15-01-2025

1001CMD303029240064 MD

BIOLOGY

1) In some cereals such as Rice and wheat, pollen grains lose viability within ______________ of their
release.

(1) 30 minutes
(2) 60 minutes
(3) 1 Month
(4) 1 year

2) In Zostera pollination takes place through _________

(1) Wind
(2) Water
(3) Animals
(4) Insects

3) Male honey bee produce sperms by __a__. Morgan coined the term __b__ to describe the physical
association of genes on a chromosome.

(1) a-meiosis, b-recombination

(2) a-meiosis, b-linkage
(3) a-mitosis, b-linkage
(4) a-mitosis, b-recombination

4) Which of the following is incorrect regarding human skin colour ?

(1) AABBCC genotype - Darkest skin colour

(2) AaBbCc genotype - Darkest skin colour
(3) aabbcc genotype - Lightest skin colour
(4) AaBbCc genotype - Intermediate skin colour

5) Statement-I : Besides the involvement of multiple genes polygenic inhertance also takes into
account the influence of environment.
Statement-II : Mendelian disorders are caused due to absence or excess or abnormal arrangement
of one or more chromosomes.

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II are correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.
6) Fill in blanks (A) and (B).
The presence of ___A____ is reminiscent of antiquity and the process of splicing represents the
dominance of ___B___.

(1) A - Introns, B - DNA world

(2) A - Introns, B - RNA world
(3) A - Exons, B - RNA world
(4) A - Exons, B - DNA world

7) Which codon has dual functions ?

(1) UUU
(2) UUC
(3) UGG
(4) AUG

8) Which of the following is not correct about translation ?

(1) It start with AUG

(2) Stops at termination codon
(3) Occur in cytoplasm
(4) Occur in nucleus

9) Assertion :- The total estimated cost of the human genome project was approximately 9 billion
US dollars.
Reason :- Human genome is said to have approximately 3 × 109 bps and cost of sequencing was 3
US dollar per bp.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion
(2) Assertion is true but the Reason is false
(3) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion
(4) Both Assertion and Reason is false

10) Read the given following statements:

(a) It is now proven that DNA replicates semi conservatively.
(b) Heavy DNA molecule (N15) could be distinguished from the normal DNA (N14) by centrifugation in
a cesium chloride (CsCl) density gradient.
(c) In living cells, such as E.coli, the process of replication requires a set of catalysts (enzymes).
(d) In E.coli, the process of DNA replication completes within 28 minutes.
(e) Any mistake during replication would result into mutations.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (b), (d), (e) only

(2) (a), (b), (c), (e)
(3) (a), (c), (e) only
(4) (a), (c) only
11) When pure round and yellow seeded pea plant (RRYY) is crossed with wrinkled and green seed
pea plant (rryy), and the F1 progeny is test crossed then what phenotypic ratio will be obtained :-

(1) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
(2) 1 : 2 : 1 : 2 : 4 : 2 : 1 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 1
(4) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1

12) Mycorrhizae are example of mutualism. The fungi help the plant in the absorption of essential
________ from the soil while the plant in turn provides the fungi with energy - yielding _______.

(1) Carbohydrate, Chemical

(2) Nutrients, Nucleic acid
(3) Carbohydrate, Nutrients
(4) Nutrients, Carbohydrates

13) Match the Column-I and Column-II choose the correct options given.

Column-I Column-II

a 1° Producer i Grasshopper

b 1° Consumer ii Wolf

c 2° Consumer iii Man

d 3° Consumer iv Phytoplankton
(1) a - i, b- iii, c - ii, d - iv
(2) a - ii, b- iii, c - iv, d - i
(3) a - iv, b- i, c - ii, d - iii
(4) a - i, b- iv, c - ii, d - iii

14) The Amazon rain forest harbouring probably millions of species is being cut and cleared for
cultivating ________ or for conversion to grassland for raising beef cattle.

(1) Soya beans

(2) Mung beans
(3) Kidney beans
(4) Black beans

15) The IUCN Red list (2004) documents the extinction of __A__ species (including __B__
vertebrates, __C__ invertebrates and __D__ plants) in the last 500 years.

(1) A=784, B=338, C=359, D=87

(2) A=338, B=784, C=87, D=359
(3) A=784, B=359, C=338, D=87
(4) A=784, B=338, C=359, D=187
16) Statement 1 : represents logistic growth.
Statement 2 : Since resources for growth for most animal populations are finite and become
limiting sooner or later, the logistic growth model is considered a more realistic one.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is incorrect.

(2) Statement 1 is incorrect and Statement 2 is correct.
(3) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct.
(4) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are incorrect.

17) Match the following Column-I with Column-II :

Column-I Column-II

Detritus
(A) (i) Detritivores break down detritus into smaller particles
food chain

Grazing Bacterial and fungal enzymes degrade detritus into simpler inorganic
(B) (ii)
food chain substance

(C) Fragmentation (iii) Major conduit for energy flow in aquatic ecosystem

(D) Catabolism (iv) Major conduit for energy flow in terrestrial ecosystem
(1) A - (iv), B - (iii), C - (i), D - (ii)
(2) A - (iv), B - (iii), C - (ii), D - (i)
(3) A - (iii), B - (iv), C - (i), D - (ii)
(4) A - (iii), B - (iv), C - (ii), D - (i)

18) Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(1) Predators are prudent in nature.

(2) In Amensalism one species is harmed whereas the other is benefitted.
(3) Darwin was convinced that interspecific competition is a potent force in organic evolution.
(4) The human liver fluke depends on two intermediate hosts to complete its life cycle.

19) Who noted that the behaviour of chromosomes was parallel to the behaviour of gene :-

(1) Mendel
(2) Morgan
(3) Sutton and Boveri
(4) Henking

20) How many of the following disorders are autosomal recessive :

Haemophilia, cystic fibrosis, sickle cell anaemia, colourblindness, phenylketonuria, Myotonic
dystrophy, thalassemia.
Choose the correct option :

(1) Three
(2) Five
(3) Four
(4) Six

21) The science of cultivation, breeding and marketing of flower is ?

(1) Floriculture
(2) Tissue culture
(3) Hydrophily
(4) Apiculture

22) In the scientific nomenclature:

(1) First letters in genus and specific epithet is capital.

(2) Generic name written after specific epithet.
(3) Both genus & specific epithet are printed in italics.
(4) Both genus & specific epithet written just after the authors name.

23) Match the column-I with column-II & give the answer.

Column-I Column-II
(Common Name) (Order)

(I) Man (a) Diptera

(II) House fly (b) Poales

(III) Wheat (c) Primata

(IV) Mango (d) Sapindales

(1) (I)-(a), (II)-(b), (III)-(c), (IV)-(d)
(2) (I)-(c), (II)-(a), (III)-(b), (IV)-(d)
(3) (I)-(c), (II)-(b), (III)-(a), (IV)-(d)
(4) (I)-(a), (II)-(b), (III)-(d), (IV)-(c)

24) Match the column-I with column-II and select correct option :

Column-I Column-II

A Dinoflagellates I Plasmodium

Longitudinal and transverse

B Diatoms II
flagella

C Euglenoids III Presence of silica in cell wall

D Slime moulds IV Pellicle

(1) A – II, B – III, C – IV, D – I
(2) A – III, B – II, C – IV, D – I
(3) A – IV, B – III, C – II, D – I
(4) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV

25) In which of the following the cell wall has stiff cellulose plate on the outer surface ?

(1) Euglenoids
(2) Diatoms
(3) Dinoflagellates
(4) Desmids

26) Pyriform gametes with two laterally attached flagella are found in :-

(1) Red algae

(2) Green algae
(3) Brown algae
(4) Blue green algae

27) Assertion (A) : In gymnosperms the female gametophytes do not have an independent free
living existance.
Reason (R) : In gymnosperms female gametophytes remain within the sporangia retained on
sporophyte.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

28) In Cycas-

(1) Male cones and female strobili may be borne on the same tree
(2) Male cones and female strobili may be borne on the different tree
(3) Male cones and megasporophylls are borne on different trees
(4) Male cones and megasporophylls are borne on same trees

29) Match the column I with column II

Column I Column II

i 3-phosphoglyceric acid a First stable product in C3 cycle

ii Oxalo-acetic acid b First stable product in C4 cycle

iii RuBP c Primary CO2 acceptor in C3 cycle

iv Phosphoenol pyruvate d Primary CO2 acceptor in C4 cycle

(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(2) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
(3) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
(4) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
30) Find the incorrect statement

(1) Light saturation for CO2 fixation occurs at 10% of full sunlight
(2) PEP is the primary CO2 acceptor in C4 plants
(3) Z-scheme of light reaction takes place in presence of PS-I only
(4) Grana lamellae have both PS-I and PS-II

31) In C4 plants malic acid or aspartic acid (4C) formed in ___(a)___ cells are transported to
___(b)___ cells.

(1) (a) mesophyll (b) bundle sheath

(2) (a) bundle sheath (b) mesophyll
(3) (a) mesophyll (b) mesophyll
(4) (a) bundle sheath (b) bundle sheath

32) In non-cyclic photophosphorylation, which of the following is not synthesised.

(1) ATP
(2) NADPH + H+
(3) O2
(4) Starch

33) Which enzyme is used to convert pyruvic acid to lactic acid ?

(1) Pyruvic acid Decarboxylase

(2) Lactate Dehydrogenase
(3) Alcohol Dehydrogenase
(4) Pyruvate Dehydrogenase

34) Assertion :- Cytochrome c is a small protein attached to the outer surface of the inner
mitochondrial membrane.
Reason :- Cytochrome c act as a mobile carrier for transfer of electrons between complex - III and
IV.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

35) Which of the following hormone is widely applied in tea plantations and hedge making ?

(1) Cytokinin
(2) Auxin
(3) Gibberellic acid
(4) Ethylene
36) Which of the following PGR promote nutrient mobilisation which helps in the delay of leaf
senescence ?

(1) Auxin
(2) Cytokinin
(3) Ethylene
(4) Abscisic acid

37) Read the following statements carefully.

(I) Ethephon hastens fruit ripening in tomatoes and apples.
(II) Ethylene is one of the most widely used PGR in agriculture.
(III) Kinetin does not occurs naturally in plants.
(IV) 2,4-D, widely used to kill monocotyledonous weeds, does not affect mature dicotyledonous
plants.
(V) ABA plays an important role in seed development, maturation and dormancy.
(VI) Auxin was isolated by E. Kurosawa from tips of coleoptiles of oat dormancy.

(1) only I,II,III are correct

(2) only I,II,IV,V are correct
(3) only IV,VI are incorrect
(4) only III,IV,V are incorrect

38) Assertion (A) : In plants such as bean, gram, pea, the endosperm is not present in mature
seeds.
Reason (R) : Endosperm is consumed during embryo development in plants such as bean, gram,
pea.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explaination for (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

39) In which of the following plant have hypogynous flower with parietal placentation.

(1) Plum
(2) Apple
(3) Mustard
(4) Cucumber

40) Given floral formula is related to which plant :-

(1) Makoi
(2) Onion
(3) Pea
(4) Mustard
41) Monoadelphous condition of stamen and actinomorphic symmetry of flower is found in :-

(1) Brinjal
(2) Citrus
(3) Pea
(4) China rose

42) Which layer of dicot root is responsible for initiation of lateral roots and vascular cambium
during the secondary growth?

(1) Hypodermis
(2) Cortex
(3) Endodermis
(4) Pericycle

43) In grasses, the guard cells are :-

(1) Barrel shaped

(2) Kidney shaped
(3) Oval shaped
(4) Dumb-bell shaped

44) Arrange the following layers in young dicot stem from outside to inside :
(A) Hypodermis
(B) Cortex
(C) Pericycle
(D) Endodermis
(E) Pith

(1) D→B→C→E→A
(2) A→B→D→C→E
(3) A→B→C→D→E
(4) D→B→A→E→C

45) The hypodermis of monocot stem consist of :-

(1) Parenchymatous cells

(2) Collenchymatous cells
(3) Meristmetic cells
(4) Sclerenchymatous cells

46) The body is externally and internally divided into segments with a serial repetition of at least
some organs in

(1) Hydra
(2) Fasciola
(3) Earthworm
(4) Pila

47) Which of the following character is not true for given figure :

(1) Fertilisation is internal

(2) Flame cells help in osmoregulation and excretion
(3) Development is through many larval stages
(4) Sexes are seperate

48) Which of the following statements is not correct ?

(1) Cyclostomes are marine but migrate for spawning to fresh water.
(2) Over one-third of all named species on Earth are Arthropods.
(3) Platyhelminthes are mostly endoparasites found in animals including human beings.
(4) Respiration in Amphibians is by gills, lungs & skin.

49) How many animals in the list given below have radial symmetry :
Obelia, Sponge, Aurelia, Pleurobranchia, Fasciola, Ascaris, Earthworm, Pila, Larva of star fish.

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Five
(4) Four

50) Multilayered epithelium is not found in -

(1) Pharynx
(2) Moist surface of buccal cavity
(3) Pancreatic duct
(4) Lining of body cavity

51) Which part gets reduced in the alimentary canal of frog due to its carnivorous nature :

(1) Oesophagus
(2) Intestine
(3) Buccal cavity
(4) Cloaca

52) Assertion :- Blood flows in heart only in one direction i.e from atria to ventricles, and then to
pulmonary artery or Aorta.
Reason :- Opening between atria and ventricles and between ventricles and respective vessels are
provided with valves.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(4) Assertion and Reason are false

53) Donor's group for blood group AB is :-

(1) 'A'
(2) 'B'
(3) 'AB' and 'O'
(4) All of the above

54) Identify X, Y & Z

Partial Deoxygenated Oxygenated

Alveoli Tissue
pressure Blood Blood

pO2 'X' 40 95 'Z'

pCO2 40 'Y' 40 45

X Y Z

(1) 104 40 45

(2) 45 40 104

(3) 40 40 104

(4) 104 45 40
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

55) Lungs are covered by a double layered membrane which is called

(1) Pleural membrane

(2) Visceral membrane
(3) Pulmonary membrane
(4) Parietal membrane

56) If a person drinks excess water, then ADH release will be :

(1) Stimulated
(2) Suppressed
(3) Not affected
(4) First stimulate then suppressed

57) Statement-I : Fibres of the tracts are covered with the myelin sheath, which constitute the
outer part of cerebral hemisphere.
Statement-II : The hypothalamus contains a number of centres which control body temperature,
respiration and cardiovascular reflexes.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :-

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.

58) Which of the following movements restores the resting potential of the membrane at the site of
excitation ?

(1) Na+ diffuses outside

(2) K+ diffuses inside
(3) K+ diffuses outside
(4) Na+ diffuses inside

59) Select the correct matching of a hormone, its source and function.

Hormone Source Function

Increases
heart beat,
Norepine Adrenal
(1) rate of
phrine medulla
respiration
and alertness

Beta-cells
Stimulates
(2) Glucagon of Islets of
glycogenolysis
Langerhans

Regulates
growth of
mammary
Posterior
(3) Prolactin glands and
pituitary
milk
formation in
females

Increases loss
Posterior
(4) Vasopressin of water
pituitary
through urine
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

60) Match column-I with Column-II :-

Column-I Column-II

(a) ADH (i) Glucocorticoids

(b) ACTH (ii) Mineralocorticoids

(c) Aldosterone (iii) Diabetes mellitus

(d) Insulin (iv) Diabetes insipidus

(1) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii)
(2) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii)
(3) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
(4) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii)

61) Which of the following bones are not included in the axial skeleton ?

(1) Cranial bones

(2) Ribs
(3) Girdle bones
(4) Facial bones

62) Tendons connects

(1) Skeletal muscles to bone

(2) Muscles to muscles
(3) Bone to bone
(4) Bone to ligament

63) Which of the following statement is correct?

(1) LH acts on the Leydig cells & stimulates synthesis & secretion of inhibin.
(2) Inner non-glandular layer called endometrium lines the uterine cavity.
(3) Sperms are finally released from seminiferous tubules by the process called spermiation.
(4) Cervical canal along with uterus forms the birth canal.

64) Consider the following four statements (A–D) and select the option which includes all the correct
ones only.
(A) The male sex accessory ducts include rete testis, vasa efferentia, epididymis and vas deferens.
(B) Leydig cells synthesise and secrete testicular hormones called androgen.
(C) The female reproductive system is located in the pelvic region.
(D) Each testis has about 250 compartments called testicular lobules.
Options :

(1) A, B, C, D
(2) B, C, D
(3) A, B, C
(4) A and B

65) Which of the following contraceptive methods involve a role of hormone ?

(1) Pills, Emergency contraceptives, Barrier methods.

(2) Lactational amenorrhea, Pills, Emergency contraceptives.
(3) Barrier method, Lactational amenorrhea, Pills
(4) CuT, Pills, Emergency contraceptive

66) Where immature lymphocytes differentiate into antigen sensitive lymphocyte:-

(1) M.A.L.T
(2) Primary lymphoid organs
(3) Secondary lymphoid organs
(4) Spleen

67) Assertion :- Subsequent encounter with the same pathogen elicits a highly intensified
anamnestic response.
Reason :- Acquired immunity is characterised by memory.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

68) Given below are two statements :-

Statement-I : Natural selection is a process in which heritable variations enabling better survival
are enabled to reproduce and leaves greater number of progeny.
Statement-II : Variation result in changed frequency of gene.

(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

69) Hardy - Weinberg principle can be defined by following equation :

(1) p2 + 2pq + q2
(2) p2 + q2
(3) p2 – q2
(4) (p2 + q2)2

70) Number of chromatids in chromosome at metaphase is :-

(1) Two each in mitosis and meiosis
(2) Two in mitosis and one in meiosis
(3) Two in mitosis and four in meiosis
(4) One in mitosis and two in meiosis

71) Given below are two statements :-

Statement-I : The cis and trans faces of the Golgi body are entirely different but interconnected.
Statement-II : Golgi apparatus is the important site of glycolipid and glycoprotein synthesis.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from option given below :

(1) Statement-I and statement-II are incorrect

(2) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect
(3) Statement-I and statement-II both are correct
(4) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct

72) Following structure represent :-

(1) Simple fat

(2) Compound lipid
(3) Derived lipid
(4) All of the above

73) Choose the incorrect pair.

(1) Lipases - Used in detergents for removing oil stains

(2) Pectinases and proteases - Used in clarifying bottled juices
(3) Statins - Competitively inhibit the enzyme responsible for cholesterol synthesis
(4) None of the above

74) Match the column I with column II

Column-I Column-II

(A) Recombinant protein (I) Study of disease

(B) Restriction site (II) ADA deficiency

(C) Gene therapy (III) Palindrome

(D) Transgenic animal (IV) Heterologous host

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

75) Transgenic tobacco which is developed through RNA interference, prevent the infection of :-

(1) A nematode – Meloidegyne incognitia

(2) A bacterium – Thiobacillus
(3) A fungi – Tricoderma
(4) A insect – Aphid

76) Match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II

A. Cell are metabolically active and proliferate I. G2 phase

B. DNA replication takes place II. G1 phase

C. Proteins are synthesised III. G0 phase

D. Quiescent state with metabolically active cells IV. S phase

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
(2) A-I, B-III, C-IV,D -II
(3) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

77) Morphology of chromosomes is most easily studied in :

(1) Prophase
(2) Metaphase
(3) Telophase
(4) Interphase

78)

(a) Golgi complex is related to cell secretions.

(b) Lysosome is the part of endomembrane system.
(c) Mitochondria is associated with light reaction.
(d) Ribosome synthesize RNA.
In given statements which of the following are incorrect :-

(1) a and d
(2) b and d
(3) b and c
(4) c and d

79) Which of the following composition is called biogas ?

(1) CH4,SO2,H2
(2) CH4,CO2,H2
(3) C2H6,CO2,H2
(4) CH4,N2O,H2

80) In following figure of gel electrophoresis which lane is showing undigested set of DNA sample ?

(1) lane - 1
(2) lane - 2
(3) lane - 3
(4) lane - 4

81) Identify incorrect match :

(1) PCR – HIV test

(2) Probes – Genetic defects
(3) Conventional method of diagnosis – Urine analysis
(4) ELISA – Myocardial infarction

82) In which animal fertilisation is external with indirect development :-

(1) Spongilla
(2) Fasciola
(3) Ancyclostoma
(4) Pleurobrachia

83) Select incorrect statement.

(1) Metamerism is characteristic of annelida

(2) Water canal system present in echinoderms
(3) Comb plate are present in ctenophores
(4) Cnidoblast present in cnidarians

84) A mass of tissue which is present in left lower corner of right atrium and close to the atrio-
ventricular septum is -

(1) Sino-atrial node

(2) Atrio-ventricular node
(3) Bundie of His
(4) Purkinje fibres

85) Podocytes are associated with :-

(1) PCT
(2) Capillary
(3) Bowman's capsule
(4) Loop of Henle

86) Method of locomotion performed by animals vary with their :-

(1) habitat
(2) demand of situation
(3) both 1 and 2
(4) None of above

87) In a 35 day menstrual cycle, which of the following phase is of 14 days ?

(1) Follicular phase

(2) Ovulation
(3) Luteal phase
(4) Menstruation

88) The figure below show four stage (a,b,c,d) of human development. Select the option giving

correct identification together with site of occurance?

Figure Developmental stage Site of occurrence

(1) (a) Fertilised egg Isthmus part of fallopian tube

(2) (b) Zygote End part of fallopian tube

(3) (c) Morula Starting point of Fallopian tube

(4) (d) Blastocyst Uterine cavity

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

89) Contraceptive oral pills help in birth control by :-

(1) Killing the sperms in uterus

(2) Forming barrier between sperm and ova
(3) Preventing ovulation
(4) Killing the ova

90) Contact inhibition is the property of :-

(1) Melanoma cells

(2) Malignant tumour
(3) Myeloma cells
(4) Normal cell

PHYSICS

1) By using identical rods of mass m and length ℓ, are used to write a name "ΛLLEN", as shown in
figure. Then, moment of inertia of individual letters about the axes shown are I1 for Λ, I2 for L, I3 for

L, I4 for E & I5 for N.

(1) I4 > I1
(2) I2 = I3 = I5
(3) Both 1 & 2
(4) Only (4)

2) The condition for beam balance as shown in figure to be in rotational equilibrium is :

(1) F1r1 = F2r2

(2) F1r2 = F2r1
2 2
(3) F1r1 = F2r2
2 2
(4) F1r2 = F2r1

3) Find torque (τ) about point A, B, C & D

(1) τA < τB & τC < τD

(2) τA > τB > τD < τC
(3) τA = τB = τC = τD
(4) None of these

4) Two non-ideal batteries of unequal emf are connected in parallel with same terminals. Consider
the following statements :
(A) The equivalent emf is smaller then either of the two emf's.
(B) The equivalent internal resistance is smaller than either of the two internal resistances.
Based on above choose the correct option :

(1) Both (A) and (B) are correct

(2) (A) is correct but (B) is wrong
(3) (B) is correct but (A) is wrong
(4) Both (A) and (B) are wrong

5) A galvanometer having resistance of 36Ω is shunted by a resistance of 4Ω. The percentage of total
current which passes through galvanometer will be :

(1) 5 %
(2) 10 %
(3) 15 %
(4) 20 %

6) The potential difference between points A and B is.

(1) 5V
(2) 10V
(3) 15V
(4) 20V

7) Eight charged water droplets, each with a radius of 1mm and a charge of 10–9 C coalesce to form a
single drop. Calculate the potential of the bigger drop.

(1) 2.6 × 104 V

(2) 3.6 × 104 V
(3) 1.6 × 104 V
(4) 4.6 × 104 V

8) Additivity of electric charge means that :-

(1) Total charge on a system remains constant.

(2) Total charge of isolated system is always zero.
(3) Charges are of two types.
(4) Total charge of isolated system is the algebric sum of all individual charges in the system.
9) In Young's double slit experiment of equal width slits, if intensity at the center of screen is I0.
Then intensity at a distance of β/3 from central maxima is (β is fringe width) :-

(1) I0

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) In a Young's double slit experiment, the width of one of the slit is twice the other slit. The
amplitude of the light coming from a slit is proportional to the slit width. Find the ratio of minimum
to the maximum intensity in the interference pattern :-

(1) 1 : 4
(2) 3 : 1
(3) 1 : 9
(4) 2 : 1

11) The height in terms of radius of earth R at which the acceleration due to gravity becomes .

(1)

(2)

(3) R

(4)

12) Two satellite A & B go round a planet in circular orbit having radii 16 R & 4R. If the speed of A is
4V, the speed of B will be.

(1) 4V
(2) 8V
(3) V
(4) V/2

13) When an additional charge of 2C is given to a capacitor, energy stored in it is increased by 21%.
The original charge of the capacitor is :-

(1) 30 C
(2) 40 C
(3) 50 C
(4) 20 C

14) The relationship between force and position is shown in the figure. The work done by the force
in displacing a body from x = 1 cm to x = 5 cm is :

(1) 10 erg
(2) 20 erg
(3) 30 erg
(4) 40 erg

15) A 60 kg woman stands up in a 120 kg cart of length 5m. She stands on a cart 1 m from one end,
and walk upto a point 1 m from the other end. Find the displacement of cart.

(1) –1 m
(2) –2 m
(3) –1.5 m
(4) None of these

16) Match the List-I with List-II :

List-I List-II

(P) Intrinsic Semiconductor (1) Fermi level near valence band.

(Q) n-type semiconductor (2) Fermi level at middle of valence and conduction band

(R) p-type semiconductor (3) Fermi level near conduction band.

(S) Metals (4) Fermi level inside conduction band.

(1) P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3
(2) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3
(3) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4
(4) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4

17) In the following circuits P-N junction diodes D1, D2 , D3 and D4 are ideal for the following
potentials of A and B. The correct increasing order of resistance between A and B will be :

(i) – 10V, – 5V (ii) – 5V, – 10V

(iii) – 4V, – 12V

(1) (i) < (ii) < (iii)

(2) (iii) < (ii) < (i)
(3) (ii) = (iii) < (i)
(4) (i) = (iii) < (ii)

18) Two identical balls A and B moving with equal speeds comes to rest after hitting with two
different walls. If time taken by ball A is less than that of ball B in coming to rest then :

(1) Impulse and Average force on A & B is same.

(2) Impulse of ball A is more than B
(3) Impulse of ball B is more than A
(4) Average force on A is more than on B.

19) Projectiles A & B are thrown at angles of 45° and 60° with vertical simultaneously from the
ground. If their time of flight is same, then ratio of their speed of projection is :

(1)
(2)
(3) 1 : 2
(4)

20) For the given velocity- time graph, choose the acceleration time graph.

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

21) What is the primary purpose of a venturimeter :

(1) Measure temperature

(2) Measure pressure
(3) Measure flow rate
(4) Measure viscosity

22) A particle is moving in a circle of radius R with constant speed V. If radius is double then it's
centripetal force to keep the same speed should be :

(1) Doubled
(2) halved
(3) Quadrupled
(4) Unchanged

23) An EM wave is transporting energy in the negative y-axis. At a certain point and certain instant,
the direction of electric field of the wave is along + z-direction. What will be the direction of the
magnetic field, at that point and that instant.

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

24)
Find the reading of voltmeter

(1) 0
(2) 20V
(3)
(4) 30V

25) Two concentric coils of 10 turns each are placed in the same plane. Their radius are 20 cm & 40
cm and carry 0.2 A & 0.3 A current respectively in opposite direction. The magnetic field at centre is
:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) Assertion : Bar magnet is equivalent to solenoid.

Reason : Mathematically both produce same magnetic field at large distance.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are correct but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(4) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.

27) Superconductors behave like :-

(1) Diamagnatic
(2) Perfect diamagnetic
(3) Paramagnetic
(4) Ferromagnetic

28) The PV diagram of a cyclic process of a thermodynamic system is shown in figure, the work done

by the gas during cycle ABCA is :-

(1) 20 J
(2) – 20 J
(3) 10 J
(4) – 10 J
29) The change in internal energy of a thermodynamic system which absorbs 20 Kcal of heat and
does 4000 J of work is [1 cal = 4.2 J]

(1) 20 kJ
(2) 80 kJ
(3) 35 kJ
(4) 55 kJ

30) During the adiabatic process, the pressure of a gas is found to be proportional to the fourth

power of its temperature. The ratio of for the gas will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) Which one of the figure gives the temperature dependence of density of water correctly ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
32) A body, initially at 64°C, cools to 52°C in 10 minutes. Temperature of the surroundings is 16°C.
Temperature of the body after 10 more minutes is :-

(1) 48°C
(2) 43°C
(3) 35°C
(4) 50°C

33) Assertion : In simple hormonic motion, velocity leads the acceleration by .

Reason : In simple hormonic motion, displacement leads the velocity by .

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are correct but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are incorrect.
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(4) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.

34) A resonance tube, closed at one end is used to determine the speed of sound in air. It is found
that two successive resonance occur at length 18 cm and 58 cm of the air column. If the frequency
of the tunning fork used is 500 Hz, the speed of sound will be :

(1) 400 m/s

(2) 330 m/s
(3) 320 m/s
(4) 800 m/s

35) The diagram shows the propagation of a wave. Which points are in same phase ?

(1) P and T
(2) T and U
(3) Q and S
(4) P and U

36) Chromatic aberration in the formation of images by a lens arises because :

(1) Of non paraxial rays

(2) The radii of curvature of the two sides are not same
(3) Of the defect in grinding
(4) The focal length varies with wavelength

37) A lens of power +2 D is placed in contact with a lens of power –1D. The combination will behave
like :-

(1) A divergent lens of focal length 50 cm

(2) A convergent lens of focal length 50 cm
(3) A divergent lens of focal length 100 cm
(4) A convergent lens of focal length 100 cm

38) MaLbTc is the dimensional formula of force and MxLyTz is the dimensional formula of energy, then
find the value of ax + by + cz ?

(1) 5
(2) 6
(3) 7
(4) 11

39) The jaws of the Vernier callipers shown in figure are in contact with each other. Then the zero
error (in mm) of this Vernier callipers is :

(1) 0.03 mm
(2) 0.27 mm
(3) 0.3 mm
(4) 0.027 mm

40) The colour coding on a carbon resistor is shown in the given figure. The resistance value of the

given resistor is :

(1) (5700 ± 285) Ω

(2) (7500 ± 750) Ω
(3) (5700 ± 375) Ω
(4) (7500 ± 375) Ω

41) In a meter bridge set up, which of the following should be the properties of the one meter long
wire?

(1) High resistivity and low temperature coefficient

(2) Low resistivity and low temperature coefficient
(3) Low resistivity and high temperature coefficient
(4) High resistivity and high temperature coefficient

42) The binding energy per nucleon of C-12 is 7.68 MeV and C-13 is 7.48 MeV. The energy (in MeV)
required to remove the extra neutron from C-13 is very nearly equal to :-

(1) 0.2
(2) 3.7
(3) 3.9
(4) 5

43) The ratio of de-Broglie wavelengths of molecules of hydrogen and helium which are at
temperature 27°C and 127°C respectively is:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 1

44)

What is the number of α and β– particle emitted respectively in the following radioactive decay ?

X200 → 80Y168
90

(1) 6 and 6
(2) 8 and 8
(3) 8 and 6
(4) 6 and 8

45) An electric dipole with dipole moment 4 × 10–9 C-m is aligned at 30° with direction of a uniform
electric field of magnitude 5 × 104 N/C. Torque acting on dipole is :

(1) 10–4 N.m

(2) 2 × 10–3 N.m
(3) 10–5 N.m
(4) × 10–4 N.m

CHEMISTRY

1) Which of the following is the correct IUPAC name of the recently discovered element of carbon
family :
(1) Unnilquadium
(2) Ununquadium
(3) Ununseptium
(4) Unniloctium

2)

Arrange Ce+3, La+3, Pm+3 and Yb+3 in increasing order of their ionic radii.

(1) Yb+3< Pm+3 < Ce+3 < La+3

(2) Ce+3 < Yb+3< Pm+3 < La+3
(3) Yb+3< Pm+3 < La+3< Ce+3
(4) Pm+3 < La+3< Ce+3 <Yb+3

3) The correct order of IE2 is :-

(1) Ne > F > O > N

(2) O > F > Ne > N
(3) Ne > O > F > N
(4) O > Ne > F > N

4) Match the column ?

Column
Column II
I
(Hybridisation)
(species)
–
A I3 P sp3

B XeO3F2 Q sp

C SiO2 R sp3d

D BeCl2 S sp3d2

T sp2
(1) A - R, B - R, C - Q, D - Q
(2) A - R, B - S, C - P, D - Q
(3) A - P, B - S, C - T, D - S
(4) A - R, B - R, C - P, D - Q

5)

In which of the following molecules both removal and addition of electrons leads to a decrease in
bond order ?

(1) F2
(2) O2
(3) N2
(4) B2

6) Which of following order of lattice energy is incorrect ?

(1) Al2O3 > Na2O

(2) MgF2 < CaF2
(3) LiF > NaF
(4) LiF > LiI

7) The correct order of the strength of H bonds is :-

(1) HF > H2O > NH3

(2) NH3 > H2O > HF
(3) H2O > NH3 > HF
(4) HF > NH3 > H2O

8) Assertion : [CoCl3(NH3)3] does not give white precipitate with AgNO3 solution.
Reason : [CoCl3(NH3)3] complex is optically inactive.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

9) The number of possible isomers of an octachedral complex [Co(C2O4)2(NH3)2]– is :

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

10) The IUPAC name of [Cr(NH3)4Cl2]NO3 is.

(1) Tetraaminedichloridochromium nitrate

(2) Tetraamminedichloridochromium(III) nitrate
(3) Dichloridotetraamminechromium (III) nitrate
(4) Tetraaminodichloridochromium (II) nitrate

11) Highest oxidation state +7 shown by which actinoids ?

(1) Np, Pu
(2) Pa, U
(3) Am, Cm
(4) Cf, Es

12) Composition of borax bead is :

(1) NaBO2 + B2O3
(2) B2O3 + NaOH
(3) Na2B4O7.4H2O
(4) Na2B4O7

13) The correct order of boiling points of hydrides of group 16 elements is :

(1) H2S < H2Se < H2Te < H2O

(2) H2O < H2S < H2Se < H2Te
(3) H2S < H2Te < H2Se < H2O
(4) H2Se < H2S < H2Te < H2O

14) A salt gives violet vapours when treated with concentrated H2SO4, it contains

(1) Cl¯
(2) I¯
(3) Br¯
(4)

15) During the testing of basic radicals the group reagent for group II is:

(1) dil HCl

(2) NH4OH in presence of NH4Cl
(3) H2S in presence of HCl
(4) H2S in presence of NH4OH and NH4Cl

16)

IUPAC name of the following compound is:-

(1) 2-(1-carboxy ethyl)-4-methyl pentanoic acid

(2) 3, 5-Dicarboxy-2-methyl hexanoic acid
(3) 2, 4, 5-Hexane tri carboxylic acid
(4) 2, 3, 5-Hexane tri carboxylic acid

17) Identify incorrect statement :-

(1) Butane 2,3-diol shows optical isomerism

(2)
has Z configuration
 Ortho nitrophenol has more boiling point than para nitrophenol due to intermolecular H-
(3)
bonding
(4) Cis pent-2-ene has more dipole moment than trans pent-2-ene

18) Which of the following is the strongest base :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19)
Compare acidic strength

(1) a > c > d > b

(2) d > a > c > b
(3) d > c > a > b
(4) d > c > b > a

20) (A) and (B) are respectively

(1)
both

(2)
both
(3)
and

(4)
and

21) ;
Y is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) A and B are respectively :-

(1) CH3—CN, CH3—NC

(2) CH3—NC, CH3—CN
(3) CH3—CH2CN, CH3CH2NC
(4) CH3—CH2NC, CH3—CH2—CN

23) Correct order of leaving group in SN2 Reaction:-

(1) I– > Br– > Cl– > F–

(2) Br– > Cl– > F– > I–
(3) Cl– > Br– > F– > I–
(4) I– > Br– > F– > Cl–

24) In the free radical halogenation of alkanes chain propagating step is :

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

25)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) Phenol
The product is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27)
Final product B is :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

28) CH3–Br X Y
Major product Y is :-

(1) (CH3)3C–OH

(2)

(3) (CH3)3C–NH2

(4)

29) Which of the following is structure of β-D-Glucopyranose ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) In Dumas method for estimation of Nitrogen, 0.3 g of an organic compound gave 50 mℓ of N2
collected at 300 K temperature and 715 mm pressure. The % of nitrogen in the compound is
(aqueous tension at 300 K = 15 mm) :-

(1) 22.5%
(2) 24.3%
(3) 17.4%
(4) 14.7%

31) Which of the following set of quantum numbers does not exist ?

n 1 m s

(1) 3 0 0 +1/2

(2) 2 1 –1 –1/2

(3) 4 4 –2 +1/2

(4) 3 2 –2 –1/2
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

32) Charge required to reduce 2.7 g of aluminium ion from its molten solution is :

(1) 28950 C
(2) 14475 C
(3) 21712 C
(4) 9650 C

33) Given the standard electron potentials,

Al+3/Al = –1.66 V Cu+2/Cu = +0.34 V
K+/K = –2.93 V Zn+2/Zn = –0.76 V
Mg+2/Mg = –2.36 V
The correct order of these metals in their increasing order of reducing power is :

(1) Zn < Cu < Mg < K < Al

(2) K < Mg < Mg < Al < K
(3) Cu < Zn < Mg < Al < K
(4) Cu < Zn < Al < Mg < K

34) 5% (w/v) solution of urea is isotonic with 2% (w/v) solution of a non-electrolyte substance the
molar mass of the substance is :

(1) 180 g/mol

(2) 24 g/mol
(3) 120 g/mol
(4) 30 g/mol

35) The density of CO2 gas at 127°C and 2 atm pressure is :

(1) 1.98 gL–1
(2) 1.68 gL–1
(3) 3.62 gL–1
(4) 2.68 gL–1

36) For the given reaction

P4 + 3O2 → P4O6
If 62 g of P4 is reacted with excess of oxygen the percentage yield is 80%. Then the amount of
product formed is :

(1) 42.6 g
(2) 110 g
(3) 88 g
(4) 28.4 g

37) If equivalent weight of a metal oxide is 24 then, the equivalent weight of its chloride will be :

(1) 15.5
(2) 51.5
(3) 35.5
(4) 71

38) If the longest wavelength in Balmer series of He+ is 9X/5 cm. then the shortest wavelength of H-
atom in Lyman series is :

(1) X/4 cm
(2) X/2 cm
(3) 5X/3 cm
(4) X cm

39) Solubility of Al(OH)3 in decimolar KOH solution is (Ksp of Al(OH)3 = 1.90 × 10–33)

(1) 1.90 × 10–32 M

(2) 1.90 × 10–30 M
(3) 1.48 × 10–8 M
(4) 1.48 × 10–30 M

40) Ammonium carbonate decomposes as

NH2COONH4(s) ⇌ 2NH3(g) + CO2(g)
For this reaction, Kp = 108 × 10–6 atm3. If we start with 1 mole of the ammonium carbonate, then the
total pressure at equilibrium would be :

(1) 0.058 atm

(2) 0.048 atm
(3) 0.09 atm
(4) 0.03 atm
41) Which of the statements about solutions of electrolytes is not correct :

(1) Conductivity of solution depends on size of ions.

(2) Conductivity depends on viscosity of solution.
(3) Conductivity does not depend upon solvation of ions present in solution
(4) Conductivity of solution increases with temperature

42) Statement-I :- Acidic/basic nature of a solution of a salt of weak acid and weak base depends on
Ka & Kb value of the acid and base forming it.
Statement-II :- Degree of hydrolysis of weak acid and weak base type salts depends on the
concentration of salt.

(1) Both statement I and II are incorrect

(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(4) Both statement I and II are correct

43) A first order reaction is 90% complete in 40 min calculate the half life of the reaction :

(1) 13.03 min

(2) 12.03 min
(3) 11.03 min
(4) 10.03 min

44) Identify incorrect statement :

–Ea/RT
(1) Factor e corresponds to fraction of molecules having kinetic energy greater than Ea
Catalyst increases or decreases the rate of reaction without itself undergoing permanent
(2)
chemical change
(3) A catalyst does not alter Gibbs energy (ΔG) of a reaction
(4) Most of the chemical reactions are accelerated by increase in temperature

45) Assertion (A) :- Solubility of most salts in water increases with rise of temperature.
0
Reason (R) :- For most of the ionic compounds ΔsolH is positive and dissociation process is
endothermic.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
 ANSWER KEYS

BIOLOGY

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 2 3 2 2 2 4 4 3 2 4 4 3 1 1 3 1 2 3 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 3 2 1 3 3 1 3 1 3 1 4 2 2 2 2 3 1 3 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A. 4 4 4 2 4 3 4 2 2 4 2 1 4 4 1 2 3 3 1 3
Q. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
A. 3 1 3 1 2 2 4 3 1 1 3 1 4 2 1 4 2 4 2 1
Q. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 4 2 2 3 3 3 4 3 4

PHYSICS

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 1 3 3 2 2 2 4 3 3 2 2 4 2 1 3 3 4 4 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 2 1 3 2 1 2 2 2 3 1 2 2 1 1 4 4 3 3 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135
A. 1 4 3 3 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155
A. 2 1 3 4 3 2 1 2 3 2 1 1 1 2 3 4 3 1 3 3
Q. 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175
A. 3 4 1 3 4 3 2 2 2 3 3 1 4 2 4 3 2 4 2 3
Q. 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 2 2 2 4
 SOLUTIONS

BIOLOGY

1)

NCERT XII, Page No. 8

2) NCERT XII Pg. # 14

3) NCERT Page No. # 74, 75

4) NCERT, Pg. # 69

5) XII NCERT Page No. # 80, 81

6) NCERT-XII, Page No. # 104

7) NCERT, Pg. # 107

8) Module No. 9 Page. No.110

9) NCERT Pg. # 113

10) NCERT Pg. # 99

11) NCERT, Pg. # 64

12) NCERT Page. No. 201

13) NCERT Pg. # 230

14) NCERT Page No. 243

15) NCERT Pg. # 242

16) NCERT Pg. # 212, 214

17) NCERT Pg. # 207, 227, 228

18) NCERT, Pg. # 215, 216, 217

19) NCERT Pg. # 72

20) NCERT, Pg. # 81

21) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 4

22) NCERT Page No. 4,5

23) NCERT Page No. 8 (Table 1.1)

24) NCERT-XI Pg. # 14, 15

25)

NCERT-XI Pg. 15

26) NCERT-XI, Pg. 27

27)

NCERT XI - Pg. # 33

28) NCERT Pg # 33

29) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 143, 144, 146

30) NCERT XI Pg. # 140, 146, 149

31)

NCERT-XI Pg. # 146

32) NCERT Pg. # 140

33)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 157

34) NCERT-XI Pg. # 160

35) NCERT Pg. # 176

36) NCERT Pg. # 177

37) NCERT Pg. # 174,176,177,178

38) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 66

39) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 63

40) NCERT Pg. # 69(E), 68(H)

41) NCERT, Pg. # 64

42) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 74

43)

NCERT, Pg. # 72

44) NCERT, Pg. # 75

45) NCERT, Pg. # 76

48) NCERT, Pg. # 44, 4.2.7

51) NEW NCERT XI Page no. 81 Para 7.2.2

52) NCERT XI Pg.# 283-284

53) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 280

54)

NCERT Page No. # 188

61) NCERT, Pg # 224

 63) NCERT XII Pg # 28,30,31

67) NCERT Page No. # 151

68) NCERT Pg # 121 [E]

71)

NCERT Pg. # 96

73) NCERT Pg # 153

74) NCERT, Pg # 165,173,182,183(E), 181,190,196,197(H)

77) NCERT-XI, Pg # 123

78)

NCERT XI, Page # 134

79)

NCERT Pg # 155

83) NCERT Page No. # 50,51,52,54

84) NCERT Page No. # 284(18.3.1)

PHYSICS

91)

∴
92) System is in rotational equilibrium
∴
∴ F1r1 – F2r2 = 0
∴ F1r1 = F2r2

93) If net force on a system is zero, then calculation of torque is independent upon the choice
of point about which it is to be calculated.

94)

Hence Eeq may be equal to greater or less than E1 or E2 depending as above on r1 and r2.

And

95)

96) Using KVL,

VA – 5(1) + 3 – 8 – 5(2) + 10 = VB
VA – 10 = VB
VA – VB = 10V .

97) R3 = 8r3
R = 2r = 2 × 10–3 m
V=
= 3.6 × 104 V

98) The total electric charge of a system is the algebraic sum of all the individual charges in
the system, also known as law of superposition of electric charge.

99) ⇒ ⇒

∴ Δϕ =
Δϕ = 2π/3

0 0
IR = I cos2 = I cos2(π/3)

∴ IR =

100) ω1 = 2ω2

....(ω α a) (Given)

=
=1:9

101)

102)
VB = 8V

103) Energy stored by a capacitor U =

U1 = , U2 =

given
On solving q = 20 C

104) Workdone = Area under (Fx curve)

= 10 × 1 + 20 × 1 – 20 × 1 + 10 × 1
= 20 erg

105) left side

106) In metals and semimetals the fermi level lies inside at least one band i.e., inside
conduction band. So (S)-4.

107) Case–I :
VA < VB [∵ (–10V) < (–5V)]
D1 & D3 are RB and D2 is FB

∴ R1 =
Case–II :
VA > VB
⇒ D1 & D2 are FB and D3 is RB

∴ R2 =
Case–III :
VA > VB
⇒ same as case–II

R3 =

108) Impulse

⇒
∵ ΔtA < ΔtB
∴ FA > FB
109) As
also T = same ⇒ (uy)A = (uy)B
UA cos 45° = UB cos 60°

110) For first interval : acceleration is +ve and constant

For second interval : acceleration is –ve and constant.

111)

Venturiflow meter is used to measure flow rate.

112)

∴ (it becomes halved)

113)

114)

volt

115)
Bnet = B1 – B2

0
B1 = ⇒ 5μ

B2 = =

Bnet
116) Baxis =

117) Meissner effect

118) WABCA = (Area of ΔABC)

= × (500 – 100) × (200 – 100) × 103 × 10–6

= – 20 J

119) FLOT
Q = ΔU + W
ΔU = Q – W
= 20 × 4.2 kJ – 4 kJ
= 84 –4
= 80 kJ

120) P ∝ T4
PT–4 = cont.
For adiabatic process
= const.

By compering
⇒ ∴ γ = 4/3

121)

0°C to 4°C density of water increases and maximum at 4°C then decreases due to anomalus
behaviour of water.

122) Newton's law of cooling

.....(i)

......(ii)
on solving (i) & (ii) T = 43°C

123) n = Asin(ωt) = Asin(θ1)

v = ωAcos(ωt) = ωa sin = Asin(θ2)

2 2
a = – ω A sin (ωt) = ω A sin (ωt + π) = Asin(θ3)
Thus θ3 > θ2 > θ1
and θ3 – θ2 = +π/2
θ2 – θ1 = + π/2

124) λ = 2 (λ2 – λ1)

λ = 2 (58 – 18) cm
λ = 80 cm
ν = λf

= = 400 m/s

126)
f∝λ

127) P = P1 + P2
= 2 – 1 = +1D

∴ f=

128) F = [MLT–2]
a = 1, b = 1, c = – 2
E = [ML2T–2]
x = 1, y = 2, z = – 2
ax + by + cz = 1 + 2 + 4 = 7

129) The least count of given Vernier Calipers is

LC = MSD – VSD = 1 - (9/10) = 0.1 mm
Zero Error = CVSD × LC
= 3 × 0.1 = 0.3 mm

130)

R = 75 × 102 ± 5% of 7500
R = (7500 ± 375)Ω

131) In metre bridge length of wire should be constant

So, low temperature coefficient is required.

Also,
∴R∝ρ
For Higher value of resistance, for a small displacement along wire, we are getting more
deflection.
∴ For high resistivity, our device is much more sensible.

132)

Value of reaction
 12 × 7.68 – 13 × 7.48 = 92.16 – 97.24 = –5.08
∴ Required energy = 5 MeV

133) de-Broglie wavelength of gas molecules

λ =

0
134) 90X200 → 80Y168 + a × 2α4 + b × 1β

135) τ = PEsinθ

τ = 4 × 10–9 × 5 × 104 ×
= 10–4 N.m

CHEMISTRY

142)

as per EN
HF > H2O > NH3
(H Bond strength)

153)

Duo to localized lone pair is the strongest base

157)

160)

164)
Fact

165) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 357 (Pb. No. 12.21)

166)

n must be greater than ℓ

167)

EAl = 9, 2.7 =

168)

Arrange in decreasing order of SRP

169)

Isotonic means same osmotic pressure

∴ same concentration

{M Murea = 60}

170)

171)

P4 + 3O2 P4O6

↓ = 0.4
Mass of P4O6 = 0.4 × 220
= 88 g

172)

Eq. wt of metal = EM, Eq. wt. of metal oxide

= EM + 8 = 24
EM = 16
Eq. wt of chloride = EM + ECl = 16 + 35.5 = 51.5

173)
Longest λ of balmer in He+ Shorterst λ of lyman in H
n2 = 3 z=2 z=1 n2 = ∞
↓ ↓
n1 = 2 n1 = 1

174)

Al(OH)3 ⇌ Al+3 + 3OH–

S' 3S' + 0.1
Ksp = (Al+3) (OH–)3
1.9 × 10–33 = (s') (3s' + 0.1)3

1.9 × 10–33 = S' × 10–3

S' = 1.9 × 10–30

175)

NH4COONH4(s) ⇌ 2NH3(g) + CO2(g)

2P P

108 × 10–6 = (2P)2 (P)

108 × 10–6 = 4P3
P = 3 × 10–2
Total pressure = 3P = 9 × 10–2

176)

Refer NCERT exampler class 12 chapter 3

177) S-I
pH of solution of salt of WA & WB is given as

pH = 7 + [pKa – pKb]
S-II

∴ degree of hydrolysis is independent of conc.

178)
 A→B ...(1)
t = 0 100 t90% = 40

t90% 10 40 = ....(2)
divide (1) & (2)

179)

Catalyst only increases rate of reaction

180)

Ref. heat of solution from NCERT class 11 thermodynamics