UPSC PRELIMS 2018

UPSC PRELIMS 2018

GENERAL STUDIES-I
TOPIC-WISE

Sr. Topic Number of

No. Questions
1. Culture 7
2. History Medieval 1
3. History Modern 13
4. Geography 6
5. Geography Maps 1
6. Agriculture 3
7. Polity 8
8. Economy 7
9. Environment - Biodiversity 4
10. Environment – Climate Change 3
11. Science & Technology (IT) 1
12. Current Affairs Agriculture 1
(46 Questions) Polity 3
Economy 8
Environment- Pollution 2
Environment- Biodiversity 2
Science & Technology (IT) 5
S&T (Space) 4
S&T (Biotechnology) 1
S&T 1
Social-Health/Act 3
Social-Scheme 1
Aadhaar 2
Energy 1
International 5
International Organisation 7
TOTAL 100

Culture (7 Qs)
1. With reference to the cultural history of India, consider the following statements:
1. Most of the Tyagaraja kritis are devotional songs in praise of Lord Krishna
2. Tyagaraja created several new ragas.
3. Annamacharya and Tyagaraja are contemporaries.
4. Annamacharya kirtanas are devotional songs in praise of Lord Venkateshwara.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2, 3 and 4

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2. Consider the following pairs:

Craft Heritage of
1. Puthukkuli shawls - Tamil Nadu
2. Sujni Embroidery - Maharashtra
3. Uppada Jamdani saris - Karnataka
Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 and 3

3. The well-known painting “Bani Thani” belongs to the :

(a) Bundi School
(b) Jaipur School
(c) Kangra School
(d) Kishangarh School

4. With reference to the religious practices in India, the “Sthanakvasi” sect belongs to
(a) Buddhism
(b) Jainism
(c) Vaishnavism
(d) Shaivism

5. With reference to the cultural history of India, consider the following statements:
1. White marble was used in making Buland Darwaza and Khankah at Fatehpur Sikri.
2. Red sandstone and marble were used in making Bara Imambara and Rumi Darwaza at Lucknow.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

6. With reference to Indian history, who among the following is a future Buddha, yet to come to save the
world?
(a) Avalokiteshvara
(b) Lokesvara
(c) Maitreya
(d) Padmapani

7. Consider the following pairs

Tradition State
1. Chapchar Kut Festival Mizoram
2. Khongiom Parba ballad Manipur
3. Thang-Ta dance Sikkim
Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
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(c) 3 only
(d) 2 and 3

History Medieval (1 Q)
8. Which one of the following foreign travellers elaborately discussed about diamonds and diamond
mines of India ?
(a) Francois Bernier
(b) Jean-Baptiste Tavernier
(c) Jean de Thevenot
(d) Abbe Barthelemy Carre

History Modern (13 Qs)

9. Which of the following led to the introduction of English Education in India?
1. Charter Act of 1813
2. General Committee of Public Instruction, 1823
3. Orientalist and Anglicist Controversy
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

10. In 1920, which of the following changed its name to “Swarajya Sabha” ?
(a) All India Home Rule League
(b) Hindu Mahasabha
(c) South Indian Liberal Federation
(d) The Servants of India Society

11. Which among the following events happened earliest ?

(a) Swami Dayanand established Arya Samaj.
(b) Dinabandhu Mitra wrote Neeldarpan.
(c) Banking Chandra Chattopadhyay wrote Anandmath.
(d) Satyendranath Tagore became the first Indian to succeed in the Indian Civil Services
Examination.

12. With reference to the educational institutions during colonial rule in India, consider the following
pairs:
Institution Founder
1. Sanskrit College at Benaras - William Jones
2. Calcutta Madarsa - Warren Hastings
3. Fort William College - Arthur Wellesley
Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
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(d) 3 Only

13. After the Santhal Uprising subsided, what was/were the measure/measures taken by the colonial
government?
1. The territories called ‘Santhal Paraganas’ were created.
2. It became illegal for a Santhal to transfer land to a non- Santhal
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

14. Economically, one of the results of the British rule in India in the 19th century was the
(a) increase in the export of Indian handicrafts
(b) growth in the number of Indian owned factories
(c) commercialization of Indian agriculture
(d) rapid increase in the urban population

15. He wrote biographies of Mazzini, Garibaldi, Shivaji and ShriKrishna; stayed in America for some
time ; and was also elected to the Central Assembly. He was
(a) Aurobindo Ghosh
(b) Bipin Chandra Pal
(c) Lala Lajpat Rai
(d) Motilal Nehru

16. In the Federation established by The Government of India Act of 1935, residuary powers were given
to the:
(a) Federal Legislature
(b) Governor General
(c) Provincial Legislature
(d) Provincial Governor

17. The staple commodities of export by the English East India Company from Bengal in the middle of
the 18th century were
(a) Raw cotton, oil-seeds and opium
(b) Sugar, salt, zinc and lead
(c) Copper, silver, gold, spices and tea
(d) Cotton, silk, saltpetre and opium

18. Which one of the following is a very significant aspect of the Champaran Satyagraha?
(a) Active all-India participation of lawyers, students and woman in the National Movement
(b) Active involvement of Dalit and Tribal communities of India in the National Movement
(c) Joining of peasant unrest to India’s National Movement
(d) Drastic decrease in the cultivation of plantation crops and commercial crops

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19. Which one of the following statements does not apply to the system of Subsidiary Alliance introduced
by Load Wellesley?
(a) To maintain a large standing army at other’s expense
(b) To keep India safe from Napoleonic danger
(c) To secure a fixed income for the Company
(d) To establish British paramountcy over the Indian States

20. Regarding Wood’s Dispatch which of the following statements are true?
1. Grants-in-Aid system was introduced.
2. Establishment of universities was recommended.
3. English as a medium of instruction at all levels of education was recommended
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

21. Who among the following were the founders of the “Hind Mazdoor Sabha” established in 1948 ?
(a) B.Krishna Pillai, E.M.S. Namboodiripad and K.C. George
(b) Jayaprakash Narayan, Deen Dayal Upadhyay and M.N.Roy
(c) C.P. Ramaswamy lyer, K. Kamaraj and Veeresalingam Pantulu
(d) Ashok Mehta, T.S Ramanujam and G.G. Mehta

Geography (6 Qs)
22. Consider the following statements :
1. In India, State Governments do not have the power to auction non-coal mines.
2. Andhra Pradesh and Jharkhand do not have gold mines.
3. Rajasthan has iron ore mines.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only

23. Which one of the following is an artificial lake?

(a) Kodaikanal (Tamil Nadu)
(b) Kolleru (Andhra Pradesh)
(c) Nainital (Uttarakhand)
(d) Renuka (Himachal Pradesh)

24. With reference to agricultural soils, consider the following statements:

1. A high content of organic matter in soil drastically reduces its water holding capacity.
2. Soil does not play any role in the sulphur cycle.
3. Irrigation over a period of time can contribute to the salinization of some agricultural lands.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

25. Consider the following statements:

1. The Barren Island volcano is an active volcano located in the Indian territory.
2. Barren Island lies about 140 km east of Great Nicobar.
3. The last time the Barren lsland volcano erupted was in 1991 and it has remained inactive since
them.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 3

26. Consider the following statements:

1. The Earth’s magnetic field has reversed every few hundred thousand years.
2. When the Earth was created more than 4000 million years ago, there was 54% oxygen and no
carbon dioxide.
3. When living organisms originated, they modified the early atmosphere of the Earth.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

27. Which of the following has/have shrunk immensely/dried up in the recent past due to human
activities?
1. Aral Sea
2. Black Sea
3. Lake Baikal
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 only
(d) 1 and 3

Geography Maps (1 Q)
28. Among the following cities, which one lies on a longitude closest to that of Delhi?
(a) Bengaluru
(b) Hyderabad
(c) Nagpur
(d) Pune

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Agriculture (3 Qs)
29. With reference to the circumstances in Indian agriculture, the concept of “Conservation Agriculture”
assumes significance. Which of the following fall under the Conservation Agriculture?
1. Avoiding the monoculture practices
2. Adopting minimum tillage
3. Avoiding the cultivation of plantation crops
4. Using crops residues to cover soil surface
5. Adopting spatial and temporal crop sequencing/crop rotations
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1. 3 and 4
(b) 2, 3, 4 and 5
(c) 2, 4 and 5
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 5

30. With reference to organic farming in India, consider the following statements:
1. “The National Programme for Organic Production’(NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and
direction of the Union Ministry of Rural Development.
2. “The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority’ (APEDA)
functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP.
3. Sikkim has become India’s first fully organic State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

31. As per the NSSO 70th Round “Situation Assessment Survey of Agricultural Households”,
1. Rajasthan has the highest percentage share of agricultural households among its rural
households.
2. Out of the total agricultural households in the country, a little over 60 percent belong to OBCs.
3. In Kerala, a little over 60 precent of agricultural households reported to have received maximum
income from sources other than agricultural activities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 2 and 3only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Polity (8 Qs)
32. If the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in
respect of a particular State then
(a) the Assembly of the state is automatically dissolved
(b) the powers of the legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the
Parliament
(c) Article 19 is suspended in that State
(d) the President can make laws relating to that State

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33. Consider the following statements:

1. In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was the Swatantra Party.
2. In the Lok Sabha, a “Leader of the Opposition” was recognised for the first time in 1969.
3. In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have a minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot be
recognised as the Leader of the Opposition.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

34. Consider the following statements:

1. The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of
India.
2. The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no
judgement can be made on it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

35. Consider the following statements:

1. The speaker of the Legislative Assembly shall vacate his/her office if he/she ceases to be a
member of the Assembly.
2. Whenever the Legislative Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker shall vacate his/her office
immediately.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

36. Consider the following statements:

1. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State in any court during his
term of office.
2. The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a State shall not be diminished during his
term of office.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

37. Which one of the following reflects the most appropriate relationship between law and liberty ?
(a) If there are more laws, there is less liberty.

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(b) If there are no laws, there is no liberty.

(c) If there is liberty, laws have to be made by the people.
(d) If laws are changed too often, liberty is in danger.

38. Which of the following are regarded as the main features of the “Rule of Law”?
1. Limitation of powers
2. Equality before law
3. People’s responsibility to the Government
4. Liberty and civil rights
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

39. With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following Parliamentary Committees
scrutinizes and report to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub rules, by-laws,
etc. conferred by the Constitution or delegated by the Parliament are being properly exercised by the
Executive within the scope of such delegation?
(a) Committee on Government Assurances
(b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation
(c) Rules Committee
(d) Business Advisory Committee.

Economy (7 Qs)
40. Which of the following statements correctly describes the meaning of legal tender money?
(a) The money which is tendered in courts of law to defray the fee of legal cases
(b) The money which a creditor is under compulsion to accept in settlement of his claims.
(c) The bank money in the form of cheques, drafts, bills of exchange, etc.
(d) The metallic money in circulation in a country.

41. If a commodity is provided free to public by the government, then

(a) the opportunity cost is zero.
(b) the opportunity cost is ignored.
(c) the opportunity cost is transferred from the consumers of the product to the tax – paying public.
(d) the opportunity cost is transferred from the consumers of the product to the Government.

42. Increase in absolute and per capita real GNP do not connote a higher level of economic development,
if
(a) Industrial output fails to keep pace with agricultural output.
(b) Agricultural output fails to keep pace with industrial output.
(c) Poverty and unemployment increase.
(d) Imports grow faster than exports.

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43. Consider the following statements

Human capital formation is better explained in terms of a process which enables.

1. Individuals of a country to accumulate more capital.

2. Increasing the knowledge, skill level and capacities of the people of the country.
3. Accumulation of tangible wealth.
4. Accumulation of intangible wealth.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4

44. Despite being a high saving economy, capital formation may not result in significant increase in
output due to
(a) weak administrative machinery
(b) illiteracy
(c) high population density
(d) high capital- output ration

45. Consider the following events:

1. The first democratically elected communist party government formed in a State in India.
2. India’s then largest bank, ‘Imperial Bank of India’, was renamed ‘State Bank of India’.
3. Air India was nationalised and became the national carrier
4. Goa became a part of independent India
Which of the following is the correct chronological sequence of the above events?
(a) 4 – 1 – 2- 3
(b) 3 – 2 – 1 – 4
(c) 4 - 2 – 1 – 3
(d) 3 – 1 – 2 – 4

46. Consider the following statements:

1. The quantity of imported edible oil is more than the domestic production of edible oils in the last
five years.
2. The Government does not impose any custom duty on all the imported edible oils as a special
case.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Environment Biodiversity (4 Qs)

47. In which one of the following State is Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary located?
(a) Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Manipur
(c) Meghalaya
(d) Nagaland

48. Consider the following statement:

1. The definition of “Critical Wildlife Habitat” is incorporated in the Forest Rights Act, 2006.
2. For the first time in India, Baigas have been given Habitat Rights.
3. Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change officially decides and declares
Habitat Rights for Primitive and Vulnerable Tribal Groups in any part of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

49. Consider the following:

1. Birds
2. Dust blowing
3. Rain
4. Wind blowing
Which of the above spread plant diseases ?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

50. Which of the following leaf modifications occur(s) in the desert areas to inhibit water loss?
1. Hard and waxy leaves
2. Tiny Leaves
3. Thorns instead of leaves
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Environment- Clmate Change (3 Qs)

51. “Momentum for change : Climate Neutral Now” is an initiative launched by
(a) The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change
(b) The UNEP Secretariat
(c) The UNFCCC Secretariat
(d) The World Meteorological Organisation

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52. With reference to the ‘Global Alliance for Climate –Smart Agriculture (GACSA)’, which of the
following statements is/are correct?
1. GACSA is an outcome of the Climate Summit held in Paris in 2015.
2. Membership of GACSA does not create any binding obligations.
3. India was instrumental in the creation of GACSA
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3

53. Which of the following statements best describes “carbon fertilization” ?

(a) Increased plant growth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
(b) Increased temperature of Earth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the
atmosphere
(c) Increased acidity of oceans as a result of increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the
atmosphere
(d) Adaptation of all living being on Earth to all climate change brought about by the increased
concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere

S&T - IT (1Q)
54. In which of the following areas can GPS technology be used?
1. Mobile phone operations
2. Banking Operations
3. Controlling the power grids
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Current Affairs (Agriculture) (1Q)

55. Consider the following:
1. Areca nut
2. Barley
3. Coffee
4. Finger millet
5. Groundnut
6. Sesamum
7. Turmeric
The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs has announced the Minimum Support Price for which of
the above?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 7 only
(b) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only
(c) 1, 3, 4, 5 and 6 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7 only

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Current Affairs (Polity) (3 Qs)

56. Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty. Which of the
following in the Constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply the above statement?
(a) Article 14 and the provisions under the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution
(b) Article 17 and the Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV
(c) Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part III
(d) Article 21 and the provisions under the 44th amendment to the Constitution

57. Regarding Money Bill, which of the following statement is not correct?
(a) A bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provision relating to imposition,
abolition, remission, alteration and regulation of any tax.
(b) A Money bill has provision for the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency
Fund of India.
(c) A Money bill is concerned with the appropriation of moneys out of the Contingency Fund of
India.
(d) A Money bill deals with the regulation of borrowing of money or giving of any guarantee by the
Government of India.

58. With reference to the Election of the President of India , consider the following statements:
1. The value of the vote of each MLA varies from State to State.
2. The value of the Vote of MPs of the Lok Sabha is more than the value of the vote of MPs of the
Rajya Sabha
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Current Affairs (Economy) (8 Qs)

59. Consider the following items:
1. Cereal grains hulled
2. Chicken eggs cooked
3. Fish processed and canned
4. Newspapers containing advertising material
Which of the above items is/are exempted under GST (Goods and Service Tax)?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

60. Which one of the following best describes the term “Merchant Discount Rate” sometimes seen in
news?
(a) The incentive given by a bank to a merchant for accepting payments through debit cards
pertaining to that bank.
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(b) The amount paid back by banks to their customers when they use debit cards for financial
transactions for purchasing goods or services.
(c) The charge to a merchant by a bank for accepting payments from his customers through the
bank’s debit cards.
(d) The incentive given by the Government to merchants for promoting digital payments by their
customers through Point of sale (PoS) machines and debit cards.

61. With reference to India’s decision to levy an equalization tax of 6% on online advertisement services
offered by non-residents entities, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is introduced as a part of the Income Tax Act.
2. Non-residents entities that offer advertisement service in India can claim a tax credit in their
home country under the “Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements”.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

62. Consider the following statements:

1. Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) is the amount that banks have to maintain in the form of their
own funds to offset any loss that banks incur if the account-holder fails to repay dues.
2. CAR is decided by each individual bank.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

63. Consider the following statements:

1. The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Review Committee Report has
recommended a debt to GDP ratio of 60% for the general (combined) government by 2023,
comprising 40% for the Central Government and 20% for the State Governments.
2. The Central Government has domestic liabilities of 21% of the GDP as compared to that of 49%
of GDP of the State Government
3. As per the Constitution of India, it is mandatory for a state to take the Central Government’s
consent for raising any loan if the former owes any outstanding liabilities to the latter.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

64. Consider the following statements:

1. The Reserve Bank of India manages and services Government of India Securities but not any
State Government Securities.

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2. Treasury bills are issued by the Government of India and there are no treasury bills issued by the
State Governments.
3. Treasury bills offer are issued at a discount from the par value.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

65. With reference to the governance of public sector banking in India, consider the following statements:
1. Capital infusion into public sector banks by the Government of India has steadily increased in the
last decade.
2. To put the public sector banks in order, the merger of associate banks with the parent State Bank
of India has been affected.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

66. Which of the following links all the ATMs in India?

(a) Indian Banks Association
(b) National Security Depository limited
(c) National Payment Corporation of India
(d) Reserve Bank of India

Current Affairs (Environment- Pollution) (2 Qs)

67. Which of the following is/are the possible consequence/s of heavy sand mining in riverbeds?
1. Decreased salinity in the river
2. Pollution of groundwater
3. Lowering of the water-table
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

68. How is the National Green Tribunal (NGT) different from the Central Pollution Control Board
(CPCB)
1. The NGT has been established by an Act whereas the CPCB has been created by executive order
of the Government.
2. The NGT provides environmental justice and helps reduce the burden of litigation in the higher
courts whereas the CPCB promotes cleanliness of streams and wells, and aims to improve the
quality of air in the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only

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(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Current Affairs (Environment- Biodiversity) (2 Q)

69. Consider the following statements:
1. Most of the world’s coral reefs are in tropical water.
2. More than one-third of the world’s coral reefs are located in the territories of Australia, Indonesia
and Philippines.
3. Coral reefs host far more number of animal phyla than those hosted by tropical rainforests.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3

70. Why is a plant called Prosopis juliflora often mentioned in news?

(a) Its extract is widely used in cosmetics.
(b) It tends to reduce the biodiversity in the area in which it grows.
(c) Its extract is used in the synthesis of pesticides.
(d) None of the above.

Current Affairs (S&T- IT) (5 Qs)

71. “3D printing” has applications in which of the following?
1. Preparation of confectionery items
2. Manufacture of Bionic ears
3. Automotive industry
4. Reconstructive surgeries
5. Data processing technologies
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3 and 5 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

72. The terms ‘WannaCry, Petya and EternalBlue’ sometimes mentioned in the news recently are related
to
(a) Exoplanets
(b) Cryptocurrency
(c) Cyber attacks
(d) Mini Satellites

73. Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of “Digital India” plan of the Government of India?
1. Formation of India’s own internet companies like China did.

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2. Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big
Data to build their large data centres within our national geographical boundaries.
3. Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our schools, public
places and major tourist centres.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

74. When the alarm of your smartphone rings in the morning, you wake up and tap it to stop the alarm
which causes your geyser to be switched on automatically. The smart mirror in your bathroom shows
the day’s weather and also indicates the level of water in your overhead tank. After you take some
groceries from your refrigerator for making breakfast, it recognises the shortage of stock in it and
places an order for the supply of fresh grocery items. When you step out of your house and lock the
door, all lights, fans, geysers and AC machines get switched off automatically. On your way to office,
your car warns you about traffic congestion ahead and suggests an alternative route, and if you are late
for a meeting, it sends a message to your office accordingly.
In the context of emerging communication technologies, which one of the following terms best
applies, to the above scenario?
(a) Border Gateway Protocol
(b) Internet of Things
(c) Internet Protocol
(d) Virtual Private Network

75. With reference to digital payments, consider the following statements :

1. BHIM app allows the user to transfer money to anyone with a UPI-enabled bank account.
2. While a chip-pin debit card has four factors of authentication, BHIM app has only two factors of
authentication.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Current Affairs (S&T- SPACE) (4 Qs)

76. The term “sixth mass extinction/sixth extinction” is often mentioned in the news in the context of the
discussion of
(a) Widespread monoculture practices in agriculture and large-scale commercial farming with
indiscriminate use of chemicals in many parts of the world that may result in the loss of good
native ecosystems.
(b) Fears of a possible collision of a meteorite with the Earth in the near future in manner it happened
65 million years ago that caused the mass extinction of many species including those of
dinosaurs.
(c) Large scale cultivation of genetically modified crops in many parts of the world and promoting
their cultivation in other parts of the world which may cause the disappearance of good native
crop plants and the loss of food biodiversity.

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(d) Mankind’s over-exploitation/misuse of natural resources, fragmentation/loss of natural habitats,

destruction of ecosystems, pollution and global climate change.

77. With reference to India’s Satellite launch vehicles, consider the following statements:
1. PSLVs launch the satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed
mainly to launch communication satellites.
2. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky,
as viewed from a particular location on Earth
3. GSLV Mk III is four-staged launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket
motors; and second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines.
What of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 3 only

78. With reference to the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), consider the following
statements.
1. IRNSS has three satellites in geostationary and four satellites in geosynchronous orbits.
2. IRNSS covers entire India and about 5500 sq.km. beyond its borders.
3. India will have its own satellite navigation system with full global coverage by the middle of
2019.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) None

79. Consider the following phenomena:

1. Light is affected by gravity.
2. The universe is constantly expanding.
3. Matter warps its surrounding space-time.
Which of the above is/are the prediction/predictions of Albert Einstein’s General Theory of Relativity,
often discussed in media?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

Current Affairs (S&T- Biotechnology) (1 Q)

80. With reference to the Genetically Modified mustard (GM mustard) developed in India, consider the
following statements:
1. GM mustard has the genes of a soil bacterium that give the plant the property of pest-resistance to
a wide variety of pests.
2. GM mustard has the genes that allow the plant cross-pollination and hybridization.
3. GM mustard has been developed jointly by the IARI and Punjab Agricultural University.

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Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Current Affairs (S&T) (1 Q)

81. Consider the following pairs:
Term sometimes seen in news Context/Topic
1. Belle II experiment - Artificial Intelligence
2. Block chain technology - Digital/crypto currency
3. CRISPR – Cas9 - Particle Physics
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Current Affairs (Social-Health/Act) (3 Qs)

82. Consider the following statements
1. As per the Right to Education (RTE) Act, to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in a state, a
person would be required to possess the minimum qualification laid down by the concerned State
Council of Teacher Education.
2. As per RTE Act, for teaching primary classes a candidate is required to pass a Teacher Eligibility
Test conducted in accordance with National Council of Teacher Education guidelines.
3. In India more than 90% of teacher education institutions are directly under the State Government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only

83. Consider the following statements.

1. The Food Safety and Standard Act, 2006 replaced the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954
2. The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is under the charge of Director
General of Health Services in the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

84. With reference to the provisions made under the National Food Security Act, 2013, consider the
following statements:

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1. The families coming under the category of ‘below poverty line (BPL)’ only are eligible to receive
subsidised food grains.
2. The eldest woman in a household, of age 18 years or above, shall be the head of the household for
the purpose of issuance of a ration card.
3. Pregnant woman and lactating mothers are entitled to a ‘take-home ration ‘ of 1600 calories per
day during pregnancy and for six months thereafter.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only

Current Affairs (Social-Scheme) (1 Q)

85. With reference to Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana, consider the following statements:
1. It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Labour and Employment.
2. It, among other things, will also impart training in soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial and
digital literacy.
3. It aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the National Skill
Qualification Framework.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Current Affairs (Aadhaar) (2 Q)

86. The identity platform ‘Aadhaar’ provides open “Application Programming Interfaces (APIs)”.What
does it imply?
1. It can be integrated into any electronic device.
2. Online authentication using iris is possible.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

87. Consider the following statements:

1. Aadhaar card can be used as a proof of citizenship or domicile.
2. Once issued, Aadhaar number cannot be deactivated or omitted by the Issuing Authority.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Current Affairs (Energy) (1 Q)

88. With reference to solar power production in India, consider the following statements :
1. India is the third largest in the world in the manufacture of silicon wafers used in photovoltaic
units.
2. The solar power tariffs are determined by the Solar Energy Corporation of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Current Affairs (International) (5 Qs)

89. Consider the following pairs:
Regions sometimes Country
mentioned in the news
1. Catalonia - Spain
2. Crimea - Hungary
3. Mindanao - Philippines
4. Oromia - Nigeria
Which of the following pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 4 only

90. Consider the following pairs:

Towns sometimes Country
mentioned in news
1. Aleppo - Syria
2. Kirkuk - Yemen
3. Mosul - Palestine
4. Mazar-i-sharif - Afghanistan
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 4
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 and 4

91. What is “Terminal High Altitude Area Defence (THAAD)”, sometimes seen in the news?
(a) An Israeli radar system
(b) India’s indigenous anti-missile system
(c) An American anti-missile system
(d) A defence collaboration between Japan and South Korea

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92. Very recently, in which of the following countries have lakhs of people either suffered from severe
famine/acute malnutrition or died due to starvation caused by war/ethnic conflicts?
(a) Angola and Zambia
(b) Morocco and Tunisia
(c) Venezuela and Colombia
(d) Yemen and South Sudan

93. The term “two-state solution” is sometimes mentioned In the news in the context of the affairs of
(a) China
(b) Israel
(c) Iraq
(d) Yemen

Current Affairs (International Organisations) (7 Qs)

94. The Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE), a UN mechanism to assist countries
transition towards greener and more inclusive economies, emerged at
(a) The Earth Summit on Sustainable Development 2002, Johannesburg
(b) The United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development 2012, Rio de Janeiro
(c) The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change 2015, Paris
(d) The World Sustainable Development Summit 2016, New Delhi

95. Which is/are the consequence/consequences of a country becoming the member of the “Nuclear
Supplier Group”?
1. It will have access to the latest and most efficient nuclear technologies.
2. It automatically becomes a member of “The Treaty on the Non- Proliferation of the Nuclear
Weapons (NPT)”.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

96. “Rule of Law Index” is released by which of the following?

(a) Amnesty International
(b) International Court of Justice
(c) The office of UN Commissioner for Human Rights
(d) World Justice Project

97. In the Indian context, what is the implication of ratifying the ‘Additional Protocol’ with the
‘International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)’?
(a) The Civilian nuclear reactors come under IAEA safeguards.
(b) The military nuclear installations come under the inspection of IAEA.
(c) The country will have the privilege to buy Uranium from the Nuclear Supplier Groups (NSG).
(d) The country automatically becomes a member of NSG.

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98. Consider the following countries:

1. Australia
2. Canada
3. China
4. India
5. Japan
6. USA
Which of the above are among the ‘free trade partner’ of ASEAN?
(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5
(b) 3, 4, 5 and 6
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 5
(d) 2, 3, 4 and 6

99. India enacted The Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 in order
to comply with the obligations to
(a) ILO
(b) IMF
(c) UNCTAD
(d) WTO

100. International Labour Organization’s Conventions 138 and 182 are related to
(a) Child labour
(b) Adaptation of agricultural practices to global climate change
(c) Regulation of food prices and food security
(d) Gender parity at the workplace

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