Alabang-Zapote Road, Pamplona 3, Las Piñas City, Metro Manila 1740,

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Comprehensive examination Ortho-Pedo

Prepared By: Dr. Brian E. Esporlas
Direction : Choose the best answer and write it on the answer sheet provided.DO NOT WRITE ANYTHING ON
THE EXAMINATION PAPER!!!

1. Which of the following is true regarding crowding of dentition?

a. Crowding of the primary dentition usually resolves as the permanent teeth erupt.
b. Spacing in the primary dentition usually indicates spacing will be present in the adult.
c. Approximately 15% of adolescents have crowding severe enough to consider
extraction of permanent teeth as part of treatment.
d. Lower incisor crowding is more common in African-American that white populations.

2. According to Scammon’s growth curves, which of the following tissues has a growth
increase that can be used to help predict timing of the adolescent growth spurt?
a. Neural tissues c. Reproductive tissues
b. Lymphoid tissues

3. An adult patient with Class II molar relationship and cephalometric ANB angle of 2
degrees has which type of malocclusion?
a. Class II dental malocclusion c. Class I dental malocclusion
b. Class II skeletal malocclusion d. Class II skeletal malocclusion

4. Which of the following reactions is least likely to be observed during orthodontic

treatment?
a. Root resorption c. Mobility of teeth that are moved
b. Devitalization of teeth that are moved d. development of occlusal interferences

5. Class II elastics are used by stretching an elastic between which of the two following points?
a. From the posterior to the anterior within the maxillary arch.
b. From the posterior to the anterior within the mandibular arch.
c. From the posterior of the maxillary arch to the anterior of the mandibular arch.
d. From the posterior of the mandibular arch to the anterior of the maxillary arch.

6. Which of the following depicts the usual order of extraction is chosen as the treatment to
alleviate severe crowding?
a. Primary second molars, primary first molars, permanent first premolars, primary
canines
b. Primary canines, primary first molars, permanent first premolars.
c. Primary first molars, primary first molars, primary canines
d. Primary canines, permanent canines, primary first molars, permanent first premolars

7. Reduction of overbite can be accomplished most readily by which of the following tooth
movements?
a. Intruding maxillary incisors
b. Uprighting maxillary and mandibular incisors
c. Using a high-pull headgear to the maxillary molars
d. Using lip bumper

8. During an emergency dental visit in which a tooth is to be extracted due to extensive pulpal
involvement, a moderately mentally challenged 5-year old child becomes physically
combative. The parents are unable to calm the child. What should the dentist do?
a. Discuss the situation with the parents.
b. Force the nitrous oxide nosepiece over the child’s mouth and nose.
c. Use the hand over mouth exercise
d. Use a firm voice control.

9. The enamel rods in the gingival third of primary teeth slope occlusally instead of
cervically as in permanent teeth, and the interproximal contacts of primary teeth
are broader and flatter than permanent teeth.
a. The first statement is true and the second statement is true.
b. The first statement is true and the second statement is false.
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c. The first statement is false and the second statement is true.
d. The first statement is false and the second statement is false.

10. The mother of a 5-year-old patient is concerned about the child’s thumb-sucking habit.
Six months ago, the patient had 5-mm overjet and a 3-mm anterior open bite. Today, the
patient has 10% overbite and 3.5-mm overjet. The mother says that the child only sucks
his thumb every night when falling to sleep. Of the following which is the best advice?
a. Refer to a speech pathologist.
b. Recommend tongue thrust therapy.
c. Recommend a thumb-sucking appliance.
d. Counsel the parent regarding thumb-sucking, and recall the patient in 3 months.

11. Your patient is 4 years old. Tooth E was traumatically intruded and visible clinically. What
is your treatment of choice?
a. Reposition and splint
b. Reposition and splint, and primary endodontics.
c. Reposition and splint, and formocresol pulpotomy.
d. none of the above.

12. A young permanent incisor with an open apex has a pinpoint exposure due to a traumatic
injury that occurred 24 hours previously. The best treatment is ________.
a. Place calcium hydroxide non the pinpoint exposure.
b. Open the pulp chamber to find healthy pulp tissue and perform a pulpectomy.
c. Iniatiate a calcium hydroxide pulpectomy
d. Initiate conventional root canal treatment with gutta-percha

13. Which of the following types of malocclusions is most common?

a. Class I malocclusion c. Class III malocclusion
b. Class II malocclusion d. Open bite malocclusion

14. Of the following, which is the last reliable way to predict the timing of the peak of the
adolescent growth spurt for an individual?
a. plotting changes in height over time on a growth curve
b. Following eruption timing of the dentition
c. taking a hand-wrist radiograph to assess skeletal development
d. Observing changes in secondary sex characteristics

15. Children in the primary dentition most often present with _______.
a. increased overbite c. ideal overbite
b. decreased overbite d. significant open bite
16. A patient with the maxillary first permanent molar mesiobuccal cusp sitting distal to the
buccal groove of the mandibular first molar has which type if malocclusion?
a. Class I c. Class II, division 2
b. Class II, division 1 d. Class III
17. In a patient who displays excessive maxillary incisor at rest, has excessive lower face height, and has a deep
overbite, which of the following would be the preferred
method of overbite correction?
a. Eruption of posterior teeth to rotate the mandible open
b. Intrusion of maxillary incisors
c. Intrusion of mandibular incisors
d. Flaring of maxillary and mandibular incisors

18. Which of the following reactions is least likely to be observed during orthodontic treatment?
a. Root resorption
b. Devitalization of teeth that are moved
c. Mobility of teeth that are moved
d. Development of occlusal interferences.
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19. Putting a force through which of the following points would cause pure translation of a tooth without
rotation, tipping, or torque?
a. Center of rotation c. Center of the bracket

b. Center of resistance d. Apex of the root

20. Two equal and opposite forces that are not collinear applied to a tooth are called which of the following?
a. center resistance c. Root movement
b. center of rotation d. A couple

21. A wire extending from the molars to the incisors is activated to intrude the incisors. What is the side effect on
the molars?
a. molars will tip forward and intrude c. molars will tip distally and extrude
b. molars will rotate mesiobucally d. molars will rotate distobucally

22. Class II elastics are used by stretching elastic between which of the two following points?
a. posterior to the anterior within the maxillary arch
b. posterior of the maxillary arch to the anterior within the mandibular arch
c. posterior of the maxillary arch to the anterior of the mandibular arch
d. posterior of the mandibular arch to the anterior of the maxillary arch

23. What is a second-order bend?

a. A bend to position a tooth buccolingually
b. A bend to provide angulation of a tooth in mesiodistal direction (tip)
c. A bend to provide correct angulation of a tooth in labiolingual direction (torque)
d. A bend to rotate a tooth

22. When Class III elastic are used, the maxillary first molars will_____>
a. Move distally and intrude
b. Move mesially and extrude
c. Move mesially and intrude
d. Move only mesially; there will be no movement in the vertical direction

23. An adolescent patient presents to your office with a skeletal and dental Class II malocclusion and a deep bite.
Which of the following would be a proper treatment
plan for this patient?
A Low pull head gear, prior to fixed appliance
b. Reverse-pull headgear, intrusion arch, and full fixed appliances
c. Extraction of maxillary first premolars, extrusion arch, and full fixed appliances
d. Extraction of maxillary first premolars, intrusion arch, and full fixed appliances

24. When using a cervical-pull headgear, the forces generated on the maxillary first molar cause this tooth to move
in which of the following ways?
a. Mesially and to extrude c. Mesially and to intrude
b. Distally and to extrude d. Distally and to intrude

25. Which of the following depicts the usual order of extraction of teeth if serial extraction is chosen as the
treatment to alleviate severe crowding?
a. Primary second molars, primary first molars, permanent first premolars, primary canines
b. Primary canines, primary first molars, permanent first premolars
c. Primary first molars, primary second molars, primary canines
d. Primary canines, permanent canines, primary first molars, permanent first premolars

26. All of the following may be indications to consider extraction of permanent teeth in an orthodontic patient
except_____.
a. Excessive crowding c. Flat lip profile
b. Class II interarch relationship d. Anterior open bite.
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27. Advantages of fixed wire retention compared to a removable Hawley-type retainer include which of the
following?
a. Does not require the patient to remember to wear it.
b. Is easier to clean
c. The design can be altered to achieve minor tooth movements.
d. It can incorporate an acrylic bite plate to avoid relapse of overbite correction.

28. The preferred surgical procedure to correct a Class II malocclusion due to a deficient mandible is which of the
following?
a. Maxillary impaction c. Mandibular setback
b. Maxillary setback d. Mandibular advancement

29. Of the following which is considered to be the least stable orthognathic surgical
movement?
a. Advancement of the mandible
b. Advancement of the maxilla
c. Superior movement (impaction) of the maxilla
d. Inferior movement of the maxilla

30. Why are implants not generally performed on a 12-year-old patient with congenitally
missing lateral incisors?
a. The patient would likely not be able to tolerate the surgical procedure.
b. Waiting for the crowns is too much of an esthetic issue with most children that age.
c. The gingival tissue will recede as the child gets older.
d. The implants will appear to submerge as the child gets older.

31. On the health history form, the mother of a 6-year-old new patient notes that the child is moderately mentally
challenged. The dentist should ______.
a. Refer to paediatric dentist
b. Use a Tell-show-Do technique of behaviour management
c. Use conscious sedation
d. Use restraints after obtaining informed consent

32. Which of the following local anesthetic techniques is recommended for anesthetizing a primary mandibular
second molar which will be extracted?
a. Buccal and lingual infiltration adjacent to the second primary molar.
b. Inferior alveolar nerve block
c. Inferior alveolar nerve block and lingual nerve block
d. Inferior alveolar, lingual and buccal nerve block

33. In the primary dentition, the mandibular foramen is located where in relation to the plane of occlusion?
a. Higher than the plane of occlusion
b. Much higher than the plane of occlusion
c. Lower than the occlusion
d. The same level as the plane of occlusion

34. Following the administration of a local anesthetic, most patients can be maintained in conscious sedation at
_______.
a. 20%-40% nitrous oxide c. 50% nitrous oxide
b. 20%- 40% oxygen d. 10% nitrous oxide

35. Your patient is 7 years old and has a very large, carious lesion on tooth. What radiological factors should be
used in determining the best treatment of choice between pulpotomy and primary endodontics?
a. Furcation involvement d. Two of the above
b. External root resorption e. All of the above
c. Internal root resorption
34. Which pulpotomy medicament demonstrates better success rates than formocresol?
a. Mineral trioxide aggregate
b. Calcium hydroxide
c. Resin-modified glass ionomer cement
d. Fifth-generation bonding agents
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35. A 1-year-old patient has first
PHILIPPINESwww.perpetualdalta.edu.ph dental
• +63(02) examination. The dentist reviews with the parent when to expect
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the next teeth to erupt, teething, oral hygiene tips for toddlers, and discusses fluoride issues with bottled
water and toothpaste. The term that describes this proactive approach to dental care is ________.
a. Risk assessment c. Anticipatory guidance
b. Probability counselling d. Preventive support counselling

36. Most natal and neonatal teeth are primary teeth. They should be extracted.
a. The first statement is true and the second statement is true
b. The first statement is true and the second statement is false
c. The first statement is false and the second statement is true
d. The first statement is false and the second statement is false

34. Your patient is 8 years old. Tooth #8 was avulsed and you replanted it within 30 minutes. What is the best
splint to use?
a. Rigid fixation for 7 days c. Nonrigid fixation for 7 days
b. Rigid fixation for 2 months d. Nonrigid fixation for 2 months

35. Your patient is 8 years old. Teeth #8 and #9 have approximately 50% of their crowns erupted. One month ago,
the patient fell from a skateboard and hit teeth #8 and #9 on the sidewalk. The radiograph today shows
open apices of these teeth, normal PDL, and no apparent periapical radiolucency. The patient has no
reaction to electrical pulp tests. What is your treatment of choice?
a. Calcium hydroxide pulpotomy
b. Formocresol apexification technique
c. Calcium hydroxide apexification technique
d. Reappoint for exam and radiographs in 6 weeks

36. A permanent incisor with a closed apex is traumatically intruded. What is the treatment of choice?
a. Gradual orthodontic repositioning and calcium hydroxide pulpectomy.
b. Surgical repositioning and calcium hydroxide pulpectomy.
c. Gradual orthodontic repositioning and conventional endodontic therapy
d. Surgical repositioning and conventional endodontic therapy.

37. The key to producing effective orthodontic tooth movement is the application of

a.heavy intermittent force

b.light continuous force
c.heavy continuous force
d.all of the above can be clinically acceptable

38. Which of the following statements is true regarding the Nance holding arch?
a. palatal button is incorporated in the design
b. it is indicated for bilateral loss of primary mandi molars
c. its design will inhibit thumb sucking habit
d. can be activated to distalize the mandi molars

39. Causes of a persistent midline diastema are the following EXCEPT

a.supernumerary tooth c.high attachment of labial frenum
b.tongue-thrust habit d.all of the above
40. Bilateral space maintainers EXCEPT
a. Nance’s holding arch d. Lingual holding arch
b. Transpalatal arch e. None of the above
c. Band and loop

41. Space maintainer which uses a single band w/ a distal extension to guide the eruption of the 6-year molar
a. Band and loop c. Crown and loop
b. Band and loop with occlusal pad d. Distal shoe
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42. Appliance used to correct a lower lip biting habit
a. transpalatal c. hay rake
b. lip bumper d. inclined bite plane

43. The following are procedures included in preventive orthodontics EXCEPT:

a. PFS c. frenectomy
b. germectomy d. serial extraction

44. Tissue least likely to be affected by orthodontic tooth movement

a. enamel d. pulp
b. periodontal ligament e. cementum
c. alveolar bone

45. Pair of concentrated forces having equal magnitude and opposite direction
a. moment c. couple
b. stress and strain d. range

46. Which of the following has the property to stimulate both osteoblastic and osteoclastic activity?
a. prostaglandin E c. prostaglandin A
b. steroids d. CAMP

47. Which of the following statements is true regarding the stress-strain diagram
a. more horizontal the slope, the stiffer the wire
b. more vertical the slope, the springier the wire
c. more horizontal the slope, the springier the wire
d. none of the above

48. Which of the following is not a factor in determining the type of anchorage?
a. Type of teeth being moved c. Bone support
b. Number of teeth being moved d. Duration of tooth movement

49. Your patient is 9 years old. The mandibular left first primary molar has a large, carious lesion on the distal and
on the occlusal and the tooth has greater mobility than what you would normally expect. You should _____.
a. Take a radiograph of the area
b. Perform a pulpotomy
c. Perform pulpectomy
d. Extract the tooth and consider space maintenance

50. Theory of orthodontic tooth movement which relates tooth movement with cellular changes produced by
chemical messengers
a. Piezoelectric Effect c. Bioelectric Theory
b. Pressure-Tension Theory d. None of the above

51. Controlled crown tipping is characterized by

a. greater movement of crown than the root
b. center of rotation at its apex
c. minimal movement of the root
d. great lingual movement

52. Which of the following may be used to correct crossbite?

a. intermaxillary elastics
b. expansion screws
c. inclined plane
d. removable appliance with finger spring
e. only 3 of the above

53. A prerequisite of interrupted force is

a. forces should be heavy
b. fixed appliance
c. appliance is removed at least 2 hrs each day
d. force applied continuously
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54. wich is not a method to reduce radiation exposure in dental radiography?
a.use of a lead diaphragm
b.collimation of x-ray beam
c.increase the distance between the film and the source
d.use of alumination filtration

55.”flush terminal plane” refers to the

a.primary cuspids c.permanent cuspids
b.first permanent molars d.second primary molars

56.a comprehensive pedodontic examiniation should begin with

a.charing caries
b.a clinical impression of physical and mental condition
c.an orthodontic evaluation
d.determination of dental age

57.a child with a high caries experience should be best be examined how often?
a.every 6 months
b.whenever the parents feel it its necessary
c.every 60 days
d.it would be advisable to send these patients to a pedodontist

58.dilaceration refers to
a.soft tissue injury resulting from trauma
b.traumatic injury to a tooth germ during a critical stage of development
c.geminated teeth
d.none of the above

59.in a type of cerebral palsy characterized by sudden violent involuntary contraction of a muscle or group of
muscle there is
a.spasticity d.rigidity
b.ataxia e.tremor
c.athetosis

60.scheduling the length of a dental appointment for the deaf or blind child will depend upon which of the
following?
a.whatever the parents feel is a good working time
b.whatever the child feels is a good working time
c.the chronological age of the child
d.the emotional nature of the child

60. The undesirable side-effect most commonly associated with the use of a buccal coil
spring is:
a. Pain c. tendency for premolar to rotate
b. Gingival irritation d. tendency for the molar to intrude

61. In classifying the occlusion in a patient with premature primary molar loss, an additional observation to
reinforce the initial evaluation should be:
a. Midline relation c. incisor relation
b. Canine relation d. profile

62. The disadvantage of simple anchorage is that the anchor teeth may:
a. Tip c. rotate on the long axis
b. Move bodily d. cause root resorption

63. When spacing occurs in the maxillary anterior teeth as a result of the frenum, it is wise to avoid treatment
until the eruption of :
a. Permanent central incisors c. Permanent canines
b. Permanent lateral incisors d. Permanent dentition
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64. Early loss of mandibular primary canine often leads to lingual collapse of the anterior segment, The best space
maintainer for early loss of a mandibular primary canine is a :
a. Nance arch c. lingual arch
b. Band and loop space maintainer d. lingual arch with coil spring

65. If an active lingual arch were placed to correct a bilateral crossbite, the type of anchorage
used would be:
a. Simple c. compound
b. Complex d. reciprocal

66. A unilateral fracture of the mandibular condyle in a child:

a. Will not affect future mandibular growth
b. Should always be subject to open reduction
c. May result in asymmetrical mandibular growth
d. Inhibits maxillary molar development

67. The injection technique for a mandibular block in a child places the needle:
a. The same as in an adult
b. Lower on the ramus than in an adult
c. Higher on the ramus than in an adult
d. Inhibits maxillary molar development

68. To help establish rapport with a fearful child, it would be best for the dentist to:
a. Sit down to the patient’s level
b. Assure the child he will not be hurt
c. Remain silent to permit the child to evaluate the situation
d. Stand at full height to show that he is in command of the situation

69. When one upright a lower first molar with a loop lingual, particular care must be exercised so as not to:
a. Extrude the buccal segments c. over –correct the molar
b. Flare the lower incisors d. none of the above

70. Which of the ff. are directly attributable to teething?

a. Diarrhea c. otitis media
b. Convulsion d. none79. what is the average age of female growth spurt?
a. 11 to 13 months old
b. 14 to 16 months old
c. 11 to 13 years old
d. 14 to 16 years old
71. What is the normal movement of maxilla?
a. backward, upward
b. forward, upward
c. downward, backward
d. downward, forward

72. the patient is frankle double double negative, which means

a. highly cooperative
b. cooperative
c. uncooperative
d. highly uncooperative
73. The downward and forward direction of facial growth results from :
a. Upward and backward growth of the max. structures and the mandibular condyle.
b. Vertical eruption and mesial drift of the dentitions
c. Interstitial growth in the maxilla and the mandible
d. Epithelial induction at the growth centers.
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74. A 10-year old boy has an Angle Class III molar relationship and an incisor crossbite when
his jaws are closed to centric occlusion. When his jaws are guided to a centric relation
position, the molar relationship is Class I and the incisors are edge to edge,
anteroposteriorly. You should advice that:
a. The child has growth problem and the occlusal correction will not be completed until growth is
complete.
b. The incisor malrelationship should be corrected immediately.
c. Future growth, is likely to correct this problem.
d. Correction should take place after growth is completed.

75. A primary 2nd molar in infraocclusion and its occlusal surface is level with the gingival
margin of the permanent first molar which is beginning to tip mesially . X-ray indicate a
developing permanent 2nd premolar present . The dentist should:
a. Extract the primary molar and place a space maintainer
b. Extract the primary molar
c. Maintain the primary molar since it will not drift.
d. Maintain the primary molar since they occasionally reerupt.

76. The patient maxillary lateral incisors are missing? Sum of the lower incisors is 23.5 mm. tooth number 11 and 21
measures 8.5 and 8.8 respectively. Compute for the individual estimated width of 12 and 21.

a. 7.26 mm b. 8.2 mm c. 7.9 mm d. 8.0 mm

77. Excessive midline diastema of the patient is a possible consequence of:
a. Impacted mesiodense b. abnormally low labial frenum c.missing post. Teeth d.all ofthese

78. When primary teeth have been lost prematurely, it is important to hold space for:
a. An upper incisor c. lower bicuspid
b. Lower incisor d. all of the above

78. The gingival seat cavosurface margin of a class II preparation in:

a. Left unbevelled because of the angle of the enamel rods
b. Beveled to reduce occurrence of caries
c. Beveled to remove unsupported enamel
d. Beveled about the same as for permanent tooth.

80. What are the active growth sites of the maxilla?

a. Maxillary tuberosity areas
b. Frontonasal process
c. Midpalatal stuture and transpalatal suture
d. All of the above

81. Typical facial profile changes that occur during the transition from childhood to adulthood.
a. Remains essentially constant
b. Flattening of the profile typically occurs with maturation
c. The face elongates, narrow and thins with time
d. As the face enlarges, there is general accentuation of the lips relative to nose and chin structures.

82. Changes in the pressure side of the alveolar crest when orthodontic forces exceed
physiologic limits are called:
a. Direct resorption c. undermining resorption
b. Osteoblastic activity d. all of the above
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83. Macro-esthetics pertains to

a. Facial proportion b. Lip to tooth relationship c. tooth to tooth relationship
84. Smile Analysis pertains to
a. Macro-esthetics b. Mini Esthetics c. Macro Esthetics
85. An analysis that uses dental cast to determine the broadness or narrowness of the arch
a. Pont’s index b. Korkhous c. MDA d. ton
86. It’s an analysis that determines the arch length
a. Pont’s index b. Korkhous c. MDA d. ton
87. A method that helps one to predict if the space available is enough to accommodate the erupting
345.
a. Pont’s index b. Korkhous c. MDA d. tonn’s
88. A method how to quantify the ideal total mesiodistal width of maxillary incisors if the maxillary
lateral is missing or poorly developed.
a. Pont’s index b. Korkhous c. MDA d. tonn’s
89. Which of the following may cause posterior Crossbite
a. Lingual eruption path of maxillary posterior
b. Constricted maxillary arch
c. Hyperactive buccinators muscle
d. All of the above
90. Which of the following may cause lingual tipping of the lower incisors
a. Hyperactive lower lips
b. Weak tongue
c. Both of these
d. None of the above
91. Hyper active masseter muscles may cause
a. Infraeruption of the posterior teeth.
b. Deepening of the bite
c. Shortening of the face
d. All of the above
92. During protraction of the mandible, if lateral pterygoid muscle of one side failed to contract,
where will be your midline deviation?
a. The midline will deviate to the side where lateral pteryoid failed to contract
b. The midline will deviate to the opposite side
c. The midline will not move
d. None of the above
93. Three facial landmarks use to determine the facial profile of the patient
i. Soft tissue nasion
ii. Soft tissue glabella
iii. Pronasion
iv. Subnasale
v. Soft tissue pt. B
vi. Soft tissue pogonion
vii. Soft tissue menton
a. i, ii, vii b. ii, iv, vi c. iii, vi, vii d. none of the above
94. As a general rule, the face can be divided into 3 vertical parts, which vertical part is not reliable
for vertical facial analysis
a. Upper 3rd b. lower 3rd c. middle 3rd d. none of these
95. Horizontal proportion divides the face into 5 vertical components. Which serve as the primary
vertical component?
a. Right and left lateral 5th b. right and left medial 5th c. central 5th d. all of these
96. The most prevailing malocclusion is
a. Angle class 1 b. Angle Class 2 c. Angle class 3 d. Angle Class 4
97. The least prevailing Malocclusion is
a. Angle class 1 b. Angle Class 2 c. Angle class 3 d. Angle Class 4
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98. The palatal cusp of maxillary first permanent molar occlude with central fossa mandibular
permanent first molar.
a. Angle class 1 b. Angle Class 2 c. Angle class 3 d. Angle Class 4
99. The mesiobuccal cusp of maxillary permanent first molar occludes between mandibular
permanent first molar and 2nd premolar with 6 mm over jet.
a. Class 1 type 2 b. Class II division 2 c. Class III type 2
100. The mesiobuccal groove of mandibular first permanent molar occlude with the cusp of
maxillary 2nd premolar, with an edge to edge incisal relationship.
a. Class 1 type 3 b. Class 3 type 3 c. Class 3 type 1 d. none of these
101. The classification of malocclusion proposed by Ackerman and Profit
a. Venn Diagram b. Triquetra Diagram c. Maslov Diagram d. none of these
102. Open bite malocclusion is an example of
a. Vertical problem b. Sagittal problem c. Transverse problem d. none
103. An Example of Sagittal problem
a. Negative overjet b.Cusp to cusp c. Excessive over jet d. all