MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Kingdom Systems of Classification

Level I
1. Carlous Linnaeus system is an artificial system because it is
(1) phylogenetic.
(2) based on evolutionary trends.
(3) based on number of characters.
(4) based on a few characters of superficial similarities and dissimilarities on morphology.
2. Which of the following are not eukaryotes?
(1) Protista (2) Plants (3) Animals (4) Monera
3. Who has suggested six-kingdom classification?
(1) Carl Woese (2) Julian Huxley
(3) Ernst Haeckel (4) R.H.Whittaker
4. Six-kingdom classification is based on the sequence of
(1) transfer RNA genes. (2) ribosomal RNA genes.
(3) messenger RNA genes. (4) nitrogenous bases in DNA.
5. Which one of the following is not the basis of five kingdom classification?
(1) Cell structure (2) Body organization
(3) Reproduction (4) Reserve food material
6. Aristotle classified animals in two groups on the basis of presence or absence of RBC. The
group which does not have RBCs is
(1) anaima. (2) enaima. (3) ovipara. (4) vivipara.
7. In Whittaker's five kingdom classification, eukaryotes were assigned to
(1) all the five kingdoms. (2) only four of the five kingdom.
(3) only three of the five kingdom. (4) only two of the five kingdom.
8. In Whittaker's five kingdom classification, viruses were kept in
(1) Kingdom Monera. (2) Kingdom Mycota.
(3) Kingdom Protista. (4) None of these.
9. Who gave four kingdom classification?
(1) Haeckel (2) Carl Woese (3) Whittaker (4) Copeland
10. A system of classification, in which external and internal features are considered, is
(1) natural system. (2) phylogenetic system.
(3) artificial system. (4) synthetic system.
11. Phylogenetic classification is based on
(1) overall similarities. (2) utilitarian system.
(3) habits of plants. (4) common evolutionary descent.
12. Who classified animals on the basis of colour of blood?
(1) Aristotle (2) Pliny (3) Bauhin (4) J.D. Hooker
13. Aristotle's classification of animals was not accepted because
(1) it was just based on one morphological character.
(2) it was based on phylogenetic classification.
(3) it was based on many reproductive characters.
(4) it is a natural system of classification.
14. Which of the following was given the status of kingdom in the classification system given by
Copeland?
(1) Myxomycetes (2) Eukaryotic algae (3) Prokaryotes (4) Protista
15. Domain Eukarya includes how many kingdoms (with respect to six kingdom system)?
(1) Two (2) Three (3) One (4) Four
16. Which one of the following is not the basis of five kingdom classification?
(1) Cell structure (2) Body organization
(3) Reproduction (4) Reserve food material
17. Position of bacteria in the kingdom system of classification proposed by Linnaeus is
(1) Monera (2) Protista (3) Plantae (4) Animalia
Level II
18. Statement 1: Linnaeus classified plants into trees, shrubs and herbs, on the basis of their
morphological characters.
Statement 2: Aristotle divided animals into two groups - Anaima and Enaima.
(1) Only statement 1 is correct.
(2) Only statement 2 is correct.
(3) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct.
(4) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are incorrect.
19. Select correct match with respect to the Whittaker system of classification.
(1) Monera - Unicellular and multicellular, osmotrophs, producers and decomposers, true
cellulosic cell wall
(2) Protista - Unicellular, eukaryotic, photoautotrophs and chemoautotrophs
(3) Fungi - Multicellular/loose tissue, eukaryotic, osmotrophs, chitinous wall
(4) Animalia - Multicellular, eukaryotic, organ or organ system, holozoic, no saprobic and
autotrophs.
20. Two kingdom classification does not distinguish between
(1) eukaryotes and prokaryotes.
(2) unicellular and multicellular organisms.
(3) photosynthetic (green algae) and nonphotosynthetic (fungi) organisms.
(4) All of these.
21. What are the criteria used by Whittaker for classification?
(a) Cell structure
(b) Thallus organization
(c) Mode of nutrition
(d) Reproduction
(e) Phylogenetic relationship
(f) Biochemical difference
(g) Physiological character
(1) All except (e) and (f) (2) All except (e) and (g)
(3) All except (f) and (g) (4) All except (c) and (d)
22. Chromatium was placed along with
(a) Chorella and Amoeba in the same kingdom by E. Haeckel.
(b) Ulothrix in the same kingdom in Linnaeus system.
(c) Methanobacterium in the same kingdom in Carl Woose system.
(1) All are correct.
(2) Both (a) and (b) are correct.
(3) Both (b) and (c) are correct.
(4) Only (b) is correct.
Level III
23. Consider the following organisms mentioned in box. Nostoc, Riccia, Chondrus,
Chlamydomonas, Paramoecium, Anabaena, Vibrio, Physarum, Gonyaulax, Trypanosoma,
Agaricus, Euglena
These organisms can be placed into how many total kingdoms in Whittaker's system?
(1) Two (2) Three (3) Four (4) Five
Kingdom Monera (Archaebacteria and Eubacteria)
Level I
24. Heterocysts, specialised for nitrogen fixation, occur in certain
(1) red algae (Batrachospermum). (2) blue-green algae (Anabaena).
(3) brown algae (Laminaria). (4) green algae (Spirogyra).
25. A bacterium with flagella all around is
(1) amphitrichous. (2) lophotrichous. (3) cepalotrichous. (4) peritrichous.
26. The main difference in Gram (+) ve and Gram (-) ve bacteria resides in their
(1) cell wall. (2) flagella.
(3) cytoplasm. (4) cell membrane.
27. Which of the following is absent in bacteria?
(1) RNA (2) Cell wall
(3) Mesosome (4) Mitochondria
28. Peptidoglycan is a characteristic constituent of cell wall in
(1) eubacteria and unicellular eukaryotes. (2) archaebacteria and eukaryotes.
(3) bacteria and cyanobacteria. (4) Monera and Protista.
29. The disease tetanus is also known as
(1) Gangrene. (2) Shingles.
(3) Lockjaw. (4) Whooping cough.
30. Botulism is due to contamination of
(1) E. coli. (2) Salmonella.
(3) Clostridium. (4) Pseudomonas.
31. Teichoic acid is present in the cell wall of
(1) Gram (+)ve bacteria. (2) Gram (-)ve bacteria.
(3) Cyanobacteria. (4) Mycoplasma.
32. Mark the odd one with respect to cell wall.
(1) Halophiles (2) Methanogens
(3) Thermoacidophiles (4) Cyanobacteria
33. Heterocysts present in Anabaena is specialised for
(1) nitrogen fixation. (2) food storage.
(3) fission. (4) sexual reproduction.
34. Membrane-bound organelles are absent in
(1) Plasmodium. (2) Saccharomyces.
(3) Streptococcus. (4) Chlamydomonas.
35. Methanogens are most abundant in
(1) hot spring. (2) sulphur rock.
(3) cattle yard. (4) polluted stream.
36. Which type of DNA is found in bacteria?
(1) Circular DNA (2) Membrane-bound DNA
(3) Straight DNA (4) Helical DNA
37. Which of the following does not evolve oxygen?
(1) Photosynthetic bacteria (2) Blue-green algae
(3) Green algae (4) Autotrophic plant
38. Which of the following is an example of budded bacterium?
(1) Diplococcus pneumoniae. (2) Caulobacter.
(3) Rhodomicrobium. (4) Spirochaete.
39. What is the percentage of iodine solution used in Gram's staining?
(1) 0.1 %. (2) 20 % . (3) 0.5 % . (4) 10 % .
40. Which feature is responsible for survival of archaebacteria in extreme conditions?
(1) Enzymes (2) Proteins in cytoplasm
(3) Cell wall (4) Genetic material
41. Some of the cyanobacteria can fix atmospheric nitrogen in specialized cells called
(1) akinetes. (2) heterocyst. (3) homocyst. (4) nodule.
42. The group of organisms that oxidizes various inorganic substances such as nitrates, nitrites
and ammonia and uses the released energy for their ATP production are
 (1) chemoheterotrophic. (2) chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria.
(3) photoautotrophic bacteria. (4) saprophytic bacteria.
43. Which of the following plays a great role in recycling of nutrients like N , P and S ?
(1) Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria (2) Parasitic bacteria
(3) Photoautotrophic bacteria (4) Cyanobacteria
44. All of the following diseases are caused by bacteria except
(1) flu. (2) cholera. (3) tetanus. (4) typhoid.
45. A filament of Nostoc without its mucilage sheath is called
(1) mycelium. (2) trichome. (3) hyphae. (4) colony.
46. Infoldings of plasma membrane in bacteria are called
(1) episomes. (2) plasmid.
(3) pili. (4) mesosomes.
47. Genophore is
(1) linear DNA of prokaryotes. (2) nuclear DNA of blue green algae.
(3) circular DNA of prokaryotes. (4) storage substance of prokaryotes.
48. Bacterial flagella are made up of
(1) hook, basal body and pili. (2) pili, basal body and cell membrane.
(3) basal body, hook and filament. (4) basal body, cell wall & cell membrane.
49. Plasmids are
(1) virus.
(2) a new type of microorganisms.
(3) extra chromosomal genetic material of bacteria.
(4) essential bacterial genetic materials.
50. Which of the following bacterium develops flavour in tea and tobacco leaves?
(1) Streptococcus lactis (2) Azotobacter
(3) Bacillus megatherium (4) Radicicola
51. What is botulism?
(1) Bottle fermentation (2) Skin disease
(3) Food poisoning (4) Plant disease
52. A bacterial cell without a cell wall is called
(1) protoplast. (2) mesosome. (3) blepharoplast. (4) lister form.
53. A peculiar odour that prevails in marshy areas and cowsheds is on account of a gas
produced by
(1) mycoplasma. (2) archaebacteria.
(3) slime moulds. (4) cyanobacteria.
Level II
54. Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option.
Column-I (Group of bacteria) Column-II (Their shape)
(a) Coccus (i) Rod-shaped
(b) Bacillus (ii) Spherical
(c) Spirillum (iii) Spiral
(d) Vibrium (iv) Comma-shaped
(1) (a) - (i); (b) - (ii); (c) - (iii); (d) - (iv) (2) (a) - (ii); (b) - (i); (c) - (iii); (d) - (iv)
(3) (a) - (i); (b) - (ii); (c) - (iv); (d) - (iii) (4) (a) - (ii); (b) - (i); (c) - (iv); (d) - (iii)
55. Select the incorrect statement.
(1) Nostoc and Anabaena have heterocysts for nitrogen fixation.
(2) Cyanobacteria often form blooms in polluted water bodies.
(3) Heterotrophic bacteria are more abundant in nature.
(4) The cell walls of mycoplasma are made up of chitin.
56. Select the correct statement.
(1) Cholera, typhoid, tetanus are well-known diseases caused by viruses.
(2) Dinoflagellates, euglenoids and slime moulds are placed under kingdom Monera.
(3) Members of kingdom Protista are primarily aquatic.
(4) Dinoflagellates are the chief producers in the oceans.
57. Statement 1: Bacterial structure and behaviour is very complex.
Statement 2: They show the most extensive metabolic diversity as a group.
(1) Only statement 1 is correct.
(2) Only statement 2 is correct.
(3) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct.
(4) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are incorrect.
58. Which of the following is incorrectly matched?
(1) Streptomycin - Streptomyces griseus
(2) Chloramphenicol - Streptomyces venezuelae
 (3) Usnic acid - Cladonia
(4) Tetracyclin - Streptomyces erythreus
59. Identify the labels in the following figures:

(1) (a) Cell wall; (b) Cell membrane; (c) Heterocyst; (d) DNA; (e) Mucilagenous sheath
(2) (a) Cell wall, (b) Cell membrane; (c) DNA; (d) Heterocyst; (e) Mucilagenous sheath
(3) (a) Mucilagenous sheath; (b) Cell membrane; (c) DNA; (d) Heterocyst; (e) Cell wall
(4) (a) Cell membrane; (b) Cell wall, (c) DNA; (d) Heterocyst; (e) Mucilagenous sheath
60. The smallest living cells have all known characteristics except
(1) survive in presence of oxygen. (2) infect animals and plant.
(3) complete lack of cell membrane. (4) contain dsDNA as genetic material.
61. Archaebacteria can live in some of the harshest habitats because of
(1) presence of mesosome. (2) high power of multiplication.
(3) special cell wall structure. (4) All of these.
62. Which of the following statements is true about cyanobacteria?
(1) It is found in fresh water only.
(2) It may be unicellular, colonial or filamentous.
(3) They often form bloom in non-polluted fresh water bodies.
(4) Colonies are not surrounded by gelatinous sheath.
63. Following features belong to
(a) Complete lack of cell wall
(b) Anaerobic
(c) Smallest living cell
(d) Many of them are pathogenic to plant and animals
(1) Chrysophytes. (2) Prions.
(3) Viroids. (4) Mycoplasma.
64. Which of the following statements is wrong about archaebacteria?
(1) They live in some of the harshest habitats (2) They are recently evolved group.
(3) Their cell wall lacks peptidoglycan. (4) They are unlike most other bacteria.
65. Which of the following statements is not correct about methanogens?
(1) They are archaebacteria.
(2) They live in marshy areas.
(3) Methane is their preferred carbon source.
(4) They are present in guts of several ruminant animals (cow, buffaloes) and they produce
biogas ( CH 4 ) from the dung of these animals.
66. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(1) Pathogenic bacteria cause 90 % of human diseases.
(2) A large number of antibiotics are produced by actinomycetes (e.g., Streptomyces), which
are a class of fungi.
(3) Nitrogen fixing bacteria pick up free N 2 from soil atmosphere and convert it into
nitrogenous compounds.
(4) Archaebacteria differs from other bacteria in having a different cell wall structure and this
feature is responsible for their survival in extreme conditions.
67. Bacteria are considered primitive organisms because they
(1) possess incipient nucleus.
(2) are small, microscopic plants, which are not seen by the naked eyes.
(3) cause serious diseases to human being, domesticated animals and crop plants.
(4) produce endospores which are very resistant to adverse conditions.
68. Thermoacidophiles are capable of withstanding extremely low pH and high temperature due
to the
(1) presence of branched chain of lipid in cell membrane.
(2) presence of resistant enzyme which can operate in basic conditions.
(3) presence of higher concentration of KCl in their cells.
(4) More than one option is correct.
69. Which of the following is a difference between eubacteria and archaebacteria?
(1) They look very different from each other under microscope.
(2) Eubacteria are autotrophic and archaebacteria are heterotrophic.
 (3) Archaebacteria are unicellular and eubacteria are colonial.
(4) They have different chemicals in their cell membranes and cell walls.
Level III
70. Select the correct combination of statements (a)-(d) regarding the characteristics of certain
organisms.
(a) Methanogens are archaebacteria which produce methane in marshy areas.
(b) Nostoc is a filamentous blue-green algae which fixes atmospheric nitrogen.
(c) Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria synthesize cellulose from glucose.
(d) Mycoplasma lacks a cell wall and can survive without oxygen.
(1) All except (2) All except (c)
(3) Only (b) and (c) (4) All except (d)
71. In bacteria, which cross will lead to sexduction?
−¿¿

(1) F +¿× F ¿
(2) Hfr × F−¿¿
+¿¿
(3) Hfr × F (4) Metamale × Female
72. Which of the following statements are correct?
(a) Chlamydiae are energy parasites.
(b) Rickettsiae cause Rocky Mountain spotted fever and Q fever.
(c) BGA show chromatic adaptation.
(d) Endospores of bacteria are resistant due to calcium ions and dipicolinic acid.
(e) Black rot of crucifers is due to Xanthomonas campestris.
(1) (a), (c) and (e) (2) (b), (c) and (e) (3) All except (b) (4) All of these
73. Find out the total number of false statements from the following.
(a) Cyanobacteria have chlorophyll a similar to green plants.
(b) Bacteria which oxidize various inorganic substances such as nitrites and ammonia and
use the released energy for ATP production are chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria.
(c) Heterotrophic bacteria are less in abundance in nature.
(d) Majority of heterotrophic bacteria are decomposers.
(e) Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria play important role in recycling of nutrients like
nitrogen, phosphorus, iron and sulphur.
(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four
74. Count the total number of disease from the following that are caused by bacteria.
Mumps, Smallpox, Citrus canker, Cholera, Typhoid, Tetanus, Sleeping sickness, Malaria
(1) Two (2) Four (3) Five (4) Six
75. Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) Mycoplasma has no cell wall
(b) Mycoplasma is the smallest living organism.
(c) Mycoplasma cannot survive without O2.
(d) Mycoplasma are pathogenic in animals and plants.
(e) True sexuality is not found in bacteria.
(f) A sort of sexual reproduction by adopting a primitive DNA transfer from one bacterium to
the other occurs.
(1) All of these. (2) Only (c)
(3) All except (c). (4) Only (a), (c) and (f).
76. Both carbon and nitrogen reducing enzymes are present in how many members listed
below?
Chlorella, Oscillatoria, Rhizobium, Nitrococcus, Azotobacter, Anabaena, Frankia,
Bacillus, Nitrocystis
(1) Six (2) Five (3) Four (4) Two
77. Mark the correct statement with respect to the sole members of the kingdom Monera.
(a) They are most abundant micro-organisms.
(b) They are largely dependent on dead organic matter or on other organisms for food.
(c) They are Spirilla mostly w.r.t. shape.
(d) They have simple structure and behavior.
(e) They are oxyphotobacteria only.
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (a), (d) and (e) (3) (a), (b) and (e) (4) (b), (d) & (e)
Kingdom Protista
Level I
78. Diatomaceous earth is formed due to which substance?
(1) Phosphorus (2) Calcium (3) Silica (4) Copper
79. Protista include
(1) all single celled prokaryotes. (2) all single celled eukaryotes.
(3) only marine form eukaryotes. (4) only marine form prokaryotes.
80. Which one of the following is not a character of Protista?
(1) Protists are prokaryotes.
(2) Some have cell wall.
(3) Mode of nutrition is both autotrophic and heterotrophic.
(4) Membrane bounded cell organelles are present.
81. Which of the following is not a photosynthetic organism?
(1) Diatom (2) Gonyaulax (3) Euglena (4) Slime mould
82. Red tide in which sea appear red, is because of rapid multiplication of
(1) Gonyaulax. (2) slime mould.
(3) Euglena. (4) golden algae.
83. The term plasmodium is used for
(1) Desmid. (2) Slime mould. (3) Euglena. (4) all protists.
84. The thalloid body of slime mould (myxomycetes) is known as
(1) plasmodium. (2) fruiting body. (3) mycelium. (4) prothallus.
85. Which of the following structures of slime mould possess cell wall?
(1) Mycelium (2) Plasmodium (3) Spore (4) Fruiting
86. Two grooves are present in the cell structure of
(1) Paramecium. (2) Desmids. (3) Gonyaulax. (4) All of these.
87. Which organisms are microscopic and float passively in water currents (fresh water as well
as marine environment)?
(1) Chrysophytes (2) Dinoflagellates
(3) Euglenoids (4) Slime moulds
88. Which of the following organelles is responsible for the flexibility in Euglena body?
(1) Contractile vacuole (2) Pellicle
(3) Flagella (4) Paramylum bodies
89. Which type of body organisation is reported in Protista?
(1) Cellular (2) Multicellular/Loose tissue
(3) Tissue (4) Tissue/Organ
90. Chrysophytes include
(1) diatoms and desmids (golden algae). (2) dinoflagellates.
(3) euglenoids. (4) slime moulds.
 91. Saxitoxins are secreted by
(1) Desmids. (2) Gonyaulax. (3) Euglena. (4) Red algae.
92. Characteristic feature of euglenoids are
(a) Presence of cell wall
(b) Presence of two flagella
(c) Photosynthetic in presence of sunlight
(d) Presence of pellicle on their cell
(1) (a) and (d) (2) (b) and (d) (3) All except (a) (4) All of these
93. Which of the following is not an example of dinoflagellate?
(1) Dictyostellium (2) Gymnodinium (3) Gonyalaux (4) Ceratium
94. Chief producers in ocean are
(1) dinoflagellates. (2) diatoms. (3) euglenoids. (4) green algae.
95. The slimy mass of protoplasm with nuclei that forms the body of slime mould is called
(1) plasmodium. (2) myxamoeba.
(3) sporocytes. (4) periplasmodium.
96. Which of the following statements is correct about Trypanosoma?
(1) They are flagellated protozoan. (2) They are parasite.
(3) They cause sleeping sickness. (4) All of these.
97. Paramecium
(1) is a ciliated protozoan.
(2) shows water current maintained by cilia which helps the food to be steered into gullet.
(3) has a cavity (gullet) that opens to the outside of the cell surface.
(4) All of these.
98. Soap box like cell wall is a characteristic of
(1) archaebacteria. (2) diatoms. (3) dinoflagellates. (4) englenoids.
99. Keiselgurh a heat resistant material is obtained from
(1) Rhodophyta. (2) Phaephyta. (3) Bacillariophyta. (4) Pyrrophyta.
100. Paramylum is the stored food of
(1) dinoflagellate. (2) euglenoid. (3) diatom. (4) slime
mould.
101. Fire algae belongs to the group
(1) Pyrrophyta. (2) Bacillariophyta.
(3) Euglenophyta. (4) Rhodophyta.
102. Toxins (Saxitoxins) secreted by some dinoflagellates enter the body of human beings through
food chain and result in
(1) madness. (2) paralysis.
(3) brain stroke. (4) unconsciousness.
103. Which of the following statements is correct?
(1) All slime moulds are haploid. (2) Protozoans lack cell wall.
(3) Dinoflagellates are non-motile. (4) Pellicle is absent in Euglena.
104. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of dinoflagellates?
(1) Presence of siliceous cell wall. (2) A protein rich layer called Pellicle.
(3) Flagella absent throughout life. (4) Heterokont flagellation.
105. Leucosin (Chrysolaminarin) is a carbohydrate which is stored as reserve food in case of
(1) Diatom. (2) Euglena.
(3) Dinoflagellates. (4) Paramecium.
106. From the following, select the non-protistan group.
(1) Slime moulds (2) Dinoflagellates
(3) Phycomycetes (4) Chrysophytes
107. are saprophytic protists, whose body moves along decaying twigs and leaves engulfing
organic material.
(1) Euglenoids (2) Dinoflagellates
(3) Chrysophytes (4) Slime moulds
Level II
108. Which of the following is not a feature of dinoflagellates?
(1) They cause red tides.
(2) Their cell wall has stiff cellulose plates on the outer surface.
(3) They release toxins.
(4) These are mostly fresh water and nonphotosynthetic.
109. Which of the following statements are correct for protists?
(a) Unicellular prokaryotes
 (b) Unicellular eukaryotes
(c) Multicellular eukaryotes
(d) Autotrophs and heterotrophs
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (b) and (d) (4) (c) and (d)
110. In slime moulds, fruiting bodies (sporangia) are formed during
(1) favourable conditions. (2) unfavourable conditions.
(3) Both (1) and (2). (4) humid conditions.
111. Select the statement that does not apply on diatoms.
(1) Cell wall may be impregnated with silicon.
(2) Cell wall is made up of two half-shells that fit tightly together.
(3) Diatom is the chief producer in ocean.
(4) Diatoms is multiflagellate.
112. Which of the following is incorrect about Protista?
(1) All are single celled eukaryotes.
(2) Some have flagella or cilia.
(3) Sexually reproduce by cell fusion and zygote formation.
(4) Members of Protista are primarily terrestrial.
113. Which of the following is correct about chrysophytes?
(a) Found in fresh and marine water
(b) Microscopic plankton
(c) Cell walls are embedded with CaCO3
(d) Most of them are photosynthetic
(1) Only (a) and (c) (2) All except (b).
(3) All except (c) (4) Only (a) and (d).
114. Following features belong to
(a) Appear yellow, green, brown, blue and red depending on pigment in cell
(b) Stiff cellulosic plates forms the cell wall
(c) One longitudinal and one transverse flagella present
(d) Photosynthetic
(1) diatoms. (2) desmids. (3) dinoflagellates. (4) euglenoids.
115. Which of the following characters belong to slime moulds?
(a) Saprophytes
(b) Forms plasmodium under favorable condition
(c) Spores possess true walls
(d) Spores are dispersed by water
(e) Body moves along decaying twigs and leaves engulfing organic matter.
(1) All except (e) (2) All except (d)
(3) All except (c) and (e) (4) All except (b)
116. Based upon the mode of nutrition, protists are grouped into
(1) plant-like protists (algae) and ingestive, animal-like protists (protozoa); and absorptive,
fungus like protists.
(2) chrysophytes, dinoflagellates and euglenoids only.
(3) slime moulds and fungi only.
(4) flagellated protozoans and sporozoans only.
117. Select the statement that does not apply to euglenoids.
(1) They reproduce asexually by longitudinal binary fission.
(2) They have heterokont flagellation.
(3) Their mode of nutrition is mixotrophic.
(4) Their cell wall is made up of cellulose.
118. The diatoms do not easily decay like most of the other algae because
(1) they have highly siliceous wall. (2) they have water proof cells.
(3) their cell wall is mucilaginous. (4) cell wall is virus-resistant.
119. Dinoflagellates have
(1) a single flagellum in the transverse groove between the cell plates.
(2) a single flagellum in the longitudinal groove between the cell plates.
(3) two flagella one lies longitudinally and the other transversely in a furrow between the wall
plates.
(4) no flagella.
120. Which of the following statements about Euglena is true?
(1) Euglenoids are flagellates.
(2) Euglena placed in continuous darkness loses their photosynthetic activity and die.
 (3) The pigments of Euglena are quite different from those of green plants.
(4) Euglena is a marine protist.
121. Which of the following statements is wrong about the amoeboid protozoans?
(1) They live in freshwater, sea water or moist soil.
(2) Amoeba has pseudopodia for locomotion and capture prey.
(3) Entamoeba shows holozoic nutrition.
(4) Marine forms are shelled with silica.
122. In three kingdom classification, the kingdom Protista includes
(1) unicellular eukaryotic organisms only.
(2) unicellular prokaryotic organisms only.
(3) wide variety of unicellular, mostly aquatic eukaryotes.
(4) wide variety of unicellular, mostly terrestrial prokarytes.
123. Plasmodium stage in slime moulds
(1) represents naked multinucleated somatic cell without cell membrane.
(2) is aggregation of sex cells during unfavourable conditions.
(3) may grow and spread over several feet.
(4) more than one option is correct.
124. Select incorrect match.
(1) Predators & parasites – Sporozoans (2) Flagellate protozoan - Trypanosoma
(3) Protozoans with gullet – Ciliates (4) Infectious spore-like-Plasmodium
stage
125. How many statements are correct for acellular slime moulds?
(a) Non-flagellate, wall-less and multinucleate haploid vegetative stage.
(b) Motile gametes may be formed.
(c) Isogamous sexual reproduction.
(d) Zygotic meiosis.
(e) Resistant spore possessing cellulosic wall.
(1) Two (2) Three (3) Four (4) All
Level III
126. Which of the following statements are incorrect?
(a) Protista include chrysophytes, dinoflagellates, euglenoids and slime moulds.
 (b) Protista are link between monera and fungi.
(c) Dinoflagellates have cell wall made up two thin overlapping shells which fit together like a
soap box.
(d) Diatoms are chief producer in the ocean.
(e) The pigments of euglenoids are different from those of higher plants.
(1) (a) and (d) (2) (b) and (c) (3) (c) and (e) (4) (d) and (e)
127. Which of the following statements are incorrect?
(a) Slime moulds in vegetative phase are surrounded by cell wall.
(b) Slime moulds are obligate autotrophs.
(c) Euglena behaves like heterotroph in absence of light predating smaller organism.
(d) The fishes are killed by toxins released by slime moulds.
(e) Protists reproduce sexually by zygote formation.
(f) Euglena has resemblance with plant and animal both.
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (a), (c) and (f) (4) (a), (b) and (d)
128. The statements given below are assigned to
(a) Instead of a cell wall they have a protein rich pellicle making their body flexible.
(b) They have 2 flagella, a short and a long one.
(c) They have mixotrophic nutrition.
(d) In light they are photosynthetic, but act as heterotrophy (predating other smaller
organism) when they are in dark.
(e) They are connecting link between plants and animals.
(1) dinoflagellates. (2) slime moulds.
(3) desmids and diatoms. (4) euglenoids.
129. Which of the following is correct about the slime mould?
(a) Its thalloid body, plasmodium, has pseudopodia for locomotion and ingulfing organic
matter.
(b) During unfavourable conditions plasmodium differentiates and produces fruiting bodies
called sporangium.
(c) Spores possess no true cell wall.
(d) They are dispersed by air current.
 (e) Being extremely resistant, spores survive for many years.
(f) Plasmodium can grow up to several feet.
(1) All except (c) (2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (a), (b), (c) and (f) (4) (b), (c) and (f)
130. Protists with photosynthetic pigments which are identical to those present in higher plants
can be also identified by
(a) their occurrence in running fresh water.
(b) flexible body due to proteinous cell wall.
(c) two dissimilar flagella of flagellin protein exposed outside the body.
(d) heterotrophic nutrition by predation when deprived of sunlight.
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (2) (b) and (c)
(3) (a) and (d) (4) only (d)
131. Cellulosic cell wall is present in vegetative stage of how many organisms mentioned below?
Physarum, Gymnodinium, Euglena, Dictyostelium, Gonyaulax, Physarella
(1) Four (2) Three (3) Five (4) Two

Kingdom Fungi
Level I
132. Which one is correctly matched?
(1) Agaricus - Smut
(2) Ustilago - Mushroom
(3) Puccinia - Insectivorous plant
(4)
- Imperfect Fungi
Deuteromycetes
133. The sex organs are absent, but plasmogamy is brought about by fusion of two vegetative or
somatic cells of different genotypes. It is the feature of
(1) phycomycetes. (2) basidiomycetes. (3) ascomycetes. (4) All of these.
134. The fungi form fruiting bodies in which division occurs, leading to the formation of spores.
(1) mitotic; diploid (2) reduction; haploid
(3) mitotic; haploid (4) reduction; diploid
135. The association of algae with the roots of higher plants is called
(1) lichens. (2) mycorrhiza. (3) slime mould (4) Neurospora.
136. Vegetative reproduction by fragmentation is common in
(1) Agaricus. (2) Saccharomyces. (3) Euglena. (4) Gonyaulax.
137. Select the incorrect match.
Class Member
(1) Phycomycetes Albugo
(2) Basidiomycetes Claviceps
(3) Ascomycetes Penicillium
Deuteromycete
(4) Trichoderma
s
138. Haploid sexual spore produced exogenously is
(1) ascospore (2) basidiospore. (3) oospore. (4) zygospore.
139. Coenocytic mycelium is found in
(1) deuteromycetes. (2) phycomycetes. (3) ascomycetes. (4) All of these.
140. The members of which group are commonly known as sac fungi?
(1) Phycomycetes (2) Deuteromycetes
(3) Basidiomycetes (4) Ascomycetes
141. What is the basis for classification of fungi?
(1) Morphology of mycelium (2) Mode of spore formation
(3) Fruiting bodies (4) All of these
142. When there are two haploid nuclei per cell in some fungi before the formation of diploid, this
stage is called
(1) diplotene. (2) diplophase. (3) dikaryophase. (4) dikaryote.
143. Dikaryotic stage is a characteristic of
(1) phycomycetes and ascomycetes. (2) ascomycetes and basidiomycetes.
(3) phycomycetes and basidiomycetes. (4) basidiomycetes and deuteromycetes.
144. Cellulose is the major component of cell wall of
(1) Saccharomyces. (2) Pythium.
(3) Xanthomonas. (4) Pseudomonas.
145. Which of the following pair is an odd pair?
(1) Phycomycetes - Aquatic fungi (2) Basidiomycetes - Sac fungi
(3) Ascomycetes – Penicillium (4) Basidiomycetes - Puff balls
146. Sporangiospore is produced in the life cycle of
(1) Spirogyra. (2) Ulothrix.
(3) Rhizopus. (4) Methylophilus.
147. Pathogen of white rust disease belongs to the group
(1) ascomycetes. (2) basidiomycetes.
(3) phycomycetes. (4) deuteromycetes.
148. The black rust of wheat is a fungal disease caused by
(1) Albugo candida. (2) Puccinia graminis tritici.
(3) Ustilago nuda. (4) Claviceps purpurea.
149. Which of the following eukaryote is extensively used in experimental genetics?
(1) E. coli (2) Alternaria 3) Ustilago (4) Neurospora
150. Fruiting bodies are produced by
(1) algal and sac fungi. (2) fungi and higher plants.
(3) sac and club fungi. (4) algal and fungi imperfecti.
151. Mycorrhiza is an association of
(1) higher plant and non-motile algae. (2) fungi and higher plants.
(3) leguminous plant and bacteria. (4) Both (1) and (2).
152. Edible morels and truffles belong to which group of fungi?
(1) Basidiomycetes (2) Deuteromycetes
(3) Phycomycetes (4) None of these
153. Which of the following does not belong to the same group?
(1) Rust (2) Ustilago (3) Puff ball (4)
Trichoderma
154. Endogenous and exogenous spores both can be traced in
(1) Mucor. (2) Agaricus. (3) Penicillium. (4) Rhizopus.
155. Cellulose is the major component of cell walls of
(1) Pseudomonas. (2) Saccharomyces. (3) Pythium. (4) Puccinia.
156. Irish Famine of 1845 was caused by
(1) Alternaria solanii. (2) Sclerospora graminicola.
(3) Phytophthora infestans. (4) Fusarium oxysporum.
157. Somatogamy is the fusion of
(1) two vegetative/somatic cell, of different strain/ genotypes to form dikaryotic cell.
(2) sperm with egg.
(3) two somatic cells having identical strain.
(4) egg with egg.
158. If hyphae are continuous tube filled with multinucleated cytoplasm, it is known as
(1) septate hyphae. (2) coenocytic hyphae.
(3) mycelium. (4) None of these.
159. Deuteromycetes are also known as imperfect fungi because
(1) only sexual phase is found.
(2) only asexual or vegetative phase are known.
(3) both asexual and sexual phase are known.
(4) reproduction in these fungi is absent.
160. Coenocytic hypha is
(1) uninucleate hypha. (2) multicellular hypha.
(3) multinucleate hypha without septate. (4) hypha in coelom.
161. Dikaryophase/dikaryon formation is a specific characteristic of
(1) all fungi. (2) phycomycetes and ascomycetes.
(3) only basidiomycetes. (4) ascomycetes and basidiomycetes.
162. Coprophilous fungi grows on
(1) bark of trees. (2) lignin of wood.
(3) leather and metal. (4) dung of mammals.
163. Basidiomycetes include
(1) mushroom, toadstool, puffball and bracket fungi.
(2) smut fungi and rust fungi.
(3) Both (1) and (2).
(4) bread mould, sac fungi and algal fungi.
164. Which of the following is correctly matched?
(1) Ascospores – Exospores (2) Zoospores - motile endospores
(3) Conidia – Endospores (4) Basidiospores - Non-motile
endospores
165. Plasmogamy is the fusion of
(1) cytoplasm of two somatic cells or gametes.
(2) sperm with egg.
(3) two spores of different species of fungi.
(4) two vegetative/somatic cells, of different strain.

Level II
166. Statement 1: Yeast is a multicellular fungus.
Statement 2: Penicillium is a unicellular fungus.
Statement 3: Albugo is a parasitic fungus on mustard.
(1) Only statement 1 and statement 2 are correct. (2) All the above statements are incorrect.
(3) Only statement 3 is correct. (4) Both statement 1 & 3 are correct.
167. Which of the following is an incorrect statement regarding fungi?
(1) Wheat rust causing agent is Puccinia. (2) Penicillium is a source of antibiotic.
(3) The cell walls of fungi are composed of peptidoglycans.
(4) Fungi prefer to grow in warm and humid places.
168. Make the correct statement.
(1) Phycomycetes include mushrooms, bracket fungi or puff balls.
(2) The mycelium of basidiomycetes is branched and septate.
(3) Neurospora is used extensively in biochemical and genetic work, it belongs to the group
basidiomycetes.
(4) Morels and truffles are non-edible.
169. With respect to fungal sexual cycle, choose the correct sequence of events.
(1) Karyogamy, Plasmogamy, Meiosis (2) Meiosis, Plasmogamy, Karyogamy
(3) Plasmogamy, Karyogamy, Meiosis (4) Meiosis, Karyogamy, Plasmogamy
170. Which is incorrect with respect to kingdom fungi?
(1) They reproduce asexually and sexually.
(2) They show a great diversity in structure and habitat.
(3) Most of fungi are saprophytic in their mode of nutrition.
(4) They do not reproduce by zoospores.
171. Identify (a), (b) and (c) in the given diagram.
 (1) (a) Mucor; (b) Aspergillus; (c) Agaricus (2) (a) Mucor; (b) Agaricus; (c) Aspergillus
(3) (a) Aspergillus; (b) Mucor; (c) Agaricus (4) (a) Agaricus; (b) Aspergillus; (d) Mucor
172. Match Column-I and Column-II and choose the correct option.
Column-I
(a) Phycomycetes Column-II
(b) Ascomycetes (ii) Mucor, Rhizopus
(c) Deuteromycetes (iii) Alternaria, Colletotrichum
(d) Basidiomycetes (iv) Penicillium, Claviceps
(1) (a) - (ii); (b) - (iv); (c) - (iii); (d) - (i) (2) (a) - (i); (b) - (iii); (c) - (ii); (d) - (iv)
(3) (a) - (iv); (b) - (ii); (c) - (i); (d) - (iii) (4) (a) - (iii); (b) - (ii); (c) - (i); (d) - (iv)
173. Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
(a) Rhizopus (i) Deuteromycetes
(b) Aspergillus (ii) Basidiomycetes
(c) Puccinia (iii) Ascomycetes
(d) Alternaria (iv) Phycomycetes
(1) (a) - (i); (b) - (ii); (c) - (iii); (d) - (iv) (2) (a) - (iv); (b) - (iii); (c) - (i); (d) - (ii)
(3) (a) - (iv); (b) - (iii); (c) - (ii); (d) - (i) (4) (a) - (i); (b) - (iii); (c) - (ii); (d) - (iv)
174. Fungi in the group phycomycetes show
(1) motile 1-2 flagellated zoospores. (2) cellulose in cell wall.
(3) asexual spores are endogenously produced. (4) All of these.
175. The name club fungi is given to basidiomycetes due to the presence of
(1) club-shaped basidia.
(2) sac-shaped basidia.
(3) hymenium of basidia.
(4) water droplet mechanism for dehiscene of basidiospores.
176. Which of the following structure is not a characteristic feature of mushrooms?
(1) Basidiospore (2) Dikaryotic mycelium
(3) Ascospores (4) Clamp connections
177. Which of the following fungal characters is shown by slime moulds?
(1) Absence of cell wall in the adults. (2) Presence of 2 flagella attached
laterally.
(3) Formation of fruiting bodies. (4) Absence of cell membrane.
178. Members of phycomycetes are found
(a) in aquatic habitat (b) on decaying wood.
(c) on moist and damp places. (d) as obligate parasite on plants.
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (a) and (d) (3) (b) and (c) (4) All of these
179. Which of the following pairs belong to same kingdom?
(1) Mycoplasma and Euglena. (2) Golden algae and Green algae.
(3) Toadstool and Albugo. (4) Lichens and Alternaria.
180. Sexual reproduction in fungus occurs in the following sequential event. Arrange them
properly.
(a) Fusion of two nuclei called karyogamy.
(b) Fusion of protoplasm between two motile or non-motile gametes.
(c) Meiosis in zygote resulting in haploid spores.
(1) (a) → (b) → (c) (2) (b) → (a) → (c) (3) (c) → (b) → (a) (4) (c)→(a)→
(b)
181. Following features belong to the class
(a) Asexual reproduction by zoospores or aplanospores
(b) Fusion of gametes maybe isogamous, anisogamous or oogamous
(c) Mycelium is aseptate and coenocytic
(d) Spores are endogenously produced in sporangium
(1) ascomycetes. (2) deuteromycetes.
(3) phycomycetes. (4) basidiomycetes.
182. Select the statements below that correctly apply to the kingdom fungi.
(1) Some fungi form beneficial interrelationships with plants.
(2) Certain fungi are natural sources of antibiotics.
 (3) The fungi life cycle typically includes a spore stage.
(4) All of these.
183. Which of the following is false about ascomycetes?
(1) Mode of nutrition saprophytic, decomposer, coprophilous (growing on dung) and parasitic.
(2) It includes unicellular (e.g., yeast) and multicellular forms.
(3) Its mycelum is coenocytic.
(4) Aspergillus, Claviceps and Neurospora are important members of ascomycetes.
184. Which of the following is false about deuteromycetes?
(1) They reproduce only by asexual spores (2) Mycelium is branched and septate.
(3) They have only parasite forms. (4) They have no sexual stage
185. In class phycomycetes, the mycelium is
(1) coenocytic and aseptate. (2) coenocytic and septate.
(3) uninucleate and aseptate. (4) multinucleate and septate.
186. Mark the correct statement.
(1) Amanita muscoides is the most delicious mushroom.
(2) The poisonous mushrooms are called toad stools.
(3) The most poisonous mushroom is Agaricus bisporous.
(4) The cell wall of basidiomycetes is made up of cellulose.
187. Mark the odd one with respect to kingdom fungi.
(1) They reproduce asexually and sexually.
(2) They show a great diversity in structure and habitat.
(3) Most of fungi are saprophytic in their mode of nutrition.
(4) They do not reproduce by zoospores.
188. Consider the following statement(s).
(a) Fungi show great diversity in morphology and habitat.
(b) White rust fungus is facultative parasite on mustard leaf.
(c) The cell walls of algal fungi are composed of chitin mainly.
(1) All are correct. (2) Both (a) and (b) are correct.
(3) Both (b) and (c) are incorrect. (4) Only (c) is incorrect.
189. Which one of the following statements is incorrect for fungi?
(1) Unique kingdom of heterotrophic organisms with true tissue or organ level organization.
 (2) Show a great diversity in morphology.
(3) Also grow parasitically on animals.
(4) Prefer to grow in warm and humid places.
190. Select incorrect matching from the given pair.
(1) Helminthosporium - Conidia
(2) Puccinia - White rust on mustard
(3) Agaricus - Rhizomorph
(4) Penicillium - Cleistothecium
191. Albugo is
(a) obligate parasite. (b) causal organism of wheat rust disease.
(c) phycomycetes member.
(d) reproducing sexually by gametangial copulation.
Mark correct option.
(1) All are correct (2) (a) and (c) (3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b) & (c)
Level III
192. Which of the following environmental conditions are essential for optimum growth of Mucor
on a piece of bread?
(a) Temperature of about 25∘ C (b) Temperature of about 5∘ C
(c) Relative humidity of about 5 % (d) Relative humidity of about 95 %
(e) A shady place (f) A brightly illuminated place
(1) (b), (c) and (f) (2) (a), (c) and (e) (3) (a), (d) and (e) (4) (b), (d), (e)
193. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?
(a) Fungi are cosmopolitan in distribution.
(b) Bread mould, toadstool, yeast, Puccinia all are fungi.
(c) Fungi mostly are unicellular and eukaryotes.
(d) Most of the fungi are saprophyte but a few are autotrophic and parasite also.
(e) Lichen is symbiotic association of fungi and higher green plants.
(f) There is reduction in sexual reproduction as one moves from lower to higher forms of
fungi.
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (c), (e) and (f) (3) (b), (d) and (f) (4) (c), (d) & (e)
194. Which of the following statements are incorrect?
(a) The basidiospore is produced exogenously.
(b) The ascospore is produced exogenously.
(c) The perfect stage belongs to deuteromycetes.
 (d) The mycelium of phycomycetes is aseptate.
(e) Most of members of deuteromycetes are decomposers.
(f) Puccinia (Smut) and Ustilago (Rust) belong to ascomycetes.
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (b), (c) and (d) (3) (c), (d) and (e) (4) (b), (c) & (f)
195. Complete the life cycle of Puccinia.

(1) Basidiospores (2) Spermatiospores (3) Ascospores (4) Conidia

196. Which mycelium is edible in mushroom?
(1) Primary (=Akaryotic) (2) Secondary (=Coenocytic)
(3) Tertiary (=Dikaryotic) (4) Monokaryotic
197. The characters given below are assigned to
(a) Mycelium is branched and septate.
(b) No asexual spores are generally formed.
(c) Vegetative reproduction by fragmentation is common.
(d) Sex organs are absent, but sexual reproduction takes place by somatogamy.
(e) Karyogamy and meiosis occur in basidium to form haploid exogenous four basidiospores.
(f) Basidia are arranged in basidiocarp.
(1) Penicillium. (2) Agaricus. (3) algal fungi. (4)fungi
imperfecti.
198. How many of the following fungus belong to class ascomycetes?
Rhizopus, Penicillium, Yeast, Mucor, Agaricus, Puccinia, Albugo, Claviceps, Neurospora,
Alternaria, Trichoderma, Aspergillus, Ustilago, Morels, Buffles, Colletotrichum, Toadstool
(1) Five (2) Seven (3) Nine (4) Ten
199. The following characteristics are shown by
(a) It includes unicellular as well as multicellular fungi.
(b) In multicellular forms hyphae are branched and septate.
(c) Conidiophore produces conidia (spores) exogenously in chain.
(d) Sexual spores are ascopores produced endogenously in ascus.
(e) Fruiting body is called ascocarp.
 (1) phycomycetes. (2) sac fungi. (3) club fungi. (4) fungi
imperfecti
200. Read the following statements carefully and identify the correct statements with respect to
lichens.
(a) The association cannot tolerate air pollution, especially due to sulphur dioxide.
(b) Lichens are annuals and their growth is slow.
(c) The fungal partner mostly belongs to ascomycetes.
(d) Soredia are most efficient means of asexual reproduction.
(e) Orchids seldom occur without this association.
(f) Foliose lichens are pioneers of succession in a water body.
(1) (c), (d) and (f) (2) (a), (c), (d) and (f)
(3) (a), (b) and (e) (4) (a), (c) and (d)
201. In how many members, asexual reproduction commonly occurs by endogenously formed
motile spore [a] and with non-motile exogenous spore [b]?
Rhizopus, Neurospora, Pythium, Penicillium, Saccharomyces, Saprolegnia, Agaricus,
Aspergillus, Polyporous
(1) a−4 ; b−2 (2) a−2 ; b−3 (3) a−4 ; b−3 (4) a−6 ; b−4
202. In how many members, fruiting bodies are basidiocarp?
(a) Morels (b) Smuts (c) Wheat rust fungi (d) Puff ball
(e) Truffels (f) Fly Agaric g) Pink mould (h) Mushroom
(i) Bracket fungi
(1) Four (2) Six (3) Two (4) Seven
203. Consider the features given below.
(a) Longer dikaryophase. (b) Fruiting bodies are formed.
(c) Endogenous sexual spores. (d) Sex organs present.
(v) Motile stage in asexual life cycle.
How many statements are correct for Penicillium and Agaricus respectively?
(1) 3 and 2 (2) 5 and 4 (3) 4 and 4 (4) 3 and 4
Viruses, Viriods, Prions and Lichens
Level I
204. Who demonstrated that the extract of the infected plants of tobacco could cause infection in
healthy plants?
 (1) Pasteur (2) M.W. Beijerinek (3) D.J. Ivanowsky (4) W.M.
Stanley
205. Select the incorrect match with respect to genetic material.
(1) Herpes virus ssDNA (2) Bacteriophage dsDNA
(3) TMV ssRNA (4) Influenza virus - ssRNA
206. Viruses are no more alive than isolated chromosomes because
(1) they require both RNA and DNA.
(2) they both need food molecules.
(3) they both require oxygen for respiration.
(4) both require the environment of a cell to replicate.
207. Viruses are living, because they
(1) multiply themselves. (2) carry anaerobic respiration.
(3) carry metabolic activities. (4) cause infection.
208. Which statement is wrong for viruses?
(1) They have ability to synthesize nucleic acids and proteins.
(2) Antibiotics have no effect on them.
(3) All are parasites.
(4) All of them have helical symmetry.
209. Viruses posses
(1) ribosomes to synthesise protein. (2) organelles for its vital mechanisms.
(3) either DNA or RNA. (4) None of these.
210. Genetic material of bacterial viruses is generally?
(1) ssRNA (2) dsRNA (3) dsDNA (4) ssDNA
211. Tobacco mosaic virus (TMV) genes are associated with
(1) single stranded RNA. (2) double stranded DNA.
(3) single stranded DNA. (4) double stranded RNA.
212. The tailed bacteriophages are
(1) motile on surface of bacteria. (2) non-motile.
(3) motile on surface of plant leaves. (4) actively motile in water.
213. The viruses with nucleic acid but without protein coat are known as
(1) viron. (2) viroids. (3) capsomere. (4) prion.
214. T.O. Diener discovered a
(1) bacteriophage. (2) free infectious RNA.
(3) free infectious DNA. (4) infectious protein.
215. Lichens show symbiotic relationship between
(1) algae and fungi. (2) algae and bacteria.
(3) fungi and bacteriophage. (4) algae and bacteriophage.
216. Which organisms are not included in the five kingdom system of classification?
(1) Protozoans (2) Viruses (3) Lichens (4) Both (2)
&(3)
217. Plant viruses mostly have
(1) DNA. (2) RNA.
(3) Both (1) and (2). (4) coiled nucleolus.
218. Viruses
(1) are inert outside their specific host cell. (2) are obligate parasite.
(3) passed through bacteria proof filter. (4) All of these.
219. In lichen, algal component is called and fungal component is called .
(1) mycobiont; phycobiont (2) phycobiont; mycobiont
(3) phycobiont; mycorrhiza (4) mycorrhiza; mycobiont
220. Lichens are
(1) pollution indicators.
(2) symbiotic association between algae and fungus.
(3) pioneer species in primary succession on rocks.
(4) All of these.
221. The viruses are non-cellular organisms that are characterised by
(1) absence of nucleic acid.
(2) an active structure outside the living cell.
(3) an inert crystalline structure outside the cell.
(4) their hyperactivity outside the cell.
222. Chemically viruses are
(1) glycoproteins. (2) glycolipid
(3) nucleoproteins. (4) lipopolysaccharides
223. Viroids differ from viruses in being
(1) naked DNA molecules. (2) naked RNA molecules.
(3) proteinaceous particles. (4) None of these.
224. Which of the following is not a viral disease of plants?
(1) Red rot of sugarcane (2) Tobacco mosaic
(3) Leaf curl of tomato (4) Tristeza disease of citrus
225. Smallest plant virus is
(1) cauliflower mosaic virus. (2) citrus tristeza virus.
(3) satellite of tobacco necrosis. (4) tobacco mosaic virus.
226. Which of the following feature is not related with virus?
(1) Infectivity and host specificity (2) Presence of genetic material
(3) Occurrence of genetic material (4) Presence of respiration
227. Symptom not seen in plants due to viruses is
(1) mosaic formation. (2) leaf rolling and curling.
(3) yellowing and vein clearing. (4) root knot.
228. Viruses possess all the following properties except
(1) they are non-cellular organisms.
(2) they possess both DNA and RNA.
(3) capsid protects their nucleic acid.
(4) they have inert crystalline structure outside living cells.
229. Mark the odd one (with respect to prions).
(1) Jacob Cruze feldt disease (2) Mad cow disease
(3) Potato leaf roll (4) Scrapie disease
Level II
230. Which of the following statements is incorrect about viruses?
(1) Viruses contain either RNA or DNA.
(2) Viruses do not have their own metabolic system.
(3) Bacteriophages are usually double stranded DNA viruses.
(4) TMV contains both RNA and DNA as their genetic material.
231. Select the correct statement.
(1) Viroids have double stranded RNA.
 (2) RNA of viroids has higher molecular weight than that of viruses.
(3) Mumps and herpes are viral diseases.
(4) The name viroids was given by D.J. Ivanowsky.
232. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(1) Plant virus has single stranded RNA.
(2) Animal virus has single and double strand RNA or dsDNA.
(3) Unit which makes the protein coat of virus is called of peplomere.
(4) Viroids discovered by Diener are made up of only free RNA.
233. Which of the following statements is correct with respect to lichens?
(1) Mycobiont is autotrophic component.
(2) Phycobiont is heterotrophic component.
(3) They are good pollution indicators.
(4) They do not grow in non-polluted areas.
234. Which of the following statements are incorrect with respect to lichens?
(a) Algae protects fungus and fungus is parasite on algae.
(b) Algae and fungi are in symbiotic association.
(c) Lichens are pollution indicator.
(d) Lichen represents the climax of plant succession.
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (a) and (d) (3) (b) and (c) (4) (c) and (d)
235. There exists a close association between the alga and the fungus within a lichen. The fungus
(1) provides protection, anchorage and absorption.
(2) provides food for the alga.
(3) fixes the atmospheric nitrogen for the alga.
(4) releases oxygen for the alga.
236. Which of the following statements about lichens is wrong?
(1) These grow very rapidly ( 2 cm per day).
(2) They show fungal and algal symbiotic relationships.
(3) Some of its species are eaten by reindeers.
(4) These are symbiotic association of prokaryotic and eukaryotic organism.
237. Match Column-I with Column II and choose the correct option
Column-I Column-II
 (a) ss DNA (i) Reo-virus
(b) ds
(ii) QB phage
DNA
(c) ss RNA (iii) Phage T 2
(d) ds
(iv) Φ × 174 coliphage
RNA
(1) (a) - (iii); (b) - (i); (c) - (iv); (d) - (ii) (2) (a) - (iv); (b) - (i); (c) - (iii); (d) - (ii)
(3) (a) - (iv); (b) - (iii); (c) - (ii); (d) - (i) (4) (a) - (iii); (b) - (iv); (c) - (i); (d) - (ii)
238. Which of the following is incorrectly matched?
(1) Viroid – RNA (2) Chief producer in ocean - Diatoms
(3) Cellulose plates – Dinoflagellates (4) Gonyaulax −¿ Red sea
239. In plants, viral symptoms can be
(1) mosaic formation, leaf rolling and leaf curling. (2) yellowing and vein clearing in leaf.
(3) dwarfing and stunted growth. (4) All of these.
240. Consider the following statements and select the correct option.
(a) Viroid was discovered in 1971.
(b) Viruses are acellular organisms.
(c) n+ n stage occurs in lower fungi.
(1) (c) is correct but (a) and (b) are wrong. (2) (a) is correct but (b) and (c) are wrong.
(3) (a) and (b) are correct but (c) is wrong. (4) (a) and (c) are correct but (b) is wrong.
241. Which of the following statements is false about viruses?
(1) Viruses are obligate parasites.
(2) Viruses can multiply only when they are inside the living cells.
(3) Viruses cannot pass through bacterial proof filters.
(4) Viruses are made up of protein and DNA or RNA (never both DNA and RNA).
242. Lichens are composite organism made up of a fungus and a photosynthetic alga. Which of
the following statements is wrong about lichen?
(1) Lichens are sensitive to air pollution because they have no way to excrete toxic
substances.
(2) Algal partner (phycobiont) and fungal partner (mycobiont) live mutually.
(3) Algae prepare food for fungi and fungi provide shelter and absorb water and minerals for
 algal partner.
(4) None of these.
243. Which of the following statements is false about viruses?
(1) Viruses are obligate parasites.
(2) Viruses can multiply only when they are inside the living cells.
(3) Viruses cannot pass bacterial proof fitters.
(4) Viruses are made up of protein and DNA or RNA.
244. In 1971, T.O. Diener discovered a new infectious agent that was smaller than viruses.
(a) It causes potato spindle tuber disease.
(b) It is free RNA.
(c) The molecular weight of its RNA is low.
The above statements are assigned to
(1) prions. (2) viroids. (3) virulent. (4)
mycoplasma.
245. Which of the following is the best example of endomycorrhiza?
(1) Boletus fungus in the roots of Pinus. (2) Aspergillus niger in roots of ferns
(3) Yeast in leaves of mango plant (4) Vesicular Arbuscular Mycorrhiza
(VAM)
246. Mark the correct option w.r.t. following diagram.

(b)

(1) (a) - ss RNA; (b) - Peplomere

(2) (a) - Polyribonucleotide; (b) - Provide protection to nucleic acid
(3) (a) - Genetic material; (b) - Envelope
(4) (a) - Capsomere; (b) - RNA
Level III
247. Which of the following statements are incorrect?
(a) Viruses, viroids are classified by Whittaker in kingdom Monera.
(b) Viruses are non-cellular organisms.
(c) Virus-mean venom and name was coined by W.M. Stanley.
(d) Contagium vivum fluidum was called by D.J. Ivanowsky
(e) Viruses are obligate parasite.
(f) Virus contains either DNA or RNA.
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (b), (d) and (f) (3) (a), (c) and (d) (4) (d), (e) & (f)
248. Find odd one w.r.t. infectious genetic material as single stranded RNA from the given viruses
and virus entity.
(a) CaMV (Cauliflower mosaic virus) (b) TMV
(c) Rice dwarf virus (d) T 4-phage
(e) Influenza virus (f) Mumps virus
(1) (a), (c) and d (2) (b) and (e) (3) (b) and (f) (4) (e) and (f)
249. Viruses do not find any position in the five kingdom system because of
(a) infectious nature.
(b) non-cellular structure.
(c) obligate parasitism.
(d) nucleio-protein structure.
(e) multiplication inside the host.
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (a), (c) and (e) (3) (b), (c) and (e) (4) Only (b)
250. How many features are incorrect for lichens?
(a) Slow growing annual plants.
(b) Water pollution indicator.
(c) Predominant phycobionts as green algae.
(d) Autotrophic partner may be prokaryotes or eukaryotes.
(e) Major fungal partner as club fungi.
(1) (b) and (e) only (2) (a), (b) and (e) (3) (b), (c) and (e) (4) (b) and (d)
Miscellaneous
Level I
251. Which of the following is not a disease caused by viruses?
(1) Mumps (2) Herpes
(3) Dysentery (4) Bunchy top of banana
252. In which group of organisms, reserve food is stored in the form of glycogen and fat?
(1) Man and monkey (2) Cuscuta and dog
(3) Bladderwort and Cuscuta (4) Bladderwort and Venus fly trap
Level II
253. Select the incorrect statement.
(1) Cuscuta is a parasitic plant.
(2) Bladderwort and Venus fly trap are examples of insectivorous plants.
(3) Plantae includes algae, bryophytes, pteriophytes, gymnosperms and angiosperms.
(4) The mode of nutrition in plants is holozoic.
254. What is common to bacteria, mosses and fungus?
(1) Their mode of nutrition. (2) Presence of cell wall in all.
(3) They are autotrophic. (4) Their body organization.
255. Life cycle in plant has generally two distinct phases, the sporophytic and the gametophytic
that alternate with each other. This phenomenon is called alternation of generation.
(1) diploid; diploid (2) diploid; haploid
(3) haploid; diploid (4) haploid; haploid
256. Select the wrong statement.
(1) Isogametes are similar in structure, function and behaviour.
(2) Anisogametes differ either in structure, function or behaviour.
(3) In Oomycetes female gamete is smaller and motile, while male gamete is larger and non-
motile.
(4) Chlamydomonas exhibits both isogamy and anisogamy and Fucus show oogamy.
Level III
257. Select from the following the total number of features that belong to animal kingdom.
(a) Multicellular, heterotrophic.
(b) Most of them capable of locomotion.
(c) Have definite shape and size.
(d) Digestion of food in internal cavity.
(e) Holozoic mode of nutrition.
 (f) Stored food reserve as glycogen or fat.
(g) Higher forms show sensory and neuromotor mechanism.
(h) Some members are autotrophic.
(i) Presence of cellulose cell wall.
(j) Sexual reproduction generally by copulation of male and female.
(1) Six (2) Seven (3) Eight (4) Ten
258. How many organisms in the list given below are autotrophs?
Lactobacillus, Nostoc, Chara, Nitrosomonas,
Nitrobacter, Streptomyces, Saccharomyces,
Trypanosoma, Porphyra, Wolffia
(1) Four (2) Five (3) Six (4) Three
259. Which of the following options incorrectly distinguishes the kingdoms monera and protista?
Monera Protista
(1) Includes unicellular prokaryotes Includes multicellular eukaryotes
(2) Membrane bound cell organelles Membrane bound cell organelles are present
are absent
(3) Cell wall when present, made up of Cell wall, if present, contains cellulose
peptidoglycans
(4) Flagella, when present, comprise of Flagella and cilia when present, made up of
protein flagellin protein tubulin
260. Difference between a red sea and red tide is
(1) red tide takes place in red sea.
(2) associated with a cyanobacteria and protist, respectively.
(3) one is by virus and other by bacteria.
(4) associated with Rhodophyceae and diatoms, respectively.