1. Which of the following is a core principle of sexual and reproductive health rights?

A)
Access to affordable contraception B) Forced sterilization for population
control C) Restricting access to abortion services D) Prohibiting education
on sexual health in schools.
2. Which human right framework recognizes the right to decide the number and spacing of
children? A) Right to privacy B) Right to access to information C) Right
to sexual and reproductive health D) Right to life
3. Which of the following statements reflects the principle of "informed consent" in sexual
and reproductive health? A) A patient must undergo medical procedures without
being told the risks. B) A patient has the right to make decisions about their health
care based on understanding the risks and benefits. C) A patient cannot refuse any
medical procedures related to sexual health. D) A patient’s reproductive rights
are controlled by the government.
4. Which of the following statements best describes the principle of non-discrimination in
sexual and reproductive health rights? A) All people, regardless of gender, sexuality,
or health status, should have equal access to reproductive health services. B) People of
different races and ethnicities should receive different reproductive health care options.
C) Discriminatory practices are allowed as long as they align with cultural norms. D)
Women should have fewer reproductive rights than men.

5. Which of the following best reflects the right to privacy in sexual and reproductive
health? A) People’s reproductive decisions should be made publicly to ensure
transparency. B) Individuals have the right to make decisions about their
reproductive health without interference from the state or other individuals C) All
reproductive health services should be provided without patient consent.
D) Governments have the right to monitor reproductive health decisions for all citizens.
From question 6-10 answer True or False
6. A state of complete physical, mental and social wellbeing of an individual in every aspect
of the reproductive system, its function and functioning and not merely the absence of
 disease or an infirmity is referred to as sexual
health………………………………………….

7. Female genital mutilation comprises all procedures that involve partial or total removal of
the external female genitalia, or other injury to the female genital organs for non-medical
reasons………………………………………………………………………………
8. Abortion is legalized in Cameroon………………………………….
9. A child’s reproductive right include access to abortion services if necessary …………….
10. The rights of a child in reproductive health are recognized only in developed
countries…………….

SECTION B : SHORT ANSWERS (10MRKS)

1. Define the following 1 mark each

a. Right
b. Abortion
c. Breeding

2. state 4 fundamental rights of a child 4 marks each

3. list 3 situations in which the right of a child is violated 3marks

SECTION C: LONG ANSWERS (10MRKS)

1. Discuss the role of comprehensive sexual education programs in improving reproductive

health outcomes for adolescents 5 marks
2. What strategies can be implemented to reduce maternal mortality and morbidity in
Cameroon? 5 marks

1. What is the primary goal of pediatric nursing? a) To administer medications to

children b) To ensure children's emotional well-being c) To provide holistic
care for children and their families d) To manage children's education needs

2. What is the most appropriate way to approach a toddler for a health assessment? a)
Use medical jargon to explain procedures b) Approach the child calmly and use simple
language c) Let the child explore medical equipment d) Be strict to ensure
compliance

3. Which age group is considered the "neonatal period" in pediatric nursing? a) Birth to
28 days b) 1 month to 1 year c) 1 year to 5 years d) 5 years to 12 years

4. At which age does a child typically start to walk independently? a) 6-9 months
b) 10-12 months c) 12-18 months d) 18-24 months

5. Which of the following is a priority in the care of an infant with a high fever?a)
Administer the prescribed medication b) Maintain hydration and monitor temperature
c) Perform diagnostic tests immediately d) Start intravenous antibiotics

6. In pediatric nursing, family-centered care emphasizes: a) Parents making all medical

decisions b) Involving the family in the child's care process c) Limiting family
interaction during hospital stays d) Parents being separate from the child to reduce stress

7. Which of the following is an example of an appropriate communication technique for a

nurse caring for a school-age child? a) Speaking in a very formal tone b) Asking
open-ended questions and involving them in decision-making c) Using only nonverbal cues
to communicate d) Ignoring the child’s concerns to focus on the parents' needs

8. Which of the following is a common cause of diarrhea in children? a) Viral infections

b) Bacterial infections c) Food allergies d) All of the above

9. A child with a history of wheezing, cough, and dyspnea is likely experiencing:

a) Asthma b) Sinusitis c) Acute gastroenteritis d) Croup

10. What is the first-line treatment for acute viral diarrhea in children? a) Oral
rehydration therapy b) Antibiotics c) Antidiarrheal agents d) Antipyretics
11. Which of the following is NOT typically associated with nausea and vomiting in
children? a) Gastroenteritis b) Motion sickness c) Appendicitis d) Acne
vulgaris

12. A child is experiencing acute abdominal pain with vomiting and is unable to pass gas.
This may indicate: a) Gastroenteritis b) Appendicitis c) Viral
respiratory infection d) Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)

13. Which of the following should be prioritized in a child with severe nausea and
vomiting? a) Administration of antiemetics b) Monitoring for dehydration and
providing oral rehydration fluids c) Restricting fluid intake to avoid further vomiting
d) Encouraging solid foods immediately

14. Which of the following is an appropriate initial intervention for a child with mild to
moderate dyspnea caused by asthma? a) Administering a dose of bronchodilator (e.g.,
albuterol) b) Giving the child a cold drink c) Restricting all physical activity
d) Using cough suppressants

15. Which of the following is a red flag that suggests a more serious condition in a child
with a cough? a) A dry cough that lasts for a few days b) Wheezing and difficulty
breathing c) Mild sore throat with no other symptoms d) Coughing that resolves after a few
hours

SECTION B: TRUE OR FALSE

16. Diarrhea in children is commonly caused by bacterial infections like Salmonella and
Shigella……………………….

17. Dehydration is a significant concern in children with diarrhea, especially if they are unable to
drink fluids……………………………………..

18. A persistent cough lasting more than three weeks in children is often caused by asthma or
chronic respiratory conditions…………………………………………….
19. Children typically experience more intense pain than adults in response to injuries or medical
procedures……………………………………………………….

20. Dyspnea in a child with asthma can often be relieved by the use of a bronchodilator such as
albuterol…………………………………………….

SECTION C: SHORT ESSAY

1. A 3-year-old child presents with watery stool for the past 24 hours and appears lethargic.
Parents report the child has had 5-6 episodes of watery stool, and the child refuses to drink
fluids. On examination, the child has dry mucous membranes, sunken eyes, and decreased skin
turgor.

i. What is the most likely diagnosis? 1 mark

ii. what is the first step in management? 2 marks

2. A 7-year-old child presents with vomiting, severe abdominal pain in the right lower quadrant,
fever, and anorexia. The child appears to be guarding and has rebound tenderness on abdominal
exam.

i. What is the most likely diagnosis? 1mark

ii. What the possible management? 2 marks

SECTION D: LONG ESSAY

3. Define, state signs and symptoms, diagnosis, appropriate management and complications of
typhoid fever in children 5 marks
Case study 1

A 24 years old woman attends a gynecology clinic with a concern that she has not had a
menstrual flow for 7 months. Her first period was at 12years old. Her period has been gradually
becoming more infrequent. She keeps athletically fit, and has recently been training for a
marathon and has loss some weight. She has a normal heathy appetite and diet. She claims not to
have been sexually active for the past 12 months. Her home pregnancy test is negative.

Case stud 2

A 2oyearsold lady in her second pregnancy attends the ANC clinic at 34weeksgestation and is
noted to have a blood pressure of 150/95mmHg. She had her first twin when she was 16 years
old. On examination, urinalysis is negative. Her blood pressure had previously been recorded in
the range of 130-150 / 80-85mmHg in the midtrimester. The fetus was clinically an appropriate
size for dates. Three days later her blood pressure is 160/100mmHg and she has developed “++”
proteinuria on a dipstick testing.

Questions for both

1. What is the likely differential diagnosis? 2marks

2. What issues in the given history supports the diagnosis? 3marks
3. What additional features in the history would you seek to support a particular diagnosis?
2marks
4. What clinical exam would you perform and why? 3marks
5. What investigation would be mostly helpful and why? 3marks
6. In case 2 what are the complications of the heath condition to both the mother and the
fetus? 2marks
7. In case 1, how would you manage this condition? 2marks
1. All of the following are effects of premature menopause, apart from one, which is the
exception?

A Decreased cardiovascular risk B. Infertility C. Osteoporosis D. Vaginal dryness

2. Which of the following antihypertensive is not safe in pregnancy?

A. Clonidine B. ACE inhibitors C. Alpha- methyldopa D. Amlodipine

3. The drug of choice in treatment of typhoid fever is?

A. Ampicillin B. Chloramphenicol C. Ciprofloxacin D. Ceftriaxone

4. At what gestation does the switchover from foetal to adult hemoglobin synthesis begin?

A. 40weeks B. 36weeks C. 7dayspostnatal D. 3 weeks postnatal

5. When taking an obstetrical history on a pregnant client who states, “I had a son born at 38
weeks gestation, a daughter born at 30 weeks gestation and I lost a baby at about 8 weeks,” the
nurse should record her obstetrical history as which of the following?
A. G2 T2 PO AO L2 B. G3 T1 P1 AO L2 C. G3 T2 PO AO L2 D. G4 T1 PI A1 L2
6. Which of the following statements about the neonate is true?

A. An Apgar of 7 at 5minutes indicates a good neonate B. Continuous

electrocardiography monitoring in labour is indicated during induction of labour. C.
Jaundice is a sign of neonatal septicemia D. Maternal diabetes leads to renal insufficiency
in the neonate

7. Primary postpartum haemorrhage (PPH)

A. Is prevented by ergometrine alone in routine practice B. Is commonly due to trauma to the

genital tract C. Is common in women who start breastfeeding early D. Maternal death is
often due to delay in performing hysterectomy.

8. During labour,

A. The woman should spend most of the time on her back B. The woman should spend most
of the time sitting C. The woman can take nourishing fluids orally D. The woman should
be given solid food
9. Spontaneous rupture of the membrane at term

A. Means amniotomy at 4Oweeks gestation B Results in increased rate of infection if labour

is not undertaken after 24hours C. Needs antibiotic routinely D. Cannot lead to cord
prolapse

10. Which one of the following statements related to the puerperium?

A. By two weeks postpartum, the uterus will have returned to the true pelvis B. The bloody
discharge is initially dark brown in colour C. Phlebothrombosis occurs with 2-3days after
delivery D. Progestogens are used to suppress lactation

11. Abruption placenta is associated with?

A. Concealed uterine bleeding B. Apparent uterine bleeding C. Painless vaginal bleeding

D. Primiparity

12. The clinical features of second stage of labour include:

A. Sensation of bearing down B. The cervix is partially dilated C. Decrease of blood flow
through vagina D. Strong irregular contraction of the uterus

13. Post term pregnancies are associated with?

A. Hydrocephaly B. Breech presentation C. Meconium aspiration D. Anencephaly

14. A client in her third trimester tells the nurse, “I’m constipated ail the time!” Which
0f the following should the nurse recommend?
A. Daily enemas B. Laxatives C. Increased fiber intake D. Decreased fluid
intake
15. Amniotic fluid

A. Is yellow in colour B. Is usually above 2000ml C. Supplies oxygen to the foetus D. Is

a nutrient

16. Which of the following statement is true regarding abnormal labour?

A. Labour and delivery before 36weeks gestation are normal B. Pre-term labour can be
diagnosed by the partogram C. Secondary arrest of labour means the cervix is fully
dilating at lcm/hour D. Prolonged latent phase at 38weeks is treated by oxytocin

17. Progesterone only contraceptive

A. Suppresses lactation B. Causes regular menstrual bleeding C. Acts by suppressing

ovulation D. Is taken only orally

18. Ectopic pregnancy.

A. Is implantation of the foetus in the uterus B. Cannot be diagnosed by the ultrasound

C. Is treated only by laparoscopic salpingectomy D Has a recurrence rate of 15% after

conservative surgery

19. Primary amenorrhea can be due to?

A.Uterine fibroid B Anorexia nervosa C. Cervical stenosis D. Cervical cancer

20. A 7 years old boy with reduced height and weight for age for the past one year is likely to
have?

A. Malnutrition B. Lymphoma C. Chronic infection D. Measles

21. Atavism is when a child resembles his?

A. Parents B Grandparents C. Cousin D. Twin

22. Foetal bradycardia is defined as? A. Less than 100 beat/min B. between 100 and
200beat/min C. Less than l20beat/min

D. Less than 1 20beatJmin for a period of 1 5mins of continuous monitoring

23. 17. The nurse in charge is caring for a patient who is in the first stage of labor. What is the
shortest but most difficult part of this stage?

A. Active phase B. Complete phase C. Latent phase D. Transitional phase

24. According to WHO, Neonatal period extends up to?

A. 2ldaysof life B. 30days of life C. 28days of life D. 35daysoflife

25. Number of deciduous teeth is?

A. 20 B.24 C. 32 D.28

26. Anterior frontanel closes at the age of ?

A. 1 year B. 2 years C.3 years D. 4years

27. Child smiles at familiar persons at the age of?

A. 1 month B.2 months C. 4months D. 6 months

28. Exclusive breast feeding is recommended at least for?

A. 4months B. 6 months C. 9months D. l year

29. The most important factor to overcome protein energy malnutrition in children less than 2
years is?

A. Supply of subsidized food from ration shop B. Early supplementation of solids food in
infants C. Immunization of the child D. Treatment of anaernia and pneumonia in infant
and toddlers

30. Which vitamin deficiency is not seen in newborn?

A. E B.C C.D D.K