All India Prep Pro JMI

Mock Test - 4

Duration: 120 Minutes Candidate Name: _____________

Max. Marks: 150 Roll No.: _____________
Centre Name: __________ Contact No.: _____________

INTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

1. No clarification on the question paper can be sought. Answer the questions as they are.

2. There are 150 multiple choice objective type questions.

3. Each question carries ONE mark. Total marks are 150.

4. There is negative marking of 0.25 for every incorrect answer.

5. Candidates have to indicate the correct answer by darkening one of the four responses
provided, with a BALL PEN (BLUE OR BLACK) in the OMR Answer Sheet.
Example: For the question, "Where is the Taj Mahal located?", the correct answer is (b) . The
candidate has to darken the corresponding circle as indicated below:

(a) Kolkata (b) Agra (c) Bhopal (d) Delhi

6. Answering the questions by any method other than the method indicated above shall be
considered incorrect and no marks will be awarded for the same.

7. More than one response to a question shall be counted as wrong.

8. The candidate shall not write anything on the OMR Answer Sheet other than the details
required and, in the spaces, provided for.
9. After the test is over, the candidate should keep the OMR Answer Sheet and Test Paper and
can carry it back with themselves
10. The use of any unfair means by any candidate shall result in the cancellation of his/her
candidature.
11. Impersonation is an offence and the candidate, apart from disqualification, may have to face
criminal prosecution.

12. The candidates shall not leave the hall before the Test is over.
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PART 01: Legal Language

Read the following passage and answer the following questions (Q.1-5):

Passage:

In the luminous annals of Indian constitutional odyssey, the case of

Vanguards of Democratic Harmony v. Union of India (2024) gleams as a
polestar amidst the turbulent currents of electoral probity and
constitutional reverence. The petitioners, an illustrious coterie of civic
sentinels and jurisprudential luminaries, challenged the Electoral Integrity
and Oversight Act, 2023, which birthed the National Electoral Vigilance
Authority (NEVA), a body endowed with plenary powers to curate voter
registries, monitor campaign oratory, and nullify elections marred by
egregious malfeasance, all to sculpt an unblemished democratic ethos. The
petitioners decried the NEVA’s unchecked hegemony as a desecration of
the Election Commission’s sacrosanct autonomy under Article 324, a
violation of the separation of powers, and a veiled affront to the basic
structure doctrine, as enshrined in Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain
(1975). The Union, with rhetorical splendor, championed the NEVA as a
citadel against electoral turpitude, drawing inspiration from the austere
electoral synods of Scandinavian realms. In a 4:1 verdict, the Supreme
Court, with sagacious poise, struck down the NEVA’s power to nullify
elections, reaffirming the Election Commission’s sovereign dominion while
preserving provisions for oratory oversight. The lone dissenter, evoking the
specter of democratic erosion, cautioned that a curtailed NEVA might
unshackle electoral vice, urging a symphonic concord between
constitutional guardians. This ruling, a beacon of juridical equilibrium, yet
leaves unresolved the eternal conundrum of balancing electoral purity with
institutional sanctity, heralding an epoch of ceaseless legal introspection.

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1. What is the core of the dispute in Vanguards of Democratic Harmony v.

Union of India?

(a) Legality of campaign oratory regulations

(b) Constitutional validity of the NEVA’s electoral powers

(c) Judicial review of voter registry protocols

(d) Parliamentary prerogative to oversee elections

2. What was the petitioners’ primary objection to the NEVA?

(a) It lacked statutory legitimacy for its creation.

(b) It violated Article 324 and the basic structure doctrine.

(c) It contravened global electoral standards.

(d) It usurped the judiciary’s appellate authority.

3. How did the Union justify the NEVA’s establishment?

(a) It mirrored Scandinavian electoral synods.

(b) It fortified the Election Commission’s logistical framework.

(c) It was mandated by international covenants.

(d) It streamlined judicial oversight of elections.

4. Which landmark precedent shaped the Supreme Court’s verdict?

(a) S.R. Bommai v. Union of India

(b) Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain

(c) T.N. Seshan v. Union of India

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(d) Raja Ram Pal v. Speaker, Lok Sabha

5. What danger did the dissenting judge foresee?

(a) The NEVA’s oratory oversight was insufficient.

(b) Limiting the NEVA could embolden electoral malfeasance.

(c) The verdict misapplied the separation of powers.

(d) The ruling undermined voter registry integrity.

6. What term denotes a person who zealously pursues an ideal or cause?

(a) Crusader

(b) Dilettante

(c) Maverick

(d) Prodigy

7. What term signifies a speech delivered with fervent eloquence?

(a) Oration

(b) Diatribe

(c) Epilogue

(d) Soliloquy

8. What term describes a state of blissful tranquility?

(a) Serenity

(b) Turmoil

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(c) Rapture

(d) Discord

9. What term denotes a subtle hint or indirect suggestion?

(a) Innuendo

(b) Assertion

(c) Proclamation

(d) Edict

10. What term signifies an intricate maze or complex problem?

(a) Labyrinth

(b) Nexus

(c) Paragon

(d) Citadel

11. Identify the correctly spelled word:

(a) Aberrattion

(b) Aberration

(c) Abberation

(d) Aberrashion

12. Identify the correctly spelled word:

(a) Acquiescence

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(b) Aqueiscence

(c) Acquiesence

(d) Acquiessance

13. Identify the correctly spelled word:

(a) Belligerrent

(b) Belligerant

(c) Belligerent

(d) Beligerent

14. The summit convened _______ the patronage of a global peace

foundation.

(a) under

(b) by

(c) through

(d) with

15. The decree was issued _______ the grounds of equitable justice.

(a) on

(b) for

(c) due to

(d) with

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16. What is the antonym of effervescent?

(a) Vivacious

(b) Subdued

(c) Exuberant

(d) Radiant

17. What is the antonym of ephemeral?

(a) Transient

(b) Enduring

(c) Fleeting

(d) Momentary

18. What is the antonym of obstreperous?

(a) Boisterous

(b) Restrained

(c) Vociferous

(d) Clamorous

19. What is the synonym of resplendent?

(a) Radiant

(b) Somber

(c) Austere

(d) Drab

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20. What is the synonym of perspicuous?

(a) Lucid

(b) Obscure

(c) Vague

(d) Ambiguous

21. What is the synonym of quixotic?

(a) Visionary

(b) Pragmatic

(c) Sensible

(d) Realistic

22. What does the idiom “to cast pearls before swine” mean?

(a) To offer something valuable to those who cannot appreciate it

(b) To waste resources on trivial pursuits

(c) To flaunt wealth ostentatiously

(d) To conceal treasures from scrutiny

23. What does the phrase “to turn over a new leaf” imply?

(a) To begin anew with reformed conduct

(b) To revisit past mistakes

(c) To abandon one’s principles

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(d) To reaffirm old commitments

24. Identify the sentence with a grammatical error:

(a) The delegation have submitted their report.

(b) The orator delivered a captivating speech.

(c) Each of the manuscripts was meticulously reviewed.

(d) The conference is slated for next month.

25. Identify the sentence with a grammatical error:

(a) The datas were analyzed thoroughly.

(b) The ambassador signed the treaty promptly.

(c) Neither the poet nor the artist was recognized.

(d) The symposium will commence tomorrow.

26. Indirect: The scholar noted that the manuscript was authentic.

Direct:

(a) The scholar noted, “The manuscript is authentic.”

(b) The scholar notes, “The manuscript was authentic.”

(c) The scholar said, “The manuscript will be authentic.”

(d) The scholar noted, “The manuscript would be authentic.”

27. Indirect: The curator asked whether the exhibit could be extended.

Direct:

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(a) The curator asked, “Can the exhibit be extended?”

(b) The curator asks, “Could the exhibit be extended?”

(c) The curator asked, “Will the exhibit be extended?”

(d) The curator asked, “Does the exhibit been extended?”

28. Change to passive voice: The maestro conducted the symphony with
finesse.

(a) The symphony was conducted with finesse by the maestro.

(b) The symphony is conducted with finesse by the maestro.

(c) The symphony had been conducted with finesse by the maestro.

(d) The symphony was being conducted with finesse by the maestro.

29. What term describes the failure to exercise reasonable care, resulting
in harm?

(a) Negligence

(b) Malfeasance

(c) Misfeasance

(d) Nonfeasance

30. What term refers to a court’s authority to hear cases involving multiple
jurisdictions?

(a) Concurrent Jurisdiction

(b) Original Jurisdiction

(c) Appellate Jurisdiction

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(d) Advisory Jurisdiction

Part 02: Legal Aptitude & Indian Polity

31. Consider the following statements about the Indian Constitution:

1 The President’s power to dissolve the Lok Sabha under Article 85 is
subject to the Prime Minister’s advice.
2 The 102nd Amendment granted constitutional status to the National
Commission for Backward Classes.
3 The Supreme Court’s power to issue advisory opinions under Article
143 is binding.
4 The 74th Amendment introduced the 12th Schedule for
Municipalities.

Which statements are correct?

(a) 1, 2, and 3 are correct.

(b) 2, 3, and 5 are correct.

(c) 1, 2, and 4 are correct.

(d) 1, 3, and 4 are correct.

32. Regarding the Union Legislature, which statements are correct?

1 The Lok Sabha’s power to initiate Money Bills under Article 109 is
exclusive.
2 The Rajya Sabha’s power to recommend amendments to Money Bills
under Article 109 is binding.
3 A joint sitting under Article 108 resolves deadlocks on non-financial
bills.
4 The Parliament’s power to create All India Services under Article 312
requires a two-thirds majority in Lok Sabha.
5 The anti-defection law under the 10th Schedule applies to nominated
members.

(a) 1, 3, and 4 are correct.

(b) 1, 3, and 5 are correct.

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(c) 1, 4, and 5 are correct.

(d) 2, 4, and 5 are correct.

33. Which statements about the Fundamental Rights are correct?

1 The right to equality under Article 14 includes equality of
opportunity, as per the Indira Sawhney case.
2 The right to freedom of religion under Article 25 is subject to public
health restrictions.
3 The right to constitutional remedies under Article 32 can be
suspended during a state emergency.
4 The 86th Amendment introduced the right to education under Article
51A.
5 The right to privacy under Article 21 was affirmed in the K.S.
Puttaswamy case.

(a) 1, 2, and 5 are correct.

(b) 2, 3, and 4 are correct.

(c) 1, 4, and 5 are correct.

(d) 1, 3, and 5 are correct.

34. Consider the following statements about the State Legislature:

1 The Legislative Council’s abolition under Article 169 requires a
special majority in the Assembly.
2 The Legislative Assembly’s term can be extended beyond five years
under Article 172 during an emergency.
3 The State Legislature’s power to legislate on Concurrent List subjects
is subordinate to Union laws.

(a) Only 1 and 3 are correct.

(b) Only 2 and 3 are incorrect.

(c) Only 1 and 2 are correct.

(d) All are correct

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35. Which statements about the Union Executive are correct?

1 The President’s power to appoint the Attorney General under Article
76 includes prescribing qualifications.
2 The Prime Minister’s role under Article 75 is pivotal in collective
responsibility to the Lok Sabha.
3 The Vice President’s election under Article 66 involves both Houses
of Parliament.
4 The President’s power to grant clemency under Article 72 is subject
to judicial review.
5 The Council of Ministers’ size is capped at 15% of the Lok Sabha’s
strength under Article 75.

(a) 2, 3, and 4 are correct.

(b) 1, 3, and 5 are correct.

(c) 1, 4, and 5 are correct.

(d) 1, 2, and 3 are correct.

36. Regarding Emergency Provisions, which statements are correct?

1 A national emergency under Article 352 requires parliamentary
approval within one month.
2 The President’s rule under Article 356 can be imposed for up to three
years with parliamentary approval.
3 A financial emergency under Article 360 suspends Fundamental
Rights automatically.

(a) 1 and 2 are correct.

(b) 1 and 3 are correct.

(c) All are correct.

(d) All are incorrect.

37. Which statements about Constitutional Bodies are correct?

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1 The National Commission for Scheduled Tribes was established

under Article 338A.
2 The Finance Commission’s recommendations under Article 280 are
binding on the Union.
3 The UPSC’s power to conduct examinations under Article 320
excludes state services.
4 The CAG’s reports under Article 151 are tabled before the state
legislatures for state audits.
5 The Election Commission’s power under Article 324 includes
delimitation of constituencies but subject to parliamentary law.

(a) 1, 3, and 5 are correct.

(b) 2, 3, and 4 are correct.

(c) 1, 4, and 5 are correct.

(d) 1, 2, and 3 are correct.

38. Consider the following statements about Federalism:

1 The Inter-State Council under Article 263 fosters Centre-State

coordination.
2 The 7th Schedule delineates legislative powers between the Union
and States.
3 The Governor’s role under Article 356 is immune from judicial
scrutiny.
4 The Sarkaria Commission recommended strengthening federal
institutions.

(a) 1, 2, and 3 are correct.

(b) 1, 2, and 4 are correct.

(c) 1, 4, and 3 are correct.

(d) 1, 3, and 4 are correct.

39. Which committee recommended the establishment of the Central

Vigilance Commission?

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(a) K. Santhanam Committee

(b) Justice B.P. Jeevan Reddy Committee

(c) Justice M.N. Venkatachaliah Committee

(d) Justice J.S. Verma Committee

40. The 69th Constitutional Amendment pertains to:

(a) Right to Education

(b) Anti-Defection Law

(c) Goods and Services Tax

(d) Special status to the Union Territory of Delhi

41. Which Article of the Indian Constitution states that a person

voluntarily acquiring the citizenship of a foreign State shall cease to be a
citizen of India?

(a) Article 7

(b) Article 8

(c) Article 9

(d) Article 10

42. Panchayath Raj is included in the

(a) Union list

(b) Concurrent List

(c) State list

(d) Residuary List

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43. Right to privacy is contained in

(a) Article 19

(b) Article 20

(c) Article 21

(d) Article 22

44. The President of India is elected by

(a) Elected members of both Houses of Parliament and Elected members of

the legislative assemblies of UT of Delhi and Puducherry

(b) Members of both Houses of Parliament and Elected members of the

legislative assemblies of UT of Delhi and Puducherry

(c) Elected members of both Houses of Parliament, state legislative

assemblies and Elected members of the legislative assemblies of UT of
Delhi and Puducherry

(d) Elected members of both Houses of Parliament and both Houses of the
state legislatures and Elected members of the legislative assemblies of UT
of Delhi and Puducherry

45. The Subramanian Swamy case dealt with:

(a) Decriminalization of Defamation

(b) Right to Education

(c) Freedom of Speech

(d) Electoral Reforms

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46. The concept of Joint Sitting of both the Houses of Parliament has
borrowed under the Constitution of India from the Constitution of

(a) Soviet Union

(b) South Africa

(c) Australia

(d) Canada

47. A intended to kill X but kills Z by mistake. Which of the following

statement is correct in this regard?

(a) A will not be held liable because he did not kill Z intentionally.

(b) A will be liable because of doctrine of transferred malice,

(c) A will not be held liable because the death was caused by mistake,

(d) A will not be liable because death was accidental.

48. The Right to property belongs to which of the following category

(a) Fundamental Right

(b) Constitutional Rights

(c) Statutory Rights

(d) Customary Right

49. Who of the following is not a citizen of India ?

(a) Who is born in the territory of India

(b) Either of whose parents was born in the territory of India

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(c) Was ordinarily resident in India for not less than five years at the
commence of the Constitution

(d) After March 1, 1947, migrated to Pakistan

50. Which one of the following does not find place in the Constitution of
India?

(a) Finance Commission

(b) NITI Aayog

(c) Election Commission

(d) Public Service Commission

51. Assertion (A): The Supreme Court’s power to issue writs under Article
32 is limited to Fundamental Rights violations.

Reason (R): Article 32 is the soul of the Constitution, as per Dr. B.R.
Ambedkar.

(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(c) A is true, but R is false.

(d) A is false, but R is true.

52. Fiduciary Relationship is based on

(a) Contract

(b) Trust

(c) Blood Relationship

(d) Money

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53. False Imprisonment under law of tort means:

(a) confinement of a person, without lawful justification

(b) an intentional confinement of a person, without lawful justification

(c) a fictional imprisonment

(d) None of the above

54. In Islam ___________ is the period, a woman must observe after the
death of her spouse or after a divorce, during which she may not marry
another man.

(a) Nikah

(c) Iddat

(b) Mehr

(d) Talaq

55. The Joseph Shine case decriminalized:

(a) Adultery

(b) Homosexuality

(c) Defamation

(d) Triple Talaq

56. What is the correct meaning of the Latin maxim "Fraus et jus nunquam
cohabitant"?

(a) Fraud is punishable by civil law only.

(b) Justice can prevail even in presence of fraud.

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(c) Fraud and justice never dwell together.

(d) Fraud is acceptable if committed unknowingly.

57. What does "Ratio decidendi" refer to in legal reasoning?

(a) A judge's personal opinion

(b) The facts stated in a judgment

(c) The reason for the decision

(d) The irrelevant part of a judgment

58. What is conveyed by the principle "nulla poena sine lege"?

(a) No person shall be punished twice for the same offence.

(b) Every criminal law must be approved by the President.

(c) There is no punishment without a law.

(d) Punishment can be given without any written law.

59. Principle 1: A contract is void if entered under undue influence under

Section 16 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872.

Principle 2: Undue influence occurs when one party dominates the other’s
will.

Facts: In the twilight of a serene valley, Ms. Roy, an elderly widow, was
persuaded by her nephew, Mr. Nair, to sell her ancestral estate at a
nominal price, leveraging his influence over her frail emotions. Roy later
sought to void the contract. Nair argues the sale was voluntary. Can Roy
void the contract?

(a) Yes, as Nair exerted undue influence.

(b) No, as the sale was completed.

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(c) Yes, as the price was inadequate.

(d) No, as Roy consented willingly.

60. Principle 1: Whoever causes death by an act done with intent to cause
bodily injury is liable for murder under Section 300 of the IPC.

Principle 2: Exceptions include acts done under grave and sudden

provocation.

Facts: Amid a bustling fair, Mr. Khan, enraged by Mr. Bose’s public taunt
about his honor, stabbed Bose, causing his death. Khan claims
provocation. The prosecution argues the taunt was not sudden. Is Khan
liable for murder?

(a) Khan is not liable as the taunt was grave.

(b) Khan is liable for culpable homicide due to provocation.

(c) Khan is liable for murder as the provocation was not sudden.

(d) Khan is liable for murder as the act was intentional.

All questions are to be answered strictly based on the contents of the

passage. No external legal knowledge or assumptions are required or
applicable. (Q.60-64)

In everyday usage, the word 'negligence' denotes mere carelessness.

Legally speaking, it signifies failure to exercise standard of care which the
doer as a reasonable person should have exercised in the circumstances.
In general, there is a legal duty to take care when it is reasonably
foreseeable that failure to do so would likely to cause injury. Negligence is
a mode in which many kinds of harms may be caused by not taking
adequate precautions.

According to Winfield and Jolowicz, negligence is the breach of a legal duty

to take care which results in damage, undesired by the defendant to the
plaintiff. In an action for negligence, the plaintiff has to prove the following
essentials:

i Duty to take care: One of the essential conditions of liability for

negligence is that the defendant owed a legal duty towards the plaintiff.

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ii Duty to whom: The legal duty to take care extends only to one's
neighbour. The persons who are so closely and directly affected by
one's act that one ought reasonably to have them in contemplation as
being so affected when one is directing one's mind to the acts or
omissions which are called in question are one's neighbours.
iii Duty must be towards the plaintiff: It is not sufficient that the
defendant owed a duty to take care. It must also be established that
the defendant owed a duty of care towards the plaintiff.
iv Breach of duty to take care: Yet another essential condition for the
liability in negligence is that the plaintiff must prove that the defendant
committed a breach of duty to take care or he failed to perform that
duty.
v Consequent damage or consequential harm to the plaintiff: The
last essential requisite for the tort of negligence is that the damage
caused to the plaintiff was the result of the breach of the duty. The
harm may fall into following classes:
❖ physical harm, i.e. harm to body.
❖ harm to reputation.
❖ harm to property, i.e. land and buildings and rights and interests
pertaining thereto, and his goods.
❖ economic loss; and
❖ mental harm or nervous shock:

61. Harish purchased some woollen underwear from a department store.

A few weeks later, he discovered that he had developed a skin disease
near his thighs. It was discovered that the wool used to make the
underwear had an excess of sulphate which the manufacturers had failed
to remove. Have the manufacturers been negligent in their conduct?

(a) No, as the manufacturers don't owe the duty to every other customer.

(b) Yes, as Harish being a wearer of the underwear made by the

manufacturers, he's directly affected by their actions.

(c) No, as none of the other buyers of the underwear came forth with such
a complaint.

(d) Yes, as the manufacturers are liable for every defect in the product they
make.

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62. In the factual scenario presented in the above question, what is the
liability of the department store from where Harish purchased the
underwear, as far as negligence is concerned?

(a) The department store is as much liable as the manufacturer for such a
defect in the product.

(b) The department store can never be held liable for any defects in the
product.

(c) Only the department store is liable for negligence as Harish purchased
the product from them

(d) The department store cannot be held liable as it did not manufacture
the product.

63. A pregnant woman, 32 years of age was getting down from the bus onto
the pavement. While she was being helped to descend, a motorcyclist,
after passing the bus collided with a car at the distance of 15 yards on
the other side of the bus and died instantly. The woman could see neither
the deceased nor the accident as the bus was standing between her and
the place of accident. She heard about the collision and after the dead
body had been removed, she went to the place and saw blood spilled on
the road. Consequently, she suffered a nervous shock and gave birth to
a still-born child of 8 months. She sued the representatives of the
deceased motorcyclist. What is the liability of the motor- cyclist/his
representatives?

(a) The motorcyclist owed a duty of care to every passer-by on road to drive
carefully.

(b) The motorcyclist owed a duty of care especially to a pregnant woman

as his rash driving could have affected her severely.

(c) The motor cyclist did not owe a duty of care to the woman as she cannot
be considered her neighbour.

(d) The motor cyclist did not commit negligent behaviour to anyone on the
road.

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64. Consider that the pregnant woman in the above question witnessed the
accident from one of the windows of the bus, all the other facts remaining
the same. Can the motorcyclist or his representatives be held liable for
negligent behaviour?

(a) The motorcyclist owed a duty of care to every passer-by on road to drive
carefully.

(b) The motorcyclist owed a duty of care especially to a pregnant woman

as his rash driving could have affected her severely.

(c) The motor cyclist did not owe a duty of care to the woman as she cannot
be considered her neighbour.

(d) The motor cyclist did not commit negligent behaviour to anyone on the
road.

65. Farah, the owner of an Alsatian dog (Oscar) asks her friend, Boman, to
take care of her dog while she is away for a week. While at Boman's house,
Oscar is unattended one day and bites one of the construction workers
who were carrying out some repair work at Boman's house. Who can be
attributed with the tort of negligence?

(a) Farah, as Oscar belonged to her, she should have been careful enough
to warn Boman of his habits.

(b) Boman, as Oscar was in his care at the time when the construction
worker was injured.

(c) Neither Farah nor Boman as none of them had actual control over
Oscar's actions.

(d) None of the above.

66. A suit for malicious prosecution may be brought by the original

defendant:

(a) At the time the complaint is filed against him

(b) At the time the prosecution begins

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(c) Upon conviction

(d) Upon acquittal

67. Principle: An act causing damage, if done under necessity to prevent

greater evil is not actionable. The act done must be reasonably necessary
otherwise, the defence of necessity will not be available.

Facts: Khushi, a social worker went on a hunger strike to highlight the

horrible working conditions of the workers of Municipal Corporation. She
refused to eat and drink and gradually her health started to fail. The
doctors attending to her opined that if she continues her strike any longer,
she might not survive. The story of her struggle became the subject of
national news. A lot of people gathered at the protest site, leading to
possible law and order situation. The police authorities took her into
custody and forcibly fed her. She filed a suit for battery and false
imprisonment against the police. The police took the defence of necessity.
Decide.

(a) The defence of necessity will fail as the constitution guarantees a citizen
right to life which includes right to die. Therefore, there was no reasonable
necessity to forcibly feed Khushi.

(b) The defence of necessity will fail as the right to strike has been
recognized as constitutional right by the Supreme Court. Thus, there was
no reasonable necessity to use force against her

(c) The defence of necessity will fail as there was no justification to take
her into custody.

(d) None of the above.

68. Principle: An agent is bound to conduct the business of his principal

according to the directions given by the principal, or in the absence of
any such directions, according to the custom which prevails in doing
business of the same kind at the place where the agent conducts such
business. When the agent acts otherwise, if any loss sustained, he must
make it good to his principal and if any profit accrues, he must account
for it.

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Facts: A is in the business of manufacturing the steel guarders for bridges.

A, frequently used to give material on credit to his friend and brother-in-
law X, who was a well-known bridge construction contractor and was
known for punctuality of payment in the market. B, A's store manager was
aware of the arrangement between A and X. Once when A was away X came
to the store and demanded certain materials on credit. The customs
governing the market was that agents did not sell goods on credit. B
refused but X prevailed upon him by threatening not to do business with
A in future. B in his considered opinion thought that since X, was A's friend
and brother-in-law, known for punctuality of making payments, and
considering the subsisting business relations between A and X gave him
goods on credit. Another important factor that weighed upon him was the
fact that his decision might have consequences on the business relations.
X after receiving the goods, declined to make the payments. A, alleged that
B has failed to discharge his duties and asked him to make good the losses
suffered by him. Decide.

(a) B has failed to discharge his duties as A's agent.

(b) B has not failed to discharge his duties as A himself gave materials to
X on credit; therefore, he had implied authority to do so as the manager of
the store. Thus, he cannot be made liable to make good the losses.

(c) B has not failed in discharge of his duties as he acted in good faith and
in the interests of his master, therefore he cannot be made liable to make
good the losses.

(d) B has failed to discharge his duties and must make good the losses
suffered by A.

69. What is the meaning of Chattel?

(a) Any Property

(b) Immovable Property

(c) Movable Property

(d) Cattle

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70. The concept of “veil of ignorance” is attributed to:

(a) John Rawls

(b) Jeremy Bentham

(c) Hans Kelsen

(d) H.L.A. Hart

Part 03: Current Affairs & General Knowledge

71. Who was the first chief election Commissioner of India?

(a) Amartya Sen

(b) Sukumar Sen

(c) Venkatraman Ramakrishnan

(d) Dr. Nagendra Singh

72. The words 'Satyameva Jayate' inscribed below our national emblem
have been taken from

(a) Puran

(b) Jataka

(c) Mandaka Upanishad

(d) Mahabharat

73. Which of the following pair is incorrect?

(a) Swami Vivekananda—Ramkrishna Mission

(b) Jyotiba Phule—Satya Shodhak Samaj

(c) Gopal Krishna Gokhale—Adi Brahma Samaj

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(d) Atmaram Pandurang- Prarthana Samaj

74. Who was the first Indian to serve as Governor-General of India?

(a) C. Rajagopalachari

(b) Rajendra Prasad

(c) Vallabhbhai Patel

(d) Jawaharlal Nehru

75. Which Instrument determines specific gravity of liquids?

(a) Gravimeter

(b) Hydrometer

(c) Hygrometer

(d) Hypsometer

76. Which among the following cities was declared as Tiger Gateway of
India"?

(a) Bhopal

(b) Nagpur

(c) Mysore

(d) Lucknow

77. Who was the Chairperson of the First Law Commission of India?

(a) Justice Altmas Kabir

(b) M. C. Setalvad

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(c) Justice B . S. Chauhan

(d) Justice D . K. Jain

78. World Liver Day is observed on and it’s Theme for 2025 is

(a) November 14, Healthy Liver, Healthy life

(b) October 18, Our Liver, More Pure

(c) April 19, Food is medicine

(d) December 5, Liver, Purifier

79. Headquarter of Amnesty International

(a) Geneva

(b) New York

(c) Vienna

(d) London

80. Which one of the following is regarded as the father of Indian

Nationalism ?

(a) Gopal Krishna Gokhale

(b) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

(c) Surendranath Banerjee

(d) Lala Lajpat Rai

81. Which city is known as the “Deccan Queen”?

(a) Jaipur

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(b) Jodhpur

(c) Pune

(d) Bikaner

82. Who is nicknamed the “Bengal Kesari”?

(a) Sarojini Naidu

(b) Ashutosh Mukherji

(c) Bipin Chandrapal & Saurav Ganguli

(d) Rabindranath Tagore

83. Which disease is caused by the deficiency of Vitamin C?

(a) Scurvy

(b) Rickets

(c) Beriberi

(d) Pellagra

84. The Chernobyl Nuclear Power Plant is located in which present-day

country?

(a) Russia

(b) Belarus

(c) Ukraine

(d) Kazakhstan

85. The Golan Heights is a disputed territory primarily between which

two countries?

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(a) Israel and Lebanon

(b) Israel and Syria

(c) Israel and Jordan

(d) Syria and Turkey

86. International Criminal court established in the year ________.

(a) July 1, 2002

(b) July 14, 2001

(c) July 11, 2004

(d) July 1, 2006

87. In the term BA LLB, what does LLB stand for?

(a) Legal Law Board

(b) Law and Legal Basics

(c) Legum Baccalaureus

(d) Licensed Lawyer of Bar

88. In which year Digital Personal Data Protection Act is passed

(a) 2021

(b) 2022

(c) 2023

(d) 2024

89. The Poona Pact (1932) was am agreement

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(a) 1919

(b) 1920

(c) 1918

(d) 1921

90. The Shimla Agreement was signed in:

(a) 1972

(b) 1948

(c) 2022

(d) 2019

91. Which Indus Valley site is known for its advanced drainage system?

(a) Harappa

(b) Mohenjo-Daro

(c) Lothal

(d) Dholavira

92. Who is the first non-Indian to receive Bharat Ratna

(a) Dr. Martin Luther King, Jr.

(b) Mother Teresa

(c) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan

(d) Karpoori Thakur

93. “Hopman cup” is related to which sports

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(a) Cricket

(b) Badminton

(c) Tennis

(d) Football

94. The Hubble Space Telescope was launched by which space agency?

(a) ISRO

(b) NASA

(c) ESA

(d) Roscosmos

95. The Bonn Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species of

Wild Animals adopted in:

(a) 1987

(b) 1992

(c) 1979

(d) 1990

96. Who was the first to won Dada Phalke Award?

(a) Sharmila Tagore

(b) Davika Rani

(c) Hema Malini

(d) Babita

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97. The name of Parliamnet of Nepal:

(a) Maha Sabha

(b) Rāṣṭriya Sabhā

(c) House of Representatives

(d) Durban

98. How many digit number are there on Aadhar?

(a) 10

(b) 11

(c) 12

(d) 13

99. What is the approximate land border length shared between India
and Pakistan?

(a) 2,900 km

(b) 3,300 km

(c) 3,500 km

(d) 4,000 km

100. Vexillology is the study of

(a) Vitamins

(b) Voices

(c) Flags

(d) Faces

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101. Jamia Millia Islamia was declared a Central University in:

(a) 1988

(b) 1990

(c) 1985

(d) 1992

102. The National mission for clean ganga initiative was launched in:

(a) 2015

(b) 2011

(c) 2016

(d) 2013

103. The slogan “Kill Firangi” was popularized by:

(a) Bhagat Singh

(b) Mahatma Gandhi

(c) Mangal Pandey

(d) Subhas Chandra Bose

104. Which national park in India is the primary site for the
reintroduction of cheetahs under Project Cheetah?

(a) Jim Corbett National Park

(b) Kaziranga National Park

(c) Sundarbans National Park

(d) Kuno National Park

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105. India’s first indigenous aircraft carrier commissioned in 2022 is:

(a) INS Vikrant

(b) INS Viraat

(c) INS Vikramaditya

(d) INS Arihant

106. The Jnanpith Award is given in the field of:

(a) Literature

(b) Cinema

(c) Sports

(d) Science

107. What was the proposed idea behind the myth of the 'Ben Gurion
Canal' discussed in the 1960s?

(a) Construction of a canal connecting the Mediterranean Sea with the

Red Sea at Eilat as an alternative to the Suez Canal

(b) Building a canal connecting the Red Sea with the Arabian Sea
through Saudi Arabia

(c) Developing a canal linking the Black Sea to the Mediterranean Sea

(d) Creating an underground waterway between Israel and Jordan

108. The Arctic Council was formed through which declaration?

)a) Helsinki Agreement

(b) Ottawa Declaration

(c) Glasgow Declaration

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(d) UNESCO Declaration

109. What is the theme of the Global Technology Summit 2025?

(a) Digital Future

(b) Emerging Technologies

(c) Sambhavna – Possibilities

(d) Global Innovation

110. Which country has become the first African country to sign a
Country Partnership Framework with the International Solar Alliance?

(a) Botswana

(b) Ethiopia

(c) Mauritius

(d) Kenya

111. The SAARC Visa Exemption Scheme was launched in which year?

(a) 1992

(b) 1995

(c) 2002

(d) 2004

112. Rafale – M (marine) Fighter Jets have been acquired from which
country?

(a) Russia

(b) China

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(c) Japan

(d) France

113. Which state has topped in the Fiscal Health Index (FHI) 2025
released by?

(a) RBI

(b) WHO

(c) NITI Aayog

(d) Ministry of Health

114. Trends in World Military Expenditure report is published by which

organization/

(a) Stockholm International Peache Research Institution

(b) World Bank

(c) International Monetary Fund

(d) United Nations

115. Who is the author of the book "Beyond the Courtroom"?

(a) Soli Sorabjee

(b) Harish Salve

(c) Nani Palkhivala

(d) Fali S. Nariman

116. The Which country will host the 2027 Women’s World Cup?

(a) Brazil

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(b) United Kingdom

(c) United States

(d) France

117. Which historical agreement between India and Sri Lanka led to the
creation of the 13th Amendment in Sri Lanka’s Constitution?

(a) Sirimavo-Shastri Pact

(b) Panchsheel Agreement

(c) Katchatheevu Agreement

(d) Indo-Lanka Accord

118. Which state is home to India’s first white tiger breeding centre?

(a) Maharashtra

(b) Madhya Pradesh

(c) Gujrat

(d) Rajasthan

119. Who was the Author of the Akbarnama?

(a) Ali iqbal

(b) Abul Fazl

(c) Bairam khan

(d) Todarmal

120. Which of the following is not a chief organ of the United Nations
Organisation?

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(a) International Labour Organisation

(b) Security Council

(c) International Court of Justice

(d) General Assembly

121. Which two countries have redrawn their national boundaries due to
melting Alpine glaciers?

(a) France and Italy

(b) Slovenia and Liechtenstein

(c) Italy and Switzerland

(d) Germany and Austria

122. The Hornbill Festival held in:

(a) Nagaland

(b) Arunachal Pradesh

(c) Mizoram

(d) Assam

123. The India Department Meteorological (IMD), was originally

established in which year?

(a) 1855

(b) 1865

(c) 1875

(d) 1885

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124. Which of the following is not a member of the Five Eyes Alliance?

1. Canada

2. New Zealand

3. France

4. United Kingdom

5. United States

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

125. Regarding the National Song of India, consider the following

statements:
1 The National Song of India is “Vande Mataram”, written by Bankim
Chandra Chatterjee.
2 The song was first written in 1870 and later included in the novel
“Ananda” in 1882.
3 It was first sung at the 1896 Indian National Congress (INC)
session.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only One

(b) Only Two

(c) All Three

(d) None

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126. In which year was the United Nations Convention on the Law of the
Sea (UNCLOS) adopted that was later enforced in 1994?

(a) 1974

(b) 1982

(c) 1984

(d) 1992

127. What is the term used for the place where Dr. B. R. Ambedkar was
cremated?

(a) Samadhi Sthal

(b) Chaitya Bhoomi

(c) Nirvana Mandir

(d) Shanti Vana

128. Weather occurs in the earths:

(a) Troposphere

(b) Mesosphere

(c) Ionosphere

(d) Thermosphere

129. Who has designed the sign of Indian rupee:

(a) Dr. Lalit Kumar

(b) Udaya Kumar

(c) Raman Kumar

(d) Dr, R, K, Pandey

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130. Who was honoured with the 2024 TIME Person of the Year?

(a) Elon Musk

(b) Kamala Harris

(c) Donald Trump

(d) Taylor Swift

131. Neduntheevu Island, that was recently seen in news, is located in

which country?

(a) Bangladesh

(b) Myanmar

(c) Sri Lanka

(d) Indonesia

132. Which of the following is one of the official languages of the United
Nations?

(a) German

(b) Japanese

(c) Spanish

(d) Hindi

133. Durand cup, recently seen in the news, is associated with which
sports?

(a) Baseball

(b) football

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(c) Hockey

(d) Cricket

134. Which city is the host of World Government Summit2025?

(a) Dubai, UAE

(c) Doha, Qatar

(b) Riyadh, Saudi Arabia

(d) Muscat, Oman

135. Who is the space secretary of the Indian Space Research

Organisation?

(a) Prahlad Chandra Agrawal

(b) Anil Bhardwaj

(c) V Narayanan

(d) Narendra Modi

136. The Operation Meghdoot is associated with:

(a) Securing Siachen Glacier

(b) Evacuating citizens from Yemen

(c) Providing cyclone relief in Tamil Nadu

(d) Combating insurgency in Manipur

137. The Nord Stream Pipeline is constructed under which Sea?

(a) Red Sea

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(b) Baltic Sea

(c) Arabian Sea

(d) Black Sea

138. Which two Indian cities recently joined the list of accredited wetland
cities under the Ramsar Convention?

(a) Cuttack & Ropar

(b) Ahmedabad and Kolkata

(c) Indore and Udaipur

(d) Bhopal and Jaisalmer

139. The southernmost point of peninsular India, Kanyakumari, is:

(a) North of Tropic of Cancer

(b) North of Equator

(c) South of Equator

(d) South of Capricorn

140. Where was the first Conference for Women Peacekeepers 2025 held?

(a) Chennai

(b) New Delhi

(c) Pune

(d) Hyderabad

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Part 05: Quantitative Aptitude

141. Find the HCF of 108, 288, and 360.

(a) 18

(b) 24

(c) 36

(d) 72

142. A train 600 meters long is running at a speed of 90 kmph. If it crosses

a tunnel in one minute, then the length of the tunnel is:

(a) 300 m

(b) 600 m

(c) 900 m

(d) 3234 m

143. Sam purchased 20 dozen of toys at the rate of Rs. 375 per dozen. He
sold each one of them at the rate of Rs. 33. What was his percentage
profit?

(a) 50.6%

(b) 5.6%

(c) 4.6%

(d) 6.5%

144. If Monday falls on 1st October, which day will fall three days after the
20th in that month?

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(a) Monday

(b) Tuesday

(c) Saturday

(d) Wednesday

145. Two numbers are in the ratio 3 : 5. If 9 is subtracted from each, the
new numbers are in the ratio 12 : 23. The smaller number is:

(a) 27

(b) 33

(c) 49

(d) 55

146. Excluding stoppages, the speed of a bus is 54 kmph and including

stoppages, it is 45 kmph. For how many minutes does the bus stop per
hour?

(a) 9

(b) 10

(c) 12

(d) 20

147. A can do a certain work in the same time in which B and C together
can do it. If A and B together could do it in 10 days and C alone in 50
days, then B alone could do it in:

(a) 15 days

(b) 20 days

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(c) 25 days

(d) 30 days

148. A man buys a cycle for Rs. 1400 and sells it at a loss of 15%. What is
the selling price of the cycle?

(a) Rs. 1090

(b) Rs. 1160

(c) Rs. 1190

(d) Rs. 1202

149. At 3:40, the hour hand and the minute hand of a clock form an angle
of:

(a) 120°

(b) 125°

(c) 130°

(d) 135°

150. Look at this series: 36, 34, 30, 28, 24, ... What number should come
next?

(a) 20

(b) 23

(c) 26

(d) 22

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