UTTARAKHAND JUDICIAL SERVICE 2025 - Preliminary Examinaation

MOCK PAPER II
Maximum Marks: 200
Time Allowed: 3 hours

Part 1 (Current Affairs)

1. Who coined the term ‘International Law’?
(a) Oppenheim
(b) J.L. Brierly
(c) Jeremy Bentham
(d) B.L. Kapoor
2. Who was the first Speaker of Lok Sabha?
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(b) G.V. Mavalankar
(c) M.C. Setalvad
(d) Dr. Zakir Hussain

3. Which State government recently decided that no ‘Gorkha’ citizen will be

prosecuted under the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 1955?
(a) Assam
(b) Manipur
(c) Sikkim
(d) Nagaland

4. Andaman and Nicobar Islands come under the jurisdiction of which of the following
High Courts?
(a) Delhi High Court
(b) Goa High Court
(c) Calcutta High Court
(d) Madras High Court

5. In which of the following case the ‘Public Trust’ doctrine was mentioned by the
Supreme Court of India?
 (a) Vishakha v. State of Rajasthan, 1997
(b) D.K. Basu v. State of West Bengal, 1996
(c) Ram Kumar v. State of Haryana, 1987
(d) M.C. Mehta v. Kamal Nath, 1997

6. The tenure of the judges of the International Court of Justice is:

(a) 5 years
(b) 6 years
(c) 10 years
(d) 9 years

7. UN Commission on ‘Human Rights’ was replaced by:

(a) Human Rights Committee
(b) Human Rights Council
(c) International Human Rights Organization
(d) None of the above

8. Where is the headquarters of the ‘International Commission of Jurists’ located?

(a) Geneva
(b) Rome
(c) Paris
(d) London

9. Who was the first Law Minister of India?

(a) Sardar Patel
(b) K.M. Munshi
(c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(d) None of these

10. Which specific Article of the Constitution of India makes the provision of the
“General Clauses Act, 1897” applicable for interpretation of the Constitution?
(a) Article 366
 (b) Article 367
(c) Article 363
(d) Article 372

11. Who said that ‘International Law is the vanishing point of jurisprudence’?
(a) Kelson
(b) Blackstone
(c) C. Wilfred Jenks
(d) Holland

12. Which Union Territory was merged into the other in the year 2020?
(a) Daman and Diu with Dadra and Nagar Haveli
(b) J & K with Leh
(c) Leh with Ladakh
(d) Puducherry with Dadra and Nagar Haveli

13. Which of the Constitutional Amendment Act lowered the voting age of elections
from 21 years to 18 years by amending Article 326?
(a) 41st Amendment
(b) 61st Amendment
(c) 97th Amendment
(d) 42nd Amendment

14. Who was elected as the temporary President of the Constituent Assembly?
(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(b) Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru
(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(d) Dr. Sachchidanand Sinha

15. The Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution of India provides for:

(a) Election
(b) Reorganization of J&K
(c) Panchayati Raj
(d) Languages
 16. The headquarters of UNESCO is located in:
(a) Hague
(b) Paris
(c) New York
(d) New Delhi

17. Total number of members of European Union are:

(a) 28
(b) 25
(c) 27
(d) 30

18. The Surrogacy (Regulation) Act, 2021 has received the assent of the President on:
(a) 24th December, 2021
(b) 25th November, 2021
(c) 24th July, 2021
(d) 25th December, 2021

19. Which of the following is a series of military tribunal held following World War II
by the Allied Forces under International Law and Law of War?
(a) Nuremberg Trials
(b) Tokyo Trials
(c) Eichmann Trial
(d) Peleus Trial

20. In which of the following cases, it was held that ‘right not to be deported’ is
concomitant Article 19 and available only to Indian Citizens?
(a) B.K. Pavitra & others v. Union of India, 2019
(b) Joseph Shine v. Union of India, 2018
(c) Mohammad Sali Mullah v. Union of India, 2021
(d) Shayara Bano v. Union of India, 2017
 21. Which of the following Article of the United Nations Charter relates to Domestic
Jurisdiction?
(a) Article 2(7)
(b) Article 23
(c) Article 3
(d) Article 4

22. Author of De jure belli ac pacis is:

(a) Hobbes
(b) Bentham
(c) Grotius
(d) Austin

23. First Indian Judge of International Court of Justice was:

(a) Dr. Shashi Tharoor
(b) Sir B.N. Rau
(c) Sri Nagendra Singh
(d) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

24. At present who is the Secretary General of United Nations?

(a) Ms Amina J. Mohammad
(b) Antonio Guterres
(c) Ban Ki-Moon
(d) Kofi Annan

25. Parliamentary Committee means a committee which is:

(a) appointed by the House
(b) elected by the House
(c) nominated by the Speaker
(d) All of these

26. Which of the following was established by the Government of India Act, 1919?
(a) Council of States
(b) Lower House
 (c) Dyarchy
(d) All of these

27. The proceedings under the Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior
Citizens Act, 2007 are maintainable at:
(a) Maintenance Tribunal
(b) JMIC
(c) CJM
(d) Protection Officer

28. Who was the first Defence Minister of India?

(a) V.K. Krishna Menon
(b) Baldev Singh
(c) Swaran Singh
(d) Jagjivan Ram

29. By which Amendment of the Constitution, the Fundamental Duties were added?
(a) 42nd
(b) 86th
(c) 52nd
(d) 26th

30. The Supreme Court of India is a court of record under:

(a) Article 127
(b) Article 217
(c) Article 130
(d) Article 129

31. Which of the following is related to the Judgment of the Supreme Court in Col.
Nitisha v. Union of India (2021)?
(a) Wednesbury principle
(b) Theory of Direct Discrimination
(c) Theory of Proportionality
(d) Theory of Indirect Discrimination
 32. Which states has recently launched a bioengineering initiative using vetiver grass
to tackle the increasing landslide occurrences?
(a) Uttarakhand
(b) Arunachal Pradesh
(c) Himachal Pradesh
(d) Manipur

33. The Uttarakhand government has signed a 'Record of Discussions' to enhance

horticulture production and marketing systems in Tehri Garhwal and Nainital with
which organization?
(a) International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD)
(b) New Development Bank (NDB)
(c) Asian Development Bank (ADB)
(d) Japan International Cooperation Agency (JICA)

34. 'Bhavantar Bharpai Yojana', recently extended to benefit potato growers, is a

scheme of which state?
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Uttarakhand
(c) Haryana
(d) Madhya Pradesh
35. 'Tarbandi Yojana', launched to protect crops from stray animals, is associated with
which state?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Punjab
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Haryana

36. An updated scheme was launched to offer quality coaching for PM CARES
children and students from SC/OBC categories. Which institution is tasked with
implementing it alongside Central Universities?
(a) Indian Council of Social Science Research (ICSSR)
(b) Dr. Ambedkar Foundation (DAF)
 (c) National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC)
(d) National Backward Classes Finance & Development Corporation (NBCFDC)

37. As per recent information, Reserve Bank – Integrated Ombudsman Scheme, 2021
to be called as The Reserve Bank – Integrated Ombudsman Scheme, 2021 instead of
The Reserve Bank – Integrated Ombudsman Scheme, 2021after inputs from Lokpal of
India. This scheme also includes under its ambit Non-Scheduled Primary Co-operative
Banks with a deposit size of:
(a) Rs 100 crore and above
(b) Rs 150 crore and above
(c) Rs 200 crore and above
(d) Rs 50 crore and above

38. According to the ASER 2024 report by NGO Pratham, enrolment in government
schools dropped from 72.9% (2022) to what percentage in 2024?
(a) 68.2%
(b) 66.8%
(c) 63.9%
(d) 61.4%

39. The Centre for the Fourth Industrial Revolution Network 2023-24 Report,
highlighting tech initiatives like drone healthcare in India, was released by:
(a) OECD
(b) UNDP
(c) World Economic Forum (WEF)
(d) IMF

40. As per the SBI Economic Research Department, new investment announcements in
9MFY25 grew by what Year over Year percentage?
(a) 43%
(b) 39%
(c) 23%
(d) 34%
 41. According to the World Gold Council, India's gold investment demand reached its
highest since 2013 at:
(a) 189 tonnes
(b) 195 tonnes
(c) 239 tonnes
(d) 368 tonnes

42. GroupM forecasts India's ad industry to grow by 7% in 2025. What is India’s

global ranking in advertising markets?
(a) Sixth
(b) Seventh
(c) Ninth
(d) Tenth

43. As per the Climate Risk Index 2025, India ranks___ among the top 10 countries
most affected by extreme weather from 1993–2023.
(a) Fourth
(b) Sixth
(c) Seventh
(d) Ninth
44. Which state inaugurated India’s first paragliding school National Institute of
Paragliding and Aero Sports?
(a) Karnataka
(b) Himachal Pradesh
(c) Uttarakhand
(d) Sikkim

45. Which city will host the inaugural Olympic Esports Games in 2027?
(a) Paris, France
(b) New Delhi, India
(c) Riyadh, Saudi Arabia
(d) Tokyo, Japan
 46. In the 38th National Games, SSCB emerged as overall champion. Which state was
the first runner-up?
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Haryana
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Madhya Pradesh

47. Who won the BBC Indian Sportswoman of the Year Award 2024?
(a) Vinesh Phogat
(b) Saina Nehwal
(c) Manu Bhaker
(d) Mary Kom

48. Who was awarded Sport star of the Year(Female) at the “2025 Sport star Aces
Awards”?
(a) Pooja Tomar
(b) PV Sindhu
(c) Manu Bhaker
(d) Neha Sangwan

49. Which of the following country won the ICC Women’s Championship 2022–2025?
(a) New Zealand
(b) India
(c) Australia
(d) England

50. Recently, 55thAnnualMeeting of World Economic Forum (WEF 2025) was held at
which of the following places?
(a) Davos-Klosters, Switzerland
(b) Tokyo, Japan
(c) Paris, France
(d) Berlin, Germany

Part 2
51. Section 164 of CrPC recording of confessions and statements has been replaced with
which Section of the BNSS, 2023?
(a) Section 188 of BNSS, 2023
(b) Section 182 of BNSS, 2023
(c) Section 183 of BNSS, 2023
(d) Section 184 of BNSS, 2023

52. Which additional power has been conferred to the police officer under Section 173
of BNSS, 2023?
(a) To conduct preliminary inquiry whether there exists a prima facie case for
proceeding in the matter within a period of fourteen days
(b) To keep in custody arrested person for two days
(c) To inter in dwelling house while making arrest
(d) All of the above

53. Whose prior permission is required to conduct preliminary enquiry under Section
173 of BNSS, 2023?
(a) officer in charge of the police station
(b) officer not below the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police
(c) officer not below the rank of Sub inspector
(d) None of the above

54. According to BNSS, 2023 match the following Section with their correct options:
(A) Section 343 1. Acquittal or conviction.
(B) Section 290 2. Power to try summarily
(C) Section 283 3. Application for plea bargaining.
(D) Section 278 4. Tender of pardon to accomplice
ABCD
(a) 3 2 4 1
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 1 4 3 2

55. Which among the following statements is incorrect according to BNSS, 2023?
 (a) Session and Additional Sessions Judges shall be appointed by the High Court.
(b) Assistant Session judge is appointed by the Session judge
(c) the provision regarding Court of Session is provided under Section 8 of BNSS, 2023
(d) State Government shall establish a Court of Session for every sessions division.

56. Which Section of BNSS, 2023 authorized a private person to arrest any person
committing cognizable offence?
(a) Section 40
(b) Section 42
(c) Section 44
(d) Section 43

57. A declaration of forfeiture under Section 99 of BNSS, 2023 can be set aside by:
(a) Magistrate issuing a search warrant
(b) Chief Judicial Magistrate
(c) High Court
(d) Court of Session

58. According to Section 100 of BNSS, 2023 who is not authorized to issue search
warrant?
(a) District Magistrate,
(b) Sub-divisional Magistrate
(c) Court of Session
(d) Magistrate of the first class

59. No male person under the age of fifteen years or above the age of sixty years or a
woman or a mentally or physically disabled person or a person with acute illness shall
be required to attend at any place other than the place in which such person resides.
This is provided under which Section of the BNSS?
(a) Section 179
(b) Section 170
(c) Section 160
(d) Section 173
 60. Which of the following Sections of BNSS, 2023 deals with discharge?
(a) Section 253
(b) Section 250
(c) Section 252
(d) Section 254

61. An Additional Sessions Judge shall try such cases as the High Court Judge of the
division may, by general or special order, make over to him for trial or as the High
Court may, by special order, direct him to try. This statement is:
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Can’t say
(d) None of the above

62. According to BNSS, 2023 "petty offence" means any offence punishable only with:
(a) fine not exceeding five thousand rupees
(b) fine not exceeding three thousand rupees
(c) fine not exceeding one thousand rupees
(d) fine not exceeding two thousand rupees

63. The charge shall be written in the language of the Court. This statement is:
(a) True under Section 234 of the BNSS
(b) False under Section 234 of the BNSS
(c) True under Section 233 of the BNSS
(d) False under Section 233 of the BNSS

64. If, after considering the statements on oath (if any) of the complainant and of the
witnesses and the result of the inquiry or investigation (if any) under Section 225, the
Magistrate is of opinion that there is no sufficient ground for proceeding, he shall
dismiss the complaint, and in every such case he shall briefly record his reasons for so
doing. This is provided under which Section of the BNSS?
(a) Section 226: Dismissal of complaint
(b) Section 227: Dismissal of complaint
(c) Section 228: Dismissal of complaint
 (d) Section 229: Dismissal of complaint

65. As per BNSS, 2023, For every distinct offence of which any person is accused there
shall be a separate charge, and every such charge shall be tried……………………
(a) separately
(b) consecutively
(c) concurrently
(d) continuing

66. According to Section 285 of BNSS, 2023, no sentence of imprisonment for a term
exceeding ………shall be passed in the case of any conviction under Chapter of
Summary trials?
(a) three months
(b) two months
(c) five months
(d) six months

67. Under which one of the following Sections of BNSS, 2023 monthly allowances or
the interim monthly allowances for maintenance can be altered?
(a) Section 144
(b) Section 145
(c) Section 146
(d) Section 143

68. What type of Magistrate can arrest an offender under Section 41of the BNSS?
(a) Only Executive Magistrates
(b) Only Judicial Magistrates
(c) Both Executive and Judicial Magistrates
(d) Only Chief Magistrates
69. When any person is arrested and interrogated by the police, he shall be entitled to
meet an advocate of his choice during interrogation, though not throughout
interrogation. This statement is:
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Partially true
(d) Partially False

70. The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 came into force on:
(a) 01.07. 2024
(b) 04.06. 2024
(c) 01.07. 2023
(d) 02.08. 2023

71. A Sessions Judge or Additional Sessions Judge may pass any sentence authorised
by law; but any sentence of death passed by any such Judge shall be subject to
confirmation by the High Court. This statement is provided under which Section
of the BNSS?
(a) Section 22(1)
(b) Section 22(2)
(c) Section 23(1)
(d) Section 23(2)

72. What is the time frame within which a proclaimed person can appear to reclaim
their property after it has been attached?
(a) One year
(b) Six months
(c) Two years
(d) Three years

73. Which one of the following Section of BNSS, 2023 deals with the discharge of an
accused by Court of Session?
(a) Section 250
(b) Section 227
 (c) Section 249
(d) Section 248

74. Under which Chapter of the BNSS, 2023 trial before Court of Session is provided?
(a) Chapter XIX
(b) Chapter XVIII
(c) Chapter XX
(d) Chapter XXII

75. Which of the following definitions is incorrect according to BNSS, 2023?

(a) bail bond – Section 2 (d)
(b) charge - Section 2(f)
(c) bailable offence – Section 2(b)
(d) audio-video electronic means – Section 2(a)

76. According to the Section, which of the following statements is true regarding a
person arrested for a non-bailable offence?
(a) They are entitled to be released on bail.
(b) They must be informed of their right to bail.
(c) They are not entitled to bail.
(d) They can arrange for sureties on their behalf.

77. What can a Court or officer in charge of a police station issue if they believe a
document or electronic communication is necessary for an investigation?
(a) A warrant for arrest
(b) A summons or written order
(c) A search warrant
(d) A notice of intent
78. What does the term "appointment" exclude according to the explanation provided
in Section 8 of the BNSS?
(a) The appointment of judges
(b) The first appointment, posting, or promotion of a person by the Government
(c) The appointment of Additional Sessions Judges
(d) The appointment of Chief Judicial Magistrates

79. Which of the following Section of the BNSS deals with when police may arrest
without warrant?
(a) Section 34
(b) Section 33
(c) Section 35
(d) Section 32

80. Who can attest the memorandum of arrest according to Section 36 of the BNSS?
(a) Any police officer present at the scene
(b) A member of the family of the person arrested or a respectable member of the
locality
(c) A lawyer representing the arrested person
(d) The arresting officer's supervisor

81. Every offence shall ordinarily be enquired into and tried by the Court:
(a) within whose local jurisdiction the complainant resides
(b) within whose local jurisdiction the said offence was committed
(c) within whose local jurisdiction the accused ordinarily resides
(d) within whose local jurisdiction witnesses to the said offence reside

82. Which government has the right to direct that any case or class of cases committed
for trial in any district may be tried in any sessions division under Section 205 of the
BNSS?
(a) Central Government
(b) State Government
(c) District Government
(d) Municipal Government
 83. Which Section of the BNSS, 2023 provides for the place of trial for offences triable
together?
(a) Section 202
(b) Section 204
(c) Section 206
(d) Section 208

84. Protection of member of the Armed Forces from Arrest is provided under Section
........................... BNSS, 2023.
(a) Section 43
(b) Section 44
(c) Section 46
(d) Section 42

85. Under BNSS, 2023 investigation is conducted by________.

(a) A police officer or any person who is authorized by a Magistrate
(b) A Magistrate
(c) A police officer and Magistrate
(d) Executive Magistrate and civil person

86. Provision relating to health and safety of arrested persons have been provided
under which one of the following Sections of BNSS, 2023?
(a) Section 57
(b) Section 54
(c) Section 56
(d) Section 52

87. Indicate the incorrect statement regarding the right of an arrestee under BNSS,
2023? A person arrested without warrant has right to
(i) be informed of the particular of the offence for which he is arrested
(ii) have relative or friend named by him to be informed about his arrest
(iii) have an advocate of his choice remain present throughout interrogation
(iv) bemedically examined by themedical officer Code:
 (a) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i), (ii) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i), (ii) and (iv)

88. Person arrested not to be detained more than twenty-four hours as per the
provisions of:
(a) Section 56 of BNSS, 2023
(b) Section 58 of BNSS, 2023
(c) Section 54 of BNSS, 2023
(d) Section 59 of BNSS, 2023

89. Non-cognizable case is defined in:

(a) Section 2(1)(n) of BNSS, 2023
(b) Section 2 (1) (g) of BNSS, 2023
(c) Section 2 (1) (o) of BNSS, 2023
(d) Section 2 (1) (k) of BNSS, 2023

90. Under which of the following Section of BNSS, 2023 Assistant Public Prosecutor is
appointed?
(a) Section 18
(b) Section 19
(c) Section 16
(d) Section 17

91. Under Section 346 of the BNSS, no Court shall remand an accused person to
custody under this section for a term exceeding...................
(a) fourteen days at a time
(b) fifteen days at a time
(c) seven days at a time
(d) one month at a time
 92. Under which Sections of BNSS, 2023, the provision regarding summary trial is
given?
(a) Section 283 to 288
(b) Section 282 to 288
(c) Section 283 to 290
(d) Section 282 to 289

93. Under Section 339 of BNSS, 2023, who can conduct the prosecution in a case
without needing permission from the Magistrate?
(a) Any person with a law degree.
(b) The Advocate-General, Government Advocate, Public Prosecutor, or Assistant
Public Prosecutor.
(c) Any police officer.
(d) Only the accused's lawyer.

94. Which of the following irregularity is not covered under Section 506 of BNSS,
2023?
(a) to tender pardon under Section 343 of BNSS, 2023
(b) to issue search warrant under Section 97 of BNSS, 2023
(c) to hold inquest under Section 196 of BNSS, 2023
(d) to attach and sell property under Section 85 of BNSS, 2023

95. No oath shall be administered to the accused when he is examined under Section
351(1) of the BNSS. This Statement is:
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Can’t say
(d) None of the above

96. If any Magistrate, not being empowered by law in this behalf, does any of the
following things takes cognizance of an offence under clause (c) of
sub-section (1) of section 210 of BNSS, then it will:
(a) vitiate the trial and proceeding will be wholly void
(b) is an irregularity curable under section 460 of criminal procedure code
 (c) does not vitiate the trial unless it caused prejudice to the accused
(d) None of the above

97. The High Court or the Court of Session may direct that the bail required by a
police officer or Magistrate be reduced. This Statement is provided under which Section
of the BNSS?
(a) Section 484 BNSS, 2023
(b) Section 486 BNSS, 2023
(c) Section 489 BNSS, 2023
(d) Section 400 BNSS, 2023

98. Which Section of the BNSS deals with Suspension of sentence pending appeal;
release of appellant on bail?
(a) Section 460 of BNSS, 2023
(b) Section 425 of BNSS, 2023
(c) Section 480 of BNSS, 2023
(d) Section 430 of BNSS, 2023

99. Under which Section of BNSS, 2023 inherent power can be exercised by High
Court?
(a) Section 526
(b) Section 528
(c) Section 527
(d) Section 530

100. Under BNSS, 2023 All trials, inquires and proceedings under this Sanhita,
including issuance, service and execution of summons and warrant, examination of
complainant and witnesses, recording of evidence in inquiries and trials; and all
appellate proceedings or any other proceeding, may be held in electronic mode, by
use of electronic communication or use of audio video electronic means. This statement
is:
(a) True
(b) False
(c) No such provision is provided under BNSS
 (d) Prior permission of High Court is needed

101. The power of Supreme Court to transfer Criminal cases and appeal from one high
court to another High court is conferred under:
(a) Section 441 of BNSS, 2023
(b) Section 446 of BNSS, 2023
(c) Section 443 of BNSS, 2023
(d) Section 442 of BNSS, 2023

102. The State Government may determine what shall be, for purposes of this Sanhita,
the language of each Court within the State other than the High Court. This is provided
under which Section of BNSS?
(a) Section 306
(b) Section 307
(c) Section 308
(d) Section 309

103. Every warrant for the execution of a sentence may be issued either by the Judge or
Magistrate who passed the sentence, or by his successor-in office. This is provided
under which Section of BNSS?
(a) Section 444
(b) Section 465
(c) Section 438
(d) Section 440

104. As mentioned in Section 337(5) of BNSS, 2023 A person discharge under Section
.........shall not be tried again for the same offence except with the consent of the Court
by which he was discharged or of any other Court to which the first mentioned Court is
subordinate.
(a) Section 258
(b) Section 282
(c) Section 281
(d) Section 284
105. Which of the following provisions of BNSS 2023 deals with the inquiry, trial or
judgment in absentia of proclaimed offender?
(a) Section 351
(b) Section 356
(c) Section 354
(d) Section 352

106. Which one of the following provisions of BNSS, 2023 provides the procedure for
Mercy petition?
(a) Section 473
(b) Section 474
(c) Section 476
(d) Section 472

107. Section 357C of CrPC is replaced with which of the following Section of BNSS,
2023?
(a) Section 394
(b) Section395
(c) Section 397
(d) Section 396

108. Under which provision of the BNSS, 2023 a death sentence pronounced by the
Session Court required to be confirmed by the High Court?
(a) Section 407
(b) Section 409
(c) Section 406
(d) Section 408

109. Which of the following Courts can try Summarily offences mentioned under
Section 283 of BNSS, 2023?
(a) any Chief Judicial Magistrate
(b) Magistrate of the first class
(c) any Executive Magistrate
(d) both (a) and (b)
110. Under Section 284 of BNSS, 2023, the High Court may confer on any Magistrate
invested with the powers of a Magistrate of the second-class power to try summarily any
offence which is punishable only with:
(a) fine or with imprisonment for a term not exceeding six months with or without fine,
and any abetment of or attempt to commit any such offence
(b) fine or with imprisonment for a term not exceeding three months with or without
fine, and any abetment of or attempt to commit any such offence
(c) fine or with imprisonment for a term not exceeding seven months with or without
fine, and any abetment of or attempt to commit any such offence
(d) fine or with imprisonment for a term not exceeding one year with or without fine,
and any abetment of or attempt to commit any such offence

111. “Detained” includes detained under any law providing

for…………………………..under Section 301 of BNSS, 2023?
(a) preventive detention
(b) protective detention
(c) preventive or protective detention
(d) None of the above

112. When any person is sentenced to death under Section 393(5) of BNSS, 2023, the
sentence shall direct that:
(a) he be hanged by death
(b) he be hanged by the neck
(c) he be hanged by the neck till he is dead
(d) he be hanged until his death

113. According to Section 173(3) of BNSS, 2023 any offence is punishable with three
years or more but less than seven years than police officer may conduct the preliminary
inquiry with a period of:
(a) fourteen days
(b) fifteen days
(c) seven days
(d) ninety days
114. According to the Section 2(t) of the BNSS, 2023, "police report" means a report
forwarded by a police officer to a Magistrate under ............
(a) Section 193(3) of BNSS, 2023
(b) Section 173(2) of BNSS, 2023
(c) Section 179(3) of BNSS, 2023
(d) None of the above

115. Section 184 of BNSS, 2023 provides that a woman against whom offence of rape is
alleged to have been committed will be examined by registered
medicinal practitioner within 24 hours of receiving the information such an offence.
And such registered medical practitioner shall, within a period of.......................forward
the report to the investigating officer.
(a) Seven days
(b) Ten days
(c) Fifteen days
(d) Twenty days

116. Under Section 250 of the BNSS, the accused may prefer an application for
discharge within a period of ................... from the date of commitment of
the case under Section 232 of BNSS, 2023.
(a) sixty days
(b) ninety days
(c) thirty days
(d) twenty days

117. Match the following Section with their correct option:

(A) Section 444
1. Mercy petition in death sentence cases
(B) Section 19
2. Option of Court to hear parties.
(C) Section 472 3. Directorate of Prosecution.
(D) Section 20
4. Assistant Public Prosecutors.
Code
ABCD
(a) 1 2 4 3
(b) 3 1 4 2
(c) 2 3 1 4
(d) 2 4 1 3

118. Conditional order for removal of nuisance provided under which Section of the
BNSS?
(a) Section 157 of BNSS
(b) Section 152 of BNSS
(c) Section 156 of BNSS
(d) None of the above

119. Under Section184(6) of BNSS,2023corresponding to the Section 164A(6) CrPC,

medical examination of a victim of rape has been time bound by
substituting the words ...................... instead without delay’.
(a) within seven days
(b) within ten days
(c) within fifteen days
(d) within twenty days

120. Which of the following provisions of BNSS, 2023 provides the provision of zero
FIR?
(a) Section 173
(b) Section 177
(c) Section 178
(d) Section 174

121. According to BNSS, any person aggrieved by a refusal on the part of an officer in
charge of a police station to record the information referred to in sub-Section (1) of
Section 173, may send the substance of such information, in writing and by post, to the:
(a) District Magistrate
(b) Judicial Magistrate
 (c) Superintendent of police
(d) None of the above

122. Under Section193oftheBNSS, every investigation under this Chapter shall be

completed within thirty days. This statement is:
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Can’t say
(d) None of the above

123. According to Section 173 of BNSS, 2023 a woman against whom the Sexual offence
have been committed or attempted, is temporarily or
Permanently mentally or physically disabled then such information shall be recorded by
a police officer:
(a) at the residence of such person
(b) at a convenient place of such person's choice
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) at the police station by woman police officer not below the rank of sub inspector

124. According to BNSS, 2023 which one of the following Courts has authority to
decide the question regarding the inquiry and trial of any offence where two or more
Courts have taken cognizance of the same offence, if the Courts are subordinate to the
same High Court, then:
(a) The Supreme Court
(b) The High Court
(c) The Court of District Magistrate
(d) None of the above

125. Which of the following chapters and Section of the BNSS, 2023 makes the
provision regarding Charge?
(a) Chapter XVIII Section 234 to 247
(b) Chapter XVII Section 233 to 246
(c) Chapter XIII Section 239 to 248
(d) Chapter XVI Section 230 to 245
126. Rule against double jeopardy is contained under which Section of Criminal
Procedure Code, 1973?
(a) Section 300
(b) Section 302
(c) Section 304
(d) Section 308

127. Who decides upon the release of the accused on the ground of a closure report on
account of deficient evidence?
(a) Officer-in-charge of the police station
(b) Jail Superintendent
(c) High Court
(d) Magistrate

128. Any private person may arrest any person who in his presence commits following
offence:
(a) Cognizable offence
(b) Non-bailable offence
(c) Cognizable and Non-bailable offence
(d) Non-cognizable and Non-bailable offence

129. Match the following: Subject Matter Section of CrPC

A. Arrest by Magistrate
1. Section 46
B. Arrest how made
2. Section 44
C. Search of arrested person
3. Section 52
D. Power to seize offensive weapons
4. Section 51
Code:
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(a) 3 2 1 4
(b) 1 2 4 3
 (c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 1 2 3 4

130. In which one of the following cases has the Supreme Court recently held that the
High Court in exercise of its inherent power can direct further
investigation or re-investigation in appropriate cases?
(a) Nallapa Reddy Sridhar Reddy v. State of Andhra Pradesh, 2020
(b) Devendra Nath Singh v. State of Bihar, 2022
(c) Shah Faesal v. Union of India, 2020
(d) Vinod Katara v. State of Uttar Pradesh, 2024

131. Which Section of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 provides for “default bail”?
(a) Section 167
(b) Section 165
(c) Section 166
(d) None of these

132. Sentence in cases of conviction of several offences at one trial is provided under
which Section of the Code of Criminal Procedure?
(a) Section 31
(b) Section 30
(c) Section 32
(d) Section 33

133. Which one of the following is prescribed as the period of limitation, if the offence is
punishable with fine only?
(a) One month
(b) Three months
(c) Six months
(d) One year
134. Which one of the following is the maximum period for which an undertrial
prisoner can be detained other than for an offence punishable with death?
(a) Up to one half of the maximum period of imprisonment specified for such offence
(b) Up to one third of the maximum period of imprisonment
(c) Just equal to the imprisonment specified for such offence
(d) No specific limit

135. Which provision of the CrPC provides that “the High Court may direct by whom
the costs of such reference shall be paid”?
(a) Section 396(1)
(b) Section 396(2)
(c) Section 397(2)
(d) Section 397(3)

136. Section 25(1A) of the Criminal Procedure Code has been inserted by which
amendment?
(a) Act No. 5 of 1978, Section 3
(b) Act No. 45 of 1978, Section 9
(c) Act No. 25 of 2005, Section 4
(d) Act No. 5 of 2009, Section 3

137. Which Section of the CrPC provides for the local jurisdiction of a Judicial
Magistrate?
(a) Section 13
(b) Section 13(2)
(c) Section 14
(d) Section 15

138. “Provided that the time included between the first and last of such dates shall not
exceed one year” is the proviso to which Section of the CrPC?
(a) Section 212(1)
(b) Section 212(2)
(c) Section 213
(d) Section 214
139. Who prepares the panel of names for the appointment of Public Prosecutors in a
district?
(a) District Magistrate only
(b) Session Judge only
(c) District Magistrate in consultation with the Session Judge
(d) State Government

140. The investigation in relation to an offence under Sections 376, 376A, 376B, 376C
and 376D of the IPC, 1860 shall be completed within which period from the date on
which the information was recorded by the officer-in-charge of the police station.
(a) 15 days
(b) 30 days
(c) Two months
(d) Three months

141. In a first information an offence is cognizable and other is non-cognizable the

whole case shall be deemed to be:
(a) cognizable
(b) non-cognizable
(c) It is to be seen whether it is a warrant case
(d) It is to be seen whether it is a summons case

142. Under CRPC, In a cognizable case, the police have authority:

(a) to arrest without warrant
(b) to investigate the offence without the permission of the magistrate
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these

143. The provision that “Information by a woman against whom an offence under
section 376 IPC, have been committed, such information shall be recorded by a woman
police officer” has been inserted through:
(a) Criminal Procedure Code Amendment Act 2005
(b) Criminal Procedure Code Amendment Act 2008
(c) Criminal Procedure Code Amendment Act 2010
 (d) Criminal Procedure Code Amendment Act 2013

144. In which of the following cases it was held that ‘FIR’ is not an encyclopedia which
is expected to contain all the minute details of the prosecution case?
(a) Youth Bar Association of India v. Union of India, 2016
(b) Superintendent Of Police, C.B.I.... v. Tapan Kr. Singh, 2003
(c) State of Haryana v. Bhajan Lal, 1992
(d) None of the above

145. In which of the following cases it was held that ‘The scope of preliminary inquiry
is not to verify the veracity or otherwise of the information received but only to
ascertain whether the information reveals any cognizable offence’?
(a) Youth Bar Association of India v. Union of India, 2016
(b) State of M.P. v. Chakki Lal, 2019
(c) State of Haryana v. Bhajan Lal, 1992
(d) Lalita Kumari v. Govt. of U.P.& Ors, 2013

146. Whatisthe maximum sentence of imprisonment that a Chief Judicial Magistrate

(C.J.M.) can impose?
(a) 3 years
(b) 7 years
(c) 10 years
(d) No limit

147. Under Section 27 of the Criminal Procedure Code, the age of Juvenile is:
(a) 16 years
(b) 18 years
(c) 12 years
(d) none of the above

148. Which one of the following sections of Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 provides
sentence of imprisonment in default of fine?
(a) Section 30(1)
(b) Section 31
 (c) Section 32
(d) Section 34

149. Under Section 31 when a person is convicted at one trial of two or more offences,
the Court may sentence him for such offences, to the several punishments prescribed
therefor which such Court is competent to inflict such punishments when consisting of
imprisonment to commence the one after the expiration of the other in such order as the
Court may direct, unless the Court directs that such punishments shall run:
(a) consecutively
(b) concurrently
(c) both (a) or (b)
(d) none of the above

150. In which of the following case the court held that “the Magistrate needed to have
specified in the order by taking recourse to Section 31 of the Code as to whether the
punishment of sentence of imprisonment so awarded for each offence would run
concurrently or consecutively”?
(a) Gagan Kumar v. The State of Punjab, 2019
(b) Muthuramalingam & Ors v. State Rep. By Insp. of Police, 2016
(c) State of Punjab v. Joginder Singh,1992
(d) None of the above

151. Juveniles under section 27 shall be tried by:

(a) Magistrate of first class
(b) Magistrate of Second class
(c) Chief Judicial Magistrate or Court powered under the Children Act, 1960 (60 of
1960)
(d) Court of Session

152. Zero FIR defined under Section...of CrPC

(a) Section 154(1)
(b) Section 154(2)
(c) Section 154(3)
(d) Not defined
153. Section 162 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 is for the protection of:
(a) Accused
(b) Witness
(c) Police officer
(d) Magistrate

154. In which of the following cases was held that Magistrate can invoke power under
Section 156(3) of the Code of Criminal Procedure even at post-cognizance stage?
(a) M.P. State v. Chakki Lal, 2019
(b) Lalita Kumari v. Government. Uttar Pradesh and others, 2013
(c) Devarapalli Lakshminarayana Reddy v. Narayana Reddy, 1976
(d) Vinu bhai Hari bhai Malviya and others. v. State of Gujarat and Others, 2019

155. In which of the following cases it was held that ‘any person' in Section 161 of
CrPC would include persons then or ultimately accused?
(a) Mahabir Mandal And Others v. State of Bihar, 1972
(b) Lalita Kumari v. Govt. of U.P.& Ors, 2013
(c) Devarapalli Lakshminarayana Reddy v. V. Narayana Reddy, 1976
(d) Nandini Satpathy v. Dani (P.L.) And Anr, 1978

156. In which of the following cases it was observed that “the Bar under Section 162
CrPC, no doubt, operates in regard to the statement made to a Police Officer in between
two points of time, viz., from the beginning of the investigation till the termination of the
same”.
(a) Devarapalli Lakshminarayana Reddy v. V. Narayana Reddy, 1976
(b) Nandini Satpathy v. Dani (P.L.) And Anr., 1978
(c) Dipak bhai Jagdishchndra Patel v. The State of Gujarat, 2019
(d) None of the above

157. In which of the following cases it was observed that

“Section164oftheCodethusdoesnot contemplate that a confession or statement should
necessarily be made in the presence of the advocate(s), except, when such confessional
statement is recorded with audio-video electronic means.”?
(a) Nandini Satpathy v. Dani (P.L.) And Anr., 1978
 (b) Dipak bhai Jagdish Chndra Patel v. The State of Gujarat, 2019
(c) Manoharanv.StatebyInspectorofPolice,2019
(d) None of the above

158. A Magistrate records the confession of accused or as statement of a witness during

investigation, under:
(a) Section 164 of CrPC
(b) Section 281 of CrPC
(c) Section 162 of CrPC
(d) Chapter XXIII of CrPC

159. Under Section 164A of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 the victim of rape
shall be sent examination within...................... from the time of receiving the information
relating to the commission of such offence.
(a) 6 hours
(b) 12 hours
(c) 24 hours
(d) 36 hours

160. Match the groups given below:

List-I
List-II
A. Yakub Abdul Razak v. Memon State, 2013 of Death Sentence State of Maharashtra
1. Delay in execution
B. Sher Singh v. State of Punjab, 1983
2. Confession
C. Ramesh Chandra
Agarwal v. Regency Hospital, 2009
3. Estoppel
D. C.I.T. v. B.N. Bhattacharjee, 1979
4. Expert Evidence
Code:
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(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 2 3 1 4
(d) 3 2 4 1

161. In which of the following cases it was held that

“Section164oftheCodethusdoesnotcontemplate that a confession or statement should
necessarily be made in the presence of the advocate(s), except, when such confessional
statement is recorded with audio-video electronic means.”?
(a) Manoharan v. State by Inspector of Police, 2019
(b) Pratibha Rani v. Suraj Kumar and another, 1985
(c) Guruvindapalli Anna Rao and Three Ors. v. State of Andhra Pradesh, 2003
(d) None of the above

162. In which of the following cases it was held “The statement recorded under section
164 of the code are part and parcel of the case diary of investigation. Even in the charge
sheet there should be mention of recording of statement by the magistrate”?
(a) Kasmira Singh v. State of M.P.,1952
(b) Patiram v. State of Maharashtra, 2003
(c) Guruvindapalli Anna Rao and Three Ors. v. State Of Andhra Pradesh, 2003
(d) None of the above

163. In which of the following section, the copy of confession or statements recorded
under section 164 supplied to the accused in the case where the proceedings has been
instituted on a police report?
(a) Section 164(2)
(b) Section 164(3)
(c) Section 207
(d) Section 281
164. According to the explanation of Section 164A of CrPC, the “examination” and
“registered medical practitioner” shall have the same meanings as in which section?
(a) Section 53
(b) Section 48
(c) Section 50
(d) None of the above

165. Which of the following section deals with the non-compliance with provisions of
section 164 or 281?
(a) Section 426
(b) Section 462
(c) Section 463
(d) Section 282

166. Under Section 167 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, the maximum period
of police custody of an arrested person is:
(a) 90 days
(b) 60 days
(c) 15 days
(d) 7 days

167. Under Section 167 of CrPC for offences other than those punishable with death,
imprisonment for life or imprisonment for a period not less than 10 years, the detention
during investigation, can be authorized for a total period of:
(a) 30 days
(b) 45 days
(c) 60 days
(d) 75 days

168. The accused has indefeasible right to bail when investigation is not completed
within:
(a) 15 days
(b) 30 days
(c) 21 days
 (d) 90 or 60 days

169. Under Section 167 of the CrPC an Executive Magistrate is empowered to grant
remand for a maximum period of:
(a) 15 days
(b) 9 days
(c) 7 days
(d) None of the above

170. According to the recent guidelines given by the Supreme Court, a charge sheet
filed under Section 173 of CrPC is an example of:
(a) public document
(b) private document
(c) patent document
(d) latent document

171. In which of the following cases was it observed that “filing of charge sheet by itself
cannot be a ground for cancellation of bail”?
(a) Kamlesh Chaudhary v. The State of Rajasthan, 2021
(b) Bashir v. State of Haryana, 1977
(c) Manoharan v. State by Inspector of Police, 2019
(d) None of the above

172. Which article of the Indian Constitution is used to justify Section 57 of the CrPC?
(a) Article 21
(b) Article 19
(c) Article 22(2)
(d) None of the above

173. Section 167 states that when a woman is under the age of eighteen, her detention
may be permitted to be in the custody of:
(a) remand home
(b) recognized social institution
(c) both (a) or (b)
 (d) none of the above

174. In which of the following cases it was observed the very moment the stipulated
60/90-day remand period expires, an indefeasible right to default bail accrues to the
accused.
(a) State of M.P. v. Rustam & Ors 1995
(b) Bashir v. State of Haryana, 1977
(c) Ravi Prakash Singh v. State of Bihar 2015
(d) Enforcement Directorate, Government of India v. Kapil Wadhawan & Anr. Etc.
2020

175. Which Section of the CrPC deals with “further investigation”?

(a) Section 156 (3)
(b) Section 173(8)
(c) Section 173(7)
(d) Section 173(5)

176. Which Section of the CrPC, 1973 applied when the officer in-charge of a police
station receives information that a person has committed suicide?
(a) Section 174
(b) Section181
(c) Section154
(d) Section147

177. As per Section 173(1) of CrPC, 1973 every investigation shall be completed:
(a) 30 days
(b) 60 days
(c) 90 days
(d) without unnecessary delay

178. Under which Section of CrPC provision relating to police report is given?
(a) Section 173(2)(i)
(b) Section 177
(c) Section 174(2)(i)
 (d) Section 175

179. Which one of the following provisions of CrPC provides that “the investigation in
relation to an offence under Sections 376, 376A, 376AB, 376B, 376C, Section 376D,
Section 376DA, Section 376DB or Section 376E of the Indian Penal Code within two
months from the date on which the information was recorded by the police officer”?
(a) Section 173(1)
(b) Section 173(1A)
(c) Section 173(2)
(d) Section 173(3)

180. Which of the following sub Sections was/were inserted under Section 176 of CrPC
by the Criminal Procedure (Amendment) Act, 2005?
(a) 176(1A)
(b) 176 (1A) and 176(1B)
(c) 176(5) and 176(6)
(d) 176(1A) and 176(5)

181. Challan files to Magistrate under which of the following Section?

(a) Section 156
(b) Section 173
(c) Section 200
(d) Section 154

182. Section 173 (1A)mandates upon the investigating officer to complete the
investigation within:
(a) two months
(b) six months
(c) one month
(d) none of the above
183. Which of the following Statement is correct under Section 220 of the CRPC?
(a) If the acts alleged constitute an offence falling within two or more separate
definitions of any law in force for the time being by which offences are defined or
punished, the person accused of them may be charged with, and tried at one trial for,
each of such offences
(b) If, in one series of acts so connected together as to form the same transaction, more
offences than one are committed by the same person, he may be charged with, and tried
at one trial for, every such offence
(c) If several acts, of which one or more than one would by itself or themselves
constitute an offence, constitute when combined a different offence, the person accused
of them may be charged with, and tried at one trial For the offence constituted by such
acts when combined, and for any offence constituted by any one, or more, of such acts
(d) All of the above

184. In which of the following cases it was held “further investigation is the
continuation of the earlier investigation and not a fresh investigation or reinvestigation
to be started ab-initio wiping out the earlier investigation altogether”?
(a) A.C. Sharma v. Delhi Administration,1973
(b) K. Chandrasekhar, Mariam Rasheeda v. The State of Kerala & Ors, 1998
(c) Sampat Singh And Ors. v. State of Haryana and Ors. 1993
(d) None of the above

185. In which of the following cases it was held that the Magistrate cannot suo motu
direct for further investigation under Section 173(8) CrPC or direct reinvestigation into
a case atthe post-cognizance stage?
(a) State of M.P. v Chakki Lal, 2019
(b) Lalita Kumari v. Govt. of U.P.& Ors, 2013
(c) Devarapalli Lakshminarayana Reddy v. V. Narayana Reddy, 1976
(d) Vinu bhai Hari bhai Malaviya and Ors. v. The State of Gujarat and Anr., 2019

186. Which one of the following Sections casts a duty upon the Magistrate to supply to
the accused relevant documents under Section 173(5)?
(a) Section 154
(b) Section 207
 (c) Section 143
(d) Section 208

187. In which of the following case, the Supreme Court observed that “Magistrate
Should Consider Initial Report & Supplementary Report Cojointly to Decide Whether
to Proceed Against Accused”?
(a) Rajiv Thapar and Others v. Madan Lal Kapoor, 2013
(b) Devendra Nath Singh vs State of Bihar, 2022
(c) Luckose Zachariah @ Zak Nedumchira Luke and Others v. Joseph Joseph and
Others, 2022
(d) None of the above

188. In which ofthe following case the Supreme Court held that “There is no bar against
conducting further investigation under Section 173(8) of the CrPC after the final report
submitted under Section 173(2) of the CrPC has been accepted”?
(a) Vinay Tyagi v. Irshad Ali alias Deepak and Others, 2013
(b) Vinubhai Haribhai Malaviya v. State of Gujarat, 2019
(c) State Through Central Bureau of Investigation Versus Hemendhra Reddy &
Another. Etc., 2023
(d) None of the above

189. In which of the following case, the Supreme Court held that “an application
seeking further investigation can be treated as a protest petition if the application prima
facie establishes the commission of the offences”?
(a) XXX v. The State Represented Thr. The Inspector of Police & Anr, 2024
(b) State v. Hemendhra Reddy | 2023
(c) Vinubhai Haribhai Malaviya v. State of Gujarat (2019)
(d) None of the above

190. The Judicial Magistrate or the Metropolitan Magistrate or Executive Magistrate

or police officer holding an inquiry or investigation, as the case may be, undersection
176 sub-Section (1A) shall, within _____ of the death of a person, forward the body with
a view to its being examined to the nearest Civil Surgeon or other qualified medical
person appointed in this behalf by the State Government, unless it is not possible to do
so for reasons to be recorded in writing.
(a) 12 hours
(b) 24 hours
(c) 48 hours
(d) immediately

191. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court related that the accused would
be entitled for grant of default bail when there is noncompliance of Section 41 and 41 A
CrPC?
(a) Siddharth v. State of U.P., 2021
(b) Satender Kumar Antil v. Central Bureau of Investigation., 2022
(c) Nikesh Tarachand Shah v. Union of India, 2018
(d) None of the above

192. According to Section 41A (1) of CrPC the Police Officer shall, in all cases, issue a
notice directing the person against whom a reasonable suspicion
Exists that he has committed a cognizable offence, to appear before him. This procedure
is followed in the cases where the arrest of the person is not required under the
provisions of:
(a) provisions ofsub-Section (1)(a) of Section 41
(b) provisions ofsub-Section (1)(b) of Section 41
(c) provisions ofsub-Section (1)(c) of Section 41
(d) provisions of sub-Section (1) of Section 41

193. The procedure of arrest and duties of officer making Arrest is provided under
Section…............ of Criminal Procedure Code
(a) Section 41B
(b) Section 41A
(c) Section 41D
(d) Section 42 C

194. With the advent of which Criminal Procedure (Amendment) Act was Section 41B
inserted in CrPC?
 (a) 2008
(b) 2010
(c) 2005
(d) None of the above

195. In which of the following cases the directions to ensure that police officer do not
arrest accused unnecessarily and the magistrate do not authorise detention casually
were issued?
(a) Arnesh Kumar v. State of Bihar, 2014
(b) Lalita Kumari v. State of U.P, 2013
(c) Sunita Kumari v. State of Bihar, 2011
(d) Anju Chaudhary v. State of U.P.,2012

196. In which of the following cases the court had provided the guidelines for the person
arrested, who must be made aware of the right to have someone informed of his arrest
or detention as soon as he is put under arrest or detention?
(a) Bhoora Singh v. State, 1992
(b) Joginder Kumar v.state ofUttar Pradesh 1994
(c) D.K. Basu, Ashok K. Johri v. State of West Bengal 1996
(d) Anju Chaudhary v. State of U.P, 2012

197. In which of the following case, the Court iterated that an entry shall be required to
be registered in the case diary as to who was informed about the arrest?
(a) Public Prosecutor v. Devireddi Nagi Reddi, 1962
(b) Lokendra SinghAndOrs. v. StateOfM.P., 1995
(c) Joginder Kumar v. State ofUttar Pradesh 1994
(d) None of the above

198. In which ofthe following cases, did the Court issue the guidelines for arrest of
judicial officers?
(a) Abhayanand Mishra v. The State Of Bihar, 1961
(b) Basdev v. The State Of Pepsu, 1956
(c) Delhi Judicial Service v. State of Gujarat and Ors. 1991
(d) None of the above
199. In which of the following cases the apex court held that if the police officer is not
able to produce an arrested person before Magistrate within 24 hours, then he shall be
guilty of wrongful detention?
(a) The State of Bombay v. Kathi Kalu Oghad, 1961
(b) The State of Punjab v. Ajaib Singh,1952
(c) Sharifbai Mehmoob v. Abdul Razak, 1960
(d) None of the above

200. In which of the following cases the Court laid down the decision that a Magistrate
has the power to direct a person to compulsorily give
voice samples while investigation needs a recheck as it infringes fundamental rights?
(a) Ritesh Sinha v. State of U.P & Anr, 2019
(b) Urmila Devi v. Yudhivir Singh, 2013
(c) Mukesh & Anr v. State of NCT of Delhi & Ors, 2017
(d) None of the above