Day 1: Personnel Psychology (Questions 1–20)

1. Personnel psychology primarily focuses on:

A. Hardware maintenance
B. Employee behavior and performance
C. Market research
D. Legal compliance
Answer: B

2. Which tool is commonly used by personnel psychologists to assess traits?

A. SWOT analysis
B. Myers–Briggs Type Indicator
C. PERT chart
D. Balanced scorecard
Answer: B

3. A task best suited for a personnel psychologist is:

A. Designing financial reports
B. Developing training needs assessments
C. Programming HR software
D. Conducting facility audits
Answer: B

4. In personnel selection, “criterion validity” refers to:

A. How well a test predicts job performance
B. The ease of administering the test
C. The legality of the test
D. The test’s popularity
Answer: A

5. A key indirect benefit of applying personnel psychology is:

A. Faster server speeds
B. Lower employee turnover
C. Increased hardware costs
D. More office paperwork
Answer: B

6. Which concept explains job satisfaction as a driver of performance?

A. Maslow’s hierarchy
B. Herzberg’s two-factor theory
C. Parkinson’s law
D. Pareto principle
Answer: B

7. A personnel psychologist would most likely analyze:

A. Warehouse layouts
B. Training program effectiveness
C. Annual revenue trends
D. Inventory levels
Answer: B
8. “Utility analysis” in personnel psychology measures:
A. Cost–benefit of HR interventions
B. Employee commuting costs
C. Office utility bills
D. HR headcount
Answer: A

9. Which method helps ensure fairness in selection tests?

A. Random question orders
B. Standardized administration procedures
C. Multiple interviewers only
D. Unstructured interviews
Answer: B

10. Personnel psychologists contribute to OB by:

A. Designing production lines
B. Developing leadership assessment centers
C. Managing payroll systems
D. Overseeing legal compliance exclusively
Answer: B

11. A common measure of job performance in personnel psychology is:

A. Sales figures
B. Supervisor ratings
C. Website traffic
D. Stock prices
Answer: B

12. Which of the following describes “banding” in test scoring?

A. Grouping candidates into score ranges
B. Issuing group offers
C. Conducting band interviews
D. Playing background music during testing
Answer: A

13. An indirect way personnel psychology reduces bias is by:

A. Removing names from resumes (blind screening)
B. Using longer forms
C. Limiting interviewers to one person
D. Only hiring internally
Answer: A

14. What role does personality assessment play in recruitment?

A. Determining salary band
B. Identifying job–person fit
C. Scheduling shifts
D. Planning office layout
Answer: B

15. Which validity type ensures a test appears fair to candidates?

A. Face validity
 B. Content validity
C. Construct validity
D. Criterion validity
Answer: A

16. “Work sample tests” are used to:

A. Measure actual job tasks under test conditions
B. Evaluate company culture
C. Predict market trends
D. Train employees
Answer: A

17. A critical output of personnel psychology during selection is:

A. Job advertisements
B. Cut scores for tests
C. Office seating charts
D. Expense reports
Answer: B

18. Personnel psychology informs training design by:

A. Analyzing learning needs and styles
B. Allocating furniture
C. Designing marketing collateral
D. Drafting legal notices
Answer: A

19. An indirect effect of good personnel psychology is:

A. Higher office rent
B. Improved team cohesion
C. More IT support tickets
D. Increased legal disputes
Answer: B

20. Ethical considerations in personnel psychology include:

A. Data privacy in assessments
B. Choosing office paint colors
C. Conducting payroll runs
D. Marketing campaigns
Answer: A

Day 2: Diversity & Inclusion (Questions 21–40)

21. Inclusive workplaces are characterized by:

A. Uniform thinking
B. Active encouragement of diverse perspectives
C. Strict hierarchy only
D. Avoidance of cultural celebrations
Answer: B
22. Which practice promotes diversity in hiring?
A. Only internal referrals
B. Posting jobs on varied platforms
C. Ignoring resumes from outside networks
D. Single-source recruitment
Answer: B

23. An indirect outcome of strong inclusion is:

A. Higher absenteeism
B. Greater innovation and creativity
C. More paperwork
D. Reduced customer satisfaction
Answer: B

24. Which metric can track inclusion progress?

A. Time-to-hire
B. Representation ratios across levels
C. Office supply costs
D. Payroll size
Answer: B

25. “Color-blind” policies in D&I often:

A. Eliminate bias
B. Ignore systemic inequalities
C. Increase diversity
D. Reduce training costs
Answer: B

26. A useful strategy for inclusion training is:

A. One-time lecture only
B. Ongoing workshops with real scenarios
C. Sending emails only
D. Ignoring feedback
Answer: B

27. Which barrier can block inclusive hiring?

A. Panel interviews
B. Unconscious bias in screening
C. Structured onboarding
D. Employee referrals
Answer: B

28. Affinity groups in organizations help by:

A. Segmenting teams by performance
B. Providing support networks for underrepresented employees
C. Tracking hours worked
D. Reducing team meetings
Answer: B

29. Inclusive job descriptions use:

A. Gendered language
 B. Neutral, accessible phrasing
C. Only technical jargon
D. Company insider references
Answer: B

30. Diversity hiring fairs focus on:

A. Single demographic
B. Broad outreach across demographics
C. Internal hires only
D. Reducing candidate volume
Answer: B

31. An indirect sign of an inclusive culture is:

A. High turnover of minorities
B. Increased participation in ERGs (Employee Resource Groups)
C. Only majority-group promotions
D. Reduced feedback
Answer: B

32. Which legal framework supports workplace inclusion in India?

A. Companies Act
B. Equal Remuneration Act
C. Copyright Act
D. Consumer Protection Act
Answer: B

33. A key challenge in D&I initiatives is:

A. Reducing HR headcount
B. Sustaining long-term commitment and accountability
C. Eliminating all meetings
D. Shifting office locations
Answer: B

34. One indirect benefit of D&I is:

A. Lower marketing budget
B. Enhanced employer brand reputation
C. Increased legal challenges
D. Higher training costs
Answer: B

35. Bias interrupters in hiring processes can include:

A. Blind resume review
B. Longer interviews
C. Fewer interviewers
D. Removing assessments
Answer: A

36. Leadership commitment to D&I is shown by:

A. One-off speeches
B. Embedding D&I goals in performance metrics
C. Not tracking data
 D. Avoiding feedback loops
Answer: B

37. Inclusive leadership behaviors include:

A. Micromanagement
B. Soliciting and valuing diverse viewpoints
C. Ignoring minority voices
D. Centralized decision-making
Answer: B

38. An indirect cost of poor inclusion is:

A. Increased productivity
B. Talent attrition and engagement drop
C. Lower recruitment costs
D. Faster hires
Answer: B

39. A tool to assess inclusion effectiveness is:

A. Customer surveys
B. Inclusion climate surveys
C. Financial audits
D. Performance reviews only
Answer: B

40. To maintain inclusivity, organizations should:

A. Stop all D&I training after initial rollout
B. Continuously measure, learn, and adapt practices
C. Focus solely on senior leadership
D. Avoid publishing D&I data
Answer: B

41. What does RPO stand for in HR?

A) Recruitment Process Outsourcing
B) Resource Planning Office
C) Rapid Placement Organization
D) Regional Personnel Operations
Answer: A

42. A key benefit of RPO is:

A) Higher capital expenditure
B) Access to specialized recruiting expertise
C) Slower time-to-hire
D) Increased internal headcount
Answer: B

43. Which scenario indirectly indicates you need RPO?

A) Low turnover
B) Sporadic hiring needs
C) Rapid scaling with repeated hires
D) No open roles for months
Answer: C
44. RPO providers often offer:
A) Office real estate
B) Full employer branding support
C) Payroll disbursements
D) IT helpdesk services
Answer: B

45. A CFO values RPO because it:

A) Eliminates all HR headcount
B) Converts fixed recruiting costs to variable
C) Guarantees overnight hires
D) Requires no vendor management
Answer: B

46. Which metric can indirectly measure RPO success?

A) Number of office chairs ordered
B) Time-to-fill positions
C) Total floor area of offices
D) Quantity of training modules
Answer: B

47. RPO is best suited for:

A) A single, small hire
B) High-volume or specialized hiring needs
C) Employee training only
D) Exit interview processing
Answer: B

48. A risk of not using RPO when scaling is:

A) Improved candidate experience
B) Overburdened internal recruiters
C) Lower recruitment spend
D) Excessive brand consistency
Answer: B

49. An indirect benefit of RPO on employer branding is:

A) More legal disputes
B) Better candidate communication and brand perception
C) Longer onboarding
D) Increased system downtime
Answer: B

50. Which function do RPO providers not typically perform?

A) Sourcing and screening
B) Offer-letter negotiation
C) Day-to-day IT support
D) Onboarding coordination
Answer: C

51. RPO engagements are often measured by:

A) Square footage of HR office
 B) Cost-per-hire and quality-of-hire metrics
C) Number of interviews cancelled
D) Printer usage
Answer: B

52. In a small startup, RPO might be:

A) Overkill if hiring is minimal
B) Mandatory by law
C) Always more cost-effective than in-house
D) Only used for executive roles
Answer: A

53. A successful RPO partnership requires:

A) No communication between parties
B) Clear service-level agreements (SLAs)
C) Vendor-only decision making
D) Eliminating internal recruiters
Answer: B

54. Which activity indirectly benefits from RPO data analytics?

A) Office cleaning schedules
B) Workforce planning
C) Coffee machine maintenance
D) Parking assignments
Answer: B

55. RPO can improve diversity hiring by:

A) Only sourcing internally
B) Proactively targeting diverse talent pools
C) Ignoring inclusion metrics
D) Centralizing all decisions
Answer: B

56. A common pricing model for RPO is:

A) Fixed fee per project
B) Fee per hire or per vacancy close
C) Equity in the hiring company
D) Barter of services
Answer: B

57. When evaluating RPO vendors, focus least on:

A) Track record in your industry
B) Cultural fit with your organization
C) Their cafeteria menu
D) Technology and reporting capabilities
Answer: C

58. Which scenario indirectly shows your internal process needs RPO?
A) Perfect time-to-hire benchmarks
B) High cost-per-hire and low fill rates
C) No open positions
 D) No use of any ATS
Answer: B

59. RPO contracts typically include:

A) Unlimited hires without terms
B) Defined performance metrics and deliverables
C) Vendor-provided office furniture
D) Company vacation policies
Answer: B

60. A non-technical benefit of RPO is:

A) Reduced printer usage
B) Access to market insights and recruiting best practices
C) Lower internet bandwidth
D) Increased IT tickets
Answer: B

61.
62. Day 4: Purple Squirrel Online Vetting (Questions 61–80)

63. In recruitment slang, a “Purple Squirrel” is:

A) A mythical office mascot
B) An unusually perfect candidate with all required skills
C) A random applicant
D) A contractor
Answer: B

64. Online vetting typically involves checking:

A) A candidate’s postal address validity
B) Publicly available social media and professional profiles
C) Personal email spam filters
D) Office furnishing receipts
Answer: B

65. A risk of not vetting Purple Squirrels online is:

A) More qualified hires
B) Hiring someone with undisclosed red flags
C) Lower recruitment costs
D) Fewer interviews
Answer: B

66. Which platform is most important for professional vetting?

A) Facebook personal profiles
B) LinkedIn work history
C) Snapchat stories
D) Instagram filters
Answer: B

67. Online vetting can indirectly improve:

A) Office cleaning schedules
B) Quality-of-hire by revealing cultural fit issues
 C) Printer maintenance
D) Coffee machine usage
Answer: B

68. Which of these is not a typical vetting criterion?

A) Employment history accuracy
B) Criminal background
C) Favorite color
D) Educational credentials
Answer: C

69. A candidate’s public GitHub commits can help vet developers for:
A) Their coffee preferences
B) Code quality and activity
C) Project budgets
D) Office attendance
Answer: B

70. What does “vetting” an online profile involve?

A) Removing all social media presence
B) Verifying claims and looking for red flags
C) Encrypting candidate data
D) Changing login passwords
Answer: B

71. Which is an indirect sign of integrity during online vetting?

A) Consistent professional recommendations
B) High number of social media followers
C) Frequent job changes only
D) Use of emojis in posts
Answer: A

72. Purple Squirrel roles are often:

A) Entry level with generic requirements
B) Highly specialized and rare
C) Short-term internships
D) Non-technical
Answer: B

73. Over-relying on Purple Squirrel searches can cause:

A) Broader talent pools
B) Delays in filling roles due to rarity
C) Faster onboarding
D) Reduced sourcing costs
Answer: B

74. Which tool assists in online profile vetting?

A) Applicant Tracking System (ATS) resume parser
B) Social media search engines
C) Word processing software
 D) Spreadsheet macros
Answer: B

75. Online vetting should comply with:

A) Art licensing laws
B) Data privacy and non-discrimination laws
C) Meteorological regulations
D) Bank policies
Answer: B

76. A candidate’s blog posts can reveal:

A) Their salary history
B) Their communication style and domain expertise
C) Favorite vacation spots
D) Office supply usage
Answer: B

77. Which practice strengthens Purple Squirrel vetting?

A) Only using internal referrals
B) Combining manual review with automated tools
C) Ignoring weak profiles
D) Posting on a single job board
Answer: B

78. Over-vetted candidates may experience:

A) Faster hires
B) Privacy concerns and candidate drop-off
C) Guaranteed job offers
D) Increased candidate loyalty
Answer: B

79. Vet for cultural fit by reviewing:

A) Candidate’s music playlist
B) Public endorsements and community involvement
C) Number of pets they own
D) Brand of devices they use
Answer: B

80. The term “Purple Squirrel” highlights the challenge of:

A) Finding a generalist
B) Locating that one perfect, rare match
C) Reducing technology costs
D) Organizing resumes
Answer: B

81. Which of the following indirectly helps vet online candidates?

A) Ignoring their digital footprint
B) Using background verification agencies
C) Asking them to fill paper forms
D) Sending them an email test
Answer: B
 82. A balanced Purple Squirrel strategy involves:
A) Requesting unrealistic skill sets
B) Prioritizing core must-have skills and flexible nice-to-haves
C) Eliminating all but perfect candidates
D) No vetting at all

83.

Day 5: Employer Branding (Questions 81–100)

81. Employer branding is defined as:

A) Advertising products to customers
B) Company’s reputation and value proposition as an employer
C) Logging employee attendance
D) Legal compliance audits
Answer: B

82. An indirect benefit of a strong employer brand is:

A) Lower customer churn
B) Reduced cost-per-hire through increased candidate interest
C) Increased office rent
D) Higher utility bills
Answer: B

83. Which channel is most effective for employer branding among professionals?
A) LinkedIn
B) Bus stop posters
C) Television ads
D) Fax blasts
Answer: A

84. Employee testimonials on your careers page serve to:

A) Increase website bounce rate
B) Showcase authentic culture and attract talent
C) Measure internet speed
D) Audit financial statements
Answer: B

85. A good employer brand message should include:

A) Job descriptions only
B) Core values, culture highlights, and employee benefits
C) Technical system specs
D) Legal disclaimers only
Answer: B

86. Which metric can indirectly gauge employer brand strength?

A) Time-to-fill
B) Candidate Net Promoter Score (NPS)
C) Number of office plants
D) Frequency of fire drills
Answer: B
87. An employer branding misstep is:
A) Highlighting employee success stories
B) Overpromising perks that don’t exist
C) Sharing community involvement
D) Showcasing career growth paths
Answer: B

88. Social media engagement in employer branding should be:

A) Infrequent and random
B) Consistent, authentic, and two-way
C) Celebrity gossip only
D) Sales-focused exclusively
Answer: B

89. Which internal activity supports employer branding?

A) Monitoring office temperature
B) Developing an employee ambassador program
C) Changing software passwords weekly
D) Auditing printer usage
Answer: B

90. Employer branding overlaps with which HR function most?

A) Payroll processing
B) Talent acquisition
C) Warehouse logistics
D) IT support
Answer: B

91. A poorly managed employer brand can lead to:

A) Improved morale
B) Negative candidate perceptions and fewer applications
C) Faster hires
D) Higher-quality resumes
Answer: B

92. Which storytelling format is powerful for employer branding?

A) Long legal documents
B) Short employee video testimonials
C) Quarterly financial reports
D) Office safety manuals
Answer: B

93. Which of these should NOT appear in an employer brand campaign?

A) Work-life balance testimonials
B) Day-in-the-life employee snapshots
C) Confidential salary breakdowns
D) Community service highlights
Answer: C

94. An indirect sign of a strong employer brand is:

A) Low website traffic
 B) Higher unsolicited applicant volume
C) Increase in office moves
D) Reduced hiring managers’ involvement
Answer: B

95. Employer branding must align with:

A) Real employee experiences and company values
B) Random market trends
C) Competitors’ product launches
D) Political campaigns
Answer: A

96. Which cost category does strong employer branding help reduce?
A) Office supplies
B) Cost-per-hire and onboarding expenses
C) Building maintenance
D) IT equipment purchase
Answer: B

97. Employee referral programs support employer branding by:

A) Increasing vendor contracts
B) Leveraging existing staff as brand ambassadors
C) Reducing product warranty claims
D) Hiring external auditors
Answer: B

98. Which element is key in your “Employee Value Proposition” (EVP)?

A) Market share
B) Unique benefits and career development opportunities
C) Color of the office walls
D) Number of floors in the building
Answer: B

99. To measure employer brand ROI, you would track:

A) Total electricity usage
B) Improvements in time-to-fill and quality-of-hire
C) Number of parking tickets
D) Quantity of purchased snacks
Answer: B

100. An employer brand audit should review:

A) Only external marketing materials
B) Candidate feedback, website analytics, and social media sentiment
C) Office floor plan
D) Audit logs of email server
Answer: B

Day 6: Applicant Tracking System (ATS) and Its Benefits (Questions 101–120)
101. An ATS is primarily used to:
A) Track employee leave
B) Automate candidate sourcing, tracking, and workflow
C) Monitor building security
D) Schedule team lunches
Answer: B

102. Which feature is common in modern ATS platforms?

A) Auto-parse resumes into searchable fields
B) Predict weather forecasts
C) Manage financial ledgers
D) Track fitness goals
Answer: A

103. An indirect benefit of ATS is:

A) Reduced office landscaping
B) Enhanced recruiter productivity and consistency
C) More frequent payroll runs
D) Increased meeting durations
Answer: B

104. Which stage of recruitment does an ATS not handle?

A) Resume screening
B) Interview scheduling
C) Onboarding documentation storage
D) Final employment termination
Answer: D

105. ATS helps reduce bias by:

A) Randomly assigning resumes
B) Removing identifying candidate information during screening
C) Increasing manual data entry
D) Shortening candidate names
Answer: B

106. Which metric is easily tracked via an ATS?

A) Employee commute times
B) Time-to-hire and source of hire
C) Performance appraisal scores
D) Office utility bills
Answer: B

107. An ATS improves candidate experience by:

A) Hiding application status
B) Offering self-service status updates and scheduling
C) Requiring faxed resumes
D) Automatically declining all candidates
Answer: B

108. Which integration is vital for ATS effectiveness?

A) Email and calendar systems
 B) Physical access control
C) Payroll only
D) Cafeteria menu planning
Answer: A

109. A challenge when implementing an ATS is:

A) Training recruiters on new workflows
B) Moving office furniture
C) Printing resumes daily
D) Reducing software licenses
Answer: A

110. ATS automation indirectly supports:

A) Reduced email spam only
B) Better compliance and data tracking
C) Personal social media use
D) Increased paper filing
Answer: B

111. Which of the following is not typically a feature of ATS?

A) Resume parsing
B) Video interviewing
C) Expense reimbursement
D) Candidate scoring
Answer: C

112. To maximize ATS ROI, you should:

A) Use all features regardless of need
B) Tailor workflows and train users thoroughly
C) Avoid vendor support
D) Disable reporting modules
Answer: B

113. Which legal requirement can ATS help satisfy?

A) Tax filing
B) Record-keeping for equal opportunity audits
C) Environmental compliance
D) Customer data privacy
Answer: B

114. Which candidate source can be tracked in an ATS?

A) TV ads only
B) Job boards, referrals, career site, social media
C) Verbal referrals only
D) Notice boards exclusively
Answer: B

115. Implementing ATS may indirectly reduce:

A) Need for team-wide meetings
B) Time spent on manual resume screening
C) Quality of hire
 D) Visibility into pipeline
Answer: B

116. Which key performance indicator (KPI) is often improved by ATS?

A) Office temperature
B) Offer acceptance rates
C) Number of coffee breaks
D) Printer usage
Answer: B

117. Before selecting an ATS, evaluate:

A) UI/UX, integration capability, support, and scalability
B) The vendor’s office floor color
C) Social media followers count
D) Number of features only
Answer: A

118. A mobile-friendly ATS interface:

A) Is unnecessary
B) Enhances candidate apply experience on smartphones
C) Slows down the system
D) Reduces resume quality
Answer: B

119. A robust ATS helps with compliance by:

A) Deleting old data
B) Archiving applicant records and audit logs
C) Tracking sales leads
D) Scheduling board meetings
Answer: B

120. To ensure high adoption of ATS, you should:

A) Force usage without training
B) Provide comprehensive training and change management
C) Hide features from users
D) Disable help resources
Answer: B

121. What does "candidate submittal" typically refer to in the recruitment

process?
A) Sending employees to training
B) Submitting shortlisted candidates to the hiring manager
C) Assigning tasks to hired employees
D) Removing rejected applicants from the system
Answer: B

122. Which document is most commonly attached during candidate submittal?

A) Employee ID
B) Resume
C) Insurance card
 D) Salary slip
Answer: B

123. An indirect challenge in the candidate submittal process is:

A) Slow hiring manager feedback
B) Buying new computers
C) Printing payslips
D) Organizing office events
Answer: A

124. A submittal log helps track:

A) Office supplies
B) The number of candidates sent per job position
C) IT ticket resolutions
D) Meeting room bookings
Answer: B

125. Which system is typically used to manage candidate submittals?

A) CRM
B) ATS (Applicant Tracking System)
C) Tally
D) ERP
Answer: B

126. An ideal time frame to make a submittal after sourcing is:

A) 7–14 days
B) 24–48 hours
C) One month
D) Any time before the final interview
Answer: B

127. Candidate submittals should match which of the following most closely?
A) HR policies
B) Job description and qualifications
C) Office rules
D) Admin expenses
Answer: B

128. Frequent rejection of submitted candidates may indicate:

A) Strong sourcing strategy
B) Misalignment between sourcing and JD requirements
C) A high brand image
D) HR policy violations
Answer: B

129. One way to improve submittal quality is to:

A) Decrease screening efforts
B) Conduct mock interviews with candidates
C) Outsource the recruitment
D) Avoid resume formatting
Answer: B
130. A “shortlist” is created after:
A) Resume is written
B) Screening and matching with job criteria
C) The offer is accepted
D) The employee joins
Answer: B

131. In submittal tracking, ‘TAT’ refers to:

A) Turn Around Time
B) Total Application Time
C) Task Alignment Table
D) Trial and Test
Answer: A

132. Submittal feedback is critical to:

A) Final selection process
B) Reduce parking space
C) Increase power bills
D) Hire office decorators
Answer: A

133. Who gives the final go-ahead after a candidate is submitted?

A) Security
B) Hiring manager
C) Cafeteria manager
D) Vendor
Answer: B

134. Which soft skill helps recruiters in candidate submittal discussions with
hiring managers?
A) Public speaking
B) Active listening
C) Playing chess
D) Cooking
Answer: B

135. Submittal to interview conversion rate indicates:

A) Candidate fitness for job
B) Number of bonuses offered
C) Speed of internet
D) AC maintenance status
Answer: A

136. An indirect factor affecting candidate submittals is:

A) Company culture portrayal on social media
B) The weight of resume paper
C) Lunch hours
D) Size of HR cabin
Answer: A
 137. Duplicate candidate submittals are avoided by using:
A) WhatsApp groups
B) ATS resume tracking
C) Monthly meetings
D) Verbal discussions
Answer: B

138. When a candidate is submitted without basic screening, the risk is:
A) Higher interview success
B) Poor experience for the hiring team
C) Stronger employer brand
D) Better job fit
Answer: B

139. Submittal reports typically include:

A) Candidate name, position, submittal date, status
B) Employee birthday list
C) Vendor invoice list
D) Bank account numbers
Answer: A

140. Candidate submittal improves when recruiters:

A) Understand job roles deeply
B) Avoid discussing salary
C) Submit everyone
D) Stop using job portals
Answer: A

Day 8: Dismissal of Employment (Q141–160)

(Includes practical docs: Termination letter, relieving letter, experience certificate)

141. Dismissal of employment means:

A) Promoting an employee
B) Termination of employment by employer
C) Completing annual reviews
D) Issuing a training certificate
Answer: B

142. A termination letter should include:

A) Birthday wishes
B) Reason for dismissal, effective date, and formal notice
C) Menu for lunch
D) Retirement invitation
Answer: B

143. One indirect reason for dismissal may include:

A) Consistent underperformance
B) Company picnic
 C) Daily greetings
D) Weekend work

144. Relieving letter confirms:

A) Dismissal reason only
B) That the employee is no longer with the company
C) Future job offer
D) Health benefits only
Answer: B
145. Which is not found in a standard experience certificate?
A) Period of employment
B) Roles and responsibilities
C) Food preferences
D) Performance summary (optional)
Answer: C
146. Dismissal due to violation of company policy is called:
A) Constructive dismissal
B) Disciplinary dismissal
C) Transfer
D) Voluntary resignation
Answer: B
147. If dismissal happens without valid reason, it is:
A) Ethical
B) Arbitrary and may lead to legal action
C) Part of promotion
D) Performance review
Answer: B
148. The relieving letter is useful for the employee to:
A) Access cafeteria
B) Join a new employer
C) Get birthday gifts
D) Receive salary slips
Answer: B
149. Who usually signs the experience certificate?
A) Cafeteria head
B) HR Manager or Authorized Signatory
C) Front desk
D) Security team
Answer: B
150. In a termination letter, tone should be:
A) Sarcastic
B) Formal and respectful
C) Humorous
D) Apathetic
Answer: B
151. Relieving letters should NOT contain:
A) Legal threats
B) Confirmation of last working day
C) Appreciation for service
 D) Company letterhead
Answer: A
152. A dismissal process is considered fair when:
A) It follows due process and company policy
B) HR guesses the reason
C) Manager dislikes the employee
D) It is announced via WhatsApp
Answer: A
153. Which practical step should be taken before dismissal?
A) Final performance discussion
B) Birthday party
C) Promotion plan
D) Conference invite
Answer: A
154. Experience certificate is a proof of:
A) Resignation
B) Work history and role
C) Educational qualification
D) Future salary
Answer: B
155. Wrongful dismissal may result in:
A) Employee rewards
B) Legal claims and damage to employer reputation
C) Higher team bonding
D) Product launch
Answer: B
156. An effective dismissal letter should mention:
A) Next party date
B) Reason, notice served, final settlement information
C) Employee hobbies
D) Training certificates
Answer: B
157. Who initiates dismissal procedure in most organizations?
A) IT Team
B) HR Department or Line Manager
C) Cleaning staff
D) Receptionist
Answer: B
158. Dismissal due to cost-cutting is referred to as:
A) Disciplinary action
B) Layoff or redundancy
C) Medical leave
D) Suspension
Answer: B
159. Which practical activity can be assigned to understand dismissals?
A) Drafting termination, relieving, and experience letters
B) Learning excel formulas
C) Making posters
D) Practicing dance
Answer: A
 160. Before issuing dismissal letter, what document is often prepared?
A) Salary structure
B) Show cause notice or warning letter
C) Holiday calendar
D) Parking receipt
Answer: B

please

ChatGPT said:

Here are the next 40 MCQs (Questions 161–200) covering:

Day 9: Discriminatory and Retaliatory Termination

Day 10: Alternatives to Hiring Permanent Employees

Day 9: Discriminatory and Retaliatory Termination (Q161–180)

161. Discriminatory termination occurs when an employee is dismissed based

on:
A) Poor performance
B) Legal retirement age
C) Race, gender, religion, or other protected characteristics
D) Repeated policy violations
Answer: C

162. Which of the following is an example of retaliatory termination?

A) Termination due to cost-cutting
B) Firing an employee for reporting harassment
C) Firing after a voluntary resignation
D) Retirement after 60
Answer: B

163. Retaliatory termination violates which major principle?

A) Compensation rule
B) Ethical neutrality
C) Whistleblower protection rights
D) Workplace decorum
Answer: C

164. A manager fires an employee because they filed a complaint. This is an

example of:
A) Ethical conduct
B) Valid termination
C) Retaliatory dismissal
D) Disciplinary action
Answer: C

165. Which legal body in India can address discriminatory termination cases?
A) RBI
 B) SEBI
C) Labour Court
D) TRAI
Answer: C

166. What is the indirect effect of discriminatory termination on other

employees?
A) Higher team spirit
B) Increased morale
C) Decreased trust and fear of reporting issues
D) Improved compliance
Answer: C

167. The best way to avoid discrimination-related termination is:

A) Random terminations
B) Ignoring employee complaints
C) Clear HR policies and training
D) Hiring fewer people
Answer: C

168. What law in India helps protect against workplace discrimination?

A) Companies Act
B) Industrial Disputes Act
C) Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace Act
D) Factory Act
Answer: C

169. Which of these is a protected class under anti-discrimination policies?

A) Dress style
B) Smoking habits
C) Caste, religion, disability
D) Zodiac sign
Answer: C

170. If an employee is terminated after participating in a union, it can be seen as:

A) Healthy competition
B) Legal disciplinary action
C) Discriminatory or retaliatory
D) Encouraged dismissal
Answer: C

171. Indirect discrimination can occur when:

A) Policies unintentionally disadvantage a group
B) Employees get equal opportunities
C) Salaries are increased equally
D) Benefits are removed for all
Answer: A

172. Which document supports fairness in termination?

A) Casual leave form
B) Disciplinary action policy
 C) Conference brochure
D) Marketing poster
Answer: B

173. Terminating a pregnant employee without cause may be seen as:

A) Strategic hiring
B) Legal termination
C) Discriminatory
D) Internal transfer
Answer: C

174. Retaliatory actions reduce employee:

A) Attendance
B) Loyalty and openness
C) Uniform usage
D) Productivity tools
Answer: B

175. What should HR do before terminating an employee facing discrimination

allegations?
A) Ignore the issue
B) Collect valid evidence and consult legal counsel
C) Close the case
D) Ask the employee to resign
Answer: B

176. Discrimination can indirectly affect company reputation by:

A) Increasing funding
B) Improving campus recruitment
C) Reducing employer branding and public trust
D) Attracting skilled workers
Answer: C

177. Which phrase applies to indirect discriminatory practice?

A) Treating everyone equally
B) Equal pay for equal work
C) Applying neutral rules that disadvantage certain groups
D) Free meal plans
Answer: C

178. When employees are afraid to report issues due to fear of firing, it signals:
A) Transparent culture
B) Strong HR policies
C) Toxic work environment
D) High retention
Answer: C

179. Which organization globally works on employment equality?

A) WHO
B) ILO (International Labour Organization)
C) FIFA
 D) WTO
Answer: B

180. To prevent retaliation, companies must:

A) Punish whistleblowers
B) Fire reporting employees
C) Protect employees who raise concerns
D) Hide complaints
Answer: C

Day 10: Alternatives to Hiring Permanent Employees (Q181–200)

181. Which is NOT an alternative to permanent hiring?

A) Hiring full-time staff
B) Freelancers
C) Interns
D) Consultants
Answer: A

182. Gig workers are hired for:

A) Lifetime contracts
B) Temporary and project-based tasks
C) Loan processing
D) HR audits only
Answer: B

183. The benefit of hiring a consultant is:

A) Increased liability
B) Specialized skills on demand
C) Higher office costs
D) Long-term retention
Answer: B

184. One indirect advantage of contractual hiring is:

A) Legal disputes
B) Increased documentation
C) Cost efficiency and flexibility
D) Permanent pension
Answer: C

185. Interns are mostly hired for:

A) Senior executive roles
B) Learning and short-term assignments
C) Payroll finalization
D) Office renovations
Answer: B

186. An outsourced recruiter is an example of:

A) Full-time staff
B) Gig economy
 C) Recruitment Process Outsourcing (RPO)
D) Job hopper
Answer: C

187. Which is a key risk in project-based hiring?

A) Consistent learning
B) Commitment and alignment to company culture
C) Full-time salary costs
D) Office attendance
Answer: B

188. What tool helps manage freelancers and part-time employees?

A) CRM
B) ATS
C) Vendor Management System (VMS)
D) Outlook Calendar
Answer: C

189. Temporary staffing agencies provide:

A) Furniture
B) Permanent hires
C) Short-term manpower based on demand
D) Performance bonuses
Answer: C

190. Hiring part-time workers helps organizations by:

A) Increasing cost
B) Managing peak workloads flexibly
C) Lengthening recruitment time
D) Raising absenteeism
Answer: B

191. Which one is NOT an advantage of hiring interns?

A) Talent pipeline
B) New ideas
C) High training investment
D) Short-term help
Answer: C

192. Seasonal hiring is most common in:

A) Schools
B) Tourism and retail industries
C) Corporate finance
D) Legal departments
Answer: B

193. Contract-based hiring is typically based on:

A) Long-term growth plans
B) Defined duration and deliverables
C) No documentation
 D) Full pension plans
Answer: B

194. Hiring consultants is ideal when:

A) The company has an internal HR team
B) Specific expertise is temporarily needed
C) The job is repetitive
D) HR costs must be increased
Answer: B

195. The primary drawback of freelance hiring is:

A) Flexibility
B) Lesser commitment and accountability
C) Faster onboarding
D) Payroll efficiency
Answer: B

196. A company uses a staffing agency. This is known as:

A) Internal promotion
B) Third-party hiring
C) Brand marketing
D) Exit planning
Answer: B

197. Which of the following is an indirect benefit of alternative hiring models?

A) Broader talent access
B) High attrition
C) Poor compliance
D) Delayed reporting
Answer: A

198. When companies avoid permanent roles but use external talent, they are
adopting:
A) Legacy HR practices
B) Traditional staffing
C) Flexible workforce strategy
D) HR downsizing
Answer: C

199. Which kind of workers are hired through platforms like Upwork?
A) Permanent full-timers
B) Gig/freelance workers
C) Unskilled daily wagers
D) Manufacturing workers
Answer: B

200. One challenge in managing a mixed workforce (permanent + temporary) is:

A) Uniform taxation
B) Cultural and engagement differences
C) Fixed leave policy
 D) Auto-scheduling
Answer: B

201. mployee retention refers to:

A) Promoting employees to new roles
B) Efforts to keep employees in the organization long-term
C) Hiring consultants
D) Reducing training programs
Answer: B

202. Which of the following helps improve retention?

A) Delayed salary
B) Micromanagement
C) Career development programs
D) Increased surveillance
Answer: C

203. A major reason for high attrition is:

A) Skill development
B) Lack of career growth
C) Free training
D) Friendly work culture
Answer: B

204. Which indirect factor improves retention?

A) Air conditioning
B) Healthy work-life balance
C) Office snacks
D) Furniture layout
Answer: B

205. Exit interviews are useful to:

A) Celebrate promotions
B) Understand reasons behind employee resignations
C) Provide salary hike
D) Plan office tours
Answer: B

206. One costly outcome of poor retention is:

A) High water bills
B) Frequent rehiring and loss of productivity
C) More training sessions
D) Stronger culture
Answer: B

207. A stay interview is conducted to:

A) Hire new employees
B) Promote juniors
C) Understand why current employees continue to work
D) Celebrate birthday
Answer: C
208. Which non-monetary factor can help with retention?
A) High salary
B) Regular feedback and recognition
C) Bigger office space
D) Company vehicles
Answer: B

209. The retention strategy focusing on internal promotions is known as:

A) Outsourcing
B) Employee lifecycle
C) Succession planning
D) Compliance management
Answer: C

210. Retention improves when HR conducts:

A) Surprise exams
B) Career pathing and development discussions
C) Frequent transfers
D) Daily reporting
Answer: B

211. Which tool is used to measure retention success?

A) ROI calculator
B) Attrition rate formula
C) Design software
D) PF statement
Answer: B

212. An example of an indirect retention activity:

A) Weekend off
B) Employee wellness programs
C) Desk cleaning
D) Vendor meeting
Answer: B

213. A major retention metric is:

A) Number of memos
B) Employee tenure (average length of stay)
C) Number of transfers
D) Office space size
Answer: B

214. Which leadership style supports employee retention best?

A) Autocratic
B) Democratic/Participative
C) Laissez-faire
D) Transactional
Answer: B

215. Retention bonuses are paid to:

A) Temporary staff
 B) Employees who agree to stay longer during critical times
C) Resigned staff
D) Visitors
Answer: B

216. Which legal provision helps with job security and retention in India?
A) Companies Act
B) Industrial Disputes Act
C) RTI Act
D) Finance Act
Answer: B

217. One example of job redesign for retention is:

A) Adding unwanted tasks
B) Creating meaningful roles based on strengths
C) Increasing workload randomly
D) Removing all benefits
Answer: B

218. Which of the following departments closely supports retention?

A) IT
B) HR
C) Security
D) Legal
Answer: B

219. Retention strategy during layoffs should focus on:

A) Cost reduction only
B) Transparent communication and support
C) Firing all low performers
D) Replacing HR
Answer: B

220. A “stay bonus” is also called:

A) Entry-level pay
B) Retention bonus
C) Overtime
D) Insurance premium
Answer: B

Day 12: Employee Engagement (Q221–240)

221. Employee engagement means:

A) Getting married
B) Emotional and psychological commitment to work
C) Applying for leave
D) Changing departments
Answer: B
222. Which activity directly improves engagement?
A) Monthly feedback sessions
B) Locking mobile phones
C) Restricting communication
D) Reducing holidays
Answer: A

223. Engaged employees are more likely to:

A) Quit quickly
B) Miss deadlines
C) Be productive and loyal
D) Ignore teamwork
Answer: C

224. An engagement survey measures:

A) Office cleanliness
B) Employee sentiments and connection to the workplace
C) Market share
D) Furniture usage
Answer: B

225. One indirect sign of disengagement is:

A) Active participation in meetings
B) Frequent absences and low energy
C) Completion of tasks
D) Attending trainings
Answer: B

226. A major driver of engagement is:

A) Autonomy and recognition
B) Bigger desk
C) Shorter lunch break
D) Remote controls
Answer: A

227. Employee engagement is usually driven by:

A) HR and team managers
B) Security
C) Cafeteria staff
D) External vendors
Answer: A

228. Pulse surveys are conducted to:

A) Check BP
B) Collect quick feedback on engagement
C) Conduct medical tests
D) Track attendance
Answer: B

229. Which indirect practice affects engagement negatively?

A) Transparent communication
 B) Ignoring employee suggestions
C) Recognition programs
D) Celebration of success
Answer: B

230. The Gallup Q12 survey is associated with:

A) Labour law
B) Job stress
C) Measuring employee engagement
D) Salary appraisal
Answer: C

231. Engaged employees can positively impact:

A) Vendor management
B) Profits and innovation
C) IT ticket closures
D) Canteen usage
Answer: B

232. One outcome of low engagement is:

A) Higher productivity
B) Lower absenteeism
C) High turnover
D) Improved profits
Answer: C

233. Gamification in HR can improve:

A) Employee discipline
B) Employee engagement through interactive tasks
C) Server speed
D) Job titles
Answer: B

234. Engagement activities should align with:

A) Employee needs and company goals
B) Public holidays
C) HR leave plans
D) Contractor schedules
Answer: A

235. Which technique supports engagement for remote teams?

A) Isolation
B) Virtual town halls and check-ins
C) Cutting pay
D) Restricting emails
Answer: B

236. Which program type boosts emotional engagement?

A) Health check-up
B) Community volunteering and CSR
C) Expense reporting
 D) Attendance registers
Answer: B

237. Engagement begins from:

A) Final salary processing
B) Exit interview
C) Onboarding experience
D) Appraisal
Answer: C

238. Lack of engagement can lead to:

A) Workplace harmony
B) Silent quitting (working without interest)
C) Performance awards
D) Pay raise
Answer: B

239. One indirect benefit of high engagement is:

A) Lower water usage
B) Better customer satisfaction
C) Fewer chairs needed
D) More email usage
Answer: B

240. An engagement champion is someone who:

A) Sits in HR
B) Leads and promotes engagement activities within teams
C) Provides security
D) Leaves early
Answer: B

241. Salary negotiation is a process between:

A) Vendor and HR
B) Employee and employer
C) Customer and sales rep
D) Government and labor union
Answer: B

242. Which of the following is crucial in preparing for salary negotiation?

A) Office layout knowledge
B) Market salary benchmarking
C) Internet speed
D) Social media followers
Answer: B

243. Which non-verbal cue is important during a salary negotiation?

A) Loud voice
B) Eye contact and posture
C) Wearing sunglasses
D) Sitting in silence
Answer: B
244. Negotiating a salary before accepting a job offer is:
A) Illegal
B) Unprofessional
C) Common and acceptable
D) Disrespectful
Answer: C

245. Which of the following improves negotiation success?

A) Being aggressive
B) Avoiding questions
C) Knowing your value and achievements
D) Comparing with friends
Answer: C

246. One indirect risk of poor negotiation is:

A) Overcommunication
B) Future dissatisfaction and attrition
C) Too many coffee breaks
D) Color-coded folders
Answer: B

247. A good negotiation strategy involves:

A) Guessing a salary
B) Fixed mindset
C) BATNA (Best Alternative to a Negotiated Agreement)
D) Silence
Answer: C

248. Which tool helps HR decide salary offers?

A) ATS
B) Salary survey reports
C) Cafeteria feedback
D) Security logbook
Answer: B

249. Negotiation failure from employer side may lead to:

A) More loyalty
B) Candidate rejecting the offer
C) Better performance
D) Increased brand value
Answer: B

250. What is the first step in negotiation?

A) Finalizing HR policy
B) Understanding expectations and preparing
C) Paying bills
D) Creating a memo
Answer: B

251. A candidate who accepts a low salary without discussion might:

A) Stay long
 B) Be highly engaged
C) Feel undervalued later
D) Be considered a leader
Answer: C

252. HR usually expects negotiation during:

A) Festival bonus
B) Salary offer stage
C) Medical reimbursement
D) Office decoration
Answer: B

253. What should be avoided in salary negotiation?

A) Open communication
B) Comparing with internal employees
C) Asking based on market rate
D) Highlighting achievements
Answer: B

254. If a candidate is very rigid in salary talks, HR should:

A) Ignore it
B) End discussion immediately
C) Explore non-monetary benefits and future growth
D) Fire the person
Answer: C

255. An example of indirect negotiation benefit is:

A) Better team lunch
B) Higher self-confidence in employee
C) New company logo
D) Uniforms
Answer: B

256. What is a “walk-away point” in negotiation?

A) Final agreement
B) Limit beyond which one will not accept
C) First meeting
D) Entry interview
Answer: B

257. Which of these can HR offer if salary expectations are too high?
A) Remove all perks
B) Offer performance-based bonus
C) Block promotion
D) Reduce holidays
Answer: B

258. Which phrase best applies to salary negotiation?

A) Take it or leave it
B) Mutual understanding and fairness
C) Secret deal
 D) Office politics
Answer: B

259. Negotiation helps create:

A) Conflict
B) A win-win outcome
C) Anger
D) Overconfidence
Answer: B

260. If HR offers below-market salary without justification, the impact can be:
A) High trust
B) Strong brand image
C) Negative employer reputation
D) Better teamwork
Answer: C

Day 14: Exit Interviews (Q261–280)

261. Exit interviews are conducted when:

A) Employee joins
B) Employee resigns or retires
C) Manager changes
D) Job role changes
Answer: B

262. Main purpose of exit interview is to:

A) Issue laptop
B) Celebrate exit
C) Gather feedback about the organization
D) Renew contract
Answer: C

263. Which department conducts exit interviews?

A) Finance
B) HR
C) Admin
D) Legal
Answer: B

264. A benefit of exit interviews is:

A) More birthday parties
B) Honest insights for HR improvement
C) Salary increment
D) Reduced documentation
Answer: B

265. Which of the following is a good practice in exit interviews?

A) Forcing answers
B) Maintaining confidentiality and professionalism
 C) Blaming employee
D) Cancelling salary
Answer: B

266. Exit interview feedback should be used to:

A) Publish publicly
B) Track employee faults
C) Improve organizational policies
D) Terminate HR
Answer: C

267. Common topic in exit interviews:

A) Favorite food
B) Commute and work-life balance issues
C) Social media trends
D) Office color
Answer: B

268. One indirect benefit of exit interviews is:

A) Decorating the exit room
B) Better HR strategies for retention
C) Increased staff attendance
D) New software purchases
Answer: B

269. Which tool can be used to conduct exit interviews anonymously?

A) Employee ID
B) Online survey platforms
C) CCTV
D) Signature pad
Answer: B

270. An employee’s negative feedback in exit should be:

A) Ignored
B) Deleted
C) Recorded and used constructively
D) Reported to security
Answer: C

271. Which of the following should be avoided during exit interviews?

A) Listening actively
B) Asking open-ended questions
C) Being defensive or judgmental
D) Thanking the employee
Answer: C

272. What does an HR do after an exit interview?

A) Close payroll only
B) File the resignation
C) Analyze trends and report insights
 D) Remove access card
Answer: C

273. Exit interview data should be stored:

A) Publicly on website
B) In performance tracker
C) Confidentially in HR records
D) In finance department
Answer: C

274. One limitation of exit interviews is:

A) Too much fun
B) Bias or hesitation from the departing employee
C) Increased salary
D) Full attendance
Answer: B

275. Exit interviews are most effective when they are:

A) Compulsory and rushed
B) Voluntary and respectful
C) Conducted by security
D) Avoided
Answer: B

276. Which feedback is most useful from an exit interview?

A) Cafeteria timing
B) Suggestions on how to improve leadership or culture
C) Favorite game
D) Dress code
Answer: B

277. A role play on exit interviews should include:

A) Arguments and blame
B) HR and employee discussing reasons professionally
C) HR rejecting feedback
D) Laptop handover
Answer: B

278. One question HR should ask during exit interviews:

A) Will you return your uniform?
B) Who is your best friend here?
C) What made you decide to leave the organization?
D) Can you cancel your leave?
Answer: C

279. Analyzing exit interview data can help HR to:

A) Promote only seniors
B) Spot common resignation patterns
C) Organize a farewell
D) Increase working hours
Answer: B
280. If multiple employees resign for the same reason, HR should:
A) Ignore the trend
B) Investigate and take corrective action
C) Replace all managers
D) Conduct surprise visits
Answer: B

281. One major current trend in recruitment is:

A) Offline ads in newspapers only
B) AI-driven screening tools
C) Physical suggestion boxes
D) Fax-based CVs
Answer: B

282. Which platform is most widely used in modern recruitment?

A) Google Drive
B) WhatsApp status
C) LinkedIn
D) Wikipedia
Answer: C

283. Which technology automates candidate tracking?

A) PowerPoint
B) ATS (Applicant Tracking System)
C) CCTV
D) CRM
Answer: B

284. What does "remote hiring" refer to?

A) Hiring for rural locations only
B) Hiring employees to work from home
C) Hiring only friends
D) Hiring relatives
Answer: B

285. “Candidate experience” refers to:

A) The experience letter of candidate
B) How candidates feel about the hiring process
C) Previous salary
D) Internal HR discussion
Answer: B

286. Which of the following is a social media recruitment strategy?

A) Posting jobs on Instagram or LinkedIn
B) Sending letters by post
C) Asking for biodata via courier
D) Pasting notices in public places
Answer: A

287. One benefit of using AI in recruitment is:

A) Longer interviews
 B) Time-saving in screening
C) More printing work
D) More typing required
Answer: B

288. Which trend supports hiring diverse talent?

A) Only internal referrals
B) Blind hiring practices
C) Hiring from one community
D) Selecting based on family background
Answer: B

289. "Employer branding" in recruitment means:

A) Printing more logos
B) Promoting company’s image to attract talent
C) Sharing food coupons
D) Changing company name
Answer: B

290. One way to improve speed of hiring is to:

A) Use manual CV sorting
B) Delay responses
C) Use recruitment analytics
D) Stop interviews
Answer: C

291. Gamification in recruitment helps in:

A) Relaxation only
B) Engaging candidates through interactive assessment
C) Filling forms
D) Celebrating office parties
Answer: B

292. What is the use of chatbots in recruitment?

A) To entertain staff
B) To automatically answer candidate queries
C) For video editing
D) For job rotation
Answer: B

293. Which is a current trend for candidate assessment?

A) Only paper tests
B) Video-based assessments
C) Classroom viva
D) Oral discussion in public
Answer: B

294. A modern-day sourcing tool is:

A) Landline
B) Job boards like Naukri.com, Indeed
C) Printed posters
 D) Local newspapers only
Answer: B

295. “Hiring for culture fit” focuses on:

A) Age and gender
B) Alignment of candidate values with company culture
C) Dress code
D) Distance from office
Answer: B

296. Which analytics is useful in recruitment?

A) Traffic analysis
B) Hiring funnel conversion rate
C) Machine downtime
D) Attendance data
Answer: B

297. Mobile recruiting is popular because:

A) Everyone avoids computers
B) Candidates often use phones to search and apply
C) SMS is legal proof
D) Emails are not used
Answer: B

298. The term “boomerang employee” refers to:

A) An employee who keeps coming late
B) A rehired former employee
C) Someone who flies drones
D) A person who never leaves
Answer: B

299. A challenge of modern recruitment is:

A) Too many walk-ins
B) Managing data privacy and GDPR compliance
C) Lack of job seekers
D) Not enough interviews
Answer: B

300. Diversity hiring ensures:

A) Only young candidates
B) Bias-free and inclusive recruitment
C) One-language policy
D) Hiring based on income level
Answer: B

Day 16: Job Description of HR Recruiter (Q301–320)

301. The primary role of an HR Recruiter is to:

A) Organize events
B) Hire the right candidates
 C) Maintain finance books
D) Audit stores
Answer: B

302. Which of these is part of an HR recruiter’s daily task?

A) Video editing
B) Sourcing resumes
C) Cash deposit
D) Cooking for events
Answer: B

303. An HR recruiter must have skills in:

A) Engineering
B) Communication and negotiation
C) Farming
D) Legal drafting
Answer: B

304. Screening candidates means:

A) Rejecting them
B) Checking if they match job requirements
C) Giving them salary hike
D) Conducting farewell
Answer: B

305. HR recruiter is responsible for closing:

A) Office pantry
B) Salary accounts
C) Job vacancies
D) Conference rooms
Answer: C

306. Which document is prepared by recruiters for interviewers?

A) Feedback forms
B) Interview schedule
C) Attendance sheet
D) Minutes of meeting
Answer: B

307. Follow-up in recruitment means:

A) Calling security
B) Calling selected candidates for joining
C) Paying bills
D) Giving loans
Answer: B

308. Recruiters use which tool to manage applications?

A) Photoshop
B) ATS (Applicant Tracking System)
C) MS Paint
 D) GPS
Answer: B

309. HR recruiters must avoid:

A) Clear JD
B) Bias and favoritism
C) Transparent process
D) Structured interviews
Answer: B

310. Which department works closely with recruiters?

A) Housekeeping
B) Finance
C) Hiring departments (functional teams)
D) Security
Answer: C

311. What does TAT mean in recruitment?

A) Time Around Tracking
B) Turn-Around Time for closing a position
C) Talk After Task
D) Technical Assessment Time
Answer: B

312. The first step in recruitment process is:

A) Salary negotiation
B) Requirement gathering and JD preparation
C) Issuing appointment letter
D) Filing resignation
Answer: B

313. Recruiters are also responsible for:

A) Selling products
B) Ensuring positive candidate experience
C) Teaching classes
D) Managing cafeteria
Answer: B

314. Which of these is important for a recruiter to succeed?

A) Ignoring calls
B) Building a talent pipeline
C) Changing job title daily
D) Offering gifts
Answer: B

315. Recruiters must keep track of:

A) Festival calendar
B) Status of each applicant
C) Employee canteen bill
D) Laptop brands
Answer: B
316. One indirect duty of recruiter is:
A) Improving employer branding
B) Organizing birthday parties
C) Sending bulk emails
D) Printing ID cards
Answer: A

317. HR recruiters maintain:

A) Cash register
B) Candidate databases
C) Electrical bills
D) Snacks chart
Answer: B

318. Which of these is NOT a recruiter responsibility?

A) Finalizing business loans
B) Coordinating interviews
C) Screening resumes
D) Sending offer letters
Answer: A

319. A good recruiter provides:

A) Delayed responses
B) Clear communication and timely updates
C) Salary slip
D) HR audits
Answer: B

320. The final output expected from recruiter is:

A) Team tour
B) Filled job positions with right candidates
C) Free merchandise
D) Color report
Answer: B

321. 321. A company noticed that after final interviews, 40% of selected candidates
were rejecting offers. What should HR analyze first?
A) Number of recruiters
B) Length of resumes
C) Candidate experience during interview
D) Company's birthday celebration
Answer: C
(Indirect – focuses on application and HR insight.)
322.
323. 322. An IT firm hires through referral only. It faces low diversity. What HR
strategy should be reconsidered?
A) Offer letter format
B) Internal hiring bias
C) Interview panel training
 D) Flexible work hours
Answer: B
324.
325. 323. During exit interviews, many employees said they felt "ignored after
interviews." What does this indicate?
A) Poor sourcing strategy
B) Ineffective onboarding
C) Poor post-interview communication
D) Good HR branding
Answer: C
326.
327. 324. A recruiter gave preference to a candidate from his village. Which HR
principle is violated?
A) Employer branding
B) Cultural fit
C) Fair selection practices
D) Referral bonus
Answer: C
328.
329. 325. A startup has 20 vacancies but no defined job roles. What’s the
immediate step for the recruiter?
A) Post job ads
B) Hire friends
C) Conduct job analysis
D) Organize farewell
Answer: C
330.
331. 326. After introducing panel interviews, one company noticed improved
candidate engagement. What could be a possible reason?
A) More interviewers = more confusion
B) Candidates feel the process is transparent
C) It takes less time
D) Candidates are paid more
Answer: B
332.
333. 327. If an organization wants to attract Gen Z candidates, it must focus on:
A) High salary only
B) Printed applications
C) Employer branding on social media
D) Handwritten resumes
Answer: C
334.
335. 328. In a multinational company, one interviewer asks irrelevant personal
questions. What policy is being violated?
A) Dress code
B) Diversity policy
C) Interview ethics and structure
D) Salary policy
Answer: C
336.
337. 329. A recruiter receives 500 applications, but only 20 are shortlisted. What
tool could improve screening efficiency?
A) Word document
B) Applicant Tracking System (ATS)
C) MS Paint
D) WhatsApp group
Answer: B
338.
339. 330. A case study reveals a company that loses top talent due to lengthy hiring
process. What can HR implement?
A) Extend interview hours
B) Delay onboarding
C) Automate scheduling
D) Include more interview rounds
Answer: C
340.
341. 331. Which step would improve employer branding based on candidate
feedback post-interview?
A) Reject candidates rudely
B) Provide feedback and updates
C) Skip offer letters
D) Hide salary details
Answer: B
342.
343. 332. A recruiter finds that 80% of hired candidates leave within 3 months.
What is the probable cause?
A) Poor attendance
B) Strong onboarding
C) Poor job fit and engagement
D) Good culture
Answer: C
344.
345. 333. In a role play, one candidate confidently asks about growth opportunities.
The panel ignores it. What should be improved?
A) Salary discussion
B) Interviewer responsiveness and clarity
C) Number of interviewers
D) Time limit
Answer: B
346.
347. 334. In a campus interview, a student performs well but gets rejected. Later,
it’s found HR misjudged based on English fluency. What bias is this?
A) Confirmation bias
B) Halo effect
C) Language bias
D) Technical bias
Answer: C
348.
349. 335. A company hires a new recruiter. What should be his first understanding
based on a case scenario?
A) Company leave policy
B) Recruitment life cycle
C) Number of team members
D) Canteen rules
Answer: B
350.
351. 336. An interview panel discusses personal details of candidates in an open
office. This violates:
A) Recruitment funnel
B) Data privacy and confidentiality
C) Social media policy
D) Onboarding checklist
Answer: B
352.
353. 337. A company frequently changes job descriptions after interviews. What
impact does this have?
A) Enhances employer branding
B) Confuses candidates and shows poor planning
C) Attracts more talent
D) Speeds up hiring
Answer: B
354.
355. 338. An HR manager asks leading questions during interview. This can:
A) Improve evaluation
B) Result in biased answers
C) Save time
D) Help onboarding
Answer: B
356.
357. 339. A recruiter gives false promises of promotions to attract candidates. This
affects:
A) Candidate confidence
B) Internal referral
C) Retention and trust
D) Diversity
Answer: C
358.
359. 340. A role play interview exercise shows a candidate who lacks confidence
but strong technical skills. A good recruiter should:
A) Reject due to confidence
B) Focus on communication only
C) Consider potential and trainability
D) Skip feedback
Answer: C
360.
361. Q341–360: Role Play on HR Interview Conduct (Mix of
Indirect + Direct)
362.
363. 341. What’s the first thing a recruiter should do during a real or role-play
interview?
A) Ask salary
B) Greet and build rapport
C) Start technical questions
D) End meeting
Answer: B
364.
365. 342. Which behavior is best in an interviewer during a role play?
A) Interrupt constantly
B) Show empathy and professionalism
C) Avoid eye contact
D) Judge appearance
Answer: B
366.
367. 343. A role play reveals a panel asking the same questions. What should be
improved?
A) Coordination and structure
B) Canteen access
C) Number of applicants
D) Training budget
Answer: A
368.
369. 344. Which of the following best demonstrates structured interviewing in role
play?
A) Asking random personal questions
B) Using pre-planned questions for all
C) Avoiding difficult questions
D) Speaking in regional language
Answer: B
370.
371. 345. In mock interviews, what kind of feedback should recruiters give?
A) Only positive
B) Honest, constructive, and actionable
C) Public criticism
D) No feedback
Answer: B
372.
373. 346. A candidate shares about disability in role play. Interviewer should:
A) Change tone
B) Respect, not discriminate
C) Reject immediately
D) Ignore details
Answer: B
374.
375. 347. A role play exercise uses difficult technical questions only. This affects:
A) Only skill test
B) Candidate comfort and confidence
 C) Offer letter
D) HR policies
Answer: B
376.
377. 348. Interviewers should avoid questions related to:
A) Work experience
B) Strengths
C) Age, religion, marital status
D) Projects
Answer: C
378.
379. 349. When conducting interviews in mock or real settings, panelists must:
A) Ask tricky personal questions
B) Take turns and maintain flow
C) Talk simultaneously
D) Use only body language
Answer: B
380.
381. 350. Which of the following shows a good role play outcome?
A) Bias in selection
B) Clear observation, fair scoring
C) Preference for local language
D) Skipping written feedback
Answer: B
382.
383. 351. Mock interviews train students in:
A) Data entry
B) Interview etiquette and confidence
C) Story writing
D) Teaching skills
Answer: B
384.
385. 352. An interviewer yawns during mock interview. Candidate feels
discouraged. What’s violated?
A) Interview ethics and attentiveness
B) Salary negotiation
C) Time limit
D) Background check
Answer: A
386.
387. 353. A panelist checks phone during role play. Impact?
A) Candidate feels valued
B) Shows unprofessional behavior
C) Improves speed
D) Builds rapport
Answer: B
388.
389. 354. After a role play, the trainer advises "ask behavioral questions." This
helps assess:
 A) Past job locations
B) How candidate handled real past situations
C) Educational level only
D) Salary only
Answer: B
390.
391. 355. What should be done after every role-play or real interview?
A) Celebrate
B) Document observations
C) Change resume
D) Remove all notes
Answer: B
392.
393. 356. Role play with scripted answers does not help because:
A) It trains more
B) It prevents spontaneous response assessment
C) It boosts feedback
D) It matches job role
Answer: B
394.
395. 357. Feedback session after mock interview helps:
A) Only HR team
B) Only candidates with MBA
C) All participants learn and grow
D) Salary revision
Answer: C
396.
397. 358. Role play practice is especially useful for:
A) Entry-level candidates
B) CEOs only
C) Retired employees
D) Internal transfers only
Answer: A
398.
399. 359. The most important aspect of a mock interview is:
A) Fancy room
B) Interviewer dress code
C) Realistic simulation and learning
D) Free food
Answer: C
400.
401. 360. A mock interview helped a student identify gaps in answering. This leads
to:
A) Resignation
B) Career planning and improvement
C) Changing stream
D) Reducing salary
Answer: B
402. 61. A mock interview helps in evaluating which of the following most
effectively?
A) Salary expectation
B) Body language and communication
C) Hobbies only
D) Medical history
Answer: B
403.
404. 362. During a mock interview, a candidate repeatedly avoids eye contact.
What skill needs development?
A) Resume writing
B) Soft skills and confidence
C) Technical knowledge
D) Compensation knowledge
Answer: B
405.
406. 363. Which feedback would be most helpful post mock interview?
A) “Good luck.”
B) “You were okay.”
C) “Improve clarity while answering strength-weakness questions.”
D) “Better dress next time.”
Answer: C
407.
408. 364. Why is recording mock interviews useful?
A) For fun
B) To evaluate grooming
C) For performance review and improvement
D) To submit for job
Answer: C
409.
410. 365. What is the primary objective of mock interviews in campus placements?
A) Increase fees
B) Prepare students for real-world selection processes
C) Select internal trainers
D) Compare colleges
Answer: B
411.
412. 366. A mock interview should simulate:
A) A classroom presentation
B) A real job interview experience
C) Debate competition
D) Speech practice
Answer: B
413.
414. 367. What should be avoided in mock interviews?
A) Professional feedback
B) Formal tone
C) Favoritism and vague grading
 D) Role clarity
Answer: C
415.
416. 368. Which part of the mock interview helps test real-time response?
A) Resume review
B) Behavioral and situation-based questions
C) Salary negotiation
D) Personal hobbies
Answer: B
417.
418. 369. Mock interviews must be:
A) Informal and fun only
B) Structured with realistic scenarios
C) Compulsory for top scorers only
D) HR’s responsibility only
Answer: B
419.
420. 370. A candidate says “I’m a hard worker” without examples. This highlights
the need for:
A) Career counselling
B) Example-based or STAR answers
C) Scripted questions
D) Visual resume
Answer: B
421.
422. 371. In a mock panel interview, each interviewer should:
A) Ask the same question
B) Coordinate roles to avoid repetition
C) Sit quietly
D) Read from resume only
Answer: B
423.
424. 372. If a candidate performs poorly, feedback should:
A) Discourage them
B) Focus on only negatives
C) Be specific, respectful, and developmental
D) Be withheld
Answer: C
425.
426. 373. The benefit of peer assessment in mock interviews is:
A) Extra marks
B) Insightful feedback from fellow learners
C) Time pass
D) Resume collection
Answer: B
427.
428. 374. Mock interview reflection sheets help in:
A) Data storage
B) Personal self-assessment
 C) Typing practice
D) Dress evaluation
Answer: B
429.
430. 375. Which of the following makes a mock interview meaningful?
A) Feedback and repetition
B) Use of scripts only
C) Avoiding technical questions
D) Skipping HR round
Answer: A
431.
432. 376. One major limitation of a poorly conducted mock interview is:
A) Confidence boost
B) False feedback causing misguidance
C) Job offers
D) Certificate generation
Answer: B
433.
434. 377. Mock interviews improve:
A) Hiring cost
B) Student cafeteria management
C) Self-confidence and readiness
D) Number of faculty
Answer: C
435.
436. 378. Who can conduct mock interviews best in educational institutions?
A) Classmates
B) External HR professionals or trained faculty
C) Security staff
D) Librarians
Answer: B
437.
438. 379. Which type of questions should be practiced in mock interviews?
A) Predictable and easy
B) Realistic job-role based, behavioral and situation based
C) Only basic personal info
D) Only technical definitions
Answer: B
439.
440. 380. Why should a feedback session follow every mock interview?
A) To impress faculty
B) To mark attendance
C) For reflection and improvement
D) To assess food facilities
Answer: C
441.
442. Q381–400: Revision, Seminar, Assessment (Concept +
Indirect)
443.
444. 381. What is the best technique to reinforce recruitment concepts during
revision?
A) Random guessing
B) Group quizzes and case-based discussion
C) Avoiding all revision
D) Individual storytelling
Answer: B
445.
446. 382. Which seminar activity supports better understanding of R&S strategies?
A) Debate on employer branding vs retention
B) Fancy dress
C) Skipping Q&A
D) Singing HR jingle
Answer: A
447.
448. 383. An MCQ test helps assess:
A) Skill in answering direct & indirect questions
B) Memorization only
C) Dance ability
D) Referral bonus
Answer: A
449.
450. 384. Which of the following best measures conceptual clarity in recruitment?
A) Theoretical notes only
B) Case-based questions and application scenarios
C) Oral questions
D) Monthly salary
Answer: B
451.
452. 385. A seminar on Purple Squirrel should ideally include:
A) Real hiring challenges
B) Only dictionary meaning
C) HR jokes
D) Latest memes
Answer: A
453.
454. 386. In a final assessment, which area may be tested indirectly?
A) Interview ethics
B) Library hours
C) Birthdays
D) Degree names
Answer: A
455.
456. 387. Which of the following is NOT a part of final revision for R&S?
A) Screening techniques
B) Cooking class
C) ATS usage
D) Exit process
Answer: B
457.
458. 388. While conducting a final revision, the trainer must focus on:
A) Application-based understanding
B) Copy-paste notes
C) Repeating same questions
D) Avoiding discussion
Answer: A
459.
460. 389. Final MCQ assessment should include:
A) Basic definitions only
B) Scenarios, ethics, new terms like RPO
C) Full-length resume submission
D) Self-introduction only
Answer: B
461.
462. 390. Final evaluation of recruitment knowledge is best done by:
A) Asking HR terms only
B) Including role play, case, MCQs and reflections
C) Watching ads
D) Rejecting all students
Answer: B
463.
464. 391. Seminar presentation on employer branding must show:
A) Logo of companies
B) Strategies used on social media
C) Cafeteria menu
D) CTC letters
Answer: B
465.
466. 392. Revision helps in:
A) Sleep
B) Clarifying weak areas before assessments
C) Avoiding questions
D) Delaying learning
Answer: B
467.
468. 393. A student preparing seminar on HR Analytics should relate it with:
A) Sourcing patterns
B) Food habits
C) Training timing
D) Parking slots
Answer: A
469.
470. 394. The best way to structure a recruitment revision session is:
A) Topic-wise recap + short tests + Q&A
B) Skip tough topics
C) Free speech
D) Facebook reels
Answer: A
471.
472. 395. Which is essential during seminar presentations?
A) Clarity, examples, engagement
B) Whispering
C) Avoiding interaction
D) Fast reading
Answer: A
473.
474. 396. An effective final assessment includes:
A) One-word answers
B) Combination of direct & applied indirect questions
C) Unclear instructions
D) Incomplete topics
Answer: B
475.
476. 397. How should performance in assessment be used post-seminar?
A) For feedback and improvement planning
B) To dismiss
C) To increase fee
D) To create panic
Answer: A
477.
478. 398. A seminar on salary negotiation must involve:
A) Role play with scenarios
B) Script reading
C) Salary slips
D) Travel expenses
Answer: A
479.
480. 399. Indirect questions in assessment test:
A) Critical thinking and concept application
B) Copying skill
C) Memorization alone
D) Drawing skill
Answer: A
481.
482. 400. A well-designed seminar on Recruitment and Selection ensures:
A) Application of knowledge and peer learning
B) Overuse of PowerPoint
C) Avoiding interaction
D) Giving snacks
Answer: A

401. In executive onboarding, what is the primary concern of senior hires?

• A) Office location

• B) Salary negotiation

• C) Role clarity and cultural fit

• D) HR policies

402. A failed onboarding often leads to:

• A) Promotion

• B) Employee satisfaction

• C) Early attrition

• D) Pay hike

403. Which of the following should NOT be part of an executive onboarding

checklist?

• A) Strategic goal discussions

• B) Access to team’s WhatsApp group

• C) Culture orientation

• D) One-on-one with key leaders

404. Exit interviews are most useful when:

• A) Done casually

• B) Done with open-ended questions

• C) Done by new HR recruits

• D) Skipped during attrition

405. An exit interview helps the organization in:

• A) Legal procedures

• B) Getting revenge

• C) Identifying retention issues

• D) Speeding up resignation

406. Which one is a non-verbal indicator during an exit interview?

• A) Resignation letter

• B) Posture and eye contact

• C) ID card

• D) LOR

407. One reason for implementing a strong onboarding program is:

• A) Increase hierarchy

• B) Fast-track engagement

• C) Delay reporting
 • D) Avoid tax deduction

408. Which strategy can help improve onboarding experience?

• A) Assigning a buddy or mentor

• B) Ignoring feedback

• C) Giving written policies only

• D) No follow-ups

409. A candidate’s success in onboarding depends most on:

• A) Number of team members

• B) Role clarity and expectations

• C) Distance from office

• D) Travel benefits

410. Poor onboarding leads to:

• A) High performance

• B) Strong culture

• C) Early resignation

• D) Promotions

MCQs 421–440: Modern Trends in R&S

421. What’s the role of gamification in recruitment?

• A) Increasing admin tasks

• B) Making job search fun

• C) Assessing candidate skills interactively

• D) Avoiding legal compliance

422. Employer branding primarily impacts:

• A) Product quality

• B) Talent attraction

• C) Vendor cost

• D) Labour union talks

423. AI in recruitment can introduce bias when:

• A) Job description is vague

• B) Resume is formatted

• C) Interviewer is human

• D) Application is online

424. “Purple Squirrel” refers to:

• A) Difficult HR manager

• B) Ideal yet hard-to-find candidate

• C) Unskilled intern

• D) Tech recruiter

425. An ATS (Applicant Tracking System) helps in:

• A) Payroll

• B) Interview invitation

• C) Feedback loops

• D) Writing policies

426. Online vetting checks include:

• A) Family photo

• B) Social media behaviour

• C) Locality

• D) Medical report

427. Job description of HR Recruiter must include:

• A) Coding knowledge

• B) End-to-end hiring

• C) Photoshop

• D) Payroll setup

428. RPO stands for:

• A) Role Performance Officer

• B) Recruitment Process Outsourcing

• C) Retain People Only

• D) Resource People Offer

429. Which activity reflects candidate submittal?

• A) Sending resume to client

 • B) Preparing payslip

• C) Sending policy mail

• D) Joining checklist

430. Employee engagement activities exclude:

• A) Townhall

• B) Leadership quiz

• C) Termination process

• D) Recognition events

MCQs 441–460: Retention, Negotiation, Diversity

441. What is a key factor in retaining millennials?

• A) Rigid rules

• B) Clear hierarchy

• C) Work-life balance

• D) Verbal praise

442. Role play in salary negotiation helps HR to:

• A) Create conflict

• B) Evaluate real-time reaction

• C) Calculate taxes

• D) Approve budget

443. Diversity in recruitment ensures:

• A) Similarity

• B) Innovation and representation

• C) Easy hiring

• D) Local bias

444. The term “glass ceiling” refers to:

• A) Open cabins

• B) Hidden growth barrier for women

• C) HR reports

• D) ATS errors

445. Inclusive hiring practices:

• A) Ignore disability

• B) Avoid women

• C) Promote equal opportunity

• D) Prefer insiders

446. Retaliatory termination means:

• A) Ending contract post complaint

• B) Bonus removal

• C) Giving exit gifts

• D) Disciplinary reward

447. Termination letter must clearly mention:

• A) Next job link

• B) Reason and last date

• C) Joining bonus

• D) Holiday list

448. Employee engagement is NOT:

• A) Motivating team

• B) Flexible communication

• C) Writing warning letters

• D) Feedback loop

449. What is the output of a well-designed retention strategy?

• A) Higher attrition

• B) Legal battles

• C) Loyal and satisfied workforce

• D) Immediate promotions

450. Employee experience begins with:

• A) Job posting

• B) Exit interview

• C) First contact with recruiter

• D) Promotion call
MCQs 461–480: Interviewing & Practical Applications

451. Which is an illegal question in an interview?

• A) What are your goals?

• B) Are you planning a baby?

• C) What’s your strength?

• D) How was your internship?

452. Structured interviews are:

• A) Spontaneous

• B) Based on pre-set criteria

• C) Only for managers

• D) Done by marketing team

453. Mock interviews are done to:

• A) Fire candidates

• B) Practice and improve performance

• C) Fill forms

• D) Conduct exams

454. During a job fair, the recruiter’s priority is:

• A) Collecting biodata

• B) Employer branding and screening

• C) Organizing gifts

• D) Referring competitors

455. HR interview mainly assesses:

• A) Family structure

• B) Personality and cultural fit

• C) GK skills

• D) Phone usage

456. Final round of interview may include:

• A) Legal documentation

• B) Role fit and salary talk

• C) Daily attendance
 • D) Portal training

457. What improves interview experience for candidate?

• A) Delay in response

• B) Clear communication

• C) Confusing role

• D) Unavailable HR

458. Group interviews are suitable for:

• A) Coding roles

• B) Sales, BPO and campus drives

• C) Factory workers

• D) Legal advisors

459. Feedback post-interview should be:

• A) Vague

• B) Timely and constructive

• C) Ignored

• D) Verbal only

460. In role play activities, students learn:

• A) Policies

• B) Practical interview behavior

• C) Law

• D) Budgeting

MCQs 481–500: Assessment, Final Trends, Reflection

481. Assessment after a recruitment workshop must cover:

• A) Tax rules

• B) Indirect, applied and case-based questions

• C) Excel training

• D) HR software

482. Which of the following is a futuristic R&S skill?

• A) Manual filing

• B) AI-driven resume screening

• C) Xerox operations

• D) Job faxing

483. Reflection after activities help students:

• A) Forget doubts

• B) Reinforce and improve

• C) Skip learning

• D) Disrupt group

484. In job portals, a well-written job post includes:

• A) Location only

• B) Clear title, role, skills, and benefits

• C) Salary only

• D) Brand photo

485. Assessment in HR interview session includes:

• A) Seating arrangement

• B) Communication, poise and confidence

• C) Age

• D) Voice pitch

486. Which is a good indicator of employer branding online?

• A) Job board presence

• B) Employee reviews and Glassdoor ratings

• C) Yellow pages

• D) Bonus size

487. A seminar is successful when:

• A) Guest speaks only

• B) Students connect theory to real life

• C) No Q&A

• D) It's not recorded

488. Practical assignment on LinkedIn profile teaches:

• A) Privacy laws

• B) Online personal branding

• C) Labor Act

• D) Job hopping

489. Which tool helps track candidates in bulk hiring?

• A) Paytm

• B) ATS

• C) CRM

• D) TDS

490. An HR case study often includes:

• A) Client discount

• B) Ethical hiring issue

• C) Tax sheet

• D) IR policy

491. What defines a reflective HR practitioner?

• A) Blind obedience

• B) Learning from experience

• C) Delegation only

• D) Policy writing

492. One trend in campus hiring:

• A) No training

• B) Assessment centers and real-time games

• C) Direct job

• D) Phone hiring

493. A complete R&S assessment should include:

• A) HR only

• B) Written + interview + activity

• C) One-word test

• D) Exit only

494. Which of these is a red flag in candidate sourcing?

• A) Over-qualified resumes without context

• B) Detailed cover letter

• C) Referral

• D) Work samples

495. Seminar Q&A should:

• A) Be skipped

• B) Be open and interactive

• C) Be teacher-led

• D) Focus only on theory

496. How do HR recruiters reflect company culture?

• A) Avoid talking

• B) Use consistent, clear tone and values

• C) Stay neutral

• D) Focus only on salary

497. Which question best checks for recruitment ethics?

• A) “Can you lie if manager tells you?”

• B) “Can you relocate?”

• C) “What’s your score?”

• D) “Why did you fail once?”

498. What is the output of 360° recruitment training?

• A) Legal aid

• B) Skill enhancement across all R&S stages

• C) TDS return

• D) Event management

499. What helps candidates recall job application better?

• A) Company logo only

• B) Engaging and clear JD

• C) Only benefits

• D) Call history

500. How should the course end?

• A) No evaluation

• B) With final assessment, discussion and certification

• C) Just a photo

• D) Breakfast only