Challenge Questions

1) Which is the most frequent route of entry for occupational exposures?

Inhalation

2)＿ is the correlation of the exposure with the changes in body functions and health.
Dose-response Theory

3) Lethal concentration is determined for … ＿ exposures.

Airborne

4 Acute exposures and acute effects are long term, high concentrations or levels, and
generally involve immediate results.
FALSE

6)_is when the effect of one substance is increased by exposure to another substance,
even though the second substance does not cause that effect by itseif.
Potentiating

7 Which causes malformations or birth defects in the developing fetus once in

contact with a pregnant mother?
Teratogen

8) Corrosive damages can be reversed.

FALSE

9) Which are the MOST common targeted organs?

Brain, Lungs, Kidneys, and Nervous System
Liver, Kidneys, Nervous System, and Blood
Brain, Heart, Blood, and Nervous System
Lungs, Heart, Kidneys, and Blood

10) Chemicals that cause liver damage are

Hepatoxins
Neurotoxins
Hemotoxins
Nephrotoxins

11) Carbon disulfide, ethylene oxide, hexane, lead, and mercury are all examples of
＿
Nephrotoxins
Neurotoxins
Hemotoxins
Hepatoxins

RESPIRATORY
1) If avoiding or eliminating chemical exposure is not possible which is the next
BEST step?
Substitution Modification Ventilation Enclosure and Isolation
2/ ＿ strategically adds or removes air into the work environment.
 Modification
Substitution
Ventilation
Administrative controls

3) Using electric forklift trucks instead of LP fueled ones, decreasing temperatures

so that less vapor is released, using airless or low-pressure, high-volume spray paint
methods, or spraying down a dusty surface to keep dust levels down are all examples
of ＿
Administrative controls
Substitution
Enclosure and Isolation
Modification

4) APF stands for

Air Protection Factor
Absolute Protection Factor
Applied Protection Factor
Assigned Protection Factor

5) Atmosphere-supplying respirators deliver clean air from a compressed air tank or

through an airline.
FALSE
TRUE
CLIMATECONTROL
1 ＿ is the overall physiological response resulting from heat stress.
Heat Exhaustion
Heat Strain
Heat Stroke
Heat Syncope

2) ＿ is often a precursor to heat stroke.

Heat Cramps
Heat Strain
Heat Syncope
Heat Exhaustion

3) ＿ is dizziness and fainting caused by overheating, and usually occurs after

prolonged standing or sudden rising from a sitting position.
Heat Exhaustion
Heat Cramps
Heat Stroke
Heat Syncope

4) The body's natural way to keep the core body temperature from rising to
unhealthy levels is through an increase in ＿ and ＿
Heart Rate and Shaking
Heart Rate and Sweating
Chills and Sweating
___ and＿ are caused by the body's dehydration and depletion of salts from excessive
sweating.
 Headaches and Muscle Spasms
Heat Cramps and Muscle Spasms
Heat Cramps and Sweating
Sweating and Headaches

1 ＿ or WBGT measurements are used to determine when heat exposure hazards are
present in the workplace.
Black Globe Temperature
Waterless Wet-Bulb Temperature
Wet Bulb Globe Temperature
Dry Bulb Temperature

2 ＿ is the most accurate tool for adjusting the temperature for heat stress factors
including humidity, air movement, radiant heat, and temperature.
WBGT Meter
Black Globe Temperature
Waterless Wet-Bulb Temperature
Natural Wet-bulb Meter

3. Question: ＿ has a matte black finish to measure the radiant energy from direct
sunlight or other sources, like machinery and hot structures near the workplace.
Correct Answer: Black Globe Thermometer

3) There are ＿ different heat stress formulas depending on the environment.

Three
Five
Four
Two

＿ is typically used by engineers to determine heating, ventilation and air

conditioning and mechanical needs by plot points that represent the exterior air
conditions.
Exterior Air Chart
WBGT Meter Chart
Psychrometric Chart
Relative Humidity Chart

2) Safety professionals can also use the ＿ produced by the National Oceanic and
Atmospheric Administration (NOAA) to assess the heat related risk factor.
Heat Index Chart
Heat Hazard Chart
Heat Risk Chart
Heat Assessment Chart

3) The red area of the Heat index chart indicates …

Hazardous
Unmeasurable
High Risk
Extreme Danger
＿ is a condition in which the body uses up its stored energy and can no longer
produce heat.
Frostbite
 Chilblains
Cold Stress
Hypothermia

2) Internal body temperature is also known as …

Inner Body Temperature
Interior Temperature
Central Temperature
Core Temperature

is the result of beneficial physiological adaptations that occur after gradual increased
exposure to a hot environment.
Habituation
Adaptation
Acculturation
Acclimatization

1) When chemicals cause health risks from a single exposure and/or a small dose,
this is known as an acute exposure.
TRUE
FALSE

2) Which is an example of a biomechanical hazard?

In-running nip points
Inadequate lighting
Pinch points

3) A contractor management plan is completely separate from a company's overall

safety and health management system.
FALSE
TRUE

2) Appropriate abrasive wheel revolutions per minute design is dependent upon the
equipment it is installed upon.
TRUE
FALSE

2) Eating or drinking should be prohibited in areas where hazardous chemicals exist.

FALSE
TRUE

1) Which precaution must be taken when compressed air is used for cleaning?
An angle of 90 degrees must be maintained between the air hose and the surface
being cleaned.
The pressure must be increased in order to ensure that all debris is removed as
efficiently as possible.
The pressure must be reduced to avoid the creation of hazards for workers and
others.
Compressed air must never be used for cleaning.
2) Which hazard control must be used due to the hazards present and created by
spray finishing?
 Low volume spraying
High volume spraying
Fire protection
Use of low volatile organic compound paint

1) Which safety precautions are necessary any time aerial lift devices are used in a
stationary position?
The lift should be left idling in neutral in order…
Brakes are set and outriggers are fully deployed
Workers may only step up on the mid rail to gain additional height
The boom/basket may not be raised higher than 15 feet above the ground surface

1) During post-incident investigation, ＿ before, during, and after catastrophic events

is often a key area of focus for investigators.
Leadership
Organization
Information gathering
Communication

2) Which standard establishes communication and consultation as major components

of the risk management process and defines requirements or communication
with external and internal stakeholders?
ISO 45001
ISO 22000
ISO 50001
ISO 31000

5) Which generation prefers short and to the point communication and tend to use
technology and social media to communicate?
Baby Boomers
Generation Z
Millennials
Generation X

＿ is the process of enabling groups to work cooperatively and effectively.

Mentoring
Management Policy Statement
Facilitation
Multidisciplinary teamwork

2) Multidisciplinary teams are valuable due to the expanded knowledge and

competencies that team members can bring to discussions.
FALSE
TRUE
2) Different cultural perspectives on safety, beliefs, opinions, values, experiences,
poor communication, change of the status quo, and limitations are all potential
reasons for
 Violence
Conflict
Education
Incidents

3) Which method seeks to find a mutually effective solution to a problem or

challenge by including both parties; solutions?
Withdrawing
Collaborating
Accommodating
Compromising

4) Compromising, collaborating, avoiding or withdrawing, accommodating, and forcing or

competing are all primary methods of …

Resolving conflict

2) Large enough and configured in a way a worker can enter and perform work, has
limited entry and exit options, not designed for continuous occupancy is known as
Compact Area
Compact Space
Confined Space
Confined Area

＿ is when a seemingly solid surface breaks revealing a cavity.

Disintegrating
Bridging
Subsiding
Collapsing

2) ＿ is when the material falls, shifts, or moves surrounding the entrant.

Collapsing
Settling
Engulfment
Submersing

＿ _ occurs when internal configuration in a space has inwardly converging walls or a

sloped floor that could cause an entrant to be trapped or asphyxiated.
Entrapment
Suffocation
Engulfment
Collapsing

2) Hazardous atmospheres are often not ＿ when a space is first entered.

Present
Noticed
Safe
Stable
1) When controlling hazards in confined spaces ＿ should be used.
Control Cycle
Plan-Do-Check-Act Cycle
Hierarchy of Controls
 Maslow's Hierarchy

3) Gases tend to gather at the floor, middle or top in a confined space.

TRUE
4) How long must employers keep canceled entry permits?
At least one year
At least four days
At least one month
At least one week

1) Which is NOT a confined space rescue?

Self-Rescue
Machine Entry Rescue
Entry Rescue
Non-Entry Rescue

2. Question:
＿ is an entrant recognizing a hazard and exiting the space without assistance.
Correct Answer: Self-Rescue

3. Question:
＿ _ is performed outside the space, uses pulley systems, tripods, and access points.
Correct Answer: Non-Entry Rescue

4. Question:
＿ is when responders are able to respond to an emergency in a timely manner and
provide rescue personnel with the right rescue equipment and training.
Correct Answer: Entry Rescue

1) Which signal is a common way to indicate an evacuation to construction workers

when in-place systems are not available?
Flashing lights
Announcement through the internal system
Fire alarm
Multiple blasts from an air horn

2) Which description BEST describes a proper evacuation route?

One clearly-marked exit with rally points away from the worksite
Several unmarked exits with rally points away from the worksite
Several clearly-marked exits with rally points within the worksite
Several clearly-marked exits with rally points away from the worksite

1) Which is the FIRST priority following a structural collapse?

Prevent further injuries to workers
Prevent workers from entering the structure
Rescue survivors
Notify local emergency response providers
2. Question: Which BEST describes the correct order of actions to take when
responding to a hazardous material spill?
Correct Answer: Have first responders stabilize the spill, report the spill to the
proper environmental authorities, and have a qualified contractor clean it up
 2) Which is known as the minimum quantity of chemicals or oil spilled required
before reporting to local and federal environmental agencies?
Generation
Exposure limit
Reportable quantity
Spill amount

1) Which BEST describes the definition of a support zone during a hazardous

material cleanup?
A staging area for personnel and equipment that will be needed during cleanup
Area where hazardous waste is stored
Area around the spill where cleanup takes place
Corridor between the zones that all workers and equipment must pass through on
their way in and out of the exclusion zone

2) Which type of material is considered hazardous waste?

Waste that is toxic, corrosive, or infectious to people or the environment
All waste streams that are not regulated and are recycled
All waste material that can be repurposed for use in other industries
All waste streams that are not regulated and will not not be recycled

1) Which are examples of environmental areas of concern during construction?

Bodies of water, animal breeding areas, and urban areas
Farmlands, urban areas, and unoccupied habitats
Unoccupied habitats, wetlands, and farmlands
Wetlands, bodies of water, and animal breeding areas

1) Which are examples of environmental areas of concern during construction?

Farmlands, urban areas, and unoccupied habitats
Bodies of water, animal breeding areas, and urban areas
Wetlands, bodies of water, and animal breeding areas
Unoccupied habitats, wetlands, and farmlands

2: Proper permits and approvals from environmental regulatory agencies must be

obtained immediately upon completion of a project
Correct Answer: False

1) In which phase of construction projects must stormwater runoff be managed?

Before and during construction
Before and after construction
During and after construction
Only during construction

2) Retention ponds are an example of a stormwater pollution control system.

True
False
1) Which is a chemical that causes a reversible inflammatory effect on living tissue
by chemical action at the site of contact?
Carcinogen
Reproductive toxin
Corrosive
 Irritant

2) Which type of chemical causes kidney damage?

Neurotoxin
Nephrotoxin
Hepatoxin
CNS depressant

1) Volatile Organic Compounds have a high what at room temperature?

Occupational exposure limit
Boiling point
Vapor pressure
Temperature

2) Which is an example of Benzene?

Fiber
Solvent
Reactive
Gas

1) Which BEST describes Fibrosis?

Caused by toluene exposure
Cancer of the pleura
Scar tissue formation in the lung
Another term for mesothelioma

2) Which type of silicosis occurs 5-15 years after intense exposure?

Chronic
Acute
Accelerated
Nano

1) Which route of entry does lead PRIMARILY enter the body?

Absorption and inhalation
Inhalation and injection
Digestion and absorption
Inhalation and ingestion

2) Impaired kidney function, high blood pressure, and neurobehavioral effects are
associated with blood lead levels as low as how many micrograms per deciliter?
10
2
60
12

1) Some materials are presumed to contain asbestos if installed before which year?
1981
1992
1984
1998
 2) Which is an aggressive, fatal cancer arising from the cells that line the lungs,
abdominal, and heart cavities?
Mesothelioma
Asbestos
Lung cancer
Fibrosis

1) Which regulatory agency banned the manufacture of PCBs in the 1970s?

OSHA
NIOSH
EPA
ACGIH

2) Which were PCB's widely used as an additive for during the decades in which
they were produced?
Window caulking
Brake pads
Cigarette filters
Thermal insulation

1) Which BEST describes "Buckyballs"?

Rod-like nanoparticles like silicon and nickel
Sphere-like nanoparticles
Tube-like nanoparticles like carbon and titanium dioxide
Nanosilica

2) Which other health condition outside of pulmonary inflammation might inhaled

carbon nanotubes cause?
Sensitization
Fatigue
Allergic reactions
Fibrosis

2) Which lung disease is characterized by airway inflammation and bronchospasm in

response to sensitizing or irritating exposure?
Asthma
Tuberculosis
Mesothelioma
Lung cancer

1) To prevent mold growth, humidity levels should be maintained below which

percentage?
80%
70%
85%
75%
2) Which type of vacuum is recommended for remediation after materials have dried
and contaminated materials have been removed?
HEPA
2) Which is a non-thermal effect of radiation frequency (RF) radiation exposure?
Altered circadian rhythms
 Electrical shocks
Sterility
Blindnessmous

1) Which range of radiation frequency (RF) in megahertz is the MOST harmful to

humans?
0-10
500-800
300-500
30-300

1) When construction is completed at night, which is the MINIMUM light levels that
are needed in support and storage areas?
5-foot candles
15-foot candles
50-foot candles
2-foot candles

2) Which condition may occur when workers are required to work shifts that disrupts
their circadian rhythm?
Insomnia
Chronic fatigue
Sleep apnea
Shift work disorder

1) Which are examples of special hazards when operating heavy equipment?

Trip hazards and confined space
Chemical exposure and electrical hazards
Limited visibility and noise
Electrical hazards and trip hazards

2) Which are examples of safety measures that must be implemented when heavy
equipment is operated around energized electrical lines?
Shut down work immediately or move the project
Verbally communicate hazards to workers or move project location away from
electrical lines
Post signage or alert workers of hazard
Erect barriers or use spotters

1) Workers that are controlling an automated piece of equipment must be near the
equipment when it is in operation.
True
False

1) Which is the process of keeping the worksite clean, free of waste and debris, well
organized, and clear of trip hazards?
Organizing
Clean-up
Housekeeping
Maintenance
 1) Which is a worker referred to when they are physically separated from others and
cannot see or communicate with them?
Lone worker
Peer
Coworker
Subcontractor

2) Which are some symptoms of mental health issues to look for in workers?
Inability to concentrate, engaged with coworkers, and productivity increase
Actively engaged, increased productivity, and high levels of participation
High levels of productivity, increased conflicts, and decreased absenteeism
Tardiness, decreased productivity, and increased number of conflicts

1) Which is the MOST common form of energy?

Chemical
Mechanical
Electrical
Thermal

2. Question:
＿ is the energy stored within a pressurized liquid.
Correct Answer: Hydraulic energy

Question 4 of 7
4) Which is a characteristic of Chemical energy?
Energy stored in pressurized liquid
Transmitted through live power
Energy stored in air or gas
Normally released as heat

5) Thermal energy can be from either extreme hot or cold conditions.

TRUE
FALSE

6) Which is an example of ionizing radiation energy?

Radio frequency
Visible Light
X-rays
Ultraviolet

7) Gravitational energy is the potential energy stored by an object because of gravity

and its higher position compared to a lower position.
FALSE
TRUE

1) Lockout and hazardous energy control are used interchangeably because they are
the same.
TRUE
FALSE

2) Tags are only warning devices.

 FALSE
TRUE

3) There are ＿ steps when developing a hazardous energy control program.

Five
Four
Six
Seven

4) Which is the first step in the hazardous energy control program?

Perform task analysis
Implement controls
Perform hazard and risk analysis
Gather information

5) As the second step in a hazardous energy control program, it is important to

summarize the tasks associated with set up, programming, adjustments, testing, start
up, all modes of operation, and others.
TRUE
FALSE

6) Step three of a hazardous energy control program includes a documented risk

assessment that outlines protective measures needed where ever there may be
possible hazards.
FALSE
TRUE

7) To control hazardous energy, it is important to include special circumstances that

might be encountered during each task, such as which example?
Work performed by internal workers
Problems in the operation
Shift or personnel changes
Types of energy sources present

8) How often should hazardous energy and control procedures be inspected?

Every 6 months
Annually
Bi-annually
Monthly

Question 1 of 9
1) Which rigging hardware is the primary connecting link in all manner of rigging
systems?
Wire Ropes
Hooks
Shackles
Pulleys

Question 2 of 9
2) The most commonly used wire ropes are fortified by a single strand of stainless
steel or carbon steel wire ropes arranged in a helix pattern.
 TRUE
FALSE

Question 3 of 9
3) The most common cause of wire rope and synthetic sling failure is
Improper maintenance on wire rope and sling failure
Improper placement of wire rope and synthetic sling
Abrasion or cutting where the sling meets the edges of the load
Improper connection to the crane hook

Question 4 of 9
4) Which is the first step PRIOR to rigging and lifting?
Determine the material being lifted
Determine the weight of the rigging equipment
Determine the weight of the load
Determine the weight by estimating

Question 5 of 9
5) The first step when load weight information has not been provided is
Determine the volume of the load
Determine the material being lifted
Determine the weight by estimating
Determine the weight of the rigging equipment

Question 6 of 9
6) Which type of hitch is used when one end is on the hook, while the other end is
attached directly to the load in a vertical fashion?
Tow hitch
Vertical hitch
Basket hitch
Choker hitch

Question 7 of 9
7) How many ways does a sling carry their loads?
1
2
3
4

Question 9 of 9
9) All lifting slings should be inspected …
＿ before use and frequently during use.
Weekly
Daily
Bi-monthly
Monthly

Question 1 of 7
1) Another name for current is
Flow
Surge
 Flux
Effusion

Question 2 of 7
2) The force pushing electrons to "flow" in a circuit is called …
Amps
Charge
Voltage
Energy

Question 5 of 7
5)
is the flow of electrons in one direction.
Single Current
Isolated Current
Alternating Current
Direct Current

Question 6 of 7
6) Alternating Currents are typically used in homes.
FALSE
TRUE

Question 7 of 7
7) Current, Voltage, and ＿ are the three basic building blocks required to manipulate
and utilize energy.
Charges
Circuits
Electrons
Resistance

Question 1 of 6
states that the current passing through a conductor is proportional to the voltage over
the resistance.
Charles's Law
Boyle's Law
Gay-Lussac's Law
Ohm's Law

Question 2 of 6
2) A multimeter can only be used to measure resistance.
TRUE
FALSE

3) V is the potential difference in volts, A is the current in amperes, or amps, and R

is the resistance in ohms.
FALSE
TRUE

Question 4 of 6
4) In
 a ＿ connection, components are connected end to end, so that current flows first
through one component and then through the other.
Alternating Circuit
Direct Circuit
Single Circuit
Series Circuit

Question 5 of 6
＿ is the combination of both voltage and current in a circuit.
Watts
Charge
Power
Flow

6) The formula Power is equal to Current and multiplied by Voltage is called ＿

PIF
PCV
PIV
PCF
Cancel

＿ are the most common electrical-related injury.

Blisters
Burns
Bruises
Abnormal Heart Beat

2) Which is a sudden, massive release of electrical energy through air resulting in a

fireball?
Static electricity
High voltage
Arc Flash
Electrical charge

1) "Grounding" provides a path for conducting electrical energy to the ground or

earth.
TRUE

2) Single-point grounding is the preferred method because it generally yields the

highest potential difference in the work zone.
FALSE

3) There are ＿ types of GFCIs.

Four
One
Three
4) Receptacle Gfcis serve a dual purpose, not only will they shut off electricity in the
event of a ground fault, they will alsotrip when a short circuit or an overload
occurs.
FALSE

2) Which type of electrical current flows in the same direction?

 Direct

1) Which item would be MOST effectively used as insulation to control exposure to

electricity?
Copper
Steel
Rubber
Sea water

2) Which device is used to protect against excessive current in a conductor and stop
the flow of electricity if the current exceeds the rating?
Insulator
Conductor
Extension cord
Circuit breaker

2) Which is the MINIMUM approach distance for overhead electrical lines that carry
below 50,000 volts?
4m (13ft)
3m (10ft)

1) Which of the following extension cord ratings should be used on construction

sites?
Light usage
Normal usage
Cords are not categorized
Hard or extra hard usage

2) Which is the MINIMUM acceptable gauge for an extension cord to be used at a

construction site?
12
1) MSD stands for
Musculoskeletal Disorder
Multiskeletal Disorder
Moving Skeletal Disorder
Mass Skeletal Disorder

2) The most frequently affected areas from MSDs are the neck and back.
FALSE
TRUE

1) Which of the following extension cord ratings should be used on construction

sites?
Normal usage
Cords are not categorized
Hard or extra hard usage
Light usage
3) Which is repetitive flexion and extension of the wrist associated with?
Capsulitis
Tenosynovitis
Tendonitis
 1) Thermal stressors, atmospheric stressors, chemical stressors, radiation stressors,
severe vibration, severe noise, and biomechanical stressors are classified as
stress.
Physiological
Biomechanical
Mycological
Psychological

2) Which types of stress can result from factors such as fatiguing workload,
repetitiveness, low or high mental demand, parental responsibilities, genetic, education and
personality traits.
Mycological
Psychological
Physiological
Biomechanical

1) Body posture, load shape, weight, dimensions, grip type, amount of effort,
resistance, length of time, number of times, amount of vibration, and the environmental
temperature are all factors that control the amount of force being required.
FALSE
TRUE

2) Which is an example of a static posture?

Reaching
Kneeling
Bending
Sitting

3) Where does static contraction mainly occur due to prolonged standing?

Feet
Back
Neck
Shoulders

4) Which is an example of a worker carrying a long and heavy load on their shoulder
and neck?
Static posture
Heavy load stress
Awkward posture
Contact stress

1) When identifying and developing effective ergonomics solutions, the Hierarchy of

Controls should be used.
FALSE
TRUE

2) Which is described as the measurement of the human individual?

Allometry
Actinometry
Anthropometry
 Anemometry

3) Ethnic diversity, gender, and age are considerations when designing an

ergonomically-conscious workplace.
FALSE
TRUE

4) Which multiplier is the distance of the hands above the floor?

Horizontal
Vertical
Distance
Asymmetric

5)＿ is the absolute value of the difference between vertical height at the destination
and the origin of lift.
Vertical Multiplier
Horizontal Multiplier
Distance Multiplier
Asymmetric Multiplier

＿ is classified as good, fair, or poor.

Frequency Multiplier
Asymmetric Multiplier
Distance Multiplier
Coupling Multiplier

Which table is a hazard analysis tool?

Correct Answer: Snook

8)＿ is an ergonomic technique that evaluates people's exposures to postures, forces,

and muscle activities that have been shown to cause injuries.
RULA
ART
REBA
RWL

9) ART stands for

Analysis of Repetitive Tasks
Assessment of Repetitive Tasks
Action of Repetitive Tasks
Active Repetitive Tasks

1) The most preferred control method is

Engineering
Administrative
Avoidance
Substitution
2) MMH stands for
Moving Material Handling
Mark Material Handling
Manual Material Handling
Mass Material Handling
 3) The power zone for lifting is close to the body, between mid-waist and mid-chest
height.
TRUE
FALSE

7)Which term is defined as the distribution of brightness in the visual environment?

Illumination
Glare
Brightness
Reflection

8) The recommended ambient indoor temperatures range from 68 - 75 Fahrenheit,

which is 20 - 24 Celsius.
TRUE
FALSE

9) Balance testing is an example of ＿

Physical Abilities Testing
Fitness for Duty Testing
Physical Stability Testing
Physical Demand Testing

10) Work Hardening is an interdisciplinary, individualized, job-specific program of

activity with the goal of return to work.
TRUE
FALSE

5) The preferred height for handwork is 3-5 inches.

FALSE
TRUE

8) The recommended ambient indoor temperatures range from 68 - 75 Fahrenheit,

which is 20 - 24 Celsius.
TRUE
FALSE
2) Hazardous atmospheres, groundwater infiltration, water accumulation, changing
soil conditions, contaminated water or soil, stability of adjacent structures, and
falling objects are all hazards when performing excavation work.
FALSE
TRUE

1) How much does a cubic foot of soil weigh?

100 pounds
50 pounds
25 pounds
2) Which class of soil consists of natural soil mineral water matter that can be
excavated, and the sides will remain intact while exposed?
Stable rock

3)＿ class soil is the least stable. It usually consists of gravel, sand, and loamy sand.
 Stable rock
Type C Soil
Type B Soil
Type A Soil

＿ class soil does not contain enough particles and clay so that the soil will stick
together. It contains a mix of gravel, silt, loam, and clay.
Stable Rock
Type A Soil
Type C Soil
Type B Soil

＿ is a method of protecting workers from excavation and trench cave-ins by

excavating soil at an angle away from the base of the excavation.
Shoring
Sheeting
Trenching
Sloping

2) There are ＿ types of excavation sheeting typically used.

Three

3) Timber sheet piling, steel sheet piling, and precast concrete sheet piling are the
types of sheeting typically used in construction.
FALSE
TRUE

4) Trench boxes are typically used in ＿ areas.

Open

1) Which is the first, best practice when trenching, excavating, sheeting, shoring, and
shielding?
Provide adequate methods of egress

2) Ladders used for egress should extend at least ＿ feet minimum above sheeting,
shoring, or trench boxes.
Four
Five
Three
Two

3) According to best practice, ladders used for egress should be placed no further
than ＿ feet apart.
Twenty

4) Classification of soil, inspection of protective systems, assessment of overall

excavation conditions, monitoring water removal equipment, and inspection of the site
should all be done by
A Safety Professional
A Capable Person
A Skilled Person
 A Competent Person

5) Excavation inspections should be performed

Daily
Bi-weekly
Monthly
Weekly

1) In the construction industry, which is the MINIMUM height required for fall
protection?
6 feet

2) Which is an example of an engineering control when reviewing fall from height

hazards?
Guard rails
1) When must workers wear fall protection if work is being completed on a leading
edge?
If the surface is more than 5 feet above a lower level
If the surface is more than 4 feet above a lower level
If the surface is more than 6 feet above a lower level
If the surface is more than 10 feet above a lower level

2) When is fall protection required if working around a wall opening?

When the outside edge of the opening is more than 6 ft (1.8 m) above the lower level
and the inside edge is less than 6 ft (1.8 m) above the floor level
When the outside edge of the opening is more than 39 in (99.1 cm) above the lower
level and the inside edge is less than 39 in (99.1 cm) above the floor level
When the outside edge of the opening is more than 39 in (99.1 cm) above the lower
level and the inside edge is less than 6 ft (1.8 m) above the floor level
When the outside edge of the opening is more than 6 ft (1.8 m) above the lower level
and the inside edge is less than 39 in (99.1 cm) above the floor level

1) Which device is used on a boom lift to help stabilize it and prevent it from tipping
over?
Chocks
Anchors
D Rings
Outriggers

2) At which height is fall protection required if scaffolding is used at a construction

site?
Scaffold is more than 16 ft (4.9 m) above the lower level
Scaffold is more than two levels above the lower level
Scaffold is more than three levels above the lower level
Scaffold is more than 10 ft (3.0 m) above the lower level
1.: Which is the condition that occurs when a worker wearing a full body harness
falls and is unable to move their legs which causes blood to quickly pool in their legs
leading to
confusion, weakness, and unconsciousness?
Correct Answer: Suspension Trauma
 2.: When inspecting snap hooks and carabiners, which are some functional items to
look for?
Correct Answer: Dents, distortions, and a properly functioning locking system

1) Which is the MINIMUM distance an anchor must be placed if a worker is using a

lanyard that is 6 ft (1.8m), the length of the deceleration device is 3.5 ft (1.1m), the
D-ring on the worker is 6 ft (1.8m) off the ground, and includes a 2 ft (0.6m) safety
factor?
14.5 ft (4.4 m)
16.5 ft (5.0 m)
15.5 ft (4.7 m)
17.5 ft (5.3 m)

1) The first element needed to sustain fire is

Fuel

3) The point between the fire growth phase and full development occurs at ＿
Flashburn
Flashpoint
Flashover
Flashback

4) At the flashover stage, the energy release is at its greatest.

TRUE
FALSE

5) The final stages of fire are called …

Dilute phase
Decay phase
Dying phase
Defuse phase

6) BLEVE is caused by …
Gas/vapor being too cold
Rupture of a pressurized gas/vapor-filled vessel
Gas/vapor being heated up
Chemical reaction between two chemicals

6) BLEVE is caused by ＿
Gas/vapor being too cold
Chemical reaction between two chemicals
Gas vapor being heated up
Rupture of a pressurized gas/vapor-filled vessel

2.: There are ＿ elements needed to sustain fire.

Correct Answer: Four

4.: At the flashover stage, the energy release is at its greatest.

Correct Answer: FALSE
 5.: The final stages of fire are called ＿
Correct Answer: Decay phase

1) Incompatible materials should be stored at least ＿ away from each other.

25 feet
15 feet
10 feet
20 feet ////

1) The preferred method of dispensing flammable and combustible liquids from a

drum is by use of an approved hand-operated pump drawing through the top.
TRUE

2) Safety cans are

under fire
conditions.
less than
… gallons and are substantially constructed to avoid the danger of leakage and are
designed to minimize the likelihood of spillage or vapor release and container rupture

2) Safety cans are under fire conditionsless than… gallons and are substantially
constructed to avoid the danger of leakage and are designed to minimize the likelihood of
spillage or vapor release and container rupture

4) A primary means of reducing the hazard of static electricity when transferring

flammable liquids to and from containers is through the use of ＿ and grounding.
Breaking
Transitioning
Bonding
Holding

1) Which type of signal indicates that an action is needed in connection with other
fire protection systems that are being monitored by the fire alarm system?
Supervisory signal

2) The basic types of fire detectors are heat detectors, smoke detectors, and flame
detectors.
FALSE
TRUE

3) Which detector has superior response to low energy smoldering fires because they
respond to smoke density?
Heat detector
Temperature detector
Smoke detector
Flame detector

4) A fire alarm system that simply sounds an audible signal and flashes strobe lights
in a space is conveying multiple bits of information.
FALSE
 1) Class C fires involve ＿
Electrical equipment

4) How many techniques do most fire extinguishers use?

4

5) The FIRST step when performing a monthly inspection on a fire extinguisher is

Confirm location is visible, unobstructed, and designated

1) Which agent can be used to reduce temperature, displace oxygen, extinguish

flames, and protect unburnt materials from
radiated heat?
Compressed air foam

2) Which agent is known to be highly efficient as a fire suppressor?

Carbon dioxide extinguishers

1) Which system is the MOST reliable option for an automatic sprinkler installation?
They are the easiest to design, install,
and maintain.
Wet pipe systems
Dry pipe systems
Deluge systems

2) ＿ are typically used when the system will be exposed to temperatures below 40
degrees Fahrenheit.
Dry pipe systems

3)＿ are used to protect against rapidly growing and spreading fires.
Pre-active systems
Dry pipe systems
Wet pipe systems
Deluge systems

1) Which is a report that should be included in a fleet safety program at MINIMUM?

Motor Vehicle Report

1) Management must demonstrate a commitment to motor vehicle safety as a core

company value in their words, deeds,
actions and decisions. Such commitment is stated in the company's
Management Policy Statement
Workplace Safety Policy Statement
Fleet Safety Policy Statement
Commitment Policy Statement

2) Which is MOST important for leadership to do in order to have an effective motor

vehicle safety program.
Hold all management accountable
Lead by example consistently

3) Research has shown that commitment to motor vehicle safety by top management
is linked to safer driving-related
 behaviors.
TRUE
FALSE

1) How often should vehicle safety related equipment be verified in good mechanical
condition?
Once a year
Once every two weeks
Prior to each trip

3) High speed crash considerations include everything but what?

Crumple Zones
Roll Overs
Side Impacts
Bumper Impacts

4) Ultimately, drivers and their

＿ determine fleet safety performance.
Behavior
Training
Driving Skills
Hours of sleep

5) Environmentally friendly vehicles are considered to eliminate pollution and

Provide better mileage
Provide better safety
Minimize Noise
Save gas

Question: Environmentally friendly vehicles are considered to eliminate pollution

and
Correct Answer: Minimize Noise

1) Which is NOT a type of airbag?

Back
Side
Curtain

2) Which is one of the MOST effective safety precaution applied in a vehicle?

Air Bags
Turn Signals
Hazard Lights
Seatbelts

1) Information about the operator, the engine, electronic systems, and driver
behavior is known as ＿
Informatics
Telecommunication
Telematics
 2) Allowing workers to work from home and using phone or video conferencing to
communicate will help eliminate and
minimize exposure to driving-related hazards.
TRUE

3) Which is NOT one of the most basic safety functions of telematics?

Hard braking
Speeding
Lane changes
Road rage

4) What is the primary goal in Journey Management?

Track where drivers are going
Develop faster routes
Avoid unnecessary driving

1) Which safety control can be used when using pneumatic tools that have fittings
that are not self-sealing when
disconnected?
Whip-check cable
Bungee cord
Quick disconnect

1) Which type of plug must never be used with a double-insulated tool to ensure the
safety features are not defeated?
Three-prong plug
Ground plug
Unpolarized
Polarized

1) The primary goal of hazard communication is to ensure those using or exposed to

chemicals are provided adequate and
useful information about the hazards and safe use of chemicals.
TRUE
FALSE

Under the …, an employer that manufactures, processes, formulates, blends, mixes,

repackages, or otherwise changes the composition of a hazardous chemical is considered a
"chemical manufacturer."
Chemical Manufacturer Standard
Communication Standard
Hazard Communication Standard

3) Under the …
, an employer that manufactures, processes, formulates, blends, mixes, repackages,
or otherwise changes the composition of a hazardous chemical is considered a
"chemical manufacturer."
Chemical Manufacturer Standard
Communication Standard
Safety Data Sheet Standard
Hazard Communication Standard
 1) The diamond shaped sign is divided into four sections. The blue section meaning
health information.
TRUE
FALSE

2) Workers can only be exposed to hazards by inhaling chemical vapors, mists, or

dusts and by ingesting the chemical.
FALSE
TRUE

1) The diamond shaped sign is divided into four sections. The blue section meaning
health information.
TRUE
FALSE

2) The diamond shaped sign is divided into four sections. The red section meaning
warning.
FALSE
TRUE

The diamond shaped sign is divided into four sections. The yellow meaning
reactivity information.
FALSE
TRUE

4) The diamond shaped sign is divided into four sections. The white section meaning
reactivity.
FALSE
TRUE

5) The NFPA fire diamond system was designed for who to use?
Manufacturers
First Responders
Laboratories
The Public

6) Blue, red, and white are the colors on the diamond that have a scale of zero
(minimal hazard) to four (extreme hazard)
indicating how hazardous a chemical is.
TRUE
FALSE

1) How many steps does it take to establish an effective hazard communication

program?
Five
2) The order to establish an effective hazard communication program are: a written
program, labeling, maintaining Sds, training employees, and evaluating and reassessing the
program.
TRUE
 1) The primary hazards associated with hot work are fires, explosions, and electric
shock.
FALSE
TRUE

2) When dealing with fires, which is the preferred way to control flammable or
combustible materials?
Through engineering controls
Through administrative controls
Through elimination
Through substitution

3) The manager is responsible for verifying equipment or containers as non-

hazardous before any hot work can be
performed.
FALSE

Which is associated to arc welding as a serious hazard?

Explosions
Mining
Electric Shock

5) Which is a step in preparing for hot work activities?

Assign a manager as fire watch
Know all exits of the location in case of an uncontrolled fire
Make sure location is safe

One role as the fire watch is to inspect and monitor the hot work area for ＿
ensure that no potential for fire exists.
＿ minutes after work has ended to
Fifteen
Five
Thirty
Ten

7) Gas welding often uses what with the combination of a torch to form a flame?
Ethane
Pure Oxygen
Acetylene
Propane

8) MIG stands for which type of welding?

Metal Inert Welding
Mass Inertia Welding
Metal Inert Gases
Mass Inert Gases

9) Some types of welding use shielding gases to protect the weld area from oxygen
or moisture.
TRUE
 FALSE

10)＿ can occur in gas welding when the flame burns back up the hose lines.
Flashback
Flashpoint
Flash burn
Flash line

2) The hot work area must have a …

_ radius free of combustibles and flammables to work safely.
100 foot
75 foot
35 foot
50 foot

3)＿ should be used to protect area workers from welding arc flash exposure?
Welding Barriers
Welding Shields
Welding Curtains
Welding Panels

4) A gas detector will alert workers if flammable or combustibles gas exceed which
lower flammable limit?
20%
15%
10%
5%

6) How long should the hot work permit remain posted?

Until the end of the shift
During the first day
Halfway through completion of the job
The entire time of hot work

7) The first step of the hot work management process is to develop a project plan.
FALSE
TRUE
8) When is a hot work permit not needed?
If performed away from other works
If performed under management supervision
If performed in a designated area

1) According to ISO forty-five thousand and one, when an incident occurs the
organization must react in a timely manner to
control and correct the problem.
FALSE
TRUE

2.: The primary purpose of incident investigation is to obtain the facts from the
incident so the causal factors can be determined.
Correct Answer: TRUE
 1) Part of the Plan/Do/Check/Act process requires evaluation to determine if the
incident investigation process is meeting its
purpose, goals, and objectives.
TRUE
FALSE

2) If evidence must be moved from an incident, which should be done?

Use gloves to avoid fingerprints
Take a picture to document it
Ask emergency service on-site first
Document time that it was moved

3) Which is a mistake that many investigators make during the evaluation stage of an
incident?
They don't investigate
They think they are right
They like to work alone
They jump to conclusions

7)
＿ refers to the failures in the management system.
Root causes
Accident causes
Incident causes
Hazard causes

3.: Which is a mistake that many investigators make during the evaluation stage of
an incident?
Correct Answer: They jump to conclusions

5.: Who was injured, when and where the incident occurred, what work task and
equipment was involved, and why it happened are examples of information to gather?
Correct Answer: TRUE

© 6.: ＿＿ includes purchase specs, design specs, installation information and unique
safety features.
Correct Answer: Equipment records

＿ refers to the failures in the management system.

Root causes
8.
Question: ＿ refers to the failures in the management system.
Root causes
©
9.: ＿＿ refers to the failures in the management system.
Correct Answer: Root causes

＿ consists of reviewing the information, writing down specific release of energy, ask
why the release of energy occurred, ask why again
 if root cause is not identified, and ask why until root cause is found.
Five Cycle
Why Cycle
Five Why
Root Cause Cycle

＿ consists of reviewing the information, writing down specific release of energy, ask
why the release of energy occurred, ask why again
if root cause is not identified, and ask why until root cause is found.
Five Cycle
Why Cycle
Five Why
Root Cause Cycle

1) Which terminology is a "focus four" hazard?

Exposure hazards
Material handling
Respiratory protection
Electrocution

2.: Which agency established threshold limit values?

Correct Answer: American Conference of Governmental Industrial Hygienists

1) Which is considered Class 2 asbestos work?

Custodial duties involving the cleanup of asbestos-containing waste
Removal of other asbestos materials
Repair and maintenance around where asbestos can be disturbed
Removal of asbestos-containing thermal insulation

1.: Which is considered Class 2 asbestos work?

Correct Answer: Removal of other asbestos materials
1) Which contamination level is considered to be a lead surface?
0.05% or higher
5% or higher
0.5% or higher
1.25% or higher

2) Which is an example of a testing method for lead?

Wipe sample
Dosimeter
Multi-gas meter
Sorbent tubes

2) According to the ACGIH, which is the threshold limit value of respirable silica?
20 micrograms per cubic meter over an 8-hour workday
25 micrograms per cubic meter over an 8-hour workday
15 micrograms per cubic meter over an 8-hour workday
30 micrograms per cubic meter over an 8-hour workday

2) Which hazardous chemical compound is produced when performing hot work on

stainless steel?
 Hexavalent chromium
Silver Nitrate
Aluminum sulfate
Lead oxide

1) Which percentage of oxygen in the air puts workers at risk of asphyxiation?

More than 19.5% or less than 23.5% of oxygen in the air
Less than 19.5% or more than 23.5% of oxygen in the air
More than 15.5% or less than 21.5% of oxygen in the air
Less than 15.5% or more than 21.5% of oxygen in the air

Hazardous atmosphere
Limited means of entry or exit
Large enough for worker to enter and exit
Not designed for continuous occupancy

2.: Which class of laser has the HIGHEST level of power?

Correct Answer: Class 4

1) Which is a common construction material that emits volatile organic compounds

(VOCs)?
Bricks
Insulation
Plywood

2) Which type of monitor is used to measure volatile organic compounds (VOCs)?

Cyclone
Geiger counter
Photoionization detectors
Dosimeter

1) According to NIOSH, at which noise level must an employer implement reduction

controls to protect employees?
Above 90 decibels for an 8-hour period
Above 95 decibels for an 8-hour period
Above 100 decibels for an 8-hour period
Above 85 decibels for an 8-hour period

1) Which happens to the body when workers experience heat stroke?

The body breaks out in a rash
The body cannot control its temperature
The body sweats profusely
The body starts to cramp

1) Inspection findings are considered which type of safety performance

measurement?
Retroactive
Reactive
Responsive
Proactive
 2) Which hazard groups must be addressed when developing an inspection process?
Mechanical, electrical, falls, and repetitive motion
Housekeeping, flammable materials, hazardous waste, and machine guarding
Physical, chemical, biological, and psychological

1) Which is an advantage of an audit?

Can be time consuming
Can improve organization's safety culture
Does not diagnose underlying causes for hazards

2) Which is a disadvantage of an audit?

Proactive as it emphasizes prevention effort
Provides measurable value for evaluation purposes
May not be valid measure of safety performance
Can be customized
1) Which is the goal of a Job Hazard Analysis?
To provide a unique understanding of worker's job description
To identify uncontrolled hazards and take action to eliminate them or reduce them to
an acceptable level of risk
To critique safety procedures and guidelines implemented by an organization
To map out the steps of a safety professional's job requirements

2.
Question: Why is it important to involve workers in the hazard analysis process?
Correct Answer: They have a unique understanding of the job, and this knowledge is
invaluable for finding hazards

3. Question: Which is the second step of the Job Hazard Analysis?

Correct Answer: Break the job down into major task

4. Question: How often should a Job Hazard Analysis be reviewed?

Correct Answer: Annually

5. Question: When should new workers be trained on the Job Hazard Analysis?
Correct Answer: When they are first assigned to the job

1. Question: Which is the goal of a Job Hazard Analysis?

To identify uncontrolled hazards and take action to eliminate them or reduce them to
an acceptable level of risk

1) Engineering controls is cheaper to implement and maintain compared to the rest

of the controls.
TRUE
FALSE

2) Which control describes changing work and maintenance schedules, rotating

workers, requiring breaks, prohibiting access
to hazard areas, and housekeeping to reduce chances of incidents?
Administrative
Elimination
 Substitution
Engineering

3) What is a potential weakness of administrative controls?

More work
Longer hours
Human error
Tedious work

4) The purpose of which control is to isolate individuals from hazards using barriers
or equipment modifications and
independent of the worker?
Personal Protective Equipment
Engineering
Substitution
Administrative

1. Question: Level D PPE is the highest level of protective apparel.

Correct Answer: FALSE
2. Question: Which is an example of Level D PPE?
Correct Answer: Safety glasses
5. Question: When is a higher level of PPE necessary?
Correct Answer: When changes in work tasks will increase contact

1) Which does CPC stand for?

Clinical Protective Clothing
Controlling Protective Clothing
Climate Protective Clothing
Chemical Protective Clothing

2) Which is criteria that should be considered when selecting chemical protective

clothing?
Gender fit
Weight
Physical Integrity
Color

3) Containment is a major factor that affects the extent of permeation.

FALSE

4) The most common observations of material degradation are discoloration,

swelling, loss of physical strength, or
deterioration.
TRUE
FALSE

5) SDS, chemical manufactures, CPC manufactures, and information regarding

chemical exposure. are all examples of where you go to get more
Government websites
 2) The Total Worker Health approach prioritizes hazard-free and a healthy work
environment through the application of
hazard control, prevention, and use of the traditional hierarchy of controls model.
FALSE
TRUE

3) The first step in Total Worker Health hierarchy of controls model is to replace
unsafe working conditions and practices.
TRUE
FALSE

2) When dealing with fires, which is the preferred way to control flammable or
combustible materials?
Through elimination
Through engineering controls
Through administrative controls
Through substitution

3) The manager is responsible for verifying equipment or containers as non-

hazardous before any hot work can be
performed.
FALSE
TRUE

4) Which is associated to arc welding as a serious hazard?

Electric Shock
Explosions
Fires
Mining

5) Which is a step in preparing for hot work activities?

Assign a manager as fire watch
Make sure location is safe
Participate in a training prior to a hot work job
Know all exits of the location in case of an uncontrolled fire

7) Gas welding often uses what with the combination of a torch to form a flame?
Acetylene
Ethane
Propane
Pure Oxygen

2. Question: The law sets the minimum standard, while ethics sets the bar even
higher.
Correct Answer: TRUE

3.: When can a breach of the duty-of-care occur?

When there is proximate harm
 6.: Which is the purpose of a code of ethics?
Correct Answer: To establish the highest principles and standards for a profession

Question: Which is the purpose of a code of ethics?

Correct Answer: To establish the highest principles and standards for a profession
8.
Question: Which is the purpose of a code of ethics?
Correct Answer: To establish the highest principles and standards for a profession
9.
Which is the purpose of a code of ethics?
Correct Answer: To establish the highest principles and standards for a profession

Question: Which is the purpose of a code of ethics?

Correct Answer: To establish the highest principles and standards for a profession

11.: Which is the purpose of a code of ethics?

Correct Answer: To establish the highest principles and standards for a profession

12.: Which is the purpose of a code of ethics?

Correct Answer: To establish the highest principles and standards for a profession
13.: Which is the purpose of a code of ethics?
Correct Answer: To establish the highest principles and standards for a profession

14.: Which is the purpose of a code of ethics?

Correct Answer: To establish the highest principles and standards for a profession

1) There are
_ sections that pertain to the behavior of BCSP Certificant holders.
Six
Seven
Eight
Nine

1) A request for appeal must be submitted in writing to the BCSP CEO within how
many days?
40 Days
60 Days
50 Days
30 Days

2) Who has the authority to extend an appeal review and decision?

The Board of Directors
The CEO
The Judicial Commission
The Company's Attorney
Question 2 of 2
Question 2 of 2

2) Which clearance is required to be maintained between the top level of stored

material and a sprinkler delfector?
48 in (121.9cm)
 62 in (157.5cm)
36 in (91.4cm)
2 in (5.0cm)

2.: Which is the measurement of frequency?

Correct Answer: Hertz

: Decibels is the unit of measurement for ＿

Correct Answer: A, C, and Z

1.: REL stands for

Recommended Exposure Limits
3. Question: The exchange rate is known as the allowable daily noise dose for a
worker.
: FALSE

Which does noise exposure evaluation measure?

Sound Pressure Levels

1) Which is the FIRST step in writing a hearing conservation program?

Conduct Noise Surveys
Outline Recordkeeping Requirements
Perform Audiometric Testing
Implement Noise Control Methods

1.: There are at least ＿ engineering methods for treating a noise problem.
Five

3.: Vibration-damping materials, vibration isolation, and silencers fit into which
engineering method for noise control?
Answer: Retrofitting

4.: Adjusting work shift schedules, changing operation locations, worker rotation
schedules, and equipment maintenance programs fit into engineering controls.
: FALSE

5.: Which program includes baseline audiograms, annual audiograms, training, and
follow-up procedures?
Correct Answer: Audiometric Testing Program

1.: Which approach provides a more accurate, comprehensive picture of an

organization's safety and health performance?
Balanced

2.: Which does SMART stands for?

Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Relevant, and Time-based

3.: Which rate represents only those cases that require days away from work,
restricted duty, or a job transfer?
Correct Answer: DART
 4.: TRI stands for
: Total Recordable Cases Incident Rate

5.: is used to find how many work days are being lost.
Correct Answer: Severity Measure

1) Which industry is the experience modification rate used?

Agriculture
Insurance
Construction

_ is calculated by dividing actual claims by the expected claims.

TRIR
ROI
EMR

3) Number of lost time injury cases occurring in the workplace per one million hours
worked, number of incidents per number of vehicles, or number of incidents per million
miles areall examples of
Lagging Indicators
Incident Indicators
Incident Tracking
Lag Tracking

4.: Which cost represents workers' compensation payments, medical expenses, and
costs for legal services?
Correct Answer: Direct Costs

1) Reducing victimization, deterring offenders, reducing opportunities for crime,

creating a defensible space, and building a community and a climate for safety are
approaches used in Crime Prevention Through Design Tactics Crime Prevention Through
Defense Systems Crime Prevention Through Environmental Design Crime Prevention
through Security Systems

3.: There arebasic principles of CPTED.

: Four
5. Question: Which includes more observers, windows, lighting, and removal of
obstructions?
Natural Surveillance
8.: The Broken Windows Theory is the idea that one broken window entices vandals
to break another.
TRUE

1.: Heavy updated locks and doors, card or key code access, alarm systems,
protective glass, security gates, and guards are all elements of …
Tactical deterrence
: Target hardening

2. Question: In which is the most important element in a workplace emergency

action plan?
 Problem-solving

1.: Heavy updated locks and doors, card or key code access, alarm systems,
protective glass, security gates, and guards are all elements of …
: Target hardening

2.: In which is the most important element in a workplace emergency action plan?
Correct Answer: Preparedness

2.: PIT nameplates include

Fuel type, PIT weight, load center, and capacity

3.: Safety labels only need to be replaced when missing from the PIT.
FALSE

5. The basic rule when traveling in a PIT is …

Maintaining control of the PIT at all times

6. Question: Sit-down type PIT operators do not require restraint systems due to the
fact that they are not standing.
FALSE

1) When raising a worker on a PIT platform, a PIT operator must be no further than
feet away.
25
15
30
20

2.After preventive measures have been taken, which is the remaining risk?
Residual

1.: The most effective design process considers health and safety issues at project
completion.
FALSE

2.Which hierarchy of control is the MOST preferable when identifying and avoiding
hazards?
Elimination (risk avoidance)

1) Which risk assessment method uses a team-based qualitative process to identify

and analyze hazards, hazard scenarios, existing controls, and needed additional controls?
What-if analysis
Failure mode and effects analysis
Hazard and operability study
Fault tree analysis

2) Which risk assessment technique starts with an undesired event and determines all
the ways it could occur using a logic tree diagram?
Fault tree analysis
 FMEA
Event tree analysis
Bow tie analysis

1) Which phase is referred to as the stage where a team participates in the discussion
of design objectives to identify possible conflicts with the established safety
specifications?
Maintenance phase
Checklist phase
Conceptual phase
Final design phase

1. Question: Which phase is referred to as the stage where a team participates in the
discussion of design objectives to identify possible conflicts with the established safety
specifications?
: Conceptual phase

2. Question: It is often necessary to combine multiple controls known as layers of

protection to reduce risk to an acceptable level.
TRUE

2. Question: Which process does not require the use of a process safety management
program?
: Automotive assembly
3.: Which mechanical integrity tests and inspections apply to the process safety
management?
Pressure vessels, piping systems, and pumps

4.: Process safety management incident report must include all of the following
except?
: Analysis of controls

5.: Which duration of time must an employer keep an incident investigation report?
Five years

1.: Which is the first step of a project?

Initiation stage

2.: RACI stands for

: Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, and Informed
3.: Collecting information, procurement or phasing, developing component
evaluation, identifying processes and procedures, and verifying performance are all
activities performed in the ＿ phase.
Execution

4.: The fourth phase in project management is execution and conducting.

FALSE

1.: Which is the fundamental insurance principle of subrogation?

To legally pursue a third party that caused an insurance loss to the insured
 2.: Senior management commitment, worker recognition and empowerment, and
trust that management will not retaliate supports which risk management processes?
Stop-work Authority

4.: Which shows how the project estimate was developed, and includes labor, travel,
contractors, tools, equipment, and materials?
: Basis of Estimate

5.: ＿ are required to be courageous in their leadership, establish business

partnerships, and demonstrate value to the organization.
Change agents

6.: MOC stands for

Management of Change

7.Question: PDCA stands for

: Plan-Do-Check-Act

2.: Microwaves, televisions, mobile phones, and radios are all examples of ionizing
radiation.
FALSE

5.There are ＿ classes of lasers.

Four

6.Which laser includes laser pointers, aiming devices, and range-finding equipment?
Class Two

7. ＿ lasers include scanners, spectrometry instruments, and entertainment light

shows.
Class Three

8.: Class four lasers are only hazardous under specific conditions.
FALSE

1.: ＿ are emitted from naturally-occurring materials such as uranium, thorium, and
radium and man-made elements such as plutonium and americium.
Alpha Particles

2.: Which ionizing radiation have high-speed nuclear particles?

ionizing Radiation

1. A ＿ is any of several varieties of the same chemical element with different masses
whose nuclei are unstable.
Radioactive Isotope

2.: ＿ is the time it takes for one-half of the radioactive atoms of a substance to
disintegrate into another nuclear form.
Half-life
 2.: The steps of risk assessment are hazard identification, risk analysis, and risk
evaluation.
TRUE

4.: The bottom left hand corner of the hazard diagram shows …
The causes, trigger, and failures

5.: The third component on the right side of the triangle is…
The exposed target and consequences

1.: Which does hazard analysis involve?

Estimation of the severity of consequences

3. The complex hazard analysis order is ＿

What-if analysis, HAZOP, change analysis

4.: Which is a Risk Analysis method that includes risk level estimation?
Preliminary Hazard Analysis

5.: Which is a more detailed risk analysis method used to identify and analyze the
ways in which components can fail and identify the results of their effects?
Failure Mode & Effects Analysis

6.: Fault tree analysis only uses an AND gate.

FALSE

2.: The steps of risk assessment are hazard identification, risk analysis, and risk
evaluation.
TRUE

4.: The bottom left hand corner of the hazard diagram shows …
The causes, trigger, and failures

5. Question: The third component on the right side of the triangle is…
The exposed target and consequences

1. Which does hazard analysis involve?

Estimation of the severity of consequences

3. The complex hazard analysis order is ＿

What-if analysis, HAZOP, change analysis

4.: Which is a Risk Analysis method that includes risk level estimation?
Preliminary Hazard Analysis

5.: Which is a more detailed risk analysis method used to identify and analyze the
ways in which components can fail and identify the results of their effects?
Failure Mode & Effects Analysis

6. Fault tree analysis only uses an AND gate.

FALSE
 An experienced engineer is NECESSARY when designing a:
Movable scaffold system.

A worker is using a jackhammer to break concrete. For this work:

The worker must be provided with safety glasses, safety shoes, a hard hat, and
hearing protection.

Brainpower
Read More

Which term is characterized by an organization's request to be added to a contractor's

liability insurance policy?
Additional insured

Bituminous-material melting kettles:

Should not be used within 25 feet (7.62 meters) of buildings or combustible
materials.

When employees are actively engaged in underground construction work, at least

one designated person must be on duty above ground to:
Maintain an accurate count of the employees working underground.

.Part of the requirements for respiratory protection training and use includes a
medical evaluation questionnaire. Prior to respirator use, who should review the
questionnaire responses?
Licensed health care professional

Establishing written standard operating procedures for construction tasks is:

Best for high-risk work.

What type of loss resulting from an accident is NOT insurable but is ultimately
measurable in a monetary sense?
Indirect

A job safety analysis is:

Used for evaluating each step of a job to understand its hazards and to identify
hazard controls.

Who MOST influences the safe work habits of subcontractor employees?

First-line supervisor

If an employer recommends that employees wear personal protective equipment to

protect them from exposure to occupational hazards, then:
The employer must furnish the personal protective equipment

Where is the FIRST place that an employee on a jobsite should seek specific health
information on a chemical?
Container label
 According to the fire tetrahedron model, which ingredients and process(es) are
necessary simultaneously for a fire to continue to burn?
Elevated temperature, oxygen, fuel, and chain reaction

A personnel platform is used by welders during a pre-cast erection procedure. Which

feature of the crane is likely to be provided expressly for this job?
Anti-two-blocking device

Which are characteristics of a drug-free workplace policy?

Functional, enforceable ,and practical

What is the goal of an effective safety management system?

To control/eliminate occupational hazards

When performing a field inspection of a wire rope sling, a safety professional finds a
broken strand in the rope. What should be the NEXT course of action?
Destroy the rope or cut it into small pieces.

What is the PRIMARY purpose of grounding electrical equipment?

To prevent electrocution from defective equipment

Which is a formal deductive risk analysis method?

Fault tree analysis

Which BEST protects employees from splashes of chemicals or molten metals?

Face shield

Before allowing employees to enter a confined space, a supervisor should ensure

that:
The atmosphere in the confined space is breathable and poses no explosion hazard

.The three PRIMARY purposes of jobsite safety and health inspections conducted by
CHSTs are to identify__ compliance problems with company and regulatory policies and
standards, evaluate the safety performance of supervisors and workers, and:
Determine the effectiveness of corrective actions from previous inspections

Mutual aid agreements TYPICALLY are associated with companies and agencies
working together to:
Mitigate emergencies or disasters.

When water is used to extinguish a small fire, the fire is extinguished PRIMARILY
because the water:
Cools the fuel.

When an employer provides employees with portable fire extinguishers, the

employees must FIRST:
 Be trained to use portable fire extinguishers properly.

An employee was fatally injured at a jobsite. Once the emergency response is

completed, what is the FIRST thing a CHST should do, with respect to investigating the
incident?
Isolate the scene and control access to it.

What is the MOST important reason for conducting a thorough incident

investigation?
To identify the cause of the incident for implementing corrective actions

When conducting an interview related to an incident investigation, it is BEST to

interview:
Witnesses individually.

What is a root cause of an incident?

Management system deficiency

Who is ULTIMATELY responsible for ensuring that employees clearly understand

how to perform their work safely and follow safe work practices?
Supervisor

A company has been tasked with a demolition project. During inspection, crews
discover a bird nest with excessive droppings in the attic. What is the potential health
hazard?
Histoplasmosis

What load reduction should be applied when a knot is used to connect two pieces of
fiber rope?
50%

Why is it important to conduct an investigation soon after an accident?

There is less chance that details will be lost.

Standard personal fall protection equipment (such as a full body harness and
lanyard) is rated to protect an individual (with tools) to a combined weight of:
310 pounds (683 kg)

Type SJTO flexible electrical cords:

Are acceptable for junior hard service in construction use

When using heating devices or melting kettles to prepare hot roofing materials:
Fire extinguishers with at least a 10-B rating should be available

At what MINIMUM interval should personal fall arrest systems be inspected for
wear, damage, and deterioration?
Prior to each use

A CHST is concerned with the possible presence of methane in an excavation site.

Which instrument is MOST appropriate for measuring the concentration of methane?
Combustible gas monitor
 The MOST important factor for maximizing the reliability of electronic direct-
reading instruments is:
Periodic calibration.

Which is a basic step of risk control?

Contractual transfer for risk control

Industrial hygiene monitoring that occurs near the source of the contamination can
be BEST described as what type of monitoring?
Area

When a 1,000-pound (453 kg) casting is lifted with a crane and a two-legged sling,
each leg of the sling makes angle with the horizontal. What is the best estimate of the
resulting stress in each leg?
870 pounds(394 kg) D. 980 pounds(444kg)

Which is the FIRST factor to consider regarding manual handling of hazards in the
workplace?
Avoid manual handling.

During preconstruction planning, crane lifting requirements and capabilities should

be analyzed by which party?
Engineer competent in this field

Which method would NOT protect an individual from accidental electric shock?
Ensuring ground-fault circuit interrupters are provided for all 120-and 240-volt
receptacles

The National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) 704 fire hazard symbol is a
diamond divided into four quadrants: top, left, right and bottom. In which quadrant is a
material's flammability rating printed on a red background?
Top

Prior to crane operations at the job site, what should be prepared and reviewed with
the crane crew?
Job hazard analysis

An excavation is being performed in an old landfill, therefore:

The air in the excavation should be tested for oxygen content, flammability, and
toxicity.

When using a personnel platform with a hydraulic crane:

A trial lift shall be performed immediately prior to placing personnel on the platform

Determining which risks might affect the project and documenting their
characteristics is an example of what type of project risk management process?
Risk identification

Which is the correct sequence of steps for mitigating a hazardous situation?

Identify the problem, identify possible corrective measures, implement one or more
corrective measures, and encourage employee participation and feedback.
 When spray painting with an organic solvent-based paint, what is the MOST suitable
respiratory protection
The respiratory protection recommended on the safety data sheet.

When indoors, compressed gas cylinders should be stored away from combustible
liquids at a distance of no closer than:
20 feet (6.16 meters)

Which factor can take away from the effectiveness of a toolbox talk?
Group size can dampen the likelihood of offering honest and counter opinions.

When a personal fall arrest system sustains an impact load (such as when an
employee was arrested from an actual fall), the harness MUST be:

Removed from service and inspected by a competent person before being used
again.
When a personal fall arrest system sustains an impact load, such as when an
employee was arrested from an actual fall, the harness must
be:
Proof tested with an impact load of 3,000 pounds before being used again
Sent to the manufacturer for overhaul and recertification before being used again
Removed from service and inspected by a competent person before being used again
Discarded

When planning an excavation, what are three things that should be done to try to
ensure a successful outcome?
Worker protection, protection of existing buried and aboveground facilities, and
proper construction of the final product

Air sampling was conducted at a jobsite, and the result indicated an exposure above
a recognized limit. What step should be conducted FIRST to reduce the workers' exposure?
Re-evaluate the design of control measures.

Industrial hygienists are occupational health professionals who are concerned

PRIMARILY with:
Control of environmental stresses or health hazards in the workplace.

Casters on manually propelled and prefabricated scaffolds should:

Be designed for strength and dimensionally support four times the design work load.

What is the PRIMARY constituent of galvanized steel that causes metal fume fever
in welders?
Zinc

During welding, pulmonary gases are defined as gases that:

 Can impair or damage the lungs

What are the three basic steps of a job safety analysis?

Task activities, hazard identification, and safe job procedures

What is one of the BEST means to determine whether a training program is

achieving its goals?
Employee feedback

When training employees on personal protective equipment, employees should be

trained where and when to wear the personal protective equipment, the limitations of the
personal protective equipment, and:
How to put it on, take it off, adjust it, and discard/replace it

Attendants to a permit-required confined space entry operation must remain outside

the confined space during entry operations until relieved by another attendant. When an
emergency occurs, when may attendants enter the confined space for rescue?
When they have been trained for rescue operations and when they have been
relieved of attendant duties

A lesson plan is designed:

To guide the instructor through the specific information to be covered.

Tests in safety and health training are highly recommended when:

The effectiveness of training may be questioned.

Under which condition would office clerks working for a construction company be
required to undergo hazard communication training?
If they could reasonably expect to come into contact with a hazardous chemical used
at the jobsite during an emergency

An element of hazard communication includes presenting:

Methods and observations that may be used to detect the presence or release of a
hazardous chemical at the jobsite.

Employees must receive training on all the following EXCEPT:

How to respond and clean up a hazardous materials spill

What are important items to consider in an evaluation when identifying training

needs for a company?
Job hazard analysis and worker perception of job risks
 Employee training is ESSENTIAL before:
Maintaining equipment.

The MAIN purposes of toolbox talks are to convey changes in work practices, offer
short training sessions on specific work practices, and:
Offer timely information to employees related to recent incidents

When setting priorities for a job analysis at the beginning of a new project, an
example of a recognized priority is:
Accident frequency

A PRIMARY goal of a well-designed training program is to:

Correct skill deficiencies

What is the FIRST step in developing a training program?

Perform a needs assessment

Who is PRIMARILY responsible for communicating the presence of hazards on a

construction jobsite?
Supervisor

When performing safety training, group training is effective for:

Presenting specific information relevant to many students.

Which method is BEST suited for evaluating learning for job instructions training?
Demonstration

The MOST effective means of teaching a workforce is by using a combination of

teaching tools that include:
Job descriptions, key steps, tools, associated hazards, and best practices

Which items are key elements of a job hazard analysis?

Job descriptions, key steps, tools, associated hazards, and best practices

What is the MOST common frequency of training used on construction sites?

Attending a safety orientation prior to starting work and attending weekly safety
meetings throughout the project
 Which training method allows construction workers to be productive during the
training period
Job instructions training

What is the MOST important aspect of safety orientation training?

To ensure employees understand that working safely is fundamentally important to
the employees and to the company

Who has the PRIMARY responsibility for implementing and enforcing an

organization's safety programs?
First-line supervisors

What is the purpose of reviewing a job safety analysis during a jobsite safety
meeting?
To reveal available hazard prevention measures

A safety orientation program MUST include ensuring employees demonstrate an

understanding of the organization's safety policies and procedures and:
The specific hazards of the jobsite.

What is the PRIMARY objective of an employee safety meeting?

To maintain employee interest in safety issue

Employees who smoke:

Have elevated carbon monoxide levels in their blood

What should an experienced trainer do each time they are leading a training
discussion?
Deliver only the quantity of material that the students need to know.

When is the LEAST appropriate time to lead a safety meeting?

After a work shift ends

Which is MOST significant for maintaining equipment safely?

Ensuring the energy in the equipment is zero and will remain so

During the pre-construction and design phase of a building, who initiates safety
elements of the steel erection
process?
Engineer and/or architect
 A contractor's incident rate, previous five years of injury and illness documentation,
workers' compensation, insurance information, and written safety program are examples of
tools used for:
Contractor qualification.

What information is recommended to be excluded from an accident investigation

report that is shared with others?
Injured person's name and position

A CHST is monitoring the potential for employee heat stress at a construction jobsite
inside a large, indoor gymnasium. The CHST takes the following temperature
measurements: wet bulb temperature is 66°F (18.9°C); dry bulb temperature is
92°F(33.3°C);globe temperature is 110°F(43.3°C). What is the current wet bulb globe
temperature? WBGT=0.7TWB+0.3TGT
79°F (26.2°C)

In selecting a subcontractor for work, which is MOST relevant to the subcontractor's

overall safety and health experience?
Experience modifier

Who should communicate and enforce the drug-free workplace policy once it has
been established?
.Supervisors and managers

To maintain the CHST certification, CHST certificants must participate in

professional development activities to earn recertification points. If a CHST certificant
fails to earn at least 20 points in 5 years, the person's CHST certification is invalidated. The
former CHST then must reacquire the CHST by December 31st of the year in which they
were invalidated, paying reinstatement fees and earning:
A passing score on the most current CHST examination.

A CHST tells a supervisor that a crew member is in danger of falling from an

unprotected edge of 40 feet(12.22 meters). The supervisor tells the CHST not to worry
about it since the job will be completed in about 5 hours. What should the CHST do
NEXT?
Insist the supervisor take corrective action to provide the employee with proper fall
protection and seek support from the project manager, if needed.

Natural fiber ropes are essentially obsolete in the line trade.

True.
 Synthetic fiber ropes are selected because of their inherent performance
characteristics for specific tasks.
True.

Traditional three strand rope is called _____ rope.

laid

Single braid ropes consist of _____ number of strands.

Even.

Typically, single braid ropes consist of _____ strands.

8

Double braid rope is also called Braid on Braid.

True.

The inner core of a double braid rope is often chosen for.

Strength.

The inner core of a double braid rope may be of a different type of material than the
outer braid.
True.

Laid ropes tend to twist under load.

True.

Static kernmantle rope is _____ than dynamic kernmantle.

Less elastic.

The Kern of Kernmantle rope is the.

Inner core of the rope.

The inner core of a kernmantle rope provides approximately _____% of its overall
strengths.
70%

Another name for plaited rope is.

Square braid.
 Why is Brait rope popular with arborists?
-Brait rope is nonrotating.
- holds knots well.
- high energy absorption.

What type of rope suffers from little stretch while under load?
Endless winding.

The working load limit of ropes is determined by a ratio between the.

Minimum breaking strength.

When a rope becomes wet, the strength of the rope.

Decreases, but the value is dependent upon rope type.

Knots and hitches create friction in a length of rope.

True.

The 50% derating rule for knots is a modest standard that can be applied to all rope
types.
False.

Rope that is wet may be placed in a dryer to dry the fibers and prevent mildew and
mold from forming.
False.

Dirt and grit on a rope will significantly reduce its strength and overall lifespan.
True.

Kinks in a rope may be removed by gradually loading the rope until the kinks are
removed.
False

A careful visual inspection of a rope will determine the structural integrity of that
rope.
False

It is good work practice to _____ a synthetic winch line.

- Physically feel along the length of.
- free verse rope ends of.
- visually inspect.
 It is a good work practice to retreat ropes after prolonged use to maintain rope
performance.
False

Rope that has been subject to a shock load may be returned to service after a careful
visual, and physical inspection.
False.

Synthetic fiber ropes and web slings must be permanently identified with which of
the following?
- number of legs, if more than one.
- rated capacity for the types of hitches and sling angles.
- type of material.

Which of the following hitch type is the strongest?

Basket.

What is the smallest sling angle recommended without the use of a spreader bar?
30 degrees.

It is permissible to tie an approved knot or hitch in a sling to reduce sling length

when matching slings.
False

Decreasing the bending radius of slings reduces the sling's rated capacity.
True.

The introduction of knots and hitches into a rope made drastically reduced the rated
capacity.
True.

The 50% and 25% reduced capacity for knots and hitches is an old rule of thumb that
does not accurately apply to modern synthetic ropes.
True.