Day 1: Introduction to Recruitment and Selection

1. Which of the following best describes recruitment?

a) Eliminating unsuitable candidates
b) Hiring the best employee
c) Searching and attracting candidates
d) Conducting background checks
Answer: c) Searching and attracting candidates

2. Selection is primarily focused on:

a) Advertising job openings
b) Attracting job seekers
c) Choosing the right candidate
d) Posting vacancies
Answer: c) Choosing the right candidate

3. The first step in recruitment is usually:

a) Screening
b) Job posting
c) Job analysis
d) Offer letter
Answer: c) Job analysis

4. Which function comes under staffing in HRM?

a) Recruitment and Selection
b) Budgeting
c) Sales Planning
d) Logistics Management
Answer: a) Recruitment and Selection

5. The goal of recruitment is to:

a) Train candidates
b) Increase employee turnover
c) Provide a pool of candidates
d) Hire immediately
Answer: c) Provide a pool of candidates

Day 2: Process of Recruitment and Selection

6. Which is the correct sequence in the recruitment and selection process?

a) Interview → Offer → Sourcing → Screening
b) Sourcing → Screening → Interview → Offer
c) Screening → Interview → Sourcing → Offer
d) Offer → Sourcing → Screening → Interview
Answer: b) Sourcing → Screening → Interview → Offer

7. The screening stage involves:

a) Conducting training programs
b) Background checks
c) Shortlisting suitable candidates
 d) Preparing job descriptions
Answer: c) Shortlisting suitable candidates

8. Recruitment involves activities up to:

a) Appointment letter
b) Background verification
c) Interview
d) Receiving applications
Answer: d) Receiving applications

9. Which of these is a post-recruitment activity?

a) Posting job vacancies
b) Screening resumes
c) Conducting interviews
d) Employee orientation
Answer: d) Employee orientation

10. Final selection in the recruitment process is made by:

a) HR Assistant
b) Peers
c) Top management or hiring committee
d) Clerical staff
Answer: c) Top management or hiring committee

Day 3: Difference between Recruitment & Selection

11. Recruitment is a ___ process; Selection is a ___ process.

a) Rejection; Positive
b) Negative; Positive
c) Positive; Negative
d) Final; Preliminary
Answer: c) Positive; Negative

12. Which activity involves rejecting some candidates?

a) Recruitment
b) Selection
c) Induction
d) Orientation
Answer: b) Selection

13. The primary focus of recruitment is:

a) Hiring candidates
b) Advertising products
c) Building a talent pool
d) Preparing salaries
Answer: c) Building a talent pool

14. Which of the following involves decision-making to hire the best fit?
a) Job posting
b) Selection
 c) Recruitment
d) Training
Answer: b) Selection

15. Which is true about recruitment vs selection?

a) Recruitment is compulsory, selection is optional
b) Recruitment is less important than selection
c) Selection involves choosing from the recruited candidates
d) Both are done by line managers
Answer: c) Selection involves choosing from the recruited candidates

Mixed Indirect Questions

16. A company is attracting job seekers through social media ads. This is part of:
a) Training
b) Selection
c) Recruitment
d) Orientation
Answer: c) Recruitment

17. If a candidate is rejected after an interview, the process involved is:

a) Recruitment
b) Orientation
c) Selection
d) Sourcing
Answer: c) Selection

18. Choosing one candidate from a list of qualified applicants is known as:
a) Training
b) Induction
c) Selection
d) Recruitment
Answer: c) Selection

19. Which of the following does NOT relate to recruitment?

a) Receiving applications
b) Advertising vacancy
c) Screening resumes
d) Issuing appointment letter
Answer: d) Issuing appointment letter

20. What is common to both recruitment and selection?

a) Salary processing
b) Employee welfare
c) Identifying job needs
d) Attracting candidates
Answer: d) Attracting candidates
Conceptual

21. Which of the following best differentiates recruitment from selection?

a) Recruitment is internal; selection is external
b) Recruitment involves offering the job
c) Recruitment gathers applicants; selection chooses among them
d) Selection ends with training
Answer: c) Recruitment gathers applicants; selection chooses among them

22. What does ‘negative process’ in selection mean?

a) It reduces the number of applicants
b) It avoids employee training
c) It involves negative attitude of managers
d) It increases hiring cost
Answer: a) It reduces the number of applicants

23. The major challenge in recruitment is:

a) Retaining employees
b) Finding suitable candidates
c) Terminating employees
d) Payroll processing
Answer: b) Finding suitable candidates

24. Which process includes screening, testing, and reference checks?

a) Recruitment
b) Selection
c) Induction
d) HR planning
Answer: b) Selection

25. Indirect cost in recruitment process includes:

a) Salary for HR
b) Cost of job portal
c) Loss due to vacancy
d) Offer letter printing
Answer: c) Loss due to vacancy

26. A company experiences high turnover and prepares future manpower forecasts.
This is an example of:
a) Job analysis
b) HR audit
c) Human Resource Planning
d) Workforce restructuring
Answer: c) Human Resource Planning

27. Which of the following steps would a company most likely take before
implementing HRP?
a) Onboarding checklist
b) Demand forecasting
c) Social media recruitment
 d) Salary revision
Answer: b) Demand forecasting

28. The key objective of HR planning is to:

a) Manage employee exits
b) Develop job descriptions
c) Ensure right people at right time and job
d) Conduct training sessions
Answer: c) Ensure right people at right time and job

29. Which of the following is NOT a step in the HRP process?

a) Forecasting HR supply
b) Matching supply and demand
c) Advertising on job portals
d) Monitoring and control
Answer: c) Advertising on job portals

30. A company wants to know how many engineers will retire in 2 years. This reflects:
a) Supply forecasting
b) Recruitment planning
c) Organizational restructuring
d) Budget planning
Answer: a) Supply forecasting

Day 5: Job Design

31. Which of the following is an example of job enlargement?

a) Promoting an employee
b) Assigning additional similar tasks
c) Delegating decision-making authority
d) Transferring employees to another department
Answer: b) Assigning additional similar tasks

32. A job is redesigned to add more decision-making power. This is known as:
a) Job rotation
b) Job simplification
c) Job enrichment
d) Job expansion
Answer: c) Job enrichment

33. The key goal of job design is to:

a) Improve recruitment strategy
b) Minimize pay levels
c) Enhance productivity and satisfaction
d) Avoid training costs
Answer: c) Enhance productivity and satisfaction

34. Giving employees more control over how they do their work is an example of:
a) Job analysis
b) Job specification
 c) Job enrichment
d) Job outsourcing
Answer: c) Job enrichment

35. Job design that includes variety, identity, and feedback is based on:
a) Fayol’s Principles
b) Scientific Management
c) Job Characteristics Model
d) Equity Theory
Answer: c) Job Characteristics Model

Day 6: Job Analysis

36. A manager studies the duties and conditions of a role. This is a part of:
a) Recruitment
b) Job analysis
c) Compensation
d) HRP
Answer: b) Job analysis

37. Job analysis leads to the preparation of:

a) Organizational chart
b) Salary structure
c) Job description and job specification
d) Offer letter
Answer: c) Job description and job specification

38. Which of these focuses on the qualifications and skills needed for a job?
a) Job description
b) Job specification
c) Job rotation
d) Job design
Answer: b) Job specification

39. A detailed written statement of work, responsibilities, and working conditions is:
a) Job contract
b) Job description
c) Job card
d) Work order
Answer: b) Job description

40. If an HR manager is preparing a job specification, they are likely focusing on:
a) Work schedule
b) Equipment used
c) Educational qualifications and experience
d) Job location
Answer: c) Educational qualifications and experience
Mixed Indirect Application-Based Questions

41. A startup is unsure of how many tech leads they will need in 6 months. The best
solution is:
a) Launch recruitment drive
b) Perform HR Planning
c) Create onboarding manual
d) Send job alerts
Answer: b) Perform HR Planning

42. An employee is transferred between roles every 3 months to gain new skills. This is:
a) Job specification
b) Job enrichment
c) Job rotation
d) Job analysis
Answer: c) Job rotation

43. A role demands high skill variety, task identity, and feedback. This job is likely to:
a) Increase absenteeism
b) Increase job satisfaction
c) Lower motivation
d) Be outsourced
Answer: b) Increase job satisfaction

44. Why is job analysis considered the foundation of HR functions?

a) It increases sales
b) It helps reduce HR size
c) It provides data for recruitment, training, and performance appraisal
d) It prevents resignations
Answer: c) It provides data for recruitment, training, and performance appraisal

45. In job analysis, the term ‘KSAs’ refers to:

a) Knowledge, Skills, Abilities
b) Key Salary Areas
c) Knowledge-based Software Applications
d) Key Skills Accreditation
Answer: a) Knowledge, Skills, Abilities

46. An organization promotes an internal employee to fill a vacant role. This is an

example of:
a) Outsourcing
b) External recruitment
c) Internal recruitment
d) Direct recruitment
Answer: c) Internal recruitment

47. Which of the following is NOT an internal source of recruitment?

a) Employee referral
b) Promotion
c) Transfer
 d) Internal job posting
Answer: a) Employee referral

48. A company encourages current employees to refer others for job openings. This is:
a) Internal recruitment
b) Headhunting
c) Employee referral
d) Transfer policy
Answer: c) Employee referral

49. Which recruitment source would be best during urgent expansion?

a) Transfer
b) Advertisement
c) Campus placement
d) Employee retirement
Answer: b) Advertisement

50. Recruiting through career fairs and universities is categorized under:

a) Internal sources
b) Direct hiring
c) External sources
d) Walk-ins
Answer: c) External sources

51. Which is a disadvantage of internal recruitment?

a) Longer selection process
b) Higher training costs
c) Limited pool of candidates
d) High advertising costs
Answer: c) Limited pool of candidates

52. When is external recruitment preferred?

a) For confidential internal roles
b) For niche new skills
c) When promoting employees
d) For minor transfers
Answer: b) For niche new skills

53. A company using only internal recruitment might face:

a) Increased diversity
b) Limited new ideas
c) Low morale
d) High turnover
Answer: b) Limited new ideas

54. Which source is most cost-effective in the long term?

a) Job portals
b) Campus recruitment
c) Employee promotion
d) Consultant hiring
Answer: c) Employee promotion
55. Which is an example of external recruitment?
a) Interdepartmental transfer
b) Promotion
c) Re-employment of ex-employee
d) Advertisement in newspapers
Answer: d) Advertisement in newspapers

56.
57. Day 8: Sourcing Methods

58. Which of the following is a passive sourcing method?

a) Job fair recruitment
b) Social media job posts
c) Resume database search
d) Posting on job boards
Answer: d) Posting on job boards

59. Direct sourcing usually involves:

a) Job posting in magazines
b) Collecting resumes from walk-ins
c) Actively reaching out to potential candidates
d) Attending job fairs
Answer: c) Actively reaching out to potential candidates

60. A recruiter uses LinkedIn to approach candidates. This is known as:

a) External referral
b) Social sourcing
c) Passive advertising
d) Headhunting
Answer: b) Social sourcing

61. Which method focuses on targeting candidates with very specific profiles?
a) Campus placement
b) Walk-in interviews
c) Headhunting
d) Job boards
Answer: c) Headhunting

62. The use of AI to screen candidates is an example of:

a) Manual sourcing
b) Traditional recruitment
c) Tech-driven sourcing
d) Recruitment process outsourcing
Answer: c) Tech-driven sourcing

63. Sourcing using employee networks is typically known as:

a) Internal hiring
b) Employee branding
c) Referral programs
 d) Job rotation
Answer: c) Referral programs

64. Which of the following improves sourcing reach with minimal cost?
a) Print advertisements
b) Paid LinkedIn recruiter tool
c) Company career page
d) Job fairs
Answer: c) Company career page

65. Hiring through mobile apps like Naukri or Indeed is called:

a) App sourcing
b) E-recruitment
c) Manual hiring
d) Virtual referral
Answer: b) E-recruitment

66. Which method is most suitable for mass hiring for entry-level jobs?
a) Telephonic interview
b) Internal referral
c) Walk-in interviews
d) Job portals
Answer: c) Walk-in interviews

67. Which is NOT a method of candidate sourcing?

a) Resume screening
b) Online job postings
c) Recruitment agencies
d) Social media targeting
Answer: a) Resume screening

68.
69. Day 9: Sourcing Strategies

70. What is the main purpose of a sourcing strategy?

a) To increase salary budget
b) To eliminate unfit employees
c) To plan and optimize candidate outreach
d) To finalize offer letters
Answer: c) To plan and optimize candidate outreach

71. A sourcing strategy that aligns with employer branding helps in:
a) Reducing training cost
b) Enhancing product sales
c) Attracting quality talent
d) Avoiding promotions
Answer: c) Attracting quality talent

72. Which sourcing strategy is best when targeting experienced professionals?

a) Employee onboarding
b) Direct walk-ins
 c) Campus placement
d) Professional networking
Answer: d) Professional networking

73. The focus of a talent pipeline strategy is to:

a) Terminate non-performing staff
b) Build a long-term candidate pool
c) Reduce job roles
d) Expand business units
Answer: b) Build a long-term candidate pool

74. Which of the following supports a proactive sourcing strategy?

a) Posting jobs after resignation
b) Building a candidate database before the need arises
c) Hiring from job fairs only
d) Hiring only when there's an emergency
Answer: b) Building a candidate database before the need arises

75. Sourcing metrics include all EXCEPT:

a) Time-to-hire
b) Cost-per-hire
c) Offer acceptance rate
d) Employee retirement age
Answer: d) Employee retirement age

76. A sourcing strategy that focuses on diversity aims to:

a) Hire only from rural areas
b) Promote internal bias
c) Include candidates from varied backgrounds
d) Reduce sourcing cost
Answer: c) Include candidates from varied backgrounds

77. A company creates recruitment content highlighting its work culture. This is an
example of:
a) Job sourcing
b) Employer branding
c) Job evaluation
d) Internal analysis
Answer: b) Employer branding

78. A strong employee value proposition (EVP) in sourcing strategy helps in:
a) Reducing training cost
b) Retaining low-skilled staff
c) Attracting and retaining top talent
d) Preventing employee exit
Answer: c) Attracting and retaining top talent

79. Which one is the best description of a sourcing funnel?

a) A method of posting jobs
b) Visual showing stages from sourcing to hiring
c) Process to eliminate candidates
 d) Legal document for hiring
Answer: b) Visual showing stages from sourcing to hiring

Day 10: Screening and Selection Techniques

76. What is the primary purpose of screening in recruitment?

a) Conducting background checks
b) Creating job descriptions
c) Shortlisting suitable candidates
d) Giving final offer letters
Answer: c) Shortlisting suitable candidates

77. Which of the following is the first step in the screening process?
a) Resume shortlisting
b) Technical interview
c) Medical test
d) Background verification
Answer: a) Resume shortlisting

78. In selection, which step comes immediately after screening resumes?

a) Offer letter
b) Initial interview
c) Reference check
d) Onboarding
Answer: b) Initial interview

79. Application blanks are primarily used to:

a) Assess personality
b) Perform legal verification
c) Gather standard information from applicants
d) Evaluate training needs
Answer: c) Gather standard information from applicants

80. What kind of test is often used to assess reasoning or numerical ability during
screening?
a) Psychometric test
b) Aptitude test
c) Physical test
d) Screening interview
Answer: b) Aptitude test

81. Which of the following helps in minimizing bias during screening?

a) Only HR screening
b) AI-based resume screening tools
c) Relying on referrals
d) Eliminating written tests
Answer: b) AI-based resume screening tools

82. Which technique ensures fair and structured screening of applicants?

a) Informal chats
b) Structured interview format
 c) Reference checking
d) Department transfers
Answer: b) Structured interview format

83. Screening helps in:

a) Selecting vendors
b) Reducing the candidate pool to the best-fit candidates
c) Designing compensation plans
d) Planning induction
Answer: b) Reducing the candidate pool to the best-fit candidates

84. The key difference between screening and selection is that:

a) Selection is about sourcing resumes
b) Screening is a legal process
c) Selection results in final hiring, screening is only for filtering
d) Screening is not a part of recruitment
Answer: c) Selection results in final hiring, screening is only for filtering

85. Which method is commonly used as an initial filter for large volumes of
applications?
a) In-person interview
b) Psychometric testing
c) Resume scanning
d) Performance appraisal
Answer: c) Resume scanning

Day 11: Methods of Interview

86. A method where two or more interviewers interview a candidate is called:

a) Walk-in interview
b) Exit interview
c) Panel interview
d) Telephonic interview
Answer: c) Panel interview

87. Which of the following is considered the least expensive interview method for first-
level screening?
a) Video interview
b) Face-to-face
c) Telephonic interview
d) Group discussion
Answer: c) Telephonic interview

88. The interview method used to assess how a candidate handled a past situation is:
a) Situational interview
b) Behavioral interview
c) Technical interview
d) Screening interview
Answer: b) Behavioral interview
89. Which interview method involves presenting a hypothetical scenario to the
candidate?
a) Informal interview
b) Panel interview
c) Situational interview
d) Stress interview
Answer: c) Situational interview

90. A method used to assess personality and reaction under pressure is:
a) HR interview
b) Stress interview
c) Competency interview
d) Group interview
Answer: b) Stress interview

91. An interview designed to test technical knowledge is usually conducted by:

a) HR executive
b) Technical expert or team lead
c) External consultant
d) Training department
Answer: b) Technical expert or team lead

92. What’s the key objective of a structured interview?

a) Promote creativity
b) Reduce formality
c) Maintain consistency across candidates
d) Avoid technical questions
Answer: c) Maintain consistency across candidates

93. Which method is most suitable when hiring multiple candidates simultaneously?
a) Video interview
b) Group interview
c) One-on-one interview
d) Telephonic interview
Answer: b) Group interview

94. Which type of interview may lead to inconsistency and bias?

a) Structured interview
b) Panel interview
c) Unstructured interview
d) Technical interview
Answer: c) Unstructured interview

95. The interview method ideal for shortlisting candidates in rural areas with limited
internet:
a) Zoom interview
b) Assessment center
c) Walk-in interview
d) Psychometric testing
Answer: c) Walk-in interview
Day 12: Types of Interviews

96. Which interview type aims to test real-time problem-solving using practical
exercises?
a) Structured
b) Competency-based
c) Case interview
d) Group interview
Answer: c) Case interview

97. What is the main goal of a competency-based interview?

a) Test technical skills
b) Judge academic knowledge
c) Understand past behavior for future performance
d) Evaluate physical health
Answer: c) Understand past behavior for future performance

98. Which of the following is NOT a formal interview type?

a) Walk-in
b) Panel
c) One-on-one
d) Informal discussion
Answer: d) Informal discussion

99. Which type of interview allows the employer to assess the cultural fit of the
candidate?
a) Technical
b) Behavioral
c) Group
d) Exit
Answer: b) Behavioral

100. In which type of interview are candidates judged as a team or group?

a) Stress
b) Technical
c) Group
d) Exit
Answer: c) Group Day 13: Selection Process & Offer Letter (Practical Focus)

101. An offer letter is typically issued after:

a) Resume screening
b) First interview
c) Final selection
d) Orientation
Answer: c) Final selection

102. Which of the following is NOT generally included in an offer letter?

a) Job title
b) Notice period
 c) Interview questions
d) Compensation package
Answer: c) Interview questions

103. What is the legal implication of an offer letter?

a) It binds the employee to join
b) It is a formal intent to hire
c) It replaces the appointment letter
d) It acts as a resignation letter
Answer: b) It is a formal intent to hire

104. Which term refers to the conditions of employment included in the offer
letter?
a) Employment clause
b) Terms of offer
c) Joining agreement
d) Job summary
Answer: b) Terms of offer

105. What happens if a candidate accepts the offer but does not join?
a) Company has no rights
b) It becomes a legal case automatically
c) It causes a ‘no-show’ scenario
d) Offer is automatically withdrawn after 90 days
Answer: c) It causes a ‘no-show’ scenario

106. Which clause in the offer letter helps prevent premature resignation?
a) Bonus clause
b) Induction clause
c) Notice period clause
d) Background verification clause
Answer: c) Notice period clause

107. An HR manager preparing an offer letter must ensure:

a) Grammatical accuracy
b) Alignment with company policy
c) Legal clarity and completeness
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above

108. Which software is commonly used to generate bulk offer letters in

companies?
a) Tally
b) SAP SuccessFactors
c) Canva
d) Java
Answer: b) SAP SuccessFactors

109. If a candidate negotiates salary after receiving an offer letter, HR should:

a) Cancel the offer
b) Send a revised letter (if agreed)
 c) Escalate to finance
d) Ignore the request
Answer: b) Send a revised letter (if agreed)

110. A verbal offer is legally binding if followed by:

a) Telephonic round
b) Appointment letter
c) Email confirmation
d) Internal discussion
Answer: c) Email confirmation

111.
112. Day 14: Background Investigation (Role Play Focus)

113. The primary aim of background verification is to:

a) Judge future performance
b) Cross-check academic, criminal, and job history
c) Evaluate personality traits
d) Confirm salary expectations
Answer: b) Cross-check academic, criminal, and job history

114. Which department often collaborates in background verification?

a) Marketing
b) Operations
c) Legal or third-party verification agencies
d) Sales
Answer: c) Legal or third-party verification agencies

115. Role play in background check training helps HR to:

a) Memorize data faster
b) Practice verification scenarios
c) Act like a police officer
d) Identify candidates quickly
Answer: b) Practice verification scenarios

116. Which document is MOST relevant for educational verification?

a) PAN card
b) Mark sheets or degree certificate
c) Offer letter
d) Pay slip
Answer: b) Mark sheets or degree certificate

117. Red flags during verification include all EXCEPT:

a) Job-hopping
b) Salary mismatch
c) Clean police record
d) Inconsistent dates
Answer: c) Clean police record

118. What should HR do if discrepancies are found during background checks?

a) Ignore them
 b) Delay onboarding
c) Inform hiring manager and investigate
d) Reissue appointment letter
Answer: c) Inform hiring manager and investigate

119. The term ‘dual employment’ discovered in background check means:

a) Two roles in same company
b) Working for two employers at the same time
c) Earning from shares
d) Attending two trainings simultaneously
Answer: b) Working for two employers at the same time

120. What is typically NOT verified during a background check?

a) Previous job roles
b) Blood group
c) Criminal records
d) Educational qualifications
Answer: b) Blood group

121. Background verification should ideally be completed before:

a) Probation ends
b) Interview process starts
c) Candidate joins
d) Resignation notice is issued
Answer: c) Candidate joins

122. Which verification method is fastest for checking criminal records in India?
a) Email confirmation
b) Aadhaar-based police record check
c) Manual court search
d) PAN card status
Answer: b) Aadhaar-based police record check

123.
124. Day 15: Onboarding Checklist (Practical Focus)

125. An onboarding checklist ensures:

a) All new hire documents are in place
b) Interviews are conducted properly
c) Resignation is smoothly accepted
d) Only experienced candidates are hired
Answer: a) All new hire documents are in place

126. Which of the following is NOT usually part of an onboarding checklist?

a) ID card issuance
b) Desk allocation
c) Background verification
d) Monthly review rating
Answer: d) Monthly review rating
127. The onboarding process aims to:
a) Terminate unfit candidates
b) Integrate new employees into the organization
c) Finalize probation
d) Conduct annual review
Answer: b) Integrate new employees into the organization

128. A good onboarding checklist improves:

a) Resignation rate
b) Absenteeism
c) Retention and engagement
d) Compensation benchmarking
Answer: c) Retention and engagement

129. New hire orientation is usually scheduled during:

a) Exit interview
b) Pre-offer screening
c) Initial onboarding
d) Performance appraisal
Answer: c) Initial onboarding

130. Which of these is a soft skill orientation activity during onboarding?

a) Payroll training
b) Team introduction round
c) ERP software demo
d) Login ID distribution
Answer: b) Team introduction round

131. An onboarding checklist helps HR in all EXCEPT:

a) Avoiding duplicate onboarding steps
b) Legal compliance
c) Creating training needs analysis
d) Finalizing marketing targets
Answer: d) Finalizing marketing targets

132. Which tool is most commonly used for digital onboarding checklist
management?
a) Excel sheet
b) Tally
c) Slack
d) HRMS (like Zoho People, Keka)
Answer: d) HRMS (like Zoho People, Keka)

133. If onboarding is rushed or skipped, the most likely result is:

a) Faster promotion
b) Legal issues
c) Higher early attrition
d) No impact
Answer: c) Higher early attrition
134. A practical onboarding checklist must include all EXCEPT:
a) Joining kit
b) Laptop handover
c) Performance appraisal form
d) Bank account details
Answer: c) Performance appraisal form

Day 16: Induction and Placement

131. What is the core objective of an induction program?

a) Final interview
b) Enhancing the company's public image
c) Introducing new employees to organizational culture and processes
d) Assessing competitors
Answer: c) Introducing new employees to organizational culture and processes

132. Which of the following is NOT a key element of an effective induction

program?
a) Organizational overview
b) Payroll disbursement
c) Safety and compliance training
d) Job expectations
Answer: b) Payroll disbursement

133. When is induction typically conducted?

a) After probation
b) Before issuing an offer letter
c) On or immediately after the joining date
d) During exit formalities
Answer: c) On or immediately after the joining date

134. What is meant by ‘placement’ in HR terms?

a) Hiring through a vendor
b) Assigning a specific job role to a newly joined employee
c) Posting job ads
d) Terminating employees
Answer: b) Assigning a specific job role to a newly joined employee

135. Which of the following is the best method to evaluate the success of an
induction program?
a) Feedback forms from new hires
b) Exit interview data
c) Managerial preferences
d) Number of offer letters issued
Answer: a) Feedback forms from new hires

136. Role play during induction helps in:

a) Reducing recruitment time
b) Familiarizing employees with real workplace situations
 c) Increasing technical knowledge
d) Evaluating training costs
Answer: b) Familiarizing employees with real workplace situations

137. Which department is usually most involved in the induction program?

a) Sales
b) Accounts
c) Human Resources
d) Operations
Answer: c) Human Resources

138. Which of the following statements is TRUE about placement?

a) Placement is a substitute for induction
b) Placement comes after training
c) Placement is unrelated to job fit
d) Placement is matching the right person to the right job
Answer: d) Placement is matching the right person to the right job

139. Improper induction may result in:

a) Lower onboarding cost
b) Improved salary satisfaction
c) Employee confusion and early exit
d) Better internal hiring
Answer: c) Employee confusion and early exit

140. Which strategy helps make induction more interactive?

a) Long PowerPoint lectures
b) Role-playing and group activities
c) Only policy handouts
d) Giving tests on Day 1
Answer: b) Role-playing and group activities

Day 17: Organizational Socialization

141. Organizational socialization helps new employees:

a) Create marketing strategies
b) Adjust and adapt to the organization’s values and norms
c) Prepare annual reports
d) Calculate bonus
Answer: b) Adjust and adapt to the organization’s values and norms

142. Which of the following is a goal of socialization?

a) Reduce training time
b) Improve salary negotiation
c) Promote cultural alignment and employee engagement
d) Determine job evaluation
Answer: c) Promote cultural alignment and employee engagement

143. One of the first steps in the socialization process is:

a) Performance appraisal
 b) Recruitment
c) Orientation
d) Exit interview
Answer: c) Orientation

144. Socialization tactics that involve mentors are known as:

a) Collective tactics
b) Serial tactics
c) Informal tactics
d) Passive tactics
Answer: b) Serial tactics

145. Formal onboarding programs contribute to:

a) Increased absenteeism
b) Decreased productivity
c) Higher engagement and reduced turnover
d) Frequent promotions
Answer: c) Higher engagement and reduced turnover

146. Which is an example of a “collective” socialization tactic?

a) One-on-one onboarding
b) Group orientation sessions
c) Peer-to-peer coaching
d) Personalized training
Answer: b) Group orientation sessions

147. Which of the following does NOT fall under organizational socialization?
a) Team introductions
b) Criminal record verification
c) Informal networking events
d) Peer mentoring
Answer: b) Criminal record verification

148. Socialization is most effective when:

a) It ends after one day
b) It’s ongoing and well-planned
c) It’s handled only by senior staff
d) It focuses only on rules
Answer: b) It’s ongoing and well-planned

149. New employees adapt more quickly when:

a) They are left alone to learn
b) There’s minimal supervision
c) Managers and peers support the transition
d) Training is skipped
Answer: c) Managers and peers support the transition

150. What is the outcome of a successful socialization process?

a) Low morale
b) Strong organizational commitment
c) Higher absenteeism
 d) Increased stress
Answer: b) Strong organizational commitment

Day 18: Van Maanen & Schein Model (1979)

151. Van Maanen and Schein’s 1979 model explains:

a) Methods of recruitment
b) Legal aspects of HR
c) Organizational socialization tactics
d) Payroll structures
Answer: c) Organizational socialization tactics

152. Which of the following is NOT one of the six tactics in the model?
a) Collective vs. Individual
b) Formal vs. Informal
c) Horizontal vs. Vertical
d) Serial vs. Disjunctive
Answer: c) Horizontal vs. Vertical

153. The tactic that trains new hires as a group is called:

a) Disjunctive
b) Collective
c) Informal
d) Passive
Answer: b) Collective

154. When an organization provides experienced mentors to new hires, it uses

the:
a) Disjunctive tactic
b) Serial tactic
c) Informal method
d) Passive onboarding
Answer: b) Serial tactic

155. The tactic where new hires are isolated and trained individually:
a) Individual tactic
b) Formal tactic
c) Variable tactic
d) None of the above
Answer: a) Individual tactic

156. Which tactic promotes learning through informal interactions and

observations?
a) Formal
b) Disjunctive
c) Informal
d) Random
Answer: c) Informal
 157. A variable socialization tactic is characterized by:
a) A fixed training schedule
b) Unclear timeframes and flexible timelines
c) Assigned mentors
d) Group sessions
Answer: b) Unclear timeframes and flexible timelines

158. The tactic where the learning sequence is clear and systematic is:
a) Random
b) Fixed
c) Sequential
d) Passive
Answer: c) Sequential

159. Van Maanen & Schein’s model helps HR to:

a) Prepare salary slips
b) Design socialization strategies based on organizational goals
c) Decide payroll dates
d) Manage appraisals
Answer: b) Design socialization strategies based on organizational goals

160. What’s a risk of disjunctive socialization?

a) Too much structure
b) Lack of peer support and role ambiguity
c) Excess documentation
d) Repetition of roles
Answer: b) Lack of peer support and role ambiguity

Day 19: Jones’s Model – Role Clarity & Adjustment

161. The Jones Model of socialization emphasizes:

a) Salary benchmarking
b) Employee adjustment through learning and clarity
c) Annual recruitment drives
d) Bonus negotiation strategies
Answer: b) Employee adjustment through learning and clarity

162. Role clarity in Jones’s model refers to:

a) A job's salary structure
b) Clear expectations about one’s job duties
c) Leadership structure
d) Performance bonuses
Answer: b) Clear expectations about one’s job duties

163. A lack of role clarity may lead to:

a) Improved teamwork
b) Higher absenteeism and poor performance
c) Higher retention
d) Faster onboarding
Answer: b) Higher absenteeism and poor performance
164. In the Jones Model, adjustment is influenced by:
a) Weather conditions
b) Educational qualifications
c) Role clarity, task mastery, and social integration
d) Salary range
Answer: c) Role clarity, task mastery, and social integration

165. Which of the following is TRUE according to the Jones Model?

a) Employee adjustment is not necessary
b) Adjustment happens naturally without support
c) Structured onboarding improves adjustment
d) Peer interaction slows down adjustment
Answer: c) Structured onboarding improves adjustment

166. Task mastery in the Jones model refers to:

a) Completing tasks faster than others
b) Mastery over others' work
c) Learning how to do one’s job efficiently
d) Controlling team resources
Answer: c) Learning how to do one’s job efficiently

167. The outcome of proper adjustment using Jones’s model is:

a) Job dissatisfaction
b) Cultural misfit
c) Organizational commitment and performance
d) Higher salary demand
Answer: c) Organizational commitment and performance

168. Social integration in Jones’s model means:

a) Understanding company policies
b) Aligning with co-workers and forming workplace relationships
c) Completing assigned tasks
d) Joining social media groups
Answer: b) Aligning with co-workers and forming workplace relationships

169. The Jones Model is mainly used to evaluate:

a) The finance department
b) The marketing strategy
c) New employee onboarding success
d) Job rotation programs
Answer: c) New employee onboarding success

170. Role clarity, task mastery, and social integration lead to:
a) Disengagement
b) Miscommunication
c) Successful employee adaptation
d) Lower productivity
Answer: c) Successful employee adaptation
Day 20: Self-Efficacy and Social Acceptance

171. Self-efficacy refers to:

a) Self-discipline
b) Belief in one’s ability to complete tasks successfully
c) Time management
d) External motivation
Answer: b) Belief in one’s ability to complete tasks successfully

172. Which of these boosts self-efficacy in new employees?

a) Punishment for mistakes
b) Micromanagement
c) Positive reinforcement and mentoring
d) Isolated assignments
Answer: c) Positive reinforcement and mentoring

173. High self-efficacy leads to:

a) Fear of failure
b) Reduced commitment
c) Strong motivation and resilience
d) Frequent absenteeism
Answer: c) Strong motivation and resilience

174. Social acceptance within the workplace can:

a) Be ignored in HR planning
b) Delay performance
c) Enhance employee confidence and engagement
d) Promote favoritism
Answer: c) Enhance employee confidence and engagement

175. New hires with low self-efficacy may need:

a) Limited feedback
b) Constant supervision
c) Encouragement, skill training, and manageable tasks
d) Strict penalties
Answer: c) Encouragement, skill training, and manageable tasks

176. Which of the following reflects low social acceptance?

a) Group recognition
b) Peer bonding
c) Isolation and communication barriers
d) Friendly team-building events
Answer: c) Isolation and communication barriers

177. What is a key method to improve workplace social acceptance?

a) Strict hierarchies
b) Employee grievances
c) Buddy systems and mentorship
d) No team interaction
Answer: c) Buddy systems and mentorship
178. An employee with high self-efficacy is likely to:
a) Avoid new tasks
b) Take initiative and handle challenges well
c) Reject feedback
d) Avoid teamwork
Answer: b) Take initiative and handle challenges well

179. What is the relationship between onboarding and self-efficacy?

a) No connection
b) Onboarding builds self-efficacy by reducing uncertainty
c) Onboarding reduces motivation
d) It only applies to leadership roles
Answer: b) Onboarding builds self-efficacy by reducing uncertainty

180. Which of the following is TRUE about social acceptance in onboarding?

a) It is irrelevant to job performance
b) It happens naturally for all new hires
c) Structured programs can foster acceptance faster
d) It hinders job understanding
Answer: c) Structured programs can foster acceptance faster

Day 21: Executive Onboarding + Appointment Letter (Practical)

181. Executive onboarding differs from general onboarding by focusing more on:
a) Policy training
b) Strategic alignment and leadership integration
c) Daily attendance monitoring
d) Uniform distribution
Answer: b) Strategic alignment and leadership integration

182. What is an essential feature of executive onboarding?

a) Orientation about lunch hours
b) Detailed technical training
c) Access to top leadership and board goals
d) Insurance briefings
Answer: c) Access to top leadership and board goals

183. Executive onboarding programs often include:

a) Social media training
b) IT equipment usage
c) Coaching sessions and cross-functional insights
d) Temporary placement
Answer: c) Coaching sessions and cross-functional insights

184. Failure to properly onboard an executive may result in:

a) Office rearrangement
b) Reduced leadership effectiveness and early exit
c) Payroll errors
 d) Excess training cost
Answer: b) Reduced leadership effectiveness and early exit

185. Executive onboarding supports:

a) Micro-level hiring
b) Long-term strategic contribution
c) Only HR operations
d) Intern management
Answer: b) Long-term strategic contribution

186. What document formalizes a selected candidate’s appointment?

a) Joining form
b) Offer letter
c) Appointment letter
d) Experience letter
Answer: c) Appointment letter

187. Which of the following is generally included in an appointment letter?

a) Performance review feedback
b) Date of joining and salary details
c) Internship review
d) Reference letter
Answer: b) Date of joining and salary details

188. The difference between offer and appointment letter is:

a) Offer is issued after appointment
b) Appointment is a formal joining confirmation after offer acceptance
c) Both are the same
d) Appointment letter comes before interview
Answer: b) Appointment is a formal joining confirmation after offer acceptance

189. Executive onboarding helps a leader understand:

a) Only their job duties
b) The strategic and political environment of the firm
c) Company location only
d) Bonus structure only
Answer: b) The strategic and political environment of the firm

190. Practical activity of appointment letter preparation improves:

a) Typing speed only
b) Documentation skills and HR legal knowledge
c) Sales technique
d) Internal marketing
Answer: b) Documentation skills and HR legal knowledge

Day 22: Case Study – Recruitment and Selection

191. A company hires only from a reputed B-school and ignores diverse talent
from smaller colleges. What is a potential drawback of this practice?
a) Better branding
 b) Cost-effective hiring
c) Lack of talent diversity and innovation
d) Fast onboarding
Answer: c) Lack of talent diversity and innovation

192. In a case where repeated hiring failures are reported, which function should
be audited first?
a) Payroll
b) Recruitment strategy and screening techniques
c) Marketing
d) Training programs
Answer: b) Recruitment strategy and screening techniques

193. An HR manager skips reference checks to speed up hiring. A legal issue later
arises. What was missed?
a) Employee handbook
b) Background verification
c) Performance appraisal
d) Cost reduction
Answer: b) Background verification

194. A company's interview panel consistently hires candidates similar to

themselves. This is an example of:
a) Competency hiring
b) Diversity initiative
c) Unconscious bias
d) Structured hiring
Answer: c) Unconscious bias

195. What should HR do when a candidate performs well in interviews but lacks
technical skills revealed in a case simulation?
a) Hire anyway
b) Cancel interview records
c) Reassess job fit or recommend training
d) Increase salary to motivate
Answer: c) Reassess job fit or recommend training

196. In a campus drive case study, students selected under pressure from faculty
perform poorly. What key hiring principle is violated?
a) Employer branding
b) Equal opportunity
c) Merit-based selection
d) Internal mobility
Answer: c) Merit-based selection

197. What is a lesson from a case where onboarding was skipped, and attrition
rose in 30 days?
a) Overhiring is good
b) Onboarding has no impact
c) Structured onboarding improves retention
 d) Exit interviews are wasteful
Answer: c) Structured onboarding improves retention

198. An HR team used only resume screening, not skill tests. Recruits
underperform. What is the recommendation?
a) Remove HR manager
b) Add psychometric and practical skill tests
c) Increase job posting budget
d) Extend probation
Answer: b) Add psychometric and practical skill tests

199. If a candidate excels in group discussions but performs poorly on aptitude,

HR should:
a) Select based on GD only
b) Evaluate job requirement alignment with skills
c) Hire without tests
d) Reject immediately
Answer: b) Evaluate job requirement alignment with skills

200. In a start-up case study, what is a risk of skipping formal selection

processes?
a) Creative work environment
b) Fast decision-making
c) Poor role fit and higher turnover
d) Employee loyalty
Answer: c) Poor role fit and higher turnover

Day 23: Practical – Job Posting on Online Portals

201. Which of the following is the first step before posting a job online?
a) Sending an appointment letter
b) Creating a job description and specification
c) Deciding interview date
d) Uploading offer letter
Answer: b) Creating a job description and specification

202. A well-written job post should include all EXCEPT:

a) Role expectations
b) Benefits and perks
c) Political views
d) Application deadline
Answer: c) Political views

203. To attract diverse candidates, job postings should:

a) Use only English
b) Avoid inclusive language
c) Use neutral, inclusive, non-discriminatory language
d) Mention gender preference
Answer: c) Use neutral, inclusive, non-discriminatory language
204. What is the purpose of keyword optimization in job postings?
a) Better salary negotiation
b) Visibility in job search results
c) Legal compliance
d) Avoid resume overload
Answer: b) Visibility in job search results

205. Which portal is best known in India for posting professional jobs?
a) Flipkart
b) Naukri.com
c) YouTube
d) BigBasket
Answer: b) Naukri.com

206. Job portals improve recruitment by:

a) Reducing offer letter content
b) Providing salary payments
c) Giving access to a large talent pool
d) Replacing HR departments
Answer: c) Giving access to a large talent pool

207. A confusing and lengthy job post may result in:

a) Higher click rates
b) Attracting underqualified candidates
c) Higher conversion
d) Better skill match
Answer: b) Attracting underqualified candidates

208. A startup wants to post a job for “Social Media Executive.” Which is the best
headline?
a) “Join Now!”
b) “Urgent Vacancy”
c) “Creative Social Media Executive – Immediate Opening”
d) “Job available”
Answer: c) “Creative Social Media Executive – Immediate Opening”

209. When using online portals, a company must ensure:

a) It posts only on its website
b) It replies to all candidates within 2 hours
c) Accurate, updated job info and eligibility criteria
d) Candidates do not call HR
Answer: c) Accurate, updated job info and eligibility criteria

210. Online job postings are most effective when:

a) Shared via print media only
b) Combined with internal referrals and follow-up screening
c) Followed by no interview
d) Randomized content is used
Answer: b) Combined with internal referrals and follow-up screening
211. 211. Which of the following is a long-term benefit of a structured recruitment
process?
a) Faster employee turnover
b) Improved legal compliance and better cultural fit
c) Lower onboarding costs only
d) Decreased need for training
Answer: b) Improved legal compliance and better cultural fit

212. 212. What does the phrase "recruitment is a positive process" imply?
a) It always guarantees selection
b) It focuses on rejection
c) It aims to attract a large pool of applicants
d) It avoids job descriptions
Answer: c) It aims to attract a large pool of applicants

213. 213. Selection is often called a "negative process" because:

a) It involves removing unwanted candidates
b) It spreads job awareness
c) It attracts more candidates
d) It supports recruitment
Answer: a) It involves removing unwanted candidates

214. 214. Which of the following does NOT form a part of Human Resource Planning
(HRP)?
a) Supply forecasting
b) Training need identification
c) Demand forecasting
d) Sales forecasting
Answer: d) Sales forecasting

215. 215. Job design aims at:

a) Reducing job responsibilities
b) Improving employee motivation and job satisfaction
c) Only downsizing the team
d) Ignoring individual abilities
Answer: b) Improving employee motivation and job satisfaction

216. 216. What is the focus of job analysis?

a) Hiring speed
b) Identifying job content and the qualities required of the job holder
c) Number of vacancies
d) Setting up company policies
Answer: b) Identifying job content and the qualities required of the job holder

217. 217. Which document is produced as an output of job analysis?

a) Offer letter
b) Induction checklist
c) Job description and specification
d) Employment contract
Answer: c) Job description and specification
218. 218. The internal recruitment method that encourages employees to apply for
promotion is:
a) Headhunting
b) Job posting
c) Campus drive
d) External advertising
Answer: b) Job posting

219. 219. A potential disadvantage of internal recruitment is:

a) High costs
b) Fresh perspectives are limited
c) Shorter training period
d) Better cultural fit
Answer: b) Fresh perspectives are limited

220. 220. Campus recruitment is typically classified as:

a) Internal recruitment
b) External recruitment
c) Referral-based
d) Lateral hiring
Answer: b) External recruitment

221.
222. Indirect & Application-Oriented Questions

223.
224. 221. If a startup uses only employee referrals for recruitment, what is a risk they
might face?
a) Too many applicants
b) Biased selection and homogenous workforce
c) Lower employee satisfaction
d) High turnover
Answer: b) Biased selection and homogenous workforce

225. 222. A company that frequently revises job roles without updating job
descriptions may struggle with:
a) Hiring interns
b) Role clarity and performance evaluation
c) Work-from-home policies
d) Payroll automation
Answer: b) Role clarity and performance evaluation

226. 223. Which of the following is true in an effective HRP strategy?

a) Only future retirements are planned
b) Skill gaps are identified in advance
c) Focus is only on hiring sales staff
d) It works separately from recruitment
Answer: b) Skill gaps are identified in advance
227. 224. A recruitment ad that includes only salary and designation is missing which
essential component?
a) Bonus plans
b) Job profile and qualification requirements
c) Company logo
d) Work location
Answer: b) Job profile and qualification requirements

228. 225. What does job specification include?

a) Salary only
b) Candidate’s qualifications, experience, and abilities
c) Organizational goals
d) Working hours
Answer: b) Candidate’s qualifications, experience, and abilities

229. 226. The process of determining the duties and skill requirements of a job is:
a) HR analytics
b) Job analysis
c) Workforce automation
d) Recruitment marketing
Answer: b) Job analysis

230. 227. Which internal recruitment method identifies potential successors for key
positions?
a) Job rotation
b) Succession planning
c) Campus placement
d) Job enlargement
Answer: b) Succession planning

231. 228. A disadvantage of external recruitment is:

a) Increased diversity
b) Limited pool of talent
c) Longer adaptation time and higher cost
d) Internal politics
Answer: c) Longer adaptation time and higher cost

232. 229. Job enlargement refers to:

a) Increasing number of responsibilities at the same level
b) Promotion
c) Transferring jobs
d) Reducing responsibilities
Answer: a) Increasing number of responsibilities at the same level

233. 230. The practice of hiring for temporary or freelance work via online platforms is
called:
a) Gig recruitment
b) Internal mobility
c) Apprenticeship
 d) Campus interview
Answer: a) Gig recruitment

234.
235. Mini-Case Based Scenarios

236.
237. 231. A small company expands rapidly but fails to update job analysis.
Employees are confused about roles. What is the likely outcome?
a) Higher productivity
b) Role conflict and inefficiency
c) Smooth onboarding
d) Better recruitment
Answer: b) Role conflict and inefficiency

238. 232. You are an HR manager at a bank. Which type of job design will help reduce
employee monotony?
a) Job simplification
b) Job enrichment
c) Job elimination
d) Job freezing
Answer: b) Job enrichment

239. 233. In job analysis, a tool like questionnaires is useful because it:
a) Provides job offers
b) Gathers employee feedback on skills and duties
c) Delays the process
d) Finalizes salary structure
Answer: b) Gathers employee feedback on skills and duties

240. 234. Which of the following is a major ethical concern in recruitment?

a) Posting on multiple platforms
b) Giving biased preference based on gender or caste
c) Using AI for resume screening
d) Internal mobility
Answer: b) Giving biased preference based on gender or caste

241. 235. One of the biggest challenges in job design is:

a) Too many applicants
b) Balancing organizational goals with individual needs
c) Advertising cost
d) Absenteeism tracking
Answer: b) Balancing organizational goals with individual needs

242. 236. A hiring manager consistently hires freshers to reduce salary cost. What
may this compromise?
a) Internal recruitment
b) Employer brand
c) Skill quality and job readiness
 d) Job satisfaction
Answer: c) Skill quality and job readiness

243. 237. The job design that encourages employees to take responsibility and make
decisions is:
a) Job simplification
b) Job enrichment
c) Job freezing
d) Job rotation
Answer: b) Job enrichment

244. 238. A well-conducted job analysis helps in all EXCEPT:

a) Training
b) Misleading job ads
c) Recruitment
d) Performance appraisal
Answer: b) Misleading job ads

245. 239. Hiring from social media platforms is considered part of:
a) Internal mobility
b) Sourcing strategy
c) Training
d) Legal audit
Answer: b) Sourcing strategy

240. The type of recruitment that occurs when a company encourages its existing
employees to refer candidates is called:
a) Campus hiring
b) Employee referral
c) Headhunting
d) Job rotation
Answer: b) Employee referral

241. Which of the following is a sourcing method that involves directly contacting passive
candidates?
a) Job portals
b) Walk-in interviews
c) Headhunting
d) Employee referral
Answer: c) Headhunting

242. Which sourcing strategy is best for niche, hard-to-fill roles?

a) Job fairs
b) Social media ads
c) Internal job posting
d) Specialized recruitment agencies
Answer: d) Specialized recruitment agencies

243. The primary goal of sourcing strategy is to:

a) Design jobs
b) Identify where potential candidates can be found
c) Schedule interviews
d) Prepare onboarding checklists
Answer: b) Identify where potential candidates can be found

244. Which of the following platforms is most suitable for sourcing senior-level professionals?
a) Instagram
b) WhatsApp
c) LinkedIn
d) YouTube
Answer: c) LinkedIn

245. What is the disadvantage of relying heavily on job portals?

a) Fast reach
b) Huge applicant pool
c) Poor filtering leading to irrelevant applications
d) Automation support
Answer: c) Poor filtering leading to irrelevant applications

246. Screening of resumes is primarily done to:

a) Confirm the joining date
b) Eliminate unqualified candidates
c) Prepare job description
d) Conduct onboarding
Answer: b) Eliminate unqualified candidates

247. Which technique is most effective to verify educational qualifications?

a) Telephonic interview
b) Background verification
c) Reference call
d) Group discussion
Answer: b) Background verification

248. A disadvantage of video interviews is:

a) High cost
b) Limited geographical coverage
c) Connectivity and technological issues
d) Too many logistics
Answer: c) Connectivity and technological issues

249. Which of the following screening steps comes first in the typical hiring process?
a) Conduct interview
b) Background verification
c) Resume shortlisting
d) Offer letter
Answer: c) Resume shortlisting

250. Which method is useful for filtering large volumes of resumes using AI?
a) HR audit
b) Applicant Tracking System (ATS)
c) Job evaluation
d) Exit interview
Answer: b) Applicant Tracking System (ATS)

Indirect & Real-Life Based Questions

251. A company facing high cost per hire and low-quality candidates from job portals should:
a) Increase portal usage
b) Reduce job qualifications
c) Revise sourcing strategy
d) Skip the screening process
Answer: c) Revise sourcing strategy

252. A recruiter uses referral bonuses to encourage employees to bring in candidates. This is a:
a) Replacement method
b) Talent pooling technique
c) Sourcing strategy
d) Internal transfer policy
Answer: c) Sourcing strategy

253. A job seeker uploads a fake degree on LinkedIn. What process identifies this during hiring?
a) Role play
b) Induction
c) Background check
d) Reference email
Answer: c) Background check

254. Which interview method allows multiple candidates to interact and be assessed at once?
a) Panel interview
b) Group discussion
c) Telephonic screening
d) Case-based round
Answer: b) Group discussion

255. A manager asks technical questions in a structured format to every candidate. This is an
example of:
a) Stress interview
b) Unstructured interview
c) Structured interview
d) Exit interview
Answer: c) Structured interview

256. Which interview is used to test how candidates behave in a difficult situation?
a) Technical interview
b) Case interview
c) Behavioral interview
d) Walk-in interview
Answer: c) Behavioral interview

257. If a candidate feels nervous in a high-pressure interview, it is likely a:

a) Friendly discussion
b) Campus round
c) Stress interview
d) Follow-up round
Answer: c) Stress interview

258. A job ad specifies “minimum 2 years of experience in sourcing and scheduling interviews.”
This is part of:
a) Selection process
b) Job specification
c) Performance appraisal
d) Exit process
Answer: b) Job specification

259. The process of comparing resumes to job descriptions is an example of:

a) Onboarding
b) Screening
c) Negotiation
d) Orientation
Answer: b) Screening

260. What is the ideal screening method for high-volume entry-level applications?
a) Personal interview
b) Group discussion
c) ATS and resume filters
d) Psychometric test
Answer: c) ATS and resume filters

261. A panel interview involves:

a) One interviewer and one candidate
b) A group of candidates interviewing each other
c) Multiple interviewers questioning a single candidate
d) Interview conducted via phone
Answer: c) Multiple interviewers questioning a single candidate

262. Which interview method is most useful for assessing how candidates respond under
pressure?
a) Technical interview
b) Panel interview
c) Stress interview
d) Walk-in interview
Answer: c) Stress interview

263. The main feature of a structured interview is:

a) No fixed format
b) Same set of questions for all candidates
c) Conducted over lunch
d) Focus on informal chat
Answer: b) Same set of questions for all candidates

264. Which type of interview allows the interviewer to deviate from the set questions and
explore further?
a) Structured interview
b) Unstructured interview
c) Role-play interview
d) Group interview
Answer: b) Unstructured interview

265. A case-based interview primarily evaluates:

a) Personal hobbies
b) Teamwork
c) Problem-solving and analytical ability
d) Typing speed
Answer: c) Problem-solving and analytical ability

266. What is the purpose of a telephonic screening round?

a) Conduct in-depth technical tests
b) Verify degrees
c) Quickly shortlist candidates before face-to-face interviews
d) Prepare job descriptions
Answer: c) Quickly shortlist candidates before face-to-face interviews

267. Which of the following is NOT typically included in an offer letter?

a) Compensation
b) Reporting manager’s birthday
c) Job role and designation
d) Joining date
Answer: b) Reporting manager’s birthday

268. Before sending an offer letter, companies usually:

a) Train the candidate
b) Complete salary disbursement
c) Confirm interview results and background checks
d) Conduct final exit interview
Answer: c) Confirm interview results and background checks

269. If a background check reveals discrepancies in employment history, HR should:

a) Ignore it
b) Withdraw offer or seek clarification
c) Give bonus
d) Promote the candidate
Answer: b) Withdraw offer or seek clarification

270. Which of the following is a key component of background verification?

a) Placement interview
b) Reference check from previous employer
c) Skill mapping
d) Role play
Answer: b) Reference check from previous employer

Practical & Indirect Questions – Induction and Onboarding

271. A company’s onboarding program focuses on job orientation and cultural integration. This
helps in:
a) Increasing absenteeism
b) Lowering engagement
c) Faster productivity and job satisfaction
d) Delaying joining
Answer: c) Faster productivity and job satisfaction

272. Induction training usually includes:

a) Competitor analysis
b) Employee’s family details
c) Company rules, vision, and values
d) Customer complaints
Answer: c) Company rules, vision, and values

273. Who is responsible for conducting onboarding activities?

a) Internal auditor
b) Legal team
c) HR department
d) Product sales team
Answer: c) HR department

274. What is the difference between induction and onboarding?

a) No difference
b) Induction is for permanent staff; onboarding is for interns
c) Onboarding is broader and covers the entire adjustment period; induction is initial orientation
d) Onboarding is a legal document
Answer: c) Onboarding is broader and covers the entire adjustment period; induction is
initial orientation

275. Which checklist item is critical for onboarding but often delayed?
a) Office tour
b) ID card printing
c) Access to official email and systems
d) Welcome note
Answer: c) Access to official email and systems

276. A poor onboarding experience may lead to:

a) Increased engagement
b) Better time management
c) Early resignation
d) Higher productivity
Answer: c) Early resignation

277. Role clarity during induction ensures:

a) Delays in reporting
b) Lesser authority
c) Better job understanding and reduced confusion
d) Conflict with peers
Answer: c) Better job understanding and reduced confusion

278. During onboarding, it’s essential to introduce new employees to:

a) External vendors
b) Company policies and team members
c) Competitor firms
d) Personal hobbies
Answer: b) Company policies and team members

279. A well-structured onboarding checklist should include all EXCEPT:

a) Laptop allotment
b) Cab service for parents
c) HR policy briefing
d) Bank account info collection
Answer: b) Cab service for parents

280. What is the best time to begin onboarding communication?

a) One month after joining
b) At the time of resignation
c) After probation
d) Immediately after offer acceptance
Answer: d) Immediately after offer acceptance

Role Play & Application-Oriented Questions

281. A role play on background verification should involve:

a) Candidates selling products
b) Simulated conversations with references or past employers
c) Script reading
d) Campus selection
Answer: b) Simulated conversations with references or past employers

282. In onboarding role plays, the HR executive should demonstrate:

a) Conflict resolution
b) Salary negotiation
c) Welcoming employee, showing office, explaining policies
d) Auditing accounts
Answer: c) Welcoming employee, showing office, explaining policies
283. Preparing an onboarding checklist ensures:
a) Budget increase
b) Equipment and documents are ready for Day 1
c) Over-staffing
d) Marketing focus
Answer: b) Equipment and documents are ready for Day 1

284. The tone of an appointment letter should be:

a) Informal and humorous
b) Rude
c) Clear, formal, and legally sound
d) Vague
Answer: c) Clear, formal, and legally sound

285. If a new hire hasn’t received a proper induction, they may:

a) Understand the job role well
b) Feel confused and disengaged
c) Be ready for promotion
d) Enjoy the process more
Answer: b) Feel confused and disengaged

286. What is the difference between an offer letter and an appointment letter?
a) Offer letter is more detailed than appointment letter
b) Appointment letter is issued after joining and is legally binding
c) Both are given after resignation
d) No difference at all
Answer: b) Appointment letter is issued after joining and is legally binding

287. One main goal of the induction process is:

a) Performance appraisal
b) Cost cutting
c) Familiarizing new employees with the organization
d) Termination process
Answer: c) Familiarizing new employees with the organization

288. Which of the following may NOT be included in a background check?

a) Criminal record verification
b) Educational qualification check
c) Salary negotiation
d) Previous employment validation
Answer: c) Salary negotiation

289. A successful onboarding program can significantly reduce:

a) Performance bonuses
b) Employee turnover
c) Salary hikes
d) Training programs
Answer: b) Employee turnover
290. During onboarding, assigning a buddy or mentor helps:
a) Reduce salary costs
b) Speed up IT setup
c) Provide informal support and faster integration
d) Reduce leaves
Answer: c) Provide informal support and faster integration

291. The Van Maanen and Schein (1979) model is primarily used to study:
a) Training effectiveness
b) Employee socialization tactics
c) Recruitment cost
d) Job analysis methods
Answer: b) Employee socialization tactics

292. According to Van Maanen and Schein, which of the following is a collective tactic in
onboarding?
a) One-on-one informal training
b) Induction in large groups
c) Private interviews
d) Peer-to-peer coaching
Answer: b) Induction in large groups

293. In the Van Maanen and Schein model, sequential socialization refers to:
a) Random role assignments
b) Defined stages toward a full role
c) Peer learning
d) Informal lunch meetings
Answer: b) Defined stages toward a full role

294. What does “investiture” in the Van Maanen & Schein model refer to?
a) Rejecting a recruit’s identity
b) Reinforcing existing identity of the employee
c) Investing salary early
d) Exit interview process
Answer: b) Reinforcing existing identity of the employee

295. Individual socialization leads to:

a) Uniform behavior
b) Personalized role learning
c) Group dependency
d) Faster turnover
Answer: b) Personalized role learning

Jones Model of Employee Adjustment

296. The Jones model primarily focuses on:
a) Screening candidates
b) Employee adjustment process
c) HR compliance
d) Leadership theories
Answer: b) Employee adjustment process

297. Which factor is critical in Jones’ Model for successful adjustment?

a) Salary
b) Role clarity
c) Job description length
d) Office location
Answer: b) Role clarity

298. Jones emphasizes task mastery, role clarity, and __________ in his employee adjustment
model.
a) Communication skill
b) Organizational culture
c) Work group integration
d) Education level
Answer: c) Work group integration

299. In Jones’ Model, lack of clarity about responsibilities leads to:

a) Job rotation
b) Increased satisfaction
c) Anxiety and role ambiguity
d) Higher salaries
Answer: c) Anxiety and role ambiguity

300. Which of the following is not a focus area of Jones’ Model?

a) Workgroup integration
b) Job satisfaction scale
c) Role clarity
d) Task mastery
Answer: b) Job satisfaction scale

Self-Efficacy and Social Acceptance

301. Self-efficacy in onboarding refers to:

a) HR’s ability to train employees
b) Employee’s belief in their ability to succeed in the role
c) Manager’s ability to promote
d) Interview panel’s feedback
Answer: b) Employee’s belief in their ability to succeed in the role

302. High self-efficacy during onboarding is most likely to result in:

a) Early resignations
b) Poor socialization
c) High engagement and quicker performance
d) Conflict with HR
Answer: c) High engagement and quicker performance

303. Social acceptance helps new employees to:

a) Focus only on salary
b) Feel excluded from team
c) Adjust and collaborate with team faster
d) Be promoted quickly
Answer: c) Adjust and collaborate with team faster

304. What might be a result of low social acceptance for a new joiner?
a) Better bonding
b) Faster integration
c) Feelings of isolation and withdrawal
d) Better time management
Answer: c) Feelings of isolation and withdrawal

305. Which activity can HR implement to improve social acceptance of new hires?
a) Salary deductions
b) Exit interview
c) Team-building lunch
d) Reducing induction days
Answer: c) Team-building lunch

Executive Onboarding

306. Executive onboarding is different from regular onboarding because:

a) It includes team games
b) It focuses on cultural fit and leadership alignment
c) No paperwork is involved
d) It takes only 5 minutes
Answer: b) It focuses on cultural fit and leadership alignment

307. Which document is often revised for executive onboarding?

a) Standard policy file
b) Employment laws
c) Customized leadership orientation plan
d) Induction checklist
Answer: c) Customized leadership orientation plan

308. A sample executive offer letter includes:

a) Family tree
b) Strategic objectives
c) Leadership expectations, compensation, and company vision
d) Exit plan
Answer: c) Leadership expectations, compensation, and company vision

309. A common onboarding failure for executives is:

a) Too much team bonding
b) Too many phone calls
c) Lack of clarity on leadership expectations
d) Frequent holidays
Answer: c) Lack of clarity on leadership expectations

310. Best practice for executive onboarding involves:

a) Avoiding CEO interaction
b) Presenting only HR policies
c) Clear alignment with board/management goals
d) Ignoring cultural onboarding
Answer: c) Clear alignment with board/management goals

341. A new employee joins a fast-paced IT firm. Though technically strong, she struggles to
adjust to team dynamics. Which onboarding tactic from Van Maanen & Schein could have
prevented this?
a) Formal training on software
b) Collective, fixed, and serial onboarding
c) Random assignment of tasks
d) Rotational job assignment
Answer: b) Collective, fixed, and serial onboarding

342. During onboarding, a company uses rituals and group activities to immerse new
employees in its culture. This reflects which type of socialization?
a) Investiture
b) Disjunctive
c) Divestiture
d) Individual
Answer: a) Investiture

343. A company that encourages new joiners to maintain their unique identity is practicing:
a) Disjunctive socialization
b) Individual socialization
c) Divestiture
d) Investiture
Answer: d) Investiture

344. In a role-play exercise, a candidate was rejected due to poor background check results.
Which HR function failed here?
a) Job analysis
b) Screening
c) Reference verification
d) Internal recruitment
Answer: c) Reference verification
345. An HR intern prepares an offer letter but forgets to include probation details. What is the
impact?
a) No salary issue
b) Legal enforceability remains
c) Ambiguity in employment conditions
d) Faster onboarding
Answer: c) Ambiguity in employment conditions

Offer Letter and Appointment Letter Focus

346. Which of the following is not typically included in an offer letter?

a) Job title
b) Previous employer's feedback
c) Compensation details
d) Joining date
Answer: b) Previous employer's feedback

347. An appointment letter serves the purpose of:

a) Announcing resignation
b) Ending employment
c) Legally confirming employment terms
d) Initiating job posting
Answer: c) Legally confirming employment terms

348. If a candidate signs the appointment letter but delays joining, the company can:
a) Ignore it
b) Cancel the offer
c) Sue without clause
d) Automatically promote
Answer: b) Cancel the offer

349. “Subject to background verification” is mentioned in most appointment letters. This

implies:
a) Background check optional
b) Employer has no control
c) Employment is conditional
d) Offer cannot be withdrawn
Answer: c) Employment is conditional

350. What is the key difference between an offer letter and an appointment letter?
a) Salary structure
b) Legal enforceability
c) Reporting manager
d) Joining date
Answer: b) Legal enforceability
 Job Portals & Practical Posting Activities

351. You are tasked to upload a job posting on a portal. Which of the following is most
essential?
a) Candidate's name
b) Time of day
c) Job title and description
d) Posting fee
Answer: c) Job title and description

352. A well-written job posting should avoid:

a) Clear responsibilities
b) Key skills
c) Generic phrases like "rockstar needed"
d) Salary range
Answer: c) Generic phrases like "rockstar needed"

353. While posting a job online, which keyword strategy helps attract relevant candidates?
a) Use of industry-specific terms
b) Random trending terms
c) Only company slogans
d) General lifestyle quotes
Answer: a) Use of industry-specific terms

354. Which of the following tools is most commonly used by HR to post jobs in India?
a) MyGov.in
b) Naukri.com
c) Canva
d) Flipkart
Answer: b) Naukri.com

355. Which metric helps assess the effectiveness of a job posting?

a) Likes on the post
b) Number of applications received
c) Office distance from city
d) Number of HRs in the company
Answer: b) Number of applications received

Mixed Indirect & Conceptual Questions

356. A candidate excels in technical tests but fails the cultural fit assessment. What should HR
prioritize?
a) Hire anyway due to skill
b) Recheck academic documents
c) Review onboarding culture training
d) Neglect soft skills
Answer: c) Review onboarding culture training

357. During an interview, a candidate discloses anxiety issues. As per HR best practices, what is
appropriate?
a) Reject immediately
b) Refer to medical board
c) Evaluate with fairness and reasonable accommodation
d) Ignore the issue
Answer: c) Evaluate with fairness and reasonable accommodation

358. Which of the following contributes least to effective onboarding?

a) Formal welcome session
b) Unclear job role
c) Assigned mentor
d) Office tour
Answer: b) Unclear job role

359. A social media job post gains attention but has no applications. Likely reason?
a) Too many emojis
b) Clear call-to-action missing
c) Use of images
d) Posting during working hours
Answer: b) Clear call-to-action missing

360. HR creates onboarding checklists mainly to:

a) Fill paper
b) Track cafeteria usage
c) Ensure all steps in induction are completed
d) Justify payroll processing
Answer: c) Ensure all steps in induction are completed

391. You are designing a recruitment process for a startup. What’s the first critical step to avoid
hiring mismatch?
a) Shortlisting from LinkedIn
b) Creating an onboarding manual
c) Conducting job analysis
d) Preparing employee engagement plan
Answer: c) Conducting job analysis

392. A manager claims that internal recruitment saves time and cost. What’s a possible
downside?
a) Higher salary offers
b) Limited innovation and fresh perspectives
c) Delayed job rotation
d) Mandatory external interviews
Answer: b) Limited innovation and fresh perspectives

393. A candidate was hired solely based on referral and later failed. What screening error likely
occurred?
a) Over-selection bias
b) Interview funneling
c) Neglect of structured selection process
d) Panel selection
Answer: c) Neglect of structured selection process

394. You observe that selected candidates leave within the first week. What aspect of HR needs
review?
a) Selection tests
b) Socialization and induction process
c) Office location
d) Advertising media
Answer: b) Socialization and induction process

395. In a new company, onboarding time was reduced by 70%. What might be a risk of this
approach?
a) Better time management
b) Poor employee retention
c) Cost savings
d) Fewer forms to print
Answer: b) Poor employee retention

Applied Knowledge & Analytical Thinking

396. In a behavioral interview, the HR asks: “Tell me about a time you failed.” What’s the
purpose of this?
a) Test general knowledge
b) Trick the candidate
c) Evaluate emotional intelligence and reflection
d) Judge educational background
Answer: c) Evaluate emotional intelligence and reflection

397. Which HR function ensures that job roles are aligned with organizational goals?
a) Payroll
b) Employee benefits
c) Human Resource Planning (HRP)
d) Transport management
Answer: c) Human Resource Planning (HRP)

398. During a background check, HR finds a minor discrepancy in dates. What’s a best practice?
a) Reject candidate immediately
b) Ignore and proceed
c) Verify further with the candidate and prior employer
d) Postpone onboarding indefinitely
Answer: c) Verify further with the candidate and prior employer
399. A company conducts onboarding online without human interaction. Which important
element might be missing?
a) Internet access
b) Personalized cultural integration
c) Email access setup
d) Salary breakdown
Answer: b) Personalized cultural integration

400. What is not a valid outcome of effective socialization?

a) Stronger team cohesion
b) Role ambiguity
c) Greater role clarity
d) Faster adjustment
Answer: b) Role ambiguity

Case Snippets and Situational Judgement

401. A firm hires without a clear job description and faces confusion during onboarding. Which
step was missed?
a) Job analysis
b) Induction plan
c) Rewards policy
d) Reference check
Answer: a) Job analysis

402. If an offer letter is signed but not honored by the candidate, what should HR maintain next
time?
a) Lower salary offers
b) Verbal confirmation
c) Backup talent pool
d) Avoid appointment letters
Answer: c) Backup talent pool

403. You’re asked to prepare a job posting for a retail sales role. Which is least important in
your draft?
a) Key responsibilities
b) Skills required
c) Sales trends
d) Work location
Answer: c) Sales trends

404. During onboarding, a new hire struggles with software. What tactic should HR use?
a) Reduce training time
b) Provide peer mentoring
c) Increase leave quota
d) Ignore it
Answer: b) Provide peer mentoring
405. The main role of onboarding is to:
a) Verify degrees
b) Reduce first-year turnover
c) Show company policies only
d) Arrange furniture
Answer: b) Reduce first-year turnover

Final Knowledge Check – All Topics

406. Job analysis is the basis for:

a) Background checks
b) Payroll setup
c) Job design and recruitment planning
d) Exit process
Answer: c) Job design and recruitment planning

407. A competency-based interview is designed to assess:

a) Age and experience
b) Past behavior indicating future performance
c) Technical scores
d) Interest in location
Answer: b) Past behavior indicating future performance

408. Which of the following improves role clarity during onboarding?

a) Job shadowing
b) Providing free lunch
c) External referrals
d) Extra holidays
Answer: a) Job shadowing

409. Who proposed the theory of "Social Learning" relevant to employee onboarding?
a) Maslow
b) Bandura
c) Herzberg
d) McGregor
Answer: b) Bandura

410. Posting job openings internally before externally is known as:

a) Blind hiring
b) Internal sourcing
c) Headhunting
d) Pooled referrals
Answer: b) Internal sourcing

411. JCM stands for?

Answer: Job Characteristics Model
412. Motivation theory focusing on needs?
Answer: Maslow's Hierarchy

413. Interview to assess soft skills?

Answer: Behavioral Interview

414. Initial phase in recruitment process?

Answer: HR Planning

415. Legal proof of employment?

Answer: Appointment Letter

416. Which stage is not part of the recruitment process?

a) Job posting
b) Selection test
c) Offer negotiation
d) Resignation processing
Answer: d) Resignation processing

417. “Screening” refers to:

a) Background check
b) Resume shortlisting
c) Final interview
d) Campus drive
Answer: b) Resume shortlisting

418. A recruitment funnel narrows down from:

a) Selection to resignation
b) Applications to job offers
c) Salary to promotion
d) None of the above
Answer: b) Applications to job offers

419. Which is not a source of internal recruitment?

a) Employee referrals
b) Promotions
c) Job portals
d) Transfers
Answer: c) Job portals

420. What is the last step of the selection process?

a) Shortlisting
b) Final interview
c) Medical test
d) Job offer
Answer: d) Job offer

Mixed Revision Continued

421. Job rotation is part of:
Answer: Internal recruitment

422. Psychometric tests assess:

Answer: Personality and mental abilities

423. McClelland’s theory focuses on:

Answer: Need for achievement, power, and affiliation

424. Practical tool to start HR planning:

Answer: Manpower inventory

425. 360-degree feedback includes feedback from:

Answer: Peers, subordinates, and supervisors

Quick Concept Reinforcement

426. Which step in HRP checks future demand?

Answer: Forecasting

427. Internal recruitment ensures:

Answer: Employee morale and cost-saving

428. “Structured interview” means:

Answer: Pre-set questions for all candidates

429. Job specification includes:

Answer: Required qualifications and skills

430. Application blanks are part of:

Answer: Preliminary screening

431. Induction is essential for:

Answer: Reducing anxiety and confusion

432. Schein's model focuses on:

Answer: Organizational socialization

433. Selection tests measure:

Answer: Abilities, aptitude, personality

434. “Job fit” is analyzed during:

Answer: Interview

435. External recruitment gives:

Answer: Fresh talent and ideas

Final Review: Terms and Practical Focus

436. “Realistic job preview” helps reduce:
Answer: Turnover

437. Employee onboarding improves:

Answer: Job satisfaction and retention

438. Situational interviews test:

Answer: Problem-solving in real scenarios

439. Group discussion is useful in:

Answer: Campus hiring and mass recruitment

440. Aptitude test is useful for:

Answer: Assessing ability to learn or perform

441. JD stands for:

Answer: Job Description

442. Analyzing tasks in a job is:

Answer: Job analysis

443. The process of placing new hires in jobs is:

Answer: Placement

444. Early socialization tactics focus on:

Answer: Orientation and cultural fit

445. Key input for job design:

Answer: Job analysis

Final 55 MCQs – Short & Smart Recap

446. A checklist ensures:

Answer: No onboarding steps are missed

447. Initial recruitment cost is a part of:

Answer: Cost-per-hire

448. Selection ratio means:

Answer: Number hired ÷ number applied

449. “Trial period” is also called:

Answer: Probation

450. Social acceptance refers to:

Answer: Being accepted by coworkers

451. Which test is most subjective?

Answer: Personality test

452. Which portal is best for job posting in India?

Answer: Naukri.com
453. A panel interview helps reduce:
Answer: Interviewer bias

454. Probation is typically how long?

Answer: 3–6 months

455. Role clarity prevents:

Answer: Job ambiguity

456. Self-efficacy boosts:

Answer: Confidence and job performance

457. Major purpose of Van Maanen model?

Answer: Understand socialization process

458. Key objective of job portals?

Answer: Connect employers and job seekers

459. Best way to onboard executives?

Answer: One-on-one mentorship and clear expectations

460. Jones Model focuses on:

Answer: Adjustment of new employees

461. Most overlooked stage of selection?

Answer: Reference/background check

462. A poor onboarding experience can cause:

Answer: Early attrition

463. First step in HR Planning?

Answer: Analyzing current workforce

464. Sourcing method involving internal CV bank?

Answer: Internal database

465. Legal letter that confirms job?

Answer: Appointment letter

Final 35 Rapid-Fire

466. Mass recruitment best method?

Answer: Walk-in interview

467. Executive hiring term?

Answer: Headhunting

468. Key source of job information?

Answer: Job analysis

469. Offer letter is:

Answer: Provisional job proposal
470. Orientation includes:
Answer: Company policies and team intro

471. Candidate accepts offer, but doesn't join. HR uses:

Answer: Backup candidate list

472. Shortlisting tool?

Answer: ATS (Applicant Tracking System)

473. Van Maanen & Schein’s model has how many tactics?
Answer: 6

474. Company branding in job ads improves:

Answer: Candidate attraction

475. Formal onboarding reduces:

Answer: Turnover

476. Role of HR during socialization?

Answer: Cultural integration

477. Unstructured interview issue?

Answer: Lack of consistency

478. Best for skill testing?

Answer: Work sample tests

479. Case study method checks:

Answer: Analytical skills

480. Online job posting helps in:

Answer: Wider reach

481. Resume screening first looks for:

Answer: Role match

482. Internal job posting improves:

Answer: Career growth

483. Role clarity improves:

Answer: Productivity

484. Most cost-effective hiring?

Answer: Employee referral

485. Role play in interview checks:

Answer: Real-time decision skills

486. Group dynamics affect:

Answer: Team selection

487. Induction differs from orientation by:

Answer: Being more job-specific
488. Checklist ensures:
Answer: Consistency

489. Best time to post a job online?

Answer: Monday–Wednesday mornings

490. Self-efficacy relates to:

Answer: Confidence in tasks

491. Final selection is influenced by:

Answer: Interview performance

492. Poor JD leads to:

Answer: Wrong hires

493. Medical tests ensure:

Answer: Fitness for role

494. Resume parsing done by:

Answer: ATS software

495. Personality alignment leads to:

Answer: Job satisfaction

496. Common job portal in India?

Answer: Shine.com

497. Recruitment ends with:

Answer: Job offer

498. Selection ends with:

Answer: Appointment letter

499. Orientation supports:

Answer: Cultural fit

500. Final phase of onboarding?

Answer: Feedback and follow-up