1.

With reference to the Tantalum, consider the following statements :

1. Tantalum, a rare metal with remarkable properties, has been discovered in the sands of the Sutlej River
in Punjab.
2. Capacitors made from tantalum are vital for storing more electricity in larger sizes, ideal for portable
electronic devices.
3. A committee of experts within the Ministry of Mines has recognized a collection of 30 critical minerals
for India, with Tantalum being among them.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct:
Tantalum, a rare metal with exceptional characteristics, has been discovered in the sands of the Sutlej
River in Punjab by researchers from the Indian Institute of Technology (IIT), Ropar.

Properties:
Tantalum is grey, dense, and highly resistant to corrosion, forming a protective oxide layer when exposed
to air.The metal is ductile, meaning it can be stretched into thin wires without breaking.It is extremely
resistant to chemical reactions at temperatures below 150°C, with the exception of hydrofluoric acid,
acidic solutions containing fluoride ions, and free sulfur trioxide.Tantalum also possesses an extremely
high melting point.

Statement 2 is incorrect:
Tantalum capacitors are essential for storing more electricity in compact sizes, making them ideal for
portable electronic devices. Tantalum is also used in the manufacture of components for chemical plants,
nuclear power plants, airplanes, and missiles.Due to its high melting point, tantalum is often used as a
substitute for platinum, which is more costly.
Tantalum does not react with bodily fluids and is used to make surgical equipment and implants, like
artificial joints, according to the US Department of Energy.
Composite with tantalum carbide (TaC) and graphite is one of the hardest materials, used in high-speed
machine tool cutting edges.

Statement 3 is correct:
A committee of experts under the Ministry of Mines has identified 30 critical minerals for India,
including tantalum.

2. With reference to the Hydroxychloroquine, consider the following statements:

1. Hydroxy-chloroquine is an oral drug used in the treatment of malaria and some autoimmune diseases
such as rheumatoid arthritis.
 2. Hydroxychloroquine Sulphate works by interfering with the growth and spread of parasites that cause
malaria.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only.
b) 2 only.
c) Both 1 and 2.
d) Neither 1 nor 2.

Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct:
Hydroxychloroquine, an antimalarial drug, gained attention as a potential treatment for COVID-19, with
some considering it a "miracle cure."
The World Health Organization (WHO) conducted trials on hydroxychloroquine but found no clinical
improvements in COVID-19 patients, leading to a recommendation against its use.
The US Food and Drug Administration (FDA) also warned against the use of hydroxychloroquine, and
the WHO discontinued its trials.

New Study Linking Hydroxychloroquine to Deaths

A recent study, published in the journal Biomedicine & Pharmacotherapy, suggests a possible link
between hydroxychloroquine and 17,000 deaths.
The researchers caution against repurposing drugs in a panic and highlight the need for better evidence-
based approaches during a pandemic.

Statement 2 is correct:
Hydroxy-chloroquine is an oral drug used in the treatment of malaria and some autoimmune diseases such
as rheumatoid arthritis and lupus erythematosus. Hydroxychloroquine Sulphate works by interfering with
the growth and spread of parasites that cause malaria.

3. With reference to the Organ transplants in India, consider the following statements:
1. The Transplantation of Human Organs and Tissues Act, 1994 provides for regulation of removal,
storage and transplantation of human organs & tissues for therapeutic purposes and commercial dealings
in human organs & tissues.
2. The subject of artificial organs is regulated under the aforesaid Act.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only.
b) 2 only.
c) Both 1 and 2.
d) Neither 1 nor 2.

Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect:
The Transplantation of Human Organs & Tissues Act (THOTA), 1994 provides for regulation of
removal, storage and transplantation of human organs & tissues for therapeutic purposes and for
prevention of commercial dealings in human organs & tissues.

The Government of India has implemented National Organ Transplant Program (NOTP) to establish a
network of organ and tissue transplant organizations at national, regional and state level and to link them
with transplant & retrieval hospitals and tissue banks and to maintain a national registry of organ & tissue
donors and recipients for the purpose to provide an efficient system for procurement and distribution of
organs & tissues from deceased donors.

Statement 2 is incorrect:
The subject of artificial organs is not regulated under the aforesaid Act.Under the program, support is
provided to establish new or to upgrade existing organ & tissue transplant and retrieval facilities and to
establish tissue banks.

4. Consider the following statements :

1. In the context of cybersecurity, the act of disguising communication from an unknown source as being
from a known, trusted source is called spoofing.
2. The primary goal of DNS spoofing is to redirect users to malicious websites.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only.
b) 2 only.
c) Both 1 and 2.
d) Neither 1 nor 2.

Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct:
Spoofing is a type of cybercriminal activity where someone or something forges the sender's information
and pretends to be a legitimate source, business, colleague, or other trusted contact for the purpose of
gaining access to personal information, acquiring money, spreading malware, or stealing data.
Spoofers may try to manipulate people into believing that the communications are real, which can lead to
the victim downloading malicious software, sending money, or sharing sensitive information.

Statement 2 is correct:
The primary goal of DNS spoofing, also known as DNS cache poisoning or DNS hijacking, is to redirect
users to malicious websites.

5. ‘Wolbachia method' is sometimes talked about with reference to which one of the following?
a) Controlling the viral diseases spread by mosquitoes
b) The use of microorganisms to break down environmental contaminants into less dangerous forms.
c) A traditional, low-cost, and sustainable land management practice that helps prevent erosion on
sloping, marginal, and hilly land.
d) A common cancer treatment that uses drugs to destroy cancer cells and prevent tumor growth.

Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The Wolbachia method is a technique that involves introducing the bacteria Wolbachia into mosquito
populations to prevent the spread of diseases like dengue, Zika, chikungunya, and yellow fever. In this
method, the Wolbachia bacteria is procured from a fruit fly and injected into the eggs of the mosquito.
Inside the mosquito, bacteria inhibit the growth of the virus in the following two ways: It can boost the
immune system of the mosquito, which makes it harder for the virus to survive inside the mosquito.The
bacteria compete with viruses inside the mosquito, making it harder for them to reproduce and spread
from person to person.

6. Consider the following statements with respect to Microsatellite DNA.

1. Microsatellites are small DNA sequences made up of repeating units.
2. It is utilised in genetic analysis, more specifically in molecular genetics and genomics.
3. The number of repeats at a certain microsatellite locus is constant in a population because
microsatellite DNA is highly non-variable.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct:
Microsatellite DNA is utilised in genetic analysis, more specifically in molecular genetics and genomics.
Microsatellites are small DNA sequences made up of repeating units. They are also known as short
tandem repeats (STRs) or simple sequence repeats (SSRs). These repeating units, which are typically 1-6
base pairs in length, are repeated in tandem.

Statement 2 is correct:
The number of repetitions at a specific microsatellite locus can differ significantly among individuals
within a population, as microsatellite DNA is highly variable.

Statement 3 is incorrect:
Microsatellite DNA has a number of different uses, including:
-DNA fingerprinting: Microsatellite DNA can be used to create a unique DNA fingerprint for an
individual. This can be used for forensic identification, paternity testing, and other purposes.
-Genetic mapping: Microsatellite DNA can be used to map the location of genes in the genome. This can
be used to identify genes that are associated with diseases or other traits.
-Population genetics: Microsatellite DNA can be used to study the genetic diversity of populations. This
can be used to understand how populations have evolved and to identify populations that are at risk of
extinction.
-Conservation genetics: Microsatellite DNA can be used to study the genetic diversity of endangered
species. This information can be used to develop conservation strategies for these species.
-Researchers can analyse the genetic structure, population dynamics, and evolutionary relationships
among various species of animals by analysing microsatellite DNA. Microsatellite markers are very
valuable in population genetics, conservation genetics, and phylogenetic research.

7. With reference to Green hydrogen, consider the following statements:

1. Green hydrogen is a clean energy source produced through the electrolysis of water using renewable
energy sources such as wind, solar, and hydro power.
2. Green hydrogen has the potential to replace traditional fertilizers in agriculture through the production
of Nitrogen using renewable energy sources.
3. It cannot be used directly as a fuel for internal combustion.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) One only
b) Two only
c) Three only
d) None

Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct:
Under the highly ambitious National Green Hydrogen Mission, India intends to be "the Global Hub for
the Production, Use, and Export of Green Hydrogen" and "to assume technology and market leadership."
The mission's goal is to generate 5 million tonnes of green hydrogen for domestic use.
Green hydrogen is a clean energy source produced through the electrolysis of water using renewable
energy sources such as wind, solar, and hydro power. It has the potential to become a key player in the
transition to a carbon-free economy and can help mitigate climate change. The hydrogen produced can be
stored and used as a fuel for transportation, industry, and agriculture.

Statement 2 is incorrect:
Green hydrogen has the potential to replace traditional fertilizers in agriculture through the production of
ammonia using renewable energy sources.Ammonia is a key ingredient in the production of fertilizers,
and the current production process relies on natural gas, which is a fossil fuel and contributes to
greenhouse gas emissions.Green ammonia produced with help of green hydrogen is carbon-free, green
ammonia has other benefits over traditional fertilizers, including improved efficiency and reduced soil
acidity.

Statement 3 is incorrect:
Green hydrogen can be used directly as a fuel for internal combustion by a hydrogen engine (HCE). HCE
is an engine that uses hydrogen (H2) as fuel. It is a modified gasoline-powered engine but doesn't emit
any carbon-based pollution, which is a big benefit towards carbon neutrality.
8. Consider the following statements regarding Mercury pollution:
1. Geothermal springs, geologic deposits are a source of mercury pollution in the world.
2. Volcanoes are the major source of mercury pollution.
3. 0.05 milligrams per liter (mg/L) is the safe level of exposure to mercury.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct:
Mercury pollution can come from both natural and human-related sources:
Natural sources
Mercury is naturally present in the environment in soil, air, and water. Natural sources of mercury
include:
Volcanic eruptions
Ocean emissions
Geothermal springs
Weathering of rocks
Undersea vents
Human-related sources

Human activities that can release mercury into the environment include:
Mining
Coal combustion
Fossil fuel combustion
Non-ferrous metals production
Cement production
Waste incineration
Industrial uses
Using and disposing of products containing mercury
Small-scale gold mining

Statement 2 is incorrect:
Mercury pollution also harms wildlife and ecosystems. Mercury occurs naturally in the earth's crust, but
human activities, such as mining and fossil fuel combustion, have led to widespread global mercury
pollution.
Statement 3 is incorrect:
Exposure to mercury – even small amounts – may cause serious health problems, and is a threat to the
development of the child in utero and early in life.
Mercury may have toxic effects on the nervous, digestive and immune systems, and on lungs, kidneys,
skin and eyes.Mercury is considered by the World Health Organisation (WHO) as one of the top ten
chemicals or groups of chemicals of major public health concern.There is no known safe level of
exposure to elemental mercury in humans.

9. With reference to the role of biofilters in Recirculating Aquaculture System, consider the following
statements:
1. They are pollution control equipment using a bioreactor containing non-living material to capture and
biologically degrade pollutants.
2. Biofilters convert nitrate present in fish waste to ammonia.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only.
b) 2 only.
c) Both 1 and 2.
d) Neither 1 nor 2.

Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect:
Biological filters are devices designed to culture microorganisms that perform specific tasks for us.
Different types of living organisms are suited to different tasks, and the art of designing and using
biofilters lies in creating an environment that promotes the growth of the necessary organisms.

Statement 2 is incorrect:
A biofilter system aids in waste treatment by removing uneaten fish feed. It utilizes microorganisms
capable of breaking down various compounds, such as uneaten fish feed, thereby helping to degrade
pollutants.
Ammonia is removed from an aquarium system through the use of a biofilter. The biofilter provides a
surface for nitrifying bacteria to grow. These bacteria consume ammonia and produce nitrite, which is
also toxic to fish. Other nitrifying bacteria in the biofilter then consume the nitrite and produce nitrate.

10. With reference to Enriched uranium in nuclear technology,consider the following statements:
1. Enriched uranium above 90% can be used for nuclear weapons.
2. Uranium, enriched to the extent of at least 30%, is required for the production of electricity.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only.
b) 2 only.
c) Both 1 and 2.
d) Neither 1 nor 2.

Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct:
Uranium Enrichment:
Natural uranium is composed of two isotopes: approximately 99% U-238 and only about 0.7% U-235.U-
235 is a fissile material, meaning it can sustain a chain reaction in a nuclear reactor.The enrichment
process increases the proportion of U-235 by separating it from U-238.
For nuclear weapons, enrichment must reach 90% or more, producing what is known as weapons-grade
uranium.

Statement 2 is incorrect:
Low-enriched uranium, with a concentration of 3-5% U-235, is used as fuel for commercial nuclear
power plants.Highly enriched uranium, with a purity of 20% or more, is utilized in research reactors.

11. Consider the following statements.

1. About three-fourths of the world's Cobalt, a metal required for the manufacture of batteries for electric
motor vehicles, is produced by Kazakhasthan.
2. India has significant cobalt resources, with the majority of them produced by the state of Odisha.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only.
b) 2 only.
c) Both 1 and 2.
d) Neither 1 nor 2.

Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Cobalt is a silvery-white metal that is used in a wide range of industrial applications, including the
production of batteries, magnets, and alloys. It is also used in some catalysts and pigments. Cobalt is often
found in association with other metals, such as copper and nickel. It is extracted as a by-product of
mining and processing these metals.

Statement 1 is incorrect:
About three-fourths of the world's cobalt, a metal required for the manufacture of batteries for electric
motor vehicles, is produced by the Democratic Republic of the Congo.The Democratic Republic of the
Congo (DRC) is a major global producer of cobalt and has significant cobalt reserves, making it a critical
player in the supply chain for electric vehicle batteries.

Statement 2 is incorrect:
India has significant cobalt resources, with the majority of them located in the state of Odisha. However,
there is currently no production of cobalt in India.The cobalt resources in India are estimated to be around
44.91 million tonnes. The majority of these resources are located in the state of Odisha, with smaller
amounts in Jharkhand and Nagaland.
12. Which of the following statements with regard to the Square Kilometer Array (SKA) project is/are
correct?
1. SKAO is an international project to build the world’s largest radio telescope, with eventually over a
square kilometre (one million square metres) of collecting area.
2. India is participating in this project through the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE) and the
Department of Science and Technology (DST).
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
a) 1 only.
b) 2 only.
c) Both 1 and 2.
d) Neither 1 nor 2.

Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct:
The Square Kilometre Array Observatory (SKAO) is an ambitious international project aimed at building
the world's largest radio telescope, with a collecting area that will ultimately surpass one square kilometre
(one million square metres).
Headquartered in the United Kingdom, this array of antennas will be strategically located in South Africa
and Australia. The primary objective of SKAO is to tackle key questions in modern astrophysics and
cosmology, including the exploration of the universe's history, the evolution of galaxies, and the nature of
dark matter.

Statement 2 is correct:
The observatory's member countries include Australia, Canada, China, France, Germany, India, Italy,
New Zealand, South Africa, Spain, Sweden, Switzerland, the Netherlands, and the United Kingdom. India
joined the project as an Associate Member in 2012, and in 2022, the National Centre for Radio
Astrophysics in Pune signed cooperation agreements with SKAO. India's participation in this
groundbreaking initiative is facilitated through the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE) and the
Department of Science and Technology (DST).

13. Which of the following statements regarding the Laser Interferometer Gravitational-Wave
Observatory (LIGO) India project experiment is/are correct?
1. It would have four perpendicularly placed 4-km long vacuum chambers, that constitute the most
sensitive interferometers in the world.
2. It will be the fifth node of the planned network and will bring India into a prestigious international
scientific experiment.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only.
b) 2 only.
c) Both 1 and 2.
d) Neither 1 nor 2.

Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect:
The LIGO-India project aims to detect gravitational waves from the universe.This ambitious project will
be a collaborative effort between the Department of Atomic Energy, the Department of Science and
Technology, the U.S. National Science Foundation, and various national and international research
institutions.

It will feature two perpendicular 4-kilometre-long vacuum chambers, making it one of the most sensitive
interferometers globally. The observatory is expected to commence scientific operations in 2030 and will
be situated in Hingoli district, Maharashtra, approximately 450 km east of Mumbai.

Statement 2 is correct:
The primary purpose of LIGO-India is to become the fifth node in a planned international network,
enhancing India's role in a prestigious global scientific endeavor. It will create a unique platform that
integrates advanced science and technology, bridging quantum and cosmic studies.

The benefits of LIGO-India extend beyond its scientific objectives. The project is anticipated to provide
significant advancements in astronomy and astrophysics, propelling Indian science and technology into
cutting-edge areas of national importance and integrating India into one of the most renowned
international scientific experiments.

14. Consider the following statements with respect to Depleted uranium.

1. Depleted uranium (DU) is a toxic heavy metal and the main by-product of uranium enrichment.
2. It is the substance left over when most of the highly radioactive isotopes of uranium are removed for
use as nuclear fuel or for nuclear weapons.
3. In comparison to enriched uranium, depleted uranium is much less radioactive but is capable of
generating a nuclear reaction.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Depleted uranium munitions were developed by the US and UK in the 1970s. They were first used in the
Gulf War of 1991 against T-72 tanks in Iraq, followed by their use in Kosovo in 1999 and during the Iraq
War in 2003.
The US, Britain, Russia, China, France, and Pakistan produce DU weapons, which are not classified as
nuclear weapons.

Statement 1 is correct:
Depleted uranium (DU) is a toxic heavy metal and a by-product of uranium enrichment. Compared to
enriched uranium, depleted uranium is significantly less radioactive and cannot sustain a nuclear reaction.
Due to its high density—approximately twice that of lead—depleted uranium is employed in munitions
designed for armor-piercing capabilities. It is also used to reinforce military vehicles, such as tanks. DU
munitions are effective against heavily armored targets.

Statement 2 is correct:
It remains after most of the highly radioactive isotopes of uranium have been removed for use as nuclear
fuel or in nuclear weapons.

Statement 3 is incorrect:
Compared to enriched uranium, depleted uranium is significantly less radioactive and cannot sustain a
nuclear reaction.
Although depleted uranium munitions are not nuclear weapons, DU shares the same chemical toxicity
properties as uranium, albeit with reduced radiological toxicity. When DU munitions are present, there is
a potential risk of radiation exposure for individuals who come into direct contact with DU fragments or
munitions.

Ingesting or inhaling depleted uranium can lead to severe health issues, including impaired renal function
and various cancers. Additionally, DU munitions that miss their targets can contaminate groundwater and
soil. In post-conflict settings, the presence of DU residues can heighten local populations' anxiety and
health concerns.

15. The recent ‘AI preparedness Index’,is prepared by the following?

a) World Bank
b) IMF
c) Tata Institute of Fundamental Research (TIFR).
d) International Council for Science

Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The International Monetary Fund recently developed the AI Preparedness Index to evaluate the level of
AI readiness in various organizations.This index assesses AI preparedness in 174 countries by examining
factors like digital infrastructure, human capital and labor market policies, innovation and economic
integration, as well as regulation and ethics.The index has categorized countries into 3 levels which are:
-Advanced economy
-Emerging market economy
-Low income economies

16. Consider the following statements regarding ‘Torrefaction’.

1. It is a thermal process to convert biomass into a coal-like material at 250 degrees celsius - 350 degrees
celsius,which results in better fuel characteristics than the original biomass.
2. Torrefied biomass is more brittle, and more energy-intensive.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only.
b) 2 only.
c) Both 1 and 2.
d) Neither 1 nor 2.

Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Stubble burning during winter significantly deteriorates air quality in Delhi. To address this problem,
India is trialing Swedish technology called torrefaction, which converts rice stubble into 'bio-coal.' The
government has supported a pilot project at the National Agri-Food Biotechnology Institute in Mohali,
Punjab, in collaboration with a Swedish company, to assess the feasibility of this technology.

Statement 1 is correct:
Torrefaction is a thermal process that transforms biomass into a coal-like material with improved fuel
characteristics. The process involves heating biomass such as straw, grass, sawmill residue, and wood to
temperatures between 250°C and 350°C. This heating process converts the biomass into 'coal-like' pellets
that can be used in conjunction with coal for industrial applications, including steel and cement
production.

Statement 2 is incorrect:
The project has the capacity to convert 150-200 kilograms of paddy straw into bio-coal per hour and
reduce CO2 emissions by 95%.Torrefied biomass is more brittle, which simplifies grinding and makes it
less energy-intensive.Storage of torrefied material is more straightforward compared to fresh biomass due
to minimized biological degradation and water absorption.Torrefied pellets are well-suited for replacing
coal due to lower shipping and transport costs, as well as reduced sulfur and ash content compared to
coal.
Although torrefaction results in higher calorific values, the energy density does not improve significantly.

17. With reference to Artificial Neural Networks(ANN), consider the following:

1. ANN is a computational model that uses quantum computing technology majorly to mimic the way
nerve cells work in the human brain.
2. It is an algorithm that learns from experience and repeated tasks performed by its users.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only.
b) 2 only.
c) Both 1 and 2.
d) Neither 1 nor 2.

Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect:
Artificial Neural Networks (ANNs) are a crucial aspect of machine learning that aids computer scientists
in tackling complex tasks like strategizing, predicting, and recognizing patterns. These computational
models are inspired by the human brain's nerve cells, simulating how the brain processes and analyzes
information.Also known as Neural Networks (NNs), they are modeled after biological neural networks,
adjusting their structure based on the data they process. It uses machine learning and other technologies as
part of artificial intelligence (AI).
Initially, NNs are trained with large datasets, where they learn to associate inputs with the desired outputs.
For instance, many smartphone manufacturers have recently adopted facial recognition technology, which
relies on such neural network models.

Statement 2 is correct:
Unlike traditional machine learning algorithms that focus on numerical data or organization, ANNs learn
through experience and repetitive tasks.

18. With reference to the term ‘Chimera’, which of the following statements is correct?
1. Chimeras are organisms that have cells with different genetic makeups.
2. Chimerism is a phenomenon that can occur in nature but not in a laboratory setting.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only.
b) 2 only.
c) Both 1 and 2.
d) Neither 1 nor 2.

Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct:
Chimeras are organisms that have cells with different genetic makeup. In genetics, chimerism is the
presence of two or more genetically distinct cell lines in an organism. This means that the organism has
two different sets of DNA, or genetic material, in its body.

Statement 2 is incorrect:
Chimeras are organisms that have cells with different genetic makeups. Chimerism is a phenomenon that
can occur in nature or in a laboratory setting. In nature, chimerism can occur in humans and animals due
to biological phenomena like genetic variations in cells, zygote fusion, or the merging of twin
pregnancies. For example, marine sponges can have up to four different genotypes in a single organism.

In humans, chimerism can occur naturally when the genetic material in one cell changes, or during bone
marrow transplants. Chimerism can also be induced in a laboratory setting, such as when scientists place
a hybrid embryo in a monkey's womb.
Chimeras have potential uses in scientific research, such as generating human-compatible organs for
transplants. For example, scientists have successfully produced a live chimeric monkey, which could help
fulfill the growing demand for organs for transplantation.
19. ‘Namoh 108’ recently seen in news refers to:
a) a new species of Butterfly found in western ghats
b) a new genetically modified wheat variety
c) a variety of lotus discovered in Manipur
d) a variety of glutinous rice found in Assam

Answer: (c)
Explanation:
'Namoh 108' is a lotus flower variety discovered in Manipur, India, distinguished by its unique feature of
having exactly 108 petals. The number 108 holds religious significance in Hinduism, which adds to the
flower's importance.
Initially, 'Namoh 108' appeared relatively ordinary compared to other lotus varieties. However, its genetic
composition was thoroughly examined and sequenced, making it the only lotus variety in India with such
detailed genomic information.Genome sequencing offers critical insights into a plant’s genetic structure
and traits, aiding scientists in understanding its growth patterns and potential uses.

The CSIR-NBRI (Council of Scientific and Industrial Research - National Botanical Research Institute) is
working to establish 'Namoh 108' as a unique and official lotus variety for India. The institute plans to
develop an ecosystem around the flower, including industrial and entrepreneurial opportunities.

Products derived from the 'Namoh 108' flower include fiber for apparel and a perfume called 'Frotus,'
illustrating the flower’s potential beyond its religious significance.

20. Consider the following statements:

1. The Kalvari Class submarines of the Indian Navy are diesel-electric powered and designed to engage
and destroy enemy naval vessels.
2. The Indian Navy currently operates three types of nuclear-powered submarines known as Chakra,
Arihant.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only.
b) 2 only.
c) Both 1 and 2.
d) Neither 1 nor 2.

Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct:
An export derivative of the French-origin Scorpene-class submarine, the Kalvari-class vessels are diesel-
electric attack submarines operated by the Indian Navy. They have been built by a syndicate of French
and Indian shipyards -- the Naval Group and MDL, respectively.

Statement 2 is correct:
As of January 2023, the Indian Navy operates three types of nuclear-powered submarines:
● Chakra: One submarine in this class
● Arihant: Two submarines in this class, including India's first armed nuclear submarine, the INS
Arihant
The Indian Navy also operates three main classes of submarines:
 ● Kalvari: An indigenously developed class of diesel-electric attack submarines
● Sindhughosh: Also known as the Kilo class
● Shishumar: Four submarines in this class were commissioned under technology transfer from
Germany

21.With reference to Lithium-ion (Li-ion) battery, consider the following statements:

1. It is characterised by high energy density, fast charge, and long cycle life.
2. One disadavantage of (Li-ion) batteries is its narrow temperature range operation.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only.
b) 2 only.
c) Both 1 and 2.
d) Neither 1 nor 2.

Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct:
A lithium-ion (Li-ion) battery is a type of rechargeable battery that uses lithium ions as the main
component of its electrochemical cells.Lithium-ion batteries have been credited for revolutionising
communications and transportation, enabling the rise of super-slim smartphones and electric cars with a
practical range such as portable electronics and electrified transportation.

Statement 2 is incorrect:
It is characterised by high energy density, fast charge, long cycle life, and wide temperature range
operation.

The versatility and performance of lithium-ion batteries make them a popular choice across various
sectors, including aerospace, electric vehicles, and electronics.
- Portable Devices: Lithium-ion batteries are extensively used in portable electronics like smartphones
and laptops.
- Advanced Applications: These batteries also power electrical systems in high-end applications, such as
aerospace systems and submarines. For instance, Boeing's 787 aircraft utilize lithium-ion batteries due to
the importance of weight reduction.
- Hybrid Electric Vehicles:Lithium-ion technology is currently the leading option for battery-powered
vehicles with a practical range, helping reduce reliance on fossil fuels. Tesla's Model S, for example, uses
a P85 battery composed of 18,650 Li-ion cells, generating an energy output of 80-90 kWh.
- Defense: Many submarines use lithium-ion batteries for emergency power and enhanced stealth
operations.
- Medical Devices: Lithium-ion batteries are also found in cardiac pacemakers and other implantable
medical devices.

Challenges of Lithium-Ion Batteries:

- High Flammability:Lithium-ion batteries can overheat and suffer from insulation failure at high
voltages, potentially leading to thermal runaway and combustion.
- Performance Limitations: Safety mechanisms required to regulate voltage and internal pressures can
result in increased weight and limited performance in some cases.
- Limited Lifespan: These batteries are prone to aging, leading to capacity loss and frequent failures after
a few years of use.
- Dependence on Imports: Widespread adoption is hindered by the uneven geographic distribution of
lithium, resulting in higher costs—approximately 40% more than nickel-cadmium batteries.

22. Apulia Food Systems Initiative, recently in news, is associated with:

a) WTO
b) G7
c) FAO
d) Welthungerhilfe

Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The G7 launched the Apulia Food Systems Initiative (AFSI) to strengthen efforts in addressing structural
barriers to food security and nutrition. Additionally, the Partnership for Global Infrastructure Investment
(PGII) aims to mobilize up to USD 600 billion by 2027. This initiative, led by G7 countries, focuses on
funding infrastructure projects in developing nations through both public and private investments.
Furthermore, a new initiative was announced to support the implementation of the International Code of
Conduct for Organizations Developing Advanced AI Systems.

23. Consider the following statements regarding ‘SWATI Portal’

1. The portal serves as a single online platform to represent and showcase the contributions of Indian
women and girls in STEMM fields.
2. The portal is the first-of-its-kind in India and has been developed, hosted, and maintained by the Indian
Institute of Science (Bengaluru).
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only.
b) 2 only.
c) Both 1 and 2.
d) Neither 1 nor 2.

Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct:
The Principal Scientific Advisor to the Government of India recently introduced the "Science for Women
- A Technology & Innovation (SWATI)" Portal, a pioneering initiative aimed at enhancing the
representation of Indian women and girls in STEMM (Science, Technology, Engineering, Mathematics,
and Medicine) fields.
About the SWATI Portal:
The SWATI Portal serves as a central online platform to showcase and represent the contributions of
Indian women and girls in STEMM disciplines.It features a comprehensive database to assist
policymakers in addressing the gender gap in these fields.It is designed for user interactivity, the portal
allows easy access and contribution to its database.

Objectives:
Expanding Representation: The portal aims to significantly scale up efforts to include Indian women in
science, covering all career stages and subjects across academia and industry.
Supporting Research: By compiling a robust database, the SWATI Portal seeks to support long-term
research on equality, diversity, and inclusivity issues in India.
Searchable Database: It features an active search engine, enabling easy access to information on women
scientists, their affiliations, areas of interest, and achievements.

Statement 2 is incorrect:
The SWATI Portal, the first of its kind in India, was developed, hosted, and is maintained by the National
Institute of Plant Genome Research (NIPGR) in New Delhi.

24. The term "Just Transition" is often mentioned in the news used in the context of which one of the
following dependent areas?
a) Gold
b) Bauxite
c) Manganese
d) Coal

Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The term "just transition" in coal mining refers to a framework that aims to ensure that the transition to
sustainable production is fair and equitable for all stakeholders. This includes workers, vulnerable
communities, suppliers, consumers, and others. The framework also seeks to ensure that the benefits of
the transition are shared widely, while also supporting those who may lose out economically.
The just transition framework was developed by the trade union movement to address the social
interventions needed as economies shift to sustainable production. This includes combating climate
change and protecting biodiversity. The framework is recognized internationally and was included in the
2015 Paris Agreement.

In India, the Indian Coal Sector has begun developing a mine closure framework based on just transition
principles. The TERI Just Transition Framework (JTF) is another framework that addresses the concerns
of regions affected by coal mine closures. The JTF is based on theories of justice and aims to facilitate a
structured transformation that includes socio-economic transformation and environmentally friendly
development.
25. With reference to FASTags, consider the following statements :
1. According to new rules, it is mandatory to replace the FASTags which the vehicle is older than three
years
2. According to new rules, it is mandatory to require KYC updates for every four years.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only.
b) 2 only.
c) Both 1 and 2.
d) Neither 1 nor 2.

Answer:(d)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect:
Companies must adhere to NPCI mandates, which involve updating KYC for FASTags that are three to
five years old and replacing those older than five years.

Statement 2 is incorrect:
The new regulations mandate that KYC updates must be completed every three years.

26. Consider the following statements with respect to Lagrange Points.

1. Lagrange Points are strategic locations in a two body system where the gravitational pull of the two
larger bodies precisely balances with the centrifugal force acting on a smaller third body.
2. This equilibrium allows the smaller body to maintain a stable relative position with respect to the large
bodies, making these points ideal for placing spacecraft that can remain in position.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only.
b) 2 only.
c) Both 1 and 2.
d) Neither 1 nor 2.

Answer:(b)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect:
In celestial mechanics, Lagrange points are positions in space where the gravitational pull of two large
bodies and the centrifugal force are balanced, allowing small objects to remain in equilibrium. These
points are named after Joseph-Louis Lagrange, an 18th century Italian astronomer and mathematician.
There are five Lagrange points for any combination of two orbital bodies, L₁ to L₅, all in the orbital plane
of the two large bodies. L₁, L₂, and L₃ are unstable points that lie along the line connecting the two large
masses, while L₄ and L₅ are stable points that form the apex of two equilateral triangles that have the
large masses at their vertices.

Statement 2 is correct:
Lagrange points are useful for spacecraft because they can act as "parking spots" in space, allowing them
to remain in a fixed position with minimal fuel consumption. For example, NASA's Solar and
Heliospheric Observatory (SOHO) spacecraft remains at the L1 point, orbiting the Sun at the same rate as
the Earth. Lagrange points can also be used to observe the far side of the Sun, as L3 is located behind the
Sun, opposite Earth, just beyond our planet's orbit.

27. Consider the following statements.

1. The Indian Remote Sensing (IRS) program is focused on applications in areas like agriculture, forestry,
and hydrology.
2. SARAL is India's first meteorological satellite.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only.
b) 2 only.
c) Both 1 and 2.
d) Neither 1 nor 2.

Answer:(a)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct:
The IRS program is part of India's National Natural Resources Management System (NNRMS) and
provides a long-term spaceborne capability for observing and managing the country's natural resources.
The IRS satellites carry various instruments that provide data in different spatial, spectral, and temporal
resolutions to meet different user needs.
the Indian Remote Sensing (IRS) program is focused on applications in agriculture, forestry, and
hydrology:
● Agriculture: IRS data is used for applications in agriculture, including forms and publications for
farmers.
● Forestry: IRS data can be used for forest management purposes.
● Hydrology: IRS data can be used for applications in hydrology, including surface and ground
water resources.
The IRS program also supports other applications, including:
● Geology and mineral resources
● Cartography
● Rural and urban development
● Marine fisheries
● Watersheds
● Coastal and disaster management
● Environment
● Ocean resources

Statement 2 is incorrect:
India's first dedicated meteorological satellite was Kalpana-1, launched by the Indian Space Research
Organisation (ISRO) on September 12, 2002 using the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV). It was
originally named MetSat-1, but was later renamed to honor Kalpana Chawla. Kalpana-1 was the first
satellite launched by the PSLV into a geo-stationary orbit. It carries payloads such as a Very High
Resolution Radiometer (VHRR) and DRT to provide meteorological services.

28. Consider the following statements.

1. The Satellite Instructional Television Experiment (SITE) was specifically designed to broadcast
educational content directly to India's urban populations.
2. Launched in the early 1970s, this pioneering project leveraged space technology particularly in areas
where traditional schooling infrastructure was lacking or inadequate.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only.
b) 2 only.
c) Both 1 and 2.
d) Neither 1 nor 2.

Answer:(b)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect:
The Satellite Instructional Television Experiment (SITE) was specifically created to deliver educational
content directly to India's rural and remote populations using satellite technology.

Statement 2 is correct:
Launched in the early 1970s, this groundbreaking initiative utilized space technology to expand
educational access, especially in regions where traditional school infrastructure was limited or
insufficient. SITE represented a major advancement in harnessing space technology for social
development, demonstrating how satellite technology could broaden educational opportunities for
communities across the country.

29. Consider the following statements.

1. NewSpace India Limited (NSIL), inaugurated in2018, is designed to foster private industry
participation in Indian space program.
2. NSIL serves as a central agency for coordinating all space-related industrial activities.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only.
b) 2 only.
c) Both 1 and 2.
d) Neither 1 nor 2.

Answer:(b)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect:
NewSpace India Limited (NSIL), incorporated on 6 March 2019 (under the Companies Act, 2013) is a
wholly owned Government of India company, under the administrative control of Department of Space
(DOS). NSIL is the commercial arm of Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) with the primary
responsibility of enabling Indian industries to take up high technology space related activities and is also
responsible for promotion and commercial exploitation of the products and services emanating from the
Indian space programme. To satisfy the needs of its customers, NSIL draws upon the proven heritage of
the Indian Space Program and ISRO’s vast experience in diverse branches of Space Technology.

● The major business areas of NSIL include:

● Production of Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) and Small Satellite Launch Vehicle (SSLV)
through industry;
● Production and marketing of space-based services, including launch services and space-based
applications like transponder leasing, remote sensing and mission support services;
● Building of Satellites (both Communication and Earth Observation) as per user requirements.
● Transfer of technology developed by ISRO centres/ units and constituent institutions of Dept. of
Space;
● Marketing spin off technologies and products/ services emanating out of ISRO activities
● Consultancy services

Statement 2 is correct:
Acting as a key integrator of space-related activities, NSIL fosters greater collaboration and development
within the industry, driving the growth of private entrepreneurship in space technologies.

30. Consider the following statements regarding Collision Avoidance Manoeuvres (CAMs).
1. In 2023, a total of 25 Collision Avoidance Manoeuvres (CAMs) were carried out to protect Indian
space assets, as per the Indian Space Situational Assessment Report (ISSAR) 2023.
2. These manoeuvres are critical for ensuring the safety of satellites from potential collisions with other
objects in space, such as debris or other satellites.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only.
b) 2 only.
c) Both 1 and 2.
d) Neither 1 nor 2.

Answer:(b)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect:
According to the Indian Space Situational Assessment Report (ISSAR) 2023, a total of 23 Collision
Avoidance Manoeuvres (CAMs) were performed in 2023 to safeguard India's space assets.
Statement 2 is correct:
These manoeuvres are essential for protecting satellites from potential collisions with space debris or
other satellites.
31. Consider the following statements.
1. Natural gas is a mixture of gases, the majority of which is Butane.
2. Natural gas is majorly obtained from Sedimentary rocks.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only.
b) 2 only.
c) Both 1 and 2.
d) Neither 1 nor 2.

Answer:(b)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect:
Natural gas, primarily consisting of methane (CH4), is formed over millions of years from the remains of
ancient plants and animals buried beneath layers of sediment and exposed to heat and pressure.

Statement 2 is correct:
Natural gas found in underground reservoirs in sedimentary rock formations, such as sandstone and shale,
is called conventional natural gas. It's formed when dead marine organisms are buried under the rock and
subjected to intense heat and pressure. The rocks have tiny spaces called pores that allow them to hold
water, natural gas, and/or oil.

32. Consider the following statements.

1. Ultrasound uses radioisotopes to create detailed images of the inside of the body.
2. PET (Positron Emission Tomography) uses high-frequency sound waves to create images of the inside
of the body.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only.
b) 2 only.
c) Both 1 and 2.
d) Neither 1 nor 2.

Answer:(d)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect:
Ultrasound: Utilizes high-frequency sound waves to create images of internal tissues and organs. The
sound waves produce echoes that generate images (sonograms) on a computer screen. Ultrasound can be
employed to assist in diagnosing conditions, including diseases like cancer.

Statement 2 is incorrect:
PET (Positron Emission Tomography) Scans : Utilize radioisotopes, which are injected into the body to
generate detailed internal images. These emissions are detected and used to diagnose various medical
conditions. It involves radioisotopes, such as Fluorine-18, which emit gamma rays as they decay,
enabling the creation of detailed internal images.

MRI (Magnetic Resonance Imaging) : Employs strong magnetic fields and radio waves to create detailed
images of internal organs and tissues. Unlike PET scans, MRI does not involve radioisotopes.
X-ray : Utilizes electromagnetic radiation to capture images of the body's internal structures, particularly
bones, without using radioisotopes.

33. Consider the following statements.

1. Natural gas forms from the decomposition of organic matter subjected to low pressure and high
temperature.
2. Hydraulic fracturing is a technique used to extract natural gas from shale formations.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only.
b) 2 only.
c) Both 1 and 2.
d) Neither 1 nor 2.

Answer:(b)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect:
Natural gas, also known as fossil gas or methane gas, is formed when organic matter is subjected to
intense heat and pressure underground over millions of years. This process is called thermal breakdown
and occurs in an oxygen-free environment.
The organic matter can come from layers of decomposing plants and animals, ancient coal deposits, or
shale formations. The organic matter is buried deeper under sediment, which increases the heat and
pressure and causes it to decompose into hydrocarbons. The lightest of these hydrocarbons are gaseous
and are known as natural gas. In its pure form, natural gas is colorless and odorless and is composed
primarily of methane, a highly flammable compound.

Statement 2 is correct:
Hydraulic fracturing – commonly known as fracking – is a technique used to enable the extraction of
natural gas or oil from shale and other forms of “tight” rock (in other words, impermeable rock
formations that lock in oil and gas and make fossil fuel production difficult). Large quantities of water,
chemicals, and sand are blasted into these formations at pressures high enough to crack the rock, allowing
the once-trapped gas and oil to flow to the surface.
It involves blasting fluid deep below the earth’s surface to crack sedimentary rock formations—this
includes shale, sandstone, limestone, and carbonite—to unlock natural gas and crude oil reserves.

34. Consider the following statements with respect to formation of Liquefied Natural Gas (LNG).
1. Liquefied Natural Gas (LNG) is natural gas converted into a liquid by cooling it to 260°F.
2. This process significantly reduces its volume, making it easier to transport and store.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only.
b) 2 only.
c) Both 1 and 2.
d) Neither 1 nor 2.

Answer:(b)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect:
Liquefied natural gas (LNG) is natural gas that has been cooled to a liquid state, at about -260°
Fahrenheit, for shipping and storage. The volume of natural gas in its liquid state is about 600 times
smaller than its volume in its gaseous state.

Statement 2 is correct:
Liquefying natural gas enables it to be transported over long distances to locations where pipelines are not
accessible, making it a practical solution for regions beyond the reach of pipeline infrastructure.Markets
that are too far away from producing regions to be connected directly to pipelines have access to natural
gas because of LNG. In its compact liquid form, natural gas can be shipped in special tankers to terminals
around the world. At these terminals, the LNG is returned to its gaseous state and transported by pipeline
to distribution companies, industrial consumers, and power plants.

35. Consider the following statements about India's Science, Technology, and Innovation Policies (STIP):
1. The STIP 2013 emphasized integrating innovation with India's socio-economic development sectors.
2. The STIP 2020 introduced a dynamic governance mechanism that includes a feedback system and
periodic policy evaluations.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only.
b) 2 only.
c) Both 1 and 2.
d) Neither 1 nor 2.

Answer:(c)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct:
STIP 2013 sought to integrate innovation directly into socio-economic development sectors, representing
a strategic shift in India's approach to science and technology policy.

Statement 2 is correct:
STIP 2020 introduced a dynamic governance model that includes continuous feedback and regular
evaluations to ensure the policy effectively adapts to emerging challenges and technologies.
36. Consider the following statements.
1. The Deep web is largely used to protect personal information, safeguard databases and access certain
services, whereas the Dark web is often used to engage in illegal activities.
2. The Dark Web is known for its high level of anonymity and is only accessible through standard web
browsers.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only.
b) 2 only.
c) Both 1 and 2.
d) Neither 1 nor 2.

Answer:(c)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct:
The deep web is primarily used to protect personal information, secure databases, and access specific
services, while the dark web is often associated with illegal activities. However, it is also utilized for
military and police investigations, political activism, and anonymous browsing on the internet.

Statement 2 is correct:
The Dark Web is characterized by its high level of anonymity and cannot be accessed using standard web
browsers. To reach this part of the internet, users need specialized software, configurations, or
permissions, often through browsers like Tor (The Onion Router). This segment of the internet is
deliberately concealed and features websites with unconventional top-level domains such as .onion. It is
associated with a mix of legal and illegal activities.
The dark web is a guarded subspace within the deep web, hosting encrypted websites that are accessible
only via specific browsers. This portion of the web is commonly associated with illegal activities - such
as arms and drug trafficking, scams, and espionage.

There are significant threats associated with illegal activities on the dark web, especially when it comes to
implicating users and exposing their information. Consequently, accessing the dark web raises safety
concerns and requires significant caution.

37. Consider the following statements with respect to Fuel cells.

1. Fuel cells convert chemical energy directly into electrical energy through an electrochemical reaction
undergoing combustion.
2. This direct conversion allows for higher efficiency compared to traditional combustion engines
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only.
b) 2 only.
c) Both 1 and 2.
d) Neither 1 nor 2.

Answer:(b)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect:
Fuel cells generate electrical energy by directly converting chemical energy through an electrochemical
reaction, bypassing combustion. Fuel cells continue to produce electricity as long as hydrogen fuel is
provided, making them an efficient and sustainable energy solution.

A fuel cell is a device that transforms chemical energy directly into electrical energy via an
electrochemical reaction. Unlike batteries, which require recharging, fuel cells generate electricity
continuously as long as fuel is supplied.

Statement 2 is correct:
This process results in higher efficiency compared to conventional combustion engines, which lose a
significant amount of energy as heat.

38. Consider the following statements about Geothermal energy.

1. The primary advantage for the wider adoption of geothermal energy is its dependency on specific
geological conditions that are available everywhere.
2. Geothermal energy production is most effective in regions with high geothermal activity, such as
volcanic areas or hot springs.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only.
b) 2 only.
c) Both 1 and 2.
d) Neither 1 nor 2.

Answer:(b)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect:
Geothermal energy originates from the heat stored within the Earth. This heat can be utilized for various
purposes, including bathing, heating buildings, and generating electricity. The sources of geothermal
energy include:
Deep Hot Water or Steam Reservoirs: These are accessed by drilling deep into the Earth's crust.
Geothermal Reservoirs Near the Surface:Located in regions such as the western U.S., Alaska, and
Hawaii, these reservoirs are closer to the surface.
Shallow Ground: The ground near the Earth's surface maintains a relatively constant temperature of 50-
60°F, which can be used for heating and cooling.

Hot water and steam from these reservoirs can drive generators to produce electricity for consumers.
Additionally, geothermal heat can be applied directly for various uses, including heating and cooling
homes, buildings, roads, and industrial plants.The main obstacle to the broader adoption of geothermal
energy is its reliance on specific geological conditions that are not universally available.

Statement 2 is correct:
Geothermal energy is most effectively produced in regions with high geothermal activity, such as
volcanic areas or hot springs. These geological requirements restrict the locations where geothermal
power plants can be developed economically and efficiently, unlike solar or wind energy, which can be
harnessed in a wider range of locations.

39. Assertion (A): CNG is a more cost-effective and environmentally friendly alternative to conventional
petrol and diesel fuels for vehicles.
Reason (R): CNG primarily consists of Butane gas, which generates engine power when mixed with air
and introduced into the combustion chamber.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.

Answer:(b)
Explanation:
Assertion (A):
Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) is widely regarded as a more cost-effective and environmentally friendly
alternative to petrol and diesel for vehicles. CNG is typically cheaper than gasoline and diesel, offering
improved fuel efficiency. Additionally, CNG-powered vehicles often have lower maintenance costs due
to longer-lasting engines.Vehicles running on CNG produce fewer harmful pollutants compared to those
using gasoline or diesel, including reduced emissions of carbon monoxide, nitrogen oxides, and
carcinogenic particles. CNG is also free from lead and sulfur, and it has a high auto-ignition temperature,
which minimizes the risk of auto-ignition on hot surfaces.

CNG vehicles experience less engine wear and tear, and CNG burns cleanly without leaving byproducts
that contaminate engine oil. However, CNG vehicles may come with a higher initial purchase price
compared to their gasoline and diesel counterparts, and while CNG emits fewer pollutants, it still releases
some methane.

Reason (R):
Although CNG is primarily composed of methane, which generates power when mixed with air, this does
not directly account for why CNG is cheaper and more environmentally friendly. The key factors are
CNG's lower emissions and cost relative to petrol and diesel.

40. Consider the following statements.

1. Lithium-ion batteries utilize lithium ions that migrate between the positive and negatiive electrodes
(cathode and anode), generating electrical energy.
2. Lithium-ion batteries are recognized for their low energy density, which is inferior to other types of
rechargeable batteries.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only.
b) 2 only.
c) Both 1 and 2.
d) Neither 1 nor 2.
Answer:(a)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct:
In these batteries, ions migrate between the positive and negative electrodes (cathode and anode) to
generate electrical energy, which is a core operational principle.
While lithium-ion batteries require an electrolyte to facilitate ion movement, this electrolyte can come in
various forms—liquid, gel, or solid—depending on the battery design, rather than being exclusively
liquid. A significant advantage of lithium-ion batteries is their rechargeability; they are designed to be
recharged multiple times, making them suitable for frequent use in a variety of electronic devices and
electric vehicles.

Statement 2 is incorrect:
Lithium-ion batteries are renowned for their high energy density, which surpasses that of many other
rechargeable batteries. This high energy density allows for extended device usage between charges,
contributing to their widespread adoption in applications with high energy demands.

41. Consider the following statements with respect to ‘POLYCRACK technology’.

1. It is notable for its ability to transform a wide range of waste materials—such as plastics, petroleum
sludge, municipal solid waste, etc into hydrocarbon liquid fuels, gas, carbon, and water.
2. The process used here is a closed loop system wherein very little hazardous pollutants into the
atmosphere.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only.
b) 2 only.
c) Both 1 and 2.
d) Neither 1 nor 2.

Answer:(a)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct:
Indian Railways has commissioned the country's first government Waste to Energy Plant, having capacity
of 500 Kg waste per day, in Mancheswar Carriage Repair Workshop at Bhubaneswar in East Coast
Railway.
This Waste to Energy Plant, a patented technology called POLYCRACK, is first-of-its-kind in Indian
Railways and fourth in India. It is the world's first patented heterogeneous catalytic process which
converts multiple feed stocks into hydrocarbon liquid fuels, gas, carbon and water. Polycrack Plant can be
fed with all types of Plastic, Petroleum sludge, Un-segregated MSW (Municipal Solid Waste) with
moisture up to 50%, E–Waste, Automobile fluff, Organic waste including bamboo, garden waste etc., and
Jatropha fruit and palm bunch. Waste generated from Mancheswar Carriage Repair Workshop, Coaching
Depot and Bhubaneswar Railway Station will be feeder material for this plant.
Statement 2 is incorrect:
The process is a closed loop system and does not emit any hazardous pollutants into the atmosphere. The
combustible, non-condensed gases are re-used for providing energy to the entire system and thus, the only
emission comes from the combustion of gaseous fuels. The emissions from the combustion are found to
be much less than prescribed environmental norms. This process will produce energy in the form of Light
Diesel Oil which is used to light furnaces.

42. Consider the following statements regarding Liquefied Petroleum Gas (LPG).
1. LPG is a mixture of light hydrocarbon compounds, mainly consisting of 48% butane, 50% propane,
and 2% pentane.
2. It can sometimes contain other hydrocarbons in small concentrations, but the main components are
propane and butane.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only.
b) 2 only.
c) Both 1 and 2.
d) Neither 1 nor 2.

Answer:(b)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect:
LPG is a blend of light hydrocarbon compounds, primarily made up of 48% propane, 50% butane, and
2% pentane.

Statement 2 is correct:
Liquefied Petroleum Gas (LPG) is primarily composed of propane and butane, making up the bulk of its
content. While it may also contain small amounts of other hydrocarbons, the dominant components are
propane and butane.

43. Consider the following statements.

1. The Kármán line is a boundary 100 miles above mean sea level that borders Earth’s atmosphere and the
beginning of space.
2. Any body traveling above the Kármán line needs a propulsion system that doesn’t rely on lift generated
by Earth’s atmosphere
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only.
b) 2 only.
c) Both 1 and 2.
d) Neither 1 nor 2.

Answer:(b)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect:
The Kármán Line, located 100 km (62 miles) above sea level, is an imaginary boundary that separates
Earth's atmosphere from outer space. Established in the 1960s by the Fédération Aéronautique
Internationale (FAI), it was named after aerospace pioneer Theodore von Kármán. Although not
universally accepted—agencies like the FAA, NASA, and the U.S. military place the boundary at 80 km
(50 miles)—most countries and space organizations recognize this line as the official threshold between
Earth's sky and space.

Statement 2 is correct:
The Kármán Line roughly represents the altitude where traditional aircraft can no longer rely on
atmospheric lift to fly due to the thinning air, requiring propulsion systems designed for space travel.
Crossing this boundary qualifies an individual as an astronaut.

44. Consider the following statements about ‘SMART’ system.

1. The Supersonic Missile-Assisted Release of Torpedo (SMART) system is an advanced missile-based
delivery system for lightweight torpedoes.
2. It has been designed and developed by Defence Research and Development Organization (DRDO)
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
a) 1 only.
b) 2 only.
c) Both 1 and 2.
d) Neither 1 nor 2.

Answer:(d)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct:
The Supersonic Missile-Assisted Release of Torpedo (SMART) system is a cutting-edge, missile-based
lightweight torpedo delivery system. It has been developed to greatly enhance the Indian Navy's anti-
submarine warfare capabilities, extending beyond the range of conventional lightweight torpedoes.

Statement 2 is correct:
The SMART system was designed and developed by the Defence Research and Development
Organization (DRDO), which focuses on advancing military technology.

45. Consider the following statements.

1. Inorganic nanoparticles are toxic, stable, and often used in biomedicine.
2. Carbon nanoparticles are low in toxicity, electrically conductive, and useful in sensing.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only.
b) 2 only.
c) Both 1 and 2.
d) Neither 1 nor 2.

Answer:(b)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect:
Inorganic nanoparticles (NPs) are known for being non-toxic, stable, and hydrophilic, making them
valuable in various biomedical applications:
-Drug Delivery: Inorganic NPs can facilitate the controlled delivery of drugs and genes to specific
locations over time. This targeted approach enhances drug effectiveness, minimizes side effects, and
extends the duration of gene expression.
-Imaging: These nanoparticles serve as contrast agents in CT imaging, though their long-term toxicity
remains uncertain.
-Cell Tracking: Fluorescent quantum dots (QDs) function as nanoprobes, enabling cell tracking both in
vitro and in vivo.
-Other Applications: Inorganic NPs are also utilized in dermopharmaceuticals and cosmetics, where they
are less likely to cause skin irritation, itching, or allergic reactions.

Statement 2 is correct:
Carbon nanoparticles are low in toxicity, electrically conductive.Moreover, their fascinating
electrochemical properties including high effective surface area, excellent electrical conductivity,
electrocatalytic activity as well as high porosity and adsorption capability, turn them to potential
candidate for electrochemical purposes particularly sensing.

46. With reference to the Solid Fuel Ducted Ramjet (SFDR) Propulsion Technology , Consider the
following statements.
1. It is a technology jointly developed by India and the USA
2. It helps to propel missiles at supersonic speeds.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only.
b) 2 only.
c) Both 1 and 2.
d) Neither 1 nor 2.

Answer:(b)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect:
A ramjet is an air-breathing jet engine that relies on the forward motion of the vehicle to compress
incoming air for combustion, eliminating the need for a rotating compressor. Fuel is introduced into the
combustion chamber, where it mixes with the compressed hot air and ignites.A ramjet-powered vehicle
typically requires an assisted take-off, such as a rocket assist, to accelerate to a speed where the engine
can generate thrust effectively.

This technology will significantly enhance the performance and strike range of both India's surface-to-air
and air-to-air missiles, making them more lethal.It will enable India to possess some of the fastest long-
range missiles in these categories, offering comprehensive and multi-layered aerial defense against hostile
threats.
Successfully integrating SFDR technology into missiles will position India among a select group of
nations with next-generation missile capabilities, particularly effective against maneuvering targets,
reducing the effectiveness of conventional missiles.

Statement 2 is correct:
The Solid Fuel Ducted Ramjet (SFDR) is an advanced missile propulsion technology co-developed by
India and Russia.

47. Consider the following statements regarding 'INSAT-3DR':

1. The Indian Meteorological Department (IMD) utilizes data from the INSAT-3DR satellite for weather
forecasting and monitoring.
2. INSAT-3DR is an advanced meteorological satellite equipped with an imaging system and an
Atmospheric Sounder.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only.
b) 2 only.
c) Both 1 and 2.
d) Neither 1 nor 2.

Answer:(c)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct:
The INSAT-3DR satellite is a multipurpose geosynchronous spacecraft built by the Indian Space
Research Organisation and operated by the Indian National Satellite System. It was launched on
September 8, 2016, as a follow-up to INSAT-3D. The satellite's main objectives are to provide an
operational, environmental, and storm warning system to protect life and property.
It also provides search and rescue information and message relay for terrestrial data collection
platforms.The Indian Meteorological Department (IMD) uses data from the INSAT-3DR satellite for
weather forecasting and monitoring.

Statement 2 is correct:
India's INSAT-3DR (Indian National Satellite-3D Repeat) is an advanced meteorological satellite that
uses an imaging system and an atmospheric sounder. The satellite's atmospheric sounder measures how
the physical properties of a column of air change with altitude. It uses 19 sounder channels to provide
data products such as: Temperature and humidity profiles, Geo-potential height, and Layer precipitable
water.

The satellite's sounder and imager provide data that is used in numerical weather forecast models in real
time. For example, the sounder's temperature and humidity profiles are used to derive atmospheric
stability indices and other parameters, such as atmospheric water vapor content and total column ozone
amount.

48. Consider the following statements :

1. The Oeko-Tex term refers to the certification of textiles.
2. Muga silk recently obtained Oeko-Tex certification from Assam.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only.
b) 2 only.
c) Both 1 and 2.
d) Neither 1 nor 2.

Answer:(a)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct:
The Oeko-Tex term refers to the certification of textiles and leather articles. Oeko-Tex is a registered
trademark of the International Association for Research and Testing in the Field of Textile and Leather
Ecology. Oeko-Tex certifications and labels are globally recognized safety standards that help consumers
make more sustainable and responsible purchasing decisions.
Oeko-Tex certifications test products at every stage of production, from raw materials to finished
products, for harmful substances, colorants, heavy metals, and other potentially harmful substances. The
certifications also consider social and environmental aspects of production, such as fair working
conditions, safety and protection for workers, and efficient use of resources.

Statement 2 is incorrect:
The North Eastern Handicrafts and Handlooms Development Corporation (NEHHDC) under the Ministry
of Development of North Eastern Region (DoNER), Govt. of India, has successfully obtained the
prestigious Oeko-Tex certification for its Eri Silk, directly from Germany on the Nation's 78 th
Independence Day.

49. The Rapid Innovation and Start-up Expansion (RISE) initiative, frequently mentioned in the news,
focuses on accelerating startups and MSMEs in climate-smart agritech between India and which of the
following countries?
a) Singapore
b) Australia
c) The United States of America
d) Germany

Answer:(b)
Explanation:
The Atal Innovation Mission, in collaboration with CSIRO, Australia, is inviting applications from start-
ups and MSMEs in India and Australia for the Climate Smart Agritech cohort of the India-Australia
Rapid Innovation and Start-up Expansion (RISE) Accelerator. This program is designed to support
businesses aiming for international expansion between the two countries, marking a significant step
toward fostering innovations that address shared agricultural challenges.

Starting in October 2024, the Climate Smart Agritech cohort will focus on start-ups and MSMEs with
technologies that enhance agricultural productivity and resilience amidst increasing climate variability,
resource scarcity, and food insecurity. The program seeks solutions that prioritize farmers' needs, on-farm
practices, and agricultural priorities.

Launched in 2023, the RISE Accelerator program has played a crucial role in helping start-ups and
MSMEs validate, adapt, and pilot their technologies in new markets. With the introduction of the Climate
Smart Agritech cohort, the focus has shifted to agritech innovations that improve productivity and
resilience in the face of environmental challenges. Selected participants will benefit from a combination
of self-paced online learning and in-person sessions, including immersion weeks in both India and
Australia. These sessions will provide deep market insights, personalized coaching, and mentorship from
industry experts.

The program will facilitate connections with potential partners and customers, boosting success in new
markets. Additionally, field trials and technology pilots will take place later in the program to address
critical agricultural challenges, including increasing productivity, reducing emissions, and optimizing
natural resource use.

50. Consider the following statements regarding Permafrost:

1. Permafrost refers to ground that remains frozen at or below 0°C for a minimum of five consecutive
years.
2. It is commonly found in regions with high mountain areas, including both the Arctic and Antarctic
regions.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only.
b) 2 only.
c) Both 1 and 2.
d) Neither 1 nor 2.

Answer:(b)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect:
Permafrost is defined as soil, sediment, or rock that remains frozen at or below 0°C (32°F) for a minimum
of two consecutive years.

Statement 2 is correct:
It can be found both on land and beneath continental shelves in the Arctic. Permafrost is most common
in regions with high mountains and in the higher latitudes of the Earth, near the North and South Poles.
It covers around 15% of the Northern Hemisphere and 11% of the global surface, with large areas in
Alaska, Canada, Greenland, and Siberia. It's also found in high mountain regions, such as the Tibetan
Plateau, the Andes of Patagonia, the Southern Alps of New Zealand, and the highest mountains of
Antarctica.

51. Consider the following statements with reference to Global Greenhouse Gas Watch (G3W):
1. It has been approved by World Meteorological Organisation (WMO).
2. It fills key information gaps by integrating space-based and surface-based observation systems with
modeling and data assimilation for greenhouse gas monitoring.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only.
b) 2 only.
c) Both 1 and 2.
d) Neither 1 nor 2.

Answer:(b)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect:
The World Meteorological Congress has approved a new global greenhouse gas monitoring initiative that
aims to support WMO Members in mitigation actions undertaken to implement the Paris Agreement.

Statement 2 is correct:
The WMO Global Greenhouse Gas Watch (G3W) fills critical information gaps and provides an
integrated, operational framework that brings under one roof all space-based and surface-based observing
systems, as well as modelling and data assimilation capabilities in relation to greenhouse gas monitoring.
It aims at addressing the urgent need for information that helps to understand the impact of mitigation
actions taken by the Parties to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)
and the Paris Agreement on the state of climate. Such information will be produced in a timely manner
and will take into consideration both human and natural influences on the levels of greenhouse gases in
the atmosphere.
G3W builds on WMO’s experience in coordinating international collaboration in weather prediction and
climate analysis and on long-standing activities in greenhouse gas monitoring and research under the
authority of the Global Atmosphere Watch established in 1989 and its Integrated Global Greenhouse Gas
Information System.

52. Which one of the following ministries launches "ASEAN-India Fellowship" for higher education in
agriculture and allied sciences?
a) Ministry of External Affairs
b) Ministry of Education
c) Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
d) Ministry of Science and Technology

Answer:(c)
Explanation:
The Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, launched the ASEAN-India Fellowship for Higher
Education in Agriculture and Allied Sciences in PUSA, New Delhi. The fellowship aims to strengthen
agricultural ties with Southeast Asian nations by supporting postgraduate studies in emerging fields of
agriculture and allied sciences. The fellowship will cover admission fees, living expenses, and other
incidentals for 50 students from ASEAN countries over the next five years, starting in 2024-25.
The fellowship will also include introductory visits to ASEAN member countries for Indian faculty
members. The visits will help assess the needs of ASEAN students and build institutional ties between the
two regions. The minister hopes that the fellowship will help researchers and students from both regions
find solutions that can be applied in both India and ASEAN member countries.

53. Consider the following statements about the PM Surya Ghar Yojana:
1. It aims to supply free electricity to households, with a subsidy covering up to 30% of the cost of solar
panels.
2. The scheme provides subsidies for households to install solar panels on their rooftops.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only.
b) 2 only.
c) Both 1 and 2.
d) Neither 1 nor 2.

Answer:(b)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect:
PM Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana, or Rooftop Solar Yojana, aims to provide free electricity to
households in India by installing rooftop solar panels. The scheme offers subsidies ranging from Rs
30,000 to Rs 78,000, depending on the capacity of the solar plant.
The subsidy structure is as follows:

● Up to 2 kW: 60% subsidy

● 2–3 kW: 40% subsidy

The scheme is expected to benefit 1 crore households by 2026-27. The scheme's objectives include:
Reducing electricity costs:The scheme aims to reduce households' electricity costs by providing 300 units
of free electricity every month.
Promoting sustainable energy:The scheme aims to decrease dependency on traditional energy sources and
promote sustainable energy practices.
Saving the government money:The scheme is estimated to save the government Rs. 75,000 crore per year
in electricity costs.

Statement 2 is correct:
PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana, or Rooftop Solar Scheme, provides subsidies for households to install
solar panels on their rooftops. The scheme was launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on February
15, 2024, with the goal of providing free electricity to households in India.

54. With reference to the sports, the "Wearable technology" consider the following statements:
1. It is a category of electronic devices that can be worn as accessories, embedded in clothing, implanted
in the user's body, or even tattooed on the skin.
2. The next-generation ultra-thin e-skin patch, worn on the chest with a small wireless transmitter, can
monitor heartbeats and muscle movements for up to a week is an example of wearable technology.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only.
b) 2 only.
c) Both 1 and 2.
d) Neither 1 nor 2.

Answer:(c)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct:
Wearable technology refers to devices designed to be worn on the body. Common examples include
smartwatches and smart glasses. These devices are often placed close to or on the skin, where they can
detect, analyze, and transmit data such as vital signs or environmental information, sometimes providing
real-time biofeedback to the user.

Wearable devices like activity trackers are part of the Internet of Things (IoT), as they use electronics,
software, sensors, and connectivity to exchange data with other devices or systems through the internet,
often without human involvement. While wearable tech offers numerous applications, from
communication and entertainment to health and fitness improvement, there are concerns about privacy
and security due to the personal data these devices can collect.

The potential uses of wearable technology are expanding as the market and technology evolve. Popular
consumer electronics include smartwatches, smart rings, and implants. Beyond consumer applications,
wearables are being integrated into navigation systems, advanced textiles (e-textiles), and healthcare.
Given their proposed use in critical applications, wearable technology is also scrutinized for its reliability
and security.

Statement 2 is correct:
This next-generation ultra-thin e-skin patch, applied to the chest with a small wireless transmitter using a
water spray, can be worn for up to a week. It accurately detects and records electro signals like heartbeats
and muscle movements, transmitting the data to healthcare providers via the cloud for remote monitoring.
This innovative wearable is a significant advancement in monitoring chronic conditions such as heart
failure and diabetes.

54. Which one of the diseases the WHO recently declared as a global public health emergency?
a) Chickengunya
b) Dengue
c) Filaria
d) Monkeypox
Answer:(d)
Explanation:
Mpox was declared a Public Health Emergency of International Concern (PHEIC) on Aug 14 by WHO
Director-General Tedros Adhanom Ghebreyesus and a Public Health Emergency of Continental Security
(PHECS) on Aug 13 by Africa CDC Director-General Jean Kaseya. Ghebreyesus cited the substantial rise
in mpox cases, which has the potential to spread across and beyond Africa, as the primary reason for the
declaration, combined with the emergence and rapid spread of clade 1b of mpox. Clade 1b of mpox is of
particular concern due to its higher transmissibility and potential for more severe clinical outcomes.

Mpox, caused by an Orthopoxvirus, was first detected in humans in 1970 in the DRC and is endemic to
central and west Africa. In July 2022, the rapid spread of mpox via sexual contact in non-endemic
countries led to its classification as a Public Health Emergency of International Concern (PHEIC), which
was lifted in May 2023 after a global decline in cases.

However, mpox remains prevalent in the DRC, where cases have increased steadily over the past decade.
In 2023, the emergence of a new strain, clade 1b, which is spreading through sexual networks, raised
concerns, especially as it spread to neighboring countries like Burundi, Kenya, Rwanda, and Uganda,
which had not previously reported mpox. The true number of cases is believed to be higher than reported
due to untested cases. Different clades of mpox have emerged with varied transmission modes and risks.

55. Consider the following statements.

1. 5G NR (New Radio) represents a major advancement in mobile network technology by
offering ultra-fast data speeds of up to 20 Gbps, extremely high latency and massive device connectivity.
2. 5G unlocked access to millimeter wave (mmWave) frequencies, which offers approximately 25x more
bandwidth than 4G to meet ever-growing user demand.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only.
b) 2 only.
c) Both 1 and 2.
d) Neither 1 nor 2.

Answer:(b)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect:
5G New Radio (NR) marks a significant leap in mobile network technology, delivering ultra-fast data
speeds up to 20 Gbps, incredibly low latency, and the ability to connect a vast number of devices
simultaneously. These features enable innovations like network slicing, which allows operators to offer
networks as a service and support diverse applications, ensuring more efficient and flexible utilization of
network resources.

Statement 2 is correct:
Until 5G, cellular networks operated solely in frequency bands below 6 GHz. However, 5G has
introduced access to millimeter wave (mmWave) frequencies, providing roughly 25 times more
bandwidth compared to 4G to accommodate the growing user demand. With mobile data traffic on
smartphones having increased nearly sixfold between 2016 and 2021, as reported by the Ericsson
Mobility Visualizer, and expected to continue rising in the future, the demand for additional spectrum is
intensifying. This highlights the importance of efficient utilization across all spectrum bands.
56. Consider the following statements.
1. The goal of establishing 100 5G labs across India was announced at the India Mobile Congress 2022.
2. These 100 5G labs are intended to upskill participants and foster innovation, significantly enhancing
India's technological landscape in line with the national vision of self-reliance.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only.
b) 2 only.
c) Both 1 and 2.
d) Neither 1 nor 2.

Answer:(b)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect:
The primary objective of establishing 100 5G labs across India, as announced at the India Mobile
Congress 2023, is to provide testing and innovation hubs for local innovators, students, and startups. This
initiative aims to drive the development of a new range of applications across various sectors, specifically
tailored to address the unique needs of the country.

Statement 2 is correct:
The Department of Telecommunications (DoT) has awarded '100 5G Use Case Labs' to educational
institutions across the country. The primary objective behind this initiative is to cultivate competencies
and engagement in 5G technologies among students and start-up communities.

57. Consider the following statements with reference to India TB Report 2024.
1. The National TB elimination programme ( NTEP ) aims to eliminate tuberculosis in India by 2027.
2. The report shows that India reached its 2023 target of initiating treatment in 95% of patients diagnosed
with the infection.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only.
b) 2 only.
c) Both 1 and 2.
d) Neither 1 nor 2.

Answer:(b)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect:
The National Tuberculosis Elimination Program (NTEP) aims to eliminate tuberculosis (TB) in India by
2025. The program's goals are to reduce TB mortality by 90% and TB incidence by 80%. NTEP is a key
part of the National Health Mission (NHM) and provides leadership for anti-TB activities in India. The
program's strategies include: Prevent, Detect, Treat, and Build pillars for universal coverage and social
protection.
Statement 2 is correct:
According to the 2024 India Tuberculosis (TB) Report, India achieved its 2023 goal of starting treatment
for 95% of patients diagnosed with tuberculosis (TB). The report also states that 58% of those diagnosed
were given a test to check if their infection was resistant to first-line drugs, which is an increase from
25% in 2015. The program recommends drug susceptibility treatment so that people with drug-resistant
TB can access e-therapies right away instead of starting with first-line therapy.
Here are some other achievements from the 2023 TB report:
-A 16% decrease in the incidence of TB compared to 2015
-An 18% decrease in mortality compared to 2015
-More than 80% of national TB notifications are contributed to by units that provide technical assistance
in 14 states
-Patient-Provider Support Agencies (PPSAs) have been approved in about 385 districts to promote private
sector engagement

56. Consider the following statements.

1. Tissue culture,also called micropropagation. is the growth of tissues or cells in an artificial medium
separate from the parent organism.
2. A Financial Assistance Scheme (FAS) is run by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate
Change (MoEF&CC) to help laboratories upgrade themselves so as to produce export quality tissue
culture planting material.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only.
b) 2 only.
c) Both 1 and 2.
d) Neither 1 nor 2.

Answer:(a)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct:
Tissue culture, also known as micropropagation, involves growing plant tissues or cells in an artificial
medium, separate from the parent plant. This process is typically carried out using liquid, semi-solid, or
solid growth media like broth or agar.

Applications of Plant Tissue Culture:

- Studying plant respiration and metabolism.
- Evaluating organ functions in plants.
- Investigating plant diseases and developing elimination methods.
- Using single-cell clones for genetic, morphological, and pathological research.
- Employing embryonic cell suspensions for large-scale clonal propagation.
- Storing somatic embryos from cell suspensions in germplasm banks for long-term conservation.
- Producing variant clones with new traits through somaclonal variation.
- Generating haploids (plants with a single set of chromosomes) for crop improvement.
- Selecting mutant cells from cultures for use in crop enhancement.
- Culturing immature embryos in vitro to produce hybrids through embryo rescue.

Statement 2 is incorrect:
APEDA operates a Financial Assistance Scheme (FAS) to support laboratories in upgrading their
facilities to produce tissue culture planting material of export quality.The Agricultural and Processed
Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA) is a statutory body under the Ministry of
Commerce and Industry of the Government of India. APEDA is responsible for developing and
promoting the export of agricultural and processed food products from India, including fruits, vegetables,
meat, poultry, dairy, confectionery, and more.

57. Consider the following statements.

1. Dark energy acts as an attractive force, a kind of cosmic mortar that holds our world together.
2. Dark matter is a repulsive force, a kind of anti-gravity that slows down the expansion of the universe.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only.
b) 2 only.
c) Both 1 and 2.
d) Neither 1 nor 2.

Answer:(d)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect:
Dark Energy is a theorized type of energy that exerts a negative, repulsive force, acting in the opposite
direction of gravity.It has been proposed to explain the observed features of distant types of supernovae,
which reveal the universe expanding at an accelerated rate.Dark energy is the far more dominant force of
the two, accounting for roughly 68 percent of the universe’s total mass and energy. Dark matter makes up
27 percent. And the rest — a measly 5 percent — is all the regular matter we see and interact with every
day.

Statement 2 is incorrect:
Dark matter is made up of particles that do not have a charge.So, these particles are “dark”, namely
because they do not emit light, which is an electromagnetic phenomenon, and “matter” because they
possess mass like normal matter and interact through gravity.
Dark matter works like an attractive force — a kind of cosmic cement that holds our universe together.
This is because dark matter does interact with gravity, but it doesn’t reflect, absorb, or emit light.
Meanwhile, dark energy is a repulsive force — a sort of anti-gravity — that drives the universe’s ever-
accelerating expansion.

58. Consider the following statements about wireless communication technologies:

1. Near Field Communication (NFC) utilizes infrared frequencies for short-range communication between
devices.
2. NFC technology is designed for an operation between devices within a few metres from each other.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only.
b) 2 only.
c) Both 1 and 2.
d) Neither 1 nor 2.

Answer:(d)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect:
NFC uses electromagnetic radio fields to enable short-range communication between devices when in
close proximity, making it ideal for tasks like contactless payments. NFC is a wireless technology that
allows NFC-enabled devices to quickly and easily exchange information with just a touch, whether it's for
paying bills, sharing business cards, downloading coupons, or transferring documents.

Statement 2 is incorrect:
NFC technology is designed to operate within just a few centimeters between devices, making it harder
for attackers to intercept communications compared to other wireless technologies with a longer range.
The user determines the NFC connection by physically touching the device, further limiting unauthorized
access. NFC communication also offers a higher default security level than other wireless protocols.
Additionally, since data is instantly read by the receiving device, NFC minimizes the risk of human error.

59. Consider the following statements.

1. Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC) has unveiled India's first green hydrogen-powered bus,
which emits only water.
2. Hydrogen when burnt emits only water vapour as a by-product with three times the energy density and
the absence of harmful emissions.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only.
b) 2 only.
c) Both 1 and 2.
d) Neither 1 nor 2.

Answer:(b)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect:
India's top oil firm Indian Oil Corporation unveiled the nation's first green hydrogen-powered bus that
emits just water as it takes the lead in bringing out unrivaled tools to replace fossil fuels. Indian Oil
Corporation (IOC) will produce close to 75 kg of hydrogen by splitting water using electricity from
renewable sources. This hydrogen will be used to power two buses which will ply across the national
capital region

Statement 2 is correct:
Hydrogen is considered the fuel of the future, with significant potential to aid India in achieving its
decarbonization goals.When burned, hydrogen produces only water vapor as a by-product. With three
times the energy density and no harmful emissions, hydrogen stands out as a cleaner, more efficient
energy solution. Producing one kilogram of green hydrogen requires 50 units of renewable electricity and
9 kg of deionized water. Additionally, hydrogen can serve as a fuel for fuel cells.

Global demand for hydrogen is projected to increase four to seven times, reaching 500-800 million tonnes
by 2050. In India, domestic demand is expected to rise from the current 6 million tonnes to 25-28 million
tonnes by 2050.India's oil and gas public sector undertakings (PSUs) aim to produce around 1 million
tonnes of green hydrogen annually by 2030. If successful, this initiative could transform India from a net
importer of fossil fuels into a net exporter of clean hydrogen energy, positioning the country as a global
leader in technology transfer and a major producer of green hydrogen and manufacturing components.

60. Consider the following statements regarding ‘Fixed Dose Combinations (FDCs)’
1. These drugs refer to pharmaceutical formulations that contain two or more active ingredients in fixed
proportions in a single dosage form.
2. Antimicrobial resistance may not pose the same challenge with these drugs as it does with conventional
drugs.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only.
b) 2 only.
c) Both 1 and 2.
d) Neither 1 nor 2.

Answer:(a)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct:
Fixed Dose Combinations (FDCs) are pharmaceutical formulations that incorporate two or more active
ingredients in specific, fixed ratios within a single dosage form.These combinations may involve drugs
from the same therapeutic class or from different classes.
FDCs can be beneficial for treating certain diseases by enhancing patient adherence to medication.

Statement 2 is incorrect:
Misuse of Fixed Dose Combinations (FDCs) can contribute to the emergence of antibiotic-resistant
bacteria. This occurs because the fixed dosage ratios may not be suitable for every patient, potentially
leading to the overuse of one or both antibiotics.

61. The term ‘mass gap’ seen in the news with respect to a Black Hole is?
a) a notional boundary around a black hole beyond which no light or other radiation can escape.
b) a region where no objects have been definitively identified.
c) a point at the center of a black hole where all of its mass is trapped and crushed to infinite density.
d) a region located outside a rotating black hole's outer event horizon.
Answer:(b)
Explanation:
The maximum mass of neutron stars is estimated to be around 2.2 times that of the Sun, while black holes
are even more massive, with the smallest black holes believed to be around 5 solar masses. The "mass
gap" refers to the range between these two mass limits, where no objects have been definitively observed.
This gap raises the intriguing possibility of the existence of an undiscovered astrophysical object at the
boundary between neutron stars and black holes.

62. With reference to Polymer electrolyte membrane (PEM) cells,consider the following statements.
1. PEM is a solid polymer electrolyte typically made of a perfluoro sulfonic acid material, such as Nafion.
2. This membrane allows the transport of electrons through the membrane while blocking the passage of
protons (H+).
3. The platinum catalyst used in PEM cells is highly resistive to carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning as
compared to other fuel cells.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 1 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct:
The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has successfully tested a 100 W Polymer Electrolyte
Membrane Fuel Cell Power System (FCPS) on the orbital platform POEM3, which was launched aboard
PSLV-C58. Also referred to as Proton Exchange Membrane (PEM) fuel cells, these systems utilize a solid
polymer electrolyte, typically made from perfluoro sulfonic acid material, such as Nafion, to conduct
protons and facilitate energy conversion.

Statement 2 is incorrect:
This membrane permits the movement of protons (H+) through it while preventing the passage of
electrons. It is essential for separating the reactions occurring at the anode and cathode.

Statement 3 is incorrect:
Characteristics of PEM Fuel Cells:

- Operating Temperature: PEM fuel cells function at relatively low temperatures (60-80°C), which allows
for quick start-up and minimal warm-up time.
- Catalyst Requirement: These fuel cells use a noble-metal catalyst, usually platinum, to separate
electrons and protons from hydrogen, leading to high costs.
- Carbon Monoxide Sensitivity: The platinum catalyst is highly sensitive to carbon monoxide (CO)
poisoning. Hydrogen derived from hydrocarbons may contain trace amounts of CO, which can degrade
the catalyst’s performance and reduce fuel cell efficiency over time.
- Carbon Monoxide Reduction Reactor: To mitigate CO poisoning, an additional reactor is often used to
lower CO levels in the fuel gas before it reaches the fuel cell, adding both complexity and cost to the
system.
- Water Management: Effective water management is crucial to maintain the PEM's hydration. Water
produced during electrochemical reactions must be removed to prevent flooding of the membrane.

63. Consider the following statements.

1. Aflatoxins are a group of poisonous carcinogens and mutagens produced by certain bacteria,
particularly species of Aspergillus.
2. Aflatoxins can grow on crops such as peanuts, corn, cottonseed, and tree nuts, particularly in warm and
humid conditions.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only.
b) 2 only.
c) Both 1 and 2.
d) Neither 1 nor 2.

Answer:(b)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect:
Aflatoxins are toxic, carcinogenic, and mutagenic compounds produced by certain molds(fungi),
particularly Aspergillus species, that thrive on various food crops and agricultural products.

Statement 2 is correct:
These fungi commonly affect crops such as peanuts, corn, cottonseed, and tree nuts, especially in warm
and humid environments.Consumption of aflatoxin-contaminated food or feed can have serious health
consequences for both humans and animals, including acute toxicity, chronic health issues, liver cancer,
immune system suppression, and growth impairments.

To address aflatoxin contamination, several preventive measures are employed, including implementing
good agricultural practices (GAPs) to reduce fungal growth during crop production, ensuring proper
storage conditions to inhibit fungal development and toxin production, and conducting regular monitoring
and testing of food and feed for aflatoxin levels.

64. Consider the following statements regarding mission PREFIRE (Polar Radiant Energy in the Far-
InfraRed Experiment).
1. Each of the PREFIRE satellites (6U CubeSat) is equipped with a thermal infrared spectrometer (TIRS)
to measure the amount of infrared and far-infrared radiation from the earth’s poles.
2. This mission is a joint collaboration between NASA and The European Space Agency.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only.
b) 2 only.
c) Both 1 and 2.
d) Neither 1 nor 2.

Answer:(a)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct:
Two shoebox-sized satellites, known as CubeSats, have been launched to measure far-infrared radiation
from Earth's polar regions. The PREFIRE mission features two 6U CubeSats, each approximately 90 cm
tall and nearly 120 cm wide when their solar panels are deployed. The satellites will orbit the Earth in a
near-polar orbit, approximately 525 kilometers above the surface.

Each PREFIRE CubeSat is equipped with a thermal infrared spectrometer (TIRS) designed to measure
the levels of infrared and far-infrared radiation emitted from the Arctic and Antarctic regions.

Statement 2 is incorrect:
This mission, named PREFIRE (Polar Radiant Energy in the Far-InfraRed Experiment), was a
collaborative effort between NASA and the University of Wisconsin-Madison.

Need and Significance of the Mission

• Earth's energy budget is determined by the balance between incoming solar heat and outgoing heat
radiated into space. This balance affects the planet’s temperature and climate.
• A significant portion of the heat radiated from the Arctic and Antarctic is emitted as far-infrared
radiation (wavelengths from 3 μm to 1,000 μm in the infrared spectrum). Currently, there is no method to
measure this type of radiation, creating a gap in understanding Earth's energy budget.
• The PREFIRE mission aims to fill this gap by measuring the amount of heat radiated from the Arctic
and Antarctic and its impact on the planet’s climate, thereby enhancing our understanding of Earth's
energy budget.
• The CubeSats will also assess how far-infrared radiation is absorbed by atmospheric water vapor and
clouds at the poles, providing insights into the greenhouse effect in these regions.

65. Consider the following statements regarding various types of Genetically modified crops.
1. Subgenic Crops are a type of GM crop where the introduced genes come from the same species or a
closely related one.
2. Cisgenic Crops involve modifying or editing the genes within the same species without introducing
foreign DNA.
3. Transgenic Crops are a type of GM crop where genes from a different species are introduced into the
plant.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) One only
b) Two only
c) All three are correct
d) None are correct

Answer:(b)
Explanation:
Genetically modified (GM) crops are plants that have undergone genetic engineering to alter their DNA.
They can be categorized into three main types:

Statement 1 is incorrect:
Subgenic (Intragenic) Crops: These involve modifying or editing the plant's own genes without adding
foreign DNA. Techniques like CRISPR-Cas9 are used to make precise changes to the plant's genetic
code, such as improving yield or enhancing stress tolerance.

Statement 2 is incorrect:
Cisgenic Crops : These crops have genes introduced from the same species or a closely related species.
An example is the blight-resistant potato, which has been modified using resistance genes from wild
relatives of the cultivated potato.

Statement 3 is correct:
Transgenic Crops: These crops have genes inserted from a different species. For example, BT Cotton
contains genes from the bacterium ‘Bacillus thuringiensis’, which provides pest resistance.

66. ‘Biotaxis’ sometimes seen in the news refers to:

a) the movement of an animal in response to a sound
b) a demarcation line between healthy and diseased tissue.
c) a method that utilises the body's natural transport system to deliver therapeutic agents to specific
locations
d) a line separating the warmer mixed water at the surface and the cooler deep water below

Answer:(c)
Explanation:
Researchers at the Indian Institute of Science have pioneered a novel approach for delivering cancer
vaccines by harnessing the body's natural transport mechanisms. This technique, known as Bio-Taxis for
Cancer Treatment, involves:

Bio-Taxis (Targeted Drug Delivery): This method utilizes the body's intrinsic transport system to direct
therapeutic agents, such as vaccine antigens, to specific sites like lymph nodes.The approach often
employs antibodies or nanoparticles that target specific molecules on cancer cells. These agents can hitch
a ride on proteins in the bloodstream, such as serum albumin, guiding them to the tumor. Once at the
target site, the therapeutic agents are released to combat the cancer cells.

The goal is to improve treatment efficacy while minimizing side effects associated with traditional
chemotherapy, thereby reducing damage to healthy cells.
67. Consider the following statements about Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI).
1. Unlike X-rays, which use radiation, MRI scans leverage powerful magnets and radio waves to create
detailed images of soft tissues within the body.
2. An MRI procedure reveals an image of a body part using the oxygen atoms in that part.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only.
b) 2 only.
c) Both 1 and 2.
d) Neither 1 nor 2.

Answer:(a)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct:
MRI is a non-invasive diagnostic technique used to capture detailed images of soft tissues inside the
body. Soft tissues are those that have not undergone calcification, which is when calcium salts accumulate
and cause the tissue to harden.MRI is commonly employed to visualize various body parts, including the
brain, cardiovascular system, spinal cord, joints, muscles, liver, and arteries. Unlike X-rays, which rely on
radiation, MRI uses strong magnets and radio waves to generate detailed images of soft tissues.

The MRI machine resembles a large doughnut with a central hole through which the patient is positioned.
Inside this doughnut is a powerful superconducting magnet, responsible for generating a strong and stable
magnetic field around the body.

Statement 2 is incorrect:
An MRI procedure generates images of body parts by utilizing hydrogen atoms present in fat and water
throughout the body.Each hydrogen atom consists of a single proton and a single electron. These atoms
have a significant magnetic moment and spin with their axes oriented in random directions.
When exposed to the MRI machine’s magnetic field, most hydrogen atoms align with the direction of the
field. Out of millions of atoms, only a small fraction remains unaligned or oriented differently.
The MRI machine then emits a radiofrequency pulse, which causes the initially unaligned atoms to align
with the direction of the pulse, exciting them. When the pulse is turned off, these atoms emit the absorbed
energy as they return to their original lower energy states.A detector captures these emissions and
converts them into signals. These signals are processed by a computer to create two- or three-dimensional
images of the scanned body part.

68. Consider the following statements.

1. Pink Hydrogen : Fuel source that's produced by breaking down methane, into hydrogen and solid
carbon through a process called methane pyrolysis.
2. Turquoise hydrogen : Fuel produced through electrolysis of water but using energy from nuclear power
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only.
b) 2 only.
c) Both 1 and 2.
d) Neither 1 nor 2.

Answer:(d)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect:
Pink hydrogen is generated through electrolysis powered by nuclear energy. Nuclear-produced hydrogen
can also be referred to as purple hydrogen or red hydrogen.In addition, the very high temperatures from
nuclear reactors could be used in other hydrogen productions by producing steam for more efficient
electrolysis or fossil gas-based steam methane reforming.

Statement 2 is incorrect:
Turquoise hydrogen is a fuel source that's produced by breaking down methane, the main component of
natural gas, into hydrogen and solid carbon through a process called methane pyrolysis. This process
doesn't release carbon dioxide and uses seven times less energy than electrolysis. Turquoise hydrogen is
considered a cleaner alternative to blue hydrogen and a promising way to transition to a 100% renewable
energy-powered world. It's especially important for industries that are difficult to decarbonize.

69. Consider the following statements about ‘RudraM-II’

1. RudraM-II is a solid-propelled surface-to-surface anti radiation supersonic missile.
2. The internal guidance system of the missile allows it to direct itself toward the target after the launch.
3. RudraM-II is the latest version of Mark-2 which was tested four years ago.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 3 only
c) 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) has successfully flight-tested the
indigenously developed RudraM-II air-to-surface missile from a Su-30 MKI fighter jet off the coast of
Odisha. This achievement reinforces its role as a powerful asset for the Indian armed forces.
Statement 1 is incorrect:
RudraM-II is a supersonic air-to-surface anti-radiation missile developed by DRDO, powered by solid
propellant.
Key Features:
- Speed: Capable of reaching a peak speed of Mach 5.5 (5.5 times the speed of sound).
- Payload Capacity: Can carry up to 200 kg of explosives.
- Launch Parameters: Can be launched from an altitude of 3 to 15 km with a range of 300-350 kilometers.
- Capabilities: RudraM-II can destroy enemy aircraft hangars, bunkers, and airstrips. It is specifically
designed to target enemy ground radars and communication stations during Suppression of Enemy Air
Defence (SEAD) missions.

Statement 2 is correct:
The missile is equipped with an internal guidance system that allows it to navigate toward the target after
launch.

Statement 3 is incorrect:
RudraM-II is an upgraded version of the Mark-1 missile, which was tested four years ago. The Mark-1
variant, test-fired from a Sukhoi jet in 2020, has a range of 100-150 km, can achieve speeds of Mach 2,
and has a launch altitude range of 1 km to 15 km.

70. Consider the following statements about HIV (human immunodeficiency virus).
1. HIV primarily targets CD4 cells or B-cells which are a type of white blood cell essential for the proper
functioning of the immune system.
2. Medications like antiretroviral therapy or ART can get rid of HIV
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only.
b) 2 only.
c) Both 1 and 2.
d) Neither 1 nor 2.

Answer:(d)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect:
HIV (human immunodeficiency virus) is an RNA virus that belongs to the retrovirus family,
characterized by having RNA as its genetic material. HIV weakens the immune system by attacking cells
that help the body combat infections, making individuals more susceptible to various infections and
diseases. If left untreated, HIV can progress to AIDS (acquired immunodeficiency syndrome).HIV
primarily targets CD4 cells or T-cells, a type of white blood cell crucial for the immune system's proper
functioning.

Statement 2 is incorrect:
Human body cannot get rid of HIV and no effective HIV cure exists. Medications like antiretroviral
therapy or ART can control the infection and prevent disease progression.

71. With reference to the various radioisotopes used for various purposes,consider the following
statements.
1. Cesium-137 is used to sterilise and preserve food products.
2. Cobalt-60 is used to determine the age of rocks and minerals.
3. Uranium- 238 is used to sterilise medical and surgical instruments.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) One only
b) Two only
c) All three are correct
d) None are correct

Answer:(a)
Explanation:
Radioactivity is the property of certain unstable atoms, known as radionuclides, to spontaneously emit
nuclear radiation, typically in the form of alpha or beta particles, often accompanied by gamma rays.
Atoms in nature can be either stable or unstable. An atom becomes unstable when its nucleus has an
excess of either neutrons or protons, causing it to be radioactive and possess excess internal energy.To
achieve stability, a radioactive atom may eject nucleons (protons or neutrons), emit other particles, or
release energy in the form of radiation.
Common radionuclides include Tritium (an isotope of hydrogen and the lightest radionuclide), Carbon-
14, Caesium-137, Thorium-232, Uranium-235, Uranium-238, Plutonium-238, and Plutonium-239.

Statement 1 is correct:
Radioactive isotopes such as Cobalt-60 and Cesium-137 are employed to sterilize and preserve food
products.

Statement 2 is incorrect:
Radioactive isotopes like Uranium-238 are utilized to determine the age of rocks and minerals.

Statement 3 is incorrect:
Cobalt-60 is also used for sterilizing medical and surgical instruments.

72. Consider the following statements.

1. Mitochondria occur in large numbers in most of our cells, except for white blood cells.
2. Mitochondrial diseases are only passed on by the mother.
3. Mitochondrial Donation Treatment has no risks, as the maternal mitochondria with errors do not get
passed on during the procedure.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Answer: (c)
Explanation:
A baby in the U.K. was born using DNA from three individuals through a process called mitochondrial
donation treatment. This technique involves combining genetic material from two biological parents with
healthy mitochondria from a female donor. The purpose of this technology is to prevent the child from
inheriting mitochondrial diseases from the mother.

Statement 1 is incorrect:
Mitochondria are small organelles within cells, often referred to as the "powerhouses" of the
cell.Mitochondria are found in large numbers in most of our cells, except for red blood cells.They convert
energy from food into usable energy in the form of ATP (Adenosine Triphosphate) through a process
called cellular respiration.

Statement 2 is correct:
Faulty mitochondria can lead to inherited conditions such as fatal heart problems, liver failure, brain
disorders, blindness, and muscular dystrophy. These conditions, caused by mutations in mitochondrial
DNA, are known as mitochondrial diseases.Mitochondrial diseases are exclusively passed down by the
mother.The symptoms of mitochondrial diseases typically worsen as a child grows, and there is currently
no cure for mitochondrial DNA diseases. Estimates suggest that mitochondrial diseases affect about 1 in
5,000 people.
Mitochondrial donation involves replacing unhealthy mitochondria in the mother with healthy
mitochondria from a donor during the in-vitrofertilisation (IVF) process.

Statement 3 is incorrect:
While generally beneficial, mitochondrial donation treatment carries minimal risks. Occasionally, a small
amount of the mother's faulty mitochondria may inadvertently be transferred during the procedure,
potentially leading to the persistence of mitochondrial errors.

73. Consider the following statements.

1. NavIC (Navigation with Indian Constellation) is an independent regional navigation satellite system
that provides accurate position information over the Indian region.
2. NavIC signals come to India at a 45-degree angle, making it easier for them to reach devices located
even in hard-to-reach areas
3. GPS and GLONASS are operated by the defence agencies of the US and China , respectively.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 only

Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct:
Navigation with Indian Constellation (NavIC), formerly known as the Indian Regional Navigation
Satellite System (IRNSS), is a satellite-based navigation system developed by the Indian Space Research
Organisation (ISRO).It is an independent regional navigation satellite system that provides accurate
position information over the Indian region which operates autonomously and does not rely on other
global navigation systems for delivering positioning services within its designated service area.

Statement 2 is incorrect:
NavIC signals arrive in India at a 90-degree angle, which improves their ability to reach devices in
challenging environments such as congested areas, dense forests, or mountainous regions. In comparison,
GPS signals are received over India at an angle, making them less effective in such hard-to-reach
locations.

Statement 3 is incorrect:
GPS and GLONASS are operated by the defence agencies of the US and Russia, respectively.

74. Consider the following statements.

1. Thalassemia is a group of inherited blood disorders characterised by abnormal haemoglobin
production.
2. Individuals with a Thalassemia trait in one gene are known as carriers or are considered to have
thalassemia major while Thalassemia minor occurs when a child inherits two mutated genes,one from
each parent.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only.
b) 2 only.
c) Both 1 and 2.
d) Neither 1 nor 2.

Answer:(a)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct:
Thalassemia is a group of inherited blood disorders characterized by the abnormal production of
hemoglobin. This condition leads to insufficient hemoglobin production, causing anemia. As a result,
patients often require blood transfusions every two to three weeks to survive.Hemoglobin is the protein in
red blood cells responsible for carrying oxygen throughout the body.
Thalassemia is caused by mutations in one or more of the genes responsible for producing hemoglobin
and is inherited from one or both parents through their genes.

Statement 2 is incorrect:
Thalassemia Minor:
-Hemoglobin genes are inherited during conception, one from the mother and one from the father.
-Individuals with a thalassemia trait in one gene are considered carriers or are said to have thalassemia
minor. Thalassemia minor is not a disease and usually results in only mild anemia.

Thalassemia Major:
-Thalassemia major is the most severe form of the disorder and occurs when a child inherits two mutated
genes, one from each parent.
-Children with thalassemia major typically develop symptoms of severe anemia within their first year of
life.

74. ‘Preparedness & Resilience for Emerging Threats ‘(PRET) sometimes seen in the news is an initiative
by which of the following institutions?
a) Centre of Excellence for Disaster and Climate Resilience
b) The World Economic Forum(WEF)
c) World Health Organisation (WHO)
d) The United Nations Office for Disaster Risk Reduction (UNDRR)

Answer:(c)
Explanation:
The Preparedness & Resilience for Emerging Threats (PRET) initiative, launched by WHO, aims to
enhance pandemic preparedness and prevention through integrated planning and guidance.
- Approach: PRET uses a mode of transmission approach to assist countries in their pandemic planning
efforts.
- Objective: The initiative seeks to strengthen existing systems, address gaps, and improve overall
readiness for pandemics.
- Focus: The first module of PRET will concentrate on enhancing pandemic preparedness for respiratory
pathogens such as influenza, coronaviruses, and respiratory syncytial virus. Efforts are also underway to
identify and include other pathogen groups like arboviruses.
- Systems and Capacities: PRET recognizes three tiers of systems and capacities relevant to pandemic
preparedness:
1. Cross-cutting: Applicable to all or multiple hazards.
2. Pathogen Groups: Relevant for specific groups of pathogens (e.g., respiratory viruses, arboviruses).
3. Pathogen-Specific: Tailored to individual pathogens.

The PRET (Preparedness & Resilience for Emerging Threats) initiative acknowledges that most new
pathogens first emerge in animals and that addressing these threats effectively requires a multi-sector
approach.Instead of concentrating on specific diseases, PRET emphasizes the mode of transmission of
pathogens. This approach helps guide countries in their pandemic planning by focusing on how diseases
spread rather than individual pathogens.

75. Consider the following statements with respect to Respiratory Pathogens Partners Engagement Forum
(R-PEF).
1. R-PEF is an informal coordination forum convened by the WHO to strengthen networking for
respiratory pathogen preparedness planning.
2. It will focus on elements common to respiratory pathogen preparedness while advising and providing
inputs for purposes of norms and standards setting to WHO.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only.
b) 2 only.
c) Both 1 and 2.
d) Neither 1 nor 2.

Answer:(a)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct:
R-PEF(Respiratory Pathogen Preparedness and Emergency Forum) is an informal coordination forum
convened by WHO to enhance networking and preparedness for respiratory pathogens.
- Purpose: R-PEF facilitates information exchange among WHO and its partners regarding planned
activities, lessons learned, gaps, needs, and updates related to pandemic preparedness for respiratory
pathogens.

Statement 2 is incorrect:
The forum emphasizes common elements in respiratory pathogen preparedness but does not provide
advice or contribute to the setting of norms and standards for WHO.

76.