11-04-2025

1016CMD303031240061 MD

BIOLOGY

1) Radial vascular bundle is found in-

(1) Leaf
(2) Stem
(3) Flower
(4) Root

2) Which of the following forms hypodermis of monocot stem ?

(1) Chlorenchyma
(2) Collenchyma
(3) Sclerenchyma
(4) Parenchyma

3) Cuticle is usually absent in -

(1) Leaves
(2) Stems
(3) Roots
(4) All of these

4) Assertion :- All tissue except epidermis and vascular bundles constitute the ground tissue.
Reason :- Ground tissue system is largest tissue system.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

5) The _______ is a scar on the seed coat through which the developing seeds were attached to the
fruit

(1) Micropyle
(2) Hilum
(3) Testa
(4) Tegmen

6) If gynoecium is situated in the centre and other parts of the flower are located on the rim of the
thalamus almost at the same level, it is called :
(1) Epigynous flower
(2) Perigynous flower
(3) 1 and 2 both
(4) Hypogynous

7) Select the correct statements:

(a) The roots arise from parts of the plant other than the radicle are called adventitious roots.
(b) In some leguminous plants the leaf base may become swollen, which is called pulvinus.
(c) When a flower can be divided into two equal radial halves in any radial plane passing through the
centre, it is said to be actinomorphic.
(d) In a floral formula symbol 'K' stands for corolla and symbol 'C' for Calyx.

(1) a, b and c
(2) a, c and d
(3) b, c and d
(4) b and d

8) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I : When pericarp is thin and fleshy, it is differentiated into the inner epicarp, the middle
mesocarp and the outer endocarp.
Statement-II : In mango the pericarp is well differentiated into an outer thick epicarp, a middle
fleshy edible mesocarp and an inner stony hard endocarp.

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II are correct.
(4) Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

9) Read column-I and II and identify their correct match-

Column-I Column-II

Landing platform
A. Stigma (i)
for pollen grains

B. Ovary (ii) Megasporangium

C. Hilum (iii) Microsporangium

Basal bulged part

D. Ovule (iv)
of the pistil

Part of the ovary

(v)
where funiculum attach

Middle bulged part

(vi)
of the pistil

Elongated slender
(vii)
part beneath the stigma.
(1) A–i, B–iv, C–v, D–ii
(2) A–i, B–iv, C–v, D–iii
(3) A–i, B–vi, C–v, D–ii
(4) A–i, B–vii, C–v, D–ii

10) Fill in the blank in given statement.

One of the male gamete moves towards egg cell and fused to form zygote and the other male gamete
moves towards the polar nuclei located in the................. and fuses to produces primary endosperm
nucleus.
Choose the correct answer from option given below:

(1) Central cell

(2) Antipodal cell
(3) Egg cell
(4) Synergid cell

11) Male reproductive whorl is :-

(1) Microspore
(2) Gynoecium
(3) Androecium
(4) Carpel

12) In which of the following plants floral reward is providing safe places to lay eggs?

(1) Amorphophallus
(2) Yucca
(3) Grasses
(4) Both 1 & 2

13) A dihybrid plant with genotype RrYy produces how many types of gametes and in what ratio :-

(1) 4 types and 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 ratio

(2) 4 types and 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 ratio
(3) 4 types and 9 : 7 ratio
(4) 4 types and 12 : 3 : 1 ratio

14) Normal human female unfertilised eggs have :-

(1) 22 autosomes and one x-chromosome

(2) 22 autosomes and one y-chromosomes
(3) 23 autosomes
(4) 46 chromosomes

15) Which statement is true about Haemophilia ?

(1) In a population, chances of male getting affected are always equals to female.
(2) A carrier male carries the allele but does not show disease symptoms.
(3) This is a X-linked recessive disease.
(4) Only one allele is sufficient to cause disease in females.

16) A test cross is performed-

(1) By selfing of F2 - generation plants.

(2) By selfing of F1 - generation plants.
(3) To determine whether F1 plant is Homozygous or Heterozygous.
(4) Between a Homozygous dominant and Homozygous recessive plant.

17) If starch grain size is considered as the phenotype, this is an example of

(1) Co-dominance
(2) Incomplete dominance
(3) Complete dominance
(4) Pleiotropy

18) Match the List-I with List-II

List-I List-II

(A) Genotype - IAIA (i) Homozygous genotype BB

(B) Genotype - IAIB (ii) A Blood group

(C) ABO Blood group (iii) Co-dominance

(D) Large starch grain size (iv) Multiple Allele

Choose correct answer

(1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(3) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

19) Statement-I : If the modified allele could be responsible for production of the normal enzyme
then the modified allele is equivalent to the unmodified allele.
Statement-II : The unmodified allele, which represent the original phenotype is the dominant allele
and the modified allele is generally the recessive allele.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

20) There is now enough evidence to suggest that essential life processes (such as metabolism,
translation, splicing etc.) are evolved from ____.
(1) DNA
(2) RNA
(3) Carbohydrate
(4) Lipid

21) Assertion (A) : Approximately uniform distance occur between the two strands of the DNA
helix.
Reason (R) : Always a purine comes opposite to a pyrimidine.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(3) (A) is false but R is true.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).

22) Single strand DNA tag with radioisotope is called

(1) DNA primer

(2) Double stranded RNA
(3) Elution
(4) DNA probe

23) In lac operon gene i is responsible for formation of ?

(1) Repressor
(2) Inducer
(3) Apo repressor
(4) β galactosidase

24) Which enzyme catalyses transcription of all type of RNA in bacteria :

(1) DNA dependent RNA polymerase II

(2) RNA dependent RNA polymerase II
(3) DNA dependent RNA polymerase
(4) RNA dependent DNA polymerase

25) Select the incorrect statement :

DNA as an acidic substance present in nucleus was first identified by Fredrich Meischer in
(1)
1869.
(2) The two chains of DNA have anti-parallel polarity
(3) Guanine is bonded with cytosine with two H-bonds
(4) The two chains of DNA are coiled in a right handed fashion.

26) In Griffith experiments which property of DNA/genetic material was evident :

(1) Semi-conservative
(2) Slow mutation rate
(3) Stability
(4) Semi-discontinuous

27) In the given diagram below identify X and Y :-

(1) Y - Helicase, X - Okazaki fragments

(2) Y - Ribozyme, X - Okazaki fragments
(3) Y - Reverse Transcriptase, X - Okazaki fragments
(4) Y - Helicase, X - Leading strand

28) Which of the following is true for Mycorrhiza :-

(1) Symbiotic association between fungi and lichen

(2) Fungal symbiont in these association absorbs phosphorus from soil and passes it to the plant
(3) Fungal symbiont in these association provide resistance to insect pathogen
(4) It is an example of parasitism

29) Which of the following are excellent candidates for species-specific, narrow spectrum
insecticidal applications ?

(1) Bacteria
(2) Baculoviruses
(3) Fungus
(4) None of these

30) Select the incorrect statement-

(1) Lactic acid bacteria grow in milk and convert it to curd

(2) Wine and beer are produced without distillation
(3) Cyclosporin A, is used as blood cholesterol lowering agent
(4) The bio gas plant consist of concrete tank (10-15) feet deep in which bio waste are collected

31) In the given pyramid of number of grassland ecosystem -

What can be number of (A) ?

(1) 1000
(2) 4250
(3) 10521
(4) 3

32) The humus is further degraded by some microbes and release of inorganic nutrients occur by the
process known as.

(1) fragmentation
(2) Mineralisation
(3) leaching
(4) catabolism

33) Pyramid of biomass of lake ecosystem is :-

(1) Upright
(2) Inverted
(3) Elliptical shape
(4) Bell-shape

34) Which one of the following are incorrect statement about productivity :

A constant input of solar energy is the basic requirement for any ecosystem to function and
(1)
sustain.
(2) The annual NPP of the whole biosphere is approximately 170 million tons of organic matter.
(3) Primary productivity depend on plant species inhabiting a particular area.
Primary production is defined as the amount of organic matter produce per unit area over a
(4)
time period by plants during photosynthesis.

35) Which one is not the part of ex-situ conservation?

(1) Zoological park & Botanical gardens

(2) Botanical gardens & Wildlife safari parks
(3) Wildlife safari parks & Seed banks
(4) Hot spots & Sacred Groves

36) Which of the following is narrowly utilitarian role of ecosystem ?

(1) Medicines
(2) Oxygen
(3) Pollination
(4) Indirect aesthetic pleasure from nature

37) The number of _______ species in the world is more than the combined total of the species of
fishes, amphibians, reptiles and mammals.

(1) Algae
(2) Lichens
(3) Fungi
(4) Ferns

38) Steller sea cow and passenger pigeon got extincted due to

(1) Habitat loss & fragmentation

(2) Over-exploitation
(3) Alien species invasion's
(4) Co-extinctions.

39) Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(1) The diversity of plants and animals is not uniform throughout world.
(2) In general species diversity increases as we move away from equator towards poles.
(3) Tropics harbor more species than temperate or polar areas generally.
(4) India, with much of its land area in the tropical latitudes, has more than 1200 species of birds.

40) In shallow South American lakes visiting flamingoes and resident fishes compete for-

(1) Space
(2) Zooplankton
(3) Phytoplankton
(4) Space and phytoplankton

41) What percentage of insect are known to be phytophagous ?

(1) 45%
(2) 35%
(3) 25%
(4) 10%

42) Select the incorrect match from the options given below

(1) Pseudocopulation – Ophrys

(2) Mutualism – lichens
(3) Commensalism – mycorrhizae
(4) Hermit crab & sea anemone – commensalism

43) Nt = N0ert this equation is a integral form of the exponential growth in this equation what is "r"?

(1) Population density after time t

(2) Population density at time zero
(3) Reproduction period
(4) Intrinsic rate of natural increase

44) If a new habitat is just being colonised, factor may contribute more significantly to population
growth is
(1) Birth
(2) Emigration
(3) Immigration
(4) Birth rate

45) If in a pond there are 40 lotus plants last year and through reproduction 4 new plants were
added, then the birth rate during the year is calculated as :-

(1) 0.4
(2) 0.2
(3) 0.1
(4) 0.8

46) Select out incorrect statements regarding the given figure :-

(i) Lane-1 represents that no restriction site are present for

treated restriction endonuclease enzyme.
(ii) DNA in lane-1 has only one restriction site for treated restriction endonuclease enzyme.
(iii) Lane-4 DNA has maximum restriction sites for treated restriction endonuclease enzyme.
(iv) Lane-3 DNA has maximum restriction sites for treated restriction endonuclease enzyme.

(1) i & iv
(2) i, ii & iv
(3) ii & iv
(4) iii & iv

47) Competent host cell is required for transformation with rDNA. Following processes are used to
make the host cell competent except :-

(1) Treating them with specific concentration of divalent ion like Ca++
By incubating the cells with rDNA on ice, followed by placing them briefly at 42ºC & then
(2)
putting back on ice
(3) Agarose gel electrophoresis
(4) Both (1) & (2)

48) pBR322 has two antibiotic resistance genes. They are :-

(1) Streptomycin & Ampicillin resistant genes

(2) Chloromycetin & Tetracycline resistant genes
(3) Tetracycline & Tetracycline resistant genes
(4) Ampicillin & Tetracycline resistant genes
49) Transformation is a procedure through which –

(1) A piece of DNA is introduced in a host bacterium

(2) A piece of DNA is introduced in a vector
(3) A piece of DNA is removed from host bacterium
(4) All

50) BamH I site is present at :-

(1) ampR gene

(2) tetR gene
(3) Ori
(4) rop

51) Polymerase chain reaction employs ?

(1) RNA Primers and DNA ligase

(2) DNA ligase only
(3) DNA polymerase only
(4) DNA primers and DNA polymerase

52) Bioreactors are useful in :-

(1) Separation and purification of a product

(2) Microinjection
(3) Processing of large volume of culture
(4) Isolation of genetic material

53) Match the Columns A with B :-

Column A Column B

i Rosie cow a Polio vaccine

ii α-1-antitrypsin b Indian patent bill

iii Transgenic mice c Human alpha-lactalbumin

iv Biopiracy d Emphysema
(1) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b
(2) i-d, ii-a, iii-c, iv-b
(3) i-a, ii-c, iii-d, iv-b
(4) i-b, ii-c, iii-a, iv-d

54) Humulin refers to

(1) Insulin form by r-DNA Technique.

(2) Humulin contain C-peptide.
(3) Insulin from an animal source develop allergy.
(4) It is a lipid containing hormone.

55) In India _________ recombinant therapeutics are presently being marketed.

Fill in the blank.

(1) 11
(2) 13
(3) 12
(4) 30

56) Which body of the Government of India will make decisions regarding the validity of GM
research and the safety of introducing GM-organisms for public services?

(1) Genetic engineering approval committee

(2) Ethical committee
(3) Bio-safety committee
(4) European federation of biotechnology

57) In RNAi, genes are silenced using :-

(1) ssDNA
(2) dsDNA
(3) dsRNA
(4) ssRNA

58) The specific palindromic sequence which is recognized by EcoRI is :

5' - GGATCC - 3'

(1)
3' - CCTAGG - 5'
5' - GAATTC - 3'
(2)
3' - CTTAAG - 5'
5' - GGAACC - 3
(3)
3' - CCTTGG - 5'
5' - CTTAAG - 3'
(4)
3' - GAATTC - 5'
59) The following figure shows the representation of :

(1) Taq polymerase

(2) Ti plasmid
(3) Transformation
(4) Vector

60) A selectable marker is used to:

(1) Help in eliminating the non-transformants, so that the transformants can be regenerated
(2) Identify the gene for a desired trait in an alien organism
(3) Select a suitable vector for transformation in a specific crop
(4) Mark a gene on a chromosome for isolation using restriction enzyme

61) Each fallopian tube is about ______ cm long ?

(1) 2 to 4
(2) 5 to 8
(3) 10 to 12
(4) 25 cm

62) A tiny finger like structure which lies at the upper Junction of the two ____ is called Clitoris.

(1) Labia majora

(2) Labia minora
(3) Vaginal Orifice
(4) Urethra

63) Which of the following is not a secondary sex organ ?

(1) Fallopian tube

(2) Mammary gland
(3) Epididymis
(4) Uterus
64) Which of the following cell undergo second meiotic division -

(1) Primary spermatocyte

(2) Primary oocyte
(3) Secondary spermatocyte
(4) Zygote

65) Which of the following which help in process of spermiogensis ?

(1) Leydig cells

(2) Sertoli cells
(3) Bone cells
(4) Testis & ovary

66) Find out which of the following statements are true (T) and False(F) and choose the correct
option :
I. Human male ejaculates about 200 to 300 million sperms during a coitus.
II. For normal fertility, atleast 60% sperms must have normal shape and size and atleast 40% of
them must show vigorous motility.
III. Sperms released from the seminiferous tubules, are transported by the accessory ducts.
IV. The seminal plasma along with the sperms constitute the semen.

I II III IV

1 T T T F

2 T T T T

3 F F T T

4 T F T F
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

67) Select the incorrect statement :-

(1) Ovum is haploid

(2) Oogenesis is initiated during embryonic stage
(3) Spermatogenesis is markedly different from Oogenesis
(4) During ovulation graaficin follicle release from ovary.

68) Reproductive cycle in the female monkeys is called as :-

(1) Oestrous cycle

(2) Menstrual Cycle
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Ornithine cycle

69) How many Y-chromosomes are present in 2nd polar body in human beings ?

(1) 00
(2) 23
(3) 02
(4) 01

70) Match list-I with list-II and choose the correct answer from the option given below :-

List-I List-II

Menstrual cycles ceases around 50 years of

(A) Menarche I.
age in females.

(B) Menopause II. The first menstruation begins at puberty

The endometrium of uterus regenerates

(C) Follicular phase III.
through proliferation.

The remaining parts of graafian follicle

(D) Secretory phase IV.
transform as the corpus luteum
(1) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(2) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(3) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

71) Read the following terminology of column I and II and identify their correct match :

Column I Column II

(A) Intra uterine devices (i) Barrier method

(B) Oral contraceptive (ii) Coitus interruptus

(C) Cervical caps (iii) Lactational amenorrhea

(D) Sexual transmitted diseases (iv) CuT, Cu7

(v) Saheli

(vi) Chlamydiasis
(1) A-iv, B-v, C-i, D-vi
(2) A-v, B-iv, C-i, D-vi
(3) A-i, B-v, C-vi, D-iv
(4) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i

72) Assertion :- The male accessary glands include paired seminal vesicles, a prostate and paired
bulbourethral glands.
Reason :- Secretions of these glands constitute the seminal plasma which is rich in fructose,
calcium and certain enzymes.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

73) In the given reasons, how many are associated with infertility ?
(a) Physical (b) Congenital
(c) Diseases (d) Drugs
(e) Immunological (f) Psychological

(1) 6
(2) 5
(3) 4
(4) 1

74) A contraceptive pill contains :-

(1) Progesterone and estrogen

(2) Spermicidal agents
(3) Chemicals that cause abortion
(4) Chemical that prevent fertilization of ovum

75) The risks associated with Tobacco addiction are :-

(1) Oral cancer

(2) Lung cancer
(3) Bone cancer
(4) Both (1) and (2)

76) Hashish and heroin are extracted from ?

(1) Papaver somniferum and Cannabis sativa respectively

(2) Cannabis sativa and Papaver somniferum respectively
(3) Erythroxylum coca and Atropa belladonna respectively
(4) Cannabis and Datura respectively

77) Which of the following diseases affect the upper respiratory tract and nose but not the lungs?

(1) Ascariasis
(2) Common cold
(3) Tuberculosis
(4) Pneumonia

78) A piece of suspected tissue is cut into thin sections, is stained and examined under microscope
by a pathologist. This technique is known as :-
(1) Biopsy
(2) Computed tomography
(3) Magnetic resonance imaging
(4) Radiography

79) Identify the following A, B, C, D and select the right option : -

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Drug Source Effect

Papaver
(1) (A) Cocaine Stimulant
somniferum
Atropa Producing a sense of
(2) (B) Cannabinoids
belladona Euphoria
Cannabis Accelerates the
(3) (C) Marijuana
sativa transport of dopamine
Papaver
(4) (D) Morphine Painkiller
somniferum
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
80)

Which of the following statement is not correct regarding Malarial infection ?

(1) Infective stage for man is sporozoite.

(2) It multiplies asexually in hepatic cells and ruptures it
(3) Sexual stages (gametocytes) form in stomach of mosquito.
(4) Haemozoin causes recurrent high fever.

81) Read the following statements carefully :

(i) Vaccine is suspension of weak/killer pathogen.
(ii) Vaccination provide artificial passive immunity
(iii) Memory based acquired immunity are also present in non-chordates.
(iv) Modern day life style has result in lowering of immunity.
How many statements are correct.

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Four
(4) Three

82) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Innate immunity is a specific type of defense, that is present at the time of birth.
Statement II: Innate immunity consists of four types of barriers: Physical barriers, Physiological
barriers, Cellular barriers, and Cytokine barriers.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below.

(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

83) Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(1) Cocaine is native to South America.

(2) Coke is usually snorted
(3) Excessive dosage of cocaine causes depression.
(4) Datura causes hallucinations.

84) Which of the following drugs which are normally used as medicines to help patients cope with
mental illness like depression and insomnia are often abused ?

(1) Barbiturates
(2) Amphetamines
(3) Benzodiazepines
(4) All of the above
85) Except _____, other sexually transmitted Infections are completely curable If detected early and
treated properly.

(1) Gonorrhoea
(2) Syphilis
(3) Hepatitis-B
(4) Genital warts

86) According to Hugo de Vries the variations which cause evolution are :

(1) Small and directionless

(2) Large and directionless
(3) Large and directional
(4) Small and directional

87) Assertion : Mutation can affect Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.

Reason : Variations due to mutation results in changed frequency of genes in future generations.

(1) Both assertion & reason are true & the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion & reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both assertion & reason are false.

88) Mammal like early reptiles which gave rise to mammals were :-

(1) Coelacanth
(2) Synapsids
(3) Sauropsids
(4) Lobefin

89) The organisms which evolved into first amphibians were:

(1) Sauropsids
(2) Coelacanth
(3) Ichthyosaurs
(4) Synapsids

90) Choose the correct option :-

Column-I Column-II

(1) Sea weeds 3000 MYA

(2) Formation of invertebrates 250 MYA

(3) Ist Cellular form of life 2000 MYA

(4) Formation of Jawless fishes 500 MYA

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

PHYSICS

1) A potential difference V is applied to a copper wire of length ℓ and radius r. If length is doubled,
the drift velocity :

(1) is doubled
(2) is halved
(3) remains same
(4) becomes zero

2) In the circuit shown here, the voltmeter reads 30V. What is the resistance of the voltmeter ?

(1) 1200 Ω
(2) 700 Ω
(3) 400 Ω
(4) 300 Ω

3) A conductor of area of cross-section A having charge carriers, each having a charge q, is

subjected to a potential V across its ends. The number density of charge carriers in the conductor is
n and the charge carriers are moving with average velocity Vd. A current I flows in the conductor. If
is the current density, then :

(1)
, in the direction of current flow

(2)
, in the direction opposite to current flow

(3)
, in the direction perpendicular to current flow

(4)
, in the direction of current flow
4) Find out magnitude and direction of current in wire AB :-

(1) 2A, A to B
(2) 2A, B to A
(3) Zero
(4) None of these

5) Three resistance P, Q and R of 2Ω, 3Ω and 8Ω respectively and an unknown resistance S form the
four arms of a Wheat stone bridge circuit. When a resistance of 7Ω is connected in series with S then
the bridge gets balanced. The value of S is :

(1) 2Ω
(2) 3Ω
(3) 4Ω
(4) 5Ω

6) In the given figures, find the value of R respectively, for which power in circuit is maximum :

(1) 2Ω, 4Ω, 6Ω

(2) 6Ω, 4Ω, 2Ω
(3) 4Ω, 6Ω, 2Ω
(4) 2Ω, 2Ω, 2Ω

7) What happens when a positively charged object is brought near a neutral conducting object ?

(1) Repulsion
(2) Attraction
(3) No effect
(4) Object gains +ve charge

8) A 10 gram block with a charge 8 × 10–5 C is placed in an electric field .

If block is released from rest at the origin at t = 0, then its x-coordinates at t = 3 second is :

(1) 100 m
(2) 102 m
(3) 107 m
(4) 108 m

9) For a single point charge of 4 × 10–9C, radius of equipotential surface drawn at 30V is :

(1) 3.6 m
(2) 1.8 m
(3) 1.2 m
(4) 0.6 m

10) Find total energy stored in the system :

(1) 2μJ
(2) 4μJ
(3) 8μJ
(4) 16μJ

11) Dielectrics are :

(1) Metal
(2) Super conductor
(3) Insulator which can be polarised
(4) Semiconductor

12) The capacitance of parallel plate capacitor is 5μF, when it contains 5μC charge. When it is
completely discharged, its capacity is:

(1) Zero
(2) 2.5 μF
(3) 5μF
(4) 10μF

13) In the circuit shown in figure C1 = C, C2 = 2C, C3 = 3C, C4 = 4C

 Column-I Column-II

Maximum
A. P. Across C1
potential difference

Minimum
B. Q. Across C2
potential difference

Maximum
C. R. Across C3
potential energy

Minimum
D. S. Across C4
potential energy
(1) (A)→P, (B)→R, (C)→P, (D)→S
(2) (A)→P, (B)→R,S, (C)→P, (D)→R
(3) (A)→R, (B)→R,S, (C)→S, (D)→P
(4) (A)→R,S, (B)→S, (C)→P, (D)→R

14)
If separation between plates is increased with battery connected, then
(i) Charge on capacitor decreases
(ii) Work done by battery is negative
(iii) Stored energy increases
(iv) Work done by battery is zero

(1) i & ii
(2) i, iii & ii
(3) i & iii
(4) i & iv

15) Statement-I :- Increasing the charge on the plates of a capacitor means increasing the
capacitance.
Statement-II :- Because Q = CV ⇒ Q ∝ C.

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

16) Statement-A :- When a charged particle of charge 'q' moves with a velocity V in the magnetic
field of induction B, then the force acting on it is .
Statement-B :- An electron is projected in a magnetic field along the magnetic field lines then there
will be no effect on the motion of the electron.
(1) A is true & B is false.
(2) A is false & B is true.
(3) A and B both are true.
(4) A and B both are false

17) Statement-I :- Lines of magnetic field around a current carrying wire are elliptical.
Statement-II :- Path of moving charge particle in magnetic field can be circular, straight line or
helical.

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

18) Assertion (A) :- Two charge particles moving with same velocity attract each other.
Reason (R) :- Moving charge particle produces magnetic field.

(1) A & R both are correct, R is correct explanation of A.

(2) A & R booth are correct but R is not correct explanation of A.
(3) A is correct, R is wrong.
(4) A is wrong, R is correct.

19) The dipole moment of a current loop is independent of :-

(1) Current in the loop

(2) Number of turns
(3) Area of the loop
(4) Magnetic field in which it is situated

20) If a substance is kept in a magnetic field, then which of the following is thrown out ?

(1) Paramagnetic
(2) Ferromagnetic
(3) Diamagnetic
(4) Anti-ferromagnetic

21)

Match the following :

List-I List-II

a. Magnetic moment e. H/m

b. Magnetic induction f. A/m

c. Permeability g. N-m3/Wb
 Intensity of
d. h. N/(A-m)
magnetization

(H - Hennery ; A - Ampere ; N - Newton ; m - Meter, Wb - Weber)

(1) a-f, b-h, c-g, d-e
(2) a-f, b-h, c-e, d-g
(3) a-g, b-h, c-e, d-f
(4) a-h, b-f, c-e, d-g

22) An equilateral triangle is made by uniform wires AB, BC, CA. A current I enters at A and leave
from mid point of BC. If the lengths of each side of the triangle is L, the magnetic field at the

centroid 'O' of the triangle is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Zero

23) In the circuit shown in figure, the reading of the AC ammeter will be :-

(1) 1 A
(2)
(3) 2 A
(4)

24) A 10Ω resistor and 20 mH inductor are connected in series to a 100V, 50Hz AC source. What is
the impedance of circuit ?

(1) 1 Ω
(2) 11.8 Ω
(3) 140 Ω
(4) Zero

25) An ideal chock coil and a bulb are connected in series with an AC source, then bulb glow with its
full intensity. Now another identical choke coil is connected in parallel with the choke coil, then
glowness of bulb will :

(1) Increase
(2) Remain same
(3) Decrease
(4) None of the above

26) Induced emf in a closed coil is represented as, e = (2t – 3) volts; then find the total charge
flowed through coil from t = 0 second to t = 2 seconds, if the resistance of coil is 2Ω.

(1) Zero

(2)
C
(3) 1 C
(4) 2 C

27) Energy density inside inductor is :- (L → Self inductance, B → Magnetic field in side inductor)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) Two coils having self Inductance of 10 H and 15 H are connected in series aiding connection.
Find total inductance of the series connection, if the mutual inductance between the coils is 2.5 H.

(1) 25 H
(2) 27.5 H
(3) 30 H
(4) 22.5 H

29) The oscillating magnetic field in a plane electromagnetic wave is given as :

By = 8 × 10–6 sin (5000 πx – 3 × 1011 πt) T,
where x is in metre and t in second. Calculate wave length of wave.

(1) 0.4 μm
(2) 0.4 cm
(3) 0.4 mm
(4) 0.4 m

30) Maxwell's famous equation of electromagnetism has introduced the concept of :-

(1) A.C. Current

(2) D.C. Current
(3) Displacement current
(4) Reactance

31) By using boolean algebra, the expression is equal to :

(1) A ⋅ B
(2) A + B
(3)
(4)

32) Find current passing through Zener diode.

(1) 5 mA
(2) 10 mA
(3) 27 mA
(4) 32 mA

33) Statement I : N-type semiconductor is negatively charged.

Statement II : The majority charge carriers in N-type semiconductor are electrons.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

34) In the given circuit A, B and C are inputs and Y is the output. The output of Y is :

(1) High for all high inputs

(2) High for all low inputs
(3) High, when A = 0, B = 0, C = 1
(4) Low, when A = 0, B = 0, C = 1

35) An inverted image of a real object can be seen in a convex mirror :-

(1) Under no circumstances
(2) When object is very far from the mirror.
(3) When the object is at a distance equal to the radius of curvature of the mirror.
(4) When the object is at a distance equal to the focal length of the mirror.

36) A ray of light incident at an angle θ on a refracting face of a prism and emerges from the other
face normally. If the angle of the prism is 5° and the prism is made of a material of refractive index
1.5, the angle of incidence is :

(1) 7.5°
(2) 5°
(3) 15°
(4) 2.5°

37) A wavefront AB passing through a system C emerges as DE. The system C could be -

(1) a convex mirror

(2) a convex lens
(3) a prism
(4) a glass slab

38) A slit of width 14 × 10–7 m is illuminated by light of wavelength 7000 Å. The angular width of the
central maximum is approximately -

(1) 30°
(2) 60°
(3) 90°
(4) 0°

39) Two polaroids are kept crossed to each other. Now one of them is rotated through an angle of
37° the percentage of incident light now transmitted through the system is -

(1) 23%
(2) 11.5%
(3) 37%
(4) 18%

40) The maximum momentum of an X-ray photon, produced by a bombarding electron of energy 30
KeV, will be :-

(1) 10–4 N-s

(2) 10–5 N-s
(3) 1.6 × 10–23 N-s
(4) 1.6 × 10–26 N-s

41) A beam of light has two wavelength 4000 Å and 5000 Å with a total intensity of 3.6 mW equally
distributed among the two wavelengths. The number of photons, crossing through a unit cross-
sectional area per minute of the beam, is (approx.) :-

(1) 8.1 × 1014

(2) 8.1 × 1015
(3) 4.86 × 1016
(4) 4.86 × 1017

42) Photocurrent (ip) versus voltage (V) graph for two different experiments of photo electric effects
are shown, in which radiation beams are falling on same metal surface. On the basis of graph,
consider following results :-
(A) λ1 < λ2 (B) λ1 > λ2

(C) (is)1 < (is)2 (D) (is)1 > (is)2 Which of the above is/are correct? (λ
is wavelength and is is saturation current)

(1) A & C
(2) B & D
(3) A & D
(4) B & C

43) If kinetic energy of a particle is decreased by 19%, then percentage change in its de-Broglie
wavelength will be :-

(1) 25%
(2) 10%
(3) 11.11%
(4) 9.5%

44) Assertion : Work function of a metal is 3.6 eV. Emission of electrons will not be possible if two
photons, each of energy 2.0 eV, strikes to an electron of the metal.
Reason : For photo electron emission, the energy of each photon should be greater than work
function of metal.

(1) Assertion and reason both are true and reason is proper explanation of assertion.
(2) Assertion and reason both are true but reason is not proper explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true and reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false and reason is true.

45) When photons of energy hν falls on a metal of work function hν0 , then :-
(1) The K.E. of all emitted electrons is hν
(2) The K.E. of all emitted electrons is h(ν–ν0)
(3) The K.E. of fastest electron emitted is h(ν–ν0)
(4) The K.E. of all emitted electrons is hν0

CHEMISTRY

1) The correct formula of

Diamminedichlorodicyanochromate(III) ion is :-

+3
(1) [CrCl3(CN)(NH3)2]
+3
(2) [CrCl(CN)3(NH3)2]
+3
(3) [CrCl(CN)(NH3)4]
–
(4) [CrCl2(CN)2(NH3)2]

2) Which of the following complex compound shows minimum paramagnetism :-

2+
(1) [Cr(H2O)6]
2+
(2) [Mn(H2O)6]
2+
(3) [Fe(H2O)6]
2+
(4) [Ni(H2O)6]

3) Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct answer with respect to hybridisation using
the codes given below :

Column-I Column-II
(Complex) (Hybridisation)

(I) [PtCl4]–2 (p) dsp2 hybridisation

(II) [Cu(CN)4]3– (q) sp3 hybridisation

3–
(III) [Co(C2O4)3] (r) sp3d2 hybridisation
2+
(IV) [Fe(H2O)5NO] (s) d2sp3 hybridisation

Codes :
(I) (II) (III) (IV)

(1) q p r s

(2) p q s r

(3) p q r s

(4) q p s r
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

4) The total number of structural isomers of the compound [Cu (NH3)4] [PtCl4] are

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

5) Which among the following reacts with steam?

(1) Sn
(2) Ge
(3) C
(4) Si

6) Assertion (A) : Reducing property of dioxide decreases as SO2 > SeO2 > TeO2.
Reason (R) : SO2 is oxidising while TeO2 is reducing agent.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

7) How many statements(s) is/are correct ?

(a) CuSO4 when dissolves with excess KCN gives soluble complex of K3[Cu(CN)4]
(b) Catalytic activity of transition elements is due to its ability to adopt variable oxidation states.
(c) Shielding power of 4f electrons is quite weak.
(d) Ce(IV) solutions are widely used as oxidising agent in volumetric analyses

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

8) If HCl is not added before passing H2S in the second group, it may result in the :

(1) incomplete precipitation of second group sulphide

(2) precipitation of sulphides of cations belonging to subsequent groups
(3) precipitation of sulphur
(4) precipitation of lead as lead sulphide

9) Assertion : Test of NH4+ cannot be done within group analysis.

Reason : During group analysis several times NH4+ compound is added at the different steps.
(1) Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

10) In which of the following M–C bond strength is maximum ?

(1) [Ni(CO)4]
–
(2) [Co(CO)4]
–2
(3) [Fe(CO)4]
(4) Equal in all

11) In which of the following Δ0 < P ?

+3
(1) [Ir(NH3)6]
+3
(2) [Co(NH3)6]
+2
(3) [Cr(NH3)6]
+2
(4) [Fe(NH3)6]

12) Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(1) Actinoids metals are all silvery in appearance.

(2) Actinoids are not affected by HCl
(3) The magnetic properties of the actinoids are more complex than these of the lanthanoids.
(4) The action of boiling water on actinoids gives a mixture of oxide and hydride.

13) Select the correct order of solubility :-

(1) K2S > BaS > NiS

(2) K2S > NiS > BaS
(3) NiS > BaS > K2S
(4) NiS > K2S > BaS

14) For which of the following element value is more negative than expected due to high
negative hydration enthalpy ?

(1) Mn
(2) Ni
(3) Cu
(4) Zn

15) Which of the following will not liberate hydrogen gas from a dilute acid ?

(1) Ti+2
(2) V+2
(3) Cr+2
(4) Mn+2

16)

In the reaction

2-Butene

(B) is :-
(1) Butane
(2) 1-Butene
(3) Butyraldehyde
(4) Butanone

17) What is the major product of the following reaction ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) In the chemical reaction

What is the structure of B :-

(1) CH3–NH2
(2) CH3–NH–CH3

(3)

(4) CH3–CH2–CH3
19) The reaction of chloroform with alc.KOH and p-toluidine(p-Aminotoluene) forms.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20)
(P) is ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) Which of the following reagents can distinguish 4-oxopentanoic acid from 2-oxopentanoic acid ?

(1) NaHCO3
(2) 2,4-Dinitrophenylhydrazine
(3) AgNO3, aq. NH3
(4) I2, NaOH

22) Most reactive towards HCN is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) X & Y respectively is -

(1) CH3MgX and C2H5OH

(2) SnCl2 + HCl and CH3MgX
(3) CH3MgX and SnCl2 + HCl
(4) SnCl2 + HCl and Na + C2H5OH

24) Which of the following intermediate is more stable:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All are equally stable

25) In the reaction sequence :-

A, B and C are given by the set :-

(1) CH3CH2CHO,CH3CH2CH2Cl,CHI3

(2)
CH3COCH3, , CHI3

(3)
CH3COCH3, ,CHI3

(4)
CH3CH2CHO, ,CHI3

26) For which of the following order is incorrect?

(1) Leaving group ability

(2) Nucleophilicity in polar protic solvent
(3) Nucleophilicity in polar aprotic solvent
(4) Both (2) and (3)

27) Which of the following is incorrect order for leaving group ability in Nucleophilic
substitution reaction ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28)

Which is wrongly match

Distinguish
Pair
Reagent
 Methyl Alcohol
(1) I2 + Base
and Ethyl Alcohol

Fehling
(2) and Solution
CH3CHO

Phenol and
(3) NaHCO3
Carboxylic Acid

Propane-1-Amine Hinsberg
(4)
and propane-2-Amine reagent
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

29) In carius method 0.099 gm organic compound gave 0.287 gm AgCl. The percentage of chlorine
in the compound will be ?
(At. Wt. Ag = 108, Cl = 35.5)

(1) 28.6
(2) 35.5
(3) 71.7
(4) 64.2

30) For the estimation of nitrogen, 1.4g of an organic compound was digested by Kjeldahl method

and the evolved ammonia was absorbed in 120 mL of sulphuric acid. the unreacted acid required

20 mL sodium hydroxide for complete neutralization. The percentage of nitrogen in the

compound is ?

(1) 6 %
(2) 3 %
(3) 5 %
(4) 10 %

31) Consider the reaction

If the rate of appearance of CO2 is 0.40 mol/L- sec., the rate of disappearance of O2 is–

(1) 10 mol/L- sec.

(2) 0.90 mol/L- sec
(3) 0.60 mol/L- sec
(4) 0.3 mol/L- sec

32) The rate law for the reaction A+ B → C is : Rate = k[A] [B]1/3 . If the concentration of B is
increased by eight times while that of A is reduce to half then the rate of reaction becomes :
(1) Twice
(2) Thrice
(3) No change
(4) Half

33) For an elementry reaction, A(g) → 2B(g) + C(g), the half life period is 15 minutes. In what period
of time the concentration of A will be reduced to 10% of original concentration ?

(1) 25 minutes
(2) 33 minutes
(3) 67 minutes
(4) 50 minutes

34) For a reaction, graph plotted between lnk vs has a slope of –2 × 104 then activation energy is-
[in kJ/mol] (R = 8⋅3 J × K–1 × mol–1)

(1) 83
(2) 166
(3) 249
(4) 332

35)

For the reaction, 2NO + Br2 → 2NOBr

completes in several steps:

Step I : NO + Br2 NOBr2 (Fast)

Step II : NOBr2 + NO 2NOBr (Slow)

Find rate law.

(1)
r= [NO]2 [Br2]1

(2)
r= [NO]1[Br2]2
(3) r = k3[NO][NOBr2]

(4)
r= [NO]2 [Br2]1

36) An electrolytic cell contains an aqueous solution of Ag2SO4 and has platinum electrodes. A
current is passed until 1.6 g of O2 has been liberated at anode. The amount of silver deposited at
cathode will be :-
[At mass of Ag = 108]

(1) 108 g
(2) 1.6 g
(3) 0.8 g
(4) 21.60 g

37)

The cell reaction for the given cell is spontaneous if :

(1) P1 > P2
(2) P1 < P2
(3) P1 = P2
(4) P2 = 1 atm

38) What will be the molar conductance (in ohm–1 cm2 mol–1) at infinite dilution for NH4OH, if at
infinite dilution the molar conductances of Ba(OH)2, BaCl2 and NH4Cl are 523.28, 280.0 and 129.8
ohm–1 cm2 mol–1 respectively.

(1) 502.88
(2) 373.08
(3) 251.44
(4) 226.96

39) Assertion (A) :- For mercury cell, the cell potential is approximately 1.35 V and remains
constant during its life.
Reason (R) :- The overall cell reaction of mercury cell does not involve any ion in solution whose
concentration can change during its life time.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

40) On electrolysis of aqueous solution of KI in presence of platinum electrodes –

(a) Hydrogen gas is released at cathode.
(b) Oxygen gas is released at anode.
(c) pOH of solution decreases.
(d) There is deposition of potassium at cathode.
Choose the correct option from following

(1) a, b
(2) only a
(3) a, c
(4) a, c, d

41) What will be the molality of 2M H2SO4 solution having density 1.8 g/ml :-
(1) 3 m
(2) 1.25 m
(3) 2.4 m
(4) 4.8 m

42) The mass of solute ‘A’ (mol mass = 40 g mol–1) that should be added to 180 g of pure water in
order to lower its vapour pressure to 4/5th of its original value :-

(1) 187.5 g
(2) 90 g
(3) 150 g
(4) 100 g

43) At 27°C, the vapour pressure of pure liquid P is 70 torr. The vapour pressure of the solution of
liquids P and Q is 84 torr and mole fraction of Q is 0.2. The vapour pressure of pure liquid Q is :-

(1) 14 torr
(2) 140 torr
(3) 56 torr
(4) 70 torr

44) A gas X is dissolved in water at 2 bar pressure. Its mole fraction is 0.02 in solution. The mole
fraction of water when the pressure of gas is doubled at the same temperature is :

(1) 0.96
(2) 0.04
(3) 0.02
(4) 0.98

45) A 5% solution (by mass) of glucose in water has freezing point of 270 K. Calculate the freezing
point of 5% cane sugar in water if freezing point of pure water is 273.15 K?

(1) 272 K
(2) 271.5 K
(3) 274.5 K
(4) 280 K
 ANSWER KEYS

BIOLOGY

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 3 3 2 2 2 1 1 1 1 3 4 2 1 3 3 2 1 4 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 4 1 3 3 3 1 2 2 3 4 2 2 2 4 1 3 2 2 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A. 3 3 4 3 3 3 3 4 1 2 4 3 1 1 3 1 3 2 4 1
Q. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
A. 3 2 2 3 2 2 4 2 1 3 1 2 1 1 4 2 2 1 4 3
Q. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 2 3 4 3 2 1 2 2 3

PHYSICS

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 1 4 1 4 4 2 4 3 3 3 3 2 1 1 3 3 4 4 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 4 2 2 1 3 1 3 3 3 2 3 3 3 1 1 2 2 4 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135
A. 4 1 3 1 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155
A. 4 4 2 2 1 3 4 2 1 3 4 2 1 2 4 4 1 2 2 3
Q. 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175
A. 4 2 2 3 3 3 1 4 3 4 3 3 4 2 1 4 1 3 4 3
Q. 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 4 2 1 2
 SOLUTIONS

BIOLOGY

1) NCERT XI Pg # 73

2)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 76

3) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 72

4)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 72

5) NCERT XI Pg. No. # 66

6) NCERT Pg. # 63

7) NCERT XI Page No. 58,60,62,67

8) XI-NCERT Page No. # 65, 66

9) NCERT XII Pg.# 8, 9

10)

NCERT-XII Pg # 18

11) NCERT (XII) Pg # 4, 5 (E), 24 (H)

12) NCERT XII Pg. # 14

13) NCERT XII Pg # 80

14)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 86
15) NCERT XII Pg. No. # 80

17)

NCERT XII Pg. No. # 62

18)

NCERT XII Pg. # 61

19) NCERT XII Pg. # 76

20) NCERT XII Pg. No :- 88 (E), 97 (H)

21) NCERT XII Pg. # 97

22) NCERT XII Pg.# 122

23) NCERT-XII, Pg.# 117

24) NCERT XII Pg. # 93

25) NCERT XII Pg. # 81

26) NCERT XII Pg. # 103, Para # 6.3.3

27) NCERT XII Page No. 91

28) NCERT-XII, Pg # 188

29) NCERT-XII Pg#187

30) NCERT-XII, Pg.# 152, 153, 155

31)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 248, Fig. 144(a)

32) NCERT XII Page No. 208

33) NCERT XII Pg. # 212

34) NCERT XII Pg # 206-207

35)

NCERT-XII Pg.267

36)

NCERT XII, Pg. # 223

37)

NCERT XII Pg : 218

38) NCERT XII Page No. 223

39) NCERT XII Page No. 219

40) NCERT XII Page No. 199

41) NCERT XII Pg. # 198

42) NCERT XII Pg.# 201-202

43) NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 230

44) NCERT XII Pg.# 229(E) ; 251(H)

45) NCERT XII Pg. # 191

46) NCERT XII Pg. # 198, Fig. 11.3

47) NCERT Pg. # 200

48)

NCERT XII, Page # 199

49)
NCERT-XII, Pg. # 199

50)

NCERT XII Pg # 169

51)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 172

52)

Bioreactors are used in biotechnology to process large volumes of culture for the production of
desired products such as proteins, enzymes, antibiotics, and other metabolites.
They provide a controlled environment for the growth of microorganisms or cells, enabling
efficient large-scale production.

53) NCERT Pg # 183-184

54)

NCERT XIIth Page - 211

55) NCERT Pg. # 181

56) NCERT (XII) Pg # 213

57) NCERT Pg. No.-180-Pest Resistant Plants.

59)

NCERT-XII, Page # 199, Fig. 11.4

60) A selectable marker is a gene introduced into a cell or organism along with the gene of
interest. It allows for the identification and selection of transformed cells that have
successfully incorporated the foreign DNA. The marker helps in eliminating non-transformants
by providing resistance to an antibiotic or another selective pressure, ensuring that only the
cells containing the desired DNA survive.

61) NCERT Page - 45

62) NCERT Page - 46

63) NCERT Page - 47

64) NCERT Page - 47

65) NCERT Page - 47

66) NCERT Page - 48

67) NCERT Page - 48

68) NCERT Page - 49

69)

The polar bodies are small cells that are formed during the process of oogenesis (female
gamete formation). They are produced as a result of the unequal division of the oocyte during
meiosis.
• In females, the oocyte is a XX chromosome pair, meaning both sex chromosomes are X.
• During meiosis I, the oocyte divides to form a large secondary oocyte and a smaller
first polar body, both of which are XX.
• Meiosis II occurs only after fertilization. The secondary oocyte divides to form a mature
ovum (also XX) and a second polar body.

70) NCERT Pg. # 33, 34, 35

71) NCERT Pg # 60, 61

72) NCERT = 44

73) NCERT Pg no. 48

74) Module 8 Pg # 104

75)

NCERT-XII, Pg.# 160

76)

NCERT-XII, Pg.# 158-159

 77)

NCERT-XII Pg. # 147

78) NCERT-XII Pg. No. 170 (H)

79)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 158

80)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 132

81) NCERT Pg#136,135

82)

NCERT XII Page No. # 134(E)/147(H)

83)

NCERT Pg#143

84) NCERT XII Pg. No. # 143

85) NCERT Pg. 47

86) NCERT(XII) Pg# 135 Para: 7.6

87) NCERT (XII) Pg#137/148(H) para 7.7

88) NCERT-XII Pg# 139

89)

Coelacanth or lobefins evolved into the first amphibians that lived on both land and water.

90) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 137,138

PHYSICS
91)

92) ⇒
⇒ 4Rv = 3Rv + 1200
⇒ Rv = 1200Ω

93) I = nqAVd

J=
Direction of 'I' and 'J' are same.

94)

95)
8 × 3 = 2 (S + 7)
S + 7 = 12
S = 5Ω

96) For maximum power across variable resistance, value of it must be equal to fix resistance
of circuit .

97)

Induced charge on nearby surface of neutral conductor is of opposite nature so net force is
attraction.

98) m/s2
Sx = ux +

= (∵ ux = 0)

99)
r = 1.2 m

100)
Ceq = 2μF + 2μF = 4μF

U=

101)

Insulator which can be polarised are used as dielectrics.

102)

Capacity does not depend on charge, but it depends on shape, size of capacitor and medium
between plates.

103) NCERT, Pg. # 72

104)
as d is increased, 'C' decreases and so does charge q.
∴ Wb = –ΔqV

105) Capacitance does not depend on charge on capacitor.

106) (A)
(B) F = qVBsinθ
since, sinθ = 0 here (θ = 0°)
So force = 0

107)

Lines of magnetic field around a current carrying wire are circular.

108)

If charges are of same nature then repulsion between them. If the more with same velocity
then no magnetic force between them.

109) M = NIA
Magnetic field.

110) Dia-magnetic substances are repelled by external magnetic field.

111)

(a) Magnetic moment

M = I.A ⇒ unit A-m2
F = BIℓ

or

⇒
RHS is unit of magnetic moment so LHS also
(b) Magnetic induction

(c) ϕ = LI
B.A. = LI
(µ0nI)A = LI

Permeability

0
unit of µ
(d) Intensity of magnetisation
H = nI or unit of H = (m–1)A
unit of H = A/m

112) Zero due to symmetry.

113)
Ω

114)

Z = 11.8 Ω

115) I case :-

where, XL = ωL
In II case :-

So Z'↓ & I' ↑

Glowness of bulb will increase

116) qtotal =

= = +1 C

117)
B = µ0nI
ϕ = µ0nI NA
= µ0n2IℓA
L = µ0n2Aℓ

U= =
 =

U=

Energy density =

118) Leq. = L1 + L2 + 2 M
= 10 + 15 + 2 × 2.5
= 30 H

119)

= 4 × 10–4 m
= 0.4 mm

120)

121) Expression

=B+A=A+B

122)

123) N-type semiconductor is electrically neutral.

124) Y =
for Y = 1, = 1 and C = 1
for = 1, A = 0, B = 0

125)

For convex mirror

For
Here f is positive for any real object u is negative
So v is positive

m is always positive image is always erect for real object.

126) Given, i = θ; A = 5° ; μ = 1.5

For ray emerging normally from AC, e = 0

From relation, A + δ = i + e, we have
⇒ 5° + δ = θ + 0 ⇒ i = θ = 5° + δ
Also, for small angles, δ = (μ – 1)A
⇒ δ = 2.5°
So, i = θ = 5° + 2.5° = 7.5°

127)
So C is convex lens

128)

sinθ =

⇒ sinθ =
⇒ θ = 30°
Angular width of central maxima
= 2θ = 60°

129)

Say, intensity of unpolarised light is I0

Then, according to question, intensity of final transmitted light.

Iout = cos253°

So, in terms of percentage of incident light

 % Iout = × 100 = 18%

130) Max. energy of emitted X-photon = Energy of bombarding electron

∴ Max. momentum of X-photon

=
= 1.6 × 10–23 N-s

131) n = n1 + n2 =

≃ 5 × 1024 J–1 m–1 × (4000 + 5000) × 10–10

= 5 × 1.8 × 9 × 1024–3–7 = 81 × 1014 s–1

N = 81 × 1014 × 60 (min.)–1 = 4.86 × 1017 (min.)–1

132) Same ϕ, therefore from photo electric equation

eV0 = (hc/λ) – ϕ
from the graphs, it is clear that (V0)1 > (V0)2 ⇒ ν1 > ν2 ⇒ λ1 < λ2
And (is)2 > (is)1

133) λ ∝
KEi = K
KEf = (100% – 19%) KEi

Now,

= 11.11%

134) Kmax = hν – hν0

= hν – ϕ0
∴ For emission
hν > ϕ0 is essential

135) ∵ Kmax = hν – ϕ0 = hν – hν0

∴ Kmax = h(ν – ν0)

CHEMISTRY
138) Co+3 ⇒ with H2O ⇒ S.F.L.

139) Concept

142) NCERT, Pg. # 235-230

153) CH3–Cl CH3–NC CH3–NH–CH3

155)

156)
NaHCO3 +Ve +Ve
DNP +Ve +Ve
AgNO3/aq NH3 –Ve –Ve
I2/NaOH +Ve –Ve

158)

162)

Leaving group tendency ∝ Stability of leaving group

163)

Propane - 1 - amine & Propane - 2- amine, both are 1o Amine. Hence Cannot be distinguished
by Hinsberg reagent.
164)

% of chlorine =
= 71.72

165)

initial H2SO4 =

H2SO4 remaning = 6mm – 1mm = 5mm

→ mole N = 10×10–3 mole

wt of N = 10 × 10–3 × 14

% of N =

166)

167)

ri = k[A][B]1/3

rf = k × × (8[B])1/3
= k[A][B]1/3
rf = ri

168)
= 50 min

169)

Ea = (2 × 104) (8.314 × 10–3)

Ea = 166 kJ/mol

170)

From slow step r = k3[NOBr2] [NO]

from reversible step,

171) Number of equivalents of oxygen = = 0.2

∴ Number of equivalents of Ag deposited = 0.2
Mass of Ag deposited = 0.2 × 108 = 21.6 g

172)

H2 + 2H+ → 2H+ + H2
P1 1M 1M P2

Ecell = 0 –
when P1 > P2 then Ecell = +ve
and ΔG = –ve (spontaneous)

173)
= 2 × 129.8 + 523.28 - 280
= 502.88
= 251.44 Scm2 mol-1

174) NCERT-XII, Part-I, Pg # 89, Ist paragraph

175)

aqueous KI solution
at anode
2I– → I2 + 2e–
at cathode
2H2O + 2e– → H2 + 2OH–
[OH–] ↑, pOH↓

176)

177)

nA + 10 = 5nA
4nA = 10

nA = = 2.5

= 2.5
wA = 40 × 2.5 = 100 g.

178) = 70 torr, XP = 1 – XQ = 0.8

84 = 70 × 0.8 +
⇒

179) Henry's law– Pgas = KH·Xgas

2 = KH × 0.2 .....(i)
4 = KH × Xgas .....(ii)

=
Xgas = 0.04
∴

180) For aqueous solution of glucose

ΔTf = kf m
Tf° – Tf = kf m

273.15 – 270 = kf × ...(1)

For aqueous solution of cane sugar
ΔTf = kfm

273.15 – Tf = kf × ...(2)
(1) ÷ (2) (Dividing)
We get, Tf = 271.5 K (F.P. of cane sugar solution)