REVIEWER 1: ORTHODONTICS AND PEDIATRIC DENTISTRY
1. Gingival cavosurface beveling is not indicated in Class II cavity preparation for
deciduous teeth, because the direction of the enamel rods are toward:
A. Cervical B. Occlusal C. gingival D. Apical E. all
of these
2. Etching time for deciduous dentition is ----- compared to permanent dentition:
A. shorter B. longer C. the same D. none of the choices
3. The least amount of tooth surface reduction in stainless steel crown preparation is:
A. Occlusal B. Proximal C. lingual D. Buccal
E. none
4. Ellis classification of tooth fracture when the coronal pulp is exposed:
A. Class I B. Class II C. Class III D. Class IV
E. Class V
5. Ellis classification of tooth fracture when a tooth is lost as a result of trauma
A. Class I B. Class II C. Class III D. Class IV
E. Class V
6. Ellis classification of a non-vital traumatized tooth:
A. Class I B. Class II C. Class III D. Class IV
E. Class V
7. Treatment of choice for an immature non vital permanent tooth to stimulate root closure:
A. Indirect pulp capping C. Pulpotomy
B. Pulpectomy D. Apexogenesis E. Apexification
8. Use of formocresol:
A. to stop bleeding C. Stimulate secondary dentin
B. render area of fixation D. Dissolve the pulp tissue E. all of these
9. Materials that is used to induced apexification:
A. calcium hydroxide C. Formocresol
B. Zinc oxide eugenol D. IRM E. Gutta percha
10. Treatment of choice for a pulp exposed primary molar except:
A. Direct pulp capping C. pulpotomy
B. Pulpectomy D. all of these E. none of the above
11. Superficial wound due to scrapping of the mucosa:
A. laceration B. Contusion C. abrasion D. Attrition
12. Direct pulp capping is limited to permanent teeth only When done on primary tooth a
high rate of failure is expected due to:
A. external resorption B. internal resorption C. abscess formation
D. tooth mobility
13. Medicaments for DPC:
A. CA(OH)2 B. zinc phosphate C. Glass ionomer D. Fermin
14. Evaluation for dentin bridge formation after DPC is after:
A. 6-8 weeks B. 3 months C. 2 months D. 2 weeks
15. Removal of superficial carious dentin from a deep lesion closely approximating the pulp
A. DPC B.IPC C. pulpotomy D. Pulpectomy E. Apexification
16. For IPC, the patient is recalled after --- to complete the removal of caries :
A. 2 weeks B. 3 weeks C. 4-5 weeks D. 6-8 weeks
17. Gingival margin of a tooth that will receive a stainless steel crown should have a ___finish
line:
A. shoulder B. feather edge C. none of these
18. The ultimate objective of pulp capping is:
A. to preserve the pulp and odontoblast so that secondary dentin will be deposited
B. to prevent bacterial contamination
C. to prevent pain
D. none of the above.
19. The purpose of pulp treatment and root canal filling is to:
A. remove pulpal tissue
B. prolong the usefulness of a tooth to function in mastication
C. enlarge the root canal
20. The following are indications for celluloid strip crown, except:
A. severe dental caries C. hypoplastic teeth
B. fractured teeth D. extensive caries with minimal intact enamel
21. Primary molars with multi-surface caries ( 3 or more) are best restored using:
A.GIC B. Posterior composite C. stainless steel crown D. amalgam restoration
E. none
22. Primary teeth have pulpal inflammation when the bacterial infested dentin is __ mm from
the pulp:
A. 0.6 B. 0.8 C. 1.6 D. 1.8 E. none
23. Requires retentive groove in tooth preparation:
A. anterior SSC B. strip crown C. posterior SSC D. none of these
24. The best alternative diagnostic aid in the absence of cephalometric head plate:
A. study cast C. facial photograph
B. radiograph D. both A & C E. none of these
25, A narrow maxillary arch with respect to midsagittal plane is said to be in:
A, protraction B. retraction C. contraction D. distraction
26 Conditions found on the area of pressure in the presence of heavy forces:
I. area of hyalinization III. Stretched periodontal fibers
II. occlusion of blood vessels IV. Undermining resorption
A. I, II & III B. I, II & IV C. II, III & IV D. I, II, III & IV E. III & IV only
27, An elongating force will move the tooth:
C. towards the socket C. on its axis E. none of these
D. away from the occlusal plane D. towards the occlusal plane
28, Potential negative tissue response to heavy force:
I. root resorption III. Excessive tooth mobility
II. pulpal hemorrhage IV. Bone deposition
A. I, II & III B. I, II & IV C. II, III & IV D. III & IV E. I, II, III & IV
29, Appliance indicated for bruxism:
E. oral screen B. buccal shield C. night guard D. lip bumper
30. T-cut made on celluloid strip crown is placed on the ___ surface?
A. labial B. lingual C. mesial D. distal
31. The following are favorable storage medium for avulsed tooth, except:
A. Hank’s buffered saline C. Isotonic saline
B. pasteurized bovine milk D. human saliva E. water
32.Treatment for non-vital tooth with open apex:
A.IPC B. Pulpotomy C. DPC D. Pulpectomy E.
Apexification
33. method that used a verbal explanation with demonstration of the procedures to be done :
A. TSD C. Positive reinforcement
B Voice control D. Distraction E. Non Verbal
communication
34. This method is not indicated on children who are emotionally immature
A. TSD C. Positive reinforcement
B Voice control D. Distraction E. Non-Verbal communication
35. Diverts the attention of the patient from what may be perceived as an unpleasant procedure
A. TSD C. Positive reinforcement
B Voice control D. Distraction E.Non Verbal communication
36. Conveying reinforcement and guiding behavior through contact, posture and facial
expression
A. TSD C. Positive reinforcement
B Voice control D. Distraction E. Non-Verbal communication
37. Method used to strengthen the occurrence of desired behavior through verbal praise, giving
tokens and toys
A. TSD C. Positive reinforcement
B Voice control D. Distraction E. Non Verbal
communication
38. A period where a child undergoes separation anxiety:
A. Infancy B. Toddlerhood C. Preschool D. School age E.
Adolescence
39.Parent who are mistrusting are:
A. overprotective B. manipulative C. neglectful D. Hostile parent
40. Parent who are demanding and can extend to directing the course of the treatment is a :
A. overprotective B. manipulative C. neglectful D. Hostile parent
41. A parent who postponed the dental treatment of his/her child is a :
A. overprotective B. manipulative C. neglectful D. Hostile parent
42.A type of conditioning where in a specific response is immediately rewarded
A. Classical conditioning C. operator conditioning
B. operant conditioning D. conditioning E. classic conditioning
43. A type of preventive dentistry where the main concern is to slow down the process of a
disease:
A. Primary prevention B. Secondary prevention C. tertiary prevention
44.Sedation technique for physically impaired or mentally retarded
A. inhalation B. oral C. intramuscular D. submucosal E. intravenous
45.For sedation via intramuscular route, the --- of the gluteal region is the safest
A. upper inner B. upper outer C. lower inner D. lower
outer quadrant
46. Device that assess the arterial hemoglobin oxygen saturation and pulse rate that is updated
every heartbeat
A. automated vital sign monitor B. pulse oximeter C. pretracheal stethoscope
D. none
47. termination of the NO oxygen sedation should be flushed with--- oxygen
A. 20 % B. 40% C. 60% D> 80% E. 100%
48. A Childs arms and leg can be immobilized with
A. head positioner B. plaster bowl C. posey strap D. forearm body
support E. molt prop
49. Types of pits and fissures most susceptible to caries attack:
A. V shape B. I shape C. T Shape D. Y shape
50.The most effective and cost effective means of receiving fluoride:
A. water fluoridation D. prenatal fluoride
B. dietary supplement E. Fluoride rinse
C. Professional application of concentrated form of fluoride
51. Increase in lower intercanine width is due to:
A. labial positioning of permanent anterior teeth as they erupt
B. divergence of alveolar process
C. dental tipping of canine into the primate spaces during eruption of permanent incisors
D. expanding “V” principle
E. None of the above.
52. The crown of lower 6 erupt, tipped somewhat lingually and do not upright until the eruption
of lower 7. As the lower 6 uprights, it:
A. increases the arch perimeter C. increases the arch width
B. decreases the arch perimeter D. decreases the arch width
53. Lower arch perimeter from mixed to permanent dentition:
A. increases slightly C. remains the same
B. decreases D. increases slightly but has an equal chance to increase or
decrease.
54. These are present at birth, having appeared as normal part of prenatal maturation of the
neuromusculature:
A. conditioned reflexes B. unconditioned reflexes C. voluntary activities
55. Transition from infantile to mature swallow takes place over several months depending
on timing of maturation but most children achieve mature swallow by ___ yrs.
A. 1 ½ B. 3 C. 5 D. 7
56. The most accepted and widely used classification system is:
A. Simon’s B. Angle’s C. Dewey-Anderson D. Ackermann & Profitt
57. Dewey-Anderson modifications for Class II malocclusion:
A. types 1-3 B. types 1-5 C. types 0-5 D. none of these
58. A system of classification in which five characteristics and interrelationships are
described:
A. Simon’s B. Angle’s C. Dewey-Anderson D. Ackermann & Profitt
59. Normal relationship in the primary dentition is:
A. procumbent C. slightly retrusive
B. same as in adults D. almost vertical
60. Overbite from 3 to 5 years old,
A. remains relatively the same B. decreases C. increases
61. Precise bite/jaw relationship is not yet seen or established at birth because of:
A. immaturity of neuromuscular control C. ill-defined eminentia articularis
B. absence of teeth D. all of the choices
62. Spacing of incisors at age 7-9 (ugly duckling) stage :
A. should be treated at once
B. is an abnormal stage of dentitional development
C. should be left undisturbed; let nature take its course
D. refer the case to a specialist; this is a difficult case
63. Which one is an incorrect description of Nolla’s stages of calcification?
A. Stage 4, 2/3 of the crown completed C. Stage 7, 1/3 of the root completed
B. Stage 6, crown almost completed D. Stage 9, root almost completed, open
apex
64. Which of the following sequence of eruption is not favorable for maintaining arch
length?
A. 6-1-2-4-5-3-7 upper C. 6-1-2-3-4-5-7 lower
B. 1-6-2-4-5-3-7 upper D. 1-6-2-3-4-5-7 lower
E. 6-1-2-7-4-5-3 upper
65. Mesiodistal measurement of CDE- mesiodistal widths of erupting 345 yields:
A. lack of space
B. excess space
C. Qno additional space in the posterior segment
66. Space differential in an anterior segment (BA/AB) - 21/12 gives :
A. excess space B. no space differential C. negative space
67. This phenomenon occurs in patients with spaced primary dentition and a straight
terminal relationship of primary molars. The permanent mandibular first molars emerge
at age 6, move the primary molars mesially, close the space distal to the primary
canines and correct the straight terminal plane relationship to a mesial step
relationship.
A. early mesial shift B. homeostatic occlusion C. late mesial shift.
68. Type of malocclusion that is prone to fracture of the anterior teeth:
A. Class II Division 2 C. Class I Type 3
B. Class II Division 1 D. Class I Type 1 E. none of these
69. Maximum number of cartridges that can be used if a child weighs 54 pounds.
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5
70. The following types of fluoride can be applied every 6 months , except
A. acidulated phosphate fluoride C. sodium fluoride
B. stannous fluoride D. two of the above
71. An adjunctive diagnostic tool for treatment planning orthodontics that gives information
on possible growth pattern and can give an accurate bone age picture of the patient:
F. hand & wrist C. panoramic
G. cephalometrics D. tomogram E. periapical radiograph
72. Which of the following is the order of tooth extraction in a serial extraction procedure?
I. Primary canines II. Selected premolars III. Primary first molars
A. I, II, III B. I, III, II C. II, I, III D. II, III, I E. III, I, II
73. The distal step in the primary dentition will result in:
A. end to end molar relationship C. Class I molar relationship
B. Class III molar relationship D. Class II molar relationship
74. This is a process of reshaping and resizing as a consequence of progressive
continuous relocation:
A. drift C. remodeling
B. displacement D. translation E. none of these.
75. The tooth movement most readily accomplished with a removable appliance is:
A. tipping C. root movement
B. torquing D. bodily movement E. none of these
76. A 12 year old boy exhibits a deep anterior vertical overlap, maxillary centrals are
inclined lingually, and maxillary lateral incisors protrude. Maxillary molars are in an
anterior relationship with mandibular molars. The Angle classification is:
A. Class I C. Class II, Division 1, Subdivision
B. Class II, Division 1 D. Class II, Division 2 E. Class III
77. Recurring tooth rotations occur most frequently after orthodontic correction because of:
A. density of the cortical bone
B. persistence of tongue and finger habits
C. persistence of free gingival and transseptal fibers
D. persistence of oblique fibers of the periodontal ligaments
78. The best alternative diagnostic aid in the absence of cephalometric head plate:
A. study cast C. facial photograph
B. radiograph D. both A & C E. none of these
79. An elongating force will move the tooth:
A. towards the socket C. on its axis E. none of these
B. away from the occlusal plane D. towards the occlusal plane
80. Appliance indicated for bruxism:
A. oral screen B. buccal shield C. night guard D. lip bumper
81. Open bite is term applied when:
A. torsiversion is present
B. there is an abnormal buccolingual relationship of the teeth
H. there is an excessive vertical overlap of the incisors
I. there is localized absence of occlusion, while the remaining teeth are in
occlusion
J. none of the above.
82. A 5-year old boy who lives in an area where fluoride content of the drinking water
averages 0.75ppm should be supplemented with how much fluoride per day?
A. 0 mg. B. 0.25 mg C. 0.50 mg. D. 1.00mg.
83. Generally speaking, intruded primary teeth should be:
A. observed C. extracted
B. repositioned by hand D. treated pulpally E. none of
these
84. An intruded primary tooth which is found in a lingual or encroaching relationship to the
developing permanent tooth as confirmed with a lateral radiograph of the anterior
segment:
A. observed C. extracted
B. repositioned by hand D. treated pulpally E. none of
these.
85. The development of dentition is delayed, there is complete primary dentition at age 15,
delayed eruption of permanent teeth, and presence of supernumerary teeth. This is
most likely to be:
A. 21-Trisomy syndrome C. hypothyroidism
B. cleidocranial dysostosis D. hypopituitarism E. achondroplastic
dwarfism
86. Which of the following conditions is usually present in a Class II, Division 2
malocclussion?
A. Open bite
B. Steep mandibular plane
C. Mesiocclusion of permanent first molars
D. Lingual inclination of maxillary central incisors
87. Excessive orthodontic force used to move a tooth may:
1. cause hyalinization
2. cause undermining resorption
3. crush the periodontal ligament
A. 1 & 2 B. 2 & 3 C. 1 & 3 D. 1, 2 & 3 E. 3 only
88. A bimaxillary protrusion occurs when:
A. large horizontal overlap with bilateral crossbite exits
B. the maxillary dentition is forward with respect to basal bone
C. both dental arches are forward with respect to basal bone
D. none of the choices.
89. A narrow maxillary arch with respect to midsagittal plane is said to be in:
A. Protraction C. contraction
B. retraction D. distraction E. both C & D
90. A distal shoe space maintainer is indicated when a primary:
A. incisor is avulsed
B. first molar is prematurely lost
C. second molar is lost after eruption of a permanent first molar
D. second molar is lost before eruption of a permanent first molar
91. At age 0 – 5, which has grown the most at 85%?
A. Neurocranium B. maxilla C. mandible
92. The increase in length of the maxilla is due to:
A. apposition on the posterior border of the maxillary tuberosity
B. progressive movement of the entire zygomatic process in posterior direction
C. growth in the median suture
D. Both A & B
E. none of these.
93. Nasomaxillary morphology and growth can be altered. The sutural system adapts to:
A. posterior forces C. transverse forces
B. anterior traction D. all of the choices.
94. The principal force that produce the downward and forward displacement of the
mandible:
A. condylar cartilage C. ramal growth
B. corpus D. soft tissue development E. none of these
95. Addition of alveolar bone, as the teeth erupt and slight additions on the body of the
mandible and coronoid notch increase ___ of the mandible
A. length B. height C. width
96. When is the best time to influence, retard and redirect growth?
A. after puberty C. just before and during puberty
B. before puberty D. time element is not important
97. Apposition on the posterior border of ramus with remodeling resorption on the anterior
border of mandible increases its:
A. antero-posterior dimension B. height C. width
98. In the mouth of a neonate, the lower gum pad is ____ the upper gum pad:
A. ahead B. behind C. in line with
99. Terminal plane is found?
A. distal of D B. mesial of D C. distal of E D. mesial of E
100. Primate space is found:
A. mesial of the lower cuspid and distal of upper cuspid
B. distal of lower cuspid and distal of upper cuspid
C. mesial of lower cuspid and mesial of upper cuspid
D. mesial of upper cuspid and distal of lower cuspid
