08-06-2025

1803CMD303002250005 MD

PHYSICS

1) 1 + + + + ...... ∞ =

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) The value of x on solving the quadratic equation 2x2 – 7x + 5 = 0 is :-

(1)
and 1

(2)
and 1

(3)
and 1

(4)
and – 1

3)
If radius R = 9m and angle θ = 120° then find are length S = ?

(1) 1080 m
(2) 13.33 m
(3) 6πm
(4) 9m

4)

Which of following can be correct for any value of θ :-

(1) sin θ = –2
(2) cos θ = 2
(3) tan θ = 1000
(4) All

5) The slope of straight line is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4) 3

6) If –3x – 5y = 15 then y – x graph is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7)

If y = 2x3 – 12x2 + 36, then for minimum value of y is :

(1) x=0
(2) x = 4
(3) x =1
(4) None

8) If y = esin x, then =?

(1) –cos x . esin x

(2) ecos x
(3) e–cos x
(4) None of these
9)

The maximum value of y = sin x cos x is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) If y = 5x2 – 2x then value of x for which, y is minimum is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) If y = sin2x + cos2x, then is :-

(1) 2sin x + 2cos x

(2) 1
(3) 0
(4) 2sin x – 2cos x

12) The value of shaded area is :-

(1) 1
(2) –1
(3) 2
(4) –2

13)
(1) 7
(2) 9
(3) x3 + 6
(4) 3

14) Maximum value of 5 sinθ – 12 cosθ is:-

(1) 13
(2) 5
(3) 12
(4) None

15) Solution of 7x2 + 8x – 12 = 0 is :

–2,
(1)

(2)
2,

(3)
2,
–2,
(4)

16) (1+x)–n, where x << 1, can be written as :-

(1) 1 + nx
(2) 1 – nx
(3) x + n
(4) x – n

17)

The value of sin (300°) :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) Value of sin 1° is approximately equal to:-

(1) 1
(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

19) Graph of 4x2 + 4y2 = 16 can be given by is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20)

Evaluate =

(1) –5 sin (5x – 3) + c

(2) 5 sin (5x – 3) + c

(3)
– sin (5x – 3) + c

(4)
sin (5x – 3) + c

21) A clock shows 5 O' clock, how much angle between its minute and hour needles make ?

(1) 150°
(2) 120°
(3) 100°
(4) 90°

22) log10(1000)1/3 = ?

(1) 3

(2)
(3) 1
(4) –1

23) Calculate the distance between two points (0, –1, 1) and (3, 3, 13) : –

(1) 5
(2) 12
(3) 13
(4) 17

24) Given a function . What is rate of change in y with respect to x when x = 1 ?

(1) Zero
(2) 1
(3) 1.5
(4) –1.5

25) Which of the following equation is the best representation of the given graph ?

(1) y = x2
(2) x = y2
(3) y = ex
(4) y = x

26) Which of two following graph is the best representation for the given equation.
y = sinx

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

27)

(1) t4 + t3 – t2 – t–2 + c

(2)

(3)

(4)

28)

Find the value of

(1) 5
(2) 6
(3) 3
(4) 2

29) The unit vector along a vector is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) Which is a vector quantity :-

(1) Angular acceleration

(2) Electric potential
(3) Electric current
(4) Refractive index

31) The magnitude of vector is :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

32) Which of following statements is/are correct :-

(1) angle between parallel vectors is zero

(2) angle between antiparallel vectors is 180°
(3) parallel vectors have same unit vector and antiparallel vectors have opposite unit vector
(4) All

33) The vector makes 120° with the x-axis and the vector makes 30° with the x-axis. What is
magnitude their resultant ?

(1) P + Q
(2) P – Q

(3)

(4)

34) Two vectors and lie in a plane, another vector lies outside this plane, then the resultant of
these three vectors i.e. :

(1) Can be zero

(2) Cannot be zero
(3) Lies in the plane containing &

(4) Lies in the plane containing &

35) If then -

(1) is parallel to
(2)
(3)
(4) and are mutually perpendicular

36) The resultant of two equal forces is double of either forces. Angle between them is :
(1) 120°
(2) 90°
(3) 60°
(4) 0°

37) Which of the following is not essential for the three vectors to produce zero resultant ?

(1) The resultant of any two vectors should be equal and opposite to the third vector
(2) They should lie in the same plane
(3) They should act along the sides of a parallelogram
(4) It should be possible to represent them by the three sides of triangle taken in order

38) If = 2 and = and angle between and is 30°, then resultant will be :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

39) What should be added to the sum of vectors and so that the resultant is a
unit vector along the x-axis ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

40) If the direction of cosines of the vector are :-

(1)
and

(2)
and

(3)
and

(4)
and

41) If = 100 and it is making 37° with negative x-axis and 53° with positive y-axis then write it in
the form of :-

= 80 – 60
(1)
(2) = –80 + 60
= –80 – 60
(3)

(4) = –60 + 80

42) The angle made by the vector with x-axis is :-

(1) 90°
(2) 45°
(3) 22.5°
(4) 30°

43) Given that A = B. What is the angle between and ?

(1) 30°
(2) 60°
(3) 90°
(4) 180°

44) One of the two rectangular components of velocity of 80 km/h is 40 km/h. What is the other
component ?

(1) 40 km/h
(2) 69.28 km/h
(3) 89.44 km/h
(4) 120 km/h

45)

Three forces are acting on a body to make resultant force zero. Which set can do it without any of
the angle between forces being 0° or 180°?

(1) 3N, 3N, 7N

(2) 10N, 8N, 2N
(3) 3N, 3N, 6N
(4) 6N, 7N, 8N

CHEMISTRY

1) Atomic No. of Pd is 46. In the same group atomic no. of elements placed above and below Pd will
be :-

(1) 36, 66
(2) 28, 78
(3) 38, 68
(4) 28, 64

2) Elements A and B with their respective electronic configurations 3d104s1 and 4d105s1 in their
outermost shell are :

(1) Both coinage metals

(2) Both non-metals
(3) A is a non-metal and B is coinage metal
(4) A is a coinage metal and B is non-metal

3) Elements upto atomic no. 112 have been discovered till now. What will be the electronic
configuration of the element possessing atomic no. 108 :-

(1) [Rn]5f14 6d6 7s2

(2) 6f14 7d8 7s2
0
(3) [Rn] 5f14 6d8 7s
(4) [Xe] 4f14 5d8 6s2

4) An element having electronic configuration as 54[Xe]4f14, 5d10, 6s2 6p4 will be present in –

(1) 6th period, 4th group, d-block

(2) 6th period, 2nd group, s-block
(3) 6th period, 3rd group, f-block
(4) 6th period, 16th group, p-block

5) The group no. and period no. of element having atomic no. 93 will be respectively

(1) 7, 3
(2) 3, 6
(3) 6, 3
(4) 3, 7

6) As per Slater What will be the Zeff for K atom, if value of Zeff for Na is X :-

(1) X + 0.35
(2) X – 0.35
(3) X + 0.65
(4) X

7) 3 students (x, y & z) measured atomic radius for an atom in different conditions and they found
values as:-

Students X Y Z
 Radius
80 pm 100 pm 155 pm
Calculated
Their instructor told them, that their values are correct but type of radii are different for an atom.
Their radii respectively are:-
X Y Z

(1) Rcovalent Rvanderwall RMetallic

(2) RMetallic Rcovalent RVanderwall

(3) Rcovalent RMetallic RVanderwall

(4) RVanderwall Rcovalent RMetallic

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

8)

Identify the correct order of the size of the following :

(1) Ca2+ < K+ < Ar < Cl– < S2–

(2) Ar < Ca2+ < K+ < Cl– < S2–
(3) Ca2+ < Ar < K+ < Cl– < S2–
(4) Ca2+ < K+ < Ar < S2– < Cl–

9)

Which of the following order of radii is incorrect -

(1) Sc < Y < La

(2) Ti < Zr ≈ Hf
(3) Al < Ga < In
(4) He < Ne < Ar

10) From the given set of species, point out the species from each set having least atomic radius:-
(1) O–2, F–, Na+
(2) Ni, Cu, Zn
(3) Li, Be, Mg
(4) He, Li+, H–
Correct answer is :-

(1) O–2, Cu, Li, H–

(2) Na+, Ni, Be, Li+
(3) F–, Zn, Mg, He
(4) Na+, Cu, Be, He
11) Statement-1: The first ionization energy of Be is greater than that of B.
Statement-2: 2p-orbital is lower in energy than 2s-orbital.

(1) Statements 1 and 2 are true. Statement 2 is the correct explanation for statement 1.
(2) Statements 1 and 2 are true. Statement 2 is not the correct explanation for statement 1.
(3) Statement 1 is correct, statement 2 is incorrect.
(4) Statement 1 is incorrect, statement 2 is correct.

12) Successive ionisation energies of an element 'X' are given below (in K. Cal)

IP1 IP2 IP3 IP4

165 195 556 595

Electronic configuration of the element 'X' is :–
(1) 1s2, 2s22p6, 3s23p2
(2) 1s2, 2s1
(3) 1s2, 2s22p2
(4) 1s2, 2s22p6, 3s2

13) Nitrogen has lower electron affinity than its preceeding element carbon because :

(1) Electron affinity decreases along a period

(2) Electron affinity generally increases along a period
(3) Nitrogen atom has half-filled p-subshell
(4) Nitrogen is a p-block element

14) IP of an element 'X' is 'A' and electron affinity of this element is 'B'. Correct statements
regarding A and B is :-

(1) A = B
(2) A > B
(3) A < B
(4) IP of X+ = EA of X

15) The element having very high IP but zero EA is :-

(1) H
(2) F
(3) He
(4) Be

16) In which of the following process, most energy is required : ––

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

17) Which of the following has maximum EA, EN and I.P. respectively ?
(A) A = 1s2, 2s2, 2p6
(B) B = 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p5
(C) C = 1s2, 2s2, 2p5
(D) D = 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s1

(1) A, B, D
(2) B, C, A
(3) B, A, C
(4) C, B, D

18) The pair with minimum difference in electronegativity is :-

(1) F, Cl
(2) C, H
(3) P, H
(4) Na, Cs

19) Electronic configuration of elements A, B, C and D are given which is least electro negative:-

(1) A–1s2 2s2 2p3

(2) B–1s2 2s2 2p1
(3) C–1s2 2s2 2p5
(4) D–1s2 2s2 2p4

20) Which of the following element will form most stable bivalent anion.

(1) Fluorine
(2) Oxygen
(3) Chlorine
(4) Nitrogen

21) The pair of amphoteric hydroxide is

(1) Al(OH)3 , LiOH

(2) Be(OH)2 , Mg(OH)2
(3) B(OH)3 , Be(OH)2
(4) Be(OH)2 , Zn(OH)2

22) Lanthanide contraction will have influence when we compare size of :-

(1) Zr & Hf
(2) Li & Na
(3) Mg & Ca
(4) Si & Ge

23) Which of the following sequence represents atomic number of only representative elements?

(1) 55, 12, 42, 53

(2) 13, 33, 54, 83
(3) 3, 27, 53, 87
(4) 22, 33, 55, 66

24) After filling of 4s orbital, the filling of 3d orbitals becomes energetically favourable. the 10
elements related to 3d filling are termed as :

(1) Representative elements

(2) Normal elements
(3) Transition elements
(4) Inner transition elements

25) The ionic radii of N3–, O2– and F– are respectively given by :

(1) 1.36, 1.40, 1.71

(2) 1.36, 1.71, 1.40
(3) 1.71, 1.40, 1.36
(4) 1.71, 1.36, 1.40

26) Which of the following element have highest atomic size :

(1) He
(2) Xe
(3) Ne
(4) Ar

27) The correct values off ionisation energies (in kJ mol–1) of Be, Ne, He and N respectively are :

(1) 786, 1012, 999, 1256

(2) 1012, 786, 999, 1256
(3) 786, 1012, 1256, 999
(4) 786, 999, 1012, 1256

28) The size of the species, Pb, Pb2+, Pb4+ decreases as :

(1) Pb4+ > Pb2+ > Pb

(2) Pb > Pb2+ > Pb4+
(3) Pb > Pb4+ > Pb2+
(4) Pb4+ > Pb > Pb2+

29) Which of the following sets of atomic numbers corresponds to elements of group 16 ?
(1) 8, 16, 32, 54
(2) 16, 34, 54, 86
(3) 8, 16, 34, 52
(4) 10, 16, 32, 50

30) The atomic numbers of the metallic and non–metallic elements which are liquid at room
temperature respectively are:

(1) 55, 87
(2) 33, 87
(3) 35, 80
(4) 80, 35

31) If the aufbau principle had not been followed, Ca (Z = 20) would have been placed in the :

(1) s-block
(2) p-block
(3) d-block
(4) f-block

32) Select the pair in which the 1st ionization energy is greater for the 2nd element compared to 1st
element.

(1) Be, B
(2) C, B
(3) C, N
(4) N, O

33) The correct order of ionization energy is

(1) K+ > Ca2+ > Cl– > S2–

(2) Cl– > K+ > Ca2+ > S2–
(3) Cl– > S2– > K+ > Ca2+
(4) Ca2+ > K+ > Cl– > S2–

34) The first five ionization energies of an element are 9.1, 16.2, 24.5, 35 and 205.7 eV respectively.
Then number of valence electron in the given atom is

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

35) Atomic number 109 has IUPAC nomenclature

(1) Unnilhexium
(2) Unnilseptium
(3) Unnilnonium
(4) Unnilennium

36) Correct order of EA is :

(1) Ne < Be < B < C < O < F

(2) Ne < Be < N < F < O < C
(3) N < Be < Ne < B < C < O
(4) Ne < Be < N < C < O < B

37) Which will have the maximum value of electron affinity Ox, Oy, Oz [x , y and z respectively are
0, –1 and –2] ?

(1) Ox
(2) Oy
(3) Oz
(4) All have equal

38) Which is exothermic :-

(1) Cl2 → 2Cl

(2) Cl + e– → Cl–
(3) Cl → Cl+ + e–
(4) All of above

39) Which of the following process involves absorption of energy?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) None of these

40) Which of the following will have the most negative electron gain enthalpy and which the least
negative ?

(1) F, Cl
(2) Cl, F
(3) Cl, S
(4) Cl, P

41) The formation of the oxide ion O2–(g) requires first an exothermic and then an endothermic step
as shown below :-
O(g) + e– → O–(g); ΔH° = –142 kJ mol–1
O–(g) + e– → O2–(g); ΔH° = +844 kJ mol–1
This is because:

(1) Oxygen is more electronegative

(2) Oxygen has high electron affinity
(3) O– ion has comparatively larger size than oxygen atom
(4) Electron repulsion outweighs the stability gained by achieving noble gas configuration

42) Find the correct order of EA.

(1) Cl > F > S > O

(2) S > O > P < N
(3) Si > C > P < N
(4) Si < C > P > N

43) Which one of the following oxides is neutral ?

(1) CO
(2) SnO2
(3) ZnO
(4) SiO2

44) Aqueous solution of two compound M1 –O–H & M2 –O–H are prepared in two different beakers. If
EN of M1 = 3.4, M2 = 1.2, O = 3.5 & H = 2.1. Then nature of solution will be respectively.

(1) Acidic, Basic

(2) Acidic, Acidic
(3) Basic, Acidic
(4) Basic, Basic

45) Which is the correct order of ionization energies?

(1) F– > F > Cl– > Cl

(2) F > Cl > Cl– > F–
(3) F– > Cl– > Cl > F
(4) F– > Cl– > F > Cl

BIOLOGY

1) Given below are two statements -

Statement-I :- In plants, the tonoplast facilitates the transport of a number of ions and other
materials against concentration gradient into the vacuole.
Statement-II :- Golgi apparatus is the important site for the formation of glycoproteins and
glycolipids.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below -

(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct

(2) Both statement I & statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

2) Which is not a feature w.r.t. given diagram of mitochondria (as indicated in diagram) :-

(1) A → continuous limiting boundary.

(2) B → Forms number of folding called cisternae.
(3) A & B → both having own specific enzyme.
(4) C → site of Krebs's cycle

3) Membrane bound vesicular structure which contain digestive acid hydrolases are formed by :-

(1) Centrosome
(2) Golgi bodies
(3) Peroxisome
(4) Nuclear envelopes

4) Which of the following is not the function of cell wall :-

(1) Gives shape to the cell.

(2) Protects from mechanical damage and infection.
(3) Regulates the transport of the molecules across it.
(4) Helps in a cell to cell interaction.

5) Which among the following structure help in the motility of Prokaryotic cell?
(A) Pili
(B) Flagella
(C) Fimbriae
(D) Cilia

(1) B, C
(2) B, C, D
(3) AB
(4) Only B

6) Contractile vacuole is important for excretion in :-

(1) Chlamydomonas
(2) Amoeba
(3) Fungi
(4) All plants cells

7) When glycocalyx is thick and tough it is called :-

(1) Capsule
(2) Slime mold
(3) Slime layer
(4) Cell membrane

8) Function which is not associated with mesosome :-

(1) DNA replication

(2) Secretion
(3) Respiration
(4) Photosynthesis

9) Densely stained reticular structures near the nucleus :-

(1) Golgi apparatus

(2) E.R.
(3) Lysosome
(4) Vacuole

10) Which one is odd w.r.t endomembrane system?

(1) ER
(2) Lysosome
(3) Golgi complex
(4) Peroxisome

11) (a) Site of formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids

(b) Packaging of materials
(c) Cell secretion
(d) Formation of plasma membrane during cytokinesis
Above given features are related to

(1) Endoplasmic reticulum

(2) Lysosome
(3) Golgi complex
(4) Ribosome

12) Match the column I with column II.

 Column I Column II

i. Calcium and magnesium

(a) Fungal cell wall
pectate

(b) Na+.K+ pump ii. Polymer of N-

in animal cells acetylglucosamine

(c) Middle lamella iii. Quasi-fluid nature

(d) Plasma membrane iv. Uphill movement

(1) (a) – i, (b) – iv, (c) – ii, (d) – iii
(2) (a) – ii, (b) – iv, (c) – i, (d) – iii
(3) (a) – ii, (b) – iii, (c) – iv, (d) – i
(4) (a) – i, (b) – iii, (c) – ii, (d) – iv

13) In plant cells Golgi apparatus is called

(1) Heterophagosome
(2) Diplosome
(3) Sphaerosome
(4) Dictyosome

14) In mitochondria most of the enzymes for TCA cycle are found in

(1) Inner membrane

(2) Outer membrane
(3) Perimitochondrial space
(4) Matrix

15) Read the following statements and select the correct option.
Statement A : Cell wall protects cells from mechanical injury.
Statement B : In human being, cell membrane of RBC has approximately 40% protein and 52%
lipids.

(1) Only statement A is correct

(2) Only statement B is correct
(3) Both statements are correct
(4) Both statements are incorrect

16) Gas vacuoles are found in

(1) All eukaryotes

(2) Cyanobacteria
(3) Only in fungi
(4) Only in plants

17) Plant cells different from animal cells because of:-

(1) The presence of cell wall and absence of centriole in higher plant cell
(2) The presence of cell wall and chlorophyll in plant cell
(3) The absence of centriole and vacuole in plant cell
(4) (1) & (2) both

18) Which face of Golgi apparatus receives vesicles from endoplasmic Reticulum ?

(1) Trans
(2) Cis
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(4) Face associated with ribosome

19) Which of the following pairs is correct?

(1) Matthias schleiden – Zoology

(2) Theodore schwann – Botany
(3) Rudolf virchow – Cork cell
(4) Anton Von-Leeuwenhoek – First Described a live cell

20) Assertion :- All the organelles of eukaryotic cells are surrounded by either single or double
membrane.
Reason :- In eukaryotic cell none of cell organelle can work and exist without membrane.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

21) Select the odd one w.r.t lysosomes:

(1) Contain hydrolytic enzymes

(2) Show polymorphism
(3) Are not bounded by any membrane
(4) Formed by Golgi apparatus

22) Read the following statements and select the correct option.
Statement A: Chromatophores are found in some bacteria.
Statement B: Chromatophores help in photosynthesis

(1) Only statement A is correct

(2) Only statement B is correct
(3) Both statement A and B are correct
(4) Both statement A and B are incorrect

23) Mark the incorrect statement about plasma membrane:

(1) Singer and Nicolson proposed fluid mosaic model
(2) It is composed of lipids that are arranged in a bilayer
(3) Passage of substances across cell membrane occurs by passive transport only
(4) Protein is also a component of membrane

24) In plant cell the main arena for various types of activities is :

(1) Cytoplasm
(2) Nucleoplasm
(3) Plasma membrane
(4) Mitochondrion

25) Algal cell wall is made up of all the following materials, except :

(1) Chitin
(2) Galactans
(3) Cellulose
(4) Mannans

26) Select the function which is associated with the cell organelle of endomembrane system :

(1) Synthesis of ATP

(2) Help in protein synthesis
(3) Perform photosynthesis
(4) Storage of starch

27) Human RBC's have a size of :-

(1) 7 μm
(2) 0.5 μm
(3) 0.1 μm
(4) 0.02 μm

28) Glycocalyx can be in loose sheath as :-

(1) Slime layer

(2) Capsule
(3) Mesosome
(4) Periplasmic Space

29) All the following statements are true for golgibody except :-

(1) Convex surface of cisternae is towards nucleus.

(2) Concave surface of cisternae is towards plasma membrane
(3) Golgibody are filled with digestive enzyme
(4) Glycolipids are form in golgi body.
30) Select the correct statement from the following regarding cell membrane :-

(1) Lipids are arranged in a bilayer with polar heads towards the inner part
(2) Fluid mosaic model of cell membrane was proposed by Singer and Nicolson
(3) Na+ and K+ ions move across cell membrane by passive transport
(4) Proteins make up 60 to 70% of the cell membrane

31) Cell theory is not applicable for :-

(1) Viruses
(2) Animal
(3) plant
(4) Algae

32) Which one is correct for lysosomes:-

(1) It is nonmembranous
(2) It lacks proteases
(3) It works at lower pH than the cytoplasm
(4) It works at higher pH than the cytoplasm

33) In plant cells the vacuoles can occupy up to...... percent of the volume of the cell:-

(1) 65
(2) 55
(3) 30
(4) 90

34) An organelle which is surrounded by double membrane structure contains DNA molecule,
ribosome and also having the site for aerobic respiration is:-

(1) Chloroplast
(2) Mesosome
(3) Leucoplast
(4) Mitochondria

35) Identify the following cell organelle shown below as well as its structure and function and select

the right option for the two together:

Structure Functions
(1) Double membrane bound Protein synthesis
(2) Network of protein filaments Mechanical support
(3) Many flat, disc shaped-cisterne Glycolipids & glycoproteins synthesis
(4) Granular (Attached ribosomes) Protein synthesis
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

36) Which of the following is the largest isolated single cell ?

(1) Nerve cell

(2) Mycoplasma
(3) Ostrich egg
(4) RBCs

37) Match the column I, II and III, and choose the correct combination from the options given.

Column I Column II Column III

Mesophyll
a 1. K Elongated
cell

Round and
b 2. Tracheid L
biconcave

Red blood
c 3. M Amoeboid
Cells

White
Round and
d 4. blood N
oval
cells

Options :-
(1) a–3–M, b–4–L, c–1–K, d–2–N
(2) a–4–M, b–3–L, c–2–K, d–1–N
(3) a–3–L, b–4–M, c–1–N, d–2–K
(4) a–4–L, b–3–M, c–2–N, d–1–K

38) Prokaryotic ribosomes are :-

(1) 50 S
(2) 60 S
(3) 70 S
(4) 80 S
39) The number of mitochondria per cell is variable depending on the :-

(1) Size of the cells

(2) Physiological activity of the cells
(3) Shape of the cells
(4) Position of the cells

40) Smallest known cell is

(1) Acetabularia
(2) Nostoc
(3) Chlamydomonas
(4) Pleuropneumonia like organism

41) Which of the following is absent in prokaryotes?

(1) DNA
(2) RNA
(3) Plasma membrane
(4) Mitochondria

42) Mitochondria are semi-autonomous as they possess

(1) DNA
(2) DNA and RNA
(3) DNA, RNA and ribosomes
(4) protein

43) The packaging organelle of the cell is

(1) mitochondrion
(2) ribosome
(3) chloroplast
(4) Golgi body

44) Which of the following structure is the functional unit in a Golgi complex?

(1) Cristae
(2) Cisternae
(3) Thylakoid
(4) None of the above

45) Which of the following organelles has a continuous connection with outer membrane of nucleus ?

(1) Golgi apparatus

(2) Lysosome
(3) RER
(4) Mitochondria

46) The unique characteristic feature of sponges:

(1) Presence of water vascular system

(2) Presence of cnidoblast cells
(3) Presence of choanocyte cells
(4) Presence of diploblastic body

47) Identify the correct match for locomotory structure of animals :

(1) Insects – Paired jointed legs

(2) Annelids – Muscular foot
(3) Echinodermata – Parapodia
(4) Cnidarians – Comb plates

48) Psuedocoelom is found in :-

(1) Ctenophore
(2) Platyhelminthes
(3) Aschelminthes
(4) Both (2) and (3)

49) Which of the following is correctly matched ?

(1) Radial symmetry – Coelenterates

(2) Coelomates – Aschelminthes
(3) Metamerism – Molluscs
(4) Triploblastic – Sponges

50) Which of the following are examples of Arthropoda ?

(1) Silver fish, Star fish and Prawn

(2) Earthworm, Apple snail and Honey bee
(3) Sea hare, Tongue worm and Scorpion
(4) Cockroach, Scorpion and Prawn

51) All are hermaphrodites animals in which of the following sets of animals ?

(1) Pheretima, Taenia, Sycon, Ascaris

(2) Euspongia, Ctenoplana, Ascaris, Nereis
(3) Sycon, Wuchereria, Pleurobrachia, Ancylostoma
(4) Spongilla, Pleurobrachia, Fasciola, Hirudinaria

52) Select the correct option for Balanoglossus :-

(1) Fresh water animal
(2) True notochord is present
(3) Excretion by proboscis gland
(4) Triploblastic and circulatory system is close type

53) Diploblastic and triploblastic are terms that describe

(1) The number of invaginations during embryonic development

(2) The number of heads during embryonic development
(3) The number of germinal layers during embryonic development
(4) The number of cell types during development

54) Metagenesis means :-

(1) Polyp produce medusae asexually and medusae produce polyp sexually
(2) Polyp produce medusae sexually and medusae produce polyp sexually
(3) Polyp produce medusae asexually and medusae produce polyp asexually.
(4) Both (1) & (2)

55) The connecting link between non chordates and chordates is:

(1) Neopilina
(2) Peripatus
(3) Balanoglossus
(4) Archaeopteryx

56) Body is externally and internally divided into segments with serial repetition of atleast some
organs, this is called :-

(1) Metamorphosis
(2) Metagenesis
(3) Metamerism
(4) Metachrosis

57) The structure given below is present in which animal ?

(1) Scypha
(2) Ctenoplana
(3) Physalia
(4) Taenia

58) The property of a living organism to emit light is found in :

(1) Sycon
(2) Pleurobrachia
(3) Hydra
(4) Taenia

59) Muscular pharynx is a characteristic feature of :

(1) Taenia
(2) Hydra
(3) Ascaris
(4) Sycon

60) Sexual dimorphism is found in :-

(1) Platyhelminthes
(2) Aschelminthes
(3) Porifera
(4) Ctenophora

61) Following diagram represent which animal ?

(1) Pheretima
(2) Hirudinaria
(3) Nereis
(4) Ascaris

62) The animals of which phylum are bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic, segmented and coelomate
?
(1) Coelenterata
(2) Ctenophora
(3) Aschelminthes
(4) Arthropoda

63) Book lungs are respiratory structures of :

(1) Cockroach
(2) Limulus
(3) Scorpion
(4) Prawn

64) Parapodia are locomotary structures found in :

(1) Terrestrial annelida

(2) Aquatic annelida
(3) Parasitic annelida
(4) Aquatic arthropoda

65) Locomotion by 8 ciliary comb plates found in :

(1) Aurelia
(2) Ctenoplana
(3) Taenia
(4) Nereis

66) Out of following which is an example of organ system level ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

67) Which of the following animal is correctly matched with its phylum and characters ?

Animal Phylum Character

(1) Planaria Aschelminthes Regeneration

(2) Pleurobrachia Ctenophora Comb plate

(3) Adamsia Annelida Cnidoblast

(4) Pheretima Aschelminthes Flame cell

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

68)

How many of the following phyla exhibit both extracellular and intracellular digestion ?
Porifera, Aschelminthes, Annelida, Hemichordata, Protozoa, Ctenophora, Cnidaria.
(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4) 1

69) Assertion: The water vascular system of echinoderms helps in locomotion, capture, and
transport of food and respiration..
Reason: Echinoderms are spiny bodies animals in which development is indirect with free-
swimming larva.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

70) Identify the organism given in the figure :-

(1) Scorpion
(2) Praying Mantis
(3) Beetle
(4) Locust.

71) In which of the following phylum larvae are bilaterally symmetrical and adult are radically
symmetrical ?

(1) Mollusca
(2) Echinodermata
(3) Annelida
(4) Arthropoda

72) Circulatory system in Locusta as :-

(1) Open
(2) Closed
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Absent

73) Which is the correct order with respect to evolutionary sequence :

(1) Leucosolenia – Hydra – Amoeba – Ascaris

(2) Ascaris – Amoeba – Leucosolenia – Hydra
(3) Amoeba – Leucosolenia –Hydra –Ascaris
(4) None of these

74) '___A___' is largest phylum of animal Kingdom and 'A' have exoskeleton made of ____B____ ?
Identify 'A' and 'B'.

(1) A-Mollusca, B-CaCO3

(2) A-Arthropoda, B-Keratin
(3) A-Annelida, B-Silica
(4) A-Arthropoda, B-Chitin

75) Statement-I :- The body cavity which is lined by mesoderm is called coelom.
Statement-II :- In platyhelminthes, mesoderm is present as scattered pouches in between the
ectoderm and endoderm.

(1) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.
(3) Statement-I and II both are correct.
(4) Both statement-I and II are incorrect.

76) Select the correct statements for animal kingdom

(a) Sponges are generally marine and mostly asymmetrical.
(b) Polyps produce medusae sexually and medusa form the polyp asexually
(c) Flatworms are mostly ectoparasites.
(d) Flame cells help in osmoregulation in liver flukes.

(1) (c) (d)

(2) (a) (b)
(3) (a) (b) (c)
(4) (a) (d)

77) Assertion (A): In Planaria digestive system has only a single opening to the outside of the body.
Reason (R): Planaria possess high regeneration capacity.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

78) Statement-1 :- When any plane passing through the central axis of the body divides the
organism into two identical halves. it is called radial symmetry. Statement-2 :- Annelida,
arthropoda exhibit radial symmetry.

(1) Statement (1) and (2) both are correct

(2) Statement (1) and (2) both are incorrect
(3) Only statement (1) is correct
(4) Only statement (2) is correct
79) Mantle cavity is found between :-

(1) Mantle and shell

(2) Hump and mantle
(3) head and muscular foot
(4) Radula and muscular foot

80) Select the correct match :-

Phylum Character Animal

(1) Porifera Nephridia Spongilla

(2) Cnidaria Metagenesis Obelia

(3) Platyhelminthes Collar cells Filarial worm

(4) Annelida Radula Hirudinaria

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

81) Select the correct match :-

Phylum Feature

(1) Mollusca Parapodia

(2) Arthropoda Radula

(3) Annelida Visceral hump

(4) Echinodermata Spiny body

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

82) Gastro-vascular cavity with a single opening is found in :-

(1) Tapeworms
(2) Liver fluke
(3) Brain coral
(4) Bath sponge

83) Body divides into anterior proboscis, a collar and a long trunk. This is the feature of :

(1) Balanoglosus
(2) Amphioxus
(3) Megascolex
(4) Doliolum

84) Choose incorrect statement only from the figure given below :-

(1) Member of phylum hemichordata

The body is cylindrical, unsegmented and divided into three parts an anterior proboscis, a collar
(2)
and a long trunk.
(3) Circulatory system is closed type.
(4) Fertilisation is external and development is indirect.

85) Match the list-I with list-II.

List-I List-II

A Saccoglossus (i) Mollusca

B Anopheles (ii) Hemichordata

C Aplysia (iii) Echinodermata

D Ophiura (iv) Arthropoda

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(ii)
(2) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(iii)
(3) A-(i), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(iii)
(4) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(i)

86) Which one of the following features is not present in phylum arthropoda?

(1) Metameric segmentation

(2) Jointed appendages
(3) Chitenous exoskeleton
(4) Mostly monoecious

87) Which of the following is not a character of phylum Hemichordata?

(1) Presence of Notochord

(2) Excretory organ is proboscis gland
(3) Circulatory system is open
(4) Respiration takes place through gills

88) Body cavity is the cavity present between body wall and gut wall. In some animals the body
cavity is not lined by mesoderm. Such animals are called

(1) Acoelomate
(2) Pseudocoelomate
(3) Coelomate
(4) Haemocoelomate

89) The figure shows four animals (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the correct answer with respect to a
common characteristics of two of these animals.

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

(1) (a) & (d) have cnidoblasts for self-defence

(2) (c) & (d) have a true coelom
(3) (a) & (d) respire mainly through body wall
(4) (b) & (c) show radial symmetry

90) One of the following can’t be taken as the character of non-chordates

(1) Absence of notochord

(2) Heart is ventral
(3) Gill slits are absent
(4) Chitinous exoskeleton may present
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 1 3 3 1 1 2 4 1 2 3 4 1 1 4 2 1 2 3 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 3 3 2 1 1 3 1 3 1 2 4 3 2 4 4 3 1 2 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 2 3 2 4

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 1 1 4 4 4 3 1 3 2 3 4 3 2 3 4 2 3 2 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 1 2 3 3 2 3 2 3 4 3 3 4 3 4 1 1 2 2 4
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 1 1 1 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 1 2 2 3 4 2 1 4 1 4 3 2 4 4 1 2 4 2 4 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 3 3 1 1 2 1 1 3 2 1 3 4 4 3 3 3 3 2 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 3 4 2 3 3 1 3 1 4 4 3 3 1 3 3 3 2 3 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 4 3 2 2 4 2 3 2 4 2 1 3 4 1 4 1 3 2 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 3 1 3 2 4 1 2 2 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

2) 2x2 – 7x + 5 = 0 2x2 – 2x – 5x + 5 = 0
2x(x – 1) – 5 (x – 1) = 0
(x – 1) (2x – 5)

x = 1 and x =

3)

4)

choose options according to Range.

5)

slope = m =

6)
– 3x – 5y = 15
5y = – 3x – 15

y=

Here :- c = –3

7)
y = 2x3 – 12x2 + 36

For maxima or minima :-

6x2 – 24 x = 0
6x(x – 4) = 0
x = 0 and x = 4

at x = 0 ⇒ = – 24 < 0 → maxima

at x = 4 ⇒ = 24 > 0 → minima

8)

9)

10)

x=

At x = , y is minimum

ymin =

11) Explain - find

Concept - Differentation
Formula

Calculation
=

12) =

= –1–1
= –2

13)
=8–1=7

14)

Let y = 5sinθ – 12 cosθ

Compare with asinθ + bcosθ,
Maximum value =

= =13

15)

16) 1. Explanation (30 words): We are asked to find the binomial expansion approximation
for The binomial expansion helps approximate powers of binomials.
2. Concept (20 words):
For large values of, the binomial expansion of (1 + x)-n simplifies to an approximation involving
powers of x.
3. Formula:
The binomial expansion for (1 + x)- n :

4. Calculation (Minimum Steps):

For we use the binomial approximation:
(for large x)

17)

Concept:
Quadrants and Signs: The sine function is positive in the first and second quadrants and
negative in the third and fourth quadrants.
Mathematical Calculation:
1. Locate 300°: An angle of 300° lies in the fourth quadrant.
2. Find the reference angle: The reference angle for 300° is 360° - 300° = 60°.
3. Determine the sign: Since 300° is in the fourth quadrant, where the sine function is
negative, sin(300°) will be negative.
4. Evaluate: We know that sin(60°) = √3/2. Therefore, sin(300°) = sin(360-60°) = -sin(60°)= -
√3/2
Final Answer:

The value of sin(300°) is

option 1
Question Level: Easy

18)

sin 1° = sin
for angle to be small

19)

Concept Based:

This equation represents a circle. By simplifying the equation, we can check if it matches the
standard forms of a circle's equation x2 + y2 = r2.

Formula Used:

The standard equation for a circle x2 + y2 = r2.

Calculation:

Given 4x2 + 4y2 = 16, divide both sides by 4:

x2 + y2 = 4
This is the standard form of the equation of a circle with radius r = 2, centered at the origin.
Thus, the graph of the given equation is a circle with radius 2, cetered at the origin.

20) 1. Question Explanation :

We are asked to evaluate the integral of cos(5x – 3)dx and find the correct result among the
given options.
2. Concept used :
trigonometric function with a linear expression inside the cosine function.
3. Formula Used :
The integral of cos(ax + b) dx is given by :

where a is the coefficient of x inside the cosine, and b is a constant.

4. Calculation :
Comparing with the standard from :
Here α = 5, b = –3
Applying the formula:

Final Answer :

Option (4) :

21)
For one hour angle between hour hand and minute hand = 30°.

22)

B. Concept:

A. Logarithms: Logarithms are the inverse of exponents.

B. Properties of Logarithms:

A. log_b(b^x) = x

B. (log_b(x))^a = a * log_b(x)

C. Formulae:

A. log_b(b^x) = x

D. Calculation:

A. Evaluate log10(1000): log10(1000) = 3 (since 10^3 = 1000)

 B. Apply the exponent: 3^(1/3) = 1

E. Final Answer:

log10(1000)^(1/3) = 1 option 1

23)

24)

25)

B. Concept:

A. Visual Recognition of Basic Functions: Identifying the shape and characteristics of

common graphs like linear, quadratic, exponential, and square root functions.

C. Formulae:

A. Linear: y = mx + b

B. Quadratic: y = ax²

C. Exponential: y = a^x

D. Square Root: y = √x

D. Calculation/Analysis:

A. Shape: The graph resembles a curve that starts at the origin and increases at an
increasing rate. This shape is characteristic of a quadratic function.its behaviour is
quadratic as y = ax²
 2. Behavior: The graph is always positive (above the x-axis) for both positive and negative
x-values.

E. Final Answer:

The best representation of the given graph is y = x².

26)

Conceptual.

27)

= +c

28) = Area under y - x graph

area = (5 × 1) + (1 × 5) – (1 × 5) = 5

29)

By theory

30) (1) Asking About

We are asked to identify the vector quantity among the given options.

(2) Concept:

A. A vector quantity has both magnitude and direction.

B. A scalar quantity, on the other hand, has only magnitude without any associated direction.

Let's analyze each option:

1. Angular acceleration: It is a measure of the rate of change of angular velocity and has both
magnitude and direction. Hence, it is a vector quantity.
2. Electric potential: It is a scalar quantity because it only has magnitude and no direction.
3. Electric current: While it has a direction, it is considered a scalar quantity because it does not
obey vector addition laws.
4. Refractive index: It is a scalar quantity as it is simply a ratio of speeds (speed of light in vacuum
to speed in the medium) and has no direction.
(3) Formula:
For Angular Acceleration (α):
where:

A. = Change in angular velocity

B. = Change in time

This confirms angular acceleration is a vector, as it depends on the direction of angular velocity.

(4) Solution/Explanation:
From the analysis above:

A. Angular acceleration (1) is a vector quantity because it has magnitude and direction.
B. The other options (2, 3, 4) are scalar quantities because they lack direction or do not obey
vector addition rules.

(5) Final Answer:

Option 1: Angular acceleration

31)

Explain:
Find the magnitude of the vector 2i + 4j + 5k.

Concept: Pythagorean theorem.

Formula: Magnitude of vector ai + bj + ck =

Calculation: Magnitude =
Magnitude =
Magnitude =
Magnitude =

Hence, option (2) is correct.

32)

Theory Based
All options are correct.

33)
So,
34)

Resultant of and will also lie in same plane as them so this resultant can no be opposite to
as does not lie in same plane as and
So,
can not be zero.

35)
⇒ θ = 90°

36)

R = 2A Given
So, = 0°

37) For the three vectors to produce zero resultant it is not mandatory for them to act along
the sides of a parallelogram.

38)

Resultant

39)

Let is added,
Now,

40)
 41)

42)
x axis =

cosθ =

43)
take and

So,
and

44)

vy = = 69.28 km/h

45)

For and , equilibrium is possible when

A+B>C>A–B

CHEMISTRY

56)

The first ionization energy of Be is greater than that of B and Energy of 2p-orbital is higher
than 2s-orbital.
 59)

IP > EA
of of
X X

63)

NCERT Pg # 88

66)

Amphoteric compounds are those which behaves both as an acid and base.
Many metals such as copper, tin, zinc, lead, aluminium, beryllium form amphoteric oxides or
hydroxides.

BIOLOGY

91) NCERT XI Page No. 96

93)

NCERT pg # 134

95)

NCERT pg # 129

96)

NCERT pg # 134

97)

NCERT pg # 128

99)

NCERT pg # 132

104)

XI NCERT Pg. # 97
 109)

Correct Answer: 4 — Anton Von Leeuwenhoek – First Described a live cell

Explanation: Anton Von Leeuwenhoek was the first to observe and describe a live cell
(like bacteria and protozoa) using a simple microscope.

110)

Correct Answer: 3 — Assertion is True but the Reason is False

Explanation:

A. Assertion is True: In eukaryotic cells, organelles like nucleus, mitochondria, chloroplasts

have double membranes, while others like ER, Golgi, lysosomes, peroxisomes have
single membranes.

B. Reason is False: Some organelles like ribosomes and centrosomes lack membranes but
still function effectively.

Hence, Assertion is correct, but Reason is incorrect.

112)

Correct Answer: 3 — Both statement A and B are correct

Explanation:

A. Statement A: Chromatophores are photosynthetic structures found in some bacteria like

cyanobacteria and purple sulfur bacteria.

B. Statement B: These structures contain pigments and enzymes needed for

photosynthesis.

So, both statements are correct.

115)

NCERT XI Eng. Page # 132

NCERT XI िहदी पे ज # 133

117) NCERT Pg #127

118) NCERT Pg #128

119)

Correct Answer: 3 — Golgi body are filled with digestive enzymes

 Explanation:

A. Option 3 is incorrect: The Golgi body is not filled with digestive enzymes; that’s the role
of lysosomes, which bud off from the Golgi.

Thus, Option 3 is the statement that is not true for the Golgi body.

121) The correct answer is: 1. Viruses Explanation: Cell theory states that all living
organisms are composed of cells, and all cell functions occur within cells. However, viruses do
not follow this principle because they are not made of cells. They are without cell and cannot
carry out life processes independently; they require a host cell for replication. Therefore, cell
theory is not applicable to viruses.

123) Asking about: The percentage of a plant cell's volume that can be occupied by the
vacuole.
Concept: Plant cell structure, vacuoles, and their function in water storage and turgor
pressure.
Solution: Plant cell vacuoles can significantly expand, particularly in mature cells, to store
water, ions, and other molecules. This expansion can occupy a large portion of the cell's
internal space.
Answer: 4, 90

126) NCERT Pg#127

127) NCERT-XI (E) Pg#127, Fig-8.1

128)

NCERT XI Page # 91, 8.4.2

136) NCERT (XI) Pg# 40

137)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 44

138) NCERT Pg. # 48

139) NCERT XI Pg. # 41

140) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 53

141) Explanation:
 A. Hermaphrodites have both male and female reproductive organs.
B. Spongilla (Sponge), Pleurobrachia (Ctenophore), Fasciola (Liver Fluke), and
Hirudinaria (Leech) are all hermaphrodites.
C. Other options contain Ascaris, Nereis, Wuchereria, or Ancylostoma, which are dioecious
(separate sexes) and incorrect.

Correct Answer:
Option (4) Spongilla, Pleurobrachia, Fasciola, Hirudinaria

142) Explanation:
Balanoglossus (a marine acorn worm) belongs to the phylum Hemichordata, which shares
characteristics with both chordates and non-chordates.

A. Balanoglossus is a marine animal, not freshwater.

B. Balanoglossus has a buccal diverticulum, which was once mistaken for a notochord but is not a
true notochord.
C. Excretion occurs through a proboscis gland, which functions similarly to a kidney.
D. Balanoglossus is triploblastic, but its circulatory system is open, not closed.

Correct Answer:
Option 3. Excretion by proboscis gland

143)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 50

144)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 50

145)

NCERT (XI) Page 54

146) NCERT Pg. # 48

147) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 41

148) NCERT Pg. # 42

149) NCERT Pg. # 43

150) NCERT Pg. # 52

151) NCERT Pg. # 43

152) NCERT Pg. # 42

153) NCERT Pg. # 53

154) NCERT Pg. # 52

155) [RATIONALISED NCERT BOOK 2024-2025]

NCERT Pg. # 42

156) NCERT Pg. # 52

157) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 51

158)

Cnidaria and cternophora show both types of digestion.

159)

NCERT XI, Page No. # 43

161) NCERT XI Pg. # 54

164) NCERT Page No. # 53, 4.2.7

165) NCERT XI Pg. # 39

166) NCERT XI Pg. No. # 49, 51

167) NCERT XI Pg. No. # 51

168) NCERT Pg. No. # 47

169) NCERT XI Pg. No. # 53

170) NCERT Pg. No. # 50

171) NCERT XI Pg. No. # 53

172) NCERT XI Pg. No. # 50

173)

NCERT XI (E) Pg. # 54

174) NCERT(XI) Pg # 54, Para-4.2.10 fig. 4.15

175) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 44,45

178) Ncert page 39.

179) (a) is tapeworm, belong to phylum platyhelminthes, are acoelomate

(b) is jelly fish (Aurelia), belonging to phylum cnidaria/coelentrata. These are also acoelomate
(c) is octopus belonging to phylum mollusca, they are schizocoelomate
(d) is scorpion belonging to phylum arthropoda, they are also schizocoelomate
Both (c) & (d) i.e. Octopus and scorpion have true coelom i.e. schizocoelomate.