a groin injury, Chopra’s performance earned him 15 points in the
Diamond League standings, tying him for third place.

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Diana Pundole Becomes First Indian Woman to Win National Car Racing Championship
 Diana Pundole, a teacher and mother from Pune, made history by becoming the first Indian woman to win the national
championship in the saloon category at the MRF Indian National Car Racing Championship 2024 in Chennai.
 Achieving this milestone on her birthday weekend, Diana overcame personal and societal challenges in a male-
dominated sport. Her racing career, fueled by a lifelong passion, includes competing internationally at prestigious
tracks like Dubai Autodrome and Hockenheimring.

Lando Norris Triumphs at Dutch Grand Prix, Secures Second Career Win
 Lando Norris delivered an exceptional performance at the Dutch Grand Prix, claiming his second career victory with
a commanding lead over Max Verstappen. Despite losing the lead early, Norris executed a decisive overtake to regain
control, finishing over 20 seconds ahead of Verstappen, who had to settle for second on home turf. Ferrari’s Charles
Leclerc secured third place, marking a strong result for the team. McLaren enjoyed mixed fortunes with Oscar Piastri
finishing fourth, while Carlos Sainz earned fifth for Ferrari.

Avani Lekhara Creates History with Second Paralympic Gold

 Para shooter Avani Lekhara made history on August 30 by becoming the first Indian woman to win two Paralympic
gold medals. She retained her title in the women's 10m air rifle standing SH1 event at the Paris 2024 Paralympics,
setting a new Paralympic record with a score of 249.7.
 This victory adds to her gold and bronze from the Tokyo 2020 Paralympics, making her the second Indian Paralympian
after Devendra Jhajharia to win multiple golds. Avani’s accolades include the Khel Ratna Award and Padma Shri for
her contributions to Indian sports.

Lord’s to Host ICC World Test Championship Final in 2025

 The iconic Lord’s Cricket Ground in London will host the final of the ICC World Test Championship (WTC) from June
11 to June 15, 2025, marking the first time the "Home of Cricket" will stage this prestigious event.
 Previously, the WTC finals were held at Southampton's Ageas Bowl in 2021 and The Oval in 2023, where New Zealand
and Australia emerged victorious. Lord’s, steeped in cricketing tradition, will now witness the battle between the top
two teams from the ongoing WTC cycle, with June 16 reserved for potential interruptions.

Siddhartha Aggarwal Becomes Oldest Indian to Swim Solo Across English Channel
 On August 29, 49-year-old Siddhartha Aggarwal from Bengaluru became the oldest Indian to swim solo across the
English Channel, completing the 42 km swim in 15 hours and six minutes. His achievement surpasses the previous
record set by Srikaanth Viswanathan at age 46.
 Aggarwal’s journey began in 2018 with a relay swim across the Channel, and after 15 months of rigorous training
under coach Satish Kumar, he accomplished this solo feat despite challenging tides and winds. His remarkable
dedication serves as an inspiration for swimmers of all ages.

India Announces Bid for 2030 Youth Olympics at OCA General Assembly
 India's Union Minister of Youth Affairs & Sports, Dr. Mansukh Mandaviya, announced India's bid to host the 2030
Youth Olympics at the Olympic Council of Asia's (OCA) 44th General Assembly on September 8, 2024.
 Competing against countries like Peru, Mexico, and Thailand, this bid aligns with India’s long-term goal of hosting the
2036 Olympics. Dr. Mandaviya highlighted India's sports initiatives, such as the ‘Khelo India’ scheme and the ‘Target
Olympic Podium Scheme (TOPS)’, which have significantly boosted the country’s sports infrastructure and athlete
development. The ASMITA program, promoting women's participation in sports, was also spotlighted.

Jannik Sinner Wins U.S. Open, Securing His Second Grand Slam Title

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 World No. 1 Jannik Sinner clinched his second Grand Slam title at the U.S. Open, defeating Taylor Fritz in a commanding
final. Despite being cleared of a doping controversy just before the tournament, Sinner overcame doubts and delivered
a dominant performance, showcasing his powerful baseline game.
 His victory not only reaffirmed his top ranking but also ended a long Grand Slam drought for American men, with the
last U.S. winner being Andy Roddick in 2003. Fritz, playing in his first Grand Slam final, fell short but remains optimistic
about his future in the sport.

Saleema Imtiaz Becomes First Pakistani Woman Nominated to ICC Development Umpires Panel
 Saleema Imtiaz has made history as the first Pakistani woman to be nominated to the ICC International Panel of
Development Umpires, as announced by the Pakistan Cricket Board (PCB). Imtiaz, who began her umpiring career
with the PCB women’s panel in 2008, has officiated in notable events like the 2022 Asia Cup and the 2023 ACC
Emerging Women’s Cup.
 With 22 T20Is under her belt, her nomination allows her to officiate in women’s bilateral international matches and
ICC events. Imtiaz’s achievement symbolises a growing influence of women in cricket and the PCB's commitment to
gender development in the sport.

India Clinches Fifth Men’s Asian Champions Trophy Title with Jugraj Singh’s Winning Goal
 India’s Men’s Hockey Team secured their fifth Asian Champions Trophy title in 2024 by defeating hosts China 1-0 in a
tense final. Jugraj Singh scored the decisive goal with an assist from Harmanpreet Singh, breaking the deadlock after
China’s strong defensive effort in the first half. India dominated possession but faced challenges from China’s
counterattacks, keeping the scoreboard at 0-0 until Jugraj’s second-half strike secured the win.

Awards of the Tournament:

 Top Goal Scorer: Yang Jihun (Korea) – 9 Goals
 Promising Goalkeeper: Kim Jaehan (Korea)
 Best Goalkeeper: Wang Caiyu (China)
 Rising Star: Hanan Shahid (Pakistan)
 Player of the Tournament: Harmanpreet Singh (India)
Third Place: Pakistan defeated South Korea 5-2 to claim third place.
India now holds the record for the most Asian Champions Trophy titles, with five wins.

SUMMIT’S & MOU’S

India Hosts 3rd Voice of Global South Summit
 On August 17th, 2024, India hosted the 3rd Voice of Global South Summit (VOGSS) in a virtual format, under the theme
"An Empowered Global South for a Sustainable Future". The summit saw participation from 123 countries, with
notable absences being China and Pakistan.
 This event, part of an ongoing series that began in January 2023, aims to provide a platform for developing nations to
address global challenges like the COVID pandemic, Ukraine conflict, and issues of debt, food, and energy security.
 The summit highlighted India's commitment to fostering global cooperation, emphasising initiatives like a USD 2.5
million fund for trade promotion and a USD 1 million fund for building trade policy capacity.

INDUS-X Summit 2024: Boosting US-India Defense Collaboration at Stanford University

 Scheduled for September 9-10, 2024, at Stanford University, the third edition of the INDUS-X Summit aims to deepen
US-India cooperation in defence technology and innovation.
 This strategic event will convene key leaders, including former U.S. Secretary of State Condoleezza Rice, alongside
policymakers, venture capitalists, and academics from both nations. The summit’s focus is on harnessing private
investment to enhance the cross-border defence innovation ecosystem, continuing the momentum from its inception
in June 2023.

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India and South Africa Sign Agreement to Boost Submarine Rescue Capabilities
 On September 4, 2024, the Indian and South African navies formalised an agreement to enhance submarine rescue
support, ensuring South African submarine crew safety during emergencies.
 The agreement grants South Africa access to India's Deep Submergence Rescue Vehicle (DSRV), capable of rescuing
submariners from depths of up to 650 metres. This partnership, initiated after a 2023 accident that claimed the lives
of three South African navy members, reflects a commitment to maritime safety.

India and Malaysia Sign MoU on Public Administration and Governance Reforms
 The Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG) of India and the Public Service
Department of Malaysia signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) on August 20, 2024, for cooperation in public
administration and governance reforms.
 This five-year agreement focuses on citizen-centric services, e-governance, transparency, and public grievance
redress mechanisms. The MoU was exchanged during a ceremonial function attended by Indian Prime Minister
Narendra Modi and Malaysian Prime Minister Anwar Bin Ibrahim at Hyderabad House, New Delhi.

Tata Power Solar Systems Ltd Signs Financing Agreement with ICICI Bank
 Tata Power Solar Systems Ltd (TPSSL) has partnered with ICICI Bank to offer loans for solar unit financing to
residential and corporate customers. Customers can avail loans up to Rs 90 lakh, with collateral-free options and
repayment tenures of up to 5 years.
 Additionally, higher loan amounts with collaterals are available for up to 20-year tenures. This initiative, part of
TPSSL's efforts to expand solar energy adoption, is set to make solar panel purchases more accessible to a broader
customer base.

BANKING & ECONOMY

Indian Government Launches BHASKAR Platform to Boost Startup Ecosystem
 The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) has launched BHASKAR (Bharat Startup
Knowledge Access Registry), a digital platform under the Startup India programme to strengthen India's startup
ecosystem.
 BHASKAR aims to provide startups, investors, mentors, and service providers with essential resources, enabling
better networking, collaboration, and growth opportunities.

RBI Reports Significant Decline in Outward Remittances Amid Economic Uncertainties

 According to recent data from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), there has been a significant decrease in outward
remittances under the Liberalised Remittance Scheme (LRS), with figures dropping from USD 3.890 billion in June
2023 to USD 2.181 billion in June 2024, marking a 43.93% decline.
 The reduction has been influenced by global economic uncertainties and the introduction of a 20% Tax Collection at
Source (TCS) on overseas tour packages, which has particularly affected remittances for travel, previously over 50%
of total outflows.
 This tax adjustment aligns with the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 regulations, underscoring a shift
towards tighter fiscal oversight amidst economic shifts.

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54th GST Council Meeting Proposes Tax Cuts on Cancer Drugs and Health Insurance, Considers Adjustments for
Other Goods
 The 54th Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council meeting, chaired by Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman in New
Delhi, focused on reducing tax rates for essential items such as cancer drugs, health insurance, and savoury snacks.
 Key cancer drugs like Trastuzumab Deruxtecan and Osimertinib may see GST reductions from 12% to 5%, easing
treatment costs for patients.

2024-25 Budget Boosts Women-Led Development with Historic Funding Allocations

 The 2024-25 Indian budget prioritises women-led development, with the Gender Budget Statement (GBS) exceeding
₹3 lakh crore, accounting for 1% of GDP—a first. Pro-women allocations now represent 6.8% of the total budget, up
from 5%.
 The new Part C in the GBS includes schemes like PM Kisan, supporting initiatives with at least 30% funding for women,
while established women-specific programs like SAMARTHYA continue under Part A, highlighting a significant
increase in funding dedicated to enhancing women's roles in development.

Bandhan Bank Launches Avni, a Women-Focused Savings Account

 On August 22, 2024, Bandhan Bank introduced the Avni Savings Account for women, featuring benefits like free
airport lounge access, ₹10 lakh personal accident insurance, and a ₹3.5 lakh lost card liability.
 It requires a ₹25,000 minimum average quarterly balance. Accompanied by the Bandhan Bank Delights loyalty
program, users can earn and redeem points for rewards across various categories.

RBI Updates e-Mandate Framework for Auto-Replenishment of FASTag and NCMC

 The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has revised its e-mandate framework to include auto-replenishment transactions for
FASTag and the National Common Mobility Card (NCMC).
 These transactions, triggered when balances fall below a set threshold, will no longer require a pre-debit notification.
The update streamlines irregular recurring payments such as tolls and mobility card top-ups.

RBI Penalizes UCO Bank and Cent Bank Home Finance Ltd for Regulatory Non-Compliance
 The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has imposed penalties on two financial institutions for regulatory violations. UCO
Bank was fined Rs 2.68 crore for breaches related to current account openings, deposit interest rates, and fraud
classification.
 Cent Bank Home Finance Ltd faces a Rs 2.1 lakh penalty for non-compliance with Know Your Customer (KYC)
regulations.

HDFC Bank Launches GIGA Suite for Gig Workers

 HDFC Bank has launched GIGA, a comprehensive suite of financial products for India's gig workers and freelancers.
Offerings include flexible savings accounts, business debit and credit cards, health insurance with premiums starting
at Rs 20/day, and investment options through HDFC AMC.
 Specialised loans, like collateral-free business and car loans, are also available. Partnerships with Razorpay and
Payoneer facilitate seamless domestic and international payments, enabling gig workers to manage their finances with
ease.

RBI Imposes Penalties on Three Housing Finance Companies for Non-Compliance

 The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has penalised Godrej Housing Finance Ltd and Aadhar Housing Finance Ltd with fines
of Rs 5 lakh each, and HUDCO with Rs 3.5 lakh for failing to adhere to housing finance regulations.
 Godrej Housing Finance did not obtain two independent valuation reports for loans above Rs 75 lakh, Aadhar Housing
Finance violated the 'Fair Practices Code,' and HUDCO failed in customer risk categorization and creating floating
charges on depositor assets.
RBI Fines HDFC Bank and Axis Bank for Regulatory Non-Compliance

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 The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has imposed penalties on HDFC Bank (₹1.91 crore) and Axis Bank (₹1 crore) for
violations related to deposit regulations, KYC norms, and agricultural loans.
 HDFC Bank faced penalties for non-compliance in areas like deposit interest rates, recovery agent conduct, and
operational issues. Axis Bank was fined for issuing multiple customer identification codes, collateral violations on
agricultural loans, and subsidiary activities outside permitted regulations.

Union Bank of India Joins Partnership for Carbon Accounting Financials (PCAF)
 Union Bank of India has become the first major Indian bank to join the Partnership for Carbon Accounting Financials
(PCAF), reflecting a global focus on managing climate risks. PCAF provides a standardised approach for financial
institutions to assess and disclose greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions tied to their loans and investments, often referred
to as Scope 3 emissions.
 This move aligns with the RBI’s draft guidelines on climate risk disclosures, which emphasise governance, strategy,
and risk management for regulated entities.

LIC Selects Infosys for Next-Gen Digital Platform under DIVE Programme
 The Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) has partnered with Infosys to build a next-generation digital platform
as part of its DIVE (Digital Innovation and Value Enhancement) programme.
 This platform will enhance customer services, business lifecycle management, and streamline operations for sales
intermediaries. It marks a strategic shift for LIC from previous IT collaborations with Tata Consultancy Services (TCS)
and Tech Mahindra. The platform will be cloud-native, modular, and designed to integrate emerging technologies.

YES BANK and Paisabazaar Launch Co-Branded PaisaSave Credit Card

 YES BANK and Paisabazaar have partnered to introduce the YES BANK Paisabazaar PaisaSave Credit Card, designed
to reward frequent shoppers.
 The card offers 3% cashback on online transactions and unlimited cashback for all purchases, both online and offline.
It also provides a fuel surcharge waiver and a virtual Rupay Credit Card option for UPI payments. There is no joining
fee, and the annual fee of ₹499 can be waived if annual spending exceeds ₹1.2 lakh.

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 LEGALEDGE TEST SERIES
MOCK COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST 2024-25
CLAT MOCK
TR ID.

(In Figures)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
Duration of Test : 2 Hours (120 Minutes) Maximum Marks : 120
1. Separate carbonised Optical Mark Reader (OMR) 10. Use BLACK/BLUE BALL POINT PEN only for
Response Sheet is supplied along with this writing the roll No. and other details on OMR
Questions Booklet and the carbon copy has to be response Sheet.
detached and taken by the candidates. 11. Use BLACK/BLUE BALL POINT PEN for shading
2. In case of any discrepancy in the question booklet the circles. Indicate only the most appropriate
(QB), please request the invigilator for answer by shading from the options provided. The
replacement of a fresh packet of QB with OMR. Do answer circle should be shaded completely
not use the previous OMR response Sheet for a without leaving any space.
fresh booklet so obtained. 12. As the responses cannot be modified/corrected on
3. Candidates will not be given a second blank OMR the OMR Response Sheet, candidates have to take
response Sheet under any circumstance. Hence, necessary precautions before marking the
OMR response Sheet shall be handled carefully. appropriate circle.
4. Answer all questions. No clarification can be 13. The candidate should retain the Admit Card duly
sought on the Questions Paper Signed by the invigilator, as the same has to be
5. Possession of electronic devices in any form is produced at the time of Admission.
strictly prohibited in the examination Hall. 14. Handle the OMR response Sheet with care. Do not
6. The use of any unfair means by any candidate shall fold.
result in the cancellation of his/her examination. 15. Ensure that invigilator puts his/her signature in
7. Impersonation is an offense and the candidate, the space provided on the OMR response Sheet.
apart from disqualification, will be liable to be Candidate should sign in the space provided on the
prosecuted. OMR response Sheet.
8. The test Paper for Five Year integrated Law 16. The candidate should write Question Paper
Programme is for 120 marks containing 120 booklet No., and OMR response Sheet No., and sign
multiple Choice Questions. in the space/column provided in the attendance
9. There will be Negative marking for multiple choice sheet.
objective type questions. 0.25 marks will be 17. Return the Original Page of OMR response Sheet to
deducted for every wrong answer or where the invigilator after the examination.
candidates have marked more than one response. 18. The candidate shall not write anything on the OMR
response Sheet other than the details required and
in the spaces provided for

199
 SECTION-A : ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Passage (Q.1-Q.6): Many of us want to be different. We may desire to be more extroverted, spontaneous, or productive.
On a more concrete level, we may need to exercise three days a week, consume less alcohol, or lose 20 pounds. One
scientific fact we know for sure is that when we want to change our personalities, we have both the capacity and the
ability. The quest for personal development and change does not imply malcontent but instead suggests the ubiquitous
human need to improve.
Improvement comes in many forms and may include reaching goals such as enhancing skills, becoming healthier, or
appearing more sociable. However, personal development has psychological costs that hold some people back. When we
contemplate change, we also acknowledge an existing deficit or weakness, a realization that some are ill-prepared to
confront. We also must devote considerable effort to the challenge. In many cases, change minimally means habit revision
and, in some cases, may result in a complete reinvention of our personalities, for better or worse.
The capacity to change starts with self-awareness and the creation of a targeted measurable goal. For lasting change to
occur a few things must happen. First, we must have a compelling reason to change. Desire alone, while critical, is
insufficient to make change happen. Often the need for change is suggested or obvious (such as smoking cessation) but
the person does not assess a pressing need and thus, compliance is temporary or sporadic. Second, we must understand
how to make the change. Not everyone recognizes which optimal strategies support the desired outcome. Third, social
support for change improves the likelihood of change effectiveness and stability. Unless these three factors are intact, we
may quickly revert back to our bad habits, subsequently feeling disappointed and frustrated about our failed attempt.
My dilemma was a result of twenty years of late-night activities. When I started graduate school, I worked or attended
class during the days and became accustomed to staying up late most nights to study. It would not be unusual for me to
be pounding the books until after midnight. I needed a few hours to unwind before sleep; my typical lights-out time would
be 2:00 a.m. Unfortunately, I was unable to break the unhealthy habit even though I finished school 16 years ago. The late
bedtime did not mean I would sleep all day, but it clearly meant that I was not getting enough rest for optimal thinking
and productivity.
1. Identify the statement(s) that is/are correct as per the 3. Which of the following can be inferred about the
information given in the passage. author’s perspective on personal development?
A. Improvement in personal development is solely (a) Personal development is an effortless journey that
dependent on an individual’s desire to change. leads to immediate results.
B. The capacity to change involves self-awareness (b) A lack of self-awareness can significantly hinder
and setting measurable goals. the process of personal change.
C. Social support is essential for maintaining effective (c) The author believes that everyone can change their
and stable change. habits without any external support.
D. The author successfully broke their habit of staying (d) The author feels that personal development is only
up late after finishing graduate school. about physical changes, such as weight loss.
E. Personal development can result in a complete
reinvention of one’s personality. 4. Which of the following is most likely to be the source of
(a) Only A and B are correct. the given passage?
(b) Only B, C, and E are correct. (a) Motivational novel (b) Scientific journal
(c) Only A, C, and D are correct. (c) Newspaper article (d) Sociology textbook
(d) Only B, D, and E are correct 5. What would be the underlying premise for the author's
2. Mr. X joins a well-reputed gymnasium, to help him in statement "We must devote considerable effort to the
his targeted and measurable weight-loss journey. challenge"?
However, even after spending considerable amount of (a) People don't invest appropriate amount of effort to
time, he isn't able to achieve the desired result for tackle a challenge.
himself. Based on the information given in the passage, (b) Effort and its optimum amount is indispensable in
what could be the most likely reason for non- addressing a challenge to achieve the desired
achievement of desired goals by Mr. X? result.
(a) Mr. X may not have a compelling reason to pursue (c) The degree of effort required to handle a challenge
weight loss. varies in accordance with the nature of challenge
(b) Mr. X is likely not receiving adequate social at hand.
support in his weight-loss journey. (d) Challenge can break people, for worse, if
(c) Mr. X lacks the desire to change his lifestyle habits. appropriate amount of effort is not given to
(d) Mr. X does not have any measurable goals set for address the same.
his weight-loss journey.

200
6. Which of the following best describes the relationship (b) Self-awareness serves as a prerequisite for
between self-awareness and personal change, establishing measurable goals.
according to the passage? (c) Self-awareness is irrelevant to the process of
(a) Self-awareness is a byproduct of successful personal development.
change. (d) Self-awareness often leads to an unrealistic
perception of personal deficits.
Passage (Q.7-Q.12): Using robotic surgery for major abdominal operations leads to quicker recovery and reduced time
in the hospital, according to a study by British researchers. Before visions of frightening science fiction start dancing
around your brain, you should know that humans are still at the controls in these procedures. Robotics is simply a more
precise way to minimize invasion, which makes for quicker healing. The researchers reported that robotic surgery, which
involves surgeons guiding minimally invasive instruments remotely, reduces the chance of re-admission to the hospital
by 52 percent. They also wrote that robotics reduced the chance of blood clots by 77 percent.
The researchers said their findings challenged the idea that traditional “open” surgery is the “gold standard” for major
operations. The study participants’ physical activity, which was tracked by a wearable smart sensor, showed stamina and
quality of life also increased. Experts note that less-invasive robotic procedures can mean less pain during recovery, which
means less pain medication. “The decreased pain means a decreased need for narcotics,” said Dr. Bethany Malone, a
private practice colon and rectal surgeon in Fort Worth, Texas, who specializes in robotic surgery. “For procedures like
inguinal hernia repair, I often send patients home on over-the-counter medications like Tylenol or ibuprofen,” Malone
told Healthline. “Given the recent opioid pandemic, this is a huge win for the healthcare system. The improved recovery
times also translate (____) a shorter length (____) stay.”
“After robotic colon surgery, patients often go home the first or second day after surgery. With open surgery, patients
would often stay 5 to 7 days in the hospital after surgery,” she added. “There are even centers that are performing
outpatient robotic colectomies where patients are going home the same day as their colon operation,” “The scarring after
robotic surgery is also minimal given the size of the trocars, so patients are able to wear bathing suits without having to
feel self-conscious or having to be reminded of whatever reason they had to require an operation,” Malone noted.

7. Before visions of frightening science fiction start 10. The passage is an answer to which of the following
dancing around your brain, you should know that question?
humans are still at the controls in these procedures. (a) Is robotics the future?
What concern does the author tries to ease through the (b) Does robotic surgery involve no human oversight
lines? during procedures?
(a) Robotic surgeons will be able to perform better (c) Are the surgeons equipped for robotic surgery?
surgeries as they will be devoid of human frailties. (d) Will the robotic surgery replace traditional surgery
(b) Robotic surgery does not mean an absence of in all ailments?
human surgeon while performing the surgery.
(c) Robotic surgery will dispel the need for surgeons 11. ‘The improved recovery times also translate _____ a
which will result in many surgeons becoming shorter length _____ stay.” Fill in the blanks with correct
redundant. set of the Prepositions.
(d) Robotics is simply a more precise way to minimize (a) in; at (b) to; of
invasion which makes for quicker healing. (c) in; of (d) to; at

8. Which of the following reflects the tone of the passage? 12. What is the primary purpose of Dr. Bethany Malone’s
(a) Ironical. (b) Incendiary. statement about prescribing over-the-counter
(c) Technical. (d) Mordacious. medications after robotic surgery?
(a) To highlight the overall effectiveness of robotic
9. All of the followings are the benefits of robotic surgery, surgery compared to traditional surgery.
except (b) To illustrate the potential reduction in healthcare
(a) Robotic surgery results in quicker recoveries and costs associated with robotic surgery.
fewer readmissions to the hospital. (c) To draw attention to the ongoing opioid crisis and
(b) Robotic surgery recovery leads to less pain and the need for alternative pain management
fewer pain medications. strategies.
(c) Robotic surgery is less invasive and more precise. (d) To emphasize the significance of patient
(d) The patients are embracing this brave new world satisfaction following robotic surgery.
of surgery.

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 Passage (Q.13-Q.18): Too many leaders assume that talking about ethics is something you do when there has been a
scandal, or as part of an organization's compliance program. Everyone gets their annual "ethics flu shot" in the mandatory
review of the compliance policy, and all is well for another year. Nick Eply, professor at the University of Chicago, in Four
Myths about Morality and Business, says, "It's a myth to think 'Everyone is different, and everything is relative.' You
actually have to teach people the relative value of principles relative to choices." Leaders have to infuse everyday activities
with ethical considerations and design policies and norms that keep ethics top of mind. Jonathan Haidt, Professor of
Business Ethics at NYU says, "It's important to talk about the positive examples of ethical behaviour, not just the bad ones.
Focusing on the positive reasons you are in business and reinforcing the good things people do strengthen ethical choices
as 'the norm' of the organization."
Leaders must accept they are held to higher standards than others. They must be extra vigilant about not just their
intentions, but how others might interpret their behaviour. While they cannot control every possible misinterpretation,
leaders who know their people well make careful choices in now they react to stressful situations, confront poor
performance, how political they are in the face of controversy, and how receptive they are to bad news. Above all, even in
what might be considered the smallest "white lie," ethical leaders are careful not to signal that hypocrisy is okay. As an
example, a leader may casually review an employee's presentation and provide feedback like, "I think we need to take
these two slides out - that data is inflammatory and we don't want to derail the ultimate outcome which is to convince the
budget committee to give us the resources we want." While the leader might presume he has acted in the best interest of
the group - going to bat for resources they need- the person building the presentation has just been told, "We can't tell the
entire truth because it could prevent us from getting what we want." Leaders must put themselves in the shoes of those
they lead to see what unintended messages they may be sending.
13. According to the passage, why is it important to discuss (b) The Prime Minster, while addressing a public
positive examples of ethical behaviour? meeting, compliments the departments for their
(a) To make the employees realise the necessity of contributions to the well-being of the public and
ethical behaviour. gently reminding them to keep in my mind nation’s
(b) To encourage people to make ethical choices in the health as the prime goal.
organisation. (c) Hard to prove, easy to join in on, and devastating in
(c) To attract the attention of other companies. impact, ostracization is a favourite tactic of
(d) To discourage people from making unrequired workplace aggressor.
ethical choices. (d) Focusing inward and focusing constructively on
others helps leaders cultivate the primary
14. Which of the following is the meaning of the word elements of emotional intelligence.
'compliance' as mentioned in the given passage?
(a) The act of disobeying the authority. 17. According to the passage, which of the following is the
(b) The act of obeying an order, rule or request. trait of an ethical leader?
(c) Strengthening something. (a) They are careful that hypocrisy does not become a
(d) Boasting one's abilities. trend in the organisation.
(b) They set their standards same as their employees.
15. With which of the following statement is the author (c) They talk about ethics only when it suits the
likely to agree? leaders.
(a) Role of a leader is slightly important in an (d) They keep in mind that data should not be
organisation. inflammatory.
(b) Ethical behaviour is important in an organisation.
(c) A leader needs to be apathetic towards its 18. Which of the following statements reflects a key
employees. concern highlighted in the passage about leadership
(d) Ethical behaviour is expected during times of communication?
scandal. (a) Leaders should communicate strictly factual
information to avoid ambiguity.
16. Which of the following statement is similar to the last (b) Leaders must be aware of how their feedback can
sentence of the given passage? unintentionally convey ethical messages.
(a) Police need to think like criminals as it helps to (c) Leaders should always prioritize their own
have the perspective of the criminal when intentions over the interpretations of others.
analysing possible escape routes, points of entry, (d) Leaders should only provide feedback when it is
and patterns of deception. positive to maintain morale.

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 Passage (Q.19-Q.24): Many people at times stop to consider questions such as: Who am I, what is my life’s purpose, and
what will bring me fulfilment? Are we simply the body that we come into this world with, that ages with time and withers
away after death? Are we the mind that grows astute with intellectual pursuits, only to evaporate at the time of death?
Are we the mind that grows astute with intellectual pursuits, only to evaporate at the time of death? Or is there much
more to our ‘selves’?
Spiritual awakening is the moment you begin asking these questions. It marks the start of your quest to find answers.
One way people reflect on these questions is by sitting in silence in meditation. This opens doors to help us find answers.
There is a source of wisdom within you that cannot be accessed through an internet search. It is awaiting deep within you.
Instead of logging on to the computer, you can log on to your own inner essence, soul, through meditation. The answers
are already within each and every one of us, waiting to be unlocked through the practice of meditation. This will lead you
to a source of wisdom that will enrich your life.
What is unlimited wisdom? It is not the intellectual knowledge that we learn from lectures or books; it is consciousness.
Our soul, being the same essence as God, is consciousness. It is a ‘state of knowing all that is to be known’. When we access
the divine wisdom, we reach a state of all-consciousness, one in which we know the answers to life’s mysteries and our
purpose in life. We see life as more than a string of meaningless events and find a lesson and message in all that occurs.
Those who have tapped into their soul look at life from a refreshing perspective. Rather than be tossed about on the sea
of life, dashed by every wave, they watch their life like a movie with subtitles, in which the words at the bottom of the
screen let them know what is going on at the spiritual level. Spirituality is the process of discovering our true self. We
normally think that perception is possible only through our bodily sense organs. However, when we become spiritually
aware, we recognise that we can perceive through the spirit.
19. According to the passage, what helps in getting the (b) Those who reach soul levels get the enjoy life with a
answers to the questions given in the passage? broader perspective and with multiple choices at
(a) Sitting in the presence of a guru. hand.
(b) Sitting in meditation. (c) Those who reach the inner self look at life differently
(c) To go on a journey to find the answers. and search for their role assigned to them by divinity.
(d) Researching on the internet to seek probable (d) By becoming aware of the surroundings, we find all
answers. the answers that lie in the events all around us.
20. According to the passage, what is unlimited wisdom? 22. What can be a suitable title to the above passage?
i) It is the intellectual knowledge that we learn from (a) Consciousness: an unlimited wisdom.
lectures or books. (b) Meditation and consciousness.
ii) Our consciousness, which is the soul, the essence of (c) Answers to the question.
being the same as God. (d) Life from a fresh perspective.
iii) A state of all-consciousness, one in which we know
the answers to life’s mysteries and our purpose in 23. Which of the following is not the synonym of the word
life. ‘astute’?
(a) Only I (b) Only ii (a) Sagacious. (b) Ingenious.
(c) ii & iii but not I (d) All of the above. (c) Perspicacious. (d) Imbecile.

21. “Those who have tapped into their soul look at life from 24. The passage implies that the source of wisdom people
a refreshing perspective. Rather than be tossed about seek is:
on the sea of life, dashed by every wave, they watch (a) Primarily found through academic studies and
their life like a movie with subtitles, in which the words knowledge acquisition.
at the bottom of the screen let them know what is going (b) Accessible through the practice of meditation and
on at the spiritual level.” What can be inferred from the self-reflection.
given sentences? (c) Best discovered through discussions with
(a) By becoming aware of our consciousness, we spiritual leaders.
become aware and play a more active and (d) Limited to the experiences gained from life
meaningful role in life rather than merely seeing life events.
go by.

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 SECTION-B : GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

Passage (Q.25-Q.30) Women Reservation Act 2023

Parliament has passed the Constitution [X] Bill, 2023 which seeks to reserve one-third of the total number of seats for
women in Lok Sabha, State Legislative Assemblies and Delhi Assembly. The Women’s Reservation Bill which is called as
Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam was approved by the Rajya Sabha yesterday after a division of vote in which 214 members
voted in favour of the Bill while none voted against it. The Lok Sabha has already given its nod to the Bill.
In his remarks in the Rajya Sabha, Prime Minister Narendra Modi has said that a positive discussion took place over the
Women’s Reservation Bill and a total of 132 members of both houses of Parliament took part in the discussion. He thanked
all the members for their support to this legislation. The Prime Minister said that this bill will lead to a new confidence in
the people of the country and it also shows the positive thinking of all the political parties which will give a new energy to
women's empowerment.
https://www.newsonair.gov.in/
25. What has been redacted by [X] in this passage? 28. How many seats are reserved for Scheduled Tribes in
(a) One Hundred and Thirty -Eighth Amendment the Lok Sabha under Article 330A of the Indian
(b) One Hundred and Fourty-Eighth Amendment Constitution?
(c) One Hundred and Sixty -Eighth Amendment (a) 40 (b) 45
(d) One Hundred and Twenty-Eighth Amendment (c) 47 (d) 50
26. Which of the following is the official name of the 29. How many times has the Delimitation Commission
Women Reservation Act 2023 in Hindi? been constituted in India?
(a) Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam 2023 (a) Three times (b) Four times
(b) Nari Shakti Samman Adhiniyam 2023 (c) Five times (d) Six times
(c) Nari Shakti Vikas Adhiniyam 2023
(d) Nari Shakti Suraksha Adhiniyam 2023 30. As from the date of commencement of the
Constitution_______, the Union territory of Delhi shall
27. How long is the reservation for women, as per the be called the National Capital Territory of Delhi.
Women’s Reservation Bill 2023, intended to last (a) Seventy-ninth Amendment Act, 1992
initially? (b) Fifty-ninth Amendment Act, 1993
(a) 5 years (b) 10 years (c) Sixty-ninth Amendment Act, 1991
(c) 15 years (d) 20 years (d) Fourty-ninth Amendment Act, 1990
Passage (Q.31-Q.35): CAR-T Cell Therapy
Chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) T-cell therapy is a way to get immune cells called T cells (a type of white blood cell) to
fight cancer by changing them in the lab so they can find and destroy cancer cells. CAR T-cell therapy is also sometimes
talked about as a type of cell-based gene therapy, because it involves altering the genes inside T cells to help them attack
the cancer.
This type of treatment can be very helpful in treating some types of cancer, even when other treatments are no longer
working.
The immune system recognizes foreign substances in the body by finding proteins called antigens on the surface of those
cells. Immune cells called T cells have their own proteins called receptors that attach to foreign antigens and help trigger
other parts of the immune system to destroy the foreign substance.
The relationship between antigens and immune receptors is like a lock and key. Just as a lock can only be opened with the
right key, each foreign antigen has a unique immune receptor that is able to bind to it.
Cancer cells also have antigens, but if your immune cells don't have the right receptors, they can't attach to the antigens
and help destroy the cancer cells.
https://www.cancer.org
31. CAR T-cell therapies are approved by the _______to 32. Consider the following statements:
treat some kinds of lymphomas and leukemias, as well I. In CAR T-cell therapies, T cells are taken from the
as multiple myeloma. patient's blood and are not changed in the lab by
(a) Singapore Food and Drug Administration (FDA) adding a gene for a receptor (called a chimeric
(b) India Food and Drug Administration (FDA) antigen receptor or CAR), which helps the T cells
(c) US Food and Drug Administration (FDA) attach to a specific cancer cell antigen.
(d) UAE Food and Drug Administration (FDA) II. Since different cancers have different antigens,
each CAR is made for a specific cancer's antigen.
(a) Only I is correct. (b) Both I & II are incorrect.
(c) Only II is correct. (d) Both I & II are correct.

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33. Which of the following is/are the example/s of 34. What is the main purpose of CAR T-cell therapy?
approved CAR T-cell therapies? (a) To remove cancer cells from the body
(a) Tisagenlecleucel, also known as tisa-cel (Kymriah) (b) To alter T cells to attach to specific cancer cell
(b) Axicabtagene ciloleucel, also known as axi-cel antigens
(Yescarta) (c) To replace damaged T cells with healthy ones
(c) Brexucabtagene autoleucel, also known as brexu- (d) To prevent the development of cancer in the body
cel (Tecartus)
(d) All three example of CAR T-cell therapies are 35. Who out of the following is the Present Union Minister
approved. of Health and Family Welfare?
(a) Kiren Rijiju (b) Dr. Jitendra Singh
(c) JP Nadda (d) Bhupendra yadav
Passage (Q.36-Q.40): Bharat NCAP
The Tata Safari and Tata Harrier achieved a top star rating for adult and child occupants showing a stable structure and
robust restraint systems strategy which offered good protection in our tests. Both models showed full protection for child
occupants in the dynamic tests. Both are fitted with ISOFIX anchorages, and a passenger airbag disabling switch, making
them very versatile for transporting child occupants. The Safari and Harrier also meet requirements of UN127 and GTR9
for pedestrian protection as standard. The models also comply with Global NCAP’s ESC requirements, with seatbelt
reminders in all seating positions and offer optional ADAS technologies. Alejandro Furas, Global NCAP Secretary General
said, “Global NCAP congratulates Tata on the five star twin model rating for the Safari and Harrier. This very strong result,
the top adult and child safety score in our testing to date, confirms the manufacturer’s strong commitment to developing
safer vehicles which we warmly welcome and applaud.” David Ward, President of the Towards Zero Foundation said, “It
is very satisfying to see Tata’s continuing commitment to high levels of safety performance. The top scoring result for the
Safari and Harrier demonstrates an encouraging safety trend that we are confident will continue across the Indian
automotive industry as Global NCAP’s testing transitions to the work of Bharat NCAP.”
36. What is the speed at which the frontal crash test is (c) New Crash Avoidance Protocol
conducted under Bharat NCAP protocols as of 2023? (d) National Collision Avoidance Policy
(a) 40km/h (b) 50km/h
(c) 64km/h (d) 80km/h 39. In the Latin NCAP and Global NCAP car-to-car
campaign, what type of safety rating did the Peugeot
37. Who out of the following has launched the Bharat Partner Patagónica receive in 2023?
NCAP, India’s own crash safety rating system? (a) 4 stars (b) 3 stars
(a) Suresh Prabhu (b) Piyush goyal (c) 2 stars (d) 0 stars
(c) Dr. Harshavardhan (d) Nitin Gadkari
40. In which of the following year did Global NCAP initiate
38. In the context of global crash test protocols, what does its "#SaferCarsForAfrica" campaign to assess and
the term "NCAP" stand for? promote vehicle safety in African markets?
(a) New Car Assessment Program (a) 2022 (b) 2013
(b) Non-Collapsible Automobile Platform (c) 2017 (d) 2020
Passage (Q.41-Q.46): FCRA Part
The Fair Credit Reporting Act (FCRA), Public Law No. 91-508, was enacted in [X] to promote accuracy, fairness, and the
privacy of personal information assembled by Credit Reporting Agencies (CRAs).
CRAs assemble reports on individuals for businesses, including credit card companies, banks, employers, landlords, and
others. The FCRA provides important protections for credit reports, consumer investigatory reports, and employment
background checks. The FCRA is a complex statute that has been significantly altered since [X] by Congress and the courts.
The Act’s primary protection requires that CRAs follow “reasonable procedures” to protect the confidentiality, accuracy,
and relevance of credit information. To do so, the FCRA establishes a framework of Fair Information Practices for personal
information that include rights of data quality (right to access and correct), data security, use limitations, requirements
for data destruction, notice, user participation (consent), and accountability.
The Federal Trade Commission (FTC) issues commentaries on the statute, but does not engage in rulemaking for the FCRA.
The FCRA was passed to address a growing credit reporting industry in the United States that compiled “consumer credit
reports” and “investigative consumer reports” on individuals. The FCRA was the first federal law to regulate the use of
personal information by private businesses.
The first major credit reporting agency, Retail Credit Co, was started in [a]. Over the years, Retail Credit purchased
smaller CRAs and expanded its business into selling reports to insurers and employers.

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41. What has been redacted by [X] in this passage? 44. Where is headquarter of the Federal Trade
(a) 1989 (b) 1977 Commission located?
(c) 1970 (d) 1969 (a) Paris (b) Washington, DC
(c) Geneva (d) New York
42. Consider the following statements about the FCRA:
I. The FCRA is a complex statute that has been 45. The first major credit reporting agency, Retail Credit
significantly altered since 1980 by Congress and Co, was started in which of the following year?
the courts. (a) 1892 (b) 1907
II. The Act’s primary protection requires that CRAs (c) 1899 (d) 1932
follow “reasonable procedures” to protect the
confidentiality, accuracy, and relevance of credit 46. How did the 2020 amendments of the FCRA affect
information. administrative spending by nonprofits?
(a) Only I is correct. (b) Both I & II are incorrect. (a) They allowed nonprofits to spend more on
(c) Only II is correct. (d) Both I & II are correct. administrative activities.
(b) They imposed no changes on administrative
43. The FCRA was passed to address a growing credit spending.
reporting industry in the ______that compiled (c) They set a stricter limit on the amount that can be
“consumer credit reports” and “investigative spent on administrative purposes.
consumer reports” on individuals. (d) They removed any restrictions on administrative
(a) United States (b) France spending.
(c) Russia (d) Ukraine
Passage (Q.47-Q.52): Sutlej - Yamuna Link Canal Dispute
"They must have sought directions from the AAP Govt before the hearing in which they conveyed that they were willing
to construct the SYL canal but the opposition and farmers didn't let them do the same." "The Punjab Congress will also
stage a peaceful protest in front of the residence of the Punjab CM. However, he has already disappointed the Punjabis in
the SC. Punjab CM has already sold his conscience," he added. Shiromani Akali Dal (SAD) chief Sukhbir Singh Badal on
Saturday appealed to Punjabis not to allow any central team wanting to conduct a survey for SYL canal land to enter the
state. Speaking on the issue, Haryana BJP MLA Ram Bilas Sharma said, “BJP has always supported the demand of farmers
of southern Haryana for the release of water. Several districts of Haryana such as Bhiwani, Mahendergarh,
Rewari and others have been devastated due to scarcity of water for irrigation purposes.” The SYL canal issue has been a
bone of contention between Punjab and Haryana for the past several years. The Congress workers also protested about
the issue on Monday, declaring they will not allow a single drop of water from Punjab to flow to any other state and that
they will also not allow the canal to be built.
47. Which of the following principle does Punjab invoke (c) 5 years (d) 10 years
to deny sharing water with Haryana?
(a) Riparian (b) Equitable 51. What constitutional provision authorizes Parliament
(c) Harmonious (d) Sustainable to address conflicts related to inter-State river waters,
leading to the enactment of the Inter-State River
48. Which out of the following treaty between India and Water Disputes Act, 1956?
Pakistan allowed India to use the waters of Ravi, Beas (a) Article 306(b) (b) Article 262(1)
and Sutlej? (c) Article 201 (d) Article 184(1)
(a) Beas Water Treaty (b) Indus Water Treaty
(c) Sutlej Water Treaty (d) Karachi Treaty 52. Consider the following statements about the Satluj-
Yamuna Link (SYL):
49. In which of the following year did the Punjab I. The act annulled all inter-state agreements for
Assembly pass the legislation that led to the sharing the waters of the Ravi and Beas rivers.
termination of water-sharing agreements, particularly II. The Supreme Court held the act
impacted the construction of the Sutlej-Yamuna Link "unconstitutional" in 2022, stating that the state
canal? could not unilaterally abrogate the water-sharing
(a) 1998 (b) 2001 pact.
(c) 2004 (d) 2010 (a) Both I & II are correct.
(b) Only I is correct.
50. What is the maximum time limit set for an Inter-State (c) Both I & II are incorrect.
River Water Disputes Tribunal to submit its report (d) Only II is correct.
after the reference is made?
(a) 1 year (b) 3 years

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 SECTION-C : LEGAL REASONING

Passage (Q.53-Q.57): The Supreme Court dismissed the appeal filed by Loop Telecom and Trading Limited assailing the
decision of TDSAT of dismissing their pleas seeking refund of Entry Fee of Rs 1454.94 crores paid for grant of Unified
Access Service Licenses.
The bench of Justices DY Chandrachud, Surya Kant and Vikram Nath observed that Loop Telecom was in pari delicto with
the Department of Telecom and the then officials of the Union government and that they were beneficiary of the ―First
Come First Serve policy which was intended to favour a group of private bidding entities at the cost of the public
exchequer.
On 2 February 2012, the Supreme Court Court by its judgment in Centre for Public Interest Litigation v. Union of
India declared that the policy of the Union government for allocation of 2G spectrum on a ―First Come First Serve basis
was illegal. The judgement resulted in quashing of the UASL's granted by the Union.
Referring to Section 65 of Indian Contract Act, 1872 court observed that in adjudicating a claim of restitution, the court
must determine the illegality which caused the contract to become void and the role the party claiming restitution has
played in it. If the party claiming restitution was equally or more responsible for the illegality (in comparison to the
defendant), there shall be no cause for restitution. (Para 52)
Indian Contract Act, 1872 - Section 56 - Doctrine of Frustration discussed - The applicability of Section 56 of the Indian
Contract Act is not limited to cases of physical impossibility. The doctrine of frustration states that frustration occurs
when an unforeseen event renders performance of a contract impossible or radically different from that originally
contemplated by the parties. No party is considered at fault.
If a contract is found to be frustrated, it is automatically terminated. All future obligations of the parties to the contract
are discharged.
53. The passage in Para 2 gives reference to an observation 55. Continuing with the same scenario as above, what if
made by the court in the present case. It was observed Shyamlal used to bribe the municipality for not
that Loop Telecom was in pari delicto with the examining his items on specific occasions under the
Department of Telecom. What is meant by the guise of tax? Can Shyamlal later allege that he was
expression “in pari delicto”? wrongfully charged an additional tax every time he
(a) A contract by which one party promises the other enters the province?
party to save from loss which may be caused either (a) No, he cannot claim so as he was in pari dalicto
by the conduct of the promissor or by the conduct with the municipality.
of any other person. (b) Yes, he can because he was charged an additional
(b) Both the parties being equally or more responsible tax for entering the province.
for making the contract frustrated. (c) No, he cannot claim that he was charged extra
(c) Loop telecom was equally responsible for the because he bribed the authorities under the
illegality. pretence of tax.
(d) Both parties were equally responsible for the (d) No, he cannot be charged extra because it is against
illegalities. the law.
54. Shyamlal used to deliver freshly baked bread 56. CodeALFA had agreed to construct tunnels for the rail
throughout the province of Hogwarts. He used to pay authority on the premise that works be done 24 hours
octroi, a tax levied by the municipality to enter their a day, seven days a week in order to complete the work
territory, at the entry. Shyamlal used to pay the entry on schedule. Residents' noise complaints resulted in an
tax every time he entered the province for which injunction from court that limited labour hours. The
receipt is given, until he discovered that municipalities rail authority refused to pay the increased fees,
were illegally charging shyamlal. Octroi is collected claiming that CodeALFA had not followed the terms of
only when a person enters the province with goods. the contract. Decide
Shyamlal files a claim for monetary reparation. Decide (a) The contract stands frustrated as the contract
(a) Shyamlal will succeed as he was illegally charged became impossible to perform.
extra tax. (b) The contract do not stands frustrated as it is not
(b) Shyamlal will succeed as in the present case the limited to the cases of physical impossibility.
party claiming restitution was not responsible for (c) The contract stands frustrated because of a
the illegality. foreseen event.
(c) Shyamlal will not succeed as he was in pari dalicto (d) The contract does not stand frustrated merely
with the municipality. because one party is not able to perform the
(d) Shyamlal will not succeed as he has no contract contract.
with the municipality.

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57. Simran used trivago app to purchase an "All in one (a) The contract has been frustrated because the
travel and seating package" in order to attend a BTS common purpose of both parties has been
concert organized by trivago. This allows her to a one- destroyed.
day return train ticket from Bhopal to Delhi, as well as (b) The contract has been frustrated on grounds of
a front-row seat to the concert. Unfortunately, the common mistake.
event was cancelled due to the rise of a warlike (c) Warlike situation terminates the contract and no
situation between India and China. Simran claims that party is considered at fault.
her contract with trivago was frustrated. Which of the (d) The contract is not frustrated as Simran can still
following assertions is more likely to be adopted by travel to Delhi.
the court in determining the legal position
between Simran and Trivago?
Passage (Q.58-Q.62): While explaining that to prove an offence under Section 306, the Prosecution must satisfy the
ingredients of Section 107 first, Justice Sandeep N Bhatt of the Gujarat High Court refused to interfere with the impugned
judgement and quash the order of acquittal. While doing so, the Bench delved into the terms 'abetment' and 'instigation'
under Sections 306 and 107 of the IPC, at length.
Section 306 of the Indian Penal Code defines 'Abetment of suicide' as an offence punishable under this code. If any person
commits suicide, whoever abets the commission of such suicide, shall be punished with imprisonment of either
description for a term which may extend to ten years, and shall also be liable to fine.
S. 107 Abetment of a thing.—A person abets the doing of a thing, who—
(First) — Instigates any person to do that thing; or
(Secondly) —Engages with one or more other person or persons in any conspiracy for the doing of that thing, if an act or
illegal omission takes place in pursuance of that conspiracy, and in order to the doing of that thing; or
(Thirdly) — Intentionally aids, by any act or illegal omission, the doing of that thing. Explanation 1.—A person who, by
wilful misrepresentation, or by wilful concealment of a material fact which he is bound to disclose, voluntarily causes or
procures, or attempts to cause or procure, a thing to be done, is said to instigate the doing of that thing.
It cannot be said that the abusive language, which had been used by the appellant on 25.07.1998 drove the deceased to
commit suicide. Additionally, the Court referred to Ramesh Babulal Doshi vs. State of Gujarat (1996) 9 SCC 225) to affirm
that the Appellate Court cannot substitute its own view by reversing the acquittal into conviction and this is a cardinal
principal of criminal jurisprudence. (1996) 9 SCC 225) Ramesh Babulal Doshi V. State of Gujarat.
"When the trial Court renders its decision by acquitting the accused, presumption of innocence gathers strength before
the Appellate Court. As a consequence, the onus on the prosecution becomes more burdensome as there is a double
presumption of innocence."
Accordingly, the Bench dismissed the Appeal.
(SOURCE: Prosecution Must Satisfy Section 107 Requirements To Prove An Offence Under Section 306 Of IPC: Gujarat
High Court)
58. Chavi was well aware that Radha was madly in love 59. Sanju is a well-known Bollywood actor from the 1990s.
with him and will do everything he ask. They took a He met Jim at a private party, and there he introduced
short trip to Lonavala one time. On the way, Chavi Sanju to the world of drugs. Sanju was also going
asked Radha what crazy things she could do in love, and through a rough patch in his life, so he turned to drugs
Radha replied, "If you ask me to jump down a hill, I'll do for solace. Sanju was sent to rehab after his father
that for you." When Chavi reached the top, he became concerned that his son had become an addict.
inadvertently asked Radha to jump in a funny way. Doctors warned Sanju that if he didn't quit, he would
Radha took a leap. Is Chavi liable under Section 306 of die. Jim secretly went to the rehab Centre and gave
the IPC? Sanju the drug in the form of a brownie. Sanju died as a
(a) There was no intention on part of Chavi, hence, not result of a drug overdose. What crime will Jim be
liable. charged with?
(b) First condition of S. 107 attracts Chavi’s liability (a) Jim will be charged under Section 306 read in
under section 306. conjunction with Section 107 of the IPC.
(c) Chavi abetted Radha to jump down the hill, hence (b) Jim will be charged with instigating, aiding and
liable. abetting under Section 107 of the IPC.
(d) Chavi will be held liable if prosecution satisfies the (c) Jim will not face any charges because all he did was
ingredients of Section 107 first. start giving Sanju some drugs.
(d) Jim will not be held liable because he was unaware
of Sanju's critical condition.

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60. Government of India launched a helpline number for Appellate Court. As a consequence, the onus on the
those who suffered from severe anxiety and depression prosecution becomes more burdensome as there is a
the term of COVID. Rahul feeling anxious and double presumption of innocence." Which other
depressed one day as he was living alone for a period presumption of innocence is referred to by the court?
of 8 month and had no one to take care called the (a) There shall be no such presumption of innocence
helpline. He asked for help as he was having suicide once a person is convicted by a trial court.
thoughts and needed to talk to someone. Talking to (b) An accused is innocent until proven guilty.
helpline assistant did not helped and even escalated (c) An accused is guilty until proven innocent.
the situation to worse by stating that you are of no use, (d) Presumption of innocence.
you should die. Rahul tried committing suicide by
drinking a bottle of whitener placed on his study table 62. Assertion: To prove an offence under Section 306, the
and died. Decide who will be held liable? ingredients of Section 306 and Section 107 must be
(a) Helpline assistant will be held liable for instigating considered because they are not mutually exclusive
rahul to take such decision. events.
(b) Rahul will be held liable if the attempt was not Reason: Prosecution Must Satisfy Section 107
successful. Requirements To Prove An Offence Under Section 306
(c) Can’t be determined. Of IPC.
(d) Government will held vicariously liable for the acts (a) Both A and R are true but R is not correct
of his servants in instigating rahul to attempt explanation of A.
suicide. (b) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation
of A.
61. Author mentions in its last Para that “When the trial (c) A is true but R is false.
Court renders its decision by acquitting the accused, (d) A is false but R is true.
presumption of innocence gathers strength before the
Passage (Q.63.-Q.67): Many a times, especially in defamation cases the identity of an anonymous person posting a
comment as a blog, become a crucial question. In Independent Newspaper Inc. v. Brodie, the court of Maryland held that
the court can direct the disclosure of details about the anonymous person subject to the following conditions: i).
Reasonable notice has been given to the anonymous person that his identity was being requested by the plaintiff. ii). Such
person has been given sufficient time to oppose disclosure of details. iii). Alleged defamatory statement has been specified
in the notice. iv). There is a prima facie case; and v). It has been proved that balance of convenience lies in favour of
disclosure of his identity. In India, the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 empowers the police to call for records from
telephone companies and Internet service Providers (ISPs) to identify the person who has made a transaction; and obtain
his log information content contained in an e-mail/ chat account and IP address details. In civil cases, courts can issue
notices to such ISPs directing them to submit the required information. Normally, Internet Service Providers will not
entertain direct request for disclosure of identity of a person, and even if the complaint is made against a fake blog or
impersonating profile on website, an Internet Service Provider in whose favour balance of convenience lies will at most
block the subject page from access but do not reveal the person who created it.
(Source:https://www.bhu.ac.in/law/blj/Banaras%20Law%20Journal%20%202015%20Vol%2044%20No.%202.pdf)
63. Assertion: Courts have wrestled with producing an his “Virat Roop” from the “early 2000s” to “tame”
appropriate standard for revealing the identity of an Banerjee in Bengal, sparking anger among some
anonymous blogger who posts allegedly defamatory Twitter users, who asked the US-based platform to take
material on a message board or website. action. The referenced account has been suspended for
Reason: The standard created is far too sympathetic to repeated violations of Twitter Rules specifically our
anonymous bloggers and fails to address important Hateful Conduct policy and Abusive Behavior policy.
issues facing victims of defamation. Will the anonymous individual have any redress
(a) Both A and R are true but R is not correct against the internet service provider's arbitrary
explanation of A. action?
(b) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation (a) No, since the internet service provider blocked the
of A. user's account after receiving a complaint.
(c) A is true but R is false. (b) Yes, because no notice was provided to the
(d) A is false but R is true. anonymous individual and sufficient time for them
to object to the disclosure of details.
64. An anonymous individual had tweeted on alleged (c) No, since there is a prima facie case of slander.
violence in the state following Banerjee-led All India (d) Yes, because the balance of convenience favors
Trinamool Congress’ assembly election victory. In the disclosing his identify.
tweet, the person urged Prime Minister Modi to show

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65. A criminal complaint has been filed against an (b) The action taken against Meera is
anonymous commenter who has commented on every not inappropriate because the internet service
social media post by JJP leader Shri Modi. The provider has the right to directly block the user in
complainant considers the accused's statements such such cases.
as "chowkidaar chor hai," "choron ka sardar," and (c) The action taken against Meera is unjust since she
"Commander-in-Thief" to be defamatory to the whole was not served with the notice.
political party and has thus attempted to prosecute the (d) The action taken against Meera is inappropriate
anonymous commenter under Section 500 of the as an internet service provider cannot unilaterally
Indian Penal Code. Decide block a user's account.
(a) The court will order for disclosure of information
about the anonymous individual. 67. Chetna, is the winner of an MTV entertainment show,
(b) The Internet service provider must provide the India's next top model. Her reputation skyrocketed
necessary information on the anonymous user after she was seen in the city whilst handing food packs
who submitted defamatory comments. to the needy. Fans admired the actress's compassion
(c) The Internet service provider must give enough and gratitude towards other humans. Dheeraj, the
notice and opportunity to anonymous camera guy for Etv, a programme that provides
person defends his case before blocking his frequent updates on the entertainment industry, used
account. to write her current location in the comment section of
(d) The police may request the disclosure of her Instagram account from his fake account, so that
information about the anonymous individual. her followers could reach her. This became a major
issue for the actress after a while, since she is now
66. Meera writes a regular blog, most of which are political being followed by creeps and stalkers on a regular
in nature. The topic revolves around the lack of basis. The actress filed a criminal complaint against the
government responses to queer people, who are fake account. In the current situation what will be the
constantly denied basic rights. Who always have to next resource of law enforcement agencies?
battle for their basic rights as a form of equality. The (a) Dheeraj's bogus account might be directly blocked
gay community accused Meera of defamation, claiming by the Internet service provider.
that the material is targeted at laymen and that (b) The court will issue an order requiring the Internet
amongst them they are a disadvantaged community service provider to reveal the identification of the
that would remain such as neither the government nor accused.
the law-making agencies are interested in elevating the (c) The police will request that the Internet service
position of queer people in society. Meera's blog was provider supply the essential information on the
blocked and deleted without even notifying her. Decide offender so that the investigation may proceed.
(a) The action taken against Meera was unjust since (d) The police can immediately request information on
she was not given a fair chance to defend herself. the accused from the Internet service provider.
Passage (Q.68–Q.73): Coercion is committing, or threatening to commit, any act forbidden by the Indian Penal Code
(Section 45 of 1860), by the unlawful detaining, or threatening to detain, any property, to the prejudice of any person
whatever, with the intention of causing any person to enter into an agreement. The words in this segment are significantly
more extensive which existed amid the English authorities. This definition expresses that the coercion which refutes a
contract ought to not really go from a gathering to an agreement, or ought to be quick against a man whom it was proposed
to cause to go into a contract or anything which influences his property.
There are certain words in this section that needs to be defined:
 Act forbidden by IPC- The word act forbidden by Indian Penal Code make it necessary for the court to decide in a civil
action, whether the alleged act of coercion is such as to amount to an offence. It is clear that coercion is committing
or threatening to commit any act which is contrary to law.
 Unlawful Detaining of Property: A consent can be said to be caused by coercion, if it is caused because of unlawful
confining of a property, or a risk to do as such.
 Prejudice- Mere sentimental prejudice is no ground for coercion rather there should be some legal injury in order to
be prejudiced.
 Causing any person to enter into an agreement- In the case of Vibha Mehta v Hotel Marina at the point when coercion
is charged, the claim like extortion or distortion must be upheld by particulars. It is simply after entire particulars of
the affirmed coercion are given that the court can ask into it and choose whether it stands demonstrated or not.

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68. Vidya wanted to purchase a vehicle from her friend (c) No, since the jewellery was given out of Gayatri’s
Sugandha for some time now. While the prices were own accord, there is no coercion and the claim will
being negotiated, Sugandha said that this is the best fail in the court of law.
price Vidya can get this vehicle for. On being inquired (d) Yes, theft is an offence punishable under IPC and
whether this vehicle is in a perfect condition Sugandha, therefore Gayatri’s claim will survive in the court
without any doubt said that this vehicle is as good as of law.
new. Also knowing that Vidya believed a lot on
astrology, Sugandha took benefit of this fact and stated 70. After a few days, Pooja came back and told Gayatri that
that this vehicle brings great prosperity in the house of she would not return her jewellery unless Gayatri
those who take care of it and brings turmoil to those agrees to give one of her jewellery to Pooja as a gift
who say anything bad about it. After heavy insistence (although she gave Gayatri the choice to select which
by Sugandha and on representations made by her, jewellery she wants to gift Pooja). Gayatri gives Pooja
Vidya agreed to purchase the vehicle for the price the cheapest jewellery and Pooja also returns the other
quoted by Sugandha. Next day, she met with an jewels to Gayatri. Gayatri later brings a claim for
accident while driving the vehicle and also found out coercion against Pooja to fetch the one jewellery that
that this vehicle had some latent issues which were not she gifted Pooja. Can she re-claim the gifted jewellery
disclosed by Sugandha at that time. Vidya brings a on the premise of coercion?
claim against Sugandha for coercion. Will her claim (a) No, the jewellery were given as a gift and therefore
succeed? there is no coercion committed by Pooja.
(a) Yes, there was heavy insistence by Sugandha on (b) No, despite the jewellery being given by initial
Vidya to purchase the vehicle and therefore Vidya’s threats, however, the choice as to which jewellery
claim will succeed. to be gifted vested with Gayatri.
(b) Yes, Sugandha took unfair advantage of the belief (c) No, there was no actual threat to life and limb of
of Vidya into astrology and misled her to purchase Gayatri or her acquaintances and Pooja cannot
the vehicle. reclaim the gifted jewellery.
(c) No, Vidya herself failed to conduct the requisite (d) Yes, there was detaining of jewellery by Pooja to
due diligence before purchasing the vehicle. compel Gayatri to gift her the jewellery and
(d) No, there was no actual committing or threatening therefore there is coercion.
to commit any act forbidden by law and thus no 71. Which of the following statements are correct?
coercion is involved in the whole transaction. I. Intention plays a vital role in determining whether
69. In Gayatri’s locality, the news of theft had been coercion has been committed or not.
becoming rampant. Her neighbour, Pooja came to her II. Coercion affects the validity of the contract as it
house one day and told her about the new locker she affects free consent.
bought which no thief can ever break and if Gayatri III. Act punishable by IPC should be based on a civil
wishes, she can also keep her jewellery in her locker wrong.
and can take it whenever she wants. Based on these (a) All I, II and III are correct.
representations and to secure her jewels, she gave (b) Only I and II are correct.
them to Pooja for safe-keeping. After a week, it came to (c) Only II and III are correct.
Gayatri’s knowledge that Pooja had fled with her (d) Only I and III are correct.
jewellery and now she wants to bring a claim against 72. Ritesh, a 10-year-old wanted to purchase a new bicycle
her family and to secure her jewels, she gave them to as all his peers were in possession of the new bicycles.
Pooja for safe-keeping. After a week, it came to One day, he threatened his parents to buy him a bicycle
Gayatri’s knowledge that Pooja had fled with her otherwise he will commit suicide. Frightened by the
jewellery and now she wants to bring a claim against threats of Ritesh his family agreed to buy the same.
her family for the coercion committed by Pooja (as However, they later refused once they caught hold of
theft is an offence punishable under IPC). Is her claim Ritesh. Has Ritesh exercised coercion?
likely to succeed in a court of law? (a) No, threat to commit suicide is not an offence
(a) No, the element of threat or actual committing of under IPC and therefore no coercion is committed
an offence or detaining in order to compel to enter by Ritesh.
into a contract is missing in this case and hence, no (b) Yes, there was threat to commit suicide and
coercion has been committed. therefore Ritesh is liable for coercion.
(b) Yes, there is detaining of property which led to (c) No, Ritesh is a minor and no minor can be made
wrongful loss to Gayatri and therefore coercion has liable for an offence under IPC.
been committed against Gayatri. (d) Yes, Ritesh used illegal means to enter into
contract and therefore committed coercion.

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73. During the proceedings, it was highlighted that Ritesh (b) No, since parents firmly believed that there is a
was known to make false threats in order to get his likelihood of the commission of the offence
work done which everybody was aware including his therefore coercion can be invoked.
parents. However, the parents didn't want to negate (c) Yes, as crying wolf amounts to bad precedents for
the possibility of actual commission. Will this fact Ritesh and this would influence his veracity in the
influence the contract? court of law.
(a) Yes, since the parents were already aware that (d) No, since threatening to commit suicide is an
Ritesh only makes false claims there was no actual offence punishable under IPC, the act of compelling
threat and therefore no coercion was committed. to buy a bicycle will amount to coercion.
Passage (Q.74-Q.78): A contract is said to be discharged by performance when both the parties perform all the primary
obligations, both express and implied, which are set out under the contract. The obligation is considered performed only
if the performance complies with the standard of performance required. A failure to do so constitutes a breach. Various
High Courts while interpreting Section 37 held that the proviso to it maintains that the promise binds the representatives.
In the case of BasantiBai v. Prafulla Kumar Routra, Cuttack High Court held that if the contract is legal, and enforceable,
then even if one of the parties to the contract dies leaving no legal heir, the persons, who acquire interest over the subject
matter of the contract through that deceased party would be bound by the contract and specific performance can be
enforced against such persons. Additionally, when no time for performance is specified in the contract, it must be done
within a reasonable time. Unreasonably long delay cannot be regarded as reasonable. In a contract wherein the date of
performance is fixed, it must be performed during the usual business hours of the day and at the place where such a
performance ought to be performed. When a promise has to be performed within a certain time, it must be performed on
any day before the lapse of that time. If the promisor brings the goods after the business hours and they are not received,
it cannot be said that the promise has been performed. When a promise is to be performed and no place is fixed, it is the
duty of the promisor to apply to the promisee to appoint a reasonable place for the performance of the promise, and to
perform it at such a place. Therefore, the time and manner of performance of any promise can be sanctioned by the
promisee.
74. W was a wool clothing retailer. He took the decision to items after business hours and they are not
buy ready-made clothing from V, the manufacturer. A accepted.
twenty lakh rupee supply of woolen clothing was (b) When there is no deadline for completion in the
required under the deal. There was no mention of the contract, it must be completed within a reasonable
time or date. It was expected that it would be delivered amount of time. An excessively long delay cannot
in a timely manner. Although October had arrived, V be rationalized.
had not yet finished the shipment. W asked him to (c) When both parties execute all of the primary
provide at least half of the agreed-upon shipment, but obligations outlined in the contract, both express
in vain. In March, V supplied the finished goods. He was and implicit, the agreement is said to be discharged
sued by W for contract violation. Identify the veracity by performance.
of his assertion? (d) If the contract is valid and enforceable, then even if
(a) Since V delayed the delivery and the deadline one of the parties passes away without leaving a
window had already expired, he will be held liable legal heir, the people who gain through the
for contract violation. deceased party would be liable under the terms of
(b) V shall not be guilty for any violation since the the agreement, and specific performance could be
deadline for the shipment of the merchandise was obtained against them.
uncertain.
(c) Given that the delivery of the items was delayed by 76. For the supply of milk powder, D and F entered into an
an excessively extended period of time, V will be agreement. Within the last day of October, F was
accountable for breach of contract. scheduled to deliver the consignment. Five days prior
(d) V will not be made liable for the delay because, to the deadline, D reminded F, and F gave him the
despite being a little late, he had delivered the performance guarantee at that time. On November 1st
entire shipment to W. at 7am, the shipment arrived. D was annoyed since the
shipment was not delivered on time even though he
75. Which among the following statements, as applied to had reminded F several times to get it. D, as a result
the passage, is the most inappropriate? sued F in court. What advice would you give D if you
(a) Any day before the deadline must be preferred to were his legal counsel?
accomplish promises that need to be kept within a (a) F was only late by a few hours and shouldn't be
specific amount of time. The promise can be punished for such minor neglect. Therefore, D
deemed accomplished if the promisor delivers the shouldn't complain against him.

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 (b) As no time for performance is mentioned in the (c) Due to the fulfilment of the requirements under
contract, it must be completed within a reasonable section 37 of the Indian Contract Act, OP jewellers
amount of time, so D should hold F accountable for may urge B to carry out her end of the
breaching the agreement. arrangement.
(c) D cannot accuse F for any infringement since he did (d) The contract becomes voidable in the instance if
not have any deliberate intent to delay the delivery either party passes away; therefore OP jewellers
of the product. have no standing to demand that B perform.
(d) Owing to the shipment's delay, D has sufficient
grounds to consider F violated the terms of the 78. T and Y reached an agreement to sign a contract
contract, thus D should lodge a suit for breach of stipulating that T would provide Y with 2 kg of
contract. premium cucumbers every day of the week in exchange
for 280 rupees each week. The contract was diligently
77. B's legal guardian was G. He had an agreement with OP carried out and adhered to by both parties for a few
Jewellers to have two sets of gold bracelets and three weeks. After that, T began charging the same price for
sets of diamond necklaces customized specifically for cucumbers that weighed less than 2 kg. T was accused
B. Unexpectedly and tragically, G experienced a heart of fraud by Y because he felt that he was being duped
attack a few days following the deal. He was admitted by T. Tell us what you think about this specific instance.
to the top medical facility in the area, where he spent (a) T will be considered accountable for his failure to
his final days before dying. In order to complete the adhere to the prerequisites of a contract, as
deal, OP Jewellers asked his daughter B, for whom the specified in the passage.
jewellery was made exclusively. She refused to carry (b) Since it was Y's responsibility to ensure that the
out her end of the bargain. What say does OP Jewellers contract was being completed in accordance with
have in this matter? its terms, T shall not be held accountable for his
(a) OP jewellers have no say in the matter given that G acts.
finalized the deal, and as a result, B is under no (c) Since the facts in the question are irrelevant to the
obligation. details given in the passage, it is difficult to
(b) Given that G had designated B as his legal heir, OP ascertain whether T should be held accountable.
jewellers might require B to uphold her end of the (d) T will be held accountable for his actions since
deal. charged Y the false price with fraudulent intent.
Passage (Q.79-Q.84): The Supreme Court on Thursday enquired the whereabouts of former Mumbai Police
Commissioner Param Bir Singh, who was recently declared as an absconder by a Mumbai Magistrate after his non-
appearance in an extortion case. A bench comprising Justices Sanjay Kishan Kaul and MM Sundresh was considering the
petition filed by Param Bir Singh seeking protection in the cases of corruption and extortion filed against him. "Where are
you? Are you in the country? Outside the country", Justice Kaul asked Senior Advocate Puneet Bail who appeared for Singh,
as soon as the matter was taken. The senior counsel replied that the queries can be answered only by the filing counsel.
The Advocate-on-Record told the bench that the petitions have been filed by the power-of-attorney holder of Singh. "You
have not joined any investigation. If you are sitting abroad and approaching the Court...Our suspicion might be wrong...if
the Court gives a favourable order only then he'll come back. It might be so", Justice Kaul observed. The bench said that
no protection can be granted until his whereabouts are known. "No protection, no hearing till we have the answer to the
question - where are you?" Justice Kaul said. The counsel then sought for time till Monday to get instructions. The petition
was filed against the September 16 judgment of the Bombay High Court which dismissed as not maintainable the petitions
filed by him challenging the two enquiries orders issued by the State Home Ministry for allegedly violative service rules
and the second over allegations of corruption.
79. P was a police commissioner of the state. He was (d) The court was justified for deciding the same but
accused of case regarding extortion. However he was the police commissioner was not absconding.
absconding and no one knew his whereabouts.
However the court denied granting protection to P 80. D was a police commissioner who was stuck in a case
unless his whereabouts were known to the court. In the regarding the extortion. However he was running away
light of the above passage was a correct option. from the proceeding. However the court granted the
(a) The court was right in its position as according to protection to the police commissioner without
the passage it is evident that a person having no knowing his whereabouts. In the light of the above
clear whereabouts known to Court cannot be passage choose the correct option.
granted protection. (a) The court was justified for granting him the
(b) The court was justified in giving protection to the protection.
police commissioner. (b) The Court was not justified for granting him the
(c) The court was not justified for deciding the same. protection.

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 (c) As his whereabouts were not known it was court. In the light of the above passage choose the
important for the protection to be granted to him. correct option.
(d) According to the passage the court should not have (a) As he was a police commissioner he should have
granted protection to him. been granted the protection.
(b) As no whereabouts of him were known the Court
81. S was a police commissioner of the state who was was justified in denying him protection.
alleged for extortion in a case. His council pleaded for (c) The court was wrong in its decision.
protection for the police commissioner. However the (d) The court was absolutely right in its decision.
court observed that the court did not know his
whereabouts and the court denied him giving 83. In the light of the passage choose the correct option.
protection at any cost unless his whereabouts are (a) Whereabouts of a person is one of the important
known. In the light of the above passage choose the factors taken into account before being granted
correct option. protection.
(a) The court was right in its approach. (b) Whereabouts of the person is not an important
(b) As it was necessary for the court to know his factor for giving protection.
whereabouts the court was justified for denying (c) The court has no power to deny protection to a
the same. police commissioner.
(c) Ashe was not absconding so the court was not (d) Every person has a right to protection and the
justified. court was not justified in the passage.
(d) As he was a police commissioner he should be
granted protection and the court was not justified. 84. In the light of the passage choose the misinterpreted
option.
82. P was a police commissioner who was alleged to be (a) Whereabouts of a person is not an important factor
involved in extortion and the proceeding was to be held for being granted protection.
against him. However any whereabouts of him were (b) Whereabouts of a person is required by the court
not known. As he was absconding, the counsel pleaded to grant him protection.
for the police commissioner infront of the court that he (c) Court has the right to deny granting protection to
should be granted protection so that he can take part in the accused person.
the proceeding. However the court did not grant the (d) Whereabouts of a police commissioner is also
protection until his whereabouts are known to the important for granting him the protection by the
court.

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 SECTION-D : LOGICAL REASONING

Passage (Q.85- Q.89): The President of India has sent condolences to Vandana Mishra’s family, after her death in Kanpur
late Friday night, when the car carrying her to hospital was stopped for the presidential convoy to pass. But while the
President’s response is in keeping with obligations of his high office, the Kanpur tragedy is by no means unique. VVIP
convoys have become yet another manifestation of a political and administrative culture where public servant’s self-
esteem depends on the distance they can maintain from the public. Police are overzealous because they respond to a
system where public inconvenience is extremely low priority.
VVIP convoys in Indian cities are particularly unwelcome. Most cities suffer terrible traffic congestion. In Mumbai it is
estimated that a trip takes about 53%more time than it should, in Bangalore 51% and in New Delhi 47%. On top of this
there are few green corridors for ambulances. So, road blockades set up to smoothen VVIP movement worsen the situation
painfully. There was hope following the 2017 Union Cabinet decision to end the lal batti raj. But long snaking VVIP convoys
aren’t part of this change. And MLA’s from Haryana to Himachal Pradesh have tried to retain traffic privileges with flags
atop their vehicles.
By contrast, in America the idea of holding up citizens for hours for the convenience of politicians would be laughter. In
New Zealand, when the PM’s motorcade was caught over the speed limit, it was fined for dangerous driving. In
Scandinavian countries, far from reserving a faster lane for themselves, netas take public transport shoulder to shoulder
with citizens. This is the direction our democracy must take too. For VVIP protection, the state must deploy smarter
security arrangements, and nix those convoys. When public servants are driven, let the public not be driven to despair or
worse.
85. Which among the following is the most significant (a) The traffic situation in Indian and Western
message conveyed by the author of the passage? countries is broadly similar.
(a) The VVIP system is not suitable for India since it (b) All countries being mentioned are Europeans.
causes inconvenience to common people. (c) Time is the essence of life.
(b) A public servant’s self-esteem carries a lot more (d) Politicians should be held responsible for their
significance than that of a common man. actions.
(c) It is time that the state does away with convoys
and brings up a smarter security system for 89. ‘In Scandinavian countries, far from reserving a faster
VVIPs. lane for themselves, netas (political leaders) take
(d) The President should be held responsible for the public transport shoulder to shoulder with citizens.’
death of Vandana Mishra. Which of the following statements, from the options,
would weaken the argument?
86. Which of the following courses of action should India (a) The political leaders have been put on a pedestal
take from the various countries mentioned in the by the people who wish to be in awe of their
passage? leaders.
I. Hold up citizens for long hours for politicians. (b) The political leaders are known for their
II. Levying a penalty on the vehicles of the politicians indifference towards development and people may
for violating traffic rules. vent out their anger on the leaders, if the leaders
III. Oblige politicians to use public transport. were to mingle with people.
(a) Only I (b) Only II (c) The leaders being the representative of people face
(c) Both II and III (d) All I, II and III constant death threats and are under the radar of
those who want to sabotage the development,
87. Which of the following assumptions must be true? cannot be treated as commoners as they hold
(a) The tragedy that happened due to the convoy of position of relevance.
the President is one of the last such tragedies. (d) The leaders are representative of people and
(b) At least one of the political and administrative conducting themselves with humility will only
VVIP manifestations should be done away in strengthen their support amongst their people.
India.
(c) Deploying smarter security systems for VVIP 90. Given the concerns raised in the passage about VVIP
convoys is a one-stop solution for the perils of convoys and their impact on public inconvenience,
democracy. which of the following actions should the government
(d) VVIP convoys should not be done away with in a prioritize to address this issue effectively?
democracy such as India. (a) Implement a strict penalty system for VVIP
convoys that cause traffic disruptions, similar to
88. While giving examples of other countries, which among the fine imposed on the PM's motorcade in New
the following is the central flaw made by the author? Zealand, to discourage such practices.

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 (b) Increase the number of VVIP convoys and and their role in governance to foster public
enhance their security to ensure that public understanding.
servants can perform their duties without (d) Invest in infrastructure improvements to create
interruptions. dedicated lanes for VVIP convoys, thereby
(c) Conduct a public awareness campaign minimizing their impact on regular traffic flow.
highlighting the importance of VVIP movements
Passage(Q.91-Q.96): In its most recent meeting, the monetary policy committee of the RBI chose to maintain the policy
status quo, keeping the benchmark repo rate at 4 percent and continuing with its accommodative stance, presumably as
long as is necessary to revive growth. But the decision was not unanimous. One of MPC’s members voted not only against
continuing with the accommodative stance, but also argued in favour of raising the reverse repo rate. Concerns over how
long the MPC can continue with its policy stance appear to be gaining traction. Even though the other members stuck to
their earlier positions, there appears to be a shift in the tone of the commentary, with another member arguing that “over-
stimulus as after the global financial crisis, with delay resulting in sharp adjustment, has to be avoided.” So far, the MPC
has continued to attach primacy to growth considerations. In their most recent comments, most members highlighted the
uneven nature of the recovery — the scarring of small business and the informal sector. According to another MPC
member, of the 404 industries for which data is available, 63.4 percent are operating below 2018-19 levels. The RBI
Governor also argued that the “informal sector is likely to take even longer to recoup as the impact of the second wave on
this sector was relatively more pronounced.” But the space for continuing with its current stance appears to be receding.
On the inflation front, the MPC members were cognisant of the risks, as, even though headline inflation has dipped — CPI
fell to 4.35 per cent in September, down from 5.3 per cent in August — core inflation remains elevated. As the member
who voted against continuing with the accommodative stance noted, “inflationary pressures are beginning to show signs
of greater persistence than anticipated earlier”. Economists expect inflation to inch back upwards. According to the RBI’s
projection, it is expected to dip to 4.5 per cent in the third quarter, rising thereafter to 5.8 per cent in the fourth quarter.
The withdrawal of policy support is likely to be gradual with the process playing out at multiple levels — beginning with
normalisation of liquidity, which has begun, followed by a hike in the reverse repo, a shift in the stance from
accommodative to neutral, culminating in a repo rate hike. However, the duration over which this plays out is uncertain.
Perhaps a few more months of data will provide greater clarity over the durability of the recovery, allowing the MPC to
firm up its exit plans.
[Extracted with edits and revisions from The Indian Express]
91. Which of the following is true according to the passage? 93. Which of the following can be inferred from the given
(a) There is a clear plan over the duration of the passage?
withdrawal of policy support. (a) Disagreement between members of an
(b) The RBI chose to continue with the present repo organization is a sign of its bleak future.
rate with the consent of all its members. (b) The RBI is a body which aggravates the already
(c) The decision of the RBI to maintain the status quo fragile situation of the weaker sectors.
met with some resistance from the members of the (c) The RBI’s stance on growth considerations is likely
MPC. to change in future.
(d) The fall of CPI refers to an increase in the inflation (d) The RBI will implement drastic policy changes in
rate, according to the Reserve Bank of India. the coming months to immediately address
inflation concerns.
92. Out of the following, which one is the best
representation of the main message of the author in 94. For which of the following claims has the author
the passage? presented some pieces of evidence?
(a) It will need greater clarity over durability of (a) Till now, the stance of the Monetary Policy
recovery for RBI to firm up its moves towards Committee on growth considerations has not
policy normalisation. changed.
(b) Policy normalisation is a distant goal for the RBI, (b) The decision of the Monetary Policy Committee to
firstly it needs to bring the members of the MPC to maintain the status quo was not unanimous.
an agreement. (c) The withdrawal of policy support by the Monetary
(c) The informal sector was one of the hardest hit Policy Committee is likely to be abrupt.
sectors due to the second wave and all efforts must (d) Both a and b
be made to revive it.
(d) The difference in opinion of the members of the 95. ‘In its most recent meeting, the monetary policy
MPC over a subject of particular concern is committee of the RBI chose to maintain the policy
disturbing, which might hamper its efficiency. status quo, keeping the benchmark repo rate at 4
percent and continuing with its accommodative stance,

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 presumably as long as is necessary to revive growth. (a) A significant number of economists have begun to
But the decision was not unanimous. One of MPC’s express concern that prolonged low-interest rates
members voted not only against continuing with the could lead to asset bubbles in the real estate and
accommodative stance, but also argued in favour of stock markets, which could destabilize the
raising the reverse repo rate.’ Which of the following economy.
reflects the assumption(s) behind the passage? (b) Recent reports show that inflation expectations
I. There are more than one committee that governs among consumers and businesses have risen,
the monetary policies of the RBI. suggesting a shift in sentiment that could influence
II. The decision to maintain the policy status quo with actual inflation rates moving forward.
regard to repo rate was unanimous. (c) The data indicate that the recovery of the informal
(a) Only assumption I is implied. sector has been slower than anticipated, leading to
(b) Only assumption II is implied. increasing financial strain on small businesses,
(c) Both assumptions I and II are implied. which necessitates continued support.
(d) Neither assumptions I nor II is implied. (d) An analysis of the global economic outlook reveals
that major economies are poised for growth,
96. Which of the following statements, if true, would most reducing the likelihood of a synchronized global
strengthen the case for the RBI to gradually transition economic downturn.
from its current accommodative stance to a more
neutral or restrictive monetary policy?
Passage (Q.97-Q.102): While the pandemic has forced many in the confines of their homes, the worst hit are the elderly
who are devoid of any human contact and without any contact in the real world. Among others, health care, medical
services and care for the elderly is something that is becoming hard with times like these. So, what is it that can bring a
drastic change in the life of elderly; how can ageing be better with smarter technology? Let us discover.
Big data and artificial intelligence (AI). With the amalgamation of these two technological advanced tools, it is possible
now to usher in personalized medicine, treatments that are tailor made for individual, and all this brings us to
revolutionize the health care system. It brings together all the aspects including information on the lifestyle of the
individual, biological aspect and clinical aspect all these help in creating a unique blueprint of the individual or the patient.
It becomes easier to begin with target therapies for achieving the best outcome whether it is about prevention or to
manage the disease. Early detection of disease becomes significantly easier that provides the medical practitioner with
the power to easily diagnose and provide accurate treatment for the same. Life threatening diseases then can be handled
in a better manner like the onset of cancer and Alzheimer’s.
Monitoring the home of the elderly, providing timely medical supplies and help, smart heating devices or temperature
control and other such things makes it easier for the ageing people to lead a comfortable life.
Helping the aged people deal with the isolation is yet another factor that is essential to be considered as they are more at
risk than the rest of the population.
The time elderly people were active socially that was pre-pandemic time their longevity was positively impacted. They
felt healthier and happier that kept them from falling ill frequently, but with the onset of pandemic things changed
dramatically.
Digital technology is providing a breakthrough in relation to wellbeing for the elderly. Connecting people with elderly
population and running their errands, maintaining contact with them and taking on tasks for them, checking upon them
is all made possible. Facilitating real-time interactions helps in reducing social isolation.
97. According to the author, big data and artificial 98. ‘Monitoring the home of the elderly, providing timely
intelligence will help the elderly medical supplies and help, smart heating devices or
(a) By bringing in treatments that are tailor made for temperature control and other such things makes it
individuals. easier for the ageing people to lead a comfortable life.’
(b) By including information on the lifestyle of the What is the assumption behind the argument?
individual, biological aspect and clinical aspect all (a) The aging people require monitoring on the basic
these help in creating a unique blueprint of the functioning of life.
individual. (b) The aging people are unable to manage the
(c) By early detection of disease becomes significantly simplest of tasks.
easier that provides the medical practitioner with (c) The aging people live alone without anyone
the power to easily diagnose and provide accurate monitoring.
treatment for the same. (d) The aging people are unable to perform the basic
(d) All of the above. functioning.

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99. Which of the following will undermine the contention (d) With the help of artificial intelligence, facilitating
presented in the passage? real-time interactions will help in reducing social
(a) With the Pandemic out of the system, life will isolation.
resume back to normal, even for the elderly people. 101. Which of the following reflects the main idea of the
(b) The aging people need support of the NGOs and passage in brief?
only NGOs can make the life better for the aging (a) Ageing reverse with smarter technology.
people. (b) Ageing better with smarter technology.
(c) The aging people are technology savvy and are able (c) Aging made more comfortable.
to figure out artificial intelligence systems. (d) Aging post Pandemic
(d) The ageing people with their weak faculty and
102. Which of the following identifies a flaw in the argument
fugacious memory are unable to perform a task as
that integrating big data and artificial intelligence (AI)
simple as dialing a number on their mobile.
can significantly improve the quality of life for the
100. If the arguments in the passage are true, how will elderly during the pandemic?
artificial intelligence help in making the ageing people’s (a) The passage assumes that all elderly individuals
life comfortable? have access to technology and the internet, which
(a) Using AI, the elderly can be made to learn multiple may not be the case for everyone.
tasking, thereby easing their lives and keeping (b) The passage relies on anecdotal evidence about the
them busy so that they do not feel isolated. social lives of elderly individuals before the
(b) Using AI with human values, data related to each pandemic without considering the impact of other
elderly fed into the system used for analysis, factors on their well-being.
medical health care and other services available (c) The passage does not acknowledge that
through smart devices is where technology will advancements in technology can also lead to
make a viable impact. increased stress and anxiety for some elderly
(c) Data related to each elderly will be fed into the individuals.
system that can help in assisting medical (d) The passage emphasizes the benefits of
emergencies and hospital care. personalized medicine while failing to discuss the
potential costs associated with implementing such
technologies.
Passage (Q.103-Q.108): The main task of education and research is to train people to perform in future economic and
technological environments with many unknowns. Workers prepare to tackle unknown problems using instruments yet
to be developed. In truth, we know embarrassingly little about tomorrow’s jobs. Interdisciplinary and holistic education
and research are indispensable as the workplace combines cognitive skills with teamwork and debate with focus on
adaptability, replacing silo thinking with a flexible approach that applies knowledge from multiple sectors that at first
appearances may not seem relevant.
Education and research are increasingly out of touch with demand for skills. The tendency to focus on cognitive skills,
including the STEM topics of science, technology, engineering, and mathematics, cannot preclude the productivity benefit
of soft skills – applying knowledge and finding opportunities offered by technology. In recent decades most countries have
fallen into the trap of overextending cost-benefit analyses while training students to solve yesterday’s problems.
Governments enforce short-term fiscal planning on education programs, yet measuring social skills is not as easy as
calculating STEM competences.
Much attention is devoted to high-calibre education and research and for good reason, but demand trends suggest that
human factors may be more essential than normally assumed. For example, health, nonstop improving of skills and
entertainment may prove to be the growth sectors of the future – and main job providers. Human maintenance will grow
almost exponentially steered by demographics and a growing proportion of elderly citizens. Human improvement, the
ability to try new technologies should not be overlooked as higher productivity embedded in new technology only
blossoms if humans have the skill to manage technology. Entertainment follows from a shorter work life and longer
retirements. Elderly people are more active than previous generations and demand health care, entertainment, social
networks and communication. They need coaches, presenting huge job openings.
103. What has the author conveyed regarding the current (c) It has somehow lost touch with the need for soft
pattern of Education and Research? skills.
(a) Current education and research patterns have no (d) It nowhere relates to applying knowledge and
productivity benefits. finding opportunities offered by technology.
(b) It is less inclined towards providing STEM
competences.

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104. Which of the following can be deduced from the above (d) Enforcing more short-term fiscal planning on
passage? education programs.
(a) There is a need to identify the evolving job trends
107. In the above passage, what does the author mean when
and focus on many in-demand cognitive skills.
he says “Much attention is devoted to high-calibre
(b) Acquiring academic knowledge and mapping the
education and research and for good reason, but
set standards should be the ultimate goal.
demand trends suggest that human factors may be
(c) Overcoming silo thinking and gaining flexibility at
more essential than normally assumed.” Which of the
work must be a priority.
following reflects the central flaw in the reasoning
(d) The current education and research patterns need
above?
to focus more on enhancing soft skills to help tap
(a) The government’s focus is more on high-calibre
the growing sectors of the future.
education and research than focusing on human
105. As per the passage, which of the following does not factors.
correctly represent the author’s view regarding (b) The author assumes the high-calibre education
education and research? and research does not take into account human
(a) Education and Research must focus on skills that factors.
involve conscious intellectual effort. (c) High-calibre education and research and human
(b) Education and Research trains people to enable factors are intra-connected.
them to perform in future economic and (d) The demand for the human factors in the future
technological environments. will diminish the high-calibre education and
(c) One cannot do away with human improvements research.
that relates to the ability to try new technologies.
108. Which of the following statements is the author least
(d) The new cognitive working environment demands
likely to agree with regarding the future of education
extracting the students out of the archaic solving of
and research?
yesterday’s problems.
(a) Emphasizing STEM education alone will
106. Which of the following steps must be taken to help adequately prepare students for the uncertainties
education and research become Interdisciplinary and of future job markets.
holistic? (b) Education systems need to integrate soft skills to
(a) Preparing workers to tackle unknown problems of ensure adaptability and innovation in the
the future. workplace.
(b) Condemning the system that lays much (c) A strong focus on human factors in education will
importance to cognitive skills and STEM be critical to meet the needs of an aging
competences. population.
(c) Realising the value of social skills and inculcating (d) None of the above
human improvement along with the existing focus
on cognitive skills and STEM knowledge.

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 SECTION-E : QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUES

Direction (Q.1-Q.6): The volumes of three vessels are in the ratio 1: 2 : 4. The volume of the second vessel is 40 L. The
first vessel is empty, the second is filled with milk and the third is filled with water. 50% of the volume from the second
vessel is transferred to the first and that is replaced with the liquid from the third vessel. The contents of the first vessel
is now emptied into the third vessel. This operation is done once more.
1. What is the ratio of milk to water in the first vessel at
the end of the second operation, just before it is 4. What is the total volume of liquid in the third vessel
emptied into the third vessel? after the second operation?
(a) 1:4 (b) 1:3 (a) 60 (b) 70 L
(c) 1:1 (d) 3:1 (c) 80 (d) 90 L
2. What is the quantity of milk in the third vessel after 5. What is the ratio of the total liquid in the third vessel to
second operation? the second vessel after both operations?
(a) 20 L (b) 25 L (a) 3:1 (b) 2:1
(c) 30 L (d) 35 L (c) 1:2 (d) 1:3
3. What fraction of the third container comprises milk 6. After the second operation, what is the ratio of milk to
finally? water in the third vessel?
(a) 5:16 (b) 5:11 (a) 2:3 (b) 5:11
(c) 16:5 (d) 11:5 (c) 5:7 (d) 3:5
Direction (Q.7 – Q.12): In a class, there are 200 students who took the exam in three subjects Maths, Physics and
Chemistry. It is known that the number of students who passed in at least one subject is thrice that of the students who
passed in exactly one subject. The number of students who, passed in exactly one subject is thrice the number of students
who did not pass in any subject. The number of students who passed in all the three subjects is twice the number students
who failed in all the three subjects.
7. How many students passed in exactly two subjects? (a) 140 (b) 120
(a) 60 (b) 100 (c) 160 (d) 100
(c) 80 (d) 40
11. What is the ratio of students who passed in exactly
8. How many students passed in exactly one subject? one subject to those who passed in all three subjects?
(a) 40 (b) 80 (a) 3:2 (b) 4:1
(c) 100 (d) 60 (c) 3:1 (d) 6:1
9. How many students who did not pass in any subject? 12. What percentage of the students passed in at least one
(a) 20 (b) 10 subject?
(c) 15 (d) 25 (a) 75% (b) 80%
10. In the class, what is the total number of students who (c) 85% (d) 90%
passed in exactly one or two subjects?

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 ANSWER KEY AND EXPLANATIONS
SECTION-A : ENGLISH LANGUAGE (c)- There is no chronology of events being discussed in the
1. (a) Option (B) is the correct answer. Statement A is said passage, so, a newspaper article is unlikely to be the
incorrect because the passage explicitly states that while source of the passage.
desire is important, it is not sufficient for facilitating (d)- The passage talks about individual, in particular and
change; a compelling reason and additional factors are suggested approach towards goal or change attainment;
necessary. Statement B is correct, as the passage it doesn't delve into the social aspects or impact of
highlights that the capacity for change begins with self- society in the said process or journey, just a passing
awareness and the establishment of measurable goals. reference while discussing importance of social
Statement C is also correct; the text emphasizes the role support). (a)- The passage talks about step-by-step
of social support in enhancing the effectiveness and procedure to achieve the desired outcome or change. At
stability of personal change efforts. Conversely, the start, it sets the agenda for the passage of self-
Statement D is incorrect because the author confesses improvement and ways to achieve the same. Therefore,
their inability to break the late-night habit even after a motivational novel is most likely to be the source of the
completing graduate school, indicating that they did not given passage. Hence, (a) is the right answer.
succeed in making that change. Finally, Statement E is 5. (b) (b)- The usage of 'must' indicates or hints towards the
correct, as the passage supports the idea that personal indispensable nature of effort and its optimum degree,
development can lead to a complete reinvention of one’s which forms the underlying premise for the author to
personality. make such a statement. Hence, (b) is the right answer.
2. (a) The passage underscores the importance of having a (a)- It's a blanket statement and cannot be the underlying
compelling reason for change, suggesting that desire premise for the statement as it might not hold true for all
alone is insufficient to ensure commitment and success. (usage of 'usually', 'often' would have made the sentence
Without a strong motivation driving his efforts, Mr. X a suitable premise).
may struggle to maintain consistency and dedication in (c)- It might be true, in general, but can't be the premise on
his weight-loss journey. While option B, regarding social which the said statement is based upon as there is no talk
support, is also a valid consideration, the passage about variation in challenge.
emphasizes that a compelling reason is paramount for (d)- The main statement doesn't talk about the consequence
making lasting changes. Options C and D are incorrect; of a situation where inappropriate effort is not given to
the passage does not indicate that Mr. X lacks the desire address the challenge; so, it can be the underlying
to change, nor does it suggest that he does not have premise.
measurable goals, as it explicitly states he is engaged in 6. (b) Option B is correct because the passage explicitly states
a targeted and measurable weight-loss journey. that the capacity to change starts with self-awareness,
3. (B) Option B is correct because the passage emphasizes that highlighting its role as a foundational element for
self-awareness is essential for initiating personal change establishing targeted and measurable goals. This
and setting measurable goals. It implies that without emphasizes that self-awareness is essential for initiating
understanding one’s strengths and weaknesses, personal development. In contrast, Option A
individuals may struggle to identify the need for change misrepresents the sequence of events, suggesting self-
or the strategies required to achieve it. In contrast, awareness is a result of change rather than a precursor.
Option A is incorrect as the passage suggests that Option C incorrectly asserts that self-awareness is
personal development requires considerable effort irrelevant, while the passage clearly indicates its
rather than being effortless. Option C misrepresents the importance. Lastly, Option D suggests that self-
passage's message, as it does not imply that change can awareness leads to unrealistic perceptions of personal
occur without any external support; rather, it deficits, which is not supported by the text; instead, the
emphasizes the importance of social support in passage suggests that recognizing deficits is necessary
enhancing the likelihood of successful change. Option D for meaningful change.
incorrectly narrows personal development to physical 7. (b) Through the statement, the author implies that the very
changes, while the passage discusses a broader range of mention of a robotic surgery brings to mind the fact that
improvements, including psychological and habitual surgeries will be performed by robots, and hence the
changes. author dispels the concern that, rest assured, it is the
4. (a) (a)- The passage talks about step-by-step procedure to surgeon who will be at the helm of a surgery, largely,
achieve the desired outcome or change. At the start, it non-invasive surgeries with the help of technology.
sets the agenda for the passage of self-improvement and Therefore, option (b) correctly interprets author’s
ways to achieve the same. Therefore, a motivational stance. Option (d) might appear to be the answer, but on
novel is most likely to be the source of the given passage. a closer look it is more of an extension of the main
Hence, (a) is the right answer. statement. It is not the interpretation or the concern that
(b)- The science behind humans and their goal attainment the author eases. The author in option (d), which is also
isn't part of the passage; rather, the association or a direct extract from the passage, provides an
dissociation between the two has been dealt from a explanation of how the robotic surgery will take place.
human perspective; therefore, scientific journal can't be Options (a) and (c) are fer-fetched interpretations, not
the source of the passage. even remotely suggested by the author throughout the
passage.

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8. (c) The passage belongs to the area of science. The trend in the organisation. Hence, the answer is option b).
terminologies discussed in the passage (decreased need Option (a) is not the intended objective behind
for narcotics, inguinal hernia repair, Tylenol or discussing positive examples of ethical behaviour.
ibuprofen, outpatient robotic colectomies etc) are very Options (c) and (d) are irrelevant to the main objective.
specific; hence, option (c) is the correct answer. 14. (b) The word 'compliance' means 'the action or fact of
The tone is not deliberating, as nowhere in the passage complying with a wish or command'. Hence, the answer
is there a reflection on the robotic surgery. The tone is is option b). Option (a) is contrary to the meaning of the
not incendiary, as the author has not used inflammable passage. Option (c) and (d) are not the meanings of the
language to suggest so. Mordacious means biting or word ‘compliance’.
pungent, which is far from the tone used in the passage. 15. (b) The whole passage talks about ethical behaviour, its
9. (d) Option (d) cannot be cited as an example from the given importance and how the behaviour and role of a leader
passage; therefore, is the correct answer. The rest of the direct the course of action of its employees. So, the
options have been mentioned in the passage. For option importance of ethical behaviour is highlighted by the
(a), refer to the lines, ‘the researchers reported that author. Hence, the answer is option b). The author would
robotic surgery, which involves surgeons guiding be likely to disagree with other options presented here.
minimally invasive instruments, remotely reduces the (a}- the author finds the role of the leader to be much
chance of re-admission to the hospital by 52 percent.’ more important. (c)- a leader needs to be enthusiastic
And, ‘Experts note that less-invasive robotic procedures towards its employees. (d)- ethical behaviour is
can mean less pain during recovery, which means less expected during all times, as suggested by the author
pain medication.’ The aforementioned lines take care of pointing out the flaw of ethical behaviour discussion
option (a) and (b) as well. Option (c) can be referred only during the times of scandals in the first few
from the lines, ‘Robotics is simply a more precise way to sentences of the passage.
minimize invasion, which makes for quicker healing.’ 16. (d) This option relates to leaders being aware of their actions
10. (a) Option (a) is the correct answer for the given question. and how those actions affect others, similar to the
The author writes about the benefits of the robotics in passage's emphasis on leaders considering the impact of
the abdominal procedures and goes onto write about the their behaviour on their team. Option (a) does not align
different records and findings. In a way, the author with the passage as it focuses on police tactics rather
indicates the robotic surgery as the future (also note the than leader empathy and understanding team dynamics.
comparison with the traditional surgery). Option (b) is Option (b), while discussing public acknowledgment,
incorrect because the passage explicitly states that lacks the emphasis on self-awareness and the impact of
"humans are still at the controls in these procedures." It leaders’ actions on their team. Option (c) addresses
emphasizes that while robotic surgery utilizes advanced workplace aggression but is unrelated to the positive
technology, surgeons are actively guiding the qualities of leadership or the importance of
instruments and making decisions during the surgery.. understanding unintended messages.
Options (c) and (d) can only be true, if something on the 17. (a) Option a) is correct as per the fourth sentence of the
similar lines had been mentioned in the passage, for second paragraph of the given passage, which says that
these two options to be the questions. Since no answer an ethical leader remains cautious about signalling that
can be derived from the passage, regarding the hypocrisy is alright in the organisation. Other options
information that the questions seek, these two options are incorrect as per the given passage. Hence, the answer
are irrelevant. is option a).
11. (b) The verb translate will take the preposition ‘to’, while’ 18. (b) Option (B) is correct because the passage emphasizes the
length’ and ‘stay’ being nouns will have the preposition importance of leaders being mindful of how their
‘of’. Therefore, the sentence reads, ‘The improved feedback and actions can be perceived by others,
recovery times also translate to a shorter length of stay.’ particularly regarding ethical implications. The text
‘In’ and ‘at’ as prepositions for the respective blanks, are illustrates this with the example of a leader downplaying
unsuited contextually. critical data in a presentation, which inadvertently
12. (c) Option (C) is correct because Dr. Bethany Malone teaches employees that it's acceptable to hide the truth
specifically links the reduced need for narcotic pain for desired outcomes. In contrast, option (A) is incorrect
medications after robotic surgery to the ongoing opioid because it suggests leaders should avoid ambiguity by
crisis, emphasizing the importance of finding safer sticking strictly to factual information, which doesn't
alternatives for pain management. In contrast, option address the ethical implications of communication.
(A) is too general as it focuses on the overall Option (C) misrepresents the passage's focus, as it
effectiveness of robotic surgery rather than addressing highlights the need for leaders to consider the
pain management; option (B) inaccurately suggests a interpretations of others rather than prioritizing their
primary concern about healthcare costs, which is not own intentions. Lastly, option (D) is also incorrect
mentioned in the passage; and option (D) incorrectly because it implies that leaders should only provide
emphasizes patient satisfaction without Dr. Malone positive feedback to maintain morale, which overlooks
directly discussing it. the necessity of addressing ethical issues and fostering
13. (b) Option b) is correct as per the last sentence of the first honest communication within the organization.
paragraph of the given passage, which says that 19. (b) Refer to the lines: “One way people reflect on these
"reinforcing the good things people do strengthens questions is by sitting in silence in meditation.”. Through
ethical choices as 'the norm' of the organisation." i.e., to these lines, it is clear that option B is the answer. Option
encourage people to make ethical choices and make it a A is ruled out as it is nowhere mentioned in the passage.

222
 Option C is also ruled out as it finds no support in the derived from life experiences, overlooking the deeper
passage. Option D is contrary to what has been said in consciousness that meditation reveals.
the passage, where the author says that the answers to
the questions pertaining to life-purpose can not be SECTION-B : GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
sought on the internet. 25. (d) The Constitution (One Hundred and Twenty-Eighth
20. (c) Refer to the line: “It is not the intellectual knowledge that Amendment) Bill, 2023, also known as the Women's
we learn from lectures or books….” This lines clearly is a Reservation Bill or the Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam,
contradiction to option A, which makes the option A aims to reserve one-third of seats for women in the Lok
incorrect. Now refer to the lines: “Our soul, being the Sabha, state legislative assemblies, and the Delhi
same essence as God, is consciousness. It is a ‘state of Assembly.
knowing all that is to be known”. And “When we access • The bill was introduced in the Lok Sabha on
the divine wisdom, we reach a state of all-consciousness, September 19, 2023.
one in which we know the answers to life’s mysteries • The bill will be effective after the census following
and our purpose in life.”, it is clear form these lines that the bill's commencement, and will be in place for
Option B and C are correct with regard to the question 15 years.
above. • The bill will also extend the reservation to seats
21. (a) The gist of the lines are that as we reach our inner reserved for SCs and STs in the Lok Sabha and
consciousness and gain deeper wisdom within ourselves, state legislative assemblies.
we look at ourself and the world differently and play a • The bill will rotate seats reserved for women after
more active rather than just watch the events affecting us, each delimitation.
without seeking to change them or find some answers. • The bill does not include a quota for women from
Based on the gist, option A is closest in interpretation. the Other Backward Classes (OBCs).
Option B is a rather tweaked version of the given lines. 26. (a) The Women Reservation Bill 2023, formally known as
Option C though partly thru, deviates from the core issue the 128th Constitutional Amendment Bill or the Nari
as the phrase searching for their role assigned to them is Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam, has recently taken center
not the gist. Option D is contrary to what is given in the stage in Indian politics. This landmark legislation aims to
sentences. reserve one-third of seats in the Lok Sabha and State
22. (a) A title carries the basic idea of the author’s thought Assemblies for women.
process. It should be connected to the over all essence of a 27. (c) The reservation for women, as per the Bill, is intended to
passage. Based on the above information, option A is best last for an initial period of 15 years. However, it may
suited as it carries the essence of the passage. The last continue till a later date as determined by a law made by
paragraph which is also the basic idea that the author Parliament.
communicates through the passage is best represented as 28. (c) Article 330A stipulates the reservation of 47 seats in the
the title given in option A. Option B is close but meditation Lok Sabha for Scheduled Tribes. This constitutional
is not the main idea here, it is tool to reach the inner provision is aimed at ensuring proportional
wisdom. Also, the title is disjointed as it seems that representation and political empowerment for the
meditation and consciousness are two different entities. Scheduled Tribes, acknowledging their historical socio-
Option C is vague; hence, is incorrect and option D is close economic disadvantages.
but if one had to choose between option A and D, option A 29. (b) The Delimitation Commission has been constituted four
is better in terms of clarity. times in India— in 1952, 1963, 1973, and 2002. Each
23. (d) Astute means clever, shrewd or one with keen instance was aimed at readjusting constituency
discernment. One who is perceptive. boundaries based on changing demographic factors and
Sagacious means having or showing mental keenness. political considerations.
Shrewd; this is clearly on of the synonyms. 30. (c) As from the date of commencement of the Constitution
Ingenious is characterised by cleverness or originality of (Sixty-ninth Amendment) Act, 1991, the Union territory
invention; cleverly inventive or resourceful. This is a of Delhi shall be called the National Capital Territory of
synonym of ‘astute’. Delhi (hereafter in this Part referred to as the National
Perspicacious means having keen mental perception and Capital Territory) and the administrator thereof
understanding; acute and shrewd. This is very close to the appointed under article 239 shall be designated as the
meaning of ‘astute’. Lieutenant Governor.
Imbecile means a dunce, a blockhead. A simple-minded. Article 239AA grants the Legislative Assembly of the
This is opposite in meaning to the word ‘astute’. Clearly, NCT the power to make laws for the whole or any part
option D is the correct answer. of the NCT with respect to any matters in the State List
24. (b) Option B is the correct answer because the passage or Concurrent List, insofar as such matters are
specifically highlights that true wisdom resides within applicable to Union territories. However, it explicitly
each person and can be accessed through meditation, excludes the subjects of police, public order, and land
which opens doors to self-discovery and inner from the Legislative Assembly's purview.
understanding. In contrast, A) is incorrect as it limits 31. (c) CAR T-cell therapies are approved by the US Food and
wisdom to academic knowledge, while C) suggests Drug Administration (FDA) to treat some kinds of
relying on external discussions with spiritual leaders, lymphomas and leukemias, as well as multiple myeloma.
which the passage does not emphasize. D) is also CAR T-cell therapy is typically used after other types of
incorrect because it implies that wisdom is solely treatment have been tried.

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 Examples of CAR T-cell therapies currently approved 37. (d) The Union Minister of Road Transport and Highways
include: Nitin Gadkari has launched the much-awaited Bharat
• Tisagenlecleucel, also known as tisa-cel (Kymriah) NCAP, India’s own crash safety rating system. The
• Axicabtagene ciloleucel, also known as axi-cel assessment programme will be effective come October 1,
(Yescarta) 2023. The Ministry, during the launch event held in the
• Brexucabtagene autoleucel, also known as brexu- capital, said that the programme will be voluntary and
cel (Tecartus) the cars will be tested as per the Automotive Industry
• Lisocabtagene maraleucel, also known as liso-cel Standard (AIS) 197.
(Breyanzi) 38. (a) NCAP stands for New Car Assessment Program, which is
• Idecabtagene vicleucel, also known as ide-cel an internationally recognized system for rating the
(Abecma) safety of motor vehicles. Various countries have their
• Ciltacabtegene autoleucel, also known as cilta-cel own NCAP programs to evaluate and inform consumers
(Carvykti) about the safety of vehicles.
32. (c) In CAR T-cell therapies, T cells are taken from the 39. (d) The Peugeot Partner Patagónica received a 'zero star'
patient's blood and are changed in the lab by adding a safety rating in the Latin NCAP and Global NCAP car-to-
gene for a receptor (called a chimeric antigen receptor car campaign, indicating very poor safety performance.
or CAR), which helps the T cells attach to a specific 40. (c) Global NCAP initiated its "#SaferCarsForAfrica"
cancer cell antigen. The CAR T cells are then given back campaign in 2017. This campaign aims to assess and
to the patient. promote vehicle safety standards in African markets,
Since different cancers have different antigens, each focusing on improving safety for consumers.
CAR is made for a specific cancer's antigen. For 41. (c) The Fair Credit Reporting Act (FCRA), Public Law No. 91-
example, in certain kinds of leukemia or lymphoma, the 508, was enacted in 1970 to promote accuracy, fairness,
cancer cells have an antigen called CD19. The CAR T- and the privacy of personal information assembled by
cell therapies to treat these cancers are made to attach Credit Reporting Agencies (CRAs).
to the CD19 antigen and will not work for a cancer that The year the Fair Credit Reporting Act (FCRA), Public
does not have the CD19 antigen. Law No. 91-508, was passed by the U.S. Congress to
33. (d) CAR T-cell therapies are approved by the US Food and promote the accuracy, fairness, and privacy of personal
Drug Administration (FDA) to treat some kinds of information collected in credit reports. It has been
lymphomas and leukemias, as well as multiple myeloma. amended a number of times in the years since.
CAR T-cell therapy is typically used after other types of 42. (c) CRAs assemble reports on individuals for businesses,
treatment have been tried. including credit card companies, banks, employers,
Examples of CAR T-cell therapies currently approved landlords, and others. The FCRA provides important
include: protections for credit reports, consumer investigatory
1. Tisagenlecleucel, also known as tisa-cel (Kymriah) reports, and employment background checks. The FCRA
2. Axicabtagene ciloleucel, also known as axi-cel is a complex statute that has been significantly altered
(Yescarta) since 1970 by Congress and the courts. The Act’s
3. Brexucabtagene autoleucel, also known as brexu- primary protection requires that CRAs follow
cel (Tecartus) “reasonable procedures” to protect the confidentiality,
4. Lisocabtagene maraleucel, also known as liso-cel accuracy, and relevance of credit information. To do so,
(Breyanzi) the FCRA establishes a framework of Fair Information
5. Idecabtagene vicleucel, also known as ide-cel Practices for personal information that include rights of
(Abecma) data quality (right to access and correct), data security,
6. Ciltacabtegene autoleucel, also known as cilta-cel use limitations, requirements for data destruction,
(Carvykti) notice, user participation (consent), and accountability.
34. (b) To alter T cells to attach to specific cancer cell antigens 43. (a) The FCRA was passed to address a growing credit
They are made by collecting T cells from the patient and reporting industry in the United States that compiled
re-engineering them in the laboratory to produce “consumer credit reports” and “investigative consumer
proteins on their surface called chimeric antigen reports” on individuals. The FCRA was the first federal
receptors, or CARs. The CARs recognize and bind to law to regulate the use of personal information by
specific proteins, or antigens, on the surface of cancer private businesses.
cells. The first major credit reporting agency, Retail Credit Co,
35. (c) Union Minister of Health and Family Welfare, Shri Jagat was started in 1899. Over the years, Retail Credit
Prakash Nadda, inaugurated the second edition of the purchased smaller CRAs and expanded its business into
Global Food Regulators Summit 2024 in the presence of selling reports to insurers and employers. By the 1960s,
Shri Pralhad Joshi, Union Minister of Consumer Affairs, significant controversy surrounded the CRAs because
Food and Public Distribution, and Minister of New and their reports were sometimes used to deny services
Renewable Energy at Bharat Mandapam. and opportunities, and individuals had no right to see
36. (c) The frontal crash test under Bharat NCAP protocols is what was in their file.
conducted at a speed of 64km/h, as indicated in the 44. (b) The Federal Trade Commission (FTC) issues
provided information. This specific speed is critical for commentaries on the statute, but does not engage in
assessing the safety and crashworthiness of vehicles rulemaking for the FCRA.
during frontal impacts. CRAs may also be referred to as “credit bureaus” or
“consumer reporting agencies.”

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 Washington, DC, the U.S. capital, is a compact city on the but Punjab argued that these states were neither
Potomac River, bordering the states of Maryland and riparian nor basin states.
Virginia. It’s defined by imposing neoclassical
monuments and buildings – including the iconic ones SECTION-C : LEGAL REASONING
that house the federal government’s 3 branches: the 53. (c) Option A is not correct as passage does not states about
Capitol, White House and Supreme Court. It's also home such situation. Option B is correct because of in pari
to iconic museums and performing-arts venues such as delicto: a finding that they were equally at fault in
the Kennedy Center. causing the contract's breach. Thus, option C is correct.
45. (c) The first major credit reporting agency, Retail Credit Co, Option B is not considered as the Frustration applies
was started in 1899. Over the years, Retail Credit where an unforeseen event makes performance of the
purchased smaller CRAs and expanded its business into contract impossible. Thus, no such context can be drawn
selling reports to insurers and employers. By the 1960s, from the expression given. Hence not correct.
significant controversy surrounded the CRAs because Option D is though correct but the reference taken from
their reports were sometimes used to deny services and the passage, author indicated that Loop Telecom was in
opportunities, and individuals had no right to see what pari delicto with the Department of Telecom. As a result,
was in their file. option B is preferred above option D as Loop telecom
46. (c) The FCRA was originally enacted in 1976, and was equally responsible for the illegality.
significantly revised in 2010. It creates registration 54. (b) The question asked in the factual matrix is that shyamlal
requirements and spending restrictions on Indian claims for restitution of damages. Thus, according to the
nonprofit organizations receiving foreign donations. The information given in Para 4, in adjudicating a claim of
most recent 2020 amendments of the FCRA brought in restitution, the court must determine the illegality which
additional restrictions, banning subgranting among caused the contract to become void and the role the
FCRA-registered organizations, setting a severe cap on party claiming restitution has played in it. Since
administrative spending, and further centralizing shyamlal had not caused any irregularity or illegality on
control of FCRA funding with the State Bank of India and his part, as he always paid tax on entering the province.
the Ministry of Home Affairs. Thus, option B is correct. Though option A is valid, option
47. (a) Punjab refused to share waters with Haryana stating it B presents reasoning that is more in accordance with the
was against the riparian principle which dictates that the context of the passage.
water of a river belongs only to the State and country or Option C is incorrect because shyamlal was not equally
States and countries through which the river in question liable for the municipality's illegality. As a result,
flows. incorrect.
48. (b) Under the Indus Waters Treaty signed between India Option D is incorrect because the facts do not mention
and Pakistan in 1960, all the waters of three rivers, any agreement between the parties. As a result, its
namely Ravi, Sutlej and Beas ( Eastern Rivers)averaging absence cannot be asserted.
around 33 million acre feet ( MAF) were allocated to 55. (a) Option A is correct as according to the passage, it was
India for exclusive use. observed by the court that when parties are in state of
49. (c) The Punjab Assembly passed the Punjab Termination of pari dalicto. Also, If the party claiming restitution was
Agreements Act in 2004, leading to the termination of equally or more responsible for the illegality (in
water-sharing agreements and creating complications comparison to the defendant), there shall be no cause for
for the construction of the Sutlej-Yamuna Link canal in restitution. Since shyamlal was paying bribe, hence he
Punjab. This legislative move was a significant knew the law. As a result, option D is inaccurate. Option
development in the state's water management policies, C is not considered because option A is more in
sparking legal and inter-state disputes. accordance with what is said in the passage.
50. (a) According to the Inter-State Water Disputes Act, once a Option B is incorrect since he paid bribes to the officers
reference is made to the tribunal, it is required to submit and thus bears equal responsibility for the illegality. As a
its report within 1 year. This provision is designed to result, incorrect.
expedite the resolution of water disputes and prevent 56. (a) Option A is correct as the passage states that, the
prolonged conflicts. doctrine of frustration states that frustration occurs
51. (b) Article 262(1) of the Constitution lays down that when an unforeseen event renders performance of a
“Parliament may by law provide for the adjudication of contract impossible or radically different from that
any dispute or complaint with respect to the use, originally contemplated by the parties. No party is
distribution or control of the waters of, or in, any inter- considered at fault. Since the present set of facts
State river, or river valley”. Parliament has enacted the suggests that codeALFA failed to complete the
Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956. construction on time due to an injunction order, which
52. (b) The Satluj-Yamuna Link (SYL) canal dispute between was unforeseen. Option B is incorrect since the passage
Punjab and Haryana has brought up references to the does not specify what constitutes a physical
Punjab Termination of Agreement Act passed in 2004. impossibility. As a result, cannot be considered. Option C
The act annulled all inter-state agreements for sharing is incorrect because a contract is frustrated when an
the waters of the Ravi and Beas rivers. However, the unforeseen event makes contract performance
Supreme Court held the act "unconstitutional" in 2016, impossible. As a result, incorrect. Option D is incorrect
stating that the state could not unilaterally abrogate the since no such inference can be drawn from the passage.
water-sharing pact. The act had allocated water to As a result, inaccurate.
Haryana and Rajasthan from the Ravi and Beas rivers,

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57. (a) Option A is correct as the purpose of the contract was for Option B is incorrect because there is no mention of such
Simran to go to Delhi and attend the concert. According a liability in the passage. As a result, incorrect.
to the passage, frustration occurs when an unforeseen Option C is incorrect because it does not suggest an
event renders performance of a contract impossible or answer based on the facts or the passage. As a result,
radically different from that originally contemplated by eliminated.
the parties. No party is considered at fault. Considering Option D is incorrect because there is no mention of
war as an unforeseen event, occurrence of which vicarious liability in the passage.
rendered the performance of contract impossible. 61. (b) Option A is incorrect as it is already mentioned in the
Option B is incorrect because the statement has no excerpt that, the trial Court renders its decision by
relevance to either the facts or the passage. As a result, acquitting the accused. Thus, not correct.
cannot be considered. Option B is correct as innocent until proven guilty
Option C is incorrect because, option A specify the more beyond reasonable doubt is the general legal principle
exact answer that common purpose is destroyed so it adopted by courts in India. Thus, option C is incorrect as
becomes frustrated. Warlike situation terminate the it states the contrary.
contract is not specific cancellation of concert is the main Option D is incorrect as it only suggests what has been
issue. As a result, inaccurate. asked in the question but does not elaborate it. Thus, not
Option D is incorrect because Simran purchased a "all- correct.
in-one ticket" that included both travel and a seat 62. (b) The assertion is correct because, according to paragraph
reservation at the show. As a result, if one becomes 1 of the passage, the offence of attempting suicide cannot
impossible, the other will eventually become impossible be established unless there exists abetment or
as well. As a result, option A is right. instigation. As a result, the court ruled that the
58. (b) Option A is not correct as the passage do not prosecution must meet Section 107 requirements in
expressively determines “intention” as an essential order to prove an offence under Section 306 of the IPC.
ingredient to prove an offence under section 306. Thus, Furthermore, the given statement implies that these are
not correct. not mutually exclusive events. As a result, they can be
According to Para 1 of the passage, the court ruled that said to be related and will occur concurrently. As a result,
to prove an offence under Section 306, the Prosecution correct.
must satisfy the ingredients of Section 107 first. Therefore, option B is correct.
According to the facts, Chavi was aware, albeit 63. (c) Assertion is correct as according to the text of passage,
inadvertently, that Radha would do whatever he the court in the case of Independent Newspaper Inc. v.
requested. As a result, the first condition of section 107 Brodie, held that the court can direct the disclosure of
is met when Chavi initiates Radha to jump. Hence, First details about the anonymous person subject to the some
condition of S. 107 attracts Chavi’s liability under section conditions. Hence, the court tried to give an appropriate
306. As a result, the first condition of Section 107 opportunity to the anonymous blogger who posts
exposes Chavi to liability under Section 306. Option B is allegedly defamatory material on a message board or
the correct answer. website.
Option C is incorrect because, in order to prove an Reason is false as no such statement can be inferred from
offence under Section 306, the ingredients of Section 107 the context of the passage. The statement given presents
must be proven. As a result, mere abetment will not a speculative suggestion bearing no relevancy with the
result in liability unless it is combined with an act of passage given. Hence, not correct.
instigation. As a result, incorrect. Therefore, Option C is correct.
Option D is incorrect because the current set of facts 64. (a) Option A is correct as according to the last Para of the
does not explicitly mention the role of a prosecution. As passage, if the complaint is made against a fake blog or
a result, such an option is unacceptable. impersonating profile on website, an Internet Service
59. (b) Option A is incorrect because Sanju did not commit Provider will at most block the subject page from access
suicide. He died as a result of an overdose. As a result, but do not reveal the person who created it has been
incorrect. mentioned in the last line of the passage. Since
Option B is correct because Jim attempted to overdose according to the facts the user’s filed a complaint against
on Sanju while in rehab. As a result, he is liable for the anonymous user, the ISP can block the subject page
abetment under Section 107 of the IPC. and it will not be deemed an arbitrary action.
Option C is incorrect because the statement lacks any All of the other options, B, C, and D, are rejected since
logical argument in light of the law presented in the they directly pertain to the situation when there is a case
passage. As a result, incorrect. of defamation (Refer context of para 1). Since no
Option D is incorrect because, once again, no legal reference to defamation can be found in the factual
principle is inferred from the passage that intention has matrix, none of the offered statements are true.
to be there in the given statement. Hence not correct. 65. (d) Option A is not correct as present case is a criminal case
60. (a) Option A is correct as the facts suggest that the helpline while court has power to issue direction only in civil
assistant didn’t help and escalated the situation to worse case. Thus, not correct. According to the passage, In
by stating that you are of no use, you should die. Thus, he India, the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 empowers
will be held liable for instigating rahul to take such the police to call for records from telephone companies
decision. As according Para 4 of the passages condition and Internet service Providers (ISPs) to identify the
first of section 107 states that when someone Instigates person who has made a transaction; and obtain his log
any person to do that thing. Thus, he will be held liable. information content contained in an e-mail/ chat

226
 account and IP address details. Thus, option D is correct as failure of Vidya to conduct due diligence will not
and the police may request the disclosure of information influence whether coercion is committed or not.
about the anonymous individual. 69. (a) Option (a) is correct. As the element of threat or actual
Option B is not correct as the statement lacks committing of an offence in order to compel to enter into
information as to whom the necessary information a contract is missing in this case and hence, no coercion
should be disclosed to. Thus, not correct. Option C is has been committed. As per the passage, the purpose of
correct but this procedure will be followed on the order detaining of the property or commission of the act
of police officer thus, option A is better answer should be for the purpose of making the person enter
compared to option D. into the agreement. In the present case, despite the fact
66. (d) Option A is incorrect since the opportunity to defend the act committed is an offence under IPC (theft), the
oneself is available in the case of the anonymous same was not committed in order to compel Gayatri to
person's disclosure. The argument cannot be evaluated enter into an agreement but is a mere case of only theft.
since the stated factual matrix does not state that Meera Therefore, this claim of coercion will fail in the court of
writes her blog anonymously. Option C is likewise law making (d) also as incorrect. (c) is incorrect also
discarded on similar grounds. because the purpose was safekeeping and returning
Option B is incorrect because the provided rationale is when requested. Beyond this period, the safe-keeping is
incorrect; the paragraph does indicate in the context that without any accord of Gayatri. (b) is incorrect as, as
the internet service provider has the "right to block" mentioned, merely detaining property is not sufficient to
user accounts but only when balance of convenience lies claim coercion but there has to be some element of
as states in last 5th line of the passage that Normally, compelling to enter into an agreement.
Internet Service Providers will not entertain direct 70. (d) Option (d) is correct. As there was detaining of jewellery
request for disclosure of identity of a person, and even if by Pooja to compel Gayatri to gift her the jewellery and
the complaint is made against a fake blog or therefore there is coercion. Regardless of the fact
impersonating profile on website, an Internet Service whether the jewellery was selected by Gayatri herself,
Provider in whose favour balance of convenience lies the fact that the same was detained by Pooja and
will at most block the subject page from access but do threatened to be not released unless Gayatri dispenses
not reveal the person who created it. In present case one of them to her is apparent. Therefore, Pooja is liable
prima facie no balance of convenience lie in favour of under coercion. (a) is incorrect as despite it being called
complainant. a gift, the fact that the same was obtained through
The context of the sentence suggests that they normally threats and detaining, cannot be ignored. (b) is incorrect
blocks the user upon the complaint. They cannot restrict as it fails to establish a logical reasoning between the
Meera's blog since, according to the facts, the complaint passage and the factual matrix. (c) is incorrect as there
has not yet been received by the internet service needn’t be only actual threat to life and limb but as the
provider. As a result, option D is right. passage provides that detaining of property can also be
67. (d) Option A is incorrect since the factual question clearly covered under coercion, the statement itself is incorrect.
requests the next course of law enforcement authorities. 71. (b) Option (b) is correct. Statement I is correct as the passage
Since the current statement describes the action done by provides that the intention of committing the act should
the internet service provider. As a result, inaccurate. be compelling the person to enter into the contract, thus
Option B is not correct as the factual matrix states that making Statement I as correct. Statement II is correct as
there is a criminal complaint filed against the accused. passage clearly provides that such agreements can be
Thus, according to the passage, the Code of Criminal refuted (i.e. are voidable). Statement III is incorrect as
Procedure, 1973 empowers the police to call for records the passage nowhere provides that the act punishable by
from telephone companies and Internet service IPC should be civil wrong (but rather covers act of
Providers (ISPs) to identify the person who has made a threatening or committing any act), thus making
transaction; and obtain his log information content Statement III as incorrect.
contained in an e-mail/ chat account and IP address 72. (b) Option (b) is correct. As there was a threat to commit
details. As a result, Option D is the right answer. Option suicide by Ritesh and therefore Ritesh employed threat
C is ruled out since the investigation's point of view is to make his parents agree into buying the bicycle. One
not discussed in the paragraph. As a result, option C is no essential of Coercion is either committing or threatening
longer a possibility. to commit an act punishable under IPC and the passage
68. (d) Option (d) is correct. As there was no actual committing states that coercion is committing or threatening to
or threatening to commit any act forbidden by law and commit any act which is contrary to law accompanied
thus no coercion is involved in the whole transaction. In with compelling a person to enter into a contract. A fair
order for an act to qualify as coercion, there should be understanding of contract implies that contract needn’t
some element of forcing an individual to enter into an be written but can be oral as in the present factual
agreement which such person would not otherwise matrix, Ritesh’s parents were compelled to agree to buy
enter into. Therefore, in the present factual matrix there a bicycle due to his threat thus, amounting to coercion.
is no such forcing of Gayatri to enter into the agreement (a) is incorrect as passage provides that coercion can be
and it is merely maiking false representations. (a) and committing any act contrary to law. (c) and (d) incorrect
(b) are incorrect as heavy insistence on something is not as there is no relation between the factual matrix and the
sufficient to qualify as coercion but should satisfy the passage and fail to establish a sound reasoning.
conditions as enumerated in the passage. (c) is incorrect 73. (d) Option (b) is correct. Since threatening to commit suicide
is an offence punishable under IPC, the act of compelling

227
 to buy a bicycle will amount to coercion. The major even if one of the parties dies without leaving a legal heir,
influencing factor in determining whether coercion has the people who gain interest over the contract's subject
been committed or not is whether the act/ threat to matter through that deceased party would be bound by
commit the act is an offence punishable under law/ the agreement and specific performance could be
contrary to law. Having established that threat to derived against them. Here, it is clear that the jewellery
commit suicide is contrary to law, the act of compelling was made especially for B and that she had an interest in
to buy the bicycle on this premise will amount to the deal's intended outcome. She must therefore carry
coercion. It is also to be understood that the factual out the remaining provisions of the contract. For the
matrix remains silent on the role of belief on the same reason, option A is incorrect. B is not the right
likelihood of the actual commission of the act, the fact answer because it is nowhere given in the question that
that there is an act contrary to law is sufficient, therefore G had chosen B as his legal heir. D is not the right answer
making (a) and (b) as incorrect. (c) is incorrect as it fails because the question makes no mention of anything of
to provide a sound reasoning based on the factual matrix the sort. It draws on outside knowledge.
and the passage. 78. (a) The correct answer is A since the passage states that a
74. (c) The correct answer is C since the passage states that contract is discharged by performance when both
when no timeframe for performance is given in the parties fulfill all primary responsibilities outlined in the
contract, it must be completed within a reasonable contract. Only when the conduct meets the required
amount of time. Unreasonably long delay cannot be standard of performance, the obligation is deemed to
considered as acceptable. The shipment would be have been fulfilled. A breach would result from failure to
worthless if it came after the winter season had passed comply. T shall be held accountable for breach because
since it was obvious that W had made a contract for he failed to carry out the contract in accordance with the
woollen clothing and was, as a result, planning to sell it terms established. C is not the correct answer since the
during the winter month. It was reasonable to suppose facts are in consonance with the passage. B is not the
that the clothing were necessary before the advent of right answer because it was not Y's sole responsibility to
winter. Since there was no mention of a deadline in the review the contract's conditions. D is incorrect because
contract, option C is incorrect. Even though the deadline A provides a clearer line of argument which is in
was not defined, since they were woollen clothing, it was consonance with the passage.
rational to anticipate that they would arrive before 79. (a) Option (a) is correct because the court was justified in its
winter, so option B is incorrect. D is incorrect because if position because according to the passage it is clarified
there is an unreasonable delay, the entire purpose of the that a person having no clear whereabouts known to
contract is defeated. Court cannot be granted protection. Option (b) is
75. (a) The correct answer is A since the passage states that a incorrect because the court did not give protection to the
promise that must be honoured within a specified period police commissioner. Option (c) is incorrect because the
of time must be performed on any day prior to the court was justified for denying him protection. Option
expiration of that period. If the products are supplied (d) is incorrect because the court was justified for
after business hours and are not accepted, the promise deciding the same and the police commissioner was
would be deemed unfulfilled. The passage states that indeed absconding.
when no time for performance is given in the contract, it 80. (d) Option (d) is correct because according to the passage
must be completed within a reasonable amount of time; the court should not have granted the protection to the
hence option B is not the right answer. C is not the right police commissioner as he was absconding. Option (a) is
answer because a contract is considered to be incorrect as per the passage, the Court must know his
discharged by performance when all of the primary whereabouts before granting him protection. Option (b)
obligations, both stated and implied, that are outlined in is incorrect because it does not provide a proper
the contract are met by both parties. D is not the correct explanation as per the passage for the same. Option (c)
answer because if the contract is valid and enforceable, is incorrect because his whereabouts were not known
even if one of the parties passes away without leaving a thus as per the passage the protection should not have
legal heir, those who gain ownership of the contract's been granted.
subject matter through that deceased party would be 81. (b) Option (b) is correct because it was important for the
subject to its terms, and the contract could be enforced court to know his whereabouts and the court was
against them. justified in denying him protection. Option (a) is
76. (d) The correct answer is D since the passage states that incorrect because the court was right in its approach but
when a promise has to be delivered within a specified the Option does not give an explanation for the same.
period of time, it must be performed on any day before Option (c) is incorrect because whether he was
the end of that period. Since the contract called for the absconding or not and the court must know his
milk powder to be delivered by the end of October, and whereabouts before granting him protection. Option (d)
F shipped the product in November, he can be held in is incorrect because irrespective of him being a police
breach of contract. It doesn't matter if there was a delay commissioner he should not be granted protection if his
of one hour or a day. A is not the correct answer for the whereabouts were not known.
same reason. Since the question mentioned a specific 82. (b) Option (b) is correct because there were no
deadline, option B is incorrect. Option C is incorrect whereabouts of the police commissioner so the Court
because, in the given situation, intention is irrelevant. was justified in denying him protection. Option (a) is
77. (c) The correct answer is C because, according to the incorrect because irrespective of being a police
passage, if the contract is valid and enforceable, then commissioner he would not be granted any protection.

228
 Option (c) is incorrect because the court was right in its not the correct assumption. Option D is not correct, as
decision. Option (d) is incorrect because even though the VVIP convoys should be away within a democracy such
court was right in its decision, this Option does not give as India; otherwise, it will differentiate the citizens of
an explanation as to why it was right. India.
83. (a) Option (a) is correct because the statement is true as 88. (a) A central flaw is that the argument mistakes a condition
whereabouts of a person is an important factor for being sufficient for bringing about a result for a condition
granted protection. Option (b) is incorrect owing to the necessary for doing so. Option A is the correct answer as
same logic. Option (c) is incorrect because it makes a the author while putting forth the argument assumes the
contradictory assertion as the court has the power to traffic situation in India and Western countries to be the
deny the protection of a police commissioner. Option (b) same (a condition sufficient to bring about the changes.
is incorrect because the passage does not talk about the Assuming similar situations and overlooking other
right to protection. factors in reaching an outcome). Option B is the incorrect
84. (a) Option (a) is correct because whereabouts of a person is answer as it is not irrelevant because all the countries
an important factor for being granted protection and the mentioned in the passage are Europeans. Option C is not
statement is false. Option (b) is incorrect because this the correct one, as this is the truth under all
statement is true as the whereabouts of a person is circumstances and is not a central flaw. Option D is not
required by the court to grant him protection. Option (c) valid as the situations, and the treatment for the public
is incorrect because again it makes a correct statement servants in India and the Western countries are not the
by saying that the court has the right to deny granting same. Also, this is the conclusion one can draw, but
protection to the accused persons as seen in the passage. cannot be said to be the central flaw.
Option (d) is incorrect because the statement is true as 89. (c) The argument above talks of the conduct of the political
whereabouts of a police commissioner is also important leader whereby they do not take advantage of their
for granting him the protection by the court. position, but are true representatives of their people.
The main argument is to be weakened. To weaken the
SECTION-D : LOGICAL REASONING argument is to present a counter argument that
85. (c) Option C is the correct answer because the author tries completely invalidates the reasoning. Option (c)
to put forth through the passage to remove the VVIP weakens the argument completely. If the leaders, who
convoy system and enable a more intelligent security are the representatives of the people and have important
system that will benefit the public. Option A is not works of national interest are under threats, they cannot
correct as it is not about only India but for any country. be exposed in the public. Hence, they need protection,
It will provide a hurdle and inconvenience to the for which they have to maintain distance and cannot be
ordinary person and pose a threat to them. Option B is seen in public transports. Option (b) may appear close
not correct, as it is not the message that the author wants by way of their indifference and people may vent out
to pass on. Option D is not valid as only the President their anger is to assume that all leaders are indifferent,
cannot be held liable for the death of Vandana Mishra as which is an extreme case. Option (a) and (d) strengthen
the VVIP convoy system was not implemented by him. the argument. In option (a), if people are in awe
86. (b) Statement I is contrary to the essence of the passage. (marvel), they do not want their leaders to conduct
Statement II is correct as it is the desirable course of themselves as commoners, but would like to know them
action, as per the author. Refer to the lines, ‘In New from afar and they are fine with the distance. Option (d)
Zealand, when the PM’s motorcade was caught over the is actually the inference of the main argument.
speed limit, it was fined for dangerous driving.’ 90. (a) This option aligns with the author’s critique of VVIP
Statement III is not the correct course of action for India, convoys causing public inconvenience and traffic
given the size of the population and a smooth working of congestion. By implementing penalties, the government
the functionary. A course of action should be practical would deter the overzealous practices associated with
and feasible, keeping in mind the place and the factors VVIP movements, promoting accountability among
involved. One country’s asset can be other country’s public servants. The reference to New Zealand’s
liability. Option B is the correct answer as Article 14 of approach indicates that the author advocates for a more
the Indian Constitution states that the law holds every citizen-friendly and responsible governance model.
person to be the same before it, and no one acquires a Option B is unsuitable because it contradicts the
higher position in the eyes of the law. So a politician passage's argument by proposing to increase VVIP
doesn’t have any right to violate traffic rules, just like an convoys, which would exacerbate traffic congestion and
ordinary man. Option A is incorrect as statement I is not public inconvenience. Option C, suggesting a public
the right course of action. Option C is incorrect as awareness campaign, fails to address the core issue of
Statement III is incorrect and Option D is incorrect as traffic disruptions caused by these convoys, leaving
both Statements I and III are wrong courses of action. citizens to continue facing delays without any real
87. (b) Option B is the correct answer as if any one of the solution. Similarly, Option D, which advocates for
political and administrative VVIP manifestations is not dedicated lanes for VVIPs, prioritizes the needs of public
done away, the people of India will continue to suffer, officials over the general public, reinforcing the culture
and their rights for equality will be infringed. Option A is of privilege criticized by the author.
not correct as it is not relevant information in the 91. (c) The correct answer is C. There were some members of
passage, and, therefore, not the right assumption. Option the MPC who voted against maintaining the status quo.
C is not valid, as bringing more innovative security into Therefore, this option is true according to the passage. A
action will not end the perils of democracy; therefore, is incorrect since the author has clearly stated that there

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 is some uncertainty over the duration of the withdrawal tightening monetary policy. Option D provides context
of the policy support. B is incorrect since this is in clear about global growth but does not directly impact the
contrast with Option C. D is incorrect since the author RBI's immediate policy decisions regarding domestic
has indicated that the fall in CPI indicates fall in the inflation and economic recovery.
inflation rate. 97. (d) Option (D) is the correct answer as these are mentioned
92. (a) The correct answer is A. This is the best representation in the second paragraph of the passage. Refer to the
of the main idea of the passage. The RBI is uncertain over lines, ‘it is possible now to usher in personalized
its plans to withdraw the policy support and it needs medicine, treatments that are tailor made for individual,
clarity over the durability of recovery to make a firm makes option (A) correct. Refer to the line, ‘It brings
move on the policy support that it provides. B is together all the aspects including information on the
incorrect since the second part of the option is not of any lifestyle of the individual, biological aspect and clinical
concern of the passage. C is incorrect since this is not the aspect all these help in creating a unique blueprint of the
main concern of the passage but only a general piece of individual or the patient’, which makes option (B)
information. D is incorrect as well, for the same reason correct. Refer to the line, ‘Early detection of disease
as that of Option B’s second part. becomes significantly easier that provides the medical
93. (c) The correct answer is C. The author has indicated that practitioner with the power to easily diagnose and
the RBI’s stance on growth considerations is likely to provide accurate treatment for the same.’ This makes
change with time as there is more clarity over the option (C) correct. Therefore, option (D) is the correct
durability. Refer to the lines, ‘The withdrawal of policy answer.
support is likely to be gradual with the process playing 98. (a) An assumption is the basis of an argument on which the
out at multiple levels — beginning with normalisation of argument is built upon. It is the core idea behind the
liquidity, which has begun, followed by a hike in the argument left unsaid or taken for granted by the author.
reverse repo, a shift in the stance from accommodative The above argument relies on the fact that the aging
to neutral, culminating in a repo rate hike. However, the people require monitoring on basic functioning. Look at
duration over which this plays out is uncertain. Perhaps the statement…providing timely medical supplies, smart
a few more months of data will provide greater clarity heating devices or temperature control, etc. Therefore,
over the durability of the recovery, allowing the MPC to option (A) is the answer. Option (B)is far-fetched even
firm up its exit plans.’ A is incorrect since this is not of for an assumption. This cannot be the assumption, as it
any concern in the passage. B is in clear contrast with is an extreme case, which cannot be the basis for the
what the pieces of evidence in the passage suggest. argument. Option (C)is not the correct assumption
Option (d) is incorrect because the passage discusses a because the passage does not explicitly state or imply
gradual withdrawal of policy support rather than that all elderly people live alone. The argument focuses
immediate or drastic changes. on the need for monitoring and assistance to enhance
94. (d) The correct answer is D. The author has presented comfort, which could apply regardless of whether
evidence for option A in the subsequent sentence of “So elderly people live alone or with others.. Option (D) may
far, the MPC has continued to attach primacy to growth be confusing, but again on closer look, one can see that is
considerations.” The author has presented some pieces it an absolute assumption. The assumption is that all the
of evidence for option B in the subsequent sentence of aging people are unable to perform the basic
“But the decision was not unanimous.” Option C is a functioning.
claim which is inconsistent with the author’s claims. 99. (d) To undermine an argument is to weaken it. To weaken an
95. (d) Neither of the assumptions are inbuilt in the passage. argument, one has to negate the contention of the
Assumption I, though partly true in terms of that there author. In the passage, the author makes the point that
are more than one committee of the RBI, since the post pandemic, life has been difficult for the elderly
passage mentions the monetary policy committee of the people and AI is the way to make life comfortable. To
RBI, it is based on the assumption that the author must negate, one has to attack the fact that AI will not help.
put up the name of the committee in order to avoid Option (D) is the most suitable answer. If the elderly are
confusion, but the latter part of the statement cannot be not able to figure out a simple function of a mobile due
supposed apart from the monetary policy committee, the to weak faculty and poor memory, how would they
other committees also look into the monetary aspect. figure out multiple AI functions. Option (A) is rule out, as
Therefore, assumption I is incorrect. Assumption II is one is not sure of the post-pandemic situation. Pandemic
incorrect as it nullifies the argument completely. The has only highlighted the challenges of the aging people.
argument clearly states that one member was not in This does not negate the passage. Option (B) is far-
unison to the decision. Therefore, assumption II is fetched as it is absolute, and the fact the NGOs will help
incorrect, which makes option (d) as the answer. the elderly people. Option (C) strengthens the argument.
96. (b) Option B is the correct answer. Option B strengthens 100. (b) Option (B) covers most of the points that would make life
the case for shifting to a more neutral or restrictive comfortable for the elderly people. Option (A) is absurd,
policy by indicating that rising inflation expectations as teaching multi-tasking is not the solution; in fact, it is
can lead to actual inflation, reinforcing the need for the not making life comfortable. Option (C) is ruled out, as it
RBI to act preemptively. Option A presents a concern is one of the aspects and does not give a complete
about asset bubbles, but does not directly relate to the picture. Option (D), too, is one of the aspects, and does
immediate inflationary pressures that the RBI needs to not cover the entire gamut.
address. Option C emphasizes the need for continued 101. (b) The passage is about how artificial technology can help
support for small businesses, which could argue against make the lives of the elderly people comfortable. Option

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 (B) best reflects the main point in brief. Option (A) is out wants to say that much attention is already being given
of scope, as there is no mention of reversing of age. to cognitive skills, but one needs to realise the true value
Option (C) is close, but does not cover the essential point of soft skills too. Options B, C and D are true hence cannot
of technology. Option (D) is incomplete in terms of being be the correct answer here. Option B can be deduced
the main point. from these lines, ‘The main task of education and
102. (a) Option A identifies a critical flaw in the argument by research is to train people to perform in future economic
pointing out that the assumption of universal access to and technological environments with many unknowns.’
technology and the internet among the elderly is Option C can be derived from, ‘Human improvement, the
problematic. Without this access, the proposed benefits ability to try new technologies should not be overlooked
of big data and AI cannot be realized for many as higher productivity embedded in new technology only
individuals. Option B is less relevant because while blossoms if humans have the skill to manage technology.’
anecdotal evidence may be used, the focus is primarily And option D is derived from, ‘In recent decades most
on technology's impact, not solely on social lives. Option countries have fallen into the trap of overextending cost-
C raises a valid concern about the potential negative benefit analyses while training students to solve
effects of technology but does not directly address a flaw yesterday’s problems.’
in the primary argument. Option D is relevant but does 106. (c) Note that the author talks about what the current
not highlight a logical flaw in the argument itself; rather, education and research patterns include and focus on.
it points out an oversight regarding costs. For it to become holistic and ensure all round
103. (c) Option C is the correct answer as it is mentioned in the development, it must include soft skills that more closely
passage that education and research are increasingly out relate to interpersonal skills so that human
of touch with demand for skills. Refer to the first line of improvement aspect can be covered and one can easily
the second paragraph. Option A is incorrect as it adapt to the required skillset for the plethora of job
mentions that the education and research offer no opportunities knocking the door in the domains of
productivity benefits, while the passage mentions, ‘Much health and entertainment. So, option C is the correct
attention is devoted to high-caliber education and answer. Option A does not carry enough weightage to be
research and for good reason’. Nowhere it undermines the answer, as it is incomplete. Option B is far-fetched
productivity, but yes, it does talk about adding value to it and does not find support in the passage. Option D is
by realizing the importance of human factors and soft contrary to what the author says. In fact, he laments the
skills, making option C correct. Option B: This is also short-term planning on education programmes. Refer to
untrue as the passage mentions ‘tendency to focus on the line, ‘Governments enforce short-term fiscal
cognitive skills, including the STEM topics of science, planning on education programs, yet measuring social
technology’, which means that STEM competency is skills is not as easy as calculating STEM competences.’
being paid equal attention, not that it is being paid less 107. (b) The correct answer is option B. The central flaw is a fault
attention. Option D is contradictory as the author makes in the core idea of the author’s argument; basically, the
the opposite contention in the passage. Refer to the lines, assumption is flawed. The author argues that while more
‘Education and research are increasingly out of touch attention is given high-calibre education and research
with demand for skills. The tendency to focus on and for good reason, there is a trend in demand for
cognitive skills, including the STEM topics of science, human factors, which means that he considers that the
technology, engineering, and mathematics, cannot high-calibre education and research and human factors
preclude the productivity benefit of soft skills – applying are two separate entities and that there is no
knowledge and finding opportunities offered by interconnectedness between them. He fails in making
technology.’ the logical point that as the trend changes with more
104. (d) The correct answer is option D. Note that the passage emphasis on the human factors, the high-calibre
through out talks about how not only cognitive skills are education and research will be moulded to suit the
necessary, but there is a dire need to focus on inculcating demand. Option B reflects the flaw in the reasoning.
soft skills that involve human factors. Owing to this, Option (a) is the main argument of the author. Option (c)
option D is the only correct choice here. Option A cannot be the central flaw to be the flaw as the author
mentions only cognitive skills which is incorrect. Option does argue that the two are separate entities. Therefore,
B The passage talks about holistic education and this statement cannot be the central flaw. Option (d) is
learning new technologies rather than only far-fetched as a flaw. It is not suggested in the argument;
concentrating on academics. So this option is also therefore, cannot represent the central flaw.
incorrect. Option C is a fact stated in the passage, it is not 108. (a) The author argues that while cognitive skills,
just the main theme. particularly in STEM fields, are important, they cannot
105. (a) The correct answer is A owing to these lines of the solely prepare students for the unknowns of future
passage, ‘The tendency to focus on cognitive skills, employment, particularly without the integration of soft
including the STEM topics of science, technology, skills. Therefore, the assertion that STEM education
engineering, and mathematics, cannot preclude the alone is sufficient is contrary to the author's perspective.
productivity benefit of soft skills – applying knowledge Options B and C are not the correct answers because
and finding opportunities offered by technology.’ Note they align with the author's arguments. The author
that cognitive skill relates to conscious intellectual emphasizes the importance of integrating soft skills into
effort, such as thinking, reasoning, or remembering. ... education to ensure adaptability and innovation in the
Noncognitive or “soft skills” are related to motivation, workplace, making option B a statement the author
integrity, and interpersonal interaction. The author would likely agree with. Similarly, the author highlights

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 the need for education to focus on human factors to 3n + 4n + 2n + n = 200
address the needs of an aging population, which is ⇒ 10 n=200
exactly what option C states. n=20
Students who passed in exactly two subjects = d+ e + f =
SECTION-E : QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUES 4n = 4×20 = 80.
109. (c) is the right answer 116. (d) is the right answer
- V1 V2 V3

Initial volume: 0L 40 L milk 80 L W water

After operation 0 20 L M + 20 L 60 L w + 20 L
1: W milk
After operation 0 15 L M + 25 L 55 L w + 25 L
2: W milk
110. (b) is the right answer It is given that, none = n,
- V1 V2 V3 g = 2n
Initial volume: 0L 40 L milk 80 L W water (a + b+c+d +e+f + g) = (a + b+ c)3
After operation 0 20 L M + 20 L 60 L w + 20 L a + b + c = 3n
1: W milk d+e+f=4n
After operation 0 15 L M + 25 L 55 L w + 25 L g=2n
2: W milk (a + b + c + d + e + f + g + n) = 200
111. (a) is the right answer 3n + 4n + 2n + n = 200
- V1 V2 V3 ⇒ 10 n=200
n=20
Initial volume: 0L 40 L milk 80 L W water
Students who passed in exactly one subject = a + b + c
After operation 1: 0 20 L M + 20 60 L w + 20 L
=3n
LW milk
3×20=60 Choice(D)
After operation 2: 0 15 L M + 25 55 L w + 25 L
117. (a) is the right answer
LW milk
Check from the above data.
112. (c) 80 L
113. (b) 2:1
114. (b) Is the correct answer.
115. (c) is the right answer

It is given that, none = n,

g = 2n
(a + b+c+d +e+f + g) = (a + b+ c)3
a + b + c = 3n
d+e+f=4n
g=2n
It is given that, none = n, (a + b + c + d + e + f + g + n) = 200
g = 2n 3n + 4n + 2n + n = 200
(a + b+c+d +e+f + g) = (a + b+ c)3 ⇒ 10 n=200
a + b + c = 3n n=20
d+e+f=4n 118. (a) 140
g=2n 119. (a) 3:2
(a + b + c + d + e + f + g + n) = 200 120. (d) 90%

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