Year – 2023 d) II, III, IV, I (NEET-II 2016)

i). Select the correct group/set of Australian

Marsupials exhibiting adaptive radiation. 3. Following are the two statements regarding
1) Numbat, Spotted cuscus, Flying the origin of life?
phalanger A) The earliest organisms that appeared on
2) Mole, Flying squirrel, Tasmanian tiger the earth were non-green and
cat presumably anaerobes.
3) Lemur, Anteater, Wolf B) The first autotrophic organisms were the
4) Tasmanian wolf, Bobcat Marsupial mole chemoautotrophs that never released
(NEET 2023) oxygen of the above statements which
one of the following options is correct?
a) Both (A) and (B) are correct.
Year – 2022 b) Both (A) and (B) are false
I. Natural selection where more individuals
c) (A) is correct but (B) is false
acquire specific character value other than the
d) (B) is correct but (A) is false
mean character value, leads to:
(NEET-I 2016)
1) Stabilising change
2) Directional change
4. Which one of the following is incorrect about
3) Disruptive change
the characteristics of protobionts (coacervates
4) Random change
and microspheres) as envisaged in the abiogenic
(NEET 2022)
origin of life?
a) They were partially isolated from the
II. Which of the following statements is not true?
surroundings
1) Analogous structures are a result of
b) They could maintain an internal
convergent evolution.
environment
2) Sweet potato and potato is an example
c) They were able to reproduce
of analogy
d) They could separate combinations of
3) Homology indicates common ancestry
molecules from the surroundings
4) Flippers of penguins and dolphins are a
(2008)
pair of homologous organs
(NEET 2022)
5. The concept of chemical evolution is based
on?
Origin in life a) interact of water, air and clay under
1. From his experiments S.L. Miller produced intense heat
amino acids by mixing the following in a b) effect of solar radiation on chemicals
closed flask? c) possible origin of life by combination of
a) CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 800oC chemicals under suitable environmental
b) CH3, H2, NH4 and water vapor at 800oC conditions
c) CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 600oC d) crystallization of chemicals.
d) CH3, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 600oC (2007)
(NEET 2020)
6. Which of the following amino acids was not
2. Which of the following is the correct sequence found to be synthesized in Miller’s experiment?
of events in the origin of life? a) Alanine
I. Formation of protobionts b) Glycine
II. Synthesis of organic monomers c) Aspartic acid
III. Synthesis of organic polymers d) Glutamic acid
IV. Formation of DNA-based genetic (2006)
systems
a) I, II, III, IV 7. Which one of the following experiments
b) I, III, II, IV suggests that simplest living organisms could not
c) II, III, I, IV
have originated spontaneously from non-living d) NH3, water, nucleic acid and protein
matter? (1996)
a) Larvae could appear in decaying organic 13. The first organisms were?
matter. a) chemoautotrophs
b) Microbes did not appear in stored meat b) chemoheterotrophs
c) Microbes appeared from unsterilized c) autotrophs
organic matter d) eukaryotes
d) Meat was not spoiled, when heated and (1992)
kept sealed in a vessel.
(2005) 14. Which was absent in the atmosphere at the
time of origin of life?
8. According to Oparin, which one of the a) NH3
following was not present in the primitive b) H2
atmosphere of the earth? c) O2
a) Methane d) CH4
b) Oxygen (1991)
c) Hydrogen
d) Water vapour Evolution of life forms-A Theory
(2004) 15. Which one of the following sequences was
proposed by Darwin and Wallace for organic
9. There is no life on moon due to the absence evolution?
of? a) Overproduction , variations , constancy
a) O2 of population size , natural selection
b) water b) Variation, constancy of population size,
c) light overproduction, natural selection
d) temperature c) Overproduction , constancy of
(2002) population size, variations , natural
selection
10. Most abundant organic compound on earth d) Variations , natural selection ,
is? overproduction , constancy of
a) protein population size
b) cellulose (2003)
c) lipids
d) steroids 16. Darwin’s theory of pangenesis shows
(2001) similarity with theory of inheritance of acquired
characters then what shall be correct according
11. 1st life on earth was? to it?
a) cyanobacteria a) Useful organs becomes strong and
b) chemoheterotrophs developed while useless organs become
c) autotrophs extinct.
d) photoautotrophs b) Size of organs increase with aging.
(2001) c) Development of organs is due to will
power.
12. The correct sequence for the manufacture of d) There should be some physical basis of
molecules/organic compounds on the primitive inheritance.
earth is? (2001)
a) NH3, nucleic acid, protein and
carbohydrate
b) protein, carbohydrate, water and nucleic
What are Evidences for Evolution?
17. Which of the following refer to correct
acid
example (s) of organisms which have evolved
c) NH3, protein, carbohydrate and nucleic
acid
due to changes in environment brought about by 23. Analogous structures are a result of?
anthropogenic action? a) shared ancestry
1) Darwin’s Finches of Galapagos islands. b) stabilising selection
2) Herbicide resistant weeds. c) divergent evolution
3) Drug resistant eukaryotes. d) convergent evolution
4) Man-created breeds of domesticated (NEET-I 2016)
animals like dogs.
a) only(1) 24. The wings of a bird and the wings of an insect
b) (1) and (3) are?
c) (2), (3) and (4) a) phylogenetic structures and represent
d) Only (4) divergent evolution
(NEET 2020) b) homologous structures and represent
convergent evolution
18. Embryological support for evolution was c) homologous structures and represent
disapproved by? divergent evolution
a) Karl Ernst von Baer d) analogous structures and represent
b) Alfred Wallace convergent evolution
c) Charles Darwin (2015)
d) Oparin
(NEET 2020) 25. Industrial melanism is an example of?
a) mutation
19. Flippers of penguins and dolphins are b) Neo-Lamarckism
examples of? c) Neo-Darwinism
a) adaptive radiation d) natural selection
b) convergent evolution (2015)
c) industrial melanism
d) natural selection 26. Forelimbs of cat, lizard used in walking;
(NEET 2020) forelimbs of whale used in swimming and
forelimbs of bats used in flying are an example
20. The similarity of bone structure in the of?
forelimbs of many vertebrates is an example of? a) analogous organs
a) homology b) adaptive radiation
b) analogy c) homologous organs
c) convergent evolution d) convergent evolution
d) adaptive radiation (2014)
(NEET 2018)
27. Which one of the following are analogous
21. Among the following sets of examples for structures?
divergent evolution, select the incorrect option? a) Wings of bat and wings of pigeon
a) Forelimbs of man, bat and cheetah b) Gills of prawn and lungs of man
b) Heart of bat, man and cheetah c) Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of
c) Brain of bat, man and cheetah Cucurbita
d) Eye of octopus, bat and man d) Flippers of dolphin and legs of horse
(NEET 2018) (2014)

22. Which of the following structure is 28. The process by which organisms with
homologous to the wing of a bird? different evolutionary history evolve similar
a) Hindlimb of rabbit phenotypic adaptations in response to a
b) Flipper of whale common environmental challenge, is called?
c) Dorsal fin of a shark a) non-random evolution
d) Wing of a moth b) adaptive radiation
(NEET-I 2016) c) natural selection
 d) convergent evolution b) (A) – (i) convergent
(NEET 2013) (B) – (i) oxygen, (ii) nucleosides
c) (B) – (i) water vapour , (ii) amino acids
29. The eye of octopus and eye of cat show (C) – (i) rudimentary, (ii) anatomical
different patterns of structure, yet they perform d) (C) – (i) vestigial , (ii) anatomical
similar function. This is an example of? (D) – (i) mutations , (ii) multiplication
a) analogous organs that have evolved due (Mains 2010)
to convergent evolution.
b) analogous organs that have evolved due 32. Peripatus is a connecting link between?
to divergent evolution. a) mollusca and Echinodermata
c) homologous organs that have evolved b) Annelida and arthropoda
due to convergent evolution. c) coelenterata and porifera
d) homologous organs that have evolved d) ctenophora and platyhelminthes.
due to divergent evolution. (2009)
(NEET 2013)
33. In the case of peppered moth (Biston
30. Which one of the following options gives one betularia) the black –colored form became
correct example each of convergent evolution dominant over the light-colored from in England
and divergent evolution? during industrial revolution. This is an example
Convergent Divergent of?
evolution evolution a) appearance of the darker colored
individuals due to very poor sunlight
a) Eyes of octopus and Bones of forelimbs b) protective mimicry
mammals of vertebrates c) inheritance of darker color character
acquired due to the darker environment
b) Thorns of Wings of butterflies
d) natural selection whereby the darker
Bougainvillea and and bird
forms were selected.
tendrils of Cucurbita
(2009)
c) Bones of forelimbs Wings of butterfly
of vertebrates and birds 34. Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of
Cucurbita are examples of?
d) Thorns of Eyes of octopus and a) vestigial organs
bougainvillea and mammals b) retrogressive evolution
tendrils of Cucurbita c) analogous organs
(2012) d) homologous organs
(2008)
31. Given below are four statements (A-D) each
with one or two blanks. Select the option which 35. Which one of the following pairs of items
correctly fills up the blanks in two statements. correctly belongs to the category of organs
Statements: mentioned against it?
A) Wings of butterfly and birds look alike a) Nephridia of earthworm and Malpighian
and are the results of (i) evolution. tubules of cockroach – excretory organs
B) Miller showed that CH4, H2, NH3 and (i) b) Wings of honeybee and wings of crow –
when exposed to electric discharge in a homologous organs
flask c) Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendrils of
resulted in formation of (ii). Cucurbita – analogous organs
C) Vermiform appendix is a (i) organ and an d) Nictitating membrane and blind spot in
(ii) evidence of evolution. human eye – vestigial organs
D) According to Darwin evolution took (2008)
place due to (i) and (ii) of the fittest.
a) (D) – (i) small variations , (ii) survival, 36. Which one of the following statements is
(A) – (i) convergent correct?
 a) There is no evidence of the existence of d) study of carbohydrates/ proteins in
gills during embryogenesis of mammals. rocks.
b) All plant and animal cells are totipotent. (2004)
c) Ontogeny repeats phylogeny.
d) Stem cells are specialized cells. 42. Convergent evolution is illustrated by?
(2007) a) rat and dog
b) bacterium and protozoan
37. When two species of different genealogy c) starfish and cuttle fish
come to resemble each other as a result of d) dogfish and whale
adaptation, the phenomenon is termed? (2003)
a) Microevolution
b) Co-evolution 43. Industrial melanism is an example of?
c) Convergent evolution a) drug resistance
d) Divergent evolution b) darkening of skin due to smoke from
(2007) industries
c) protective resemblance with the
38. An important evidence in favour of organic surroundings
evolution is the occurrence of? d) defensive adaptation of skin against
a) homologous and analogous organs ultraviolet radiations.
b) homologous and vestigial organs (2003)
c) analogous and vestigial organs
d) homologous organs only 44. Which one of the following describes
(2006) correctly the homologous structures?
a) Organs with anatomical similarities, but
39. Which one of the following is not a living performing different functions
fossil? b) Organs with anatomical dissimilarities,
a) Peripatus but performing same function
b) King crab c) Organs that have no function now, but
c) Sphenodon had an important function in ancestor
d) Archaeopteryx d) Organs appearing only in embryonic
(2006) stage and disappearing later in the adult
(2003)
40. Which of the following is the relatively most
accurate method for dating of fossils? 45. Which of the following are homologous
a) Radio-carbon method organs?
b) Potassium-argon method a) Wings of birds and locust
c) Electron-spin resonance method b) Wings of birds and pectoral fins of fish
d) Uranium-lead method c) Wings of bat and butterfly
(2005) d) Legs of frog and cockroach
(2002)
41. Age of fossils in the past was generally
determined by radio-carbon method and other 46. Sequence of which of the following is used to
methods involve radioactive elements found in know the phylogeny?
the rocks. More precise methods, which were a) mRNA
used recently and led to the revision of the b) rRNA
evolutionary periods for different groups of c) tRNA
organisms, includes? d) DNA
a) study of carbohydrates/proteins in fossils (2002)
b) study of the conditions of fossilization
c) electron spin resonance (ESR) and fossil 47. Half life period of 14C is?
DNA a) 500 years
b) 5000 years
 c) 50 years c) development of characteristics by
d) 5×104 years random mating
(2001) d) replacement of common characteristics
in different groups.
48. In Lederberg’s replica plating experiment (1997)
what shall be used to obtain streptomycin
resistant strain? 54. Which of the following is the correct group of
a) Minimal medium and streptomycin vestigial organs in man?
b) Complete medium and streptomycin a) Nictitating membrane , ear muscles,
c) Only minimal medium eyelids and coccyx
d) Only complete medium b) Appendix , coccyx, ear muscles and
(2001) elbow joint
c) Wisdom tooth, coccyx, body hair and ear
49. Similarities in organism with different muscles
genotype indicates? d) Wisdom tooth, body hairs, nictitating
a) microevolution membrane and vermiform appendix
b) macroevolution (1996)
c) convergent evolution
d) divergent evolution 55. Which of the following isotopes is most
(2001) dangerous to homo sapiens?
a) Phosphorus-32
50. Which is not a vestigial organ in man? b) Strontium-90
a) Third molar c) Caesium-137
b) Nails d) Iodine-131
c) Segmental muscles of abdomen (1995)
d) Coccyx
(2000) 56. The change of the lighter-colored variety of
peppered moth (Biston betularia) to its darker
51. Phenomenon of ‘Industrial melanism’ variety (Biston carbonaria) is due to?
demonstrates? a) mutation
a) geographical isolation b) regeneration
b) reproductive isolation c) genetic isolation
c) natural selection d) temporal isolation
d) induced mutation (1995)
(1999)
57. The homologous organs are those that show
52. Which of the following are homologous similarity in?
organs? a) appearance
a) Wings of bird and hands of human b) function
b) Nails of human being and claws in c) origin
animals d) size
c) Wings of bird and wings of insect (1995)
d) Wings of bat and wings of cockroach
(1999) 58. The presence of gill slits, in the embryos of all
vertebrates, supports the theory of?
53. Evolutionary convergence is characterized a) metamorphosis
by? b) biogenesis
a) development of dissimilar characteristics c) organic evolution
in closely related groups d) recapitulation
b) development of a common set of (1995)
characteristics in groups of different
ancestry
59. The earliest fossil form, in the phylogeny of What is Adaptive Radiation?
horse, is? 65. Match List-I with List-II.
a) Equus
b) Mesohippus
List-I List-II
c) Eohippus
d) Merychippus p) Adaptive i) Selection of resistant
(1994) radiation varieties due to
exchange use
60. Which of the following is a pair of of herbicides and
homologous organs? pesticides
a) Pectoral fin of rohu and forelimb of horse
b) Wings of grasshopper and wings of crow q) Convergent ii) Bones of forelimbs in
c) Lungs of rabbit and gills of rohu evolution man and whale
d) Wings of bat and wings of butterfly r) Divergent iii) Wings of butterfly
(1994) evolution and bird

61. Evolutionary convergence is development of? s) Evolution by iv) Darwin finches

a) common set of characters in group of anthropogenic
different ancestry action
b) dissimilar characters in closely related Choose the correct answer from options given
group below.
c) common set of characters in closely
related group
p q r s
d) random mating
(1993) a) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)

62. Study of fossil is? b) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

a) palaeontology c) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
b) herpetology
c) saurology d) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
d) organic evolution (NEET 2021)
(1991)
66. The finch species of Galapagos islands are
63. Parallelism is? grouped according to their food sources. Which
a) adaptive divergence of the following is not a finch food?
b) adaptive divergence of widely separated a) Carrion
species b) Insects
c) adaptive convergence of widely different c) Tree buds
species d) Seeds
d) adaptive convergence of closely related (Karnataka NEET 2013)
group.
(1990) 67. Evolution of different species in a given area
starting from a point and spreading to other
64. Basic principle of embryonic development geographical areas is known as?
were pronounced by? a) adaptive radiation
a) Von Baer b) natural selection
b) Weismann c) migration
c) Haeckel d) divergent evolution
d) Morgan (2012)
(1990)
68. Darwin’s finches are a good example of?
 a) industrial melanism
b) connecting link 74. Humming-birds and Hawk illustrate?
c) adaptive radiation a) convergent evolution
d) convergent evolution b) homology
(2010,2008) c) adaptive radiation
d) parallel evolution
69. The finches of Galapagos islands provide an (1988)
evidence in favour of?
a) evolution due to mutation Biological Evolution
b) retrogressive evolution 75. Which one of the following scientist’s name is
c) biogeographical evolution correctly matched with the theory put forth by
d) special creation him?
(2007) a) De Vries –– Natural selection
b) Mendel –– Theory of Pangenesis
70. Adaptive radiation refers to? c) Weismann –– Theory of continuity of
a) evolution of different species from a germplasm
common ancestor d) Pasteur –– Inheritance of acquired
b) migration of members of a species to characters
different geographical areas (2008)
c) power of adaptation in an individual to a
variety of environments 76. Which one of the following phenomena
d) adaptations due to geographical supports Darwin’s concept of natural selection in
isolation. organic evolution?
(2007) a) Development of transgenic animals
b) Production of ‘Dolly’, the sheep by
71. Which evidence of evolution is related to cloning
Darwin’s finches? c) Prevalence of pesticide resistant insects
a) Evidences from biogeographical d) Development of organs from ‘stem cells’
distribution for organs transplantation
b) Evidences from comparative anatomy (2005)
c) Evidences from embryology
d) Evidences from paleontology 77. Darwin in his “Natural Selection Theory” did
(2000) not believe in any role of which one of the
following in organic evolution?
72. The diversity in the type of beaks of finches a) Parasites and predators as natural
adapted to different feeding habits on the enemies
Galapagos islands, as observed by Darwin, b) Survival of the fittest
provides evidence for? c) Struggle for existence
a) intraspecific competition d) Discontinuous variations
b) interspecific competition (2003)
c) origin of species by natural selection
d) intraspecific variations. 78. Nicotiana sylvestris flowers only during long
(1998) days and N . tabacum flowers only during short
days. If raised in the laboratory under different
73. Theory of Natural Selection dwells on? photoperiods, they can be induced to flower at
a) role of environment in evolution the same time and can be cross-fertilized to
b) natural selection acting on favourable produce self-fertile offspring. What is the best
variations reason for considering N . Sylvestris and N .
c) changes in gene complex resulting in Tabacum to be separate species?
heritable variations a) They cannot interbreed in nature.
d) none of these b) They are reproductively distinct.
(1993)
 c) They are physiologically distinct. d) Presence of webbed toes in aquatic birds
d) They are morphologically distinct. (1994)
(2003)
85. Weismann cut off tails of mice generation
79. Which of the following is most important for after generation after generation but tails
speciation? neither disappeared nor shortened showing
a) Seasonal isolation that?
b) Reproductive isolation a) Darwin was correct
c) Behavioural isolation b) tail is an essential organ
d) Tropical isolation c) mutation theory is wrong
(2002) d) Lamarckism was wrong in inheritance of
acquired characters.
80. Some bacteria are able to grow in (1993)
streptomycin containing medium due to?
a) natural selection 86. Evolution is?
b) induced mutation a) progressive development of a race
c) reproductive isolation b) history and development of race along
d) genetic drift with variations
(2002) c) history of race
d) development of race
81. Reason of diversity in living being is? (1989)
a) mutation
b) long term evolutionary change 87. “continuity of germplasm” theory was given
c) gradual change by?
d) short term evolutionary change a) De Vries
(2001) b) Weismann
c) Darwin
82. Which is the most important factor for d) Lamarck
continuity of a species from evolutionary point of (1989)
view?
a) Replication of genetic material 88. Theory of inheritance of acquired characters
b) Formation of gametes was given by?
c) Synthesis of proteins a) Wallace
d) None of these b) Lamarck
(2000) c) Darwin
d) De Vries
83. Species occurring in different geographical (1989)
area are called as?
a) sympatric 89. ‘Origin of species’ was written by?
b) allopatric a) Oparin
c) sibling b) Weismann
d) neopatric c) Lamarck
(1998) d) Darwin
(1989)
84. Which of the following evidences does not
favour the Lamarckian concept of inheritance of Mechanisms of evolution
acquired characters? 90. Variations caused by mutation, as proposed
a) Lack of pigment in cave-dwelling by Hugo de Vries, are?
animals a) small and directionless
b) Melanisation in peppered moth b) random and directional
c) Absence of limbs in snakes c) random and directionless
 d) small and directional 96. In a species, the weight of newborn ranges
(NEET 2019) from 2 to 5 kg. 97% of the newborn with an
average weight between 3 to 3.3 kg survive
91. according to Hugo de Vries, the mechanism whereas 99% of the infants born with weights
of evolution is? from 2 to 2.5 or 4.5 to 5 kg die. Which type of
a) multiple step mutations selection process is taking place?
b) saltation a) Cyclical selection
c) phenotypic variations b) Directional selection
d) minor mutations c) Stabilizing selection
(NEET 2018) d) Disruptive selection
(NEET 2019)
92. The idea of mutations was brought forth by?
a) Hugo de Vries who worked on evening 97. Artificial selection to obtain cows yielding
primrose higher milk output represents
b) Gregor Mendel who worked on Pisum a) directional as it pushes the mean of the
sativum character in one direction
c) Hardy-Weinberg who worked on allele b) disruptive as it splits the population into
frequencies in a population two one yielding higher output and the
d) Charles Darwin who observed a wide other lower output
variety of organisms during sea voyage. c) stabilizing followed by disruptive as it
(Mains 2012) stabilizes the population to produce
higher yielding cows
93. De Vries gave his mutation theory on organic d) stabilizing selection as it stabilizes this
evolution while working on? character in the population.
a) Pisum sativum (NEET 2017)
b) Drosophila melanogaster
c) Oenothera Lamarckian a 98. Genetic drift operates in
d) Althea rosea a) small isolated population
(2005) b) large isolated population
c) non-reproductive population
The Hardy Weinberg Principle d) slow reproductive population
94. The factor that leads to Founder effect in a (NEET-II 2016, 2002)
population is
a) genetic drift 99. In Hardy-Weinberg equation, the frequency
b) natural selection of heterozygous individual is represented by
c) genetic recombination a) p2
d) mutation. b) 2pq
(NEET 2021) c) pq
d) q2
95. A gene locus has two alleles A , a. if the (NEET-II 2016)
frequency of dominant allele A is 0.4, then what
will be the frequency of homozygous dominant, 100. In a population of 1000 individuals 360
heterozygous and homozygous recessive belong to genotype AA,480 to Aa and the
individuals in the population? remaining 160 to aa. Based on this data, the
a) 0.16(AA); 0.36(Aa); 0.48(aa) frequency of allele A in the population is
b) 0.36(AA); 0.48(Aa); 0.16(aa) a) 0.4
c) 0.16(AA); 0.24(Aa); 0.36(aa) b) 0.5
d) 0.16(AA); 0.48(Aa); 0.36(aa) c) 0.6
(NEET 2019) d) 0.7
(2014)
101. The tendency of population to remain in d) Variations occur among members of a
genetic equilibrium may be disturbed by species.
a) lack of mutations (2005)
b) lack of random mating
c) random mating 107. Random genetic drift in a population
d) lack of migration probably results from
(NEET 2013) a) highly genetically variable individuals
b) interbreeding within this population
102. Variation in gene frequencies within c) constant low mutation rate
populations can occur by chance rather than by d) large population size
natural selection. This is referred to as (2003)
a) random mating
b) genetic load 108. In which condition, the gene ratio remains
c) genetic flow constant for any species population?
d) genetic drift a) Sexual selection
(NEET 2013) b) Random mating
c) Mutation
103. Random unidirectional change in allele d) Gene flow
frequencies that occurs by chance in all (2002)
populations and especially in small populations is
known as 109. Forthcoming generation are less adaptive
a) migration than the parental generation due to
b) natural selection a) natural selection
c) genetic drift b) mutation
d) mutation c) genetic drift
(Karnataka NEET 2013) d) adaptation
(2001)
104. Genetic variation in a population arises due
to 110. In the developmental history of mammalian
a) recombination only heart, it is observed that it passes through a two
b) mutation as well as recombination chambered fish like heart, three chambered frog
c) reproductive isolation and selection like heart and finally four chambered stage. To
d) mutations only which hypothesis can this above cited statement
(Karnataka NEET 2013) be approximated?
a) Lamarck’s principle
105. At a particular locus, frequency of A allele is b) Mendelian principles
0.6 and that of a is 0.4. What would be the c) Biogenetic law
frequency of the heterozygotes in a random d) Hardy-Weinberg law
mating population at equilibrium? (1998)
a) 0.36
b) 0.16 111. Genetic drift operates only in
c) 0.24 a) Larger populations
d) 0.48 b) Mendelian populations
(2005) c) island populations
d) smaller populations
106. Which of the following is not true for a (1998)
species?
a) Members of a species can interbreed 112. Genetic drift is change of
b) Gene flow does not occur between the a) gene frequency in same generation
population of a species b) appearance of recessive genes
c) Each species is reproductively isolated c) gene frequency from one generation to
from every other species next
 d) none of these c) Archean
(1993) d) Proterozoic
(1995)
A Brief account of evolution
113. Dinosaurs dominated the world in which of 119. Correct order is
the following geological eras? a) Palaeozoic → Archaeozoic → Coenozoic
a) Cenozoic b) Archaeozoic → Palaeozoic →
b) Jurassic Proterozoic
c) Mesozoic c) Palaeozoic → Mesozoic → Coenozoic
d) Devonian d) Mesozoic → Archaeozoic → Proterozoic
(Karnataka NEET 2013) (1991)

114. Jurassic period of the Mesozoic era is

characterized by Origin and Evolution of Men
a) flowering plants and first dinosaurs 120. Match the hominids with their correct brain
appear size.
b) gymnosperms are dominant plants and A) Homo habilis i) 900cc
first birds appear B) Homo neanderthalensis. ii) 1350 cc
c) radiation of reptiles and origin of C) Homo erectus iii) 650-800cc
mammal like reptiles D) Homo sapiens iv) 1400cc
d) dinosaurs become extinct and Select the correct option.
angiosperms appear A B C D
(2006)
a) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
115. Diversification in plant life appeared
b) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
a) due to long periods of evolutionary
changes c) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
b) due to abrupt mutations
c) suddenly on earth d) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
d) by seed dispersal (NEET 2019)
(2004)
121. Which of the following statements is correct
116. In which era reptiles were dominant? about the origin and evolution of men?
a) Coenozoic era a) Agriculture came around 50,000 years
b) Mesozoic era back.
c) Palaeozoic era b) The Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus
d) Archaeozoic era primates existing 15 million years ago,
(2002) walked like men.
c) Homo habilis probably ate meat
117. Which statements is correct about centre of d) Neanderthal men lived in Asia between
origin of plants? 1,00,000 and 40,000 years back
a) More diversity in improved variety (Odisha NEET 2019)
b) Frequency of dominant gene is more
c) Climatic condition more favourable 122. The chronological order of human evolution
d) None of these from early to the recent is
(2001) a) Australopithecus → Ramapithecus →
Homo habilis → Homo erectus
118. Which period is dubbed as the age of b) Ramapithecus → Australopithecus →
prokaryotic microbes? Homo habilis → Homo erectus
a) Precambrian c) Ramapithecus → Homo habilis →
b) Phanerozoic Australopithecus → Homo erectus
 d) Australopithecus → Homo habilis → d) Variation only in Asia and no variation in
Ramapithecus → Homo erectus Africa
(NEET 2016) (2005)

123. Which of the following had the smallest 128. What kind of evidence suggested that man
brain capacity? is more closely related with chimpanzee than
a) Homo neanderthalensis with other hominoid apes?
b) Homo habilis a) Evidence from DNA extracted from sex
c) Homo erectus chromosomes only
d) Homo sapiens b) Comparison of chromosomes
(2015 Cancelled) morphology only
c) Evidence from fossil remains, and the
124. What was the most significant trend in the fossil mitochondrial DNA alone
evolution of modern man (Homo sapiens) from d) Evidence from DNA extracted from sex
his ancestors? chromosomes, autosomes.
a) Shortening of jaws (2004)
b) Binocular vision
c) Increasing cranial capacity 129. In recent years, DNA sequences (nucleotide
d) Upright posture sequence) of mt DNA and Y chromosomes were
(2012,2011) considered for the study of human evolution,
because
125. The extinct human who lived 1,00,000 to a) they are small and therefore, easy to
40,000 years ago, in Europe, Asia and parts of study
Africa, with short stature, heavy eyebrows, b) they are uniparental in origin and do not
retreating fore heads, large jaws with heavy take part in recombination
teeth, stocky bodies, a lumbering gait and c) their structure is known in greater detail
stooped posture was d) they can be studied from the samples of
a) Homo habilis fossil remains.
b) Neanderthal human (2003)
c) Cro-Magnon human
d) Ramapithecus 130. According to fossils discovered up to
(2012) present time origin and evolution of man started
from
126. The most apparent change during the a) France
evolutionary history of homo sapiens is traced in b) Java
a) loss of body hair c) Africa
b) walking upright d) China
c) shortening of the jaws (2002)
d) remarkable increase in the brain size
(Mains 2010) 131. Which of the following is closest relative of
man?
127. There are two opposing views about origin a) Chimpanzee
of modern man. According to one view Homo b) Gorilla
erectus in Asia were the ancestors of modern c) Orangutan
man. A study of variation of DNA however d) Gibbon
suggested African origin of modern man. What (2001)
kind of observation on DNA variation could
suggest this? 132. Which of the following is correct order of the
a) Greater variation in Asia than in Africa evolutionary history of man?
b) Greater variation in Africa than in Asia a) Peking man, Homo sapiens, Neanderthal
c) Similar variation in Africa and Asia man, Cromagnon man
 b) Peking man, Heidelberg man, a) Homo erectus is preceded by Homo
Neanderthal man Cromagnon man habilis.
c) Peking man, Neanderthal man, Homo b) Neanderthal man and Cro-Magnon man
sapiens, Cromagnon man were living at the same time.
d) Peking man, Neanderthal man, Homo c) Australopithecus was living in Australia
sapiens, Heidelberg man d) None of these
(2001) (1997)

133. Homo sapiens have evolved in 139. Common origin of man and chimpanzee is
a) Paleocene best shown by
b) Pleistocene a) binocular vision
c) Oligocene b) chromosome number
d) Holocene c) dental formula
(2000) d) cranial capacity
(1997)
134. Character which is closely related to human
evolution is 140. Which of the following changes for man in
a) disappearance of tail the course of evolution is probably useless?
b) reduction in size of jaws a) Development of being erect
c) binocular vision b) Development of cranial capacity
d) flat nails. c) Loss of tail
(2000) d) Development of opposable thumb
(1996)
135. Who is directly related to man?
a) Gorilla 141. Which of the following is the direct ancestor
b) Rhesus of Homo sapiens?
c) Gibbon a) Australopithecus
d) Orangutan b) H. sapiens Neanderthals
(2000) c) Homo erectus
d) Homo sapiens fossils
136. Which one of the following statements is (1996)
correct?
a) Australopithecus is the real ancestor of 142. The first domesticated animal by primitive
modern man. man was
b) Neanderthal man is the direct ancestor a) cat
of Homo sapiens. b) cow
c) Homo erectus is the ancestor of man. c) dog
d) Cro-Magnon man’s fossil has been found d) horse
in Ethiopia. (1996)
(1998)
143. Which one of the following changes
137. The age of the fossil of Dryopithecus on the involved is irrelevant, in the evolution of man?
geological time scale is a) Perfection of hand for tool making
a) 2.5 × 106 years back b) Changes of diet from hard nuts and hard
b) 50 × 106 years back roots to soft food
c) 75 × 106 years back c) Loss of tail
d) 25 × 106 years back d) Increase in the ability to communicate
(1998) with others and develop community
behaviour
138. Which of the following statements is correct (1994)
regarding evolution of mankind?
i) 1 (I) 2 (1) a (11) b (21) d (31) a (41) c (51) c (61) a
(II) 4 (2) c (12) d (22) b (32) b (42) d (52) a (62) a
(III) (3) a (13) b (23) d (33) d (43) c (53) b (63) d
(IV) (4) c (14) c (24) d (34) d (44) a (54) d (64) a
(V) (5) c (15) c (25) d (35) a (45) b (55) b (65) b
(VI) (6) d (16) d (26) c (36) c (46) b (56) a (66) a
(VII) (7) d (17) c (27) a,b (37) c (47) b (57) c (67) a
(VIII) (8) b (18) a (28) d (38) b (48) a (58) d (68) c
(IX) (9) b (19) b (29) a (39) d (49) c (59) c (69) c
(X) (10) b (20) a (30) a (40) c (50) b (60) a (70) a

(71) a (81) b (91) b (101) b (111) d (121) d (131) a (141) d

(72) c (82) a (92) a (102) d (112) d (122) b (132) b (142) c
(73) c (83) b (93) c (103) c (113) b (123) b (133) d (143) b
(74) c (84) b (94) a (104) b (114) b (124) c (134) a (144) -
(75) c (85) d (95) d (105) d (115) a (125) b (135) a (145) -
(76) c (86) b (96) c (106) b (116) b (126) d (136) c (146) -
(77) d (87) b (97) a (107) b (117) a (127) b (137) a (147) -
(78) a (88) b (98) a (108) b (118) a (128) d (138) a (148) -
(79) b (89) d (99) b (109) b (119) c (129) b (139) d (149) -
(80) a (90) c (100) c (110) c (120) d (130) c (140) c (150) -