29-12-2024

7501CMD303034240030 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1) A proton and a deuteron, both having the same kinetic energy, enter perpendicularly into a
uniform magnetic field B. For motion of proton and deuteron on circular path of radius Rp and Rd,
respectively, the correct option is :

(1)
(2)
(3) Rd = Rp
(4) Rd = 2Rp

2) Needles N1, N2 and N3 are made of a ferromagnetic, a paramagnetic and a diamagnetic substance
respectively. A magnet when brought close to them will : -

(1) attract N1 and N2 strongly but repel N3

(2) attract N1 strongly, N2 weakly and repel N3 weakly
(3) attract N1 strongly, but repel N2 and N3 weakly
(4) attract all three of them

3) A solid sphere of density (>1) times lighter than water is suspended in a water tank by a string
tied to tis base as shown in fig. If the mass of the sphere is m then the tension in the string is given

by

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) A magnetic needle laying parallel to a magnetic field requires W unit of work to turn it through
60°. The torque needed to maintain the needle in this position will be
(1)
(2) W

(3)

(4) 2 W

5) A ring of radius R, made of an insulating material, carries a charge Q uniformly distributed on it.
If the ring rotates about an axis passing through its centre and normal to plane of the ring with
constant angular speed ω, then the magnitude of the magnetic moment of the ring is :

(1) QωR2

(2)

(3) Qω2R

(4)

6)

A uniformly tapering vessel is filled with a liquid of density 900 kg/m. The force that acts on the base
of the vessel due to the liquid is (g = 10 ms-2)

(1) 3.6 N
(2) 7.2 N
(3) 9.0 N
(4) 14.4 N

7) A uniform solid ball of density d and of radius r is moving vertically downward inside a viscous

liquid (density = & coefficient of viscosity = η) with an acceleration of g/2 at an instant. Speed of
the ball at this instant is

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

8) Modulus of rigidity of a liquid is-

(1) Non zero constant

(2) Infinite
(3) Zero
(4) Can not be predicted

9) A 5 metre long wire is fixed to the ceiling. A weight of 10 kg is hung at the lower end and is 1
metre above the floor. The wire was elongated by 1 mm. The energy stored in the wire due to
stretching is

(1) Zero
(2) 0.05 joule
(3) 100 joule
(4) 500 joule

10) Match the column-I and II.

Column-I Column-II

(A) Axial field for a short

(i) –M.B
dipole

(B) Equatorial field for a

(ii) M × B
short dipole

(C) External field torque (iii)

(D) External field energy (iv)

(1) A → iii; B → iv; C → ii; D → i
(2) A → iii; B → iv; C → iii; D → i
(3) A → ii; B → iii; C → i; D → iv
(4) A → ii; B → i; C → iv; D → iii

11) An open vessel containing water is given a constant acceleration a in the horizontal direction.
then, the free surface of water gets sloped with the horizontal at an angle θ given by:

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

12)

A piston of cross-sectional area 100 cm2 is used in a hydraulic press to exert a force of 107 dyne on
the water. The cross-sectional area of the other piston which supports a truck of mass 2000 kg is :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

13) A diamagnetic material in a magnetic field moves

(1) Perpendicular to field

(2) From stronger to weaker parts of field
(3) From weaker to stronger parts of the field
(4) None of the above directions

14) The load versus elongaton graph for four wires of the same material is shown in the figure. The
thickest wire is represented by the line :

(1) OD
(2) OC
(3) OB
(4) OA

15) A current is flowing in a hexagonal coil of side a (Figure). The magnetic induction at the centre
of the coil will be

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

16) Relative permittivity and permeability of a material εr and μr, respectively. Which of the following
values of these quantities are allowed for a diamagnetic material?

(1) εr = 0.5, μr = 1.5

(2) εr = 1.5, μr = 0.5
(3) εr = 0.5, μr = 0.5
(4) εr = 1.5, μr = 1.5

17)

In the figure shown an ideal liquid is flowing through the tube which is of uniform area of cross-
section. The liquid has velocities , and pressure PA and PB at points A and B respectively.
Then

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

18) Two similar wires under the same load yield elongation of 0.1 mm and 0.05 mm respectively. If
the area of cross-section of the first wire is 4mm2, then the area of cross section of the second wire is

(1) 6 mm2
(2) 8 mm2
(3) 10 mm2
(4) 12 mm2

19) Water rises to a height of 2 cm in a capillary tube. If the tube is tilted 60° from the vertical,
water will rise in the tube to a length :

(1) 4.0 cm
(2) 2.0 cm
(3) 1.0 cm
(4) water will not rise at all

20) Find the position of point from wire 'B' where net magnetic field is zero due to following current
distribution

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) The work done in increasing the size of a rectangular soap film with dimensions 8 cm × 3.75 cm
to 10 cm × 6 cm is 2 × 10–4 J.

(1) 1.65 × 10–2

(2) 3.3 × 10–2
(3) 6.6 × 10–2
(4) 8.25 × 10–2

22) Water if flowing with velocity 4m/sec in a cylinder of diameter 8 cm it is connected to a pipe with
it end tip of diameter 2 cm. Calculate the velocity of water at this free end :

(1) 4 m/s
(2) 8 m/s
(3) 32 m/s
(4) 64 m/s

23)

A vertical U-tube of uniform inner cross section contains mercury in both sides of its arms. A
glycerin (density = 1.3 g/cm) column of length 10 cm is introduced into one of its arms. Oil of
density 0.8 gm/cm is poured into the other arm until the upper surfaces of the oil and glycerin are in
the same horizontal level. Find the length of the oil column, Density of mercury = 13.6 g/cm
(1) 10.4 cm
(2) 8.2 cm
(3) 7.2 cm
(4) 9.6 cm

24) A ball of relative density 0.8 falls into water from a height of 2m above the surface of water. The
depth inside water upto which the ball will sink is (neglect viscous forces) :

(1) 8 m
(2) 2 m
(3) 6 m
(4) 4 m

25) A charge particle enters a uniform magnetic field with velocity v0 perpendicular to it. The length

of magnetic field is where R is the radius of the circular path of the particle in the field.
The magnitude of change in velocity of the particle when it comes out of the field is

(1) 2v0
(2) v0/2

(3)

(4) v0

26) Which of the following statements is incorrect about hysteresis?

(1) This effect is common to all ferromagnetic substances.

The hysteresis loop area is proportional to the thermal energy developed per unit volume of the
(2)
material.
The hysteresis loop area is independent of the thermal energy developed per unit volume of the
(3)
material.
(4) The shape of the hysteresis loop is characteristic of the material.

27) Two balloons are blown into spherical shapes of unequal sizes and are connected together
through a narrow tube as shown in the figure. Then :
(1) the samller ballon becomes bigger
(2) the bigger balloon becomes smaller
(3) both ballons collapse
(4) the smaller becomes smaller and bigger becomes bigger

28) In the given figure magnetic field at the center of ring (O) is . Now it is turned through a
90° about axis, so that two semicircular parts are mutually perpendicular. Then find the value of
magnetic field (in Tesla) at centre.

(1) 8 T
(2) 16 T
(3) 4 T
(4) None

29) A Spherical drop of oil of radius 1cm is broken into 1000 droplets of equal radii. If the surface
tension of oil is 50 dynes/cm, the work done is-

(1) 18 π ergs
(2) 180 π ergs
(3) 1800 π ergs
(4) 18000 π ergs

30) A metal block of area 0.10 m2 is connected to a 0.020 kg mass via a string that passes over an
ideal pulley as shown in figure. A liquid with a film thickness of 0.30 mm is placed between the block
and the table. When system is released the block moves to the right with a small constant speed of
0.090 ms–1, then coefficient of visocity of liquid is :

(1)
× 10–3 Pa s

(2)
× 10–3 Pa s
(3) 10–2 Pa s

(4)
× 10–3 Pa s

31) In the given figure force on wire ABC will be (B = 2T) :

(1)
(2) 20 N
(3) 10 N
(4) 40 N

32) If the surface tension of water is 0.06 N/m, then the capillary rise in a tube of diameter 1 mm is
(θ = 0°)

(1) 1.22 cm
(2) 2.44 cm
(3) 3.12 cm
(4) 3.86 cm

33) Current flows due north in a horizontal transmission line. Magnetic field at a point P vertically

above it directed

(1) North wards

(2) South wards
(3) Toward east
(4) Towards west

34) Two short magnets of magnetic moment 1000 Am2 are placed as shown at the corners of a
square of side 10 cm. The net magnetic induction at P is :

(1) 0.1 T
(2) 0.2 T
(3) 0.3 T
(4) 0.4 T

35) If pressure at half the depth of a lake is equal to 2/3 pressure at the bottom of the lake, then
what is the depth of the lake? (Patm = 10m of water)

(1) 10 m
(2) 20 m
(3) 60 m
(4) 30 m

SECTION-B

1) The surface tension of a soap solution is 25 × 10–3 Nm–1. The excess pressure inside a soap bubble
of diameter 1cm is

(1) 10 Pa
(2) 20 Pa
(3) 5 Pa
(4) None of the above

2) The surface tension of a liquid at its boiling point

(1) Becomes zero

(2) Becomes infinity
(3) Is equal to the value at room temperature
(4) Is half to the value at the room temperature.

3)

A Cube made of material having density of floats between water and a liquid of
density which is immiscible with water. What part of cube is immersed in water.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) The given graph shows the extenson (Δl) of a wire of lenght 1m suspended from the top of a roof
at one end with a load W connected to the other end. If the cross-sectional area of the wire is 10–6

m2, calculate the young's modulus of the material of the wire :

(1) 2 × 1011 N/m2

(2) 2 × 10–11 N/m2
(3) 3 × 10–12 N/m2
(4) 2 × 10–13 N/m2

5) Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : In an uniform magnetic field, speed and energy remains the same for a moving
charged particle.
Reason (R) : Moving charged particle experiences magnetic force perpendicular to its direction of
motion.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.

6) Two wires with currents 2 A and 1A are enclosed in circular loop. Another wire with current 3 A is

situated outside the loop as shown. The around the loop is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

7)

A charge q moving in a circular orbit of radius r makes n revolution per second, the magnetic
field produced at centre will be

(1)

(2)

(3) Zero

(4)

8) The diameter of a brass rod is 4 mm and Young's modulus of brass is 9 × 1010 N/m2. The force
required to strech by 0.1% of its length is :

(1) 360π N
(2) 36 N
(3) 144π × 103 N
(4) 36π× 105 N

9) Reading of barometer in a room having 1 atm pressure is 70 cm of Hg. If pressure of room is

doubled, then new reading of barometer will be : (air pressure of trapped air in tube does not
change due to compression of air)

(1) 152 cm
(2) 140 cm
(3) 146 cm
(4) none

10) A material has Poisson's ratio 0.5. If a uniform rod of it suffers a longitudinal strain of 2 × 10–3,
the percentage increase in its volume is :

(1) 0%
(2) 2%
(3) 4%
(4) 8%

11) Water (density ρ) is flowing through the uniform tube of cross-sectional area A with a constant
speed v as shown in the figure. The magnitude of force exerted by the water on the curved corner of
the tube is (neglect viscous forces)

(1)
(2)
(3)

(4)

12) A uniform magnetic field exists in region of space. A semicircular wire of radius 1
m carrying current 1 A having its centre at (2, 2, 0) is placed in x-y plane as shown in figure. The

force on semicircular wire will be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) A positively charged (+q) particle of mass m has kinetic energy K enters vertically downward in
a horizontal field of magnetic induction . The acceleration of the particle is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) An incompressible liquid flows through a horizontal tube as shown in the figure. Then, the
velocity v of the fluid is:

(1) 3.0 m/s

(2) 1.5 m/s
(3) 1.0 m/s
(4) 2.25 m/s

15) A homogeneous solid cylinder of length L(L < H/2). Cross-sectional area A/5 is immersed such
that it floats with its axis vertical at the liquid-liquid interface with length L/4 in the denser liquid as
shown in the figure. The lower density liquid is open to atmosphere having pressure P0. Then,

density D of solid is given by :

(1)
d

(2)
d
(3) 3d

(4)

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

1) Which of the following will react fastest with Na :-

(1) Ph–CH2–OH
(2)

(3)

(4) CH3)3C–OH

2) Correct order of nucleophilicity –

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

3) Consider the following carbanions:-

Correct decreasing order of stability is :

(1) III > IV > I > II

(2) II > III > IV > I
(3) IV > I > II > III
(4) I > II > III > IV

4)
C1 – H, C2 – H and C3 – H the homolytic bond dissociation energy is in the order:-

(1) C2 – H > C3 – H > C1 – H

(2) C1 – H > C2 – H > C3 – H
(3) C2 – H > C1 – H > C3 – H
(4) C3 – H > C2 – H > C1 – H

5) Order of Resonance Energy

(a) (b)

(c) (d)
(1) d > c > b > a
(2) b > a > c > d
(3) b > c > a > d
(4) c > a > b > d

6) Arrange these compounds in decreasing order of basic strength

(1) (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv)

(2) (ii) > (iii) > (i) > (iv)
(3) (iv) > (i) > (iii) > (ii)
(4) (iv) > (i) > (ii) > (iii)

7) The decreasing order of stability of following cation is :-

(1) P > Q > R > S

(2) Q > S > R > P
(3) Q > P > S > R
(4) Q > P > R > S

8) Which of the following is the correct order for bond energy C–H bonds in these compounds ?
(1) Y > Z > X
(2) X > Z > Y
(3) X > Y > Z
(4) Z > X > Y

9) Assertion : is more stable than .

Reason : has more s-character than .

(1) If both Assertion and Reason are True and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are False.

10) Assertion : Protonation of an amide occurs at the oxygen rather than the nitrogen.

Reason : If N—atom is protonated, resonance stabilisation is lost.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct and Reason is incorrect.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect.

11) Which of the following leads to maximum enolisation?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

12) Correct order of stability of alkene is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) Arrange the following in the correct order of reactivity towards SN1 :-

(1) I > II > III > IV

(2) II > I > IV > III
(3) II > III > I > IV
(4) III > I > IV > II

14) What is the major product of the following E2 reaction ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
15) A B C D E
Find out the structure of 'A':

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) BeO is expected to show the nearest resemblance to which of the following oxide?

(1) SiO2
(2) Al2O3
(3) MgO
(4) Li2O

17) What is the IUPAC name and position of a newly discovered element with atomic atomic number
115 In the periodic table?

(1) Period-6, Group-15, Block-p, Name- Darmstadtium

(2) Period-7, Group-15, Block-p, Name- Moscovium
(3) Period-6, Group-1, Block-s, Name- Francium
(4) Period-6, Group-10, Block-d, Name- Roentegenium

18) Arrange in the increasing order of the energy subshells

(1) 4f, 4d,5s,6p,6d,4p

(2) 4p,5s,4d,4f,6p,6d
(3) 4p,5s,4d,6p,6d,4f
(4) 4p,4d,5s,4f,6d,6p

19) The correct order of ionization energies of halide ion is represented in the given option

(1) Cl– < F– < Br– < I–

(2) I– < F– < Br– < Cl–
(3) I– < Br– < F– < Cl–
(4) I– < F– < Br– < Cl–

20) Which of the following electronic configuration is associated with highest negative electron gain
enthalpy ?

(1) 1s2 2S2 2P5

(2) 1s2 2S2 2P6 3S1
(3) 1s2 2S2 2P6 3S2 3P6
(4) 1s2 2S2 2P6 3S2 3P5

21) Maximum absorption of carbon dioxide gas is expected to take place in,

(1) NaOH
(2) Ca(OH)2
(3) Al(OH)3
(4) KOH

22) Which is the correct option representing the order of increasing penetration power of subshells
for the same shell?

(1) f > d > p > s

(2) d > f > s > p
(3) s > p > d > f
(4) p > d > s > f

23) Statement-1: The size of a cation is always smaller than its parent atom.
Statement-2: Removal of electron reduces the screening effect.

(1) Both statements are correct and statement-2 is the correct explanation of statement-1
Both statement-1 and statement-2 are correct but statement-2 is not the correct explanation of
(2)
statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is incorrect but Statement-2 is correct
(4) Both statement-1 and statement-2 are incorrect

24) Which among the given statements is wrong?

(1) Ne has the largest size in its period.

12th group elements are not considered as transition elements due to completely filled d-
(2)
orbitals.
(3) All the transuranic elements are synthetic or lab made.
(4) Be and Al holds a diagonal relationship.

25) Select the incorrect property order from the mentioned choices given below.

(1) N2O3 < N2O4 < N2O5 : Acidic nature

(2) HF < HCl < HBr < HI : Thermal Stability
(3) LiOH < Be(OH)2 < B(OH)3 : Acidic nature
(4) CH4 < NH3 < H2O : Bond Polarity
26) The specific conductance of a 0.01M solution of KCl is 0.0014 ohm–1cm–1at 25°C. Its equivalent
conductance (cm2ohm–1eq–1) is :

(1) 140
(2) 14
(3) 1.4
(4) 0.14

27) Same amount of charge is passed through molten NaCl, molten AlCl3 for the deposition of Na, Al.
Their ratio of moles deposited respectively are :

(1) 3 : 1
(2) 1 : 3
(3) 2 : 1
(4) 1 : 1

28) Amount of charge that can deposit 108 g of silver from AgNO3 solution is :

(1) 1 Ampere
(2) 1 Coulomb
(3) 1 Faraday
(4) None of these

0
29) If the E cell for a given reaction has a negative value, then which of the following gives the correct
relationship for the values of ΔG° and Keq ?

(1) ΔG° > 0 ; Keq > 1

(2) ΔG° < 0 ; Keq > 1
(3) ΔG° < 0 ; Keq < 1
(4) ΔG° > 0 ; Keq < 1

30) 16 g of an ideal gas SOx occupies 5.6 L at STP. The value of x is :-

(1) x = 3
(2) x = 2
(3) x = 4
(4) x = 6

31) Calculate the no. of molecules present 1.2 g of ozone.

(1) 20 NA

(2)

(3) 30NA

(4)
32) 28 g of N2 reacts with 8 g of H2 to produce NH3. The true statement regarding this reaction is

(1) H2 is limiting reagent

(2) N2 is limiting reagent
(3) Product contains 4NA H atom
(4) Products contains 6NA total atoms

33) The mass of CO2 produced by heating 10 g sample of 20% pure CaCO3 is :-

(1) 0.44 g
(2) 0.22 g
(3) 0.88 g
(4) 0.11 g

34) An oxide of sulphur contains 50% of sulphur in it. Its empirical formula is -

(1) SO2
(2) SO3
(3) SO
(4) S2O

35) Elements A and B form two compounds B2A3 and B2A. 0.05 moles of B2A3 weight 9.0 g and 0.10
mole of B2A weight 10 g. Calculate the atomic weight of A and B :-

(1) 20 and 30
(2) 30 and 40
(3) 40 and 30
(4) 30 and 20

SECTION-B

1) Which reaction is least feasible?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

2) In the following reaction, the major product (B) is -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) In which of the following reaction acetylene will be formed as major product:

(1)

(2)

(3) Both (1) and (2)

(4)

4) A (Major product), is
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) Which among the following reaction is known as Fittig reaction?

(1)

(2)

(3) CH3Br + AgF → CH3F + AgBr

(4) CH3CI + Nal → CH3l + NaCI

6) The number of p electrons in Ca2+ (Z=20) is not equal to the number of electrons in which of the
following?

(1) Fe2+
(2) P3-
(3) Mg2+
(4) Ti4+

7) Arrange in the decreasing order of atomic radius of Group 13 elements.

(1) B < In < Tl < Al < Ga
(2) B < Ga < Al < In < Tl
(3) B < Al < Ga < In < Tl
(4) B < Al < Ga < Tl < In

8) Statement-1: Ionization energy always decreases with increase in size.

Statement-2: Ionization energy follows an irregular trend across the period due to fully filled and
half-filled orbitals.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct

(2) Both statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct
(4) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect

9) Match the elements of the third period with correct values of their first ionization energies.

Column-I (Elements) Column-II (IE1 in KJ/mol)

(i) Na (a) 737.7

(ii) Mg (b) 786.5

(iii) Al (c) 495.8

(iv) Si (d) 577.5

(1) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
(2) i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a
(3) i-c, ii-b, iii-a, iv-d
(4) i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b

10) Match the column.

Column-I
Column-II (Successive Ionization
(Valence electronic
Energies, in KJ/mol)
configuration)

(i) ns1 (a) 737.7, 1450.7, 7732.7, 10542.5,

(ii) ns2 (b) 786.5, 1577.1, 3231.6, 4355.5, 16091

(iii) ns2 np1 (c) 495.8, 4562, 6910, 9543

(iv) ns2 np2 (d) 577.5, 1816.7, 2744.8, 11577, 14842

(1) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
(2) i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a
(3) i-c, ii-b, iii-a, iv-d
(4) i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b

11) in this reaction equivalent weight of NH3 is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) Which of the following can act both as an oxidising as well as reducing agent ?

(1) HNO2
(2) KMnO4
(3) H2S
(4) H2SO4

13) MnO4– + C2O4–2 + H+ → Mn+2 + CO2 + H2O

What are the quotients of reactants in the balanced form of the equation ?
MnO4– C2O4–2 H+
(1) 2 5 16
(2) 16 5 2
(3) 5 16 2
(4) 2 16 5

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

14) The oxidation number of sulphur in S8, S2F2, H2S and H2SO4 respectively are :–

(1) 0, +1, –2 and +6

(2) +2, 0, +2 and +6
(3) 0, +1, +2 and +4
(4) –2, 0, +2 and +6

15) Consider the following statements and select the correct option :-
Statement-I :- Lyophobic sols needs stabilising agents for their preservation.
Statement-II :- Lyophilic sols are readily precipitated (or coagulated) on the addition of small
amount of electrolytes.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct

(2) Both statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct
(4) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect
 BOTANY

SECTION-A

1) If there are two leaves having surface area 5 cm2(A) and 50 cm2(B) and both grow 5 cm2. Find out
the absolute growth rate :

(1) Leaf A is large

(2) Leaf B is small
(3) A and B both leaves show same absolute growth rate
(4) A and B both leaves show different absolute growth rate

2)
Which one of following is not correct with respect to above diagram :-

(1) Such growth pattern is observe in root apex

(2) Growth rate is constant throughout the time
(3) Lt = L0 + rt
(4) Sigmoid curve is obtained

3) Observe the four megaspores of an ovule depicted below and find out which of these (A, B, C, D)
survive to form embryo sac and which of these (A, B, C, D) degenerates?

Survives Degenerates

1 B, C, D A

2 D A, B, C

3 A, B, C D
 4 A B, C, D
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

4) Horizontal growth of seedling, swelling of axis and apical hook formation in dicot seedling are
associated with:-

(1) ABA
(2) Auxin
(3) Ethylene
(4) Cytokinin

5) Transverse section of a floral part is given below. Identify this structure :-

(1) T.S. of a young anther

(2) T.S. of a megasporangium
(3) T.S. of a mature dehisced anther
(4) T.S. of a mature indehisced anther

6) Viola (common pansy), Oxalis and Commelina produces

(1) chasmogamous flowers only

(2) cleistogamous flowers only
(3) both chasmogamous and cleistogamous flowers
(4) Either chasmogamous flowers or cleistogamous flowers

7) Match list-I with list-II :-

List-I List-II

A. Complex-I I. Cytochrome-C-oxidase

B. Complex-II II. Cytochrome-C-reductase

C. Complex-III III. Succinate dehydrogenase

D. Complex-IV IV. NADH-dehydrogenase

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

8) Match Column-I with Column-II and select correct option :-

Column-I Column-II

A Natural auxin I ABA

B Stress hormone II GA3

C Common GA III Zeatin

D Natural cytokinin IV IBA

(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(3) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(4) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II

9) Assertion: Wind pollinated flowers have large feathery stigma.

Reason: Feathery stigma easily traps air-borne pollen grains.

Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the
(1)
assertion.
Both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both the assertion and reason are false.

10)

In one turn of Krebs' cycle ________ decarboxylation and _______dehydrogenation occurs :

(1) 2, 6
(2) 2, 4
(3) 4, 2
(4) 6, 2
11) What indicated A-E in the given figure.

A-Glucose 6-Phosphate, B-Fatty acid and glycerol, C-Carohydrate, D-Amino acid, E-Fructose 1,6
(1)
bisphosphate
A-Fatty acid and glycerol, B-Glucose 6-Phosphate, C-Amino acid, D-Carbohydrates, E-Fructose
(2)
1,6-bisphosphate
A-Fructose 1,6-bisphosphate, B-Amino acid, C-Glucose 6-phosphate, D-Fatty acids and glycerol,
(3)
E-Carbohydrate
A-Amino acid, B-Carbohydrate, C-Glucose 6-Phosphate, D-Fructose 1,6-bisphosphate, E-Fatty
(4)
acids and glycerol

12)

How many of the following are compounds of glycolysis ?

DHAP, OAA, Malate, PEP, α-Ketoglutarate, Fructose 1, 6 Bisphosphate, Succinyl CoA, 3-PGA, Citrate
(1) Two
(2) Six
(3) Four
(4) Five

13)

In Glycolysis there is no :-

(1) oxidation
(2) decarboxylation
(3) dehydrogenation
(4) splitting of C-C bonds

14) Male gametes in angiosperms are formed by mitotic division in :-

(1) Microspore mother cell
(2) Tapetum
(3) Generative cell
(4) Vegetative cell

15)
Select the correct statement with respect to above figure of Commelina ?

(1) A, always forms seed even in absence of pollinator

(2) B, always need pollinator
(3) B, Prevent xenogamy but not autogamy
(4) A, may prevent both autogamy and xenogamy

16)

Column I Column II

a Sporopollenin i Formed by generative cell

b Intine ii Formed by vegetative cell

c Germ pore iii Forms exine

d Pollen tube iv Thin, elastic and delicate

v Absence of intine

vi Absence of sporopollenin
Match the column and choose correct option :-
(1) a–iii, b–ii, c–iv, d–i
(2) a–iii, b–iv, c–vi, d–ii
(3) a–iii, b–iv, c–i, d–ii
(4) a–iii, b–iv, c–v, d–vi

17) Pollen grains are generally spherical measuring about

(1) 25 - 50 cm
(2) 25 - 50 m
(3) 50 - 100 m
(4) 20 - 40 mm

18) The form of growth where in new cells are always being added to the plant body by the activity
of meristem is called :

(1) Open form of growth

(2) Close form of growth
(3) Determinate growth
(4) Discontinuous form of growth

19) Statement-I : Ethylene reduces the rate of respiration during fruit ripening
Statement-II : Most widely used compound as source of ethylene is Ethephon.

(1) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is incorrect

(2) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is correct
(3) Both and Statements are correct
(4) Both and Statements are incorrect

20) How many net ATP are synthesized per sucrose molecule in aerobic respiration through
substrate level phosphorylation :-

(1) 76
(2) 30
(3) 8
(4) 10

21) Which of the conditions are correct for following diagram :

rt
(1) Arithmetic growth rate, W1 = W0e
(2) Geometric growth rate, Lt = L0 + rt
(3) Arithmetic growth rate, Lt = L0 + rt
rt
(4) Geometric growth rate, W1 = W0e

22) Pollen grains of a large number of species are stored in liquid nitrogen the temperature of liquid
nitrogen is:

(1) –100°C
(2) –150°C
(3) –196°C
(4) –156°C

23) In the list given below how many structure are diploid ?
Pollen mother cell, Generative cell, Male gametes, Megaspore mother cell, Pollen grain, Synergid,
Nucellus, Funicle, Perisperm, Integuments.

(1) Five
(2) Six
(3) Four
(4) Seven

24) Increased vacuolation, cell enlargement and new cell wall deposition are the characteristics of
the cells in which of the following phase-

(1) Meristematic phase of growth

(2) Maturation phase of growth
(3) Elongation phase of growth
(4) Senescent phase of growth

25) Proximal end of which part of the stamen is attached to the thalamus or the petal of the flower?

(1) Anther
(2) Filament
(3) Stigma
(4) Style

26) Read the statements carefully :-

(A) Each plant part takes care of its own gaseous need
(B) Plants shows great gaseous demand.
(C) Large volume of gases are exchanged only during respiration
(D) Plants show very little transport of gases from one part to another.
How many of the above statement (A-D) are incorrect :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

27) Removal of shoot tip (decapitation) usually results in the growth of lateral buds. It is related to
the removal of effect of which plant hormone ?

(1) Ethylene
(2) Auxin
(3) Cytokinin
(4) Gibberellic acid
28)

Column-I Column-II

(I) C. Darwin and F. Darwin (A) Cytokinin

(II) Miller and Skoog (B) ABA

(III) H.H. Cousins (C) C2H4

(IV) Kurosawa (D) Auxin

(E) GA

The correct match is :

(1) I-D, II-A, III-C, IV-E
(2) I-D, II-A, III-C, IV-B
(3) I-C, II-A, III-B, IV-D
(4) I-E, II-D, III-B, IV-A

29) In the transverse section, anther appears :-

(1) Circular
(2) Tetragonal
(3) Triangular
(4) Hexagonal

30) Identify the given diagram and select the correct option from the following.

(1) Heterophylly in larkspur

(2) Heterospory in Buttercup
(3) Heterospory in larkspur
(4) Heterophylly in Buttercup

31) The main body of the ovule consists of the parenchymatous tissue, called :-

(1) Integument
(2) Nucellus
(3) Funiculus
(4) Vascular strand

32) Why are pollen grains well-preserved as fossils?

(1) Because of the presence of cellulose and pectin in the intine.

(2) Due to the hard intine layer with patterns and designs
(3) Because of the presence of sporopollenin in the exine'
(4) Due to the presence of germ pores in the exine

33) A place where integument is absent and form a narrow passage & present just opposite to the
chalaza is called :-

(1) Hilum
(2) Funicle
(3) Raphae
(4) Micropyle

34) The pistil of Papaver is:

(1) Monocarpellary
(2) Multicarpellary apocarpous
(3) Multicarpellary syncarpous
(4) Absent

35) How many times meiosis and mitosis required for production of embryo sac of angiosperm
respectively.

(1) 1, 3
(2) 1,2
(3) 1, 1
(4) 1, 4

SECTION-B

1) How many of the following respiratory reactions occur in cytoplasm of eukaryotic cell?
(a) PGAL → 1, 3 di PGA
(b) Succinyl CoA → Succinic acid
(c) Pyruvic acid → Acetyl CoA
(d) PEP → Pyruvate (e) Fructose 1, 6 di phosphate → DHAP + 3PGAL

(1) a and e only

(2) a, d and e only
(3) a, b, c and e only
(4) a and d only
2) Read the following statements carefully :
(A) ABA acts as an antagonist of GA3
(B) Ethylene induces flowering in mango
(C) Gibberellin promotes bolting in beet, cabbage and many plants with rosette habit
(D) Cytokinin helps to produce new leaves, chloroplast in leaves
(E) Auxin, an application widely used for plant propagation
How many statements are correct ?

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) Two

3) What will be the ploidy of endosperm of a seed produced after crossing tetraploid female plant
with tetraploid male plant?

(1) Hexaploid
(2) Diploid
(3) Triploid
(4) Pentaploid

4)

Flower which have single ovule in the ovary and are packed into inflorescence are usually pollinated
by:-

(1) Bee
(2) Wind
(3) Bat
(4) Water

5)

Given figure 'a' is transverse section of anther and diagram 'b' is enlarged view of one
microsporangium showing wall layers.In which labelled structures A to F are :

A → Epidermis, B → Exothecium,
C → Middle layer, D → Tapetum,
(1)
E → Microspore mother cells,
F → Connective
 A → Epidermis, B → Endothecium,
C → Middle layer, D → Tapetum,
(2)
E → Microspore mother cells,
F → Connective
A → Endothecium, B → Epidermis,
C → Tapetum, D → Middle layer,
(3)
E → Connective,
F → Microspore mother cells
A → Middle layer, B → Epidermis,
C → Endothecium, D → Tapetum,
(4)
E → Microspore mother cells,
F → Connective

6) How many nuclei take part in double fertilization of flowering plants?

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 2

7)
Choose the correct option A to D

(1) A - Fat , B - Key product of glycolysis C - Latic Acid , D - Ethanol

(2) A - Carbohydrate , B - Pyruvic Acid C - Ethanol , D - Lactic Acid
(3) A - Respiratory substrate, B - key product of glycolysis , C - Lactic Acid, D - Ethanol
(4) A - proteins, B - Pyruvic Acid , C - Lactic Acid D - Ethanol

8) Statement-I :- Plant growth and development are under the control of both intrinsic and
extrinsic factors.
Statement-II :- Growth is an irreversible increase in size of an organ and expressed in various
parameters such as increase in fresh weight, dry weight, area, length, volume, cell number etc.

(1) Statement - I and Statement - II both are correct.

(2) Statement - I and Statement - II both are incorrect.
(3) Only statement - I is correct.
(4) Only statement - II is correct.

9) Match the columns and select the correct option.

Column I Column II

Stem elongation
a. Auxin (i)
in cabbage

Delay the ageing

b. Ethylene (ii)
of leaves

Prevents abscission of
c. Gibberellin (iii)
young flowers and fruits

Breaks dormancy of
d. Cytokinin (iv)
buds & seeds
(1) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii)
(2) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
(4) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)

10) How many microspore mother cells are responsible for the formation of 80 microspores in
Angiosperms ?

(1) 10
(2) 20
(3) 40
(4) 80

11) Select Roles of cytokinin :

(i) Promotion of flowering in pineapple
(ii) Used as selective weed killer
(iii) Production of new leaves
(iv) Overcome the apical dominance
(v) Help in the delay of leaf senescence
(vi) Induces flowering in mango

(1) i, ii, iii, v

(2) i, iii, v, vi
(3) iii, iv, v
(4) iii, v, vi

12) In majority of angiosperm female gametophyte is :-

(1) 7 celled 7 nucleated structure
(2) 7 celled 8 nucleated structure
(3) 7 celled 6 nucleated structure
(4) 4 celled 4 nucleated structure

13) Identify A, B, C and D of an embryo sac:

A B C D

Central
1 Endosperm Egg cell Synergids
cell

Polar
2 Central cell Synergid Egg cell
nuclei

Polar
3 Central cell Egg cell Synergids
nuclei

Central Polar Forms

4 Synergids
cell nuclei zygote
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

14) Given below are two statements :

Statement - 1 : There is one step where NADH + H+ is formed from NAD+ in glycolysis.
Statement - 2 : During glycolysis two redox equivalents are removed (in the form of two hydrogen
atoms) from PGAL and transferred to a molecule of NAD+.

(1) Statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect

(2) Statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is correct
(3) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are incorrect
(4) Both statement 1 & statement 2 are correct

15) If leaf cell of maize have 20 chromosome then what will be the number of chromosome in its
endosperm, and synergids cells respectively ?
(1) 20, 20
(2) 30, 10
(3) 30, 30
(4) 10, 30

ZOOLOGY

SECTION-A

1) What is the significance of chordae tendinae, papillary muscles in heart?

(1) Opening of tricuspid and bicuspid valves during vertricular systole

(2) Prevent reverse opening of AV valves during ventricular diastole
(3) Prevent reverse opening of AV valves during ventricular systole
(4) Prevent reverse opening of semilunar valves during ventricular systole

2) Match the following structures with correct shape.

(a) Kidney (1) Hair pin
(b) Henle’s loop (2) Broad funnel
(c) Vasa recta (3) Bean
(d) Renal pelvis (4) ‘U’

(1) a – 1, b & c – 4, d – 2
(2) a – 2, b – 4, c – 1, d – 3
(3) a – 3, b – 1, c – 4, d – 2
(4) a – 3, b & c – 1, d – 4

3) Which of the following disease is associated with lungs

(1) Bronchitis
(2) Pneumonia
(3) Asthma
(4) All the above

4) Pain in heart muscles is :-

(1) Cardiac arrest

(2) Coronary artery disease
(3) Angina pectoris
(4) Myocarditis

5) Complete the analogy.

Transport of CO2 by plasma : 7% :: Transport of CO2 by bicarbonate ions:_____

(1) 23%
(2) 45%
(3) 62%
(4) 70%

6) Additional volume of air a person can inspire by a forcible inspiration is called ?

(1) Tidal volume

(2) Inspiratory capacity
(3) Inspiratory reserve volume
(4) Functional residual capacity

7)

Match the column-I and column-II, choose the correct options.

Column-I Column-II

a Amonotelic i Birds

b Ureotelic ii Mammals

c Uricotelic iii Aquatic animal

(1) a–iii, b–ii, c–i
(2) a–i, b–iii, c–ii
(3) a–ii, b–i, c–iii
(4) a–i, b–ii, c–iii

8) The closure of semi lunar valves

(1) causes first heart sound (LUBB)

(2) Causes second Heart sound (DUB)
(3) Prevent the back flow of blood into the ventricles
(4) Both 2 and 3

9)

Which is the outermost layer of pericardium ?

(1) fibrous pericardium

(2) parietal pericardium
(3) visceral pericardium
(4) epicardium

10) Vital capacity of Lungs is ?

(1) TV + ERV
(2) TV + IRV + RV
(3) TLC – RV
(4) IRV + ERV

11) A red blood cell, going to enter right side of the heart passes by or through the following
structures :-
1. Atrioventricular valves
2. Semilunar valves
3. Right atrium
4. Right ventricle
5. Vena cava
Which of the following options represents the correct sequence ?

(1) 2 → 3 → 1 → 4 → 5
(2) 3 → 1 → 5 → 2 → 4
(3) 3 → 5 → 1 → 2 → 4
(4) 5 → 3 → 1 → 4 → 2

12)

In which the following can decrease the rate of heart beat ?

(A) Sympathetic neural signals.
(B) Parasympathetic neural signals.
(C) Adrenal medullary hormones.
(D) Vagus nerve.
(E) Thyroxine hormone
(F) Acetylcholine

(1) A, C, E
(2) D, E, F
(3) A, C, D
(4) B, D, F

13) Increase CO2 & temperature will cause the O2/Hb. dissociation curve to shift :-

(1) Towards left

(2) Towards right
(3) Become more sigmoid
(4) Flattening of curve

14) Fatal condition of the foetus which causes severe anaemia and jaundice is known as :-

(1) Respiratory distress syndrome

(2) Erythroblastosis foetalis
(3) Pneumonia
(4) Auricular septal defect

15)

Which one of the following mammalian cells is not capable of metabolising glucose to carbon-dioxide
aerobically?

(1) Unstriated muscle cells

(2) Liver cells
(3) Red blood cells
(4) White blood cells

16) The first heart sound is :–

(1) 'LUBB' sound produced at the beginning of atrial systole

(2) 'DUP' sound produced at the end of atrial systole
(3) 'LUBB' sound produced at the beginning of ventricular systole
(4) 'DUP' sound produced at the beginning of atrial systole

17)

Aortic valve

(1) Prevents back flow of blood into aorta during ventricular diastole
(2) Prevents back flow of blood into left ventricle during ventricular diastole
(3) Prevents back flow of blood into left ventricle during ventricular systole
(4) Prevents back flow of blood into aorta during ventricular systole

18) If a person living at sea level, migrates to about 8000 feet high hill, his blood after about 200
days will

(1) increase in volume

(2) have fewer WBCs
(3) have more plasma
(4) have greater number of RBCs and more haemoglobin

19) During a cardiac cycle, blood pumped by the each ventricle in body is–

(1) 140mL
(2) 70mL
(3) 120mL
(4) 500mL

20)

The rate of conduction of impulse in the conduction pathway of heart, is fastest in :-

(1) S.A. node

(2) A.V. node
(3) Bundle of His
(4) Purkinje's fibres
21) Plasma protein which helps in osmotic balance is:

(1) Albumin
(2) Globulin
(3) Fibrinogen
(4) Heparin

22)

Cardiac output is

(1) the volume of blood pumped / min by both the ventricles

(2) the volume of blood flowing through systemic circulation / min
(3) not affected by filling pressure
(4) approximate 5L /min at rest

23) In the diagram of excretory system of human beings given below, different parts have been
indicated by alphabets choose the answer in which these alphabets have been correctly matched
with the parts which they represent –

(1) A = Kidney, B = Abdominal aorta, C = Ureters, D = Urinary bladder, E = Urethra

(2) A = Kidney, B = Abdominal aorta, C = Urethra, D = Urinary bladder, E = Ureters
(3) A = Kidney, B = Renal pelvis, C = Urethra, D=Urinary bladder,E = Ureters
(4) A = Kidney, B = Abdominal aorta, C = Urethra, D = Urinary bladder, E = Renal pelvis

24)

The normal value of GFR is approximately :-

(1) 650 ml/min

(2) 180 ml/min
(3) 180 ml/day
(4) 125 ml/min

25) A neural centre present in pons region of brain called __(A)__ which can morderate the function
of the __(B)__ :-
 (A) (B)

(I) Chemosensitive area Carotid bodies

Respiratory rhythm
(II) Pneumotaxic centre
centre

Respiratory rhythm
(III) Pheumotaxic centre
centre

(IV) Pneumotaxic centre Chemosensitive area

(1) I
(2) II
(3) III
(4) IV

26) Which of the following cannot be taken as a feature of open type circulatory system?

(1) Low pressure system

(2) Well regulated blood supply to different organs
(3) Blood returns to the heart slowly
(4) Non formation of capillaries

27) Human has the ability to increase the strength of inspiration and expiration with the help of
additional muscle in :-

(1) Diaphragm
(2) Vertebrae
(3) Sternum
(4) Abdomen

28) Shifting of ammonotelism to ureotelism is seen in

(1) Fishes
(2) Frog
(3) Protopterus
(4) Snake

29) Maximum ventricular filling occur during :-

(1) Atrial systole

(2) Diastasis
(3) Rapid inflow
(4) Joint diastole

30) Match the terms given under Column ‘I’ with their functions given under Column ‘II’ and select
the answer from the options given below:
 Column-I Column-II

A. Lymphatic System i. Carries oxygenated blood

B. Pulmonary vein ii. Immune Response

To drain back the tissue fluid to the

C. Thrombocytes iii. circulatory system

D. Lymphocytes iv. Coagulation of blood

(1) A-i,B-ii,C-iii,D-iv
(2) A-iii,B-i,C-iv,D-ii
(3) A-iii,B-i,C-ii,D-iv
(4) A-ii,B-i,C-iii,D-iv

31) In a human cardiac cycle, which of the following statement is false :

(1) The time taken for one cardiac cycle is 0.8 seconds
(2) The time interval for joint diastole in heart is about 0.4 seconds
(3) The time interval for joint systole in heart is about 0.4 second
(4) Ventricular diastole is about 0.5 seconds

32) If a person, do not have Fibrinogen presence in blood, than what would not happen in that
person ?

(1) Digestion
(2) Blood Clotting
(3) Transport of Nutrient
(4) Circulation

33) Loop of Henle is too short in :

(1) Cortical nephrons

(2) Juxtamedullary nephron
(3) All nephrons
(4) All renal tubules

34) ABO blood grouping is based on :

(1) Surface antibodies on RBC

(2) Surface antigen on WBC
(3) Surface antigen on RBC
(4) Plasma antigen

35) Assertion :- In the alveoli, dissociation of CO2 from carbamino-haemoglobin takes place.
Reason :- In the alveoli is low and is high.
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

SECTION-B

1) The blood returning to the heart from lungs via pulmonary veins is rich in the :-

(1) Number of RBCs per ml of blood

(2) Haemoglobin per ml of blood
(3) Oxygen per ml of blood
(4) Nutrients per ml of blood

2) During a cardiac cycle the SA node generates action potential which stimulates both atria to
undergo a simultaneous contraction referred to as atrial systole. The atrial systole increases the flow
of blood into the ventricles by about :-

(1) 60%
(2) 70%
(3) 30%
(4) 20%

3) In glomerulus, afferent arteriole :-

(1) Is wider than efferent arteriole

(2) Is narrower than efferent arteriole
(3) And efferent arteriole have similar diameter
(4) Is narrow than efferent capillaries

4) Consider the following parts of nephron in excretory system :- (i) PCT

(ii) Henle's loop
(iii) DCT
(iv) Ascending limb of Henle's loop
(v) Collecting duct
Absorption is minimum in

(1) only (ii)

(2) only (v)
(3) Both (i) and (ii)
(4) only (iv)

5) The glomerular filtrate i.e., the liquid collected in the cavity of Bowman's capsule is :

(1) Blood minus proteins

(2) Blood minus proteins and corpuscles
(3) Water
(4) Urine

6) The proximal convoluted tubule is lined by the:

(1) Simple cuboidal epithelium

(2) Simple columnar epithelium
(3) Simple cuboidal brush bordered epithelium
(4) Simple columnar brush bordered epithelium

7) Match the following columns.

Column I Column II

A Ultrafiltration 1 Henle’s loop

Concentration of
B 2 Ureter
urine

C Transport of urine 3 Urinary bladder

Malpighian
D Storage of urine 4
corpuscle

Proximal
5
convoluted tubule

Codes :
A B C D

(1) 5 4 1 2

(2) 4 1 2 3

(3) 4 5 2 3

(4) 5 4 1 3
(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)

8) T-wave of ECG represents :-

(1) Atrial repolarisation

(2) Ventricular repolarisation
(3) Atrial depolarisation
(4) Ventricular depolarisation

9) Read the following statements :-

(A) It is a chronic disorder
(B) Major cause of it is cigarette smoking
(C) It is an allergy
(D) Alveolar walls are damaged
(E) Respiratory surface is decreased
(F) It is due to inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles.
How many of the above statements are correct about Emphysema disorder ?

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) One

10) Time period of cardiac cycle in human heart is 0.8 sec. In which of the following condition this
time period is decreased ?
(a) Exercies (b) Infant
(c) Relax condition (d) During food intake

(1) a, b
(2) a, b, c
(3) b, c
(4) d, c

11) Uric acid is an excretory product of

(a) Insects
(b) Birds
(c) Aquatic animals
(d) Mammals

(1) a and b are correct

(2) b and d are correct
(3) a, c, and d are correct
(4) a, b and c are correct

12) Under normal condition 1 litre of blood deliver ____ to tissue :-

(1) 4mℓO2
(2) 5mℓ O2
(3) 15 mℓO2
(4) 50 mℓ O2

13) Pick out the correct statements regarding O2–Hb dissociation curve :-
(a) Curve 'C' may be normal curve
(b) Curve 'A' may be for myoglobin
(c) Curve 'B' represents saturation of Hb at low pO2
(d) Curve 'D' represents lower pCO2
(e) Curve 'B' represents higher pCO2

(1) a, b, c, d
(2) a, b, c
(3) a, b, d
(4) All are correct

14) Identify the wrong differences between inspiration, and expiration :-

Inspiration Expiration

(a) EICM Contract Relax

Size of thoracic
(b) Decreases Increases
cavity

Shape of Dome
(c) Flat
Diaphragm shaped

Movement of Atmosphere Lungs to

(d)
Air to lungs atmosphere
(1) a, b
(2) b, c
(3) b, d
(4) c, d

15) In dire emergency, which group of blood can be transfused safely without cross matching ?

(1) A and Rh–ve

(2) O and Rh–ve
(3) A and Rh+ve
(4) O and Rh+ve
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 2 4 1 2 2 3 3 2 1 1 4 2 1 4 2 2 2 1 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 2 4 4 1 4 3 4 1 3 2 2 2 3 1 2

SECTION-B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 2 1 3 1 1 1 1 1 3 1 1 2 2 3 1

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 3 2 2 4 2 3 4 3 1 1 4 4 2 3 3 2 2 2 3 4
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 3 1 3 2 1 1 3 4 2 2 2 3 1 3

SECTION-B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 3 3 2 2 1 3 2 3 4 4 2 1 1 1 4

BOTANY

SECTION-A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 3 4 2 3 3 3 2 2 1 2 4 3 2 3 3 2 2 1 2 3
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 3 3 2 3 2 2 2 1 2 4 2 3 4 3 1

SECTION-B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 3 1 2 2 3 3 1 3 2 3 2 3 4 2

ZOOLOGY
 SECTION-A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 3 4 3 4 3 1 4 1 3 4 4 2 2 3 3 2 4 2 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 1 2 1 4 2 2 4 2 4 2 3 2 1 3 4

SECTION-B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 3 3 1 4 2 3 2 2 3 1 1 4 2 2 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) we know, = qvB. For proton,

Rp = =

and for deuteron Rd =

⇒ = =
⇒ Rd =

2) Ferromagnetic substance has magnetic domains whereas paramagnetic substances have

magnetic dipoles which get attracted to a magnetic field. Ferromagnetic material magnetised
strongly in the direction of magnetism field, Hence, N1 will be attracted paramagnetic
substance attract weekly in the direction of field. Hence, N2 will weakly attracted. Diamagnetic
substances do not have magnetic dipole but in the presence of external magnetic field due to
their orbital motion of electrons these substances are repelled. Hence, N3 will be repelled.

3)

Tension in spring T = upthrust - weight of sphere

(As )

4)

5) also

6)

Force acting on the base

7) Vdg – Vρg – 6πηrv = Vd

⇒v=
=

8) Modulus of rigidity is defined only for solid, and it is zero for liquid.

9)

10)

Conceptual

11) Consider a small portion of mass m of the liquid. mg is the weight acting downward and
ma is the fictitious force acting against the direction of motion. The resultant of these two
forces will make the surface of liquid inclined in such a way that the resultant is normal to the

surface for which

or θ = tan–1 (a/g)

12)

Pressure on the first piston dyne/cm2

Let A be the cross sectional area of the other piston.

Then the pressure on this piston

Since the two pressures are equal.

or

13) Conceptual.

14) l = ∴l∝ (Y, L and F are constant)

i.e., for the same load, thickest wire will show minimum elongation. So graph D represent the
thickest wire.
15)

16) For a diamagnetic material, the value of μr is slightly less than one. For any material, the
value of ∈r is always greater than 1.

17)

For a streamline flow of an ideal liquid, VA = VB.

The pressure at B = pressure at A + pressure due to column of liquid of height AB.

18)

= 8 mm2

19) Since, water rises to height of 2 cm in a capillary

If tube is at 60°, in this case height must be equal to

h = 2 cm

⇒ cos 60° =

∴l= = = 4 cm

20)
Suppose P is the point between the conductors where net magnetic field is zero.
So at P | Magnetic field due to conductor
1| = |Magnetic field due to conductor 2|
i.e.,

Hence position from B

21) W = T × ΔA
2 × 10–4 = T × ΔA

⇒T=
= 3.33 × 10–2 N/m

22) =

⇒π ×4=π ×
⇒ = 64 m/s

23)
At the condition of equilibrium
Pressure at point A = Pressure at point B

By solving we get h = 9.6 cm

24)
w = Kf – Ki
0.8 Vg 2 + (0.8 Vg – 1Vg) d = 0 – 0
1.6 + (0.8 – 1) d = 0

25) The particle will come out of the magnetic field at an angle θ = 60° with the original
direction.

26) The energy lost per unit volume of a substance in a complete cycle of magnetisation is
equal to the area of the hysteresis loop.

27) Air flows from higher to lower pressure and smaller balloon has higher pressure as excess

pressure ∝ .

28) Initially ,

Finally

29)

= 1800 π erg

30) Shear force F = T = mg = 0.020 × 10 = 0.2 N

Shear stress on the fluid = = =2

Strain rate = =
η= =

= × 10–3 Pa s.

31) Force an AB = = 12 N (upward)

Force on BC = 16 N (left)

So force on

32)

= 4 × 6 × 10–3 = 2.4 cm

33) By using right hand thumb rule or any other rule which helps to determine the direction of
magnetic field.

34) Point P lies on equatoril line of magnet (1) and axial line of magnet (2) as shown

B1 = = 10–7 × = 0.1 T

B2 = = 10–7 × = 0.2 T
∴ Bnet = B2 – B1 = 0.1T

35) P at bottom of lake = Patm + ρgh ... (i)

P at mid of lake = Patm + ρg ... (ii)

P at mid = (P at bottom)

Patm + ρg = (Patm + ρgh)

10 m of water =
2[ρwg (10m)] = ρwgh
h = 20 m

36) Pexcess =

= 20 N/m2 or 20 Pascal

37) The decrease in surface tension with an increase in temperature.

At boiling point it vanishes

38)

Let a be the side of the cube and x be the length dipping in water and in the liquid.

39) From the graph = 10–4 m, F = 20 N

A = 10–6 m2, L = 1m

∴Y= = = 20 × 1010
= 2 × 1011 N/m2

40) In uniform magnetic field

So, .
So, speed and kinetic energy remains same.

41)

42)

43) F = =
= 360π N

44) Initially Patm = Pair + 70 cm of Hg due to liquid

76 cm of Hg = Pair + 70 cm of Hg
Pair = 6 cm of Hg
Now, room pressure is doubled
Proom = Pair + h cm of Hg
152 cm of Hg = 6 cm of Hg +h
h = 146 cm of Hg

45) Poisson's ration,

% increase in volume

46) = mv sin 60° = mv

= + mv = mv

⇒ = mv

⇒ = Ans.

47) Force on semi-circular wire will be same as the force on straight wire AC.
 48) K =

Thus, v =

F = qvB = qB

Hence, the correct answer is (b).

49) Volume flowing per sec in left tube

= volume flowing per sec in 1st branch tube
+ volume flowing per sec in 2nd branch tube
Av1 = Av2 + 1.5 Av
A × 3 = A × 1.5 + 1.5 Av
∴ v = 1 m/s

50) Weight of cylinder = upthrust due to both liquids

V×D×g= ×d×g+ × 2d × g

⇒ D.g =

⇒ = ∴D=

CHEMISTRY

51)

More acidic reacts faster

52)

Nucleophilicity ∝ easily donate lone pair tendency

53)
ERG intensifies –ve charge
EWG disperses –ve charge
Intensification makes system unstable
Dispersal makes system stable

54) B.D.E. ∝

55)

Resonance energy ∝ Stability ∝ number of alternate π-bond

56)

57)

Stability of carbocation
∴ order of stability ⇒ Q > P > R > S

58) As the stability of radical increases bond energy decreases.

59)
% s character is more so E.N. of sp carbon is more and Θve charge on more electronegative
atom is more stable.

60)
Lone pair on N—atom and C=O are in conjugation, Hence resonance stabilised.

If N—atom is protonated to form , then lone pair on N—atom is lost and thus
resonance stabilisation is also lost.

61) Enolisation ∝ no. of –C=O group ∝ H-Bonding ∝ resonance

More conjugation so maximum enolisation

62) Stability order of alkene →

So stability order →

63)

Reactivity towards SN1 ∝ Stability of carbocation

64)

Saytzeff alkene (trans is major)

65)

73)

Removal of electron from an atom reduces the inter-electronic repulsion and thus the
screening effect or the shielding effect decreases. As a result, the nuclear force of attraction
increases and size decreases

76)

Given : specific conductance

Conc. (M) = 0.01M

Now

n-factor for KCl = 1

So N = M = 0.01

77) , for their respective moles

moles ratio deposited

78) For 1 equivalent substance 1F charge is required.

79)

Standard Gibbs free energy is given as

ΔG° = –nE°F
If i.e., –ve
ΔG° > 0
Further ΔG° = –RT in Keq
ΔG° > 0 When Keq < 1

80) 5.6 L contains 16 g

22.4 L contains × 22.4 = 64 g = Mw

SO2 has molecular mass = 64 g
thus value of x = 2

81) no. of molecules = n × NA = =

82) = LR

83) CaCO3 → CaO + CO2

mole = 0.02
mole of CO2 = 0.02
mass of CO2 = 0.02 × 44 = 0.88 g

84) S : O

:
1 : 2
empirical formula :SO2

85)

M.W. of B2A3 = = 180 g

M.W. of B2A = = 100 g

Let atomic weight of A and B be x & y g respectively
⇒ 3x + 2y = 180 …(1)
x + 2y = 100 …(2)
From (1) & (2)
x = 40 g y = 30 g
 86) +R effect groups will decrease carbanion stability.

87)

88)

89)

E2 involves anti elimination.

90) NCERT Reference: XII, Part-II, Page No. 316

96)
nf = 3

97) Central atom nitrogen (O.N. = +3) present in intermediate oxidation state so it can act as
oxidant as well as reductant.

98)

99)

100) NCERT-XII, Part-1, Pg # 135

BOTANY
101) NCERT-XI, Pg.#244

102) NCERT Pg. # 242

103)

NCERT Pg. No. 26 Fig 2.6 (a)

104) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 230

105)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 06

107) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 233, 234

111) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 235

112)

NCERT Pg. # 232

114)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 23 (E), 25(H)

116)

NCERT Page # 07

117)

NCERT Pg. # 28,29

118)

NCERT XI, Pg # 240

119) NCERT-XI, Page No. 250, 15.4.3.4

121) NCERT Pg. No. # 243,Fig.15.5

124) NCERT XI pg # 240

126) NCERT XI Page # 227

128)

NCERT XI, Pg # 247

130)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 173

131)

NCERT XII Pg. # 25

135)

XII NCERT Pg # 27

137) NCERT XI, Pg. # 248-250

140)

XII NCERT Pg # 22

142) NCERT XI Page No.# 230

143) NCERT - XI Pg. 252-253 E

145)

XII NCERT Pg # 26

146) NCERT-XI

147)

In majority of angiosperm female gametophyte is 7 celled 8 nucleated structure

148)

NCERT Pg. No. 26 Fig 2.8 (c)

 149) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 229

150) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 34 / SR-33

ZOOLOGY

152) NCERT pg no.291, 293

154)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 288

156) NCERT Pg. # 271

157)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 290

160)

NCERT XI # 272

162) NCERT XI Pg.# 287

166) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 284

170)

NCERT Pg.# 200

172) NCERT Pg. # 285

177)

NCERT PAGE NO. 185

182) NCERT Pg. # (E) 278 & 279 (H) 279 & 280

189) New NCERT update

193) NCERT XI Pg. # 286

197) NCERT Pg. # 274

199)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 270, 271