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Kjsea 2025 Super Prediction

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
1K views104 pages

Kjsea 2025 Super Prediction

Uploaded by

winfredndunge54
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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KJSEA SUPER PREDICTION

KNEC 2025 COMPLIANT

KJSEA GRADE 9 CLASS OF OCTOBER 2025

A COMPILATION OF PREDICTION QUESTIONS PREPARED BY TOP KNEC

EXAMINERS NAIROBI HQ

CONFIDENTIAL!!!

FOR MARKING SCHEMES


Subscribe to our website to download:
www.kenyaeducators.co.ke
OR CONTACT
Mr Machuki 0724 333 200/ 0795 491 185

KENYA EDUCATORS CONSULTANCY


For Marking Schemes, Contact Kenya Educators Consultancy 0724 333 200 OR
Subscribe to our website www.kenyaeducators.co.ke for similar resources
Candidate’s Name Assessment Number
School Name School Code
Candidate’s Signature Date

KJSEA 2025 SUPER PREDICTION

KENYA JUNIOR SCHOOL EDUCATION ASSESSMENT


AGRICULTURE AND NUTRITION

906/2: AGRICULTURE AND NUTRITION (Theory)

Time: 1 hour 40 minutes

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

1. Write your name and assessment number in the spaces provided above.
2. Write the name and code of your school in the spaces provided above.
3. Sign and write the date of the assessment in the spaces provided above.
4. This paper consists of two sections: A and B.
5. Section A comprises Multiple Choice Questions numbered 1 to 30.
6. Section B comprises short, structured questions number 31 to 42.
7. Answer ALL the questions in section A on the separate ANSWER SHEET provided.
8. Answer ALL the questions in section B in the spaces provided in this QUESTION PAPER.
9. Do NOT remove any page from this question paper.
10. Answer ALL the questions in English.

For official use only

SECTION B

Task
Task 1: Agriculture Task 2: Nutrition
Question 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42
Maximum score 3 3 3 3 4 4 4 2 2 5 2 5
Candidate’s score
Total per task

This paper consists of 6 printed pages. Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the
pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing.

SECTION A (30 marks)

Answer ALL the questions in this section


1. Which of the following soil conservation methods C. Pastoralism
is most effective in controlling both water and D. Pig farming in confinement
wind erosion in semi-arid areas? 10. The main purpose of formulating a balanced
A. Terracing B. Contour Ploughing ration for farm animals is to:
C. Agroforestry D. Mulching A. Make them look bigger.
2. The primary reason for conducting a soil test on a B. Provide all necessary nutrients for optimal
farm is to: growth and production.
A. Determine the soil's colour. C. Make them sleep more.
B. Identify the soil's texture. D. Reduce the amount of water they drink.
C. Ascertain the nutrient levels and pH.
D. Measure the soil's temperature. 11. Which of the following is a routine health
3. Which of the following is a disadvantage of management practice in a dairy farm that involves
prolonged use of synthetic chemical fertilizers in vaccination?
farming? A. Dipping to control ticks.
A. Improves soil structure. B. Administering dewormers.
B. Leads to accumulation of salts and soil acidity. C. Injecting against specific diseases like Foot
C. Increases beneficial soil organisms. and Mouth Disease.
D. Enhances water infiltration. D. Trimming hooves.
4. The use of beneficial insects to control 12. A farmer wishes to add value to their maize
agricultural pests is an example of: harvest. Which of the following activities
A. Chemical control B. Cultural control represents value addition?
C. Biological control D. Mechanical control A. Drying maize grains.
5. Which of the following crop propagation methods B. Selling maize grains directly to a wholesaler.
is least likely to transmit viral diseases from C. Milling maize into flour and packaging it.
parent plant to offspring? D. Storing maize in a granary.
A. Budding B. Stem cuttings 13. What is the primary function of a farm enterprise
C. Tissue culture D. Layering record?
6. A farmer is growing tomatoes and observes that A. To impress visitors.
the fruits are rotting at the blossom end. This B. To track the financial performance of a
deficiency is most likely due to a lack of: specific farming activity.
A. Nitrogen B. Potassium C. To count the number of workers.
C. Calcium D. Phosphorus D. To predict future weather patterns.
7. Which of the following is a post-harvest handling 14. Which of the following agricultural policies
practice that helps to reduce spoilage of fresh encourages youth participation in farming by
vegetables? providing access to credit and training?
A. Leaving vegetables exposed to direct sunlight. A. Land tenure policy
B. Storing vegetables in airtight containers B. Agricultural finance policy
immediately after harvest. C. Irrigation policy
C. Curing or pre-cooling before storage. D. Mechanization policy
D. Piling vegetables in large heaps. 15. An agri-entrepreneur conducting a market
8. In livestock farming, a major advantage of analysis would primarily be interested in:
keeping indigenous breeds over exotic breeds in A. The number of neighbours who farm.
local conditions is their: B. The demand for their product, competition, and
A. Faster growth rate pricing.
B. Higher milk/meat yield C. The amount of rainfall in the area.
C. Higher susceptibility to local diseases D. The types of trees growing nearby.
D. Higher resistance to local diseases and harsh 16. Which of the following is a common nutritional
climate disorder caused by excessive consumption of
9. Which of the following is an example of an sugary and fatty foods, leading to health
extensive livestock production system? complications?
A. Zero grazing A. Anaemia B. Goitre
B. Commercial dairy farming with stall feeding C. Obesity D. Rickets
17. A pregnant woman requires increased intake of
which nutrient to support foetal bone
development and prevent complications like spina A. Preservatives
bifida? B. Emulsifiers
A. Vitamin C B. Iron C. Monosodium glutamate (MSG)
C. Folic Acid D. Calcium D. Artificial colours
18. Which of the following best describes the energy 25. A family is planning a meal for an elderly relative
requirements for a manual labourer compared to who has difficulty chewing. Which meal planning
an office worker? factor is most relevant?
A. Manual labourer requires less energy. A. Cost of ingredients.
B. Both require the same amount of energy. B. Texture and ease of chewing.
C. Manual labourer requires more energy. C. Popularity of the dish.
D. Energy requirements depend only on age. D. Colour of the food.
19. Why is it important to ensure food packaging is 26. Which of the following is a crucial step in
intact and free from damage when purchasing? preparing a meal to prevent cross-contamination?
A. Damaged packaging makes the food look ugly. A. Using the same cutting board for raw meat and
B. Damaged packaging may indicate vegetables.
contamination or spoilage. B. Washing hands after handling raw meat and
C. Intact packaging ensures a lower price. before touching ready-to-eat foods.
D. Damaged packaging always means the food is C. Storing cooked food above raw food in the
still safe to eat. refrigerator.
20. Which of the following is a characteristic of a D. Using a single towel for wiping hands and
food item that has undergone spoilage due to drying dishes.
microbial growth? 27. The best way to remove tough stains like grease
A. Fresh colour and smell. or oil from cotton clothes is to:
B. Change in texture, off-odour, or mould growth. A. Soak in cold water only.
C. Increased nutritional value. B. Apply a solvent or pre-treat with a stain
D. Hardening of the product. remover before washing.
C. Wash immediately with hot water and no soap.
21. What is the principle behind food preservation by D. Rub vigorously with a dry brush.
dehydration (drying)? 28. Which of the following household items requires
A. Adding salt to food. specialized cleaning agents due to its delicate
B. Removing moisture to inhibit microbial surface and tendency to scratch?
growth. A. Wooden chopping board
C. Applying heat to kill microbes. B. Stainless steel sink
D. Freezing food to extremely low temperatures. C. Non-stick cookware
22. Which food preservation method involves heating D. Ceramic floor tiles
food to a specific temperature for a set time to kill 29. What is the primary purpose of a fire extinguisher
harmful microorganisms, then sealing it in airtight in the kitchen?
containers? A. To cool down hot pans.
A. Pickling B. Salting C. Canning D. Smoking B. To put out small fires.
23. When selecting a cooking method, which factor is C. To store cooking oil.
most important to consider if the goal is to retain D. To hold kitchen utensils.
maximum nutrients in vegetables? 30. Which of the following textile fibres is known for
A. Using plenty of cooking oil. its warmth, elasticity, and resistance to creasing,
B. Cooking for a short time with minimal water. making it suitable for sweaters and blankets?
C. Boiling for a long duration. A. Linen
D. Adding baking soda to the cooking water. B. Silk
24. Which of the following is a common food C. Cotton
additive used to enhance flavour in processed D. Wool
foods?

SECTION B (40 marks)


Answer ALL the questions in this section.

31. A farmer wants to prevent further soil degradation on their sloping land.
(a) Name one advanced soil conservation practice that involves planting rows of trees or shrubs to reduce wind
and water erosion. (1 mark)

_________________________________________________________________________________________

(b) Explain two benefits of implementing stone lines or trash lines on a farm for soil conservation. (2 marks)

_________________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________________

32. Grade 9 learners are learning about modern crop propagation.


(a) State one advantage of using tissue culture over traditional methods for propagating certain crops. (1 mark)

________________________________________________________________________________________

(b) Outline two environmental factors that must be carefully controlled in a nursery bed to ensure successful
germination and early growth of seedlings. (2 marks)

__________________________________________________________________________________________

__________________________________________________________________________________________

33. Mwaniki has been conserving animal feeds after harvest. (a) Differentiate between hay and silage in crop
production. (1 mark)

_________________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________________

(b) Describe two integrated farming methods. (2 marks)

_______________________________________________________________________________________

_____________________________________________________________________________________

34. A farmer is wants to start am organic farm. (a) State two organic gardening practice. (2 marks)

_________________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________________

(b) Give one importance of organic farming in Kenya. (1 mark)

_________________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________________

35. Maintaining animal health is vital for profitable livestock farming. (a) Outline two routine health management
practices, other than vaccination, that should be carried out on a regular basis for a goat herd. (2 marks)
_________________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________________

(b) Explain why proper storage of animal feeds is crucial for animal health and productivity. (2 marks)

________________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________________

36. An agri-entrepreneur wants to expand their poultry business by adding value to their eggs. (a) Identify two
products that can be made from eggs through value addition. (2 marks)

_________________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________________

(b) Outline two benefits the entrepreneur would gain by packaging and branding their egg products. (2 marks)

________________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________________

37. Record keeping is an important aspect of agri-entrepreneurship. (a) State one reason why a farmer should keep
an inventory record for their farm tools and equipment. (1 mark)

_______________________________________________________________________________________

(b) Give three benefits of keeping accurate financial records (e.g., income and expenditure records) for a farming
enterprise. (3 marks)

________________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________________

38. A learner has been advised to include foods rich in iron in their diet to prevent anaemia. (a) Name two food
sources that are rich in iron. (2 marks)

_______________________________________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________________________________

39. Food safety is paramount when preparing meals for a family. Outline two ways in which cross-contamination
can be prevented in a kitchen. (2 marks)

________________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________________

40. Pickling is a common method of food preservation. (a) Briefly explain the principle of food preservation by
pickling. (1 mark)
________________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________________

(b) Give two advantages of preserving foods by pickling. (2 marks)

________________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________________

(c) Mention two methods of cooking food. ( 2 marks)

_______________________________________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________________________________

41. A nutritionist is advising a family on meal planning for a diabetic member. State two specific considerations that
must be taken into account when planning meals for a diabetic person. (2 marks)

__________________________________________________________________________________________

__________________________________________________________________________________________

42. Maintaining a clean and safe home environment is crucial. (a) Outline two safety precautions to observe when
handling household cleaning chemicals. (2 marks)

________________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________________

(b) Describe three steps for effectively removing a grease stain from a cotton fabric before regular washing. (3
marks)

_______________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________________

THIS IS THE LAST PRINTED PAGE.


didate’s Name Assessment Number
ol Name School Code
didate’s Signature Date

KJSEA 2025 SUPER PREDICTION


KENYA JUNIOR SCHOOL EDUCATION ASSESSMENT

911/1: CREATIVE ARTS AND SPORTS (project)

Time: 1 hour 40 minutes


-CREATIVE ARTS AND SPORTS-

DURATION: 1 month

INSTRUCTIONS TO SCHOOLS

1. This is a project paper which should be taken in 1 month.

2. Teachers are provided with scoring guides.

3. The project will be assessed in phases, where each milestone should be scored,

and a record maintained for each learner.

© 2025 The Kenya Junior School Examinations and Assessment Series.

Turn over
1. INTRODUCTION

(i) This is an integrated project assessment comprising activities from all component disciplines
in the Creative Arts and Sports subject (Visual Arts, Performing Arts, and Sports).

(ii) With the guidance of the teacher, learners are required to fully undertake this project, whose
assessment scores will form part of the final summative assessment of the learner in this subject.

(iii) Each Task will be assessed using a given assessment rubric. Learners should be allowed to
access the assessment rubric in order to fully align their activities to the requirements of the task.

2. PROJECT DESCRIPTION

Your school is organizing an "Intergenerational Exchange Festival" aimed at fostering


connection between different age groups within the community through creative arts and sports.
The event will showcase traditional and contemporary artistic expressions, and highlight the
importance of physical activity across all ages.

You are required to carry out the following four tasks in preparation for the event:

Task 1: Visual Arts

Design and create a series of two (2) relief sculptures (each measuring approximately 30cm x
30cm) depicting different aspects of "Community Heritage" – one focusing on traditional
practices and the other on contemporary life. These sculptures will be part of a collaborative wall
art installation for the festival.

Individually,

(i) Research and conceptualize: Conduct research on local community heritage (e.g., traditional
crafts, storytelling, modern innovations, community gatherings). Explore different materials
suitable for relief sculpture (e.g., cardboard, clay, papier-mâché, mixed media). Make notes and
produce preliminary sketches to conceptualize your two distinct relief sculpture designs. (These
should be placed in your assessment portfolio).

(ii) Create the relief sculptures: Select your chosen materials and techniques. Construct two
relief sculptures, ensuring they clearly depict elements of "Community Heritage" (one
traditional, one contemporary). Focus on creating depth, texture, and clear imagery.

The sculptures should incorporate the following:

(a) Clear representation of traditional and contemporary community heritage.

(b) Effective use of relief techniques (e.g., carving, modeling, layering).

(c) Appropriate use of chosen materials to convey texture and form.

(d) Neatness and appropriate finishing.


Installation: On the "Intergenerational Exchange Festival" day, your completed relief sculptures
will be integrated into a larger collaborative wall art installation to be viewed by attendees.

Task 2: Performing Arts (Music & Dance)

You are required to:

a) Select a traditional Kenyan children's game song/chant and a contemporary popular


Kenyan song.

b) Adapt and arrange both pieces for a combined performance (totaling 3-4 minutes) by a
group of 8-12 members. The arrangement should blend traditional and contemporary elements,
creating a cohesive and engaging performance for diverse age groups. Pay attention to the
following aspects:

(i) Musical arrangement: Creative adaptation of melodies and rhythms, incorporation of


simple harmonies, and dynamic variations.

(ii) Instrumentation: Integration of both traditional (e.g., shakers, drums, bells) and
contemporary (e.g., guitar, keyboard if available, or vocal percussion) instrumental sounds.

(iii) Choreography: Develop fluid and expressive movements that draw from both traditional
dance steps (from the game song) and contemporary dance styles, ensuring synchrony and stage
presence.

(iv) Vocal quality: Clear diction, strong vocal projection, and a balanced vocal blend.

c) Prepare a detailed performance brief outlining:

(i) The origin and cultural significance of the traditional game song/chant.

(ii) The theme and message of the contemporary song.

(iii) How the two pieces are blended to create an "intergenerational" connection.

(iv) Description of the instrumental choices, choreography, and costume/prop concepts.

d) Take a lead role in rehearsing the group, demonstrating strong leadership in teaching and
refining both musical and dance elements.

e) Ensure the group's performance exhibits:

(i) High level of energy and expressiveness.

(ii) Cohesion and synchronized performance.

(iii) Audience engagement through eye contact and stage presence. (iv) Authentic representation
of cultural elements and contemporary interpretation.
Perform: Present your integrated musical and dance performance to the audience during the
"Intergenerational Exchange Festival" to entertain and bridge generational gaps through art.

Task 3: Performing Arts (Theatre)

You are required to:

(i) Brainstorm in groups to generate original ideas for a short dramatic scene (3-5 minutes) that
explores a common challenge faced by either youth or elders in the community, and suggests a
solution through intergenerational understanding.

(ii) Individually write a short script for your dramatic scene. The script should feature 2-3
characters and include dialogue, stage directions, and a clear resolution.

(iii) Work with 1-2 peers to rehearse and perform your scene. Focus on developing realistic
characters and conveying emotions effectively.

Your scene presentation will focus on:

(a) Character development: Believable portrayal of characters through vocal inflection, body
language, and facial expressions.

(b) Dialogue delivery: Clear articulation, appropriate pacing, and conveying the meaning and
emotion of the lines.

(c) Blocking and movement: Purposeful and effective use of stage space to enhance the
narrative.

(d) Thematic clarity: Successful communication of the challenge and the intergenerational
solution.

(e) Audience engagement: Ability to capture and hold the audience's attention.

Perform: Present your short dramatic scene to the audience during the "Intergenerational
Exchange Festival," fostering empathy and dialogue between generations.

Task 4: Sports

Learners are required to organize and officiate a small-scale, adapted sports activity suitable
for mixed age groups (e.g., walking football, modified netball, or a traditional game like 'boda
boda' or 'kati'). The task requires learners to work in small teams of between 5 and 7 members
to:

a) Research and plan the adapted sport: Research the chosen sport, understanding its basic
rules and how it can be modified to be inclusive and safe for participants of varying ages and
abilities. Plan the activity, including necessary equipment, rules, and a simple scoring system.

b) Develop a training routine/warm-up: Create and demonstrate a safe and effective warm-up
routine (5-7 minutes) specifically designed to prepare participants of different age groups for
your chosen adapted sports activity. Explain the physiological benefits of each exercise.
c) Officiate and manage the activity: During the festival, lead a brief demonstration of the
adapted sport. Then, manage a small, friendly game session (10-15 minutes), demonstrating fair
play, clear communication, and effective officiating skills. Ensure all participants feel
encouraged and included.

d) Promote sports safety and first aid: Discuss and present at least three essential safety
precautions for the chosen sport and demonstrate basic knowledge of common sports injuries and
immediate first aid responses (e.g., RICE method for sprains).

e) Reflect and evaluate: Individually reflect on the success of your adapted sports activity in
engaging mixed age groups. Evaluate your team's collaboration in planning and execution, and
analyze how well you applied principles of inclusivity, safety, and sportsmanship. Document
your reflections.

Facilitate: During the "Intergenerational Exchange Festival," your team will facilitate your
adapted sports activity, promoting active lifestyles and fostering positive interaction among
participants of all ages.

THIS IS THE LAST PRINTED PAGE.


Candidate’s Name Assessment Number
School Name School Code
Candidate’s Signature Date

KJSEA 2025 SUPER PREDICTION


KENYA JUNIOR SCHOOL EDUCATION ASSESSMENT

911/2: CREATIVE ARTS AND SPORTS (Theory)

Time: 1 hour 40 minutes

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
-CREATIVE ARTS AND SPORTS-

1. Write your name and assessment number in the spaces provided above.
2. Write the name and code of your school in the spaces provided above.
3. Put your signature and write the date of the assessment in the spaces provided above.
4. This paper consists of two sections A and B.
5. Each section has THREE parts: Part I - Performing Arts, Part II - Sports, Part III -Visual Arts.
6. Section A comprises Multiple Choice Questions number: 1 to 40.
7. Section B comprises short structured and analysis questions number: 41 to 52.
8. Answer ALL the questions in section A on the separate ANSWER SHEET provided.
9. Answer ALL the questions in section B in the spaces provided on this question paper for Part I -
Performing Arts and Part III - Visual Arts.
10. For Part II - Sports, questions 45 and 46 are COMPULSORY. Choose EITHER question 47 or 48.
11. Do not remove any page from this question paper.
12. Answer all questions in English.

For official use only: SECTION B

Part Task Number Question Number Maximum Score Candidate’s Score


Part I: Performing Arts 1 41 04
2 42 04
3 43 10
4 44 06
Part II: Sports 5 45 04
6 46 04
OPTIONAL 7 47 10
8 48 10
Part III: Visual Arts 9 50 04
10 51 04
11 52 10
Total per section 40
SECTION A: (40 Marks)

Read the instructions carefully.

PART I: PERFORMING ARTS B. Facial expressions


C. Pacing
1. Which of the following refers to the speed at D. Gestures
which a piece of music is performed?
A. Dynamics B. Timbre 11. Which of the following is a common function of
C. Tempo D. Rhythm Kenyan folksongs in society?
2. A musical note that lasts for two beats in 4/4 time A. To teach mathematics.
is called a: B. To provide historical information.
A. Semibreve B. Minim C. To promote academic excellence.
C. Crotchet D. Quaver D. To predict weather patterns.
3. Which of the following musical instruments is 12. A character in a play is wearing ragged clothes
classified as an Descant recorder? and has a dirty face. This use of costume helps to
A. Drum B. Guitar reveal the character's:
C. Shaker D. Flute A. Dialogue B. Role C. Plot D. Setting
4. When a singer uses their diaphragm to push air out 13. Which of the following is an element of drama
for a strong sound, they are demonstrating good: that refers to the message or main idea of a play or
A. Diction B. Phrasing story?
C. Breathing D. Articulation A. Plot
5. Which of the following best describes the sound B. Theme
quality of a musical instrument? C. Character
A. Pitch B. Timbre D. Setting
C. Volume D. Duration 14. During a choral verse performance, the learners
6. A traditional folksong is sung in a call and deliver lines together, creating a unified sound.
response pattern. This pattern describes which This technique is known as:
element of music? A. Solo speaking
A. Harmony B. Melody B. Call and response
C. Form D. Texture C. Group speaking
7. A group of Grade 7 learners are preparing to sing D. Whispering
a song. Their teacher advises them to ensure their 15. What is the primary purpose of using props in a
words are clear and understandable. This advice drama performance?
relates to which vocal technique? A. To distract the audience.
A. Projection B. Diction B. To make the stage look crowded.
C. Expression D. Phrasing C. To help characters interact with their
8. Which of the following accurately represents the environment and enhance the story.
notes of a C major scale in ascending order? D. To replace actors.
A. C, D, E, F, G, A, B, C 16. Which of the following is a key quality of a good
B. C, D, E, F#, G, A, B, C story that makes it memorable and easy to follow?
C. C, D, Eb, F, G, A, Bb, C A. Complex plot
D. C, D, E, F, G, A, B, D B. Unclear ending
9. In drama, the sequence of events that makes up a C. Engaging characters
story is known as the: D. Minimal dialogue
A. Theme
B. Character PART II: SPORTS
C. Plot
D. Setting 17. A short-distance race where athletes run on a
10. A storyteller uses varying speeds and tones of straight section of the track is typically the:
voice to keep the audience engaged. This A. 400 meters B. 800 meters
technique is primarily focused on: C. 100 meters D. 1500 meters
A. Dialogue
18. In football, which skill involves moving the ball 24. A team demonstrates good sportsmanship when
forward while maintaining control with your feet? they:
A. Argue with the referee's decisions.
B. Celebrate exce ssively after scoring.
C. Shake hands with opponents after a game, win
or lose.
D. Blame teammates for mistakes.
25. Angela was asked to identify a volleyball ball,
which one is it?

A. Passing B. Shooting
C. Dribbling D. Kicking
A. B.
19. Before starting any physical activity, it is
important to warm up to:
A. Get tired quickly.
B. Prevent injuries.
C. Increase muscle stiffness.
D. Make the activity longer. C. D.
20. Which of the following is a common method of
water entry used in swimming, where the
swimmer takes a small jump into the water?
A. Dive entry B. Front flip 26. Why is it important to use clean sports equipment?
C. Stride jump D. Back entry A. To make them look new.
B. To prevent the spread of germs and skin
21. In a game of volleyball, the skill demonstrated infections.
below is called: C. To increase their weight.
D. To make them less durable.
27. During a relay race, the most crucial moment is
the:
A. Starting position.
B. Exchange of the baton.
C. Final sprint.
D. Warm-up.
28. Which of the following is a negative consequence
of drug abuse in sports?
A. Volleying B. Passing
A. Improved athletic performance.
C. Serving D. Spiking
B. Enhanced team spirit.
C. Serious health problems and disqualification.
22. What is the primary safety rule to observe when
D. Increased popularity among peers.
performing throwing events like shot put or
javelin?
A. Throw as far as possible. PART III: VISUAL ARTS
B. Ensure the landing area is clear of people.
C. Throw immediately after picking up the 29. A teacher asked a learner to identify primary
equipment. colours. Which one is not?
D. Throw only when the coach is not watching. A. Blue B. Yellow C. Red D. Green
23. Which of the following is a benefit of participating 30. The two colours created by mixing a primary
in tagging games? colour with another primary colour are called:
A. It discourages social interaction. A. Tertiary colours
B. It improves physical fitness and agility. B. Complementary colours
C. It leads to isolation. C. Warm colours
D. It teaches complex sports rules. D. Secondary colours
31. In a drawing, the empty space surrounding objects 38. The lightness or darkness of a colour is referred to
or figures is known as: as its:
A. Positive space A. Hue B. Saturation
B. Negative space C. Value D. Intensity
C. Depth 39. Which of the following crafts involves arranging
D. Form small pieces of coloured material (like glass or
32. Which principle of design is achieved when an tile) to create an image or pattern?
artist creates a sense of visual interest by making A. Batik
parts of the artwork different from each other? B. Collage
A. Unity B. Harmony C. Mosaic
C. Contrast D. Rhythm D. Tie-dye
33. Which of the following materials is most 40. When displaying an artwork, what is the main
commonly used for a coil pottery technique? purpose of mounting or framing it?
A. Wood A. To make it more expensive.
B. Metal B. To protect it and enhance its presentation.
C. Clay C. To make it heavier.
D. Glass D. To hide parts of the artwork.
34. A drawing technique that represents stippling is?

A. B C. D.

35. What is the primary purpose of a 'still life'


drawing?
A. To draw human figures.
B. To depict natural outdoor scenes.
C. To represent inanimate objects arranged by an
artist.
D. To draw animals in their natural habitat.
36. Learners were asked to draw different shapes for a
certain project. Which one is called a cone?

A. B. C. D.

37. If you mix yellow and blue paint, what colour do


you get?
A. Orange
B. Purple
C. Green
D. Brown
SECTION B: (60 marks)

Answer questions in the spaces provided.

PART I: PERFORMING ARTS

Answer ALL the questions in the spaces provided after each question

41. During a music lesson, learners were required to name musical notes. Write the names for each of the notes .(4
marks)

A ______________________________

B ______________________________

C ______________________________

D _______________________________

42. Write the missing letters on the treble clef notes below.

43. A Grade 7 class is preparing a traditional folksong for a cultural event.


(a) Outline five characteristics of Kenyan folksongs that make them unique. (5 marks)

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(b) Identify five ways movement can be incorporated into the performance of a folksong to enhance its message.
(5 marks)
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44. Learners are performing a short story for their class.


(a) Identify two ways a storyteller can use their voice to express different characters. (2 marks)
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(b) Suggest two simple props that could be used to represent a rural homestead setting in a story performance. (2
marks)

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(c) Outline two ways in which the audience can show appreciation for a story performance. (2 marks)
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PART II: SPORTS

Answer questions 45 and 46. For question 47 and 48, answer only ONE of them.

During a 100-meter sprint race, athletes typically use a crouch start. (a) Give two reasons why athletes use a
crouch start for sprints. (2 marks)
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(b) Outline two safety precautions that should be observed during a sprint race. (2 marks)
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45. Grade 7 learners are playing football. Identify four instances when a free kick might be awarded during a game
of football. (4 marks)
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46. A teacher is introducing basic swimming skills to learners.


i. What is floating in swimming? (2 marks)

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ii. Describe two types of floating a learner can perform. (4 marks)


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iii. Explain how the front crawl (freestyle) swimming style is performed. (4 marks)
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47. During a sports lesson, learners played a game of "Tag the Leader." i. What is the objective of "Tag the Leader"
or similar tagging games? (2 Marks)
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ii. Describe how a game of "Tag the Leader" is typically played. (4 marks)
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iii. Explain two physical benefits a learner gains from participating in tagging games. (2 marks)
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iv. Outline two social benefits gained from participating in tagging games. (2 marks)
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PART III: VISUAL ARTS

Answer ALL the questions in the spaces provided after each question

50. (a) artists displayed different pictures as shown below:

Identify the type of balance demonstrated

A B

(b) Learners are setting up a display of their artworks for parents' day. Describe two ways they can use lighting to
enhance their art display. (2 marks)

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51. During an art lesson, learners made a collage using various materials. Outline four steps they followed to create
their collage artwork. (4 marks)
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52. Learners in an art appreciation lesson analyzed different sculptures and paintings.
a) Mention three items that can be used to make sculptures. (3 marks)

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b) name two warm colours likely used to decorate sculptures. ( 2 marks)
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c) describe the following art work. (5 marks)

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THIS IS THE LAST PRINTED PAGE.


Candidate’s Name Assessment Number
School Name School Code
Candidate’s Signature Date

KJSEA 2025 SUPER PREDICTION


901/1: ENGLISH (Reading Comprehension, Oral Skills and Grammar)

Time: 1 hour 40 minutes

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

1. You have been given this question paper and a separate answer sheet. The question paper consists of
50 multiple choice questions.
2. Answer ALL questions on the ANSWER SHEET provided, NOT on the question paper.
3. Do all the necessary rough work on the question paper.

HOW TO USE THE ANSWER SHEET

4. Use an ordinary HB pencil.


5. Confirm that the answer sheet you have been provided with has the following:
-ENGLISH-

6. YOUR ASSESSMENT NUMBER


7. YOUR NAME
8. NAME OF YOUR SCHOOL
9. NAME OF THE SUBJECT
10. Keep the answer sheet clean and dry. DO NOT fold it.
11. For each of the questions 1 – 50, four options are given. The options are lettered A, B, C and D.
In each case, only ONE of the four options is correct. Choose the correct option.
12. On the answer sheet, the correct answer is to be shown by drawing a DARK LINE inside the
box in which the letter you have chosen is written.

Example In the Question paper:

40. Which one of the following means the opposite of the word "better"?

A. weak B. wrong C. worse D. wasted

The correct answer is 'C'.

On the answer sheet, in the set of boxes given for number 40, draw a DARK LINE inside the box with the letter
C printed in it as marked below.

40 A [ ] B [ ] C [|] D [ ]

b) Your dark line MUST be within the box. DO NOT make any marks outside the boxes.
c) For each question, ONLY ONE box is to be marked.
Read the passage below and then answer questions 1 to 6.

Trees are essential for life on Earth. They are often called the lungs of the planet because
they absorb carbon dioxide, a gas harmful to us, and release oxygen, which is vital for all
living beings to breathe. This process helps to clean the air we breathe and maintain a healthy
atmosphere.

Beyond air purification, trees play a crucial role in regulating climate. Their leaves release
water vapour, which cools the air and can even influence rainfall patterns. They also provide
shade, reducing the need for air conditioning in buildings, which saves energy. Trees are also
natural barriers against strong winds and help prevent soil erosion by holding the soil together
with their roots.

Furthermore, trees are home to countless species of animals, insects, and birds, contributing to
biodiversity. They provide us with wood for construction, fuel, and paper. Many fruits, nuts,
and medicinal plants also come from trees. Protecting our forests and planting more trees is not
just good for the environment; it is also good for our well-being and the future of our planet.
1. According to the passage, why are trees called "the 4. The expression "vital for all living beings" as used in
lungs of the planet"? the passage means
A. Because they have many branches. A. not important for living things.
B. Because they absorb carbon dioxide and release B. necessary for life to continue.
oxygen. C. only important for plants.
C. Because they are very tall. D. useful for making medicine.
D. Because they provide shade. 5. Which word in the passage means the same as
2. One way trees help in regulating climate is by "important"?
A. releasing carbon dioxide. A. Crucial B. Harmful C. Pleasant D. Countless
B. causing strong winds. 6. Which one of the following would be the best title for
C. releasing water vapour. this passage?
D. increasing soil erosion. A. The Benefits of Trees
3. Which one of the following statements is true B. How Trees Grow
according to the passage? C. Animals in Forests
A. Trees have no effect on rainfall. D. Types of Wood
B. Trees only provide wood for fuel.
C. Many animals live in trees.
D. Planting trees is only good for the environment.
Read the passage below and then answer questions 7 to 11.

Laughter is a powerful tool for our well-being. It is a natural response to humour and can bring
about many positive changes in our bodies and minds. When we laugh, our bodies release
endorphins, which are natural feel-good chemicals. These chemicals promote an overall sense of
well-being and can even temporarily relieve pain.

Beyond the internal benefits, laughter is a great way to connect with others. Sharing a laugh
creates a bond and can improve relationships. It helps to reduce stress and can lighten even the
most serious situations. A good laugh can relax our muscles, improve blood circulation, and even
boost our immune system, making us less prone to illness.

So, next time you feel stressed or down, try to find something that makes you laugh. Watch a
funny video, read a comic strip, or spend time with friends who make you smile. Incorporating
more laughter into your daily life can be a simple yet effective way to improve your health and
happiness.
7. From paragraph one, we can say that laughter is a 8. Which one of the following is true according to the
natural response to passage?
A. sadness. A. Laughter only affects our minds.
B. pain. B. Laughter can cause pain.
C. humour. C. Laughter can make us feel good.
D. stress. D. Laughter always makes us ill.
9. The word "prone" as used in the passage means 11. Which one of the following would be the most
A. resistant. suitable title for this passage?
B. likely. A. The Science of Laughter
C. immune. B. Laughter and Your Health
D. careful. C. How to Make Friends
10. From the passage, "boost our immune system" D. Ways to Reduce Stress
means to
A. weaken our immune system.
B. make our immune system stronger.
C. change our immune system.
D. remove our immune system.
Read the passage below and then answer questions 12 to 16.

The invention of the wheel is considered one of humanity's greatest achievements. Before its
invention, people had to carry heavy loads or drag them across the ground, which was incredibly
difficult and time-consuming. The wheel changed everything, making transportation much easier
and more efficient.

Early wheels were likely solid discs made of wood. Over time, they evolved into lighter, spooked
designs that were more durable and efficient. The impact of the wheel extended beyond
transportation. It was adapted for use in pottery, where it revolutionized the creation of clay
vessels. It also played a key role in the development of machinery, enabling the creation of
gears and other complex mechanisms that powered mills and factories.

Today, the wheel is still fundamental to modern life. It's in our cars, bicycles, trains, and
airplanes, facilitating global movement. It's also found in countless everyday objects, from
office chairs to shopping carts. The simple yet ingenious design of the wheel continues to shape
our world, demonstrating how a single invention can have a profound and lasting impact on human
progress.
12. According to the passage, before the wheel,
carrying heavy loads was
A. very easy. B. not possible.
C. extremely hard. D. very fast.
13. Which one of the following was an early use of the
wheel, according to the passage?
A. Powering airplanes B. Creating clay vessels
C. Designing buildings D. Generating electricity
14. The word "durable" as used in the passage means
the same as
A. weak. B. breakable. C. long-lasting. D. heavy.
15. According to the passage, the wheel's design is
described as ingenious, meaning it is
A. very complex. B. difficult to understand.
C. clever and original. D. easily forgotten.
16. The wheel is still fundamental to modern life
because it is
A. only found in ancient machines.
B. not used in transportation anymore.
C. essential in many modern objects.
D. only used for pottery.
Read the passage below and then answer questions 17 to 20.

Four students, Aisha, Ben, Carol, and Dan, decided to form a reading club.
Aisha likes reading adventure stories and historical fiction. Ben enjoys
historical fiction and science fiction. Carol prefers mystery novels and
adventure stories. Dan likes science fiction, but not adventure stories.

17. Who enjoys reading adventure stories and historical fiction?


A. Aisha B. Ben C. Carol D. Dan
18. Which genre of books is liked by most students?
A. Mystery novels B. Science fiction C. Historical fiction D.
Adventure stories
19. Who likes science fiction but not adventure stories?
A. Aisha B. Ben C. Carol D. Dan
20. All the students like historical fiction except
A. Aisha. B. Ben. C. Carol. D. Dan.

Read the following telephone conversation between a customer, Mr. Kimani, and a shop
assistant, Jane. It contains blank spaces numbered 21 to 23. For each blank space, select
the best alternative from the choices given.

Mr. Kimani: Good morning, I'm calling about the toaster I bought last week.
Jane: Good morning, Sir. 21__________. How can I help you?
Mr. Kimani: It's not heating properly. I think it might be faulty.
Jane: Oh, I'm sorry to hear that. 22____________. Do you have the receipt
with you?
Mr. Kimani: Yes, I do.
Jane: Great. 23_______. We can either replace it or offer a refund.
Mr. Kimani: Thank you. I'll be there this afternoon.

21. A. Can I help you?


B. How are you?
C. Thank you for calling our shop.
D. Welcome to our shop.
22. A. What do you want to do?
B. I'm afraid we can't help you.
C. Can you bring it back to the shop?
D. Are you sure it's broken?
23. A. You can come and buy another one.
B. Please come to the shop with the toaster and receipt.
C. We don't deal with faulty items.
D. It will be replaced for you.

For questions 24 and 25, select the alternative that best describes what you would say in
each of the situations presented.

24. You accidentally bump into someone in the corridor. What should you say?
A. "Get out of my way." B. "Watch where you are going." C. "I am sorry." D. "It
was your fault."
25. Your friend has just won an award for being the best artist in school. What will you say
to congratulate them? A. "You were lucky to win." B.
"I knew you would win." C. "That's fantastic!
Congratulations!" D. "Can you teach me how to draw?"
Read the passage below. It contains blank spaces numbered 26 to 35. For each blank space,
choose the best alternative.

Reading stories aloud to children is a truly wonderful and enriching


activity. It's not just a way to 26 time, but a powerful tool for
their development. When we read to children, we introduce them to a
world of words, expanding their 27 and improving their language
skills. They learn new vocabulary and how sentences are structured,
which is a great 28 for future reading and writing.

Beyond language, reading aloud stimulates a child's imagination. As


they listen, they create mental images of the characters, settings,
and events, fostering creativity. It also helps to develop their
attention span and listening skills, which are crucial for learning in
school. Storytelling can also be a way to teach children about
different cultures, emotions, and life lessons, helping them to 29
empathy and understanding.

Furthermore, reading together creates a special bond between the child


and the reader. It's a quiet, shared moment that builds a sense of
closeness and security. Children often look 30 to these reading times,
making it a positive and enjoyable experience. So, whether it's before
bed or during a quiet afternoon, picking 31 a book and reading aloud
is one of the most valuable gifts you can 32 to a child. It helps them
to 33, learn, and imagine, setting them on a path 34 lifelong
discovery and a love for reading. It is indeed a 35 habit to
encourage.

26. A. waste B. pass C. spend D. enjoy


27. A. toys B. minds C. world D. horizons
28. A. preparation B. challenge C. problem D. gift
29. A. lose B. forget C. develop D. avoid
30. A. at B. after C. up D. forward
31. A. down B. up C. off D. out
32. A. give B. sell C. keep D. hide
33. A. sleep B. laugh C. grow D. play
34. A. on B. for C. with D. into
35. A. bad B. good C. boring D. difficult

For questions 36 to 45, select the alternative that best completes the sentence.

36. A group of musicians is called a ___________.


A. crew B. band C. crowd D. team
37. We saw a ___________ of lions resting under the tree.
A. pack B. pride C. flock D. herd
38. The cupboard was empty; ___________ was inside.
A. something B. everything C. nothing D. anything
39. I looked for my keys ___________ but couldn't find them.
A. nowhere B. everywhere C. somewhere D.
anywhere
40. She excels ___________ mathematics and science.
A. on B. in C. with D. about
41. They are going to the market, ___________?
A. are they B. aren't they C. did they D.
don't they
42. He hardly ever smiles, ___________?
A. does he B. doesn't he C. did he D. didn't he
43. ___________ she had enough money, she decided not to buy the expensive dress.
A. Although B. Because C. Since D. Unless
44. Each of the students ___________ a chance to present their project.
A. were given B. are given C. was given D. give
45. "This house is not ours. It is ___________," said my mother.
A. their B. them C. theirs D. he

46. Which one of the following sentences is correctly punctuated?


A. My favourite colours are red blue and green.
B. My favourite colours are red, blue, and green.
C. My favourite colours are red; blue; and green.
D. My favourite colours are red. blue. and green.
47. Which one of the following alternatives means the same as the underlined sentence?
The strong wind blew down the old tree.
A. The old tree was blown down by the strong wind.
B. The old tree is blown down by the strong wind.
C. The old tree will be blown down by the strong wind.
D. The old tree was being blown down by the strong wind.
48. Choose the alternative that correctly combines the following sentences.
It rained heavily. The football match was cancelled.
A. It rained heavily but the football match was cancelled.
B. It rained heavily so the football match was cancelled.
C. It rained heavily or the football match was cancelled.
D. It rained heavily and the football match was cancelled.

For questions 49 and 50, choose the alternative that means the same as the underlined.

49. We need to call off the meeting due to unforeseen circumstances.


A. arrange
B. postpone
C. cancel
D. attend
50. She always tries to put her best foot forward in everything she does.
A. walk quickly
B. make a good impression
C. wear her best shoes
D. stumble often

THIS IS THE LAST PRINTED PAGE.


Candidate’s Name Assessment Number
School Name School Code
Candidate’s Signature Date

KJSEA 2025 SUPER PREDICTION


901/2: ENGLISH (Composition and Literary Analysis)

Time: 1 hour 50 minutes

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

1. Write your name and assessment number in the spaces provided.


2. Write the name and code of your school in the spaces provided.
3. Write the date of the assessment and sign in the spaces provided.
-ENGLISH-

4. This question paper consists of two sections: A and B.


5. Answer ALL questions in this paper.
6. Write ALL the answers in the spaces provided in this question paper.
7. DO NOT remove any page from this question paper.
8. Answer the questions in English.

For official use only

Task 1 Task 2 Task 3 Task 4 Task 5


Question Question 1 Question 2 Question 3 Question 4 Question 5
Maximum Score 15 10 5 10 10
Candidate’s Score

This paper consists of 7 printed pages. Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are
printed as indicated and that no questions are missing.

© 2025 The Kenya Junior School Examinations and Assessment Series. Turn over
SECTION A: COMPOSITION (15 MARKS)

TASK 1: COMPOSITION

1. Write your composition in the spaces provided.

Imagine you are the class secretary. Write a notice inviting your classmates to a clean-up day organized by the school.
Include the date, time, venue, purpose, and what they should carry.

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SECTION B: LITERARY ANALYSIS (35 MARKS)


Answer ALL questions in this section.

TASK 2: ORAL LITERATURE

2. Read the story below and then answer the questions that follow. (10 marks)

Long, long ago, in a land where the sun kissed the plains, there lived a proud Lion and a clever Jackal.
Lion, the king of the jungle, ruled with a loud roar and immense power, often taking whatever he
wanted. Jackal, small but cunning, always had a trick up his sleeve.

One dry season, food became scarce. Lion grew weak and hungry. Jackal, seeing his chance,
approached Lion. "Oh, mighty King," he began, bowing low, "I know of a hidden valley, rich with
game, but it's a place only wisdom can open."

Lion, desperate for food, agreed. "Lead the way, little Jackal, and a share of the feast shall be yours!"

Jackal led Lion to a narrow cave entrance. "King, to enter this valley, one must roar their hunger to the
spirits of the land," Jackal explained. "Your roar, so magnificent, will surely open the path."

Lion, proud and eager, let out a thunderous roar. The sound echoed through the cave, causing a
rockslide that trapped him inside. Jackal, having foreseen this, quickly slipped away before the entrance
sealed completely. He then went to the other animals and warned them of Lion's hunger and the danger
he posed. The other animals, grateful, shared their food with Jackal, while Lion eventually found a way
out, humbled but much thinner. This is the end of my tale.

(a) Identify the following in this story. (2 marks)

i. Opening formula

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_______________________________________________________________________________________

ii. Closing formula

________________________________________________________________________________________

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(b) Imagine you are to tell this story to your friends. Give two ways you would make it more interesting. (2
marks)

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(c) What does Jackal say in the story that shows he is clever? (2 marks)

________________________________________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________________________________

(d) Give an example of each of the following features of style in this story.
(i) Hyperbole (1 mark)

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_______________________________________________________________________________________

(ii) Dialogue (1 mark)

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_______________________________________________________________________________________

(e) What moral lesson do we learn from this story? (2 marks)

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TASK 3: POETRY

3. Read the poem below and then answer the questions that follow. (5 marks)

The Journey of a Dream

A dream was born one silent night,


Beneath the stars, so pure and bright.
It fluttered soft on wings of air,
A whisper bold, a hope laid bare.

It drifted past the hills and trees,


Carried gently by the breeze.
Through city streets and fields of green,
It searched for places never seen.

It knocked on windows fast asleep,


Where secrets lie and wishes keep.
It danced through minds both young and old,
A silent story yet untold.

It found a child with eyes so wide,


And curled up softly by her side.
It showed her skies she’d never flown,
And lands where courage stands alone.

She saw a mountain tall and steep,


A place that called her from her sleep.
The dream said, “Climb, and you shall see,
The strength you hold inside of thee.”

Through storm and wind, she made her way,


With heart that would not break or sway.
Though paths were hard and nights were long,
Her dream kept singing loud and strong.
At last she reached the mountain’s crest,
And stood with pride and beating chest.
The dream beside her softly said,
“You found the light within your head.”

The stars then danced around her feet,


The wind and sky began to meet.
The dream took flight into the blue,
To seek another heart that’s true.

For dreams, you see, are never still—


They move with hope and stubborn will.
They bloom where faith and effort grow,
And shine in hearts that dare to go.

So if a dream knocks at your door,


Don’t turn away or ask for more.
Hold tight its hand, begin the climb—
For dreams arrive in perfect time.

(a) How many stanzas are in this poem? (1 mark)

________________________________________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________________________________

(b) Identify two examples of personification in the poem. (2 marks)

________________________________________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________________________________

(c) What does the poem suggest about the wind's role in nature? (2 marks)

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TASK 4: DRAMA

4. Read the section of a play below and then answer the questions that follow. (10 marks)

Act Three

Scene Two

A dimly lit community hall. CHAIRPERSON MWIKALI is at the podium, looking weary. SEVERAL
VILLAGERS are scattered in the seats, some murmuring, others looking frustrated. A young woman, RAHMA,
stands up.

RAHMA: Chairperson, we’ve been discussing the water shortage for hours. We need action, not just words!
Our crops are dying, and our children are thirsty.
CHAIRPERSON MWIKALI: (Raises a hand, trying to calm the crowd) I understand your frustration,
Rahma. Believe me, I do. We have tried everything. The well has run dry, and the nearest river is miles away.

VILLAGER 1: (Shouts) But what about the government funds? What happened to the project to dig a new
borehole?

CHAIRPERSON MWIKALI: (Sighs) The funds were delayed, and the drilling equipment broke down. We
are doing our best, but resources are scarce.

RAHMA: (Steps forward confidently) Perhaps we don't need to wait for outside help. My grandmother always
spoke of an ancient underground spring, hidden near the old baobab tree. It’s hard to find, but it never dries up.

VILLAGER 2: (Scoffs) An old legend! We need real solutions, Rahma!

RAHMA: (Firmly) Sometimes, ancient wisdom holds the real solutions. If we work together, with our own
hands and knowledge, we can find it. Who is with me? (Slowly, some villagers look at each other, then begin to
nod in agreement.)

(a) Where do the events in this scene of the play take place? (2 marks)

________________________________________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________________________________

(b) What is the main problem in this scene of the play? (2 marks)

________________________________________________________________________________________

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(c) With examples, identify two character traits of Rahma. (4 marks)

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(d) What shows that the villagers are losing patience at the beginning of the scene? (2 marks)

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TASK 5: NOVELLA

5. Read the section of a novella below and then answer the questions that follow. (10 marks)

The air in the old, forgotten library was thick with the scent of aging paper and dust. Twelve-year-old
Leo pushed open a creaky wooden door, revealing shelves upon shelves of books, some crumbling,
others surprisingly well-preserved. His grandmother, a historian, had always spoken of a hidden room
here, a place of profound knowledge.

"Are you sure this is it, Grandma?" Leo whispered, his voice echoing in the vast silence. He held a dim
lantern, its light dancing on the spines of forgotten tales.
His grandmother, Mama Asha, adjusted her glasses, her eyes gleaming with anticipation. "The old
manuscripts spoke of a chamber of enlightenment, young one. A place where the past whispers its
secrets." She pointed to a faded inscription above a particularly heavy-looking book. "Only a heart open
to discovery can unlock its mysteries."

Leo touched the inscription, a strange warmth spreading through his fingers. Suddenly, a section of the
bookshelf slowly rotated inwards, revealing a narrow passage. Beyond it, a soft, ethereal glow
emanated. Leo looked at Mama Asha, his eyes wide with wonder. "It... it opened!"

Mama Asha smiled, a wise and gentle expression. "Indeed. The journey into knowledge often begins
with a single step, and an open heart. Shall we enter, Leo?" Leo nodded, his heart thumping with
excitement as they stepped into the glowing passage, ready to uncover the library's deepest secrets.

(a) What is the setting of the story? (2 marks)

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(b) Describe two character traits of Mama Asha. (4 marks)

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(c) Apart from Leo, name two other characters in this story. (2 marks)

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(d) What suggests that the hidden room is not easily accessible to everyone? (2 marks)

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THIS IS THE LAST PRINTED PAGE.


Candidate’s Name Assessment Number
School Name School Code
Candidate’s Signature Date

KJSEA 2025 SUPER PREDICTION


905/1: INTEGRATED SCIENCE (Theory)

Time: 1 hour 50 minutes

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
-INTEGRATED SCIENCE-

1. Write your name and assessment number in the spaces provided above.
2. Write the name and code of your school in the spaces provided above.
3. Sign and write the date of the assessment in the spaces provided above.
4. This paper consists of two sections: A and B.
5. Section A comprises Multiple Choice Questions numbered 1 to 30.
6. Section B comprises short, structured questions number 31 to 40.
7. Answer ALL the questions in section A on the separate ANSWER SHEET provided.
8. Answer ALL the questions in section B in the spaces provided in this QUESTION PAPER.
9. Do NOT remove any page from this question paper.
10. Answer ALL the questions in English.

For official use only

Task Question Score per Question Maximum Score Candidate’s Score per Task
31 03 03
32 03 03
33 04 04
34 06 06
35 06 06
36 05 05
37 03 03
38 02 02
39 05 05
40 03 03
TOTAL 40

This paper consists of 9 printed pages. Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all
the pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing.
SECTION A (30 marks)

Answer ALL the questions in this section.

1. A group of learners is studying how to recycle 6. During a science fair, a student demonstrates that
waste materials. They learn about the biological when purple cabbage juice is added to a solution, it
decomposition of organic waste (Biology), the turns green. This indicates that the solution is:
chemical processes involved in breaking down A. Acidic.
plastics (Chemistry), and the mechanical sorting of B. Neutral.
different materials (Physics). This approach C. Basic.
exemplifies the interdisciplinary nature of: D. A solid.
A. Pure science. 7. A group of teenagers noticed that their voices were
B. Integrated Science. changing, and some were experiencing increased
C. Social studies. oiliness of the skin leading to acne. These are
D. Environmental art. common physical changes associated with:
2. When a local community faces a problem like A. Childhood.
water pollution, they need to understand the source B. Adulthood.
of pollutants (Chemistry), their effect on aquatic C. Adolescence.
life (Biology), and how to build filtration systems D. Infancy.
(Physics). This scenario highlights the importance 8. A technician is troubleshooting a faulty electrical
of Integrated Science in: appliance. He finds that the circuit is incomplete,
A. Specializing in one field. preventing the flow of current. This is referred to
B. Solving complex real-world issues. as an:
C. Developing abstract theories. A. Closed circuit.
D. Conducting isolated experiments. B. Short circuit.
3. While working in the laboratory, a student handled C. Open circuit.
an apparatus known as conical flask.which one of D. Parallel circuit.
the following is a conical flask? 9. When installing a new light bulb, a person ensures
their hands are dry and they are standing on a dry
surface. This precaution helps prevent which
electrical hazard?
A. Overheating of the bulb.
B. Short circuit.
C. Electric shock.
D. Power outage.
10. A child's toy car uses small magnets to hold its
parts together. This is an application of the
A B C D property of magnets to:
A. Generate heat.
4. A tailor is measuring the length of fabric to cut a B. Attract specific materials.
dress. Which SI unit is most appropriate for this C. Conduct electricity.
measurement? D. Produce light.
A. Kilogram 11. A student is learning about the element commonly
B. Second known as the "building block of life" and the basis
C. Metre of organic chemistry, with the symbol 'C'. Which
D. Litre element is it?
5. A gardener has a mixture of small stones and dry A. Calcium
leaves in his compost pile. Which method would B. Carbon
be best to separate the stones from the leaves? C. Cobalt
A. Evaporation D. Copper
B. Decantation
C. Sieving
D. Filtration
12. On a cold morning, dew drops form on grass, 20. When a student accidentally pricks their finger
which then disappear as the sun warms up. The with a pin, they quickly withdraw their hand. This
process of the liquid dew turning into a gas is rapid, involuntary action is known as a:
called: A. Voluntary response.
A. Condensation. B. Freezing. B. Reflex action.
C. Melting. D. Evaporation. C. Conditioned response.
13. A chef prepares a salad by cutting vegetables into D. Conscious decision.
smaller pieces. This action changes the appearance 21. A patient suffering from excessive accumulation of
of the vegetables but does not create new waste products in their blood is diagnosed with
substances. This is an example of a: kidney failure. This condition highlights the
A. Chemical change. B. Irreversible change. critical role of the kidneys in the human:
C. Physical change. D. Permanent change. A. Digestive system.
14. During a fire safety drill, the fire marshal explains B. Respiratory system.
that removing any one component of the fire C. Excretory system.
triangle will extinguish a fire. To put out a small D. Circulatory system.
fire, spraying carbon dioxide aims to remove: 22. A rural community is considering different energy
A. Fuel. B. Heat. C. Oxygen. D. Ignition source. sources for their homes. They decide to install a
15. A doctor explains that excessive sugar intake can small turbine in a nearby river to generate
draw water out of body cells, leading to electricity. This is an example of using which type
dehydration. This movement of water across cell of energy source?
membranes is primarily due to: A. Non-renewable.
A. Diffusion. B. Fossil fuel.
B. Active transport. C. Hydroelectric.
C. Osmosis. D. Geothermal.
D. Phagocytosis. 23. A teenage boy expresses frustration over his
16. While observing a prepared slide, a student notices changing voice and the growth of facial hair. These
a cell containing a nucleus, cytoplasm, and a cell are normal biological changes that occur during:
membrane, but no cell wall or chloroplasts. This A. Childhood.
cell is most likely a(n): B. Adolescence.
A. Plant cell. B. Animal cell. C. Early adulthood.
C. Fungal cell. D. Bacterial cell. D. Infancy.
17. A jeweller uses a powerful magnifying glass to 24. A public health officer warns against sharing
inspect intricate details on tiny gemstones. This personal items like razors and toothbrushes as this
tool works on the same principle as the lenses in a: can contribute to the spread of certain infections.
A. Telescope. Some of these infections can also be sexually
B. Microscope. transmitted, known as:
C. Camera. A. Viral colds.
D. Binoculars. B. Foodborne diseases.
18. To prepare a temporary slide of a plant tissue, after C. Sexually Transmitted Infections (STIs).
placing the specimen and adding a drop of water, D. Skin allergies.
the next crucial step is to carefully place a: 25. A student is instructed to use a Bunsen burner to
A. Lens paper on top. gently warm a liquid. To obtain a luminous, yellow
B. Coverslip over the specimen. flame suitable for gentle heating, which part of the
C. Piece of blotting paper. Bunsen burner should be adjusted?
D. Hot plate under the slide. A. The gas tap.
19. A worker in a scrapyard uses a large electromagnet B. The air hole should be closed.
to lift and move scrap metal. This demonstrates the C. The barrel should be shortened.
ability of a magnet to: D. The base should be rotated.
A. Repel all metals.
B. Generate sound.
C. Attract only non-magnetic materials.
D. Exert a force on magnetic materials.
26. A scientist wants to measure the mass of a 28. A gardener notices that plant roots absorb water
chemical compound very accurately. Which SI unit from the soil. This movement of water into the
is most appropriate for this measurement? plant cells, against a concentration gradient, is a
A. Litre vital process involving:
B. Metre A. Evaporation.
C. Second B. Photosynthesis.
D. Gram C. Diffusion.
27. A student draws a diagram of a typical plant cell, D. Osmosis.
including a rigid outer layer that provides 29. A science teacher demonstrates that when a solid
structural support and protection to the cell. This block of ice is heated, it first turns into liquid
specific part is the: water, and upon further heating, it turns into steam
A. Cell membrane. (a gas). This demonstrates the different:
B. Cytoplasm. A. Chemical compositions.
C. Nucleus. B. States of matter.
D. Cell wall. C. Atomic structures.
D. Magnetic properties.

30. During a science trip, a student accidentally gets a splinter in their finger. What should be the
immediate first aid action?
A. Try to squeeze it out forcefully.
B. Leave it to come out on its own.
C. Wash the area and gently remove with sterile tweezers.
D. Cover it with a plaster without cleaning

SECTION B: (40 Marks)

Answer all questions.

31. (a) A farmer observes that the soil in his garden is too acidic, affecting plant growth. He decides to apply lime
to the soil.
(i) What is the chemical nature of lime (acid, base, or neutral)? (1 mark)

_______________________________________________________________________________________________

(ii) Explain how applying lime helps improve the soil for plant growth. (1 mark)

________________________________________________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________________________________________

(b) During a titration experiment, a student uses phenolphthalein indicator. Describe the color change
observed when phenolphthalein is added to an acidic solution. (1 mark)

_______________________________________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________________________________
32. (a) A young couple is discussing family planning. They are learning about the male reproductive system. (i)

Name the tube that transports sperm from the epididymis to the ejaculatory duct. (1 mark)

_____________________________________________________________________________________________

(ii) State one major challenge faced by adolescents during puberty related to emotional changes. (1 mark)

____________________________________________________________________________________________

(b) Explain one way good personal hygiene can help manage challenges during adolescence. (1 mark)

____________________________________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________________________________

33. (a) A patient experiences swelling in their ankles and feet, and their doctor suspects a problem with their
kidneys.

(i) Name the main excretory product filtered by the kidneys from the blood. (1 mark)

____________________________________________________________________________________________

(ii) Besides swelling, state one other common symptom of kidney disorders. (1 mark)

____________________________________________________________________________________________

(b) Explain the function of the glomerulus in the human kidney. (2 marks)

____________________________________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________________________________

34. (a) A student is setting up a circuit to light a bulb using a battery and wires.
(i) Name the form of energy stored in the battery. (1 mark)

_________________________________________________________________________________________
(ii) Draw a simple circuit diagram showing a battery, a switch, and a light bulb connected in series. (2 marks)

(b) Mr. Otieno is using an electric kettle to boil water.


(i) State one common electrical appliance used for heating. (1 mark)

_____________________________________________________________________________________________

(ii) Explain why the inner surface of an electric kettle often becomes coated with limescale in areas with hard
water. (2 marks)

_______________________________________________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________________________________________

35. (a) A child is playing with toy cars that have small magnets embedded in their wheels.
(i) Name two materials that are strongly attracted by a magnet. (2 marks)

________________________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________________________

(ii) State one common property of magnets. (1 mark)

_______________________________________________________________________________________________

(b) Describe one application of magnets in everyday life, other than in toys or scrapyards. (1 mark)

_______________________________________________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________________________________________
(c) Explain the difference between a temporary magnet and a permanent magnet. (2 marks)

_______________________________________________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________________________________________

36. (a) A scientist is observing a sample of pure water at room temperature.


(i) Describe the arrangement and movement of water molecules according to the Kinetic Theory of Matter. (2
marks)

_______________________________________________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________________________

(ii) What effect would adding salt have on the boiling point of water? (1 mark)

_____________________________________________________________________________________________

(b) During a school cooking lesson, a student bakes bread.


(i) Is the process of baking bread a physical or chemical change? (1 mark)

_______________________________________________________________________________________________

(ii) Give a reason for your answer in (b) (i). (1 mark)

_______________________________________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________________________________

37. (a) A small electrical fire starts in a laboratory.

38. (i) Which class of fire does this belong to? (1 mark)

______________________________________________________________________________________________

(ii) Name one appropriate fire extinguisher that should be used for this type of fire. (1 mark)

______________________________________________________________________________________________
(b) Why is it important to ensure proper ventilation when dealing with fire, especially indoors? (1 mark)

_______________________________________________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________________________________________

39. Mr. Kimani is a teacher who uses a microscope to show his students various cells.

(a) Name one major component of the microscope that magnifies the image of the specimen. (1 mark)

__________________________________________________________________________________________

(b) Why is it important to clean microscope lenses only with lens paper? (1 mark)

__________________________________________________________________________________________

40. (a) A gardener notices that water moves from the soil into the roots of a plant. This process is primarily driven
by:
(i) What is the term for the movement of water across a semi-permeable membrane from a region of higher
water concentration to a region of lower water concentration? (1 mark)

_________________________________________________________________________________________

(ii) Describe the role of the cell wall in a plant cell during this process. (2 marks)

_______________________________________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________________________________

(b) A health professional advises a pregnant woman that adequate iron intake is crucial for both her and the
developing foetus.
(i) Name the female reproductive organ where fertilization typically occurs. (1 mark)

______________________________________________________________________________________________

(ii) State one challenge a woman might face during menstruation. (1 mark)

_______________________________________________________________________________________________
41. (a) A factory is upgrading its energy system and considers installing geothermal power.
(i) Is geothermal energy a renewable or non-renewable energy source? (1 mark)

________________________________________________________________________________________________

(ii) State one safety precaution to take when dealing with electrical energy in the home. (1 mark)

________________________________________________________________________________________________

(b) Explain why an uninflated balloon placed in a freezer will appear to shrink. (1 mark)

_______________________________________________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________________________________________

THIS IS THE LAST PRINTED PAGE.


Candidate’s Name Assessment Number
School Name School Code
Candidate’s Signature Date

KJSEA 2025 SUPER PREDICTION

905/2 INTEGRATED SCIENCE (Practical)

PAPER 2

TIME: 1 hour 30 minutes


-INTEGRATED SCIENCE-

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

1. Write your name and assessment number in the spaces provided above.
2. Write the name and code of your school in the spaces provided above.
3. Sign and write the date of the assessment in the spaces provided above.
4. This paper consists of 2 questions.
5. Answer BOTH questions in the spaces provided on this QUESTION PAPER.
6. Do NOT remove any page from this question paper.
7. Answer the questions in English.

For official use only

Task Question Maximum Score Candidate’s Score


Task 1 1 20
Task 2 2 10
Total 30
QUESTION ONE (20 Marks)

You are provided with:

a) Two (2) 250 ml beakers labelled 'Hot Water' and 'Cold Water'.
b) Hot water (already heated).
c) Cold water (at room temperature).
d) Potassium permanganate crystals (or dark food colouring).
e) A small spoon or spatula.
f) A stopwatch or timer.

Procedure:

a) Carefully fill the beaker labelled 'Cold Water' with cold water (approximately 200 ml). Gently place one small
crystal of potassium permanganate at the bottom of the beaker without stirring. Observe the initial appearance and
what happens immediately. (2 marks)

___________________________________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________________________________

b) Carefully fill the beaker labelled 'Hot Water' with hot water (approximately 200 ml). Gently place one small crystal
of potassium permanganate at the bottom of the beaker without stirring. Observe the initial appearance and what
happens immediately. (2 marks)

___________________________________________________________________________________________

__________________________________________________________________________________________

c) Continue observing both beakers for 5 minutes. Record your observations in the table below, noting the extent of
colour spread at different times and how quickly the colour spreads in each. (6 marks)

Time (minutes) Observation in Cold Water beaker Observation in Hot Water beaker
Initial
1 minute
3 minutes
5 minutes

d) Based on your observations in (c), which beaker shows a faster rate of diffusion? Explain why, relating your
answer to particle theory and temperature. (2 marks)

Faster rate in:

______________________________.

Explanation:

___________________________________________________________________________________________

__________________________________________________________________________________________
e) Besides temperature, name two other factors that can affect the rate of diffusion. (2 marks)
(i) _________________________________________________________________________

(ii) _________________________________________________________________________

f) State two safety precautions you took during this practical, considering the materials used. (3 marks)

(i) _________________________________________________________________________

(ii) _________________________________________________________________________

(iii) _________________________________________________________________________

g) Name three laboratory instruments necessary for this practical. (3 marks)

(i) _________________________________________________________________________

(ii) _________________________________________________________________________

(iii) _________________________________________________________________________

QUESTION TWO (10 Marks)

You are provided with:

a) Two (2) unlabeled curved mirrors (Mirror X and Mirror Y).


b) A small illuminated object (e.g., a lit candle or a small LED light source).
c) A white screen (e.g., a piece of cardboard).
d) A ruler.

Procedure:

a) By observing the reflection of your face or a distant object, identify the type of each mirror.

(i) Mirror X : _________________________ (1 mark)

(ii) Mirror Y: _________________________ (1 mark)

b) Using Mirror X , place the illuminated object at a distance from the mirror where a clear, sharp image can be formed
on the white screen. (Ensure the object is beyond the focal point). Describe the characteristics of the image formed on
the screen. (3 marks)

i. Nature of image: ______________________________________________________________.

ii. Size of image: ________________________________________________________________.

iii. Orientation of image : __________________________________________________________.


c) Now, use Mirror Y. Place the illuminated object at a distance of about 10 cm from the mirror. Observe the image
formed directly in the mirror. Describe the characteristics of the image observed. (3 marks)

Nature of image: ____________________________________________________________________.

Size of image: _____________________________________________________________________.

Orientation of image: _______________________________________________________________.

d) State one common everyday application for each type of mirror.

(i) Application of Mirror X:

____________________________________________________________________________________ (1 mark)

(ii) Application of Mirror Y:

____________________________________________________________________________________ (1 mark)

THIS IS THE LAST PRINTED PAGE.


Candidate’s Name Assessment Number
School Name School Code
Candidate’s Signature Date

KJSEA 2025 SUPER PREDICTION


909: ISLAMIC RELIGIOUS EDUCATION (Theory)
Time: 1 hour 40 minutes
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
-ISLAMIC RELIGIOUS EDUCATION-

1. Write your name and assessment number in the spaces provided above.

2. Write the name and code of your school in the spaces provided above.

3. Sign and write the date of the assessment in the spaces provided above.
4. This paper consists of two sections: A and B.
5. Section A comprises Multiple Choice Questions numbered 1 to 20.
6. Section B comprises short, structured questions number 21 to 28.

7. Answer ALL the questions in section A on the separate ANSWER SHEET provided.

8. Answer ALL the questions in section B in the spaces provided in this QUESTION PAPER.
9. Do NOT remove any page from this question paper.
10. Answer ALL the questions in English. Standard Islamic terms may be used.

For official use only

SECTION B

Question No. Q19 Q20 Q21 Q22 Q23 Q24 Q25 Q26 Q27 Q28 Total Section B
(a) Max Marks 4 5 6 4 6 6 6 5 5 6 80
(a) Score
(b) Max Marks 6 4 4 6 4 4 4 5 5 4
(b) Score
(c) Max Marks N/A 3 N/A N/A N/A N/A N/A N/A N/A N/A
(c) Score
Question Total 10 12 10 10 10 10 10 10 10 10 $/80
Section A: (20 marks)

Answer all questions.

1. A Muslim student finds a lost wallet and returns it 12. The act of giving to the needy voluntarily is known
to the owner. This action demonstrates: as:
A. Greed B. Honesty A. Zakat
C. Jealousy D. Pride B. Sadaqah
2. Which of the following is one of the Five Pillars of C. Kaffarah
Islam? D. Fidyah
A. Sadaqah B. Hajj 13. A student who avoids cheating in exams due to
C. Hijrah D. Jihad fear of Allah is exhibiting:
3. During Ramadan, Muslims are required to: A. Taqwa
A. Perform Hajj B. Kufr
B. Fast from dawn to sunset C. Nifaq
C. Pay Zakat al-Fitr only D. Riyaa
D. Recite the entire Qur’an daily 14. The Islamic month in which Muslims fast is:
4. The first revelation to Prophet Muhammad (SAW) A. Shawwal
occurred in the cave of: B. Dhul-Hijjah
A. Hira B. Thawr C. Ramadhan
C. Uhud D. Badr D. Muharram
5. A Muslim who performs all five daily prayers is 15. The declaration of faith in Islam is known as:
practicing: A. Salat
A. Sawm B. Zakat C. Salah D. Hajj B. Shahada
6. The Qur’an was revealed over a period of: C. Zakat
A. 10 years B. 15 years D. Sawm
C. 23 years D. 30 years 16. A Muslim who treats all classmates equally
7. Which Prophet is known for building the Ark? regardless of their background is practicing:
A. Prophet Ibrahim (AS) A. Justice
B. Prophet Musa (AS) B. Bias
C. Prophet Nuh (AS) C. Prejudice
D. Prophet Isa (AS) D. Discrimination
8. A Muslim student helps a classmate understand a 17. The Angel responsible for bringing revelations to
difficult topic. This behavior reflects the Islamic the Prophets is:
value of: A. Mikail B. Israfil C. Jibril D. Azrael
A. Arrogance B. Compassion 18. A Muslim who believes that all events are
C. Envy D. Pride predestined by Allah believes in:
9. The night journey and ascension of Prophet A. Tawheed B. Qadar C. Nubuwwah D. Akhirah
Muhammad (SAW) is referred to as:
A. Hijrah B. Isra and Mi’raj 19. A Muslim is expected to visit Makkah at least once
C. Badr D. Uhud in a lifetime if they are able. This pillar of Islam is
10. Performing ablution before prayer emphasizes the called:
importance of: A. Zakat B. Hajj C. Sawm D. Shahada
A. Generosity B. Cleanliness 20. The prayer performed on Fridays in congregation
C. Patience D. Knowledge at the mosque is called:
11. A Muslim who believes in all the Prophets is A. Tahajjud
demonstrating belief in: B. Tarawih
A. Tawheed C. Jumu’ah
B. Akhirah D. Sunnah
C. Risalah
D. Qadar
Section B: (80 marks)

Answer all questions. Each question carries varying marks as indicated.

21. A student named Amina finds that a fellow classmate is being bullied for not observing Islamic dress code
strictly.
a) Explain two Islamic teachings that encourage Muslims to treat others with respect and kindness. (4 marks)

__________________________________________________________________________________.

__________________________________________________________________________________.

__________________________________________________________________________________.

b) Suggest three ways Amina can help her classmate in line with Islamic values. (6 marks)
__________________________________________________________________________________.

__________________________________________________________________________________.

__________________________________________________________________________________.

__________________________________________________________________________________.

__________________________________________________________________________________.

__________________________________________________________________________________.

22. During the holy month of Ramadan, a school organizes a program to educate students about the importance of
fasting.
a) Describe the spiritual benefits of fasting during Ramadan. (5 marks)

__________________________________________________________________________________.

__________________________________________________________________________________.

__________________________________________________________________________________.

__________________________________________________________________________________.

__________________________________________________________________________________.

__________________________________________________________________________________.
b) Explain two conditions under which a Muslim is exempted from fasting. (4 marks)

__________________________________________________________________________________.

__________________________________________________________________________________.

__________________________________________________________________________________.

__________________________________________________________________________________.
c) Discuss the importance of Zakat al-Fitr at the end of Ramadan. (3 marks)

__________________________________________________________________________________.

__________________________________________________________________________________.

__________________________________________________________________________________.

23. Yusuf wants to learn about the life of Prophet Muhammad (SAW) to be a better Muslim.
a) Outline three qualities of Prophet Muhammad (SAW) that all Muslims should emulate. (6 marks)

__________________________________________________________________________________.

__________________________________________________________________________________.

__________________________________________________________________________________.

__________________________________________________________________________________.

__________________________________________________________________________________.

__________________________________________________________________________________.

b) Explain how learning about the Prophet’s life can help a student in daily life. (4 marks)

__________________________________________________________________________________.

__________________________________________________________________________________.

__________________________________________________________________________________.

__________________________________________________________________________________.

__________________________________________________________________________________.

__________________________________________________________________________________.

24. A classmate named Ali regularly prays five times a day but sometimes finds it hard to stay focused.
a) What advice would you give Ali to improve his concentration during prayer? (4 marks)

__________________________________________________________________________________.

__________________________________________________________________________________.

__________________________________________________________________________________.

__________________________________________________________________________________.

b) Highlight the significance of Salah in a Muslim’s life. (6 marks)

__________________________________________________________________________________.

__________________________________________________________________________________.
__________________________________________________________________________________.

__________________________________________________________________________________.

__________________________________________________________________________________.

__________________________________________________________________________________.

25. Fatima’s community is planning to build a mosque and wants everyone to contribute.
a) Define Zakat and Sadaqah, highlighting their differences. (6 marks)

__________________________________________________________________________________.

__________________________________________________________________________________.

__________________________________________________________________________________.

__________________________________________________________________________________.

b) Explain why giving charity is important in Islam. (4 marks)

__________________________________________________________________________________.

__________________________________________________________________________________.

__________________________________________________________________________________.

__________________________________________________________________________________.

26. During a social studies lesson, a teacher explains the concept of Tawheed (Oneness of Allah).
a) Describe the three aspects of Tawheed. (6 marks)

__________________________________________________________________________________.

__________________________________________________________________________________.

__________________________________________________________________________________.

__________________________________________________________________________________.

b) How does believing in Tawheed affect a Muslim’s behavior? (4 marks)

__________________________________________________________________________________.

__________________________________________________________________________________.

__________________________________________________________________________________.

__________________________________________________________________________________.

27. A group of students is debating the importance of Islamic festivals.


a) Identify two major Islamic festivals and explain their significance. (6 marks)
__________________________________________________________________________________.

__________________________________________________________________________________.

__________________________________________________________________________________.

__________________________________________________________________________________.

b) Discuss how celebrating these festivals can strengthen community bonds. (4 marks)

__________________________________________________________________________________.

__________________________________________________________________________________.

__________________________________________________________________________________.

__________________________________________________________________________________.

28. Amina’s school organizes a quiz about Islamic morals and ethics.
a) Explain what is meant by Taqwa and how a Muslim can develop it. (5 marks)

__________________________________________________________________________________.

__________________________________________________________________________________.

__________________________________________________________________________________.

__________________________________________________________________________________.

b) Give three examples of behaviors that demonstrate Taqwa. (5 marks)


__________________________________________________________________________________.

__________________________________________________________________________________.

__________________________________________________________________________________.

__________________________________________________________________________________.

29. Ibrahim’s family encourages him to be truthful in all circumstances.


a) Using examples, explain the importance of honesty in Islam. (5 marks)
__________________________________________________________________________________.

__________________________________________________________________________________.

__________________________________________________________________________________.

__________________________________________________________________________________.
b) Describe two consequences of dishonesty according to Islamic teachings. (5 marks)
__________________________________________________________________________________.

__________________________________________________________________________________.

__________________________________________________________________________________.

__________________________________________________________________________________.

30. A student notices that some classmates discriminate against others based on tribe or social status.
a) Discuss how Islam views discrimination and tribalism. (6 marks)
__________________________________________________________________________________.

__________________________________________________________________________________.

__________________________________________________________________________________.

__________________________________________________________________________________.

b) Suggest three ways to promote unity and equality among students in school. (4 marks)
__________________________________________________________________________________.

__________________________________________________________________________________.

__________________________________________________________________________________.

__________________________________________________________________________________.

THIS IS THELAST PRINTED PAGE.


Jina Ya Mtahiniwa Nambari Ya Mtihani
Jina Ya Shule Namba Ya Shule
Saini Ya Mtahiniwa Tarehe

KJSEA 2025 SUPER PREDICTION


TATHMINI YA ELIMU YA SHULE YA JUNIOR KENYA

902/1: KISWAHILI LUGHA

Karatasi ya 1

Muda: Saa 1 dakika 40

MAAGIZO KWA WATAHINIWA


-KISWAHILI-

1. Umepewa kijitabu hiki na karatasi ya majibu. Kijitabu hiki kina maswali 50.
2. Jibu maswali yote kwenye karatasi ya majibu uliyopewa kujibia maswali na wala sio katika kijitabu
hiki.

JINSI YA KUTUMIA KARATASI YA MAJIBU

3. Tumia penseli ya kawaida, aina ya HB.


4. Hakikisha kuwa karatasi ya majibu uliyopewa ina:

* NAMBARI YAKO YA MTIHANI * JINA LAKO * JINA LA SHULE YAKO * JINA LA SOMO

5. Iweke safi karatasi yako ya majibu na usiikunje. 6. Kwa kila swali, 1 – 50 umepewa majibu manne,
A, B, C, D. Chagua jibu sahihi. 7. Kwenye karatasi ya majibu, onyesha jibu sahihi kwa kuchora kistari
katika kisanduku chenye herufi uliyochagua kuwa jibu sahihi.

Mfano: Katika kijitabu cha maswali:

6. Orodha ifuatayo ni ya majina ya vitu vinavyopatikana katika mazingira yako. Ni jibu lipi lenye vitu
vinavyotajwa na nomino za ngeli ya I-ZI? A. kucha, sahani B. kuta, ngoma C. nyuta, kamba D. pamba, taa

Jibu sahihi ni ‘D’.

Katika karatasi ya majibu, palipo na visanduku vinavyoonyesha majibu ya swali namba 25, chora kistari
ndani ya kisanduku chenye herufi D.

7. [A] [B] [C] [D] —


8. Chora kistari chako vizuri. Kistari chako kiwe cheusi na kisijitokeze nje ya kisanduku.
9. Kwa kila swali, chora kistari katika kisanduku kimoja tu, kati ya visanduku vinne ulivyopewa.
Soma kifungu kifuatacho kisha ujibu swali la 1 hadi la 6.

Vijana wengi siku hizi wanavutiwa na matumizi ya mitandao ya kijamii. Kuanzia asubuhi wanapoamka hadi usiku
wanapokwenda kulala, simu zao zimegandishwa mikononi. Ni jambo la kawaida kuwaona vijana wakitembea
barabarani huku wakitazama skrini za simu zao, bila kujali mazingira yao. Wengine hata huenda mbali zaidi kwa
kurekodi matukio hatari na kuyasambaza mitandaoni kwa lengo la kutafuta umaarufu.

Matumizi ya kupindukia ya mitandao hii yameleta madhara makubwa kwa jamii. Kwanza, vijana wengi wameacha
kusoma vitabu na kujishughulisha na masomo yao. Matokeo yake, viwango vya elimu vimeporomoka, na wengi
wamekosa maarifa muhimu yanayohitajika kwa maisha yao ya baadaye. Pili, uhusiano wa kifamilia umedhoofika.
Vijana wanapendelea kuzungumza na marafiki zao mtandaoni badala ya kuwasiliana na wazazi au ndugu zao. Hali
hii imepelekea mawimbi ya ukimya katika familia nyingi.

Tatu, afya ya akili ya vijana imeathirika. Wengi wanateseka kutokana na unyogovu na wasiwasi wanapojilinganisha
na maisha bandia wanayoona mtandaoni. Shinikizo la kuonyesha maisha ya kifahari na mafanikio, hata kama si ya
kweli, linawafanya vijana wengi kukosa furaha na kuridhika na hali zao. Aidha, visa vya uonevu mtandaoni, ambapo
watu huwekana chini na kutukanana, vimeongezeka, na kuwaacha wahasiriwa wengi na majeraha ya kudumu.

Hata hivyo, hatuwezi kukana kuwa mitandao ya kijamii ina manufaa yake. Inaweza kutumika kama jukwaa la
kujifunza, kutoa habari muhimu, na kuunganisha watu kutoka sehemu mbalimbali za dunia. Biashara nyingi pia
zimefanikiwa kutokana na matumizi ya mitandao hii katika kutangaza bidhaa zao.

Ni muhimu kwa wazazi, walimu, na jamii kwa ujumla kuwashauri vijana kuhusu matumizi sahihi ya mitandao ya
kijamii. Wanapaswa kufahamu kuwa kila jambo lina pande mbili, na ni busara kutumia teknolojia hii kwa faida na
kuepuka madhara yake. Kumbuka, akili ni nywele, kila mtu ana zake, lakini busara ni muhimu.

1. Kulingana na aya ya kwanza, ni kweli kuwa:


A. Vijana hucheza michezo ya simu wanapoamka asubuhi.
B. Vijana wengi hupenda kuonyesha mazingira yao mtandaoni.
C. Vijana hutumia muda mwingi kutazama skrini za simu.
D. Vijana hupata umaarufu kwa kurekodi matukio ya hatari.
2. Kwa mujibu wa kifungu, mojawapo ya athari za matumizi mabaya ya mitandao ya kijamii ni:
A. Vijana huongea na wazazi wao kwa kutumia simu.
B. Wazazi huwagandamiza watoto wao.
C. Mahusiano katika familia yamedhoofika.
D. Ndugu wameacha kuwasiliana kabisa.
3. Methali, akili ni nywele, kila mtu ana zake, ina maana gani kulingana na kifungu?
A. Kila mtu ana akili yake na anaweza kufanya maamuzi sahihi.
B. Watu wote wana nywele ndefu.
C. Maarifa yanategemea nywele.
D. Busara ni muhimu zaidi kuliko akili
4. .Kurejelea aya ya tatu, ni ipi kati ya zifuatazo si 6. Neno, mawimbi ya ukimya limetumika katika
athari ya mitandao ya kijamii kwa afya ya akili? kifungu. Chagua maana yake sahihi.
A. Unyogovu. A. Kelele nyingi.
B. Furaha na kuridhika. B. Ukosefu wa mawasiliano.
C. Shinikizo la kuonyesha maisha bandia. C. Migogoro ya kifamilia.
D. Kuongezeka kwa uonevu mtandaoni. D. Sauti za chini.
5. Bainisha faida moja ya mitandao ya kijamii
iliyotajwa katika kifungu.
A. Husaidia vijana kupata ajira.
B. Huunganisha watu kutoka maeneo mbalimbali.
C. Huwafanya watu kuwa na maisha ya kifahari.
D. Hupunguza idadi ya magonjwa ya akili.
Soma kifungu kifuatacho kisha ujibu swali la 7 hadi la 12.

Mbuni na Kasuku walikuwa marafiki wa dhati. Walitumia muda mwingi pamoja wakicheza na kutafuta chakula.
Mbuni alijivunia uwezo wake wa kukimbia kwa kasi isiyo ya kawaida, huku Kasuku akijivunia uwezo wake wa
kuongea na kuiga sauti mbalimbali. Ingawa walikuwa na uwezo tofauti, walithaminiana na kusaidiana.

Siku moja, walitembelea soko la wanyama. Soko hilo lilikuwa na vitu vingi vya kuvutia. Palikuwa na tunda adimu na
tamu lililoitwa ‘Mbuyu-matamu’, ambalo lilikuwa likiuzwa kwa bei ghali. Mbuni alitamani sana tunda hilo lakini
hakuwa na pesa. Kasuku naye alishauri Mbuni watumie uwezo wao kulipata. Mbuni alikubali kwa shingo upande.

Kasuku alimwambia Mbuni ambebe begani mwake na wakimbie kwa kasi kuelekea kibanda cha matunda.
"Nitakapokuambia, chukua tunda hilo," Kasuku alisema. Walipokaribia kibanda, Kasuku alipiga kelele, "Chukua
sasa!" Mbuni akanyoosha shingo yake ndefu na kung'oa tunda moja kubwa. Walikimbia kwa kasi huku wakiwa
wamefurahia 'mafanikio' yao.

Wakiwa njiani kurejea nyumbani, Kasuku alishauri waonje tunda hilo. Waliligawanya na kila mmoja akala kipande
chake. Kilikuwa kitamu ajabu! Walisahau kabisa kuwa walikuwa wameiba. Furaha yao haikudumu sana, kwani
ghafla walisikia kelele za muuza matunda akiwafuata. Muuza matunda alikuwa amewatambua na alikuwa amewapiga
kelele.

Mbuni alijaribu kukimbia kwa kasi yake yote, lakini alikuwa amedhoofishwa na utamu wa tunda. Kasuku naye
alijaribu kuruka lakini hakuweza kwani alikuwa amemezwa na tamaa. Mwishowe, Mbuni alikamatwa na muuza
matunda. Kasuku alifanikiwa kutoroka na kuruka mbali. Muuza matunda alimwadhibu Mbuni vikali kwa kosa la
wizi. Tangu siku hiyo, Mbuni na Kasuku hawajawahi kuwa marafiki tena. Mbuni kila anapomwona Kasuku
humkimbiza kwa hasira.

7. Chagua jibu linaloonyesha uhusiano wa Mbuni na 11. Matukio yafuatayo yalitokea katika kifungu.
Kasuku mwanzoni mwa hadithi. (i) Mbuni na Kasuku walikutana sokoni.
A. Walisaidiana kupika chakula. (ii) Kasuku alishauri Mbuni waibe tunda.
B. Walikuwa marafiki wa kudumu. (iii) Mbuni alikamatwa na muuza matunda.
C. Walishindana kukimbia na kuongea. (iv) Waligawana na kula tunda.
D. Walifanya kazi tofauti katika soko.
8. Kwa mujibu wa kifungu, ni nini kilimfanya Mbuni Chagua mfuatano sahihi wa matukio hayo.
na Kasuku wawe na hamu ya Mbuyu-matamu? A. (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)
A. Lilikuwa tunda la kipekee. B. (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
B. Lilikuwa linauzwa kwa bei nafuu. C. (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)
C. Walipenda kula matunda kila siku. D. (iv), (ii), (i), (iii)
D. Walitaka kuonyesha uwezo wao.
9. Kifungu kimebainisha kuwa Kasuku ni: 12. Nahau, kwa shingo upande imetumiwa katika
A. Mwenye kiburi, mjanja. kifungu. Maana yake ni:
B. Mwenye heshima, mkweli. A. Kwa furaha tele.
C. Mwenye tamaa, mlaghai. B. Kwa kusita-sita.
D. Mwenye bidii, msaidizi. C. Kwa hasira kali.
10. Unafikiri ni kwa nini urafiki wa Mbuni na Kasuku D. Kwa umakini mkubwa.
uliharibika?
A. Walikosa kuelewana kuhusu ugawaji wa tunda.
B. Mbuni alikamatwa na kuadhibiwa peke yake.
C. Muuza matunda aliwapiga kelele sana.
D. Kasuku alimdanganya Mbuni kisha akatoroka.
Soma kifungu kifuatacho kisha ujibu swali la 13 hadi la 17.

Mila na desturi za jamii zetu nchini Kenya zimekuwa zikipungua thamani yake kwa kasi ya ajabu. Hapo awali, mila
hizi zilikuwa nguzo muhimu za kuunganisha jamii, kutoa mwongozo wa maisha, na kurithisha vizazi vijavyo
maadili mema. Hata hivyo, kutokana na mabadiliko ya kiteknolojia na ushawishi wa tamaduni za kigeni, vijana
wengi wameacha kufuata nyayo za wazee wao.

Katika jamii nyingi, vijana wameacha kufahamu lugha zao za asili. Wanapendelea kuzungumza lugha za kigeni au
lugha mseto zinazowafanya washindwe kuwasiliana vema na wazee wao. Hali hii imeleta pengo kubwa la
mawasiliano kati ya vizazi. Pia, tamaduni za ngoma na nyimbo za asili zimepoteza umaarufu. Vijana huona ngoma za
kisasa za "hip hop" na "gengetone" kuwa za kuvutia zaidi kuliko nyimbo za jadi zenye ujumbe mzito.

Mavazi pia yamebadilika. Mavazi ya asili ambayo yalikuwa na maana na hadhi katika jamii, sasa yamekuwa
yakitumiwa kama vazi la burudani tu, au hata kupuuzwa kabisa. Vijana wanapendelea mavazi ya kigeni
yasiyozingatia mila na maadili ya jamii zao. Hali hii imepelekea mmomonyoko wa utambulisho wa kitamaduni.

Sherehe za jadi, kama vile harusi na mazishi, nazo zimepoteza uzito wake. Badala ya kufanywa kwa kufuata itifaki za
jadi na ushirikiano wa jamii nzima, sasa zimekuwa zikifanywa kwa mtindo wa kisasa, ambapo watu huajiri watoa
huduma wa kisasa na kupuuza ushiriki wa wazee. Hali hii huondoa roho ya kijamii na umuhimu wa sherehe hizo.

Ni muhimu kwa jamii zetu kujitahidi kuhifadhi mila na desturi zao. Hii haimaanishi kuzuia maendeleo, bali ni
kuunganisha mila na maendeleo. Wazee wanapaswa kuwa tayari kuwafundisha vijana umuhimu wa mila, na vijana
wanapaswa kuwa na shauku ya kujifunza na kuzienzi. Ni kwa njia hii tu tunaweza kuhakikisha kuwa utamaduni wetu
unabaki hai na kurithishwa kwa vizazi vijavyo.

13. Kulingana na aya ya kwanza, ni kweli kuwa: 16. Unafikiri ni kwa nini vijana hawajali tena mavazi
A. Mila na desturi zimekuwa zikiimarisha jamii. ya asili?
B. Mabadiliko ya teknolojia yamezuia mila. A. Yanachukua muda mrefu kushonwa.
C. Jamii zimeacha kabisa kufuata mila. B. Yamekuwa yakitumika kwa burudani tu.
D. Vizazi vijavyo vimekataa mila zote. C. Hayapatikani kwa urahisi sokoni.
14. Ni ipi kati ya zifuatazo si sababu ya kudhoofika D. Hawafahamu maana yake tena.
kwa mila na desturi, kulingana na kifungu? 17. Ni methali gani inayoweza kufupisha ujumbe wa
A. Ushawishi wa tamaduni za kigeni. kifungu hiki?
B. Mabadiliko ya kiteknolojia. A. Asiyekujua hakuthamini.
C. Ukosefu wa heshima kwa wazee. B. Mwacha mila ni mtumwa.
D. Vijana kutopenda lugha za asili. C. Mchagua jembe si mkulima.
15. Chagua jibu linaloonyesha maana ya neno nguzo D. Penye nia pana njia.
muhimu kama ilivyotumika katika kifungu.
A. Nguzo za nyumba.
B. Msingi imara.
C. Vitu vya thamani.
D. Maisha ya kila siku.
Soma kifungu kifuatacho kisha ujibu swali la 18 hadi la 20.

Bi. Wambui huuza matunda katika soko la Kilgoris. Ana wateja wengi wa kudumu ambao humnunulia matunda yake.

Yeye huweka rekodi ya matunda anayouza na kiasi cha faida anachopata kila siku. Jedwali lifuatalo linaonyesha

mauzo yake kwa wiki moja:


Siku Embe (kilo) Ndizi (dazani) Machungwa (kilo) Faida (Ksh)
Jumatatu 15 8 10 1,500
Jumanne 12 10 15 1,800
Jumatano 20 7 8 1,600
Alhamisi 18 12 12 2,000
Ijumaa 25 9 10 2,200
Jumamosi 30 15 20 3,000
Jumapili 10 5 5 1,000

18. Chagua jibu lenye siku ambayo Bi. Wambui aliuza kilo nyingi zaidi za machungwa.
A. Alhamisi B. Jumamosi C. Jumanne D. Jumatano
19. Ni pambo gani la Bi. Wambui liliuzwa kwa idadi ndogo zaidi kwa wiki nzima?
A. Machungwa B. Embe C. Ndizi D. Haijulikani
20. Ni siku gani Bi. Wambui alipata faida ya chini zaidi?
A. Jumatatu B. Jumapili C. Jumanne D. Jumatano

Soma kifungu kifuatacho kisha ujibu swali la 21 hadi la 25.

(Ni mchana. Binti aitwaye Neema anatembea akirejea nyumbani kutoka shuleni. Anamwona mzee anayezungumza
peke yake chini ya mti, karibu na barabara. Neema anasimama kwa muda akimwangalia kisha anamsogelea kwa
tahadhari.)

Neema: (Kwa upole) Shikamoo mzee?

Mzee: (Akishtuka kidogo na kuangalia juu, kisha anatabasamu) Marahaba mwanangu. Umebakia wapi muda huu?

Neema: (Anamjibu kwa heshima) Nimerudi shuleni. Nimekuona hapa nikaamua kukusalimia. Unaonekana una
mawazo mengi, Mzee. 21

Mzee: (Akipumua) Kweli binti yangu. Nina mawazo. Jana usiku nyumba yangu 22 na vitu vyote vikaungua. Sasa
sina pa kwenda.

Neema: (Akionyesha huruma) Maskini wewe! Pole sana Mzee. Hilo ni jambo la kusikitisha. Je, kuna yeyote
alijeruhiwa?

Mzee: Nashukuru Mungu hakuna. Mimi na familia yangu tulifanikiwa kutoroka. Lakini kila kitu kimeisha.

Neema: Pole tena. Familia yangu inaweza kukusaidia kwa kiasi fulani. Ninyi mnaweza kuishi kwetu kwa 23
tukitafuta suluhisho la kudumu. Baba yangu ana moyo wa huruma.

Mzee: (Machozi yakimtoka) Asante sana mwanangu. Mungu akubariki. Hujui umenisaidiaje. Hii ndiyo maana ya 24.

Neema: Hakuna shida Mzee. 25

(Anamshika mkono kwa upole, kisha wanasimama na kuanza kutembea polepole kuelekea nyumbani kwa Neema.)

21. Chagua jibu sahihi kukamilisha nafasi ya 21 22. Chagua kitenzi sahihi kujaza nafasi ya 22.
iliyoachwa kwenye kifungu. A. kimeungua B. iliungua C. ziliungua D. iliungua
A. Huu ni ukweli mchungu. 23. Chagua neno sahihi kujaza nafasi ya 23.
B. Je, unaweza kunisaidia? A. kitambo B. wakati C. muda D. mpaka
C. Kuna tatizo lolote?
D. Je, nitakusaidia vipi?
24. Chagua methali inayofaa kujaza nafasi ya 24. 25. Chagua nahau inayofaa kujaza nafasi ya 25 katika
A. Kizuri chajiuza kibaya chajitembeza. kifungu.
B. Jirani mwema ni akiba. A. Hakuna jema lisilo na mwisho.
C. Baada ya dhiki faraja. B. Usijali kabisa.
D. Haraka haraka haina baraka. C. Nitasuluhisha haya.
D. Ni jambo la kawaida.

Kifungu kifuatacho kina nafasi 26 hadi 35. Umepewa majibu manne hapo. Chagua jibu lifaalo
zaidi kujaza nafasi.

Uzazi ni jukumu kubwa. Wazazi wanapaswa kuwalea watoto wao kwa upendo na 26. Ni muhimu sana 27 kwa
mahitaji ya watoto wao, si tu kwa chakula na mavazi, bali pia kwa miongozo na maadili mema. Watoto 28
wakifunzwa maadili mema, watakuwa raia 29. Hata hivyo, wazazi wengi 30 na changamoto mbalimbali. Moja ya
changamoto hizi ni 31 ya kifedha.

Wazazi wengi hujitahidi 32 riziki kwa ajili ya familia zao. Hata hivyo, gharama ya maisha imepanda, na kufanya iwe
vigumu kwao kukidhi mahitaji yote ya watoto wao. Jambo hili linaweza kusababisha msongo wa mawazo kwa
wazazi na 33 katika familia. Ni muhimu kwa jamii 34 kuwapa wazazi usaidizi wanaohitaji. Tunaweza kufanya hivyo
kwa 35 elimu ya malezi bora na kuwapa fursa za kiuchumi.

26. A. ghadhabu B. nidhamu C. furaha D. haraka


27. A. kuwa makini B. kuzingatia C. kuangalia D. kutosheleza
28. A. wakipata B. wakianza C. wakitaka D. wakifanya
29. A. wazuri B. bora C. waadilifu D. wa mfano
30. A. wanakabiliwa B. wamekuwa C. wanajua D. wanashindana
31. A. ugumu B. upungufu C. ushindani D. utata
32. A. kutafuta B. kupata C. kula D. kutengeneza
33. A. migogoro B. furaha C. amani D. maelewano
34. A. nzima B. zima C. yote D. mbalimbali
35. A. kuwapa B. kutoa C. kuwafundisha D. kuwaonyesha

Kutoka swali la 36 hadi la 50 chagua jibu sahihi.

36. Neno, amani katika sentensi, Amani imetawala Chagua sentensi nyingine yenye kitenzi
nchini Kenya, ni nomino dhahania. Chagua jibu kishirikishi.
linaloonyesha aina za nomino zilizopigiwa mstari A. Kiti hiki kimevunjika.
katika sentensi ifuatayo: B. Wageni walikuja jana.
C. Vitabu vimekuwa vikisomwa.
Watoto walicheza soka uwanjani. D. Yeye ni daktari hodari.
39. Nomino, kiatu iko katika ngeli ya KI-VI. Nomino,
A. kawaida, pekee ufagio iko katika ngeli gani?
B. dhahania, makundi A. U-ZI B. U-YA C. U-I D. I-ZI
C. wingi, kawaida 40. Chagua neno sahihi kujaza nafasi katika jedwali
D. pekee, wingi lifuatalo. Fuata mfano.

37. Ni sentensi gani iliyo katika hali ya wakati ujao?


A. Watoto walicheza uwanjani jana. kubwa dogo
B. Mwalimu atafundisha somo hili kesho. nyeupe
C. Chakula kinapikwa jikoni sasa.
D. Mama amesafiri kwenda Mombasa. A. kijani B. jekundu C. nyeusi D. bluu
38. Neno huwa katika sentensi: Wanafunzi huwa
wanacheza hapa kila jioni, ni kitenzi kishirikishi.
41. Ukanusho wa sentensi, Amelewa pombe nyingi 46. Sentensi, Alimletea mgeni maji, inamaanisha:
ni: A. Alibeba maji akampa mgeni.
A. Hatalelewa pombe nyingi. B. Alimletea mgeni maji baada ya kumwona.
B. Hakulelewa pombe nyingi. C. Alimletea mgeni maji kwa ajili ya mgeni.
C. Hajalelewa pombe nyingi. D. Mgeni alikuja na maji.
D. Hana ulevi wa pombe nyingi. 47. Sentensi zifuatazo zimetumia mbinu mbalimbali za
42. Chagua jibu lenye kiambishi kinachofaa kujaza lugha. Chagua sentensi ambayo imetumia
nafasi katika sentensi ifuatayo. tashibiha.
Mti __meanguka barabarani. A. Yeye ni simba wa uwanjani.
A. ki B. u C. m D. li B. Kelele zake zilikuwa kama radi.
43. Chagua usemi halisi wa: C. Mvumilivu hula mbivu.
Mama alimwambia Juma kuwa amesahau D. Amekata kauli.
pochi yake nyumbani. 48. Chagua jibu lenye maana ya maneno yafuatayo:
A. “Umesahau pochi yako nyumbani,” Mama kata, -kata.
alimwambia Juma. A. fanya uamuzi, pasua
B. “Nimesahau pochi yangu nyumbani,” Mama B. fanya uamuzi, unya
alimwambia Juma. C. fanya uamuzi, punguza
C. “Amesahau pochi yake nyumbani,” Mama D. fanya uamuzi, pasua
alimwambia Juma. 49. Ni sentensi ipi iliyo katika hali ya udogo?
D. “Amelala pochi yake nyumbani,” Mama A. Kitoto kilicheza.
alimwambia Juma. B. Jitoto lilicheza.
44. Mwenzako amekuomba umwonyeshe sentensi C. Toto lilicheza.
yenye kivumishi cha sifa. Utachagua sentensi ipi? D. Mtoto alicheza.
A. Kijana yule amefaulu. 50. Mwenzako amekuwa akiahidi mambo mengi lakini
B. Nyumba ndefu imejengwa. htekelezi hata moja. Chagua methali utakayotumia
C. Watu wale walifika. kumwonya.
D. Gari hili ni langu. A. Ahadi ni deni.
45. Chagua jibu lenye sentensi iliyoakifishwa B. Akiba haiozi.
ipasavyo. C. Haraka haraka haina baraka.
A. Kwaheri; mimi huenda. D. Hasira hasara.
B. Kwaheri! Mimi huenda.
C. Kwaheri, mimi huenda.
D. Kwaheri? Mimi huenda.

HUU NDIO UKURASA WA MWISHO ULIOPIGWA CHAPA.


Jina Ya Mtahiniwa Nambari Ya Mtihani
Jina Ya Shule Namba Ya Shule
Saini Ya Mtahiniwa Tarehe

KJSEA 2025 SUPER PREDICTION


TATHMINI YA ELIMU YA SHULE YA JUNIOR KENYA

902/2:

KISWAHILI (Insha na Utangulizi wa Fasihi)

Karatasi ya 2

MFUMO WA MTIHANI
-KISWAHILI-

Muda: Saa 1 Dakika 45

MAAGIZO KWA WATAHINIWA

1. Andika jina lako na nambari yako ya mtihani kwenye nafasi uliyoachiwa hapo juu.
2. Andika jina na nambari ya shule yako kwenye nafasi uliyoachiwa hapo juu.
3. Tia sahihi kwenye nafasi uliyoachiwa hapo juu.
4. Andika tarehe ya mtihani ipasavyo.
5. Karatasi hii ina sehemu mbili; A na B.
6. Jibu maswali yote.
7. Andika majibu yote kwa nafasi ulizoachiwa katika kijitabu hiki.
8. Majibu yote ni lazima yaandikwe kwa lugha ya Kiswahili.

Kwa Matumizi ya Mtahini Pekee

SEHEMU Zoezi I Zoezi II Zoezi III Zoezi IV Zoezi V


Swali: 1 2 3 4 5
Alama ya upeo 15 10 10 10 5
Alama ya mtahiniwa
SEHEMU A (Alama 15)

ZOEZI I : INSHA

Maagizo

i. Inapendekezwa uchukue muda wa dakika 40 katika zoezi hili. ii. Andika insha yenye maneno kati ya 300 - 350
katika nafasi uliyoachiwa.

1. Andika insha kuhusu umuhimu wa kusoma vitabu na jinsi vitabu vimekuwa chanzo cha maarifa kwako.

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SEHEMU B (Alama 35)

ZOEZI II: FASIHI SIMULIZI (Alama 10)

2. Soma hadithi ifuatayo kisha ujibu maswali.

Hapo zamani za kale, katika kijiji cha Bonde la Amani, kulikuwa na binti mmoja mjanja sana aitwaye Neema. Neema
alijulikana kwa akili yake kali na uwezo wake wa kutatua matatizo magumu. Alipendwa na wote kijijini.

Siku moja, kijiji kilikumbwa na tatizo kubwa. Mto uliokuwa ukiwapatia maji ulikuwa umekauka ghafla. Watu
walikuwa na wasiwasi mkubwa, wakihofia njaa na ukame. Viongozi wa kijiji walijaribu kila njia, lakini hakuna
suluhisho lililopatikana. Waliamua kumwendea Neema kuomba msaada.

Neema alifikiria kwa muda, kisha akawambia wanakijiji, "Nataka kila mmoja wenu achukue jiwe dogo na kulileta
kando ya mto." Wanakijiji walishangaa, lakini walikubali. Kila mtu alileta jiwe lake. Neema aliwaelekeza wajenge
ukuta mdogo kwa kutumia mawe hayo, kuanzia chanzo cha mto kuelekea kijijini. Wanakijiji walifanya hivyo,
wakishirikiana na kufanya kazi kwa bidii.

Kadiri walivyojenga ukuta, ndivyo maji kidogo yaliyokuwa yamejificha chini ya ardhi yalivyoanza kujikusanya nyuma
ya ukuta huo. Taratibu, maji yalianza kuonekana, yakitiririka polepole kuelekea kijijini. Baada ya siku chache, mto
ulikuwa umeanza kujaza tena, na maji yalikuwa yakitiririka kwa wingi.

Wanakijiji walishangaa na walimshukuru Neema kwa hekima yake. Walijifunza kuwa suluhisho la matatizo
makubwa hupatikana katika ushirikiano na kutumia akili. Tangu siku hiyo, watu wa Bonde la Amani walidumisha
mila ya kushirikiana katika kila jambo, na hawakuwahi kukumbwa na ukame tena. Hadithi yangu inaishia hapo.

(a) Kipera cha hadithi hii ni nini? Toa sababu moja kuthibitisha jibu lako. (alama 2)

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(b) Eleza sifa mbili za Neema kama zinavyojitokeza katika hadithi hii. (alama 2)

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(c) Ni ujumbe gani mkuu unapatikana katika hadithi hii? (alama 1)

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(d) Taja mandhari mbili tofauti zinazojitokeza katika hadithi hii. (alama 2)

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(e) Kauli, "Nataka kila mmoja wenu achukue jiwe dogo na kulileta kando ya mto," imetumiwa katika hadithi hii. Eleza
maana yake kulingana na muktadha wa hadithi. (alama 2)

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(f) Eleza funzo unalopata kutokana na ushirikiano wa wanakijiji wa Bonde la Amani. (alama 1)

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ZOEZI III: NOVELA (Alama 10)

3. Soma sehemu ifuatayo ya novela kisha ujibu maswali.

Jua lilizama polepole nyuma ya vilima, likiacha anga likiwa limepakwa rangi za machweo. Nyumbani kwa Bibi
Salama, taa ya mafuta ilikuwa ikiwaka kwa unyonge, ikimwangazia Juma alipokuwa akijaribu kusoma vitabu vyake.
Juma alikuwa mtoto yatima, aliyekuwa akilelewa na bibi yake mzee. Licha ya umaskini wao, Bibi Salama alihakikisha
Juma anapata elimu. Aliamini kuwa elimu ndiyo urithi pekee wa kweli.

Juma alikuwa mwanafunzi mwenye akili sana, lakini shuleni, alikabiliwa na changamoto. Baadhi ya wanafunzi
walimdhihaki kwa sare zake chakavu na viatu vyake vilivyochoka. Hali hii ilimuumiza sana, na mara nyingi alihisi
aibu. Alitamani angekuwa na uwezo wa kununua sare mpya na vitabu vipya kama wenzake.

Siku moja, Juma alishiriki katika mashindano ya insha ya kitaifa. Alijitahidi sana, akitumia muda mwingi utafiti na
kuandika. Alitumia uzoefu wake wa maisha na ndoto zake za baadaye kuandika insha yenye kugusa moyo. Alishinda
shindano hilo, na habari zikaenea kote nchini.

Ushindi wa Juma ulibadilisha maisha yake. Alipata udhamini kamili wa masomo, na familia yake ilipokea msaada
kutoka kwa jamii. Wanafunzi waliokuwa wakimdhihaki sasa walimheshimu na kumwomba ushauri. Juma alijifunza
kuwa vipaji na bidii huweza kushinda umaskini na dharau. Alielewa kuwa thamani ya mtu haipimwi kwa mali,
bali kwa uwezo wake wa kujitahidi na kutimiza ndoto zake.

(a) Kazi za fasihi huwa na malengo maalum. Eleza dhamira ya sehemu hii ya novela. (alama 2)

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(b) Eleza aina mbili za mandhari zinazojitokeza katika sehemu hii ya novela. (alama 2)

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(c) Eleza sifa mbili za Bibi Salama kama zinavyojitokeza katika sehemu hii ya novela. (alama 2)

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(d) Ploti ni namna ambavyo matukio katika kazi ya fasihi yanavyojitokeza. Eleza mfuatano wa matukio muhimu katika
maisha ya Juma. (alama 2)

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(e) Eleza mbinu mbili za lugha zilizotumiwa katika sehemu hii ya novela. (alama 2)

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ZOEZI LA IV: TAMTHILIA (Alama 10)

4. Soma sehemu ifuatayo ya tamthilia kisha ujibu maswali.

SEHEMU 6

Onyesho 1

(Ni katika ukumbi wa mikutano wa shule. Mwalimu Mkuu, Bwana Kimani, amesimama mbele ya wanafunzi wa Gredi
ya 7. Kuna utulivu mkubwa, wanafunzi wakiwa wanamwangalia kwa makini.)

Mwalimu Mkuu: (Kwa sauti ya mamlaka) Habari zenu wanafunzi wangu wa Gredi ya Saba!

Wanafunzi: (Kwa sauti moja na nidhamu) Nzuri sana Mwalimu Mkuu!

Mwalimu Mkuu: Nimeitisha mkutano huu kuzungumza nanyi kuhusu mtihani wenu wa mwisho. Huu si mtihani wa
kawaida, ni hatua muhimu katika safari yenu ya elimu.

Mwajuma: (Akinyosha mkono) Mwalimu Mkuu, tuna wasiwasi sana. Mtihani unaonekana mgumu.

Mwalimu Mkuu: (Akitabasamu) Mwajuma, ni kawaida kuwa na wasiwasi. Lakini kumbukeni, Kizuri chajiuza, kibaya
chajitembeza. Mkijiandaa vizuri, mtapita kwa urahisi. Msihofu. Nawaamini.

Juma: Lakini Mwalimu Mkuu, tunapaswa kusoma kwa muda gani kila siku?

Mwalimu Mkuu: Juma, hakuna muda maalum. Muhimu ni kuelewa mnachosoma. Panga muda wako vizuri, ulale vya
kutosha, na kula vizuri. Pia, msishirikiane katika udanganyifu. Udanganyifu ni adui mkubwa wa elimu.

Rehema: (Kwa ujasiri) Tumejifunza mengi kutoka kwenu walimu. Tutaweka bidii zetu zote.

Mwalimu Mkuu: Hongereni sana Rehema. Hiyo ndiyo roho tunayotaka kuona. Kujiamini na kujitahidi. Kumbukeni,
mnajenga mustakabali wenu wenyewe. Shule hii inawategemea nyinyi.

(Mwalimu Mkuu anawapa wanafunzi moyo, na wanafunzi wanaondoka wakiwa na matumaini mapya.)
(a) Mazungumzo ni mojawapo ya sifa za tamthilia. Eleza sifa nyingine mbili za tamthilia ambazo zinajitokeza katika
sehemu hii ya tamthilia. (alama 2)

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(b) Mada ya umuhimu wa elimu imeshughulikiwa katika sehemu hii ya tamthilia. Fafanua mada nyingine mbili
ambazo zimeshughulikiwa katika sehemu hii ya tamthilia. (alama 4)

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(c) Eleza umuhimu wa maelezo yaliyoandikwa kwa herufi za mlazo katika sehemu hii ya tamthilia. (alama 2)

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(d) Neno ‘kuguna’ ni mfano wa mbinu ya onomatopeia. Eleza mbinu nyingine mbili za lugha zilizotumiwa katika
sehemu hii ya tamthilia. (alama 2)

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ZOEZI V: USHAIRI (Alama 5)

5. Soma shairi lifuatalo kisha ujibu maswali

KAMA HAO

Na Elvis Alukwe

Wenzenu tu jukwaani, na huzuni chungu nzima


Fununu zipo hewani, chetu kizazi si wima
Eti wale wa zamani, tabia likuwa njema
Jamii yajiuliza, wako wapi kama hao?

Yao lugha ilifana, nzuri yenye itikadi


Lugha va heshima sana, Kiswahili walinadi
Na hawakutukanana, lugha mufti ilizidi
Jamii yajiuliza, wako wapi kama hao?
Wenye umoja shuleni, kwa pamoja lishikana
Hata mgonjwa kwa bweni, lisaidiwa bayana
Na mwanafunzi mgeni, lisaidika kwa sana
Jamii yajiuliza, wako wapi kama hao?

Nguo nadhifu livaa, vyema walijisitiri


Shuleni na waling'aa, usafi walihubiri
Hawakuvaa mawaa, zao sare lishamiri
Jamii yajiuliza, wako wapi kama hao?

Mefika wakati wetu, wanasema twenda kombo


Tabia mekuwa mwitu, twazamisha chetu chombo
Maadili tele kutu, twachafua yetu nembo
Jamii yajiuliza, wako wapi kama hao?

Ni wapi tuliteleza, kizazi kikapotoka?


Walimu tunawabeza, jamii imetuchoka
Ni sisi twajiumiza, tujaribu rekebika
Jamii yajiuliza, wako wapi kama hao?

Hizi fununu zikome, wanafunzi tuamke


Tusafishe zetu ngome, walimu tuwapulike
Maadili tusichome, kizazi kisianguke
Jamii yajiuliza, wako wapi kama hao?

(a) Eleza ujumbe wa shairi hili. (alama 2)

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(b) Ni wahusika gani wanashauriwa katika shairi hili? (alama 1)

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(c) Bainisha mbinu mbili za lugha zinazojitokeza katika ubeti wa kwanza. (alama 2)

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HUU NDIO UKURASA WA MWISHO ULIOPIGWA CHAPA.


Candidate’s Name Assessment Number
School Name School Code
Candidate’s Signature Date

KJSEA 2025 SUPER PREDICTION


KENYA JUNIOR SCHOOL EDUCATION ASSESSMENT

903: MATHEMATICS

Time: 2 hours
-MATHEMATICS-

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

1. Write your name and assessment number in the spaces provided above.
2. Write the name and code of your school in the spaces provided above.
3. Sign and write the date of the assessment in the spaces provided above.
4. This question paper consists of TWO sections: A and B.
5. Answer ALL the questions in section A on the separate ANSWER SHEET provided.
6. Answer ALL the questions in section B in the spaces provided in this QUESTION PAPER.
7. Show all the workings in section B in the spaces provided.
8. Non-programmable calculators may be used, except where stated otherwise.
9. Give non-exact numerical answers, correct to 3 significant figures, and one decimal place for angles in
degrees, unless a different level of accuracy is specified in the question.
10. For π, use either the calculator value or 3.142.
11. Do NOT remove any page from this question paper.
12. Answer ALL the questions in English.

For official use only SECTION B

SECTION Task Question Numbers Max. Score Candidate's Score


A 1 – 20 20
B Task 1 21, 22, 23, 24, 25 20
Task 2 26, 27, 28 10
Task 3 29, 30, 31, 32, 33 22
Task 4 34, 35, 36, 37 20
Task 5 38, 39, 40 8
TOTAL 100
SECTION A: (20 MARKS)

Answer all questions.

1. Which of the following numbers is a rational Working area


number?
A. 5 8. A shop stocks different types of bread, milk, and
B. π eggs. The quantities of each type of item in two
C. 0.333... different deliveries were represented by the matrix
D. e below.
2. A tailor has three rolls of fabric measuring 24
meters, 36 meters, and 48 meters. She wants to cut
the fabric into equal pieces, with no fabric left
over. What is the greatest possible length of each
piece?
A. 6 meters What was the order of the matrix?
B. 12 meters A. 2×2 B. 3×2 C. 2×3 D. 3×3
C. 24 meters
D. 144 meters 9. A rectangular garden has a length of 12 meters and
3. A city’s population was 1,473,589 in the last a width of 9 meters. A path runs diagonally across
census. What is this population rounded off to the the garden. Which of the following calculations
nearest ten thousands? will give the length of the path?
A. 1,470,000 A. (12+9)2
B. 1,473,000 B. (122+92)
C. 1,474,000 C. (122−92)
D. 1,500,000 D. (122+92)
4. The cost of a new smartphone is Ksh 24,999.50. 10. A circular swimming pool has a radius of 3.5
John wrote the price to 3 significant figures. Which meters.
of the following is the price to 3 significant
figures?
A. Ksh 25,000
B. Ksh 24,900
C. Ksh 24,990
D. Ksh 24,000 3.5M
5. Simplify: (m3×m5)÷m2
A. m6
B. m7
C. m10
D. m15
6. The equation of a line is given as 2x+5y=10.
What is the y-intercept of the line?
A. −2
B. 2
C. 5 What is the circumference of the pool? (Take
D. 10 π=722)
7. A car uses at most 8 litres of fuel for a 100 km A. 11 m
journey. Let f represent the amount of fuel used. B. 22 m
Which of the following inequalities represents the C. 38.5 m
amount of fuel used? D. 77 m
A. f<8
B. f≤8
C. f>8
D. f≥8
11. A cylindrical water tank has a diameter of 14 Working space.
meters and a height of 5 meters. How many litres
of water can it hold when full? (Take π=22/7 )
A. 770 litres
B. 770,000 litres
C. 1,540 litres
D. 1,540,000 litres
12. A cyclist travelled from Town A to Town B at an
average speed of 20 km/h and took 1.5 hours. On
the return journey, due to traffic, she took 2 hours.
What was her average speed on the return journey?
A. 10 km/h
B. 15 km/h
C. 25 km/h
D. 30 km/h
13. The temperature of a freezer is set at -15°C. Which
of the following calculations gives the correct
temperature in Kelvin?
A. 273+15
B. 273−15
C. 15−273
D. 273×15
14. An electronics store offered a 15% discount on a
television set. If a customer paid Ksh 34,000 for
the television, which calculation gives the original
marked price of the television?
A. Ksh 34,000×0.15
B. Ksh 34,000÷0.85
C. Ksh 34,000×0.85
D. Ksh 34,000÷1.15
15. The top of a monument is in the shape of a regular
hexagon. Determine the size of one interior angle
of the hexagon.
A. 60° B. 90° C. 120° D. 180°
16. A tree is leaning against a vertical wall, forming an
angle PQR with the ground as shown.

What is the size of the angle the tree makes with


the wall?
A. 25° B. 35° C. 45° D. 65°
17. Kevin plotted different lines on a graph. Which
line has a zero gradient?
Working space.

A B

C D

18. A map has a scale of 1:5000. If the actual distance


between two towns is 2.5 km, what is the distance
between the two towns on the map in cm?
A. 5 cm B. 50 cm C. 500 cm D. 5000 cm
19. A flagpole is held by a wire that is anchored to the
ground 4 meters away from the base of the pole.
The wire makes an angle of 60° with the ground.
What is the length of the wire?
A. 8 m B. 43 m C. 4/3 m D. 2 m
20. Mwangi cycled from O to Calculate his speed

A. 11km/h B.40km/h C.2.63km/h D.3.6km/h


SECTION B (80 marks)
Answer all the questions in the spaces provided.
21. A bakery produced 2,750,916 loaves of bread in a month. How many times is the
total value of digit 7 greater than the total value of digit 5 in the number? (4 marks)

22. A submarine is at a depth of 150 m below sea level. A helicopter is flying vertically
above it at a height of 800 m above sea level. Use a number line to determine the vertical
distance between the submarine and the helicopter. (3 marks)

23. A construction company had a batch of cement. On the first day, they used ¼ of the
2
cement. On the second day, they used 3 of the remaining cement. The rest of the cement
was used equally over the next 3 days. On the last of these 3 days, they used 200 kg of
cement.
Determine:
(a) The fraction of cement that was used equally over the last 3 days; (2 marks)

(b) The total mass of cement the company had initially. (3 marks)
24. A rectangular floor measures 12 metres by 9 metres. It is to be covered with square
tiles, each with a side length of 30 cm. Determine the number of tiles needed to cover the
floor. (5 marks)

25. 6 workers can complete a task in 10 days. If the task needs to be completed in 4 days,
determine the number of additional workers required. (3 marks)

26. Sarah shared some money among her three siblings, John, Mary, and Peter. John
received twice the amount Mary received. Peter received sh 5,000 less than Mary. If
Mary received sh y, write a simplified expression for the total amount of money Sarah
shared. (3 marks)

27. A fruit seller sold 5 apples and 2 oranges for sh 340. Another customer bought 3
apples and 4 oranges for sh 300 from the same seller. Determine the cost of one apple and
the cost of one orange. (5 marks)
28. The temperature (T) in a certain city is always above −5∘C but never exceeds 10∘C.
Write a compound inequality to represent this information. (2 marks)

29. A marathon race is 42.195 km long. A runner has covered a distance of 35,500
metres.
(a) What distance, in kilometres, was remaining for the runner to complete the race? (2
marks)

(b) What distance, in hectometres, had the runner covered? (3 marks)

30. The base of a swimming pool is designed as a rectangle with a semi-circle attached to
one of its longer sides. The rectangular part measures 20 m by 14 m. Determine the area
covered by the base of the swimming pool. (Take π=22/7) (5 marks)
31. A cylindrical water tank has a radius of 3.5 m and contains water to a height of 4 m.
The water is then transferred to a rectangular tank with a length of 7 m and a width of 5
m. What will be the height of the water in the rectangular tank? (Take π=22/7) (4 marks)

32. A train travels a distance of 360 km in 2 hours and 30 minutes. Determine the train's
average speed in m/s. (4 marks)

33. A sales agent earns a commission of 3.5% on all sales made. In a particular week, the
agent sold goods worth sh 450,000. Calculate the commission earned by the agent that
week. (4 marks)
34. Study the angles below.

Giving reasons, determine the sizes of angles x and y. (4 marks)

35. A designer is creating a triangular logo. A model of the logo is a triangle XYZ such
that XY=8 cm, YZ=10 cm, and angle XYZ=75∘.
(a) Using a ruler and a pair of compasses only, construct triangle XYZ. (3 marks)
(b) (i) Measure the size of angle XZY. (1 mark)

(ii) Measure the length XZ. (1 mark)

36. A surveyor recorded the measurements of a plot of land in a field book as shown
below.
To Y
35
20 to B (10)
15 to A (8)
From X
The measurements were given in metres. Using a scale of 1 cm to represent 5 m, draw the
map of the plot of land. (4 marks)
37. Grade 8 learners were learning about geometric solids. The teacher showed them a
model of a rectangular prism (cuboid) with dimensions 5 cm by 4 cm by 3 cm.
(a) Draw the net of the rectangular prism. (2 marks)

(b) Use the net to work out the surface area of the rectangular prism. (2 marks)
38. Two shapes, M and N, are drawn on a Cartesian plane. Shape N is an enlargement of
shape M.
(a) Determine the scale factor of the enlargement. (2 marks)

(b) On the grid, mark point O, the centre of the enlargement. (1 mark)

39. The number of students participating in various clubs at a school was recorded as
shown in the table below.

Club Number of Students


Debating 25
Drama 15
Music 20
Science 10
Chess 10

Represent the number of students selected for each club on a pie chart. (5 marks)
40. A teacher wrote the numbers from 1 to 15 on separate cards and asked a Grade 9
learner to select a card at random. Determine the probability that the number of the card
picked is:
(a) a multiple of 3; (2 marks)

(b) a factor of 12. (1 mark)

THIS IS THE LAST PRINTED PAGE.


Candidate’s Name Assessment Number
School Name School Code
Candidate’s Signature Date
-PRETECHNICAL STUDIES-

KJSEA 2025 SUPER PREDICTION


KENYA JUNIOR SCHOOL EDUCATION ASSESSMENT
912/1:PRE-TECHNICAL STUDIES THEORY
Time: 1 hour 40 minutes
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. Write your name and assessment number in the spaces provided above.
2. Write the name and code of your school in the spaces provided above.
3. Sign and write the date of the assessment in the spaces provided above.
4. This paper consists of two sections: A and B.
5. Section A comprises Multiple Choice Questions.
6. Section B comprises Short Structured questions.
7. Answer ALL the questions in section A on the separate ANSWER SHEET provided.
8. Answer ALL the questions in section B in the spaces provided in this question paper.
9. Do not remove any page from this question paper.
10. Answer all questions in English.

For official use only


SECTION B

Task Total Questions Max Score per Task Candidate's Score per Task
Task 1 25
Task 2 12
Task 3 13
TOTAL SECTION B 50

This paper consists of 7 printed pages. Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the
pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing.

© 2025 – The Kenya Junior School Examination and Assessment Series Turn over
SECTION A: (30 MARKS)

Answer all questions.

1. What is the main purpose of safety signs in the 9. Which characteristic is shown by a good
workshop? entrepreneur when they quickly adapt to new
A. To decorate the room. technology?
B. To guide users on how to build. A. Creativity
C. To warn and inform about dangers. B. Flexibility
D. To show product prices. C. Risk-taking
2. Which of the following is used to fasten wooden D. Patience
pieces together permanently? 10. One of the following is a non-metallic material.
A. G-clamp Which one is it?
B. Wood glue A. Copper
C. Measuring tape B. Zinc
D. Mallet C. Plastic
3. Which tool is most suitable for smoothing the D. Aluminium
surface of a wooden plank? 11. Identify the correct order of the communication
A. Hacksaw process.
B. Screwdriver A. Feedback → Receiver → Message → Sender
C. Jack plane B. Sender → Message → Receiver → Feedback
D. Rasp C. Receiver → Feedback → Message → Sender
4. The main reason for learning entrepreneurship in D. Message → Receiver → Sender → Feedback
Pre-Technical Studies is to 12. Which property makes metals good for making
A. become a banker. electrical wires?
B. get employment only. A. Malleability
C. create and run businesses. B. Strength
D. avoid studying other subjects. C. Conductivity
5. Identify the tool used to tighten and loosen bolts. D. Density
A. Mallet 13. Which machine is commonly used for mixing
B. Spanner concrete on construction sites?
C. Divider A. Welding machine
D. Pliers B. Milling machine
6. One of the following is NOT a safety precaution C. Concrete mixer
when using electricity. Which one? D. Lathe machine
A. Dry your hands before touching a switch. 14. The following are all types of lines in technical
B. Use worn-out wires. drawing EXCEPT:
C. Switch off when not in use. A. Hidden lines
D. Keep water away from sockets. B. Border lines
7. A learner wants to design a label for their school C. Construction lines
club using a computer. Which type of software will D. Background lines
they most likely use? 15. Which is an example of an output device?
A. Spreadsheet A. Monitor
B. Presentation B. Mouse
C. Word processor C. Keyboard
D. Desktop publishing D. Scanner
8. Which of the following materials is best suited for 16. A source of passive income is
making a cooking pot? A. wage.
A. Plastic B. salary.
B. Aluminium C. interest.
C. Glass D. commission.
D. Wood
17. The part of a business that shows total investment A. interrupting.
by the owner is known as B. starving.
A. liability. C. smothering.
B. capital. D. cooling.
C. stock. 27. A learner wants to increase the brightness of their
D. expenses. computer screen. Which key should they use?
18. A laptop is preferred for fieldwork because it is A. Volume Up
A. fast. B. F2 or brightness key
B. portable. C. Escape
C. cheap. D. Enter
D. upgradeable. 28. Which one of the following is NOT a component
19. A tool used to draw arcs in technical drawing is of Pre-Technical Studies?
called A. Business Studies
A. T-square. B. Creative Arts
B. Ruler. C. ICT
C. Compass. D. Technical Studies
D. Divider. 29. The diagram below shows a common hand tool.
20. The tool shown below is used to What is the tool used for?
![Tool Image Placeholder] ![Tool Image Placeholder]
A. screw nails. A. Filing wood
B. plane wood. B. Tightening nuts
C. hammer metal. C. Planing timber
D. hold objects tightly. D. Cutting metal
21. The material used for making floor tiles is 30. Which of the following is the correct formula for
A. clay. calculating profit?
B. iron. A. Profit = Sales – Loss
C. rubber. B. Profit = Expenses – Capital
D. copper. C. Profit = Revenue – Expenses
22. The following are properties of softwood D. Profit = Sales + Capital
EXCEPT:
A. Grows fast
B. Light in weight
C. Broad leaves
D. Less expensive
23. When a consumer is overcharged, which body
should they report to?
A. KNEC
B. KRA
C. CA
D. CAK
24. Which of these factors should be considered before
selecting a business site?
A. Beauty of the area
B. Friends nearby
C. Proximity to customers
D. Number of trees
25. Which device connects a computer to the internet?
A. Keyboard
B. Scanner
C. Modem
D. Printer
26. The act of putting off fire by removing fuel is
called
SECTION B:(50 Marks)

Answer all questions.

TASK 1:

31. You and your classmates are making a simple wooden stool during a Pre-Tech practical lesson. Your role is to

help with measuring, drawing, and fire safety in the workshop.

a) List three measuring tools you will use in the project. (3 marks)

i. _______________________________________________

ii. ______________________________________________

iii. ______________________________________________

b) State two reasons why dimensioning is important in a technical drawing. (2 marks)

i. _____________________________________________

ii. ____________________________________________

c) Sketch a simple rectangle and show how to dimension its length and width. (3 marks)
d) Identify two fire prevention measures you must observe when working with wood and glue. (2 marks)

i. ____________________________________________________________________________________

ii. ____________________________________________________________________________________

e) Give two examples of synthetic materials that can be used in technical projects. (2 marks)

i. ______________________________________________

ii. _____________________________________________

f) Explain how to safely use a CO₂ fire extinguisher in case of a workshop fire. (3 marks)

______________________________________________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________________________________________

_____________________________________________________________________________________________

g) What is the purpose of a technical drawing before starting the project? (2 marks)

______________________________________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________________________________

TASK 2:

32. Mama Cate wants to start a small bakery business. He needs to calculate profits, choose materials, and prepare a

business plan.

a) Juma buys ingredients for KSh 1,500 and sells cakes worth KSh 2,200.

What is his profit? Show your working. (3 marks)


b) Suggest three characteristics that will help Juma succeed as an entrepreneur. (3 marks)

i. __________________________________________________________________________________

ii. _________________________________________________________________________________

iii. ________________________________________________________________________________

c) Mention two reasons why it is important for Juma to keep business records. (2 marks)

i. __________________________________________________________________________________

ii. _________________________________________________________________________________

d) List two challenges Juma might face when starting his bakery. (2 marks)

i. ___________________________________________________________________________________

ii. ___________________________________________________________________________________

e) What factors should Juma consider when choosing a location for his bakery? (2 marks)

___________________________________________________________________________________________

__________________________________________________________________________________________

f) Name three business resources Juma will need. (3 marks)

i. ______________________________________________________________________________________

ii. ______________________________________________________________________________________

iii. _____________________________________________________________________________________

TASK 3:

33. Fatuma has a computer in her home used for learning, typing assignments, and saving photos.

a) Name two input devices she uses to interact with the computer. (2 marks)

i. _____________________________________________________________

ii. _____________________________________________________________
b) Identify two output devices she uses to receive information. (2 marks)

i. __________________________________________________________

ii. ___________________________________________________________

c) Explain the difference between hardware and software in a computer. (2 marks)

_____________________________________________________________________________________________

_____________________________________________________________________________________________

d) Fatuma stores her school files in Google Drive. What is this type of storage called? (1 mark)

____________________________________________________________________________________________

e) State two benefits of using cloud storage. (2 marks)

i. _______________________________________________________________________________________.

ii. ______________________________________________________________________________________.

f) Fatuma downloaded an email attachment with a virus. List two ways to protect her computer from viruses. (2 marks)

i. _____________________________________________________________________________________.

ii. _____________________________________________________________________________________

g) Why is it important for Fatuma to follow online safety rules when using the internet? (2 marks)

______________________________________________________________________________________________

_____________________________________________________________________________________________

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Candidate’s Name Assessment Number
School Name School Code
Candidate’s Signature Date

KJSEA 2025 SUPER PREDICTION


KENYA JUNIOR SCHOOL EDUCATION ASSESSMENT

912/2:PRE-TECHNICAL STUDIES (Project)

Duration: 1 month

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
-PRETECHNICAL STUDIES-

a) Work in groups of 4 to 5 learners.


b) Each member must actively participate in all tasks.
c) Use locally available materials and digital tools.
d) Ask your teacher for guidance where necessary.

TASK STRUCTURE

Task Question Numbers Maximum Score Learner’s Score


Task 1 1, 2, 3, 4 28
Task 2 5, 6 06
Task 3 7, 8 06

PROJECT SCENARIO

A fruit vendor wants to design a portable 3-tier fruit rack to display fruits in an organized way. The vendor
would also like to record daily sales using Excel and understand the benefits of managing a small business.

This paper consists of 3 printed pages. Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages
are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing.

© 2025 The Kenya National Junior Examinations and Assessment Series.

Turn over
TASK 1: PRE-TECHNICAL – (28 MARKS)

1. Draw a 3D pictorial sketch of the fruit rack showing all three tiers. Indicate at least four measurements.
(6 marks)
2. List three appropriate locally available materials for constructing the fruit rack.
(3 marks)

________________________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________________________

3. From the list below, choose five tools useful for the project:

a) Tape measure
b) Saw
c) Hammer
d) Chisel
e) Sandpaper
f) Hand drill
g) Spirit level
h) Tenon saw

Selected tools: (3 marks)

________________________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________________________

4. a) Use the selected tools to mark, cut, and smoothen the parts. (10 marks)
b) Join the parts to assemble the 3-tier fruit rack. (6 marks)

TASK 2: COMPUTER STUDIES (6 MARKS)

5. Create an Excel spreadsheet to record the vendor’s daily fruit sales. Include columns for:

a) Fruit name
b) Quantity sold
c) Unit price
d) Total sales (use formula) (4 marks)

6. Apply formatting in the spreadsheet:

a) Use bold headings


b) Apply borders to all cells (2 marks)
TASK 3: BUSINESS STUDIES (6 MARKS)

7. State three advantages of using a fruit rack for displaying fruits.(3 marks)

__________________________________________________________________________________________

__________________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________________

8. Identify three business values or skills shown by the fruit vendor in this project.(3 marks)

________________________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________________________________________

THIS IS THE LAST PRINTED PAGE.


Candidate’s Name Assessment Number
School Name School Code
Candidate’s Signature Date

KJSEA 2025 SUPER PREDICTION


KENYA JUNIOR SCHOOL EDUCATION ASSESSMENT

907: SOCIAL STUDIES

Time: 1 Hour 30 Minutes

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:

1. Write your name and assessment number correctly.


2. Write the date of the assessment.
3. Write the name and code of your school in the spaces as indicated above.
4. This paper consists of two sections: A and B.
-SOCIAL STUDIES-

5. Section A comprises Multiple Choice Questions.


6. Section B comprises structured questions and essay questions.
7. Answer ALL the questions in Section A on the separate ANSWER SHEET provided.
8. Answer ALL the questions in Section B in the spaces provided on this question paper.
9. Do NOT remove any page from this question paper.
10. Answer the questions in English.

For Official Use Only: SECTION B


Ques 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39
Total B
(a)
Max
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 4 1 1 1 1 2 1 1 1 1 1 1 60
Marks
(a)
Score
(b)
Max
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 4 1 1 1 1 2 1 1 1 1 1 1
Marks
(b)
Score
(c)
Max
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 4 1 1 1 1 2 1 1 1 1 1 1
Marks
(c)
Score
(d)
Max
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 4 1 1 1 1 N/ 1 1 1 1 1 1
Marks A
(d)
Score
(e) N/A N/A N/A N/A N/A N/A N/ N/A N/A N/A N/ N/A N/A N/A 1 N/A N/A N/A
Max
1 A A
Marks
(e)
Score
(f) N/A N/A N/A N/A N/A N/A N/ N/A N/A N/A N/ N/A N/A N/A 1 N/A N/A N/A
Max
N/ A A
Marks A
(f)
Score
Quest
ion
5 4 4 4 4 4 4 1 4 4 4 4 6 4 4 6 4 4 4 /60
Total 2
This paper consists of 9 printed pages. Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the
pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing.
SECTION A (20 Marks)

Answer ALL questions in this section on the separate answer sheet provided.

1. Risper was asked by her deskmate to state the size 9. A type of map with a collection of several maps
of Africa. Which answer was correct? that are bound together in one volume is called:
A. 50.1 million km2 A. sketch map
B. 30.3 million km2 B. topographical map
C. 43.5 million km2 C. atlas map
D. 110 million km2 D. google map.
2. Which one of the following historical sites and 10. Pre-career mapping is very important for
monuments is found in Egypt? individual growth. Which one of the following is
A. Robben islands. not one of its importances?
B. The Pyramids of Giza. A. Exploring on interests.
C. Victoria monuments. B. Discovering of one's strength.
D. Zimbabwe ruins. C. Setting of clear goals.
3. Tom was asked to name the factors that influence D. Limited resources.
the climate of Africa. Which response was not 11. Three of the following were socio-economic
correct? activities in the Middle Stone Age. Which one was
A. Oceanic currents. not?
B. Winds. A. Invention of fire.
C. Meridians. B. Hunting and gathering.
D. Altitude. C. Painting of the rocks and the caves.
4. Grade 7 learners were tasked to name primary D. Domestication of animals and crops.
sources of information. Which of the answers they 12. Grade 9 learners were asked to use their gadgets to
gave was not correct? find out sources of population data in a country.
A. Constitution. Which one is not?
B. Manuscripts. A. Registration.
C. Diaries. B. Census.
D. Journals. C. Sample surveys.
5. During a discussion, Grade 9 learners were asked D. Population structure.
to identify the chapter of the constitution that 13. When applying emotional intelligence, it can
emphasizes on leadership and integrity. Which promote integrity in society through the following
response did they give? ways except:
A. Chapter 4 A. building trust through communication
B. Chapter 6 B. conflict resolution with understanding
C. Chapter 1 C. social differences
D. Chapter 8 D. showing empathy in making decisions.
6. Silvia was asked by her teacher to mention a 14. Mzee Nyakundi's family moved from Nairobi town
peaceful way of resolving conflicts in a family. and built a home in the interior parts of Maasai
Which was her correct response? Mara. This type of migration is known as:
A. Using force to make decisions. A. rural - rural migration
B. Decisions made by one person. B. urban - rural migration
C. Holding dialogue on a round table at home. C. urban - urban migration
D. Punishing those who argue a lot. D. rural - urban migration.
7. The time in Kampala 40°E is 12:00 noon. What 15. Effective human rights should have the following
will be the time in Ivory Coast 20°W? characteristics except:
A. 8:00 pm B. 8:00 am C. 10:00 pm D. 10:00 am A. indivisible
8. Grade 7 learners were asked to construct a B. inviolable
windvane using locally available materials. Which C. incontrovertible
one of the following was not one of the materials D. alienable.
they assembled?
A. Pin. B. Manilla paper. C. Pencil. D. Socks.
16. Kim, a Grade 8 learner, was asked to identify factors which led to the development of the Trans-Saharan
trade. Which response was not correct?
A. Availability of rich merchants in the area.
B. Demand for slaves in the outside world.
C. Availability of slaves and slave trade in Western Sudan.
D. Spread of Islamic religion in Western Sudan.
17. Which one of the following is not a reason why money was introduced in Africa?
A. Coming of the visitors who were used to use of money as a medium of exchange.
B. Demand for variety of goods outside Africa.
C. Need for a standard measure of value of goods.
D. Introduction of mobile money transfer.
18. Grade 8 learners were discussing ways of promotion of social justice. Which one of the following was not one
of them?
A. Engaging in dialogue.
B. Raising awareness.
C. Practising prejudice.
D. Challenging injustice.
19. Emotions can be managed through the following ways except:
A. self-control.
B. talking to a confidant.
C. accepting the situation.
D. taking wine to calm down.
20. Grade 8 learners were asked to identify factors that led to the growth of the Swahili civilization. Which
response was not correct?
A. The location of the East African Coast facilitated the trade.
B. The interaction with the outsiders enriched the culture.
C. The partition of Africa enhanced the Swahili civilization.
D. Good climate and fertile soil encouraged agriculture.
SECTION B (60 Marks)

Answer ALL questions in this section in the spaces provided.

21. Use the map of Banda area below to answer question 21.
a. What is the direction of the veterinary office from the market at Banda town?

________________________________________________ _______________

b. The approximate area of the coffee plantation in square kilometres is

___________________________________________________ ________

c. The climate of the area around Keri market is likely to be

__________________________________________________ _________

d. What type of settlement in found in Banda area?

___________________________________________________ ________

e. What evidence on the map shows that Banda town is an administrative centre?

_________________________________________________ __________

22. Kelvin was asked by his friend to state four characteristics of a person with low self-esteem. Which responses
did he give? (4mks)

a) ___________________________________________________________________________________

b) ___________________________________________________________________________________

c) ____________________________________________________________________________________

d) ____________________________________________________________________________________

23. Grade 8 learners were tasked to search the uses of maps in Social Studies. Which four uses did they give?
(4mks)

a) ____________________________________________________________________________________

b) ____________________________________________________________________________________

c) _____________________________________________________________________________________

d) _______________________________________________________________________________________
24. Evans wanted to find out forms of slavery and servitude in traditional African societies. Highlight any four
types he gave. (4mks)

a) ___________________________________________________________________________________

b) _____________________________________________________________________________________

c) _____________________________________________________________________________________

d) _____________________________________________________________________________________

25. Grade 9 learners were discussing ways of reducing poverty in Africa. Identify four ways they pinpointed.
(4mks)

a) _____________________________________________________________________________________

b) _____________________________________________________________________________________

c) _____________________________________________________________________________________

d) ____________________________________________________________________________________

26. Teacher Raphael asked his learners to outline four responsibilities of a global citizen. Which correct responses
did they give? (4mks)

a) _____________________________________________________________________________________

b) _____________________________________________________________________________________

c) ____________________________________________________________________________________

d) ____________________________________________________________________________________

27. Mary was asked to state four factors that influence population distribution in Africa. Which was her correct
response? (4mks)

a) _____________________________________________________________________________________

b) _____________________________________________________________________________________

c) _____________________________________________________________________________________

d) _____________________________________________________________________________________
28. While learning about climatic regions in Africa, Grade 9 learners were asked to use the map below.

23 ½O N

0O

Y 23 ½O S

a) State four characteristics of the climatic region marked A. (4mks)

a) _________________________________________________________________________________

b) _________________________________________________________________________________

c) __________________________________________________________________________________

d) __________________________________________________________________________________

b) Identify four countries crossed by the Tropic marked Y. (4mks)

a) _______________________________________________________________________________

b) _______________________________________________________________________________

c) _______________________________________________________________________________

d) _______________________________________________________________________________
c) Name four factors that led to the growth of the ancient kingdom marked X. (4mks)

a) ___________________________________________________________________________________

b) ___________________________________________________________________________________

c) ___________________________________________________________________________________

d) ___________________________________________________________________________________

29. Grade 9 learners were asked to identify four differences between the population of Kenya and Germany. Write
the differences they identified. (4mks)

a) ____________________________________________________________________________________

b) ____________________________________________________________________________________

c) ____________________________________________________________________________________

d) ____________________________________________________________________________________

30. Grade 8 learners were role-playing to show the various socio-cultural diversities in Kenya. List down any four
socio-cultural diversities they came up with. (4mks)

a) _____________________________________________________________________________________

b) _____________________________________________________________________________________

c) ______________________________________________________________________________________

d) ______________________________________________________________________________________

31. Name four terms of the Berlin Conference of 1884-1885. (4mks)

a) ______________________________________________________________________________________

b) ______________________________________________________________________________________

c) ______________________________________________________________________________________

d) ______________________________________________________________________________________

32. Name the European countries that colonized the following African countries: (4mks)

a) Morocco: _____________________________________________

b) Democratic Republic of Congo: _____________________________

c) Libya: __________________________________________________

d) Madagascar: ______________________________________________
33. Fidel, a Grade 9 learner, was asked by his teacher to give two functions of each of the three arms of

government. Which correct answers did he give? (6mks)

i) Legislature

a) _____________________________________________________________________________________

b) _____________________________________________________________________________________

ii) Executive

a) _____________________________________________________________________________________

b) _____________________________________________________________________________________

iii) Judiciary

a) _____________________________________________________________________________________

b) ______________________________________________________________________________________

34. Identify four methods used in recording data in fieldwork. (4mks)

a) _____________________________________________________________________________________

b) _______________________________________________________________________________________

c) _____________________________________________________________________________________

d) ______________________________________________________________________________________

35. Grade 8 learners were discussing about evolution. Their teacher asked them to find out from their digital
devices reasons why Africa is regarded as the cradle for humankind. State four reasons they came up with.
(4mks)

a) ___________________________________________________________________________________

b) ___________________________________________________________________________________

c) ___________________________________________________________________________________

d) ___________________________________________________________________________________
36. Grade 9 learners are planning to carry out a Community Service Learning Project. State the six stages they
should follow to accomplish their mission. (6mks)

a) __________________________________________________________________________________

b) __________________________________________________________________________________

c) ___________________________________________________________________________________

d) ____________________________________________________________________________________

e) _____________________________________________________________________________________

f) ____________________________________________________________________________________

37. In choosing Career Pathways, a learner requires different support systems. Name four such support systems that
one requires. (4mks)

a) ______________________________________________________________________________________

b) ______________________________________________________________________________________

c) ______________________________________________________________________________________

d) ______________________________________________________________________________________

38. Explain four processes that result from internal land-forming forces. (4mks)

a) ______________________________________________________________________________________

b) ______________________________________________________________________________________

c) ______________________________________________________________________________________

d) ______________________________________________________________________________________

39. Outline four pieces of evidence that support the Continental Drift Theory. (4mks)

a) _____________________________________________________________________________________

b) ______________________________________________________________________________________

c) ______________________________________________________________________________________

d) _____________________________________________________________________________________

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