01. Which stage of meiosis can last for months or 4.

(iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

yearsin the oocytes of some vertebrates? 07. Match List-I with List-II
1. Leptotene 2. Pachytene
List-I List-II
3. Diplotene 4. Diakinesis
(a) Chlamydomonas (i) Moss
02. When one CO 2 molecule is fixed as one (b) Cycas (ii) Pteridophyte
moleculeof triose phosphate, which of the (c) Selaginella (iii) Alga
followingphotochemically made, high energy (d) Sphagnum (iv) Gymnosperm
chemicalintermediates are used in the
reduction phase? Choose the correct answer from the options
1. 1 ATP + 1 NADPH 2. 1 ATP + 2 NADPH given below :
3. 2 ATP + 1 NADPH 4. 2 ATP + 2 NADPH (a) (b) (c) (d)
03. In lac operon, z gene codes for : 1 (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
2 (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
1.  - galactosidase 2. Permease
3 (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
3. Repressor 4. Transacetylase 4 (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
04. Initiation of lateral roots and vascular 08. Given below are two statements :
cambiumduring secondary growth takes Statement I : DNA polymerases catalyse
place in cells of : polymerisationonly in one direction, that is
1. Epiblema 2. Cortex
5'  3'
3. Endodermis 4. Pericycle
Statement II : During replication of DNA, on
05. Match List-I with List -II:
one strandthe replication is continuous while
List- I List-II
on other strand it isdiscontinuous.In the light
(a) Adenine (i) Pigment
of the above statements, choose the
(b) Anthocyanin(ii) Polysaccharide
correctanswer from the options given below:
(c) Chitin (iii) Alkaloid
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are
(d) Codeine (iv) Purine
correct
Choose the correct answer from the options
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are
given below:
incorrect
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is
1. (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) incorrect
2. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) 4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
3. (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
correct
4. (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
09. The Floral Diagram represents which one of
06. Match List-I with List- II the following families?
List -I List -II
(a) In lac operon i gene codes for (i) transacetylase
(b) In lac operon z gene codes for (ii) permease
(c) In lac operon y gene codes for (iii) β−galactosidase
(d) In lac operon a gene codes for (iv) Repressor

(a) (b) (c) (d)

1. (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
2. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
3. (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)

- H itesh K hared 1
 1. Fabaceae 2. Brassicaceae 1. (a) > (b) > (e) > (d) > (c)
3. Solanaceae 4. Liliaceae 2. (a) > (c) > (d) > (b) > (e)
10. The pioneer species in a hydrarch succession 3. (b) > (a) > (e) > (d) > (c)
are : 4. (b) > (a) > (c) > (e) > (d)
1. Free-floating angiosperms 15. Match List-I with List-II :
2. Submerged rooted plants
3. Phytoplanktons List-I List-II
4. Filamentous algae (a) Porins (i) Pink coloured nodules
11. The number of time(s) decarboxylation of (b) leg
(ii) Lumen of thylakoid
isocitrateoccurs during single TCA cycle is : haemoglobin
1. One 2. Two (c) H+
(iii) Amphibolic pathway
3. Three 4. Four accumulation
12. Given below are two statements : (iv) Huge pores in
(d) Respiration
Statement I : Sickle cell anaemia and outer membrane of
Haemophilia areautosomal dominant traits. mitochondria
Statement II : Sickle cell anaemia and Choose the correct answer from the options
Haemophilia aredisorders of the blood.In the given below :
light of the above statements, choose the (a) (b) (c) (d)
correctanswer from the options given below: 1. (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are 2. (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
correct 3. (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are 4. (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
incorrect 16. Which of the following growth regulators is
3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is anadenine derivative ?
incorrect 1. Auxin 2. Cytokinin
4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is 3. Ethylene 4. Abscisic acid
correct 17. The type of tissue commonly found in the
13. Given below are two statements one is fruit wallof nuts is :
labelled asAssertion (A) and the other is 1. Parenchyma 2. Collenchyma
labelled as Reason (R). 3. Sclerenchyma 4. Sclereid
Assertion (A) : When a particular restriction 18. The species that come to appear in bare area
enzymecuts strand of DNA, overhanging are called :
stretches or sticky endsare formed. 1. Pioneer species
Reason (R) : Some restriction enzymes cut the 2. Invasive species
strand ofDNA a little away from the centre of 3. Competitive species
palindromic site.In the light of the above
4. Species of seral community
statements, choose the correctanswer from
19. In general the egg apparatus of embryo sac
the options given below :
inangiosperm consists of :
1. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
1. One egg cell, two synergids, three antipodal
correctexplanation of (A)
cells, twoPolar nuclei
2. Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
2. One egg cell, two synergids, two antipodal
the correctexplanation of (A)
cells, threePolar nuclei
3. (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
3. One egg cell, three synergids, two antipodal
4. (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
cells, twoPolar nuclei
14. Give the correct descending order of 4. One egg cell, two synergids, two antipodal
organismswith reference to their estimated
cells, twoPolar nuclei
number found inAmazon forest.(a) Plants(b)
20. Match List-I with List-II :
Invertebrates(c) Fishes(d) Mammals(e)
BirdsChoose the correct answer from the
options given below:

- H itesh K hared 2
 3. Increase in agricultural production
List-I LIst-II 4. Collection and preservation of seeds of
(a) Imbricate (i) Calotropis differentgenetic strains of commercially
(b) Valvate (ii) Cassia important plants.
(c) Vexillary (iii) Cotton 28. Interfascicular cambium is present between:
(d) Twisted (iv) Bean 1. Primary xylem and primary phloem
2. Pericycle and endodermis
Choose the correct answer from the options 3. Two vascular bundles
given below : 4. Secondary xylem and secondary phloem
(a) (b) (c) (d) 29. The ascent of xylem sap in plants is
1. (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) mainlyaccomplished by the :
2. (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) 1. size of the stomatal aperture
3. (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) 2. distribution of stomata on the upper and
4. (i) (iii) (iv) (ii) lowerepidermis
21. All successions irrespective of the habitat 3. cohesion and adhesion between water
proceedto which type of climax community ? molecules
1. Xeric 2. Mesic 4. root pressure
3. Hydrophytic 4. Edaphic 30. Which of the following statement is not
22. Separation of DNA, fragments is done by correct ?
atechnique known as : 1. Rhizome is a condensed form of stem
1. Polymerase Chain Reaction 2. The apical bud in rhizome always remains
2. Recombinant technology above theground
3. Southern blotting 3. The rhizome is aerial with no distinct nodes
4. Gel electrophoresis andinternodes
23. The phenomenon by which the 4. The rhizome is thick, prostrate and
undividingparenchyma cells start to divide branched
mitotically during planttissue culture is called 31. To ensure that only the desired pollens fall
as : on thestigma in artificial hybridization
1. Differentiation 2. Dedifferentiation process :
3. Redifferentiation 4. Secondary growth (a) the female flower buds of plant producing
24. In meiosis, crossing over and exchange of unisexualflower need not be bagged.
geneticmaterial between homologous (b) there is no need to emasculate unisexual
chromosomes arecatalyzed by the enzyme. flowers ofselected female parent
1. Phosphorylase 2. Recombinase (c) emasculated flowers are to be bagged
3. Transferase 4. Polymerase immediatelyafter cross pollination
25. The 5-C compound formed during TCA cycle (d) emasculated flowers are to be bagged
is : after removalof anthers
1.  - ketoglutaric acid2. Oxalo succinic acid (e) bisexual flowers, showing protogyny are
3. Succinic acid 4. Fumaric acid neverselected for crossChoose the correct
26. When a carrier protein facilitates the answer from the options given below:
movement oftwo molecules across the 1. (a), (b) and (c) only 2. (b), (c) and (d) only
membrane in same direction, itis called : 3. (b), (c) and (e) only 4. (a), (d) and (e) only
1. Uniport 2. Transport 32. The residual persistent part which forms
3. Antiport 4. Symport theperisperm in the seeds of beet is :
27. The World Summit on sustainable 1. Calyx 2. Endosperm
developmentheld in 2002 in Johannesburg, 3. Nucellus 4. Integument
South Africa pledged for: 33. The chromosomal theory of inheritance
1. A significant reduction in the current rate wasproposed by :
ofbiodiversity loss. 1. Thomas Morgan 2. Sutton and Boveri
2. Declaration of more biodiversity hotspots. 3. Gregor Mendel 4. Robert Brown

- H itesh K hared 3
34. Which of the following protects nitrogenase Choose the correct answer from the options
insidethe root nodule of a leguminous plant? given below:
1. Catalase (a) (b) (c) (d)
2. leg haemoglobin 1. (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
3. Transaminase 2. (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
4. Glutamate dehydrogenase 3. (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
35. The ability of plants to follow different 4. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
pathways inresponse to environment leading 40. Match List-I with List-II :
to formation ofdifferent kinds ofstructures is
called : List- I List-II
1. Redifferentiation 2. Development (a) Bacteriophage ϕ × 174 (i) 48502 base pairs
3. Plasticity 4. Differentiation (b) Bacteriophage lambda (ii) 5386 nucleotides
36. Which of the following pair represents free (c) Escherichia coli (iii) 3.3 × 109 base pairs
livingnitrogen fixing aerobic bacteria ? (d) Haploid content human (iv) 4.6 × 106 base pairs
1. Rhizobium and Frankia DNA of
2. Azotobacter and Beijernickia
3. Anabaena and Rhodospirillum Choose the correct answer from the options
4. Pseudomonas and Thiobacillus given below:
37. Match List-I with List-II : (a) (b) (c) (d)
1. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
List-I List-II 2. (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(a) Sacred groves (i) Alien species 3. (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(b) Zoological (ii) Release of large 4. (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
park quantity of oxygen
41. Which of the following can be expected if
(c) Nile perch (iii) Ex-situ conservation scientistssucceed in introducing apomictic
(d) Amazon forest (iv) Khasi Hills in Meghalaya gene into hybridvarieties of crops ?
1. Polyembryony will be seen and each seed
Choose the correct answer from the options willproduce many plantlets
given below: 2. Seeds of hybrid plants will show longer
(a) (b) (c) (d) dormancy
1. (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) 3. Farmers can keep on using the seeds
2. (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) produced by thehybrids to raise new crop
3. (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) year after year
4. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) 4. There will be segregation of the desired
38. Primary proteins are also called as charactersonly in the progeny
polypeptidesbecause : 42. Read the following statements and identify
1. They are linear chains thecharacters related to the alga shown in the
2. They are polymers of peptide monomers diagram:
3. Successive amino acids are joined by (a) It is a member of Chlorophyceae
peptide bonds (b) Food is stored in the form of starch
4. They can assume many conformations (c) It is a monoecious plant showing
39. Match List-I with List-II : oogonium andantheridium
(d) Food is stored in the form of laminarin or
List I List II mannitol
(a) Gene (i) Replacement of a faulty gene (e) It shows dominance of pigments
gun by a normal healthy gene
chlorophyll a, c and Fucoxanthin.
(b) Gene
(ii) Used for transfer of gene Choose the correct answer from the options
therapy
(c) Gene given below:
(iii) Total DNA in the cells of an organism
cloning
(d) (iv) To obtain indentical copies
Genome of a particular DNA molecule

- H itesh K hared 4
 3. 47 chromosomes with XYY sex
chromosomes
4. Trisomy of chromosome 21
47. Identify the correct sequence of events
duringProphase I of meiosis :
(a) Synapsis of homologous chromosomes
(b) Chromosomes become gradually visible
undermicroscope
(c) Crossing over between non-sister
chromatids ofhomologous chromosomes
1. (a) and (b) only 2. (a), (b) and (c) only (d) Terminalisation of chiasmata
3. (a), (c) and (d) only 4. (c), (d) and (e) only (e) Dissolution ofsynaptonemal complex
43. Frugivorous birds are found in large numbers Choose the correct answer from the options
intropical forests mainly because of : given below:
1. lack of niche specialisation 1. (a), (b), (c), (d), (e) 2. (b), (c), (d), (e), (a)
2. higher annual rainfall 3. (b), (a), (c), (e), (d) 4. (a), (c), (d), (e), (b)
3. availability of fruits throughout the year 48. The enzyme (a) is needed for isolating
4. temperature conducive for their breeding geneticmaterial from plant cells and enzyme
44. Which type of substance would face difficulty (b) for isolatinggenetic material from fungus.
topass through the cell membrane ? Choose the correct pair ofoptions from the
1. Substance with hydrophobic moiety following :
2. Substance with hydrophilic moiety 1. (a) Cellulase (b) Protease
3. All substance irrespective of hydrophobic 2. (a) Cellulase (b) Chitinase
andhydrophilic moiety 3. (a) Chitinase (b) Lipase
4. Substance soluble in lipids 4. (a) Cellulase (b) Lipase
45. Identify the correct statements 49. Match List-I with List-II :
regardingchemiosmotic hypothesis :
List-I List-II
(a) Splitting of the water molecule takes place
on theinner side of the membrane. (i) 55 billion
(a) Carbon dissolved in oceans
tons
(b) Protons accumulate within the lumen of
(b) Annual fixation of
thethylakoids. (ii) 71%
carbon through
(c) Primary acceptor of electron transfers the photosynthesis (iii) 4 × 103 kg
electrons toan electron carrier. (c) PAR captured by plants
(d) NADP reductase enzyme is located on the
stromaside of the membrane. (d) Productivity of oceans (iv) 2 to 10%
(e) Protons increase in number in stroma.
Choose the correct answer from the options Choose the correct answer from the options
givenbelow: (a) (b) (c) (d)
1. (a), (b) and (e) 2. (a), (b) and (d) 1. (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
3. (b), (c) and (d) 4. (b), (c) and (e) 2. (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
46. If a female individual is with small round 3. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
head,furrowed tongue, partially open mouth 4. (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
and broad palmwith characteristic palm 50. What is the expected percentage of F 2
crease. Also the physical,psychomotor and progeny withyellow and inflated pod in
mental development is retarded. dihybrid cross experimentinvolving pea
Thekaryotype analysis of such an individual plants with green coloured, inflated podand
will show : yellow coloured constricted pod ?
1. 47 chromosomes with XXY sex 1. 100% 2. 56.25%
chromosomes 3. 18.75 % 4. 9%
2. 45 chromosomes with XO sex chromosomes

- H itesh K hared 5
51. Pathogenic bacteria gain resistance to 1. feeding at the same time
antibioticsdue to changes in their : 2. choosing different foraging patterns
1. Cosmids 2. Plasmids 3. increasing time spent on attacking each
3. Nucleus 4. Nucleoid other
52. Milk of transgenic ‘Cow Rosie’ was 4. predating on each other
nutritionallymore balanced product for 58. Mad cow disease in cattle and Cr Jacob
human babies than naturalcow milk because disease inhumans are due to infection
it contained: by_______ .
1. Human protein –1–antitrypsin 1. Bacterium 2. Virus
2. Human alpha–lactalbumin 3. Viroid 4. Prion
3. Human insulin–like growth factor 59. Which of the following is not an Intra
4. Human enzyme Adenosine Deaminase UterineDevice ?
(ADA) 1. Progestogens 2. Multiload 375
53. If the pH in lysosomes is increased to alkaline, 3. Lippes loop 4. Progestasert
what will be the outcome? 60. Match List-I with List-II :
1. Hydrolytic enzymes will function more
efficiently List-I List-II
2. Hydrolytic enzymes will become inactive (a) Chlamydomonas (i) Conidia
3. Lysosomal enzymes will be released into (b) Penicillium (ii) Zoospores
thecytoplasm (c) Hydra (iii) Gemmules
4. Lysosomal enzymes will be more active (d) Sponge (iv) Buds
54. Choose the incorrect enzymatic reaction:
1. Maltose  Choose the correct answer from the options
 Glucose + Galactose
Maltase
given below:
2. Sucrose   Glucose + Fructose
sucrease
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3. Lactose   Glucose + Galactose
Lactase
1. (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
4. Dipeptides    Amino acids
Dipeptidases 2. (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
3. (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
55. Which of the following reasons in 4. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
mainlyresponsible for graft rejection in 61. According to the sliding filament theory:
transplantation oforgans ?
1. Actin and myosin filaments slide over each
1. Inability of recipient to differentiate
other toincrease the length of the sarcomere.
between ‘self and’non–self’ tissues/cells
2. Length of A–band does not change.
2. Humoral immune response only
3. I–band increases in length
3. Auto–immune response
4. The actin filaments slide away from A–band
4. Cell–mediated response
resultingin shortening of sarcomere
56. If DNA contained sulphur instead of
62. The amount of biomass or organic matter
phosphorusand proteins contained
producedper unit area over a time period by
phosphorus instead of sulfur,what would
plants duringphotosynthesis is called:
have been the outcome of Hershey andChase
1. Secondary production
experiment?
2. Primary production
1. No radioactive sulfur in bacterial cells
3. Gross primary production
2. Both radioactive sulfur and phosphorus in
4. Net primary production
bacterialcells
63. Given below are two statements:
3. Radioactive sulfur in bacterial cells
Statement I : Amino acids have a property of
4. Radioactive phosphorus in bacterial cells
ionizablenature of –NH2 and –COOH groups,
57. Two butterfly species are competing for the hence havedifferent structures at different
samenectar of a flower in a garden. To survive pH.
and coexisttogether, they may avoid Statement II : Aminoacids can exist as
competition in the same gardenby : Zwitterionic form at acidic and basic pH.

- H itesh K hared 6
 In the light of the above statements, choose 69. Match List-I with List-II :
the mostappropriate answer from the
options given below: List I List II
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are (a) Crop (i) grinding the food particles
correct (b) Proventriculus (ii) secretion of digestive juice
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are (iii) removal of
(c) Hepatic caecae
Incorrect nitrogenous waste
(d) Malpighian
3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is (iv) storage of food
tubules
incorrect
4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is Choose the correct answer from the options
correct given below:
64. Which of the following types of epithelium (a) (b) (c) (d)
ispresent in the bronchioles and Fallopian
1. (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
tubes ?
2. (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
1. Simple squamous epithelium
3. (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
2. Simple columnar epithelium
4. (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
3. Ciliated epithelium
70. Given below are two statements: one is
4. Stratified squamous epithelium
labelled asAssertion (A) and the other is
65. Western Ghats have a large number of plants
labelled as Reason (R)
andanimal species that are not found any Assertion (A) : Spirulina is a microbe that can
where else. Whichof the following term is be usedfor reducing environmental pollution.
used to notify such species ? Reason (R) : Spirulina is a rich source of
1. Threatened species 2. Keystone species protein,carbohydrates, fats, minerals and
3. Endemic species 4. Vulnerable species vitamins.In the light of the above statements,
66. Gout is a type of disorder which leads to: choose the mostappropriate answer from the
1. Inflammation of joints due to accumulation options given below:
of uricacid crystals 1. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
2. Weakening of bones due to decreased bone correctexplanation of (A)
mass 2. Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
3. Inflammation of joints due to cartilage the correctexplanation of (A)
degeneration 3. (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
4. Weakening of bones due to low calcium 4. (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
level 71. Panspermia, an idea that is still a favourite
67. Which of the following statements are correct for someastronomers, means :
withrespect to vital capacity?(a) It includes 1. Creation of life from dead and decaying
ERV, TV and IRV(b) Total volume of air a person matter
can inspire after anormal expiration(c) The 2. Creation of life from chemicals
maximum volume of air a person can breathe 3. Origin of sperm in human testes
inafter forced expiration(d) It includes ERV, 4. Transfer of spores as unit of life from other
RV and IRV.(e) The maximum volume of air a planets of Earth
person can breath outafter a forced 72. Arrange the components of mammary gland.
inspiration.Choose the most appropriate (fromproximal to distal)(a) Mammary duct(b)
answer from the optionsgiven below: Lactiferous duct(c) Alveoll(d) Mammary
1. (b), (d) and (e) 2. (a), (c) and (d) ampulla(e) Mammary tubulesChoose the
3. (a), (c) and (e) 4. (a) and (e) most appropriate answer from the
68. A unique vascular connection between the optionsgiven below :
digestivetract and liver is called _________ . 1. (c)  (a)  (d)  (e)  (b)
1. Hepato–pancreatic system 2. (b)  (c)  (e)  (d)  (a)
2. Hepatic portal system 3. (c)  (e)  (a)  (d)  (b)
3. Renal portal system 4. (e)  (c)  (d)  (b)  (a)
4. Hepato–cystic system

- H itesh K hared 7
73. Select the incorrect match regarding the Assertion (A) : FSH which interacts with
symbolsused in Pedigree analysis: membranebound receptors does not enter
the target cell.
Reason (R) : Binding of FSH to its receptors
generatessecond messenger (cyclic AMP)
for its biochemical andphysiological
responses.
In the light of the above statements, choose
the mostappropriate answer from the
options given below
1. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
74. Why CNG is considered better fuel than correctexplanation of (A)
diesel ? 2. Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
(a) It can not be adulterated the correctexplanation of (A)
(b) It takes less time to fill the fuel tank 3. (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(c) It burns more efficiently 4. (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(d) It is cheaper 80. Which of the following animals has
(e) It is less inflammable. threechambered heart ?
Choose the most appropriate answer from the 1. Scoliodon 2. Hippocampus
optionsgiven below 3. Chelone 4. Pteropus
1. (a), (b), (c), (e) only 2. (a), (c), (d) only 81. Given below are two statements : one is
3. (a), (b), (d), (e) only 4. (c), (d), (e) only labelled asAssertion (A) and the other is
75. Which of the following methods is not labelled as Reason (R).
commonlyused for introducing foreign DNA Assertion (A) : During pregnancy the level
into the plant cell ? of thyroxineis increased in the maternal
1. Agrobacterium mediated transformation blood.
2. Gene gun Reason (R) : Pregnancy is characterised by
3. ‘Disarmed pathogen’ vectors metabolicchanges in the mother.
4. Bacteriophages In the light of the above statements, choose
76. Identify the region of human brain which the mostappropriate answer from the
haspneumotaxic centre that alters respiratory options given below :
rate byreducing the duration of inspiration. 1. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
1. Medulla 2. Pons correctexplanation of (A)
3. Thalamus 4. Cerebrum 2. Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
77. How many secondary spermatocytes are the correctexplanation of (A)
required toform 400 million spermatozoa ? 3. (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
1. 50 million 2. 100 million 4. (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
3. 200 million 4. 400 million 82. Select the Incorrect statements with respect
78. Choose the correct statement about a toCyclostomes :
musculartissue : (a) They lack scales and paired fins.
1. Skeletal muscle fibres are uninucleated and (b) They have circular mouth with Jaws.
found inparallel bundles. (c) They bear 6-15 pairs of gills.
2. Intercalated discs allow the cardiac muscle (d) They migrate to deep sea for spawning.
cells tocontract as a unit. Choose the most appropriate answer from
3. The walls of blood vessels are made up of the optionsgiven below :
columnarepithelium. 1. (a) and (b) only 2. (b) and (c) only
4. Smooth muscles are multinucleated and 3. (b) and (d) only 4. (a) and (d) only
involuntary 83. Role of enamel is to :
79. Given below are two statements : one is 1. Connect crown of tooth with its root.
labelled asAssertion (A) and the other is 2. Masticate the food.
labelled as Reason (R). 3. Form bolus.

- H itesh K hared 8
 4. Give basic shape to the teeth Which of thefollowing statements are correct
84. Choose the correct statements : about IUDs ?
(a) Bones support and protect softer tissues (a) IUDs decrease phagocytosis of sperm
and organs within theuterus.
(b) Weight bearing function is served by limb (b) The released copper ions suppress the
bones sperm motility.
(c) Ligament is the site of production of blood (c) IUDs do not make the cervix hostile to the
cells. sperm.
(d) Adipose tissue is specialised to store fats. (d) IUDs suppress the fertilization capacity of
(e) Tendons attach one bone to sperm.
another.Choose the most appropriate answer (e) The IUDs require surgical intervention for
from the optionsgiven below : theirinsertion in the uterine cavity.
1. (a), (b) and (d) only 2. (b), (c) and (e) only Choose the most appropriate answer from
3. (a), (c) and (d) only 4. (a), (b) and (e) only the optionsgiven below :
85. Bivalent or Tetrad formation is a characteristic 1. (a), (d) and (e) only 2. (b) and (c) only
feature observed during : 3. (b) and (d) only 4. (d) only
1. Synaptonemal complex in zygotene stage 89. Refer to the following statements for
2. Chiasmata in Diplotene stage agarose-gelelectrophoresis :
3. Synaptonemal complex in Pachytene stage (a) Agarose is a natural polymer obtained
4. Chiasmata in zygotene stage from sea-weed.
86. Which of the following are true about (b) The separation of DNA molecules in
thetaxonomical aid ‘key’ ? agarose-gelelectrophoresis depends on the
(a) Keys are based on the similarities and size of DNA.
dissimilarities. (c) The DNA migrates from negatively-
(b) Key is analytical in nature. chargedelectrode to the positively-charged
(c) Keys are based on the contrasting electrode
characters in paircalled couplet. (d) The DNA migrates from positively-
(d) Same key can be used for all taxonomic charged electrodeto the negatively-charged
categories. electrode.
(e) Each statement in the key is called Lead. Choose the most appropriate answer from
Choose the most appropriate answer from the the optionsgiven below :
optionsgiven below : 1. (a) and (b) only 2. (a), (b) and (c) only
1. (a), (b) and (c) only 3. (a), (b) and (d) only 4. (b), (c) and (d) only
2. (b), (c) and (d) only 90. Match List-I with List-II :
3. (a), (b), (c) and (e) only
List-I List-II
4. (a), (c), (d) and (e) only
(a) Multipolar neuron (i) Somatic neural system
87. A normal girl, whose mother is
(b) Bipolar neuron (ii) Cerebral cortex
haemophilicmarries a male with no ancestral
(c) Myelinated nerve fibre (iii) Retina of Eye
history of haemophilia.What will be the
(d) Unmyelinated nerve fibre (iv) Spinal nerves
possible phenotypes of the offsprings ?
(a) Haemophilic son and haemophilic Choose the correct answer from the options
daughter. given below:
(b) Haemophilic son and carrier daughter.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(c) Normal daughter and normal son.
(d) Normal son and haemophilic daughter. 1. (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
Choose the most appropriate answer from the 2. (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
optionsgiven below : 3. (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
1. (a) and (b) only 2. (b) and (c) only 4. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
3. (a) and (d) only 4. (b) and (d) only 91. Excretion in cockroach is performed by all,
EXCEPT :
88. IUDs are small objects made up of plastic or
1. Urecose glands2. Malpighian tubules
copperthat are inserted in the uterine cavity.

- H itesh K hared 9
 3. Fat body 4. Hepatic caeca centromere
92. Select the correct statement regarding 4. Chromosomes lie at the equator of the cell
mutation theory of evolution. 98. Select the incorrect statement with respect
1. This theory was proposed by Alfred Wallace toinbreeding of animals.
2. Variations are small directional changes 1. It is used for evolving pure lines in cattle.
3. Single step large mutation is a cause of 2. It helps in accumulation of superior genes
speciation andelimination of less desirable genes.
4. Large differences due to mutations arise 3. It decreases homozygosity.
gradually in apopulation 4. It exposes harmful recessive genes that are
93. Arrange the following formed elements in eliminatedby selection
thedecreasing order of their abundance in 99. Match List-I with List-II :
blood in humans :
List-I List-II
(a) Platelets(b) Neutrophils
(a) Cellular barrier (i) Interferons
(c) Erythrocytes(d) Eosinophils(e) Monocytes
(b) Cytokine barrier (ii) Mucus
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
(c) Physical barrier (iii) Neutrophils
optionsgiven below : (d) Physiological barrier (iv) HCI in gastric juice
1. (c), (a), (b), (e), (d) 2. (c), (b), (a), (e), (d)
3. (d), (e), (b), (a), (c) 4. (a), (c), (b), (d), (e) Choose the correct answer from the options
94. In the enzyme which catalyses the given below:
breakdown of: (a) (b) (c) (d)
H 2O 2  H 2O  O 2 the prosthetic group is : 1. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
1. Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide 2. (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
2. Haem 3. (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
3. Zinc 4. (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
4. Niacin 100. If A and C make 30% and 20% of DNA,
95. Against the codon 5' UAC 3', what would be respectively, what will be the percentage
thesequence of anticodon on tRNA ? composition of T and G ?
1. 5' AUG 3' 2. 5' ATG 3' 1. T : 20%, G : 30% 2. T : 30%, G : 20%
3. 5' GTA 3' 4. 5' GUA 3 3. T : 30%, G : 30% 4. T : 20%, G : 20%
96. Select the correct statements.
(a) Angiotensin II activates the cortex of
adrenal glandto release aldosterone.
(b) Aldosterone leads to increase in blood
pressure.
(c) ANF acts as a check on renin-
angiotensinmechanism.
(d) ADH causes vasodilation.
(e) Vasopressin is released from
adenohypophysis.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
optionsgiven below :
1. (a), (b) and (e) only 2. (c), (d) and (e) only
3. (b), (c) and (d) only 4. (a), (b) and (c) only
97. With respect to metaphase, which of the
followingstatements is incorrect ?
1. Complete disintegration of nuclear
envelope takesplace
2. Chromosomes are highly condensed
3. Metaphase chromosomes are made up of
four sisterchromatids held together by

- H itesh K hared 10
 as Assertion A and the other is labelled as ReasonR:
01. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A: Late wood has fewer xylary elements
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R: with narrow vessels.
Assertion A: The first stage of gametophyte in the Reason R: Cambium is less active in winters.
life cycle of moss is protonema stage. In the light of the above statements, choose the
Reason R: Protonema develops directly from correct answer from the options given below:
spores produced in capsule. a. A is false but R is true.
In the light of the above statements, choose the b. Both A and R are true and R is the correct
most appropriate answer from the options given explanation of A.
below: c. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
a. A is not correct but R is correct. explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct d. A is true but R is false.
explanation of A.
07. Cellulose does not form blue colour with lodine
c. Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the
because
correct explanation of A.
a. It breakes down when iodine reacts with it.
d. A is correct but R is not correct. b. It is a disaccharide.
02. Identify the pair of heterosporous pteridophytes c. It is a helical molecule.
among the following: d. It does not contain complex helices and hence
a. Equisetum and Salvinia cannot hold iodine molecules.
b. Lycopodium and Selaginella
08. Among eukaryotes, replication of DNA takes place
c. Selaginella and Salvinia
in
d. Psilolum and Salvinia a. G2 phase b. M phase
03. Family Fabaceae differs from Solanaceae and c. S phase d. G1 phase
Liliaceae. With respect to the stamens, pick out
09. Which of the following stages of meiosis involves
the characteristics specific to family Fabaceae but
division of centromere ?
not found in Solanaceae or Liliaceae.
a. Telophase b. Metaphase I
a. Epiphyllous and Dithecous anthers
b. Diadelphous and Dithecous anthers c. Metaphase II d. Anaphase II
c. Polyadelphous and epipetalous stamens 10. The process of appearance of recombination
d. Monoadelphous and Monothecous anthers nodules occurs at which sub stage of prophase I in
04. Axile placentation is observed in meiosis ?
a. Diakinesis b. Pachytene
a. China rose, Petunia and Lemon
b. Mustard, Cucumber and Primorose c. Zygotene d. Diplotenes
c. China rose, Beans and Lupin 11. Movement and accumulation of ions across a
d. Tomato, Dianthus and Pea membrane against their concentration gradient
can be explained by
05. Given below are two statements:
a. Active Transport b. Osmosis
Statement I: Endarch and exarch are the terms
often used for describing the position of c. Facilitated Diffusion d. Passive Transport
secondary xylem in the plant body. 12. Given below are two statements :
Statement II: Exarch condition is the most Statement I: The forces generated by transpiration
common feature of the root system. can lift a xylem-sized column of water over 130
In the light of the above statements, choose the meters height.
correct answer from the options given below: Statement II: Transpiration cools leaf surfaces
a. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true. sometimes 10 to 15 degrees, by evaporative
b. Both Statement I and Statement II are true. cooling.
c. Both Statement I and Statement II are false. In the light of the above statements, choose the
d. Statement I is correct but Statement II is false. most appropriate answer from the options given
below:
06. Given below are two statements: One is labelled
a. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is

- H itesh K hared 11
 correct. c. bird pollinated plants
b. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. d. bat pollinated plants
c. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect. 21. In angiosperm, the haploid, diploid and triploid
d. Statement I is correct but Statement II is structures of a fertilized embryo sac sequentially
incorrect. are :
13. Which micronutrient is required for splitting of a. Synergids, antipodals and Polar nuclei
water molecule during photosynthesis? b. Synergids, Primary endosperm nucleus and
a. copper b. manganese zygote
c. molybdenum d. magnesium c. Antipodals, synergids, and primary endosperm
nucleus
14. How many ATP and NADPH, are required for the
d. Synergids, Zygote and Primary endosperm
synthesis of one molecule of Glucose during Calvin
nucleus
cycle?
22. What is the function of tassels in the corn cob ?
a. 18 ATP and 16 NADPH2
a. To protect seeds
b. 12 ATP and 12 NADPH2
b. To attract insects
c. 18 ATP and 12 NADPH2
c. To trap pollen grains
d. 12 ATP and 16 NADPH2
d. To disperse pollen grains
15. The reaction centre in PS II has an absorption 23. The phenomenon of pleiotropism refers to
maxima at a. more than two genes affecting a single
a. 780 nm b. 680 nm character.
c. 700 nm d. 660 nm b. presence of several alleles of a single gene
16. Given below are two statements: One is labelled controlling a single crossover.
as Assertion A and the other is labelled as ReasonR: c. presence of two alleles, each of the two genes
Assertion A: ATP is used at two steps in glycolysis. controlling a single trait.
Reason R: First ATP is used in converting glucose d. a single gene affecting multiple phenotypic
into glucose-6-phosphate and second ATP is used expression.
in conversion of fructose-6- phosphate into 24. Frequency of recombination between gene pairs
fructose-1-6-diphosphate. on same chromosome as a measure of the
In the light of the above statements, choose the distance between genes to map their position on
correct answer from the options given below is chromosome, was used for the first time by
true, a. Henking b. Thomas Hunt Morgan
a. A is false but R is true. c. Sutton and Boveri d. Alfred Sturtevant
b. Both A and R are true and R is the correct 25. What is the role of RNA polymerase III in the
explanation of A process of transcription in Eukaryotes?
c. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct a. Transcription of only snRNAS
explanation of A. b. Transcription of rRNAs (28S, 18S and 5.8S)
d. A is true but R is false. c. Transcription of tRNA, 5 srRNA and snRNA
17. Spraying of which of the following phytohormone d. Transcription of precursor of mRNA
on juvenile conifers helps in hastening the maturity 26. Expressed Sequence Tags (ESTs) refers to
period, that leads to early seed production? a. Certain important expressed genes.
a. Abscisic Acid b. Indole-3-butyric Acid b. All genes that are expressed as RNA.
c. Gibberellic Acid d. Zeatin c. All genes that are expressed as proteins.
d. All genes whether expressed or unexpressed.
18. In tissue culture experiments, leaf mesophyll cells
27. Unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic
are put in a culture medium to form callus. This material was first proposed by
phenomenon may be called as: a. Wilkins and Franklin
a. Senescence b. Differentiation b. Fedrick, Griffith
c. Dedifferentiation d. Development c. Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase
19. Which hormone promotes intemode/petiole d. Avery, Macleoid and McCarthy
elongation in deep water rice ? 28. Upon exposure to UV radiation, DNA stained
a. 2, 4-D b. GA3 with ethidium bromide will show
c. Kinetin d. Ethylene a. Bright orange colour b. Bright red colour
20. Large, colourful, fragrant flowers with nectar are c. Bright blue colour d. Bright yellow colour
seen in: 29. In gene gun method used to introduce alien DNA
a. wind pollinated plants into host cells, microparticles of ______ metal are
b. insect pollinated plants used.

- H itesh K hared 12
 a. Silver b. Copper correct answer from the options given below:
c. Zinc d. Tungsten or gold a. A is false but R is true.
30. During the purification process for recombinant b. Both A and R are true and R is the correct
DNA technology, addition of chilled ethanol explanation of A.
precipitates out c. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
a. Polysaccharides b. RNA explanation of A.
c. DNA d. Histones d. A is true but R is false.
31. Identify the correct statements: 37. Given below are two statements: One is labelled
A. Detrivores perform fragmentation as Assertion A and the other is labeled as Reason R:
B. The humus is further degraded by some Assertion A: A flower is defined as modified
microbes during mineralization. shoot wherein the shoot apical meristem
C. Water soluble inorganic nutrients go down changes to floral meristem.
into the soil and get precipitated by a process Reason R: Internode of the shoot gets condensed
called leaching. to produce different floral appendages laterally
D. The detritus food chain begins with living at successive nodes instead of leaves.
organisms. In the light of the above statements, choose the
E. Earthworms break down detritus into smaller correct answer from the options given below:
particles by a process called catabolism. a. A is false but R is true.
Choose the correct answer from the options b. Both A and R are true and R is the correct
given below: explanation of A.
a. D, E, A only b. A, B, C only c. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
c. B, C, D only d. C, D, E only explanation of A.
32. In the equation GPP – R = NPP d. A is true but R is false.
GPP is Gross Primary Productivity
38. Identify the correct statements:
NPP is Net Primary Productivity. R here is
A. Lenticels are the lens-shaped openings
a. Reproductive allocation
permitting the exchange of gases.
b. Photosynthetically active radiation
B. Bark formed early in the season is called hard
c. Respiratory quotient
bark.
d. Respiratory loss C. Bark is a technical term that refers to all
33. The historic Convention on Biological Diversity, ‘The tissues exterior to vascular cambium.
Earth Summit’ was held in Rio de Janeiro in the D. Bark refers to periderm and secondary
year: phloem.
a. 2002 b. 1992 E. Phellogen is single-layered in thickness. Choose
c. 1985 d. 1986 the correct answer from the options given
34. Among ‘The Evil Quartet’, which one is considered below:
the most important cause driving extinction of a. B and C only b. B. C and E only
species? c. A and D only d. A, B and D only
a. Co-extinctions
39. Melonate inhibits the growth of pathogenic bacteria
b. Habitat loss and fragmentation
by inhibiting the activity of
c. Over exploitation for economic gain
a. Dinitrogenase b. succinic dehydrogenase
d. Alien species invasions
c. Amylase d. Lipase
35. The thickness of ozone in a column of air in the
40. Match List-I with List-II :
atmosphere is measured in terms of:
a. Kilobase b. Dobson units List-I List-II
c. Decameter d. Decibels
(A) M Phase (I) Proteins are synthesized
36. Given below are two statements: One is labelled
(B) G2 Phase (II) Inactive phase
as Assertion A and the other is labelled as ReasonR:
Assertion A: In gymnosperms the pollen grains (C) Quiescent stage (III) Interval between mitosis
and initiation of DNA
are released from the microsporangium and replication
carried by air currents.
(D) G Phase (IV) Equational division
Reason R: Air currents carry the pollen grains to
the mouth of the archegonia where the male
gametes are discharged and pollen tube is not Choose the correct answer from the options
formed. given below:
In the light of the above statements, choose the

- H itesh K hared 13
 a. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III b. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I A. This disorder was first described by Langdon
c. A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III d. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III Down (1866).
B. Such an individual has overall masculine
41. Match List-I with List-II :
development. However, the feminine
List-I List-II development is also expressed.
(A) Cohesion (I) More attraction in liquid
C. The affected individual is short stature.
phase D. Physical, psychomotor and mental
(B) Adhesion (II) Mutual attraction among development is retarded.
wate molecules E. Such individuals are sterile.
(C) Surface tension (III) Water loss in liquid phase Choose the correct answer from the options
(D) Guttation (IV) Attraction towards polar given below:
surfaces a. A and E only b. A and B only
c. C and D only d. B and E only
Choose the correct answer from the options 46. How many different proteins does the ribosome
given below: consist of?
a. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III b. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III a. 20 b. 80
c. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I d. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II c. 60 d. 40
42. Match List-I with List-II : 47. Main steps in the formation of Recombinant DNA
are given below. Arrange these steps in a correct
List-I List-II sequence
(A) Iron (I) Synthesis of auxin A. Insertion of recombinant DNA into the host
(B) Zinc (II) Component of nitrate cell.
reductase B. Cutting of DNA at specific location by
(C) Boron (III) Activator of catalase
restriction enzyme.
(D) Molybdenum (IV) Cell elongation and
differentiation
C. Isolation of desired DNA fragment.
D. Amplification of gene of interest using PCR.
Choose the correct answer from the options Choose the correct answer from the option given
given below: below:
a. A- II, B- IV, C- I, D-III b. A-III, B- II, C-I, D-IV a. B, D, A, C b. B, C, D, A
c. A-III, B- III, C-IV, D-I d. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II c. C, A, B, D d. C, B, D, A
43. Which of the following combinations is required 48. Given below are two statements:
for chemiosmosis ? Statement I: Gause’s ‘Competitive Exclusive
a. proton pump, electron gradient, NADP Principle’ states that two closely related species
synthase competing for the same related species
b. membrane, proton pump, proton gradient. ATP competing for the same resources cannot co-
synthase exist indefinitely and competitively inferior one
c. membrane, proton pump, proton gradient, will be eliminated eventually.
NADP synthase Statement II: In general, carnivores are more
d. proton pump, electron gradient, ATP synthase adversely affected by competition than
herbivores.
44. Match List-I with List-II :
In the light of the above statements, choose the
List-I List-II correct answer from the options given below:
(A) Taenia (I) Nephridia a. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true
b. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(B) Paramoecium (II) Contractile vacuole
c. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(C) Periplaneta (III) Flame cells d. Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
(D) Pheretima (IV) Urecose gland 49. Match List-I with List-II :
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
a. A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I b. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
c. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III d. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
45. Which of the following statements are correct about
Klinefelter’s Syndrome ?

- H itesh K hared 14
 C. Chloroplasts E. Peroxisomes
List-I (Interaction) List-II (Species A And B) D. Golgi complex
(A) Mutualism (I) +(A), O(B) Choose the most appropriate answer from the
(B) Commensalism (II) –(A), O(B) options given below:
a. A, D and E only b. B and D only
(C) Amensalism (III) +(A), -(B)
c. A, C and E only d. A and D only
(D) Parasitism (IV) +(A), +(B) 55. Which of the following functions is carried out by
cytoskeleton in a cell?
Choose the correct answer from the options
a. Transportation b. Nuclear division
given below:
c. Protein synthesis d. Motility
a. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II b. A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
56. Given below are two statements:
c. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III d. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II Statement I: Low temperature preserves the
50. Which of the following answers are NOT correct ? enzyme in a temporarily inactive state whereas
a. The amount of some toxic substances of high temperature destroys enzymatic activity
industrial waste water increases in the because proteins are denatured by heat.
organisms at successive trophic levels. Statement II: When the inhibitor closely
b. The micro-organisms involved in resembles the substrate in its molecular
biodegradation of organic matter in a sewage structure and inhibits the activity of the enzyme,
polluted water body consume a lot of oxygen it is known as competitive inhibitor.
causing the death of aquatic organisms. In the light of the above statements, choose the
c. Algal blooms caused by excess of organic correct answer from the options given below:
matter in water improve water quality and a. Statement I is false but statement II is true.
promote fisheries. b. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
d. Water hyacinth grows abundantly in eutrophic c. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
water bodies and leads to an imbalance in the d. Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
ecosystem dynamics of the water body. 57. Given below are two statements:
51. Radial symmetry is NOT found in adults of phylum Statement I: A protein is imagined as a line, the
a. Echinodermata b. Ctenophora left end represented by first amino acid (C-
c. Hemichordata d. Coelenterata terminal) and the right end represented by last
52. Match List-I with List-II : amino acid (N-terminal)
Statement II: Adult human haemoglobin, consists
List-I List-II of 4 subunits (two subunits of a type and two
(A) Taenia (I) Nephridia subunits of b type.)
In the light of the above statements, choose the
(B) Paramoecium (II) Contractile vacuole correct answer from the options given below:
(C) Periplaneta (III) Flame cells a. Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(D) Pheretima (IV) Urecose gland b. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
c. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
d. Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
Choose the correct answer from the options
58. Match List-I with List-II :
given below:
a. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III b. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV List-I (Cells) List-II (Secretion)
c. A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III d. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I (A) Peptic cells (I) Mucus
(B) Goblet Cells (II) Bile Juice
53. Given below are two statements:
(C) Oxyntic Cell (III) Proenzyme Pepsinogen
Statement I: Ligaments are dense irregular tissue
(D) Hepatic cells (IV) HCl and intrinsic factor for
Statement II: Cartilage is dense regular tissue.
absorption of vitamin B12
In the light of above statements choose the
correct answer from the option given below:
Choose the correct answer from the options
a. Statement I is false but Statement III is true.
b. Both Statement I and II are true given below:
c. Both Statement I and II are false a. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III b. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
d. Statement I is true but Statement II is false c. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV d. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
54. Which of the following are NOT considered as the 59. Once the undigested and unabsorbed substances
part of endomembrane system? enter the caecum, their backflow is prevented by-
A. Mitochondria B. Endoplasmic Reticulum a. Pyloric sphincter

- H itesh K hared 15
 b. Sphincter of Oddi c. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III d. A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
c. Ileo-caecal valve 64. Match List-I with List-II :
d. Gastro-oesophageal sphincter
60. Vital capacity of lung is ________. List-I List-II
a. IRV + ERV + TV b. IRV + ERV (A) Fovea (I) Visible coloured portion of eye
c. IRV + ERV + TV + RV d. IRV + ERV + TV – RV that regulates diameter of pupil.
(B) Iris (II) External layer of eye formed of
61. Match List-I with List-II : dense connective tissue.
(C) Blind spot (III) Point of greatest visual acuity or
List-I List-II resolution.
(A) P-wave (I) Beginning of systole (D) Sclera (IV) Point where optic nerve leaves
the eyeball and photoreceptor
(B) Q-wave (II) Repolarisation of ventricles cells are absent.
(C) QRS complex (III) Depolarisation of atria
(D) T-wave (IV) Depolarisation of ventricles Choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
a. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV b. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
Choose the correct answer from the options
c. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I d. A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
given below:
a. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV b. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
65. Match List-I with List-II :
c. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I d. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
Choose the correct answer from the options
62. Given below are statements: one is labelled as
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
given below:
Assertion A: Nephrons are of two types: Cortical List-I List-II
& Juxta medullary, based on their relative
(A) CCK (I) Kidney
position in cortex and medulla.
Reason R: Juxta medullary nephrons have short (B) GIP (II) Heart
loop of Henle whereas, cortical nephrons have (C) ANF (III) Gastric gland
longer loop of Henle. (D) ADH (IV) Pancreas
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below: a. A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I b. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
a. A is false but R is true. c. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I d. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
b. Both A and R are true and R is the correct 66. Given below are two statements:
explanation of A. Statement I: Vas deferens receives a duct from
c. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct seminal vesicle and opens into urethra as the
explanation of A. ejaculatory duct.
d. A is true but R is false. Statement II: The cavity of the cervix is called
63. Match List-I with List-II : cervical canal which along with vagina forms
birth canal.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
List-I (Type of List-II (Found between)
correct answer from the options given below:
Joint)
a. Statement I incorrect but Statement II is true.
A. Cartilaginous I. Between flat skull
b. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
Joint bones
c. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
B. Ball and Socket II. Between adjacent
Joint vertebrae in vertebral d. Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
column 67. Given below are two statements: one is labelled
C. Fibrous Joint III. Between carpal as Assertion A and the other is labelled as ReasonR.
and metacarpal of Assertion A: Endometrium is necessary for
thumb implantation of blastocyst.
D. Saddle Joint IV. Between Humerus Reason R: In the absence of fertilization, the
and Pectoral girdle corpus luteum degenerates that causes
disintegration of endometrium.
Choose the correct answer from the options In the light of the above statements, choose the
given below: correct answer from the options given below:
a. A is false but R is true.
a. A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I b. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
b. Both A and R are true and R is the correct
- H itesh K hared 16
 explanation of A.
c. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
explanation of A. a. b.
d. A is true but R is false.
68. Which of the following statements are correct
regarding female reproductive cycle?
A. In non-primate mammals cyclical changes c. d.
during reproduction are called oestrus cycle.
B. First menstrual cycle begins at puberty and is 73. Broad palm with single palm crease is visible in a
called menopause. person suffering from-
C. Lack of menstruation may be indicative of a. Thalassemia b. Down’s syndrome
pregnancy. c. Turner’s syndrome d. Klinefelter’s syndrome
D. Cyclic menstruation extends between
74. Given below are two statements:
menarche and menopause.
Statement I: RNA mutates at a faster rate.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
Statement II: Viruses having RNA genome and
options given below:
shorter life span mutate and evolve faster.
a. A, C and D only b. A and D only
In the light of the above statements, choose the
c. A and B only d. A, B and C only correct answer from the options given below.
69. Which one of the following common sexually a. Statement I false but Statement II is true.
transmitted diseases is completely curable when b. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
detected early and treated properly? c. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
a. HIV Infection b. Genital herpes d. Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
c. Gonorrhoea d. Hepatitis-B
70. Given below are two statements: one is labelled
75. Match List-I with List-II :
as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
List-I List-II
Reason R.
Assertion A: Amniocentesis for sexdetermination (A) Gene 'a' (I) β-galactosidase
is one of the strategies of Reproductive and Child
(B) Gene 'y' (II) Transacetylase
Health Care Programme.
Reason R: Ban on amniocentesis checks (C) Gene 'i' (III) Permease
increasing menace of female foeticide.
(D) Gene 'z' (IV) Repressor protein
In the light of the above statements. Choose the
correct answer from the options given below:
a. A is false but R is true. Choose the correct answer from the options
b. Both A and R are true and R is the correct given below:
explanation of A. a. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II b. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-III
c. Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct
c. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I d. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
explanation of A.
76. Given below are two statements:
d. A is true but R is false.
Statement I: In prokaryotes, the positively
71. Match List-I with List-II : charged DNA is held with some negatively
List-I List-II charged proteins in a region called nucleoid.
(A) Vasectomy (I) Oral method Statement II: In eukaryotes, the negatively
(B) Coitus interruptus (II) Barrier method
charged DNA is wrapped around the positively
charged histone octamer to form nucleosome.
(C) Cervical caps (III) Surgical method
In the light of the above statements, choose the
(D) Saheli (IV) Natural method
correct answer from the options given below:
a. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.
Choose the correct answer from the options
b. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
given below: c. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
a. A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III b. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II d. Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
c. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I d. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV 77. Select the correct group/set of Australian
72. Which one of the following symbols represents Marsupials exhibiting adaptive radiation.
mating between relatives in human pedigree a. Lemur, Anteater, Wolf
analysis? b. Tasmanian wolf, Bobcat, Marsupial mole
c. Numbat, Spotted cuscus, Flying phalanger

- H itesh K hared 17
 d. Mole, Flying squirrel, Tasmanian tiger cat
78. Match List-I with List-II : List-I List-II
(Interacting species) (Name of Interaction)
List-I List-II (A) A Leopard and a Lion in a (I) Competition
(A) Ringworm (I) Haemophilus influenzae
forest/ grassland
(B) A Cuckoo laying egg in a (II) Brood parasitism
(B) Filariasis (II) Trichophyton.
Crow's nest
(C) Malaria (III) Wuchereria bancrofti (C) Fungi and root of a higher (III) Mutualism
(D) Pneumonia (IV) Plasmodium vivax plant in Mycorrtizae
(D) A cattle egret and a Cattle (IV) Commensalism
Choose the correct answer from the options in a field

given below:
Choose the correct answer from the options
a. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I b. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
given below:
c. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV d. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
a. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV b. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
79. Match List-I with List-II :
c. A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III d. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
List-I List-II 84. Which of the following statements is correct ?
a. Algal Bloom decreases fish mortality.
(A) Heroin (I) Effect on cardiovascular system b. Eutrophication refers to increase in domestic
(B) Marijuana (II) Slow down body function sewage and waste water in lakes.
c. Biomagnification refers to increase in
(C) Cocaine (III) Painkiller concentration of the toxicant at successive
(D) Morphine (IV) Interfere with transport trophic levels.
dopamine d. Presence of large amount of nutrients in water
restricts ‘Algal Bloom’.
Choose the correct answer from the options 85. Given below are two statements:
given below: Statement I: Electrostatic precipitator is most
a. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II b. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III widely used in thermal power plant.
c. A-I. B-II, C-III, D-IV d. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I Statement II: Electrostatic precipitator in
thermal power plant removes ionising radiations
80. In which blood corpuscles, the HIV undergoes
In the light of the above statements, choose the
replication and produces progeny viruses? most appropriate answer from the options given
a. Eosinophils b. TH cells below:
c. B-lymphocytes d. Basophils a. Statement I incorrect but Statement II is
81. Which of the following is not a cloning vector? correct.
a. Probe b. BAC b. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
c. YAC d. pBR322 c. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
82. Which one of the following techniques does not d. Statement I is correct but Statement II is
serve the purpose of early diagnosis of a disease incorrect.
for its early treatment? 86. The unique mammalian characteristics are:
a. Enzyme Linked Immuno-Sorbent Assay (ELISA) a. pinna, monocondylic skull and mammary
technique glands
b. Recombinant DNA Technology b. hairs, tympanic membrane and mammary
c. Serum and Urine analysis glands
d. Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) technique c. hairs, pinna and mammary glands
83. Match List-I with List-II : d. hairs, pinna and indirect development
87. Select the correct statements with reference to
chordates.
A. Presence of a mid-dorsal, solid and double
nerve cord.
B. Presence of closed circulatory system.
C. Presence of paired pharyngeal gills
D. Presence of dorsal heart
E. Triploblastic pseudocoelomate animals.
Choose the correct answer from the options

- H itesh K hared 18
 given below: Choose the correct answer from the option given
a. C, D and E only b. A, C and D only below:
c. B and C only d. B, D and E only a. B and E only b. A and C only
88. Which of the following is characteristic feature of c. B and D only d. A, C and E only
cockroach regarding sexual dimorphism ? 93. Which of the following statements are correct?
a. Presence of anal cerci A. Basophils are most aboundant cell of the total
b. Dark brown body colour and anal cerci WBCs
c. Presence of anal styles B. Basophils secrete histamine, serotonin and
d. Presence of sclerites heparin
89. Match List-I with List-II : C. Basophils are involved in inflammatory
response
List-I List-II D. Basophils have kidney shaped nucleus
(A) Mast cells (I) Ciliated epithelium E. Basophil are agranulocyte
Choose the correct answer from the options
(B) Inner surface of (II) Areolar connective
bronchiole tissue
given below:
(C) Blood (III) Cuboidal epithelium a. A and B only b. D and E only
(D) Tubular parts of (IV) specialised connective c. C and E only d. B and C only
nephron tissue 94. Which of the following statements are correct?
A. An excessive loss of body fluid from the body
Choose the correct answer from the options switches off osmoreceptors.
given below: B. ADH facilitates water reabsorption to prevent
a. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I b. A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III diuresis.
c. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV d. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III C. ANF causes vasodilation.
D. ADH causes increase in blood pressure.
90. In cockroach, excretion is brought about by-
E. ADH is responsible for decrease in GFR.
A. Phallic gland B. Urecose gland
Choose the correct answer from the options
C. Ncphrocytes D. Fat body
given below:
E. Collatcrial glands
Choose the correct answer from the options a. C, D and E only b. A and B only
given below: c. B, C and D only d. A, B and E only
a. B and D only b. A and E only 95. Which of the following statements are correct
c. A, B and E only d. B, C and D only regarding skeletal muscle?
91. Given below are two statements: A. Muscle bundles are held together by
Statement I: During Go phase of cell cycle the cell collagenous connective tissue layer called
is metabolically inactive fascicle.
Statement II: The centrosome undergoes B. Sarcoplasmic reticulum of muscle fibre is a
duplication during S phase of interphase. store house of calcium ions.
In the light of the above statements, choose the C. Striated appearance of skeletal muscle fibre is
most appropriate answer from the option due to distribution pattern of actin and myosin
below: proteins.
a. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is D. M line is considered as functional unit of
correct contraction called sarcomere.
b. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct Choose the most appropriate answer from the
c. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect. options given below:
d. Statement I is correct but Statement II is a. C and D only b. A, B and C only
incorrect. c. B and C only d. A, C and D only
92. Select the correct statements. 96. The parts of human brain that helps in regulation
A. Tetrad formation is seen during leptotene of sexual behaviour, expression of excitement,
B. During Anaphase, the centromere split and pleasure, rage, fear etc. are.
chromatids separate. a. Corpus callosum and thalamus
C. Terminalization takes place during Pachytene. b. Limbic system & hypothalamus
D. Nucleolus, Golgi complex and ER are reformed c. Corpora quadrigemina & hippocampus
during Telophase. d. Brain stem & epithalamus
E. Crossing over takes place between sister 97. Which of the following are NOT under the control
chromatids of homologous of thyroid hormone?

- H itesh K hared 19
 A. Maintenance of water and electrolyte balance
B. Regulation of basal metabolic rate
C. Normal rhythm of sleep-wake cycle
D. Development of immune system
E. Support the process of R.B.Cs formation
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
a. D and E only b. A and D only
c. B and C only d. C and D only
98. Which one of the following is the sequence on
corresponding coding strand, if the sequence on
mRNA formed is as follow
5’AUCGAUCGAUCGAUCGAUCGAUCG
AUCG 3?
a. 3’ ATCGATCGATCGTCGATCG
ATCGATCG 5’
b. 5’ UAGCUAGCUAGCUAGCUA
GCUAGC UAGC 3’
c. 3’ UAGCUAGCUAGCUAGCUA
GCUAGCUAGC 5’
d. 5’ ATCGATCGATCGATCGATCG
ATCGATCG 3’
99. Which one of the following NOT an advantage of
inbreeding ?
a. It decreases the productivity of inbred
population, after continuous inbreeding.
b. It decreases homozygosity.
c. It exposes harmful recessive genes that are
eliminated by selection.
d. Elimination of less desirable genes and
accumulation of superior genes takes place due
to it
100. Match List-I with List-II :

List-I List-II
(A) Logistic (I) Unlimited resource availability
growth condition
(B) Exponential (II) Limited resource availability
growth condition
(C) Expanding (III) The percent individuals of
age pyramid pre-reproductive age is largest
followed by reproductive and
post reproductive age groups
(D) Stable age (IV) The percent individuals
pyramid of pre-reproductives and
reproductive age group are
same

Choose the correct answer from the options

given below:
a. A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I b. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
c. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV d. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

- H itesh K hared 20
 (1) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I (2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
01. The regions with high level of species richness, high (3) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (4) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
degree of endemism and a loss of 70% of the 07. Match List-I with List-II:
species and habitat are identified as: List-I List-II
(1) Natural Reserves Type of Inheritance Example
(2) Sacred Groves A. Incomplete dominance I. Blood groups in human
(3) Biodiversity Hotspots B. Co-dominance II. Flower colour in Antirrhinum
(4) Biogeographical Regions C. Pleiotropy III. Skin colour in human
02. Which of the following simple tissues are commonly D. Polygenic inheritance IV. Phenylketonuria
found in the fruit walls of nuts and pulp of pear? Choose the correct answer from the options
(1) Sclereids (2) Fibres given below:
(3) Parenchyma (4) Collenchyma (1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I (2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
03. In a chromosome, there is a specific DNA sequence, (3) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV (4) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
responsible for initiating replication. It is called as: 08. Which part of the ovule stores reserve food
(1) Recognition sequence (2) Cloning site materials?
(3) Restriction site (4) ori site (1) Nucellus (2) Integument
04. Given below are two statements: (3) Placenta (4) Funicle
Statement I: When many alleles of a single gene 09. Which one of the following is not found in
govern a character, it is called polygenic Gymnosperms?
inheritance. (1) Sieve cells (2) Albuminous cells
Statement II: In Polygenic inheritance, the effect (3) Tracheids (4) Vessels
of each allele is additive. 10. Which one of the following is not included under
In the light of the above statements, choose in-situ conservation?
the correct answer from the options given below. (1) Wild-life sanctuary (2) Botanical garden
(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false (3) Biosphere reserve (4) National park
(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true 11. Given below are two statements: Statement I :
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true The Indian Government has set up GEAC, which
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false will make decisions regarding the validity of GM
05. Which of the following are required for the light research.
reaction of Photosynthesis? Statement II : Biopiracy is the term used to refer
A. CO2 B. O2 C. H2O to the use of bio-resources by native people.
D. Chlorophyll E. Light In the light of the above statements, choose the
Choose the correct answer from the iorrect answer from the options given below :
options given below: (1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(1) A, C, D and E only (2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(2) C, D and E only (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(3) A and B only (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(4) A, C and E only 12. Pollen grains remain preserved as fossils due to
06. Match List-I with List-II: the presence of :
List-I List-II (1) Epidermal layer (2) Tapetum
A. Fleming I. Disc shaped sacs or (3) Exine layer (4) Intine layer
cisternae near cell nucleus 13. Identify the incorrect pair :
B. Robert Brown II. Chromatin (1) Sphenopsida – Adiantum
C. George Palade III. Ribosomes (2) Pteropsida – Dryopteris
D. Camillo Golgi IV. Nucleus (3) Psilopsida – Psilotum
Choose the correct answer from the options
(4) Lycopsida – Selaginella
given below:
14. Which of the following is the correct match?

- H itesh K hared 21
 (1) Gymnosperms : Cedrus, Pinus, Sequoia (4) Medium sized chromosome
(2) Angiosperms : Wolffia, Eucalyptus, 21. Match List-I with List-II :
Sequoia List-I List-II
(3) Bryophytes : Polytrichum, Polysiphonia,
A. Abscisic acid I. Promotes female
Sphagnum
flowers in cucumber
(4) Pteridophytes : Equisetum, Ginkgo,
B. Ethylene II. Helps seeds to
Adiantum withstand desiccation
15. Given below are two statements regarding RNA C. Gibberellin III. Helps in nutrient
polymerase in prokaryotes. mobilisation
Statement I : In prokaryotes, RNA polymerase is D. Cytokinin IV. Promotes bolting
capable of catalysing the process of elongation in beet, cabbage etc
during transcription. Choose the correct answer from the options
Statement II : RNA polymerase associate given below:
transiently with ‘Rho’ factor to initiate (1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I (2) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
transcription. (3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III (4) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
In the light of the above statements, choose the
22. Match List-I with List-II :
correct answer from the options given below :
List-I List-II
(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
A. Genetically engineered I. Gene therapy
(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Human Insulin
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
B. GM Cotton II. E. coli
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false C. ADA Deficiency III. Antigen-antibody
16. Which of the following is a nucleotide? interaction
(1) Uridine (2) Adenylic acid D. ELISA IV. Bacillus
(3) Guanine (4) Guanosine thuringiensis
17. Match List-I with List-II : Choose the correct answer from the options
List-I List-II given below:
A. Vexillary aestivation I. Brinjal (1) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I (2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
B. Epipetalous stamens II. Peach (3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II (4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
C. Epiphyllous stamens III. Pea 23. Match List-I with List-II:
D. Perigynous flower IV. Lily List-I List-II
Choose the correct answer from the options A. ETS Complex I I. NADH Dehydrogenase
given below : B. ETS Complex II II. Cytochrome bC1
(1) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II (2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II C. ETS Complex III III. Cytochrome C oxidase
(3) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV (4) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III D. ETS Complex IV IV. Succinate
18. Match List-I with List-II : Dehydrogenase
List-I List-II Choose the correct answer from the options
A. China rose I. Free central given below :
B. Mustard II. Basal (1) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II (2) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
C. Primrose III. Axile (3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II (4) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
D. Marigold IV. Parietal 24. Cryopreservation technique is used for :
Choose the correct answer from the options (1) Protection of environment
given below : (2) Protection of Biodiversity hotspots
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I (3) Preservation of gametes in viable and fertile
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II (4) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I condition for a long period
19. Which of the following helps in maintenance of the (4) In-situ conservation
pressure gradient in sieve tubes? 25. Which of the following are correct about cellular
(1) Albuminous cells (2) Sieve cells respiration?
(3) Phloem parenchyma (4) Companion cells A. Cellular respiration is the breaking of C-C
20. Mesosome in a cell is a : bonds of complex organic molecules by oxidation.
(1) Membrane bound vesicular structure B. The entire cellular respiration takes place in
(2) Chain of many ribosomes attached to a Mitochondria.
single mRNA C. Fermentation takes place under anaerobic
(3) Special structure formed by extension of condition in germinating seeds.
plasma membrane D. The fate of pyruvate formed during

- H itesh K hared 22
 glycolysis depends on the type of organism also. chromosomes is completed by the end of
E. Water is formed during respiration as a result (1) Diakinesis (2) Zygotene
of O2 accepting electrons and getting reduced. (3) Diplotene (4) Pachytene
Choose the correct answer from the options 30. Match List-I with List-II:
given below:
(1) A, C, D, E only (2) A, B, E only List-I List-II
(3) A, B, C, E only (4) B, C, D, E only
26. Given below are two statements: A. Metacentric I. Chromosome has a
chromosome terminal centromere
Statement I: In eukaryotes there are three
RNA polymerases in the nucleus in addition to B. Sub-metacentric II. Middle centromere forming two
the RNA polymerase found in the organelles. chromosome equal arms of chromosome
Statement II: All the three RNA polymerases
in eukaryotic nucleus have different roles. C. Acrocentric III. Centromere is slightly away from the
In the light of the above statements, choose chromosome middle of chromosome resulting into
the correct answer from the options given two unequal arms
below:
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is D. Telocentric IV. Centromere is situated close to its
chromosome
incorrect end forming one extremely short
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II and one very long arm
is correct
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are Choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
incorrect
(1) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III (2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
27. Match List-I with List-II:
(3) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
31. Ligases is a class of enzymes responsible for
List-I List-II
catalysing the linking together of two compounds.
A. Histones I. Loosely packed chromatin Which of the following bonds is not catalysed
by it?
B. Nucleosome II. Densely packed Chromatin (1) C – C (2) P – O
C. Euchromatin III. Positively charged basic proteins
(3) C – O (4) C – N
32. F. Skoog observed that callus proliferated from the
D. Heterochromatin IV. DNA wrapped around internodal segments of tobacco stem when auxin
histone octamer was supplied with one of the following except :
(1) Extract of Vascular tissues (2) Coconut milk
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II (3) Abscisic acid (4) Yeast Extract
(3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I (4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II 33. Given below are some statements about plant
growth regulators.
28. Given below are two statements:
A. All GAs are acidic in nature.
Statement I: Failure of segregation of
B. Auxins are antagonists to GAs.
chromatids during cell cycle resulting in the gain
C. Zeatin was isolated from coconut milk.
or loss of whole set of chromosome in an
D. Ethylene induces flowering in Mango.
organism is known as aneuploidy.
E. Abscisic acid induces parthenocarpy.
Statement II: Failure of cytokinesis after
Choose the correct set of statements from the
anaphase stage of cell division results in the
options given below:
gain or loss of a chromosome is called
(1) A, C, D (2) B, E
polyploidy.
(3) A, B, C (4) B, D, E
In the light of the above statements, choose
the correct answer from the options given 34. Identify the incorrect statement related to gel
below: electrophoresis.
(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false (1) Separated DNA fragments can be directly
(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true seen under UV radiation
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true (2) Separated DNA can be extracted from gel
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false piece
(3) Fragment of DNA moves toward anode
29. Recombination between homologous
(4) Sieving effect of agarose gel helps in

- H itesh K hared 23
 separation of DNA fragments C. Palmitic acid
35. Which of the following examples show D. Lecithin
monocarpellary, unilocular ovary with many ovules? E. Aspartic acid
A. Sesbania Choose the correct answer from the options
B. Brinjal given below :
C. Indigofera (1) C, D and E only (2) A and B only
D. Tobacco (3) A, D and E only (4) B and C only
E. Asparagus 40. Consider the pyramid of energy of an ecosystem
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
given below :
(1) B and E only (2) C, D and E only
(3) A, B and D only (4) A and C only
36. Given below are two statements :
Statement I: In the lac operon, the z gene
codes for beta-galactosidase which is primarily
responsible for the hydrolysis of lactose into
galactose and glucose.
Statement II: In addition to lactose, glucose
or galactose can also induce lac operon. If T4 is equivalent to 1000 J, what is the value
In the light of the above statements, choose at T 1?
the correct answer from the options given
below : 10000 10000
(1) J (2)  4J
(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false 10 10
(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(3) 10,000 J (4) 10,00,000 J
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
41. Which one of the following products diffuses out
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
of the chloroplast during photosynthesis?
37. The part marked as ‘x’ in the given figure is
(1) ADP (2) NADPH
(3) O2 (4) ATP
42. Recombinant DNA molecule can be created
normally by cutting the vector DNA and source DNA
respectively with:
(1) Hind II, Hind II (2) Hind II, Alu I
(3) Hind II, EcoR I (4) Hind II, BamHI
43. Which one of the following is not a limitation of
(1) Endosperm (2) Thalamus ecological pyramids?
(3) Endocarp (4) Mesocarp (1) Saprophytes are not given any place in
38. Statement I: In a dicotyledonous leaf, the adaxial ecological pyramids
epidermis generally bears more stomata than the (2) It assumes a simple food chain, that
abaxial almost never exists in nature
Statement II: In a dicotyledonous leaf, the (3) It accommodates a food web
adaxially placed palisade parenchyma is made (4) It does not take into account the same
up of elongated cells, which are arranged species belonging to two or more trophic levels
vertically and parallel to each other. 44. (1) Creating pores in the midgut
In the light of the above statements, choose (2) Damaging the respiratory system
the correct answer from the options given (3) Degenerating the nervous system
below:
(4) Altering the pH of body fluids
(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true 45. Match List-I with List-II:
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true List-I List-II
Organisms Mode of Nutrition
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
A. Euglenoid I. Parasitic
39. Which of the following are not fatty acids? B. Dinoflagellate II. Saprophytic
A. Glutamic acid C. Slime mould III. Photosynthetic
B. Arachidonic acid D. Plasmodium IV. Switching between

- H itesh K hared 24
 photosynthetic and than the number of deaths plus number of
heterotrophic mode immigrants.
Choose the correct answer from the options (4) Births plus number of immigrants is more
given below: than the sum of number of deaths and number
(1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I (2) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III of emigrants.
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (4) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I 48. When a tall pea plant with round seeds was selfed,
46. Which of the following graphs depicts the effect of it produced the progeny of :
substrate concentration on velocity of enzyme (a) Tall plants with round seeds and
catalysed reaction? (b) Tall plants with wrinkled seeds.
Identify the genotype of the parent plant.
(1) TtRr (2) TtRR
(3) TTRR (4) TTRr
49. Match List-I with List-II:

List-I List-II
A. Biodiversity hotspot I Khasi and Jantia hills in Meghalaya
.
B. Sacred groves II World Summit on Sustainable
. Development 2002
C Johannesburg, South Africa III. Parthenium
.
D Alien species invasion IV. Western Ghats
.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
(1) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III (2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(3) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II (4) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
50. Observe the given figure. Identify the different
stages labelled with alphabets by selecting the
correct option.

Ans. 1 (1) A-Carboxylation, B-Regeneration, C-

47. When will the population density increase, under Reduction
special conditions? When the number of : (2) A-Reduction, B-Decarboxylation, C-
(1) Deaths exceeds number of births and also Regeneration
number of emigrants equals number of (3) A-Carboxylation, B-Reduction, C-Regeneration
immigrants. (4) A-Reduction, B-Carboxylation, C-Regeneration
(2) Births plus number of immigrants equals 51. Match List-I with List-II:
number of deaths plus number of emigrants.
(3) Births plus number of emigrants is more

- H itesh K hared 25
 List I List II
List I List II
A. Gene pool I. Stable within a generation
A. Predator I. Ophrys
B. Genetic drift II. Change in gene frequency by chance
B. Mutualism II. Pisaster
C. Gene flow III. Transfer of genes into or out of population
C. Parasitism III. Female wasp and fig
D Gene frequency IV. Total number of genes and their alleles
D Sexual deceit IV. Plasmodium
(1) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV (2) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
(1) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV (2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III (3) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(3) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV (4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I 55. Which evolutionary phenomenon is depicted by
52. Match List-I with List-II: the sketch given in figure?
List I List II
Location of Joint Type of Joint

A. Joint between humerus I. Gliding joint

and pectoral girdle
(1) Artificial selection (2) Genetic drift
B. Knee joint II. Ball and Socket joint
(3) Convergent evolution (4) Adaptive radiation
C. Joint between atlas and axis III. Hinge joint 56. A person with blood group ARh– can receive the
blood transfusion from which of the following
D Joint between carpals IV. Pivot joint types?
A. BRh– B. ABRh– C. ORh– D. ARh– E. ARh+
Chose the correct answer from the options given Choose the correct answer from the options
below: given below :
(1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I (2) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV (1) D and E only (2) D only
(3) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II (4) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV (3) A and B only (4) C and D only
53. Following are the steps involved in action of toxin 57. Enzymes that catalyse the removal of groups from
in Bt. Cotton substrates by mechanisms other than hydrolysis
A. The inactive toxin converted into active form leaving double bonds, are known as :
due to alkaline pH of gut of insect. (1) Transferases (2) Oxidoreductases
B. Bacillus thuringiensis produce crystals with (3) Dehydrogenases (4) Lyases
toxic insecticidal proteins. 58. Match List-I with List-II.
C. The alkaline pH solubilises the crystals.
D. The activated toxin binds to the surface of
midgut cells, creates pores and causes death of
List-I Event List-II
the insect.
Stage of Prophase-I
E. The toxin proteins exist as inactive protoxins (Meiosis-I)
in bacteria. A. Chiasmata formation I. Pachytene
Choose the correct sequence of steps from the
options given below: B. Crossing over II. Diakinesis
(1) E  C  B  A  D C. Synaptonemal complex III. Diplotene
(2) B  C  A  E  D formation
(3) A  E  B  D  C D. Terminalisation of chiasmata IV. Zygotene
(4) B  E  C  A  D
54. Match List-I with List-II : Choose the correct answer from the options given
below :
(1) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II (2) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(3) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV (4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
59. Match List-I with List-II.

- H itesh K hared 26
 (3) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV (4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
List-I List-II
64. Given below are two statements: One is labelled
A. Primary structure of protein I. Human haemoglobin
as Assertion A and the other is labelled as ReasonR.
B. Secondary structure of protein II. Disulphide bonds Assertion A: During menstrual cycle, the
C. Tertiary structure of protein III. Polypeptide chain ovulation takes place approximately on 14th day.
D. Quaternary structure of protein IV. Alpha helix and β sheet
Reason R: Rapid secretion of LH in the middle of
menstrual cycle induces rupture of Graafian
Choose the correct answer from the options given follicle and thereby the release of ovum.
below : In the light of the above statements, choose the
(1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I (2) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV most appropriate answer from the options given
(3) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV (4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I below.
(1) A is correct but R is not correct.
60. Match List-I with List-II.
(2) A is not correct but R is correct.
(3) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct
List-I List-II explanation of A.
(4) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the
A. Epinephrine I. Hyperglycemia
correct explanation of A.
B. Thyroxine II. Smooth muscle contraction 65. Match List-I with List-II with respect to convergent
evolution:
C. Oxytocin III. Basal metabolic rate
D. Glucagon IV. Emergency hormone List-I List-II

A. Lemur I. Flying phalanger

Choose the correct answer from the options
given below : B. Bobcat II. Numbat
(1) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III (2) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (4) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II C. Anteater III. Spotted cuscus
61. Which of the following statements is correct about D. Flying squirrels IV. Tasmanian tiger cat
the type of junction and their role in our body?
(1) Adhering junctions facilitate the cells to
communicate with each other. Choose the correct answer from the options given
(2) Tight junctions help to stop substances from below:
leaking across a tissue. (1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I (2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(3) Tight junctions help to perform cementing to (3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (4) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
keep neighbouring cells together. 66. Match List-I with List-II.
(4) Gap junctions help to create gap between the
cells and tissues. List-I List-II

62. Select the restriction endonuclease enzymes whose A. Cells are metabolically active and proliferate I. G2 phase
restriction sites are present for the tetracycline B. DNA replication takes place II. G1 phase
resistance (tetR) gene in the pBR322 cloning
C. Proteins are synthesised III. G0 phase
vector.
(1) Bam HI and Sal I (2) Sal I and Pst I D. Quiescent stage with metabolically active IV. S phase
cells
(3) Pst I and Pvu I (4) Pvu I and Bam HI
63. Match List-I with List-II. Choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
List-I List-II (1) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I (2) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
A. Chondrichthyes I. Clarias (3) A-I, B-I, C-III, D-IV (4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
B. Cyclostomata II. Carcharodon 67. Match List-I with List-II :
C. Osteichthyes III. Myxine
D. Amphibia IV. Ichthyophis

Choose the correct answer from the options given

below:
(1) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III (2) A-I, B-III C-II, D-IV

- H itesh K hared 27
 (3) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV (4) -II, -IV, C-I, D-III
List-I List-II
71. Given below are two statements:
A. Migratory flamingoes and resident fish in South I. Interference competition
American lakes Statement I: Antibiotics are chemicals produced
B. Abingdon tortoise became extinct after II. Competitive release by microbes that kill other microbes.
introduction of goats in their habitat Statement II: Antibodies are chemicals formed in
C. Chathamalus expands its distributional range III. Resource Partitioning
in the absence of
body that eliminate microbes.
Balanus In the light of the above statements, choose the
D. Five closely related species of Warblers IV. Interspecific competition most appropriate answer from the options given
feeding in different locations on same tree
below.
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
Choose the correct answer from the options incorrect
(1) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II (2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III (2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(3) -III, -1, C-II, D-IV (4) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I correct
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
68. Match List-I with List-II : (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
incorrect
List-I (Microbes) List-II
72. Arrange the following parts in human Mammary
(Products)
gland, traversing the route of milk ejection.
A. Streptococcus I. Citric acid A. Mammary duct B. Lactiferous duct
C. Mammary alveolus D. Ampulla
B. Trichoderma polysporum II. Clot buster
E. Mammary tubule
C. Monascus purpureus III. Cyclosporin A Choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
D. Aspergillus niger IV. Statins
(1) D  C  E  A  B
(2) C  E  B  A  D
Choose the correct answer from the options (3) C  E  A  D  B
(1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I (2) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (4) A  C  E  D  B
(3) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV (4) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III 73. Which of the following are correct about EcoRI?
69. Match List-I with List-II : A. Cut the DNA with blunt end
B. Cut the DNA with sticky end
C. Recognise a specific palindromic sequence
List-I List-II
D. Cut the DNA between the base G and A when
A. F1 Particles I. Chromosomes encounters the DNA sequence ‘GAATTC’
E. Exonuclease
B. Histones II. Cilia Choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
C. Axoneme III. Golgi apparatus (1) B, C, E only (2) A, D, E only
D. Cisternae IV. Mitochondria (3) A, C, D only (4) B, C, D only
74. Which of the following is/are present in female
cockroach?
Choose the correct answer from the options A. Collateral gland B. Mushroom gland
(1) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III (2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III C. Spermatheca D. Anal style
(3) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II (4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II E. Phallic gland
70. Match List-I with List-II : Choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below:
List-I List-II (1) B and D only (2) B and E only
(3) A only (4) A and C only
A. Copper releasing IUD I. Vaults
75. Match List-I with List-II :
B. Non-medicated IUD II. Multiload 375
C. Contraceptive barrier III. LNG-20
D. Hormone releasing IUD IV. Lippes loop

Choose the correct answer from the options

(1) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I (2) A-IV, -III, C-I, D-II

- H itesh K hared 28
 List I List II List-I List-II

A. Living Fossil I. Elongated canine teeth

A. Malignant tumors I. Destroy tumors
B. Connecting Link II. Vermiform appendix
B. MALT II. AIDS
C. Vestigial Organ III. Echidna
C. NACO III. Metastasis D. Atavism IV. Latimeria

D α-Interferons IV. Lymphoid tissue

Choose the correct answer from the options
(1) A-IV, B-Ill, C-II, D-I (2) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
Choose the correct answer from the options (3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II (4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I (2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I 81. Match List-I with List-II :
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II (4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
76. Open Circulatory system is present in: List-I List-II
(1) Palaemon, Nereis, Balanoglossus
A. Schwann cells I. Neurotransmitter
(2) Hirudinaria, Bombyx, Salpa
(3) Anopheles, Limax, Limulus B. Synaptic knob II. Cerebral cortex
(4) Pheretima, Musca, Pila
C. Bipolar neurons III. Myelin sheath
77. In which of the following connective tissues, the
cells secrete fibres of collagen or elastin? D. Multipolar neurons IV. Retina
A. Cartilage B. Bone C. Adipose tissue
D. Blood E. Areolar tissue
Choose the most appropriate answer from the Choose the correct answer from the options
options given below : (1) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II (2) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
(1) B, C, D and E only (2) A, B, C and E only (3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(3) B, C and D only (4) A, C and D only 82. Diuresis is prevented by:
78. Which of the following pairs is an incorrect match? (1) Renin from JG cell via switching off the
(1) Annelids and arthropods-Bilateral symmetry osmoreceptors
(2) Sponges-Acoelomates (2) ANF from atria of the heart
(3) Coelenterates and Ctenophores-Radial (3) Aldosterone from adrenal medulla
symmetry (4) Vasopressin from Neurohypophysis
(4) Platyhelminthes-Diploblastic organisation 83. Following is the list of STDs. Select the diseases
79. Match List-I with List-II : which are not completely curable.
A. Genital warts B. Genital herpes
List-I List-II C Syphilis D Hepatitis-B
A. Residual Volume I. Maximum volume of air that can E Trichomoniasis
be breathed in after forced Choose the correct answer from the options
expiration
B. Vital Capacity II. Volume of air inspired or expired
given below:
during normal respiration (1) A and D only (2) B and D only
C. Expiratory Capacity III. Volume of air remaining in lungs after
forcible expiration
(3) A and C only (4) D and E only
D. Tidal Volume IV. Total volume of air expired after 84. What is the correct order (old to recent) of periods
normal inspiration
in Paleozoic era?
(1) Silurian, Devonian, Permian, Carboniferous
Choose the correct answer from the options
(2) Silurian, Devonian, Carboniferous, Permian
(1) A-IV, B-Ill, C-II, D-I (2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III (3) Permian, Devonian, Silurian, Carboniferous
(3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II (4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (4) Silurian, Carboniferous, Permian, Devonian
80. Match List-I with List-II : 85. ‘Lub’ sound of Heart is caused by the___________.
(1) closure of the semilunar valves
(2) opening of tricuspid and bicuspid valves
(3) opening of the semilunar valves
(4) closure of the tricuspid and bicuspid valves
86. Match List-I with List-II :

- H itesh K hared 29
 90. Following are the steps involved in the process of
List I (Structures) List II (Features) PCR.
A. Mons pubis I. A fleshy fold of tissue surrounding the A. Annealing
vaginal opening B. Amplification (~1 billion times)
C. Denaturation
B. Clitoris II. Fatty cushion of cells covered by skin
and hair
D. Treatment with Taq polymerase and
deoxynucleotides
C. Hymen III. Tiny finger-like structure above labia
minora E. Extension
Choose the correct sequence of steps of PCR
D. Labina majora IV. A thin membrane-like structure
covering vaginal opening from the options given below :
(1) C  A  D  E  B
(2) A  B  E  D  C
Choose the correct answer from the options
(3) A  C  E  D  B
(1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I (2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(4) D  B  E  C  A
(3) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II (4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
91. Given below are two statements:
87. Aneuploidy is a chromosomal disorder where Statements I: Concentrated urine is formed due
chromosome number is not the exact copy of its to counter current mechanism in nephron.
haploid set of chromosomes, due to : Statement II: Counter current mechanism helps
A. Substitution B. Addition to maintain osmotic gradient in the medullary
C. Deletion D. Translocation interstitium.
E. Inversion In the light of the above statements, choose the
Choose the most appropriate answer from the most appropriate answer from the options given
options given below : below.
(1) C and D only (2) D and E only (1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(3) A and B only (4) B and C only incorrect.
88. Given below are two statements : (2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
Statement I : RNA interference takes place in all correct.
Eukaryotic organisms as method of cellular (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are
defense. correct.
Statement II : RNAi involves the silencing of a (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
specific mRNA due to a complementary single- incorrect.
stranded RNA molecule that binds and prevents 92. Given below are two statements:
translation of mRNA Statement I: Concentrically arranged cisternae
In the light of the above statements, choose the of Golgi complex are arranged near the nucleus
correct answer from the options given below. with distinct convex cis or maturing and concave
(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false. trans or forming face.
(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true. Statement II: A number of proteins are modified
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true. in the cisternae of Golgi complex before they are
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false. released from cis face.
89. Identify the wrong statements : In the light of the above statements, choose the
A. Erythropoietin is produced by juxtaglomerular correct answer from the option given below.
cells of the kidney (1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
B. Leydig cells produce Androgens (2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
C. Atrial Natriuretic factor, a peptide hormone is (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
secreted by the seminiferous tubules of the (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
testes 93. Match List-I with List-II :
D. Cholecystokinin is produced by
gastrointestinal tract List I List II
E. Gastrin acts on intestinal wall and helps in the
A. Parturition I. Several antibodies for new-born
production of pepsinogen babies
Choose the most appropriate answer from the B. Placenta II. Collection of ovum after ovulation
options given below :
C. Colostrum III. Foetal ejection reflex
(1) D and E only (2) A and B only
(3) C and E only (4) A and C only D. Fimbriae IV. Secretion of the hormone hCG

- H itesh K hared 30
 Choose the correct answer from the options (1) ‘a’ represents exponential growth when
(1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II (2) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III responses are not limiting the growth; and ‘b’
(3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I (4) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I represents logistic growth when responses are
limiting the growth.
94. Given below are two statements: One is labelled
(2) ‘a’ represents logistic growth when responses
as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason
are not limiting the growth; ‘b’ represents
R.
exponential growth when responses are limiting
Assertion A: Members of subphylum vertebrata
the growth.
possess notochord during the embryonic period.
(3) ‘a’ represents carrying capacity and ‘b’ shows
The notochord is replaced by a cartilaginous or
logistic growth when responses are limiting the
bony vertebral column in the adult.
growth.
Reason R: Thus all chordates are vertebrates not
(4) ‘a’ represents exponential growth when
all vertebrates are chordates.
responses are not limiting the growth and ‘b’
In the light of the above statements choose the
shows carrying capacity.
correct answer from the option given below.
(1) A is true but R is false. 97. Select the correct statements regarding
(2) A is false but R is true mechanism of muscle contraction.
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct A. It is initiated by a signal sent by CNS via
explanation of A. sensory neuron.
(4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct B. Neurotransmitter generates action potential
explanation of A. in the sarcolemma.
95. The mother has A+ blood group the father has B+ C. Increased Ca  level leads to the binding of
and the child is A+. What can be the possibility of calcium with troponin on action filaments.
genotypes of all three, respectively? D. Masking of active site for actin is activated.
E. Utilising the energy from ATP hydrolysis to
A. I A I A | I Bi | I Bi form cross bridge.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
B. IA I A | I Bi | I Ai options given below:
C. I Bi | I A I A | I A I B (1) B, C and E only (2) C, D and E only
(3) A and D only (4) B, D and E only
D. I A IA | I BI B | I Ai 98. Match List-I with List-II :
A B A
E. I i | I i | I i
List - I List – II
Choose the correct answer from the option given
A. Squamous Epithelium I. Goblet cells of alimentary canal
below:
(1) C and D (2) D and A B. Ciliated Epithelium II. Inner lining of pancreatic ducts
(3) A and B (4) B and E
C. Glandular Epithelium III. Walls of blood vessels
96. What do ‘a’ and ‘b’ represent in the following
population growth curve? D. Compound Epithelium IV. Inner surface of Fallopian tubes

Choose the correct answer from the options

(1) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV (2) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(3) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV (4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
99. Match List-I with List-II :

List - I List – II

A. B-Lymphocytes I. Passive immunity

B. Interferons II. Cell mediated immunity

C. T-Lymphocytes III. Produce an army of

proteins in response to
pathogens
D. Colostrum IV. Innate immunity

- H itesh K hared 31
 Choose the correct answer from the options
(1) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III (2) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I (4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
100. Given below are two statements: One is labelled
as Assertion A and the other is labelled as ReasonR.
Assertion A: During the transportation of gases,
about 20-25 percent of CO2 is carried by
Haemoglobin as carbamino-haemoglobin.
Reason R: This binding is related to high pCO2
and low pO2 in tissues.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below.
(1) A is true but R is false.
(2) A is false but R is true.
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A.
(4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
explanation of A.

- H itesh K hared 32
 05. A transcription unit in DNA is defined primarily by
01. Match List I with List II : the three regions in DNA and these are with
List-I List-II respect to upstream and down stream end;
(1) Repressor, Operator gene, Structural gene
A. Rhizopus I. Mushroom (2) Structural gene, Transposons, Operator gene
(3) Inducer, Repressor, Structural gene
B. Ustilago II. Smut fungus (4) Promotor, Structural gene, Terminator
06. Auxin is used by gardeners to prepare weed-free
C. Puccinia III. Bread mould lawns. But no damage is caused to grass as auxin
(1) promotes apical dominance.
D. Agaricus IV. Rust fungus (2) promotes abscission of mature leaves only.
(3) does not affect mature monocotyledonous
plants.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
(4) can help in cell division in grasses, to
below:
(1) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I (2) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV produce growth
(3) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV (4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I 07. These are regarded as major causes of biodiversity
loss:
02. Identify the part of the seed from the given figure
A. Over exploitation
which is destined to form root when the seed
B. Co-extinction
germinates.
C. Mutation
D. Habitat loss and fragmentation
E. Migration
Choose the correct option:
(1) A, C and D only (2) A, B, C and D only
(3) A, B and E only (4) A, B and D only
08. Match List I with List II
List I List II
(1) A (2) B A. Clostridium butylicum I. Ethanol
(3) C (4) D B. Saccharomyces cerevisiae II. Streptokinase
03. Lecithin, a small molecular weight organic C. Trichoderma polysporum III. Butyric acid
compound found in living tissues, is an example of: D. Streptococcus sp. IV. Cyclosporin-A
(1) Amino acids (2) Phospholipids Choose the correct answer from the options
(3) Glycerides (4) Carbohydrates given below:
(1) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV (2) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
04. Match List I with List II
List I List II (3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II (4) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
A. Two or more alternative I. Back cross 09. Spindle fibers attach to kinetochores of
forms of a gene chromosomes during
B. Cross of F1 progeny with II. Ploidy (1) Prophase (2) Metaphase
homozygous recessive parent (3) Anaphase (4) Telophase
C. Cross of F1 progeny with III. Allele 10. Which of the following is an example of
any of the parents actinomorphic flower?
D. Number of chromosome IV. Test cross (1) Datura (2) Cassia
sets in plant (3) Pisum (4) Sesbania
Choose the correct answer from the options 11. The cofactor of the enzyme carboxypeptidase
given below: is:
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (2) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV (1) Zinc (2) Niacin
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II (4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (3) Flavin (4) Haem
12. Match List I with List II

- H itesh K hared 33
 (3) Dedifferentiation (4) Maturation
List-I List-II
18. Inhibition of Succinic dehydrogenase enzyme by
A. Nucleolus I. Site of formation of glycolipid malonate is a classical example of:
B. Centriole II. Organization like (1) Cofactor inhibition (2) Feedback inhibition
the cartwheel (3) Competitive inhibition (4) Enzyme activation
C. Leucoplasts III. Site for active 19. Identify the type of flowers based on the position
ribosomal RNA synthesis of calyx, corolla and androecium with respect to
D. Golgi apparatus IV. For storing nutrients the ovary from the given figures (a) and (b)

Choose the correct answer from the options given

below:
(1) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I (2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I (4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
13. The capacity to generate a whole plant from any
cell of the plant is called:
(1) Totipotency (2) Micropropagation
(1) (a) Epigynous; (b) Hypogynous
(3) Differentiation (4) Somatic hybridization
(2) (a) Hypogynous; (b) Epigynous
14. Hind II always cuts DNA molecules at a particular (3) (a) Perigynous; (b) Epigynous
point called recognition sequence and it consists (4) (a) Perigynous; (b) Perigynous
of:
20. In a plant, black seed color (BB/Bb) is dominant over
(1) 8 bp (2) 6 bp
white seed color (bb). In order to find out the
(3) 4 bp (4) 10 bp
genotype of the black seed plant, with which of
15. Identify the set of correct statements: the following genotype will you cross it?
A. The flowers of Vallisneria are colourful and (1) BB (2) bb
produce nectar. (3) Bb (4) BB/Bb
B. The flowers of water lily are not pollinated
21. Tropical regions show greatest level of species
by water.
richness because
C. In most of water-pollinated species, the
A. Tropical latitudes have remained relatively
pollen grains are protected from wetting.
undisturbed for millions of years, hence more
D. Pollen grains of some hydrophytes are long
time was available for species diversification.
and ribbon like.
B. Tropical environments are more seasonal.
E. In some hydrophytes, the pollen grains are
C. More solar energy is available in tropics.
carried passively inside water.
D. Constant environments promote niche
Choose the correct answer from the options
specialization.
given below.
E. Tropical environments are constant and
(1) C, D and E only (2) A, B, C and D only
predictable.
(3) A, C, D and E only (4) B, C, D and E only
Choose the correct answer from the options
16. Given below are two statements: given below.
Statement I : Parenchyma is living but (1) A, C, D and E only (2) A and B only
collenchyma is dead tissue. (3) A, B and E only (4) A, B and D only
Statement II : Gymnosperms lack xylem vessels
22. The equation of Verhulst-Pearl logistic growth is
but presence of xylem vessels is the
characteristic of angiosperms. dN KN
In the light of the above statements, choose  rN  
the correct answer from the options given dt  K  From this equation, K
below: indicates:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true (1) Intrinsic rate of natural increase
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false (2) Biotic potential
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false (3) Carrying capacity
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true (4) Population density
17. Formation of interfascicular cambium from fully 23. In the given figure, which component has thin outer
developed parenchyma cells is an example for walls and highly thickened inner walls?
(1) Differentiation (2) Redifferentiation

- H itesh K hared 34
 Choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
(1) A and B only (2) D and E only
(3) B and C only (4) A and E only
29. The lactose present in the growth medium of
bacteria is transported to the cell by the action of
(1) C (2) D (1) Beta-galactosidase (2) Acetylase
(3) A (4) B (3) Permease (4) Polymerase
24. Given below are two statements: 30. Which one of the following can be explained on
Statement I : Chromosomes become the basis of Mendel’s Law of Dominance?
gradually visible under light microscope during A. Out of one pair of factors one is dominant
leptotene stage. and the other is recessive.
Statement II : The beginning of diplotene stage is B. Alleles do not show any expression and
recognized by dissolution of synaptonemal both the characters appear as such in F2
complex. generation.
In the light of the above statements, choose C. Factors occur in pairs in normal diploid plants.
the correct answer from the options givenbelow: D. The discrete unit controlling a particular
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true character is called factor.
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false E. The expression of only one of the parental
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false characters is found in a monohybrid cross.
Choose the correct answer from the options
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
given below:
25. List of endangered species was released by (1) A, B and C only (2) A, C, D and E only
(1) GEAC (2) WWF
(3) B, C and D only (4) A, B, C, D and E
(3) FOAM (4) IUCN
31. Which one of the following is not a criterion for
26. Which of the following are required for the dark classification of fungi?
reaction of photosynthesis? (1) Morphology of mycelium
A. Light B. Chlorophyll (2) Mode of nutrition
C. CO2 D. ATP (3) Mode of spore formation
E. NADPH
(4) Fruiting body
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below: 32. Given below are two statements:
(1) A, B and C only (2) B, C and D only Statement I : Bt toxins are insect group
specific and coded by a gene cry IAc.
(3) C, D and E only (4) D and E only
Statement II : Bt toxin exists as inactive
27. The type of conservation in which the threatened protoxin in B. thuringiensis. However, after
species are taken out from their natural habitat ingestion by the insect the inactive protoxin
and placed in special setting where they can be gets converted into active form due to acidic
protected and given special care is called pH of the insect gut.
(1) in-situ conservation In the light of the above statements, choose
(2) Biodiversity conservation the correct answer from the options givenbelow:
(3) Semi-conservative method (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(4) Sustainable development (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
28. What is the fate of a piece of DNA carrying only (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
gene of interest which is transferred into an alien (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
organism? 33. Bulliform cells are responsible for
A. The piece of DNA would be able to multiply (1) Inward curling of leaves in monocots.
itself independently in the progeny cells of the (2) Protecting the plant from salt stress.
organism. (3) Increased photosynthesis in monocots.
B. It may get integrated into the genome of the
(4) Providing large spaces for storage of sugars
recipient.
C. It may multiply and be inherited along with 34. A pink flowered Snapdragon plant was crossed with
the host DNA. a red flowered Snapdragon plant. What type of
D. The alien piece of DNA is not an integral phenotype/s is/are expected in the progeny?
part of chromosome. (1) Only red flowered plants
E. It shows ability to replicate. (2) Red flowered as well as pink flowered plants

- H itesh K hared 35
 (3) Only pink flowered plants (1) Auxin (2) Gibberellin
(4) Red, Pink as well as white flowered plants (3) Cytokinin (4) Abscisic acid
35. How many molecules of ATP and NADPH are 40. Match List I with List II
List I List II
required for every molecule of CO 2 fixed in the
A. Rose I. Twisted aestivation
Calvin cycle? B. Pea II. Perigynous flower
(1) 2 molecules of ATP and 3 molecules of NADPH C. Cotton III. Drupe
(2) 2 molecules of ATP and 2 molecules of NADPH D. Mango IV. Marginal placentation
(3)3 molecules of ATP and 3 molecules of NADPH Choose the correct answer from the options
(4) 3 molecules of ATP and 2 molecules of NADPH given below :
36. Match List I with List II (1) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III (2) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
List I List II (3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
A. Robert May I . Species-Area relationship 41. Read the following statements and choose the set
B. Alexander von II. Long term ecosystem of correct statements:
Humboldt experiment using out dooplots In the members of Phaeophyceae,
C. Paul Ehrlich III. Global species diversity at A. Asexual reproduction occurs usually by
about 7 million biflagellate zoospores.
D. David Tilman IV. Rivet popper hypothesis B. Sexual reproduction is by oogamous
Choose the correct answer from the options method only.
given below: C. Stored food is in the form of carbohydrates
(1) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV (2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II which is either mannitol or laminarin.
(3) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV (4) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I D. The major pigments found are chlorophyll a,
37. Identify the correct description about the given c and carotenoids and xanthophyll.
figure: E. Vegetative cells have a cellulosic wall,
usually covered on the outside by gelatinous
coating of algin.
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
(1) A, B, C and D only (2) B, C, D and E only
(3) A, C, D and E only (4) A, B, C and E only
42. Identify the step in tricarboxylic acid cycle, which
does not involve oxidation of substrate.
(1) Malic acid  Oxaloacetic acid
(2) Succinic acid  Malic acid
(1) Wind pollinated plant inflorescence showing (3) Succinyl-CoA  Succinic acid
flowers with well exposed stamens. (4) Isocitrate   -ketoglutaric acid
(2) Water pollinated flowers showing stamens
43. Given below are two statements:
with mucilaginous covering.
Statement I: In C3 plants, some O2 binds to
(3) Cleistogamous flowers showing autogamy.
RuBisCO, hence CO2 fixation is decreased.
(4) Compact inflorescence showing complete
Statement II: In C4 plants, mesophyll cells
autogamy
show very little photorespiration while bundle
38. Match List I with List II sheath cells do not show photorespiration.
List I List II In the light of the above statements, choose
A. Frederick Griffith I. Genetic code the correct answer from the options given
B. Francois Jacob & II. Semi-conservative below:
Jacque Monod mode of DNA replication (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
C. Har Gobind Khorana III. Transformation (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
D. Meselson & Stahl IV. Lac operon (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
Choose the correct answer from the options (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
given below:
44. Match List-I with List-II
(1) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV (2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
List-I List-II
(3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I (4) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
A. GLUT-4 I. Hormone
39. Spraying sugarcane crop with which of the following B. Insulin II. Enzyme
plant growth regulators, increases the length of C. Trypsin III. Intercellular ground
stem, thus, increasing the yield? substance

- H itesh K hared 36
 D. Collagen IV. Enables glucose (3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II (4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
transport into cells 50. Which of the following statement is correct
Choose the correct answer from the options regarding the process of replication in E.coli?
given below. (1) The DNA dependent DNA polymerase
(1) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III (2) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV catalyses polymerization in one direction that
(3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I (4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II is 3'  5'
45. Match List I with List II (2) The DNA dependent RNA polymerase
List I List II catalyses polymerization in one direction, that
(Types of Stamens) (Example) is 5'  3'
A. Monoadelphous I. Citrus (3) The DNA dependent DNA polymerase
B. Diadelphous II. Pea catalyses polymerization in 5'  3' as
C. Polyadelphous III. Lily well as 3'  5'direction
D. Epiphyllous IV. China-rose (4) The DNA dependent DNA polymerase
Choose the correct answer from the options catalyses polymerization in 5'  3' direction
given below: 51. Which of the following is not a steroid hormone?
(1) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III (2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III (1) Cortisol (2) Testosterone
(3) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III (4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II (3) Progesterone (4) Glucagon
46. The DNA present in chloroplast is: 52. Given below are two statements:
(1) Linear, double stranded Statement I: The presence or absence of
(2) Circular, double stranded hymen is not a reliable indicator of virginity.
(3) Linear, single stranded Statement II: The hymen is torn during the
(4) Circular, single stranded first coitus only.
47. In an ecosystem if the Net Primary Productivity In the light of the above statements, choose
(NPP) of first trophic level is the correct answer from the options given
below :
100x (kcal m2 )yr 1 what would be the GPP (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(Gross Primary Productivity) of the third trophic (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are
level of the same ecosystem? false
x (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(1) (kcal m2 )yr 1 (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
10
53. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(2) x (kcal m2 )yr 1 (1) A bio-reactor provides optimal growth
conditions for achieving the desired product
(3) 100x (kcal m2 )yr 1 (2) Most commonly used bio-reactors are of
stirring type
100x
(4) (kcal m2 )yr 1 (3) Bio-reactors are used to produce small scale
3x bacterial cultures
48. Which of the following are fused in somatic (4) Bio-reactors have an agitator system, an
hybridization involving two varieties of plants? oxygen delivery system and foam control
(1) Callus (2) Somatic embryos system
(3) Protoplasts (4) Pollens 54. Which one is the correct product of DNA
49. Match List I with List II dependent RNA polymerase to the given template?
3’TACATGGCAAATATCCATTCA5’
(1) 5’AUGUACCGUUUAUAGGUAAGU3’
List I List II
(2) 5’AUGUAAAGUUUAUAGGUAAGU3’
A Citric acid cycle I. Cytoplasm (3) 5’AUGUACCGUUUAUAGGGAAGU3’
. (4) 5’ATGTACCGTTTATAGGTAAGT3’
B Glycolysis II. Mitochondrial matrix
. 55. Given below are two statements : one is labelled
C Electron transport III. Intermembrane space of as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason
. system mitochondria R:
D Proton gradient IV. Inner mitochondrial Assertion A : FSH acts upon ovarian follicles in
. membrane female and Leydig cells in male.
Reason R : Growing ovarian follicles secrete
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III estrogen in female while interstitial cells secrete
androgen inmale human being.
- H itesh K hared 37
 In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below :
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true
56. Match List-I with List-II : Name of muscle/location
(1) (a) Smooth - Toes (b) Skeletal – Legs
List I List II (c) Cardiac – Heart
(2) (a) Skeletal - Triceps (b) Smooth – Stomach
A. Typhoid I. Fungus
(c) Cardiac – Heart
B. Leishmaniasis II. Nematode (3) (a) Skeletal - Biceps (b) Involuntary – Intestine
(c) Smooth – Heart
C. Ringworm III. Protozoa
(4) (a) Involuntary – Nose tip (b) Skeletal – Bone
D. Filariasis IV. Bacteria (c) Cardiac – Heart
60. Match List-I with List-II :
Choose the correct answer from the options
List I List II
given below:
A. Non-medicated IUD I. Multiload 375
(1) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV (2) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II (4) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I B. Copper releasing IUD II. Progestogens

57. Following are the stages of pathway for conduction C. Hormone releasing IUD III. Lippes loop
of an action potential through the heart D. Implants IV. LNG-20
A. AV bundle B. Purkinje fibres
C. AV node D. Bundle branches
Choose the correct answer from the options
E. SA node
Choose the correct sequence of pathway from given below:
the options given below (1) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV (2) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
(1) E-C-A-D-B (2) A-E-C-B-D (3) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III (4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(3) B-D-E-C-A (4) E-A-D-B-C 61. Match List-I with List-II :
58. Match List-I with List-II :
List-I List-II
List I List II A. Lipase I. Peptide bond
(Sub Phases of (Specific Characters)
B. Nuclease II. Ester bond
Prophase I)
A. Diakinesis I. Synaptonemal complex formation C. Protease III. Glycosidic bond
B. Pachytene II. Completion of terminalisation of chiasmata D. Amylase IV. Phosphodiester bond
C. Zygotene III. Chromosomes look like thin threads
D. Leptotene IV. Appearance of recombination nodules Choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
(1) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I(2) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
Choose the correct answer from the options (3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III (4) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
given below: 62. Given below are two statements: One is labelled
(1) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I (2) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-II (4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I R:
59. Three types of muscles are given as a, b and c. Assertion A : Breast-feeding during initial period
Identify the correct matching pair along with their of infant growth is recommended by
location in human body: doctors for bringing a healthy baby.
Reason R : Colostrum contains several
antibodies absolutely essential to develop
resistance for the new born baby.

- H itesh K hared 38
 In the light of the above statements, choose (4) Temperature independent plasmid
the most appropriate answer from the options 68. Match List-I with List-II :
given below:
(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the List I List II
correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the A. Pleurobrachia I. Mollusca
correct explanation ofA B. Radula II. Ctenophora
(3) A is correct but R is not correct
(4) A is not correct but R is correct C. Stomochord III. Osteichthyes
63. Given below are some stages of human evolution. D. Air bladder IV. Hemichordata
Arrange them in correct sequence. (Past
toRecent)
A. Homo habilis B. Homo sapiens
Choose the correct answer from the options
C. Homo neanderthalensis D. Homo erectus given below:
Choose the correct sequence of human (1) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I (2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
evolution from the options given below: (3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III (4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(1) D-A-C-B (2) B-A-D-C 69. Which of the following is not a natural/traditional
(3) C-B-D-A (4) A-D-C-B contraceptive method?
64. Match List I with List II : (1) Coitus interruptus
List I List II (2) Periodic abstinence
A. Axoneme I. Centriole (3) Lactational amenorrhea
B. Cartwheel pattern II. Cilia and flagella (4) Vaults
C. Crista III. Chromosome 70. Following are the stages of cell division :
D. Satellite IV. Mitochondria A. Gap 2 phase B. Cytokinesis
Choose the correct answer from the options C. Synthesis phase D. Karyokinesis
given below : E. Gap 1 phase
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (2) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I Choose the correct sequence of stages from
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III (4) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III the options given below :
65. Match List I with List II : (1) C-E-D-A-B (2) E-B-D-A-C
List I List II (3) B-D-E-A-C (4) E-C-A-D-B
A. Pterophyllum I. Hag fish 71. Which one of the following factors will not affect
B. Myxine II. Saw fish the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
C. Pristis III. Angel fish (1) Genetic recombination
D. Exocoetus IV. Flying fish (2) Genetic drift
Choose the correct answer from the options (3) Gene migration
given below : (4) Constant gene pool
(1) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV (2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
72. Match List-I with List-II :
(3) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III (4) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
66. Match List I with List II : List I List II
List I List II A. Pons I. Provides additional space for Neurons,
A.  - I antitrypsin I. Cotton bollworm regulates posture and balance.
B. Cry IAb II. ADA deficiency B. Hypothalamus II. Controls respiration and gastric
C. Cry IAc III. Emphysema secretions.
D Enzyme replacement IV. Corn borer C. Medulla III. Connects different regions of the brain.
therapy D. Cerebellum IV. Neuro secretory cells
Choose the correct answer form the options
given below:
(1) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III (2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV Choose the correct answer from the options
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II (4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III given below:
67. The “Ti plasmid” of Agrobacterium tumefaciens (1) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV (2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
stands for (3) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV (4) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(1) Tumour inhibiting plasmid 73. Match List-I with List-II :
(2) Tumor independent plasmid
(3) Tumor inducing plasmid

- H itesh K hared 39
 the correct answer from the option given below
List I List II (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
A. Expiratory capacity I. Expiratory reserve volume (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
+ Tidal volume + (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
Inspiratory reserve volume (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
B. Functional residual II. Tidal volume + Expiratory 79. In both sexes of cockroach, a pair of jointed
capacity reserve volume
filamentous structures called anal cerci are present
C. Vital capacity III. Tidal volume + Inspiratory
reserve volume on
D. Inspiratory capacity IV. Expiratory reserve volume +
(1) 5th segment (2) 10th segment
Residual volume (3) 8th and 9th segment (4) 11th segment
80. Which of the following factors are favourable for
Choose the correct answer from the options the formation of oxyhaemoglobin in alveoli ?
given below: (1) High pO2 and High pCO2
(1) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III (2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I (2) High pO2 and Lesser H concentration
+

(3) Low pCO2 and High H concentration

+

(3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III (4) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(4) Low pCO2 and High temperature
74. Which of the following are Autoimmune disorders?
81. The following diagram showing restriction sites in
A. Myasthenia gravis B. Rheumatoid arthritis
E. coli cloning vector pBR322. Find the role of ‘X’
C. Gout D. Muscular dystrophy
and ‘Y’ genes :
E. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below:
(1) A, B & D only (2) A, B & E only
(3) B, C & E only (4) C, D & E only
75. Which of the following is not a component of
Fallopian tube?
(1) Uterine fundus (2) Isthmus
(3) Infundibulum (4) Ampulla
76. Match List I with List II :
List I List II (1) The gene ‘X’ is responsible for resistance to
A. Fibrous joints I. Adjacent vertebrae, limited antibiotics and ‘Y’ for protein involved in the
movement replication of Plasmid.
B. Cartilaginous joints II. Humerus and Pectoral girdle, (2) The gene ‘X’ is responsible for controlling the
rotational movement copy number of the linked DNA and ‘Y’ for protein
C. Hinge joints III. Skull, don’t allow any involved in the replication of Plasmid.
movement (3) The gene ‘X’ is for protein involved in
D. Ball and socket joints IV. Knee, help in locomotion replication of Plasmid and ‘Y’ for resistance to
Choose the correct answer from the options antibiotics.
given below : (4) Gene ’X’ is responsible for recognitions sites
(1) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I (2) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV and ‘Y’ is responsible for antibiotic resistance.
(3) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV (4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II 82. Match List-I with List-II :
77. The flippers of the Penguins and Dolphins are the
example of the List I List II
(1) Adaptive radiation (2) Natural selection A. Down’s syndrome I. 11th chromosome
(3) Convergent evolution (4) Divergent evolution B. -Thalassemia II. ‘X’ chromosome
78. Given below are two statements : C. III. 21st chromosome
-Thalassemia
Statement I : In the nephron, the descending
limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water D. Klinefelter’s syndrome IV. 16th chromosome
and permeable to electrolytes.
Statement II : The proximal convoluted tubule Choose the correct answer from the options
is lined by simple columnar brush border given below:
epithelium and increases the surface area for (1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
reabsorption. (3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II (4) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
In the light of the above statements, choose 83. Consider the following statements :

- H itesh K hared 40
 A. Annelids are true coelomates Statement I: The cerebral hemispheres are
B. Poriferans are pseudocoelomates connected by nerve tract known as corpus
C. Aschelminthes are acoelomates callosum.
D. Platyhelminthes are pseudocoelomates Statement II: The brain stem consists of the
Choose the correct answer from the options medulla oblongata, pons and cerebrum.
given below : In the light of the above statements, choose
(1) B only (2) A only the most appropriate answer from the options
(3) C only (4) D only given below:
84. Match List I with List II : (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are
List I List II correct.
A. Common cold I. Plasmodium (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are
B. Haemozoin II. Typhoid incorrect.
C. Widal test III. Rhinoviruses (3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
D. Allergy IV. Dust mites incorrect.
Choose the correct answer from the options (4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
given below : correct.
(1) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I (2) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV 89. Match List-I with List-II :
(3) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV (4) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
List I List II
85. Match List I with List II :
List I List II A. The structures used for storing of food I. Gizzard
A. Cocaine I. Effective sedative in surgery
B. Ring of 6-8 blind tubules at junction of II. Gastric Caeca
B. Heroin II. Cannabis sativa foregut and midgut.
C. Morphine III. Erythroxylum C. Ring of 100-150 yellow coloured thin III. Malpighian tubules
D. Marijuana IV. Papaver somniferum filaments at junction
Choose the correct answer from the options of midgut and hindgut.
given below: D. The structures used for grinding the IV. Crop
food.
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II (2) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(3) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV (4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
Choose the correct answer from the options
86. Given below are two statements:
given below:
Statement I: Gause’s competitive exclusion
principle states that two closely related (1) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I (2) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
species competing for different resources (3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (4) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
cannot exist indefinitely. 90. Match List-I with List-II :
Statement II: According to Gause’s principle,
List I List II
during competition, the inferior will be
A. Exophthalmic goiter I. Excess secretion of cortisol, moon face
eliminated. This may be true if resources are & hypergylcemia.
limiting. B. Acromegaly II. Hypo-secretion of thyroid hormone and
In the light of the above statements, choose stunted growth.

the correct answer from the options given below C. Cushing’s syndrome III. Hyper secretion of thyroid hormone &
protruding eye balls.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false. D. Cretinism IV. Excessive secretion of growth hormone.

(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
Choose the correct answer from the options
87. The following are the statements about non-
given below:
chordates: (1) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV (2) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
A. Pharynx is perforated by gill slits. (3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I (4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
B. Notochord is absent. 91. Choose the correct statement given below
C. Central nervous system is dorsal. regarding juxta medullary nephron.
D. Heart is dorsal if present. (1) Juxta medullary nephrons are located in the
E. Post anal tail is absent. columns of Bertini.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the (2) Renal corpuscle of juxta medullary
options given below: nephron lies in the outer portion of the renal
(1) A & C only (2) A, B & D only medulla.
(3) B, D & E only (4) B, C & D only (3) Loop of Henle of juxta medullary nephron
88. Given below are two statements: runs deep into medulla.

- H itesh K hared 41
 (4) Juxta medullary nephrons outnumber the 96. Match List-I with List-II :
cortical nephrons.
92. Regarding catalytic cycle of an enzyme action, select List I List II
A. P wave I. Heart muscles are electrically
the correct sequential steps :
silent.
A. Substrate enzyme complex formation.
B. Free enzyme ready to bind with another B. QRS complex II. Depolarisation of ventricles.
substrate. C. T wave III. Depolarisation of atria.
C. Release of products. D. T-P gap IV. Repolarisation of ventricles.
D. Chemical bonds of the substrate broken.
E. Substrate binding to active site. Choose the correct answer from the options
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
given below : (1) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II (2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(1) E, A, D, C, B (2) A, E, B, D, C (3) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV (4) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(3) B, A, C, D, E (4) E, D, C, B, A 97. Given below are two statements :
93. Match List-I with List-II : Statement I : Bone marrow is the main lymphoid
organ where all blood cells including
List I List II
lymphocytes are produced.
A. Unicellular glandular epithelium I. Salivary glands Statement II : Both bone marrow and thymus
B. Compound epithelium II. Pancreas provide micro environments for the
development and maturation of T-lymphocytes.
C. Multicellular glandular epithelium III. Goblet cells of alimentary canal
In the light of above statements, choose the
D. Endocrine glandular epithelium IV. Moist surface of buccal cavity most appropriate answer from the options given
below
Choose the correct answer from the options (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
given below: (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are
incorrect.
(1) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV (2) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II (4) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III incorrect.
94. Match List-I with List-II : (4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
List I List II correct.
A. Mesozoic Era I. Lower invertebrates 98. Identify the correct option (A), (B), (C), (D) with
B. Proterozoic Era II. Fish & Amphibia respect to spermatogenesis.
C. Cenozoic Era III. Birds & Reptiles
D. Paleozoic Era IV. Mammals

Choose the correct answer from the options

given below:
(1) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV (2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(3) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III (4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
95. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Mitochondria and chloroplasts
both double membranes bound organelles.
Statement II: Inner membrane of mitochondria
is relatively less permeable, as compared
chloroplast. (1) FSH, Leydig cells, Sertoli cells, spermiogenesis.
In the light of the above statements, choose (2) ICSH, Interstitial cells, Leydig cells,
the mis appropriate answer from the options
spermiogenesis.
given below:
(3) FSH, Sertoli cells, Leydig cells,
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are
spermatogenesis.
correct.
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(4) ICSH, Leydig cells, Sertoli cells,
incorrect. spermatogenesis.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement Il is 99. As per ABO blood grouping system, the blood group
incorrect. of father is B+, mother is A+ and child is O+. Their
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement Il is respective genotype can be
correct.
- H itesh K hared 42
 A. IBi/I Ai/ii B. I B I B /I A I A /ii
C. I A I B /iI A /I Bi D. I Ai/IBi/I Ai
E. iI B /iI A /I A I B
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below :
(1) A only (2) B only
(3) C & B only (4) D & E only
100. Match List-I with List-II :
List I List II
A. RNA polymerase III I. snRNPs
B. Termination of transcription II. Promotor
C. Splicing of Exons III. Rho factor
D. TATA box IV. SnRNAs, tRNA

Choose the correct answer from the options

given below:
(1) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III (2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II (4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

- H itesh K hared 43
01. Match List-I with List-II. (2) Both Statement I and Statement II areincorrect
List-I List-II (3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
incorrect
A. Emphysema I. Rapid spasms in muscle due to low (4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
Ca in body fluid
++
correct
B. Angina Pectoris II. Damaged alveolar walls and
05. Streptokinase produced by bacterium
decreased respiratory surface
Streptococcus is used for
C. Glomerulonephritis III. Acute chest pain when not enough
oxygen is reaching to heart muscle (1) Curd production
(2) Ethanol production
D. Tetany IV. Inflammation of glomeruli of kidney
(3) Liver disease treatment
(4) Removing clots from blood vessels
Choose the correct answer from the options 06. Which chromosome in the human genome has the
given below : highest number of genes ?
(1) Chromosome X (2) Chromosome Y
(1) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II (2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV (3) Chromosome 1 (4) Chromosome 10
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I (4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I 07. Which of the following statement is correct about
02. Given below are two statements : One is labelled location of the male frog copulatory pad?
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (1) First and Second digit of fore limb
(R). (2) First digit of hind limb
Assertion (A) : Both wind and water pollinated (3) Second digit of fore limb
flowers are not very colourful and do not (4) First digit of the fore limb
produce nectar. 08. Which one of the following phytohormones
Reason (R) : The flowers produce enormous
promotes nutrient mobilization which helps in the
amount of pollen grains in wind and water
delay of leaf senescence in plants?
pollinated flowers.
(1) Ethylene (2) Abscisic acid
In the light of the above statements, choose the
(3) Gibberellin (4) Cytokinin
correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct 09. While trying to find out the characteristic of a newly
explanation of A found animal, a researcher did the histology of adult
(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct animal and observed a cavity with presence of
explanation of A mesodermal tissue towards the body wall but no
(3) A is true but R is false mesodermal tissue was observed towards the
(4) A is false but R is true alimentary canal. What could be the possible
coelome of that animal?
03. Which of the following is an example of non-distilled
(1) Acoelomate (2) Pseudocoelomate
alcoholic beverage produced by yeast?
(3) Schizocoelomate (4) Spongocoelomate
(1) Whisky (2) Brandy
(3) Beer (4) Rum 10. Match List-I with List-II :
04. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: In a floral formula  stands for List - I List - II
zygomorphic nature of the flower, and G stands
A. Head (i) Enzymes
for inferior ovary.
Statement II: In a floral formula  stands for B. Middle piece (ii) Sperm motility
actinomorphic nature of the flower and G stands
for superior ovary. C. Acrosome (iii) Energy
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below: D. Tail (iv) Genetic material
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

- H itesh K hared 44
 Choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II (2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I (4) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
11. Given below are the stages in the life cycle of
pteridophytes. Arrange the following stages in the
correct sequence.
A. Prothallus stage
B. Meiosis in spore mother cells
C. Fertilisation 15.
D. Formation of archegonia and antheridia in
gametophyte.
E. Transfer of antherozoids to the archegonia in
presence of water.
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below: In the above represented plasmid, an alien piece
(1) B, A, D, E, C (2) B, A, E, C, D of DNA is inserted at EcoRI site. Which of the
(3) D, E, C, A, B (4) E, D, C, B, A following strategies will be chosen to select the
12. Cardiac activities of the heart are regulated by: recombinant colonies?
A. Nodal tissue (1) Using ampicillin & tetracycline containing
B. A special neural centre in the medulla oblongata medium plate.
C. Adrenal medullary hormones (2) Blue color colonies will be selected.
(3) White color colonies will be selected.
D. Adrenal cortical hormones
(4) Blue color colonies grown on ampicillin
Choose the correct answer from the options given plates can be selected.
below : 16. Which of the following genetically engineered
(1) A, B and C Only (2) A, B, C and D organisms was used by Eli Lilly to prepare human
(3) A, C and D Only (4) A, B and D Only insulin?
13. Which of following organisms cannot fix nitrogen? (1) Bacterium (2) Yeast
A. Azotobacter B. Oscillatoria (3) Virus (4) Phage
C. Anabaena D. Volvox 17. Name the class of enzyme that usually catalyze the
E. Nostoc following reaction :
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below: S  G + S#  S+S#  G
(1) A only (2) D only Where, G  a group other than hydrogen
(3) B only (4) E only S  a substrate
14. Given below are two statements : S#  another substrate
Statement I : Transfer RNAs and ribosomal RNA (1) Hydrolase (2) Lyase
do not interact with mRNA. (3) Transferase (4) Ligase
Statement II : RNA interference (RNAi) takes
18. Find the statement that is NOT correct with regard
place in all eukaryotic organisms as a method of
cellular defence. to the structure of monocot stem.
In the light of the above statements, choose the (1) Hypodermis is parenchymatous.
most appropriate answer from the options given (2) Vascular bundles are scattered.
below : (3) Vascular bundles are conjoint and closed.
(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct (4) Phloem parenchyma is absent.
(2) Both statement I and statement II are 19. The correct sequence of events in the life cycle of
incorrect bryophytes is
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is A. Fusion of antherozoid with egg.
incorrect B. Attachment of gametophyte to substratum.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is C. Reduction division to produce haploid spores.
correct D. Formation of sporophyte.
E. Release of antherozoids into water.
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below :

- H itesh K hared 45
 (1) D, E, A, C, B (2) B, E, A, C, D are formed at the end of 8 weeks.
(3) B, E, A, D, C (4) D, E, A, B, C (C) In human pregnancy heart is formed after one
20. Which are correct: month of gestation.
A. Computed tomography and magnetic (D) In human pregnancy, limbs and digits
resonance imaging detect cancers of internal develop by the end of second month.
organs. (E) In human pregnancy the appearance of hair is
B. Chemotherapeutics drugs are used to kill non- usually observed in the fifth month.
cancerous cells. Choose the correct answer from the options
C.  -interferon activate the cancer patients’ given below :
(1) A and E only (2) B and C only
immune system and helps in destroying the
tumour. (3) B, C, D and E only (4) A, C, D and E only
D. Chemotherapeutic drugs are biological 24. In the seeds of cereals, the outer covering of
response modifiers. endosperm separates the embryo by a protein-
E. In the case of leukaemia blood cell counts are rich layer called :
decreased. (1) Coleoptile (2) Coleorhiza
Choose the correct answer from the options (3) Integument (4) Aleurone layer
given below: 25. Which of the following diagrams is correct with
(1) B and D only (2) D and E only regard to the proximal (P) and distal (D) tubule of
(3) C and D only (4) A and C only the Nephron.
21. Match List-I with List-II :

List-I List-II

A. Centromere I. Mitochondrion

B. Cilium II. Cell division

C. Cristae III. Cell movement

D. Cell membrane IV. Phospholipid Bilayer

Choose the correct answer from the options

given below: (2)
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(3) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I (4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
22. Match List-I with List-II :

List-I List-II

A. Chlorophyll a (I) Yellow-green

B. Chlorophyll b (II) Yellow (3)

C. Xanthophylls (III) Blue-green

D. Carotenoids (IV) Yellow to Yellow-orange

Choose the correct answer from the options

given below:
(1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I (2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(3) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III (4) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II (4)
23. Find the correct statement :
(A) In human pregnancy, the major organ systems
are formed at the end of 12 weeks.
(B) In human pregnancy the major organ systems

- H itesh K hared 46
26. Identify the part of a bio-reactor which is used as a (2) Carbonic anhydrase
foam braker from the given figure. (3) Succinate dehydrogenase
(4) Catalase
32. Each of the following characteristics represent a
Kingdom proposed by Whittaker. Arrange the
following in increasing order of complexity of body
organization.
A. Multicellular heterotrophs with cell wall made
of chitin.
B. Heterotrophs with tissue/organ/organ system
level of body organization.
C. Prokaryotes with cell wall made of
(1) A (2) B polysaccharides and amino acids.
(3) D (4) C D. Eukaryotic autotrophs with tissue/organ level
27. Given below are two statements : One is labelled of body organization.
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason E. Eukaryotes with cellular body organization.
(R). Choose the correct answer from the options
Assertion (A) : A typical unfertilised, angiosperm given below :
embryo sac at maturity is 8 nucleate and 7-celled. (1) A, C, E, B, D (2) C, E, A, D, B
Reason (R) : The egg apparatus has 2 polarnuclei. (3) A, C, E, D, B (4) C, E, A, B, D
In the light of the above statements, choose the 33. Who is known as the father of Ecology in India?
correct answer from the options given below : (1) S.R. Kashyap (2) Ramdeo Misra
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (3) Ram Udar (4) Birbal Sahni
explanation of A
34. Match List-I with List-II :
(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false List-I List-II
(4) A is false but R is true A. Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase I. Streptococcus pneumoniae
28. A specialised membranous structure in a prokaryotic
cell which helps in cell well wall formation, DNA B. Euchromatin II. Densely packed and dark-stained
replication and respiration is
C. Frederick Griffith III. Loosely packed and light-stained
(1) Mesosome (2) Chromatophores
(3) Cristae (4) Endoplasmic Reticulum D. Heterochromatin IV. DNA as genetic material confirmation
29. Which of the following are the post-transcriptional
events in an eukaryotic cell? Choose the correct answer from the options
A. Transport of pre-mRNA to cytoplasm prior to given below:
splicing.
(1) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III (2) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
B. Removal of introns and joining of exons.
C. Addition of methyl group at 5’ end of hnRNA. (3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II (4) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
D. Addition of adenine residues at 3' end of 35. Neoplastic characteristics of cells refer to :
hnRNA. A. A mass of proliferating cell
E. Base pairing of two complementary RNAs. B. Rapid growth of cells
Choose the correct answer from the options C. Invasion and damage to the surrounding tissue
given below : D. Those confined to original location
(1) A, B, C only (2) B, C, D only Choose the correct answer from the options
(3) B, C, E only (4) C, D, E only given below:
30. What is the pattern of inheritance for polygenic (1) A, B only (2) A, B, C only
trait? (3) A, B, D only (4) B, C, D only
(1) Mendelian inheritance pattern 36. Given below are two statements :
(2) Non-mendelian inheritance pattern Statement I : The DNA fragments extracted from
(3) Autosomal dominant pattern gel electrophoresis can be used in construction
(4) X-linked recessive inheritance pattern of recombinant DNA.
31. Which one of the following enzymes contains Statement II : Smaller size DNA fragments are
‘Haem’ as the prosthetic group? observed near anode while larger fragments are
(1) RuBisCo found near the wells in an agarose gel.

- H itesh K hared 47
 In the light of the above statements, choose the made by the endoplasmic reticulum fuse with
most appropriate answer from the options given the cis face of the Golgi apparatus, and they
below : are modified and released from the trans face
(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct of the Golgi apparatus.
(2) Both statement I and statement II are In the light of the above statements, choose the
incorrect correct answer from the options given below :
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
incorrect explanation of A
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is (2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
37. Match List-I with List-II :
(4) A is false but R is true
41. Match List-I with List-II :
List-I List-II
List I List II
A. Adenosine I. Nitrogen base
A. Scutellum I. Persistent nucellus
B. Adenylic acid II. Nucleotide
B. Non-albuminous seed II. Cotyledon of Monocot seed
C. Adenine III. Nucleoside
C. Epiblast III. Groundnut

D. Alanine IV. Amino acid D. Perisperm IV. Rudimentary cotyledon

Choose the correct answer from the options Choose the correct answer from the options
given below: given below:
(1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I (2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I (1) A-II, B- III, C-IV, D-I (2) A-IV, B- III, C-II, D-I
(3) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV (4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV (3) A-IV, B- III, C-I, D-II (4) A-II, B- IV, C-III, D-I
38. Consider the following : 42. Given below are two statements: one is labelled
A. The reductive division for the human female as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
gametogenesis starts earlier than that of the (R).
male gametogenesis. Assertion (A) : All vertebrates are chordates but
B. The gap between the first meiotic division and all chordates are not vertebrate.
the second meiotic division is much shorter for Reason (R) : The members of subphylum
males compared to females. vertebrata possess notochord during the
C. The first polar body is associated with the embryonic period, the notochord
formation of the primary oocyte. is replaced by cartilaginous or bony vertebral
D. Luteinizing Hormone (LH) surge leads to column in adults.
disintegration of the endometrium and onset of In the light of the above statements, choose the
menstrual bleeding. correct answer from the options given below:
Choose the correct answer from the options (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
given below: explanation of (A)
(1) A and B are true (2) A and C are true (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
(3) B and D are true (4) B and C are true correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
39. All living members of the class Cyclostomata are :
(1) Free living (2) Endoparasite (4) (A) is false but (R) is true
(3) Symbiotic (4) Ectoparasite 43. Identify the statement that is NOT correct.
(1) Each antibody has two light and two heavy
40. Given below are two statements : one is labelled
chains.
as Assertion (A), and the other is labelled as Reason
(2) The heavy and light chains are held together
(R).
by disulfide bonds.
Assertion (A) : The primary function of the Golgi
(3) Antigen binding site is located at C-terminal
apparatus is to package the materials made by
region of antibody molecules.
the endoplasmic reticulum and deliver it to
(4) Constant region of heavy and light chains are
intracellular targets and outside the cell.
located at C-terminus of antibody molecules
Reason (R) : Vesicles containing materials
- H itesh K hared 48
44. Silencing of specific mRNA is possible via RNAi one allele of the gene) in F3 generation.
because of
(1) Complementary dsRNA
(2) Inhibitory ssRNA
(3) Complementary tRNA
(4) Non-complementary ssRNA
45. Genes R and Y follow independent assortment. If
RRYY produce round yellow seeds and rryy produce
wrinkled green seeds, what will be the phenotypic
ratio of the F2 generation?
(1) Phenotypic ratio - 1 : 2 : 1
(2) Phenotypic ratio - 3 : 1
(3) Phenotypic ratio - 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
(4) Phenotypic ratio - 9 : 7
46. Histones are enriched with -
(1) Lysine & Arginine
(2) Leucine & Lysine
(3) Phenylalanine & Leucine (1) 1/4 (2) 1/2
(4) Phenylalanine & Arginine (3) 1/8 (4) Zero
47. The first menstruation is called : 53. Given below are two statements : One is labelled
(1) Menopause (2) Menarche as Assertion (A) and other is labelled as Reason (R).
(3) Diapause (4) Ovulation Assertion (A) : Cells of the tapetum possess
48. Match List-I with List-II : dense cytoplasm and generally have more than
one nucleus.
List-I List-II Reason (R) : Presence of more than one nucleus
in the tapetum increases the efficiency of
A. Heart I. Erythropoietin nourishing the developing microspore mother
cells.
B. Kidney II. Aldosterone
In light of the above statements, choose the
C. Gastro-intestinal tract III. Atrial natriuretic factor most appropriate answer from the options given
below:
D. Adrenal Cortex IV. Secretin (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A
Choose the correct answer from the options (2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
given below: explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(1) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV (2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(4) A is false but R is true
(3) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II (4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
54. How many meiotic and mitotic divisions need to
49. The protein portion of an enzyme is called:
occur for the development of a mature female
(1) Cofactor (2) Coenzyme
gametophyte from the megaspore mother cell in
(3) Apoenzyme (4) Prosthetic group an angiosperm plant?
50. Which of the following is the unit of productivity of (1) 2 Meiosis and 3 Mitosis
an Ecosystem? (2) 1 Meiosis and 2 Mitosis
(1) gm 2 (2) KCal m 2 (3) 1 Meiosis and 3 Mitosis
(4) No Meiosis and 2 Mitosis
(3) KCal m 3 
(4) KCal m
2
 yr 1
55. Which of the following is an example of a
zygomorphic flower?
51. Sweet potato and potato represent a certain type
(1) Petunia (2) Datura
of evolution. Select the correct combination of
(3) Pea (4) Chilli
terms to explain the evolution.
(1) Analogy, convergent (2) Homology, divergent 56. After maturation, in primary lymphoid organs, the
(3) Homology, convergent (4) Analogy, divergent lymphocytes migrate for interaction with antigens
52. With the help of given pedigree, find out the to secondary lymphoid organ(s) / tissue(s) like
A. thymus B. bone marrow
probability for the birth of a child having no disease
C. spleen D. lymph nodes
and being a carrier (has the disease mutation in

- H itesh K hared 49
 E. Peyer’s patches
Choose the correct answer from the options
List-I List-II
given below :
(1) B, C, D only (2) A, B, C only
A. Pteridophyte I. Salvia
(3) E, A, B only (4) C, D, E only
57. Given below are two statements : B. Bryophyte II. Ginkgo
Statement I : Fig fruit is a non-vegetarian fruit as
it has enclosed fig wasps in it. C. Angiosperm III. Polytrichum
Statement II : Fig wasp and fig tree exhibit
mutual relationship as fig wasp completes its D. Gymnosperm IV. Salvinia
life cycle in fig fruit and fig fruit gets pollinated
by fig wasp.
In the light of the above statements, choose the Choose the correct answer from the options
most appropriate answer from the options given given below:
below : (1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I (2) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct (3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II (4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(2) Both statement I and statement II are
63. Who proposed that the genetic code for amino
incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is acids should be made up of three nucleotides ?
incorrect (1) George Gamow (2) Francis Crick
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is (3) Jacque Monod (4) Franklin Stahl
correct 64. Match List-I with List-II :
58. What is the main function of the spindle fibers
during mitosis ? List I List II
(1) To separate the chromosomes
A. The Evil Quartet I. Cryopreservation
(2) To synthesize new DNA
(3) To repair damaged DNA B. Ex situ conservation II. Alien species invasion
(4) To regulate cell growth
59. Which one of the following is the characteristic C. Lantana camara III. Causes of biodiversity losses
feature of gymnosperms? D. Dodo IV. Extinction
(1) Seeds are enclosed in fruits
(2) Seeds are naked
(3) Seeds are absent Choose the correct answer from the options
(4) Gymnosperms have flowers for reproduction given below:
60. Consider the following statements regarding (1) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV (2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
function of adrenal medullary hormones : (3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I (4) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(A) It causes pupilary constriction. 65. Which of the following hormones released from
(B) It is a hyperglycemic hormone. the pituitary is actually synthesized in the
(C) It causes piloerection. hypothalamus?
(D) It increases strength of heart contraction. (1) Luteinizing hormone (LH)
Choose the correct answer from the options (2) Anti-diuretic hormone (ADH)
given below : (3) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
(1) C and D only (2) B, C and D only (4) Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
(3) A, C and D only (4) D only 66. Role of the water vascular system in Echinoderms
61. Why can’t insulin be given orally to diabetic is :
patients? A. Respiration and Locomotion
(1) Human body will elicit strong immune B. Excretion and Locomotion
response C. Capture and transport of food
(2) It will be digested in Gastro-Intestinal (GI) D. Digestion and Respiration
tract E. Digestion and Excretion
(3) Because of structural variation Choose the correct answer from the options
(4) Its bioavailability will be increased given below :
62. Match List-I with List-II : (1) A and B Only (2) A and C Only
(3) B and C Only (4) B, D and E Only

- H itesh K hared 50
67. Which of the following type of immunity is present (B) Plant growth regulators can be involved in
at the time of birth and is a non-specific type of promotion as well as inhibition of growth.
defence in the human body ? (C) Dedifferentiation is a pre-requisite for re-
(1) Acquired Immunity differentiation.
(2) Innate Immunity (D) Abscisic acid is a plant growth promoter.
(3) Cell-mediated Immunity (E) Apical dominance promotes the growth of
(4) Humoral Immunity lateral buds.
68. In bryophytes, the gemmae help in which one of Choose the option with all correct statements.
the following? (1) A, B, C only (2) A, C, E only
(1) Sexual reproduction (2) Asexual reproduction (3) A, D, E only (4) B, D, E only
(3) Nutrient absorption (4) Gaseous exchange 74. Which factor is important for termination of
69. In frog, the Renal portal system is a special venous transcription?
connection that acts to link : (1)  (alpha) (2)  (sigma)
(1) Liver and intestine (3)  (rho) (4)  (gamma)
(2) Liver and kidney 75. Frogs respire in water by skin and buccal cavity and
(3) Kidney and intestine on land by skin, buccal cavity and lungs.
(4) Kidney and lower part of body Choose the correct answer from the following :
70. Given below are two statements: (1) The statement is true for water but false for
Statement I: In ecosystem, there is land
unidirectional flow of energy of sun from (2) The statement is true for both the
producers to consumers. environment
Statement II: Ecosystems are exempted from (3) The statement is false for water but true for
2nd law of thermodynamics. land
In the light of the above statements, choose the (4) The statement is false for both the
most appropriate answer from the options given environment
below: 76. Twins are born to a family that lives next door to
(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct you. The twins are a boy and a girl. Which of the
(2) Both statement I and statement II are following must be true?
incorrect (1) They are monozygotic twins.
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is (2) They are fraternal twins.
incorrect (3) They were conceived through in vitro
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is fertilization.
correct (4) They have 75% identical genetic content.
71. Which of the following statements about RuBisCO 77. Which of the following microbes is NOT involved in
is true? the preparation of household products?
(1) It is active only in the dark A. Aspergillus niger
(2) It has higher affinity for oxygen than carbon B. Lactobacillus
dioxide C. Trichoderma polysporum
(3) It is an enzyme involved in the photolysis of D. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
water E. Propionibacterium sharmanii
(4) It catalyzes the carboxylation of RuBP Choose the correct answer from the options
72. Which of the following enzyme(s) are NOT essential given below:
for gene cloning? (1) A and B only (2) A and C only
A. Restriction enzymes (3) C and D only (4) C and E only
B. DNA ligase 78. Match List-I with List-II :
C. DNA mutase
D. DNA recombinase
E. DNA polymerase
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
(1) C and D only (2) A and B only
(3) D and E only (4) B and C only
73. Read the following statements on plant growth and
development.
(A) Parthenocarpy can be induced by auxins.
- H itesh K hared 51
 (1) N 2 (2) 2n
List-I List-II
(3) 2n + 1 (4) 2n 2
A. Progesterone I. Pars intermedia 83. What are the potential drawbacks in adoption of
B. Relaxin II. Ovary the IVF method?
A. High fatality risk to mother
C. Melanocyte III. Adrenal Medulla B. Expensive instruments and reagents
stimulating hormone C. Husband/wife necessary for being donors
D. Less adoption of orphans
D. Catecholamines IV. Corpus luteum E. Not available in India
F. Possibility that the early embryo does not
Choose the correct answer from the options survive
given below: Choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
(1) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III (2) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
(1) B, D, F only (2) A, C, D, F only
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III (4) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(3) A, B, C, D only (4) A, B, C, E, F only
79. The blue and white selectable markers have been
84. What is the name of the blood vessel that carries
developed which differentiate recombinant
deoxygenated blood from the body to the heart in
colonies from nonrecombinantcolonies on the basis
a frog?
of their ability to produce colour in the presence of
(1) Aorta (2) Pulmonary artery
a chromogenic substrate.
(3) Pulmonary vein (4) Vena cava
Given below are two statements about this
method: 85. Which one of the following statements refers to
Statement I : The blue coloured colonies have Reductionist Biology?
DNA insert in the plasmid and they are identified (1) Physico-chemical approach to study and
as recombinant colonies. understand living organisms
Statement II : The colonies without blue colour (2) Physiological approach to study and
have DNA insert in the plasmid and are identified understand living organisms
as recombinant colonies. (3) Chemical approach to study and understand
In the light of the above statements, choose the living organisms
most appropriate answer from the options given (4) Behavioural approach to study and
below: understand living organisms
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct 86. Given below are two statements :
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are Statement I : In the RNA world, RNA is
incorrect considered the first genetic material evolved to
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is carry out essential life processes. RNA acts as a
incorrect genetic material and also as a catalyst for some
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is important biochemical reactions in living
correct systems. Being reactive, RNA is unstable.
80. Which one of the following equations represents Statement II : DNA evolved from RNA and is a
the Verhulst-Pearl Logistic Growth of population? more stable genetic material. Its double helical
strands being complementary, resist changes by
dN  K  N  dN KN evolving repairing mechanism.
(1)  r  (2)  rN  
dt  K  dt  K  In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given
dN  NK dN rK below :
(3)  rN   (4)  N  (1) Both statement I and statement II are correct
dt  N  dt  K  (2) Both statement I and statement II are
81. The complex II of mitochondrial electron transport incorrect
chain is also known as (3) Statement I is correct but statement II is
(1) Cytochrome bc1 incorrect
(2) Succinate dehydrogenase (4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
(3) Cytochrome c oxidase correct
(4) NADH dehydrogenase 87. Epiphytes that are growing on a mango branch is
82. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) amplifies DNA an example of which of the following?
following the equation. (1) Commensalism (2) Mutualism

- H itesh K hared 52
 (3) Predation (4) Amensalism
88. From the statements given below choose the
correct option :
A. The eukaryotic ribosomes are 80S and
prokaryotic ribosomes are 70S.
B. Each ribosome has two sub-units.
C. The two sub-units of 80S ribosome are 60S and
40S while that of 70S are 50S and 30S.
D. The two sub-units of 80S ribosome are 60S and
20S and that of 70S are 50S and 20S.
E. The two sub-units of 80S are 60S and 30S and
that of 70S are 50S and 30S.
(1) A, B, C are true (2) A, B, D are true
(3) A, B, E are true (4) B, D, E are true
89. Which one of the following is an example of ex-situ
conservation?
(1) National Park
(2) Wildlife Sanctuary
(3) Zoos and botanical gardens
(4) Protected areas
90. Given below are two statements:
Statement I : The primary source of energy in an
ecosystem is solar energy.
Statement II : The rate of production of organic
matter during photosynthesis in an ecosystem is
called net primary productivity (NPP).
In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given
below:
(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(2) Both statement I and statement II are
incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is
incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
correct

- H itesh K hared 53