20-07-2025

1803CMD303005250003 MD

PHYSICS

1) If y = 4x2 + 2x then slope of y – x graph at x = 1 is :-

(1) 10
(2) 8
(3) 6
(4) 12

2) Graph of equation 3x – 2y + 4 = 0 is–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) Value of slope of the shown graph.

(1) First increases then decreases

(2) First decreases then increases
(3) Increases continuously
(4) Decreases continuously

4)

Find value of cos 150º :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5)

If cosθ = and 0 < θ < . Find tanθ :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) The slope of graph as shown in figure at points 1, 2 and 3 is m1, m2 and m3 respectively then

(1) m1 > m2 > m3

(2) m1 < m2 < m3
(3) m1 = m2 = m3
(4) m1 = m3 > m2

7) Value of sin 3.6° is approximately equal to :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
8) What is the value of the derivative of the function y = 4x2 + 2x at the point x = 1?

(1) 8
(2) 6
(3) 12
(4) 10

9) If x = at4, y = bt3, then is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) sin(–30°) is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11)

Differentiation of 2x3 – ex with respect to x will be :-

(1) 2x3
(2) x3
(3) 6x2 – ex
(4) None

12) At point Q, the value of is

(1) Zero
(2) Positive
(3) Negative
(4) Infinite

13) If the area of a square varies with time t according to equation A = (3t2 + 5t + 7), then the time
rate change of its area at t = 2sec :-

(1) 17 m²/sec
(2) 15 m²/sec
(3) 6 m²/sec
(4) 30 m²/sec

14) is :

(1) Zero
(2) e2
(3) 2 e2

(4)

15) If and . Find

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) Distance between two points (0, 1, 2) and (6, 3, 5) is:

(1) 5
(2) 7
(3) 15
(4) 49

17) ______

(1)
(2)
(3) 0
(4) None of these

18) Given a function . What is rate of change in y with respect to x when x = 1?

(1) Zero
(2) 1
(3) 1.5
(4) –1.5

19) A circular arc of length as shown in figure. Angle subtended by it at the centre in degree is

(1) 30°
(2) 60°
(3) 45°
(4) 90°

20) The minimum value of is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) If , then will be

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)
22) Find out possible equation for given graph :

(1) y = x + 3
(2) y = x – 3
(3) y = –x – 3
(4) y = –x + 3

23) Slope angle made by straight line AB with positive x-axis is :-

(1) 45º
(2) 135º
(3) 60º
(4) 120º

24) Choose correct value of sin 2º :-

(1)

(2)

(3) 1

(4)

25) If y = x3 – 3, find slope of curve at (0, 2)

(1) 1
(2) 0
(3) 2
(4) None

26) In the given graph maximum magnitude of slope will be :-

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

27) Approximate value of tan 4° is :-

(1) 1

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) equals :

(1) ex
(2) e–x
(3) – e–x
(4) e–x–1

29) sin 2.5° ≈ ?

(1) 2.5

(2)

(3) both (1) and (2)

(4) None

30)

Which of the following graph shows the correct representation of given equation ?

3y = –4x + 1

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

31) Which of the following graph is the best representation for the given equation.
y = 2x – 1

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32)

If y = x3 + 2x2 + 7x + 8 then will be :-

(1) 3x2 + 2x + 15
(2) 3x2 + 4x + 7
(3) x3 + 2x2 + 15
(4) x3 + 4x + 7

33) Given that maximum value of y is

(1) zero
(2) 2
(3) 5
(4) 10/ (1+√3)

34) (sin 120°) = ............

(1) cos 120°

(2) 120 cos 120°
(3) 0
(4) None of these

35) Find value of θ = rad in degree :-

(1) 760°
(2) 560°
(3) 660°
(4) 460°

36) If , then value of is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) None

37) In the following graph, relation between two variables x and y is shown by a straight line.

Equation of the straight line is

(1) y = 1.2x + 4
(2) y = 1.2x – 4
(3) y = 2x – 8
(4) y = 2x + 8

38) Graph of equation 3x – 2y + 4 = 0 is–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

39) Graph of y = 2 x – 3 is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) = ..................

(1)

(2)
(3)
(4)

41) If y = 3x2 – 4x + 2 then find at x = 2:

(1) 4
(2) 6
(3) 10
(4) 8

42) If 6 sin θ + 8 cos θ = A sin (θ + α) then value of "A" and "α" are :–

(1) 10, tan–1 (4/3)

(2) 10, cos–1 (4/3)
(3) 7, tan–1 (4/3)
(4) 7, cos–1 (4/3)

43) Differentiation of x = t2 – et + ℓnt with respect to t is:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

44) If y = 2sin2x then is:-

(1) sin 2x
(2) cos 2x
(3) 2sin 2x
(4) 4cos 2x

45) Which of two following graph is the best representation for the given equation.
y = sinx

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

CHEMISTRY

1)

(i) (a) Isotopes

(ii) (b) Isotones

(iii) (c) Isodiaphers

(iv) (d) Isobars

(v)
Match the above correct terms:
(1) (i – a), (ii – d), (iii – b), (iv – c), (v – a)
(2) (i – a), (ii – c), (iii – b), (iv – d), (v – a)
(3) (i – a), (ii – d), (iii – b), (iv – c), (v – b)
(4) (i – a), (ii – b), (iii – d), (iv – c), (v – a)

2) Total spin in Ni+2 ion :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) ± 1

3) It is known that atoms contain protons, neutrons and electrons. If the mass of neutron is assumed
to be half of its original value whereas that of electron is assumed to be twice of this original value.
The atomic mass of 6C12 will be -

(1) Twice
(2) 75% less
(3) 25% less
(4) One-half of its original value

4) Assertion: Electronic energy for hydrogen atom of different orbitals follow the sequence:
Reason: Electronic energy for hydrogen atom depends only on 'n' and is independent of and 'm'
values.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true statement but reason is false
(4) Both assertion and reason are false statements

5) What is the minimum value of 'n' for a 'g' sub shell to exist ?

(1) 5
(2) 6
(3) 7
(4) 8

6) For which element of the periodic table the Hund's rule is applied first ?

(1) Hydrogen
(2) Carbon
(3) Helium
(4) Neon

7) Which of the following ions has the maximum number of unpaired d-electrons :-

(1) Zn2+
(2) Fe2+
(3) Ni3+
(4) Cu+

8) How many electrons can fit in the orbital for which n = 3 and l = 1?

(1) 14
(2) 2
(3) 6
(4) 10

9) N2 and CO are an example of :-

(1) Isotopes
(2) Isotones
(3) Isosters
(4) Isodiaphers

10) Magnetic moment of X+3 ion of 3d series is B.M. What is the atomic number of X+3 ?
(1) 24
(2) 25
(3) 26
(4) 27

11) Atomic weight of an element ‘X’ is 62.8. It occurs as 2 isotopes X60 & X64. What is relative
abudance of the lighter isotope :-

(1) 20%
(2) 25%
(3) 30%
(4) 40%

12)

In two elements and . M1 ≠ M2 and Z1≠ Z2 but M1– Z1 = M2 – Z2. These elements are:

(1) Isotonic
(2) Isobaric
(3) Isotopic
(4) Isoprotonic

13) The following quantum numbers are possible for how many orbital n = 3, l = 2, m = +2 ?

(1) 1
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 4

14) Which two orbitals are located along the axis, and not between the axis ?

(1) dxy, dz 2

(2) dxy, pz
(3) dyz, px
(4) pz, dx –y
2 2

15) Select iso electronic set

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

(1) a, b, d
(2) b, c, d
(3) a, b, c, d
(4) a, b, c

16) Consider the ground state of Cr atom (Z = 24). The numebrs of electrons with the azimuthal
quantum numbers ℓ = 1 and 2 are respectively :-

(1) 16 and 5
(2) 12 and 5
(3) 16 and 4
(4) 12 and 4

17) What is the orbital angular momentum of an electron in 'f' orbital ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) An isodiapher of 6C13 is :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) All of these

19) Which of the following statements in relation to the hydrogen atom is correct?

(1) 3p orbital is lower in energy than 3d orbital

(2) 3s orbital is lower in energy than 3p orbital
(3) 3s, 3p and 3d orbitals all have the same energy
(4) 3s and 3p orbitals are of lower energy than 3d orbital.

20) Consider the following ions :

(1) Ni2+ (2) Co2+
(3) Cr2+ (4) Fe3+
(Atomic numbers :
Cr = 24, Fe = 26, Co = 27, Ni = 28)
The correct sequence of the increasing order of the number of unpaired electrons in these ions
is -

(1) 1, 2, 3, 4
(2) 4, 2, 3, 1
(3) 1, 3, 2, 4
(4) 3, 4, 2, 1
21) The value of (n × l × m) for the last electron entered in K is

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 0

22) For which of the following sets of quantum numbers, an electron will have the highest energy ?

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

23) Which one of the following configuration is correct for Fe3+ ?

(1) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d3

(2) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d7
(3) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d6
(4) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d5

24) Electronic configuration has violated

(1) Hund's rule

(2) Pauli's principle
(3) Aufbau principle
(4) (n + l ) rule

25) Average atomic weight of an element M is 51.7. If two isotopes of M, M50 and M52 are present
then calculate the percentage of occurance of M50 in nature.

(1) 25%
(2) 85%
(3) 10%
(4) 15%

26) An orbital is occupied by an electron with the quantum numbers n = 4, = 1. How many orbitals
of this type are found in a multi-electron atom ?

(1) 4p, 3
(2) 4s, 1
(3) 4d, 5
(4) 4p, 6

27) For how many orbitals the quantum number n = 3, ℓ = 2, m = +2 are possible :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

28) In Cr atom find out number of unpaired electrons with n = 3 and m = +1 :-

(1) 3
(2) 2
(3) 1
(4) 0

29)

A diapositive ion has 12 protons. What is the number of electrons in its tetrapositive ion ?

(1) 8
(2) 10
(3) 12
(4) 14

30) The number of electrons, protons and neutrons in P3– ion is respectively________.

(1) 15, 15, 16

(2) 15, 16, 15
(3) 18, 15, 16
(4) 15, 16, 18

31) Match the metal ions in column I with the magnetic moments of the ions given in column II and
assign the correct code:

Column
Column II
I

a. Co3+ i. B.M.
 b. Cr3+ ii. B.M.

c. Fe3+ iii. B.M.

d. Ni2+ iv. B.M.

v. B.M.

a b c d

1 iv i ii iii

2 iii v ii ii

3 i ii iii iv

4 iv v ii i
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

32) For sodium atom the number of electrons with m = 0 will be :

(1) 2
(2) 7
(3) 9
(4) 8

33) After filling the 4d-orbitals, and electron will enter in :

(1) 5p
(2) 4p
(3) 4s
(4) 4f

34) In H-atom energy of electron is determined by :-

(1) only n
(2) n, 1
(3) n, l, m
(4) all the four quantum numbers

35) S–2 is NOT isoelectronic with -

(1) Ar
(2) Cl–
(3) HS–
(4) Ti+3
36) The anion X–3 has 16 neutrons in its nucleus, if this anion contains 18 electrons, then what will be
the number of nucleons in its molecule X4?

(1) 64
(2) 93
(3) 124
(4) 60

37) If the quantum number for 5th electron of carbon are 2, 1, 0 and . Then what is the correct set
for its 6th electron?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

38) Which of the following statements is correct?

(1) Isotopes have same number of nucleons

(2) Isobars have same number of neutrons
(3) Isotones have same number of neutrons
(4) Isobars are atoms having same atomic number

39) How many of the following ions have the same magnetic moments ?
Fe2+, Mn2+, Cr2+, Ni2+

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

40) Quantum numbers for some electrons are given below :

A : n = 4, l = 1 B : n = 4, l = 0
C : n = 3, l = 2 D : n = 3, l = 1
The correct increasing order of energy of electrons.

(1) A < B < C < D

(2) D < C < B < A
(3) D < B < C < A
(4) C < B < A < D

41) The maximum number of electrons in p-orbital with n = 6, m = 0 is :-

(1) 2
(2) 6
(3) 10
(4) 14

42) An atom has 26 electrons and its mass number is 56. The number of neutrons in the nucleus of
the atom will be :

(1) 26
(2) 30
(3) 36
(4) 56

43) Calculate the number of protons, neutrons and electrons in :

(1) Protons = 12, electrons = 12, neutrons = 10

(2) Protons = 10, electrons = 12, neutrons = 12
(3) Protons = 24, electrons = 24, neutrons = 10
(4) Protons = 12, electrons = 10, neutrons = 12

44) An ion has a charge of –1. It has eighteen electrons and twenty neutrons. Its mass number is :-

(1) 17
(2) 37
(3) 18
(4) 38

45) A certain negative ion X–2 has in its nucleus 18 neutrons and 18 electrons in its extra nuclear
structure. What is the mass number of the most abundant isotope of ‘X’ :-

(1) 35.46
(2) 32
(3) 36
(4) 39

BIOLOGY

1) Choose the correct match :-

(1) Mesosomes - Cell respiration

(2) Plasmid - bear photosynthetic pigments
(3) Flagella - help in formation of conjugation tube
(4) Capsule - help in locomotion

2) The cell theory proposed by Schleiden and Schwann, did not explain as to how the new cells are
formed? ______ modified the cell theory to give it a final shape.

(1) Nageli
(2) Rudolf Virchow
(3) Robert Hooke
(4) Purkinje

3) Animal cell has a thin outer layer which is now known as "Plasma membrane". Who reported this?

(1) Schleiden
(2) Schwann
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(4) Robert Hooke

4) How many terms/structures are related to prokaryotic cell? Genophore, Plastids, Flagellin, Gas
vacuole, Tubulin, Linear-ds DNA, 80S, naked Genome

(1) Five
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Six

5) Plant cells differ from animal cells in having :-

(1) Cell wall

(2) Plastids
(3) A large central vacuole
(4) All of these

6) Who proposed the theory that "cells arise only from pre-existing cells" ?

(1) Mohl
(2) Virchow
(3) Haeckel
(4) Brown

7) Cell theory is not applicable for :-

(1) Viruses
(2) Animal
(3) plant
(4) Algae

8) Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(1) Unicellular organisms are capable of independent existence

(2) Anything less than a complete structure of a cell does not ensure independent living
Matthias Schleiden, a German zoologist, proposed that body of animals are composed of cell
(3)
and products of cells
(4) Schleiden and Schwann together formulated the cell theory

9) Match column-I with column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below.

Column-I Column-II

(A) Leeuwenhoek (I) First saw and described a living cell

(B) Robert Brown (II) Presence of cell wall is unique to plant cells

(C) Schleiden (III) Discovered the nucleus

All plants are composed of different kind of

(D) Schwann (IV)
cells
(1) A–I, B–III, C–IV, D–II
(2) A–I, B–III, C–II, D–IV
(3) A–III, B–I, C–IV, D–II
(4) A–I, B–IV, C–II, D–III

10) Which of the following is incorrect for "Rudolf virchow"?

(1) He gave the statement 'omnis cellula e cellula'

(2) He modified the hypothesis of schleiden and schwann to give cell theory a final shape
(3) According to him all cells arises from pre-existing cells
(4) He proposed the cell theory but this theory did not explain how new cells are formed

11) Which of the following cell is long and branched?

(1) Mesophyll cell

(2) Nerve cell
(3) Tracheids
(4) Epithelial cells

12) Match the column :

Column-I Column-II

Typical
(I) (P) 10-20 μm
bacteria

(II) PPLO (Q) 0.02-0.2 μm

(III) Viruses (R) 0.1 μm

Typical
(IV) (S) 1-2 μm
eukaryotic cell
(1) (I)-(P), (II)-(Q), (III)-(R), (IV)-(S)
(2) (I)-(S), (II)-(Q), (III)-(R), (IV)-(P)
(3) (I)-(S), (II)-(R), (III)-(Q), (IV)-(P)
(4) (I)-(Q), (II)-(P), (III)-(R), (IV)-(S)

13) Polyribosomes or polysomes represent:

(1) Microbodies like glyoxysomes

(2) Ribosomes and snRNA
(3) Aggregation of rRNA
(4) Several ribosomes attached to a single mRNA forming a chain

14) Bacteria have specialised invaginations of the plasmamembrane, which are analogous to
mitochondria?

(1) Pili
(2) Flagella
(3) Mesosomes
(4) Chromatophores

15) Given below are two statements:

Statement I : In bacteria, the mesosomes are formed by the extensions of plasma membrane.
Statement II : The mesosomes, in bacteria, help in DNA replication and cell wall formation.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

16) Assertion (A): Cells vary greatly in their shape.

Reason (R): The shape of cell does not depend on the function they perform.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation for (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation for (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
(4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.

17) Who proposed the cell theory ?

(1) Singer and Nicolsen

(2) Schwann and Schleiden
(3) Hook and Brown
(4) Robertson
18)

Identify the cells given in above diagram:

(1) A = Mesophyll cells , B = White blood cells, C = Nerve cell, D = Tracheid

(2) A = Red blood cells, B = Nerve cell, C = White blood cells, D = tracheid
(3) A = Red blood cells, B = White blood cells, C = Mesophyll cells, D = Nerve cell
(4) A = White blood cells, B = tracheid, C = Red blood cells, D = Nerve cell

19)

Which of the following structures of bacteria do not play a role in motility ?

(1) pili
(2) flagella
(3) fimbriae
(4) both (1) & (3)

20) Pili do not play role in motility because :-

(1) They are small bristle like fibres

(2) They help to attach to bacteria with host and rocks
(3) They are found inside the surface of bacteria
(4) They are made up of non contractile protein

21)

How many of given below are found in prokaryotic cells?

ER, Golgi complex, Lysosomes, Mitochondria, Mesosome, Gas Vacuoles, Chromatophore

(1) 1
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 2

22) Given below is the diagram showing different types of cells. Identify the cells labelled A, B, C, D,
E, F and select the right option about them.

A B C D E F

Round Long Branched

Round &
(1) & Amoe-boid & & Elong-ated
biconcave
oval narrow long

Round Branched Long

Round &
(2) & Amoe-boid & & Elong-ated
biconcave
oval long narrow

Round Branched Long

Round &
(3) & Amoe-boid & & Elong-ated
biconcave
biconcave long narrow

Round Long Branched

Round &
(4) & Amoe-boid & & Elong-ated
oval
biconcave narrow long
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

23) Select the correct statements :-

(i) Cell theory was formulated by Schleiden & Schwann
(ii) Presence of cell wall is a unique character of the plant cells it was given by Schleiden
(iii) According to Schleiden and Schwann new cells arise from pre-existing cells
(iv) Rudolf Virchow modified the hypothesis of Schleiden and Schwann

(1) All are correct

(2) i, ii, iv
(3) i, iv
(4) i, ii, iii

24) How many function can perform by mesosomes

(i) DNA replication
(ii) Respiration
(iii) DNA distribution to daughter cells
(iv) Secretion
(v) Increase the surface area
(vi) Contains enzymatic content.
(vii) Cell wall formation.

(1) 7
(2) 6
(3) 5
(4) 4

25) Reserve materials in prokaryotic cells are stored in the form of inclusion bodies. These are
usually :-

(1) Bounded by single layer of lipids.

(2) Bounded by two membranes
(3) Not bounded by any membrane
(4) Bounded by three membranes

26) Four type of organisms (cell A–D) shown with their relative cell size. If these four structures are
bacteria, typical eukaryotic cell, PPLO and virus the which of the following is correct?

(1) B = Bacteria, C = Virus

(2) A = Typical eukaryotic cell, C = PPLO
(3) B = Bacteria, C = Typical eukaryotic cell
(4) B = Typical eukaryotic cell, D = Virus

27) Smallest cells so far known are

(1) Bacteria
(2) blue green algae
(3) PPLOs
(4) human egg

28) Which among the following structure help in the motility of Prokaryotic cell?
(A) Pili
(B) Flagella
(C) Fimbriae
(D) Cilia

(1) B, C
(2) B, C, D
(3) AB
(4) Only B

29) Given below are two statements :

Statement I : In prokaryotes, ribosomes are associated with the plasma membrane of the cell.
Statement II : Several ribosomes may attach to a single t-RNA and form a chain called
polyribosomes or polysome.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

30) Assertion : Bacterial cells may be motile or non motile.

Reason : Bacterial cells may or may not posses cilia.

(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True &the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are false

31) Select the incorrect statement :-

(1) Hook is the longest portion of bacterial flagella.

(2) The cell envelope of bacteria is a tri-layered structure.
(3) Many ribosome attach to m-RNA & form a chain called polysome.
(4) Gas vacuole are found in BGA or cyanobacteria.

32) Identify the incorrect one for plasmids:

(1) These are extrachromosomal DNA.

(2) They are dsDNA.
(3) Unlike genomic DNA they are linear type.
(4) They have genes that confer certain unique phenotypic characters to bacteria.

33) Inclusion body in prokaryotes perform the function of

(1) Site for protein synthesis

(2) Storage of reserve food material
(3) Participate in cell division
(4) All of these

34) The size of a typical bacterial cell is :-

(1) 0.2 µm
(2) 5 - 10 µm
(3) 1 - 2 µm
(4) 10 - 20 µm

35) Assertion : The prokaryotic cells are represented by bacteria, blue green algae, mycoplasma.
Reason : Glycocalyx differs in composition and thickness among different bacteria.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

36) Assertion : Cytoplasm is the main arena of cellular activities in both plants and animals cells
Reason : Various chemical reactions occurs in it to keep the cells in living state.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

37) (A) Well defined nucleus

(B) The genetic material is absent
(C) Nuclear membrane absent
(D) Mesosome present
(E) Circular DNA
How many options are correct for Prokaryotic cell ?

(1) C,D,E
(2) A,C,E
(3) A,B,D
(4) B,C,E

38) Which of the following features is common to prokaryotes and many eukaryotes ?

(1) Chromosome present

(2) Cell wall present
(3) Nuclear membrane present
(4) Membrane bound cell organelles present

39) Statement-1 : Eukaryotic cells have membrane bound cell organelles.

Statement-2 : Prokaryotic cells lack membrane bound organelles.
Option :

(1) Both statement (1) and (2) are correct

(2) Only statement (1) is correct and (2) is incorrect
(3) Only statement (2) is correct and (1) is incorrect
(4) Both statement (1) and (2) are incorrect

40) Cell wall of prokaryotes is made up of :-

(1) Chitin
(2) Cellulose
(3) Glucose
(4) Peptidoglycane

41) Prokaryotic ribosomes are :-

(1) 50 S
(2) 60 S
(3) 70 S
(4) 80 S

42) Chromatophores take part in :

(1) Respiration
(2) Photosynthesis
(3) Growth
(4) Movement

43)

The structure which confers certain unique phenotypic character to bacteria but is not vital for
survival, is

(1) Genomic DNA

(2) Plasmids
(3) Nucleoid
(4) Cell membrane

44) What is true about the genetic material of prokaryotic cell?

(1) Possess an organised nucleus with a nuclear envelope

(2) Not enveloped by nuclear membrane
(3) Genetic material is a single, circular DNA molecule
(4) Both (2) and (3)

45)

A loose sheath of glycocalyx layer is called

(1) Plasma membrane

(2) Capsule
(3) Slime layer
(4) Cell wall

46) Skeleton in sponges is formed by

(1) Bones
(2) Cartilages
(3) Spicules and spongin Fibres
(4) Bones & cartilages

47) Canal system in sponges helps in

(1) Excretion
(2) Food collection
(3) Exchange of gases
(4) All of these

48) In Radial symmetry

(1) Any plane unable to divide body into equal halves

(2) One plane divide body into equal halves
(3) Any plane pass through any axis of body can divide into 2 equal halves
(4) Any plane pass through central axis of body, divides it into 2 equal halves

49) Which of the following is true regarding ctenophores

(1) Triploblastic, radially symmetrical tissue level

(2) Diploblastic, bilaterally symmetrical, tissue level
(3) Diploblastic, radially symmetrical, organ level
(4) Diploblastic, radially symmetrical, tissue level

50) Assertion (A):- In sponges water enters through ostia

Reason(R):- In sponges water exit through osculum

(1) A & R are correct ‘R’ is the correct explanation of ‘A’

(2) A & R are correct ‘R’ is not the correct, explanation of ‘A’
(3) ‘A’ is true. But ‘R’ is false
(4) ‘A’ is false. But ‘R’ is true

51) Digestion in cnidarians is

(1) extra cellular

(2) intracellular
(3) extra cellular & intracellular
(4) digestion is absent

52) Assertion (A):- Obelia exhibits metagenesis

Reason(R):- In obelia polyp asexually forms medusa and medusa sexually forms polyp

(1) A & R are correct ‘R’ is the correct explanation of ‘A’

(2) A & R are correct ‘R’ is not the correct explanation of ‘A’
(3) ‘A’ is true. But ‘R’ is false
(4) ‘A’ is false. But ‘R’ is true

53) First triploblastic organisms are

(1) Annelids
(2) Arthropods
(3) Molluscs
(4) Platyhelminthes

54) The first pseudocoelomates are

(1) platyhelminthes
(2) Aschelminthes
(3) Molluscs
(4) Annelids

55) Which of the following are diploblastic?

(1) Ctenophora & cniderians

(2) Annelida
(3) Platyhelminthes
(4) Chordata

56) A complete digestive system has

(1) Single opening that serves as both mouth and anus

(2) Two openings, one as mouth and other as anus
(3) Single opening that acts as mouth only
(4) Two openings, both act as mouth as well as anus

57) The statements given below shows some characteristics of a phylum. Identify it.
(i) Tissue absent
(ii) Internal fertilization
(iii) Development is indirect
(iv) Spongocoel with ostia (many) and single osculum and canal system
(v) Sexes are not separate.

(1) Cnidaria
(2) Porifera
(3) Platyhelminthes
(4) Ctenophora

58) Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of sponges?

(1) Cellular level of organization

(2) Presence of ostia
(3) Intracellular digestion
(4) Body supported by chitin.

59) The type of symmetry in the given animal is

A B
(1) Bilateral Asymmetrical
(2) Bilateral Bilateral
(3) Radial Bilateral
(4) Radial Radial
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

60) Mesoglea is

(1) A germinal layer present between ectoderm and endoderm

(2) An undifferentiated layer present between ectoderm and endoderm
(3) Another name of mesoderm
(4) A spongy layer of skin

61) "Corals" belongs to the phylum :-

(1) Porifera
(2) Coelenterata
(3) Mollusca
(4) Echinodermata

62) "Comb jellies" or "Sea Walnuts" belong to the phylum :-

(1) Coelenterata
(2) Ctenophora
(3) Mollusca
(4) Echinodermata

63) Cnidarians and ctenophores resemble in their :-

(1) Levels of organisation
(2) Symmetry
(3) Diploblastic organisation
(4) All of the above

64) In case of poriferans, the spongocoel is lined with flagellated cells called:

(1) oscula
(2) choanocytes
(3) rnesenchyrnal cells
(4) ostia

65) Bilaterally symmetrical and acoelomate animals are exemplified by:

(1) Segmental worms

(2) Sea combjellies
(3) Flatworms
(4) Roundworms

66) Which of the following phylum have radially symmetrical organisms?

(1) Ctenophora
(2) Platyhelminthes
(3) Aschelminthes
(4) Annelida

67) Which of the following phylum possess true coelom?

(1) Aschelminthes
(2) Annelida
(3) Ctenophora
(4) Platyhelminthes

68)

Coelom is lined by

(1) Ectoderm
(2) Mesoderm
(3) Endoderm
(4) Mesogloea

69) The phylum which is exclusively marine

(1) Porifera
(2) Cnidaria
(3) Ctenophora
(4) Annelida

70) Organ level of organisation is found in

(1) Cnidaria
(2) Platyhelminthes
(3) Aschelminthes
(4) Annelida

71) Complete the following chart by choosing correct option for A , B ,C and D

A B C D
Cellular
1 Bilateral Aschelminthes Acoelomate
level
2 Bilateral Cellular level Aschelminthes Acoelomate
Cellular
3 Bilateral Acoelomate Aschelminthes
level
4 Acoelomate Aschelminthes Bilateral Cellular level
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

72) The only incorrectly matched pair is Phylum Level of organisation

(1) Porifera – Cellular level

(2) Cnidaria – Tissue level
(3) Annelida – Organ level only
(4) Mollusca – Organ system level

73) Body cavity is the cavity present between body wall and gut wall. In some animals the body
cavity is not lined by mesoderm. Such animals are called

(1) Acoelomate
(2) Pseudocoelomate
(3) Coelomate
(4) Haemocoelomate
74) On which body side, the notochord is formed during embryonic development?

(1) Lateral
(2) Ventral
(3) Dorsal
(4) Bilateral

75) Read the given statements and select the correct option.
Statement 1 : All triploblastic animals are eucoelomates.
Statement 2 : They have a false coelom.

(1) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1
Both statements 1 and 2 are correct but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement
(2)
1
(3) Statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect
(4) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect

76) Animals are classified on the basis of :-

(1) Arrangement of cells

(2) Body symmetry
(3) Nature of coelom
(4) All of these

77)
Which of the following posesses this symmetry ?

(1) Porifera
(2) Platyhelminthes
(3) Ctenophora
(4) Coelenterata

78) Given diagram below is the body organisation of animal, select the correct phylum which animal

belongs :-
(1) Platyhelminthes
(2) Ctenophora
(3) Aschelminthes
(4) Annelida

79) Body is externally and internally divided into segments with serial repetition of atleast some
organs, this is called :-

(1) Metamorphosis
(2) Metagenesis
(3) Metamerism
(4) Metachrosis

80) Select the correct option which related to Kingdom Animalia :-

(1) All members of Animalia are multicellular

(2) All members of Animalia are eukaryotic
(3) All members of Animalia do not exhibit the same pattern of organisation of cells
(4) All of these

81) Metamerism is first observed in :-

(1) Platyhelminthes
(2) Aschelminthes
(3) Annelida
(4) Arthropoda

82) The entry of food and exit of waste takes place from separate openings in :-

(1) Organisms having incomplete digestive system

(2) Organisms lacking digestive system
(3) Organism having cellular level organisation
(4) Organisms having complete digestive system

83) Which one of the following figures shows pseudocoelomate condition ?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) None of these
84) Pore bearing organisms are

(1) Sycon
(2) Euspongia
(3) Meandrina
(4) 1 & 2 both

85) When only one plane passing through the central axis of body and divides the animal into two
identical halves. It is called as _____.

(1) Asymmetry
(2) Radial symmetry
(3) Bilateral symmetry
(4) Biradial symmetry

86) Open type circulatory system is found in

(1) Annelida & Hemichordata

(2) Annelida and Mollusca
(3) Vertebrata & Mollusca
(4) Arthorpoda & Mollusca

87) In the course of evolution, true coelom appeared for the first time in

(1) Chordata
(2) Annelida
(3) Aschelminthes
(4) Echinodermata

88) Given below is the diagrammatic sketch of the sectional view of an animal. Identify the parts
labelled as A, B, C and D and select the right option about them :

Part-A Part-B Part-C Part-D

1 Ectoderm Mesoderm Ectoderm Coelom

2 Mesoderm Ectoderm Coelom Ectoderm

3 Ectoderm Mesoderm Coelom Ectoderm

4 Ectoderm Coelom Mesoderm Ectoderm

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

89) Blind sac body plan is shown by

(1) Annelida
(2) Chordata
(3) Platyhelminthes
(4) Mollusca

90) Which of the following feature is not considered as basis of animal classification ?

(1) Pattern of digestive system

(2) Pattern of circulatory system
(3) Pattern of excretory system
(4) Pattern of reproductive system
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 1 4 3 2 2 4 4 4 2 3 1 1 1 2 2 3 2 1 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 4 2 1 2 4 3 3 2 1 1 2 2 3 3 3 3 1 4 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 4 1 3 4 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 4 3 1 1 2 2 2 3 3 3 1 1 4 4 2 3 4 3 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 2 4 1 4 1 1 3 1 3 4 2 1 1 4 3 4 3 2 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 2 4 2 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 1 2 2 3 4 2 1 3 1 4 2 3 4 3 3 3 2 2 4 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 4 3 1 3 2 3 4 1 3 1 3 2 3 2 1 1 2 1 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 2 2 4 3 3 4 4 4 2 3 1 4 2 1 2 2 4 3 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 2 4 2 3 1 2 2 3 2 3 3 2 3 4 4 2 2 3 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 4 2 4 3 4 2 3 3 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Slope = =
slope = 8x + 2
at x = 1
slope = 8(1) + 2
= 10

2) 3x – 2y + 4 = 0 ⇒ 2y = 3x + 4

y= x+2
m = +ve, C = +ve

3)

4)

cos150 = cos(90º + 60º)

= – sin 60

5) tanθ =

6) From point 1 to point 3.

θ is acute and increases.
∴ (tanθ) will be increased
as slope (m) = tanθ

7) as θ < 5° , sin θ ≈ θ
⇒ sin (3.6°) = sin (3.6 × )=

8)

QUESTION EXPLANATION
The question presents four mathematical statements involving calculus and coordinate
geometry and asks to identify the correct one(s).
The source's answer key for this question appears to have errors. We will re-frame it
into a clean, single-correct question.

CONCEPT
This requires knowledge of basic differentiation, integration, finding the average value
of a function, and the equation of a straight line.

SOLUTION
1. Let's create a single-correct question based on statement (A), which is verifiably
correct.
2. The function is y = 4x2 + 2x.

3. Its derivative is .

4. Evaluate the derivative at the point x = 1:

5. This is a correct statement that can be used as the basis for a question.

CORRECT ANSWER
The correct option is (4).

9) x = at4 y = bt3

10) sin (–30°) = – sin 30° =

11)
= 6x2 – ex

12)

Q is extreme point hence

13)

at t = 2 = 17

14)

15)

16) Explaining : Dist. between two points

Concept : This question is based on Distance Formula.

Solution :

Final Answer : (2)

17) Derivative of a constant is zero

18)

19)

20)

and
Hence, y is minimum at x = 1/5

21) Apply chain rule

22) Explanation:
The question asks to determine the correct linear equation based on the observations from the
 given graph, focusing on the slope and y-intercept of the line.
Concept:
The subtopic is Linear Equations and Graphs. A linear equation is of the form y = mx + b,
where 'm' is the slope and 'b' is the y-intercept.
Formula:
The general form of a linear equation: y = mx + b
Where:

A. m is the slope of the line

B. b is the y-intercept

Calculation:

A. Observing the graph: The line has a negative slope and a positive y-intercept.
B. Analyzing the options:

Option 1: Incorrect due to positive slope.

Option 2: Incorrect due to positive slope and negative intercept.
Option 3: Incorrect due to negative intercept.
Option 4: Correct, with negative slope and positive y-intercept.
Final Answer:
The correct equation is Option 4: y = – x + 3.

23)

slope =

24)

sin (2°) = sin = sin

25) slope of the curve

= 3x2

at, x = 0

26)

Use pen method

27)

Explain :
Find the approximate value of tan(4°).
Concept :
For small angles (in radians), tan(θ) is approximately equal to θ.

Formula :

Conversion from degrees to radians: radians = degrees ×

Approximation for small angles: tan(θ) ≈ θ (where θ is in radians)

Calculation :

Convert 4° to radians: radians =

Apply the small angle approximation: tan(4°) ≈ tan ≈

Final Answer:
Option (3)

28)

29) sin 2.5° ≈ 2.5 ×

30)

y= +
here m = (–) and c = (+) on compairing y = mx + c

31)

m=2
c = –1

32) Explaining : We are to differentiate:

Concept : Use standard derivative rules:

Solution :

Final Answer : (2)

33)
 sinx +
=

34)

35) Multiply by

36)

37)

In ΔABO & ΔCBD

AO = 8
So coordinate of points A(O,–8)
B(4, 0)
slope of line (m) = 2
So equation of line
y = mx + C
y = 2x – 8

38)

3x – 2y + 4 = 0 ⇒ 2y = 3x + 4

y= ⇒ y=

slope = +m = & c = +2

39) m = 2 → slope is positive

c = –3 → y intercept is negative

40)

solving by chain rule

 41) y = 3x2 – 4x + 2

put x = 2

42) a sin θ + b cos θ = A sin (θ + ϕ)

43)

44)

45)

Conceptual.

CHEMISTRY

46)

Answer is "(i – a), (ii – d), (iii – b), (iv – c), (v – a)"

47) Total spin = × number of unpaired electron

S=±1

48)

Answer is "25% less"

49) Fact.

50)
Answer is "5"

51)

Answer is "Carbon"

52) Zn2+ : [Ar]3d10 (0 unpaired electrons)

Fe2+ : [Ar]3d6 (4 unpaired electrons) maximum
Ni3+ : [Ar]3d7 (3 unpaired electrons)
Cu+ : [Ar]3d10 (0 unpaired electrons
[Ar]3d10(0 unpaired electrons)

53)

Answer us "2"

54)

Answer is "Isosters"

55) Magnetic moment = B.M.

if x+3 ion of 3d series (subshell) is
then
n = 5 (No. of unpaired electrons = 5)
So
x+3 = [Ar] 3d5
and x = [Ar]4s2 3d6
Atomic Number = 26

56) Atomic weight of X = 62.8

2 Isotopes → X60 and X64
Let % of lighter isotope = X
So 62.8 × 100 = (60 × X) + 64(100 – X)
6280 = 60X + 6400 – 64X
4X = 120
X = 30%

57)

Answer is "Isotonic"

58)

Answer is "1"
59)

Answer is "pz, dx –y "

2 2

60) (a)
(b)
(c)

61)

Answer is "12 and 5"

62)

Answer is " "

63)

Answer is "All of these"

64)

Answer is "3s, 3p and 3d orbitals all have the same energy"

65)

Answer is "1, 2, 3, 4"

66)

Answer is "0"

67)

Answer is "2"

68)

Fe26 → 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s23p63d6, 4s2

Fe3+ → 1s2, 2s22p6, 3s23p63d5

69)

Answer is "Hund's rule"

70)

Answer is "15%""

71)

Answer is "4p, 3"

72)

Answer is "1"

73) 24Cr = 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p63d54s1

unpaired electrons with n = 3, m = +1 will be only 1

74)

Answer is "8"

75)

Answer is "18, 15, 16"

76)

Answer is "4"

77)

Answer is "7"

78)

Answer is "5p"

79)

Answer is "only n"

80)

Answer is "Ti+3 "

81)
X–3 ⇒ 16 neutron and 18 electrons
X ⇒ 15 electrons, 15 proton, 16 neutron
X4 ⇒ 60e–, 60p, 64n
So, number of nucleons = 60 + 64 = 124

82)

Answer is " "

83)

Answer is "Isotones have same number of neutrons"

84) Question explanation: Determine how many ions among Fe2+ , Mn2+ , Cr2+ and Ni2+ have
the same magnetic moment.
Concept: Magnetic moment where n is the number of unpaired electrons.
Solution:
• Fe2+ (d6) :
Number of unpaired electrons, n = 4 • Mn2+ (d5):
Number of unpaired electrons, n = 5 Cr2+ (d4):
Number of unpaired electrons, n = 4 Ni2+ (d8) :
Number of unpaired electrons, n = 2 Fe2+ and Cr2+ have the
same number of unpaired electrons and thus the same magnetic moment.

Final answer: Option (2) 2

85)

Answer is "D < B < C < A"

86)

n = 6, m = 0
Any orbital can have maximum two electron with opposite spin.

87)

Answer is "30"

88)

Answer is "Protons = 12, electrons = 10, neutrons = 12"

89)
 Answer is "37"

90) X–2 has 18e– i.e. X is gained 2e–

Hence X = 16e– ⇒ X has 16 proton
Mass = no. of neutrons + No. of protons
= 18 + 16
= 34
Atomic no. (2) = no. of proton = 16 implies element is S
As 16S32 is present in high proportion in earth so we can say 16S32 is the most abundant isotope.

BIOLOGY

91) Option 1: Correct. Mesosomes are invaginations of the plasma membrane in bacteria,
involved in cellular processes like cell respiration.
Option 2: Incorrect. Plasmids are small, circular DNA molecules, not involved in bearing
photosynthetic pigments.
Option 3: Incorrect. Flagella are involved in locomotion, not in the formation of conjugation
tubes.
Option 4: Incorrect. Capsules protect bacteria and help in avoiding immune responses, not in
locomotion.

92) Rudolf virchow modified the cell theory to give it a final shape.

93) NCERT XI Pg. # 126, Para 1 line 1,2

94) NCERT XIth Page No. 127, 128

95)

Cell wall is absent in animal cells.

96) Module Pg. # 126

97) The correct answer is: 1. Viruses Explanation: Cell theory states that all living
organisms are composed of cells, and all cell functions occur within cells. However, viruses do
not follow this principle because they are not made of cells. They are without cell and cannot
carry out life processes independently; they require a host cell for replication. Therefore, cell
theory is not applicable to viruses.

98) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 125-126

99) NCERT XI Pg. # 125-126

100) The incorrect answer is : 4. He proposed the cell theory but this theory did not explain
how new cells are formed.
Explanation: Virchow's theory did explain how new cells are formed-they arise from pre-
existing cells. So, option 4 is incorrect. The other options correctly describe his contributions
to cell theory.

101)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 127

102) NCERT Pg. # 128

103) Ncert Page 91.

104) Ncert Page 91.

105) Solution: A special membranous structure is the mesosome which is formed by the
extensions of plasma membrane into the cell. These extensions are in the form of vesicles,
tubules and lamellae. They help in cell wall formation. DNA replication and distribution to
daughter cells. They also help in respiration, secretion processes, to increase the surface area
of the plasma membrane and enzymatic content.
So correct answer is both statements are correct.

106) NCERT Page #126

107)

NCERT, Pg. # 126

108) NCERT XI Pg.127

109) NCERT XI Pg.# 129 para. 8.4.1

110)

Explanation: Pili are made of non-contractile protein and do not play a role in motility. They
are primarily involved in attachment to surfaces, such as host cells or rocks. The motility of
bacteria is usually facilitated by flagella, which are capable of movement due to their
contractile proteins.
The correct answer is: 4. They are made up of non-contractile protein

111) The correct answer is option 2: 3

Note: Answer given is option 4. But answer should be option 2.

 Explanation:
The structures found in prokaryotic cells from the list are:

A. Mesosome: A structure in the prokaryotic cell membrane involved in cell wall formation, DNA
replication and respiration.
B. Gas vacuoles: Found in some prokaryotic cells, especially aquatic bacteria, to provide
buoyancy.
C. Chromatophore: These are internal membrane structures involved in photosynthesis in some
bacteria.

The other structures (ER, Golgi complex, Lysosomes, Mitochondria) are not found in prokaryotic
cells; they are present in eukaryotic cells.

112) NCERT XI, (E), (H), Page # 127, Fig. 8.1

113) Explanation:
(i) Correct : Schleiden & Schwann formulated the cell theory.
(iv) Correct : Rudolf Virchow modified the hypothesis by adding the idea of cells arising from
pre-existing cells.

Final Answer : option (3). i, iv

114)

The correct answer is:

1. 7
Explanation:
Mesosomes are infoldings of the cell membrane found in prokaryotic cells, particularly
bacteria. They are involved in several functions:
1. DNA replication:
• Mesosomes are involved in the replication of DNA in prokaryotes.
2. Respiration:
• Mesosomes participate in cellular respiration by housing enzymes involved in energy
production.
3. DNA distribution to daughter cells:
• They assist in the distribution of DNA to daughter cells during cell division.
4. Secretion:
• Mesosomes are involved in the secretion of proteins or other substances, though this
function is not their primary role.
5. Increase the surface area:
• The folded structure of mesosomes increases the surface area, which is important for
cellular processes like respiration.
6. Contains enzymatic content:
• Mesosomes contain enzymes that are essential for various cellular activities, including
respiration and cell division.
7. Cell wall formation:
• Mesosomes also assist in cell wall formation during cell division.
Final Answer:
7 functions are performed by mesosomes.

115) NCERT XI, Eng. # 129 (Inclusion bodies topic)

116)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks to identify four types of organisms (cells A to D)
shown in an image based on their relative cell sizes. The organisms to be identified are typical
eukaryotic cells, bacteria, PPLO (Pleuro Pneumonia Like Organisms), and viruses. The task is
to match each letter (A, B, C, D) to the correct organism.

Underlying Concept: The core concept is understanding the relative sizes of different types
of cells and microorganisms. Typical eukaryotic cells are generally the largest, followed by
bacteria, then PPLO, and viruses are the smallest. Size differences help in identifying which
organism corresponds to which label.

Tips and Tricks: Use the size hierarchy as a quick guide: Eukaryotic cell > Bacteria > PPLO
> Virus.

Common Mistakes: Confusing PPLO with bacteria because both are small, but PPLO are
smaller than typical bacteria. Also, mistaking viruses for bacteria due to their microscopic size
without considering relative scale.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Options that assign virus to a cell larger than PPLO or
bacteria are incorrect because viruses are the smallest entities. Similarly, assigning bacteria
as the largest cell is wrong since eukaryotic cells are larger.

117)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks which among the given options represents the
smallest cells known so far. It wants to identify the type of cells that have the smallest size
compared to others listed.

Underlying Concept: The core concept here is cell biology, particularly about the relative
sizes of different cells and microorganisms. Among cellular organisms, sizes can vary
significantly, from very large cells (like human egg cells) to extremely small ones such as
PPLOs (Pleuro Pneumonia Like Organisms), which are known for their minute size compared
to bacteria and algae.

Tips and Tricks: Recall that human egg cells are among the largest cells, so they can be
ruled out quickly. Between bacteria, blue-green algae, and PPLOs, PPLOs are the smallest due
to their simpler structure lacking a cell wall.

Common Mistakes: Confusing the microscopic size of bacteria with PPLOs or assuming algae
cells are smaller than bacteria may lead to incorrect answers.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Bacteria and blue green algae are larger than PPLOs.
Human egg cells are actually the largest cells in the human body, so choosing 'human egg' as
the smallest cell is incorrect.

118)

NCERT pg # 129

119) NCERT 11th Class (Chapter-8) Page No. 129

120)

Answer:
3. If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.

Explanation:

A. The Assertion is True: Bacterial cells can be motile (e.g., via flagella) or non-motile.

B. The Reason is False: Bacteria do not have cilia. Instead, they have flagella for motility.
Cilia are found in eukaryotic cells, not bacteria.

Thus, the correct answer is option 3.

121) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 87

122) NCERT page no.128.

123)

NCERT Page no 91

124) NCERT Pg. # 90

125) NCERT Pg. 127, 128

126) NCERT Pg.# 126 para 8.3

127) NCERT XIth Pg.# 128, 129

 128) NCERT XI Pg # 127

129)

NCERT XI Pg. # 126

130)

The correct answer is : 4. Peptidoglycan

Explanation: The cell wall of prokaryotes,especially bacteria, is primarily made of

peptidoglycan (also called murein), which provides structural support and protection. Chitin
and cellulose are found in the cell walls of fungi and plants, respectively, while glucose is a
sugar, not a structural component of prokaryotic cell walls.

131)

NCERT XI Page # 91, 8.4.2

132) The correct answer is 2. Photosynthesis.

Chromatophores are pigment-containing structures found in some photosynthetic organisms,
such as certain bacteria and algae. They play a key role in capturing light energy for
photosynthesis, allowing the organism to convert light energy into chemical energy.

A. Respiration involves energy production, but not through chromatophores.

B. Growth and Movement are not directly linked to chromatophores.

Thus, chromatophores are involved in photosynthesis.

133)

NCERT Page No. 90

134)

NCERT Page No. 90

135)

A loose sheath of glycocalyx layer is called slime layer.

137) Solution:
Here's how the canal system in sponges contributes to these functions:

A. Food collection: Sponges are filter feeders. The canal system creates water currents that
draw water into the sponge, where tiny food particles are filtered out by specialized cells.
B. Exchange of gases: The same water currents that bring in food also facilitate the exchange
of oxygen and carbon dioxide.
 C. Excretion: The canal system helps remove waste products generated by the Base sponge's
metabolism.

The correct answer is 4. All of these.

140) Explanation:
Assertion (A):
"In sponges, water enters through ostia." → True
Sponges have small pores (ostia) on their body through which water enters.

Reason (R):
"In sponges, water exits through osculum." → True
Water exits through a large opening called the osculum after circulating through the sponge.

Does (R) correctly explain (A)?

No, While both statements are true, the reason does not directly explain the entry of water
through ostia. The movement of water is due to the choanocyte-lined canal system, which is
not mentioned in (R).

Correct Answer:
Option (2) - A & R are correct 'R' is not the correct explanation of 'A'

143)

Explanation :
• Triploblastic means having three germ layers: endoderm, mesoderm, and ectoderm. These
layers give rise to different tissues and organs in the developing embryo.
• Platyhelminthes (flatworms) are considered to be the first triploblastic animals in
evolutionary history
Final Answer (4) Platyhelminthes

144)

NEW NCERT XI, Page No. # 39

145)

NEW NCERT XI, Page No. # 40

146)

NEW NCERT XI, Page No. # 38

147)

(i) Tissue absent: This is a key characteristic. The only phylum that completely lacks true
tissues is Porifera (sponges).
(ii) Internal fertilization: While sponges mostly reproduce externally, some do exhibit
 internal fertilization.
(iii) Development is indirect: Sponges have indirect development, meaning they have larval
stages that are morphologically different from the adult form.
(iv) Spongocoelate with ostia (many) and single osculum and canal system: This
perfectly describes the body plan of sponges. They have a central cavity (spongocoel) with
numerous small pores (ostia) for water.intake and a larger opening (osculum) for water
outflow. They also have a complex canal system to facilitate water flow and filter feeding.
(v) Sexes are hermaphrodite: Most sponges are hermaphroditic, meaning they possess both
male and female reproductive organs.
Based on these characteristics, especially the absence of true tissues, the phylum being
described is clearly Porifera.
Therefore, the correct answer is 2. Porifera.

148) 4. Body supported by chitin: Sponges have a skeleton, but it is made of either calcium
carbonate spicules, silica spicules, or spongin fibers (a type of collagen protein). Chitin is a
polysaccharide found in the exoskeletons of arthropods and some other invertebrates, but it is
not a component of the sponge skeleton. Therefore, the answer is 4. Body supported by
chitin.

149) Explanation:
Types of Symmetry in Animals

A. Asymmetrical → No definite shape (e:g., Sponges - Phylum Porifera).

B. Radial Symmetry → Can be divided into equal halves along multiple planes (e.g., Cnidarians
like Hydra, Jellyfish, and Echinoderms in their larval stage).
C. Bilateral Symmetry → Can be divided into two equal halves along only one plane (e.g.,
Humans, Insects, Fish, and Mammals).

So A(Hydra) is a Radially symmetrical animal and B(Crab) is Bilaterally symmetrical.

Correct answer: Option (3) 3

150)

NEW NCERT XI, Page No. # 38

151) Explanation:

A. Corals belong to the phylum Coelenterata (Cnidaria) and are classified under the class
Anthozoa.
B. They are marine, sessile organisms that form large coral reefs by secreting calcium carbonate
(CaCO3) skeletons.
C. Corals exist in colonial forms, and their bodies show radial symmetry.

Correct Answer: Option (2) Coelenterata (Cnidaria)

152)

The correct answer is Option 2: Ctenophora.

Ctenophores, also known as comb jellies or sea walnuts, are a distinct phylum of marine
 animals. They are characterized by eight rows of cilia that resemble combs and are used for
locomotion.

The other options are incorrect:

A. Coelenterata: This is an older term that now encompasses two phyla: Cnidaria (jellyfish,
corals) and Ctenophora.
B. Mollusca: This phylum includes snails, clams, and octopuses.
C. Echinodermata: This phylum includes starfish, sea urchins, and sea cucumbers.

So, the correct answer is Ctenophora.

153)

NEW NCERT XI, Page No. # 41, 42

154)

NEW NCERT XI, Page No. # 40

155)

NEW NCERT XI, Page No. # 38

156)

The correct answer is 1. Ctenophora.

• Ctenophora (comb jellies): Ctenophores exhibit radial symmetry, meaning their body
parts are arranged around a central axis, like the spokes of a wheel.

157)

Explanation:
Members of the phylum Annelida possess a true coelom, which is a body cavity completely
lined by mesoderm.
Here’s a quick breakdown of the other options:

A. Aschelminthes: These are pseudocoelomates, meaning their body cavity is not fully lined by
mesoderm.
B. Ctenophora: These are acoelomates, lacking a true coelom.
C. Platyhelminthes: Also acoelomates, they do not have a body cavity.

The correct answer is Annelida.

158)

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159)
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161)

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163)

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165)

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166)

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167)

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168)

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169) NCERT Pg. # 48

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 171)

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172) NCERT XI Pg. # 47

173) NCERT XI (E) Pg # 48

174)

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175)

Explanation:

A. Radial symmetry occurs when any plane passing through the central axis of the body divides
the organism into two identical halves.
B. This type of symmetry is commonly seen in animals like coelenterates (e.g., jellyfish),
ctenophores, and adult echinoderms.

Correct option: (3)

176)

NEW NCERT XI, Page No. # 38

177)

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178)

NCERT Pg.#48 Para-4.1.4 Fig.#4.3(a)

179)

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180)

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