z C ARE E R I NST I T UT E

IIT JEE || MEDICAL || +1, +2

BIOMOLECULES

Q1. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(a) All the elements present in a sample of earth's crust are also present in a sample
of living tissue
(b) Relative abundance of carbon and hydrogen with respect to other elements is
higher in any living organisms than in earth's crust
(c) Living organisms have more nitrogen and oxygen per unit mass than in animate
object (e.g. earth crust)
(d) Living organisms have more Ca, Mg, Na in them than in animate object
Q2. One of the following is almost not found in living organism:
(a) Sl (b) Mg (c) Ca (d) S

Q3.

A. Filtrate / Acid soluble pool B. Retentate acid insoluble fraction or pellet

I. Molecular weight ranging from 18 to 800 daltons (Da) approximately
II. Has four types of organic compounds - protein nucleic acid, polysaccharide and
lipid
III. Contain chemicals that have molecular weight more than 800 Da.
IV. Has monomers
V. Has generally polymers
VI. Represent chemical rough composition of cytosol
VII. Represent the framework of cytoplasm and cell organelles
Which of the following is the correct statements (I to VII) for A and B?
A B
(a) I, II, III IV, V, VI, VII
(b) II, IV, VI I, III, V, VII
(c) I, IV, VI II, III, V, VII
(d) I, III, V II, IV, VI, VII

Q4. Lipid come under acid insoluble fraction during analysis of chemical composition of
tissues. Why?
(a) It has low molecular weight
(b) It has high molecular weight
(c) It is polymer
(d) On grinding, the biomembranes are broken into pieces and form insoluble vesicles
Q5. The inorganic compounds like sulphate, phosphate, etc., are found in:
(a) Acid soluble pool

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 (b) Acid insoluble fraction
(c) Both acid soluble pool and acid insoluble fraction
(d) Not found in cellular pool
Q6. All of the following statements are correct except:
(a) Elemental analysis gives elemental composition of living tissues
(b) Analysis for compound gives an idea of the kind of organic and inorganic
constituents present in living tissues
(c) In plant ash contains carbon in maximum amount
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Q7. The four elements called “Big-four” which make up 95% of all elements found in a
living system are:
(a) C, H, O, N (b) C, H, O, P (c) C, H, O, S (d) C, N, O, P
Q8. The correct of order of chemical composition of living tissues / cells in term of % of the
total cellular mass is:
(a) Nucleic acid > Proteins > H2O > Carbohydrate > Ions > Lipid
(b) H2O > Proteins > Nucleic acid > Carbohydrate > Lipid > Ions
(c) H2O > Proteins > Carbohydrate > Nucleic acid > Lipid > Ions
(d) Lipid > Ions > Carbohydrate > H2O > Proteins > Nucleic acid
Q9. Which one is the correct average composition of cells in respect of % of total cellular
mass?
H2O Proteins Carbohydrate Lipid Nucleic acid Ions
(a) 70 - 90 10 - 15 3 2 5-7 1
(b) 70 - 90 3 10 - 15 2 5-7 1
(c) 70 - 90 10 - 15 2 3 1 5-7
(d) 70 - 90 3 10 - 15 2 5-7 1

Q10. The sum total composition of acid soluble and acid insoluble fraction represent the
entire emphenical composition of:
(a) Dead cells (b) Gene pool (c) Cellular pool (d) Gene library
Q11. Biomolecules are:
(a) Inorganic materials
(b) Organic materials
(c) All the carbon compounds obtained from living tissues
(d) Only DNA, RNA
Q12. In amino acid is a:
(a) Substituted methane (b) Substituted ethane
(c) Any acid having amino group (d) Derivative of indoacetic acid
Q13. In order to produce amino acids from methane how many substituents should occupy
the valency positions of the carbon:
(a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 4
Q14. Protein amino acids are called:
(a) -amino acids (b) -amino acids (c) -amino acids (d) -amino acids
Q15. The number of amino and carboxyl groups in an amino acid is never:

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 (a) 1 and 1 (b) 2 and 1 (c) 3 and 1 (d) 1 and 2
Q16. Which of the two groups of following formula involved in peptide bond between
different amino acids?

(a) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 4 (d) 2 and 4 (d) 2 and 4

Q17. The physical and the chemical properties of amino acids are essentially of the:
(a) Only amino group (b) Only the carboxyl group
(c) Only the R functional group (d) Amino, carboxyl and R groups
Q18. Which f the group in amino acids makes them unique:
(a) R group (b) NH2 group (c) COOH group (d) None of these
Q19. There are many types of amino acids on the basis of:
(a) NH2 group (b) COOH group (c) R group (d) None of these

Q20.

The correct names of above amino acids are:

AA1 AA2 AA3
(a) Glycine Serine Alanine
(b) Alanine Glycine Serine
(c) Serine Glycine Alanine
(d) Serine Alanine Glycine

Q21. Based up on the number of NH2 and COOH amino acids are:
(a) 3 types (b) 2 types (c) 4 types (d) 20 types
Q22. Which one is correct?
Acidic Amino Acids Basic Amino Acids Neutral Amino Acid
(a) Glutamic acid Lysine Valine
(b) Lysine Valine Glutamic acid
(c) Glutamic acid Valine Lysine
(d) Lysine Glutamic acid Valine

Q23. The aromatic amino acid(s) is (are):

(a) Typrosine (b) Phenylalanine (c) Tryptophan (d) All are correct

Q24.

Which of the above is Zwitterionic form?

(a) A (b) C (b) B (d) All are correct
Q25. The charged molecule which is electrically neutral is known as:

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 (a) Amide (b) Amino acid (c) Zwitterion (d) Polar amino acid
Q26. Types of amino acids universally used in protein synthesis are:
(a) 20 (b) 80 (c) 64 (d) 61
Q27. Which of the following statements is false?
(a) In solutions of different pH, the structure of amino acid changes
(b) Protein is a homopolymer
(c) Non-essential amino acids are synthesised by animals
(d) Dietary proteins are source of essential amino acids
Q28. Which one is the most abundant organic biomolecule in a cell?
(a) Water (b) Protein (c) DNA (d) mRNA
Q29. Which of the following are physically and chemically the most diverse in cells?
(a) Proteins (b) DNA (c) RNA (d) Nucleotide
Q30. All are proteins except:
(a) Receptors + Insulin (b) Antibody + Trypsin
(c) GLUT - 4 + Collagen (d) CoQ
Q31. Match correctly between Column-I and Column-II:
Column-I Column-II
A. Collagen I. Glucose transport
B. Trypsin II. Binding with some chemical like for
small tests and hormones
C. Insulin III. Hormones
D. Antibody IV. Enzyme
E. Receptor V. Intercellular ground substance
F. GLUT - 4 VI. Fight infectious agents
(a) A - V, B - IV, C - III, D - VI, E - II, F - I
(b) A - II, B - III, C - IV, D - V, E - VI, F - I
(c) A - VI, B - II, C - I, D - V, E - IV, F - III
(d) A - I, B - IV, C - III, D - VI, E - II, F - V
Q32. In animal world the most abundant protein is ________ while in the whole biosphere
the most abundant protein is ________:
(a) Antibody, Collagen (b) Collagen, RuBisCo
(c) RuBisCo, Collagen (d) Collagen, Oxidase

Q33. is found in all except:

(a) Polypeptides (b) Enzymes (c) Amino acid (d) Protein

Q34. Primary structure of protein is due to:
(a) Peptide bonds (b) Hydrogen bonds
(c) SS bride (d) Ionic bonds
Q35. Formation of protein / formation peptide bonds is a type of:
(a) Hydration analysis (b) Dehydration analysis
(c) Hydration synthesis (d) Dehydration synthesis
Q36. Which one of the following biomolecules will be different in different animals?
(a) Lipids (b) Vitamins (c) Carbohydrates (d) Proteins

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Q37. In some places a protein molecule may be folded back on itself. This is called _______
structure and folds or coils are held together in place by _______:
(a) 2°, H-bonds (b) 2°, Peptide bond
(c) 3°, H-bonds (d) 1°, Peptide bond
Q38. A protein has how many terminal amino acids and are called _________?
(a) 2; N-terminal amino acid and C-terminal amino acid
(b) 3; N-terminal amino acid, C-terminal amino acid, R-terminal amino acid
(c) 1; C-terminal amino acid
(d) 4; N-terminal amino acids

Q39.

(a) X is C-terminal amino acid and Y is N-terminal acid

(b) Both X and Y are C-terminal amino acids
(c) X is N-terminal amino acid and Y is C-terminal amino acid
(d) Both X and Y are N-terminal amino acid
Q40. All proteins:
(a) Are enzymes
(b) Are homopolymer
(c) Consists of one or more polypeptide chains
(d) Have a linear or flat shape
Q41. The primary structure of a protein is determined by its:
(a) Disulfide brides (b) A-helix structure
(c) Order of amino acids (d) 3D-structure
Q42. The quaternary structure of a protein:
(a) Consists of 4 subunits - hence the name quaternary
(b) Is unrelated to the function of the protein
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Depends on the 1° structure of subunits
Q43. Major classes of biologically significant large molecules include which of the following?
(a) Proteins (b) Nucleic acids
(c) Carbohydrates and Lipid (d) All are correct
Q44. Amino acids can be classified by the:
(a) Number of peptide bonds (b) Number of disulfide bridges they can form
(c) Number of carbon-carbon double (d) Characteristics of their side chains
Q45. The shape of folded protein is often determined by:
(a) Its tertiary structure (b) The sequence of its amino acids
(c) The number of peptide bonds (d) The Chargaff’s rule
Q46. The 20 different common amino acids have different:
(a) R-groups (b) Acid groups (c) Peptide bonds (d) 1° structure
Q47. A -pleated sheet organization in a polypeptide chain is an example of:
(a) 1° structure (b) 2° structure (c) 3° structure (d) 4° structure
Q48. Polysaccharides, polypeptides, and polynucleotides have in common that they all:
(a) Contain amino acids (b) Are formed in condensation reactions
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 (c) Contain nitrogen (d) Come out in acid soluble pool
Q49. The ________ structure of a protein relates to how separate polypeptides assemble
together:
(a) 1° (b) 2° (c) 3° (d) 4°
Q50. Which of the following statements concerning polymers is not true?
(a) Polymers are synthesised from monomers during condensation
(b) Polymers are synthesised from monomers by addition of water
(c) Polymers consist of atleast two types of monomers
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Q51. An  helix is the example of which level of protein structure?
(a) 1° (b 2° (c) 3° (d) 4°
Q52. Adult human haemoglobin consists of:
(a) 2 subunits (, ) (b) 2 subunits (, )
(c) 4 subunits (2, 2) (d) 3 subunits (2, 1)

Q53.

The correct name of X, Y and Z amino acids are:

(a) Glutamic acid, tyrosine and cysteine respectively
(b) Tyrosine, cysteine and glutamic acid
(c) Cysteine, tyrosine and glutamic acid respectively
(d) Cysteine, glutamic acid and tyrosine respectively
Q54. The overall three dimensional shape of polypeptide is called the:
(a) 1° structure (b) 2° structure (c) 3° structure (d) 4° structure
Q55. Which of the following is incorrect?
(a) Quaternary structure refers to the spatial relations between individual polypeptide
chains in a multichained protein
(b) The tertiary structure is absolutely necessary for many biological activities of
protein
(c) Biologists describe the protein structures at 3 levels only
(d) Protein structure is correlated with protein function
Q56. Primary protein structure determines which of the following additional levels of protein
organization?
(a) 2° (b) 3° (c) 2°, 3°, 4° (d) 4°
Q57. Which is the highest structural organization found in all enzymes?
(a) 2° (b) 3° (c) 1° (d) 4°

Q58.

What kinds of the structures of proteins are shown in the above figure?
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 (a) A = 1° structure, B = 2° structure, C = 3° structure, D = 4° structure
(b) A = 4° structure, B = 2° structure, C = 3° structure, D = 1° structure
(c) A = 1 ° structure, B = 4° structure, C = 3° structure, D = 2° structure
(d) A = 4° structure, B = 30 structure, C = 2° structure, D = 1° structure
Q59. What is the formula of a polypeptide consisting of 10 glycine molecules? The formula of
glycines C2H5O2:
(a) C6H12O0 (b) C20H32O11 (c) C30H16O6 (d) C25H16O6

Q60.

What is the structure enclosed by a box?

(a) An amino acid (b) Peptide bond (c) Glycosidic bond (d) Zwitterion
Q61. Lipids are:
(a) Insoluble in water
(b) Readily soluble in organic solvent
(c) Important constituent of biological membrane
(d) All are correct
Q62. You have isolated an unidentified liquid from a sample of beans. You add the liquid to a
beaker of water and shake vigorously. After a few minutes, the water and the other
liquid separate into two layers. To which class of biological molecules does the
unknown liquid most likely belong?
(a) Carbohydrates (b) Lipid (c) Proteins (d) Enzymes
Q63. In a saturated fat, you would expect to find all of the following except:
(a) Single-bonded carbon atoms
(b) CH3 at one end
(c) Fatty acid(s) attached with glycerol
(d) Double bonded carbon atoms fatty acids
Q64. Arachnidonic acid and palmatic acids have how many carbons in each of them:
(a) 16, 16 (b) 16, 20 (c) 20, 16 (d) 18, 18
Q65. Glycerol is:
(a) Tetrahydroxy propane (b) Trihydroxy propane
(c) Trihydroxy butane (d) Tetrahydroxy butane
Q66. A fat has:
(a) 3 glycerol and one fatty acid molecule
(b) One glycerol and 3 fatty acid molecules
(c) 3 glycerol and 3 fatty acid molecules
(d) One glycerol and one fatty acid molecule
Q67. CH3 - (CH2)14 - COOH
The above is the formula of:
(a) Phospholipid (b) Plamatic acid (c) Triglyceride (d) Arachidonic acid

Q68.

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 The above is the formula of:
(a) Steroid (b) Lecithin (c) Triglyceride (d) Monoglyceride
Q69. Lecithin is:
(a) Phospholipid (b) Carbohydrate (c) Protein (d) Amino acid
Q70. This molecule is related to:

(a) Phospholipid (b) Lecithin (c) Cholesterol (d) Oleic acid

Q71. All carbohydrates and lipids have similarity in possessing:
(a) C, H, O (b) N, S, Protein
(c) Carboxylic and amino group (d) Carboxylic and hydroxyl group
Q72. The molecular is as follows:

The correct name of bonds indicated by A and B are:

A B
(a) Ester bond Ether bond
(b) Ester bond Amide bond
(c) Ether bond Amide bond
(d) Ester bond Phosphoester bond

Q73. Which one is false?

(a) Fatty acids may be unsaturated (with one or more C = C bonds) or a saturated
(without double bonds)
(b) Fatty acid(s) may be esterified with glycerol forming monoglyceride, diglyceride
and then triglyceride
(c) Some times especially neural tissues have lipid very much simple structures
(d) Fats and oils are triglycerides

Q74.

The above diagrammatic representation is the formula of:

(a) Lecithin (b) Cholesterol (c) Uridylic acid (d) Phosphatic acid
Q75. Which one of the following is false?
(a) Fatty acid and glycerol are soluble in water

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 (b) Phospholipids are found in the cell membrane
(c) In lipid R group may be -CH3 group, -C2Hs group or higher number of -CH2 group (1
to 19 carbon)
(d) Oils have lower melting temperature
Q76. Which of following diagrams represents a molecule of simple lipid?

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

Q77. Cholesterol belongs to:

(a) Enzyme (b) Carbohydrate (c) Lipid (d) Protein
Q78. One of the following suggests the chemical similarity between amino acids and fatty
acid:

(a) (b) (c) (d) CH2  CH2

Q79.

The above diagram represent the nitrogenous bases. Identify the correct combination:
(a) A = Adenine; B = Thymine (b) A = Guanine; B = Thymine
(c) A = Adenine; B = Uracil (d) A = Guanine; B = Uracil
Q80. Which one of the following is the diagrammatic representation of a nucleotide?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Q81. Which one is false about the diagram?

(a) It is an adenylic acid

(b) It is an adenosine
(c) It will form adenylic acid if it binds with phosphate
(d) It is a nucleoside
Q82. Which one is correct?
(a) Adenine = Pyrimidine; Uracil = Purine
(b) Adenine = Purine; Uracil = Purine
(c) Adenine = Adenylic acid; Uracil = Uridylic acid
(d) Adenine = Purine; Uracil = Pyrimidine

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Q83. Adenosine, Guanosine, thymidine, uridine, cytidine are all ________ but adenylic acid,
guanylic acid, uridylic acid, cytidylic acid are ______:
(a) Nucleotides, nucleosides (b) Nucleosides, nucleotides
(c) Nucleotides, nucleic acids (d) Nucleotides, nucleases

Q84.

A is:
(a) Glycosidic bond (b) Phosphate bond
(c) Ester bond (d) Ionic bond
Q85. Choose the incorrect statements:
(a) N-bases (A, G, C, T, U) have heterocyclic rings
(b) In cellular organisms DNA is genetic material
(c) Adenylic acid is nucleoside
(d) Cytidine is a nucleoside

Q86.

The correct combination is:

A B C
(a) Adenine (N-base) Adenosine (Nucleotide) Adenosine (Nucleoside)
(b) Adenine (N-base) Adenosine (Nucleoside) Adenosine (Nucleotide)
(c) Adenosine (Nucleoside) Adenylic acid (Nucleotide) Adenine (N-base)
(d) Adenosine (Nucleoside) Adenylic acid (Nucleotide)

Q87. Plants produce an enormous diversity of substances that have no apparent roles in
growth and development processes are classified under the heading of:
(a) Primary metabolites (b) Secondary metabolites
(c) Necessary metabolites (d) Tertiary metabolites
Q88. Which one is secondary metabolite:
(a) Amino acid (b) Lipid (c) Alkaloid (d) Protein
Q89. Which of the following statements is false?
(a) The study of plant secondary metabolites has many practical application
(b) Some secondary metabolites have ecological importance
(c) The types of secondary metabolites in animal cells are more than that in plant cells
(d) Secondary metabolites are found in fungi, microbes and plants
Q90. Go through the following statements-
A. Primary metabolites are biochemicals formed as intermediates and products of
normal vital metabolic pathways of organisms
B. Plant tissues produce only secondary metabolites
C. Secondary metabolites have restricted distribution in the plant kingdoms only.
D. Secondary metabolites are derivatives of primary metabolites.
E. Many plants, fungi and microbes synthesise secondary metabolites.

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 F. No secondary metabolite has ecological importance.
G. We understand the role of all secondary metabolites in the host organisms.
H. Many secondary metabolites are of economic importance to us.
Which of the above statement are wrong?
(a) A, B, C are wrong (b) D, E, F are wrong
(c) A, D, E are wrong (d) B, C, F, G are wrong
Q91. Which one of the following is not a polymeric substance?
(a) Rubber (b) Morphine (c) Gum (d) Cellulose
Q92. Which of the following second metabolites are used as drugs?
(a) Abrin + Ricin (b) Vinblastin + Curcumin
(c) Anthocyanine (d) Ricin + Glucosinolates
Q93. Which one is the secondary metabolites?
(a) Lemon oil grass (b) Sucrose
(c) Maltose (d) Amino acid
Q94. Match the Column-I with Column-II correctly:
Column-I Column-II
(Category) (Secondary Metabolites)
A. Pigments I. Concanavalin A
B. Terpenoides II. Monoterpenes, Diterpenes
C. Alkaloids III. Morphine, Cadeine
D. Lectins IV. Carotenoids, Anthocyanine
(a) A - IV, B - II, C - III, D - I (b) A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I
(c) A - I, B - IV, C - III, D - II (d) A - I, B - III, C - II, D - IV
Q95. Which one(s) is (are) secondary metabolites?
(a) Flavonoids and Rubber (b) Antiotics and coloured pigments
(c) Scents, gums, spices (d) All are correct
Q96. Three important polysaccharides made up of glucose monomers are:
(a) Sucrose, Lactose, maltose (b) Chitin, Glycogen, Starch
(c) Starch, Glycogen, Cellulose (d) RNA, DNA, Starch
Q97. Which one is homopolymer?
(a) Starch, Cellulose, Glycogen and Inulin
(b) Insulin, Chitin, Pectin
(c) Cellulose, Insulin, polypeptide
(d) Protein, Lipid and polysaccharide
Q98. In animals, glucose is stored as while in plants stored as:
(a) Cellulose, starch (b) Starch, glycogen
(c) Cellulose, glycogen (d) Glycogen, Starch
Q99. C16H32O2 and C16H30O15 are _________ and ________ respectively:
(a) Protein, Starch (b) Lipid, Protein
(c) Cellulose, Pectine (d) Lipid, Carbohydrate
Q100. Cellulose is found in:
(a) Cell wall plant (b) Paper
(c) Cotton (d) All are correct
Q101. Inulin consists of:

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 (a) Only glucose (b) Only fructose (c) Only maltose (d) Protein
Q102. Which one is heteropolymer?
(a) Chitin (b) Peptidoglycan
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Inulin
Q103. The below structural formula belongs to:

(a) Glucose (b) Ribose (c) Sucrose (d) Deoxyribose

Q104. The below structural formula belongs to:

(a) Glucose (b) Ribose (c) Sucrose (d) Deoxyribose

Q105. Which of the following statements is false?
(a) Chitin, a complex or heteropolysaccharide occurring in exoskeleton of arthopods
consists of NAG
(b) Glucosamine and N-acetylglucosamine are modified sugar
(c) Cellulose shows blue colour when treated with I2
(d) Starch shows blue colour when treated with I2
Q106. I. Right end of polysaccharide is called reducing end while left end is called
nonreducing end.
II. Starch can hold I2 molecules in its helical secondary structure but cellulose being
non helical, cannot hold I2
III. Starch and glycogen are branched molecule
IV. Starch in plant and glycogen in animal are store houses of energy
(a) I and IV are correct (b) II and III are correct
(c) Only IV is correct (d) All are correct
Q107. In polysaccharide the individual monosaccharides are linked by a bond. THis bond is
formed by dehydration. The bond is:
(a) Ester bond (b) Glycosidic bond
(c) H-bond (d) Ionic bond
Q108. Identify A and B bonds in the following diagrammatic representation of a portion of
glycogen:

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 (a) A = 1-4 -glycosidic bonds, B = 1-6 -glycosidic bonds
(b) A = 1-6 -glycosidic bonds, B = 1-4 -glycosidic bonds
(c) A = 1-1 -glycosidic bonds, B = 1-1 -glycostdlc bonds
(d) A = 1-4 -glycosidic bonds, B = 1-4 -glycostdic bonds
Q109. The most common monomer of carbohydrates is a molecule of:
(a) Glucose (b) Fructose (c) Ribose (d) Deoxyribose
Q110. Which kind of reaction is shown by the following diagram?

(a) Hydrolysis (b) Dehydration (c) Denaturation (d) Hydration

Q111. Catabolic and anabolic pathways are often coupled in cell because:
(a) The intermediates of a catabolic pathway are used in the anabolic pathway
(b) Both the pathway use the same energy
(c) The free energy released from one pathway is used to drive other
(d) Their enzymes are controlled by their same activators and inhibitors
Q112. In a spontaneous reaction, the free energy of a system:
(a) Decreases (b) Increases
(c) Becomes equal to zero (d) Remains unchanged
Q113. Cells continue to function only when a metabolic disequilibrium is in effect. How do
cells avoid reaching metabolic equilibrium?
(a) Providing constant supply of enzymes
(b) Cellular metabolism utilizes only those reactions that are irreversible
(c) Use feedback inhibition to turn off pathways
(d) The products of one reaction become the reactant of another reaction and are
unable to accumulate
Q114. Choose the all incorrect statements:
I. Assembly of a protein from amino acids requires energy
II. When glucose is degraded into lactic acid in our muscles energy is liberated
III. Bond energy (ATP) is utilized for biosynthesis, osmotic and mechanical work that
we perform
IV. Majority of metabolic reactions can occur in isolation
V. There are many examples of uncatalysed metabolic reactions
(a) All are correct (b) None of these (c) IV and V (d) I and III
Q115. I. Acetic acid can form cholesterol
II. Anabolic pathway is endergonic while catabolic pathway is exergonic

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 III. All biomolecules have a turn over i.e. they are constantly being changed into
some other biomolecules and also made from other biomolecules.
IV. Flow of metabolites through metabolic pathway has a definite rate and direction.
It is called dynamic state of body constituents
(a) All are correct (b) All are wrong
(c) I and II are correct (d) Only IV are correct
Q116. Complete the following sentence:
ADP + Pi  ATP is an ______ reaction, ATP  ADP + Pi is an ______ reaction, and the
conversion of ADP + Pi to ATP ______ energy:
(a) Exergonic, endergonic, releases (b) Exergonic, Endergonic, requires
(c) Endergonic, exergonic, requires (d) Exergonic, endergonic does not involve
Q117. Which one is false?
I. Energy can enter and leave a cell
II. Matter can enter and leave a cell
III. A cell can use energy, from other sources to increase its order and complexcity
IV. Metabolic pathways are interlinked
V. Blood concentration of glucose in a normal healthy person is 4.5 - 5.0 mM, while
that of hormones would be nanogram / mL
VI. Living process is a constant effort to promote falling into equilibrium
(a) Only V (b) Only VI (c) Only I and IV (d) Only IV
Q118. Choose the correct statement(s):
(a) Living steady state has a self regulatory mechanism called homeostasis
(b) Energy flow and energy transformation of living system follow law of
thermodynamics
(c) Metabolism is release and gain of energy
(d) All are correct
Q119. Which one is incorrect?
(a) Organisms live at the expense of free energy
(b) ATP powers the cellular work by complying exergonic reaction to endergonic
reactions
(c) All living organisms exist in a steady state characterized by concentrations of
biomolecules. Biomolecules are in a metabolic flux
(d) None of these
Q120. Choose the false statement:
(a) The living state is a non-equilibrium steady state to be able to perform work
(b) The constant flow of material or energy in and out of cell prevent from reaching
equilibrium
(c) Living state and metabolism are synonymous
(d) None of these
Q121. What is the most correct about enzymes?
(a) All enzymes are basically proteins (b) All proteins are basically proteins
(c) Some proteins are enzymes (d) Some enzymes are proteins
Q122. Choose the incorrect statements:
(a) Active enzyme has tertiary structure having many active sites (substrate binding
sites)
(b) Enzyme are different from catalyst in being proteinaceous
(c) Enzymes occur in viruses
(d) Enzymes are biocatalyst

[Page No. 14]

Q123. Which one is correct?
(a) Inorganic catalysts work efficiently at high temperature and high pressure while
enzymes get damaged at high temperature (above 40°C)
(b) Thermophilic organisms living in hot vents and sulphur springs have enzymes that
are stable and retain their catalytic power even at high temperature (80 - 90°C)
(c) Ribozymes are nucleic acids behaving like enzyme
(d) All are correct
Q124. CO2  H2O  H2CO3
Carbonic acid
Which one is incorrect about the above reaction?
(a) Without enzyme, the rate of H2CO3 formation is 200 molecules per hour
(b) When carbonic anhydrase catalyses the same reaction, there is no change in the
rate of H2CO3 formation
(c) The reaction catalysed by the enzyme shows speeds with about 600,000 molecules
being formed / sec. (10 million times more rate)
(d) The enzymes occurs in cytoplasm of certain cells
Q125. The energy required for life processes must be extracted from an organisms:
(a) Nucleus (b) Biosynthesis (c) Enzyme (d) Environment
Q126. Which of the following statements about enzymes is true?
I. Enzymes do not alter the overall change in free energy for a reaction
II. Enzymes are proteins whose three dimensional shape is key to their functions
III. Enzymes speed up reactions by lowering activation energy
IV. Enzyme are highly specific for reactions
V. An enzyme like any protein has the secondary and tertiary structure.
VI. The energy input needed to start a chemical reaction is called activation energy
(a) All are correct (b) All except V (c) V and VI (d) II and IV
Q127. Which of the following are unique features about the enzyme?
(a) They are not consumed by the enzyme-mediated reaction
(b) They are not altered by the enzyme-mediated reaction
(c) They lower the activation energy
(d) All are correct
Q128. Which statement about the enzymes is true?
(a) They act to speed up a biochemical reaction
(b) They are made up of protein or RNA in some cases
(c) They are sensitive to temperature and pH
(d) All are correct
Q129. Of the two chemical reactions showing the following figures reaction 1 is:

(a) Faster and more endergonic than 2 (b) Faster and more exergonic than 2
(c) Slower and more endergonic than 2 (d) Slower and more exergonic than 2
Q130. Which one(s) of the following statements is correct?

[Page No. 15]

 (a) Enzymes accelerate reactions by stabilizing transition state
(b) A chemical reaction of substrate to form product goes through a transition state
that a higher free energy than either substrate or a product(s)
(c) The rate of formation of E-S complex is the same as the rate of breakdown of this
complex either to products or back to reactant
(d) All are correct
Q131. Select all false statements for an enzyme promoting a chemical reaction by:
I. Lowering the energy of activation
II. Causing the release of heat, which acts as a primer
III. Increasing molecular motion
IV. Changing the free energy difference between substrate and product
(a) I and IV (b) II and III (c) II, III, IV (d) III and IV
Q132. Activation energy:
(a) Is the difference in the average energy content of 'S' from that of its transition
state
(b) Helps to change reactants into unstable transition state before they can be
converted into products
(c) Is minimum energy required from outside to overcome the energy barrier of
reactant or to start a reaction
(d) All are correct

Q133.

I. Segment representing the energy of activation

II. Segment representing the amount of free energy released by the reaction
III. Transition state
IV. Segment would be the same regardless of whether the reaction were
uncatalysed or catalysed
Which one is correct?
I II III IV
(a) 1 3 2 4
(b) 1 2 3 2
(c) 1 3 2 4
(d) 1 2 4 3

Q134. The steps in catalytic cycle of an enzyme action are given in random order:
I. The enzyme releases the products. Now enzyme is free to bind another
substrate
II. The active sites, now in close proximity of substrate breaks the bond of
substrate and E-P complex forms

[Page No. 16]

 III. Binding of substrate induces the enzyme to alter its shape fitting more tightly
around the substrate
IV. The substrate binds to the active site of enzyme (i.e. fitting into the active site.
The correct order is:
(a) I, II, Ill, IV (b) IV, III, II, I (c) I, III, II, IV (d) I, II, IV, III
Q135. Which one is correct?
(a) E + S  ES  E + P  EP (b) E + S  ES  E – P  E + P
(c) E  S ES EP EP (d) E  S ES  E  P  E  P
Q136. Which one of the graphs shows the effect of pH on the velocity of a typical enzymatic
reaction (V)?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Q137. Which one of the graphs show the effect of temperature on the velocity of a typical
enzymatic reaction?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Q138. Which one of the following graphs show the relationship between the rate of an
enzymatic activity and substrate conc.(S):

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Q139. Which of the following statement is correct?

(a) Enzymes generally function in a narrow range of temperature and pH
(b) Enzymes show maximum activity at optimum temperature and optimum pH
(c) Enzymes remain in temporary inactive state at low temperature but higher
temperature destroy enzymatic activity due to denaturation of proteins
(d) All are correct
Q140. Choose the correct statement(s):
(a) Km (Michaelis - Menten) constant is the substrate concentration at which the
enzymatic reaction attains half of its maximum velocity (1/2 Vmax)
(b) At lower Km, higher the substrate affinity for enzyme
(c) Vmax is reached when all the active sites of an enzyme are saturated with
substrate
(d) All are correct
Q141. In competitive inhibition:
(a) Inhibitor resembles the substrate in molecular structure
(b) Competition between substrates and inhibitors to occupy active sites
(c) Binding the inhibitors to activities sites declines the enzyme action
(d) All are correct
Q142. Sulpha drugs / sulphanilamides kill bacteria by inhibiting synthesis of folic acid from
para-aminobenzoic acid. This type of control of bacterial pathogens is:
(a) Noncompetitive inhibition (b) Allosteric inhibition
(c) Competitive inhibition (d) Negative feed back
[Page No. 17]
Q143. Inhibition of succinate dehydrogenase by malonate is the example of:
(a) Noncompetitive inhibition (b) Competitive inhibition
(c) Allosteric inhibition (d) Negative feed back
Q144. Enzymes are divided into:
(a) 6 classes, each with 4 - 13 subclasses and named accordingly by a four-digit
number
(b) 7 classes, each with 4 - 13 subclasses and named accordingly by a four-digit
number
(c) 6 classes, each with 4 - 13 subclasses and named accordingly by a three-digit
number
(d) 6 classes, each with 4 - 20 subclasses and named accordingly by a four-digit
number
Q145. Match the Column-I with Column-II correctly:
Column-I Column-II
1. Class - I I. Ligases
2. Class - II II. Isomerases
3. Class - III III. Lyases
4. Class - IV IV. Hydrolases
5. Class V V. Transferase
6. Class VI VI. Oxidoreductase or dehydrogenase or Redox enzyme
(a) 1 - I, 2 - II, 3 - III, 4 - IV, 5 - V, 6 - VI
(b) 1 - I, 2 - III, 3 - V, 4 - II, 5 - IV, 6 - VI
(c) 1 - VI, 2 - V, 3 - IV, 4 - III, 5 - II, 6 - I
(d) 1 - II, 2 - IV, 3 - VI, 4 - I, 5 - III, 6 - V
Q146. According to IUB system, isomerases belong to which class?
(a) 1 (b) III (c) V (d) IV
Q147. Apoenzyme and coenzyme collectively produce:
(a) Holoenzyme (b) Enzyme product complex
(c) Cofactor (d) Prosthetic group
Q148. The suffix '' added to substrate for naming the enzyme is:
(a) Ase (b) in (c) sine (d) ose
Q149. The Hexokinase in the following reaction is kept under which class?
Hexokinase
Glucos e  ATP   Glucos e 6  Phosphate  ADP
Mg 
(a) Lyase (b) Ligase (c) Isomerase (d) Transferase
Q150. The enzyme concerned with transfer of electrons is:
(a) Oxidoreductase (b) Cytochrome oxidase
(c) Dehydrogenase (d) All of the above
Q151. Amylase is an example of:
(a) Oxidoreductase (b) Transferase
(c) Hydrolase (d) Ligase
Q152. Which of the following enzymes does not belong to the class V of enzyme
classification?
(a) Isomerases (b) Mutases (c) Epimerases (d) Dehydrogenases
Q153. A. Catalyses the transfer of a group (other than hydrogen).

[Page No. 18]

 B. Catalyses removal group from substrates by mechanism other than hydrolysis
leaving double bond
C. Catalyzing the linking of 2 molecules by using energy into one molecule.
Identify the classes of enzymes for above functions:
A B C
(a) Ligase Lyase Transferase
(b) Transferase Lyase Ligase
(c) Lyase Ligase Transferase
(d) Transferase Ligase Lyase

Q154. When apoenzyme is separated from its metal components activity is:
(a) Decreased (b) Increased (c) Lost (d) Not effected
Q155. Cofactors are:
(a) Nonprotein organic molecules (b) Certain vitamins
(c) Metallic ions (d) All of the above
Q156. Which of the following combinations is correct?
(a) Metal ions loosely attached with apoenzyme - Activators
(b) Non protein organic part attached to apoenzyme firmly - Prostatic group
(c) Non protein organic part attached loosely to apoenzyme - Coenzyme
(d) All of the above
Q157. Which one is not cofactor?
(a) Coenzyme (b) Apoenzyme
(c) Prosthetic group (d) Metal ions
Q158. Which one is correct?
(a) Cofactor plays crucial role in catalytic activity of the enzymes
(b) Zn is activator of carboxypeptidase
(c) Catalase and peroxidase have haem as prosthetic group
(d) All are correct
Q159. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
I. Nearly 1/3rd of all enzymes requires the presence of metal ions for catalytic
function
II. Metal ions form coordinate bond with side chain at active site of metalloenzyme
and at the same time form one or more coordinate bonds with the substrate
III. NAD and NAD (coenzymes) contain niacin (vit.)
IV. Coenzyme are organic compounds but their association with the apoenzyme is
only transient, usually occurring during catalysis
(a) All are correct (b) Only III and IV (c) Only IV (d) None of the above
Q160. The figure given below shows the conversion of a substate into product by an enzyme.
In which one of the four options (a-d) the components of reaction labelled as A, B, C
and D are identified correctly?

[Page No. 19]

 A B C D
(a) Potential energy Transition state Activation energy Activation energy
with enzyme without enzyme
(b) Transition state Potential energy Activation energy Activation energy
without enzyme with enzyme
(c) Potential energy Transition state Activation energy Activation energy
with enzyme without enzyme
(d) Activation energy Transition state Activation energy Potential energy
with enzyme without enzyme

Q161. Dihydroxy acetone phosphate and glyceraldehyde -3-phospliate are reversibly

intereonvertible:

The enzyme that catalyzes the above reaction is:

(a) Aldolase (b) Isomerase
(c) Phospho glycerokinase (d) Phospho glyceromutase
Q162. The following graph depicts the effect of temperature on the activity of the two
enzymes A and B that catalyze the same reaction. Choose the correct statenicnt(s) for
these results:

A. The rate of reaction in each case increases with increase in temperature and
declines at higher temperatures due to denaturation of the enzyme.
B. Both the enzymes A and B are thermolabile.
C. At higher temperature, the reactants become highly energized and fail to
interact with the active site, thus decreasing the rate of reaction.
D. The enzyme A is from a mesophilic organism, whereas the enzyme B is from a
thennophilic organism.
(a) A and B (b) B and C (c) C and D (d) A, B, D
Q163. Suppose all the reactions in a unicellular organism have come to equilibrium. This:
(a) Signals the birth of the organism
(b) Happens-when the organism is at rest
(c) Is true at all the times
(d) Leads to death

[Page No. 20]

Q164. Enzymes are biocatalysts that catalyse reactions at very high rates compared to
chemical catalysts. They are specific to the substrate and reaction they catalyse. A few
statements about enzymes are made below:
(i) Not every enzyme is proteinacious in nature.
(ii) Some RNAs also are enzymes.
(iii) The active site of the enzyme is complementary to the transition state.
(iv) Enzymes alter the equilibrium constant of the reaction.
(v) Enzymes catalyse only irreversible reactions.
Which of the above statements are true?
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (ii), (iii), and (iv)
(c) (iii), (iv), and (v) (d) (i), (ii), and (v)
Q165. Which one of the following is made up of only one type of macromolecules?
(a) Virus (b) Plasmid (c) Ribosome (d) Nucleosome
Q166. Ball and stick models emphasize the ________ of a molecule but fail to suggest its
________:
(a) Overall shape; bonding (b) Bonding; overall size
(c) Overall size; bonding (d) Geometry; overall shape
Q167. The adjoining graph shows change in conc. of substrate on enzyme activity. Identify A,
B and C:

A B C
(a) Ki Km Vmax
(b) Vmax Km Ki
2
(c) Vmax Km Vmax
2
(d) Km Vmax Vmax
2

Q168. Find out the correct one:

(a) Cellulose is the most abundant carbohydrate
(b) 50% of all photosynthetic products constitute cellulose
(c) Rubisco the most abundant protein on earth
(d) All are correct
Q169. Find out wrong one:
(a) Fevicol is a synthetic resin (polyvinyl alcohol)
(b) Biurets test, solubility test / Grease test and Ninhydrin test are done for protein,
fat (oil) and AAs respectively
(c) Gums are heteropolysaccharide
(d) Low Km value indicates lower susbtrate affinity

[Page No. 21]

Q170. What happens when milk is converted into curd or yoghurt?
(a) Bacterial enzymes convert lactose into lactic acid
(b) Globular milk protein is converted into fibrous protein
(c) Vitamin C is changed into Thiamine
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Q171. Which of the following is correct?
(a) I. Fruit juice shows positive test for Biuret's, Grease, Ninhydrin
II. Saliva shows positive test for Biuret's and Ninhydrin but negative test for
Grease.
III. Sweat shows negative test for Biuret's and Ninhydrin
(b) I. Fruit juice shows negative test for Biuret's, Grease, Ninhydrin
II. Saliva shows positive test for Biuret's and Ninhydrin but negative test for
Grease
III. Sweat shows positive test for Biuret's and Ninhydrin
(c) I. Fruit juice shows positive test for Biuret's, Grease, Ninhydrin
II. Saliva shows negative test for Biuret's and Ninhydrin but positive test for
Grease
III. Sweat shows negative test for Biuret's and Ninhydrin
(d) I. Fruit juice shows negative test for Biuret's, Grease, Ninhydrin
II. Saliva shows negative test for Biuret's and Ninhydrin but positive test for
Grease
III. Sweat shows negative test for Biuret's and Ninhydrin
Q172. The given figure shows three velocity-substrate concentration curves for an enzyme
reaction. What do the curves x, y and z depict respectively?

(a) x-normal enzyme reaction, y-competitive inhibition, z - non-competitive inhibition

(b) x-enzyme with an allosteric modulator added, y-normal enzyme activity, z-
competitive inhibition
(c) x-enzyme with an allosteric stimulator, y-competitive inhibition added z-normal
enzyme reaction
(d) x-normal enzyme reaction, y-non-competitive inhibitor added z-allosteric inhibitor
added
Q173. Go through the figures and select the correct option:

[Page No. 22]

 (a) I - In non-competitive type of enzymatic inhibition the V max decreases and Km
remain unchanged
II - In competitive type of enzymatic inhibition the Vmax decreases and Km remain
unchanged
(b) I - In non-competitive type of enzymatic inhibition the Vmax decreases and Km
remain unchanged
II - In competitive type of enzymatic inhibition the Vmax remain same and Km is
changed
(c) I - In non-competitive type of enzymatic inhibition the Vmax increases and Km
remain unchanged
II - In competitive type of enzymatic inhibition the Vmax changes and Km
decreases
(d) I - In non-competitive type of enzymatic inhibition the Vmax increases and Km
remain unchanged
II - In competitive type of enzymatic inhibition the Vmax increases and Km
increases
Q174. Which statement is incorrect about a 2-step reaction?
(a) The reaction may be exothermic or endothermic
(b) There are two intermediates
(c) Either step may be rate determining
(d) There are two transition states
Q175. Consider the following statements:
A. All enzymes require an additional chemical component called cofactor or
coenzyme for their catalytic function.
B. The cofactor for pyruvate kinase is K+
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) A only (b) B only (c) Both A and B (d) Neither A nor B
Q176. The Michaelis constant is a measure of which one of the following?
(a) Concentration of the enzyme (b) Catalytic efficiency of the enzyme
(c) Thermo-stability of the enzyme (d) Affinity of the enzyme for its substrate
Q177. The curve given show enzymatic activity with relation to three conditions (pH, temp.
and substrate conc.). What do the two axises (x and y) represent?
(a) x-axis - Enzymatic activity, y-axis – pH
(b) x-axis - Temperature, y-axis - Enzyme activity
(c) x-axis - Substrate conc., y-axis - Enzymatic activity
(d) x-axis - enzymatic activity, y-axis - temperature
Q178. The initial source of energy to all the varied forms of life is:
(a) A glucose molecule (b) An ATP molecule
(c) The solar energy (d) A protein molecule
Q179. The bioenergetic reactions are peculiar in the fact that they keep on managing the
body at
(a) A megathermic level (b) Nucleoside triphosphates
(c) A microthermic level (d) A hekistothermic level
Q180. In a living system, the chemical energy is principally stored in the form of:
(a) Nucleotide diphosphates (b) Nucleoside triphosphates
(c) Nucleotide triphosphates (d) Nucleoside diphosphates
Q181. Which of the followings is an important attribute of life?

[Page No. 23]

 (a) Energy transformation (b) Self-duplication
(c) Process of evolution (d) All of the above
Q182. The life as such is an expression of a series of process passing through a purely:
(a) Exergonic phase (b) Endergonic phase
(c) Thermodynamic phase (d) Nonthermic phase
Q183. The series of reactions operating within the "metabolic* pool” of any living system
brings about:
(a) Conservation of energy (b) Transformation of energy
(c) Stagnation of energy (d) Destruction of energy
Q184. A living organism in terms of its energy requirements from the environment, operates
as:
(a) An open system (b) A closed system
(c) An inefficient system (d) An incognizable system
Q185. Which of the following forms of energy is of no use to the living organisms:
(a) Radiant energy (b) Chemical energy
(c) Free energy (d) Heat energy
Q186. The molecule shown below is:

(a) dATP (b) dADP (c) dAMP (d) A polysaccharide

Q187. What kind of molecule is represented by the structure below?
CH3CH2CH2CH2CH=CHCH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2COOH
(a) A sugar (b) An unsaturated fatty acid
(c) A saturated fatty acid (d) A disaccharide
Q188. Given below are two statements A and B. Choose the correct answer related to the
statements.
Statement A - Amino acids are amphoteric in their function.
Statement B - All amino acids are necessary for our body.
(a) Statement A is wrong, statement B is correct
(b) Both the statements A and B are wrong
(c) Statement A is correct, statement B is wrong
(d) Both the statements A and B are correct
Q189. _______ is a globular protein of 6 kDa consisting of 51 amino acids, arranged in 2
polypeptide chains held together by disulphide bridge:
(a) Insulin (b) Keratin (c) Glucagon (d) Fibrinogen
Q190. Which of the following fatty acids is liquid at room temperature?
(a) Palmitic acid (b) Stearic acid (c) Oleic acid (d) Arachidic acid

Q191.

[Page No. 24]

 The illustrated compound is:
(a) Adenosine triphosphate (b) guanosine triphosphate
(c) Cytidine triphosphate (d) Uridine triphosphate
Q192. Even though starch and cellulose are made up of the same repeating units of glucose,
they are very different in their properties. The main difference between starch and
cellulose is that:
(a) Cellulose has all its glucose repeats oriented in same direction
(b) Starch has alternate glucose repeats oriented at 180° to each other
(c) Starch has all its glucose repeats oriented perpendicular to each other
(d) Cellulose has alternate glucose repeats oriented at 180° to each other
Q193. The given figure illustrates the structural components of a molecule:

The names of the labels are identified in which alternative?

(a) P-cytosine; Q-thymine; R-ribose; S-phosphate
(b) P-adenine; Q-guanine; R-ribose; S-hydrogen
(c) P-cytosine; Q-guanine; R-deoxyribose; S-phosphate
(d) P-adenine; Q-thymine; R-deoxyribose; S-hydrogen
Q194. Which one of the following biomolecules is correctly characterised?
(a) Lecithin - a phosphorylated glyceride found in cell membrane
(b) Palmitic acid - an unsaturated fatty acid with 18 carbon atoms
(c) Adenylic acid - adenosine with a glucose phosphate molecule
(d) Alanine amino acid - Contains an amino group and an acidic group anywhere in the
molecule
Q195. Given below is the diagrammatic representation of one of the categories of small
molecular weight organic compounds in the living tissues. Identify the category shown
and the one blank component "X" in it:
Category Component
(a) Cholesterol Guanin
(b) Amino acid NH2
(c) Nucleotide Adenine
(d) Nucleoside Uracil
Q196. Which one is the most abundant protein in the animal world:
(a) Trypsin (b) Hemoglobin (c) Collagen (d) Insulin
Q197. Which one out of A - D given below correctly respresents the structural formula of the
basic amino acid:

[Page No. 25]

 Options
(a) C (b) D (c) A (d) B
Q198. Macro molecule chitin is:
(a) Phosphorus containing polysaccharide
(b) Sulphur containing polysaccharide
(c) Simple polysaccharide
(d) Nitrogen containing polysaccharide
Q199. The essential chemical components of many coenzymes are:
(a) Nucleic acids (b) Carbohydrates (c) Vitamins (d) Proteins
Q200. Transition state structure of the substrate formed during an enzymatic reaction is:
(a) Transient but stable (b) Permanent but unstable
(c) Transient and unstable (d) Permanent and stable
Q201. Phosphoglyceride is always made up of:
(a) Only a saturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate
group is also attached
(b) Only an unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a
phosphate group is also attached
(c) A saturated or unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a
phosphate group is also attached
(d) A saturated or unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a phosphate group which is also
attached to a glycerol molecule
Q202. Select the option which is not correct with respect to enzyme action:
(a) Substrate binds with enzyme at its active site
(b) Addition of lot of succinate does not reverse the inhibition of succinic
dehydrogenase by malonate
(c) A non-competitive inhibitor binds the enzyme at a site distinct from that which
binds the substrate
(d) Malonate is a competitive inhibitor of succinic dehydrogenase
Q203. Which one of the following is a non - reducing carbohydrate?
(a) Maltose (b) Sucrose (table sugar)
(c) Lactose (d) Ribose 5 - phosphate
Q204. Which of the following statements about enzymes is wrong?
(a) Enzymes require optimum pH and temperature for maximum activity
(b) Enzymes are denatured at high temperatures
(c) Enzymes are mostly proteins but some are lipids also
(d) Enzymes are highly specific
Q205. The figure shows a hypothetical tetrapeptide portion of a protein with parts labelled
A-D. Which one of the following option is correct?

[Page No. 26]

 (a) A is the sulphur containing amino acid – methionine
(b) D is the acidic amino acid - glutamic acid
(c) C is an aromatic amino acid – tryptophan
(d) A is the C - terminal amino acid and D is N terminal amino acid
Q206. One molecule of triglyceride is produced using:
(a) One fatty acid and one glycerol
(b) One fatty acid and three glycerols
(c) Three fatty acids and three glycerols
(d) Three fatty acids and one glycerol
Q207. Glutenin is an important protein in:
(a) Potato (b) Wheat (c) Soybean (d) Spinach
Q208. Which of the following statements is wrong for sucrose?
(a) It is a disaccharide (b) It is a non-reducing sugar
(c) It accumulates in the cytoplasm (d) It is comprised of maltose and fructose
Q209. The protein component of a holoenzyme is known as:
(a) Coenzyme (b) Cofactor
(c) Prosthetic group (d) Apoenzyme
Q210. Km is:
(a) Product (b) Enzyme (c) Constant (d) Unit
Q211. Which of the following amino acids contains sulphur atom in its side chain?
(a) Methionine (b) Alanine (c) Tryptophan (d) Phenylalanine
Q212. Which of the following sugars cannot be hydrolyzed further to yield simple sugars?
(a) Ribose (b) Maltose (c) Sucrose (d) Lactose
ANSWER KEYS
A1. (d) A19. (c) A37. (a) A55. (c) A73. (c)
A2. (a) A20. (b) A38. (a) A56. (c) A74. (a)
A3. (c) A21. (a) A39. (c) A57. (b) A75. (a)
A4. (d) A22. (a) A40. (c) A58. (c) A76. (a)
A5. (a) A23. (d) A41. (c) A59. (b) A77. (c)
A6. (c) A24. (b) A42. (d) A60. (b) A78. (c)
A7. (a) A25. (c) A43. (d) A61. (d) A79. (c)
A8. (b) A26. (a) A44. (d) A62. (b) A80. (d)
A9. (a) A27. (b) A45. (b) A63. (d) A81. (a)
A10. (c) A28. (b) A46. (a) A64. (c) A82. (d)
A11. (c) A29. (a) A47. (b) A65. (b) A83. (b)
A12. (a) A30. (d) A48. (b) A66. (b) A84. (c)
A13. (d) A31. (a) A49. (d) A67. (b) A85. (c)
A14. (a) A32. (b) A50. (d) A68. (c) A86. (b)
A15. (c) A33. (c) A51. (b) A69. (a) A87. (b)
A16. (b) A34. (a) A52. (c) A70. (c) A88. (c)
A17. (d) A35. (d) A53. (c) A71. (a) A89. (c)
A18. (a) A36. (d) A54. (c) A72. (d) A90. (d)
[Page No. 27]
A91. (b) A135. (d) A179. (b)
A92. (b) A136. (c) A180. (b)
A93. (a) A137. (c) A181. (d)
A94. (a) A138. (d) A182. (c)
A95. (d) A139. (d) A183. (b)
A96. (c) A140. (d) A184. (a)
A97. (a) A141. (d) A185. (D)
A98. (d) A142. (c) A186. (b)
A99. (d) A143. (b) A187. (b)
A100. (d) A144. (a) A188. (d)
A101. (b) A145. (c) A189. (a)
A102. (c) A146. (c) A190. (c)
A103. (a) A147. (a) A191. (a)
A104. (b) A148. (a) A192. (d)
A105. (c) A149. (d) A193. (c)
A106. (d) A150. (d) A194. (a)
A107. (b) A151. (c) A195. (d)
A108. (a) A152. (d) A196. (c)
A109. (a) A153. (b) A197. (b)
A110. (b) A154. (c) A198. (d)
A111. (c) A155. (d) A199. (c)
A112. (a) A156. (d) A200. (c)
A113. (d) A157. (b) A201. (c)
A114. (c) A158. (d) A202. (b)
A115. (a) A159. (d) A203. (b)
A116. (c) A160. (b) A204. (c)
A117. (b) A161. (b) A205. (b)
A118. (d) A162. (d) A206. (d)
A119. (d) A163. (d) A207. (b)
A120. (d) A164. (a) A208. (d)
A121. (a) A165. (b) A209. (d)
A122. (c) A166. (d) A210. (c)
A123. (d) A167. (c) A211. (a)
A124. (b) A168. (d) A212. (a)
A125. (d) A169. (d)
A126. (a) A170. (d)
A127. (d) A171. (a)
A128. (d) A172. (a)
A129. (d) A173. (b)
A130. (d) A174. (b)
A131. (c) A175. (b)
A132. (d) A176. (d)
A133. (b) A177. (b)
A134. (b) A178. (c)

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