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3/11/2021 Test 1-complete-test
Test 1
Section 1
Q.1) What is the estimated budget of MNREGA for the year 2021-22?
[A] 70000 crores
[B] 73000 crores
[C] 75000 crores
[D] 78000 crores
Q.2) What is the Nodal Ministry for MANODARPAN initiative?
[A] Ministry of Finance
[B] Ministry of Education
[C] Ministry of Consumer A airs
[D] Ministry of Rural A airs
Q.3) RAISE focuses on energy e ciency, promoting e-mobility and improving indoor air quality. RAISE is the
joint initiative of _____________________ and U.S. Agency for International Development (USAID).
[A] Energy E ciency Services Limited
[B] Nuclear Power Corporation of India Limited
[C] AI Engineering Services Ltd.
[D] Bharat Heavy Electricals Ltd.
Q.4) What is the full form of SERB?
[A] Science and Electricals Research Board
[B] Science and Electronics Research Board
[C] Science and Engineering Research Board
[D] State Engineering Research Board
Q.5) Which of the following is an objective of Garib Kalyan Rojgar Yojana?
[A] Saturate villages with public infrastructure - Anganwadis, Panchayat Bhawans, Community Sanitary
Complexes etc.
[B] It has also been integrated with NGO Darpan Portal of NITI Aayog.
[C] To cover the di erent dimensions of COVID-19 challenges in a very holistic and comprehensive way.
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[D] Providing day-time electricity to farmers in the State of Gujarat for irrigation and farming purposes.
Q.6) What is the nodal ministry for SATYABHAMA Portal?
[A] Ministry of Textiles
[B] Ministry of Human Resource Development
[C] Ministry of Mines
[D] Ministry of Tribal A airs
Q.7) Which of the following schemes was not launched in 2020?
[A] Climate Smart Cities Assessment Framework (CSCAF) 2.0
[B] UNNATI ( Unispace Nanosatellite Assembly & Training Programme)
[C] Vanchit Ikai Samooh aur Vargon ko Aarthik Sahayata Yojana (VISVAS Yojana)
[D] PM-WANI (Prime Minister Wi-Fi Access Network Interface) Scheme
Q.8) Which scheme was launched on the occasion of International Literacy Day,2020?
[A] Padhna Likhna Abhiyan
[B] Sarv Shiksha Abhiyan
[C] Prodh Shiksha Abhiyan
[D] Naari Shiksha Abhiyan
Q.9) Pradhan Mantri Street Vendor's Atmanirbhar Nidhi (PM-SVANIDHI) scheme facilitates working capital loan
to street vendors upto Rs._____________.
[A] 5000
[B] 10000
[C] 20000
[D] 50000
Q.10) National Digital Health Mission was launched on __________.
[A] 26th January 2020
[B] 15th August 2020
[C] 2nd October 2020
[D] 1st April 2020
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Q.11) CHAMPIONS stands for Creation and Harmonious Application of Modern Processes for Increasing the
Output and National Strength. It is launched by which Ministry?
[A] Ministry of Rural A airs
[B] Ministry of Education
[C] Ministry of MSME
[D] Ministry of Urban A airs
Q.12) UAN (in context of Aatmanirbhar Bharat Rozgar Yojna) stands for __________.
[A] Universal Application Number
[B] Universal Account Number
[C] Universal Acknowledgement Number
[D] Uniform Application Number
Q.13) Which scheme was launched by National Science & Technology Entrepreneurship Development Board
(NSTEDB), Department of Science and Technology (DST) to evaluate and support the innovations and start-ups
that address COVID-19 challenges?
[A] CAWACH
[B] Nagar Van Scheme
[C] PM WANI
[D] RoDTEP
Q.14) In how many states was the One Nation One Ration Card Scheme implemented from 01st January,2020?
[A] 10 states
[B] 11 states
[C] 12 states
[D] 15 states
Q.15) Formation and Promotion of Farmer Producer Organizations scheme is a scheme launched by
Ministry of Agriculture. Which of the following is not an implementing agency of the scheme?
[A] Small Farmers Agri-business Consortium (SFAC)
[B] National Cooperative Development Corporation (NCDC)
[C] National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)
[D] Small Industries Development Bank of India
Q.16) Ghar Tak Fibre scheme was launched under which ministry?
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[A] Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
[B] Ministry of Textiles
[C] Ministry of Urban A airs
[D] Ministry of Rural A airs
Q.17) Remission of Duties and Taxes on Exported Products (RoDTEP) is supposed to replace which scheme?
[A] MEIS
[B] SIS
[C] VISVAS
[D] CVD
Q.18) Which of the following is not an eligibility conditions for VISVAS yojna?
[A] Applicant’s annual family income should be less than Rs. 1 Lakh.
[B] SHGs must be registered with NRLM/NULM/NABARD with more than two years of credit history
[C] All OBC Antoday Anna Yojana (AAY) card holders, and OBC individuals facing three or more Deprivations in
terms of SECC-2011, as per records available at the relevant BDO O ce shall be eligible for Interest
Subvention.
[D] Individuals must have made all repayments timely to be eligible for Interest Subvention
Q.19) Which of the following is not a category of indicator under the framework of Climate Smart Cities
Assessment Framework?
[A] Water management
[B] Disaster Management
[C] Waste Management
[D] Urban Planning, Green Cover & Biodiversity.
Q.20) The Nodal Agency for Vivad Se Vishwas Scheme is _______________.
[A] Central Board for excise and customs
[B] Central Board for direct taxes
[C] Securities Exchange Board of India
[D] Reserve Bank of India
Q.21) The Contractor can recover __________________ from the employees appointed through him.
[A] Employee contribution to provident fund only
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[B] Employer contribution to provident fund only
[C] Both Employer & Employee contribution to provident fund
[D] No amount
Q.22) The provident fund set up under Code on Social Security shall be deemed to be a _____________ fund for
Income Tax Act.
[A] Unrecognised
[B] Recognised
[C] Statutory
[D] permanent
Q.23) The provisions of Chapter III of Code on Social Security regarding Employees Provident Fund shall not
apply to every co-operative society employing less than ____________ persons and working without aid of power.
[A] 10
[B] 20
[C] 50
[D] 100
Q.24) Minimum __________ member of the Building workers' welfare board shall be a woman.
[A] one
[B] two
[C] 10%
[D] 20%
Q.25) Factory means any premises including the precincts thereof whereon _________ or more employees are
working, or were working on any day of the preceding twelve months, and in any part of which a
manufacturing process is being carried on with the aid of power, or is ordinarily so carried on,
[A] ten
[B] twelve
[C] twenty
[D] fty
Test 1
Answers
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3/11/2021 Test 1-complete-test
Section 1
Q.1)B Q.2)B Q.3)A Q.4)C Q.5)A Q.6)C Q.7)B Q.8)A Q.9)B Q.10)B Q.11)C Q.12)B
Q.13)A Q.14)C Q.15)D Q.16)A Q.17)A Q.18)A Q.19)B Q.20)B Q.21)A Q.22)B Q.23)C
Q.24)A Q.25)A
Test 1
Explanations
Section 1
Q.1) Explanation:
The estimated budget of MNREGA for the year 2021-22 is Rs.73000 crores.
Q.2) Explanation:
MANODARPAN initiative
Launch Year: 2020
Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Education
Aim: To provide psychosocial support to students for their Mental Health and Well-being during the COVID
outbreak and beyond.
Q.3) Explanation:
“Retro t of Air-conditioning to improve Indoor Air Quality for Safety and E ciency” (RAISE)
Launch Year: 2020
Joint initiative of: Energy E ciency Services Limited (EESL) and U.S. Agency for International Development
(USAID).
Key Features:
It focuses on energy e ciency, promoting e-mobility and improving indoor air quality.
The initiative has been developed for healthy and energy e cient buildings, in partnership with USAID’s
MAITREE programme.
Q.4) Explanation:
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The full form of SERB is Science and Engineering Research Board.
Q.5) Explanation:
Following are the objectives of Garib Kalyan Rozgar Yojana -
Provide livelihood opportunities to returning migrants and similarly a ected rural citizens
Saturate villages with public infrastructure - Anganwadis, Panchayat Bhawans, Community Sanitary Complexes
etc.
Set stage for enhancing longer term livelihood opportunities
Q.6) Explanation:
SATYABHAMA Portal
SATYABHAMA stands for
Science and Technology Yojana for Aatmanirbhar Bharat in Mining Advancement.
Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Mines
Developed By: The portal has been designed, developed and implemented by the National Informatics Centre
(NIC), Mines Informatics Division
Q.7) Explanation:
UNNATI ( Unispace Nanosatellite Assembly & Training Programme)
Launch Year: 2019
The programme was launched at the U R Rao Satellite Centre, Bengaluru.
The programme was launched following an announcement made by ISRO Chairman K Sivan during a
symposium in Vienna on June 18, 2018.
Launched by: Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
Q.8) Explanation:
Padhna Likhna Abhiyan
Launch Year: 2020
The scheme was launched on the occasion of International Literacy Day.
Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Education
Aim: To achieve the goal of total literacy by 2030.
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Q.9) Explanation:
Pradhan Mantri Street Vendor's Atmanirbhar Nidhi (PM-SVANIDHI)
Launch Year: 2020
Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Housing and Urban a airs
Implementing Agency: Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI)
Aim: Scheme targets to bene t over 50 lakh Street Vendors
Tenure of the scheme: June 2020- March 2022
Funding: Central Sector Scheme
Objective:
To facilitate working capital loan up to Rs 10,000
To incentivize regular repayment
To reward digital transactions
Q.10) Explanation:
National Digital Health Mission
Launch Year: 15th August 2020
Nodal Agency: National Health Authority
Background:
The National Health Policy 2017 had envisaged creation of a digital health technology eco-system aiming at
developing an integrated health information system.
A Digital Health ID was proposed to reduce the risk of preventable medical errors and signi cantly increase the
quality of care.
MoH&FM set up a committee under J.Satyanarayana to develop an implementation framework for the
National Health Stack. The committee recommended drafting a National Digital Health Blueprint to lay down
the building blocks and action plan for a digital health mission.
National Digital Mission Blueprint recommended the establishment of an entity called National Digital Health
Mission to provide for a digital healthcare ecosystem for healthcare services across the country.
Q.11) Explanation:
CHAMPIONS stands for Creation and Harmonious Application of Modern Processes for Increasing the Output
and National Strength.
Nodal Ministry: Ministry of MSME
Objective:
How to help the MSMEs in this di cult situation in terms of nance, raw materials, labour, permissions, etc.
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How to help them capture new opportunities like manufacturing of medical accessories and products like
PPEs, masks, etc.
How to identify the sparks, i.e., the bright MSMEs who can not only withstand but can also become national
and international champions.
Q.12) Explanation:
UAN stands for Universal Account Number
Q.13) Explanation:
Centre for Augmenting WAR with COVID-19 Health Crisis (CAWACH)
Launch Year: 2020
Nodal Agency: National Science & Technology Entrepreneurship Development Board (NSTEDB), Department of
Science and Technology (DST)
Objective:
The main objective of CAWACH is to scout, evaluate and support the innovations and start-ups that address
COVID-19 challenges.
It aims to tap challenges faced by the country due to the severe impact of Coronavirus disease
It will identify upto 50 innovations and startups that are in the area of novel, low cost, safe and e ective
ventilators, respiratory aids, protective gears and any e ective interventions to control COVID-19.
Q.14) Explanation:
One Nation One Ration Card Scheme
Launch Year: Pilot project of 'One Nation, One Ration Card' scheme in four states in the year 2019.
From 01 January 2020, One Nation, One Ration Card Scheme was implemented in 12 states across India.
Q.15) Explanation:
Formation and Promotion of Farmer Producer Organizations scheme
Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Agriculture
Implementing agency:
Small Farmers Agri-business Consortium (SFAC)
National Cooperative Development Corporation (NCDC)
National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)
National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India Limited
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Q.16) Explanation:
Ghar Tak Fibre Scheme
Launch Year: 2020
Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
Aim: It aims to connect all 45,945 villages of Bihar with high-speed optical bre internet by 31st March 2021.
Q.17) Explanation:
Remission of Duties and Taxes on Exported Products (RoDTEP)
Launch Year: 2020, to be implemented from 1st Jan 2021.
Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Commerce
Aim: Rs 50,000-crore exports programme which is supposed to replace Merchandise Exports From India
Scheme (MEIS).
Objective: Its objective is to o set infrastructural ine ciencies and associated costs involved in exporting
goods which are manufactured in India, including products manufactured by the MSME Sector.
Q.18) Explanation:
Vanchit Ikai Samooh aur Vargon ko Aarthik Sahayata Yojana (VISVAS Yojana)
Eligibility
Members of Backward Classes, as noti ed by Central Government/State Governments from time to time.
Applicant’s annual family income should be less than Rs. 3.00 Lakh.
SHGs must be registered with NRLM/NULM/NABARD with more than two years of credit history
SHGs/Individuals must have made all repayments timely to be eligible for Interest Subvention
All OBC Antoday Anna Yojana (AAY) card holders, and OBC individuals facing three or more Deprivations in
terms of
SECC-2011, as per records available at the relevant BDO O ce shall be eligible for Interest Subvention.
All OBC bene ciaries involved in Agricultural activities and getting coverage under the PM Kisan shall be
eligible for coverage under Interest Subvention
Q.19) Explanation:
The framework has 28 indicators across ve categories namely:
Energy and Green Buildings.
Urban Planning, Green Cover & Biodiversity.
Mobility and Air Quality.
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Water Management.
Waste Management.
Q.20) Explanation:
Vivad Se Vishwas Scheme
Launch Year: 2020
Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Finance
Nodal Agency: CBDT to issue such orders, instructions and directions to the income-tax authorities for the
proper administration of the Act.
Objectives:
Reduce income tax pending litigation
Generate timely revenues for the Government
Help taxpayers end their tax disputes with the department by paying disputed tax and get waiver from
payment of interest and penalty. Also get immunity from prosecution.
Q.21) Explanation:
Contractor can recover employee contribution from employees salary through deduction.(He can not recover
employers’ contribution)
Q.22) Explanation:
The Provident Fund shall be deemed to be a recognised provident fund for Income tax act.
Q.23) Explanation:
Chapter III of Code on Social Security shall not apply to
a)To any establishment registered under the Co-operative Societies Act employing less than fty persons and
working without the aid of power or
b)to any other establishment under the control of the Central Government or a State Government and whose
employees are entitled to the bene t of contributory provident fund or old age pension in accordance with any
scheme framed by the Central Government or the State Government governing such bene ts.
Q.24) Explanation:
The Building Workers' Welfare Board shall consist of
a)a chairperson to be nominated by the State Government,
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b)one member to be nominated by the Central Government and
c)such number of other members, not exceeding fteen, as may be appointed to it by the State Government:
The Building Workers' Welfare Board shall include an equal number of members representing the State
Government, the employers and the building workers and at least one member of the Board shall be a
woman.
The Building Workers' Welfare Board shall appoint a Secretary and such o cers for the e cient discharge of
its functions of the Building Workers' Welfare Board under this Code.
The Secretary of the Building Workers' Welfare Board shall be its chief executive o cer.
Q.25) Explanation:
Factory means any premises including the precincts thereof—
a)whereon ten or more employees are working, or were working on any day of the preceding twelve months,
and in any part of which a manufacturing process is being carried on with the aid of power, or is ordinarily so
carried on, or
b)whereon twenty or more employees are working, or were working on any day of the preceding twelve
months, and in any part of which a manufacturing process is being carried on without the aid of power, or is
ordinarily so carried on,
c)but does not include a mine, or a mobile unit belonging to the Armed Forces of the Union, railways running
shed or a hotel, restaurant or eating place.
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one of the toughest exams in
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Dont miss the Chance.