01-06-2025

2202CMD303032250001 MD

PHYSICS

1) tan (–30°) = :-

(1) –tan 30°

(2) –cot 60°

(3)
–
(4) All of the above

2)

If velocity v = 6t2 + 2t + 3 m/sec.

then find average velocity from t = 0 to t = 1 sec.

(1) 11 m/sec.
(2) 8 m/sec.
(3) 6 m/sec.
(4) 7 m/sec.

3) Find the value of time at which velocity is zero. Displacement as a function of time is given as x =

– 3t2 + 9t + 4

(1) 3 sec
(2) 6 sec
(3) 9 sec
(4) 0

4)

If y = sinθ + 5 cosθ

then find maximum value of y and angle θ at which y is maximum :

(1) 20, 60º
(2) 20, 30º
(3) 10, 60º
(4) 10, 30º

5) If the side of an equilateral triangle is 4 metre, then its area in (metre)2 is (approximate value) :-

(1) 5
(2) 6
(3) 7
(4) 10

6) Find out perimeter of triangle

(1) 14 cm
(2) 12 cm
(3) 10 cm
(4) 8 cm

7)
option is correct :-

(1) α cannot be less than β

(2) α < β, if A < B
(3) α < β, if A > B
(4) α < β, if A = B

8) (1+x)–n where x << 1 can be written as :-

(1) 1 + nx
(2) 1 – nx
(3) x + n
(4) x – n

9) The value of sin74° is equal to

(1) 7/25
(2) 6/5
(3) 24/25
(4) 25/24

10) If = , which of the following options is not true ?

(1) may be a null vector

(2) may be a null vector
(3) may be ⊥ to

(4) is || to

11) cos (– 120°) = .............

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) If (Here K is constant) then :-

(1) is parallel to
(2) is antiparallel to
(3) is perpendicular to
(4) Both (1) and (2)

13)

Figure shows three vectors If RQ = 2PR, which of the following relations is correct?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

14) 1 + 2 + 3 ..... 50 = ?

(1) 1275
(2) 1205
(3) 1370
(4) 1222

15) Which of the following forces cannot be a resultant of 15 N force and 11 N force ?

(1) 2 N
(2) 10 N
(3) 14 N
(4) 5 N
16) find sum of series 1 + + ....... ∞.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Infinite

17)

(1)

(2) 0
(3) 215
(4) None of these

18) The resultant of which pair cannot have a magnitude of 4N ?

(1) 2N and 3N
(2) 3N and 3N
(3) 2N and 6N
(4) 3N and 8N

19) and are always :-

(1) Parallel vectors

(2) Equal vectors
(3) Collinear vectors
(4) Coplanar vectors

20) The vector makes 120° with the x-axis and the vector makes 30° with the y-axis. What is
their resultant ?

(1) P + Q
(2) P – Q

(3)

(4)

21)
 =

(1) 0.9978
(2) 0.9965
(3) 0.9975
(4) None

22) At what angle should the two force vectors 2F and act so that the resultant force is :-

(1) 37°
(2) 30°
(3) 45°
(4) 60°

23)

If = 9 find :-

(1) 7

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) 1 + + + + ...... ∞ =

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25)

If cosecθ = than tanθ is :

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

26) Which of the following quanity is an axial vector?

(1) Momentum
(2) Force
(3) Torque
(4) Acceleration

27) For the quadartic equation 10x2– 27x+5 = 0 possible roots are

(1)

(2)

(3) Both (1) & (2)

(4) 1

28) Value of sin (30π) :-

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) -1
(4) 1/2

29) If radius R = 9m and angle θ = 120° then find arc length S = ?

(1) 1080 m
(2) 13.33 m
(3) 6π m
(4) 9 m

30)

sin (240°) = __________ :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

31)

In fourth quadrant :-

(1) All trignometric ratio are positive

(2) only sine is positive
(3) tan is negative
(4) cosine is negative

32) If m indicate slope of a straight line then for the given lines A and B the value of is equal to :

(1)

(2) 3

(3)

(4)

33) Graph of line y = –3x + 4 can be represented by :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

34) If is a unit vector in the direction of the vector , then:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of the these

35) A physical quantity which has a direction :-

(1) must be a vector.

(2) may be a vector.
(3) may be both scalar and vector.
(4) none of the above.

36)

If the resultant of two forces of magnitude p and 2p is perpendicular to p, then the angle between
the forces is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) If , the angle between and is :-

(1) 60°
(2) 0°
(3) 120°
(4) 90°

38)

The resultant of two forces. One double the other in magnitude is perpendicular to the smaller of
the two forces. The angle between two forces is :
 0
(1) 150
0
(2) 90
0
(3) 60
0
(4) 120

39) At what angle the two vectors of magnitude (A + B) and A – B must act, so that the resultant is
?

(1)
cos–1

(2)
cos–1
cos–1
(3)

cos–1
(4)

40) ln(1000) = ?

(1) 3
(2) 5
(3) 7
(4) 9

41) Value of (1–sin237°) – (cos237°–1) = ...:-

(1) 1
(2) –1
(3) 2
(4) 3

42)

Find equation for the given graph :-

(1) y = 2x2
(2) x = 2y2
(3) y = e2x
(4) y = 2e2x

43)

If y = sin2x then is :-

(1) sin 2x
(2) –sin 2x
(3) cos 2x
(4) –cos 2x

44) Equation for straight line graph shown in the fig. is :-

(1) y = x – 3
(2) y = –x + 3
(3) y = x + 3
(4) y = 2x + 3

45) Which of the following sets of concurrent forces may be in equilibrium?

(1) 3 N, 5 N, 1 N
(2) 4 N, 7 N, 2 N
(3) 2 N, 10 N, 5 N
(4) 2 N, 9 N, 8 N

CHEMISTRY

1) In which of the following arrangements the order is not correct according to property indicated
against it ?

(1) increasing size Al3+ < Mg2+ < Na+ < F–

(2) increasing IE1 : B < C < N < O
(3) increasing EA1 : I < Br < F < Cl
(4) increasing radius : Li < Na < K < Rb

2) If each orbital can hold max. 2 electron, then total no. of elements in 8th period would be :

(1) 75
(2) 50
(3) 100
(4) 25

3) The electronic configuration of an element is 1s2, 2s22p6, 3s23p4 .The atomic number of element
present just below the above element in periodic table is -

(1) 36
(2) 34
(3) 33
(4) 32

4) Which of the following is/are Dobereiner’s triad -

(i) P, As, Sb (ii) Cu, Ag, Au
(iii) Fe, Co, Ni (iv) S, Se, Te
Correct answer is -

(1) (i) and (ii)

(2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (i) and (iv)
(4) All

5) Which of the following pair follow Mendleev's periodic table :

(1) Ar, K
(2) Te, I
(3) Co, Ni
(4) Ti, V

6) Select the incorrect order of atomic radii.

(1) Li > I > Br > Cl > F

(2) Na > Li > F
(3) I > Br > Cl > Li > F
(4) Cs > Rb > K > Na > Li

7) The radius of which ion is closest to Li+ ion ?

(1) Na+
(2) Be2+
(3) Mg2+
(4) Al+3

8) Which of the following order of I.P. is correct :

(1) FΘ < Cl < ClΘ < F

(2) Cl– < FΘ < Cl < F
(3) FΘ < ClΘ < Cl < F
(4) F < FΘ < ClΘ < Cl

9) Correct order of EA of F, Cl, O, S is :

(1) O < F < S < Cl

(2) O < Cl < S < F
(3) O < S < F < Cl
(4) F < S < O < Cl

10) Select the correct match :-

(1) d-block → transition element

(2) f-block → inner transition element
(3) s & p-block → normal / representative element
(4) all are correct

11) An element belongs to 6th period & 15th group its electronic configuration is :-

2 13
(1) 54[xe] 6s 4f
2 14 13
(2) 54[xe] 6s 4f 5d
2 14 10 3
(3) 54[xe] 6s 4f 5d 6p
14 1
(4) 54[xe] 4f 6s

12)

The smallest size cation and anion that can exist are respectively.

(1) H+ and H–
(2) H+ and F–
(3) Li+ and F–
(4) Li+ and H–

13)

Correct order of first ionisation energy is :-

(1) C > N > O

(2) Mg > Al > P
(3) Li < Be < N
(4) Tl > B > In

14)

Maximum number of electrons present in f orbital are:

(1) 10
(2) 14
(3) 2
(4) 18

15) Assertion (A) The ionic size of Mg2+ > Al3+.

Reason (R) In isoelectronic species, greater the nuclear charge, less is the size.

(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(3) A is correct but R is incorrect
(4) Both A and R are incorrect

16) Which of the following has the highest electron affinity ?

(1) F–
(2) O–
(3) O
(4) Na

17) If the atomic number of an element is 58, it will be placed in the periodic table in the :-

(1) IV B group and 6th period

(2) V B group and 7th period
(3) ΙΙΙ B group and 6th period
(4) VI-B, 6th Period

18) Consider the given elements /ion, Mg, Mg2+, Al, Al3+. Find species which has largest & smallest
radius respectively :-

(1) Al & Al3+

(2) Mg & Mg2+
(3) Mg & Al3+
(4) Al & Mg2+

19)

Boron shows diagonal relationship with element having atomic number :-

(1) 10
(2) 12
(3) 14
(4) 13

20) Choose correct statement :

(i) IP does not depend upon electron - electron repulsion.
(ii) IP is affected by the attraction of electron towards nucleus.
(iii) The Zeff will always less than nuclear charge for multi electron species.
(iv) Generally, shielding is much more effective when orbitals in inner shell are partially filled.

(1) i, ii
(2) ii, iii
(3) ii, iii, iv
(4) ii, iv

21) Match the oxide given in column A with its property given in column B:

Column - A Column - B

(i) Na2O (a) Neutral

(ii) Al2O3 (b) Basic

(iii) N2 O (c) Acidic

(iv) Cl2O7 (d) Amphoteric

Which of the following options has all correct pairs?
(1) (i)-(b), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(c)
(2) (i)-(c), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(d)
(3) (i)-(a), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(c)
(4) (i)-(b), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(c)

22) Match the column.

Column-I
Column-II
Valence electronic
Successive ionisation energies
configuration

(a) ns1 (p) 19, 27, 36, 48, 270

(b) ns2 (q) 16, 28, 34, 260

(c) ns2 np1 (r) 18, 26, 230, 250

(d) ns2 np2 (s) 14, 200, 220, 240

Select the correct option :
(1) a-p, b-q, c-r, d-s
(2) a-s, b-r, c-p, d-q
(3) a-s, b-r, c-q, d-p
(4) a-r, b-s, c-p, d-q

23) Match the following :

Oxide Nature

(a) CO (i) Basic

(b) BaO (ii) Neutral

 (c) Al2O3 (iii) Acidic

(d) Cl2O7 (iv) Amphoteric

Which of the following is correct option?
(a) (b) (c) (d)

1 (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

2 (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

3 (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

4 (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

24) If first ionization enthalpies of element X and Y are 419 kJ mol–1 and 590 kJ mol–1, respectively
–1 –1
and second ionization enthalpies of X and Y are 3069 kJ mol and 1145 kJ mol , respectively.
Then correct statement is :-

(1) X is an alkali metal and Y is an alkaline earth metal.

(2) X is an alkaline earth metal and Y is an alkali metal.
(3) Both X and Y are alkali metals.
(4) Both X and Y are alkaline earth metals.

25) Which is the correct order of electronegativity –

(1) Cl > S > P > Si

(2) Si > Al > Mg > Na
(3) F > Cl > Br > I
(4) All

26) Correct order of electronegativity of N, P, C and Si is :–

(1) N < P < C < Si

(2) N > C > Si > P
(3) N = P > C = Si
(4) N > C > P > Si

27) Electronegativity of the following elements increases in the order :-

(1) O, N, S, P
(2) P, S, N, O
(3) P, N, S, O
(4) S, P, N, O
28) Match the oxide given in column A with its property given in column B :

Column-A Column-B

Representative
(i) 21 (a)
element

(ii) 30 (b) Transition element

Inner transition
(iii) 35, 53 (c)
element

Non-transition
(iv) 66, 100 (d)
element
Which of the following options has all correct pairs ?
(1) (i)-(b), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(c)
(2) (i)-(c), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(d)
(3) (i)-(a), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(c)
(4) (i)-(b), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(c)

29) The correct order of electropositive nature of Li, Na and K is :-

(1) Li > Na > K

(2) Li > K > Na
(3) Na > K < Li
(4) K > Na > Li

30) Value of first four I.E. of an element are 55, 110, 550, 620 kJ/mol. It belongs to which of the
following electronic configuration :-

(1) 1s2,2s2, 2p2

(2) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6
(3) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2
(4) 1s2, 2s2, 2p4

31) Which oxide is more acidic :-

(1) Al2O3
(2) Na2O
(3) MgO
(4) CaO

32) Which of the following order is correct -

(1) Basic character : Li2O > Na2O > K2O > Cs2O
(2) Acidic character : Al2O3 < SiO2 < P2O5 < Cl2O7
(3) Acidic strength : HF > HCl > HBr > HI
(4) Acidic character : N2O > NO2 > N2O5 > N2O3
33) The most electropositive element possesses the elecronic configuration :-

(1) [He] 2s1

(2) [Ne] 3s2
(3) [Xe] 6s1
(4) [Xe] 6s2

34) Which is correct order of EA :-

(1) P < Si
(2) C < N
(3) C = Br
(4) None of these

35) The elements having maximum electron affinity and maximum electronegativity will be
respectively:-

(1) F, Cl
(2) Cl, Br
(3) Cl, F
(4) He, Cl

36) The element having very high I.P. but zero E.A. is :-

(1) H
(2) F
(3) He
(4) Be

37) Which process is an endothermic in nature?

O(g) →
(1)

(2) S(g) →

(3) Be(g) →
F(g) →
(4)

38) Which of the following order is correct ?

(1) HOCℓ > HOBr > HOI (Acidic Nature)

(2) TiO > VO > CrO > MnO > FeO (Basic Nature)
(3) MnO > MnO2 > Mn2O7 (Basic Nature)
(4) All
39) The size of following species increases in order : Li+, Be+2, H-

(1) Li+ < Be+2< H-

(2) Li+ > Be+2 > H-
(3) H- > Li+ > Be+2
(4) None of these

40) Find exothermic reaction :-

(1)
(2)
(3)

(4) O +
(g)

41) Which among the following orders correctly represents the sequence of increasing basic nature
of the given oxides ?

(1) Al2O3 < MgO < K2O < Na2O

(2) MgO < Na2O < K2O < Al2O3
(3) K2O < Na2O < Al2O3 < MgO
(4) Al2O3 < MgO < Na2O < K2O

42) Which one of the following order of given properties is correct ?

(1) Atomic radius - Li < Be < B

(2) Ionisation potential - Li < Be < B
(3) Electron affinity - Li < Be < B
(4) Electronegativity - Li < Be < B

43) If the successive values of IP of element X is 10, 50, 90, 450, 550, 750. Then element will belong
to group :-

(1) IV A
(2) V A
(3) III A
(4) VII A

44)

Which process is Endothermic :-

(1) F —→ F–
(2) Cl —→ Cl–
(3) O —→ O–2
(4) H —→ H–
45) Which of following has maximum EN :-

(1) S
(2) Sb
(3) As
(4) P

BIOLOGY

1) Read the following statements carefully :-

(A) Some bacteria have resistance to certain antibiotics, this ability is provided by the extra genomic
DNA of bacteria
(B) Mesosomes help in respiration and DNA replication
(C) Pili and fimbriae are the surface appendages of bacterial cell which play a role in motility.
(D) Glycocalyx, cell wall and cell membrane form the cell envelope of bacterial cell.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct and incorrect ?

Correct Incorrect
statement Statement

(1) A,B & D C

(2) A&B C&D

(3) B&D A&C

(4) B, C & D A
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

2) Which of the following bacteria is converted ammonia into nitrite ?

(1) Nitrobacter
(2) Nitrosomonas
(3) (1) & (2) both
(4) Rhodopseudomonas

3) Bacteria is a group of prokaryotic organism which is characterized by.

(1) 70s ribosome

(2) Peptidoglycan cell wall
(3) Simple structure and complex behaviour
(4) More than one option is correct

4) Identify the shapes of bacteria with given figures :-

 A B C D
(1) Bacilli Cocci Spirilla Vibrio
(2) Cocci Spirilla Vibrio Bacilli
(3) Spirilla Vibrio Bacilli Cocci
(4) Vibrio Bacilli Cocci Spirilla
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

5)

If you remove the fimbriae from a bacterial cell, which of the following would you expect to happen?

(1) The bacteria would not adhere to the host tissue

(2) The bacteria could no longer swim
(3) Transportation of molecules across the membrane would stop
(4) The shape of bacteria would change

6)

What are polyamines?

(1) Histone proteins in eukaryote

(2) Non histone proteins in prokaryote
(3) Histone proteins in prokaryote
(4) Non histone proteins in eukaryote

7) How many structures are not associated with bacterial cell ?

(a) Golgi body
(b) Ribosome
(c) Double stranded DNA
(d) Naked genetic material
(e) Fimbriae
(f) Mitochondria
(g) Endomembrane system
(h) Presence of plasmid
(i) Chloroplast

(1) 5
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 7

8) All the unicellular eukaryotes were included in which of the following kingdoms, in the five
kingdom classification, proposed by R.H. Whittaker ?

(1) Monera
(2) Protista
(3) Fungi
(4) Plantae

9) Glycocalyx in bacteria :-

(1) Differs in composition but not in thickness among different bacteria.

(2) Consist of tightly bound three layers
(3) May be thick and tough called capsule
(4) Is selectively permeable and interacts with outside world

10) Which of the following statement/s is/are correct about mesosomes ?

(1) They are membranous infoldings

(2) They may be involved in cell wall formation
(3) They help in DNA replication and distribution to daughter cells
(4) All of these

11) Mark out the correct statements

(I) Mesosomes are invaginated structures that is formed by plasma membrane.
(II) Glycoclayx is not the part of cell envelope
(III) Mesosome helps in distribution of DNA to the daughter cells in prokaryotes.
(IV) Pili do not play role in motility
(V) Chromatophores are the reserve food material of cyanophycean cell.

(1) II, III and IV

(2) I, II and V
(3) I, III and IV
(4) I, II and III

12) Which structure of prokaryotes is analogous to lysosome :–

(1) Mesosome
(2) Genophore
(3) Periplasmic space
(4) Perinuclear space

13)

Each of the following characteristics represent a kingdom proposed by Whittaker. Arrange the
following in increasing order of complexity of body organization.
A. Multicellular heterotrophs with cell wall made of chitin.
B. Heterotrophs with tissue/organ/organ system level of body organization.
C. Prokaryotes with cell wall made of polysaccharides and amino acids.
D. Eukaryotic autotrophs with tissue/organ level of body organization.
E. Eukaryotes with cellular body organization.
Choose the correct answer from the following options given below:

(1) A, C, E, B, D
(2) C, E, A, D, B
(3) A, C, E, D, B
(4) C, E, A, B, D

14) Two kingdom system of classification did not distinguish between all of the given, except

(1) Photosynthetic and non-photosynthetic

(2) Eukaryotes and prokaryotes
(3) Plants and animals
(4) Unicellular and multicellular

15) In comparison to many other organisms bacteria as a group show :-

(1) Most extensive reproductive diversity

(2) Most extensive metabolic diversity
(3) Most supressive metabolic diversity
(4) Most extensive dividing activity

16) In five kingdom system bacteria are included in monera but acellular organism like viruses and
viroids, and lichens are included in :-

(1) Kingdom - Fungi

(2) Kingdom - Animalia
(3) Kingdom - Protista
(4) Not mentioned in any kingdom

17) Assertion : Bacteria are prokaryotic.

Reason : Bacteria do not possess true nucleus and membrane bound cell organelles.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are false.
18)

Consider the following four statement (A–D) and select the option which includes all the correct ones
only regarding prokaryotes :-
(A) Cell wall of prokaryotes is made up of murein
(B) The space between cell wall and cell membrane is known as periplasmic space. This space is
analogous to vacuole.
(C) Prokaryotic chromosoms is made up of ds circular DNA + non histone protein, like polyamines.
(D) The cytoplasm of prokaryote, lacks cell organelles
Options :-

(1) Statements (A), (B) and (C)

(2) Statements (A), (C) and (D)
(3) Statements (C), (D)
(4) Statements (A), (C)

19) Which kingdom includes producers, consumers and decomposers according to R.H. Whittaker
five kingdom Classification ?

(1) Plantae
(2) Fungi
(3) Protista
(4) Animalia

20) Carl Woese proposed 3 domain system, it was based on :-

(1) 30 - s - Ribosome
(2) 16 - s-r-RNA
(3) 28-s-r-RNA
(4) 5-s-r-RNA

21) Assertion : Mycoplasma can survive without oxygen.

Reason : They have no cell wall.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are false.

22) Chlorella, Chlamydomonas and Paramoecium, Amoeba were earlier placed with plants and
animals respectively but after Whittaker's 5 kingdom classification, they should be brought together
in:-

(1) Monera
(2) Protista
(3) Plantae
(4) Animalia
23) Gas vacuoles are found in _____

(1) Only blue-green algae

(2) Purple and green photosynthetic bacteria
(3) Eubacteria
(4) BGA, purple and green photosynthetic bacteria

24)

Analyse the following statements and identify the correct options given below

I. Two kingdom system of classification did not distinguish between the eukaryotes and prokaryotes,
unicellular and multicellular organism and green algae and fungi. II. The two kingdom classification
used for a long time was found inadequate.
(1) I a true, but II is false
(2) I is false, II is true
(3) I and II are true
(4) I and II are false

25) Match the following:-

1. Cholera A. Clostridium botulinum
2. Aster yellow B. Vibrio cholera
3. Citrus canker C. Cyanobacteria
4. Food poisoning D. Bacteria
5. Water bloom E. Mycoplasma

(1) 1–B, 2–D, 3–E, 4–A, 5–C

(2) 1–E, 2–B, 3–C, 4–D, 5–A
(3) 1–B, 2–E, 3–A, 4–D, 5–C
(4) 1–B, 2–E, 3–D, 4–A, 5–C

26) Statement 1 : Archaebacteria can survive in very harsh environmental conditions.

Statement 2 : Archaebacteria contain unique cell wall and plasma membrane composition.

(1) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct

(2) Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct
(3) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect
(4) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are incorrect

27) Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding archaebacteria ?

(1) They can be present in the gut of several ruminant animals such as cows and buffaloes
(2) They are responsible for the production of methane (biogas) from the dung
(3) They can live in extreme salty areas, hot springs and marshy areas
(4) Some of these organisms can fix atmospheric nitrogen.

28)
Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria

(1) Are the most abundant kind of bacteria

(2) Liberate oxygen in their surroundings
(3) Reduce organic compounds to CO2 and H2O
(4) Are important in recycling of mineral nutrients

29) Which of the following pigments is present in cyanobacteria ?

(1) Chlorophyll - a
(2) Phycocyanin
(3) Phycoerythrin
(4) All of the above

30)
The given diagram belongs to BGA, mark the correct answer with respect to the given diagram :-

(1) Heterocyst cells are involve in O2 evolution

(2) Heterocyst cells are involve in N2 evolution
(3) Heterocyst cells are involve in NO2 fixation
(4) Heterocyst cells are involve in N2 fixation

31)
Identify the given diagram.

(1) Cocci form

(2) Rod shape bacteria
(3) Comma Shape Bacteria
(4) Spirillum

32)
The major mode of nutrition of kingdom.
Animalia, Fungi and Plantae are respectively:-

(1) Autotroph, Chemotroph & Holozoic

(2) Phototroph, Saprotroph & Holophytic
(3) Holozoic, Saprophyte, Autotrophic
(4) Osmotrophic, Holozoic & Holophytic

33)

In Whittaker's 'Five Kingdom Classification', eukaryotes were assigned to :-

(1) Only two of the five kingdoms

(2) Only three of the five kingdoms
(3) Only four of the five kingdoms
(4) All the five kingdoms

34)

How many domains are assigned to prokaryotes in three domain classification ?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Six

35)

Genetic material of prokaryotic cell:-

(1) Non histonic double stranded DNA

(2) Histonic double stranded DNA
(3) Histone & DNA both are absent
(4) Histone without DNA

36)

Cell membrane of bacteria is made up of -

(1) Cellulose and lipid

(2) Chitin
(3) Lipid + Protein
(4) Protein and Cellulose

37)

Which of the following structures is not found in prokaryotic cells?

(1) Plasma membrane
(2) Nuclear envelope
(3) Ribosome
(4) Cell wall

38)

Main criteria used by R.H. Whittaker in his five kingdom classification was not the :-

(1) Cell structure

(2) Thallus (Body) organization
(3) Mode of nutrition
(4) Ecological role

39)

Match the column I, II and III

(1) A-I,Q ; B-II,P,S ; C-IV,P ; D-III,Q

(2) A-II,P ; B-I,P,Q,R ; C-III,S,P ; D-I,IV,R
(3) A-III,Q ; B-II,P,S ; C-III,S,P ; D-II,Q
(4) A-IV,P ; B-I,R,S ; C-II,Q ; D-III,P

40) Role of nitrifying bacteria in nitrogen cycle is to :

(1) Convert amino acid into ammonia
(2) Convert ammonia into nitrates
(3) Fix atmospheric nitrogen
(4) Convert ammonia into nitrogen

41)

First of all the plants are classified into herbs, Shrubs and tree by :-

(1) Linnaeus
(2) Aristotle
(3) R.H. Whittakar
(4) Copeland

42)

Find the correct match according to whittaker system of classification :-

(1) Monera - Unicellular, Multicellular form

(2) Protista - Unicellular, Prokaryote
(3) Fungi - Multicellular, Eukaryote
(4) Animalia - Multicellular, decomposer

43)

Which of the following kingdom included only photosynthetic, multicellular, eukaryotic organisms
according to R.H.Whittaker's classification?

(1) Monera
(2) Protista
(3) Plantae
(4) Fungi

44) Choose the correct statement (i to v) regarding mycoplasma

(i) Mycoplasma has no cell wall.
(ii) It is the smallest living organisms in bacteria.
(iii) Mycoplasma cannot survive without oxygen.
(iv) They are pathogenic in animal and plant.
(v) A sort of sexual reproduction occurs in bacterium by adopting a primitive DNA transfer from one
bacteria to other.

(1) Only (iii)

(2) (i), (iii) and (v)
(3) (i), (ii), (iv) and (v)
(4) All of the above

45) Which bacteria show symbiotic association :

(1) Clostridium botulinum
(2) Azotobacter
(3) Rhizobium
(4) Nitrosomonas

46) Complete the following chart by choosing correct option for A, B, C and D :-

A B C D

(1) Protozoa Bilateral Coelomates Cnidaria

(2) Porifera Radial Pseudocoelomates Cnidaria

(3) Protozoa Bilateral Acoelomates Aschelminthes

(4) Porifera Radial Acoelomates Ctenophora

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

47) Assertion: In flatworms, fertilization is internal; and development is through many larval stages.
Reason: Some parasitic flatworms absorb nutrients from the host directly through their body
surface.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason is true; Reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason is true; Reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true, Reason is false
(4) Both assertion and reason are false
48) Which of the following statements are true/false?
I. Cell aggregates body plan is found in phylum-Platyhelminthes.
II. Radial symmetry is the most common symmetry found in animals.
III. Pseudocoelom is found only in phylum – Aschelminthes.
IV. All triploblastic animals have a true coelom.
V. Haemocoel is sometimes observed in animals
belonging to phylum–Platyhelminthes.

(1) I and V are true and II, III and IV are false
(2) II, III and V are true and I and IV are false
(3) I, II and III are true and IV and V are false
(4) I, II, IV and V are false, Only III is true

49) Match the following.

(A) (i) Euspongia

(B) (ii) Cnidoblast

(C) (iii) Bilateral symmetry

(D) (iv) Triploblastic

(1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv

(2) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
(3) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii
(4) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii

50) Which character does not belong to phylum Aschelminthes ?

(1) Excretory tube remove body waste from the body cavity through excretory pore
(2) Alimentary canal is incomplete with a well developed muscular pharynx
(3) Development may be direct or indirect
(4) Sexes are separate
51) . In which phylum the organ grade of organisation is first time appeared during evolution ?

(1) Aschelmenthes
(2) Annelida
(3) Arthropoda
(4) Platyhelminthes

52) Bioluminescence (the property of a living organism to emit light) is well marked in

(1) Palaeomon
(2) Pheretima
(3) Pleurobrachia
(4) Lumbricus

53) Which of the following statements are true/false ?

I. In higher phyla, cellular level of organisation is seen.
II. Phylum-Platyhelminthes have cellular level of organisation.
III. Cellular level of organisation is seen when the cells are not arranged as loose cell aggregates.
IV. Molluscs exhibit tissue level of organisation.
Choose the correct option of the following.

(1) I and II are true, but II and IV are false

(2) All statements are false
(3) All statements are true
(4) II and IV are true, but I and II are false

54) Read the following statements and answer the

question.
(i) They are exclusively marine, radially
symmetrical, diploblastic organisms with tissue
level of organisation.
(ii) Body bears eight external rows of ciliated
comb plates, which help in locomotion.
(iii) Digestion is both extracellular and
intracellular.
(iv) Reproduction takes place only by sexual
means.
Which of the following phylum is being
described by above statements?

(1) Platyhelminthes
(2) Arthropoda
(3) Mollusca
(4) Ctenophora

55) Match the following columns:

(1) A–3; B–2; C–1; D–4
(2) A–2; B–3; C–1; D–4
(3) A–4; B–1; C–2; D–3
(4) A–3; B–1; C–2; D–4

56) Which animal has large central cavity in them called spongocoel :-

(1) Spongilla
(2) Aurelia
(3) Planaria
(4) Nereis

57) Find the phylum which show external fertilization.

(1) Porifera
(2) Coelentrata
(3) Platyhelminth
(4) Aschelminth

58) Match the Column I with Column II & Column III and choose the correct option

Column I Column II Column III

Cellular level of
(A) Porifera (i) (a) Acoelomate
organisation

Tissue level of
(B) Flatworms (ii) (b) Pseudocoelomate
organisation

Organ level of
(C) Aschelminthes (iii) (c) Coelomate
organisation

Organ system level of

(D) Arthropoda (iv) (d) Cell aggregates
organisation
(1) A-i-b, B-ii-a, C-iv-c, D-iv-d
(2) A-i-d, B-iii-a, C-ii-b, D-iv-c
(3) A-ii-d, B-iii-a, C-iv-b, D-i-c
(4) A-i-d, B-iii-a, C-iv-b, D-iv-c

59) Match the four major groups of protozoans with correct examples.

Major group Examples

(A) Amoeboid protozoans (i) Paramoecium

(B) Ciliated protozoans (ii) Trypanosoma

(C) Sporozoans (iii) Entamoeba

(D) Flagellated protozoans (iv) Plasmodium

(1) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(ii)
(2) (A)-(iii), (B)-(i), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iv)
(3) (A)-(iii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iv), (D)-(ii)
(4) (A)-(i), (B)-(iii), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iv)

60) Those animals in which a developing embryo has a third germ layer __A__ in between the __B__
are called __C__ animals.

(1) A-Mesoglea, B-Ectoderm and endoderm, C-Triploblastic

(2) A-Mesoderm, B-Ectoderm and endoderm, C-Triploblastic
(3) A-Endoderm, B-Ectoderm and mesoderm, C-Diploblastic
(4) A-Mesogled, B-Ectoderm and endoderm, C-Diploblastic

61) Match the organisms given in column-I with their common name given in column-II and choose
the correct option.
 Column-I Column-II
(Organisms) (Common name)

A. Pennatula I. Sea-fan

B. Gorgonia II. Sea-pen

C. Adamsia III. Sea-Anemone

D. Pleurobrachia IV. Sea-Walnut

(1) A-II; B-III; C-I; D-IV
(2) A-II; B-IV; C-I; D-III
(3) A-II; B-I; C-III; D-IV
(4) A-II; B-I; C-IV; D-III

62) Assertion : All members of animalia are multicellular.

Reason : All of them exhibit the same pattern of organisation of cells.

(1) Assertion and reason both are wrong.

(2) Assertion and reason both are true but reason in not correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is wrong.
(4) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is correct explanation of assertion.

63)

Read the following statements w.r.t. phylum porifera :-

(i) Sexes are not separate.
(ii) Fertilization is external.
(iii) Generally marine and mostly asymmetrical.
(iv) Choanocytes of collar cell line the spongocoel and the canals.
How many of the above statements are correct ?

(1) 4
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

64) First phylum to have complete digestive tract can be represented by : -

(1) Hydra
(2) Taenia
(3) Ancylostoma
(4) Pheretima

65) The unique character of sponges is

(1) They are hermaphrodites

(2) They live in marine water
(3) Choanocytes or collar cells line, the spongocoel and canal.
(4) It reproduces by asexual mode of reproduction.

66) Which of the following characters are present in Platyhelminthes?

(i) Digestive system is incomplete without anus
(ii) Protonephridia help in Excretion and osmoregulation
(iii) Suckers and hookers are present in Parasitic forms
(iv) Respiratory and Circulatory systems are present

(1) Only (i) & (ii)

(2) Only (ii) & (iv)
(3) Only (i), (ii) & (iii)
(4) All of the above

67) Which of the following is wrong about Coelenterata?

(1) They are aquatic and exclusively marine animals.

(2) Cnidarians exhibit tissue level of organisation and are diploblastic.
(3) Some Cnidarians exhibit two forms namely Polyp and Medusa.
(4) Cnidoblasts are present on tentacles and body.

68) Regular alteration of polyp and medusa in the life cycle of a cnidarian is termed as

(1) Metagenesis
(2) Alteration of generation
(3) Metamorphosis
(4) Both (1) & (2)

69) Identify the odd one out

(1) Taenia solium

(2) Fasciola
(3) Planaria
(4) Ancylostoma

70)
Which of the following statement is incorrect w.r.t. above diagram

(1) It is also known as euspongia.

(2) It is a hermaphrodite
(3) Skeleton is mode up of spicules or spongin.
(4) Digestion is extracellular

71) Find the correctly matched option

(1) Ringworm Caused by a aschelminthes

(2) Tape worm Causes elephantiasis
(3) Ascariasis Caused by a platyhelminthes
(4) Malaria Caused by a protozoan

72) True segmentation is seen in

(1) Taenia
(2) Pheretima
(3) Sycon
(4) Physalia

73) Study the following organisms and select the correct applicable option.

(1) It spends a phase of life in fresh water and another phase in marine water
(2) Digestion occurs solely inside their body cells
(3) Sexual reproduction is dominant but can asexually reproduce by budding and fragmentation
(4) Sexes are not separate and fertilisation is external

74) In Hydra, waste materials after digestion and nitrogenous waste materials are removed from

(1) Mouth only

(2) Body wall only
(3) Mouth and body wall respectively
(4) Mouth and tentacles respectively

75) Identify (A, B, C) the types of animals w.r.t. the presence or absence of body cavities:-
 A B C
(1) Coelomate Pseudo-coelomate Acoelomate
(2) Acoelomate Coelomate Pseudo-coelomate
(3) Acoelomate Pseudo-coelomate Coelomate
(4) Pseudo-coelomate Coelomate Acoelomate
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

76) How many animals in the list given below are triploblastic, pseudocoelometa and bilateral
symmetrical?
Taenia, Ascaris, Fasciola, Wuchereria, Ancylostoma, Hydra, Planaria, Neries

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Five

77)

In the evolutionary history of the animal kingdom, which of the following features have evolved for
the first time in phylum Platyhelminthes ?
A. Metameric segmentation
B. Organ level of organisation
C. Closed circulatory system
D. True coelom
E. Bilateral symmetry

Select the correct answer :

(1) B and E
(2) A, B, C and D
(3) A, C and D
(4) only A and B

78) Identify the phylum ‘X’

(1) Hemichordata
(2) Chordata
(3) Aschelminthes
(4) Platyhelminthes

79) Identify the symmetry shown below as well as the related explanation and select the right option
for the two together :-

Symmetry Explanation
Any plane that passes through
1 Asymmetrical the centre does not divide them
equal halves
The body can be divided into
2 Radial identical left and right halves in only
one plane
Any plane pass through the central
3 Bilateral axis of the body divides the organism
into two identical halves
 The body can be divided into
4 Bilateral identical left and right halves in only
one plane
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

80) Consider the following characteristic of protozoans:-

(A) All protozoans are heterotroph and live as predator or parasite.
(B) These are primitive multicellular animals.
(C) They are believed to primitive relative of animals.
(D) Trypanosoma, a ciliated protozoan causes sleeping sickness.
Which of the above features are correct for protozoan :-

(1) A and B
(2) B and D
(3) A and C
(4) B and C

81) Assertion : Hydra has blind-sac body plan.

Reason : It has a central gastro-vascular cavity with single opening, mouth on hypostome.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

82) Malaria is caused due to :

(1) Plasmodium
(2) Mosquito
(3) Trypansoma
(4) Trichomonas

83) Find out the correct match from the following table

Column-I Column-II Column-III

i Plasmodium Amoeboid protozoan Malaria
ii Trypanosoma Flagellated protozoan Sleeping sickness
iii Paramoecium Ciliated protozoan Gullet
(1) i only
(2) i and ii
(3) iii only
(4) ii and iii

84) Read following statements carefully :

(A) All members are exclusively marine
(B) Have property to emit light
(C) Members are diploplastic and bilateral symmetrical
(D) Digestion is both extracellular and intracellular
How many of above statements are correct about Ctenophores :

(1) One
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) Four

85) The structure given below is present in which animal ?

(1) Scypha
(2) Ctenoplana
(3) Physalia
(4) Taenia

86) Which of the following is not a characteristic of phylum cnidaria ?

(1) Only Polyp

(2) Only Medusa
(3) Only sexual reproduction
(4) Polyp and medusa

87) Metameric segmentation is characteristic of :-

(1) Annelida and Platyhelminthes

(2) Annelida and Arthropoda
(3) Echinodermata and Annelida
(4) Hemichordata and chordata

88) Water transport system is characteristic feature of :-

(1) Echinodermata
(2) Porifera
(3) Cnidaria
(4) Ctenophora
89) Solenocytes or flame cells present in :-

(1) Ascaris
(2) Wuchereria
(3) Taenia solium
(4) Trichinella

90) Corals belongs to phylum :-

(1) Hemichordata
(2) Mollusca
(3) Cnidaria
(4) Porifera
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 3 1 3 3 2 3 2 3 4 1 4 4 1 1 2 2 4 4 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 3 3 2 1 3 3 1 3 3 3 1 1 1 2 1 1 4 4 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 4 1 3 4

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 2 2 3 4 3 3 3 3 4 3 2 3 3 1 3 3 3 3 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 3 3 1 4 4 2 4 4 3 1 2 3 1 3 3 3 4 3 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 4 3 3 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 1 2 4 4 1 2 2 2 3 4 3 3 2 3 2 4 1 4 3 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 2 4 3 4 1 4 4 4 4 2 3 3 2 1 3 2 4 2 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 3 3 3 3 2 2 4 4 2 4 3 2 4 3 1 2 4 3 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 3 4 3 3 3 1 4 4 4 4 2 4 3 1 2 1 3 4 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 1 1 4 2 3 3 2 2 3 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

3) 1. Question Explanation (in 30 words ) : The displacement function is

We need to find the time at which the velocity is zero by differentiating

the displacement equation.
2. Concept Based (Name of subtopic in 30 words ) :
Kinematics. velocity, and displacement. Velocity is the first derivative of displacement with
respect to time. To find when velocity is zero. we calculate the derivative and solve for time.
3. formula Used:
● Velocity (v) = dx/dt
● Set v = 0 to find time when velocity is zero.
4. Calculation:
● Given displacement equation:

● Differentiate to get velocity:

● To find h time when velocity is zero set v = 0:

● Factor the quadratic equation:

t = 3 seconds
Thus the time at which velocity is zero is 3 seconds.

5)

Area of equilateral triangle =

12)
If K +ve
If K –ve

15)
Rmax = A + B
Rmin = |A – B|

18)

|A – B| ≤ R ≤ A + B
19) Question explanation: to find out the types of given two vectors.
Concept: Types of vector
Solution: As two vector may lie in a single plane so two vectors are always copanar.

20)
Angle between & is 0°

22)

R2 = A2 + B2 + 2ABcosθ

24)

26) Question explanation: To find the types of vectors out of a given quantity.
Solution: Torque is the rotational equivalent of force, and it causes an object to rotate around
an axis. It is considered an axial vector because it has both magnitude and direction, where
the direction is determined by the right-hand rule and represents the axis of rotation.
Concept: Types of vector
Formula: Not required

29) (1) Asking About

We are tasked with finding the arc length (S) of a circle, given the radius (R) and the central
angle (θ)

(2) Concept
The formula for the arc length of a circle is:

Here:
• θ is the central angle in degrees.
• R is the radius of the circle.
(3) Formula

(4) Solution/ Explanation

Substitute the given values:

Simplify:

S = 6πm

(5) Final Answer

The arc length S is π m.
Correct Option: 3. 6 π m

30)

sin(240º) = sin(180º + 60º)

= –sin60º =

31)

Using A.S.T.C Rule

tan is negative

32) Because slope m = tanθ

33)

y = –3x + 4
Slope ⇒ (–)ve
C ⇒ (+)ve

34) Question explanation: Expression of unit vector

Solution: Unit vector can be expressed as the ratio of vector to its magnitude i.e.

Concept: Types of vector

Formula:

35) Explanation: In this question we have to choose the correct statement

Concept: A physical quantity which has a magnitude and direction is a vector. But a vector
quantity must also follow the vector law of addition. If a physical quantity doesn't follow vector
law of addition, even if it having direction is not a vector. For example:- current so having
direction only is not enough to be a vector quantity.
Conclusion: The correct answer to option-2

36)

tan 90° =
p + 2p cos θ = 0

cos θ =

⇒ θ = 120° =

37)

38)

39)

A2 + B2 = A2 + B2 + 2AB + A2 + B2 – 2AB + 2 (A2 – B2) cos θ

A2 + B2 = 2 (B2 – A2) cos θ

40)

Ans.

41)

1 – sin237° – cos2 37°+1

= 2 – (sin2 37° + cos237°)
 =2–1
=1

42) Exponential growth graph, cutting y-axis at (0, 2)

So eqn y = 2e2x

43) y = sin2x

= 2 sinx cosx = sin2x

44) Explain - Find equation of line from given graph.

Concept - First find slope of line then apply Trigonometry and find constant c.
Formula - Slope = tan θ = m, y = mx + c
Calculation-
Slope = m = tan 45°
=1
interest of line of y-axis is
c=3
So y = mx + c

y=x+3

45) A + B ≤ C ≤ A–B
8N is in range of 2N and 9N So set 2N1 9N1 8N can produce zero resultant

CHEMISTRY

55) Asking for: Select the correct match :-

Concept: Periodic table, block elements, classification of elements.
Formula: N/A, but understanding the organization of the periodic table.
Solution/Explanation:
1. d-block→ transition element: The d-block elements are indeed known as transition
elements due to their partially filled d orbitals.
2. f-block → inner transition element: The f-block elements, located at the bottom of the
periodic table, are correctly termed inner transition elements.
3. s & p-block → normal/representative element: The s-block and p-block elements are
 often referred to as normal or representative elements because they exhibit predictable
chemical properties based on their valence electron configurations.
4. All are correct: Since all the individual statements are correct matches, this is the correct
answer.
Answer: (all are correct )
Option: 4

63)

Mg, Mg2+, Al, Al3+

Mg > Mg2+, Al > Al3+ Neutral > cation of same element (size)
Largest Mg > Al
Mg+2 > Al+3 smallest

64)

Explanation:
The question asks which element, identified by its atomic number, exhibits a diagonal
relationship with Boron in the periodic table.

Concept: (Diagonal relationship)

Boron exhibits a diagonal relationship with Silicon. Silicon is located diagonally below Boron in
the periodic table. Silicon's atomic number is 14, leading to similar properties.

Final Answer: Option (3)

65)

Explanation of the question – In this ques I.P Zeff, shelter is asked

Concept – different parametric are used

Calculation – P is affected by of e– toadies i.e. Zeff
Zeff is always lens than Z = Zeff = Z- σ

66)

Asking for:

A. Matching the oxides in Column A with their corresponding properties in Column B.

Concept: Properties of Oxide

A. Basic Oxides: Metal oxides typically react with acids.

B. Acidic Oxides: Non-metal oxides, typically react with bases.
C. Amphoteric Oxides: Can react with both acids and bases.
D. Neutral Oxides: Do not react with acids or bases.

Explanation:
 A. Analyze each oxide in Column A:

A. (i) Na2O (Sodium Oxide):

■ Na2O is a metal oxide.

■ Metal oxides are generally basic.

■ Therefore, (i) matches with (b) Basic.

A. (ii) Al2O3 (Aluminum Oxide):

■ Al2O3 is amphoteric.

■ Amphoteric oxides can react with both acids and bases.

■ Therefore, (ii) matches with (d) Amphoteric.

A. (iii) N2O (Nitrous Oxide):

■ N2O is a neutral oxide.

■ Neutral oxides do not react with acids or bases.

■ Therefore, (iii) matches with (a) Neutral.

A. (iv) Cl2O7 (Dichlorine Heptoxide):

■ Cl2O7 is a non-metal oxide.

■ Non-metal oxides are generally acidic.

A. ■ Therefore, (iv) matches with (c) Acidic.

Answer : Option : (4)

67) Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
Explanation:
In this question we have to match the column - I to column - II.
Concept:
(a) ns1 - After extracting the 1st electron from nth shell, the 2nd e– has to be extracted from an
inner shell or (n–1) shell, and has stable noble gar configuration.
Therefore (a) → (s) IF1 , IF2 = 200 >> 14
(b) ns2 → After removing first 2 electrons, the 3rd e– has to be extracted from inner (n–1) shell,
and it require extra energy as it acquire noble gas configuration.
IE1 >>IE2 > IE1, therefore (b) → (σ)
(c) ns2np1
After removing first 2e– , 4th e– removed require very high energy due to stable electronic
configuration IE4 >> IE3 > IE1 > IE1
(d) ns2 np2
After removing first 4th e–, 5th e– removal requires very high energy, due to stable noble gas
configuration IE5 >> IE4 > IE3 > IE1 > IE1
68) Explanation : In this question we have to match the oxide with correct nature of oxide.
Concept :
CO → Neutral
BaO → Basic
Al2O3 → Amphoteric
Cl2O7 → Acidic oxide

69) Asking about: Determining the correct classification of elements X and Y based on their
first and second ionization enthalpies.

Concept: lonization Enthalpy (IE)

Explanation:

Element X:

• IE1 419 kJ/mol (relatively low)

• IE2 = 3069 kJ/mol (very high)

This pattern indicates a large jump between IE1 and IE2 which is characteristic of alkali
metals (Group 1).

Element Y:

• IE1 = 590 kJ/mol (higher than X's IE1)

• IE2 = 1145 kJ/mol (moderately higher than IE1)

This pattern indicates a moderate increase from IE1 to IE2, which is characteristic of alkaline
earth metals (Group 2).

Therefore, X is an alkali metal, and Y is an alkaline earth metal.

Answer:

Option 1

70) Asking about: Determining correct order of electronegativity

Concept:
Electronegativity: The tendency of an atom to attract a shared pair of electrons in a chemical
bond.
Periodic Trends:
• Electronegativity increases across a period (left to right).
• Electronegativity decreases down a group (top to bottom).
Formula:
• Understanding the periodic trends is essential.
Solution/Explanation:
1. CI> S> P > Si:
• These elements are in the same period (Period 3).
• Electronegativity increases across a period.
• Therefore, this order is correct.
2. Si > Al > Mg > Na:
• These elements are in the same period (Period 3).
Electronegativity increases across a period.
Therefore, this order is correct.
3. F > CI > Br > I:
• These elements are in the same group (Group 17, halogens).
• Electronegativity decreases down a group.
• Therefore, this order is correct.
• Since all the individual orders are correct,
Answer:
Option 4

71)

Answer 4
concept:
we move across a period, the number of protons in the nucleus increases (greater nuclear
charge) while the additional electrons are added to the same energy level .
down a group, the atomic radius increases because electrons are added to higher energy levels
farther from the nucleus. The outermost electrons experience less attraction due to increased
shielding by inner electrons.

72)

Ans- option (2)

Explanation - In this question we have to select. the correct order of electronegativity
Concept - Electronegativity

O - 3.5

76) Explanation:
The question is asking to identify which of the listed oxides (Al2O3, Na2O, MgO, CaO) exhibits
the strongest acidic properties.

Concept: (Acidic properties of Al2O3, Na2O, MgO & Cao)

Na2O, MgO, and CaO are basic metal oxides, Al2O3 is amphoteric, displaying more acidic
character compared to them.

Final Answer : Option (1)

77)
 Acidic Nature ∝ O.S. of Non-Metal

79)

80) Fact

81) Question Explanation: Element with very high lionization Potential (I.P.) and zero
Electron Affinity (E.A.)

Concept : Trends / Periodic properties.

Solution :

A. High I.P. → Hard to remove electron.

B. Zero E.A. → Atom doesn't want to gain electron.
C. Noble gases fit both (stable full shells).
D. He – Very high I.P., zero E.A.

Final Answer : option (3)

82) Answer - Option(3)

Explanation -To determine which process is endothermic, we need to understand that
endothermic processes require the absorption of energy (heat). In the context of the given
options, the processes involve the addition of an electron to a gaseous atom, forming an anion
(electron gain).
Concept - Beryllium has a very low electron affinity due to stable electronic configuration,
and adding an electron to it requires energy, making this process endothermic (energy is
absorbed).

85) Answer - Option(3)

Explanation - To identify the exothermic reaction, we need to consider the energy changes
associated with electron gain (electron affinity). A reaction is exothermic if energy is released
when electrons are added to an atom or ion.
Concept - F(g)- → F(g) + e- :

A. This reaction represents the removal of an electron from F-F-F-, which is the reverse of
electron affinity.
B. It is highly endothermic because fluorine already has a stable F-F-F- ion, and removing an
electron requires a significant amount of energy.

Be(g) + e- → Be(g):

A. Beryllium is an alkaline earth metal with a stable electron configuration. Adding an electron to
form Be-Be-Be- is endothermic because it disrupts the stable configuration.

O(g) + e → O(g):

A. Oxygen has a high electron affinity because it is in Group 16. Adding one electron to form O
releases energy. This reaction is exothermic.
O(g) + 2e- O(g)2-

A. Adding the first electron to oxygen is exothermic, but adding a second electron to the
negatively charge O- ion is endothermic because of electron-electron repulsion.

86) Basic nature of oxides decreases across the period and increases down the group.

87)

At. Radius → Li > Be > B

I.P.→ Li < B < Be
E.A. → Be < B < Li

BIOLOGY

91) NCERT XI (E/H) Pg # 90,91

93)

Bacteria, a group of prokaryotic organisms, is characterized by:

A. 70S ribosome

B. Peptidoglycan cell wall

C. Simple structure and complex behavior

The correct answer is: OPTION (4) More than one option is correct.

94) NCERT XI Page No. # 18 (fig. 2.1)

103)

C, E, A, D, B

106)

In five kingdom system, virus, viroid, prion and lichens were not mentioned.

109) NCERT XI Pg. # 12, Para Ist

110)
Solution:

The correct answer is:

2. 16-s-r-RNA

Carl Woese proposed the 3-domain system based on differences in the 16S ribosomal RNA
(rRNA) sequences, which helped differentiate the three domains: Bacteria, Archaea, and
Eukarya

112)

Solution:

The correct answer is:2. Protista

According to Whittaker's 5 kingdom classification, organisms like Chlorella (alga),
Chlamydomonas (alga), Paramoecium, and Amoeba (protozoans) are all unicellular eukaryotes
and should be classified under Protista, which is a separate kingdom for such organisms.

113) NCERT Pg.#129 Para-8.4.2

115)

1–B, 2–E, 3–D, 4–A, 5–C

116)

Both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct

117) NCERT XI(E)/(H) Page No. # 13 (2.1.1)

119)

SOLUTION—

Chlorophyll-a: Cyanobacteria contain chlorophyll-a, which is the primary pigment responsible

for photosynthesis, just like in plants and algae.

Phycocyanin: This is a blue pigment found in cyanobacteria, which helps in capturing light
energy for photosynthesis.

Phycoerythrin: This is a red pigment found in some cyanobacteria, which also assists in light
absorption for photosynthesis, particularly in deeper waters where light penetration is lower.
The correct answer is: OPTION (4) All of the above

120) NCERT Pg.# 19

121) NCERT Pg. # 18

139) NCERT Pg. # 47, 49, 50

140) NCERT Pg. # 52

148) NCERT Pg # 46, 47, 48

149) NCERT Pg. No. # 22

150) NCERT Pg. # 48

153) NCERT Pg. # 40

162) In some animals, the body is externally and internally divided into segments with a serial
repetition of at least some organs. For example, in earthworm, the body shows this pattern
called metameric segmentation and the phenomenon is known as metamerism.

163) Ctenophores, commonly known as sea walnuts or comb jellies are exclusively marine.
Digestion is both extracellular and intracellular. Sexes are not separate. Reproduction takes
place only by sexual means. Fertilisation is external with indirect development.

164) Cnidarians are ammonotelic and have incomplete digestive system, having single opening
for entry and exist of substances. Excretion in cnidarian occurs through mouth and through
body surface via diffusion.

165) NCERT-XI, Page#48

170) NCERT - 21, 22

174) NCERT-XII, Pg # 42

175) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 41

178) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 49

179)

NCERT XI pg no.51
180) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 50