CHAPTER 4 – NURSING PROCESS
1. A patient report that she has a drug allergy. In exploring the allergic reaction with the patient,
which of the following might indicate an allergic response?
a. Increased urination
b. Dry mouth
c. Rash
d. Drowsiness
2. The nurse obtains a medical history from a patient before beginning drug therapy based on an
understanding of which of the following?
a. medical conditions can alter a drug’s pharmacokinetics and
pharmacodynamics.
b. A medical history is a key component of any nursing protocol.
c. A baseline of information is necessary to evaluate a drug’s
effects.
d. The medical history is the first step in the nursing process.
3. The nurse writes a nursing diagnosis for which reason?
a. Direct medical care
b. Help to increase patient compliance
c. Identify actual or potential alteration in patient function
d. Determine insurance reimbursement in most cases
4. A patient receiving an antihistamine complains of dry mouth and nose. An appropriate comfort
measure for this patient would be to
a. suggest that the patient use a humidifier.
b. encourage voiding before taking the drug.
c. have the patient avoid sun exposure.
d. give the patient a back rub.
5. When establishing the nursing interventions appropriate for a given patient
a. the patient should not be actively involved.
b. the patient support systems should be included only at discharge.
c. teaching should be done when the patient states he or she is
ready to learn.
d. an evaluation of all of the data accumulated should be incorporated to achieve an effective care
plan.
6. The evaluation step of the nursing process
a. is often used as a last resort.
b. is important primarily in the acute setting.
c. is a continuous process.
d. includes making nursing diagnoses.
7. After teaching a patient about digoxin (Lanoxin)—a drug used to increase the effectiveness of the
heart’s contractions—which statement indicates that the teaching was effective?
a. “I need to take my pulse every morning before I take my pill.”
b. “If I forget my pills, I usually make up the missed dose once I
remember.”
c. “This pill might help my hay fever when it becomes a problem.”
d. “I don’t remember the name of it, but it is the white one.”
CHAPTER 6 – 21ST CENTURY
1. Drugs can be advertised in the mass media only if
a. the FDA indication is clearly stated.
b. the actual use is never stated.
c. adverse effects and precautions are stated if the use is stated.
d. all adverse effects are clearly stated.
2. Herbal treatments and alternative therapies
a. are considered drugs and regulated by the FDA.
b. are considered dietary supplements and are not regulated by the FDA.
c. have no restrictions on claims and advertising.
d. contain no drugs, only natural substances.
3. OTC drugs are drugs that are
a. deemed to be safe when used as directed.
b. harmless to the public.
c. too old to be tested.
d. cheaper to use than prescription drugs.
4. The home healthcare industry is booming because
a. there is a shortage of hospital beds.
b. patients feel safer at home and prefer to be cared for at home.
c. patients are going home sooner and becoming responsible for their own care sooner than in the
past.
d. the nursing shortage makes it difficult to care for patients in hospitals.
5. The cost of drug therapy is a major consideration in most areas because
a. generic drugs are always cheaper.
b. the high cost of drugs combined with more fixed income consumers puts constraints on drug use.
c. pharmacies usually carry only one drug from each class.
d. patients like to shop around and get the best drug for their money.
6. An off-label use of a drug means that the drug
a. was found without a label and its actual contents are not known.
b. has been found to be safe when used as directed and no restrictions are needed.
c. is being used for an indication not listed in the approved indications noted by the FDA.
d. has expired but is still found to be useful when used as directed.
CHAPTER 7 – Cell Physiology
1. The basic unit of human structure is
a. the mitochondria.
b. the nucleus.
c. the nucleolus
d. the cell.
2. The cell membrane is composed of
a. a phospholipid structure.
b. channels of protein.
c. a cholesterol-based membrane.
d. Golgi apparatus.
3. The saying, “One rotten apple can spoil the whole barrel,” can be used to refer to the cell-
degrading properties of
a. calcium channels.
b. lysosomes.
c. histocompatibility receptors.
d. nuclear spindles.
4. The ribosomes are important sites for
a. digestion of nutrients.
b. excretion of waste products.
c. production of proteins.
d. hormone receptors.
5. A human cell placed in salty seawater will
a. burst from water entering the cell.
b. shrivel and die from water leaving the cell.
c. not be affected in any way.
d. break apart from the salt effect.
6. The sodium–potassium pump maintains a negative charge on the cell
membrane by
a. osmosis.
b. diffusion.
c. active transport.
d. facilitated diffusion.
7. All cells progress through basically the same cell cycle, including
a. two phases.
b. four active phases and a resting phase.
c. three periods of rest and a splitting phase.
d. four active phases.
CHAPTER 8 – Anti-Infective drugs
1. The spectrum of activity of an antiinfective indicates
a. the acidity of the environment in which it is most effective.
b. the cell membrane type that the antiinfective affects.
c. the antiinfective’s effectiveness against different invading organisms.
d. the resistance factor that bacteria have developed to this antiinfective.
2. The emergence of resistant strains of microbes is a serious public health problem. Healthcare
providers can work to prevent the emergence of resistant strains by
a. encouraging the patient to stop the antibiotic as soon as the symptoms are resolved to prevent
overexposure to the drug.
b. encouraging the use of antibiotics when patients feel they will help.
c. limiting the use of antimicrobial agents to the treatment of specific pathogens known to be
sensitive to the drug being used.
d. using the most recent powerful drug available to treat an infection to ensure eradication of the
microbe.
3. Sensitivity testing of a culture shows
a. drugs that are capable of controlling that particular microorganism.
b. the patient’s potential for allergic reactions to a drug.
c. the offending microorganism.
d. an immune reaction to the infecting organism.
4. Combination therapy is often used in treating infections. An important consideration for using
combination therapy would be that
a. it is cheaper to use two drugs in one tablet than one drug alone.
b. most infections are caused by multiple organisms.
c. the combination of drugs can delay the emergence of resistant strains.
d. combining antiinfectives will prevent adverse effects from occurring.
5. Superinfections can occur when antiinfective agents destroy the normal flora of the body.
Candida infections are commonly associated with antibiotic use. A patient with this type of
superinfection would exhibit
a. difficulty breathing.
b. vaginal discharge or white patches in the mouth.
c. elevated blood urea nitrogen.
d. dark lesions on the skin.
6. An example of an antiinfective used as a means of prophylaxis would be
a. amoxicillin used for tonsillitis.
b. penicillin used to treat an abscess.
c. an antibiotic used before dental surgery.
d. co-trimoxazole used for a bladder infection.
7. A broad-spectrum antibiotic would be the drug of choice when
a. the patient has many known allergies.
b. one is waiting for culture and sensitivity results.
c. the infection is caused by one specific bacterium.
d. treatment is being given for an upper respiratory infection of
unknown cause
Chapter 9 – antibiotic
1. A bacteriostatic substance is one that
a. directly kills any bacteria it comes in contact with.
b. directly kills any bacteria that are sensitive to the substance.
c. prevents the growth of any bacteria.
d. prevents the growth of specific bacteria that are sensitive to the substance.
2. Gram-negative bacteria
a. are mostly found in the respiratory tract.
b. are mostly associated with soft tissue infections.
c. are mostly found in the GI and GU tracts.
d. accept a positive stain when tested.
3. Antibiotics that are used together to increase their effectiveness and limit the associated
adverse effects are said to be
a. broad spectrum.
b. synergistic.
c. bactericidal.
d. anaerobic.
4. An aminoglycoside antibiotic might be the drug of choice in treating
a. serious infections caused by susceptible strains of Gram-negative bacteria.
b. otitis media in an infant.
c. cystitis in a woman who is 4 months pregnant.
d. suspected pneumonia before the culture results are available.
5. Which of the following is not a caution for the use of cephalosporins?
a. Allergy to penicillin
b. Renal failure
c. Allergy to aspirin
d. Concurrent treatment with aminoglycosides
6. The fluoroquinolones
a. are found freely in nature.
b. are associated with severe adverse reactions.
c. are widely used to treat Gram-positive infections.
d. are broad-spectrum antibiotics with few associated adverse effects.
7. Cipro, a widely used antibiotic, is an example of
a. a penicillin.
b. a fluoroquinolone.
c. an aminoglycoside.
d. a macrolide antibiotic.
8. A patient receiving a fluoroquinolone should be cautioned to anticipate
a. increased salivation.
b. constipation.
c. photosensitivity.
d. cough.
9. The goal of antibiotic therapy is
a. to eradicate all bacteria from the system.
b. to suppress resistant strains of bacteria.
c. to reduce the number of invading bacteria so that the immune system can deal with the infection.
d. to stop the drug as soon as the patient feels better.
10. The penicillins
a. are bacteriostatic.
b. are bactericidal, interfering with bacteria cell walls.
c. are effective only if given intravenously.
d. do not produce cross-sensitivity within their class.
