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Countdown Mock 11 (CLAT) 2025

English Language
Directions for questions 1 to 24: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that
follow.

Passage – 1

[1] One of the most debated issues in Indian political science research has been the well-documented
observation that young Indian citizens tend to exhibit weaker party loyalties compared to their older
counterparts. [2] This was first highlighted in studies on Indian electoral behaviour. [3] In the absence
of longitudinal data, Indian political scientists have often relied on indirect methods, comparing the
partisan loyalties of individuals of the same age group but with varying lengths of political
involvement. [5] Even though these tests are indirect, strong conclusions have been drawn, supporting
the life cycle theory. [6] It suggests that the weak party loyalties of young Indians stem from their age
and political inexperience. [7] These conclusions have been further reinforced through cross-country
comparisons, drawing parallels from studies in countries like the USA, UK, and Germany. [8] Similar
to what Converse (1969) demonstrated in the US context, this Indian formulation could explain
how partisan strength among the electorate remains stable. [9] Despite older voters with strong
political ties passing out and being replaced by younger voters with weaker partisan loyalties, the
dynamics of increasing party loyalty with age may prevent a significant erosion of partisan strength in
the country. [10] If as political scientists argue strong party loyalties contribute to political stability in
India, the life cycle explanation if valid holds major implications for the country's political system.
Q 1. 11939094 In sentence [9], which of the following changes to the phrase 'passing out' is most
appropriate?

a) b) passing away c) passing on d) passing through

No change is required.

Q 2. 11939094 Sentence [10] lacks proper punctuation. Which of the following options best corrects
the punctuation in sentence [10]?

a)
If, as political scientists argue, strong party loyalties contribute to political stability in India, the life cycle
explanation, if valid, holds major implications for the country's political system.
b)
If, as political scientists argue strong party loyalties contribute to political stability in India, the life cycle
explanation, if valid holds major implications, for the country's political system.

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c)
If, as political scientists argue, strong party loyalties contribute to political stability in India; the life cycle
explanation, if valid, holds major implications for the country's political system.
d)
If, as political scientists argue, strong party loyalties contribute to political stability in India the life cycle
explanation if valid, holds major implications for the country's political system.

Q 3. 11939094 Which of the following changes would improve the clarity of sentence [2]?

a) This debate was first highlighted in studies on Indian electoral behaviour.

b) This comparison was first highlighted in studies on Indian electoral behaviour.

c) This trend was first highlighted in studies on Indian electoral behaviour.

d) These observations were first highlighted in studies on Indian electoral behaviour.

Q 4. 11939094 Which of the following can replace the phrase "partisan loyalties" in sentence [3]
without changing the intended meaning?

a) political allegiances b) ideological loyalties c) group solidarities d) party preferences

Q 5. 11939094 "These conclusions" in sentence [7] refers to which of the following sentence(s)?

a) sentences [3], [4]. [5] and [6] b) sentences [4], [5] and [6]

c) sentences [5] and [6] d) sentence [6]

Q 6. 11939094 "Similar to what Converse (1969) demonstrated in the US context" in sentence [8]
functions as which of the following grammatical components?

a) Adjectival phrase b) Adverbial phrase c) Noun phrase d) Prepositional phrase

Directions for questions 1 to 24: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that
follow.

Passage – 2

A controversial issue in the literature is whether the cast of characters in books written for children
should be familiar or not. Aytekin argues that the people in children's books should not be chosen from
among people the child does not know or recognize. In other words, he argues that these people
should be familiar. When this claim is viewed from the perspective of identification, this choice may be
appropriate because it may be easier for the child to identify with people, they know than with people
they do not know. However, from the perspective of the ethics of understanding, the situation is the
opposite. Because the child who encounters only the people, they know in the books they read will
never meet the other. In this case, the child will never understand people other than those presented
to them by society. Moreover, they will not even be aware of the existence of people other than these.

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In short, the people in children's books should be distributed in a balanced way, just like in real life, in
terms of whether they are familiar or not. A fiction in which the child can recognize and understand
different people should be created.
Q 7. 11939094 Which of the following best describes the style of writing of the author?

a)
The author objectively presents both sides, weighing the pros and cons, and provides a neutral
stance.
b)
The author debates both sides, presenting logical arguments for each, and suggests a balanced
approach.
c)
The author critiques an existing position, presents arguments against it, and proposes an alternative.
d)
The author argues passionately for one side of an issue, appealing to emotions and ethics throughout.

Q 8. 11939094 What does the phrase "ethics of understanding" in the passage most likely refer to?

a)
The ethical principle that children should not engage with characters they can easily identify with to
broaden their understanding of themselves.
b)
The moral principle idea that exposing children to unfamiliar people in books can enhance their ability
to learn about others and create their own sense of ethics.
c)
The ethical concept that children's literature should focus on familiar and unfamiliar characters to
reinforce cultural and societal norms for better understanding.
d)
The moral responsibility to introduce children to both familiar and unfamiliar people to promote
empathy and comprehension of diverse individuals.

Q 9. 11939094 If the perspective of identification is true, which of the following must also be true?

a) Children may not feel a strong connection with whom they don't recognise.
b) Children cannot grasp the narrative if they encounter unfamiliar characters.

c) Exposure to unfamiliar characters does not contribute to emotional growth.

d) For a balanced emotional development, exposure to unfamiliarity is not needed.

Directions for questions 1 to 24: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that
follow.

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Q 10. 11939094 "A fiction in which the child can recognize and understand different people should be
created." The tone of this sentence can be best described as:

a) didactic b) exhortative c) prescriptive d) cautious

Q 11. 11939094 Which of the following is the most concise version of the sentence: "Aytekin argues
that the people in children's books should not be chosen from among people the child does not know
or recognize"?

a)
Aytekin suggests that characters in children's books should come from familiar backgrounds, rather
than being unknown to the child.
b)
Aytekin believes that children's books should feature characters who are already familiar to the child,
instead of those they don't recognize.
c)
According to Aytekin, characters in children's books should not be unfamiliar to the child, but rather
should come from their known circle.
d)
Aytekin asserts that children's books should exclusively include characters that the child is already
acquainted with, avoiding those they do not know.

Q 12. 11939094 Which of the following sequences of words/phrases taken from the passage best
describes the thematic highlights of the passage?

a) controversial issue in the literature; children; Aytekin; ethics of understanding; real life.

b) children's books; characters; perspective of identification; ethics of understanding; balanced.

c) cast of characters; identify with people; aware of the existence; children's books; balanced way.

d)
controversial issue; cast of characters; children's books; existence of people; understand different
people.

Passage – 3

In ordinary conversations, we often say things like the following: (1) I love chocolate (or skiing). (2) I
love doing philosophy (or being a father). (3) I love my dog (or cat). (4) I love my wife (or mother or
child or friend). However, what is meant by 'love' differs from case to case. (1) may be understood as
meaning merely that I like this thing or activity very much. In (2), the implication is typically that I find
engaging in a certain activity or being a certain kind of person to be a part of my identity and so what
makes my life worth living; I might just as well say that I value these. By contrast, (3) and (4) seem to
indicate a mode of concern that cannot be neatly assimilated to anything else. Thus, we might
understand the sort of love at issue in (4) to be, roughly, a matter of caring about another person as

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the person she is, for her own sake. (Accordingly, (3) may be understood as a kind of deficient mode
of the sort of love we typically reserve for persons.) Scholarly accounts of love have focused primarily
on the sort of personal love at issue in (4).
Q 13. 11939094 Based on the passage, which of the following statements cannot be inferred about
the various uses of the term "love"?

a) In (1), the term "love" is used colloquially to express high appreciation.

b) In (2), the term "love' represents fulfilment in a role or a pursuit.

c) In (3), the term "love" lacks the complexity of human relationships.

d) In (4), the term "love" represents reciprocal feelings of affection.

Q 14. 11939094 Which of the following would the author most likely agree with?

a) Scholars are not concerned about the layperson's understanding of love.

b) Love for a person is more fulfilling than love for an activity.

c) Scholars are less interested in understanding the utility that love brings.

d) People's perception of love is often based on sensory enjoyment.

Q 15. 11939094 What does the author mean by the phrase "deficient mode"?

a) lacking emotional depth b) lacking true expression of love

c) lacking appreciation of worth d) lacking actual intent

Q 16. 11939094 Which of the following is the most likely source from which this excerpt is taken?

a) A research paper analyzing different types of love in psychology.

b) A philosophical essay discussing the nuances of human emotions.

c) A textbook on human relationships and social dynamics.

d) A guide to understanding love and personal fulfilment.

Q 17. 11939094 Based on the passage, which one of the following is the most accurate interpretation
of the examples given in the passage?

a)
I adore chocolate. (2) I value doing philosophy. (3) I am fond of my dog. (4) I deeply care for my wife.
b)
I like chocolate. (2) I am passionate about doing philosophy. (3) I treasure my dog. (4) I cherish my
wife.
c)
I enjoy chocolate. (2) I identify with doing philosophy. (3) I am attached to my dog. (4) I am devoted to
my wife.

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d)
I am deeply fond of chocolate. (2) I find meaning in doing philosophy. (3) I care about my dog. (4) I
unconditionally value my wife.

Q 18. 11939094 Why may scholars be primarily interested in the 4th kind of love?

a)
The 4th kind of love is unique in that it involves caring for another person for their own sake,
presenting complex ethical and philosophical questions.
b)
The 4th kind of love is more universal, as it is commonly found in all types of human relationships,
making it widely applicable in studies.
c)
The 4th kind of love is easier to categorize and analyse since it is deeply personal and emotionally
intense, allowing for more straightforward research.
d)
The 4th kind of love is quantifiable through behavioural studies, which makes it more conducive to
empirical research compared to other kinds of love.

Directions for questions 1 to 24: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that
follow.

Passage – 4

Following is an excerpt from an interview with the poet Rita Dove:

INTERVIEWER: Did you set out to write about the history of the Black Midwest in Fifth Sunday, and in
The Yellow House on the Corner?

DOVE: I worked on both of those books in Oberlin-Fred taught at the college, in the German
department, for two years. We moved there in the fall, my favorite season, and the houses looked like
they were navigating a little sea of leaves-hence the image of the yellow house as a galleon stranded
in flowers.

INTERVIEWER: You mean the image in the last poem in the book?

DOVE: "Ö"?

INTERVIEWER: Yes, "O"-sorry, I don't have German.

DOVE: The poem has the instructions in it. "Shape the lips to an o, say a."

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INTERVIEWER: "Ö."

DOVE: There it is! That image was my take on how Ohio is always aspiring to be a definitive
"something" without ever quite getting there-it was once the frontier, once the plains, once the edge of
everything.

Growing up a middle-class Black girl in the Midwest was completely different from what most of the
Black Arts poets had experienced in the rural South or urban Northeast. Later, I worried about the kind
of reception Thomas and Beulah-this quiet meditation about "ordinary" people who were Black-would
get from a reading public used to seeing Black people depicted as drug addicts or militants.

Strangely, I think it was during my Fulbright year in southwestern Germany that I gathered the
chutzpah to claim whatever world I was in as my world. That's where I came across completely
different ideas of the United States, of African Americans and what our lives must be like-ideas that
might have been mistaken or inaccurate but were a very different kind of wrong from what white
Americans thought. In the U.S., I would often be asked, "Why are you studying German?" and I would
think, Why shouldn't a Black person be able to speak German? Look at all the Black intellectuals who
went to Germany-Angela Davis, Alain Locke, W.E.B. Du Bois.
Q 19. 11939094 What does the poet Rita Dove imply about Ohio in her description of the state?

a) Ohio has successfully defined itself as a major historical frontier.

b) Ohio struggles with achieving a definitive identity.

c) Ohio was once considered part of the rural South.

d) Ohio's history is intertwined with militant Black experiences.

Q 20. 11939094 What concern did Dove express about the reception of Thomas and Beulah?

a)
She was worried that the work would portray "ordinary" Black people too negatively in the eyes of
Black people.
b)
She was apprehensive that the book would not be accepted due to its regional focus on the concerns
of the Midwest.
c)
She was concerned that her portrayal of "ordinary" Black people would not match mainstream
expectations.
d)
She was uncertain about how Southerners would react to her work due to Black people being
portrayed as militants and drug addicts.

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Q 21. 11939094 According to the passage, how did Dove's time in Germany influence her
perspective?

a) It helped her reject the stereotypes held by white Americans about African Americans.

b) It made her realize that Black intellectuals should focus more on European cultures.
c) It exposed her to a more accurate understanding of African American life.

d) It gave her the confidence to assert her identity in any cultural context.

Q 22. 11939094 What was the interviewer's confusion regarding the poem "Ö"?

a) The interviewer confused the poem's content with another work by Dove.

b) The interviewer misunderstood the title as an English word.

c) The interviewer did not grasp the pronunciation instructions in the poem.
d) The interviewer did not understand the poem's symbolism of Ohio.

Q 23. 11939094 What can be inferred about Dove's concerns regarding the portrayal of Black people
in literature at the time?

a) She felt Black people were often portrayed through limited and extreme stereotypes.

b) She believed Black people were often depicted as ordinary and unremarkable.
c) She thought that Black people's experiences were well represented in mainstream literature.

d) She believed that only militant or urban portrayals of Black people resonated with readers.

Q 24. 11939094 Why does Dove reference Black intellectuals like Angela Davis, Alain Locke, and
W.E.B. Du Bois in the interview?

a) To highlight that studying German has historically been common among prominent Black figures.
b) To demonstrate that Black intellectuals have been inspired by the works of German artists.

c)
To emphasize her discontent with the way Black people are treated in the U.S. as compared to
Germany.
d) To suggest that African American poets should focus on European culture for inspiration.

Current Affairs Including General Knowledge

Passage – 1

The Union Cabinet has approved the proposal for simultaneous elections across the country, aligning
polls for both the Lok Sabha and state Assemblies, Union minister Ashwini Vaishnaw announced on
September 18, 2024. The decision follows months of deliberation and comes after a high-level

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committee, chaired by former President [1], submitted its report on the 'one nation, one election' plan.

The report, which was presented before the Cabinet, lays out a comprehensive roadmap for the
implementation of simultaneous elections. The panel had recommended conducting concurrent
elections for the Lok Sabha and state Assemblies as the first phase, to be followed by synchronised
local body polls within a 100-day period. The proposal aims to streamline India's electoral process by
reducing the frequency of elections, which are currently staggered over multiple years at different
levels of governance. It is also seen as a cost-saving measure, with the potential to significantly
reduce the financial and administrative burden of frequent elections.

Prime Minister Narendra Modi has been a strong proponent of the 'one nation, one election' initiative.
During his Independence Day address earlier this year, Modi had called for an end to the "disruption"
caused by frequent elections, which he argued were hindering the country's progress. "Frequent
elections are creating hurdles in the progress of the nation. It has become easy to link any scheme or
initiative with elections. There are elections somewhere every three to six months. Every work is linked
to elections," Modi said in his address from the ramparts of the Red Fort after unfurling the national
flag for the 11th time on Independence Day.
Q 25. 11939094 Who among the following chaired the High-Level Committee on Simultaneous
Elections whose name has been redacted with [1] in the passage above?

a) M Venkaiah Naidu b) Amit Shah c) Om Birla d) Ram Nath Kovind

Q 26. 11939094 What is the primary reason cited by the Committee for advocating simultaneous
elections?

a) b) Minimise disruption and policy paralysis

Reduce the influence of money and muscle power c) Create political uniformity across states

d) Increase the powers of political parties

Q 27. 11939094 What is the Committee's recommendation regarding the dissolution of assemblies for
simultaneous elections?

a) Assemblies should complete their full term

b) Assemblies should be dissolved as per political need

c) Assemblies should be dissolved regardless of their remaining term as a one-time measure

d) Assemblies should not be dissolved at all

Q 28. 11939094 According to the Committee's recommendations, when should elections for local
bodies be held after simultaneous elections for Lok Sabha and State Assemblies?

a) Immediately after the elections for Lok Sabha and State Assemblies

b) Within 100 days after the elections for Lok Sabha and State Assemblies

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c) 6 months later

d) After the next parliamentary session

Q 29. 11939094 What solution does the Committee propose for a legislature that results in a hung
assembly during a simultaneous election cycle?

a) Hold fresh elections immediately b) Extend the assembly's term

c) Conduct elections for a reduced term d) Dissolve the assembly permanently

Q 30. 11939094 What key benefit does the Committee highlight about simultaneous elections in
terms of economic performance?

a) Reduced inflation b) c) d) All of the above

Higher economic growth Increased investment

Passage – 2

In the past 75 years, the four Geneva Conventions have been fundamental in protecting persons
affected by armed conflict, and international humanitarian law remains as relevant today for
contemporary armed conflicts, as it was 75 years ago. It is important to note that international
humanitarian law has been born and developed long before the four Geneva Conventions of 1949.
IHL is based on humanitarian principles which are deeply rooted in many of the world's cultures and
traditions. International humanitarian law both complements and reinforces these legal traditions,
civilizations, and cultures, and is therefore a common heritage of all humanity, reflecting a global
consensus that all wars have limits.

The focus on protection of people through rules that uphold basic human values even during the
darkest moments, make the Geneva Conventions one of the most important documents in history.
International humanitarian law is essential in preventing some of armed conflicts' worst consequences.
It aims to protect persons who are not, or are no longer, taking part in hostilities and to limit the means
and methods of warfare to maintain some humanity in armed conflicts, saving lives and reducing
suffering.

Today, 75 years after the adoption of the four Geneva Conventions, international humanitarian law and
the need for it to be fully respected is more important than ever. Currently, there are over 120 ongoing
armed conflicts none of which were inevitable. With every conflict, the ICRC sees first-hand the scale
of human tragedy. When IHL is not respected the humanitarian consequences of conflict are
exacerbated.
Q 31. 11939094 Which of the following international treaties contains the most important rules limiting
the barbarity of war?

a) The Paris Agreement b) The Rome Statute c) The UN Charter

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d)
The Geneva
Conventions

Q 32. 11939094 Who did the First Geneva Convention protect?

a) Civilians in occupied territories b) Wounded and sick soldiers on land

c) Prisoners of war d) Military personnel at sea

Q 33. 11939094 Which Geneva Convention applies to prisoners of war?

a) First b) Second c) Third d) Fourth

Q 34. 11939094 What is the main focus of the Fourth Geneva Convention?

a) Protection of civilians b) c) d) Naval warfare

Treatment of prisoners Protection of wounded
of war soldiers

Q 35. 11939094 Which of the following events led the International Committee for the Red Cross
(ICRC) to urge both India and China to observe the Geneva Conventions?

a) The Kargil War b) The Galwan clash c) The Doklam standoff d)

The 1962 India-China
War

Q 36. 11939094 What is the primary mandate of the International Committee of the Red Cross
(ICRC)?

a) To promote economic development

b) To provide legal assistance to war criminals

c) To protect and assist people affected by armed conflict and violence

d) To monitor nuclear weapons proliferation

Passage – 3

In an unprecedented security breach, thousands of pagers and walkie-talkie radios belonging to

members of Hezbollah detonated across Lebanon in simultaneous explosions on 17 and 18
September 2024, killing at least 30 people and wounding thousands of others. Hospitals across
Lebanon were overwhelmed with an influx of patients after the pager attack on 17 and 18 September
2024, and a field hospital was set up in the southern city of Tyre to accommodate the wounded.
Hezbollah has blamed Israel and vowed to retaliate. Israel has declined to comment on the blasts, but
Tuesday's explosions came just hours after the military announced it was broadening its aims in the
war sparked by the Hamas attacks on 7 October to include its fight against Hezbollah along the border
with Lebanon. It remains unclear how exactly such an audacious attack was carried out, but here is
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what we know so far.

A small amount of explosives were planted inside a new batch of 5,000 pagers ordered by Hezbollah
for its members, according to a senior Lebanese security source who spoke to the Reuters news
agency. Israel's intelligence services were responsible, the source said. "The Mossad injected a board
inside of the device that has explosive material that receives a code. It's very hard to detect it through
any means. Even with any device or scanner," the source said. Citing conversations with Hezbollah
contacts, the group is currently investigating what type of explosives were used in the device,
suspecting RDX or PETN, highly explosive materials that can cause significant damage with as little
as 3-5 grams. They are also questioning whether the device had a GPS system allowing Israel to track
movement of the group members.
Q 37. 11939094 What is required for pagers to operate?

a) A personal Tab b) A smartphone c) Remote Control d) A fixed transmitter

Q 38. 11939094 What substance caused the Beirut explosion in 2020?

a) Trinitrotoluene b) Dynamite c) Ammonium nitrate d) Chlorine gas

Q 39. 11939094 What was the code name for India's first successful nuclear weapon test?

a) Smiling Krishna b) Smiling Buddha c) Smiling Mahatma d) Smiling Mahavir

Q 40. 11939094 When did the world's first nuclear explosion occur?

a) July 16, 1945 b) August 6, 1945 c) July 4, 1944 d) September 2, 1945

Q 41. 11939094 Which of the following cities was affected by the bombing of "Little Boy"?

a) Nagasaki b) Tokyo c) Hiroshima d) Kyoto

Q 42. 11939094 Which of the following cities was affected by the bombing of "Fat Man"?

a) Hiroshima b) Nagasaki c) Tokyo d) Kyoto

Passage – 4

With the advent of social media - the product of the evolution of the Internet into a sphere of
communication that allows for relatively unfettered user-generated content - the problem of
misinformation has taken a grotesque form. Express measures to curb misinformation, called "false
news" and the somewhat inaccurate "fake news", are a must. However, this raises the question
whether the Union government or its divisions can be the regulating entity. In the IT (Intermediary
Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Amendment Rules, 2023, the Union government has added
a provision of a fact-check unit to identify fake or false or misleading online content related to the
government. Against such content identified by this unit, intermediaries, such as social media
companies or net service providers, will have to take action or risk losing their "safe harbour"

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protections in Section 79 of the IT Act, which allows intermediaries to avoid liabilities for what third
parties post on their websites. This is unacceptable and problematic. Also, Section 69A of the IT Act,
2000 elucidates the procedure to issue takedown orders, which these notified amendments could
bypass.
Q 43. 11939094 What happens if intermediaries do not take down content marked as fake by the fact-
check unit?

a) They will be fined b) They risk losing their safe harbour protection
c) They will be temporarily suspended d) They will receive a warning

Passage – 4

With the advent of social media - the product of the evolution of the Internet into a sphere of
communication that allows for relatively unfettered user-generated content - the problem of
misinformation has taken a grotesque form. Express measures to curb misinformation, called "false
news" and the somewhat inaccurate "fake news", are a must. However, this raises the question
whether the Union government or its divisions can be the regulating entity. In the IT (Intermediary
Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Amendment Rules, 2023, the Union government has added
a provision of a fact-check unit to identify fake or false or misleading online content related to the
government. Against such content identified by this unit, intermediaries, such as social media
companies or net service providers, will have to take action or risk losing their "safe harbour"
protections in Section 79 of the IT Act, which allows intermediaries to avoid liabilities for what third
parties post on their websites. This is unacceptable and problematic. Also, Section 69A of the IT Act,
2000 elucidates the procedure to issue takedown orders, which these notified amendments could
bypass.
Q 44. 11939094 What is the primary purpose of the self-regulatory organisations (SROs) as
envisioned by MeitY?

a) To assist intermediaries in determining what constitutes a permissible online game

b) To regulate financial transactions of online games

c) To create content for online gaming platforms

d) To ban online games that involve in-app purchases

Q 45. 11939094 Which Supreme Court judgment is referenced as being violated by the IT
Amendment Rules, 2023?

a) E.V. Chinnaiah vs Union of India b) Maneka Gandhi vs Union of India

c) K.S. Puttaswamy vs Union of India d) Shreya Singhal vs Union of India

Q 46. 11939094 Which of the following Constitutional rights are intermediaries required to respect
under the IT Amendment Rules?

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a) b) c) d) Articles 1, 2, and 3
Articles 12, 13, and 18 Articles 14, 19, and 21 Articles 20, 22, and 23

Q 47. 11939094 What is the timeline for appealing the decision of a grievance officer Information
Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Amendment Rules, 2022?

a) Within 30 days b) Within 15 days c) Within 45 days d) Within 60 days

Q 48. 11939094 For intermediaries other than online gaming platforms, what is the maximum time
within which they must provide information or assistance to lawfully authorized government agencies?

a) 12 hours b) 24 hours c) 48 hours d) 72 hours

Passage – 5

SpaceX's Polaris Dawn crew is home, capping off a five-day mission to orbit - which included the
world's first commercial spacewalk - by splashing down in the Gulf of Mexico. The Crew Dragon
capsule carrying four astronauts landed off the coast of Dry Tortugas, Florida. The Polaris Dawn
mission made history as it reached a higher altitude than any human has traveled in five decades. A
spacewalk conducted also marked the first time such an endeavor has been completed by a privately
funded and operated mission. But returning to Earth is among the most dangerous stretches of any
space mission. To safely reach home, the Crew Dragon capsule carried out what's called a "de-orbit
burn," orienting itself as it prepared to slice through the thickest part of Earth's atmosphere.

The spacecraft then reached extremely hot temperatures - up to 3,500 degrees Fahrenheit (1,900
degrees Celsius) - because of the pressure and friction caused by hitting the air while still traveling
around 17,000 miles per hour (27,000 kilometers per hour). The crew, however, should have remained
at comfortable temperatures, protected by the Crew Dragon's heat shield, which is located on the
bottom of the 13-foot-wide (4-meter-wide) capsule. Dragging against the air began to slow the vehicle
down before the Crew Dragon deployed parachutes that further decelerated its descent.
Q 49. 11939094 What is the main goal of the Polaris Program, which includes the Polaris Dawn
mission?

a) To establish a space colony

b) To develop new technologies for human exploration to the Moon, Mars, and beyond.

c) To launch the largest space station

d) To explore other galaxies

Q 50. 11939094 Which of the following missions holds the record for the highest altitude for any
crewed mission that was not headed to the Moon?

a) Gemini XI b) Apollo 11 c) Polaris Dawn d) Voyager I

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Q 51. 11939094 Who among the following were the two crew members on the Polaris Dawn mission
who performed the spacewalk?

a) Jared Isaacman and Sarah Gillis b) Donald Pettit and Poteet Menon

c) Kathleen Rubins and Sara Seager d) Carl Sagan and Kathleen Rubins

Q 52. 11939094 Who among the following conducted the first-ever spacewalk and in which year?

a) b) c) Yuri Gagarin in 1961 d) Buzz Aldrin in 1971

Neil Armstrong in 1969 Alexei Leonov in 1965

Legal Reasoning
Directions for questions 53 to 84: You have been given some passages followed by questions
based on each passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from
the passage.

Passage – 1

While granting interim bail to Delhi Chief Minister Arvind Kejriwal on Friday, the Supreme Court
observed that arrest under Section 19 of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act cannot be made
simply for the purposes of investigation. Rather, the power can be exercised only when the concerned
officer is able to form an opinion, based on material in possession, and upon recording reasons in
writing, that the arrestee is guilty.

"Power to arrest under Section 19(1) is not for the purpose of investigation. Arrest can and should
wait, and the power in terms of Section 19(1) of the PML Act can be exercised only when the material
with the designated officer enables them to form an opinion, by recording reasons in writing that the
arrestee is guilty", the bench of Justices Sanjiv Khanna and Dipankar Datta said.

Section 3 of PMLA defines money laundering as - Whosoever directly or indirectly attempts to indulge
or knowingly assists or knowingly is a party or is actually involved in any process or activity connected
with the proceeds of crime including its concealment, possession, acquisition or use and projecting or
claiming it as untainted property shall be guilty of offence of money-laundering. The process or activity
connected with proceeds of crime is a continuing activity and continues till such time a person is
directly or indirectly enjoying the proceeds of crime by its concealment or possession or acquisition or
use or projecting it as untainted property or claiming it as untainted property in any manner
whatsoever.

Section 4 of PMLA mentions that - Whoever commits the offence of money-laundering shall be
punishable with rigorous imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than three years but which

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may extend to seven years and shall also be liable to fine.

Section 18 of the act says that if an authority, authorised in this behalf by the Central Government by
general or special order, has reason to believe (the reason for such belief to be recorded in writing)
that any person has secreted about his person or in anything under his possession, ownership or
control, any record or proceeds of crime which may be useful for or relevant to any proceedings under
this Act, he may search that person and seize such record or property which may be useful for or
relevant to any proceedings under this Act.

Source: https://www.livelaw.in/top-stories/supreme-court-arvind-kejriwal-judgment-arrest-not-meant-
forinvestigation- reasons-to-believe-necessary-263189?fromIpLogin=4253.975315645953
Q 53. 11939094 Mr. A was a government employee, in the course of his employment he had to meet
subordinate officers on a daily basis. Mr. A had to keep accounts of the treasury offices in the state of
Dholakpur and in doing he used to facilitate financial transaction of the state. A was given monthly
salary for the work along with other allowances. Mr. A used to keep some of the money out of every
transaction which was not authorised by the state of Dholakpur. Decide.

a)
Mr. A will not liable as it is right to keep commission and is a prevalent practice in such business, it's
not money laundering but mere a bona-fide act to facilitate the transaction.
b)
Mr. A will be liable as it is a criminal act and does great harm to the nation and it is necessary to
punish people like Mr. A.

c)
Mr. A will be liable of money laundering as he's involved in procurement and concealing of money
received as bribe, which is a criminal act.

d)
Mr. A will not be liable as he has the right to keep some money from every transaction to ensure a
decent standard of living which would not be possible otherwise.

Q 54. 11939094 Mr. Sharma was managing director of a company registered in the state of
Jhumritallayya and he was involved in international financial transactions of the company. Mr. Sharma
used to demand 10 percent of each transaction from the other party to confirm the deal that he had
done so for last 10 years and had received a lot of unaccounted wealth from the same. Decide his
punishment.

a)
Mr. Sharma should be punished with fine of 1000 rupees as the crime is not grave and has not caused
harm to anyone.

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b)
Mr. Sharma must be punished with two years of imprisonment along with fine, as he is liable for
money laundering and the amount involved is also huge.
c)
Mr. Sharma should not be punished as he is working in a private company and not a public
organisation, the money received is not public money but the money of corporates and this it is not
money laundering.
d)
Mr. Sharma is liable for money laundering and shall be punished with imprisonment between 3 to 7
years along with fine as mentioned under section 4 of PMLA.

Q 55. 11939094 Mrs. Ayesha was a special police officer authorised by the central government to
search and arrest persons accused under the PMLA within her jurisdiction. Mrs. Ayesha had
developed enmity with Mr. Rehan a senior police officer over the period of time. She conducted search
and arrested Mr. Rehan on the assumption of money laundering of which no evidence was found.
Decide.

a)
The arrest is invalid as under section 19(1) of PMLA only assumption can't lead to arrest there must
be some material evidence available on record which enables the officer to make arrest.
b)
The arrest is valid as it has generally been observed that police officers are corrupt and take bribe
whenever they get an opportunity, it is important to set example in the society.
c) The arrest is valid as Mrs. Ayesha herself is a special police officer and is aware of the law.

d)
The arrest is wrong as proper documentation needs to be done after carrying out the arrest which has
not been done in this case.

Q 56. 11939094 Mr. Ram Nath Modi is the chief minister of the state of Trivandrum, the state has
witnessed huge protests against Mr. Modi and there is a lot of dissatisfaction against his government.
Mr. Yadav is his political opponent and had led the protests. Soon after, he is arrested under the PML
Act on the suspicion of money laundering. Decide the validity of his arrest.

a)
The arrest is valid as it is expected that a leader of such stature must have been involved in money
laundering.
b)
The arrest is invalid as it is not in coherence with the procedure defined in section 19(1) of PMLA and
it appears prima facie to be politically motivated.

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c)
The arrest is invalid as Mr. Yadav is a political leader so some special procedure needs to be followed
which has not been complied with.
d)
The arrest is valid as section 19(1) of the PMLA allows arrest merely on suspicion and Mr. Yadav has
been arrested in accordance with the same.

Q 57. 11939094 Mr. Gandhi is a political leader in the state of Scindia, he has been charged with
money laundering. Mr. Singham the authorized officer carried out the search in Mr. Gandhi's house
and found some documents relating to financial transactions of his party along with books, electronic
appliances and personal belongings of Mr. Gandhi, all of which were seized. Decide if the seizure was
lawful.

a)
No, the seizure was unlawful as books, electronic appliances and personal belongings cannot be
seized under the premise of money laundering, only the relevant items which provide substantial
evidence of the crime can be seized.
b)
Yes, the seizure is lawful as it is necessary to curb money laundering by whatever means and seizure
is an important process to find evidence of such offence.
c)
Yes, the seizure is lawful as mere seizure of some personal items cannot make the seizure unlawful
as a whole.
d) None of the above.

Directions for questions 53 to 84: You have been given some passages followed by questions
based on each passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from
the passage.

Passage – 2

"The Defendant is restrained from using the mark 'INFOSYS' as part of their corporate/ trade name
'Southern Infosys Limited' or in any other manner amounting to infringement of the Plaintiff's
trademarks. The Defendant is afforded a period of four months from the date of release of this order,
to make the transition to a non-infringing tradename. Immediately after the expiry of the four months
period, the Defendant shall cease the use of the mark 'INFOSYS,' as part of their trade name/
corporate name or in any other manner amounting to infringement of the Plaintiff's trademarks," Delhi
HC ordered.

Infosys had sued Southern Infosys Limited arguing that the use of its well-known trademark
constitutes infringement under Section 29(5) of the Trade Marks Act. The Court was told that this

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Q 58. 11939094 In a high-profile case involving an ex-chief minister of a state and the leader of
opposition, the leader of opposition was arrested under the charge of money laundering. However,
during the court trials the authority stated that the leader of opposition has been arrested merely on
suspicion of being involved in money laundering and no evidence has been collected yet. Decide if the
leader of opposition would get bail or not.

a)
No, the ex-chief minister will not get bail as it is widely known that politicians are involved in acts of
corruption and money laundering.

b) No, the ex-chief minister will not get bail as suspicion can be a ground for arrest under PMLA.
c)
Yes, the ex-chief minister will get bail as it is not proved that he is involved in money laundering and
since he is an ex-chief minister so he must have been an honest person.
d)
Yes, the ex-chief minister will get bail as mere suspicion can't lead to bail and some material evidence
pointing towards the crime is required.

section explicitly prohibits the use of a registered trademark as part of a corporate name, in a manner
that could imply a business connection or endorsement by the trademark owner, thus leading to
potential confusion among the public. Section 29(1) says "A registered trade mark is infringed by a
person who, not being a registered proprietor or a person using by way of permitted use, uses in the
course of trade, a mark which is identical with, or deceptively similar to, the trade mark in relation to
goods or services in respect of which the trade mark is registered and, in such manner, as to render
the use of the mark likely to be taken as being used as a trade mark."

As per Section 29(7) "A registered trade mark is infringed by a person who applies such registered
trade mark to a material intended to be used for labelling or packaging goods, as a business paper, or
for advertising goods or services, provided such person, when he applied the mark, knew or had
reason to believe that the application of the mark was not duly authorised by the proprietor or a
licensee." According to Section 103 "Any person who falsifies trade mark, or falsely applies any trade
mark, or applies any false trade description to goods or services, shall, unless he proves that he
acted, without intent to defraud, be punishable with imprisonment for a term which shall not be less
than six months but which may extend to three years and with fine which shall not be less than fifty
thousand rupees but which may extend to two lakh rupees."

Source: https://www.barandbench.com/news/delhi-high-court-restrains-it-company-from-using-infosys-
trademark
Q 59. 11939094 Mr. A owns a company called Supercars Pvt. Ltd. that is registered in the year 2005.
Mr. A's whole business is carried under the name of Supercars Pvt. Ltd. and has gained very good
reputation in the market. Mr. B in the year 2024 starts his new business venture with the name of The
Supercars Pvt. Ltd. He puts up advertisements of his newly formed company across the city via

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billboards, posters, pamphlets, newspapers and magazines. Mr. A comes to know about this and files
a suit for infringement of trademark. Decide.

a)
Mr. B will not be liable as under the Indian Constitution everyone is free to practice any profession that
is not illegal or barred by law.

b) Mr. B will be liable for unfair trade practices as he has falsely used the name of Mr. A's business.

c)
Mr. B will be liable for infringement of trade mark as he has knowingly used the name of well-known
company owned by Mr. A and doing the same is prohibited under the Trade Marks Act.
d)
Mr. B will not be liable as he has not used the name Supercars as it is but has used it as The
Supercars, thus it is not infringement of trade mark.

Q 60. 11939094 Mr. X owns a company called Supreme Leader, the company operates in the domain
of Sports goods manufacturing. The company is registered in the year 1990 and has been using the
same trade mark since then. The trade mark is extensively used as the identity of the company
through advertisements, sponsorships etc. Mr. Y, a retired cricketer with a huge fan following starts a
company in sports goods manufacturing named as Most Supreme Leader, the company is registered
in the year 2000. Mr. X files a suit to punish Mr. Y. Decide the Punishment.

a)
Mr. Y will be punished with penalty of 5 crore rupees as the company owned by Mr. X is very
renowned and old so huge penalty will be imposed on Mr. Y.

b)
Mr. Y will be given life imprisonment as for people like him who use unfair trade practices and malign
the image of other reputed businesses there is no place in society.
c)
Mr. Y will be punished with fine of rupees 1000 as it is not a grave offence and shall be punished
accordingly.
d)
Mr. Y will be punished as per the Section 103 of the Trade Mark Act with imprisonment for a term
which shall not be less than six months but which may extend to three years and with fine which shall
not be less than fifty thousand rupees but which may extend to two lakh rupees.

Q 61. 11939094 Mr. C was convicted of falsifying trade mark of a business competitor and was
benefitting from its reputation and goodwill. The original company who owned the trade mark was
suffering from losses as the customers were buying Mr. C's products being under the impression that it
is the original company's product. The court after finding Mr. C guilty imposed penalty of 50 lakh
rupees on him. Decide.

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a)
The court is right in doing so as it is necessary to punish such people and to deter others from doing
so.
b)
The court is wrong in doing so as under section 103 of the Trade Marks Act, the punishment is
between six months to three years and with fine between fifty thousand to two lakh rupees.
c)
The court is wrong in doing so as people like Mr. C should be punished with life imprisonment as they
do immense harm to society.
d) None of the above

Q 62. 11939094 Mrs. Kaur wants to start cosmetics company and she is planning to name it as The
Stars which is supposed to start in the year 2025. However, there exists a well reputed and relatively
older company called Stars Cosmetics. Mrs. Kaur wants legal assistance to decide the name of her
company. Decide.

a)
Mrs. Kaur can name the company as The Stars as it is different from the other company and will not
account for trade mark infringement.
b)
Mrs. Kaur can't name her company as The Stars as it will lead to her imprisonment for six months to
two years and fine between fifty thousand to two lacs.
c)
Mrs. Kaur can name her company as The Stars as it is a really good name that suits to her cosmetics
business.
d)
Mrs. Kaur can't name her company as The Stars as it is infringement of Trade Mark under Section
29(5) of the Trade Mark Act.

Q 63. 11939094 According to section 103 of Trade Marks Act, a person is punishable when:

a) The person violates any intellectual property rights of any company.

b)
The person infringes falsely uses the name of a person who is not associated with him, to promote his
business.

c) The person intentionally falsifies trade mark or applies false description of goods and services.
d) None of the above

Q 64. 11939094 Orange is a company who is a global leader in Mobile phone manufacturing. Its
mobile phones are famous across the world with the trademark of a half-eaten orange. A, a local fruit

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vendor decided to open a company selling fruit salad and selected 'Orange Fruit Salad' as the name of
the company. Decide whether A's act would amount to Trademark infringement.

a)
A would be liable for trademark infringement as he has selected the exact name as that of the mobile
manufacturing company.
b)
A would be liable for trademark infringement as he would unjustly enjoy the goodwill created by the
mobile manufacturing company.
c) Both (a) and (b)

d) None of the above

Directions for questions 53 to 84: You have been given some passages followed by questions
based on each passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from
the passage.

Passage – 3

A division bench of Justices Harish Tandon and Prasenjit Biswas reiterated that the freedom of speech
and expression is not absolute, even though it is regarded not only as a Constitutional right but a right
inhered in every human.

"Having a fundamental right of right to freedom of speech and expression into an individual does not
confer such right in absolute form if it tarnishes the image and reputation of a person which he owes to
the society and therefore, a balancing is required in this regard," the bench held.

"The reputation of a person is one of the primary factor which weighs in the society and any attempt
either by a spoken word or publication or letters circulated through internet portal on the basis of an
unsubstantiated and false allegation can be restrained".

The Court explained that the reputation of a person is important in society. Therefore, any attempt to
tarnish such reputation through false allegations must be restrained, the bench said.

Section 354 of Bhartiya Nyaya Samhita says that Whoever, by words either spoken or intended to be
read, or by signs or by visible representations, makes or publishes in any manner, any imputation
concerning any person intending to harm, or knowing or having reason to believe that such imputation
will harm, the reputation of such person, is said, to defame that person.

It may amount to defamation to impute anything to a deceased person, if the imputation would harm
the reputation of that person if living, and is intended to be hurtful to the feelings of his family or other
near relatives. It may amount to defamation to make an imputation concerning a company or an

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association or collection of persons as such. No imputation is said to harm a person's reputation,

unless that imputation directly or indirectly, in the estimation of others, lowers the moral or intellectual
character of that person, or lowers the character of that person in respect of his caste or of his calling,
or lowers the credit of that person, or causes it to be believed that the body of that person is in a
loathsome state, or in a state generally considered as disgraceful. Court and parliamentary
proceedings are exceptions to defamation.

Source: https://www.barandbench.com/news/right-free-speech-not-right-tarnish-reputation-calcutta-
high-court
Q 65. 11939094 Mr. Kumar is the CEO of the largest telecom company in Scindia, the company has
recently hiked prices of recharge plans across the country which has met with criticism from people on
social media platforms. One Mr. A wrote on a microblogging platform that Mr. Kumar is a conman and
has plans to accumulate a lot of wealth and run away from the country and live the rest of his life there
from the money looted from the poor of the country. Decide.

a)
Mr. A isn't liable for any crime as he has the right to share his opinion on any public platform including
social media.
b)
Mr. A isn't liable for defamation as he has stated the truth by pointing out that Mr. Kumar is
accumulating money and has plans to run away from the country, as this is what has happened in the
country in recent past.
c)
Mr. A is liable of defamation under section 354 of BNS as he has published a statement without any
substance on social media which clearly has the potential to adversely affect Mr. Kumar's reputation in
the market.
d)
Mr. A is liable because Mr. Kumar is a big businessperson and no person should criticise him as it'll
create very bad image of the country.

Q 66. 11939094 Mrs. Sudha is wife of a very big businessman who owns several companies and is
very reputed person. Mrs. Sudha is engaged in philanthropy and is very popular on social media. Mr.
X a public critic in his editorial piece in a leading newspaper wrote that in his opinion Mrs. Sudha does
philanthropy to cover up the labour law violations and environmental damage that is being done by the
operation of their business, as it has recently been found in various media reports that the company is
not paying minimum wages to employees and is involved in large scale deforestation. Decide.

a)
Mr. X is not liable for defamation as he has expressed his opinion through the editorial piece and the
same can be seen through various reports that have been published. Since the argument is based on
facts it can't be said to be defamation.

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b)
Mr. X is not liable as editorials and critical writing aren't within the purview of defamation and Mr. X is a
public critic so he must not be held liable for defamation.
c)
Mr. X is liable of defamation as he has made false allegation which have the potential to lower the
prestige and reputation of Mrs. Sudha.

d)
Mr. X is liable of defamation because a woman like Mrs. Sudha must not be criticised as she is
advancing the business of her husband which further contributes to growth of the country.

Q 67. 11939094 Mr. Kedarnath is a very popular political leader in the state of Vihara which is
witnessing huge protests against rampant corruption and unemployment. While addressing a huge
number of people assembled against the government, he said that the police is the dog of the
government and uses criminal force to suppress the voice of people. Decide.

a)
Mr. Kedarnath will not be liable as he is a political leader and such statements are expected to be
made in a protest.
b)
Mr. Kedarnath will be liable as the police is very important part of the state and works for our safety.
c)
Mr. Kedarnath will not be liable as he has made the right statement which is very visible in current
times.
d)
Mr. Kedarnath will be held liable as the police is an association of persons and calling them dog of the
government is equal to defaming the whole association of persons which comes within the ambit of
defamation.

Q 68. 11939094 Baba Bamdev is yoga guru who is very popular across the country Indica, he used
his popularity to start a business of ayurvedic products and portrayed the company as the custodian of
Ayurveda. However, after the COVID-19 pandemic it was found that the company falsely advertised its
products as cure for COVID and sold common medicines used for cough and cold. The Supreme
Court of Indica said that it was fraudulent and immoral and ordered the company to stop advertising
for its products. Decide.

a)
It is a case of defamation as the company is working of the people and should not be called out by the
court as it lowers its reputation in the market.
b) Court proceedings are immune to defamation and thus it is not a case of defamation.

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c)
It is not a case of defamation as such companies are meant to be restricted as they spread false
information to dupe consumers.
d) None of the above

Q 69. 11939094 Mr. Tekriwal is chief minister of the state of Dehlvi. His party is an opposition party in
the parliament. The state of Dehlvi is experiencing shortage of funds which is hampering
developmental and welfare projects, Mr. Tekriwal has approached the central finance minister a
number of times to demand funds for the state however, it has been of no use. In a press conference
he said that the central finance minister is a completely biased and corrupt person who doesn't care
about development of people and is only concerned about filling his pockets. The central finance
minister sued him for defamation, decide.

a)
Mr. Tekriwal is liable for defamation as he made statements without any proof which have the potential
to diminish the reputation of central finance minister.
b)
Mr. Tekriwal is not liable for defamation as he is the chief minister of a state and he is right in asking
for funds and thus the anger is natural.
c)
Mr. Tekriwal is liable as the central finance minister can't be a corrupt and biased person and thus the
statement made is false.

d)
Mr. Tekriwal is not liable as he it is a common occurrence that ministers are biased and corrupt, so to
just say that is not defamation.

Q 70. 11939094 Mr. Bhalu Prasad ex-chief minister of the state of Maurya was convicted of fodder
scam and had to resign from his post. He served 10 years of imprisonment and was barred from
contesting for elections for 11 years. After completion of his prison tenure, he is now eligible of
contesting elections and is the chief minister candidate in upcoming elections. The leader of
opposition in his rally says that the people must not vote for a corrupt person who has past record of
fodder scam and other dubious activity. Decide if the statement is defamatory.

a)
The leader of opposition will be held liable as he must not say such things about an ex chief minister.
b)
The leader of opposition will be liable as Mr. Bhalu Prasad has already undergone the punishment and
now is eligible to contest elections.
c)
The leader of opposition will not be liable as he has said the right thing and it is true that Mr. Bhalu
Prasad had been convicted of corruption.

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d) None of the above.

Q 71. 11939094 Mrs. Rai is a leading actress who has acted in hundreds of movies across the world
and is recognised as one of the finest actresses. Mrs. Rai is married to Mr. Abhishek and after 12
years of marriage they're going through separation. The news of separation is met with lot of news
coverage and public interest. "A" Facebook user tagged Mrs. Rai in her post and said that Mrs. Rai
has always been a characterless woman who has had various affairs and was never serious in her
marriage, she is a constant cheater and never deserved to be the wife of Mr. Abhishek. Decide if the
statement is defamatory.

a)
"A" will not be held liable as such gossips are common about Bollywood celebs and people don't take
such comments seriously.
b)
"A" will not be liable as it is obvious to think so about any woman like that and mere expression of
thought doesn't cause defamation.
c)
"A" will be liable as she made a very derogatory comment which is very harmful for reputation of any
woman and it lowers their esteem and respect in society.
d)
"A" will be liable as Mrs. Rai is a very influential personality and no one should comment on her
personal life as it creates a very bad image of our country.

Directions for questions 53 to 84: You have been given some passages followed by questions
based on each passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from
the passage.

Passage – 4

When two or more persons make a joint promise, the promisee may, in the absence of an express
agreement to the contrary, compel any one or more of the joint promisor to perform the whole promise.

Each promisor may compel contribution- Each of the two or more joint promisors may compel every
other joint promisor to contribute equally with himself to the performance of the promise unless a
contrary intention appears from the contract.

Sharing of loss by default in contribution- If any one of two or more joint promisors makes default in
such contribution, the remaining joint promisors must bear the loss arising from such default in equal
shares.

Section 43 entitles the promisee to claim performance from anyone or more promisors to compel

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contribution from the others, and the sharing of loss in the event of default in contribution. These
provisions can be altered by providing to the contrary in the contract. Joint liability arises when two or
more persons promise to do the same thing together in the same instrument and make separate
promises to do the same thing. It gives rise to one joint obligation and as many joint and several
promisors as there are. Like joint responsibility, one-time performance discharges everything.

Section 43 makes all joint contracts joint and several. When the debts are jointly incurred, each
promisee is liable for the whole amount. A joint contract unenforceable against one of the joint
promisors on the ground of lack of his signature or is having agreed at all, can be enforced against the
other who has signed. Neither the minority or insolvency of one joint promisor affects the liability of the
others. As held in Gokhul Bihari Pande v Khiju Rai, if one of the joint promisors dies pending suit, the
suit can be brought against the other defendant promisors without recording his legal representatives.
But when a lawsuit has been dismissed against a number of joint promisors, the plaintiff cannot
prosecute an appeal against just a few of them, waiving his claim against the rest.
Q 72. 11939094 Xyyyyoo was a car manufacturing company based out of Japan. Xyyyyoo had
agreements with A, B and C companies from whom they would procure raw materials for producing
cars. The said three companies were joint promisors for performance of the contract. The three were
required to divide the total commitment of raw materials and send it equally. Once, C failed to deliver
his promised raw materials. Can A and B compel C to make the contribution?

a) Yes, A and B can compel C to make contributions as they are joint promisors.

b) No, A and B do not have the right to compel C as he has his own free will

c) No, A and B cannot compel C to make a contribution even though they are joit promisors.
d) Yes, A and B can compel and also levy a penalty against C.

Q 73. 11939094 Xyyyyoo was a car manufacturing company based out of Japan. Xyyyyoo had
agreements with A, B and C companies from whom they would procure raw materials for producing
cars. The said three companies were joint promisors for performance of the contract. The three were
required to divide the total commitment of raw materials and send it equally. Once, C failed to deliver
his promised raw materials. In the given case, can Xyyyyoo compel A and B to deliver materials on
behalf of C too?

a) No, Xyyyoo cannot compel A and B to make good on C's promise.

b) Yes, Xyyyoo can compel A and B to perform on behalf of C too.

c)
No, Xyyyoo does not have any authority to make such a demand and A and B have to decide the
matter amongst themselves.
d) The passage does not substantiate whether A and B have such powers.

Q 74. 11939094 Xyyyyoo was a car manufacturing company based out of Japan. Xyyyyoo had
agreements with A, B and C companies from whom they would procure raw materials for producing

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cars. A, B and C had entered into a contract as one and promised to send 600 parts each year. C
failed to send his share of 200 parts one year. Can A and B force him to perform his contract in the
given case?

a) No, A and B cannot force him to perform his side of the contract in the given case.
b) Yes, A and B can force him to perform his side of the contract in the given case.

c) No, A and B cannot force him to perform but have to fulfil the obligation of sending 600 parts.

d) Both A and C

Q 75. 11939094 Xyyyyoo was a car manufacturing company based out of Japan. Xyyyyoo had
agreements with A, B and C companies from whom they would procure raw materials for producing
cars. The said three companies were joint promisors for performance of the contract. The three were
required to divide the total commitment of raw materials and send it equally. The contract also
provided that if one of them failed to perform their part of the contract that would not affect the contract
as a whole and the other two parties would perform their part of the contract only. Is this clause valid?

a) Yes, this clause will be considered as invalid as it cannot be included in a joint contract.

b) No, this clause will not be considered as invalid.

c) Yes, this clause will be invalid and the contract will be null and void.

d) None of the above

Q 76. 11939094 Which of the following statements is true in the light of the above given passage?

a) Section 43 makes all joint contracts joint and but not several.

b)
A joint contract unenforceable against one of the joint promisors on the ground of lack of his signature
or is having agreed at all, can be enforced against the other who has signed.
c)
If any one of two or more joint promisors makes default in such contribution, the remaining joint
promisors do not bear any responsibility.
d)
If one of the joint promisors dies pending suit, the suit cannot be brought against the other defendant
promisors without recording his legal representatives.

Q 77. 11939094 Assertion: Section 43 entitles the promisee to claim performance from anyone or
more promisors to compel contribution from the others, and the sharing of loss in the event of default
in contribution.
Reasoning: Section 43 makes all joint contracts joint and several.

a) Both Assertion and reasoning are true.

b) Assertion is true while reasoning is false.

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c) Both Assertion and Reasoning are true and Reasoning is the correct explanation of Assertion.

d) Assertion is false and Reasoning is True.

Directions for questions 53 to 84: You have been given some passages followed by questions
based on each passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from
the passage.

Passage – 5

A contingent contract is defined under Section 31 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872. It is a contract to do
or not to do something if an event, collateral to such contract, does or does not happen. This means
that the performance of the contract is dependent on the occurrence of a future event that is not within
the control of the parties. Contingent contracts must meet certain conditions to be valid. Firstly, the
event or condition must be uncertain at the time of making the contract. Secondly, the event or
condition must not be something that the parties to the contract can control. Finally, the event or
condition must not be illegal. There are certain important terms under contingent contracts.

1. Contingent events- The event upon which the performance of a contingent contract is dependent
and must be uncertain. This means that it must not be certain to happen or not to happen. For
example, a contract to pay a sum of money if it rains tomorrow is a contingent contract, as the
occurrence of rain is uncertain.
2. Contingent condition- The performance of a contingent contract may also be dependent on the
fulfilment of a condition. This means that the contract will be performed only if a certain condition is
fulfilled. For example, a contract to sell a house if the buyer obtains a loan from a bank is a contingent
contract, as the fulfilment of the condition is uncertain.
3. Performance- The performance of a contingent contract is dependent on the occurrence or non-
occurrence of the contingent event or condition. If the event or condition does not happen, the contract
becomes void. If it does happen, the rights and obligations of the parties become certain, and the
contract becomes enforceable.
4. Impossibility of performance- If the contingent event or condition becomes impossible to perform,
the contract becomes void. For example, a contract to sell a house if the buyer obtains a loan from a
bank becomes void if the bank refuses to give the loan.

Edited and extracted from- Contingent Contracts in India (lawctopus.com)

Q 78. 11939094 X was a very talented young man from the village of Balliya. X was madly in love with
Y. Y's father was the village Sahukar (Headman). X approached Y's father seeking his daughter's
hand for marriage. The Sahukar said he wouldn't give his daughter in marriage to a useless village
thug like him. X was distraught. In order to overcome this humiliation X studied hard for UPSC and
became a civil servant. Now the Sahukar wants to marry Y to X. Is there a contingent contract in the
given case?

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a)
Yes, there is a contingent contract in the given case as marriage was conditional to X becoming a
public servant.
b) No, there is no contingent contract in the given case.

c) No, there are no contingent contracts in love.

d) Yes, there is a contingent as well as wagering contract in the given case.

Q 79. 11939094 Z, the village Sahukar made a public announcement that he will marry his daughter
to anyone in the village who clears the UPSC exam the following year. Y, who was madly in love with
the girl, studied day and night and cleared the UPSC with the best rank from the village. Y claims that
there is a contingent contract between him and the village Sahukar. Decide.

a) Yes, there is a contingent contract between Y and the Sahukar.

b) No, there is no contingent contract between Y and the Sahukar.

c) No, there is no contingent contract between Y and the Sahukar but the whole village.

d) Yes, there is a contingent contract between Y and the Sahukar as well as the whole village.

Q 80. 11939094 Z used to sell his paddy to one A every year. They used to enter into an agreement
with regard to their transaction about two months before the actual transaction. Z told that if the
drought ends only then he will be able to sell the paddy this year. Is there a contingent contract in the
given case

a) Yes, there is a contingent contract in the given case.

b) No, there is no contingent contract in the given case.

c) No, there is a perennial contract in the given case and it does not fall under contingent contract.

d) Yes, there is a contingent contract but the same is time bound.

Q 81. 11939094 Which of the following statements is incorrect in the light of the above given
passage?

a) Section 31 of the Indian Contract act defines Contingent contract.

b) A contract to pay a sum of money if it rains tomorrow is a contingent contract

c) A contingent contract is similar to a wagering contract.

d) None of the above

Q 82. 11939094 Ram was madly in love with Seeta. Both of them were in class 8th in Rashtriya
Public school. Ram confessed his love to Seeta. Seeta told him that she will accept Ram's love only if
he is able to bring her the moon. Ram readily agreed for the same. Is there a contingent contract in
the given case?

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a)
Yes, there is a contingent contract as the happening of the event is contingent on Ram bringing the
moon.
b) No, there is no contingent contract as Ram and Seeta are 8th std kids.
c) No, there is no contingent contract in the given case.

d) Yes, there is a contingent contract which is moving upon the will of Ram in the given case.

Q 83. 11939094 Which of the following is not an example of contingent contract?

a)
X said he will pay a bonus of 1500 rupees to Y if he was able to get more than 10 customers for the
month.
b) Seema promised to marry Raju if he passed the judicial service examination.

c) Lalit promised to give 100 rupees to Sumit if Sujith won the marathon.
d) Rakesh promised to pay Ramu 1000 rupees at the end of the month.

Q 84. 11939094 Which of the following correctly explains what is a contingent event?

a)
The future event upon which the performance of a contingent contract is dependent and is uncertain is
a contingent event.
b)
The event upon which the performance of a contingent contract is dependent is called a contingent
event.
c)
The event upon which the contingent contract is dependent has happened or will happen in the future
is called a contingent contract.

d) None of the above

Logical Reasoning
Directions for questions 85 to 108: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that
follow.

Passage – 1

We conventionally place a high value on originality in music. But it's been my experience that the
desire for originality gets in the way of making music that's actually good. The closer you are to your
influences, the more definite and truthful your work is. The key to quality music is to blend an

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interesting set of influences that you understand inside and out. Music evolves in much the same way
life does. DNA gets copied when cells divide and replicate. Music gets copied from mind to mind when
people hear it and want to reproduce it. All musical learning begins with the imitation of other
musicians. I'd go so far as to say that all learning boils down to imitation. Primates and other smarter
animals learn by imitation, too. As music gets copied from one person's mind to another, it sometimes
mutates. Think of learning an existing piece of music as being like asexual reproduction. Usually, the
two child cells are exact clones of the parent cell. Mutations are errors that result in inexact copies.
Usually, mutations harm the child cells' ability to survive and reproduce, but every once in a while, the
mutation is advantageous.
Q 85. 11939094 The argument primarily employs which of the following?

a) b) c) causal argument d)
Inductive generalization argument from analogy deductive generalization

Q 86. 11939094 The author most likely mentions the "high pursuit of originality" primarily in order to:

a) criticize musicians who focus on being different rather than on quality.

b) show that originality is less important than skill in music production.

c) encourage musicians to copy existing music styles.

d) illustrate a common misconception in the music industry.

Q 87. 11939094 With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made:
(1) Understanding and integrating one's musical influences are crucial to creating quality music.
(2) The biological concept of mutations can be appropriately applied to the process of learning and
creating music.
(3) If one strives for originality, it will result in bad-quality music.
(4) Being close to one's musical influences leads to more definite and truthful work.

Which of the above assumptions are valid?

a) (1), (2) and (4) only b) (2), (3) and (4) only c) (1), (2) and (3) only d) (1), (2), (3) and (4)

Q 88. 11939094 With reference to the passage, the following inferences are drawn:
(1) Understanding musical tradition requires valuing depth rather than breadth.
(2) Learning from imitation is not an anthropocentric idea
(3) Imitation is a primary method for learning for human beings.

Which of the above is/are reliable inference(s) that can be drawn?

a) (3) only b) (1) only c) (2) and (3) only d) (1), (2) and (3)

Q 89. 11939094 With reference to the passage, the following inferences are drawn:
(1) Learning music primarily involves studying theory.
(2)Good music need not have a strong emotional impact on listeners.
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(3) The commercial success of good music is determined by popularity.

Which of the above contradicts the arguments presented in the passage?

a) (1), (2) and (3) b) (1) Only c) (2) and (3) only d) (1) and (2) only

Q 90. 11939094 In the context of musical evolution, which of the following closely parallels an
"advantageous mutation"?

a)
A musician who attempts to write completely original music without any outside influence, resulting in
an avant-garde composition.
b)
A musician who imitates a popular genre but introduces slight variations that unexpectedly enhance
the emotional impact of the music.
c)
A musician who refuses to listen to any contemporary music, choosing instead to focus entirely on
music from one hundred years ago.

d) All of the above.

Directions for questions 85 to 108: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that
follow.

Passage – 2

The dictionary meaning of the term 'crisis' is 'an unstable or crucial time or state of affairs in which a
decisive change is impending; especially, one with the distinct possibility of a highly undesirable
outcome. In the context of public policy, an event or occurrence can be termed a crisis situation if it
poses a threat to human life and property or causes or threatens to cause large-scale disruption of
normal life. Thus, 'crisis' may be defined as "an emergency situation arising out of natural or human
activity which poses a threat to human life and property or leads to large scale disruption of normal
life". This emergency situation may arise suddenly, or it may be an outcome of a simmering problem or
issue that was not 'nipped in the bud.' A crisis may degenerate into a disaster if it is not properly
managed, resulting in avoidable loss of human life and property on a large scale.
Directions for questions 85 to 108: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that
follow.

Passage – 3

Overwhelming evidence shows that climate change presents growing threats to public health security -
from extreme weather-related disasters to the wider spread of such vector-borne diseases as malaria
and dengue. The impacts of climate on human health will not be evenly distributed around the world.

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Q 91. 11939094 What is implied by the phrase 'nipped in the bud' in the context of a crisis?

a) Stopped before it becomes a full-blown disaster, often through immediate action.

b) Resolved quickly once it started escalating into a crisis, preventing further damage.

c) Ignored in the early stages and allowed to simmer until the situation becomes manageable.

d)
Managed well after it causes substantial damage to human life and property, thus preventing further
escalation

Q 92. 11939094 Which of the following is/are an accurate assumption(s) based on the passage?
(1) A crisis can always be identified.
(2) Disruption of normal life is inherently undesirable.
(3) There is always a 'right' way to manage a crisis.

a) (2) only b) c) All of (1), (2), and (3) d) (2) and (3) only
None of (1), (2) or (3)

Q 93. 11939094 Which of the following are logical corollaries to the above passage?
(1) Not all crises result in disasters.
(2) All disasters originate from unmanaged crises.
(3) Small-scale disasters are not crises.

a) All except (1) b) All except (2) c) All except (3) d) All of (1), (2) and (3)

The Third Assessment Report concluded that vulnerability to climate change is a function of exposure,
sensitivity, and adaptive capacity. Developing country populations, particularly in small island states,
arid and high mountain zones, and densely populated coastal areas, are considered to be particularly
vulnerable. India is a large developing country with the Great Himalayas, the world's third largest ice
mass in the north, 7500 km long, and a densely populated coastline in the south. Nearly 700 million of
her over one billion population living in rural areas directly depend on climate-sensitive sectors
(agriculture, forests, and fisheries) and natural resources (such as water, biodiversity, mangroves,
coastal zones, and grasslands) for their subsistence and livelihoods. Heat waves, floods (land and
coastal), and draughts occur commonly. Malaria, malnutrition, and diarrhoea are major public health
problems. Any further increase, as projected in weather-related disasters and related health effects,
may cripple the already inadequate public health infrastructure in the country. Hence, there is an
urgent need to respond to the situation. Response options to protect health from the effects of climate
change include mitigation as well as adaptation. Both can complement each other and together can
significantly reduce the risks of climate change.
Q 94. 11939094 Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the argument that India must
implement both mitigation and adaptation strategies to address climate change?

a)

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A recent study shows that the frequency of extreme weather events in India has decreased over the
past decade.
b)
New technology has been developed that can prevent vector-borne diseases like malaria from
spreading.
c)
India has one of the world's most advanced public health infrastructures, making it well-prepared for
future climate-related disasters.
d) India's economy relies heavily on agriculture, which is particularly sensitive to climate change.

Q 95. 11939094 The author's argument that India should implement both mitigation and adaptation
strategies relies on which of the following assumptions?

a) Mitigation strategies alone are not sufficient to address the risks posed by climate change.

b) India has the financial resources to implement both mitigation and adaptation strategies.

c) Other developing countries are already adopting both mitigation and adaptation strategies.

d) The impacts of climate change will affect India equally across all regions.

Q 96. 11939094 Based on the passage, which of the following can be most reasonably inferred?

a)
India's rural population will face fewer climate-related risks if mitigation strategies are implemented
immediately.

b)
The success of India's climate strategies depends primarily on international cooperation and funding.

c)
India's public health challenges, such as malaria and diarrhoea, will worsen if climate change is not
addressed.
d) Adaptation strategies are more urgent than mitigation strategies for developing countries like India.

Directions for questions 85 to 108: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that
follow.

Passage – 4

There is a public concern that smartphone communication undermines well-being by displacing face-
to-face interactions. However, research on this "social displacement hypothesis" has provided mixed
results. We examined when this hypothesis holds true (within-persons vs. between-persons) and
tested an intervention to decrease smartphone communication. Participants reported daily smartphone
communication, face-to-face communication, and emotional well-being for fifteen days. On day six,
participants were assigned to a mindfulness-treatment intervention group or a no-treatment control
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group. The social displacement hypothesis was confirmed at the within-person but not between-
person level. Specifically, when someone communicates a lot using her smartphone during a
particular day, that person engages in less face-to-face interactions during that same day.

However, people who tend to spend a lot of time communicating on their smartphones do not engage
in less face-to-face conversations than people who largely refrain from smartphone communication.
The mindfulness intervention reduced daily smartphone communication, which decreased negative
emotions.
Q 97. 11939094 Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the study's finding that increased
smartphone communication reduces face-to-face interactions at the within-person level?

a)
People often communicate on smartphones to arrange face-to-face meetings, especially when they
are busy.
b) Smartphone communication tends to be less emotionally satisfying than face-to-face interactions.
c)
Participants in the study varied in their understanding of what counts as "smartphone communication.
d)
Smartphone users in the study reported the highest levels of face-to-face interaction during times of
social events.

Q 98. 11939094 Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the study's conclusion that
smartphone use decreases face-to-face interactions at the within-person level?

a)
Smartphone users report that they find face-to-face communication more meaningful than smartphone
communication.
b)
Participants who reported higher daily smartphone communication showed a significant decrease in
time spent on other recreational activities, such as watching TV.

c)
Face-to-face communication requires more time and effort compared to smartphone communication,
making people more likely to substitute smartphone use on busy days.
d)
People who are assigned mindfulness treatment show a greater interest in meeting friends in person.

Q 99. 11939094 Which of the following can be most reasonably inferred from the passage?

a)
People who engage in a lot of smartphone communication on a given day are less likely to feel
emotionally satisfied.
b) The mindfulness intervention improved face-to-face communication among participants.
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c)
People who communicate heavily via smartphones tend to have similar levels of face-to-face
interaction as those who use smartphones less frequently.
d)
Participants who underwent mindfulness treatment reported higher levels of well-being due to
increased face-to-face interactions.

Q 100. 11939094 Which of the following would be most useful to know in order to evaluate the
argument that the mindfulness intervention decreased negative emotions?

a)
Whether participants in the control group showed an increase in face-to-face communication over
time.
b)
Whether participants' emotional well-being improved due to factors unrelated to the mindfulness
intervention.
c)
Whether the decrease in smartphone communication affected other aspects of participants' daily
routines.
d)
Whether participants in the mindfulness group had previously practised mindfulness before the
intervention.

Q 101. 11939094 The passage states that while increased smartphone communication on a particular
day reduces face-to-face interactions on that day, people who communicate heavily on smartphones
over time do not engage in less face-to-face interaction compared to others. Which of the following
best resolves this apparent contradiction?

a)
People who communicate frequently on smartphones schedule face-to-face meetings on different
days to maintain their social relationships.
b)
People who use smartphones for communication tend to engage in face-to-face interaction with only
close friends and family.

c)
Participants who use smartphones heavily for communication tend to have higher emotional well-
being than those who don't.
d)
Smartphone communication replaces other forms of digital communication, rather than face-to-face
interaction, over time.

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Q 102. 11939094 Which of the following conclusions is most strongly supported by the findings of the
study?

a)
The increase in smartphone communication globally is the primary cause of reduced face-to-face
interactions.
b)
Smartphone communication only negatively impacts emotional well-being if it reduces face-to-face
communication.

c)
People who rely heavily on smartphone communication are less emotionally satisfied than those who
use it sparingly.
d)
Interventions that reduce smartphone communication can help improve emotional well-being by
reducing negative emotions.

Directions for questions 85 to 108: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that
follow.

Passage – 5

Does intelligence equal wealth? Not necessarily. If you define intelligence as the ability to apply
knowledge and skills, then intelligence can certainly help someone to accumulate wealth. However,
there are many hardworking people who have studied hard and applied themselves only to find that
their pay is average and there is no advancement in sight. Educated people working in disappointing
jobs are not a reflection of dire recessionary times. Rather, it's because financial rewards are tied to
what a producer has to offer. Every individual competes in the labour marketplace, and intelligence
plays a limited role. The marketplace is nothing more than the exchange of people's accumulated
wants and desires. Much of what consumers collectively consider of great value in the marketplace
has little to do with intelligence.
Q 103. 11939094 Which of the following statements, if true, weakens the argument presented in the
passage?
(1) Research shows that the highest-paid individuals tend to have above-average levels of education
and intelligence.
(2) There are a significant number of people with average intelligence who have achieved financial
success through hard work.
(3) Intelligence is often misunderstood as a measure of one's ability to succeed financially.

a) (1) only b) (1) and (2) only c) (2) and (3) only d)
None of (1), (2) or (3)

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Q 104. 11939094 Which of the following can be reasonably inferred from the passage?
(1) Intelligence is irrelevant to financial success in the marketplace.
(2) Intelligent individuals are more likely to experience disappointment in their careers.

a) (1) only b) (2) only c) Both (1) and (2) d) Neither (1) nor (2)

Q 105. 11939094 Based on the passage, consider the following statements:

(1) Financial success is more closely tied to consumer demand than to individual intelligence.
(2) Hard work and intelligence alone are not always sufficient for achieving wealth.
(3) Consumers primarily value products that are the result of high intelligence.

Which of the above statements is/are logical corollaries of the passage?

a) (1) only b) (1) and (2) only c) (2) and (3) only d) (1), (2), and (3)

Directions for questions 85 to 108: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that
follow.

Passage – 6

Why is there anything at all? This question becomes clearer when put in contrastive form: Why is
there something rather than nothing? We can ask this question even in the absence of contingent
beings, though in this context, it is likely to prove unanswerable. For example, if God or the universe is
logically or absolutely necessary, it would not only exist but must exist even if nothing else existed.
Probably no reason can be given for why logically or absolutely necessary things exist, if they do at all.
Q 106. 11939094 Consider the following statements derived from the passage:
(1) The question "Why is there something rather than nothing?" can be asked even if contingent
beings do not exist.
(2) If something is logically or absolutely necessary, it must exist even in the absence of anything else.
(3) The existence of logically or absolutely necessary things, if they exist, may not have an explainable
reason.
(4) The existence of contingent beings provides a reason for why something exists rather than
nothing.

Which of the above statements are consistent with the passage's argument?

a) 1 and 2 only b) 1, 2, and 3 only c) 2 and 4 only d) 1, 3, and 4 only

Q 107. 11939094 What is the main conclusion of the passage?

a) Logically necessary things must exist because of an external cause that explains their existence.
b) Contingent beings are not sufficient to explain the existence of logically necessary things.

c) Necessary things must exist even if no other contingent things exist around them.

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d) The question "Why is there something rather than nothing?" is unanswerable in certain contexts.

Q 108. 11939094 Which of the following assumptions does the argument in the passage rely on?
1. Necessary things, if they exist, do not require an explanation for their existence.
2. The question "Why is there something rather than nothing?" can still be asked meaningfully, even in
the absence of contingent beings.
3. The existence of necessary things precludes the need for contingent beings to explain existence.
4. God or the universe must exist if they are logically necessary beings.

Choose the correct answer:

a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1, 2, and 4 only d) 3 and 4 only

Quantitative Techniques
Directions for questions 109 to 114: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given
below.

A week long sports event called “National Sports Week” was organized at Commonwealth Sports
Village where participants from North, South, East, West and Central regions of the country
participated. The number of participants from North and South regions formed 21% and 25% of the
total participants respectively. The ratio of participants participating from East, west and Central
regions was 10 : 8 : 9 respectively.

The partially filled-in table given below shows the number of participants from the five regions in the
six events conducted during the Sports Week.

Note:
(i) Each participants who came to the Sports Week participated in exactly one of the six events.
(ii) At least one participants from each region participated in each of the six events.
(iii) Six cells in the table are left blank. The sum of the six missing values is 558.
Q 109. 11939094 Which of the following is not a possible ratio of the number of participants from the
West region in Swimming and Cycling respectively?

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a) 7 : 8 b) 9 : 7 c) 5 : 7 d) 1 : 9

Q 110. 11939094 Which of the six events witnessed the highest participation from all of the five
regions put together?

a) Swimming b) Cycling c) Badminton d) Hockey

Q 111. 11939094 The total number of participants from the East region in the six events is what
percent less or more than the total number of participants from the South region?

a) 11% Less b) 20% Less c) 18% More d) 12.5% More

Q 112. 11939094 If the number of participants in Swimming from the West region is 46, then the total
number of participants in Badminton is what percentage less or more than the total number of
participants in Cycling from all five regions?

a) 22.22% more b) 13.33% more c) 28.8% less d) 16.67% more

Q 113. 11939094 What is the ratio of the total number of participants from East and South regions in
Tennis, Badminton, and Football to that of participants from North and Central regions in Hockey,
Football, and Badminton?

a) 19 : 17 b) 13 : 11 c) 17 : 11 d) 17 : 13

Q 114. 11939094 From which region was the participation in a single event the maximum?

a) West b) South c) North d) Central

Directions for questions 115 to 120: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given
below.

The following data is recorded in the year 2024 regarding a family living in Delhi consisting of five
members, each having a different age. Shiv’s brother, Shubh is 5 years elder to him. His father was 34
years of age when his sister, Sreya, was born while his mother was 39 years of age when Shiv was
born. Sreya was 4 years of age when her brother, Shubh, was born. Shiv was born on 15th August,
2019. In the year 2024 Shiv’s grandfather, aged 84 years and grandmother, aged 80 years, moved
from Kanpur to live with the family. Later that same year, a baby girl was born.

(Note that the years are calculated as whole numbers irrespective of the dates, for example 2020 –
2007 = 13 years)
Q 115. 11939094 How old was Shiv's father when Shubh was born?

a) 33 years b) 37 years c) 36 years d) 38 years

Q 116. 11939094 What is the average age of the family living in Delhi in 2023, if there are no changes
in the number of members?

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a) 22.8 years b) 23.2 years c) 28.3 years d) 25.5 years

Q 117. 11939094 After how many years will the ratio of the ages of Sreya and her mother be 2 : 5?

a) 3 years b) 4 years c) 6 years d) 8 years

Q 118. 11939094 What is the average age of all the female members of the family in 2024?

a) 38.2 years b) 32.5 years c) 34.5 years d) 28.8 years

Q 119. 11939094 When the grandfather celebrates his 100th birthday, what will be the respective ratio
of the ages of the oldest and the youngest of his grandchildren (assuming that there are no additions
to the family in the future)?

a) 15 : 7 b) 5 : 3 c) 2 : 1 d) 15 : 8

Q 120. 11939094 The only earning member is Shiv’s father, who has a monthly income of Rs.1.5
lakh. The grandfather has a pension of Rs.48,000. If all the money is spent on the family, then what is
the percentage change in expenditure per head in 2024?

a) Decrease of 17.5% b) Increase of 11.25% c) Decrease of 15% d) Increase of 10%

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