MEDICO ACADEMY

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CHEMISTRY

MADE

EASY II
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1. Which of the following is not a sub – atomic structure. A. nucleus B. proton C. X –

ray D. neutron
2. Which of the following is the lightest sub – atomic particle A. electron B. proton C.
neutron D. none of the above
3. Faraday experiment supports the existence of _____ A. proton B. electron C. neutron
D. positron
4. Cathode ray discharge tube experiment was conducted under _______ A. high
pressure and low voltage B. high voltage and low pressure C. low pressure and low
voltage D. high voltage and high pressure
5. In cathode ray tube experiment, the beam of rays flow from _____ to _____ A.
cathode to anode B. anode to cathode C. anode to anode D. cathode to cathode
6. Cathode rays are _______ charged A. positively B. negatively C. neutral D. none of
the above
7. Cathode rays can displace particles placed on their path indicate that they possess
_____ A. energy B. momentum C. energy and momentum D. moment
8. Cathode ray tube experiment supports the existence of _____ A. electrons B. protons
C. neutron D. all of the above
9. Cathode ray tube experiment was conducted by ____ A. J.J Thompson B. Stoney C.
Goldstein D. Rutherford
10. Perforated cathode ray tube experiment supports the existence of ______ A. protons
B. electrons C. neutrons D. all of the above
11. Canal rays are equivalent to _______ A. protons B. electron C. neutron D. all of the
above
12. The charge to mass ratio of electrons was discovered by _______ A. J.J Thompson
B. Stoney C. Goldstein D. Rutherford
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13. Cathode ray tube experiment was conducted under the influence of _____ A. electric
field B. gravitational field C. magnetic field D. none of the above
14. Which of the following correctly gives the formula for charge to mass ratio A. e/m =
V/rB B. e/m = rBV C. e/m = BV/r D. none of the above
15. Oil drop experiment is effective in the discovery of the ______ A. mass of electron
B. charge of electron C. density of electron D. all of the above
16. The oil drop experiment was conducted by _______ A. J.J Thompson B. Stoney C.
Goldstein D. R.A Milikan
17. The point mass model was given by ______ A. John Dalton B. Marsten C. Neil
Bohr D. none of the above
18. Which of the following model does not confer the neutrality of an atom A. Dot –
particle theory B. plum pudding model C. nuclear model D. all of the above
19. The plum pudding model was postulated by _____ A. J.J Thompson B. John Dalton
C. Neil Bohr D. all of the above
20. The planetary/nuclear model of atom was given by ______ A. Neil Bohr B. Ernest
Rutherford C. John Dalton D. Stoney
21. Alpha scattering experiment was postulated by _____ A. Ernest Rutherford B.
John Dalton C. Stoney D. Marsten
22. The quantum model was given by _______ A. Neil Bohr B. Ernest Rutherford C.
John Dalton D. none of the above
23. A particle possessing energy is best described as ______ A. quanta B. photon C.
electron D. none of the above
24. A monochromatic radiation is visible only in _______ A. line spectrum B.
continuous spectrum C. rainbow D. all of the above
25. White light produces ________ A. continuous spectrum B. light spectrum C.
absorption spectrum D. all of the above
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26. Balmer series is visible in ____ region A. visible region B. ultraviolet C. infra red D.
all of the above
27. Neutrons was discovered by ______ A. James Chadwick B. James Chadweek C.
James Chardwick D. Dobereigner
28. The ability of electrons to transfer energy and momentum proves the _______ A.
duality of electron B. particle nature of matter C. wave nature of matter D. all of
the above
29. Which of the following is not a wave property of electrons A. velocity B.
acceleration C. frequency D. momentum
30. Photoelectric effect proves the _______ A. particle nature of matter B. wave
nature of matter C. both A and B D. none of the above
31. The uncertainty principle was given by ______ A. Louis Debroglie B. Hesenberg
C. Max Planck D. Albert Einstein
32. The region in space where electrons may be located is known as _____ A. node B.
orbital C. shell D. all of the above
33. Atomic number helps to determine the ______ A. chemical properties B. physical
properties C. melting point D. hardness
34. The phenomenon whereby atoms of the same elements have the same atomic
number but different mass number is known as ____ A. isotope B. isobar C. isotopy
D. isotones
35. Which of the following is not the reason Carbon – 12 is chosen as a reference
standard in the determination of Relative atomic mass A. because it is solid at room
temperature B. It is a common element C. it is easier to transport D. it can easily
catenate
36. The constant 6.02 x 1023 was given by A. Lussac B. Avogadro C. Jacques Charles
D. none of the above
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37. Which of the following quantum number has vector properties A. principal quantum
number B. spin quantum number C. magnetic quantum number D. all of the above
38. Which of the following determines the orientation of orbitals in space A. magnetic
quantum number B. principal quantum C. subsidiary quantum number
39. Which of the following correctly shows the formula of azimuthal quantum number
A. L = n + 1 B. L = n C. L = n – 1 D. none of the above
40. Which of the following correctly shows the expression for magnetic quantum
number A. m = 2L – 1 B. m = l + 1 C. m = 2L + 1 D. all of the above
41. Which of the following is not a degenerate orbitals A. p – orbital B. d – orbital C. f
– orbital D. s – orbital
42. Which of the following orbitals have the lowest energy A. 5s B. 3p C. 5d D. 4s
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43. Which of the following is regarded as the father of periodic table A. Dmitri
Mendeleev B. John Newland C. Glenn Seaborg D. Meyer
44. The law of octave wass proposed by ______ A. John Newland B. Glenn Seaborg C.
Johann Dobereigner D. all of the above
45. The classification of elements by Dmitri Mendeleev is based on ______ A. density B.
atomic number C. atomic mass D. none of the above
46. In the old periodic classification of elements, the periodic properties of elements is
based on _____ A. atomic weight B. atomic number C. density D. none of the above
47. The law of triad is based on _____ A. atomic mass B. atomic number C. all of the
above D. none of the above
48. Who proposed the law of triad A. Johann Doberener B. Johann Doberiger C.
Johann Dobereigner D. none of the above
49. Which of the following is a representative element A. f – elements B. d – elements C.
s – elements D. all of the above
50. Transition elements are characterized by the following except _______ A. variable
oxidation B. partially filled d – orbitals C. diagmagnetism D. formation of complex
ions
51. The energy required to remove an electron from a neutral atom is known as ______
A. electron affinity B. ionization potential C. activation energy D. removal energy
52. Electron affinity is ______ process A. exothermic B. endothermic C. neutral D. none
of the above
53. Which of the following decreases across the period of the periodic table A. atomic
radius B. electronegativity C. electron affinity D. ionization energy
54. Ionization energy increases across the period due to increase in _______ A. screening
effect B. decrease in the number of shells C. nuclear charge D. all of the above
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55. The shielding of outer electrons by the inner shells from nuclear impart is best
described as _______ A. nuclear shielding B. electron clouding C. screening effect
D. none of the above
56. Atomic radius increases down the group due to ______ A. increase in the nuclear
charge B. increase in the number of shells C. decrease in nuclear charge D.
decrease in the number of shells
57. Which of the following is the most electronegative element A. chlorine B. oxygen C.
fluorine D. caesium
58. Elements diagonally related in the periodic table have ___________ A. similar
chemical properties B. different chemical properties C. the same physical properties
D. none of the above
59. Lithium is diagonally related to _____ A, berrylium B. magnesium C. aluminium D.
silicon
60. Which of the following elements ionizes most readily A. potassium B. sodium C.
lithium D. calcium
61. Which of the following chlorides is the most stable A. LiCl B. NCl3 C. PCl3 D. PCl5
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62. Which of the following is not an intra-atomic force A. ionic bond B. covalent bond C.
hydrogen bond D. dative bond
63. Which of the following cannot undergo bonding process A. hydrogen B. neon C.
nitrogen D. sodium
64. The transfer of electrons from one atom of an element to another is known as
_______ A. valency B. covalency C. electrovalency D. none of the above
65. The electrons at the highest occupied energy level is known as _______ A. orbital
electrons B. valence electrons C. anion D. cation
66. What is the charge on the strontium ion A. 2- B. 1- C. 2+ D. 1+
67. Which of the following occurs in ionic bond A. oppositely charged ions attract B.
two atoms share two electrons C. like charged ions attract D. all of the above
68. What is the charge on the cation of sodium sulphide A. 2+ B. + C. 2- D. none of the
above
69. A molecule with a single covalent bond is known as ______ A. CO B. CO 2 C. Cl2 D.
O2
70. Which of the following covalent bond is the most polar A. H --- F B. H – Cl C. H -
N D. none of the above
71. Which of the following is held by triple covalent bonds A. oxygen B. nitrogen C.
fluorine D. chlorine
72. In which of the following compound is hydrogen bonds strongest A. HCl B. H2O C.
HI D. none of the above
73. Which of the following best defines hydrogen bonding A. when hydrogen reacts with
highly electropositive elements B. when hydrogen reacts with highly
electronegative elements C. when hydrogen reacts with itself D. none of the above
74. In coordinate bond, the acceptor atom must essentially contain in its valency shell an
orbital A. with single electron B. with two electrons C. with no electron D. none of
the abve
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75. Which of the following is the most ionic A. KCl B. NaCl C. LiCl D. CsCl
Note: bigger cation and smaller anion favors ionic character
76. Which of the following molecules is devoid of polar covalent bond A. ammonia B.
water C. carbon IV oxide D. none of the above
77. Which of the following is not isoelectronic with neon A. oxygen B. nitrogen C.
sulphur D. aluminium
78. An imbalance of charge from one side of a molecule to another is known as
________ A. ion B. dipole C. moment D. monopole
79. Which of the following does not form a dipole A. H2O B. HCl C. NH3 D. CO2
80. The following are characteristics of ionic species except A. high melting point B. low
boiling point C. formation of crystal lattice D. all of the above
81. The bond present in CO is ______ A. dative bond B. ionic bond C. pure covalent D.
none of the above
82. The shape of ammonia molecule is ________ A. tetrahedral B. trigonal planar C.
trigonal pyramidal D. trigonal bipyramidal
83. Which of the following bond is non – directional A. ionic bond B. covalent C. dative
bond D. none of the above
84. Metallic bonds are formed by ______ A. localized electrons B. delocalized electrons
C. free electrons D. B and C
85. Hydrogen bonding is characterized by __________ A. high viscosity and low
volatility B. low volatility and low viscosity C. high viscosity and high volatily
86. Hydrogen bonding is present in the following except A. HI B. H2O C. NH3 D. HF
87. Floating nature of ice is due to __________ A. covalency B. hydrogen bonding C.
electrostatic force D. all of the above
88. Water exist as liquid at room temperature due to _________ A. hydrogen bonding
B. covalent character C. melting nature D. all of the above
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89. Which of the following is not a physical property of water A. colorless B. odourless
C. ability to exist in three distinct states D. ionization tendency
90. The bond formed by the side – to – side overlap of atomic orbitals to obtaina suitable
orbital of higher energy is known as ________ A. sigma bond B. pi bond C. sigma
and pi bond D. none of the above
91. The extended tetrahedral shape of methane is due to ______ A. presence of bonding
electrons B.Absence of lone pairs of electrons C. inertness D. covalency
92. SP3 hybridization is present in _________ A. ammonia B. BeCl2 C. ethyne D. ethane
93. Which of the following is untrue of alkanes A. absence of double bonds B. presence
of single bonds C. presence of sigma bonds only D. presence of pi bonds
94. AlCl3 is covalent while AlF3 is ionic due to _________ A. difference in
electropositivity B. difference in electronegativity C. equal value of
electropositivity D. equal value of electronegativity
95. The following exhibit zero dipole moment except A. CCl4 B. CO C. CO2 D. all of
the above
96. Covalent bonding involves __________ A. transfer of electrons B. sharing of
electrons C. no electrons D. all of the above
97. The electrons involved in sharing during dative bond is the _______ A. lone pair of
electron B. bonding electrons C. paired electrons D. all of the above
98. The weak force of attraction is the __________ A. ionic force B. covalent force C.
vander waal force D. none of the above
99. Non – polar covalent bonds exist in the following except ________ A. H2 B. Cl2 C.
HCl D. N2
100. The bond present in organic compound is known as ______ A. ionic bond B.
covalent C. coordinate covalent D. all of the above
101. The amount of energy generated through electronic transition is equivalent to
_________ A. energy level B. allowed orbit C. photon D. equivalent
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102. The model of the atom obtained from the thin gold foil experiment is _______ A.
point mass B. quantum C. plum pudding D. nuclear
103. The following compound disobey the octet rule except A. AgCl B. CuO C. ZnO D.
PbO
104. Elements in group VB, VIB, VIIB form _____ A. only pure covalent bond B.
covalent bond with metals C. covalent bonds with non metals D. ionic bond only
105. A cell which cannot be recharged and whose reactants cannot be regenerated as A.
Daniel cell B. secondary cel C. primary cell D. Voltaic cell
106. The periodic law of triads was proposed by A. Johann Dobereigner B. Dmitri
Mendeleev C. Newland D. Glenn Seaborg
107. The occurrence of nitrogen as N20, N21 and N23 is mainly due to ______ A. similar
atomic number B. same mass number C. difference in number of neutrons D.
difference in the number of electrons
108. The conjugate base of the acid H2CO3 is ________ A. H2CO3 B. CO3 C. HCO3- D.
HCO32-
109. Continuous emission of energy by electrons spinning the orbit which result in the
ultimate collapse of the atom is associated with ________ model of the atom A.
nuclear B. quantum C. point mass D. plum pudding
110. An atom of an element with atomic number 19 and mass number 19 will likely
contain ________ number of electrons A. 20 B. 18 C. 19 D. 39
111. In lewis theory, acid is defined as _________ A. electron pair donor B. electron
pair acceptor C. photon donor D. proton acceptor
112. A solution that resist changes in PH when a small amount of acid or base is added
to it is called ________- A. indicator B. strong acid C. strong base D. buffer
113. An instrument that can connect two half cells to prevent direct mixing of the
solution but allow migration of ions through is called A. voltmeter B. salt bridge C.
potentiometer D. wire
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114. Across the period _______ decreases A. atomic radius B. screening effect C.
ionization energy D. electronegativity
115. In acid base titration, the point at which moles of hydrogen ions in an acid equals
the number of moles of hydroxide ions in the base is called A. standard point B.
equivalent point C. titre value D. equilibrium point
116. Half the distance between the nuclei of two covalently bonded atoms is referred to
as A. atomic number B. atomic size C. atomic radius D. ionization energy
117. Associated molecules is one of the characteristics of the compound formed by
________ A. hydrogen bonding B. ion dipole force C. dipole dipole force D. vander
waal force
118. Atomic number is important in that it represents A. number of electrons around the
nucleus B. the order in which elements appear in the periodic table C. number of
protons in the nucleus D. none of the above
119. The number of neutrons in tritium atom is A. 10 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
120. ______ states that no two electrons in the same atom can have the same value for
all quantum numbers A. Bohr’s law B. pauli exclusion principle C. Hunds law D.
Aufbaus law
121. The minimum number of electrons that can be accommodated by F orbitals A. 2 B.
6 C. 10 D. 14
122. The rare earth metals are called A. lanthanides B. octimides C. group D. elements
123. The difference between metallic bonding and ionic bonding is _____ A. it is non
directional B. its ions are present C. attraction of electron clouds between metallic
atoms
124. Hydrogen can be prepared from the following except from ____ A. alkanes B. zinc
with acid C. cores D. B and C
125. Which of the following forms an amphoteric acid A. aluminium B. sodium C. tin
D. A and C
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126. Which of these sets of compounds does not isomorphism A. NaF and Na 2O B. NaF
and MgO C. CaO and Na2O D. none of the above
127. Which of the following forms covalent compounds only A. VB B. VIIB C. VIB
D. IVB
128. The overlap of two unhybridized orbitals can result in the formation of new
molecular A. sigma orbitals B. pi orbitals C. bonding orbitals D. anti bonding
orbitals
129. Which of these is not an oxidizing agent A. Hydrogen peroxide B. hydrogen
sulphide C. acidified iron III chloride D. potassium tetraoxomanganese VII
130. If electron flows from hydrogen to a metal, the metal is said to have A. negatively
electrode B. positive electrode C. positive electrode potential D. none of the above
131. Zn/Zn2+ //H+/H should have ____ A. zero electrode potential B. standard hydrogen
electrode C. All D. negatively electrode potential
132. The double stroke line in an electrochemical cell denotes A. salt bridge B.
electrolytic junction C. all of the above D. none of the above
133. I. They normally travel in a straight line II. The magnetic and electric field has no
effect on them III. They move in haphazard manner IV. They cast shadow of metals
in their path. Use the above information to answer 134 and 135
134. Which of these are properties of cathode rays A. I only B. III only C. I and IV
only D. none of the above
135. Which of the above listed is a property of gas molecules A. IV only B. III only C.
III and IV only D.
136. Cathode rays can set in motion a pinwheel in their path because A. they are
negative B. they possess momentum C. they move in a straight line D. they are
hardworking
137. Potassium permanganese is a powerful A. reducing agent B. precipitating agent C.
complex agent D. oxidizing agent
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138. _____ is given off in a reaction between ammonium chloride and sodium chloride
in the presence of heat A. CO2 B. NH4 C. NH3 D. NO2
139. The solubility of hydroxides depends on ____ A. PH B. solvent C. solution D.
none of the above
140. The process of reducing the strength of a solution is known as A. dilution B.
polarity C. standardization D. concentration
141. The formation of brown ring in a test tube during analysis is an indication of ____
ion A. sulphate B. chloride C. nitrate D. carbonate
142. ____ is used in putting a solid into a test tube A. defingrating spoon B. spatula C.
crucible tong D. none of the above
143. It is necessary to moisten a piece of litmus prepared using in testing for
ammonium gas to obtain a color change because H3O A. is an acid B. provided OH
C. is readily oxidized by air D. it is a universal solvent
144. What is another name for titrimetry A. titrant B. titration C. titrand D. none of the
above
145. The process whereby AlCL3 ionize in water to give acid solution is known as A.
oxidation B. reduction C. acidification D. hydrolysis
146. what is the color of methyl orange in alkaline solution A. orange B. yellow C.
colorless D. red
147. which of the following indicator will be most suitable for a weak acid and strong
base titration A. bromomethyl B. methyl red C. methyl orange D. phenolphthalein
148. the method used to find the concentration of a solution by measuring the volume is
A. concentration B. qualitative analysis C. titration D. solution
149. chlorine dioxide is favoured over Cl2 in drinking water treatment because ____ A.
it is an oxide of chlorine B. it kills micro organism in water C. it does not produce
toxic effluent D. it is soluble in water at room temperature
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150. the following are nitrogen based chemicals except A. fertilizers B. TNT C. sodium
azides D. bauxite
151. a non stoichiometric ionic metal hydride formed between hydrogen and a metal is
originally called ____ hydride A. interstitial B. metal ion C. monomeric D. hydrogen
gap
152. during electrolysis, reduction take place at ____ A. anode B. cathode C.
electrolyte D. inert electrode
153. during electrolysis of dilute H2SO4 using platinum electrode, the product at which
cathode is A. H2 B. O2 C. OH- D. water
154. An element with the electronic configuration [Ne]3S2 3P3 can be found in which
group and period A. group 0 and period 3 B. group 5 and period 3 C. group 2 and
period 3 D. group 3 and period 2
155. Which of these compounds limit the tendency of ionic compound to bond
electrovalently A. atomic B. electronegativity C. melting point D. ionization energy
156. Oxygen forms double covalent with the following except A. water B. oxygen C.
acetone D.
157. A wave function which satisfies the acceptable solution to a wave function in a
hydrogenic atom is called A. photon B. De Broglie equation C. electron cloud D.
orbital
158. One of these integer quantum number is used to describe the orbtal shape of an
atom A. principal quantum B. orbital quantum C. spin quantum D. orientation
quantum number
159. In which of the following compound does nitrogen has the highest oxidation
number A. HNO3 B. NH3 C. NO D. none of the above
160. Which of the following correctly represent the electronic configuration of iron A.
[Ar] 4S1 3d6 B. [Ne] 4S2 3d6 C. [Ar] 4S2 3d6
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161. The limitation observed in the Rutherford model of an atom was addressed using
A. quantum theory and energy level B. quantum theory and emission spectra C.
line spectrum and emission spectra D. none of the above
162. the unusual property of water is due to _____ A. electrovalent bonding B. covalent
bonding C. hydrogen bonding D. ion ion interaction
163. in the bond formation, the following obey octet rule except A. Na B. Ca C. Mg D.
Cu
164. bonding electrons in potassium is contained in __________ A. S orbital B. P
orbital C. d orbital D. f orbital
165. an atom described as point mass and indivisible is a model by A. Dalton B.
Thompson C,. Rutherford D. Bohr
166. a particle having a quatum of energy is called A. electron B. photon C. alpha
particle D. none of the above
167. the chemical inertness of nitrogen is due to it’s A. its position in the periodic table
B. triple covalent bond binding its atoms C. inability to expand its octet D.
electronegativity value
168. the ability of ice to float on water and the occurrence of water in liquid at room
temperature are attributed to the presence of ________ A. hydrogen bond B. oxygen
atom C. hydrogen atom D. covalent bond
169. energy conservation given by the equation E = MC2 is attributed to A. Einstein
equation B. schrodinger equation C. De Broglie equation D. plancks equation
170. which of the following metals or its compound is used in photographic flashlight
A. Al B. Mg C. Ca D. He
171. ICl3 ICl7, ICl5 fluorine cannot form similar compounds because A. fluorine is
gaseous at room temperature B. fluorine is highly electronegativity C. fluorine
cannot expand its octet D. fluorine has a covalency of 1
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172. The following compounds illustrate the expansion of the octet of iodine A. HF3
B. Hl C. ICl D. ICl3
173. Which of the following halogen is very soluble in water A. fluorine B. iodine C.
chlorine D. bromine
174. The nitrogen atom in ammonia is united by A. single covalent bond B. alternating
double bond C. triple covalent bond D. double covalent bond
175. Which of the oxides is not a basic oxide A. BaO B. SO2 C. MgO D. K2O
176. Which of these molecules among the halogens do not undergo thermal dissociation
A. Bromine B. fluorine C. iodine D. chlorine
177. In the industrial preparation of hydrogen by catalytic mixing of steam and
methane, the intermediate product called A. hydrogen gas B. clean gas C. synthesis
gas D. water gas
178. Oxygen exist as unstable gaseous allotropes in the form of A. O2 B. NO C. O3 D.
CO2
179. One of the following elements exist as liquid at room temperature and pressure A.
gallium B. indium C. boron D. aluminium
180. Ionization potential is the periodic property which increases across the period due
to the following except A. increasing nuclear charge B. increasing net attractive force
C. increasing the shielding effect D. decreasing atomic size
181. The phenomenon which describes the ability of an element to show resemblance in
properties to another element below to its right in the period is known as _________-
A. periodic resemblance B. diagonal relationship C. representative element D.
amphoteric property
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CHEMISTRY PRACTICAL
182. When dilute HCL is added to sample of unknown salt and no gas is evolved one of
these may be suspected. CARBONATE IS ABSENT
183. A colorless gas with a suffocating smell which turns acidified dichromate paper
blue and is given off on addition of 0.5cm3 of 2M HCl to a little sample of salt is
likely to be _____ SO2
184. What is the nature of the precipitate formed when Ag2+, Hg+ and Pb2+ are treated
with dilute solution of HCl. INSOLUBLE CHLORIDE
185. ____ produces a characteristic brick red color in flame. CALCIUM
186. ______ ions gives a yellow precipitate and a white precipitate with solution of
potassium iodide and dilute HCl respectively. LEAD
187. ___ ion is dictated by a solution of silver nitrate and a characteristic white
precipitate of ___ is formed CL-, AgCl
188. Salts are substances chemically composed of ANIONS AND CATIONS
189. In qualitative analysis, members of group 1 metaals are. PB2+, Ag+, Hg+
190. In a confirmatory test for acid radicals, mineral acids is added to ___ REMOVE
INTERFERING IONS
191. The change in color of added indicators help to determine the ____ NEUTRAL
POINT
192. A metal which shows normal bluish green color when passed through a cobalt
glass during a flame test is COPPER
193. An unknown sample B that reacted with dilute sodium hydroxide both in drops and
in excess gives a blue gelatinous ppt. this confirms the presence of __ CU2+
194. An unknown sample A dissolves completely in water and gave no reaction with
NaOH solution both in drops and in excess both upon heating a gas which turned
dampened red litmus paper blue now evolved. What is the name of the gas NH3
195. A freshly prepared FeSO4 is ___ in color. GREENISH
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196. A colorless gas with the smell of rotten egg blackens lead acetate paper . this is
likely to be _____. H2S
197. A substance which shows different color in different media is called INDICATOR
198. Some gases turn blue litmus paper red. Such gases are said to be ACIDIC
199. The point at which exactly equivalent quantities of reactants are present is called
END POINT
200. The method being used to identify anions and cations are called QUALITATIVE
ANALYSIS
201. The part of the beaker designed for pouring of solution is called SPOUT
202. The solution to be titrated with KMnO4 must be sufficiently ___ to prevent the
formation of a precipitate ACIDIC
203. Organic solvents must not be transferred from one container to the other in the
vicinity of _____ FLAMES
204. The compound which can act as its own indicator is KMnO4
205. The molar mass of a substance is its relative molecular mass expressed in g/mol
206. In boiling a little solution in a beaker in the lab, we need the following except A
WIRE GAUZE
207. The concentration of known solution is called TITRANT
208. The concentration of unknown solution is called TITRAND
209. The solution whose concentration is known is called STANDARD SOLUTION
210. The indicator used in the reaction of CH3, COOH and NaOH is
PHENOLPTHALEIN
211. The color of phenolphthalein in acidic solution is ___ COLORLESS
212. The solution whose concentration is 0.5M Na2CO3 is a STANDARD
SOLUTION
213. The salt of a certain strong acid can be identified by the action of dilute HCl
214. The concentration of an unlnown solution is found by the means of TITRATION
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215. How much ferrous ammonium sulphate hexahydrate could you weigh to make
250cm3 M/50 solution? 0.005Mole
216. What is the mass of KIO3 required to prepare M/15 standard solution of KIO3 in
250cm3 of water? 3.585g
217. Dilute HCl was titrated against 0.1 solution of NaOH using methyl orange. The
type of reaction is NEUTRALIZATION
218. Which of the following PH transition range of indicators would be suitable for
titrating weak acid and strong base. PH = 8.6 – 10.0
219. What is another name for titrimetry. TITRATION
220. What is the color of methyl orange in alkaline medium. YELLOW
221. Which indicator is suitable for weak acid and strong base titration.
PHENOPTHALEIN
222. The method used to find the concentration of a solution by measuring the volume.
TITRATION
223. The process of determining the exact concentration of a solution is
STANDARDIZATION
224. The change in the color of added indicator helps to determine the ____ END
POINT
225. The apparatus that enables students to transfer 25cm3 of NaOH from a beaker into
a conical flask is called PIPETTE
226. The acidic and metallic radicals of potassium hexacyanoferrate II are 4K+ and
[Fe(CN)6]4-
227. During titration experiment it is recommended that you minimize the thickness of
the pipette in the deepest part of the solution to PREVENT DRAWING AIR
BUBBLES
228. A standard solution is _____ A SOLUTION WHOSE CONCENTRATION IS
KNOWN
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229. The process whereby AlCl3 ionizes in water is called HYDROLYSIS

230. One very vital precaution measure that must be observed in titration is to ____
TAKE READINGS AT THE MENISCUS LEVEL
231. The correct formula for washing soda is known as Na2CO3.10H20
232. Potassium permanganese is a powerful OXIDIZING AGENT
233. ____ is given off in a reaction between ammonium chloride and sodium hydroxide
in the presence of heat AMMONIA
234. The solubility of hydroxide depends on PH
235. The process reducing the strength of a solution is known as DILUTION
236. The formation of a brown ring in a test to determine NITRATE
237. Anions are collectively called ACID RADICALS
238. ___ is made up of single cation and anion. NORMAL SALT
239. A complex salt is made up of numerous cation and anion
240. Almost all salts of sodium, potassium and ammonium cations are highly soluble.
TRUE
241. The presence of anions are recognized by the activity of DILUTE HCl and
CONC. H2SO4
242. Which of the following metallic salts form insoluble ppt in sodium hydroxide
CALCIUM
243. An unknown salt sample reacted with a solution of sodium hydroxide in which no
ppt was formed even in excess of sodium hydroxide but a colorless gas with pungent
smell evolved on warming the mixture. This confirms the presence of NH4
244. Which of the following aqueous solution are used for the identification of metallic
radicals. SODIUM HYDROXIDE AND AMMONIA
245. Which of the following does not dissolve in aqueous sodium hydroxide solution.
CaCO3
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246. In a redox titration involves the ferrous salt and KMnO4, the ferrous salt to be
treated with KMnO4 must sufficiently be acidic to PREVENT FORMATION OF
BLACK PRECIPITATE
247. It is necessary to moisten a piece of litmus paper in testing for ammonia gas to
obtain a color change because water PROVIDES OH
248. In a titration to estimate the percentage of ammonia in a sample of ammonium
chloride, an excess sodium hydroxide is boiled with 25cm3 of ammonium chloride to
ensure that AMMONIUM IS COMPLETELY CONVERTED TO AMMONIA
249. The metals analysed are divided into six groups, the placement of metals into
groups is based on the formation of INSOLUBLE PRECIPITATE
250. Color changes of indicators in a medium are due to CHANGE IN PH
251. Which of these groups remain solution after all the metals have been precipitated
during qualitative analysis. Na+, Mg2+, K+, NH+
252. Titrand is a substance that is being ANALYSED
253. The color at end point in a titration between KMnO4 and ferrous ammonium
sulphate is FIRST PERMANENT PINK COLOR
254. _____ is given off in a reaction between NH4Cl and NaOH in the presence of heat.
AMMONIA
255. The solubility of hydroxides depends on PH
256. The formation of brown rings in a test tube during qualitative analysis is used to
determine the NITRATE
257. ____ ion gives a yellow precipitate and white precipitate with a solution of
potassium iodide. LEAD
258. ____ ion is detected by a solution of AgNO3 and a characteristic white precipitate
of ___ is Cl, AgCl
259. ___ reacts with barium chloride solution to form a white precipitate known as ___
which is insoluble in dilute HCl. SO42-, BaSO4
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260. Which of the following substances is not a salt. Al2O3

261. Which of the following is an acid NaHSO4
262. In qualitative analysis, members of group 1 metals are Pb2+, Ag+, Hg+
263. A colorless gas which turns acidified ndichromate paper blue is SO2
264. ____ and ____ are used for the accurate measurement and transfer of specific
volume of solution especially acid or base during titration PIPETTE AND
BIURETTE
265. A molar solution is one which contains ___ in ___ of solution MOLAR MASS
OF THE COMPOUND IN 1dm3
266. What is the nature of the precipitate when Ag+, Hg+ and Pb+ are treated with
dilute solution of HCl. INSOLUBLE CHLORIDES
267. How much Na2CO3 would you weigh to prepare M/20 solution in 100cm3
volumetric flask
268. The acidic and metallic radicals of potassium hexacyanoferrate II are 4K+ and
[Fe(CN)6]4-
269. In a redox titration involves the ferrous salt and KMnO4, the ferrous salt to be
treated with KMnO4 must sufficiently be acidic to PREVENT FORMATION OF
BLACK PRECIPITATE
270. An unknown salt sample reacted with a solution of sodium hydroxide in which no
ppt was formed even in excess of sodium hydroxide but a colorless gas with pungent
smell evolved on warming the mixture. This confirms the presence of AMMONIUM

GOODLUCK!!
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