21) Dystrophic versus metastatic calcification.
(2014 P1)
REFERENCES FROM RAMDAS NAYAK 22) Phlebothrombosis and thrombophlebitis are not same. (2013 P1) 125, 126
4TH EDITION (PAGE NUMBERS) 23) Importance of paraneoplastic syndrome. (2013 P1) 235
24) Transudate and exudates indicate different clinical conditions. (2012 P1) 53
GENERAL PATHOLOGY 25) Presence of chronic inflammatory cells does not always indicate chronic
inflammation; it has other hallmarks too. (2012 P1)
26) Routes of spread of malignant tumours are different. (2012 P2) 198
GROUP - A
27) Necrosis differs from apoptosis. (2011 P1)
1) A 30 Year old male met with road traffic accident and had massive haemorrhage. The
28) Amyloidosis is the result of long-standing chronic diseases. (2011 P1)
patient was pale, pulse was rapid and thread skin was cold and clammy. (2+3+10)
29) Tobacco smoking and diseases. (2010 P1) 260
(2023P1) Shock, 136
30) Grading and staging of malignant tumours and its relevance. (2010 P1) 237
a) What is your provisional diagnosis?
b) Classify the condition.
c) What are the different stages of the condition and their respective pathophysiology.
Group-C (ANSWER THE FOLLOWING):
2) A 42-year-old male presented with H/O RTA presented with a lacerated injury of soft
1) Tumour markers aid in diagnosis of malignancy. (2023P1) 232
tissue of lower limbs without any fracture of bones. (2+5+3+5) (2022 P1) 81, 834
2) Inborn errors of metabolism usually follows autosomal recessive mode of
a) Which tissue will replace this devitalised injured tissue in the process of healing?
inheritance. (2023 P1) 243
b) What are the different stages of healing here?
3) Trisomy 21 (2021 P1) 252
c) What are the differences between healing by primary and secondary intention?
4) Differentiate between healing by primary intention and secondary intention. (2020
d) Enumerate important complications of healing.
P1)
5) Metaplasia is double edged sword. (2022 P1)
6) Causes of edema are multifactorial. (2022 P1) 112
Group-B (COMMENT ON/10 MARKS): 7) HPV is an oncogenic virus. (2022 P1) 226
1) Wound healing by first and second intention. (2023P1) 81 8) Tobacco related human health hazards. (2020 P1)
2) Pathogenesis and staining characters of amyloid. (2023P1) 181 9) Philadelphia chromosome. (2019 P1) 344
3) Pathogenesis of metastasis. (2023 P1) 198 10) Different between primary and secondary amyloidosis. (2018 P1) 183
4) Shock and pathogenesis of hypovolemic shock. (2022 P1) 135 11) Difference between dystrophic calcification and metastatic calcification. (2018 P1)
5) Infarct (definition, classification, factors affecting its development). (2022 P1) 12) Difference between necrosis and apoptosis. (2017 P1)
6) Pathogenesis of Septic Shock (2021 P1) 136 13) Healing by primary union and secondary union differ in process of wound healing.
7) Difference between apoptosis and necrosis. (2021 P1) 37 (2016 P1)
8) Apoptosis differs from necrosis. (2020 P1) 14) Pathogenesis of oedema in cardiac disease. (2016 P1) 116
9) Dystrophic calcification and metastatic calcification are synonymous. (2020 P1) 38 15) Difference between coagulative necrosis and liquefactive necrosis. (2015 P1) 269
10) Physiological and pathological giant cells are different. (2019 P1) 71 16) Pathogenesis of thrombosis. (2014 P1) 120
11) Cellular changes in irreversible injury. (2018 P1) 27, 34 17) Carcinoma is a multistep process. (2014 P1) 224
12) Metaplasia is not same as neoplasia. (2018 P1) 44 18) Difference between carcinoma and sarcoma. (2013 P1) 195
13) Granuloma and granulation tissue. (2017 P1) 69, 77 19) Pathogenesis of amyloidosis. (2013 P1) 182
14) Hyperplasia and Hypertrophy are different. (2017 P1) 44 20) Pathogenesis of renal oedema. (2012 P1) 114
15) Direct spread is different from metastasis. (2016 P1) 198 21) Cause of unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia. (2012 P1)
16) Role of complements in acute inflammation. (2016 P1) 63 22) Antibody dependent cytotoxic cell. (2011 P1) 145
17) Thrombus differs from clot. (2015 P1) 124 23) Difference between carcinoma and sarcoma. (2011 P1)
18) Inflammation is beneficial. (2015 P1) 68 24) Arterial and venous thrombosis. (2010 P1) 123
19) Healing by primary infection versus healing by secondary infection. (2014 P1) 81 25) Transudate and exudates. (2010 P1)
20) Teratoma and hamartoma are two different lesions. (2014 P1) 190 26) Type III hypersensitivity. (2010 P1) 153
Group- D (SHORT NOTES) HAEMATOLOGY
1) Reactive oxygen species (2023 P1) 57
2) Granuloma (2021 P1) 69 Group-A (LONG QUESTIONS)
3) Tumour Markers. (2021 P1) 232
1) A 4 year old boy was presented to paediatric OPD with growth retardation ,
4) Type 2 hypersensitivity (2021 P1) 150
prominence of cheek bones, pallor and splenomegaly. PBS shows marked
5) Karyotyping. (2020 P1) 245
anisocytosis, poikilocytosis, hypochromia, microcytosis along with target cells and
6) Fate of a thrombus. (2020 P1) 123
fragmented red cells. The Hb level is 6 gm/dl. (1+4+4+6) (2023 P1) Thalassemia, 311
7) Type I hypersensitivity reaction. (2019 P1) 147
a) What is your provisional diagnosis?
8) Hyperaemia and congestion. (2019 P1) 108
b) How do you classify this condition in this young age?
9) BCR-ABL fusion gene. (2019 P1) 344
c) How would you proceed to confirm your diagnosis?
10) Haemorrhagic infarct (2019 P1) 133
d) How would you explain the development of various clinical and laboratory
11) Vascular change in acute inflammation. (2018 P1) 51
features in this patient?
12) Chemical carcinogens (2018 P1) 223
2) A 30-year-old female is presented with severe anaemia, weakness and dyspnoea.
13) Klinefelter syndrome (2018 P1)253
Blood examination showed: Hb as 6 gm/dl and low MCV. (5+5+5) (2022 P1) Iron
14) Tobacco related human health hazard. (2018 P1) 260
deficiency anaemia, 295
15) Langhan’s Giant cell. (2017 P1)
a) What is your provisional diagnosis?
16) Philadelphia chromosome. (2017 P1) 244
b) Which lab tests will you perform to confirm the diagnosis?
17) Turner syndrome. (2017 P1)254
c) Discuss the causes and pathogenesis of this condition?
18) Septic Shock. (2017 P1)
3) A 5-year-old boy presented with hepatosplenomegaly, stunted growth, Mongolian
19) Radiation injury. (2016 P1)?
face and severe pallor of chronic onset. (2021 P1) Thalassemia, 311
20) Hypovolemic shock. (2016 P1) 134
i. What is provisional diagnosis?
21) Transcoelomic spread. (2015 P1) 199
ii. Laboratory investigation of the case.
22) Fine Needle Aspiration Cytology. (2015 P1) 231, 281
iii. Pathogenesis of anaemia in such case.
23) Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia. (2015 P1) 596
iv. Complications of such illness.
24) Klinefelter syndrome. (2014 P1) 253
4) A 10-year-old male child presented with massive swelling at knee joint following
25) Decompression sickness. (2014 P1) 131
minor trauma. His maternal uncle also had similar episodes in the past and
26) Radiation injury. (2014 P1)
subsequently died of severe GIT bleeding. 2+5+3 (2020 P1) Haemophilia, 374
27) Gaucher’s disease. (2013 P1) 251
a) What is your probable diagnosis?
28) Turner syndrome. (2013 P1)
b) What investigations are to be done to confirm the diagnosis?
29) Karyotyping. (2013 P1)
c) Is it likely that his sister is also affected?
30) Difference between hypertrophy and hyperplasia. (2012 P1)
5) A 30-year-old lady presented with haemorrhagic spots in the skin & mucosa, onset
31) Coagulation necrosis. (2012 P1) 28
is insidious. There is no organomegaly or lymphadenopathy. 2+5+3 (2019 P1)
32) Carcinoma in situ. (2012 P2) 198
Chronic ITP, 371
33) Down’s syndrome. (2011 P1)
a) What is your provisional diagnosis?
34) Carcinoma in-situ. (2011 P1)
b) How will you proceed for diagnosis?
35) Giant cell. (2011 P1) 69
c) What is the basic mechanism of this disease?
36) Dystrophic calcification. (2010 P1)
6) A 7 year old girl presented with sudden onset of fever, week ness severe pallor,
37) Apoptosis. (2010 P1) 33
generalized lymphadenopathy, hepatomegaly, sternal tenderness and gum bleeding.
38) X linked disease. (2010 P1) 244
2+6+2 (2018P1) ALL, 336
i. What is provisional diagnosis?
ii. How will you proceed to confirm the diagnosis?
iii. What are the important prognostic factors in this case?
7) A 60-year-old male patient with Low back pain and anaemia, X-ray reveals multiple 7) Leukemoid reaction and leukaemia are different. (2016 P1) 329
osteolytic lesions. 2+8 (2017 P1) Multiple myeloma, 349 8) Significance of peripheral blood smear. (2015 P1) 384
a. What is your provisional diagnosis? 9) Transfusion related diseases can be avoided. (2013 P1) 423
b. How will you processed to confirm the diagnosis? 10) Significance of peripheral blood smear. (2012 P1)
8) A 45-year-old male with history of partial gastrectomy frequently has anaemia and 11) Presence of spherocytosis in not pathognomonic of hereditary spherocytosis. (2011
neurological symptoms. 2+5+3 (2016 P1) Vit. B12 deficient megaloblastic anaemia, P1)
297 12) FAB classification of acute leukaemia and basis. (2010 P1) 333
a. What is provisional diagnosis?
b. How will you proceed to investigation to establish your diagnosis? Group-C (ANSWER THE FOLLOWING)
c. Discuss the pathogenesis of this anaemia. 1) Transfusion of blood component is more rational than whole blood transfusion.
9) A 7year old male patient presented with fever, pallor, gum bleeding, (2023 P1) 422
lymphadenopathy. Peripheral blood smear revealed fair number of abnormal 2) Leukaemia and leukemoid reactions are different. (2023 P1) 329
lymphocytes. 2+6+2 (2015P1) Acute leukaemia, 333 3) Reticulocyte count is helpful in different forms of anaemia. (2023 P1) 387
i. What is your provisional diagnosis? 4) Pretransfusion screening of blood is mandatory. (2022 P1) 423
ii. How will you diagnose the case in laboratory? 5) Sickle cell trait patient is resistant to falciparum malaria. (2022 P1) 320
iii. Enumerate four prognostic factors. 6) Role of protein and urine electrophoresis in multiple myeloma. (2021 P1) 349
10) A 4-year-old female patient presented with severe pallor and splenomegaly with 7) Causes of thrombocytopenia (2021 P1) 371
history of multiple blood transfusion. Biochemical investigation revealed 8) Thrombophlebitis &Phlebothrombosis. (2019 P1) 125-126
unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia. 2+5+3 (2014 P1) Thalassemia β major, 311 9) Reverse blood grouping. (2019 P1)
i. What is your provisional diagnosis? 10) Laboratory diagnosis of beta-thalassemia (2018 P1) 313
ii. What is the examination you have done in lab? 11) Blood picture of Iron deficiency anaemia and biochemical findings. (2017 P1) 295
iii. What is the basic genetic defect? 12) Principal and utility of Coomb’s test. (2017 P1) 322
11) A male child of 5 years age presented with epistaxis and petechiae following fever 2 13) Lab diagnosis of multiple myeloma. (2016 P1)
weeks back. 1+5+4(2013 P1) Acute ITP, 371 14) Pathogenesis of β thalassemia. (2015 P1)
i. What is your provisional diagnosis? 15) Diagnostic criteria of blastic phase of chronic myeloid leukaemia. (2014 P1)
ii. What laboratory investigations are to be performed to establish your 16) Peripheral blood picture in haemolytic anaemia. (2013 P1) 306
diagnosis? 17) Peripheral blood and bone marrow picture of megaloblastic anaemia. (2012 P1)
iii. Explain in short, the pathogenesis of the condition. 18) Pathogenesis of Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation. (2011 P1) 377
12) A 60-year-old male presents with low back pain and anaemia-ray reveals multiple
osteolytic lesions. 2+8 (2011 P1) Multiple myeloma, 349 Group- D (SHORT NOTES):
i. What is your provisional diagnosis? 1) Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura. (2022 P1) 371
ii. How will you proceed to confirm your diagnosis? 2) Peripheral blood picture of CLL (2021 P1) 346
13) A 10-year-old boy presented with pallor and splenomegaly. List the differential 3) Peripheral blood picture of CML (2020 P1) 345
diagnosis. Enumerate the investigations necessary to evaluate this case if a 4) PCV (2020 P1) 386
haemolytic anaemia is suspected. 2+8 (2010 P1) 5) Hodgkins Lymphoma (2019 P1) 360
6) ITP (2019 P1)
Group-B (COMMENT ON): 7) Peripheral Picture of CML (2016 P1)
1) Conventional lab tests for thalassaemia. (2022 P1) 313 8) Significance of reverse blood grouping (2016 P1)
2) Importance of Cross matching of Blood. (2021 P1) 423 9) Reed Sternberg Cells (2017 P1) 361
3) Rational use of blood. (2020 P1) 381 10) Transfusion Reaction (2015 P1) 423
4) Significance of reticulocyte count. (2019 P1) 387 11) Tubercular Lymphadenitis. (2015 P2) 355
5) Blood comportment therapy is beneficial than whole blood transfusion. (2018 P1) 422 12) Coomb’s test. (2014 P1)
6) Presence of spherocytosis in not pathognomonic of hereditary spherocytosis. (2017 13) Leukemoid reaction. (2013 P1) 329
P1) 309 14) Reed Sternberg cell. (2013 P2)
SYSTEMIC PATHOLOGY:
15) Haemophilia (2012 P1)
16) Rh Incompatibility (2012 P1) 420
17) Fresh frozen plasma (2011 P1) 425
CVS:
Group-A (LONG QUESTIONS)
1) A 52-year-old hypertensive developed acute precordial pain with sweating and
breathlessness. (2018 P2) AMI, 465-466
a) What could be the privational diagnosis?
b) What investigation will help to establish the diagnosis?
c) What may be the complications in this case? 2+6+2
2) A 59-year male presented with acute pain on the left anterior chest wall, severe
dyspnea, profuse sweating, and rapid thread pulse. 2+5+3 (2015 P2) AMI, 435, 459
a) What is your provisional diagnosis?
b) Enumerate risk factors and pathogenesis?
c) Enumerate important diagnostic biochemical markers?
3) A 70 year old man was brought to hospital emergency room at dawn with severe
precordial pain, profuse sweating and respiratory distress. On examination radial
pulse was not palpable. BP 80/? mm of Hg. 2+6+2 (2013 P2) AMI, 465-466
a) What is your Provisional diagnosis?
b) How do You Proceed to investigate the case in the laboratory?
c) What are the complications?
4) A 45-year-old hypertensive developed acute precordial chest pain. 2+4+4 (2010 P2)
462-466
a) What are the possible diagnoses?
b) Describe the various laboratory findings in such a case?
c) What are the gross and microscopic changes that you would expect to find in the
heart?
Group-B (COMMENT ON):
1) Large joint pain can be a clinical manifestation of cardiac disease. (2019 P2) 477
2) Pathogenesis of atherosclerosis integrate risk factors and response to injury. (2018
P2) 437
3) Rheumatism licks the joint but bites the whole heart. (2014 P2) 475, 477
4) Pancarditis in rheumatic heart disease. (2011 P2) 475
Group-C (ANSWER THE FOLLOWING)
1) Lab investigation of Myocardial Infarction. (2021 P2) 465
2) Pathogenesis and pathology of Rheumatic heart disease. (2020 P2) 478
3) Lesions in the heart due to acute rheumatic fever. (2016 P2) 475
4) Investigations of myocardial infarction. (2012 P2) 465
Group- D (SHORT NOTES) KIDNEY
1) Capillary Haemangioma. (2020 P2) 451
2) Complications of atheroma. (2016 P2) 439 Group-A (LONG QUESTIONS)
1) A six-year-old boy developed puffiness of face, oliguria and mild hypertension two
weeks after an attack of sore throat. (2023 P1) PSGN, 664
a) What is your provisional diagnosis?
b) What laboratory investigations and other investigations need to be done to
confirm the diagnosis?
c) Mention fates of this condition?
d) What is the pathogenesis of this condition?
2) A 60-year-old male presented with gradual weight loss, heaviness in loin, mild fever
and microscopic haematuria on routine examination. 2+4+4 (2020 P2) RCC, 707
a) What is your provisional diagnosis?
b) How do you proceed to investigate to confirm the diagnosis?
c) Describe the gross and microscopical features of the lesion.
3) A 6-year-old boy developed puffiness of face, oliguria, and mild hypertension about
two weeks after recovery from sore throat. 1+6+3 (2019 P2)
a) What is your provisional diagnosis?
b) Which laboratory investigation are to be done to confirm the diagnosis?
c) Describe the pathogenesis of the condition.
4) A five-year-old boy developed puffiness of face, oliguria, and mild hypertension two
weeks after an attack of sore throat. (2019 P1)
a) What is your provisional diagnosis?
b) What laboratory investigations and other investigations need to be done to
confirm the diagnosis?
c) Mention fates of this condition?
5) A 10-year-old child is admitted with puffiness of face, oliguria, and smoky urine.
2+6+2 (2014 P2)
a) What is your provisional diagnosis?
b) Describe the etiopathogenesis and morphological features observed in the
target organ?
c) Which investigations should be done to reach the diagnosis?
6) A seven-year-old boy abruptly developed puffiness of face, oliguria, and oedema
about two weeks after recovery from sore throat. 2+8 (2012 P2)
a) What is your provisional diagnosis?
b) Which laboratory and other investigation to be done to establish the diagnosis?
Group-C (ANSWER THE FOLLOWING):
1) Immunological mechanisms of glomerular injury. (2022 P2) 661
2) RCC can be associated with raised haematocrit. (2022 P2) 707
3) Classification of glomerulonephritis. (2021 P2) 661
4) Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis (RPGN). (2013 P2) 667
5) Diabetic Nephropathy. (2011 P2) 681
6) Renal function tests in chronic renal failure. (2010 P2) 692
GIT
Group- D (SHORT NOTES) GROUP A (15 MARKS):
1) Polycystic kidney disease. (2018 P2) 694 1) A 46-year-old male presented with epigastric burning pain occurs 2-3 hrs after meal
2) Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis. (2017 P2) in day and worse at midnight. (2+5+5+3) (2022 P2) Peptic Ulcer Disease, 552
3) Renal cell carcinoma. (2015 P2) 705 a) What is your provisional diagnosis?
b) Write about the risk factors and pathogenesis of the disease?
c) Describe in short morphology of the disease.
d) Mention complications of the disease.
Group-B (COMMENT ON)
1) Ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease are different macroscopically and
microscopically. (2023 P2) 581
2) Colonic polyp can lead to colonic carcinoma. (2022 P2)587
3) Ulcerative lesion of the stomach is not always benign. (2020 P2) 553, 557
4) Ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease differs in many aspects. (2018 P2)
5) Etiology of peptic ulcer and gastric carcinoma is same. (2015 P2) 553, 557
6) Ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease are different macroscopically and
microscopically. (2015 P2)
7) Carcinoma colon is a genetic disorder. (2014 P2) 587
8) Colorectal carcinoma. (2010 P2) 586
Group-C (ANSWER THE FOLLOWING)
1) Pathogenesis of peptic ulcer. (2023 P2) 553
2) Pathogenesis of peptic ulcer. (2018 P2)
3) Familial adenomatous polyposis. (2015 P2) 585
4) Macroscopic difference between peptic ulcers of stomach with ulcerative type of
gastric carcinoma. (2013 P2) 562
Group- D (SHORT NOTES)
1) Pleomorphic salivary adenoma. (2023 P2) 542
2) Pleomorphic salivary adenoma. (2021 P2)
3) Peptic Ulcer disease. (2021 P2) 552
4) Pleomorphic salivary adenoma. (2019 P2)
5) Barret’s oesophagus. (2017 P2) 545
6) Acute appendicitis and its fate and complications. (2014 P2) 592
7) Pleomorphic salivary adenoma. (2014 P2)
8) Crohn’s disease. (2013 P2) 576
9) H. pylori and gastric disease. (2010 P2) 550
LIVER NERVOUS SYSTEM
Group-A (LONG QUESTIONS) Group-B (COMMENT ON)
1) A 60 year old male developed deep jaundice, clay colored stool, weight loss, since 1) CSF findings in pyogenic meningitis differ from tuberculous meningitis. (2020 P2) 874
two months and dull aching pain in and around epigastric region. (2021 P1)
Obstructive jaundice, 597 Group-C (ANSWER THE FOLLOWING)
a) What is the possible differential diagnosis? 1) Pyogenic meningitis vs. viral meningitis. (2017 P2) 874
b) What should be the approach to investigate the patient to arrive at diagnosis? 2) Diagnosis and complications of pyogenic meningitis. (2014 P2) 873
c) Enumerate the various laboratory finding in the blood and Urine.
Group- D (SHORT NOTES)
Group-B (COMMENT ON) 1) Lab investigation of Meningitis. (2021 P2) 874
1) Alcoholism is not prerequisite for cirrhosis. (2023 P2) 2) CSF in acute pyogenic meningitis vs. tuberculous meningitis. (2015 P2)
2) A small percentage of hepatitis B infections lead to hepatocellular carcinoma. (2016 3) CSF in Tuberculous meningitis. (2011 P2) 875
P2) 634
3) Alcoholism is not prerequisite for cirrhosis. (2014 P2)
4) Viral hepatitis leading to cirrhosis. (2013 P2) 604
5) Serological markers of HBV induced infective hepatitis. (2011 P2) 604
6) Alcoholic cirrhosis. (2010 P2) 620, 622
Group-C (ANSWER THE FOLLOWING)
1) Pathogenesis of Alcoholic cirrhosis of liver. (2022 P2) 618
2) Complications of cirrhosis of liver. (2020 P2) 626
3) Pathogenesis of Alcoholic cirrhosis of liver. (2019 P2)
4) Pathogenesis of alcoholic cirrhosis (2017 P2)
5) Enumerate causes of cirrhosis of liver. (2015 P2) 624
6) Complications of cirrhosis of liver. (2013 P2)
7) Ascites in cirrhosis of liver. (2011 P2) 626
Group- D (SHORT NOTES)
1) Gall stone. (2017 P2) 641
2) Complication resulting due to gallstones. (2012 P2) 646
RESPIRATORY SYSTEM ENDOCRINE SYSTEM
Group-A (LONG QUESTIONS) Group-A (LONG QUESTIONS)
1) A 65-year-old male smoker developed cough, occasional haemoptysis and marked 1) A person suffering from type-I Diabetes Mellitus develop symptoms over 24 hrs
weight loss in 4-6 weeks. Chest Xray shows an opacity in right upper lobe. On nausea, vomiting, severe thirst, polyuria. Complaining of abdominal pain, Kussmaul
examination, one moderately enlarged firm lymph node was found over the neck. breathing with fruity odour on the patient’s breath and abdominal tenderness
a) What may be the provisional diagnosis? revealed on examination. 1+5+4 (2012 P1) Diabetic ketoacidosis, 827, 831
b) How will you proceed for a quick suspicion of your diagnosis? a) What is your provisional diagnosis?
c) How will you classify this condition histologically? b) What are laboratory examination will be perform to establish the diagnosis.
d) What may be the complications of this case? (2023 P1) c) Explain in short the pathophysiology of that condition
2) A 64-year-old man who is a chain-smoker is suffering from chronic cough, a 5 Kg
weight loss in last 3 months. Physical examination shows clubbing of finger. A chest Group-B (COMMENT ON)
radiograph shows an ill-defined 3 cm mass involving left hilum of the lung. Serum 1) Thyroid swelling is not always due to colloid goitre. (2017 P2)
calcium level is 12.3 mg/dl. 2+6+2 (2011 P2) Carcinoma, 535
a) What is the provisional diagnosis? Group-C (ANSWER THE FOLLOWING)
b) Describe the laboratory procedure for diagnosis of the case. 1) Long term complications of Diabetes Mellitus. (2022 P1) 828
c) Why is serum calcium level elevated in this case? 2) Long term complications of Diabetes Mellitus. (2020 P1)
3) Laboratory diagnosis of Diabetes Mellitus. (2019 P2) 822
Group-B (COMMENT ON) 4) Long term complications of diabetes mellitus. (2018 P2)
1) Diagnostic features of carcinoid tumour are specific. (2023 P2) 535 5) Long term complications of diabetes mellitus. (2016 P2)
2) Histopathology of lung lesions of pneumococcal pneumonia. (2022 P2) 506 6) Classification of Diabetes Mellitus. (2015 P1) 822
3) Pulmonary TB in HIV infected persons is usually sputum negative. (2022 P2) 535 7) Laboratory findings in diabetes mellitus. (2010 P2)
4) Morphological changes of lung in case of tuberculosis of adults. (2021 P1) 513
5) Bronchopneumonia and lobar pneumonia are not same are not same. (2020 P2) 508 Group- D (SHORT NOTES)
6) Primary Tuberculosis can involve any segment of Lung Parenchyma. (2019 P2) 513 1) Grave’s disease. (2018 P2) 794
7) Primary and secondary tuberculosis of lungs have distinct morphology. (2016 P2) 513 2) Hashimoto’s thyroiditis. (2016 P2) 790
8) Pneumoconiosis is an inhalation disorder of mineral dust, organic and inorganic dusts 3) Hyperparathyroidism. (2014 P2) 809
particles. (2015 P2) 522 4) Glycosylated (HbA1c). (2011 P2) 832
9) Fate of primary complex of primary tuberculosis. (2013 P2) 513 5) Hashimoto’s thyroiditis. (2010 P2)
10) Primary tuberculosis of the lung. (2010 P2) 513
Group- D (SHORT NOTES)
1) Neuroendocrine tumour of lung. (2014 P2) 532
BREAST BONE
Group-A (LONG QUESTIONS) Group-B (COMMENT ON)
1) A 55-year-old female presents with painless, hard fixed lump over breast. On 1) Sequestrum leads to involucrum formation. (2023 P2) 837
examination, left axillary lymph nodes were palpable. Breast carcinoma, 785 2) Ewing sarcoma and primitive neuroectodermal tumours are unified into single
a) What is your provisional diagnosis? category. (2022 P2)
b) Enumerate risk factors of the disease. 3) Tumour arising from end of long bone may be benign or malignant. Comment with at
c) Write about the classification of this disease. least one example in each case. (2012 P2) 842
d) Describe the morphology of various types in short. 4) Pathogenesis of Chronic Osteomyelitis (2021 P2) 837-839
2) A 55-year-old lady presented with a hard non tender mass of about 5 cm in diameter
in left breast and retraction of nipple. 2+4+4 (2017 P2) Group-C (ANSWER THE FOLLOWING)
a) What is your provisional diagnosis? 1) Sequestrum. (2020 P2) 837
b) Describe the plan of investigation for the case. 2) Classification of bone tumours. (2018 P2) 841
c) Enumerate the important prognostic factors. 3) Pathogenesis of osteomyelitis. (2016 P2)
4) Radiological features of important bone tumours. (2014 P2) 844-849
Group-C (ANSWER THE FOLLOWING) 5) Pathogenesis of chronic osteomyelitis. (2012 P2)
1) Phyllodes tumour of breast is not always benign in nature. (2023 P2) 787 6) Sequestrum leads to involucrum formation. (2011 P2)
2) Role of FNAC in breast cancer. (2010 P2)
Group- D (SHORT NOTES)
Group- D (SHORT NOTES) 1) Osteogenic sarcoma. (2019 P2) 841
1) Phyllodes tumour of breast (2021 P2) 2) Giant cell tumour of bone. (2015 P2) 845
2) Fibroadenoma of breast. (2020 P2) 786 3) Osteoclastic giant cell containing lesions of the bone. (2013 P2) 845
4) Ewings sarcoma. (2010 P2) 848
FEMALE GENITALIA MALE GENITALIA
Group-B (COMMENT ON) Group-B (COMMENT ON)
1) Screening test prevents Carcinoma Cervix (2021 P1) 743 1) DHT plays a critical role in benign prostatic hyperplasia. (2022 P2) 722
2) Role of PAP smears in screening carcinoma of cervix. (2018 P2) 743 2) Seminoma and dysgerminoma are synonymous. (2019 P2) 731, 761
3) Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia. (2017 P2) 738
4) Screening based on cervical cytology is useful in the prevention of carcinoma cervix. Group- D (SHORT NOTES)
(2016 P2) 1) Pathogenesis of nodular hyperplasia of prostate. (2023 P2) 722
2) Benign hyperplasia of prostate. (2019 P2)
Group-C (ANSWER THE FOLLOWING) 3) Seminoma testis. (2018 P2) 731
1) Pathogenesis of carcinoma of cervix. (2023 P2) 738 4) Seminoma testis. (2016 P2)
2) Leiomyoma of uterus. (2023 P2) 751 5) Nodular hyperplasia of prostate. (2014 P2)
3) Morphology of teratoma of ovary. (2022 P2) 753 6) Benign hyperplasia of prostate. (2012 P2)
4) Benign mucinous tumour of Ovary (2021 P2) 756 7) Seminoma testis. (2011 P2)
5) Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia. (2019 P2) 738
6) Germ cell tumour of ovary. (2017 P2) 759 SKIN
7) Pathogenesis of carcinoma of cervix. (2015 P2)
8) Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia. (2012 P2) Group- D (SHORT NOTES)
1) Basal cell carcinoma. (2018 P2) 869
Group- D (SHORT NOTES) 2) Basal cell carcinoma. (2016 P2)
1) Benign cystic teratoma of ovary. (2020 P2) 759
2) Dermoid cyst of ovary. (2012 P2) 761
3) Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia. (2011 P2)
DIAGNOSTIC CYTOLOGY
Group-B (COMMENT ON)
1) FNAC cannot replace histological study. (2017 P2)
2) Role of exfoliative cytology in the diagnosis of neoplasm. (2013 P2) 276
3) Fine needle aspiration cytology cannot replace histological study of tissue. (2012 P2)
4) Fine needle aspiration cytology of a thyroid nodule. (2011 P2)
MISCELLANEOUS:
Group- D (SHORT NOTES)
1. Reactive Hyperplasia of Lymph Node. (2020 P2)
3) Drug antagonism (2021 P1) 28
references from Shanbhag 5th edition 4) Transdermal therapeutic system (2021 P1)
5) Volume of distribution of drugs. (2020 P1) 11
GENERAL PHARMACOLOGY 6) Therapeutic index of a drug. (2020 P1) 26
7) P- drug. (2020 P1) 34
8) Drug tolerance (Definition, Type with example). (2019 P1) 32
Group – A 9) Therapeutic drug monitoring (When required, Significant for which drugs). (2019 P1) 20
10) Sources of drugs (Different sources with examples). (2019 P1) 02
1) Enumerate different routes of drug administration. Mention the advantages and 11) Drug nomenclature (Different names with examples). (2019 P1) 02
disadvantages of intravenous route. Explain why inhalation route of drug administration 12) First pass effect (definition, significant, example) (2018 P1) 10
is preferred in the management of acute attack of bronchial asthma. 3+4+3 (2020 P1) 03 13) Physiological antagonism. (2018 P1) 28
2) Discuss biotransformation of drug. State the chemical reaction with examples which are 14) Volume of distribution. (2018 P1)
involved in drug biotransformation. Give examples of active drug generated by 15) Orphan Drug. (2017 P1) 02
biotransformation in human body. 3+3+4 (2018 P1) 13 16) Essential Drugs. (2017 P1) 01
3) What are the different routes of drug administration? What are the advantages and
17) Clinical trial. (2017 P1) 44
disadvantages of intravenous route of drug administration? What is meant by “First-pass
18) Plasma half-life. (2016 P1) 18
metabolism? 4+2+2+2 (2012 P1) 03
4) What is meant by bioavailability of drug? What are the measures/indices of 19) Loading dose. (2016 P1) 19
bioavailability? Mention the factors that influence oral bioavailability of drug. How is the 20) Plasma protein binding Drugs. (2015 P1) 12
bioavailable of an oral administered drug assessed? 1+2+3+4 (2011 P1) 09 21) Essential and orphan drugs. (2015 P1)
22) Partial agonist and inverse agonist. (2014 P1) 24
23) Drug synergism. (2014 P1) 27
Group – B (Explain Why) 24) Pharmacovigilance. (2014 P1)
25) First phase metabolism. (2014 P1) 14
26) Essential drug. (2014 P1)
1) Eliciting medical history is important for rational therapeutics. (2023 P1) 33
2) Bioavailability of a drug is dependent on several factors. (2022 P1) 09 27) Enzyme induction. (2013 P1) 16
3) Clinical trials are necessary for approval use of a drug in the community. (2022 P1) 44 28) Physical redistribution of drug. (2013 P1) 12
4) Tropical eye and skin preparations of steroids are preferred over systemic preparations. 29) Therapeutic Index. (2013 P1)
(2022 P1) 04 30) Receptor antagonist. (2013 P1) 28
5) Plasma concentration of some drugs need to be monitored therapeutically. (2014 P1) 20 31) Essential drug. (2012 P1)
6) Intravenous route ism the route of emergency. (2016 P1) 06 32) Diagnostic uses of drugs. (2011 P1)
7) In pharmacotherapeutics, children are not viewed as miniature adults. (2011 P1) 15 33) Graded dose response. (2011 P1) 26
34) Pharmacovigilance. (2010 P1)
35) Pharmacogenetics. (2010 P1) 16
36) Phase II metabolism of drugs. (2010 P1) 14
Group – C (Mechanism of Action)
1) Transdermal drug delivery system. (2017 P1) 07
2) Transdermal drug delivery system. (2016 P1)
Group – D (Short Note)
1) Pharmacovigilance. (2023 P1) 38
2) Factors modifying drug absorption. (2022 P2) 09
AUTONOMIC NERVOUS SYSTEM 3) Tamsulosin is used in hypertrophy of prostate. (2018 P1) 101
4) Atropine sulphate is not used in acute congested Glaucoma. (2017 P1) 77
5) Adrenaline injection is used in anaphylactic shock. (2017 P1) 93
Group – A 6) Beta blockers are contraindicated in peripheral vascular disease. (2016 P1) 140
1) A 72 year old female with an unremarkable past medical history presents with fever, 7) Dopamine used in cardiogenic shock. (2016 P1) 97
pain, sore throat and a tender cervical lymphadenopathy. She is diagnosed with 8) Adrenaline is the drug of choice in anaphylactic shock. (2015 P1)
streptococcal Group A pharyngitis and is treated with IM penicillin. Within few minutes 9) Adrenaline injection is given in anaphylactic shock. (2013 P1)
of the injection, the patient develops dyspnoea, tachycardia, hypotension and is noted to 10) Adrenaline injection is given in anaphylactic shock. (2012 P1)
have wheezing on examination. She is noted to have dysphagia. (2023 P1) (2+3+3+5+2) 11) Intravenous dopamine infusion in cardiogenic shock should be closely monitored. (2011
Anaphylactic shock, 90-93 P1) 77
A) What is diagnosis of the given case scenario? 12) Pralidoxime is not use in carbamate poisoning. (2011 P1) 72
B) Which drug will you use and in what dose? 13) Phenoxybenzamine is used in management of pheochromocytoma. (2010 P1) 99, 101
C) Mention the route of administration that you will prefer in this case and why? 14) Neostigmine is preferred over physostigmine in myasthenia gravis. (2010 P1) 66
D) Mention the effect of the drug you choose on patient’s vascular and respiratory 15) Metoprolol is preferred over propranolol in hypertensive patients with diabetes mellitus.
system and mention the receptors mediating such response? (2010 P1)
2) Classify anticholinesterase agents. Mention their mechanism of action in myasthenia
gravis. Outline the treatment protocol of anticholinesterase poisoning. (4+3+3) (2022 P1) Group – C (Mechanism of Action)
61, 67 1) Oximes in organophosphorus poisoning. (2020 P1) 72
3) Enumerate the drugs used for glaucoma. Write down the pharmacological basis of the 2) Acetazolamide in treatment of glaucoma. (2019 P1) 71
therapy of those drugs. Why is topical route preferred for ocular drug administration? 3) Pyridostigmine in myasthenia gravis. (2018 P1) 68
(3+5+2) (2022 P1) 70, 04 4) Adrenaline in epistaxis. (2018 P1) 93
4) Enumerate the different cholinergic receptors. Mention agonist and antagonist of each 5) Pralidoxime is used in Organo phosphorus poisoning. (2017 P1) 72
receptor. (2021 P1) 60 ? 6) Atropine sulphate as Mydriatics, cycloplegic agent. (2014 P1) 77
5) Enumerate the drugs used in the treatment of organophosphorus poisoning. Mention 7) Tamsulosin is used in benign hypertrophy of prostrate. (2014 P1) 101
the reasons of using each drug. State the dosage schedule and duration of treatment of 8) Tamsulosin in benign hypertrophy of prostate. (2012 P1)
the lifesaving drug used in the above condition. 3+4+3 (2019 P1) 72 9) Dopamine in carcinogenic Shock. (2010 P1)
6) Enumerate the drugs used in treatment of Glaucoma. Mention the reason of using each
drug. 4+6 (2016 P1) 70
7) Enumerate the anti-cholinergic drugs and their side effects. Outline the management of
case of Organo- phosphorus poisoning? 3+3+4 (2015 P1) 72, 74, 78 Group – D (Short Note)
8) Enumerate drugs used in the treatment of acute congested and chronic simple 1) Atropine substitutes. (2021 P1) 76
Glaucoma. Describe the mechanism of action of Pilocarpine in wide and narrow angle 2) Neostigmine (Therapeutic uses with reasons). (2019 P1) 66
Glaucoma. How Timolol reduces intra- ocular pressure? 4+4+2 (2014 P1) 70 3) Different clinical use of anticholinergic drug. (2018 P1) 77
9) On the occasion of a Hindu religious festival a group of men have consumed datura 4) Atropine substitute is used in preanesthetic medication. (2016 P1) 77
seeds. They were brought to a nearby hospital. Mention the signs and symptoms of this 5) Drug treatment of glaucoma. (2012 P1)
type of poisoning. Describe the pharmacological basis of treatment of the conditions.
4+6 (2013 P1) 78
Group – B (Explain Why)
1) Edrophonium may be used to differentiate between cholinergic and myasthenia crisis.
(2023 P1) 68
2) Hyoscine is preferred in the treatment of vomiting due to motion sickness. (2019 P1) 78
AUTACOIDS AND RELATED DRUGS 4)
5)
Methotrexate. (2018 P2)
Sodium Chromoglycate. (2017 P1) 270
6) Levo- cetirizine. (2015 P1) 242
Group – A 7) Misoprostol. (2015 P2) 249
8) Methotrexate. (2014 P2)
1) A middle-aged female patient at medicine OPD has presented with fatigue, weight loss,
9) Sodium Chromoglycate. (2012 P1)
joint pain, swelling, morning stiffness, joint deformity. She has been diagnosed with
rheumatic arthritis after laboratory confirmation. (2+5+4+4) (2023 P2) 261-263
a) Prepare an essential medicine list on RA.
b) How will you treat this case?
c) How do drugs modify the disease process?
d) Write down adverse effects of any one of them.
Group – B (Explain Why)
1) Low dose aspirin act as an antiplatelet agent in acute myocardial infarction. (2023 P1)
251
2) Folinic acid but not folic acid is given in methotrexate toxicity. (2023 P2) 312
3) Leucovorin rescue is mandatory in methotrexate therapy. (2022 P2) 312
4) Sumatriptan in acute attack of migraine. (2020 P1) 246
5) Paracetamol is preferred as antipyretic agent amongst NSAIDS. (2019 P1) 256
Group – C (Mechanism of Action)
1) Meclizine as antiemetic drug. (2021 P1) 241
2) Prostaglandin analogues in glaucoma. (2017 P2) 70
3) Aspirin not used in children with fever. (2017P2) 253
4) Sumatriptan in acute attack of migraine. (2017P2)
5) Promethazine in motion sickness. (2016 P1) 241
6) Sumatriptan in acute attack of migraine. (2016 P1)
7) N acetyl Cysteine is used in Paracetamol poisoning. (2016 P2) 256
8) Allopurinol in chronic gout. (2015 P2) 260
9) Triptans in migraine. (2014 P2)
10) Colchicine in Acute Gout. (2013 P2) 259
11) Methotrexate in Rheumatoid Arthritis. (2012 P2)
12) Allopurinol in chronic gout (2011 P1)
13) Antihistamines in motion sickness. (2011 P1)
14) N acetyl Cysteine in Paracetamol poisoning. (2011)
15) Indomethacin for treatment of patent ductus arteriosus. (2010 P2) 257
Group – D (Short Note)
1) Methotrexate. (2023 P2)
2) Clinical uses of prostaglandins. (2023 P2) 249
3) Allopurinol (2021 P2)
RESPIRATORY SYSTEM HORMONES AND RELATED DRUGS
Group – A Group – A
1) Classify bronchodilator agents with examples. State the adverse effects of inhaled 1) A 42 year old lady is presented with a rapid heartbeat, tremor, Weight loss, diarrhoea
steroids therapy. What would you prescribe in a patient with seasonal asthma? (5+3+2) and bulging of eyes. Her blood test reveals thyroid hormones raised. Her total T4
(2023 P1) 266-271 13µgm/dl, free T4 3µg/dl, Total T3 300 µg/dl, TSH 0.2 mU/L. (6+6+3) (2023 P2) 325-327
2) A 23 year old patient arrives at emergency with difficulty in breathing, with history of a) Enumerate the drugs to treat this.
recurrent episodes of seasonal breathlessness, relived on inhalational medication. Now b) Mention the side effects of those drugs.
the patient is diagnosed as a case if bronchial asthma. (5+5+5) (2022 P2) c) How is a case of thyroid storm treated?
a) Classify the drugs used in bronchial asthma. 2) Intensive glycaemic control and targeting normal or near-normal glucose control with
b) How will you manage a case of acute bronchial asthma? comprehensive self-management training is standard therapy in diabetes patient.
c) How do inhalational drugs act better in bronchial asthma? Enumerate the available insulin preparations. What are the therapeutic uses of insulin?
3) Enumerate the drug used in the treatment of bronchial asthma. Mention the route of What are the oral drugs used as insulin secretagogues and what are their adverse
administration of drug used in treatment of acute severe attack of bronchial asthma effects? (3+3+2+2) (2023 P2) 362-363
stating the reasons of using every drug. 3+3+4 (2018 P1) 3) Classify oral contraceptives. Describe the clinical uses of contraceptives. (5+5) (2022 P2)
4) Enumerate the different group of drugs which are used in bronchial asthma. How will 339-342
you treat a case of status asthmaticus? Name two drugs which may precipitate asthma 4) Enumerate the drugs used in NIDDM. Describe the mechanism of action of Metformin in
and how? 4+4+2 (2015 P1) diabetes mellitus. What are the adverse effects of metformin? Mention the non-diabetic
5) Outline the therapeutic regimen for a case of acute severe bronchial asthma. Enumerate indications of metformin. (2021 P2) 362-366
the drugs used in the prophylactic therapy of bronchial asthma. Why is the inhalation 5) Enumerate anti thyroid drugs. Write down therapeutic uses of iodine. Why T4 is
therapy preferred over oral medication in bronchial asthma? 6+2+2 (2014 P1) preferred over T3 in the treatment of myxoedema coma. 4+4+2 (2020 P2) 325-327
6) An eight-year old boy arrives at the emergency ward with severe respiratory distress and 6) Enumerate glucocorticoids. Mention therapeutic uses and adverse effects of
wheezing. Outline the drug management that would provide relief to the boy (with brief glucocorticoids. 3+4+3 (2019 P2) 347-354
mechanism of such action and two common adverse effects for each drug). What drugs 7) Briefly discuss the drug use in treatment of Diabetes Mellitus, including preparations of
would you prescribe to prevent future similar attacks? 2+3+3+2 (2012 P1) insulin. Outline management of Diabetic ketoacidosis. 7+3 (2018 P2) 358, 361-362
7) Enumerate the drugs for the treatment of Bronchial Asthma. Mention the mode of 8) Mention different Insulin preparation. How will you manage Hypoglycaemic Coma? 6+4
action of Salbutamol and its common side effects. 3+4+3 (2010 P1) (2017 P2) 358, 361
9) Mention different Insulin preparation. How will you manage Hypoglycaemic Coma? 6+4
(2016 P2)
10) Enumerate common use glucocorticoid. Briefly describe the role of corticoid in Bronchial
Group – B (Explain Why) asthma. Mention the contraindications of corticosteroid. Name one glucocorticoid
1) Salbutamol is a rescue drug in acute attack of bronchial asthma (2021 P1) 271
receptor antagonist with its use. (2016 P2) 270, 352-354
2) Nebulised salbutamol is used in the treatment of acute severe attack of bronchial
11) Enumerate the drug used for NIDDM. Briefly mention the mechanism of action of Insulin.
asthma. (2019 P1)
Mention the therapeutic uses of Insulin. 4+4+2 (2015 P2) 356-357, 362
3) Montelukast is not used in acute attack of bronchial Asthma. (2017 P1) 269
12) Enumerate oral antidiabetic drugs. Discuss the mechanism of action of biguanides.
4) Montelukast is not used in acute attack of bronchial Asthma. (2013 P1)
Outline the treatment of hyperosmolar diabetic coma. 3+2+5 (2014 P2) 362, 366, 361
13) Describe the drug treatment of acute thyrotoxicosis. How do you prepare the patient for
Group – D (Short Note) surgery? 6+4 (2012 P2) 326-327
1) Theophylline. (2020 P1) 267
2) Leukotriene Antagonist. (2011 P1) 269 Group – B (Explain Why)
1) Oxytocin but not ergometrine is use for induction of labour. (2023 P2) 377
2) Corticosteroid therapy over long term can be harmful. (2022 P2) 352
3) Ergometrine should not be used for induction of labour. (2022 P2) 378
4) Corticosteroid therapy is slowly tapered down. (2020 P2) 352
5) Recombinant parathyroid hormone is used to prevent osteoporosis. (2020 P2) 369
6) Iodide is used prior to thyroid surgery. (2019 P2) 326 PERIPHERAL NERVOUS SYSTEM
7) Oxytocin is drug of choice for induction of labour and not ergotamine. (2018 P2) 377
8) Mifepristone is used in medical treatment of pregnancy. (2018 P2) 339
Group – B (Explain Why)
9) Corticosteroid as anti inflammatory drug. (2018P2) 350
1. Succinyl choline can cause prolonged apnoea in some induvial. (2023 P2) 16
10) Clomiphene citrate in both male and female infertility. (2017 P2) 334
2. Inj. Thiopentone sodium is not used as a maintenance agent in general anaesthesia.
11) Lugol’s Iodine is given in pre operative preparation of thyroid surgery. (2015 P2) 326
(2022 P2) 188
12) Glucocorticoid should be tapered off gradually after long term therapy. (2014 P2)
3. Local anaesthetic is sometimes combined with adrenaline. (2019 P1) 192
13) Alfacalcidiol is effective in Renal Rickets. (2014 P2) 373
14) Lugol’s iodine is used for preoperative preparation of thyroidectomy. (2013 P2)
15) Clomiphene citrate is indicated in the treatment of infertility. (2013 P2)
Group – D (Short Note)
1. Lignocaine. (2012 P2) 195
16) Glucocorticoids should not be withdrawn suddenly after prolonged therapy. (2012 P2)
17) Oxytocin and methylergometrine - both are routinely requisitioned in an obstetric care
unit. (2011 P2)
18) Sildenafil is not safe for patient on nitrate therapy. (2010 P1) 330
19) Long term use of glucocorticoids is potentially hazardous. (2010 P2)
Group – C (Mechanism of Action)
1. Carbimazole as antithyroid drug (2021 P2) 325
2. Carbimazole is an antithyroid drug. (2018 P2)
3. Clomiphene citrate in both male and female infertility. (2016 P2)
4. Raloxifene in post-menopausal osteoporosis. (2015 P2) 336
5. Oxytocin for induction of labour. (2015 P2) 376
6. Propylthiouracil in hyperthyroidism. (2014 P2) 326
7. Corticosteroids as anti-inflammatory agent. (2013 P2) 350
8. DPP4 inhibitor in Type 2 diabetes mellitus. (2013 P2) 367
9. Tamoxifen in breast carcinoma. (2012 P2) 335
10. Combined oral contraceptive pills. (2011 P2) 339
11. Metformin in diabetes mellitus. (2011 P2) 366
12. Combined oral contraceptive steroids. (2010 P2)
Group – D (Short Note)
1. Pharmacotherapy of diabetic ketoacidosis. (2022 P2) 361
2. Bisphosphonates (2021 P2) 374
3. Insulin resistance (Definition, Treatment). (2019 P2) 361
4. Tamoxifen (Use with reasons). (2019 P2)
5. Emergency Contraceptive. (2014 P2) 342
6. Anabolic steroids. (2013 P2) 329
7. Glimepiride. (2013 P2) 362
8. Magnesium sulphate. (2011 P1) 379
9. Radioactive iodine. (2010 P2) 326
10. Bisphosphonate. (2010 P2)
CENTRAL NERVOUS SYSTEM 12. Propofol is a popular I.V. anaesthetic agent. (2010 P2) 187
Group – C (Mechanism of Action)
Group – A 1. Lithium in Bipolar disorder. (2020 P2) 235
1. Enumerate the drugs useful to treat parkinsonism. Mention mechanism of action and 2. Ketamine as anaesthetic agent. (2019 P2) 186
side effects of levo dopa. What is the meaning of imagery parkinsonism? (4+2+2+2) 3. Escitalopram as antidepressive agent. (2019P2) 232
(2023 P2) 219-221
4. Sodium Valproate as antiepileptic drug. (2018P2) 206
2. A 45-year-old male visits to OPD with complaints of insomnia due to stress in the office.
5. Benzodiazepine as sedative hypnotic. (2018P2) 177
He was prescribed benzodiazepines as hypnotic. (2+4+4+5) (2022 P2) 176-177, 180
6. Benzodiazepine as hypnotic. (2016 P2)
• Enumerate two benzodiazepines used as hypnotics.
7. Succinyl Choline as muscle relaxants. (2016P2) 81
• Discuss mechanism of action and therapeutic uses of benzodiazepines as
8. Glycopyrrolate as pre anaesthetic medication. (2015 P1) 189
hypnotics.
9. Naloxone in morphine overdose. (2015 P2) 214
• Compare and contrast: Benzodiazepi9nes and barbiturates.
3. Enumerate the drugs used in the treatment of epilepsy. Mention therapeutic uses and
adverse effects of phenytoin sodium. 4+3+3 (2019 P2) 201-204 Group – D (Short Note)
4. Enumerate the drug used to treat Parkinsonism. Outline treatment of drug induced 1. Dissociative anaesthesia (2021 P2) 188
Parkinsonism. Mention the side effect of levodopa. Mention the benefits of dopamine 2. Prazosin. (2020 P1) 100
agonists. 3+3+2+2 (2018 P2) 219-223 3. Pre-anaesthetic medication (Name the drugs used with reasons). (2019 P2) 189
5. Enumerate the Anti-Epileptic drugs. Mention the mechanism of action, therapeutic uses, 4. Benzodiazepines (Examples, Uses). (2019 P2) 176
and adverse drug reaction of Phenytoin sodium. 4+2+2+2 (2017 P2) 5. Non depolarizing muscle relaxants. (2018 P2) 82
6. Enumerate the antiepileptic drugs. Discuss the mechanism of action of sodium valproate 6. Dissociative anaesthesia. (2017 P2)
as an anticonvulsant. Outline the treatment strategy of status epilepticus. (2014 P2) 7. Dissociative anaesthesia. (2016 P2)
7. Enumerate antiepileptic drugs. Mention the mechanism of action and adverse effects of
8. Lithium. (2015 P2) 235
Phenytoin. 4+3+3 (2012 P2)
9. Pre-anaesthetic medication. (2015 P2)
8. Enumerate drugs (analgesic or non-analgesic) used in the treatment of four different
10. Levodopa. (2015 P2) 219
pain conditions. Briefly outline the mechanism of action of any one situation. Comment
on the safety concern associated with the NSAIDS. Enumerate opioid receptor 11. Propofol. (2014 P2) 187
antagonist and mention their uses. 4+2+2+2 (2011 P2) 217, Neuralgia, Gout, Arthritis, 12. Use of Carbamazepine. (2012 P2) 205
Migraine 13. Lithium carbonate. (2011 P2) 235
9. Enumerate drugs acting via benzodiazepine-GABA-A receptor complex channel. Discuss 14. Sodium valproate. (2010 P2) 206
the therapeutic use of benzodiazepine and the treatment of its overdose. 4+4+2 (2010 15. Levodopa. (2010 P2)
P2) 176-179
Group – B (Explain Why)
1. Patients on MAO inhibitors should avoid food with high tyramine content. (2023 P2) 233
2. Tricyclic antidepressants are not preferred in elderly male subjects. (2022 P2) 231
3. Sodium Valproate as antiepileptic (2021 P2) 206
4. Barbiturates poisoning is more detrimental than benzodiazepine. (2021 P2)
5. Trihexyphenidyl is used in the treatment of drug induced extrapyramidal disorder. (2019
P2) 213
6. Methadone is used in morphine withdrawal therapy. (2018 P2) 213
7. Morphine used in pulmonary Oedema. (2017 P2) 217
8. Carbidopa cannot be used as monotherapy in Parkinson’s disease. (2016 P2) 221
9. Levodopa is combined with carbidopa in treatment of Parkinsonism. (2013 P2) 221
10. Methadone is used in morphine withdrawal. (2012 P2)
11. Patients of Parkinson’s disease on L-Dopa therapy are cautioned not to self-medication
with OTC multivitamin preparation. (2011 P2)
CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM 7. Alteplase is preferred over streptokinase in acute myocardial infarction. (2015 P1) 305
8. Low dose aspirin is used as anti-platelet agents. (2014 P1) 251
9. In angina pectoris Isosorbide dinitrate is administered sublingually. (2012 P1) 136
Group – A 10. Low dose aspirin is advised as prophylaxis after myocardial infarction. (2012 P1)
1. A 60 year old male patient is admitted to hospital with shortness of breath, swelling of
legs, pallor and palpitation. On examination, he was diagnosed to be a case of heart
failure. (6+4+2+3) (2023 P1) 148, 155, 150 Group – C (Mechanism of Action)
A) Enumerate the drug useful to treat heart failure with rationality. 1. Atorvastatin as hypolipidemic drug. (2020 P1) 183
B) Outline the management of acute heart failure. 2. Ramipril in the treatment of congestive cardiac failure. (2019 P1) 149
C) What is ARNI and its role in heart failure? 3. Frusemide in treatment of left ventricular Failure. (2018 P1) 112
2. A middle-aged person climbing stairs suddenly felt severe compressing retrosternal pain 4. Nitrate in angina. (2018 P1) 137
radiating to the left shoulder and along flexor surface of left arm is brought to 5. Low dose aspirin in acute myocardial infraction. (2015 P1)
emergency. (3+3+3+3+3) (2022 P1) 157 6. GTN in Angina Pectoris. (2013 P1) 137
A) Name t6wo drugs that can be given sublingually in this condition. 7. Olmesartan as antihypertensive agent. (2013 P1) 126
B) How much of these drugs are to be given till he is free of pain? 8. Statins as hypolipidemic agents. (2011 P1) 163
C) Why are these drugs given sublingually and not orally? 9. Nifedipine in treatment of hypertension. (2010 P1) 141
D) What are the other drugs which relieve the patient of this condition? 10. Verapamil in cardiac arrhythmia. (2010 P1) 161
E) Discuss the drugs which are used for prophylaxis of myocardial infarction.
3. Enumerate the drugs used in CHF. Mention the mechanism of action of any two types of
drugs in this condition. (2021 P1) 148
Group – D (Short Note)
4. Enumerate drugs used in the treatment of Angina pectoris. Describe the 1. Amlodipine. (2015 P1) 141
pharmacological action, therapeutic and adverse effects of nitrates. 3+3+2+2 (2020 P1) 2. Losartan. (2013 P1) 126
136-138
5. Enumerate the drugs used in the treatment of essential hypertension. Mention the
drugs preferred in the treatment of hypertension when it is associated with diabetes
mellitus with reasons. 4+3+3 (2019 P1) 121, 133, 125, 126
6. Enumerate antihypertensive drugs. Outline the management of hypertensive
emergency. Mention the side effect of ACE inhibitors. 4+4+2 (2017 P1)
7. Enumerate drugs used in Angina Pectoris. Outline the mechanism of action of nitrates.
Outline the management of unstable angina. 4+4+2(2017 P1)
8. Enumerate drugs used in chronic heart failure. Mention the role of diuretics in heart
failure. Outline the management of acute left ventricular failure. 4+2+4 (2016 P1)
9. Give an outline of an ideal therapeutic regimen for a patient suffering from congestive
cardiac failure. What are the possible cardiac toxic effects of digitalis therapy and what
are the early indications of toxicity? 7+2+1 (2013 P1) 152-153
10. Enumerate the drugs used in the treatment of congestive cardiac failure. Discuss the
adverse effect and the status of Digoxin in the treatment of congestive Heart Failure.
4+3+3(2010 P1)
Group – B (Explain Why)
1. Addition of Ezetimibe to Atorvastatin is therapeutically beneficial. (2023 P1) 166
2. Beta blockers are useful in several cardiovascular conditions. (2022 P1) 102
3. Propranolol is contraindicated in variant angina. (2021 P1) 140
4. Telmisartan as antihypertensive. (2020 P1) 126
5. Telmisartan is used in hypertension. (2018 P1)
6. Thiazide diuretics may be prescribed in Diabetes insipidus. (2018 P1) 127
DRUGS ACTING ON KIDNEY GASTROINTESTINAL SYSTEM
Group – A Group – A
1. Enumerate six classes of drugs that act on Renin Angiotensin Aldosterone axis. State four 1) Enumerate the drugs used in peptic ulcer. How will you manage a case of Helicobacter
clinical conditions where ACE inhibitors may be used. (6+4) (2023 P1) 121, 125 pylori infection? (5+5) (2022 P2) 288-289, 293
2. A 50-year-old male patient attended medicine OPD having cirrhosis of liver with oedema. 2) Classify & enumerate drugs used for peptic ulcer. Discuss the mechanism of action of
Thiazide and loop diuretics failed to control oedema. (3+3+2+4+3) (2022 P1) 113, 115, proton pump inhibitor. Mention effective regimen for eradication of H. pylori infection.
111 4+3+3 (2020 P2)
A) Explain why these two diuretics failed to respond.
B) Which diuretic is effective in this case and why? Group – B (Explain Why)
C) Why are loop diuretics called high ceiling diuretics? 1. Ondansetron is drug of choice in chemotherapy induced emesis. (2018 P1) 275
D) Describe blood electrolyte profile following thiazide therapy. 2. Cisapride has been withdrawal in some countries. (2010 P2) 278
E) Can osmotic diuretics be effective in this patient?
3. Name three drugs (of different Categories) that act by modifying the renin-angiotensin
system. Mention one indication for each and outline the rationale for such use. Which Group – C (Mechanism of Action)
one(s) of these three drugs do you think should be included in the national essential 1. Ondansetron as antiemetic agent. (2021 P2) 275
medicines list of India and why? 2+2+3+1+2 (2011 P1) 121 2. Lactulose in hepatic encephalopathy. (2020P2) 286
3. Sucralfate in the treatment of peptic ulcer. (2019 P1) 292
Group – B (Explain Why) 4. Pantoprazole in acid-peptic disease. (2017 P1) 289
1. Complications of long-term thiazide therapy. (2023 P1) 115 5. Levosulpride as prokinetic agent. (2017 P1) 279
2. Furosemide is the drug of choice in acute pulmonary oedema. (2021 P1) 113 6. Pantoprazole in peptic ulcer. (2014 P2)
3. Spironolactone in cirrhosis of liver. (2020 P1) 115 7. Mosapride is prokinetic agent. (2013 P1) 278
4. Furosemide is combined with spironolactone as diuretics. (2015 P1) 112-113 8. Bisacodyl as purgatives. (2013 P2) 285
5. Furosemide is used in acute left ventricular failure. (2014 P1) 113 9. Domperidone as antiemetic. (2012 P2) 275
10. Lactulose in hepatic encephalopathy. (2011P2)
Group – C (Mechanism of Action) 11. Ondansetron as antiemetic agent. (2010 P2)
1. Solifenacin in symptomatic treatment of increased frequency of micturition. (2021 P1) 76
2. Solifenacin in hyperactive urinary bladder. (2020 P1)
3. ACE inhibitors induces cough. (2015 P1) 123
4. Thiazides as Antihypertensive agent. (2014 P1) 127
Group – D (Short Note)
1. Omeprazole. (2015 P1) 289
5. ACE inhibitors as antihypertension. (2012 P1) 123
2. Ondansetron. (2013 P2) 275
6. Thiazides in the treatment of mild to moderate hypertension. (2012 P2)
Group – D (Short Note)
1. Furosemide. (2017 P1) 112
2. Furosemide. (2012 P1)
DRUGS AFFECTING BLOOD & BLOOD FORMATION 5. Low molecular weight heparin. (2016 P1)
6. Thrombolytic drugs. (2010 P1)
7. Parenteral iron therapy. (2010 P1)
Group – A
1) Once megaloblastic anaemia is identified, why is it important to measure serum
concentration of both folic acid and cobalamin? What should be the treatment regimen
of a person of pernicious anaemia? (2023 P1) 312
2) Enumerate the iron preparations used in iron deficiency anaemia and mention their
adverse drug reactions. (2022 P1) 309
Group – B (Explain Why)
1. Desferrioxamine to remove excess iron in the body of thalassemia patients. (2022 P1)
311
2. Desferrioxamine is used in Thalassemia (2021 P1)
3. Vitamin K is used in overdose of oral anticoagulant. (2020 P1) 301
4. Vitamin K is used in warfarin toxicity. (2018 P1)
5. LMH Heparin is superior to conventional Heparin. (2017 P1) 300
6. Vitamin K is used in treatment of warfarin overdose. (2016 P1)
7. Iron therapy is contraindicated in Thalassemia. (2015 P1)
8. Desferioxamine is used in patient of thalassaemia. (2015 P2)
9. Desferioxamine is used in iron poisoning. (2014 P1)
10. Iron and folate supplementation are recommended during pregnancy. (2013 P1) 310
11. Low molecular weight heparin preparations are superior. (2013 P1)
12. Folic acid should not give alone in megaloblastic anaemia. (2012 P1) 312
13. Folic acid supplementation is advocated in early pregnancy. (2011 P1)
Group – C (Mechanism of Action)
1. Ticagrelor as antiplatelet agent (2021 P1) 306
2. Erythropoietin in anaemia. (2020 P1) 313
3. Warfarin sodium as anticoagulant. (2019 P1) 301
4. Clopidrogrel as anti-platelet agent. (2016 P1) 306
5. Heparin as anticoagulant. (2015 P1) 298
6. Clopidrogrel as anti-platelet agent. (2014 P1)
7. Cyanocobalamin as haematinic agent. (2013 P1)
8. Vitamin K as pro-coagulant. (2012 P1) 297
9. Low molecular heparin in deep vein thrombosis. (2012 P1)
10. Low molecular heparin in deep vein thrombosis. (2011 P1)
11. Warfarin as an oral anti-coagulant. (2010 P1)
Group – D (Short Note)
1. Parenteral iron therapy (2021 P1) 309
2. Thrombolytic drugs (2021 P1) 304
3. Low molecular weight heparin. (2018 P1)
4. Erythropoietin. (2017 P2)
ANTI MICROBIAL & ANTI CANCER AGENTS 15. Metronidazole is to be avoided in chronic alcoholics. (2014 P2) 199-200
16. Concomitant use of Rifampicin and oral contraceptives should better be avoided. (2013
P2) 16
Group – A 17. Metronidazole should not he advised to chronic alcoholic persons. (2012 P2)
1. Classify antiretroviral drugs. Write down the mechanism of action of Dolutegravir. Write 18. Doxycycline is proffered over other tetracycline. (2012 P2)447
two adverse effects of protease inhibitors. (5+3+2) (2023 P2) 452, 459 19. Oral chloroquine therapy in malaria is stared with a loading dose. (2011 P2)
2. Write a note on prophylactic treatment of malaria. Outline mechanism of action and four 20. Probenecid is combined with penicillin. (2011 P2) 404
adverse effects of chloroquine. (5+3+2) (2022 P2) 464-465 21. Azithromycin is considered superior to Erythromycin. (2010 P2) 420
3. Classify antimalarial drugs. Write down the specific drug therapy of severe malaria. Write
chemoprophylaxis of malaria. Write the reason behind using primaquine in malaria.? Group – C (Mechanism of Action)
(2021 P2) 462-468 1. Rifampicin (mechanism of action, therapeutic uses, ADR) (2022 P2) 431
4. Enumerate the drugs used in treatment of malaria. Briefly discuss the drug treatment of 2. Pyridoxine in tuberculosis (2021 P1) 262
chloroquine resistant uncomplicated falciparum malaria. Mention the therapeutic uses 3. Methotrexate (2021 P2) 262
of chloroquine. (2015 P2) 4. Ivermectin (2021 P2) 482
5. Describe antiretroviral drugs. Discuss different regimens and underlying mechanisms 5. Desferrioxamine in iron toxicity. (2020 P2)
recommended for the treatment of AIDS. 5+5 (2013 P2) 452-459 6. Liposomal Amphotericin B in Kala azar. (2020 P2) 443
6. Give an outline of the drug treatment of acute Rheumatic fever in both adult and 7. Penicillin in the treatment of gram-positive infection (2019 P2) 399
children). For prevention of recurrences of such cases, what drugs should you prescribe 8. Ciprofloxacin as antibacterial agent. (2019 P2) 394
and how long the prophylactic treatment should continue? 7+2+1 (2013 P2) ? 9. Aminoglycoside antibiotics (Examples, Common characteristics). (2019 P2) 410
7. Classify the drugs used in the treatment of pulmonary tuberculosis. Explain why anti- 10. Itraconazole as anti-fungal agent. (2017 P2) 449
tuberculosis drugs are used in combination. Mention the commonly encountered 11. Itraconazole as anti-fungal agent. (2016 P2)
adverse reactions of drugs antituberculosis. How would you treat a case of multi-drug 12. Fluconazole as antifungal agent. (2014 P2) 449
resistant tuberculosis. 3+2+3+2 (2011 P2) 430-436 13. Acyclovir in treatment of herpes virus infection. (2010 P2) 453
8. Enumerate drugs used for chloroquine resistant P. falciparum malaria. Describe drug
treatment of uncomplicated falciparum malaria mentioning the dosage regimes and Group – D (Short Note)
important adverse effects of drugs used. 2+5+3 (2010 P2) 462-465
1. Chemoprophylaxis (2021 P2) 385
2. Post exposure prophylaxis in HIV. (2020 P2) 461
Group – B (Explain Why) 3. Chloroquine. (2020 P2) 464
1. Clavulanic acid is added with beta lactam antibiotics. (2023 P2) 405 4. Methotrexate. (2020 P2)
2. Tetracycline should not be given to pregnant woman. (2021 P2) 416, bones and teeth 5. Monoclonal antibody (nomenclature, generations, uses). (2020 P2)
3. Multiple drugs are used to treat tuberculosis. (2021 P2) 434 6. Antibiotic resistance. (2020 P2) 383
4. Amikacin as antimicrobial agent. (2020 P2) 413 7. Lepra Reaction. (2018 P2) 442
5. Rifampicin is used once in a month in the treatment of leprosy. (2019 P2) 441 8. Amphotericin B. (2018 P2) 443
6. Primaquine is used both in the treatment of vivax and falciparum malaria. (2019 P2) 468 9. Post exposure prophylaxis of HIV. (2018 P2)
7. Multidrug combination therapy is essential for treatment of tuberculosis. (2018 P2) 10. Lamivudine. (2017 P2) 458
8. Multi Drug therapy in Leprosy. (2017 P2) 442 11. β Lactam antibiotics. (2017 P2) 398
9. Combination therapy is usually beneficial over single drug therapy in malaria. (2017 P2) 12. Metronidazole. (2017 P2) 473
KDT 874 13. Lamivudine. (2016 P2)
10. Multi Drug therapy in Leprosy. (2016 P2) 14. Rifampicin. (2016 P2) 431
11. Metronidazole is combined with Diloxinide Furoate in the treatment of internal 15. HAART therapy. (2016 P2) 459
amoebiasis. (2016 P2) 475 16. Amikacin. (2016 P2)
12. Fixed dose combination is used in cotrimoxazole. (2015 P2) 392 17. Super infection. (2014 P2) 384
13. Multi Drug therapy in tuberculosis. (2015 P2) 18. Chloroquine. (2014 P2)
14. Ciprofloxacin and theophylline should not be co prescribed. (2014 P2) 395 19. Ketoconazole. (2013 P2) 448
20. Meropenem. (2013 P2) 409
21. Azithromycin. (2012 P1) 420
MISCELLANEOUS DRUGS
22. Albendazole. (2012 P2) 479
23. Ciprofloxacin. (2012 P2) 395 Group – B (Explain Why)
24. Rifampicin. (2012 P2) 1. Ethanol is used in the treatment of Methanol Poisoning. (2020 P2) 200
25. Antibiotic associated diarrhoea. (2011 P2)
26. Mebendazole. (2011 P2) 478 Group – D (Short Note)
27. Chemoprophylaxis, (2011 P2) 1. Interferons (2021 P2) 456
28. Therapeutic uses of fluoroquinolones. (2010P2) 395 2. Anti – snake venom. (2016 P1) 511
3. Interferons. (2015 P2)
4. d-Penicillamine. (2011 P1) 263
5. chelating agent. (2011) 496
10. Bacteriophages may cause genetic alterations in bacteria. (2014 P1) 45
REFERENCES FROM APURBA SHASTRY 11. Phages are important tools for gene transfer in bacteria. (2013 P1)
4TH EDITION 12. Antimicrobial resistance may be due to several factors. (2014 P1) 56
13. Plasmid has an important role in transfer of drug resistance in bacteria. (2012 P1) 44
14. Cultivation of virus needs Special techniques. (2020 P2) 79
GENERAL MICROBIOLOGY 15. ^Viruses can be cultivated. (2014 P1)
16. ^Cytopathic effects (CPE) help in viral diagnosis. (2019 P2)
Group-A (Long Question) 17. Interferon has some role in the containment of viral infection. (2013 P2) 80
1) What is flagella? How will you demonstrate it? (5+5) (2022 P1) 17 18. Autoinfection can occur in some worm infections: comment on. (2010 P2) 90
19. SDA is said to be a selective media for fungal growth. (2021 P1) 103
Group-B (Short Note) 20. ^SDA medium is a selective medium for fungal culture. (2017 P2)
1. Koch’s postulates. (2022 P1) 04
2. Bacterial cell wall. (2019 P1) 14
Group-D (Difference)
3. Bacterial Capsule. (2020 P1) 17 1. Eukaryote and prokaryote. (2015 P1)
4. ^Bacterial capsule. (2016 P1) 2. ^Gram positive and Gram-negative cell wall. (2021 P1)
5. ^Bacterial capsule. (2011 P1) 3. ^Cell wall of gram positive and gram-negative bacteria. (2016 P1)
6. Bacterial motility. (2018 P1) 17-18 4. ^Gram positive and Gram-negative bacterial cell wall. (2014 P1)
7. Bacterial spore. (2021 P1) 17 5. Flagella and Fimbria. (2020 P1) 17-18
8. Bacterial spore. (2017 P1) 6. ^Flagella and fimbriae. (2011 P1)
9. ^Bacterial spore. (2015 P1) 7. Lag phase and log phase. (2012 P1) 20
10. ^Bacterial spore. (2010 P1) 8. Transcription and translation. (2018 P1) 44
11. LJ media (2021 P1) 520 9. Exotoxin and endotoxin. (2018 P1) 61
12. Transport media. (2014 P1) 28 10. ^Exotoxin and endotoxin. (2014 P1)
13. Transport media. (2010 P1) 11. Streptococcus and staphylococcus (2021 P1)
14. Enrichment media. (2013 P1) 27 12. Bacteria & Virus. (2020 P2)
15. Mutation. (2012 P1) 44
13. Definitive host and intermediate host. (2016 P2)
16. Plasmid. (2011 P1) 44
14. Floatation and sedimentation method of stool concentration technique. (2014 P1)
17. Inclusion Body. (2019 P2) 77
18. ^Inclusion bodies. (2017 P2) 15. Cestode and nematode (2013 P2)
19. ^Inclusion Body. (2011 P2)
20. Cytopathogenic effects. (2014 P1) 80
21. Opportunistic mycoses. (2018 P2) 105
22. ^Opportunistic fungi. (2014 P1)
Group-C (Comment on)
1. Cell wall of gram-positive bacteria differs a lot from that of gram-negative bacteria.
(2022 P1) 15-16
2. MacConkey agar is a selective and indicator media. (2022 P1) 28
3. All bacteria do not obey Koch’s postulate. (2015 P1) 04
4. Structure of Gram-positive cell wall is different from that of Gram-negative organism
(2012 P1)
5. India ink preparation is an important technique of laboratory diagnosis. (2018 P2) 23
6. Anaerobic bacteria need special culture techniques. (2020 P1) 31
7. ^Anaerobic bacteria do not grow on routinely prepared culture media. (2010 P1)
8. There are many ways for genetic alteration in bacteria. (2017 P1) 45
9. Lysogenic cycle. (2010 P2) 47
IMMUNOLOGY Group-D (Difference)
1. Active immunity & passive immunity. (2020 P1) 123
Group-A (Long Question) 2. Difference between primary and secondary immune response. (2018 P1)
3. ^Primary immune response and secondary immune recponse. (2017 P1)
1) Briefly describe the mechanism of anaphylaxis. Enumerate the chemical mediators
4. Primary and secondary immunity. (2014 P1)
released in such reactions with their significant role. (5+5) (2023 P1). 175-176
5. Agglutination and precipitation. (2011 P1) 138
2) Define hypersensitivity. Discuss Type IV hypersensitivity. Write down the role of
6. Immunofluorescence and ELISA. (2013 P1) 140-143
complement in hypersensitivity. (2+4+4) (2022 P1) 179-180
7. CD4+ and CD8+ lymphocytes. (2012 P1) 157
8. T lymphocytes and B lymphocytes. (2019 P1) 158
Group-B (Short Note)
9. ^T lymphocyte and B lymphocyte. (2013 P1)
1. Type II hypersensitivity. (2023 P1) 177
10. Immediate and delayed hypersensitivity. (2015 P1) 174
2. Primary immune response. (2013 P1) 123
11. Live and killed vaccine. (2018 P2) 196
3. Heterophile antigen. (2012 P1) 126
4. IgA. (2010 P1)
5. IgM. (2011 P1) 131
6. IgA. (2018 P1) 132
7. ^IgA. (2016 P1)
8. IgE. (2013 P1) 133
9. ^IgE. (2012 P1)
10. Monoclonal antibody. (2014 P1) 133
11. Prozone phenomena. (2014 P1) 139
12. ELISA. (2020 P1) 140
13. ^ELISA test. (2017 P1)
14. Cytokine. (2015 P1) 162
15. Type 1 Hypersensitivity reaction. (2021 P1) 175
16. Type 3 Hypersensitivity. (2019 P1) 178
Group-C (Comment on)
1. Anaphylaxis is an immunological mediated process. (2022 P1) 175
2. Complement takes part in both adaptive and innate immunity. (2015 P1) 123
3. For the diagnosis of infective conditions, a rise in titre of antibodies is more meaningful.
(2016 P1) 122 Graph
4. Secondary immune response is more prompt than primary response (2021 P1) 122-123
5. Unrelated antigen may be used as diagnostic test. (2011 P1) 126, Heterophile antigen
6. Weil- Felix is a heterophile agglutination test. (2010 P1) 126
7. IgE immunoglobulin mediates type I hypersensitivity. (2011 P1) 175
8. C3 plays the pivotal role in complement activation. (2017 P1) 147
9. T- helper cell in immunological response. (2016 P1) 167
10. Cell mediated immunity is important for recovery from viral infection. (2012 P1) 168
11. Immediate hypersensitivity reaction can be fatal. (2018 P1) 175
12. Self antigens are usually non antigenic, but there are exceptions. (2014 P1) 182
13. Live vaccines are more potent than killed vaccines. (2015 P1) 196
14. Passive immunisation is helpful in certain condition. (2016 P1) 199
HOSPITAL INFECTION CONTROL BLOODSTREAM AND CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM
Group-A (Long Question) Group-A (Long Question)
1) Describe cold sterilisation. Give examples. Mention five commonly used disinfectants 1. A 9-year-old girl is admitted to the paediatric ward with history of fever not touching the
and their recommended concentrations. (5+5) (2023 P1) 228 baseline and is gradually increasing over the past 6 days. She was having pain in
2) Name some HAI (hospital Acquired Infections). How they can be prevented? (5+5) (2022 abdomen, loss of appetite and general weakness. On examination, she was found to
P1) 204 have a temperature of 1010F, pallor, coated tongue, mild splenomegaly, and abdominal
Group-B (Short Note) tenderness. (1+2+8+2+2) (2023 P1) Enteric fever, 262, 264-266
1. Sterilisation. (2016 P1) 220 A) What is the clinical condition?
2. Fumigation of Operation Theatre. (2019 P1) 229 B) What are the likely bacterial agents involved?
C) How will you establish the etiological diagnosis 48in the laboratory?
Group-C (Comment on) D) Outline the treatment guideline in this case.
1. Hospital acquired infection. (2018 P1) (CAUTI, CLABSI, VAP, SSI) 204 E) Can you prevent such infection?
2. Quality control is essential to maintain proper function of autoclave. (2020 P1) 223 2. A male patient from Bihar attended OPD with fever, anaemia, and huge enlarged spleen
3. Moist heat sterilization is more efficient than dry heat. (2021 P1) 223 for last 6 months. He is also having black discolouration of skin. (2+2+6+5) Visceral
4. ^Moist heat sterilization is more efficient than dry heat. (2019 P1) leishmaniasis, 311-314
5. Microbiological wastes should be segregated before disposal. (2021 P1) 232
a) What is the most probable diagnosis and what is the vector?
6. ^Microbiological wastes should be segregated before disposal. (2013 P1)
b) Which protozoa is responsible for this?
7. Post exposure prophylaxis. (2010 P2) See Pharmacology Antimicrobials and
c) Describe the immunopathogenesis of the disease.
chemotherapy.
d) How will you diagnose the case in laboratory?
Group-D (Difference) 3. How will you collect the sample for laboratory diagnosis of B.T. malaria? Discuss with
labelled diagram of any one form of parasite present in this condition. (4+6) (2023 P1)
1. Sterilization and disinfection. (2018 P1) 220
2. Antiseptic and disinfectants. (2015 P1) 306-307
3. Dry heat and moist heat sterilisation. (2013 P1) 4. A 25-year-old male patient was brought to the emergency with the complaints of altered
4. Tyndallisation & Inspissation. (2017 P1) 228 sensorium. Patient party gave history of high fever for last 3 days with headache and
vomiting. On examination, it was found that mild hepatosplenomegaly was also there.
(1+1+3+6+4) (2022 P1) Malaria, 305-309
a) What is your clinical diagnosis?
b) Name the parasite causing this condition.
c) Briefly write about the pathogenesis of this condition.
d) How can you establish the etiological diagnosis in the laboratory?
e) What are the complications that can occur due to this parasite?
5. A 40-year-old woman comes to OPD with unexplained fever, sever weight loss of more
than 10% and chronic diarrhoea of more than 1 month. Her husband, a 48-year-old truck
driver gave history of repeated unprotected sexual exposure. (1+1+5+5+3) (2022 P1)
AIDS, 287-290
a) What is your probable clinical diagnosis?
b) Name the causative organism.
c) Write down the laboratory diagnosis for the clinical condition.
d) What are the opportunistic infections that might develop in the patient with
progress of the disease?
e) What is window period in respect to this clinical condition?
6. Name some TTI (Transfusion Transmitted infections). How will you diagnose a suspected 14. What are the arboviruses prevalent in India? Name the causative organisms of viral
case of benign tertian malaria. (5+5) (2022 P2) 691, 308 haemorrhagic Fever. Describe the pathogenesis of Dengue shock syndrome. 3+3+4
7. A 40-year-old man came to the OPD with a history of fever for 2 weeks. He had coated (2015 P2) Similar to Q12
tongue, relative bradycardia, mild hepatosplenomegaly, and a rash of Roseola spots. 15. A middle-aged man presented with alternate day sudden onset fever associated with
What is your diagnosis? What are the causative organisms? How will you proceed for the chill and rigor for the last 10 days. Fever associated with sweating within a few hours. On
diagnosis? 1+2+7 (2021 P1) Typhoid Enteric Fever examination, he was found to be a anaemic and have mild hepatomegaly. What might
8. A 25 year female patient was brought to the hospital who has been suffering from fever be the most probable clinical condition? Enumerate the possible etiological agent. What
and weakness for last 10 days. Physical examination revealed raised body temperature are the routes of entry of such agents? Describe the laboratory diagnosis of search
and there was relative bradycardia, coated tongue, splenomegaly, and hepatomegaly. Condition. 1+2+1+6 (2017 P2) Malaria Every 48 hours > P. ovale, P. vivax, P. falciparum.
Write the probable clinical diagnosis. Name the causative bacterial agent. Describe the 16. A 30-year-old cachectic male migrant labour from attended the medical OPD with
laboratory diagnosis of such a case. Mention how occurrence of such disease can be complain of fever, severe weakness, pallor, and palpitation. On examination he had
prevented. 2+1+5+2 (2017 P1) Similar to Q1 hepatomegaly and huge splenomegaly. What is the clinical diagnosis and the causative
9. An adult male suffering from continuous fever for five days is brought to the hospital. On agent of this condition? How will you confirm the diagnosis in the laboratory? 1+1+8
physical examination he had coated tongue, mild splenomegaly, and relative (2016 P2) **Malaria [Note: Cachexia (wasting syndrome) is an independent prognostic
bradycardia. What is your provisional diagnosis? Name the causative bacteria. How will marker of survival in many chronic diseases including heart failure and malaria]
you establish the laboratory diagnosis? Name the vaccines used for prevention of this 17. A 35-year-old man, who is a security guard by profession and working at Kolkata was
disease. 1+2+5+2 (2011 P1) Similar to Q1 brought to the emergency room of your hospital with fever, headache and diarrhoea. As
10. A 38-year-old woman comes to the OPD with unexplained fever, severe weight loss of stated, the fever is accompanied by chill and rigor and coming intermittently for last 10
more than 10% and chronic diarrhoea of more than 1 month. Her husband, a 45-year- days. Each episode of fever persists for few hours and comes down with profuse
old truck driver, gave history of repeated exposure. What is the probable clinical sweating. For these symptoms he had been treated with some antibiotics by local
diagnosis? Name the agent/agents responsible for the condition. What laboratory medical practitioner. At the time of examination, his body temperature was raised,
methods are available for diagnosis of the condition? What fungal and parasitic infection blood pressure was 110/70 and spleen was palpable. Name the probable clinical
might develop in this patient with the progress of the disease? 1+1+5+3 (2019 P2) diagnosis. The common causative micro- organism(s) and the vector implicated.
HIV/AIDS Clinical Stage 3 (WHO Classification) Describe the laboratory diagnosis of such a case. 1+2+1+6 (2013 P2) **Malaria (with
11. A 30-year-old man, truck driver by profession, complained of generalized weakness diarrhoea??)
along with persistent diarrhoea for one month and loss of weight. He had history of 18. A middle-aged male patient was complaining of alternate day fever with chill and rigor
exposure a few months back. What might be the chemical condition? Which etiological for five days. Name the parasites responsible for this. How will you establish the
agent are responsible for such a condition? How will you process for library diagnosis? laboratory diagnosis? What are the complications of this disease? 1+6+3 (2011 P2)
1+2+7 (2017 P2) Similar to Q5 Similar to Q4 [Malaria]
12. Enumerate the arboviruses prevalent in India. Discuss the epidemiology of any one of 19. Enumerate the arthropod borne parasitic diseases. Draw a schematic diagram to
them. Describe the pathogenesis of dengue shock syndrome? 3+3+4 (2020 P2) Dengue, describe the life cycle of any one of them. How will you diagnose this disease in the
Japanese encephalitis, West Nile fever, Chikungunya fever, haemorrhagic fevers such as laboratory? 3+3+4 (2020 P2) Babesia microti (parasite, protozoan); Diphyllobothrium
Crimean-Congo haemorrhagic fever, Kya Sanur Forest disease etc. are some of the latum (parasite, cestode, tapeworm); Diphyllobothrium spirometra (parasite, cestode,
arboviral infections prevalent in India. Dengue Shock Syndrome. 296 tapeworm); Trypanosoma cruzi (parasite; protozoan); Trypanosoma brucei (parasite;
13. Enumerate the arboviruses prevalent in India. List the causative agent of viral protozoan); Loa loa (parasite; nematode; roundworm); Plasmodium falciparum, P.
haemorrhagic fever. Describe the immunopathogenesis of dengue shock syndrome. malariae, P. vivax, P. ovale (parasite; protozoan) Wuchereria bancrofti (parasite;
3+3+4 (2018 P2) Similar to Q12 + Pg: 296 nematode; roundworm; Brugia malayi (parasite; nematode; roundworm); Leishmania
1. VHFs are caused by viruses of three distinct groups: 20. A farmer from Bihar presented with fever and gradual weight loss since last three
a. Arboviruses: Transmitted by arthropod vectors. Examples include dengue, months. He developed blackish pigmentation of skin, loss of appetite and was found to
yellow fever viruses. have splenomegaly. Identify the clinical condition. Name the agents causing such
b. Filoviruses such as Ebola and Marburg viruses infections. How would you proceed to confirm the diagnosis in the laboratory? What is
c. Rodent borne viruses such as Hantaviruses and Arenaviruses. the sequel that may develop after treatment and why? 1+1+4+4 (2018 P2) Visceral
leishmaniasis (VL) “kala-azar or black fever”
21. A 30-year-old male from Pakur, Bihar has been admitted in the hospital with a history of 16. Diagnosis of plasmodium falciparum (2021 P1) 306
continuous fever. weakness. Blackening of skin and huge hepato-splenomegaly. What is 17. ^PKDL. (2015 P2) 313
the provisional diagnosis? Name the causative agent. Describe the pathogenesis of the 18. LD Body (2021 P1) 313
disease. How will you diagnose the disease min the laboratory? 1+1+4+4 (2014 P1) 19. The pathogenesis of lymphatic filariasis is multi-factorial (2021 P1) 317
Similar to Q20 20. Peripheral blood examination at mid night is important for diagnosis of classical filariasis
22. A patient has come to OPD with elephantiasis of one leg. What are the causative agents (2011 P2) [Periodicity of the microfilariae] 315+318
for the illness? How is the disease transmitted? Describe the pathogenesis of the 21. Microfilaria can be demonstrated in smear from peripheral blood in any time of the days
disease. How will you diagnose the case in laboratory? 1+1+4+4 (2012 P2) Lymphatic (2016 P2) [DEC Provocation Test]
Filariasis (Wuchereria bancrofti, Brugia malayi and Brugia timori) 317-319
Group-D (Difference)
Group-B (Short Note) 1. Chloramphenicol in the treatment of typhoid. (2010 P1) (MDR S.Typhi / Old is Gold)
1. Scrub Typhus. (2020 P1) 272 2. Ring form of P. vivax and P. falciparum. (2019 P2) 307
2. Dengue haemorrhagic fever. (2012 P2) 296 3. Gametocytes of P. vivax and P. falciparum. (2018 P2) 307
3. Enumerate viral, parasitic and fungal opportunistic infections associated with HIV 4. Morphological of early trophozoite of plasmodium vivax and plasmodium falciparum
infection. (2012 P2) 287 (2013 P2) 307
4. PKDL. (2012 P2) 313 5. Amastigote and promastigote form of Leishmania donovani (2021 P1)
5. Candida albicans. (2013 P2) 321 6. Wuchereria bancrofti and Brugia malayi. (2019 P2) 319
6. Dimorphic fungus. (2020 P2) 322 7. Microfilaria of Wuchereria bancrofti and Brugia malayi. (2014 P1)
7. ^Dimorphic fungus. (2018 P2) 8. ^Microfilariae of W. bancrofti and B. malayi. (2012 P2)
8. ^Dimorphic fungi. (2016 P2) 9. *Cryptococcus and Candida albicans. (2016 P2)
9. ^Dimorphic fungi. (2011 P2) 10. Hyphae and pseudohyphae. (2015 P2)
Group-C (Comment on)
1. Clinical manifestations of acute rheumatic fever develop after 3 weeks following
streptococcal sore throat. (2023 P1) 255 or See pathology CVS.
2. A knowledge about endemic titre is important to interpret the result of Widal Test (2023
P1) 266
3. For lab diagnosis of dengue, duration of fever has got immense importance. (2023 P1)
296
4. All morphological forms of P. falciparum are usually not detected in peripheral blood
smear. (2023 P1) 307
5. Significance of blood culture in enteric fever. (2022 P1) 264
6. Coagulase negative staphylococcus is never pathogenic. (2014 P1) [Wrong > Prosthetic
Valve Endocarditis, SSI, CLABSI]
7. Rheumatic fever occurs because of repeated streptococcal infection. (2020 P1) 491
8. Interpretation of Widal test depends on several factors. (2019 P1) 266
9. ^Result of a single Widal test should be interpreted with caution. (2014 P1)
10. Emergence of new dengue serotypes in endemic area is usually leads to complication.
(2016 P2) 296
11. Complications of dengue viruses are immunologically mediated. (2013 P2) 296
12. *Role of cytokines may be important in malaria. (2014 P1)
13. Relapse is associated with Benign Tertiary (B.T.) malaria. (2013 P2) 303
14. Relapse is not associated with each and every malarial infection. (2012 P2)
15. Hypnozoites are responsible for relapse of malaria (2010 P2) 303
GASTROINTESTINAL (GI) SYSTEM 5. Difference between Ancylostoma duodenale and Necator americanus. (2010 P2) (Adult,
L3 Morphology)
Group-A (Long Question) Group-C (Comment on)
1. A 10-year-old boy is brought to the OPD with complaints of passage of stool mixed 1. Ascariasis can lead to development of acute abdomen. (2023 P1) 385
mucus and occasional blood for more than 10 times for last 2 days. He has pain 2. Halophilic vibrios need high concentration of salt for their growth. (2022 P1) 346
abdomen and cries on defecation. What will be your provisional diagnosis? Enlist the 3. Though a commensal in GI tract, E. coli may cause diarrhoea (2012 P1) 340
bacterial pathogens associated with the clinical condition. Describe the laboratory 4. Viruses are very often responsible for diarrhoea in child. (2016 P2) [Rota, Noro, Adeno
diagnosis of such a case. Name two systemic complications associated with specific 40,41] 359
pathogens which could occur after resolution of clinical condition. 1+3+4+2 (2018 P1) 5. *Stool microscopy is important in protozoa dysentery. (2020 P2) 364
***Dysentery, Food Poisoning, Enterohemorrhagic E. coli, Shigellosis (328 [table 39.2 6. Examination of gravid segment of Taenia help in the identification of species. (2011 P2)
predominantly dysentery]-330) 376
2. Two friends went to a Chinese restaurant. They had soup followed by fried rice and chilly 7. Ascaris lumbricoides infestation may cause surgical complications. (2020 P2)
chicken. After 2 hours they started vomiting followed by diarrhoea. They also developed [Intussusception] 385
fever. On examination, the blood pressure was found to be low. What is your diagnosis? 8. ^Surgical intervention may be necessary in case of Ascaris infestation. (2017 P2)
What is the mechanism behind this manifestation? How can you diagnose the case in 9. Anaemia as presenting features of hookworm infection. (2018 P2) 386-387
the laboratory. 1+4+5 (2013 P1) Bacillus cereus emetic toxin / S. aureus enterotoxin Pg:
333 Group-D (Difference)
3. A child has been brought to the hospital emergency with passage of rice water stool and
1. *Infection and toxin type of food poisoning. (2017 P1)
severe dehydration with tachycardia and feeble pulse. What is your provisional
2. ^Infection type and toxin type of food poisoning. (2010 P1)
diagnosis? Write down the pathogenesis of the disease. Give an outline of laboratory
3. Classical and El Tor vibrio. (2019 P1) 347
diagnosis of the disease. 1+3+6 (2016 P1) Cholera, 347-351
4. ^Classical and El tor biotypes of Vibrio cholerae. (2011 P1)
4. A 12-year-old boy has been brought to emergency with severe dehydration and cold
5. Cyst of Entamoeba histolytica & E. Coli. (2020 P2) 366
clammy extremities and history of frequent passage of painless watery stool. What is the
6. ^Cyst of E. histolytica and E. coli (2012 P2)
clinical condition and etiological agent? Discuss the pathogenesis and laboratory
7. Entamoeba histolytica and Entamoeba coli. (2017 P2)
diagnosis of this case. 1+4+5 (2012 P1) Cholera
8. T. Solium and T. Saginata. (2016 P2) 376
5. A middle-aged male patient came to the OPD with history of frequent passage of stool,
9. Cysticercus bovis and cellulose (2015 P2)
mixed with mucus and blood. What are the protozoa responsible for it? Discuss the
10. Fertilized and unfertilized ova of Ascaris lumbricoides (2021 P1)
laboratory diagnosis of condition. Write in brief about 2 preventions. 3+6+1 (2021 P1)
Entamoeba histolytica, Balantidium coli cause dysentery, 364-365
6. A boy aged 10 years. residing in a rural area with low sonic-economic status attends the
OPD with complaints of indigestion. weakness and occasional pain in the epigastrium.
On examination he is found to be anaemic with low haemoglobin level. Name the
probable helminths causing such clinical condition. Discuss the pathogenesis of such
disease. Discuss the laboratory diagnosis of the disease. 2+4+4 (2014 P1) The main
anemia causing intestinal helminths are Hookworms (Ancylostoma duodenale, Necator
americanus); Trichuris trichiura and Schistosomes, with hookworms being most
common. Pg: 386-387
Group-B (Short Note)
1. Diarrhoeagenic strains of Escherichia coli. (2019 P1) 340
2. Halophilic vibrio. (2013 P1) 346
3. Rota virus. (2013 P2) 359
4. NIH swab. (2017 P2) 383
HEPATOBILIARY SYSTEM 6. ^Hydatid cyst. (2011 P2)
7. Larva migrans. (2016 P2) 414
Group-A (Long Question) Group-C (Comment on)
1. A multi transfused thalassaemic child presented with icterus, nausea, vomiting, anorexia 1. Hepatitis C virus. (2012 P2) 403
and fever. Mention the most likely clinical diagnosis and the possible etiological agents. 2. Infections caused by E histolytica may have extra-intestinal manifestations. (2015 P2)
How would you approach the current laboratory diagnosis of the patient following (Amoebic Liver Abscess) 408
national guidelines. (1+4+10) (2023 P2) Hepatitis Virus by Blood Transfusion HBV, HCV,
401-405
2. A 10-year-old thalassaemic boy with history of multiple blood transfusions developed
jaundice with fever for last 7 days. What is the most probable diagnosis? What are the
most probable causative agents? What laboratory investigations you will perform to
confirm the diagnosis? What are the vaccines available for the prevention of this
disease? 1+2+5+2 (2021 P1) **Hepatitis Virus by Blood Transfusion HBV, HCV, 401-405
3. A 10-year-old boy suffering from thalassemia was admitted to the hospital with
complain of anorexia, indigestion and yellow discolouration of eyes and urine. On
examination he had moderate jaundice. He also gave a history of multiple blood
transfusion, what may be the probable diagnosis? How will you proceed to make a
microbiological diagnosis? What prophylactic measure may be taken to prevent such a
condition? 1+6+3 (2016 P2) Similar to Q1
4. A girl while playing sustained injury for which she attended the ER at a health care,
where she received one dose of Tetanus Toxoid. After few weeks she developed
jaundice, less of appetite and fever. What is your diagnosis and what are the agents?
How will you proceed for the diagnosis? Is there any vaccine against and what is that?
2+6+2 (2012 P2) **Hepatitis B/C due to Needle Contamination
5. A 40-year-old man complains of anorexia, indigestion, haematemesis, jaundice fever on
and off associated with hepatomegaly. He gives history of blood transfusion given about
6 years back when he met with an accident in a private hospital in a small town. What
could be the aetiological agent? What laboratory investigations you will perform to
confirm the diagnosis? How this disease could have been prevented? As a responsible
health officer what will be your advice to the community? 1+6+2+1 (2010 P2) Hepatitis
Virus
6. A 40-year-old patient came to hospital OPD complaining of heaviness in the right
hypochondrium. C.T. scan reveals a cystic mass on the under surface of the liver. What is
your provisional diagnosis? What could be the causative agent? Name some possible
complications that can occur in this condition. How will you confirm the diagnosis in the
laboratory? l+l+3+5 (2019 P2) Hydatid Cyst, Echinococcus granulosus, 410-412
Group-B (Short Note)
1. Serological markers of Hepatitis B Virus. (2020 P2) 401
2. ^Serological marker of Hep B. (2015 P2)
3. ^Serological markers of HBV. (2011 P2)
4. Hydatid cyst. (2021 P1) 411
5. ^Hydatid cyst (2017 P2)
SKIN, SOFT TISSUE AND MUSCULOSKELETAL SYSTEM RESPIRATORY TRACT
Group-B (Short Note) Group-A (Long Question)
1. Toxic shock syndrome. (2016 P1) 423 1. Which types and subtypes of Influenza virus are in circulation nowadays? How is
2. ^Toxic shock syndrome. (2014 P1) influenza diagnosed in laboratory? Enumerate the vaccines available to prevent
3. Nagler’s reaction. (2015 P1) 440 influenza. (3+4+3) (2023 P2) 541, 544-546
4. Treponema pertenue (2010 P1) (Yaws) 455 2. A 45-year-old lady came to medicine OPD with history of productive cough for last 3
5. Differentiate between measles and German measles. Rubella (2010 P2) 468, 471 weeks and evening rise of temperature. She also informed the physician about her
6. Dermatophytes. (2019 P2) 479 weight loss over previous few months and two episodes of coughing blood- tinged
7. Macroconidia of Dermatophytes. (2017 P2) 480 sputum 3 days back. (1+1+7+6) (2022 P2) Tuberculosis, 515, 519-526
8. Mycetoma. (2012 P2) 481 a) What is your provisional diagnosis?
b) Name the most probable causative bacteria in this country?
Group-C (Comment on) c) How will you diagnose the case in laboratory?
1. Gas gangrene is polymicrobial in nature. (2023 P2) 439 d) Write in brief about different drug resistant pattern of the disease.
2. Culture is necessary for dermatophytes. (2023 P2) 480 3. An 8-year-old child has been brought to chest OPD with complaints of fever for a month
3. Toxic shock syndrome may be caused by various aetiological agents. (2022 P2) 423 not exceeding 100 F, cough with occasional haemoptysis and weakness.
4. Gas gangrene is polymicrobial in nature. (2011 P1) 439 i) What may be the clinical diagnosis?
5. Different clinical presentation of anthrax infection. (2018 P1) ii) What are the etiological agents of the clinical condition?
6. Nocardia differs in many ways from Actinomycetes. (2017 P1) 454 iii) How will you proceed to confirm the case in laboratory?
7. Varicella-Zoster differs from primary infection. (2011 P2) 460, 463 iv) Discuss briefly on immune prophylaxis against the disease. 1+2+4+3 (2020 P1)
8. Culture is necessary for dermatophytes. (2016 P2) 480 [Primary Pulmonary TB]
9. Grains from discharging sinus help in identifying agents of Mycetoma. (2019 P2) 481 4. A 30-year-old man has been brought to the hospital OPD with the complain of cough,
10. Mycetoma like clinical features may be caused by bacteria as well as true fungi. (2015 fever and haemoptysis for the last one month. Name two clinical conditions that may be
P2) 481 commonly considered in the differential diagnosis for the above condition. Name a
bacterial agent commonly responsible for causing such a condition. Name a skin test
Group-D (Difference) useful in the diagnosis of the infection caused by this bacterium. Briefly describe the
1. Anthrax bacilli and Anthracoid bacilli (2016 P1) [B.cereus, thuringiensis, G. thermophilus] steps of isolation and identification of above bacteria in the microbiology laboratory.
449, 452 2+1+1+6 (2019 P1) [Similar to Q2]
2. Dermatophytes (short note). (2010 P2) 5. A 10-year-old child has been brought to the OPD with fever for last 3 days, pain in the
3. Trichophyton and Epidermophyton. (2011 P2) throat and difficulty in swallowing. On examination child had 100○C fever, throat was
4. Endothrix & Ectothrix. (2017 P2) congested, cervical lymph nodes were enlarged, and tender and pus points seen over
5. Actinomycotic and Eumycotic Mycetoma. (2014 P1) tonsillar follicles. What may be the clinical diagnosis? Name the different bacteria
causing the condition. How will you proceed to identify the agent(s) and how would the
clinician be benefitted from the laboratory report? What complication can occurs
following such infections? 2+2+4+1+1 (2018 P1) Pharyngitis with Tonsilitis [Bacterial: S.
pyogenes, C. diphtheria] , 488
6. An eight-year-old boy comes to the hospital emergency with fever, asphyxia and
toxaemia. On examination a pseudomembranous patch is found over the faucial area.
What is your provisional diagnosis? Name the causative organism. How will you proceed
to do laboratory diagnosis? Write briefly one in vivo and one in vitro test to determine
the virulence of the organism isolated. 1+1+4+4 (2015 P1) Diphtheria, 492-495
7. A female aged about 53 years presented with evening rise of temperature not exceeding
100 F for about a month accompanied by cough, expectoration and occasional
haemoptysis. X-Ray chest showed opacity in the apical region of the right lung. What is 9. Post primary tuberculosis differs in many ways from primary tuberculosis. (2017 P1)
the provisional diagnosis? Name the etiological agent. Briefly discuss the laboratory 10. Influenza viruses is usually associated with antigenic variation. (2013 P2) 541, drift
methods for isolation and identification of the organism from the sputum sample and 11. Influenza vaccine does not give long term protection against influenza. (2012 P2)
methods of drug sensitivity testing. 1+1+5+3 (2015 P1) Similar to Q2 [Pulmonary TB 12. Antigenic shift can cause pandemic. (2011 P2) Antigenic shift
(Pneumonia has higher fever?)] 13. Difference between mucor and Rhizopus. (2010 P2) (Rhizoid)
11. A middle aged person is suffering form low grade fever for 2 months along with cough
and occasional haemoptysis and gradual weight loss. Acid fast bacilli found on sputum Group-D (Difference)
smear examination. What is your probable diagnosis? Name the etiological agent. Briefly 1. Streptococcus viridians and Streptococcus pneumoniae. (2020 P1)
discuss the procedures adopted in the laboratory for the identification and isolation of 2. ^Streptococcus Pneumoniae and Streptococcus viridians. (2016 P1)
AFB from the sputum sample. How the immune status of such a patient can be 3. Typical and atypical mycobacteria (2021 P1)
assessed? 1+2+4+3 (2013 P1) Similar to Q6 4. Orthomyxovirus & Paramyxovirus. (2020 P2) [Smaller, Segmented RNA, 8 Structural
12. A 3-year-old child presents to the OPD with acute sore throat, dysphagia, salivation and Protein] 540, 546
mild fever. On examination, an adherent thick greyish patch is found over the tonsil and 5. ^Orthomyxoviridae and paramyxoviridae. (2011 P2)
oropharynx which bleeds on removal. What is the clinical condition? What is the 6. Antigenic shift and antigenic drift. (2019 P2) 541
causative bacteria? How will you collect the sample and proceed for laboratory
diagnosis? What is the method of prevention of such infection? 1+1+6+2 (2014 P1)
Similar to Q6 Diphtheria [Contrast with Vincent’s Angina, peels off easily]
13. A two-year-old girl presented with fever swelling of the neck, pharyngitis and difficulty in
deglutition, a greenish black membrane in throat is seen on examination. What is the
provisional diagnosis? What other aetiological agent can be responsible for similar
presentation? Describe briefly how you will isolate the aetiological agent in the
laboratory. 1+2+7 (2010 P1) Similar to 6 [Diphtheria, Vincent’s Angina (Prevotella,
Borrelia vincentii and Fusobacterium species)]
Group-B (Short Note)
1. Atypical Mycobacteria. (2022 P2) 527
2. Environmental Mycobacteria. (2017 P1) (NTM) 527
3. Occult filariasis. (2020 P2) 562
4. ^Occult filariasis. (2018 P2)
5. ^Occult filariasis. (2014 P1)
6. Aspergillosis. (2015 P2) 565
Group-C (Comment on)
1. Isolation of C. diphtheriae from clinical samples does not confirm the disease diphtheria.
(2022 P2) Diphtheroid, 497
2. Rheumatic fever is an immunological sequalae of streptococcal infection. (2022 P2) 491
3. Atypical mycobacteria differ from typical mycobacteria in many ways. (2023 P2) 514, 527
4. *All diphtheria bacilli are non-toxigenic. (2016 P1) Diphtherioid
5. Isolation of C. diphtheriae from clinical sample does not confirm diphtheria. (2021 P1)
(Diphtheroid)
6. Isolation of C. diphtheriae from clinical sample does not confirm diphtheria. (2013 P1)
7. ^Only the presence of C. diphtheria in the throat does not suggest the person is suffering
from diphtheria. (2011 P1)
8. H. influenzae infection in children is preventable. (2019 P1) (Hib vaccine) 545
CENTRAL NERVOUS SYSTEM 8. A non-immunised child with a history fever and loose motion presented with left sided
deltoid paralysis. Name the clinical condition and etiological agent. How will you
diagnose the case in the laboratory? Discuss briefly the vaccine against this agent. What
Group-A (Long Question) is the principle behind the recent mass immunisation strategy against this agent in our
1. A 10 year old boy was bought to the emergency of your hospital in a state of country? 2+3+3+2 (2011 P2) **Poliomyelitis Virus, 592-593
restlessness. On examination, it was noted that he had repetitive facial movements and 9. A boy having a history of dog bite 3 week ago, has been admitted in the hospital with
repulsion to drink water. The mother of the boy gave a history of the boy bitten by a dog fever, headache and muscle spasms particularly while trying to drink water. What is the
on the left ankle about 6 months back. (1+1+4+4+5) (2023 P2) Rabies, 600-604 clinical diagnosis and etiological agent? Discuss the laboratory diagnosis of the disease.
a) What is the clinical diagnosis? What is post exposure prophylactic treatment. 2+4+4 (2013 P2) Rabies
b) Name the causative agent causing such condition. 10. A middle-aged man present at emergency with high fever, vomiting, neck stiffness ann
c) Describe the pathogenesis of the disease. convulsive episodes. He was tested to be HIV seropositive six month back. On
d) Outline the laboratory diagnosis of such a case. examination there was neck rigidity and positive Kernig’s sign. What is the likely
e) Describe the post exposure prophylaxis of this clinical condition. diagnosis of this patient? What common fungal agent could be responsible for this
2. What is the etiological agent of Primary Amoebic Encephalitis (PAM)? What is the mode condition and what is the route of transmission? How will you proceed for laboratory
of infection? How is it diagnosed in lab? (2+2+6) (2023 P2) Naegleria fowleri infection, diagnosis? 1+2+2+5 (2015 P2) Cryptococcal meningitis by Cryptococcus neoformans,
609-610 which can produce potentially fatal meningitis in HIV infected people, 616-617
3. One male patient after RTA was clinically diagnosed as tetanus. (1+2+2+5+4+1) (2022 P2) 11. A 30-year-old HIV positive male complains of headache, fever, vomiting and altered
584-586 sensorium. He showed signs of meningitis. CSF examination showed a capsulated
a) Name the bacteria causing it. budding organism. What is your probable diagnosis? How will you confirm the
b) Discuss its morphology. microbiological diagnosis? Enumerate certain fungal pathogens that can produce
c) Name one common media where it grows along with explanation. meningitis. 2+5+3 (2010 P2) Cryptococcal meningitis (capsulated)
d) Discuss its pathogenesis.
e) Outline its prevention. Group-B (Short Note)
f) Name the model animal for animal pathogenicity testing along with its 1. Tetanospasmin (2021 P1) 584
manifestation. 2. Epidemiology of Japanese Encephalitis (2021 P1) 598
4. Enumerate the causative agent of bacterial meningitis. How will you diagnose a 3. Japanese Encephalitis. (2016 P2)
suspected case of meningococcal meningitis? (5+5) (2022 P2) 575-577 4. Negri bodies. (2020 P2) 603
5. A male baby of 4 weeks has been admitted to the hospital with fever, drowsiness, 5. ^Negri Bodies (2015 P2)
irritability, vomiting and photophobia. On examination there was neck rigidity and CSF 6. ^Negri bodies. (2013 P2)
was turbid. What is your clinical diagnosis? Name the predominant bacterial agents 7. Post exposure prophylaxis in Rabies. (2018 P2)
causing such illness. How will you proceed to diagnose the ease in the laboratory? 1+3+5 8. Prion disease. (2016 P2) 606
(2016 P1) Bacterial Meningitis [Neisseria meningitidis, meningococcal meningitis] The 9. ^Prion. (2014 P1)
common agents of neonatal meningitis include Streptococcus agalactiae, gram-negative 10. Cysticercosis. (2013 P2) 613
bacilli such as Escherichia coli and Klebsiella, and Listeria monocytogenes. 11. ^Cysticercosis. (2010 P2)
6. A two-year-old boy has been brought to the emergency with high fever, vomiting and
headache. On physical examination, there was neck rigidity What is your provisional Group-C (Comment on)
diagnosis? What are the causative bacteria in such a case? How will you proceed for
1. Rapid diagnosis may help in laboratory diagnosis of fungal meningitis. (2023 P2) 616
laboratory diagnosis of this disease? What are the vaccines available? 1+1+5+3 (2014 P1)
2. Gram staining of suspected wound swab may not confirm the laboratory diagnosis of
Similar to Q5
tetanus. (2023 P2) 586
7. A baby of four weeks is admitted to the hospital with fever, drowsiness, irritability,
3. Rabies can be prevented by prophylaxis. (2022 P2) 603
photophobia, vomiting. On examination, he was found to have neck rigidity. On lumber
4. Anti-rabies neural vaccines are not used now a days. (2017 P2) [Encephalitogenic] 604
puncture, CSF was found turbid. What is your clinical diagnosis? Name the bacteria
5. Comment on: Observation period of 10 days is recommended when a biting dog can be
responsible for such illness. How will you establish the diagnose laboratory? 1+3+6
observed in case of rabies (2010 P2) 604
(2011 P1) Similar to Q5
6. Prions cause slow viral disease. (2019 P2) 606
7. Measles may cause CNS infection. (2014 P1) [SSPE] 606
8. Primary amoebic encephalitis and granulomatous amoebic encephalitis. (2018 P2)
UROGENITAL TRACT
9. Infection of Taenia solium is more dangerous than Taenia saginata (2021 P1)
[Cystecercosis] 613 Group-A (Long Question)
10. Taenia solium infection is more dangerous than Taenia saginata (2019 P2) 1. What are the virulence factors of N. gonorrhoea? How gonorrhoea in male is diagnosed
in lab? (4+6) (2023 P2) 638-640
Group-D (Difference) 2. Write the causative agents of UTI. How will you diagnose a case of suspected UTI? (5+5)
1. Oral and Inactivated Polio Vaccine. (2021 P1) 593 (2022 P2) 622-624
2. OPV and IPV. (2017 P2) 3. A 25-year-old newly married female patient attended the hospital OPD with the
3. Live and killed polio vaccine. (2012 P2) [OPV, IPV] complaints of fever, frequency of micturition & burning sensation during micturition for
4. Street virus and fixed virus. (2011 P2) 600 last three days. Physical examination revealed raised body temperature & tenderness
5. Neural and non-neural vaccine for rabies. (2015 P2) 604 over the loin.
6. ^Neural and nonneural vaccines against rabis. (2013 P2) i) Name the probable clinical diagnosis.
7. *Cryptococcus and Candida albicans. (2016 P2) ii) Name the common causative microorganism(s).
iii) Discuss the laboratory diagnosis of such a case. 1+3+6 (2020 P1) [Lower UTI
(Acute Urethral Syndrome) The endogenous flora such as gram-negative
bacilli (e.g. E. coli, Klebsiella, Proteus, etc.) and enterococci are the important
agents]
4. A 23-year-old lady, married recently, attended the hospital with the complaints of fever
with chills increasing urinary frequency along with urgency and dysuria for the past 24
hours. What is the most probable diagnosis? What could be the infecting organism?
What other aetiological agents can be responsible for such presentation? How will you
proceed to find out the infecting organism in the laboratory? 1+1+2+6 (2010 P1) Similar
to Q3
5. One young male patient came to the OPD with the complain of a painless penile ulcer
for 7 days. He had a history of exposure. Name the clinical condition. Name the
organism responsible for the condition. How will you confirm this in the laboratory?
Enumerate the other important test to be done in this situation. 1+2+6+1 (2021 P1)
[Primary Syphilis, Lymphogranuloma Venereum (LGV) by Chlamydia trachomatis] 633-
635
6. A 35-year-old bus conductor came to the OPD with the complain of a painless penile
ulcer for 7 days and a recent history of exposure. What could be the clinical condition?
Name the organism responsible for the condition. How will you confirm this in the
laboratory? l+l+8 (2019 P1) Similar to Q5
7. A truck driver aged 26 years attend the hospital with complain of one painless ulcer over
his external genitalia. He gave history of sexual exposure 2 month back. Apart from the
ulcer physical examination revealed swollen non-tender discrete inguinal lymph node.
Write the probable clinical diagnosis. Name the probable causative bacteria. Describe
the laboratory diagnosis of such a case. Mention the other test you should perform to
rule out any other infection that may accompany such case. 1+1+6+2 (2017 P1) Primary
Syphilis
8. A 35-year-old man with a history of contact with a female sex worker has come to OPD
with urethral discharge. The urethral discharge did not show any gram-negative
diplococci. What is your diagnosis? What are the possible etiological agents? How will
you proceed for laboratory diagnosis of any one of these agents? What is L form?
½+1½+6+2 (2012 P1) Non-Gonococcal Urethritis (NGU) include Chlamydia trachomatis,
MISCELLANEOUS INFECTIONS
Mycoplasma genitalium and Trichomonas vaginalis) 640-644, 18
Group-B (Short Note)
Group-B (Short Note) 1. Congenital toxoplasmosis. (2023 P2) 659
1. VDRL test. (2012 P1) 634 2. Oncogenic viruses. (2019 P2) 665
2. Non gonococcal urethritis. (2017 P1) 640-644 3. Zika Virus. (2019 P2) 663
3. ^Non gonococcal urethritis. (2015 P1) 4. Oncogenic viruses. (2019 P2)
4. ^Non gonococcal urethritis. (2011 P1)
Group-C (Comment on)
Group-C (Comment on) 1. Screening for TORCH group of infections is important during pregnancy. (2018 P2) 659
1. Fungal meningitis can be diagnosed rapidly. (2021 P1) 616 2. Viruses can cause malignancies. (2020 P2) 665
2. Bacterial colony count is necessary for proper reporting of urinary tract infection (2018 3. Some viruses are oncogenic. (2017 P2)
P1) 624 4. Herpes virus may cause a variety of malignancies. (2015 P2) (EBV, HHV-8, page: 668)
3. Enterococcus is known for its multidrug resistance. (2010 P1) (Intrinsic, VRE) 625 5. Epstein-Barr virus has a role in a number of malignant diseases. (2012 P2) 667
4. Diagnosis of secondary syphilis is based on serology. (2020 P1) 634
5. ^Diagnosis of secondary syphilis is based on serology. (2018 P1) ANNEXURES
6. VDRL is not a specific test for syphilis. (2019 P1) (Reagin Ab, BFP, Prozone, Low
Sensitivity) 635 Group-C (Comment on)
7. Non treponemal test cannot confirm syphilis. (2015 P1) (BFP) 635 1. Agents of bioterrorism. (2022 P2) 685
8. Haemophilus ducreyi requires only X factor. (2010 P1) (has pNAD1 plasmid with nadV 2. Transplant recipients may develop various opportunistic infections. (2022 P2) 681
gene) 637 3. Sand fly. (2010 P2) 689
4. Effective screening of blood at blood banks will help in preventing some transmissible
Group-D (Difference) disease. (2018 P2) (Transfusion-transmitted Infections, 691)
1. VDRL and RPR tests. (2019 P1)
2. Comment on: - A combination of VDRL test and TPHA tests is better than either of them
alone for the diagnosis of exclusion of syphilis (2010 P1) (CDC Testing Algo)
03124 of Health Sciences
o3lz4
The west Bengal university of Irealth
Sciences
The west Bengal university
(New Regulation) March - April2024 Reguration) March - April2024
MBBS 2nd Professional E*ui'i"ution MBB' 2nd professional B*uirinution (New
FriII Marks: 100 Full Marks: 100
Subject: PathologY
Time: 3 hours Subject: PathologY Time: 3 hours
Paper: t Paper: II
oiletnpt a, Etestions. The Jigures irt the margin indicate fu, marrrs.
Attempt all questions' The figtres in the margin indicate fiil marks'
past two days' on
develops.severe pain in
the right *iac fossa over the
1.a) A 22 yearord man over that atea' Laparoscoplc 1.a)A5gyearoldmalepresentedwithweightloss'painlesshematuria'flankpainand\:Tf;
is ,euo.rnd t.ndernt""* palpation
pt ysi.ut..ia;;;;io", trr.r. on gross examination is mass in lower abdomen'
surgery rs performed and
tir. upp.rraix is remo;;'^fft';tpendix 2+5+5+3
- i) What is your provisional diagnosis?
to be red swollen ;;;;J
ty p**tent exudate' ii) How ,nviu you proceed_to invistigate
the patient in the laboratory?
found ""ddiagnosis? if" gt"tt and microscopic features of the lesion'
i) What i''Vo"t P'o'isionul iii) Describ.
ii) Describt tt" iutt'ogtl?til of this condition' rinn
in this'condition'
iii) Enume'* tfit t"fJof l"uLocytes b)A45yearoldmalewasbroughttotheho,spitalwithcomplainofuneasinessandsqueezing inversion in
t.f, ur*. ii, pCC st owed ST elevation and T 2+6+4+3
condition' LU rws
iv) List the expected outcomes
of this type of pain in chest radiatingio
tin*.'in, and lead v3, v4.
with progressive rveakness, pallor,
b) A 50 year old vegan lady presented i) What is the provisional diagnosis?
numbness of fingers' ii; Discuss the pathogenesis of this condition'
to confirm the diagnosis?
i) What is your piovisional diagnosis iii) What 1";;;";;.y iivestigations are to be done
condition' of this condition'
ii; nescribl tnt putt'ogenesis of this ivj Mention the complications
*if y"" pto"I"d to confirm your diagnosis?
iii) How
2. Answer the following:
2. Answer the following: 10 a)ClassifyHodgkin,sdisease.Describethemicroscopicfeatullofthemixedcellularity
ce1l present in Hodgkin's disease'
3+3+4
a) Pathogenesisof granulomaformation' *marinn what are the different systems
systr tn type. Describe ttre f.atrrr.s oi diagnostic
b) p.rrrib, the vaiculu, i" acute inflammation' What
"'r.*
of complement cascade? Enumerrt.
,hi;;;ivatives of comple'""" "'ffi#l
activation b)Brieflydiscussthepathogenesisofcirrhosisofiiver'10
c) Describe the pathogenesis oi *..,t. (pyogenic) osteomyelitis'
10
their role in acute inflammation' 10
c) Pathogenesis of renal edema' 2x5
2x5 3. Write short notes on:
parient of breast cancer'
a) Retinoblastoma'
' Yit';:L"XrTf'il4* in discrosing.the biop.sy reporr to a
b) Prognostic factors for invasive breast carcmoma'
b) faboratory features of sickle ce1l anaemia' 5x4
5x4 4. Explain the following statements: - 1^^-^-^^
4. Explain the following statements: uj Bron.hiectasis risults from a defect in airway clearance.
adenocarcinoma are depth of invasion
uf rs: is the guardian o.f the genome' b) The most important prognostic factor in colorectal
b) TransfusiJn related diseases can be avoided' and the presence of lymph node metastases'
c)Reticulocytecountcandifferentiatebetweenprimarycausesofanemia. c) Pigment gallstones are seen in chronic haemolyic anaemia'
cell is unique.
d) cyto;;i# characteristics of a malignant ct) FNAC cannot replace histological study'
basis' seminoma'
e) ctomeillonephritis can be explained'on immunological
e) Dysgerminoma ii ttre ovarian counterpart of testicular
10x 1 10x 1
for each of the following: the following:
5. Choose the correct option 5. Choose the correct option for each of
disease is:
(i) Amyloid protein found in Alzheimer's (i)FollowingaleassociatedwithEBvirusinfectionexcept:
" a) AA. !)AL a) Infectious mononucleosis. b) Epidermodysplasia vemrciformis'
c) AB. d) transthYretin' b) Nasopharyngeal carcinoma. c) oral hairy leucoplakia'
:
(ii) Pale infarct is found in which of the following
organs?
(ii)Mostcommongeneinvolvedinfamilialmalebreastcancer:
-
a) KidneY b) Heart a) BRCA-I. b) BRCA-2'
c) Both
d) None
P.T.O .i rs:. d) INK-2'
03124
03l?4
TheWestBengalUniversityofHealthSciences - April2024 TheWestBengalUniversityofHealthSciences
(New Reguration) March (New Regulation) March - April 2024
MBB' 2nd professional Examination MBB' 2nd professionar Examination
Full Marks: 100 Full Marks : 100
Time: 3 hours Subject: MicrobiologY Time :3 hours
Subject: MicrobiologY
Paper: I marks' Paper : II
Attempt all clttestions' The figttres in the margin
indicate 'ftil
inclicate full marks'
Attempt all questiotts' The figures in the margin
swollen, red a,d tender
joint which migrate from one
presented to pediatric opD with
a) A g year old ch,dp""riH7o t"pottJon murmur *^ nTlll:l'
1
sore throat 3 weeks back was a*scuitation'
emergency with trismus. Relatives
of patient informed that he had also
ioi,t to another. I a) A 40 year old mare patient attended got a bullet injury
the mitral valve area'
etiological agent? muscular pain, stiffness, back pain and also d"iffrculty in swallowing'
He
"* Tlfff|*r*,
;' il;, is the clinical diagnosis and produced by this organism'
ii) Enlist different toxins and enzymes
and causative agent?
i) What is the probable clinical diagnosis
iii)Describethepathogenesisdisease..:.1^-:^^1 agent with signiflcant t
for this etiological ii,1 Briefly discuss the pathogenesis'
iv) Mention serological tests to be done why toxigenicity test is needed after isolation?
iii) How you can isolate the organism in the laboratory?
where she was placed
ICU following a road traffic accident iv) Outline the laboratory diagnosis of such a case'
a) A diabetic 60 year old iady was admitted to
an
the patient's disease'
was reported u, no.ln,ur. Five days after admission v) Briefly describe immunoprophylaxis of the
on a ventiiator. An initiar chest x-ray and signs of t"rl;T;#i'
an elevated temperature, neutrophilia and sarotum for the
condition deteriorated. She developed with huge progressive swerling of his right leg
b) A 60 year ord man presents to the hospitar
consolidation in the chest' to have inguinal lymphadeno,u.ll:,1,*ocoele and non-pitting
last 3 months. on examination he is found Mention the vector for
right leg. what is the probabie diagnosis? Name the causative organisms.
oedema on the in the laboratory?
i) What is the clinical diagnosis? this disease. Describe the pathogenesis
of this disease. How is the disease diagnosed
l+2+l+4+7
ii) Name the likely aetiological agents' condition.
development of pneumonria in this
iii) Describe the factors leading to the of
diagnosis of this case' !- organism
LV^L'.J of -a causing karaazar. Briefly describe pathogenesis
irj Dir.r-rr, in brief the laboratory 2. a) Enumerate ditferent morphorogical
forms
2+31 5
acquired infections'
v) Enumerate the types of hospital Kalaazar.Write a note on PKDL' , ,-, .r ,-^--' *^i^^,,lor -erhn^qused for
complex? write about morecurar methods
gene transfer. Discuss i, deta, about mechanism of conjugation' b) what are the members of Mycobacterium Tuberculosis 3+7
z. a) Narne the various methods of horizontar 3+7
diag*osis of fuberculosis. ,. - /orr\ r,^ tr,,-onc what
\l,rhef ere me1 for
are the methods
it differ from adaptive immunity? transmitted infections (STI) in humans'
immunity? How does c) Enumerate the bacteria causing sexua[y
what are the different components of innate
4+6
b) immunity'
4+2+4
laboratorY diagnosis of STIs'/
in brief the
Describe components oi uJuptir.
Zx5
3. Write short notes on following:
c)Writedownthelaboratorydiagnosisofintestinalamoebiasis.l0
5+5 i.1 Madura foot.
3. Write short notes on : ii) Gonococcal urethritis'
a) Bacterial caPsule' 5 x4
bi D".onrtration of respect for patient's sample' 4. Explain the lbllowing statements;
to produce serious complications'
5 x4 i) Spontaneous or traumatic rupture of Hydatid cyst may prone
ii) Role of KOH mount in diagnostic mycology'
4. Explain the following statements: ,.
'Uorility helps inihe labotatory diagnosis of syphilis' iii)Zoonoticdiseasesareresponsibleformajoroutbreaksofcasesinhumans'
u)
patient management'
b) Antibioti, ,t.*tJtnip is a priority for proper agents' iv)Betahemotl,ticstreptococcalinfectionhasimmunologicalconsequen0es.
' Mutation may be induced by various chemical : v) Smallpox virus is a good candidate for bioterrorism'
"i
d)Infusionofasteriiesolutioncontainingendotoxinmay.causesseriousillness'
e) Culture is very important for the .p..iS"lJtttification in a case of dermatophyosis'
03124 03124
The west Bengal universify of Health
Sciences The West Bengal University of Healtlt Sciences
(New Regulation) March - April 2a24 MBBS 2nd Professional Examination (New Regulation) March - April 2024
MBBS 2nd Professional B*uminution
Full Marks: 100
subject: Pharmacorogv [l]yiffi#' Subject: PharmacologY
Paper: II Time:3hours
PaPer: I
in the margin indicate ftll mark' Attempt all questions The Jigures in the margin indicate 11ll marks.
Attempt oll questiotts' The Jigtrres
1 a) A 8 year old boy was sent for neurological evaluation becausc of episodes of apparent
5+3+5+2
1.a)A40yearoldfarmerpresented,*i,h:l::ivesalivation,lacrimationanddrowsinessand
*" poisoning'
of oria"ophosphorus inattlntion. His mother gave a hlo episodes of staring look vrhich lasts for f'ew seconds,
cliagnosed ,o Ut u
- following which he res;mes his normal activity. He was diagnosed to have absence seizures.
How will You manage. the case?
il 3+8+2+2
ii; Wru. the antidott u"d its mechanism of action' i) Describe the mechanism of acticn of the drug of choice for absence seizures'
substitutes?
iii) What are the uses of Atropine ii) Write dorvn the adverse effect, uses and drug interactions of the saicl drug.
in organophosphorus poisoning?
iv) Role of cholinesterase reactivator iii) What is fosphenytoin and it has replacecl lV phenytoin iu trqatment of stahrs epilepticus.
iv) How rvill you manage a case of febrile cottvulsion.
b)Amanage45yealplesentedrvithcomplainsof.grldualonsetdoublevision'droopingeyelid' The
of rimbs which is accentuated with exercise'
ditficulty in swa*orving food u.rJ *.utiress 1+3+3+5+3 b) A 30 year old patient of IDDIV1 presented in emergency in confused state with shortness of
over time'
symptoms flucruate in iirtensity ) breath, sweating, palpitation" She had history of fever for few days. Physical examination
case scenario?
i) What is your diagnosis of the givenperformed to confirm the diagnosis? revealed deep acidotic breathing with fmity smell. Blood roport show's total leucocyte count-
ii) \\rhat pharmacological test caibe mechanism underlying this condition? Zl65Olcu.nm, CBG - 485mg/dl, ABG Shows HCO3-10 mEq/Lt, ketone bodies positive in urine
iii) what is the primary pathophvri"i"gi",rr routine examination. 1+6+4+2+2
including prr""""."r"iica1 and non-pharmacological
iv) outline the principles for treatment i) What is your provisional diagnosis?
intet-ventions of the above mention
scenarlo' e - ---^..^-^-ont nf ",,,'h conclil ' ii) How do you manage this condition?
v)Explainwhyneostigmineispreferredoverphysostigrrrineformanagementofsuchconditton. iii) What is the mechanism of action of insrrlin?
mechanism of action of furosemide -
in chronic heart failure' ii,) What is acute insulin resistance?
r. a) crassiry diuretics. Describc trrc io^g t.t rr""ofir'i"'iat aiuretici' J+4+3
v) Mention trvo newer insulin delivery devices.
Mention rhree rmportant adr erse .,ei'ti or
b)A8yearoldchiidpresentedwithSeverepallorandhugesplenomegaly.Hehashistoryof 5+3+2
2 a) Classify peripherally acting muscle relaxant. Write down the mechanism of action of
thalassemia major' depolariziig muscle reiaxant aird its adverse effects. Rationalo of using Dantrolene sodium in
repeated biood transfusion for beta :: .^: in their
to manage the iron overroad
^.,,".t.,r,1 in this condition and Malignant i'yperthermia. -
4+4+2
i.what are the iron chelating agents used b) E"numerut. ttr" dnrgs used in acid-peptic disorders. Write the mechanism of ac_tions of proton
side effects? p"*p inhibitor with s;hematic diagram. Outline the triple ard qrradruple therapy for helicobacter
ii. What is the role of folic acid in beta
thalassemia? +4+2
iryfoii
'ri I +Zinfection.
iii. Mention the uses of penicillamine' year old lady reported with breast carcinoma and bone metastasis. Her cancer was
c)Deltnedrugclearance.Ylil"downthefactorsinfluencedrugclearance.Mentiontwo managed and now she receives morphinc 6 hourly for her bone p.ain. What is the mechanism of
with suitable explanations. 2+3+5
on clearance action" of morphine as an analgesic? Why is ,morphine contraindicated in cases of head injury?
phaimacokinetic parameters r,vhich depend
2x5 Which cirug is'used in morphine overdose and *hat is its mechanism of action? 4+2+2+2
3. Wnte short notes on following: J Write short notes on following: 2x5
a) ConveY of bad news to Patient' a) Monoclonal antibodies as anti-cancer ageut.
b) TheraPeutic adherence' b) Atypical antipsychotics.
5x4
4 Explain the following statements: . 4. Explain the follou'ing statements: 5x4
over clopidogrel'
uj-?.ugr.lor is prefired as antiplateiet drug a) Isoniazid is an essential component of all antitubercular regirrens.
b)Pilocarpineisusedinbothopenangleandangleclosureglaucoma. b) Recombinant parathyroid hormone is used to prevent osteoporosis.
asthma in susceptible individual
c) Aspirin *r. *ry pr""ipltut" u, uttu& of bronJhial
of choice in anaphylactic shock'
c) Dapagliflozin is useful beyond diabetes mellitus.
is the drug cl) Mesna is combined with cyclophospl"ramide.
d) Adrenaline but nit noiudr.naline
.j frutiaoxime is not used in carbamate poisoning' e) Letrorole is first line adjuvant therapy atler tnastectomy in post menopausal lvomen.